☰ INDEX
AIIMS May 2017 - 2017-05-07
AIIMS May 2018 - 2018-05-06
AIIMS May 2019 - 2019-05-05
AIIMS May 2020 - 2020-05-10
AIIMS Nov 2017 - 2017-11-12
AIIMS Nov 2018 - 2018-11-18
AIIMS Nov 2019 - 2019-11-17
FMGE Aug 2020 - 2020-08-31
FMGE Dec 2020 - 2020-12-04
FMGE Dec 2021 - 2021-12-12
FMGE Jan 2023 - 2023-01-20
FMGE Jan 2024 - 2024-01-20
FMGE Jan 2025 - 2025-01-12
FMGE July 2023 - 2023-07-30
FMGE July 2024 - 2024-07-06
FMGE June 2021 - 2021-06-18
FMGE June 2022 - 2022-06-04
INICET May 2021 - 2021-05-09
INICET May 2022 - 2022-05-08
INICET May 2023 - 2023-05-07
INICET May 2024 - 2024-05-19
INICET Nov 2020 - 2020-11-20
INICET Nov 2021 - 2021-11-14
INICET Nov 2022 - Session 1 - 2022-11-13
INICET Nov 2022 - Session 2 - 2022-11-13
INICET Nov 2023 - 2023-11-05
INICET Nov 2024 - 2024-11-10
NEET PG 2018 - 2018-01-07
NEET PG 2019 - 2019-01-06
NEET PG 2020 - 2020-01-05
NEET PG 2021 - 2021-09-11
NEET PG 2022 - 2022-05-21
NEET PG 2023 - 2023-03-05
NEET PG 2024 - Session 1 - 2024-08-11
NEET PG 2024 - Session 2 - 2024-08-11
UPSC-CMS 2023 PART-1 - 2023-07-24
UPSC-CMS 2023 PART-2 - 2023-07-24
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Aiims May 2017 2017 05 07 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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Inferior vena cava", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Inferior vena cava</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The inferior vena cava is a major vein that returns deoxygenated blood from the lower half of the body to the right atrium of the heart. The IVC passes through the diaphragm via the caval opening, which is situated to the right of the central tendon. This opening allows the IVC to move between the thoracic and abdominal cavities.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Oesophagus: The esophagus passes through an opening in the diaphragm called the esophageal hiatus, which is located just to the left of the central tendon. This allows the esophagus to traverse from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity.</li><li>• Option A. Oesophagus:</li><li>• Option B . Aorta : The descending (thoracic) aorta carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the lower parts of the body. It passes through the diaphragm via the aortic hiatus, which is posterior to the central tendon. The aorta then continues its descent into the abdominal cavity.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Aorta</li><li>• Option D . Sympathetic Chain : The sympathetic chain, also known as the sympathetic trunk or sympathetic ganglia, consists of a series of ganglia connected by nerve fibers. It runs vertically along each side of the vertebral column and is not directly associated with the diaphragm or its central tendon.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Sympathetic Chain</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diaphragm has three anatomic openings: the aortic hiatus (T12), the esophageal hiatus (T10), and the caval foramen (T8)</li><li>➤ The diaphragm has three anatomic openings:</li><li>➤ The inferior vena cava passes through the central tendon of the diaphragm from the caval foramen. Esophagus passes through the esophageal hiatus. Aorta passes through the aortic hiatus.</li><li>➤ The inferior vena cava passes through the central tendon of the diaphragm from the caval foramen.</li><li>➤ Esophagus passes through the esophageal hiatus.</li><li>➤ Aorta passes through the aortic hiatus.</li><li>➤ Sympathetic chain passes through the minor apertures crossing the crura of the diaphragm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The physician noticed the following finding in a patient that came to the OPD for an eye exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Entropion of right eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lagophthalmos of right eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ptosis of right eye", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exophthalmos of left eye", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ptosis of right eye", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture1_ZFZHZMG.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-131205.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ptosis, particularly of the type seen in this patient, is typically caused by a dysfunction or disconnection of the levator muscle or its aponeurosis, either congenital or acquired.</li><li>➤ Types:</li><li>➤ Types:</li><li>➤ Note: Pseudoptosis is apparent but not true drooping of the eyelid. Causes include lack of support of the lids by the globe (orbital volume deficit like an artificial eye, microphthalmos, or enophthalmos), contralateral lid retraction, ipsilateral hypotropia, brow ptosis, or dermatochalasis.</li><li>➤ Note:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under which of the following, Rhinosporidium seeberi is classified?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fungus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aquatic Protistan protozoa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bacteria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aquatic Protistan protozoa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aquatic Protistan protozoa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rhinosporidium seeberi, responsible for rhinosporidiosis, is classified as an aquatic Protistan protozoa, not a fungus, highlighting the importance of accurate organism classification in understanding transmission and management of infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Black foot is seen in which poisoning: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mercury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arsenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture133334.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Arsenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arsenic, cadmium, lead and mercury are the heavy metals which can cause peripheral vascular disease due to chronic poisoning. This leads to general clinical features of peripheral vascular disease (numbness in feet, rest pain etc.). Blackfoot disease is a unique term given to peripheral vascular disease produced by chronic Arsenic poisoning. The name \"Blackfoot\" refers to the characteristic darkening and gangrene of the feet and lower legs. This ultimately leads to amputation. In peripheral vascular disease caused by other heavy metals, gangrene is not a common manifestation</li><li>➤ Arsenic, cadmium, lead and mercury are the heavy metals which can cause peripheral vascular disease due to chronic poisoning. This leads to general clinical features of peripheral vascular disease (numbness in feet, rest pain etc.).</li><li>➤ Blackfoot disease is a unique term given to peripheral vascular disease produced by chronic Arsenic poisoning. The name \"Blackfoot\" refers to the characteristic darkening and gangrene of the feet and lower legs. This ultimately leads to amputation.</li><li>➤ In peripheral vascular disease caused by other heavy metals, gangrene is not a common manifestation</li><li>➤ Above picture shows Blackfoot disease:</li><li>➤ Above picture shows Blackfoot disease:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mehta, Public health expert who works extensively with the National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP) in India. In a meeting with local health workers in 2017, he has shared the data and progress made in controlling leprosy. He mentions the crucial statistic of the Annual New Case Detection Rate (ANCDR) as of March 31, 2016, to give a snapshot of the magnitude of new leprosy cases detected. This rate helps in understanding the effectiveness of ongoing programs and strategies. What value did Dr. Mehta share as the ANCDR for leprosy for that specific year? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.66/10,000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.66/1 lakh population", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "9.7/10,000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "9.7/1 lakh population", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 9.7/1 lakh population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 9.7/1 lakh population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ANCDR is a pivotal indicator in disease surveillance and control programs, helping public health officials and stakeholders understand the scale of new cases and the impact of interventions. For leprosy in India, maintaining a keen understanding of this rate is essential for achieving the goals of the National Leprosy Eradication Programme.</li><li>➤ The ANCDR is a pivotal indicator in disease surveillance and control programs, helping public health officials and stakeholders understand the scale of new cases and the impact of interventions.</li><li>➤ For leprosy in India, maintaining a keen understanding of this rate is essential for achieving the goals of the National Leprosy Eradication Programme.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are components of CURB65 except? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Confused state", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory rate &gt;30/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood urea nitrogen greater than 7mmol/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Systolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture29.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Systolic blood pressure less than 10mm Hg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CURB-65 scoring system is used to evaluate pneumonia severity, which does not include systolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg but instead sets the threshold at ≤90 mm Hg systolic or ≤60 mm Hg diastolic.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with unilateral ptosis with hypotropia in the same eye. He was given an IV injection, following which the symptoms go away. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "6th nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3rd nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Horner syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Myasthenia gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis</li><li>➤ A disease characterized by generalized muscle weakness and rapidly developing fatigue of the muscles due to autoimmune damage of the acetylcholine receptors that take place at the post-synaptic membrane. The symptoms fluctuate and, after a short rest, recovery follows rapidly in the early stages. Ptosis and failure of convergence are early and prominent features. A remarkable temporary improvement in the action of the muscles is obtained by injections of Prostigmine or edrophonium intravenously which lead to acetylcholine accumulation. The resultant increase in acetylcholine available at the receptor sites leads to an improvement in the muscular function, confirming the diagnosis.</li><li>➤ A disease characterized by generalized muscle weakness and rapidly developing fatigue of the muscles due to autoimmune damage of the acetylcholine receptors that take place at the post-synaptic membrane.</li><li>➤ The symptoms fluctuate and, after a short rest, recovery follows rapidly in the early stages.</li><li>➤ Ptosis and failure of convergence are early and prominent features.</li><li>➤ A remarkable temporary improvement in the action of the muscles is obtained by injections of Prostigmine or edrophonium intravenously which lead to acetylcholine accumulation.</li><li>➤ The resultant increase in acetylcholine available at the receptor sites leads to an improvement in the muscular function, confirming the diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Note:</li><li>➤ Note:</li><li>➤ The single most sensitive test for Myasthenia Gravis - Single fiber Electromyography</li><li>➤ The single most specific test for Myasthenia Gravis - AChR antibodies</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely diagnosis according to the given image? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carotid-cavernous fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudoaneurysm of internal carotid artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tumor blush of angiofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extensive head and neck hemangioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pseudoaneurysm of internal carotid artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-122.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-123.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pseudoaneurysm of internal carotid artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image shows a digital subtraction angiography of ICA and it shows an outpouching of the contrast suggestive of a pseudoaneurysm of the internal carotid artery as marked by the arrow.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . C arotid-cavernous fistula (CCF) is the result of an abnormal vascular connection between the internal carotid artery (ICA) and the cavernous sinus . Pulsatile proptosis of eye would be the pathognomic clinical finding. DSA would reveal enlarged draining superior ophthalmic vein.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• C</li><li>• arotid-cavernous fistula (CCF)</li><li>• Option C. Tumor blush of angiofibroma would show feeder vessels from internal maxillary artery of ECA.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Tumor blush of angiofibroma</li><li>• Option D. Extensive head and neck hemangioma would show multiple tortuous vessels supplying a mass which is not seen here.</li><li>• Option D. Extensive head and neck hemangioma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A pseudoaneurysm of the internal carotid artery is characterized by an outpouching of contrast material in angiographic studies, as seen in the provided DSA image. This finding is distinct from other vascular abnormalities such as carotid-cavernous fistulas, angiofibromas, or hemangiomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple with 2 children who are not able to conceive for over an year now present to the OPD. The male partner is diagnosed to be having hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. Which of the following is not true? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low LH and FSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low testosterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oligospermia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low prolactin levels", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Low prolactin levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Low prolactin levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism in males is characterized by a deficiency of gonadotropins (LH and FSH), which leads to low testosterone levels and impaired spermatogenesis. This condition often results in oligospermia or azoospermia, contributing to infertility. Additionally, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is frequently associated with hyperprolactinemia rather than low prolactin levels.</li><li>• Low LH and FSH: Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is marked by low levels of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) due to inadequate secretion from the pituitary gland. Low testosterone: The low levels of LH lead to reduced stimulation of Leydig cells in the testes, resulting in low testosterone levels. Oligospermia: The low levels of FSH result in impaired spermatogenesis, often leading to oligospermia or azoospermia. Low prolactin levels (Incorrect): Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is associated with hyperprolactinemia, not low prolactin levels. Elevated prolactin can inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins, further exacerbating the condition.</li><li>• Low LH and FSH: Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is marked by low levels of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) due to inadequate secretion from the pituitary gland.</li><li>• Low LH and FSH:</li><li>• Low testosterone: The low levels of LH lead to reduced stimulation of Leydig cells in the testes, resulting in low testosterone levels.</li><li>• Low testosterone:</li><li>• Oligospermia: The low levels of FSH result in impaired spermatogenesis, often leading to oligospermia or azoospermia.</li><li>• Oligospermia:</li><li>• Low prolactin levels (Incorrect): Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is associated with hyperprolactinemia, not low prolactin levels. Elevated prolactin can inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins, further exacerbating the condition.</li><li>• Low prolactin levels (Incorrect):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Low LH and FSH: True. Gonadotropin deficiency is a hallmark of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.</li><li>• Option A. Low LH and FSH:</li><li>• Option B. Low testosterone: True. The deficiency in LH leads to low testosterone production.</li><li>• Option B. Low testosterone:</li><li>• Option C. Oligospermia: True. The deficiency in FSH leads to impaired spermatogenesis, causing oligospermia or azoospermia.</li><li>• Option C. Oligospermia:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A male with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism will have high prolactin levels, low gonadotropins (LH and FSH), low testosterone, and often oligospermia or azoospermia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 199, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 199, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old smoker who is a known case of hypertension was on enalapril and hydrochlorothiazide. He had an episode of hemoptysis and on evaluation, he was found to have bronchogenic carcinoma with brain metastasis. His lab values were Na-124mg/dL, creatinine - 2.8mg%, blood sugar 112mg/dL, blood urea - 24mg/dL, serum osmolality 255mosm, urine osmolality - 110 mosm, 24-hour urinary sodium - 110 and BP - 150/90 mmHg. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the low sodium values in him? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SIADH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diuretic induced hyponatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cerebral salt wasting syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudohyponatremia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. SIADH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture31.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) SIADH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SIADH can be associated with malignancies like lung cancer, presenting with hyponatremia, low serum osmolality, and inappropriately concentrated urine despite the presence of low plasma osmolality. This clinical scenario should prompt consideration of SIADH, particularly in patients with known malignancies and typical lab findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presented with painful blisters on the skin and oral mucosa. Direct immunofluorescence is given below. Which of the following is false regarding the same? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibodies against desmoglein 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibodies against desmoglein 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Suprabasal acantholytic blister is a characteristic feature", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antibodies against hemidesmosomes", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Antibodies against hemidesmosomes", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/30.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Antibiotics against hemidesmosomes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by autoantibodies against desmosomal proteins (desmoglein 1 and 3), leading to a suprabasal acantholytic blister and a diagnostic fish-net appearance on direct immunofluorescence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old patient presents with bilateral proptosis. The biopsy from the region shows this pattern. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leiomyoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schwannoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhabdomyosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibromatosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Schwannoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/33.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/35.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Schwannoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Schwannomas are benign nerve sheath tumors with distinct Antoni A and B growth patterns, including Verocay bodies. These features, along with the clinical presentation, are key to the diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Page no - 2595</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Page no - 2595</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism given in the image below? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Balantidium coli", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Entamoeba dispar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptosporidium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Giardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Balantidium coli", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-283.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-177.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Balantidium coli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Balantidium coli is characterized by its oval shape, presence of cilia, and distinct anterior and posterior ends in the trophozoite form. The trophozoite stage contains two nuclei and is motile, while the cyst stage is smaller and round, aiding in transmission and infection.</li><li>➤ Balantidium coli is characterized by its oval shape, presence of cilia, and distinct anterior and posterior ends in the trophozoite form. The trophozoite stage contains two nuclei and is motile, while the cyst stage is smaller and round, aiding in transmission and infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old female with history of ovarian carcinoma in the mother achieved menopause with smooth transition. She is on hormone replacement therapy. She developed abdominal pain. On examination, a right adnexal mass was palpable and non-tender. On ultrasound, a 3 X 3 cm smooth cyst in her ovary was noted. What is the next best step? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reassure and advice regular follow up once in 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Confirm USG findings by ordering CT scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Do an exploratory laparoscopy to visualize the nature of cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Do CA-125 levels, if normal advise regular check up", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Do CA-125 levels, if normal advise regular check up", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-104932.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Do CA-125 levels, if normal advise regular check up</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The next best step in managing a postmenopausal woman with a small (3 x 3 cm) smooth ovarian cyst is to measure CA-125 levels. CA-125 is a tumor marker used to assess the risk of ovarian cancer, especially in postmenopausal women. Given the benign characteristics of the cyst on ultrasound and the small size, the initial step is to evaluate CA-125 levels:</li><li>• CA-125 Levels: If the CA-125 levels are normal (less than 35), the patient can be advised to have regular follow-ups. Regular Follow-ups: If CA-125 levels are normal, a transvaginal ultrasound (TVS) should be repeated in 6-12 weeks to monitor the cyst. If the cyst persists but remains benign, yearly TVS is recommended.</li><li>• CA-125 Levels: If the CA-125 levels are normal (less than 35), the patient can be advised to have regular follow-ups.</li><li>• CA-125 Levels:</li><li>• Regular Follow-ups: If CA-125 levels are normal, a transvaginal ultrasound (TVS) should be repeated in 6-12 weeks to monitor the cyst. If the cyst persists but remains benign, yearly TVS is recommended.</li><li>• Regular Follow-ups:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Reassure and advise regular follow-up once in 6 months: While reassurance is part of the management, initial evaluation with CA-125 is necessary to rule out malignancy before deciding on the follow-up schedule.</li><li>• Option A. Reassure and advise regular follow-up once in 6 months:</li><li>• Option B. Confirm USG findings by ordering a CT scan: A CT scan is not the first-line investigation for a simple cyst with benign features. Initial evaluation with CA-125 is more appropriate.</li><li>• Option B. Confirm USG findings by ordering a CT scan:</li><li>• Option C. Do an exploratory laparoscopy to visualize the nature of the cyst: This is invasive and not indicated for a small, benign-appearing cyst without other concerning features.</li><li>• Option C. Do an exploratory laparoscopy to visualize the nature of the cyst:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Simple cysts in the post-menopausal age grp:</li><li>➤ ≤ 1cm: Considered normal ≤ 5 cm: Ca125; if normal, repeat in 6-12 weeks &gt; 6 cm: Surgical evaluation</li><li>➤ ≤ 1cm: Considered normal</li><li>➤ ≤ 5 cm: Ca125; if normal, repeat in 6-12 weeks</li><li>➤ &gt; 6 cm: Surgical evaluation</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 217, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 217, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nucleus pulposus is derived from? (AIIMS 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mark b", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mark d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mark a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mark c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mark b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-114543.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Mark b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The notochord is a rod-like structure that forms during embryonic development and serves as the foundation for the future vertebral column. The nucleus pulposus, the central gel-like core of the intervertebral disc, is derived from the notochord. The notochord initially provides structural support to the developing embryo and later contributes to the formation of the intervertebral discs.</li><li>• The notochord is a rod-like structure that forms during embryonic development and serves as the foundation for the future vertebral column.</li><li>• The nucleus pulposus, the central gel-like core of the intervertebral disc, is derived from the notochord. The notochord initially provides structural support to the developing embryo and later contributes to the formation of the intervertebral discs.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Mark d. Ectoderm:</li><li>• Option B. Mark d. Ectoderm:</li><li>• The ectoderm is another primary germ layer of the developing embryo and gives rise to structures such as the nervous system, skin, and epidermal tissues. The ectoderm does not contribute to the formation of the nucleus pulposus.</li><li>• The ectoderm is another primary germ layer of the developing embryo and gives rise to structures such as the nervous system, skin, and epidermal tissues.</li><li>• The ectoderm does not contribute to the formation of the nucleus pulposus.</li><li>• Option C. Mark a. Intraembryonic Mesoderm:</li><li>• Option C. Mark a. Intraembryonic Mesoderm:</li><li>• The intraembryonic mesoderm is a layer of embryonic tissue that gives rise to various structures in the developing embryo, including muscles, bones, and connective tissues. While mesoderm does play a role in the development of the vertebral column and its associated structures, the nucleus pulposus specifically derives from the notochord.</li><li>• The intraembryonic mesoderm is a layer of embryonic tissue that gives rise to various structures in the developing embryo, including muscles, bones, and connective tissues.</li><li>• While mesoderm does play a role in the development of the vertebral column and its associated structures, the nucleus pulposus specifically derives from the notochord.</li><li>• Option D. Mark c. Endoderm:</li><li>• Option D. Mark c. Endoderm:</li><li>• The endoderm is one of the three primary germ layers of the developing embryo and gives rise to the epithelial linings of various organs, including the gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, and other internal organs. The endoderm is not directly involved in the formation of the nucleus pulposus.</li><li>• The endoderm is one of the three primary germ layers of the developing embryo and gives rise to the epithelial linings of various organs, including the gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, and other internal organs.</li><li>• The endoderm is not directly involved in the formation of the nucleus pulposus.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gastrulation (Embryonic development of the germ layers):</li><li>➤ Gastrulation (Embryonic development of the germ layers):</li><li>➤ Gastrulation is the early embryological process by which an embryo changes from a one-dimensional layer of epithelial cells (blastula) to a multilayered structure known as a gastrula. The notochord is a rod-like embryological structure that is derived during gastrulation and plays an important role in vertebrate development. The nucleus pulposus is the gelatinous centre of the intervertebral disc formed by the expansion of the notochord (by its remnants). As a result, it is derived from the notochord.</li><li>➤ Gastrulation is the early embryological process by which an embryo changes from a one-dimensional layer of epithelial cells (blastula) to a multilayered structure known as a gastrula.</li><li>➤ The notochord is a rod-like embryological structure that is derived during gastrulation and plays an important role in vertebrate development.</li><li>➤ The nucleus pulposus is the gelatinous centre of the intervertebral disc formed by the expansion of the notochord (by its remnants). As a result, it is derived from the notochord.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The deepest part of perineal body injury, which causes cystocele, enterocoele and urethral descent is? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pubococcygeus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bulbospongiosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ischiocavernosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superficial transverse perineal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pubococcygeus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-174103.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pubococcygeus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pubococcygeus is the deepest part of the levator ani muscle. Injury to it can cause enterocele, cystocele, and urethral descent. The levator ani muscles are the most important muscles in the pelvic floor and maintain a constant state of contraction. Weakening of this muscle decreases support for the vagina, bladder, uterus, or rectum or alter the position of the neck of the bladder and urethra.</li><li>• Pubococcygeus is the deepest part of the levator ani muscle.</li><li>• Injury to it can cause enterocele, cystocele, and urethral descent.</li><li>• The levator ani muscles are the most important muscles in the pelvic floor and maintain a constant state of contraction.</li><li>• Weakening of this muscle decreases support for the vagina, bladder, uterus, or rectum or alter the position of the neck of the bladder and urethra.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Bulbospongiosus, Option C. ischiocavernosus and Option D. superficial transverse perineal are all superficial muscles and their damage does not result in uterovaginal descent</li><li>• Option B. Bulbospongiosus, Option C. ischiocavernosus</li><li>• Option D. superficial transverse perineal</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Supports of the vagal have been described by Delancey as shown below and defects in these lead to different levels of uterovaginal prolapse Defect in Level 1 support: Vaginal apical prolapse and uterine prolapse Defect in level 2 support: Cystocele and Rectocele Defect in level 3 support: urethrocele and deficient perineal body</li><li>➤ Supports of the vagal have been described by Delancey as shown below and defects in these lead to different levels of uterovaginal prolapse Defect in Level 1 support: Vaginal apical prolapse and uterine prolapse Defect in level 2 support: Cystocele and Rectocele Defect in level 3 support: urethrocele and deficient perineal body</li><li>➤ Defect in Level 1 support: Vaginal apical prolapse and uterine prolapse Defect in level 2 support: Cystocele and Rectocele Defect in level 3 support: urethrocele and deficient perineal body</li><li>➤ Defect in Level 1 support: Vaginal apical prolapse and uterine prolapse</li><li>➤ Defect in level 2 support: Cystocele and Rectocele</li><li>➤ Defect in level 3 support: urethrocele and deficient perineal body</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 544, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 544, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a surgery, the orthopedic surgeon asks you for bone holding forceps. Correctly identify bone holding forceps among the instruments in the tray as shown below.(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-112808.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_83_AJMegAp.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a medical ethics seminar, Dr. Sharma discussed a series of international declarations that guide medical professionals in upholding ethical principles in various scenarios. These declarations were born out of historical events and societal needs to ensure the welfare of patients and respect human rights. Can you match these declarations with their respective significance? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I - A, II - B, III - C, IV - D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "I - D, II - C, III - A, IV - B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. I - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-115842.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120210.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) I - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following amino acids is not formed after post-translational modification? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Selenocysteine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Triiodothyronine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydroxy proline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydroxylysine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Selenocysteine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-180619.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Selenocysteine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following milestones would you generally expect a 3-year-old child to display? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hopping on one foot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spoon handling", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Copying a triangle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Repeats sentence of 10 syllables", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Spoon handling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Spoon handling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ By the age of 3 years, a child is typically expected to handle a spoon and feed themselves, while more complex motor and language skills develop later.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the marked foramen does the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve pass through? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale which is marked as 4 in the above image.</li><li>• The foramen ovale is also located in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone.</li><li>• The structure that passes through the foramen ovale is the mandibular nerve (the third division of the trigeminal nerve, Cranial Nerve V3). It carries sensory information from the face and provides motor innervation to the muscles of mastication.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Foramen Spinosum:</li><li>• Option A. Foramen Spinosum:</li><li>• The foramen spinosum is a small foramen located in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, near the foramen ovale. The structure that passes through the foramen spinosum is the middle meningeal artery. This artery supplies blood to the meninges, the protective layers surrounding the brain and spinal cord.</li><li>• The foramen spinosum is a small foramen located in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, near the foramen ovale.</li><li>• The structure that passes through the foramen spinosum is the middle meningeal artery. This artery supplies blood to the meninges, the protective layers surrounding the brain and spinal cord.</li><li>• Option B. Internal Acoustic Meatus:</li><li>• Option B. Internal Acoustic Meatus:</li><li>• The internal acoustic meatus is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone. Several important structures pass through this foramen: Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII): It carries motor and sensory fibers related to the muscles of facial expression and taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. V estibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII) : It carries sensory information related to hearing and balance.</li><li>• The internal acoustic meatus is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone.</li><li>• Several important structures pass through this foramen: Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII): It carries motor and sensory fibers related to the muscles of facial expression and taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. V estibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII) : It carries sensory information related to hearing and balance.</li><li>• Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII): It carries motor and sensory fibers related to the muscles of facial expression and taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. V estibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII) : It carries sensory information related to hearing and balance.</li><li>• Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII): It carries motor and sensory fibers related to the muscles of facial expression and taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.</li><li>• Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII):</li><li>• V estibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII) : It carries sensory information related to hearing and balance.</li><li>• estibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII)</li><li>• Option C. Jugular Foramen:</li><li>• Option C. Jugular Foramen:</li><li>• The jugular foramen is located at the junction of the temporal and occipital bones, near the base of the skull. Several structures pass through the jugular foramen: Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial Nerve IX) : It carries motor and sensory fibers to the pharynx and taste sensations from the posterior one-third of the tongue. Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X): It carries motor and sensory fibers to various organs in the thorax and abdomen and plays a crucial role in autonomic functions. Accessory nerve (Cranial Nerve XI) : It supplies motor fibers to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Internal jugular vein: It is a major vein that drains blood from the brain and parts of the face.</li><li>• The jugular foramen is located at the junction of the temporal and occipital bones, near the base of the skull.</li><li>• Several structures pass through the jugular foramen: Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial Nerve IX) : It carries motor and sensory fibers to the pharynx and taste sensations from the posterior one-third of the tongue. Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X): It carries motor and sensory fibers to various organs in the thorax and abdomen and plays a crucial role in autonomic functions. Accessory nerve (Cranial Nerve XI) : It supplies motor fibers to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Internal jugular vein: It is a major vein that drains blood from the brain and parts of the face.</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial Nerve IX) : It carries motor and sensory fibers to the pharynx and taste sensations from the posterior one-third of the tongue. Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X): It carries motor and sensory fibers to various organs in the thorax and abdomen and plays a crucial role in autonomic functions. Accessory nerve (Cranial Nerve XI) : It supplies motor fibers to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Internal jugular vein: It is a major vein that drains blood from the brain and parts of the face.</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial Nerve IX) : It carries motor and sensory fibers to the pharynx and taste sensations from the posterior one-third of the tongue.</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial Nerve IX)</li><li>• Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X): It carries motor and sensory fibers to various organs in the thorax and abdomen and plays a crucial role in autonomic functions.</li><li>• Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X):</li><li>• Accessory nerve (Cranial Nerve XI) : It supplies motor fibers to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.</li><li>• Accessory nerve (Cranial Nerve XI)</li><li>• Internal jugular vein: It is a major vein that drains blood from the brain and parts of the face.</li><li>• Internal jugular vein:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An autopsy was performed to find the cause of death of a person brought dead to the casualty. It showed abrasions on the neck, fracture of the thyroid cartilage and contused tissues in the neck. The cause of death is? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hanging", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Throttling", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strangulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mugging", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Throttling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Throttling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Throttling involves manual strangulation by applying pressure to the neck, causing abrasions, contusions, and fractures in the neck structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the blue line shown in the below picture:( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frankfurt line", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Donaldson line", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Line of Sebileau", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ohngren's line", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ohngren's line", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture6.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ohngren's line</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ohngren's line is used to classify maxillary carcinomas into suprastructure and infrastructure based on their location relative to the line, which is critical for determining the prognosis and approach for surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Saddle type", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ellipsoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ball and socket joint", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ball and socket joint", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Ball and socket joint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a ball and socket joint.</li><li>• The ball part is formed by the rounded head of the talus. The socket is formed by 3 structures: Posterior surface of the navicular Anterior articular surface of the calcaneus Upper surface of the plantar calcaneo-navicular ligament (spring ligament).</li><li>• The ball part is formed by the rounded head of the talus.</li><li>• The socket is formed by 3 structures: Posterior surface of the navicular Anterior articular surface of the calcaneus Upper surface of the plantar calcaneo-navicular ligament (spring ligament).</li><li>• Posterior surface of the navicular Anterior articular surface of the calcaneus Upper surface of the plantar calcaneo-navicular ligament (spring ligament).</li><li>• Posterior surface of the navicular</li><li>• Anterior articular surface of the calcaneus</li><li>• Upper surface of the plantar calcaneo-navicular ligament (spring ligament).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Saddle Type: A saddle joint, also known as a sellar joint, is a type of synovial joint found in the thumb (between the trapezium bone and the first metacarpal bone). It allows movement in two planes, such as flexion-extension and abduction-adduction. The talocalcaneonavicular joint does not fit this description.</li><li>• Option A. Saddle Type:</li><li>• Option B. Plane: A plane joint, also called a gliding joint, allows for limited sliding or gliding movements between flat articular surfaces. While there are gliding joints in the foot, the talocalcaneonavicular joint is not primarily classified as a plane joint.</li><li>• Option B. Plane:</li><li>• Option C. Ellipsoid (Condyloid): An ellipsoid joint, also known as a condyloid joint, is a synovial joint that allows movement in two planes: flexion-extension and abduction-adduction. This type of joint has an oval-shaped convex surface fitting into an elliptical concave surface.</li><li>• Option C. Ellipsoid (Condyloid):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A ball and socket joint is characterized by a spherical head fitting into a cup-like socket. This type of joint allows for a wide range of motion in multiple planes. The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a ball and socket joint.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most appropriate expansion of Apgar is: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alert, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Assessment, pulse, grimace, alive, respiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Appearance, pressure, grimace, activity, respiration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-155857.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture4_ZuwodDk.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Apgar score assesses a newborn's health based on five criteria: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following layers is involved in blister formation in a superficial partial thickness burn? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidermis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subcutaneous tissue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Papillary dermis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reticular dermis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Papillary dermis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Papillary dermis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The papillary dermis is involved in blister formation in a superficial partial-thickness burn.</li><li>➤ First-degree burns involve only the epidermis, with pain, redness, and mild swelling.</li><li>➤ First-degree burns</li><li>➤ Second-degree burns involve the epidermis and some parts of the dermis (also known as partial-thickness burns). Further classified as-</li><li>➤ Second-degree burns</li><li>➤ Superficial second degree or superficial partial-thickness burn - involves the upper part of the dermis (papillary) and shows pain, blisters, and severe swelling. Deep second degree or deep partial-thickness burn - extends deeper up to the reticular layer of the dermis and appears paler and more mottled, does not blanch to touch, but remains painful to pinprick.</li><li>➤ Superficial second degree or superficial partial-thickness burn - involves the upper part of the dermis (papillary) and shows pain, blisters, and severe swelling.</li><li>➤ Deep second degree or deep partial-thickness burn - extends deeper up to the reticular layer of the dermis and appears paler and more mottled, does not blanch to touch, but remains painful to pinprick.</li><li>➤ Third-degree or full-thickness burns involve the complete thickness of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.</li><li>➤ Third-degree or full-thickness burns</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman presented with complaints of bone pain and abdominal cramps with persistent low mood. Which of the following would be the best investigation for a definitive diagnosis? (AIIMS 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sestamibi scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ultrasonogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sestamibi scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-120.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-094350_Wfkcwuw.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Sestamibi scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical features of 40-year-old woman with bone pain and abdominal cramps along with persistent low mood is suggestive of hypercalcemia, which could be due to primary Hyperparathyroidism.</li><li>• IOC for parathyroid adenoma: Tc99-Sestamibi scan</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging): While useful for detailed soft tissue imaging, MRI is not the first choice for detecting parathyroid adenomas.</li><li>• Option B. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging):</li><li>• Option C. Ultrasonogram: Can be used to locate parathyroid adenomas but has limitations in sensitivity and specificity compared to the Sestamibi scan.</li><li>• Option C. Ultrasonogram:</li><li>• Option D. CT scan (Computed Tomography): Provides good anatomic detail but is less specific than the Sestamibi scan for parathyroid adenomas and is not the primary diagnostic tool for suspected hyperparathyroidism.</li><li>• Option D. CT scan (Computed Tomography):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a definitive diagnosis in patients presenting with symptoms indicative of hypercalcemia and suspected primary hyperparathyroidism, a Sestamibi scan is the investigation of choice due to its specificity and ability to perform detailed scintigraphic imaging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The value of TG and VLDL are high in chronic diabetes because of which of the following reasons: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased activity of lipoprotein lipase and decreased activity of hormone sensitive lipase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased lipoprotein lipase activity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in peripheral function of LDL receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased in activity of hepatic lipase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased lipoprotein lipase activity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased lipoprotein lipase activity.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In chronic diabetes, the combination of increased hormone sensitive lipase activity (due to low insulin levels) and decreased lipoprotein lipase activity leads to higher levels of triglycerides and VLDL. This reflects the central role of insulin in lipid metabolism regulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Anil, working as a nutritional consultant with the government of India, is reviewing the Mid-Day Meal (MDM) scheme, an initiative to enhance the nutritional intake among school-going children. He emphasizes that the nutritional component of the meals should not just be about filling stomachs but ensuring that children get adequate protein and energy to support their growth and learning. Given the constraints and the need to ensure minimal nutritional adequacy, what should the minimum supplementation be in the Mid-Day Meal to support the children's needs? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1/3 of the total protein requirement + ½ of total energy requirement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2/3 of the total protein requirement + ½ of total energy requirement", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "½ of the total protein requirement + 1/3 of total energy requirement", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "½ of the total protein requirement + 2/3 of total energy requirement", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ½ of the total protein requirement + 1/3 of total energy requirement", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/whatsapp-image-2023-10-18-at-122126.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ½ of the total protein requirement + 1/3 of total energy requirement</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Principles for formulating mid-day meals:</li><li>➤ Principles for formulating mid-day meals:</li><li>➤ Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>➤ Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet</li><li>➤ Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins</li><li>➤ Meal cost should be low</li><li>➤ Complicated cooking process must not be involved</li><li>➤ Use locally available foods</li><li>➤ Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>➤ Mid-Day Meal Scheme is now renamed as PM POSHAN or Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman.</li><li>➤ Mid-Day Meal Scheme is now renamed as PM POSHAN or Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Shape of Trapezius muscle is? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triangular", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quadrilateral", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pentagonal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Linear", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Triangular", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_258.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Triangular</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The trapezius muscle is a large, triangular and paired muscle located on the posterior aspect of the neck and thorax. Each trapezius muscle is flat and triangularly shaped, with the base of the triangle situated along the vertebral column (the muscle's origin) and the apex pointing toward the tip of the shoulder (the muscle's insertion).</li><li>• The trapezius muscle is a large, triangular and paired muscle located on the posterior aspect of the neck and thorax.</li><li>• Each trapezius muscle is flat and triangularly shaped, with the base of the triangle situated along the vertebral column (the muscle's origin) and the apex pointing toward the tip of the shoulder (the muscle's insertion).</li><li>• Trapezius muscle shape: Considering left or right side - triangular shape Considering both sides together - diamond shaped, hence named \"trapezius\"</li><li>• Trapezius muscle shape: Considering left or right side - triangular shape Considering both sides together - diamond shaped, hence named \"trapezius\"</li><li>• Considering left or right side - triangular shape Considering both sides together - diamond shaped, hence named \"trapezius\"</li><li>• Considering left or right side - triangular shape</li><li>• Considering both sides together - diamond shaped, hence named \"trapezius\"</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trapezius muscle:</li><li>➤ Trapezius muscle:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Proper functioning of an ICD tube is checked by: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Continuous air bubbles coming out of the underwater drain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oscillation of water column in the tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chest X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Auscultation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oscillation of water column in the tube", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/09/screenshot-2024-09-09-170748.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Oscillation of water column in the tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An intercostal drainage (ICD) tube is a thin, plastic tube that's inserted into the pleural space. The pleural space is the area between the chest wall and the lungs.</li><li>➤ The ICD tube is used to drain abnormal collections in the pleural cavity. It helps remove: Air (pneumothorax), Blood (hemothorax), Fluid (pleural effusion or hydrothorax, Chyle (chylothorax, Purulence (empyema.</li><li>➤ The ICD tube creates negative pressure in the chest cavity, which allows the lung to re-expand.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is diagnosed with Renal calculus of &gt; 4 cm of the Staghorn type. What is the best management modality in this case? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ESWL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ureteroscopic removal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Open pyelolithotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy (PCNL) is the gold standard for the management of large and complex stones, like in this case.</li><li>➤ PCNL is indicated in</li><li>➤ Staghorn calculi - Stone &gt;2 cm Multiple stones - &gt;1 cm</li><li>➤ Staghorn calculi - Stone &gt;2 cm</li><li>➤ Multiple stones - &gt;1 cm</li><li>➤ ESWL is only 45-60% efficacious in the treatment of large stones. Also, it causes frequent complications including pain, hydronephrosis, fever, and occasional urosepsis, due to difficulties in the passage of stone particles, especially when there has been insufficient disintegration.</li><li>➤ Complications of percutaneous nephrolithotomy include:</li><li>➤ Complications of percutaneous nephrolithotomy include:</li><li>➤ Hemorrhage from the punctured renal parenchyma Perforation of the collecting system with extravasation of saline irrigant Perforation of the colon or pleural cavity during placement of the percutaneous track</li><li>➤ Hemorrhage from the punctured renal parenchyma</li><li>➤ Perforation of the collecting system with extravasation of saline irrigant</li><li>➤ Perforation of the colon or pleural cavity during placement of the percutaneous track</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 75-year-old male after a fall in bathroom had hip fracture as seen in the pelvic X-ray below. What will be the position of the left lower limb?(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shortened and externally rotated", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shortened and adducted", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extended, abducted and externally rotated", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abducted and internally rotated", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Shortened and externally rotated", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-599.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-110736.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Shortened and externally rotated</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows a displaced femoral neck fracture in the elderly patient. Following the fracture, the limb appears shortened with external rotation and abduction deformity at the hip.</li><li>➤ The given image shows a displaced femoral neck fracture in the elderly patient.</li><li>➤ Following the fracture, the limb appears shortened with external rotation and abduction deformity at the hip.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy rapidly develops hypoglycemia after moderate activity. Blood examination reveals raised levels of ketone bodies, lactic acid, and triglycerides. On examination, the liver and kidneys are found to be enlarged. Histopathology of the liver shows deposits of glycogen in an excess amount. What is the diagnosis? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Von Gierke's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pompe's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "McArdle's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cori's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Von Gierke's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-175941.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Von Gierke's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which part of 2nd metatarsal is involved in the march fracture?(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Head", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neck", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shaft", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Base", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neck", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-111207.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_84.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Neck</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The march fracture involves the neck of the 2 nd metatarsal followed by 3 rd metatarsal. It is a stress fracture of the metatarsal.</li><li>➤ The march fracture involves the neck of the 2 nd metatarsal followed by 3 rd metatarsal.</li><li>➤ It is a stress fracture of the metatarsal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The provided picture shows a patient who has undergone mastoidectomy. Identify the lateral semicircular canal in the image. ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lateral semicircular canal, identified at label A, is part of the vestibular system, crucial for balance and orientation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient recently underwent LASIK surgery for her myopia. She is now complaining of headaches and eye pain. Identify the test being performed on her: ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pachymetry", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tonometry", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Auto Refractometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A Scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tonometry", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture5_JhAIxJm.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/whatsapp-image-2024-07-09-at-32321-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_47.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_49.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tonometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tonometry, especially applanation tonometry, is crucial for monitoring intraocular pressure post-LASIK surgery to ensure no adverse effects on eye pressure, which could lead to symptoms like headaches and eye pain as described. This test is essential for the ongoing evaluation of patients' eye health following refractive surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the test for immediate memory? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Digit span forward up to 7 digits with 2 skips allowed", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serial (100-7) subtraction test up to 5 steps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Digit span backwards up to 5 digits with 2 skips allowed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serial (20-1) subtraction test up to 5 steps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Digit span forward up to 7 digits with 2 skips allowed", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Digit span forward up to 7 digits with 2 skips allowed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The digit span forward test, which involves repeating a sequence of numbers, is a measure of immediate memory and is a fundamental aspect of cognitive assessments.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 13.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rajan is a consultant at a primary health center, frequently encountering cases of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and reproductive tract infections (RTIs). He usually prefers syndromic approach for managing these conditions due to limited diagnostic facilities. A 28-year-old male patient walks in, presenting with discharge from his urethra, indicating a possible urethritis. The patient is unaware of the specific causative organism. Given the syndromic management approach, which combination of medications would Dr. Rajan most likely prescribe to effectively treat both gonococcal and non-gonococcal urethritis? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Azithromycin + Metronidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cefixime + Azithromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Azithromycin + Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doxycycline + Cefixime", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cefixime + Azithromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114908.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cefixime + Azithromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A victim of a road traffic accident presented with paralysis of both his upper and lower limbs. He has not passed urine and tenderness is elicited in the cervical region. What will be your advice? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The patient should not be shifted and portable X-ray machine should be used after neck Stabilization", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "The doctor will instruct the radiographer to take cervical and chest X ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The doctor will instruct the radiographer to take cervical X ray AP and lateral view without any cervical support", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The doctor should order a cervical X ray and shift the patient from the trolley by himself", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The patient should not be shifted and portable X-ray machine should be used after neck Stabilization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) The patient should not be shifted and portable X-ray machine should be used after neck stabilization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management in a trauma patient with suspected cervical fracture consists of:</li><li>➤ The immediate step in the management of blunt/penetrating cervical trauma cases is spinal immobilization with a rigid cervical collar and a long spine board It is followed by eliciting extremity movement to grossly assess spinal cord function. Tenderness over the injured vertebrae or the presence of a deformity is indicated an associated fracture.</li><li>➤ The immediate step in the management of blunt/penetrating cervical trauma cases is spinal immobilization with a rigid cervical collar and a long spine board</li><li>➤ It is followed by eliciting extremity movement to grossly assess spinal cord function. Tenderness over the injured vertebrae or the presence of a deformity is indicated an associated fracture.</li><li>➤ Imaging is done by X-ray or CT with portable X-ray machines being preferred to avoid further injury while mobilizing the patient. They are useful in visualizing thoracic and lumbar vertebrae but they cannot be used to visualize the cervicothoracic junction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the most common lacrimal gland tumor? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoid cystic carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pleomorphic adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucoepidermoid carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignant mixed tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pleomorphic adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pleomorphic adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common lacrimal gland tumor. It is usually benign and arises from the glandular tissue. It can sometimes have a mixture of cell types, hence the name \"pleomorphic.\"</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the origin of the fibers marked by the arrow? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hippocampus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Habenular", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mamm ill ary bod y", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amygdala", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hippocampus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-84.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hippocampus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The above image is the cross-section of the human brain in which the marked arrow indicates the fornix. The fornix is a white matter bundle located in the medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres which arises from the hippocampus and ends in the mamillary body of the hypothalamus. It connects various nodes of a limbic circuitry and is believed to play a key role in cognition and episodic memory recall. Fornix is an example of association fiber and is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery. The hippocampus is a seahorse-shaped structure located within the temporal lobes of the brain. The fornix originates from the hippocampus. Specifically, it receives input from the hippocampus and sends axons that project back to the hippocampus. This loop of connections is involved in memory formation and retrieval.</li><li>• The above image is the cross-section of the human brain in which the marked arrow indicates the fornix.</li><li>• The fornix is a white matter bundle located in the medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres which arises from the hippocampus and ends in the mamillary body of the hypothalamus.</li><li>• It connects various nodes of a limbic circuitry and is believed to play a key role in cognition and episodic memory recall.</li><li>• Fornix is an example of association fiber and is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.</li><li>• The hippocampus is a seahorse-shaped structure located within the temporal lobes of the brain. The fornix originates from the hippocampus. Specifically, it receives input from the hippocampus and sends axons that project back to the hippocampus. This loop of connections is involved in memory formation and retrieval.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Habenular: The habenular nuclei are small structures located near the thalamus and are involved in various functions, including the regulation of the pineal gland's activity. The fornix is not directly associated with the habenular nuclei. Instead, it primarily connects the hippocampus to other structures in the limbic system.</li><li>• Option B. Habenular:</li><li>• Option C. Mammillary Body: The mammillary bodies are a pair of small, round structures located on the undersurface of the brain. The fornix connects the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies. This connection is an essential component of the Papez circuit, a neural circuit involved in memory and emotion.</li><li>• Option C. Mammillary Body:</li><li>• Option D. Amygdala: The amygdala is an almond-shaped structure located deep within the temporal lobes and plays a key role in processing emotions, particularly fear and emotional memory. While the amygdala is part of the limbic system, it is not directly connected to the fornix. Instead, the amygdala communicates with other limbic structures through various neural pathways.</li><li>• Option D. Amygdala:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child was brought to the hospital with a history of loose stools. No history of fever or blood in stools. The mother says he is irritable and eagerly drinks water if given. On examination, eyes are sunken and in the skin pinch test, the skin retracted within two seconds but not immediately. What treatment is advised for the child? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give oral fluids and zinc supplementation only and ask mother to come back if danger sign develops.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give oral fluids and ask mother to continue the same and visit again the next day.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Consider severe dehydration start IV fluids, IV antibiotics, and refer to higher centre.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait and observe.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Give oral fluids and zinc supplementation only and ask mother to come back if danger sign develops.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/signs_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Give oral fluids and zinc supplementation only and ask mother to come back if danger sign develops</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child with some dehydration, the recommended treatment includes oral rehydration therapy, zinc supplementation, and continued breastfeeding, with instructions to return if danger signs develop.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the following, what is the function of the green muscles marked? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protrusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Elevation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depression", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retraction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Depression", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-172431.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Depression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The muscle marked in the above image is the lateral pterygoid muscle and its primary function is depression of the mandible (the downward movement of the mandible, opening the mouth).</li><li>• The primary muscle responsible for jaw depression is the digastric muscle, aided by the mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles. The lateral pterygoid plays a role in this process by relaxing when the jaw is being opened.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Protrusion:</li><li>• Option A. Protrusion:</li><li>• Protrusion refers to the forward movement of the lower jaw (mandible). The lateral pterygoid muscle is primarily responsible for protruding the mandible. When this muscle contracts on both sides, it causes the jaw to move forward.</li><li>• Protrusion refers to the forward movement of the lower jaw (mandible).</li><li>• The lateral pterygoid muscle is primarily responsible for protruding the mandible. When this muscle contracts on both sides, it causes the jaw to move forward.</li><li>• Option B. Elevation:</li><li>• Option B. Elevation:</li><li>• Elevation refers to the upward movement of the mandible, closing the mouth. The primary muscles responsible for jaw elevation are the masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid muscles. The lateral pterygoid's main function is not jaw elevation but rather protrusion.</li><li>• Elevation refers to the upward movement of the mandible, closing the mouth.</li><li>• The primary muscles responsible for jaw elevation are the masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid muscles. The lateral pterygoid's main function is not jaw elevation but rather protrusion.</li><li>• Option D. Retraction:</li><li>• Option D. Retraction:</li><li>• Retraction refers to the backward movement of the mandible. The primary muscles involved in jaw retraction are the temporalis and the posterior fibers of the digastric muscle. The lateral pterygoid is not primarily responsible for this movement.</li><li>• Retraction refers to the backward movement of the mandible.</li><li>• The primary muscles involved in jaw retraction are the temporalis and the posterior fibers of the digastric muscle. The lateral pterygoid is not primarily responsible for this movement.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Muscles of mastication</li><li>➤ Muscles of mastication</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady was discharged after a normal vaginal delivery. On the third day she came back with fever, tachycardia and seizures. Fundus showed papilledema with no focal deficits. Diagnosis is? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute migraine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cortical vein thrombosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cortical vein thrombosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cortical vein thrombosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cortical/ Cerebral vein thrombosis should be thought of in a patient with headache and seizures/ other neurological deficits following delivery</li><li>➤ Cortical/ Cerebral vein thrombosis should be thought of in a patient with headache and seizures/ other neurological deficits following delivery</li><li>➤ Cortical/ Cerebral vein thrombosis should be thought of in a patient with headache and seizures/ other neurological deficits following delivery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism in the given slide stained with Gomori methenamine silver stain? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obtuse angled mucor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute angled penicillium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute angled branching aspergillus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obtuse angled Rhizopus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute angled branching aspergillus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-176.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute angled branching aspergillus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) stain shows characteristic features of Aspergillus species. These features include acute-angled (45°) uniform branching septate hyphae.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old male who has been admitted with symptoms of altered sensorium and hydrophobia, indicating a potential case of rabies, you have obtained corneal scrapings for further investigation. Now, which test would you select to establish a conclusive diagnosis of the condition? ( INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Indirect immunofluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seller stain for negri bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Viral culture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Real time PCR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Viral culture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-123912.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Viral Culture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Viral culture from corneal scrapings is the most definitive test for diagnosing rabies in a patient presenting with altered sensorium and hydrophobia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Below is a radioactive scan for thyroid pathology. which of the following is the most probable diagnosis: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypersecreting adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Papillary carcinoma thyroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grave’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral aberrant thyroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypersecreting adenoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm56.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypersecreting Adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypersecreting adenoma in the thyroid is characterized by increased radioactive uptake in one area of the thyroid with suppression in other areas, reflecting independent hormone production from the adenoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Structure made up of dense irregular collagen is? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ligaments", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dermis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tendons", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bones", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dermis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dermis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reticular dermis is comprised of the dense irregular connective tissue, that plays a crucial role in providing structural support and integrity to the skin due to its randomly oriented collagen fibers, allowing the skin to resist tearing.</li><li>➤ Reticular dermis</li><li>➤ dense irregular</li><li>➤ structural support</li><li>➤ randomly oriented collagen</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Volume 1 Chapter 2, Page no 2.34</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Volume 1 Chapter 2, Page no 2.34</li><li>➤ Grays Anatomy: The anatomical basis of clinical practice- 42 nd edition- page no 40, 41</li><li>➤ Grays Anatomy: The anatomical basis of clinical practice- 42 nd edition- page no 40, 41</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most frequent presentation of an abdominal desmoid tumor? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abdominal pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abdominal mass", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectal prolapse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Abdominal mass", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Abdominal mass</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An abdominal desmoid tumor is a tumor that arises from fibro-aponeurotic tissue in the musculoaponeurotic structures of the abdominal wall, especially below the level of the umbilicus.</li><li>➤ Desmoid tumors are frequently seen to be associated with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) syndrome.</li><li>➤ It commonly presents as a slow-growing mass and tends to infiltrate muscle in the immediate area. Eventually, it can undergo a myxomatous change and then shows an increase in size more rapidly.</li><li>➤ The investigation of choice for desmoid tumor is MRI. Biopsy with immunohistochemistry can help in establishing the diagnosis. The tumors typically stain positive for</li><li>➤ 3-catenin Actin and Vimentin.</li><li>➤ 3-catenin</li><li>➤ Actin and</li><li>➤ Vimentin.</li><li>➤ It stains negative for cytokeratin and S-100.</li><li>➤ Treatment includes wide excision with a margin clearance of 2.5cm to avoid recurrence. It is a completely unencapsulated fibroma and is hard to cut. The defect then requires repair using mesh to prevent hernia in the future. Radiotherapy alone is an acceptable treatment option for patients with unresectable desmoid tumors Prognosis is good, with no metastasis or sarcomatous change. Although they lack metastatic potential, they can be multifocal as well as locally aggressive and invasive, with a high propensity for recurrence.</li><li>➤ Treatment includes wide excision with a margin clearance of 2.5cm to avoid recurrence. It is a completely unencapsulated fibroma and is hard to cut. The defect then requires repair using mesh to prevent hernia in the future.</li><li>➤ Radiotherapy alone is an acceptable treatment option for patients with unresectable desmoid tumors</li><li>➤ Prognosis is good, with no metastasis or sarcomatous change. Although they lack metastatic potential, they can be multifocal as well as locally aggressive and invasive, with a high propensity for recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In SCID, what type of DNA repair is defective? (AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Base excision repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nucleotide excision repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mismatch Repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-homologous end joining repair", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Non-homologous end joining repair", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/28/1-bio-29-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Non-homologous end joining repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SCID is caused by defects in the NHEJ pathway, which is responsible for repairing double-strand breaks in DNA. This defect impairs the immune system, leading to severe immunodeficiency.</li><li>➤ Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ):</li><li>➤ Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ):</li><li>➤ DNA Lesion: Double-strand breaks (DSBs) Cancer Syndromes: Ligase IV deficiency, XLF/NHEJ1 deficiency, Rothmund-Thompson syndrome, Werner syndrome</li><li>➤ DNA Lesion: Double-strand breaks (DSBs)</li><li>➤ Cancer Syndromes: Ligase IV deficiency, XLF/NHEJ1 deficiency, Rothmund-Thompson syndrome, Werner syndrome</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Relapse is seen in? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasmodium vivax and falciparum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasmodium ovale and falciparum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasmodium vivax and ovale", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasmodium vivax and malariae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Plasmodium vivax and ovale", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Plasmodium viva and ovale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Relapse in malaria is seen in cases of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale due to the presence of hypnozoites, the dormant liver stages that can reactivate and cause renewed infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In what sequence do muscles develop rigor mortis, progressing from early to late? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbicularis oculi, facial muscles, thorax, upper limb", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbicularis oculi, neck, facial muscles, upper limb, thorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neck, muscles of eyelid, upper limb, thorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neck, muscles of eyelid, facial muscles, thorax, upper limb", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Orbicularis oculi, facial muscles, thorax, upper limb", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Orbicularis oculi, facial muscles, thorax, upper limb</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rigor mortis</li><li>➤ Rigor mortis</li><li>➤ Rigor mortis is the post-mortem stiffening and contraction of muscles in the body, resulting from the depletion of energy stores, usually becoming noticeable a few hours after death and gradually resolving over time.”</li><li>➤ It first affects the involuntary muscles first starting with the myocardium Nysten’s law deals with the progression of rigor mortis in voluntary muscles Order of appearance of Rigor mortis in different organs:</li><li>➤ It first affects the involuntary muscles first starting with the myocardium</li><li>➤ Nysten’s law deals with the progression of rigor mortis in voluntary muscles</li><li>➤ Order of appearance of Rigor mortis in different organs:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man, post-MI, had the following lab values. Which of the following must be his treatment plan? (AIIMS MAY 2017) LDL - 125mg/dl HDL - 33mg/dl TGL - 270mg/dl", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rosuvastatin + fenofibrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atorvastatin 80 mg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fenofibrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rosuvastatin 10 mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atorvastatin 80 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Atorvastatin 80 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The high-intensity statin therapy, such as atorvastatin 80 mg, is essential in the management of patients after an MI to reduce the risk of subsequent cardiovascular events, regardless of initial cholesterol levels. This approach aligns with guidelines that emphasize aggressive LDL reduction in patients with established cardiovascular disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young woman, aged 25, presented with hearing impairment that emerged shortly after her initial pregnancy. Provided below is her audiometry findings. What could be the potential diagnosis for this case? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ototoxicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meniere's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Noise-induced hearing loss", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Otosclerosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture1_OzxJVV9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-134405.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-134415.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/whatsapp-image-2023-08-29-at-165320_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Otosclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child came with complaints of pain over the right lower quadrant and lower back pain. On examination, he had pain over the right side of the hip on passive extension along with a mass in the right lumbar region pointing towards the groin. What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyelonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoas abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Appendicitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Torsion of right undescended testis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Psoas abscess", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Psoas abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ History of abdominal pain and mass in the right lumbar region, with pain on passive extension of the right hip (psoas sign), points towards the diagnosis of psoas abscess.</li><li>➤ The history of lower back pain needs to be evaluated with the possibility of tubercular origin to be kept in mind in this patient.</li><li>➤ tubercular origin</li><li>➤ Treatment is usually by percutaneous CT-guided drainage and appropriate antibiotic therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sharma was enthusiastically reviewing the results of a randomized controlled trial (RCT) that aimed to compare the therapeutic benefits of Drug A and Drug B. To her surprise, the data suggested a statistically significant difference between the two medications, indicated by a p-value of &lt;0.005. However, after a comprehensive review and collaboration with other experts, it was established that in real-world settings, both drugs had essentially equivalent therapeutic outcomes. This error in interpretation, where a difference was falsely identified when none existed in reality, is best described by which of the following statistical terms? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha error", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta error", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-α", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-β", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Alpha error", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/screenshot-2023-10-18-114514.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Alpha error</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure passing through the foramen marked 2? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abducens nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spinal accessory nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ophthalmic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Middle meningeal artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Abducens nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-4_HhoLlFM.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-86_jZv9jmH.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Abducens nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old female patient came with complaints of vomiting and a decrease in movement of the right leg. In the past, she has had episodes of violent and aggressive behavior and abdominal pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AIDP with migraine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right side paralysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute intermittent porphyria", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conversion disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute intermittent porphyria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute intermittent porphyria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The acute intermittent porphyria presents with a complex array of symptoms, including neurological, gastrointestinal, and psychiatric manifestations, and is associated with specific triggers and a genetic basis. Elevated ALA and PBG levels during attacks are diagnostic.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman came to OPD with a twin pregnancy at 10 weeks of gestation. She has a 3-year-old female child who was born at term and had 2 first trimester abortions previously. Which of the following is the correct representation of her obstetric score/formula? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G4P2 L1 A2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "G4P1 A2 L1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "G5PO L1 A2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G5P1 A2 L1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. G4P1 A2 L1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) G4P1 A2 L1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IMPORTANT : A Twin pregnancy which has crossed the period of viability is considered as Para 1 NOT Para 2. But if it results in 2 living children it will be Live 2.</li><li>➤ IMPORTANT : A Twin pregnancy which has crossed the period of viability is considered as Para 1 NOT Para 2. But if it results in 2 living children it will be Live 2.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who was on a ventilator for one week suddenly gets agitated and self-extubates himself. What is the next step of management? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Re-intubate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxygenate and re-intubate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start CPR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Watch for spontaneous breaths and re-intubate if needed", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Watch for spontaneous breaths and re-intubate if needed", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Watch for spontaneous breaths and re-intubate if needed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Self-extubation requires careful assessment to determine if re-intubation is necessary. Observing the patient's spontaneous breathing and oxygenation status is crucial before making the decision to re-intubate.</li><li>➤ Self-extubation requires careful assessment to determine if re-intubation is necessary. Observing the patient's spontaneous breathing and oxygenation status is crucial before making the decision to re-intubate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-day old baby is active and feeding well. He has a bilirubin level of 8 mg/dl. What is the next step in the management of the baby? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exchange transfusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stop breastfeeding and start phototherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV fluids and phototherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue breastfeeding", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Continue breastfeeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-145422.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Continue breastfeeding.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of physiological jaundice with mild to moderate bilirubin levels and a well-feeding, active infant, the appropriate management is to continue breastfeeding without additional interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient with acute psychosis is admitted to the hospital. He wakes up and asks for his wife, even though she is in the same room as him. When she is pointed out, he claims that she is not his wife and that she is being impersonated by someone else. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Capgras syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fregoli syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delusion of subjective doubles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Othello syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Capgras syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/11/screenshot-2023-10-11-173832.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Capgras syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delusional misidentification syndromes include Capgras syndrome, Fregoli’s syndrome, syndrome of intermetamorphosis and syndrome of subjective doubles.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Sim’s Symptoms in the Mind, 7th edition, Page No 124-125.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding the internal iron homeostasis in iron-deficiency anemia? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ferritin mRNA concentration iron-responsive element increases and ferritin synthesis decreases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transferrin receptor 1 iron-responsive elements increases transferrin receptor mRNA concentration and synthesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transferrin receptor 1 iron responsive elements decreases transferrin receptor mRNA concentration and synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ferritin mRNA concentration iron responsive element decreases and ferritin synthesis increases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Transferrin receptor 1 iron-responsive elements increases transferrin receptor mRNA concentration and synthesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-102155.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In iron-deficiency anemia, transferrin receptor 1 iron-responsive elements increase mRNA concentration and synthesis to enhance iron uptake, while ferritin levels decrease as the body attempts to conserve iron.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, pg 1231-1234</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, pg 1231-1234</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male patient presents with severe dyspnea. Mitral stenosis with left atrial hypertrophy is seen. Vegetations present on the mitral valve were excised. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the given HE image? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rheumatic valvular disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infective endocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myxoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rheumatic valvular disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/43.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/44.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rheumatic valvular disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Aschoff bodies, characterized by foci of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and Anitschkow cells, is pathognomonic for rheumatic valvular disease and indicates a history of acute rheumatic fever.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page no – 1044</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page no – 1044</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition shown in image below? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidermal verrucous nevus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital melanocytic nevus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Melanoacanthoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Congenital melanocytic nevus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture333335.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture422.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture5666.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Congenital melanocytic nevus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital Melanocytic Nevus (CMN):</li><li>➤ Congenital Melanocytic Nevus (CMN):</li><li>➤ Presentation: These nevi are typically pigmented and hairy and may vary in size. The presence of hair is a distinguishing feature that often helps differentiate them from other pigmented lesions. Risk Factors: Larger nevi have a higher risk of developing malignant melanoma later in life, but this is rare with smaller nevi. Management: Monitoring is essential, and in some cases, surgical removal may be considered for aesthetic reasons or to reduce melanoma risk, particularly in larger lesions.</li><li>➤ Presentation: These nevi are typically pigmented and hairy and may vary in size. The presence of hair is a distinguishing feature that often helps differentiate them from other pigmented lesions.</li><li>➤ Presentation:</li><li>➤ Risk Factors: Larger nevi have a higher risk of developing malignant melanoma later in life, but this is rare with smaller nevi.</li><li>➤ Risk Factors:</li><li>➤ Management: Monitoring is essential, and in some cases, surgical removal may be considered for aesthetic reasons or to reduce melanoma risk, particularly in larger lesions.</li><li>➤ Management:</li><li>➤ Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition Chapter 75 Page no 75.14</li><li>➤ Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition Chapter 75 Page no 75.14</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following life cycle is given below? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E. vermicularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A. duodenal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "E. Histolytica", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. E. Histolytica", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) E. Histolytica</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica includes the motile trophozoite and the non-motile cyst stages, with transmission primarily by the fecal-oral route. The most frequent site of systemic disease caused by E. histolytica is the liver.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Silent choroid on FFA is a feature of which of the following disorders?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stargardt's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Best's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Age related macular degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystoid macular edema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stargardt's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture2_zKs31Lw.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stargardt's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The silent choroid or dark choroid on FFA is a distinctive feature of Stargardt's disease, caused by lipofuscin accumulation in the retinal pigment epithelium, which blocks the normal choroidal fluorescence. Recognizing this feature is crucial in diagnosing and differentiating Stargardt’s disease from other macular disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Name the location of the nucleus supplying the muscle marked with the question mark in the image given below: ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior olivary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior colliculus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior colliculus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fascial colliculus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Superior colliculus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-130522.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture4_OfVnNKz.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Superior colliculus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The nucleus of the oculomotor nerve, responsible for innervating the medial rectus muscle among others, is located at the level of the superior colliculus in the midbrain. This is crucial for understanding the neural control of eye movements, particularly in how various components of the eye are coordinated for proper visual alignment and focus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Criminal responsibility of Insane is defined in: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "McNaughten's Rule", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curren’s Rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Durham's Rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "American Law Institute Test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. McNaughten's Rule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. McNaughten's Rule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ McNaughten's rule is defined by section 84 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)</li><li>➤ It states that \"A person of unsound mind is not liable for an act.\"</li><li>➤ It implies that the defendant was unable to distinguish between right and wrong or otherwise didn't understand what they did because of a \"disease of the mind.\"</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Urine LAM is used for the diagnosis of? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "M. tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "M. leprae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycoplasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Listeria monocyogenes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. M. tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) M. tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urine LAM assay is a diagnostic tool for tuberculosis, particularly useful for patients with HIV and low CD4 counts due to the detection of the LAM antigen from mycobacterial cell walls in urine.</li><li>➤ Urine LAM assay is a diagnostic tool for tuberculosis, particularly useful for patients with HIV and low CD4 counts due to the detection of the LAM antigen from mycobacterial cell walls in urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An esteemed research institute recently conducted a comprehensive study on individuals diagnosed with HIV to understand the progression and current health status of the participants. As a part of this study, the CD4 count, which plays a critical role in assessing the immune status of these individuals, was meticulously measured. Given the graphical representation provided that depicts the distribution of CD4 counts, can you infer the average CD4 count range that can be derived from this graph? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "300-400", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "200-300", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Below 250", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Above 350", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 300-400", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/screenshot-2023-10-18-113657_rVUMCJ4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/screenshot-2023-10-18-114014.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 300-400</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When interpreting a frequency distribution graph like this for CD4 counts in HIV-positive individuals, it's essential to compute the weighted average based on the midpoint of each interval and the frequency of observations within each interval. This provides a more accurate assessment of the overall average CD4 count, crucial for understanding the immune status in a clinical setting.</li><li>➤ When interpreting a frequency distribution graph like this for CD4 counts in HIV-positive individuals, it's essential to compute the weighted average based on the midpoint of each interval and the frequency of observations within each interval.</li><li>➤ This provides a more accurate assessment of the overall average CD4 count, crucial for understanding the immune status in a clinical setting.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old female came with complaints of greenish discharge per vagina and on examination she had a strawberry cervix. Which of the following is the treatment for her? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amoxicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metronidazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-154323.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation of greenish-yellow discharge and a strawberry cervix is characteristic of trichomoniasis. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The diagnostic feature of trichomoniasis includes the presence of motile flagellate organisms on a wet mount microscopy.</li><li>• Characteristic findings: Colour of discharge: Greenish yellow On examination: Strawberry cervix and vagina pH: &gt;5 Diagnosis (Wet mount): Motile flagellate organism</li><li>• Characteristic findings: Colour of discharge: Greenish yellow On examination: Strawberry cervix and vagina pH: &gt;5 Diagnosis (Wet mount): Motile flagellate organism</li><li>• Characteristic findings:</li><li>• Colour of discharge: Greenish yellow On examination: Strawberry cervix and vagina pH: &gt;5 Diagnosis (Wet mount): Motile flagellate organism</li><li>• Colour of discharge: Greenish yellow</li><li>• Colour of discharge:</li><li>• On examination: Strawberry cervix and vagina</li><li>• On examination:</li><li>• pH: &gt;5</li><li>• pH:</li><li>• Diagnosis (Wet mount): Motile flagellate organism</li><li>• Diagnosis (Wet mount):</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• The recommended treatment for trichomoniasis is metronidazole. It can be administered as a single dose of 2g or 200mg TDS for 7 days.</li><li>• The recommended treatment for trichomoniasis is metronidazole. It can be administered as a single dose of 2g or 200mg TDS for 7 days.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Doxycycline: This antibiotic is used to treat various bacterial infections, including some sexually transmitted infections, but it is not the treatment of choice for trichomoniasis.</li><li>• Option A. Doxycycline:</li><li>• Option B. Amoxicillin: This antibiotic is used for bacterial infections but is not effective against trichomoniasis.</li><li>• Option B. Amoxicillin:</li><li>• Option C. Fluconazole: This antifungal medication is used to treat candidiasis, not trichomoniasis.</li><li>• Option C. Fluconazole:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Strawberry cervix and greenish-yellow vaginal discharge are characteristic of trichomoniasis, which is treated with metronidazole.</li><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Strawberry cervix and vagina are characteristic of Trichomoniasis</li><li>➤ Strawberry cervix and vagina are characteristic of Trichomoniasis</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 164, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 164, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the fracture seen in the X-ray below, what is the most commonly expected vascular injury?(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brachial artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulnar artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cubital vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Brachial artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-597.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Brachial artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the supracondylar humerus fracture which is mostly associated with the brachial artery injury.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the supracondylar humerus fracture which is mostly associated with the brachial artery injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the disease shown in the karyotype: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cri-du-chat syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bloom syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Angelman syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fragile X syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cri-du-chat syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/77.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture3_oUxOdWo.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cri-du-chat syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cri-du-chat syndrome is identified by a partial deletion on the short arm of chromosome 5, leading to distinctive clinical features such as a cat-like cry, microcephaly, and intellectual disability.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old woman was admitted to a tertiary care hospital in New Delhi following a fall at home. During her stay, the nursing staff consistently followed protocols for waste segregation. Based on the guidelines for biomedical waste management, which type of waste should be correctly disposed of in the following mentioned bag? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine bag", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anatomical waste", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Soiled waste", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sharp waste", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urine bag", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-111930.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Urine Bag</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The red biohazard bag is used for the disposal of Contaminated plastic recyclable waste like tubing, bottles, intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes (without needles) and gloves</li><li>➤ The red biohazard bag is used for the disposal of Contaminated plastic recyclable waste like tubing, bottles, intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes (without needles) and gloves</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male with history of fever and enlarged lymph nodes and sore throat was suspected to have infectious mono-nucleosis and was ordered a Paul Bunnel test. Which of the following is the principle of the test? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complement mediated cell damage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Precipitation reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heterophile antibody test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neutralisation reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Heterophile antibody test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Heterophile antibody test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The Paul Bunnell test is a heterophile antibody test used to diagnose infectious mononucleosis. It detects IgM heterophile antibodies that can agglutinate sheep erythrocytes, which are present during the early stages of the infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 53-year-old man was admitted with history of a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago. The patient is drowsy with minimal response. CT findings is shown in the image below. What will be your next line of management? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin &amp; clopidogrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decompressive surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mechanical thrombectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decompressive surgery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm59.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decompressive surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cases of significant cerebral edema with midline shift, as seen on CT in acute stroke settings, decompressive surgery is often necessary to prevent fatal outcomes and manage increased intracranial pressure effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "ALK positivity is seen in which of the following neoplasms: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Synovial sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ewing sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumour", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ALK positivity is seen in:</li><li>➤ ALK positivity is seen in:</li><li>➤ Lung Cancers – Adenocarcinoma , small cell cancer, anaplastic cancer Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor Neuroblastoma Renal cell carcinomas Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma Breast cancer notably the inflammatory subtype Colonic adenocarcinoma Glioblastoma multiforme Anaplastic thyroid cancer</li><li>➤ Lung Cancers – Adenocarcinoma , small cell cancer, anaplastic cancer</li><li>➤ Lung Cancers – Adenocarcinoma</li><li>➤ Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor</li><li>➤ Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor</li><li>➤ Neuroblastoma</li><li>➤ Renal cell carcinomas</li><li>➤ Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma</li><li>➤ Breast cancer notably the inflammatory subtype</li><li>➤ Colonic adenocarcinoma</li><li>➤ Glioblastoma multiforme</li><li>➤ Anaplastic thyroid cancer</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are reduced in Iron Deficiency Anemia except? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ferritin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "TIBC", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transferrin saturation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. TIBC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-102155_0hAIFjo.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) TIBC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DDs of microcytic anemia :-</li><li>➤ DDs of microcytic anemia</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Page No. 1231-1234</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Page No. 1231-1234</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the function of Acetone Free Methanol in Leishman stain? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Causes metabolic and enzymatic activity to stop", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevents the cells from sticking to the slide surface", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colors the red cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fixes cells to slide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Causes metabolic and enzymatic activity to stop", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Causes metabolic and enzymatic activity to stop</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acetone-free methanol in the Leishman stain primarily functions by causing metabolic and enzymatic activity to stop through protein denaturation, which preserves cellular architecture and enables proper staining and microscopic examination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old female came with complaints of 4 months amenorrhea. Her FSH and LH were elevated above the normal value, thyroid function tests were normal. Which is the next step in management? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Estimate serum estradiol values", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give progesterone and stop after 10 days for withdrawal bleeding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Check USG for polycystic ovaries", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Do a urine pregnancy test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Give progesterone and stop after 10 days for withdrawal bleeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Give progesterone and stop after 10 days for withdrawal bleeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Since LH and FSH are elevated above the normal value, the possibility of a pregnancy can be ruled out as FSH and LH levels fall to very low levels in pregnancy The first step in evaluation of secondary amenorrhoea after ruling out pregnancy is to do a progesterone challenge test i.e. to see if she bleeds after a challenge of progesterone. If she bleeds, the diagnosis is anovulation like in PCOS</li><li>• Since LH and FSH are elevated above the normal value, the possibility of a pregnancy can be ruled out as FSH and LH levels fall to very low levels in pregnancy</li><li>• The first step in evaluation of secondary amenorrhoea after ruling out pregnancy is to do a progesterone challenge test i.e. to see if she bleeds after a challenge of progesterone.</li><li>• If she bleeds, the diagnosis is anovulation like in PCOS</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Estimate serum estradiol values : Serum estradiol level measurement has no role in evaluation of secondary amenorrhoea</li><li>• Option A. Estimate serum estradiol values</li><li>• Option D. Do a urine pregnancy test : FSH levels in pregnancy are very very low so pregnancy is unlikely; otherwise the most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea is pregnancy</li><li>• Option D. Do a urine pregnancy test</li><li>• Option C. Check USG for Polycystic ovaries : This is done if the patient bleeds following progesterone withdrawal as it determines the cause of anovular cycles</li><li>• Option C. Check USG for Polycystic ovaries</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary amenorrhea is defined as a period of amenorrhoea of 6 months Pregnancy needs to be ruled out The most common cause of secondary amenorrhea after ruling out pregnancy is anovulation (PCOS) which can be determined by the progesterone withdrawal test</li><li>➤ Secondary amenorrhea is defined as a period of amenorrhoea of 6 months</li><li>➤ Pregnancy needs to be ruled out</li><li>➤ The most common cause of secondary amenorrhea after ruling out pregnancy is anovulation (PCOS) which can be determined by the progesterone withdrawal test</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 457, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 457, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rathi, an obstetrician in a suburban Indian clinic, was counseling Mrs. Mehta, a software engineer, on nutritional needs during pregnancy. Mrs. Mehta has a sedentary desk job and is entering her second trimester. The doctor emphasized the significance of an appropriate caloric intake to ensure both maternal and fetal health. Given her lifestyle and the stage of pregnancy, by how much should Mrs. Mehta ideally increase her daily caloric consumption? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "600 kcal/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "520 kcal/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "450 kcal/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "350 kcal/day", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 350 kcal/day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/whatsapp-image-2023-10-18-at-122347.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 350 kcal/day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pregnancy Additional Energy Requirements: +350 kcal/day Lactation Additional Energy Requirements: 0-6 m: +600 kcal/day 6-12 m: +520 kcal/day</li><li>➤ Pregnancy Additional Energy Requirements: +350 kcal/day</li><li>➤ Pregnancy Additional Energy Requirements:</li><li>➤ +350 kcal/day</li><li>➤ +350 kcal/day</li><li>➤ Lactation Additional Energy Requirements: 0-6 m: +600 kcal/day 6-12 m: +520 kcal/day</li><li>➤ Lactation Additional Energy Requirements:</li><li>➤ 0-6 m: +600 kcal/day 6-12 m: +520 kcal/day</li><li>➤ 0-6 m: +600 kcal/day</li><li>➤ 6-12 m: +520 kcal/day</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient complained of bone and joint pain and was prescribed NSAIDs. After a few days, he returned with vesiculo-bullous lesions that subsequently healed, leaving a brownish discoloration on his face (particularly in the upper lip area), as shown in the image. Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fixed drug eruption", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fixed drug eruption", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture2666.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fixed drug eruption</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fixed drug eruption (FDE)</li><li>➤ Fixed drug eruption (FDE)</li><li>➤ FDE is a drug eruption distinguished by its recurrence at the same sites on re‐challenge with the same drug , hence their site on the skin is fixed , it has a short latency and is benign in nature.</li><li>➤ recurrence at the same sites</li><li>➤ re‐challenge with the same drug</li><li>➤ fixed</li><li>➤ short latency</li><li>➤ benign</li><li>➤ FDE typically presents 30 min to 8 h after drug exposure .</li><li>➤ 30 min to 8 h</li><li>➤ drug exposure</li><li>➤ Typically, FDE presents as a sharply‐defined, round or oval erythematous and edematous plaque which evolves to become dusky, violaceous and occasionally vesicular or bullous . Classically hyperpigmentation occurs after lesions heal. Most common cause: NSAIDs - On Lips Cotrimoxazole - On Genitals</li><li>➤ Typically, FDE presents as a sharply‐defined, round or oval erythematous and edematous plaque which evolves to become dusky, violaceous and occasionally vesicular or bullous .</li><li>➤ erythematous and edematous</li><li>➤ vesicular or bullous</li><li>➤ Classically hyperpigmentation occurs after lesions heal. Most common cause: NSAIDs - On Lips Cotrimoxazole - On Genitals</li><li>➤ hyperpigmentation</li><li>➤ heal.</li><li>➤ NSAIDs - On Lips Cotrimoxazole - On Genitals</li><li>➤ NSAIDs - On Lips</li><li>➤ NSAIDs - On Lips</li><li>➤ Cotrimoxazole - On Genitals</li><li>➤ Cotrimoxazole - On Genitals</li><li>➤ Acute onset pigmentary changes after NSAID use point toward the diagnosis of FDE . NSAID's are one of the most common drugs causing FDE.</li><li>➤ NSAID</li><li>➤ FDE</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology, 9 th edition, Chapter 118 page no 118.11, 118.12</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology, 9 th edition, Chapter 118 page no 118.11, 118.12</li><li>➤ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition pages 141-142, 1633</li><li>➤ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition pages 141-142, 1633</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The stain done on a section of liver shown below is: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Warthin starry stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steiner silver stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sweet's reticulin stain", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grimelius silver stain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sweet's reticulin stain", "question_images": ["https://iqmstore.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/Reticulin-Stain-Kit-Gordon-Sweets-1936-with-Gold-Chloride-min.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sweet’s reticulin stain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sweet’s reticulin stain is specifically used to demonstrate reticular fibers in the liver, allowing for the visualization of changes in hepatocellular architecture that are not apparent with H&amp;E staining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female came to the OPD with complaints of backache. On examination, her eyes and pinna revealed blackish discoloration. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DISH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alkaptonuria", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Alkaptonuria", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-117.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-118.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-093829.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Alkaptonuria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Intervertebral disc calcification is seen in the image suggestive of alkaptonuria.</li><li>• Deficiency: Homogentisic oxidase</li><li>• Hyperpigmentation of ears and eyes suggestive of ochronosis is a clue. It is seen due to excessive build-up of homogentisic acid.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. DISH (Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis): Features ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies, often with a \"candle wax dripping\" appearance, distinct from the findings in alkaptonuria.</li><li>• Option A. DISH (Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis):</li><li>• Option B. Fluorosis: Typically presents with increased bone density and ossification of interosseous ligaments, not specifically associated with hyperpigmentation or the disc calcifications shown.</li><li>• Option B. Fluorosis:</li><li>• Option D. Ankylosing Spondylitis: Characterized by a \"bamboo spine\" appearance due to bony fusion, seen in younger patients (less than 50 years old), which does not typically include hyperpigmentation or the type of disc calcification seen in alkaptonuria.</li><li>• Option D. Ankylosing Spondylitis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alkaptonuria - Is characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme homogentisic oxidase Fluorosis – Increased bone density with interosseous ligament ossification DISH VS Ankylosing spondylitis</li><li>➤ Alkaptonuria - Is characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme homogentisic oxidase</li><li>➤ Fluorosis – Increased bone density with interosseous ligament ossification</li><li>➤ DISH VS Ankylosing spondylitis</li><li>➤ DISH VS Ankylosing spondylitis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the image given below, identify the muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "b", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-7.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-172431_qv8tx2u.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Muscles of mastication</li><li>➤ Muscles of mastication</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 43-year-old woman presented with a painless breast lump measuring 6.2 X 4.5 cm in the left upper outer quadrant and no axillary nodes. Core cut biopsy showed ductal carcinoma in situ. She underwent tumor resection with adequate margins and postoperative H&amp;E showed DCIS with intermediate-grade necrosis and with 6-mm clearance on margins. What would be the next step in treatment? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No additional treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adjuvant radiotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adjuvant chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adjuvant radiotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adjuvant radiotherapy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a major disaster response, the medical team in an emergency department needs to prioritize patients based on the severity of their injuries and their medical needs. This prioritization process is known as triage. Each patient is assigned a specific color code representing their current state and the urgency of their medical attention. Which of the following correctly matches the color designation with its corresponding level of patient priority in the triage process? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow – least priority", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red – mortality", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Green – ambulatory", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue – ambulatory", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Green – ambulatory", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/screenshot-2023-10-18-114302.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Green – ambulatory</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "HPV Nonavalent vaccine is active against which of the following serotypes? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6, 11, 16, 18, 20, 23, 35, 42, 52", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6, 11, 16, 19, 23, 33, 45, 58", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6, 11, 16, 18, 32, 34, 45, 52, 58", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• HPV Vaccines available are :</li><li>• Cervarix (Bivalent): 16, 18 Gardasil (Quadrivalent): 6, 11, 16, 18 Nonavalent: (Gardasil 9 or HPV9): 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58. Cervavac (India’s indigenous HPV vaccine): Quadrivalent: 6, 11, 16, 18</li><li>• Cervarix (Bivalent): 16, 18</li><li>• Gardasil (Quadrivalent): 6, 11, 16, 18</li><li>• Nonavalent: (Gardasil 9 or HPV9): 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58.</li><li>• Cervavac (India’s indigenous HPV vaccine): Quadrivalent: 6, 11, 16, 18</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gardasil 9 is a nonavalent HPV vaccine effective against 9 serotypes of the virus These include: 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58.</li><li>➤ Gardasil 9 is a nonavalent HPV vaccine effective against 9 serotypes of the virus</li><li>➤ These include: 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.merckvaccines.com/gardasil9/</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.merckvaccines.com/gardasil9/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is connected to the structure marked as A in the image below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbital cortex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hippocampus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Striate cortex", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Striate cortex", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture6_Ya7jOMP.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Striate cortex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure marked A in the above image is the splenium of the corpus callosum and it is connected to the striate cortex. The striate cortex, also known as the primary visual cortex or V1, is involved in early visual processing, such as processing basic features of visual stimuli like edges, orientation, and motion. It does have connections to the splenium of the corpus callosum, especially for the transfer of visual information between the hemispheres. This connection allows the brain to process visual information from both eyes and integrate it into a cohesive visual experience. The splenium of the corpus callosum primarily connects various regions of the cerebral hemispheres, facilitating communication between the left and right cerebral hemispheres .</li><li>• The structure marked A in the above image is the splenium of the corpus callosum and it is connected to the striate cortex.</li><li>• The striate cortex, also known as the primary visual cortex or V1, is involved in early visual processing, such as processing basic features of visual stimuli like edges, orientation, and motion. It does have connections to the splenium of the corpus callosum, especially for the transfer of visual information between the hemispheres. This connection allows the brain to process visual information from both eyes and integrate it into a cohesive visual experience.</li><li>• The splenium of the corpus callosum primarily connects various regions of the cerebral hemispheres, facilitating communication between the left and right cerebral hemispheres .</li><li>• .</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Orbital Cortex: The orbital cortex is involved in various aspects of emotional processing and decision-making. It is not directly connected to the splenium of the corpus callosum.</li><li>• Option A. Orbital Cortex:</li><li>• Option B. Hippocampus: The hippocampus is a crucial structure for memory formation and spatial navigation. While it has connections to other parts of the brain, its primary connection to the corpus callosum is through the more anterior parts, not the splenium.</li><li>• Option B. Hippocampus:</li><li>• Option D. Optic Chiasma: The optic chiasma is not directly connected to the splenium of the corpus callosum. It is a structure located at the base of the brain where some of the optic nerve fibers from each eye cross over to the opposite side of the brain. This crossover allows for the integration of visual input from both eyes, but it occurs before the information reaches the corpus callosum.</li><li>• Option D. Optic Chiasma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corpus callosum is divided into four parts: The rostrum is continuous with the lamina terminalis and connects the orbital surfaces of the frontal lobes. The genu is the bend of the anterior corpus callosum and the forceps minor is a tract that projects fibres from the genu to connect the medial and lateral surfaces of the frontal lobes. The body forms the long central section and its fibres pass through the corona radiata to reach the surface of the hemispheres. The splenium tapers away at the posterior section, with the forceps major projecting fibres from the splenium to connect the two occipital lobes. The hippocampus is not connected directly to the splenium, but situated inferior to the splenium.</li><li>➤ The corpus callosum is divided into four parts: The rostrum is continuous with the lamina terminalis and connects the orbital surfaces of the frontal lobes. The genu is the bend of the anterior corpus callosum and the forceps minor is a tract that projects fibres from the genu to connect the medial and lateral surfaces of the frontal lobes. The body forms the long central section and its fibres pass through the corona radiata to reach the surface of the hemispheres. The splenium tapers away at the posterior section, with the forceps major projecting fibres from the splenium to connect the two occipital lobes.</li><li>➤ The rostrum is continuous with the lamina terminalis and connects the orbital surfaces of the frontal lobes. The genu is the bend of the anterior corpus callosum and the forceps minor is a tract that projects fibres from the genu to connect the medial and lateral surfaces of the frontal lobes. The body forms the long central section and its fibres pass through the corona radiata to reach the surface of the hemispheres. The splenium tapers away at the posterior section, with the forceps major projecting fibres from the splenium to connect the two occipital lobes.</li><li>➤ The rostrum is continuous with the lamina terminalis and connects the orbital surfaces of the frontal lobes.</li><li>➤ rostrum</li><li>➤ The genu is the bend of the anterior corpus callosum and the forceps minor is a tract that projects fibres from the genu to connect the medial and lateral surfaces of the frontal lobes.</li><li>➤ genu</li><li>➤ The body forms the long central section and its fibres pass through the corona radiata to reach the surface of the hemispheres.</li><li>➤ body</li><li>➤ The splenium tapers away at the posterior section, with the forceps major projecting fibres from the splenium to connect the two occipital lobes.</li><li>➤ splenium</li><li>➤ The hippocampus is not connected directly to the splenium, but situated inferior to the splenium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following disease pathogenesis primarily involves the marked structure: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paralysis agitans", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alzheimer’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Huntington chorea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Paralysis agitans", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm57.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Paralysis agitans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The substantia nigra's degeneration is central to the pathogenesis of Parkinson's disease, manifesting as motor symptoms like bradykinesia, stiffness, and resting tremors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A blood spill in the operation theatre must be cleaned with? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlorine compound", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phenolic compound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quaternary ammonium compounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcoholic compounds", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chlorine compound", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chlorine compound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For cleaning a blood spill in the operation theatre, sodium hypochlorite, a chlorine compound, is the best disinfectant due to its effectiveness in inactivating a wide range of pathogens and its suitability for such critical environments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dried blood spot (DBS) testing is commonly done in infants for: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inborn errors of metabolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood grouping", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bilirubin testing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coombs Test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inborn errors of metabolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inborn errors of metabolism.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dried Blood Spot (DBS) testing is primarily used for the early detection of inborn errors of metabolism in infants, using tandem mass spectrometry (TMS).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An athlete suffers a fracture as shown in the knee X-ray below. How is this fracture managed? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tension band wiring", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Compression plating", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal fixation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "K-wire fixation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tension band wiring", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-110859.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-110958.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tension band wiring</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tension band wiring is the gold standard treatment for the two-part patella fracture.</li><li>➤ Tension band wiring is the gold standard treatment for the two-part patella fracture.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Noninvasive test to detect hepatic fibrosis include? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspartate aminotransferases /platelet ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fibro test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Forns index", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum laminin &amp; serum hyaluronidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fibro test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Fibro test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibro test is a sensitive test to detect hepatic fibrosis. It is a multiparameter blood test which incorporate haptoglobin, bilirubin, GGT, apolipoprotein A1, and alpha-2 macroglobulin.</li><li>➤ multiparameter blood test</li><li>➤ Test for estimating risk developing hepatic fibrosis:</li><li>➤ Test for estimating risk developing hepatic fibrosis:</li><li>➤ AST/platelet ratio Forns index Fib-4 Cirrhosis determinant score.</li><li>➤ AST/platelet ratio</li><li>➤ Forns index</li><li>➤ Fib-4</li><li>➤ Cirrhosis determinant score.</li><li>➤ Test for detecting hepatic fibrosis: Fibro test .</li><li>➤ Fibro test</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common sequelae of traumatic shoulder dislocation in young adults?(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frozen shoulder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Recurrent shoulder dislocation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal shoulder healing and movements", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subscapular tendinitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Recurrent shoulder dislocation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Recurrent shoulder dislocation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Frozen shoulder . Following dislocation, the shoulder shows some degree of limited motion owing to pain or apprehension for some time, which usually spontaneously recovers. However, some patients experience continuous stiffness after dislocation. This may lead to frozen shoulder if not mobilized early.</li><li>• Option A. Frozen shoulder</li><li>• Option C. Normal shoulder healing and movements . The healing after the shoulder dislocation takes around 12-16 weeks. The movements are started slowly under the rehabilitation process.</li><li>• Option C. Normal shoulder healing and movements</li><li>• Option D. Subscapular tendinitis . It is a rare complication of shoulder dislocation.</li><li>• Option D. Subscapular tendinitis</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The most common sequealae of the shoulder dislocation is the recurrence of the shoulder dislocation due to instability of the shoulder joint tissues.</li><li>• The most common sequealae of the shoulder dislocation is the recurrence of the shoulder dislocation due to instability of the shoulder joint tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pregnant women with which of the following is called systemic hypertension? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypertension diagnosed at 10 weeks of gestation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diabetic retinopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetic nephropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Episode of seizure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypertension diagnosed at 10 weeks of gestation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypertension diagnosed at 10 weeks of gestation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Systemic hypertension in pregnancy is classified as chronic hypertension if it is diagnosed in the first trimester or if hypertension persists beyond 12 weeks postpartum. Hypertension present before pregnancy or diagnosed before the 20th week of gestation also qualifies as chronic hypertension. This is distinct from gestational hypertension, which develops after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman.</li><li>• Chronic Hypertension: Defined as blood pressure of ≥ 140/90 mm Hg that was present before pregnancy or diagnosed before the 20th week of gestation.</li><li>• Chronic Hypertension: Defined as blood pressure of ≥ 140/90 mm Hg that was present before pregnancy or diagnosed before the 20th week of gestation.</li><li>• Chronic Hypertension:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Diabetic retinopathy: This condition is a complication of diabetes affecting the eyes, not a direct indicator of systemic hypertension.</li><li>• Option B. Diabetic retinopathy:</li><li>• Option C. Diabetic nephropathy: This is a complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys and can be associated with hypertension, but it is not specific to the definition of systemic hypertension in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option C. Diabetic nephropathy:</li><li>• Option D. Episode of seizure: Seizures in the context of pregnancy are associated with eclampsia, a severe form of preeclampsia, but do not directly define systemic hypertension.</li><li>• Option D. Episode of seizure:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Systemic hypertension in pregnancy is diagnosed if high blood pressure is present before pregnancy, is diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation, or persists beyond 12 weeks postpartum.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1778, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1778, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female came for routine PAP smear testing. The report came as carcinoma in situ. What is the next step? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conization", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colposcopy and biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HPV DNA testing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Conization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture2_ByHlD4H.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Conization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Carcinoma in situ (CIS) of the cervix is classified as Stage 0 cancer. In a young woman with stage 0 cervical cancer, the management of choice is conization. Conization involves the removal of a cone-shaped section of the cervix, including the transformation zone and part of the endocervix. This procedure serves both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes:</li><li>• Diagnostic: Conization provides a tissue specimen for histopathological examination, which is more definitive compared to a cytological specimen obtained from a Pap smear. Therapeutic: If the histopathology shows clear margins, conization can be curative for carcinoma in situ.</li><li>• Diagnostic: Conization provides a tissue specimen for histopathological examination, which is more definitive compared to a cytological specimen obtained from a Pap smear.</li><li>• Diagnostic:</li><li>• Therapeutic: If the histopathology shows clear margins, conization can be curative for carcinoma in situ.</li><li>• Therapeutic:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hysterectomy: This is a more radical treatment and is generally reserved for cases where there is invasive cancer or other indications. It is not the first-line treatment for CIS in a young woman.</li><li>• Option B. Hysterectomy:</li><li>• Option C. Colposcopy and biopsy: While colposcopy and biopsy are diagnostic procedures used to evaluate abnormal Pap smears, in the case of confirmed carcinoma in situ, conization is preferred as it provides both a diagnosis and potential cure.</li><li>• Option C. Colposcopy and biopsy:</li><li>• Option D. HPV DNA testing: This test is used for screening and risk assessment but is not a treatment for confirmed carcinoma in situ.</li><li>• Option D. HPV DNA testing:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conization, which involves the removal of a cone-shaped section of the cervix including the transformation zone and part of the endocervix, is the management of choice for carcinoma in situ in young women. It is both diagnostic and therapeutic if histopathology shows clear margins.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 992, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 992, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which test will be positive in starvation state in urine? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Benedict test and heat coagulation test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heat coagulation test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rothera's test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heat coagulation test and Rothera's test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rothera's test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Rothera’s test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gerhardt's test - Ketone bodies in urine. Benedict' test - Reducing sugars. Heat coagulation test - Proteins. Rothera’s test – detect Ketone bodies in urine.</li><li>➤ Gerhardt's test - Ketone bodies in urine.</li><li>➤ Benedict' test - Reducing sugars.</li><li>➤ Heat coagulation test - Proteins.</li><li>➤ Rothera’s test – detect Ketone bodies in urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The structure marked with the asterisk in the electron micrograph indicates? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Golgi bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secretory vesicles", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ribosomes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Secretory vesicles", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture2_Uz5q5Z3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-88.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-6.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-89.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Secretory vesicles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The structure marked with the asterisk in the electron micrograph indicates presynaptic secretory vesicles. The structure marked with the arrowhead is postsynaptic density. The secretory vesicles are synthesized by the neurons and are involved in electrochemical signalling in the brain and neuromuscular junctions. In the synaptic region, the plasma membrane of the presynaptic cell is specialized for vesicle exocytosis; synaptic vesicles, which contain a neurotransmitter, are clustered in these regions. The opposing membrane of the postsynaptic cell (in this case, a neuron) contains receptors for the neurotransmitter.</li><li>• The structure marked with the asterisk in the electron micrograph indicates presynaptic secretory vesicles.</li><li>• The structure marked with the arrowhead is postsynaptic density.</li><li>• The secretory vesicles are synthesized by the neurons and are involved in electrochemical signalling in the brain and neuromuscular junctions.</li><li>• In the synaptic region, the plasma membrane of the presynaptic cell is specialized for vesicle exocytosis; synaptic vesicles, which contain a neurotransmitter, are clustered in these regions. The opposing membrane of the postsynaptic cell (in this case, a neuron) contains receptors for the neurotransmitter.</li><li>• On electron microscopy</li><li>• On electron microscopy</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Mitochondria appear as round or elliptical bodies of 0.5-2.0 micron long on an electron microscope, consisting of an outer and an inner mitochondrial membrane, cristae, and mitochondrial matrix.</li><li>• Option A . Mitochondria</li><li>• Option B. Golgi bodies ( or Golgi apparatus) appear as stacks of flattened membranous cisternae surrounded by clusters of vesicles.</li><li>• Option B. Golgi bodies (</li><li>• Option D. Ribosomes may be attached to the membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (as shown in the image below), or else, they may exist as monosomes or as a chain of granular structures called polyribosomes associated with mRNA</li><li>• Option D. Ribosomes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The structure marked with the asterisk in the electron micrograph represents presynaptic secretory vesicles, essential for neurotransmitter storage and release during synaptic transmission, highlighting their role in neuronal communication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ureteric injury is most likely associated with which of the following? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wertheim's hysterectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abdominal hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaginal hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior colporrhaphy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wertheim's hysterectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wertheim's hysterectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ureteric injury is most associated with Wertheim's hysterectomy due to the extensive dissection involved in the procedure.</li><li>➤ Ref: TeLinde’s Operative gynecology 12 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: TeLinde’s Operative gynecology 12 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Radhika, the district health officer, is evaluating the efficiency of a subcenter in a rural region of India. This subcenter services a population of 1,000 people, and it has been reported that the crude birth rate (CBR) in this region stands at 20 per 1,000 people. Dr. Radhika wants to ensure that every pregnant woman receives antenatal care (ANC) to promote healthy pregnancies and reduce complications. With the current CBR, how many ANC registrations should the village health nurse (VHN) expect to handle annually? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "80", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "100", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "110", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 60", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 60</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In assessing ANC needs based on CBR in a rural health setting, it's crucial to accurately apply demographic statistics to the actual population size. Expectations should align with direct calculations unless specific adjustments are warranted by local conditions or policies.</li><li>➤ In assessing ANC needs based on CBR in a rural health setting, it's crucial to accurately apply demographic statistics to the actual population size.</li><li>➤ Expectations should align with direct calculations unless specific adjustments are warranted by local conditions or policies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the ophthalmology OPD with corneal abrasion, corneal ulcer, corneal perforation and foreign body. Which of the following will not cause hypotonic maculopathy in this patient? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suprachoroidal hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclodialysis of uvea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corneal perforation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Filtration site leak", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Suprachoroidal hemorrhage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Suprachoroidal hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Suprachoroidal hemorrhage does not lead to hypotonic maculopathy because it typically causes an increase in intraocular pressure, not a decrease. Understanding the distinction between conditions that increase versus those that decrease IOP is critical in the management of eye conditions and their potential complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fixative for PAP smear: (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10% buffered formalin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "95% ethyl alcohol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Air dried", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 95% ethyl alcohol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 95% ethyl alcohol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most commonly used fixative for a Pap smear is 95% ethyl alcohol, which preserves cellular morphology necessary for accurate cytological evaluation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 271, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 271, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient believes he is the most important person in the world, his neighbors and family members are attempting to hurt him out of jealousy. His wife claims contrary, claiming that he has only recently begun acting in this manner, and that he previously worked calmly as a school teacher. He's probably suffering from? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delusion of grandiosity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Delusion of persecution", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delusion of grandiosity and persecution", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Delusion of grandiosity and persecution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Delusion of grandiosity and persecution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delusional disorders are characterized by the presence of one or more delusions that persist for at least one month.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page 245-246.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which movement of the hip is being demonstrated by the examiner in the following diagram?(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Internal rotation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "External rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abduction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Internal rotation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-604.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-112419.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-112429.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-112438.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-112448.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Internal rotation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows internal rotation of hip.</li><li>➤ The given image shows internal rotation of hip.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The partogram is plotted in regular intervals after _ cm dilatation: (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 4 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ As per the WHO modified partograph, plotting is started at 4cm cervical dilatation, and the 1 st marking is always on the alert line As per the Labor Care Guide, plotting is started at 5 cm cervical dilatation</li><li>➤ As per the WHO modified partograph, plotting is started at 4cm cervical dilatation, and the 1 st marking is always on the alert line</li><li>➤ As per the Labor Care Guide, plotting is started at 5 cm cervical dilatation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Klenow fragment lacks the activity of? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3' → 5' Exonuclease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5' → 3' Exonuclease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5' → 3' DNA polymerase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3' → 5' DNA polymerase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5' → 3' Exonuclease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 5’</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I retains the 5' → 3' DNA polymerase and 3' → 5' exonuclease (proofreading) activities but lacks the 5' → 3' exonuclease activity, making it useful for specific applications in recombinant DNA technology.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 21-year-old male presented in clinic with low back pain &amp; stiffness since 2 months. Modified Schober's test done was positive. An X-ray was done as shown in the image. Most likely diagnosis is:(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PIVD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteoarthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ankylosing spondylitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-602.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-111356.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-111407.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-111417.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-111429.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-111438.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-111448.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ankylosing spondylitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows the bamboo spine appearance which is characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis. Out of the diagnostic criterias for ankylosing spondylitis, one of the criteria is the positive modified Schober’s test i.e., limited lumbar spine movement in saggital and frontal planes.</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows the bamboo spine appearance which is characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis.</li><li>➤ Out of the diagnostic criterias for ankylosing spondylitis, one of the criteria is the positive modified Schober’s test i.e., limited lumbar spine movement in saggital and frontal planes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with bilateral proptosis. Which investigation will help you in arriving at a diagnosis of chloroma? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peripheral smear", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Platelets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hb concentration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leucocytic count", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Peripheral smear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/45.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Peripheral smear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The peripheral blood smear is the key investigation to diagnose chloroma, revealing the presence of myeloblasts, which are indicative of acute myeloid leukemia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortan pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, page no - 1154</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortan pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, page no - 1154</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 43-year-old patient presented with spikes of fever and difficulty in breathing. Transesophageal echo revealed vegetations in the heart. The culture was positive for Burkholderia cepacia. Which of the following is the first line of management? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aminoglycoside and colistin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cotrimoxazole with 3rd generation cephalosporin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbapenems and 3rd generation cephalosporin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cefepime and tigecycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cotrimoxazole with 3rd generation cephalosporin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cotrimoxazole with 3rd generation cephalosporins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The standard regimen for Burkholderia cepacia is cotrimoxazole with ceftazidime /cefoperazone-sulbactam.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cause of death in the position shown in the image below is: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wedging", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Burking", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positional asphyxia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Traumatic asphyxia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Positional asphyxia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-104356.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Positional asphyxia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classification of Mechanical Asphyxia</li><li>➤ Classification of Mechanical Asphyxia</li><li>➤ 1. Suffocation Asphyxia</li><li>➤ 1. Suffocation Asphyxia</li><li>➤ Smothering Gagging Traumatic Asphyxia (Crush Asphyxia) Positional Asphyxia (Postural Asphyxia) Burking Overlaying Choking (Café Coronary)</li><li>➤ Smothering</li><li>➤ Gagging</li><li>➤ Traumatic Asphyxia (Crush Asphyxia)</li><li>➤ Positional Asphyxia (Postural Asphyxia)</li><li>➤ Burking</li><li>➤ Overlaying</li><li>➤ Choking (Café Coronary)</li><li>➤ 2. Compression of neck</li><li>➤ 2. Compression of neck</li><li>➤ Hanging – force is body weight / body is suspended Strangulation – force is anything other than body weight / no suspension.</li><li>➤ Hanging – force is body weight / body is suspended</li><li>➤ Strangulation – force is anything other than body weight / no suspension.</li><li>➤ 3. Drowning</li><li>➤ 3. Drowning</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements correctly defines Galeazzi fracture-dislocation?(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radial fracture with disruption of triangular fibrocartilage complex and lower radio-ulnar joint", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulnar fracture with disruption of triangular fibrocartilage complex and lower radio-ulnar joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulnar shaft fracture and disruption of superior radio-ulnar joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radial collateral ligament tear with interosseous membrane tear and radial shaft fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Radial fracture with disruption of triangular fibrocartilage complex and lower radio-ulnar joint", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/09/screenshot-2024-10-09-120346.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Radial fracture with disruption of triangular fibrocartilage complex and lower radio-ulnar joint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Galeazzi fracture is the fracture of the distal 1/3rd shaft of the radius with disruption of triangular fibrocartilage complex and distal radioulnar joint.</li><li>➤ Galeazzi fracture is the fracture of the distal 1/3rd shaft of the radius with disruption of triangular fibrocartilage complex and distal radioulnar joint.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sunita, a medical officer in a rural health clinic, is tasked with ensuring the potency and safety of vaccines. She comes across several vaccine vials, each with a Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) attached. The VVMs change color to indicate the cumulative exposure of the vaccine to heat, thus helping in determining the viability of the vaccine. She notices varying degrees of color changes across these VVMs. Given this scenario, which of the following choices correctly identifies which vaccine vials, based on the observed VVM color changes, should be considered safe for use? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only vial 1 can be used", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vials 1 and 2 can be used", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vials 1, 2, and 3 can be used", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All vials can be used", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vials 1 and 2 can be used", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-113411.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/picture1_YnCLGDy.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vials 1 and 2 can be used</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding Mitochondrial DNA is? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "One set from each parent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It has a higher mutation rate than nuclear DNA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It codes for more than 25% of oxidative phosphorylation proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It has 3 X 10 9 base pairs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It has a higher mutation rate than nuclear DNA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It has a higher mutation rate than nuclear DNA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial DNA has a higher mutation rate than nuclear DNA, is maternally inherited, and contains 37 genes encoding essential components of the electron transport chain.</li><li>➤ Ref - Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students 7 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref - Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students 7 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had a femur fracture for which internal fixation was done. Two days later, the patient developed sudden onset shortness of breath with low grade fever. What is the likely cause? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fat embolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congestive cardiac failure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fat embolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-103933.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fat embolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fat embolism is the most common complication of femur fracture. It usually presents 48 hours after the injury with breathlessness and low grade fever. The patient remains asymptomatic in the initial 12-48 hours.</li><li>➤ Fat embolism is the most common complication of femur fracture.</li><li>➤ It usually presents 48 hours after the injury with breathlessness and low grade fever.</li><li>➤ The patient remains asymptomatic in the initial 12-48 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fr with respect to size of Foley's catheter refers to: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Outer Diameter", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inner Diameter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inner Circumference", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radius", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Outer Diameter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/09/screenshot-2024-09-09-164749.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Outer Diameter</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Endoscopic and barium swallow images of a lesion in the esophagus of a patient are as shown below. What is the expected histopathological finding? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Image 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Image 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Image 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Image 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Image 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/36.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/37.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/38.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-110450.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Image 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus typically occurs in the middle third of the esophagus and is characterized histologically by nests of stratified malignant cells and keratin pearls, as seen in Image 3.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease 8th edition Pg 1472, 1473</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease 8th edition Pg 1472, 1473</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What would be a useful diagnostic tool to consider for a patient who presented with symptoms of hair loss, itching of the scalp, and a mild discharge? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tzanck smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gram stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Slit skin smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "KOH mount", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. KOH mount", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1347.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-121155.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-13489.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-121613.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-121841.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) KOH mount</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.39</li><li>➤ Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.39</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain, fatigue, and weight loss and looked jaundiced. Upon further investigation, you suspect a parasitic infection. You obtain a stool sample and operculated eggs in the feces. Further examination reveals the presence of a parasite with a complex life cycle with snail and plants as the intermediate host. Which parasite is most likely responsible for the above symptoms? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fasciola hepatica", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fasciolopsis buski", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pargaonimus westermani", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clonorchis sinensus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fasciola hepatica", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-175.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fasciola hepatica</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Fasciola hepatica, the sheep liver fluke, is diagnosed by identifying eggs in the feces, and it has a complex life cycle involving snails and aquatic vegetation, making it the most likely cause of the described symptoms.</li><li>➤ Fasciola hepatica, the sheep liver fluke, is diagnosed by identifying eggs in the feces, and it has a complex life cycle involving snails and aquatic vegetation, making it the most likely cause of the described symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given life cycle is suggestive of which of the following viruses? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Influenza", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes simplex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hepatitis B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hepatitis B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatitis B virus is characterized by the formation of cccDNA in the nucleus, reverse transcription of RNA to DNA within the core particles, and budding from the pre-Golgi membranes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are done to transport a polytrauma patient who is conscious except? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strap his thorax, abdomen and lower limbs on a stretcher", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apply a cervical collar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Put patient on lateral position and shift him immediately", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Roll the patient and put on a hard board", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Put patient on lateral position and shift him immediately", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Put patient on lateral position and shift him immediately</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with polytrauma are shifted in supine or prone position (not in lateral position) by laying them over a firm surface, in order to restrict the spinal movement.</li><li>➤ As per ATLS guidelines, in patients with trauma, airway management is first done along with cervical spine stabilization. All trauma patients unless proven otherwise are considered to have an injured vertebral column.</li><li>➤ The patient is placed supine on a firm surface without rotating or bending the spinal column and a rigid cervical collar (Philadelphia collar) is applied.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true regarding imaging in the primary survey of a trauma patient except? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemodynamically unstable patient should not be sent for CT scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "All patients should have chest X-ray PA view only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "X-ray of the pelvis is done in primary survey", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "X-rays in primary survey may also be done in pregnant women", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. All patients should have chest X-ray PA view only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) All patients should have chest X-ray PA view only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The steps in the ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support) include:</li><li>➤ The steps in the ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support) include:</li><li>➤ Primary survey and simultaneous resuscitation - in order to identify and treat what is killing the patient Secondary survey - proceeding to identify all other injuries Definitive care - developing a definitive management plan</li><li>➤ Primary survey and simultaneous resuscitation - in order to identify and treat what is killing the patient</li><li>➤ Secondary survey - proceeding to identify all other injuries</li><li>➤ Definitive care - developing a definitive management plan</li><li>➤ ABCDE of trauma care:</li><li>➤ ABCDE of trauma care:</li><li>➤ Airway assessment and protection (maintain cervical spine stabilization when appropriate) Breathing and ventilation assessment (maintain adequate oxygenation) Circulation assessment (control hemorrhage and maintain adequate end-organ perfusion) Disability assessment (perform basic neurologic evaluation) Exposure, with environmental control (undress patient and search everywhere for possible injury, while preventing hypothermia)</li><li>➤ Airway assessment and protection (maintain cervical spine stabilization when appropriate)</li><li>➤ Breathing and ventilation assessment (maintain adequate oxygenation)</li><li>➤ Circulation assessment (control hemorrhage and maintain adequate end-organ perfusion)</li><li>➤ Disability assessment (perform basic neurologic evaluation)</li><li>➤ Exposure, with environmental control (undress patient and search everywhere for possible injury, while preventing hypothermia)</li><li>➤ Adjuncts to the primary survey are-</li><li>➤ Adjuncts to the primary survey are-</li><li>➤ Blood - CBC, urea and electrolytes, clotting screen, glucose, toxicology, cross-match ECG, pulse oximetry, ventilatory rate, capnography, ABG analysis Two wide-bore cannulae for intravenous fluids Urinary and gastric catheterization Radiographs of the chest and pelvis are done as a part of the primary survey preferably with a portable x-ray unit. When required, all these x rays must also be done in pregnant women.</li><li>➤ Blood - CBC, urea and electrolytes, clotting screen, glucose, toxicology, cross-match</li><li>➤ ECG, pulse oximetry, ventilatory rate, capnography, ABG analysis</li><li>➤ Two wide-bore cannulae for intravenous fluids</li><li>➤ Urinary and gastric catheterization</li><li>➤ Radiographs of the chest and pelvis are done as a part of the primary survey preferably with a portable x-ray unit. When required, all these x rays must also be done in pregnant women.</li><li>➤ Other more specialized forms of imaging, such as ultrasound, computerized tomography, angiography, and diagnostic peritoneal lavage, should be considered after the secondary survey and only in a patient stable after initial resuscitation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby in the NICU is being evaluated for his features of microcephaly and hepatomegaly. CT scan revealed nodular periventricular calcifications. Congenital CMV infection is suspected. Which of the following samples is the best to detect the organism using PCR? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CSF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Urine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture2_v6gG1Oj.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Urine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urine is the most appropriate sample for the detection of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection using PCR, particularly in the neonatal period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is Thermogenic food? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High fat diet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It does not depend on the macronutrients", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High protein diet", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "High carbohydrate diet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. High protein diet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) High protein diet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A high protein diet has the highest thermogenic effect compared to fats and carbohydrates, leading to increased energy expenditure during digestion and metabolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A confirmed case of which of the following viral hemorrhagic fevers was found in India? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ebola", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crimean congo hemorrhagic fever", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marbur", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Crimean congo hemorrhagic fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Crimean congo hemorrhagic fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Crimean Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is the viral hemorrhagic fever that has been confirmed in India. It is caused by the Nairovirus species and is transmitted by ticks, with potential for person-to-person transmission, especially in healthcare settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a Preoperative surgical safety Checklist, which of the following is not a component? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Signature of the Doctor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Consent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Functioning pulse oximeter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sterility of instruments", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Signature of the Doctor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/09/screenshot-2024-09-09-171218.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Signature of the doctor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are Kraissl’s lines? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Point of maximum tension in a fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Relaxed tension lines in skin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Collagen and elastin lines in stab injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Point of tension in hanging", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Relaxed tension lines in skin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture11_HpNWWUh.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Relaxed tension lines in skin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kraissl’s lines are crucial for surgical incision planning to ensure scars are minimally visible following healing, highlighting the importance of understanding skin tension dynamics in medical procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is not involved in iron metabolism? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ceruloplasmin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepcidin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transthyretin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transferrin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Transthyretin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-180255.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Transthyretin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most bactericidal anti leprotic drug amongst the given drugs? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amoxicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ofloxacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ofloxacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ofloxacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ofloxacin is the most bactericidal anti-leprotic drug among the given options, especially used in cases where there is resistance to the standard first-line treatment with Rifampicin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "1,3 beta D- glucan is helpful for identification of? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Invasive candidiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhizopus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Invasive candidiasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Invasive candidiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1,3 beta D-glucan is helpful for the identification of invasive candidiasis by detecting the presence of (1,3)-β-D-glucan in the blood, a cell wall component of many pathogenic fungi, but it is not effective for detecting infections caused by fungi such as Cryptococcus, Rhizopus, and Mucormycosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Haglund’s deformity is seen in which joint?(AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elbow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Knee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wrist", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ankle", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ankle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-112245.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ankle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Haglund deformity is seen at the ankle joint.</li><li>➤ Haglund deformity is seen at the ankle joint.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the anaplerotic reaction among the following? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl CoA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conversion of pyruvate to Oxaloacetate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conversion of pyruvate to Acetaldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conversion of pyruvate to Lactic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Conversion of pyruvate to Oxaloacetate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Conversion of pyruvate to Oxaloacetate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anaplerotic reactions, such as the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate, are crucial for maintaining the levels of TCA cycle intermediates, enabling the cycle to function efficiently and support biosynthetic demands.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An investigative study was conducted in Mumbai wherein a promising new antihypertensive medication was evaluated for its potential efficacy. Initial clinical trials with a diverse cohort of patients with chronic hypertension revealed promising results in managing elevated blood pressure levels. The efficacy of the drug was measured meticulously, and upon analyzing the data, a p-value of &lt; 0.10 was documented. Given this statistical information and considering the nuances of research interpretation, which of the following statements best elucidates the implications of this p-value in terms of the drug's effect? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Not more than 10% of the people benefitted by the drug could be due to chance", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "90% of patients will be benefitted by giving the drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The test is 90% reproducible", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "90% of test results could have occurred by chance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Not more than 10% of the people benefitted by the drug could be due to chance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Not more than 10% of the people benefitted by the drug could be due to chance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The p-value is a statistical parameter used to evaluate whether the results of an experiment are statistically significant. In this case, a p-value of &lt; 0.10 suggests there is up to a 10% chance that the observed benefits from the antihypertensive drug could be due to random variation rather than a true effect of the drug.</li><li>➤ The p-value is a statistical parameter used to evaluate whether the results of an experiment are statistically significant.</li><li>➤ In this case, a p-value of &lt; 0.10 suggests there is up to a 10% chance that the observed benefits from the antihypertensive drug could be due to random variation rather than a true effect of the drug.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 18-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea, no breast development and Prader 3 genitalia was found to have raised FSH. Her karyotype revealed 45 X0/46 XY and an ultrasound revealed Mullerian structures with poorly visualized gonads. What would be the next line of management? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vaginoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bilateral gonadectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HRT to induce puberty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clitoroplasty", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bilateral gonadectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-111404.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bilateral gonadectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Whenever there is 46XY with primary amenorrhoea, always gonadectomy needs to be done in view of high risk of malignancy in dysgenetic gonads</li><li>➤ Whenever there is 46XY with primary amenorrhoea, always gonadectomy needs to be done in view of high risk of malignancy in dysgenetic gonads</li><li>➤ Ref: Speroff’s Textbook of Reproductive Medicine</li><li>➤ Ref: Speroff’s Textbook of Reproductive Medicine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given below is the demonstration of tetanisation in the gastrocnemius muscle of a frog. Identify the tetanising frequency? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20-25 Hz", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "30-35 Hz", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "15-20 Hz", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10-15 Hz", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 20-25 Hz", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-165727_Gis8eaW.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-165901.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 20-25 Hz</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Tetanisation</li><li>➤ Tetanisation</li><li>➤ As the frequency increases, there comes a point where each new contraction occurs before the preceding one is over. As a result, the second contraction is added partially to the first, so that the total strength of contraction rises progressively with increasing frequency. When the frequency reaches a critical level, the successive contractions eventually become so rapid that they fuse together, and the whole muscle contraction appears to be completely smooth and continuous. This is called tetanization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While performing triage of children who are victims of a school bus accident, which one will you attend to first? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Airway Obstruction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grade 4 Shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flail Chest", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe head injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Airway Obstruction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Airway Obstruction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triage decisions are to be made by deciding which injuries constitute the greatest immediate threat to life.</li><li>➤ In general, airway problems are more rapidly lethal than breathing problems › circulation problems &gt; neurologic injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which parameter is best used to monitor the adequacy of and guide fluid resuscitation in a patient? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CVP (central venous pressure)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urine Output", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxygen saturation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Urine Output", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Urine Output</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urine output is a valuable and non-invasive parameter for assessing fluid resuscitation. Adequate urine output indicates that the patient's kidneys are functioning well and that they are likely receiving an appropriate amount of fluids. It is a practical and real-time measure of the patient's response to fluid therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In fetal alcohol syndrome, which of the following is not seen? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thinning of corpus callosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microcephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Holoprosencephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Macrocephaly", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Macrocephaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Macrocephaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with microcephaly, not macrocephaly.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 397, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 397, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old lady nearing her due date has been admitted following regular contractions. The resident doctor did an examination and told the intern that the head is at +1 station. Where is the exact position of head? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "At the perineum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Just below ischial spine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Just above ischial spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High up in the false pelvis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Just below ischial spine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Just below ischial spine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When the station of the head is described during a vaginal exam, it is with respect to the ischial spine:</li><li>➤ The ischial spine is taken as 0 station. Anything above the ischial spine is denoted as a negative station (-). Anything below the ischial spine is denoted as a positive station (+).</li><li>➤ The ischial spine is taken as 0 station.</li><li>➤ Anything above the ischial spine is denoted as a negative station (-).</li><li>➤ Anything below the ischial spine is denoted as a positive station (+).</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 153, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 153, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rh negative mother, ICT negative was given Anti D during 28 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following is the ideal one? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No need additional dose since she is ICT negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give another dose of Anti-D 72 hour postpartum irrespective of baby blood group", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give another dose of Anti-D 72 hour postpartum depending on the baby blood group", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Give another dose of Anti-D 72 hour postpartum depending on the baby blood group", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Give another dose of Anti-D 72 hour postpartum depending on the baby blood group</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prophylaxis in Rh-negative women with an Rh-positive partner involves giving Anti-D (300 mcg IM) at 28 weeks (if ICT is negative) and repeating the dose within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the oxygen carrying capacity of 18-year-old boy with Hb of 14g/dl? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "22", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "16", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "14", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "18", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 18", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 18</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The oxygen carrying capacity of blood is approximately 1.34 mL of oxygen per gram of hemoglobin, a crucial metric in assessing the oxygenation potential of blood in clinical settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient with respiratory volume of 500ml. The intrapleural pressure measured -4 before inspiration and -8 at the end of inspiration. The pulmonary compliance of the patient is ? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "125 ml/cm H20", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "150 ml/cm H20", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50 ml/cm H20", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "62.5 ml/cm H20", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 125 ml/cm H20", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Pulmonary compliance measures the change in lung volume per unit change in transpulmonary pressure. It is a crucial indicator of the lung's ability to expand and is affected in various pulmonary diseases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The function of the Golgi tendon organ is to? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sense changes in muscle direction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sense changes in muscle tension", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sense changes in position of the muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sense changes in length of the muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sense changes in muscle tension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-174058.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sense changes in muscle tension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Golgi tendon organ primarily functions to monitor and respond to changes in muscle tension, helping to prevent muscle damage from excessive force during activities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Difference in trajectory between inspiratory loop and the expiratory loop in the curve is due to: ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Difference in alveolar pressure during inspiration and expiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Difference in conc. of surfactant during inspiration and expiration", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Difference in airway resistance during inspiration and expiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inspiration is active and expiration is passive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Difference in conc. of surfactant during inspiration and expiration", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-174628.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Difference in conc. of surfactant during inspiration and expiration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The difference in trajectory between inspiratory and expiratory loops on a lung compliance chart is mainly due to variations in airway resistance, which is typically lower during inspiration and higher during expiration. This affects how easily air can be inhaled versus exhaled, impacting the shapes of the loops on the graph.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Reflex responsible for tachycardia during right atrial distension?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bezold-Jarisch reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bainbridge reflex", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cushing reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "J reflex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bainbridge reflex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-175130.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bainbridge reflex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bainbridge reflex is a cardiovascular reflex that increases heart rate in response to increased venous return, enhancing cardiac output to match the increased blood flow into the heart.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the hormone from the picture?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Growth hormone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cortisol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Growth hormone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-175415.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Growth Hormone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Growth hormone levels exhibit significant variability, influenced by factors such as time of day, meals, exercise, and sleep, with the highest levels occurring during deep sleep. This pattern underlines the hormone's critical roles in growth, metabolism, and recovery processes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Feed forward control system is employed during the regulation of ? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "pH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Temperature", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blood pressure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Temperature", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Temperature</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The feed forward control system is a preemptive regulatory mechanism employed notably in temperature regulation, allowing the body to anticipate environmental changes and adjust physiological responses in advance to maintain homeostasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cellular junctions present in a cardiac muscle are all except? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zonula occludens", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fascia adherens", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gap junctions", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Macula adherens", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zonula occludens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-175907.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Zonula occludens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Zonula occludens are absent in cardiac muscle; instead, this muscle type prominently features fascia adherens, gap junctions, and macula adherens, which are essential for mechanical stability and coordinated contraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Efferent arteriolar constriction causes all except? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease in GFR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreases renal blood flow", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreases oncotic pressure in glomerular capillaries", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increases hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decreases oncotic pressure in glomerular capillaries", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-180328.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decreases oncotic pressure in glomerular capillaries</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Efferent arteriolar constriction increases oncotic pressure in glomerular capillaries.</li><li>• increases</li><li>• Constriction of the efferent arterioles:</li><li>• Constriction of the efferent arterioles:</li><li>• Increases the resistance to outflow from the glomerular capillaries raising the glomerular hydrostatic pressure Reduces renal blood flow Increase in filtration fraction and glomerular colloid osmotic pressure (oncotic pressure)</li><li>• Increases the resistance to outflow from the glomerular capillaries raising the glomerular hydrostatic pressure</li><li>• Reduces renal blood flow</li><li>• Increase in filtration fraction and glomerular colloid osmotic pressure (oncotic pressure)</li><li>• Therefore, if the constriction of efferent arterioles is severe (more than about a threefold increase in efferent arteriolar resistance), the rise in colloid osmotic pressure (oncotic pressure) exceeds the increase in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure caused by efferent arteriolar constriction. When this occurs, the net force for filtration actually decreases, causing a reduction in GFR.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Decrease in GFR: Incorrect in this context as initial efferent arteriolar constriction might actually increase GFR by raising hydrostatic pressure, though severe constriction can eventually decrease it.</li><li>• Option A. Decrease in GFR:</li><li>• Option B. Decreases renal blood flow: Incorrect as this is a direct effect of efferent arteriolar constriction.</li><li>• Option B. Decreases renal blood flow:</li><li>• Option D. Increases hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries: Incorrect as this is indeed a result of efferent arteriolar constriction.</li><li>• Option D. Increases hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Efferent arteriolar constriction leads to an increase in both hydrostatic and oncotic pressures within the glomerular capillaries, which can modify renal blood flow and the dynamics of glomerular filtration. It does not decrease the oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The drug of choice in Anaphylactic Shock is? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adrenaline 0.5 mg 1/1000 IM", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adrenaline 1 mg 1/10000 IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atropine 3 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenosine 6 mg followed by 12 mg IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adrenaline 0.5 mg 1/1000 IM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-145658.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Adrenaline 0.5 mg 1/1000 IM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How much drug will be left after 6 hours if a patient is given a dose of 200 mg and 75 mg is excreted in 90 minutes. (Assume that the drug follows first-order kinetics)? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "30.5 mg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "12.5 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6.25 mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 30.5 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 30.5 mg</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about P-glycoprotein? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PGP stands for permeability glycoprotein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Also known as CD243", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Also known as ABCB1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Also known as MDR2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Also known as MDR2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Also known as MDR2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ P-glycoprotein is known as permeability glycoprotein (PGP), CD243, and ABCB1, but it is not referred to as MDR2. MDR2 is a separate protein involved in drug transport.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For which of the following drugs, absorption is increased after a fatty meal? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Griseofulvin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amphotericin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ampicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Griseofulvin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Griseofulvin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drugs whose absorption increase with meals</li><li>➤ Drugs whose absorption increase with meals</li><li>➤ Griseofulvin</li><li>➤ Statins</li><li>➤ Halofantrine</li><li>➤ Erlotinib</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with Prinzmetal angina is administered isosorbide mononitrate and is noticed to have symptomatic relief. What is the mechanism of action of nitrate in this case? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endothelium independent coronary vasodilation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduced cardiac contractility", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased left ventricular end diastolic volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased diastolic perfusion pressure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endothelium independent coronary vasodilation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Endothelium independent coronary vasodilation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nitrates provide symptomatic relief in Prinzmetal angina through endothelium-independent coronary vasodilation, which helps to alleviate coronary artery spasms and restore proper blood flow to the heart muscle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What advice do you give to a mother who is using medications during lactation? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No advice as most of drug are not present in breast milk", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give longer half-life drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tell the mother to feed when it is least efficacious", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "To feed just before the next dose, when the plasma concentration of the drug would be the least", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. To feed just before the next dose, when the plasma concentration of the drug would be the least", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. To feed just before the next dose, when the plasma concentration of the drug would be the least</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best advice for a lactating mother using medications is to breastfeed just before taking her next dose of medication. This practice ensures that the drug's plasma concentration is at its lowest during breastfeeding, thereby reducing the amount of drug that passes into the breast milk and minimizing exposure to the infant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Acute exacerbation of asthma was comprehended, salbutamol was prescribed, however, no improvement was noticed. Intravenous corticosteroids and aminophylline were given and the condition improved. What is the probable mechanism by which the corticosteroids would have improved the condition? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corticosteroids increase bronchial responsiveness to salbutamol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Corticosteroids cause direct bronchodilatation when used with xanthine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corticosteroids indirectly increase the effect of xanthine on adenosine receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corticosteroids increase mucous secretion.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Corticosteroids increase bronchial responsiveness to salbutamol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Corticosteroids increase bronchial responsiveness to salbutamol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corticosteroids improve the condition of patients with acute asthma exacerbation by increasing the bronchial responsiveness to β2 agonists like salbutamol, reducing inflammation, and decreasing mucus secretion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following opioids is an antagonist at ‘µ’ and a complete agonist at ‘k’ receptors? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pentazocine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Buprenorphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tramadol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fentanyl", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pentazocine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pentazocine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pentazocine is an opioid that acts as an antagonist at mu (μ) receptors and a full agonist at kappa (κ) receptors. This unique profile allows it to serve as an analgesic with a potentially lower risk of certain side effects, although it is contraindicated in myocardial infarction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The drug of choice for insomnia in blind people is? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Latanoprostene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zerviate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tasimelteon", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ramelteon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tasimelteon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tasimelteon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tasimelteon is the drug of choice for treating insomnia in blind individuals due to its effectiveness in regulating the sleep-wake cycle by acting as a melatonin receptor agonist, particularly in those with Non-24-Hour Sleep-Wake Disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dofetilide belongs to which class of anti-arrhythmic drugs? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Class I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Class II", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Class III", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Class IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Class III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Class III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Class III drugs include:</li><li>➤ Class III drugs include:</li><li>➤ B: Bretylium</li><li>➤ I: Ibutilide</li><li>➤ N</li><li>➤ D: Dofetilide</li><li>➤ A: Amiodarone</li><li>➤ S: Sotalol</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cell wall synthesis inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cell membrane inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peptide synthesis inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "50S ribosome inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cell wall synthesis inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Cell wall synthesis inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vancomycin inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of peptidoglycan precursors, preventing peptidoglycan elongation and cross-linking, leading to cell lysis and death. It is especially effective against gram-positive bacteria like MRSA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following table gives BP values before and after administration of drug 'X'. What would be the probable mechanism of action of drug 'X'? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "α1 agonist and β1 agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "M2 agonist and M3 agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "α 1 antagonist and β2 agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " β1 agonist and β2 agonist", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. β1 agonist and β2 agonist", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-150657.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.β1 agonist and β2 agonist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of increased systolic blood pressure, decreased diastolic blood pressure, and increased heart rate suggests that drug 'X' acts as a β1 and β2 agonist, leading to increased cardiac output and vasodilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ceftriaxone 180 mg is required for a patient. You're using a 2 mL syringe with 10 divisions per ml. Ceftriaxone 500 mg/5ml is contained in the vial. How many divisions will you fill in the 2 mL syringe to give 180 mg ceftriaxone? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "18", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1.8", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 18", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 18</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To administer 180 mg of ceftriaxone using a 2 mL syringe with 10 divisions per ml, you need to fill the syringe to 18 divisions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The drug that decreases the size of prostate is? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tamsulosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sildenafil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Finasteride", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flutamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Finasteride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Finasteride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Finasteride decreases the size of the prostate by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), thereby reducing prostatic cell proliferation and improving urinary symptoms in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is a placebo? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herbal medication with no effect known", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Physiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sham surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cognitive behavioral therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sham surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sham surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sham surgery is a type of placebo where the therapeutic intervention is omitted, used primarily in clinical trials to control for the placebo effect and test the efficacy of surgical procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On thyroid function test analysis, TSH value was much higher than normal with low free T4. What is the diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subclinical hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primary hypothyroidism", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Primary hypothyroidism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture30.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Primary hypothyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary hypothyroidism is characterized by high TSH and low free T4 levels, indicating a failure of the thyroid gland itself to produce sufficient hormones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the window period for thrombolysis in case of stroke? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 1/2 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 1/2 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 1/2 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 1/2 hours", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4 1/2 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 41/2hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The therapeutic window for thrombolysis in acute ischemic stroke using rtPA is up to 4½ hours from symptom onset, and strict criteria must be met to ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment. This timeframe is crucial for maximizing the potential benefits of the treatment while minimizing risks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has a HbA2 of 3% and HbF of 97%. A peripheral blood smear is taken. Which of the following blood pictures will be seen in this patient? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/40.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In beta thalassemia major, the peripheral blood smear typically shows hypochromic microcytic red blood cells and target cells, which are best represented by Image 1 and Image 3.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In breast cancer, FISH for gene amplification will be done based on which of the following IHC staining for Her-2/neu? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1+", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2+", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3+", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gene Amplification is done irrespective of Her 2 Neu status", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2+", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-367.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/42.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2+</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FISH for Her-2/neu gene amplification is performed when the IHC result is 2+, as this score is considered equivocal, requiring further testing to determine the appropriate therapeutic approach.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old depressed man came with complaints of sudden onset breathlessness, with desaturation. Chest x-ray showed bilateral diffuse infiltrates with predominant involvement of right middle and lower lobes. The patient could not be revived despite treatment. On autopsy, the lungs, appeared grossly normal. The histopathology image of the lung is as shown below. Which among the following is the appropriate cause? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Necrotizing TB granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vegetative matter aspiration pneumonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sarcoid granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe fungal pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vegetative matter aspiration pneumonia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/47.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vegetative matter aspiration pneumonia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old male came with complaints of ascending weakness in both lower limb and upper body. There was no history of trauma. Which of the following is the next investigation? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum Potassium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum Magnesium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum Sodium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum Calcium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Serum Potassium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Serum Potassium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The disturbances in serum potassium levels can manifest as muscle weakness, making it a vital test in cases of unexplained, ascending muscle weakness without trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-year-old male with attempted poisoning was brought to the casualty in a drowsy state. His pulse was 140/min, respiratory rate -30/min. His ABG showed metabolic acidosis. Urine analysis showed Calcium oxalate crystals. Identify the likely poison?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Formaldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethylene glycol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paraldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methyl alcohol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ethylene glycol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ethylene glycol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethylene glycol poisoning</li><li>➤ Ethylene glycol poisoning</li><li>➤ Ethylene glycol is the major constituent of antifreeze solutions. It is a clear, colorless, odorless, non-volatile liquid with a bitter-sweet taste.</li><li>➤ Action: Ethylene glycol itself is not toxic, but the toxicity is due to metabolites glycolic and oxalic acids which inhibits oxidative phosphorylation.</li><li>➤ Oxalic acid combines with calcium to form calcium oxalate crystals which accumulates in the proximal convoluted tubules causing renal failure. Metabolic acidosis occurs from glycolic acid. Ingestion of ethylene glycol produces CNS depression which may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps . Metabolites of ethylene glycol produce severe metabolic acidosis and damage to the brain, heart, and kidneys</li><li>➤ Oxalic acid combines with calcium to form calcium oxalate crystals which accumulates in the proximal convoluted tubules causing renal failure.</li><li>➤ Metabolic acidosis occurs from glycolic acid.</li><li>➤ Ingestion of ethylene glycol produces CNS depression which may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps . Metabolites of ethylene glycol produce severe metabolic acidosis and damage to the brain, heart, and kidneys</li><li>➤ CNS depression which may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps</li><li>➤ Treatment - Sodium bicarbonate, calcium gluconate, and 4-methyl pyrazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the false statement regarding teeth and ethnicity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "In Africanoids the cusps of molars are wide and deep with shovel shaped cusps in incisors", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caucasians have carabelli cusps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper third molar is most commonly absent in Mongolians", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prominent lingual ridge and labial ridge in mongols", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. In Africanoids the cusps of molars are wide and deep with shovel shaped cusps in incisors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-142652.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. In Africanoids the cusps of molars are wide and deep with shovel shaped cusps in incisors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key differences between race</li><li>➤ Key differences between race</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Definition of PUO includes all of the following except? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fever persisting for more than 3 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immunocompromised status should be ruled out", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Undiagnosed after one week of investigation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Temperature more than 38.3° C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Undiagnosed after one week of investigation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Undiagnosed after one week of investigation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Criteria for diagnosis of PUO:</li><li>➤ Criteria for diagnosis of PUO:</li><li>➤ Fever &gt; 38.3 degrees C (101° F) on 2 occasions. Duration &gt; 3 weeks. Not immunocompromised state. Diagnosis not certain after history, physical examination and routine and obligatory investigations.</li><li>➤ Fever &gt; 38.3 degrees C (101° F) on 2 occasions.</li><li>➤ Duration &gt; 3 weeks.</li><li>➤ Not immunocompromised state.</li><li>➤ Diagnosis not certain after history, physical examination and routine and obligatory investigations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be used to store blood for up to 35 days? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acid Citrate dextrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Citrate phosphate dextrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Citrate phosphate 2 dextrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine – 1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine – 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine – 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Citrate Phosphate Dextrose Adenine (CPDA-1) can be used to store blood for up to 35 days, making it the solution with the longest preservation capability among the options provided.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct sequence: (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bedside blood collection, label the samples, fill the laboratory requisition forms, Identify the patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fill the laboratory requisition forms, Identify the Patient, Bedside blood collection, label the samples", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Label the sample tubes, Bedside blood collection, fill the laboratory requisition forms, Identify the patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Identify the Patient, Fill the laboratory requisition forms, Bedside blood collection, label the samples", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fill the laboratory requisition forms, Identify the Patient, Bedside blood collection, label the samples", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which anticoagulant is used for electrolyte estimation? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sodium Fluoride", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lithium Heparin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lithium Heparin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-112143.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lithium Heparin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When you add calcium and thromboplastin to platelet poor plasma which pathway is assessed? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extrinsic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intrinsic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrinolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Common", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extrinsic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-370.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-371.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Extrinsic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adding calcium and thromboplastin to platelet-poor plasma assesses the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which is the basis for the Prothrombin Time (PT) test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old girl with the diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemia was treated medically. She developed fever and tachypnea and a chest X-ray showed pulmonary infiltrates. What drug should she be given next? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytarabine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dexamethasone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doxorubicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dexamethasone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dexamethasone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dexamethasone is used to manage differentiation syndrome in patients with acute promyelocytic leukemia, characterized by symptoms like fever, tachypnea, and pulmonary infiltrates following treatment with specific leukemia drugs.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference -Harrison/Oncology/Acute leukemia/chap100-743</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female from Himachal Pradesh presented with H/O thorn prick, a year back has a verrucous lesion in the skin with the following microscopic findings. Identify the agent? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pheohyphomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chromoblastomycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chromoblastomycosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-284.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-178.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chromoblastomycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chromoblastomycosis is identified by its characteristic histopathological features, including granulomatous lesions with dark sclerotic bodies (Medlar or copper penny bodies), and is caused by various dematiaceous fungi. The clinical history of a thorn prick and the verrucous lesion further support this diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following slide is given as a spotter in your microbiology practical examination. Identify the following organism? (INICET MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycobacteria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nocardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Actinomyces", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corynebacterium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mycobacteria", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-179.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-287.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-288.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-289.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mycobacteria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mycobacterium tuberculosis, appear as pink bacilli on a blue background when stained with Ziehl-Neelsen stain due to their acid-fast properties. They have a high lipid content in their cell walls, which retains the carbol fuchsin dye even after treatment with acid-alcohol, a hallmark of acid-fast organisms.</li><li>➤ Mycobacterium tuberculosis, appear as pink bacilli on a blue background when stained with Ziehl-Neelsen stain due to their acid-fast properties.</li><li>➤ They have a high lipid content in their cell walls, which retains the carbol fuchsin dye even after treatment with acid-alcohol, a hallmark of acid-fast organisms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old male is undergoing reconstructive surgery after trauma to the chest wall. During the procedure, the surgeon uses a muscle flap to cover a defect as shown in the image. Which flap is most likely being used in this reconstruction? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pectoral myocutaneous flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serratus anterior flap", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "TRAM flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VRAM flap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Serratus anterior flap", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/19/screenshot-2024-10-19-162508.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Serratus anterior flap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Serratus anterior flap is a versatile muscle flap used for chest wall reconstruction. It is often rotated medially to cover lateral or pectoral defects due to its excellent blood supply and robust arc of rotation.</li><li>➤ Serratus anterior flap</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with metastatic melanoma and begins a newly developed combination of chemotherapy and immunotherapy. His oncologist explains that this treatment significantly prolongs survival. Which of the following statements best describes the expected impact of this treatment on the epidemiological metrics of melanoma? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incidence increases and prevalence reduces", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incidence reduces and prevalence remains the same", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incidence reduces and prevalence increases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Incidence: Is defined as the ‘no. of new cases’ occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time Prevalence: Is total current (Old + New) cases in a given population over a point or period of time Relationship between Incidence and Prevalence: Given the assumption that population is stable AND incidence &amp; duration are unchanging,</li><li>➤ Incidence: Is defined as the ‘no. of new cases’ occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time</li><li>➤ Prevalence: Is total current (Old + New) cases in a given population over a point or period of time</li><li>➤ Relationship between Incidence and Prevalence: Given the assumption that population is stable AND incidence &amp; duration are unchanging,</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of the disease</li><li>➤ P = I × d</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old man presents with generalized lymphadenopathy and fatigue. A biopsy of one of the lymph nodes reveals features suggestive of mantle cell lymphoma. Immunohistochemical staining shows the tumor cells are negative for Cyclin D1 expression. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Cyclin D1 negative mantle cell lymphoma? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SOX11", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ITRA 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MYD88", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Annexin V", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. SOX11", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) SOX11</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SOX11 is an important immunohistochemical marker used to diagnose Cyclin D1-negative mantle cell lymphoma and has significant clinical relevance in confirming the diagnosis in the absence of Cyclin D1 expression.</li><li>➤ Cyclin D1-negative mantle cell lymphoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old immunology student is studying the effects of enzymatic digestion on immunoglobulins. She uses papain to cleave the immunoglobulin molecule. What are the resulting products after papain acts on an immunoglobulin? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 Fc and 1 Fab fragments", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 Variable chain and 1 constant chain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 Fc and 2 Fab fragments", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 Fab and 1 hypervariable region", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 Fc and 2 Fab fragments", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1 Fc and 2 Fab fragments</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Papain cleaves immunoglobulins to produce 2 Fab fragments and 1 Fc fragment , effectively separating the antigen-binding sites from the effector region of the antibody.</li><li>➤ 2 Fab fragments</li><li>➤ 1 Fc fragment</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is part of the WHO recommendations for managing the second stage of labor? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Do a routine episiotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Manual support to the perineum to maintain flexion of the head", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Never give warm compress to the perineum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perform labor in lithotomy position", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Manual support to the perineum to maintain flexion of the head", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Manual support to the perineum to maintain flexion of the head</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The WHO recommends manual support of the perineum during the second stage of labor to reduce perineal trauma. Routine episiotomies should be avoided unless clinically necessary.</li><li>➤ manual support of the perineum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following staphylococcal infections is not toxin-mediated? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Food poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toxic shock syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Septicemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Septicemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Septicemia caused by Staphylococcus aureus is an infection due to bacterial invasion and is not toxin-mediated , whereas conditions like food poisoning, toxic shock syndrome, and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome are caused by staphylococcal toxins.</li><li>➤ Septicemia</li><li>➤ not toxin-mediated</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female with NYHA Class III heart failure presents with shortness of breath, peripheral edema, and laboratory findings showing a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL. Which of the following drugs would NOT be contraindicated in this scenario? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enalapril", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Furosemide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Furosemide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In heart failure patients with hyperkalemia, furosemide is a safe choice as it promotes potassium excretion. Drugs that increase potassium levels, such as spironolactone and ACE inhibitors, should be avoided.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the following, which cells express MHC class II molecules? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NK cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "All nucleated cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B cells, dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Platelets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. B cells, dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MHC class II molecules are expressed on professional antigen-presenting cells, such as B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages, which are crucial for initiating immune responses by interacting with helper T cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old pregnant woman presents with a history of thyroid swelling. A fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) report suggests papillary carcinoma of the thyroid, and the nodule appears “cold” on scan. Which of the following would not be an appropriate treatment option for her? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total Thyroidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total Thyroidectomy plus Lymph node dissection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radioiodine ablation of thyroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right Hemithyroidectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radioiodine ablation of thyroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radioiodine ablation is contraindicated during pregnancy due to fetal radiation exposure, making surgical approaches the preferred treatment for thyroid cancers diagnosed in pregnant patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 41-year-old woman has undergone successful treatment for breast cancer (1.2 x 1 cm tumor) with positive axillary nodes. She completed radiotherapy and chemotherapy and is now receiving tamoxifen. What is the appropriate follow-up plan for this patient? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Annual mammogram", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Regular checking of LFT once in 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follow-up with tumor markers once in 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yearly bone scans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Annual mammogram", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Routine follow-up for breast cancer survivors includes annual mammography and periodic physical exams. Other tests like tumor markers or bone scans are reserved for symptomatic patients or those with specific clinical concerns.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presents with heartburn and increased salivation. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy (UGE) was performed, and the biopsy results reveal the transition between normal squamous epithelium and mucin-filled glands, indicative of intestinal-type metaplasia with goblet cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophagitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barrett's esophagus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Barrett's esophagus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/19/screenshot-2024-10-19-162615.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Barrett’s esophagus, characterized by intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells, is a premalignant condition that significantly increases the risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma and warrants regular surveillance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old man had a fall followed by one episode of vomiting. When brought to the emergency department, he was awake and conscious but had persistent anterograde amnesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drunkenness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diffuse axonal injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Concussion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebral venous thrombosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Concussion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anterograde amnesia following a head injury is a hallmark of concussion, a common type of mild traumatic brain injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of progressive enlargement of his hands and feet. On examination, he has frontal bossing, a large tongue, and spade-shaped hands. His shoe size has also increased over the past few years. Which of the following tests is most appropriate for diagnosing his condition? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thyroid hormone assay", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum prolactin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum testosterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most appropriate initial test for diagnosing acromegaly is measuring insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) levels, as it reflects chronic exposure to elevated growth hormone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath that worsens throughout the day. Pulmonary function testing was performed, and the flow-volume loop from her spirometry is shown below (Patient 1). Based on the spirometry findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endobronchial neoplasm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchial Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emphysema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/19/whatsapp-image-2024-10-19-at-150640.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Myasthenia gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes restrictive lung disease due to weakened respiratory muscles, leading to a reduction in lung volumes and a restrictive pattern on spirometry.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old female presents with a history of backache and polyarthralgia. Immunofluorescence (IF) findings reveal a nucleolar pattern. Which of the following clinical features is most consistent with her condition? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Raynaud phenomenon and sclerodactyly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Genital and oral painful ulcers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glomerulonephritis and heart failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Joint pains with nodules on skin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Raynaud phenomenon and sclerodactyly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The nucleolar pattern on immunofluorescence is most commonly associated with systemic sclerosis (sclerodactyly) and is often accompanied by features such as Raynaud phenomenon and skin thickening.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive loss of peripheral vision in both eyes. She is diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma compressing the optic chiasma. Which of the following visual field defects is most likely in this patient? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central scotoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bilateral hemianopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Binasal hemianopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bitemporal hemianopia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bitemporal hemianopia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/19/screenshot-2024-10-19-162811.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Visual field defects:</li><li>➤ Visual field defects:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient presents with a neck swelling that moves with deglutition. What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Branchial cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic hygroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroglossal cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical lymphadenopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thyroglossal cyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/19/screenshot-2024-10-19-162828.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thyroglossal cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thyroglossal cysts are congenital midline neck swellings that move with deglutition and tongue protrusion due to their attachment to the hyoid bone. The treatment is Sistrunk’s operation, which involves excision of the cyst along with the entire thyroglossal tract and a portion of the hyoid bone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male is brought into the emergency department with acute myocardial infarction and has received fibrinolytic therapy. The patient begins to experience excessive bleeding post-therapy. Which of the following is the best antidote to reverse the effects of fibrinolytic therapy? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epsilon-aminocaproic acid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Epsilon-aminocaproic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Epsilon-aminocaproic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Epsilon-aminocaproic acid is the antidote used to reverse bleeding complications caused by fibrinolytic agents like streptokinase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Aiims May 2018 2018 05 06 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "How long should a child be isolated after being diagnosed with bacterial meningitis to prevent further transmission? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Till 24 hours after starting antibiotics", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Till cultures become negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Till antibiotic course is complete", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Till 12 hours after admission", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Till 24 hours after starting antibiotics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Till 24 hours after starting antibiotics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Children with bacterial meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis or Haemophilus influenzae should be isolated for 24 hours after starting effective antibiotic therapy to prevent transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is undergoing modified radical neck dissection (MRND) for laryngeal malignancy. While ligating the internal jugular vein, his ETCO2 dropped from 40 mmHg to 14 mmHg, and the patient developed hypotension along with cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following is the most likely cause? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sympathetic overactivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vagal stimulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Venous air embolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carotid body stimulation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Venous air embolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Venous air embolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Venous Air Embolism:</li><li>• Venous Air Embolism:</li><li>• Definition: It refers to the entry of air into the venous system, which can then travel to the heart and block the pulmonary circulation. Presentation: A sudden drop in ETCO2, hypotension, and potential cardiac arrhythmias. A \"mill wheel\" murmur might be heard on auscultation. Relevance to the Scenario: The sudden drop in ETCO2, combined with hypotension and cardiac arrhythmia following manipulation of the internal jugular vein during surgery in a head-up position, strongly suggests venous air embolism.</li><li>• Definition: It refers to the entry of air into the venous system, which can then travel to the heart and block the pulmonary circulation.</li><li>• Definition:</li><li>• Presentation: A sudden drop in ETCO2, hypotension, and potential cardiac arrhythmias. A \"mill wheel\" murmur might be heard on auscultation.</li><li>• Presentation:</li><li>• Relevance to the Scenario: The sudden drop in ETCO2, combined with hypotension and cardiac arrhythmia following manipulation of the internal jugular vein during surgery in a head-up position, strongly suggests venous air embolism.</li><li>• Relevance to the Scenario:</li><li>• There are four important events here:</li><li>• There are four important events here:</li><li>• Bleeding from the internal jugular vein (severed vein which can entrap air) A drastic fall in ETCO2 Hypotension Neck surgery – requires head-up position which reduces blood pressure in neck veins</li><li>• Bleeding from the internal jugular vein (severed vein which can entrap air)</li><li>• A drastic fall in ETCO2</li><li>• Hypotension</li><li>• Neck surgery – requires head-up position which reduces blood pressure in neck veins</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Sympathetic Overactivity:</li><li>• Option A. Sympathetic Overactivity:</li><li>• Definition: It refers to excessive stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. Presentation: It typically manifests as hypertension (raised blood pressure) and tachycardia (increased heart rate). Relevance to the Scenario: The patient developed hypotension, not hypertension, so this option is less likely.</li><li>• Definition: It refers to excessive stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.</li><li>• Definition:</li><li>• Presentation: It typically manifests as hypertension (raised blood pressure) and tachycardia (increased heart rate).</li><li>• Presentation:</li><li>• Relevance to the Scenario: The patient developed hypotension, not hypertension, so this option is less likely.</li><li>• Relevance to the Scenario:</li><li>• Option B. Vagal Stimulation:</li><li>• Option B. Vagal Stimulation:</li><li>• Definition: Activation of the vagus nerve, one of the cranial nerves, which plays a role in controlling the heart, lungs, and digestive tract. Presentation: Vagal stimulation can cause bradycardia (slowed heart rate) and hypotension. Relevance to the Scenario: While vagal stimulation can explain the hypotension and arrhythmia, it does not account for the drastic drop in ETCO2.</li><li>• Definition: Activation of the vagus nerve, one of the cranial nerves, which plays a role in controlling the heart, lungs, and digestive tract.</li><li>• Definition:</li><li>• Presentation: Vagal stimulation can cause bradycardia (slowed heart rate) and hypotension.</li><li>• Presentation:</li><li>• Relevance to the Scenario: While vagal stimulation can explain the hypotension and arrhythmia, it does not account for the drastic drop in ETCO2.</li><li>• Relevance to the Scenario:</li><li>• Option D. Carotid Body Stimulation:</li><li>• Option D. Carotid Body Stimulation:</li><li>• Definition: The carotid body is a small cluster of chemoreceptors located at the bifurcation of the carotid artery. It monitors changes in blood oxygen levels. Presentation: Stimulation can cause changes in heart rate and blood pressure, but it typically results in hypertension. Relevance to the Scenario: Given that the patient is hypotensive, this option is less likely.</li><li>• Definition: The carotid body is a small cluster of chemoreceptors located at the bifurcation of the carotid artery. It monitors changes in blood oxygen levels.</li><li>• Definition:</li><li>• Presentation: Stimulation can cause changes in heart rate and blood pressure, but it typically results in hypertension.</li><li>• Presentation:</li><li>• Relevance to the Scenario: Given that the patient is hypotensive, this option is less likely.</li><li>• Relevance to the Scenario:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ A sudden drop in ETCO2, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmias during surgery, especially involving the internal jugular vein and head-up positioning, strongly suggests venous air embolism.</li><li>➤ A sudden drop in ETCO2, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmias during surgery, especially involving the internal jugular vein and head-up positioning, strongly suggests venous air embolism.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 1878-1880</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 1878-1880</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are working on a research project and need to determine the appropriate usage of the Chi-square test. Which of the following sets of data would be most appropriate for utilizing the Chi-square test? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age and serum cholesterol level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart rate and body mass index", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sex and type of cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weight of a patient before and after a treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sex and type of cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sex and type of cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Plasma sterilization makes use of: (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrogen peroxide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethylene oxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gamma rays", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "UV rays", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydrogen peroxide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-183_MZDVDBa.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydrogen peroxide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Plasma sterilization makes use of hydrogen peroxide vapor, which is activated into a plasma state by an electrical field, generating microbicidal free radicals that effectively inactivate microorganisms. This method is efficient and leaves nontoxic by-products, making it suitable for sterilizing sensitive medical and laboratory equipment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient working in a factory presented with lung fibrosis and thickening of pleura. Biopsy was done. Diagnosis from the histopathology picture is? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mesothelioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Asbestosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/965.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-123503.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-123702.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-115000.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Asbestosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asbestosis is identified by the presence of characteristic asbestos bodies within the lung tissue, which are asbestos fibers coated with glycoproteins and hemosiderin, and it is commonly associated with asbestos exposure in occupational settings.</li><li>➤ Asbestosis</li><li>➤ asbestos bodies</li><li>➤ asbestos exposure</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1309</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1309</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A kinyoun positive oocyst (25 m) was isolated from an HIV patient with diarrhea. Identify the organism? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystoisospora", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclospora", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptosporidium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microspora", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cystoisospora", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-172804.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-114024.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cystoisospora</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Comparison of coccidian parasites causing diarrhea in an immunocompromised host:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not included in the active management of the third stage of labor to prevent post-partum hemorrhage? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterotonic within 1 minute of delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Delayed clamping, cutting and ligation of cord", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gentle massage of uterus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Controlled cord traction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gentle massage of uterus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gentle massage of uterus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The active management of the third stage of labor includes the administration of a uterotonic, controlled cord traction, and assessing uterine tone rather than sustained uterine massage for all women who have received a uterotonic.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/120082/WHO_RHR_14.20_eng.pdf?sequence=1</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/120082/WHO_RHR_14.20_eng.pdf?sequence=1</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As the in-charge epidemiologist of an urban CHC, you've been reviewing the weekly infectious disease reports. In a particular community under your jurisdiction, you observe that dengue case counts typically range from 40 to 50 cases every week. During your current weekly review, you note there are 48 reported cases of dengue. Based on this data and your understanding of epidemiological terminology, how would you classify this week's situation with respect to dengue? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidemic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endemic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sporadic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Outbreak", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endemic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endemic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endemic: Is the ‘usual or expected frequency’ of a disease in a population</li><li>➤ Endemic: Is the ‘usual or expected frequency’ of a disease in a population</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the angle subtended by the largest alphabet on the Snellen's chart at 60m distance?(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "30", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture1_05UM3WC.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The largest letter on a Snellen chart subtends an angle of 5 minutes of arc at any standard testing distance is essential for interpreting visual acuity results correctly. This standardization is fundamental in diagnosing and measuring visual acuity across different settings and distances</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which medication is used to treat an infection caused by the cestode egg of the given organism? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Praziquantel", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ivermectin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Albendazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diethylcarbamazine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Praziquantel", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-173512.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-242.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Praziquantel</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Praziquantel is the medication used to treat infections caused by the cestode egg of Hymenolepis nana (dwarf tapeworm). The eggs are colorless, almost transparent, and immediately infective when shed in stool. Praziquantel effectively treats this infection with a single dose of 5-10 mg/kg.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following test is positive for identification of: (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candida albicans", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Candida glabrata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candida parapsilosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candida tropicalis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Candida albicans", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-244.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-245.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Candida albicans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The germ tube test is used for the presumptive identification of Candida albicans. It detects the formation of germ tubes, which are characteristic of Candida albicans and Candida dubliniensis but not other Candida species. Germ tubes are short, slender, tube-like structures without constriction at their point of origin, differentiating them from pseudohyphae.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pharmaceutical company is in the early stages of developing a new antihypertensive medication. They are planning to conduct several phases of clinical trials to assess different aspects of the drug. As part of this process, the research team is set to embark on Phase 1 of the trial. In the context of clinical trial phases, what is the primary objective of this initial phase? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Safety", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Efficacy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dose range", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pharmacoeconomics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Safety", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/phase-i_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Safety</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image indicates: ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trochlear nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral rectus palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internuclear ophthalmoplegia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oculomotor palsy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oculomotor palsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture9_7BaZjsz.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/whatsapp-image-2023-09-27-at-165211_P6uff1N.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Oculomotor palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oculomotor palsy involves multiple dysfunctions including ptosis, \"down and out\" eye position, and possibly a dilated pupil. Recognizing the full range of symptoms is critical for a correct diagnosis, indicating a comprehensive evaluation of cranial nerve III integrity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Acid mucin is stained by _______? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PAS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcian blue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Masson trichrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PTAH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alcian blue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alcian blue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcian blue is the preferred stain for identifying acid mucins in tissue samples, distinguishing it from other stains that target different types of mucins or tissue components.</li><li>➤ Alcian blue</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following enzyme activity decreases in fasting? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hormone-sensitive lipase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycogen phosphorylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyruvate carboxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphofructokinase 1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Phosphofructokinase 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-122001_pKklJhK.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Phosphofructokinase 1</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Solvent/Detergent (SD) plasma destroys lipid-enveloped viruses. So, on SD plasma transfusion, which of the following infection is likely to occur? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The solvent/detergent (SD) process inactivates lipid-enveloped viruses such as HIV, HBV, and HCV. However, it does not inactivate non-enveloped viruses like Hepatitis A Virus (HAV), making HAV infections a potential risk during SD plasma transfusion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms is represented by the given form of replication? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Influenza virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Influenza virus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-12.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Influenza virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The replication cycle depicted in the image is characteristic of the influenza virus, involving binding of hemagglutinin (HA) to sialic acid residues, endocytosis, acidification within lysosomes, RNA replication in the nucleus, assembly at the plasma membrane, and release mediated by neuraminidase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 39-year-old male patient presented with complaints of fever and cough. His chest radiograph shows air bronchogram sign. The probable diagnosis is:(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hilar lymphadenopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Consolidation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Consolidation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Consolidation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient complaining of fever and cough with positive air bronchogram sign on chest x-ray suggests lobar consolidation which is most commonly due to Pneumococcal pneumonia.</li><li>• Air bronchogram refers to the phenomenon of air-filled bronchi (dark) being made visible by the opacification of surrounding alveoli (grey/white). It is almost always caused by a pathologic airspace/alveolar process, in which something other than air fills the alveoli.</li><li>• Air bronchogram</li><li>• The causes of air bronchogram are as follows:</li><li>• Pulmonary consolidation Pulmonary Edema : especially with alveolar edema Neoplasms: bronchioloalveolar carcinoma ; pulmonary lymphoma</li><li>• Pulmonary consolidation</li><li>• Pulmonary Edema : especially with alveolar edema</li><li>• Neoplasms: bronchioloalveolar carcinoma ; pulmonary lymphoma</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pleural effusion: Would typically show blunting of the costophrenic angles and a fluid level on the chest X-ray, not associated with air bronchograms.</li><li>• Option A. Pleural effusion:</li><li>• Option B. Hilar lymphadenopathy: Presents as enlarged hilar shadows on X-ray, which do not include the air bronchogram sign.</li><li>• Option B. Hilar lymphadenopathy:</li><li>• Option D. Bronchiectasis: Characterized by permanent dilation of parts of the airways of the lung; air bronchograms can be present but are more commonly associated with acute infections or consolidations.</li><li>• Option D. Bronchiectasis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The air bronchogram sign on a chest X-ray, indicative of the presence of air within the bronchi surrounded by opacified alveoli, is a classic feature of pulmonary consolidation, most commonly seen in pneumococcal pneumonia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mentally challenged person bites his brother on the hand during a physical fight. All of the following statements are true about the given condition except? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Swabs should be taken immediately after moistening with sterile water", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is most commonly caused by incisors and canines", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Photograph is taken with two scales at right angle to one another in the vertical plane", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3D imaging is possible in the given condition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Photograph is taken with two scales at right angle to one another in the vertical plane", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/28/image-7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Photograph is taken with two scales at right angle to one another in the vertical plane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a human bite mark:</li><li>➤ Swabs should be taken immediately after moistening with sterile water It is most commonly caused by front teeth - incisors and canines Photograph is taken with two scales at right angle to one another in the HORIZONTAL plane 3D imaging is a valuable tool for analysis</li><li>➤ Swabs should be taken immediately after moistening with sterile water</li><li>➤ It is most commonly caused by front teeth - incisors and canines</li><li>➤ Photograph is taken with two scales at right angle to one another in the HORIZONTAL plane</li><li>➤ HORIZONTAL plane</li><li>➤ 3D imaging is a valuable tool for analysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely cause of a disease that is characterized by the occurrence of blistering and peeling affecting over 30% of the body surface area? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Viral infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Drugs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fungal infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Auto-immunity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Drugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/whatsapp-image-2023-11-20-at-191405.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-095458.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Drugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The occurrence of blistering and peeling affecting over 30% of the body surface area is most commonly associated with severe drug reactions , such as Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) or Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN).</li><li>➤ blistering</li><li>➤ peeling</li><li>➤ over 30%</li><li>➤ severe drug reactions</li><li>➤ Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) or Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN).</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition, Chapter 119, Page no 119.13</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition, Chapter 119, Page no 119.13</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with pain, swelling and redness of knee joint and hand. There were associated complaints of morning stiffness with problem in squatting. The swelling spared the DIP joints. The image of the patient’s hands is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heberden's nodes on pre-existing osteoarthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tenosynovitis of extensor tendon of MCP joints", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post-traumatic dystrophy with complex regional pain syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rheumatoid arthritis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-618.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/30/screenshot-2024-01-30-192708.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/30/picture37_cozqfUH.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/30/picture38.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/30/picture39_SzzvaGq.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Rheumatoid arthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image and the symptoms in a female of pain, swelling and redness of knee joint and hand, morning stiffness with problem in squatting is clinical for Rheumatoid Arthritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the definitive approach for managing uncontrollable vertigo caused by Meniere's disease?( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Labyrinthectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vestibular neurectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intratympanic gentamicin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Labyrinthectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Labyrinthectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with Meniere's disease who have debilitating vertigo and no serviceable hearing in the affected ear, labyrinthectomy offers a definitive solution with a very high success rate in eliminating vertigo. This surgical option is reserved for severe cases where other less invasive treatments have been exhausted.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of connective tissue is found in the region indicated by the black arrow in the provided image? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dense regular", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dense irregular", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loose regular", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loose irregular", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dense irregular", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-13495.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture72221.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-195526.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dense irregular</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The image shows dense irregular connective tissue, which is characterized by a dense network of collagen fibers arranged in an irregular pattern, commonly found in the d ermis of the skin, providing strength and the ability to resist multi-directional forces .</li><li>➤ dense irregular</li><li>➤ collagen fibers</li><li>➤ irregular</li><li>➤ ermis</li><li>➤ strength</li><li>➤ multi-directional forces</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Volume 1 Chapter 2, Page no 2.34</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Volume 1 Chapter 2, Page no 2.34</li><li>➤ Grays Anatomy: The anatomical basis of clinical practice- 42 nd edition- page no 40, 41</li><li>➤ Grays Anatomy: The anatomical basis of clinical practice- 42 nd edition- page no 40, 41</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of renal calculi is resistant to Extracorporal Shock-Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL)? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Struvite", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium oxalate dihydrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uric Acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cystine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cystine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ESWL is a non-invasive method that generates shockwaves outside the body, which are focused on the stones. It is the most common method of treating urinary tract stones nowadays. Stones up to approximately 2 cm in size can be treated with this form of treatment.</li><li>➤ Complications: Infection, haematuria, parenchymal hemorrhage, and perirenal hematoma.</li><li>➤ Complications:</li><li>➤ Contraindications: Obese patients, pregnant patients, and patients on oral anticoagulants.</li><li>➤ Note: Stone fragments collecting in the distal ureter following ESWL are called steinstrasse.</li><li>➤ Note:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "About giant-cell tumor, all are true except:(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Commonly presents in the 20-40 years age group", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Matrix consists of proliferating mononuclear cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoclast giant cells constitute the proliferative component of the tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is a benign tumor which may have lung metastasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Osteoclast giant cells constitute the proliferative component of the tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Osteoclast giant cells constitute the proliferative component of the tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Giant cell tumors commonly presents in the 20-40 years of age group. Microscopically, the matrix consists of proliferating mononuclear cells. Osteoclast giant cells induce the proliferation of the monoculcear macrophage cells, increasing the mononuclear cell population. It is a benign tumor which may have lung metastasis in about 4% cases.</li><li>➤ Giant cell tumors commonly presents in the 20-40 years of age group.</li><li>➤ Microscopically, the matrix consists of proliferating mononuclear cells.</li><li>➤ Osteoclast giant cells induce the proliferation of the monoculcear macrophage cells, increasing the mononuclear cell population.</li><li>➤ It is a benign tumor which may have lung metastasis in about 4% cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After the delivery of an infant of a diabetic mother, the blood glucose of the Infant was 60 mg/dl. Which other investigation would you do? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum potassium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "СВС", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum chloride", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum calcium", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Serum calcium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Serum calcium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In infants of diabetic mothers, it is crucial to monitor serum calcium levels alongside blood glucose to detect and manage hypocalcemia, which can have significant neurological implications if untreated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) and her blood glucose levels are well controlled on insulin. What will be the appropriate gestational age for her delivery? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "37 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "39 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "38 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "40 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 39 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 39 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The appropriate timing of delivery in a pregnant woman with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) whose blood glucose levels are well controlled on insulin is at or after 39 weeks of gestation. This recommendation is based on the following considerations:</li><li>• Lung Maturity: GDM pregnancies are associated with a delay in fetal lung maturity. Routine delivery before 39 weeks is generally not recommended to avoid respiratory complications in the newborn. Induction of Labor: If the patient with well-controlled GDM has not delivered spontaneously by 39 weeks, induction of labor should be scheduled at or after 39 weeks to minimize the risks associated with GDM and to ensure fetal maturity.</li><li>• Lung Maturity: GDM pregnancies are associated with a delay in fetal lung maturity. Routine delivery before 39 weeks is generally not recommended to avoid respiratory complications in the newborn.</li><li>• Lung Maturity:</li><li>• Induction of Labor: If the patient with well-controlled GDM has not delivered spontaneously by 39 weeks, induction of labor should be scheduled at or after 39 weeks to minimize the risks associated with GDM and to ensure fetal maturity.</li><li>• Induction of Labor:</li><li>• Other important points in GDM:</li><li>• Other important points in GDM:</li><li>• Avoid Past Dates: Delivery should not be delayed beyond the expected due date to prevent complications. Anticipate Shoulder Dystocia: There is an increased risk of shoulder dystocia in infants of mothers with GDM. Prophylactic Cesarean Section (LSCS): Considered if the estimated fetal weight is greater than 4.5 kg to avoid complications during vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Avoid Past Dates: Delivery should not be delayed beyond the expected due date to prevent complications.</li><li>• Avoid Past Dates:</li><li>• Anticipate Shoulder Dystocia: There is an increased risk of shoulder dystocia in infants of mothers with GDM.</li><li>• Anticipate Shoulder Dystocia:</li><li>• Prophylactic Cesarean Section (LSCS): Considered if the estimated fetal weight is greater than 4.5 kg to avoid complications during vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Prophylactic Cesarean Section (LSCS):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a pregnant woman with well-controlled gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) on insulin, the appropriate gestational age for delivery is at or after 39 weeks to ensure fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of complications.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://nhm.gov.in/images/pdf/programmes/maternal-health/guidelines/National_Guidelines_for_Diagnosis_&amp;_Management_of_Gestational_Diabetes_Mellitus.pdf</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://nhm.gov.in/images/pdf/programmes/maternal-health/guidelines/National_Guidelines_for_Diagnosis_&amp;_Management_of_Gestational_Diabetes_Mellitus.pdf</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged female patient with a history of cholelithiasis, presented with vomiting and abdominal pain. The abdominal radiograph showed Rigler's triad. Which of these is not a component of Rigler's triad? (AIIMS 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumobilia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Small bowel obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ectopic gall stone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Large bowel obstruction", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Large bowel obstruction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Large bowel obstruction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rigler triad consists of three findings seen in gallstone ileus:</li><li>➤ Rigler triad consists of three findings seen in gallstone ileus:</li><li>➤ Pneumobilia Small Bowel Obstruction Ectopic calcified gallstone , usually in the right iliac fossa</li><li>➤ Pneumobilia</li><li>➤ Small Bowel Obstruction</li><li>➤ Ectopic calcified gallstone , usually in the right iliac fossa</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presents with 35 weeks and 3 days of gestation, AFI = 5 and there is no end-diastolic blood flow. What is the management? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate termination", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give surfactant and wait till 36 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Do Doppler everyday to check for reversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Terminate after 37 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Immediate termination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Immediate termination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The scenario described indicates fetal compromise, specifically with the findings of oligohydramnios (AFI = 5) and absent end-diastolic flow in the umbilical artery Doppler. These are signs of severe placental insufficiency and fetal distress.</li><li>• Absent or Reversed End-Diastolic Flow: This is a critical finding on Doppler ultrasound indicating severe fetal compromise. The absence of end-diastolic flow in the umbilical artery suggests that the fetus is not receiving adequate blood flow, leading to an increased risk of hypoxia and stillbirth. Management: Immediate Termination: For pregnancies beyond 34 weeks, immediate delivery is indicated to prevent further fetal compromise. This is because the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the benefits, given the significant risk of fetal hypoxia and potential demise.</li><li>• Absent or Reversed End-Diastolic Flow: This is a critical finding on Doppler ultrasound indicating severe fetal compromise. The absence of end-diastolic flow in the umbilical artery suggests that the fetus is not receiving adequate blood flow, leading to an increased risk of hypoxia and stillbirth.</li><li>• Absent or Reversed End-Diastolic Flow:</li><li>• Management: Immediate Termination: For pregnancies beyond 34 weeks, immediate delivery is indicated to prevent further fetal compromise. This is because the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the benefits, given the significant risk of fetal hypoxia and potential demise.</li><li>• Management:</li><li>• Immediate Termination: For pregnancies beyond 34 weeks, immediate delivery is indicated to prevent further fetal compromise. This is because the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the benefits, given the significant risk of fetal hypoxia and potential demise.</li><li>• Immediate Termination: For pregnancies beyond 34 weeks, immediate delivery is indicated to prevent further fetal compromise. This is because the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the benefits, given the significant risk of fetal hypoxia and potential demise.</li><li>• Immediate Termination:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Give surfactant and wait till 36 weeks: This is not appropriate because the immediate risk to the fetus requires prompt delivery.</li><li>• Option B. Give surfactant and wait till 36 weeks:</li><li>• Option C. Do Doppler everyday to check for reversion: Continuous monitoring is insufficient in this scenario as the condition indicates severe fetal distress requiring urgent intervention.</li><li>• Option C. Do Doppler everyday to check for reversion:</li><li>• Option D. Terminate after 37 weeks: Waiting until 37 weeks is not appropriate due to the immediate risk of fetal compromise.</li><li>• Option D. Terminate after 37 weeks:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of severe fetal compromise indicated by absent or reversed end-diastolic flow in the umbilical artery Doppler, especially beyond 34 weeks of gestation, immediate termination of the pregnancy is warranted to prevent fetal hypoxia and potential stillbirth.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2141, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2141, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the process of conducting a caloric test, what kind of nystagmus should one anticipate when using cold water irrigation?(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Horizontal nystagmus towards the same side", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vertical nystagmus towards the same side", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Horizontal nystagmus towards the opposite side", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vertical nystagmus towards the opposite side", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Horizontal nystagmus towards the opposite side", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Horizontal nystagmus towards the opposite side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The caloric test, particularly when using cold water, is designed to stimulate the horizontal semicircular canal, resulting in horizontal nystagmus towards the opposite side. This test is critical for evaluating unilateral weaknesses in the vestibular system and helps in diagnosing conditions affecting balance and spatial orientation.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, page No. 45</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, page No. 45</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the primary function of the condenser in a compound microscope? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To magnify the specimen image", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To hold and support the specimen slide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "To regulate the amount of light reaching the specimen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "To adjust the focus and clarity of the image", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. To regulate the amount of light reaching the specimen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-115338.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-115442.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) To regulate the amount of light reaching the specimen</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is wrong about DIC? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased schistocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased PT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased fibrinogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased FDPs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Increased fibrinogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Increased fibrinogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In DIC, one typically sees a constellation of laboratory findings including decreased fibrinogen, increased PT and aPTT, elevated FDPs, and the presence of schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. These changes reflect both the excessive activation of the coagulation cascade and the secondary activation of fibrinolytic pathways, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and secondary bleeding complications.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Hematology/Coagulation disorders</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to the current biomedical waste management guidelines, which colored bin should be used for the disposal of blood bag? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red bin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow bin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue bin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black bin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Yellow bin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/category222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Yellow bin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A girl runs away from home with her boyfriend and they get married. In court, she says that she is a major and is married to the boy. Identify the approximate age of the girl from the Xray picture of her pelvis? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "14 to 15 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "16 to 17 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "18 to 19 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 21 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. > 21 years", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/28/image-5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-122720_94pJySN.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. &gt; 21 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Femur</li><li>➤ Femur</li><li>➤ Upper end of Femur is composed of three centres:</li><li>➤ Upper end of Femur</li><li>➤ Head – 1 yr (A) Greater Trochanter- 4 yr (A) Lesser trochanter – 14 yr (A)</li><li>➤ Head – 1 yr (A)</li><li>➤ Greater Trochanter- 4 yr (A)</li><li>➤ Lesser trochanter – 14 yr (A)</li><li>➤ These three centres fuse with shaft at 17- 19 yrs of age</li><li>➤ Pelvis</li><li>➤ Pelvis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following sensations is not perceived by the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Touch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proprioception", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Proprioception", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Proprioception</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Proprioception refers to the sense of the relative position of body parts and the strength of effort being employed in movement. It provides the brain with information about limb position, movement, and force. It is perceived by the mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve, not the spinal nucleus.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Temperature : Temperature sensation refers to the ability of the body to perceive differences in external and internal temperatures.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Temperature</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve : The spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve plays a key role in mediating temperature sensations from the face. It receives input from the descending or spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve for temperature sensation from the face.</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve : The spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve plays a key role in mediating temperature sensations from the face. It receives input from the descending or spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve for temperature sensation from the face.</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve</li><li>• Option B . Pain : Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Pain</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve : The spinal nucleus is responsible for pain sensation from the face. Pain fibers from the face descend along the spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve and synapse in the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve.</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve : The spinal nucleus is responsible for pain sensation from the face. Pain fibers from the face descend along the spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve and synapse in the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve.</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve</li><li>• Option C . Touch : Touch or tactile sensation refers to the ability of the body to perceive pressure or contact with the skin.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Touch</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve : Light touch from the face is also processed by the spinal nucleus, but it's worth noting that discriminative touch (ability to recognize specific shapes and textures) from the face is primarily processed by the main or chief sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve, not the spinal nucleus.</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve : Light touch from the face is also processed by the spinal nucleus, but it's worth noting that discriminative touch (ability to recognize specific shapes and textures) from the face is primarily processed by the main or chief sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve, not the spinal nucleus.</li><li>• Relation to Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal Nerve</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The trigeminal nerve consists of 4 nuclei:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the incubation period of lymphogranuloma venereum? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-5 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7-10 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10-30 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "30-60 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 10-30 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 10-30 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The incubation period of lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is 10-30 days. It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3, and primarily affects the lymphatic system. Diagnosis is based on serological tests or identification of the bacteria in clinical specimens through various methods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an indicator of fetal lung maturity? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio &gt; 2.0", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive shake test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased phosphatidyl glycerol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nile blue test showing &gt;50% of blue cells", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nile blue test showing >50% of blue cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nile blue test showing &gt;50% of blue cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of more than 50% orange cells in the Nile blue test indicates fetal lung maturity, whereas more than 50% blue cells suggest immaturity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the wrongly marked structure in the diagram? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-Corpus Callosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C-Hypothalamus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "B-Pituitary gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D-Cerebellum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. C-Hypothalamus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture3_1r7skAE.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. C-Hypothalamus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypothalamus is situated at the base of the brain, just below the thalamus and right above the pituitary gland. This plays a crucial role in many important functions, including releasing hormones, regulating body temperature, maintaining daily physiological cycles, controlling appetite, managing of sexual behavior, and responding to the feeling of being full (eating).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the gestational age of the fetus if the Crown Rump Length is 21 cm, length of lower limb is 10 cm, gestational age of the fetus will be: (AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 to 7 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 to 5 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "7 to 8 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Term", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 6 to 7 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 6 to 7 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Rule of Haase can be used to estimate gestational age from fetal measurements. For a crown-heel length greater than 25 cm, the gestational age is calculated by dividing the crown-heel length by 5.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following types of collagens is involved in wound healing? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type II", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type III", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type V", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-121900_zInpYlJ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Properties of Different types of Collagen:</li><li>➤ Properties of Different types of Collagen:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the person to whom the First-hand knowledge rule is applicable? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Common witness", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hand writing expert", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doctor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hostile witness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Common witness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Common witness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first-hand knowledge rule ensures that the testimony provided by a common witness is based on direct observation and personal experience, thereby maintaining the integrity and reliability of the evidence presented in court.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman delivered a baby with the normal expulsion of an intact placenta. After half an hour she started bleeding per vaginal. On examination, she was hypotensive, and a boggy mass was palpated per abdomen. Ultrasound showed retained placental tissues. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Placenta membranacea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta succenturiata", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Circummarginate placenta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Circumvallate placenta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Placenta succenturiata", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Placenta succenturiate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placenta succenturiata is characterized by an additional lobe of placental tissue separate from the main placenta, which can be retained postpartum, leading to hemorrhage and requiring careful monitoring and management.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 253, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 253, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fluoroacetate is a component of pesticides. Which of the following metabolic pathways is inhibited by this compound? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TCA cycle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycolytic pathway", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxidative phosphorylation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ETC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. TCA cycle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-122100.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) TCA cycle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhibitors of TCA Cycle</li><li>➤ Inhibitors of TCA Cycle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has been on MALA-N for 6 months. She is compliant, but she complained of missed periods. What is the next step? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transvaginal ultrasound", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reassure her that it's normal to have delayed period", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta HCG estimation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum FSH and LH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Beta HCG estimation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Beta HCG estimation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a woman on combined oral contraceptive pills presents with a missed period, the first step is to rule out pregnancy by estimating beta HCG levels.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 622, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 622, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a busy OPD at a District hospital, you are evaluating a 5-year-old boy who presents with fever, generalized malaise, and a distinctive rash. The child's clinical presentation strongly suggests a diagnosis of measles. The mother, anxious about the contagious nature of the disease and the risk it poses to her other kids and family members, inquires about the recommended period of isolation for her infected child. What would be your most appropriate recommendation for the duration of isolation? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "From onset of rash to 3 days after rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 weeks before rash to 1 week after rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "From onset of rash to 5 days after rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "From catarrhal stage to 4 days after rash", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. From catarrhal stage to 4 days after rash", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/disease.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) From catarrhal stage to 4 days after rash</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cancer that least commonly spreads by lymphatic route is: (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Merkel Cell Carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Basal Cell Carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Basal Cell Carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/963.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/964.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Basal Cell Carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basal cell carcinoma is primarily a locally invasive tumor that rarely spreads via the lymphatic or hematogenous routes, distinguishing it from other more aggressive skin cancers.</li><li>➤ Basal cell carcinoma</li><li>➤ locally invasive tumor</li><li>➤ rarely spreads</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "t(11,22) is best diagnosed by: (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conventional karyotyping", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "FISH", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bone marrow aspiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Next generation sequencing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. FISH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/962.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) FISH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FISH is the preferred method for detecting the t(11;22) translocation , due to its ability to precisely identify specific chromosomal abnormalities in various sample types.</li><li>➤ FISH</li><li>➤ t(11;22) translocation</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 340-341 </li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 340-341</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best screening investigation for metabolic disorders?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Western blot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tandem mass spectrometry", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gel electrophoresis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tandem mass spectrometry", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tandem mass spectrometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Tandem mass spectrometry (MS/MS) is the preferred method for screening metabolic disorders due to its ability to simultaneously analyze multiple metabolites with high sensitivity and specificity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old HIV-positive man presented with fever and breathlessness for 2 weeks. Imaging shows dense infiltration in the lower lobe and the lung biopsy showed the following finding. What is the diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Small-cell lung cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CMV-associated organizing pneumonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcal pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CMV-associated organizing pneumonia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/973.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of owl's eye intranuclear inclusions in pneumocytes on lung biopsy, especially in an immunocompromised patient, is strongly suggestive of CMV-associated organizing pneumonia .</li><li>➤ owl's eye intranuclear inclusions</li><li>➤ CMV-associated organizing pneumonia</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 639-640</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 639-640</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The test shown in the image below. Which uses a bacitracin disk, is useful in identifying? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clostridium botulinum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bacillus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Streptococcus pyogenes", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-240.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Streptococcus pyogenes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The bacitracin disk test is used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus), which is characterized by its sensitivity to bacitracin and beta-hemolytic activity on blood agar. This test differentiates S. pyogenes from other beta-hemolytic streptococci, which are resistant to bacitracin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All leukemias come under provisional entity in WHO 2016 classification of hematolymphoid tumours except: (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Natural Killer cell lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with hypodiploidy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute myeloid leukemia with RUNX1 mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Splenic B-cell lymphoma/leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with hypodiploidy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B-lymphoblastic leukemia/ lymphoma with hypodiploidy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The WHO 2016 classification introduced several provisional entities in hematolymphoid neoplasms, which are conditions that are newly recognized or still under study for their clinical significance.</li><li>➤ B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with hypodiploidy is not a provisional entity under the WHO 2016 Classification of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Tumors.</li><li>➤ B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with hypodiploidy</li><li>➤ not a provisional entity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The loading dose of a drug is governed primarily by? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Volume of distribution", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasma half life", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bioavailability", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Volume of distribution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Volume of distribution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The loading dose of a drug is primarily governed by its volume of distribution, which helps achieve the desired plasma concentration quickly, especially when the drug has a long half-life.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While working at a rural health sub-centre, you and a medical intern are analyzing annual infant registration metrics. The intern inquires about the expected annual infant registration rate when a health worker is actively on duty at the sub center. What is the best representation of this rate? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "150", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "200", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 150", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 150</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a rural health sub-centre, the expected annual infant registration rate effectively captures both the births and adjustments for infant mortality. The number 150 serves as a practical target for ensuring all newborns are accounted for within the community health system. This figure supports proactive health planning and resource allocation, emphasizing the importance of accurate and timely health data registration.</li><li>➤ In a rural health sub-centre, the expected annual infant registration rate effectively captures both the births and adjustments for infant mortality.</li><li>➤ The number 150 serves as a practical target for ensuring all newborns are accounted for within the community health system.</li><li>➤ This figure supports proactive health planning and resource allocation, emphasizing the importance of accurate and timely health data registration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The best method to measure HbA 1c is? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoelectric focusing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Affinity chromatography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ion exchange chromatography", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electrophoresis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ion exchange chromatography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ion exchange chromatography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ion-exchange chromatography is considered the gold standard for measuring HbA1c due to its high accuracy and ability to separate HbA1c from other hemoglobin variants based on charge differences.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old female came with hip flexor contracture. What is the most likely test to be done in this case?(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allis test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thomas test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ober test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trendelenburg test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thomas test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_87.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/31/picture1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/31/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/31/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/31/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Thomas test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thomas test is used to assess the hip flexor contracture.</li><li>➤ Thomas test is used to assess the hip flexor contracture.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not require 5' capping? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "tRNA of Alanine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "U6 SnRNA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "mRNA for Histone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SiRNA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. tRNA of Alanine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) tRNA of Alanine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Infertility in Kartagener's syndrome is due to which of the following? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asthenospermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oligospermia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epididymis obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Undescended testes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Asthenospermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Asthenospermia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infertility in Kartagener's syndrome is primarily due to asthenospermia, which is caused by the immobility of sperm. This immotility results from the genetic defect affecting the dynein arm of sperm flagella, similar to the defect affecting cilia in the respiratory tract, leading to the classic symptoms of the syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Pulmonology/Bronchiectasis/Chapter 290</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incorrect statement regarding the picture given below? ( AIIMS May 2018,)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only the roots of this plant are poisonous", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Causes AV block", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drug of choice for poisoning is Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitha zeher is one of the varieties of this plant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Only the roots of this plant are poisonous", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/28/image-4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Only the roots of this plant are poisonous</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aconite:</li><li>➤ Aconite:</li><li>➤ All parts of the plant are poisonous. Aconite is also called as - monkhood, mitha zeher, bish, and bikh. Method of poisoning - It is a cardiac poison and causes AV block, bradycardia. Treatment of choice - Atropine</li><li>➤ All parts of the plant are poisonous.</li><li>➤ Aconite is also called as - monkhood, mitha zeher, bish, and bikh.</li><li>➤ Method of poisoning - It is a cardiac poison and causes AV block, bradycardia.</li><li>➤ Treatment of choice - Atropine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Inferior thyroid artery is the branch of which of the following? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "External carotid artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Internal carotid artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyrocervical trunk", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lingual artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thyrocervical trunk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Thyrocervical trunk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk, which is a branch of the subclavian artery's first part. The inferior thyroid artery ascends anterior to the medial border of the scalenus anterior, then turns medially just below the sixth cervical transverse process and descends on longs colli to the thyroid gland's lower border.</li><li>• The relationships between the terminal branches and the recurrent laryngeal nerve are highly variable and have significant surgical implications.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. External Carotid Artery : The external carotid artery supplies most of the structures in the neck, face, scalp, and the upper part of the skull. This artery has several branches, including the superior thyroid, lingual, facial, maxillary, and superficial temporal arteries, among others. While it does supply areas around the thyroid, especially through its superior thyroid branch, it is not the origin of the inferior thyroid artery.</li><li>• Option A. External Carotid Artery</li><li>• Option B. Internal Carotid Artery : The internal carotid artery has no branches in the neck. Instead, it moves upward to supply the brain and eyes. It's essential for cerebral circulation and plays a crucial role in supplying blood to the brain.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Internal Carotid Artery</li><li>• Option D . Lingual Artery : The lingual artery is a branch of the external carotid artery. It supplies the muscles and mucosa of the tongue. Given its role and location, it is not involved in supplying the thyroid gland or associated structures.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Lingual Artery</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The thyrocervical trunk is a short branch of the subclavian artery, and it supplies numerous structures in the neck. The branches of the thyrocervical trunk are the inferior thyroid artery, the ascending cervical artery, and the transverse cervical artery (which can further divide into superficial and deep branches). The inferior thyroid artery , which arises from the thyrocervical trunk, mainly supplies the thyroid and parathyroid glands.</li><li>➤ inferior thyroid artery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the case of a patient presenting with multiple nodulocystic lesions on the face, which drug is considered the preferred choice for treatment?( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isotretinoin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Isotretinoin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture65555.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-13493.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-13494.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Isotretinoin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Isotretinoin is the preferred treatment for severe nodulocystic acne due to its comprehensive action on reducing sebum production, decreasing inflammation , and normalizing keratinization .</li><li>➤ Isotretinoin</li><li>➤ severe nodulocystic</li><li>➤ reducing sebum</li><li>➤ inflammation</li><li>➤ normalizing keratinization</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Volume 3 Chapter 90 page no 90.7 &amp; 90.37</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Volume 3 Chapter 90 page no 90.7 &amp; 90.37</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A surgeon lends his assistant to a physician; the new employer is responsible for his actions by? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vicarious liability", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doctrine of negligent choice", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contributory negligence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Borrowed servant doctrine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Borrowed servant doctrine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was prescribed escitalopram. Which of the following adverse effect is the least likely?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nausea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vivid dreams", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anorgasmia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sialorrhea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sialorrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sialorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Side effects of SSRIs include:</li><li>➤ Most common: Nausea Most common long-term side effects: Sexual dysfunction including delayed orgasm, poor erection and low libido. CNS side effects- Paradoxical anxiety, sedation, vivid dreams, sweating, seizures, EPSE etc. QTc prolongation Weight gain</li><li>➤ Most common: Nausea</li><li>➤ Most common long-term side effects: Sexual dysfunction including delayed orgasm, poor erection and low libido.</li><li>➤ CNS side effects- Paradoxical anxiety, sedation, vivid dreams, sweating, seizures, EPSE etc.</li><li>➤ QTc prolongation</li><li>➤ Weight gain</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 3156-3158</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a true statement about apoptosis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "There is enzymatic digestion of cellular contents", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Karyolysis is present", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasma membrane remains intact", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is associated with adjacent inflammation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Plasma membrane remains intact", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/974.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-125200.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Plasma membrane remains intact</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 59</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 59</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a boundary of the triangle of doom? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vas deferens", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peritoneal Reflection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iliopubic tract", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spermatic vessels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Iliopubic tract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Iliopubic tract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The triangle of doom is bounded-</li><li>➤ The triangle of doom is bounded-</li><li>➤ Medially by the vas deferens Laterally by the vessels of the spermatic cord Inferiorly by peritoneal reflection</li><li>➤ Medially by the vas deferens</li><li>➤ Laterally by the vessels of the spermatic cord</li><li>➤ Inferiorly by peritoneal reflection</li><li>➤ Apex is oriented superiorly at the internal ring</li><li>➤ The contents of the space are-</li><li>➤ The contents of the space are-</li><li>➤ External iliac vessels</li><li>➤ External iliac vessels</li><li>➤ Note: Staples must be avoided in this region during hernia repair due to the risk of injury to the vessels which might cause severe hemorrhage.</li><li>➤ Note:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infant presented to the OPD with a history of vomiting and poor feeding. Musty odor is present in the baby's sweat and urine. Guthrie test was done and it was found to be positive. All are true regarding this disease except? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "White patch of hair due to tryptophan deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenylacetate positive in urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mental retardation is present", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. White patch of hair due to tryptophan deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) White patch of hair due to tryptophan deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PKU is characterized by a deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to elevated phenylalanine levels and its metabolites, which cause neurological symptoms, hypopigmentation, and a musty odor. Early detection and dietary management are crucial for preventing severe mental retardation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old man from west Garo Hill district of Meghalaya presents to the Civil Hospital with intermittent fever, chills, and malaise. Laboratory findings confirm the diagnosis of P. falciparum malaria. The region is known for its Multidrug- resistant strains of P. falciparum. Which of the following antimalarial regimens is considered the most appropriate first-line treatment for P. falciparum malaria in areas with multidrug-resistant strains? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Artemether plus lumefantrine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Artesunate plus Sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mefloquine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Artemether plus lumefantrine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Artemether plus lumefantrine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For P. falciparum malaria in regions with known drug resistance, artemether plus lumefantrine is the most effective first-line treatment, ensuring rapid and sustained clearance of the malaria parasite.</li><li>➤ For P. falciparum malaria in regions with known drug resistance, artemether plus lumefantrine is the most effective first-line treatment, ensuring rapid and sustained clearance of the malaria parasite.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a Medical Officer at a Community Health Center (CHC), you're consulted by a mother about starting immunizations for her 13-month-old son who hasn't received any vaccines since birth. Based on the national immunization schedule, which combination of vaccines would you recommend for this child's initial immunization? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BCG, OPV 1st dose, Pentavalent 1st dose, Rota virus 1st dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "OPV 1st dose, Pentavalent 1st dose, Measles 1st dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BCG, OPV 1st dose, Measles 1st dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "OPV 1st dose, DPT 1st dose, Measles 1st dose", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. OPV 1st dose, DPT 1st dose, Measles 1st dose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture62222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) OPV 1st dose, DPT 1st dose, Measles 1st dose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Age Limits for Delayed Immunization in NIS, India</li><li>➤ Age Limits for Delayed Immunization in NIS, India</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to you with inability to form words but can make noises. He also knows what he wants to say. What area of the brain has been damaged in this patient? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wernicke's area", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Broca's area", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heschl's gyrus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Striate area", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Broca's area", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Broca's area</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are overseeing the arrival of vaccines at a remote clinic. To ensure the vaccines have maintained their potency during transit, which tool would you use? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "e-VIN", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Freeze indicator", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaccine vial monitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fridge indicator", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vaccine vial monitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture52222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture422.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vaccine vial monitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism shown below, which causes effacement and attachment of intestinal cells? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ETEC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "EIEC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ЕРЕС", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "EHEC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ЕРЕС", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-246.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-122710.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) EPEC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman has cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III. What would be the management? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trachelectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conization", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colposcopy with LEEP", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Colposcopy with LEEP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Colposcopy with LEEP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III (CIN 3) is a severe form of cervical dysplasia that is diagnosed by cervical biopsy. The standard treatment for CIN 2 or CIN 3 is an excisional procedure, which aims to remove the affected tissue to prevent progression to invasive cancer.</li><li>• LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure): LEEP is the excisional procedure of choice for treating CIN 3. It involves using a thin wire loop that is heated by electric current to excise the transformation zone of the cervix where abnormal cells are located. LEEP is also known as LLETZ (Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone).</li><li>• LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure):</li><li>• LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure):</li><li>• LEEP is the excisional procedure of choice for treating CIN 3. It involves using a thin wire loop that is heated by electric current to excise the transformation zone of the cervix where abnormal cells are located. LEEP is also known as LLETZ (Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone).</li><li>• LEEP is the excisional procedure of choice for treating CIN 3. It involves using a thin wire loop that is heated by electric current to excise the transformation zone of the cervix where abnormal cells are located. LEEP is also known as LLETZ (Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone).</li><li>• LEEP is the excisional procedure of choice for treating CIN 3.</li><li>• It involves using a thin wire loop that is heated by electric current to excise the transformation zone of the cervix where abnormal cells are located.</li><li>• LEEP is also known as LLETZ (Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone).</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Hysterectomy: This is a more radical procedure that involves the removal of the uterus. It is generally not the first-line treatment for CIN 3 unless there are other indications, such as concurrent invasive cancer or other gynecological conditions.</li><li>• Option A. Hysterectomy:</li><li>• Option B. Trachelectomy: This procedure involves removing the cervix while preserving the uterus. It is more commonly used for early-stage cervical cancer in women who wish to preserve fertility.</li><li>• Option B. Trachelectomy:</li><li>• Option C. Conization: While conization (removal of a cone-shaped piece of tissue from the cervix) is a valid treatment for CIN 3, LEEP is often preferred due to its effectiveness and lower morbidity.</li><li>• Option C. Conization:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CIN 3 is best treated with an excisional procedure, with the Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure (LEEP) being the procedure of choice.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 328, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 328, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Loss of flexion at the interphalangeal joint of thumb after supracondylar fracture is due to the involvement of? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deep branch of ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median Nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior interosseous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior interosseous nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Anterior interosseous nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Anterior interosseous nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flexion of thumb occurs at 2 joints:</li><li>➤ Flexion of thumb occurs at 2 joints:</li><li>➤ IP joint: Flexor pollicis longs (FPL) supplied by the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve, C7 and C8). MCP joint: Flexor pollicis brevis (FPB supplied by the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve.</li><li>➤ IP joint: Flexor pollicis longs (FPL) supplied by the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve, C7 and C8).</li><li>➤ MCP joint: Flexor pollicis brevis (FPB supplied by the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve.</li><li>➤ Most commonly injured nerve in SCH fracture: AIN &gt; Median &gt; Radial &gt; Ulnar (AMRU)</li><li>➤ AIN &gt; Median &gt; Radial &gt; Ulnar (AMRU)</li><li>➤ Deep branch of ulnar nerve → ulnar claw hand Posterior interosseous nerve → innervates the extensor muscles of the wrist and fingers. Weakness or paralysis of these muscles can cause difficulty in extending the wrist and fingers</li><li>➤ Deep branch of ulnar nerve → ulnar claw hand</li><li>➤ Posterior interosseous nerve → innervates the extensor muscles of the wrist and fingers. Weakness or paralysis of these muscles can cause difficulty in extending the wrist and fingers</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a medical student, you're learning about the margin of error and its relationship with sample size. With three studies of different sizes (Sample 1: 1000, Sample 2: 800, Sample 3: 600), how would you order the expected margins of error from largest to smallest? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 &gt;2&gt;1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "3&gt;1&gt;2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1&gt;2&gt;3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1=2=3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3 >2>1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip8.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 3&gt;2&gt;1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The margin of error in a study is inversely related to the square root of the sample size. This relationship implies that a larger sample size will generally lead to a smaller margin of error, assuming other variables like variance remain constant.</li><li>➤ The margin of error in a study is inversely related to the square root of the sample size.</li><li>➤ This relationship implies that a larger sample size will generally lead to a smaller margin of error, assuming other variables like variance remain constant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male presents with severe backache for 10 days and urinary incontinence with a history of intervertebral lumbar disc prolapse. There is no H/o fever or weight loss. What is the likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Potts spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cauda equina syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone metastasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cauda equina syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cauda equina syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presenting symptoms and history of the patient are suggestive of cauda equine syndrome caused due to lumbar disc prolapse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful in which of the following gynecological malignancies? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carcinoma vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carcinoma vulva", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoma cervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carcinoma endometrium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Carcinoma vulva", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Carcinoma vulva</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful in vulvar carcinoma among gynecological malignancies to reduce unnecessary lymph node dissection and its complications.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 608, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 608, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Purkinje cells of cerebellum relay into: ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caudate nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lentiform nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dentate nucleus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Red nucleus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dentate nucleus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Dentate nucleus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The cerebellum's purkinje cells relay information to the dentate nucleus, one of the deep cerebellar nuclei.</li><li>• It is the cerebellum's distinguishing cell. It is a large flask-shaped cell. Climbing fibres from the inferior olivary nucleus stimulate it. This cell's main output is inhibitory in nature and is directed at cerebellar nuclei. These are the most important output neurons.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Caudate Nucleus : It's one of the structures that make up the basal ganglia in the brain. The caudate nucleus has a long, C-shaped structure and is located laterally in the brain, near the lateral ventricles. It plays roles in various functions like voluntary movement control, learning, memory, and emotion. Purkinje cells do not primarily relay into the caudate nucleus.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Caudate Nucleus</li><li>• Option B . Lentiform Nucleus : Another component of the basal ganglia, the lentiform nucleus is located deep within the brain and is laterally placed in relation to the thalamus. The lentiform nucleus is made up of two structures: the putamen and the globus pallidus. It's involved in movement regulation and other functions. Purkinje cells do not have a direct relay into the lentiform nucleus.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Lentiform Nucleus</li><li>• Option D. Red Nucleus : Found in the midbrain, the red nucleus has a reddish hue due to its rich blood supply and the presence of iron. It plays a role in motor coordination, particularly in the coordination of limb movements. While the red nucleus does receive input from the cerebellum, the primary relay from Purkinje cells is to the deep cerebellar nuclei, not directly to the red nucleus. The dentate nucleus, in turn, can send projections to the red nucleus.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Red Nucleus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dentate Nucleus is one of the deep cerebellar nuclei and is situated within the white matter of the cerebellum. The dentate nucleus is the largest of the deep cerebellar nuclei and plays a role in the planning, initiation, and control of voluntary movements.</li><li>➤ Dentate Nucleus</li><li>➤ Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex send inhibitory projections to the deep cerebellar nuclei, including the dentate nucleus. This is the main output pathway for the cerebellar cortex.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gamma delta T cell receptors (γδ TCRs) recognizes? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lipids without MHC proteins", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peptides with MHC proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CD20", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CD3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lipids without MHC proteins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gamma delta T cell receptors (γδ TCRs) are unique in that they can recognize lipids and other molecules without the need for MHC protein presentation , distinguishing them from the more common αβ T cells.</li><li>➤ Gamma delta T cell receptors (γδ TCRs)</li><li>➤ lipids and other molecules without the need for MHC protein presentation</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 353</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 353</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-day-old neonate presented with recurrent bilious vomiting. An X-ray erect abdomen is shown below. What is the next best step in managing this condition? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Upper GI endocscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastrograffin follow-through", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "USG abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Explorative laparotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gastrograffin follow-through", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-87_OM36NsA.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gastrograffin follow-through</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Small bowel atresia’s present with intestinal obstruction soon after birth.</li><li>➤ Bilious vomiting is the dominant feature in jejunal atresia Abdominal distension is more prominent with ileal atresia.</li><li>➤ Bilious vomiting is the dominant feature in jejunal atresia</li><li>➤ Abdominal distension is more prominent with ileal atresia.</li><li>➤ A small amount of pale meconium may be passed despite the atresia.</li><li>➤ Plain abdominal radiographs show a variable number of dilated loops of bowel and fluid levels according to the level of obstruction</li><li>➤ In most cases of jejunal/ileal atresia, the distal end of the dilated proximal small bowel is resected and a primary end-to-end anastomosis is performed. If the proximal bowel is extremely dilated, it may need to be tapered to the distal bowel before anastomosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the correct statement regarding CMV? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ganciclovir resistance is due to mutation in UL97 phosphotransferase gene", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CMV can be cultured in vitro in any mammalian cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Commonest manifestation of CMV associated disease is watery diarrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "UL54 mutated CMV strains do not show cross resistance to Foscarnet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ganciclovir resistance is due to mutation in UL97 phosphotransferase gene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ganciclovir resistance is due to mutation in UL97 phosphotransferase gene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CMV is ganciclovir resistance is due to mutation in the UL97 phosphotransferase gene. This gene is responsible for the initial phosphorylation of ganciclovir, and mutations here can prevent the drug's activation, leading to resistance. Human CMV replicates in vitro only in human fibroblasts, and UL54 mutations can confer cross-resistance to multiple antiviral drugs, including foscarnet. CMV infections are mostly subclinical, and the common manifestations in immunocompromised patients are not typically watery diarrhea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person presents with a tongue ulcer persisting for 3 months. Upon examination, a lesion measuring 3.5 cm x 2.5 cm is observed, accompanied by an 8 mm area of hardened tissue. No lymph node enlargement is detected. According to the 8th AJCC guidelines, what stage does this lesion correspond to? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage II", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage III", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stage II", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-163941.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/How%20to%20use%20the%20App%20-%20Copy.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Stage II</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition pg 256</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition pg 256</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a journal club discussion on a randomized controlled trial comparing two surgical techniques for direct inguinal hernia, the reported p-value is 0.04. What is the most accurate interpretation of this p-value? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type II error is small and we can accept the findings of the study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The probability of false negative conclusion that operation A is better than B is 4%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The power of the study to detect the difference between operation A and B is 96%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The probability of a false positive conclusion that operation A is better than B is 4%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. The probability of a false positive conclusion that operation A is better than B is 4%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) The probability of a false positive conclusion that operation A is better than B is 4%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A p-value of 0.04 suggests that there is a statistically significant difference, at the 5% significance level, between the surgical techniques being compared, assuming the risk of a false positive conclusion is acceptable at 4%.</li><li>➤ A p-value of 0.04 suggests that there is a statistically significant difference, at the 5% significance level, between the surgical techniques being compared, assuming the risk of a false positive conclusion is acceptable at 4%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adolescent girl complains of dropping objects from hands precipitated during morning hours and exams. There is no history of loss of consciousness. One of her cousins has been diagnosed with epilepsy. EEG was suggestive of epileptic spikes. What is the most probable diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atypical absence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Choreo-athetoid epilepsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Centrotemporal spikes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME) is characterized by myoclonic jerks, typically occurring in the morning, with preserved consciousness and a good response to sodium valproate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the site of lesion in internuclear ophthalmoplegia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "6th Nerve nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pontine paramedian reticular formation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A &amp; C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture10_PoSvVid.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classic presentation of internuclear ophthalmoplegia involves a failure of adduction in the affected eye due to a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus. Recognizing this pathway and its role in horizontal eye movement coordination is crucial for diagnosing and understanding the clinical manifestations of INO.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Size cut off for operating an abdominal aortic aneurysm is greater than? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5.5 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "6.5 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 5.5 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 5.5 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AAA refers to an enlargement or ballooning of the abdominal aorta. It can be a potentially life-threatening condition if it ruptures.</li><li>➤ The size of the AAA is a crucial factor in determining the need for surgical intervention. The risk of rupture increases significantly as the size of the aneurysm grows.</li><li>➤ An asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm in an otherwise fit patient is considered for repair if &gt;55 mm in diameter (measured by ultrasonography). The annual incidence of rupture rises from 1% or less in aneurysms that are &lt;55 mm in diameter to a significant level of nearly 25%, in those that are 70 mm in diameter.</li><li>➤ As open elective surgery (transabdominal) carries a 5% mortality rate, the balance is in favor of elective operation once the maximum diameter is &gt;55 mm.</li><li>➤ 6 monthly follow-up ultrasonographic surveillance is indicated for asymptomatic aneurysms &lt;55 mm in diameter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A bashful young man who prefers social solitude appears emotionally frigid and lives alone. There is no history of delusions or hallucinations. The most likely explanation is? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paranoid personality disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schizoid personality disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antisocial personality disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emotionally unstable personality disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Schizoid personality disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Schizoid personality disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by detachment from social relationships and prefer solitary activities . They are emotionally cold and are indifferent to praise or criticism. There is also an absence of close relationships . It is classified as a Cluster A personality disorder.</li><li>➤ detachment</li><li>➤ solitary activities</li><li>➤ emotionally cold</li><li>➤ absence of close relationships</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 2152</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following heart sounds would be normal in pregnancy? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "S3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "S4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fixed splitting of S2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pericardial knock", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. S3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) S3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• During pregnancy, the cardiovascular system undergoes significant changes to accommodate the increased blood volume and cardiac output required to support both the mother and the developing fetus. One of the normal physiological changes includes the presence of the S3 heart sound.</li><li>• S3 Heart Sound: The S3 sound, also known as the ventricular gallop, is due to rapid diastolic filling of the ventricles. It is commonly heard in pregnant women due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output.</li><li>• S3 Heart Sound: The S3 sound, also known as the ventricular gallop, is due to rapid diastolic filling of the ventricles. It is commonly heard in pregnant women due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output.</li><li>• S3 Heart Sound:</li><li>• Other heart sounds mentioned are not typically considered normal in pregnancy</li><li>• Other heart sounds mentioned are not typically considered normal in pregnancy</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. S4 Heart Sound: The S4 sound, or atrial gallop, is generally associated with pathological conditions such as left ventricular hypertrophy or myocardial ischemia. It is rare in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. S4 Heart Sound:</li><li>• Option C. Fixed Splitting of S2: Fixed splitting of the second heart sound is usually indicative of an atrial septal defect (ASD) and is not normal in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option C. Fixed Splitting of S2:</li><li>• Option D. Pericardial Knock: This is a sound heard in cases of constrictive pericarditis and is not a normal finding in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option D. Pericardial Knock:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The S3 heart sound is considered normal during pregnancy due to the increased blood volume and rapid diastolic filling of the ventricles.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 178, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 178, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with left-sided facial paralysis and weakness for the past 1 hour. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg and CT shows dense MCA sign. What would be your next step? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nothing, since CT was normal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start on aspirin + clopidogrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous thrombolysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Advice BP control", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intravenous thrombolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture57.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Intravenous thrombolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of acute ischemic stroke with clear indications, intravenous thrombolysis should be administered as soon as possible within the therapeutic window to improve outcomes. Immediate evaluation and management are critical to maximize recovery and minimize long-term disability.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a physician on a disaster preparedness committee in a region prone to natural disasters, you are discussing the appropriate sequence of actions following a disaster. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the appropriate steps in disaster management after the event has taken place? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Response- Mitigation- Reconstruction- Rehabilitation- Preparedness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitigation- Rehabilitation- Reconstruction- Preparedness- response", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Response- Rehabilitation- Reconstruction- Mitigation- Preparedness", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitigation- Preparedness- Reconstruction- Rehabilitation- Response", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Response- Rehabilitation- Reconstruction- Mitigation- Preparedness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/whatsapp-image-2023-10-20-at-173957.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Response – Rehabilitation – Reconstruction – Mitigation – Preparedness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Disaster Cycle</li><li>➤ Disaster Cycle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly diabetic and hypertensive patient was carried to the emergency room in a comatose state. On examination, the blood pressure was 170/100 mmHg and pulse rate were &gt;100/min. Plantar reflex was bilateral extensor. What is the next step to do? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Check blood sugar level", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give oral antihypertensive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV mannitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT brain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Check blood sugar level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture52.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Check Blood sugar level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial management of any comatose patient, particularly those with diabetes, should include rapid assessment of blood glucose levels to rule out hypo- or hyperglycemia as a reversible cause of the coma. This immediate action can be life-saving and should precede other investigations and treatments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following hormones will be secreted in high amounts by the ovarian granulosa cells during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "LH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Estrogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Estrogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, ovarian granulosa cells secrete high amounts of estrogen, which is crucial for the proliferation of the endometrium and regulation of FSH and LH levels.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 78, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 78, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In what situations does Gelle's test yield a negative result?(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CSOM with Cholesteatoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Senile deafness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meniere's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Otosclerosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Otosclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gelle’s test is instrumental in diagnosing conditions involving ossicular chain mobility. A negative Gelle's test, indicating ossicular fixation, is particularly indicative of otosclerosis, which is crucial for determining appropriate management strategies, including potential surgical interventions like stapedectomy for improving hearing.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 24, 25</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 24, 25</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following will not commonly present as shown in the image below?(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichophyton", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microsporum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspergillus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epidermophyton", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aspergillus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture1_bkii7yU.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture2_HyT1gmF.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture3_CejtCjC.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture4_i2iKIuX.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-124415.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aspergillus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation: Trichophyton species are among the most common dermatophytes associated with Tinea cruris. They infect skin, hair, and nails and are known for their role in various forms of tinea, including Tinea cruris.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Why it could present as shown: Trichophyton often causes ring-shaped lesions with a clear center and scaly borders, matching the typical presentation of Tinea cruris.</li><li>• Why it could present as shown:</li><li>• Option B. Microsporum:</li><li>• Option B. Microsporum:</li><li>• Explanation: While Microsporum primarily infects the hair and skin and is less commonly associated with Tinea cruris compared to Trichophyton, it can still cause dermatophytic infections of the groin. Why it could present as shown: Microsporum can cause similar clinical manifestations as Trichophyton in Tinea infections, including red, itchy, and ring-shaped rashes.</li><li>• Explanation: While Microsporum primarily infects the hair and skin and is less commonly associated with Tinea cruris compared to Trichophyton, it can still cause dermatophytic infections of the groin.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Why it could present as shown: Microsporum can cause similar clinical manifestations as Trichophyton in Tinea infections, including red, itchy, and ring-shaped rashes.</li><li>• Why it could present as shown:</li><li>• Option D. Epidermophyton:</li><li>• Option D. Epidermophyton:</li><li>• Explanation: Epidermophyton floccosum specifically targets the skin and nails and is a known causative agent of Tinea cruris. This fungus does not infect the hair, differentiating it from some other dermatophytes. Why it could present as shown: Similar to other dermatophytes, Epidermophyton can cause the classic ring-shaped lesions of Tinea cruris with involvement of the groin area.</li><li>• Explanation: Epidermophyton floccosum specifically targets the skin and nails and is a known causative agent of Tinea cruris. This fungus does not infect the hair, differentiating it from some other dermatophytes.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Why it could present as shown: Similar to other dermatophytes, Epidermophyton can cause the classic ring-shaped lesions of Tinea cruris with involvement of the groin area.</li><li>• Why it could present as shown:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspergillus species do not typically cause superficial skin infections such as tinea cruris; instead, they are more associated with respiratory system conditions. Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton are genera of fungi that commonly cause dermatophytosis like the tinea infections seen in the presented image.</li><li>➤ Aspergillus species</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ superficial skin</li><li>➤ respiratory</li><li>➤ Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton</li><li>➤ dermatophytosis</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4. Page no 4.11, 4.13</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4. Page no 4.11, 4.13</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.18-20</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.18-20</li><li>➤ Ananthanarayan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Page no 599</li><li>➤ Ananthanarayan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Page no 599</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs should be sold only on prescription from a registered medical practitioner? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Schedule M drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schedule H drugs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schedule J drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schedule X drugs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Schedule H drugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Schedule H drugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The important schedules under the “Drugs and Cosmetics Act” are:</li><li>➤ Schedule H – The drugs that can be sold only by prescription where Rx is written in black color. Schedule H1 – for antibiotics where Rx is written in red color. Schedule G – Drugs that need labelling as “Dangerous to use except under medical supervision.” Schedule X – Psychotropic drugs that have a high abuse liability and are to be sold with a valid prescription only. Schedule P drug – describes the life period of drugs in months (unless otherwise specified) between the date of manufacture and date of expiry. Schedule M – GMP or Good Manufacturing Practices. Schedule J - List of diseases and ailments which a drug may not claim to prevent or cure</li><li>➤ Schedule H – The drugs that can be sold only by prescription where Rx is written in black color.</li><li>➤ Schedule H</li><li>➤ Schedule H1 – for antibiotics where Rx is written in red color.</li><li>➤ Schedule H1</li><li>➤ Schedule G – Drugs that need labelling as “Dangerous to use except under medical supervision.”</li><li>➤ Schedule G</li><li>➤ Schedule X – Psychotropic drugs that have a high abuse liability and are to be sold with a valid prescription only.</li><li>➤ Schedule X</li><li>➤ Schedule P drug – describes the life period of drugs in months (unless otherwise specified) between the date of manufacture and date of expiry.</li><li>➤ Schedule P drug</li><li>➤ Schedule M – GMP or Good Manufacturing Practices.</li><li>➤ Schedule M</li><li>➤ Schedule J - List of diseases and ailments which a drug may not claim to prevent or cure</li><li>➤ Schedule J</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incorrect statement about intestinal transplantation: (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Most of the grafts are multi-visceral grafts.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is not widely used due to vigorous rejection reactions.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The most dangerous complication is sepsis.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The most common indication is the ischemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Most of the grafts are multi-visceral grafts.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Most of the grafts are multi-visceral grafts</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multi-visceral grafts are rarely used in intestinal transplantation. The most common intestinal graft is small bowel graft, with or without the colon or a combined liver and small bowel graft.</li><li>➤ All the other statements are correct.</li><li>➤ Small bowel transplantation is the final treatment option when the outcome of reconstruction and lengthening procedures are unsatisfactory.</li><li>➤ The small bowel transplant is highly immunogenic as it contains a large amount of gut-associated lymphoid tissue, donor dendritic cells, and macrophages. Acute rejection has been reported in 56-75% of patients, with small bowel transplant limiting the overall survival to only one-third of recipients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following arteries does not supply the corresponding region of the dura mater? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Middle meningeal artery - Anterior cranial fossa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Accessory meningeal branch of maxillary artery - Middle cranial fossa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meningeal branch of internal carotid artery - Posterior cranial fossa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meningeal branch of anterior and posterior ethmoid artery - Anterior cranial fossa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Meningeal branch of internal carotid artery - Posterior cranial fossa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Meningeal branch of internal carotid artery - Posterior cranial fossa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is the incorrect pairing. The meningeal branch of the internal carotid artery doesn't primarily supply the dura mater of the posterior cranial fossa. Instead, the dura of the posterior cranial fossa is mainly supplied by branches from the vertebral arteries, such as the posterior meningeal artery.</li><li>• This is the incorrect pairing. The meningeal branch of the internal carotid artery doesn't primarily supply the dura mater of the posterior cranial fossa. Instead, the dura of the posterior cranial fossa is mainly supplied by branches from the vertebral arteries, such as the posterior meningeal artery.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Middle meningeal artery - Anterior cranial fossa : The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery. It is the most significant arterial supply to the dura mater. After entering the skull through the foramen spinosum, it typically divides into anterior and posterior branches. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery supplies the dura mater overlying the anterior cranial fossa.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Middle meningeal artery - Anterior cranial fossa</li><li>• Option B. Accessory meningeal branch of the maxillary artery - Middle cranial fossa : The accessory meningeal artery is a smaller branch that originates from the maxillary artery. It enters the middle cranial fossa through the foramen ovale. This artery supplies the dura of the middle cranial fossa.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Accessory meningeal branch of the maxillary artery - Middle cranial fossa</li><li>• Option D . Meningeal branch of anterior and posterior ethmoid artery - Anterior cranial fossa : The anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries arise from the ophthalmic artery (a branch of the internal carotid artery). These arteries have meningeal branches that supply the dura mater in the anterior cranial fossa, specifically the region overlying the ethmoid bone and the frontal bone's adjacent parts.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Meningeal branch of anterior and posterior ethmoid artery - Anterior cranial fossa</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The internal carotid artery (ICA) meningeal branch supply blood to the anterior cranial fossa. The dura mater is supplied by meningeal arteries, which run along the inner periosteum (endosteum) of the skull and supply the following regions.</li><li>➤ The internal carotid artery (ICA) meningeal branch supply blood to the anterior cranial fossa.</li><li>➤ The dura mater is supplied by meningeal arteries, which run along the inner periosteum (endosteum) of the skull and supply the following regions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The child in the picture has large corneas, photophobia, and lacrimation. What is the likely diagnosis? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital glaucoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital hereditary endothelial dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Megalocornea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital glaucoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture6_xZp1Uzt.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture8_uXBfm5X.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-153026.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital glaucoma is characterized by symptoms like enlarged corneas, photophobia, and excessive lacrimation due to elevated intraocular pressure from developmental anomalies in the anterior chamber angle. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent permanent vision loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "HPV nonavalent vaccine is active against which of the following serotypes? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6, 11, 16, 18, 20, 23, 35, 42, 52", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6, 11, 16, 19, 23, 33, 45, 58", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6, 11, 16, 18, 32, 34, 45, 52, 58", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• HPV Vaccines available are:</li><li>• Cervarix (Bivalent): 16, 18 Gardasil (Quadrivalent): 6, 11, 16, 18 Nonavalent: (Gardasil 9 or HPV9): 6, 11, 16, 18,31,33,45,52,58. Cervavac (India’s indigenous HPV vaccine): Quadrivalent: 6,11,16,18</li><li>• Cervarix (Bivalent): 16, 18</li><li>• Gardasil (Quadrivalent): 6, 11, 16, 18</li><li>• Nonavalent: (Gardasil 9 or HPV9): 6, 11, 16, 18,31,33,45,52,58.</li><li>• Cervavac (India’s indigenous HPV vaccine): Quadrivalent: 6,11,16,18</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HPV nonavalent vaccine is active against serotypes 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58.</li><li>➤ 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.who.int/news/item/20-12-2022-WHO-updates-recommendations-on-HPV-vaccination-schedule</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/news/item/20-12-2022-WHO-updates-recommendations-on-HPV-vaccination-schedule</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Human herpesvirus 8 is associated with all except? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kaposi sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Castleman's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adult T-cell leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primary effusion lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Adult T-cell leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Adult T-cell leukemia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child with a history of fall 1 year back with parietal bone fracture, has now presented with a painful and growing parietal swelling. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Growing scalp hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Growing fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subdural hygroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Growing fracture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Growing fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A growing fracture is a rare but serious condition in young children, often presenting as a growing swelling over a skull fracture site within a year of the initial injury. Early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent long-term complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a reaction, the substrate is available in a concentration that is 1000 times the Km value of the enzyme. After 9 minutes of reaction, 1% of substrate is converted to product (12 microgram/ml). If the concentration of the enzyme is changed to 1/3 and concentration of substrate is doubled, what is the time taken to convert the substrate into the same amount of product that i.e., 12 microgram/ml? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "9 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4.5 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "27 minutes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "13.5 minutes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 27 minutes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 27 minutes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In zero-order kinetics, the reaction rate is independent of substrate concentration but directly proportional to enzyme concentration. Reducing the enzyme concentration to 1/3 increases the time taken to produce the same amount of product by a factor of 3.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are false regarding X Rays? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loss of soft tissue planes is the earliest X-ray change of infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glass pieces can be seen as radiopaque in X-ray images", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cartilage is not visualized on X-ray.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Live bone is more radio-opaque than dead bone on X- Ray", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Live bone is more radio-opaque than dead bone on X- Ray", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Live bone is more radio-opaque than dead bone on X- Ray images.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• On X-ray imaging, dead bones are whiter (more radio-opaque) than live bone due to absence of bone resorption activity as vascular demineralization is lost. This is known as sequestrum.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Loss of soft tissue planes is the earliest X-ray change of infection: This statement is true. The loss of definition of soft tissue planes due to swelling or fluid accumulation is often the earliest radiographic sign of infection, typically appearing within 24-48 hours after disease onset.</li><li>• Option A. Loss of soft tissue planes is the earliest X-ray change of infection:</li><li>• Option B. Glass pieces can be seen as radiopaque on X-ray images: This is true. Glass, especially if it contains lead, shows up as radiopaque on X-rays, making it visible.</li><li>• Option B. Glass pieces can be seen as radiopaque on X-ray images:</li><li>• Option C. Cartilage is not visualized on X-ray: This is true. Cartilage itself does not appear on X-rays because it does not absorb X-rays well; the space where cartilage is located appears radiolucent, which is often perceived as joint space.</li><li>• Option C. Cartilage is not visualized on X-ray:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ On X-ray imaging, dead bone appears more radio-opaque than live bone due to the lack of resorption activity. Understanding these differences is crucial for correctly interpreting radiologic findings related to bone vitality and infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An athlete suffers a fracture as shown in the knee X-ray below. How is this fracture managed? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tension band wiring", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Compression plating", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal fixation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "K-wire fixation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tension band wiring", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-110859.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-110958.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tension band wiring</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tension band wiring is the gold standard treatment for the two-part patella fracture.</li><li>➤ Tension band wiring is the gold standard treatment for the two-part patella fracture.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman with cardiac disease is on warfarin therapy. When will the final switch to heparin be advised? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "At the onset of labor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "34 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "36 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "40 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 36 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 36 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The management of anticoagulation in pregnant women with cardiac disease involves switching from warfarin to heparin at specific times to minimize the risk of complications to the fetus and to prepare for delivery.</li><li>• Switch to Heparin at 36 Weeks: According to guidelines from the American College of Chest Physicians, pregnant women on warfarin therapy should switch to heparin at 36 weeks of gestation. This is done to reduce the risk of bleeding complications during labor and delivery.</li><li>• Switch to Heparin at 36 Weeks: According to guidelines from the American College of Chest Physicians, pregnant women on warfarin therapy should switch to heparin at 36 weeks of gestation. This is done to reduce the risk of bleeding complications during labor and delivery.</li><li>• Switch to Heparin at 36 Weeks:</li><li>• Guidelines Summary:</li><li>• Guidelines Summary:</li><li>• Early Pregnancy (up to 12 weeks): Discontinue warfarin as soon as pregnancy is diagnosed, especially if the warfarin dose is &gt;5mg/day, due to the risk of warfarin embryopathy. Replace with heparin (5,000 units twice daily subcutaneously) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). After 12 Weeks to 36 Weeks: Warfarin can be resumed after the 12th week and continued up to 36 weeks. At 36 Weeks: Switch from warfarin to heparin (either unfractionated or LMWH). Just Before Delivery: Discontinue heparin just before delivery. Postpartum: Restart heparin (unfractionated or LMWH) 6 hours after vaginal delivery and 24 hours after cesarean section. Warfarin therapy can also be safely resumed during breastfeeding.</li><li>• Early Pregnancy (up to 12 weeks): Discontinue warfarin as soon as pregnancy is diagnosed, especially if the warfarin dose is &gt;5mg/day, due to the risk of warfarin embryopathy. Replace with heparin (5,000 units twice daily subcutaneously) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).</li><li>• Early Pregnancy (up to 12 weeks):</li><li>• Discontinue warfarin as soon as pregnancy is diagnosed, especially if the warfarin dose is &gt;5mg/day, due to the risk of warfarin embryopathy. Replace with heparin (5,000 units twice daily subcutaneously) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).</li><li>• Discontinue warfarin as soon as pregnancy is diagnosed, especially if the warfarin dose is &gt;5mg/day, due to the risk of warfarin embryopathy.</li><li>• Replace with heparin (5,000 units twice daily subcutaneously) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).</li><li>• After 12 Weeks to 36 Weeks: Warfarin can be resumed after the 12th week and continued up to 36 weeks.</li><li>• After 12 Weeks to 36 Weeks:</li><li>• Warfarin can be resumed after the 12th week and continued up to 36 weeks.</li><li>• Warfarin can be resumed after the 12th week and continued up to 36 weeks.</li><li>• At 36 Weeks: Switch from warfarin to heparin (either unfractionated or LMWH).</li><li>• At 36 Weeks:</li><li>• Switch from warfarin to heparin (either unfractionated or LMWH).</li><li>• Switch from warfarin to heparin (either unfractionated or LMWH).</li><li>• Just Before Delivery: Discontinue heparin just before delivery.</li><li>• Just Before Delivery:</li><li>• Discontinue heparin just before delivery.</li><li>• Discontinue heparin just before delivery.</li><li>• Postpartum: Restart heparin (unfractionated or LMWH) 6 hours after vaginal delivery and 24 hours after cesarean section. Warfarin therapy can also be safely resumed during breastfeeding.</li><li>• Postpartum:</li><li>• Restart heparin (unfractionated or LMWH) 6 hours after vaginal delivery and 24 hours after cesarean section. Warfarin therapy can also be safely resumed during breastfeeding.</li><li>• Restart heparin (unfractionated or LMWH) 6 hours after vaginal delivery and 24 hours after cesarean section.</li><li>• Warfarin therapy can also be safely resumed during breastfeeding.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The final switch from warfarin to heparin in pregnant women with cardiac disease is advised at 36 weeks of gestation to minimize the risk of bleeding complications during labor and delivery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given the particular appearance and characteristics of the box-whisker plot as shown below, which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationships between the mean, median, and mode? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mean &gt; Median &gt; Mode", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mode &gt; Median &gt; Mean", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mode = Mean = Median", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peaked symmetrical distribution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mean > Median > Mode", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture8222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mean &gt; Median &gt; Mode</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Right skew curve: Mean &gt; Median &gt; Mode In Left skew curve: Mean &lt; Median &lt; Mode In Normal distribution: Mean = Median = Mode.</li><li>➤ In Right skew curve: Mean &gt; Median &gt; Mode</li><li>➤ In Left skew curve: Mean &lt; Median &lt; Mode</li><li>➤ In Normal distribution: Mean = Median = Mode.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Neurovascular bundle is absent in which compartment of the leg? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral compartment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior superficial compartment", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior deep compartment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior compartment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior superficial compartment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Posterior superficial compartment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Posterior Superficial Compartment has the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris muscles. These muscles are innervated by the tibial nerve. However, this compartment does not have a specific named artery or vein running through it, as the main vessels (the posterior tibial and fibular arteries and their accompanying veins) are located deep in the leg, closer to the bones. Instead, the vascular supply to these muscles comes from branching vessels that penetrate the compartment.</li><li>➤ Posterior Superficial Compartment</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old girl is admitted for evaluation for recurrent seizures. She has a large port-wine stain on her face as shown below. The MRI of the head shows a leptomeningeal angioma. What is the most common ocular manifestation of the underlying condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retinitis pigmentosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Keratitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glaucoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture7_xw827Wj.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-152605.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with Sturge-Weber syndrome, particularly those presenting with facial port-wine stains and neurological symptoms, glaucoma is a critical ocular manifestation to consider. Regular ophthalmic evaluations are essential due to the high incidence of glaucoma in these patients, focusing on managing elevated IOP to prevent vision loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old man presented with diarrhea and intolerance to dairy products. On investigation, he was found to have a lactase deficiency. Which of the following agents is least likely to cause symptoms of lactose intolerance? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skimmed Milk", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condensed Milk", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ice-cream", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yogurt", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Yogurt", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Yogurt</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Yogurt contains lactobacillus, that helps in lactase production and also low lactose levels.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Gastroenterology/Diarrhea/chap 471</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following can be indicators of choriocarcinoma except: (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased number of theca lutein cysts", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Persistently enlarged uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plateau of high serum hCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sub-urethral nodule", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increased number of theca lutein cysts", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increased number of theca lutein cysts</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Indicators of choriocarcinoma include persistently enlarged uterus, plateau of high serum hCG, and sub-urethral nodules, but not an increased number of theca lutein cysts alone.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 361, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 361, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Alkali disease of livestock is caused by an excess of which of the following minerals? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Selenium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Manganese", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molybdenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Selenium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Selenium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alkali disease in livestock is caused by chronic selenium toxicity, leading to liver cirrhosis, hoof malformations, loss of hair, and emaciation. This condition is distinct from the effects of other mineral toxicities or deficiencies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The structure marked with the asterisk in the electron micrograph indicates? (AIIMS 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Golgi bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secretory vesicles", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ribosomes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Secretory vesicles", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture1_DROcD2q.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/26/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901216.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Secretory vesicles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Presynaptic secretory vesicles are indicated by the asterisk in the electron micrograph. The structure with the arrowhead represents postsynaptic density.</li><li>• Neurons produce secretory vesicles, which are involved in electrochemical signalling in the brain and neuromuscular junctions.</li><li>• Synapse - electron microscopy</li><li>• On electron microscopy:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mitochondria - On an electron microscope, mitochondria appear as round or elliptical bodies 0.5-2.0 micron long, with an outer and inner mitochondrial membrane, cristae, and mitochondrial matrix.</li><li>• Option A. Mitochondria</li><li>• Option B. Golgi bodies (or Golgi apparatus) appear as stacks of flattened membranous cisternae surrounded by clusters of vesicles.</li><li>• Option B. Golgi bodies</li><li>• Option D. Ribosomes may be attached to the membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (as shown in the image below), or else, they may exist as monosomes or as a chain of granular structures called polyribosomes associated with mRNA</li><li>• Option D. Ribosomes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secretory vesicles are essential for neurotransmission at synapses, and play the critical role in neuronal communication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The spectacles shown in the image are not used for the management of which of the following? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Presbyopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aphakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pediatric pseudophakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypermetropia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypermetropia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture5_flbmEsJ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-152331.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypermetropia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bifocal spectacles are not typically used for treating hypermetropia, which generally requires a uniform optical correction across the entire lens to aid in near tasks. Bifocals are instead beneficial in conditions requiring simultaneous correction for near and far vision, such as presbyopia, or specific needs following surgical interventions like in aphakia and pediatric pseudophakia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-month-old child was brought with complaints of umbilical discharge. Abdominal examination was otherwise normal except for the below finding. The next step of management is: (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI Abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "USG Abdomen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "СЕСТ", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exploratory laparotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. USG Abdomen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-89_3BO2aHs.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/09/whatsapp-image-2024-09-09-at-60623-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) USG Abdomen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omphalomesenteric duct abnormalities:</li><li>➤ Omphalomesenteric duct abnormalities:</li><li>➤ Vitello intestinal duct or omphalomesenteric duct is the connection between yolk sac and the midgut during embryonic life, which eventually gets obliterated. The persistence of the vitellointestinal duct can lead to various abnormalities according to the part of the duct that is persistent. Persistence of the proximal intestinal end of the duct leads to Meckel's diverticula. Persistence of the distal end near umbilicus leads to umbilical sinus, likely to be the case here. Fully patent vitellointestinal duct can lead to enterocutaneous fistula.</li><li>➤ Vitello intestinal duct or omphalomesenteric duct is the connection between yolk sac and the midgut during embryonic life, which eventually gets obliterated.</li><li>➤ The persistence of the vitellointestinal duct can lead to various abnormalities according to the part of the duct that is persistent.</li><li>➤ Persistence of the proximal intestinal end of the duct leads to Meckel's diverticula.</li><li>➤ Persistence of the distal end near umbilicus leads to umbilical sinus, likely to be the case here.</li><li>➤ Fully patent vitellointestinal duct can lead to enterocutaneous fistula.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man presented to the OPD with complaints of pain, photophobia and redness of the right eye since 2 days. He gave a history of injury by a leaf, to the same eye, 5 days back. What is the likely diagnosis?(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fungal corneal ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corneal laceration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fungal corneal ulcer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-150712.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fungal corneal ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A fungal corneal ulcer should be considered when a patient presents with eye symptoms following trauma involving vegetative or organic material. Key diagnostic features include a greyish-white ulcer with feathery margins, potentially accompanied by a hypopyon, and absence of corneal vascularization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The histopathology picture below is suggestive of? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Psoriasis vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leishmaniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycosis fungoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pemphigus vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-13496.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-13497.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture8999.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture966.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture10555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pemphigus vulgaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The histopathology image suggests Pemphigus vulgaris , which is characterized by intraepidermal blistering due to acantholysis , or separation of keratinocytes , as a result of autoantibody attack on desmosomal proteins.</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris</li><li>➤ intraepidermal blistering</li><li>➤ acantholysis</li><li>➤ separation of keratinocytes</li><li>➤ autoantibody</li><li>➤ desmosomal proteins.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition Chapter 50 Page no 50.1-50.8</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition Chapter 50 Page no 50.1-50.8</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked layer of the retina: ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inner plexiform layer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "External limiting layer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal limiting layer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Outer plexiform layer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inner plexiform layer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/14/untitled-1rrr_tkipPsE.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-124946.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-152115.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inner plexiform layer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The inner plexiform layer of the retina is a crucial site for synaptic activity among various retinal cells, playing a key role in the preprocessing of visual information before it is sent to the brain. Recognizing this layer and understanding its function are important for comprehending the overall neural circuitry of the retina.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of a health development project in rural India, you're asked about the key community group responsible for overseeing local health, sanitation, and nutrition initiatives. Which committee best fits this description? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Panchayat Health Committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Village Health Planning and Management Committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rogi Kalyan Samiti", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Committee", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The VHSNC plays a crucial role in the grassroots-level health planning and implementation in rural India, ensuring that health initiatives are tailored to the specific needs and conditions of the community. It is a vital part of the health ecosystem, facilitating a comprehensive approach to public health management in rural settings.</li><li>➤ The VHSNC plays a crucial role in the grassroots-level health planning and implementation in rural India, ensuring that health initiatives are tailored to the specific needs and conditions of the community.</li><li>➤ It is a vital part of the health ecosystem, facilitating a comprehensive approach to public health management in rural settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an irreversible method of contraception? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laparoscopic tubal ligation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Copper-T", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Implanon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LNG-IUD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Laparoscopic tubal ligation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Laparoscopic tubal ligation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laparoscopic tubal ligation is a permanent (irreversible) method of contraception.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 611, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 611, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adolescent male patient presented with pain in the calf muscles on exercise. On biopsy, an excessive amount of glycogen was found to be present in the muscle. What is the most likely enzyme deficiency? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muscle-debranching enzyme", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphoructokinase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucose 6 phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Muscle glycogen phosphorylase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Muscle glycogen phosphorylase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/01.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Muscle glycogen phosphorylase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with a history of road traffic accident. The axial CT image of the child is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural Hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subdural Hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subarachnoid Hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraventricular Hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extradural Hemorrhage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-126_PNCl6dR.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-127.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-102918.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Extradural hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The CT image shows a right-sided hyperdense area indicative of an acute extradural hemorrhage (EDH). Extradural hemorrhages typically result from high-energy trauma, such as a road traffic accident, and are often arterial in origin, frequently involving the middle meningeal artery (MMA). The classic biconvex or \"lens-shaped\" appearance, as observed, does not cross sutures but may cross the midline, distinguishing it from other types of hemorrhages.</li><li>• Right sided hyperdense acute EDH is shown in the NCCT</li><li>• Right sided hyperdense acute EDH is shown in the NCCT</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Subdural Hemorrhage: Typically presents with a crescentic or \"banana-shaped\" appearance, crosses sutures, and involves bridging veins, usually from lower energy trauma or trivial injuries, which is not compatible with the findings on this CT.</li><li>• Option B. Subdural Hemorrhage:</li><li>• Option C. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: Involves bleeding into the subarachnoid space, generally producing a diffuse or layered appearance in the CT, which is not evident here.</li><li>• Option C. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage:</li><li>• Option D. Intraventricular Hemorrhage: Results in blood within the ventricular system, showing up as hyperdense within the ventricles, not applicable to this case.</li><li>• Option D. Intraventricular Hemorrhage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old female patient presents with 6/60 visual acuity in one eye and 6/18 in the other eye. She has recurrent episodes of diminution of vision which recovers on treatment with steroids. She also has a history of transverse myelitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hereditary spastic quadriplegia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subacute combined degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuromyelitis optica", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple sclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neuromyelitis optica", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Neuromyelitis optica</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neuromyelitis optica should be considered in patients presenting with recurrent optic neuritis and transverse myelitis, especially when there is a good response to steroid treatment. Distinguishing NMO from multiple sclerosis is crucial, as treatment and prognosis differ significantly between these conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is correct regarding transfusion of the blood received from blood bank? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It should be started within 4 hours of receiving it from the blood bank.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It should be completed within 4 hours of receiving from the blood bank.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "No such time restraint and can be done anytime.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It should be completed within 6 hours of receiving from the blood bank.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It should be completed within 4 hours of receiving from the blood bank.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It should be completed within 4 hours of receiving from the blood bank.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood transfusions must be completed within 4 hours of receiving the blood from the blood bank to minimize the risk of bacterial proliferation and ensure patient safety.</li><li>➤ Blood transfusions must be completed within 4 hours of receiving the blood from the blood bank</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is an ideal treatment for a 55-year-old female with simple hyperplasia of the endometrium with atypia? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Simple hysterectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medroxy progesterone acetate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levonorgestrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Simple hysterectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Simple hysterectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For postmenopausal women with endometrial hyperplasia with atypia, the ideal treatment is a total hysterectomy to prevent progression to endometrial carcinoma.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 330, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 330, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn female presents with continuous dribbling of urine. The image below shows the pathology from which the patient is suffering. The most likely diagnosis is: (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastroschisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bladder exstrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior vesical fissure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior ectopic anus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bladder exstrophy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/15/untitled-419.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture5_Wg8NfXu.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture6_B3UEphp.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bladder exstrophy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bladder exstrophy presents as an exposed, inside-out bladder on the abdominal wall, often associated with continuous dribbling of urine, especially in female newborns with epispadias and bifid clitoris.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The absence of which of the following milestones in a 3-year-old child is called as developmental delay? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hopping on one leg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Drawing a square", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Feeding by spoon", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Passing a ball to someone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Feeding by spoon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Feeding by spoon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The absence of feeding with a spoon by 24 months can indicate a developmental delay in social and motor skills in a child.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Toluidine blue staining is used in the Identification of which of the following cells? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphocyte", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fibroblast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Macrophage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mast Cell", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mast Cell", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/960.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mast Cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Toluidine blue is primarily used to identify mast cells due to their characteristic metachromatic staining caused by the heparin in their granules.</li><li>➤ Toluidine blue</li><li>➤ mast cells</li><li>➤ metachromatic staining</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following take part in the formation of the wrist joint, except: ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scaphoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Triquetrum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distal end of radius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distal end of ulna", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Distal end of ulna", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-162551.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Distal end of ulna</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The distal end of the ulna does not directly participate in the wrist joint. Instead, it articulates with the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC). The TFCC acts as a cushion and allows for the smooth rotation of the radius over the ulna during forearm pronation and supination. Due to this articulation with the TFCC and not with the carpal bones, the distal end of the ulna does not form the wrist joint. .</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Scaphoid : The scaphoid is one of the eight carpal bones in the wrist and is situated on the radial side of the carpus. It articulates proximally with the radius and participates in the formation of the wrist joint.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Scaphoid</li><li>• Option B . Triquetrum : The triquetrum is another one of the carpal bones. It is located on the ulnar side of the carpus. Like the scaphoid, the triquetrum also articulates with the distal end of the radius, contributing to the wrist joint's structure.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Triquetrum</li><li>• Option C . Distal end of radius : The wrist joint is primarily formed by the articulation between the distal end of the radius and the proximal row of carpal bones, specifically the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum. Thus, the distal end of the radius plays a crucial role in the formation and function of the wrist joint.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Distal end of radius</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The radiocarpal joint, also known as the wrist joint, is a synovial, biaxial, and ellipsoid joint created by the articulation of:</li><li>➤ Triangular fibrocartilage articular disc The scaphoids, lunates, and triquetrum</li><li>➤ Triangular fibrocartilage articular disc</li><li>➤ The scaphoids, lunates, and triquetrum</li><li>➤ Just the scaphoid and lunate are in contact with the radius and articular disc when the wrist is in its neutral position; the triquetrum does not come into contact with the disc until the wrist joint is fully adducted.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following changes can be seen in the quadruple screening for Down syndrome? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elevated B-hCG, PAPP-A and lower estriol, AFP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Elevated B-hCG, Inhibin and lower estriol, AFP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lower -CG, PAPP-A and elevated estriol, AFP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lower B-hCG, Inhibin and elevated estriol, AFP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Elevated B-hCG, Inhibin and lower estriol, AFP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-152106.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Elevated B-hCG, Inhibin and lower estriol, AFP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Down syndrome (Trisomy 21), the quadruple test shows elevated β hCG and Inhibin A, and decreased AFP and uE3.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 863, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 863, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with history of acute dysphagia. CXR is shown below. What is the next best step? (AIIMS 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Remove with bronchoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Remove endoscopically", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reassure and to check whether passed in stools", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Induce vomiting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Remove endoscopically", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-124.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-125.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Remove endoscopically</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given CXR shows a foreign body in the esophagus which is likely to be a button battery as seen by the double margins.</li><li>• In profile/ en face: Foreign body is in the esophagus</li><li>• The next step should be to endoscopically removing those batteries as they lead to tissue necrosis by liquefactive necrosis.</li><li>• Patient’s oral intake should be prohibited until the location of the foreign body is confirmed. Never induce vomiting in these patients as it can again lodge back in the esophagus.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Remove with bronchoscopy: Bronchoscopy is not suitable as the foreign body is located in the esophagus, not the airways.</li><li>• Option A. Remove with bronchoscopy:</li><li>• Option C. Reassure and check whether passed in stools: This approach is inappropriate due to the urgent risk of tissue damage from the battery; immediate removal is necessary.</li><li>• Option C. Reassure and check whether passed in stools:</li><li>• Option D. Induce vomiting: Inducing vomiting is contraindicated as it can cause further esophageal injury or lead to re-lodgement of the battery in the esophagus.</li><li>• Option D. Induce vomiting:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected ingestion of button batteries as seen on CXR, urgent endoscopic removal is critical to prevent tissue damage and potential complications. Vomiting should never be induced in these situations as it can exacerbate the problem.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the correct order of suctioning during neonatal resuscitation? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mouth-nose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nose-mouth", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mouth-nose-oesophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trachea-nose-mouth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mouth-nose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mouth-nose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During neonatal resuscitation, the mouth should be suctioned before the nose to minimize the risk of aspiration and ensure a clear airway for effective ventilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The normal Doppler waveform of the venous blood flow is: (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monophasic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biphasic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Triphasic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Absent flow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Monophasic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-104938.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-104951.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-105005.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Monophasic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The normal Doppler waveform for venous blood flow is monophasic. This refers to the uniform, steady, and continuous flow pattern typically observed in veins, unlike the varying phases seen in arterial blood flow. Monophasic waveforms indicate a lack of cardiac modulation and resistance, which is characteristic of venous structures that carry blood under lower pressure and with less force than arteries.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Biphasic: Generally observed in visceral arteries, biphasic waveforms show two distinct directional phases in the blood flow, reflecting the resistance encountered by the blood as it moves through these arteries.</li><li>• Option B. Biphasic:</li><li>• Option C. Triphasic: This waveform is characteristic of extremity arteries and includes three phases—forward flow, brief reverse flow, and forward flow again, which correspond to the cardiac cycle's effects on arterial blood movement.</li><li>• Option C. Triphasic:</li><li>• Option D. Absent flow: This is not a normal finding and indicates a blockage or absence of blood flow, which requires further investigation.</li><li>• Option D. Absent flow:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Doppler waveforms refer to the morphology of pulsatile blood flow velocity tracings on spectral Doppler ultrasound .</li><li>➤ Doppler waveforms</li><li>➤ In Doppler ultrasound, the normal venous waveform is monophasic, indicating a steady flow without the complex fluctuations seen in arterial blood flow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-year-old child presents to your clinic with the following deformity of the right arm. Which is the most likely fracture leading to such a defect? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colle’s fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral epicondyle fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial epicondyle fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supracondylar fracture", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Supracondylar fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-617.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/30/picture33_lMz4cLB.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/30/picture34_rnYjhVA.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/30/picture35_MBYr1Tu.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Supracondylar fracture</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Abrupt stoppage of which of the following drugs causes agitation, anxiety and insomnia? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Olanzapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Imipramine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Venlafaxine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Venlafaxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Venlafaxine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key features of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome, often abbreviated as FINISH:</li><li>➤ F lu-like symptoms I nsomnia N ausea I mbalance S ensory disturbances (e.g., electric shock sensations) H yperarousal (e.g., anxiety, agitation).</li><li>➤ F lu-like symptoms</li><li>➤ F</li><li>➤ I nsomnia</li><li>➤ I</li><li>➤ N ausea</li><li>➤ N</li><li>➤ I mbalance</li><li>➤ I</li><li>➤ S ensory disturbances (e.g., electric shock sensations)</li><li>➤ S</li><li>➤ H yperarousal (e.g., anxiety, agitation).</li><li>➤ H</li><li>➤ It is particularly common with SSRIs and SNRIs with shorter half-lives, such as venlafaxine (most common) . Short acting SSRIs such as paroxetine and fluvoxamine are also commonly associated with discontinuation syndrome. Gradual tapering and patient education are essential to prevent and manage this syndrome.</li><li>➤ venlafaxine (most common)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 3150.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most useful test in vesicovaginal fistula? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystoscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 swab test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystometry", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cystoscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cystoscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cystoscopy is the most useful test for diagnosing vesicovaginal fistula (VVF). It allows direct visualization of the bladder and can help identify the exact location, size, and number of fistulas. Additionally, cystoscopy can be used to assess the bladder for any associated injuries or other abnormalities.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. 3 swab test: This test is used to identify the type of genitourinary fistula (vesicovaginal or ureterovaginal) but is not as specific as cystoscopy for visualizing the fistula directly.</li><li>• Option B. 3 swab test:</li><li>• Option C. MRI: While MRI can provide detailed images of the pelvic structures and help in the diagnosis of fistulas, it is not the first-line investigation. It is more useful in complex cases or when additional information is needed.</li><li>• Option C. MRI:</li><li>• Option D. Cystometry: This test evaluates bladder filling and voiding problems and is not specific for diagnosing vesicovaginal fistula.</li><li>• Option D. Cystometry:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystoscopy is the most useful test for directly visualizing vesicovaginal fistulas, determining their size, location, and number, and assessing the bladder for any associated injuries.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 417, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 417, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the GCS Score in an intubated patient, with findings of eye movements to pain and abnormal flexion? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E2VTM3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E2VTM4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "E2V1M3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "E2VNTM3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. E2VNTM3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture50_HnLdYbm.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) E2VNTM3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In intubated patients, the GCS verbal score is marked as \"NT\" for non-testable. The GCS remains a vital tool in assessing the level of consciousness, particularly in emergency and critical care settings, ensuring that changes in the patient’s neurological status are promptly recognized and appropriately managed.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Neurology/Basics /Chapter 443-TBI</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are assessing the impact of a new series testing protocol on the performance characteristics of diagnostic tests for a specific disease. You need to explain to your team how this method affects the test's sensitivity and specificity. What would be the correct explanation? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity and specificity will increase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensitivity will decrease, specificity will increase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sensitivity and specificity will decrease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sensitivity will increase, specificity will decrease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sensitivity will decrease, specificity will increase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/screenshot-2023-10-20-165555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sensitivity will decrease, specificity will increase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are counseling a new mother about the importance of immunization for her newborn. She is particularly interested in understanding the BCG vaccine's benefits, as she has heard conflicting opinions from friends and family. Based on current evidence and guidelines, which of the following best describes the primary protective effects of the BCG vaccine in the context of tuberculosis (TB)? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CNS and disseminated TB", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary and CNS TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary and skeletal TB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CNS and disseminated TB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture9222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CNS and disseminated TB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The BCG vaccine is primarily recommended for its effectiveness in preventing severe forms of tuberculosis, such as CNS and disseminated TB, in children.</li><li>➤ The BCG vaccine is primarily recommended for its effectiveness in preventing severe forms of tuberculosis, such as CNS and disseminated TB, in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female victim of RTA presents to the ER. On examination, GCS is 15/15, heart rate = 110/min, BP = 90/60 mmHg, and there is elevated JVP. The right chest is tympanic on percussion with decreased breath sounds on auscultation. The left chest appears normal. But the patient is dyspneic and ecchymosis is noted over the chest wall. The abdomen is soft. The probable diagnosis is: (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tension pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pericardial effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Massive hemothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tension pneumothorax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tension Pneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A tension pneumothorax develops when there is a tear is either in the parietal or visceral pleura. This tear acts as a one-way valve i.e., air enters from the lung or chest wall through it during inspiration but has no way to escape during expiration. This ultimately causes collapse of the affected lung.</li><li>➤ It is characterized by:</li><li>➤ It is characterized by:</li><li>➤ Chest pain Tachypnoea, and acute dyspnea Sudden onset hemodynamic compromise (tachycardia, hypotension, low O2 saturation, loss of consciousness) Neck vein distention Tracheal deviation away from the side of injury Decreased chest movements on the affected side Hyper-resonance on percussion on the affected side Absence or decreased breath sounds on the affected side</li><li>➤ Chest pain</li><li>➤ Tachypnoea, and acute dyspnea</li><li>➤ Sudden onset hemodynamic compromise (tachycardia, hypotension, low O2 saturation, loss of consciousness)</li><li>➤ Neck vein distention</li><li>➤ Tracheal deviation away from the side of injury</li><li>➤ Decreased chest movements on the affected side</li><li>➤ Hyper-resonance on percussion on the affected side</li><li>➤ Absence or decreased breath sounds on the affected side</li><li>➤ Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment must never be delayed waiting for radiological confirmation. Management includes:</li><li>➤ Immediate management: Needle decompression or needle thoracostomy i.e. insertion of a wide-bore needle in the 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line. In the pediatric age group, the needle thoracostomy location is at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line. Definitive management: Tube thoracostomy or chest tube insertion in the 5th ICS in the triangle of safety.</li><li>➤ Immediate management: Needle decompression or needle thoracostomy i.e. insertion of a wide-bore needle in the 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line. In the pediatric age group, the needle thoracostomy location is at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line.</li><li>➤ Immediate management:</li><li>➤ Definitive management: Tube thoracostomy or chest tube insertion in the 5th ICS in the triangle of safety.</li><li>➤ Definitive management:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following post-mortem change. ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tattooing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Suggillation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Putrefaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decomposition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Suggillation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/112.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Suggillation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post Mortem Staining (PMS)</li><li>➤ Post Mortem Staining (PMS)</li><li>➤ It is the settling of the blood in the dependent, portion of the body after death due to loss of circulation, causing a purplish red discoloration of the skin. Other names of PMS are: Hypostasis livor mortis Vibices Suggillation Postmortem Lividity Cadaveric lividity Darkening of death It is present on dependent areas, but absent on pressure areas as the blood vessels get compressed. In a supine body the pressure areas are back of chest, buttocks etc as these are in the direct contact with ground.</li><li>➤ It is the settling of the blood in the dependent, portion of the body after death due to loss of circulation, causing a purplish red discoloration of the skin.</li><li>➤ Other names of PMS are: Hypostasis livor mortis Vibices Suggillation Postmortem Lividity Cadaveric lividity Darkening of death</li><li>➤ Hypostasis livor mortis Vibices Suggillation Postmortem Lividity Cadaveric lividity Darkening of death</li><li>➤ Hypostasis</li><li>➤ livor mortis</li><li>➤ Vibices</li><li>➤ Suggillation</li><li>➤ Postmortem Lividity</li><li>➤ Cadaveric lividity</li><li>➤ Darkening of death</li><li>➤ It is present on dependent areas, but absent on pressure areas as the blood vessels get compressed. In a supine body the pressure areas are back of chest, buttocks etc as these are in the direct contact with ground.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The structure marked with the black arrow in the given picture arises from the ……… ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mamillary body", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hippocampus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalamus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amygdala", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hippocampus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-14.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hippocampus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is a coronal section of the brain and the marked structure is the fornix. It arises from the hippocampus and ends in the mammillary body of the hypothalamus.</li><li>• Hippocampus is located in the medial temporal lobe of the brain.</li><li>• Hippocampus</li><li>• The hippocampus is critical for the formation and retrieval of memories, particularly episodic memories. It's also involved in spatial navigation. Damage or atrophy of the hippocampus can result in difficulties forming new memories. Conditions like Alzheimer's disease often exhibit significant hippocampal atrophy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mamillary body : Part of the diencephalon, present at the base of the brain, posterior to the pituitary gland.</li><li>• Option A. Mamillary body</li><li>• The mammillary bodies are primarily associated with memory processing. They receive projections from the hippocampus via the fornix and send projections to the anterior nucleus of the thalamus. They're particularly involved in the recall of past memories and are thought to play a role in spatial memory. Damage to the mammillary bodies, often due to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency as seen in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, can lead to memory deficits.</li><li>• The mammillary bodies are primarily associated with memory processing. They receive projections from the hippocampus via the fornix and send projections to the anterior nucleus of the thalamus. They're particularly involved in the recall of past memories and are thought to play a role in spatial memory. Damage to the mammillary bodies, often due to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency as seen in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, can lead to memory deficits.</li><li>• Option C. Thalamus: Positioned centrally in the brain, the thalamus is a large mass of gray matter deep within the brain. It is part of the diencephalon.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Thalamus:</li><li>• Often referred to as the \"relay station\" of the brain, the thalamus receives sensory and motor signals and relays them to the cerebral cortex. It's involved in consciousness, sleep, and alertness. Thalamic strokes or lesions can lead to sensory deficits, altered consciousness, and movement disorders.</li><li>• Often referred to as the \"relay station\" of the brain, the thalamus receives sensory and motor signals and relays them to the cerebral cortex. It's involved in consciousness, sleep, and alertness. Thalamic strokes or lesions can lead to sensory deficits, altered consciousness, and movement disorders.</li><li>• Option D. Amygdala : Located in the anterior portion of the temporal lobe, deep within the brain.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Amygdala</li><li>• The amygdala plays a pivotal role in processing emotions, particularly fear and pleasure. It helps determine which memories are stored and where they are stored based on emotional significance. Dysfunction of the amygdala can lead to various emotional and behavioral abnormalities. It's also implicated in conditions such as anxiety disorders and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).</li><li>• The amygdala plays a pivotal role in processing emotions, particularly fear and pleasure. It helps determine which memories are stored and where they are stored based on emotional significance. Dysfunction of the amygdala can lead to various emotional and behavioral abnormalities. It's also implicated in conditions such as anxiety disorders and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coronal Section of Brain</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is incorrect about superior mesenteric artery syndrome? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Third part of duodenum is compressed", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Angle between MA and aorta is more than 70 degrees", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Surgical management is by Duodenojejunostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Also known as Wilkie's Syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Angle between MA and aorta is more than 70 degrees", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/09/whatsapp-image-2024-09-09-at-60550-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/09/whatsapp-image-2024-09-09-at-60554-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Angle between MA and aorta is more than 70 degrees</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SMA syndrome, also called Wilkie's syndrome, is characterized by an obstruction of the third part of the duodenum by the SMA due to compression against fixed retroperitoneal structures. Symptoms include episodic epigastric pain associated with vomiting.</li><li>➤ SMA syndrome is associated with:</li><li>➤ SMA syndrome is associated with:</li><li>➤ Rapid growth during childhood Profound weight loss Abdominal surgery Inflammatory diseases of the GIT Immobilization in a cast that increases lordosis and accentuates the angle of the SMA with the aorta</li><li>➤ Rapid growth during childhood</li><li>➤ Profound weight loss</li><li>➤ Abdominal surgery</li><li>➤ Inflammatory diseases of the GIT</li><li>➤ Immobilization in a cast that increases lordosis and accentuates the angle of the SMA with the aorta</li><li>➤ Abdominal CT angiography is the investigation of choice.</li><li>➤ Treatment involves measures to promote weight gain like NJ feeds, which will lead to widening to aortomesenteric angle (due to deposition of fat). If it fails, then a duodeno-jejunal bypass is done.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Paradoxical undressing is seen in? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heat stress", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Voyeurism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "LSD overdose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypothermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hypothermia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paradoxical undressing occurs in hypothermia victims who, despite experiencing extremely low temperatures, remove their clothing due to a sudden and misleading sensation of warmth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At what level does the spinal cord end in adults? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L3-L4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L1-L2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "T12-L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L2-L3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. L1-L2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) L1-L2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Termination of the Spinal Cord:</li><li>• Termination of the Spinal Cord:</li><li>• Anatomy: The spinal cord terminates at a region called the conus medullaris. Details: Below the conus medullaris, a bundle of spinal nerve roots continues downward, which is called the cauda equina (meaning \"horse's tail\" in Latin) due to its appearance. Adult Spinal Cord End: The lower end of the spinal cord in adults is at the lower border of L1.</li><li>• Anatomy: The spinal cord terminates at a region called the conus medullaris.</li><li>• Anatomy:</li><li>• Details: Below the conus medullaris, a bundle of spinal nerve roots continues downward, which is called the cauda equina (meaning \"horse's tail\" in Latin) due to its appearance.</li><li>• Details:</li><li>• Adult Spinal Cord End: The lower end of the spinal cord in adults is at the lower border of L1.</li><li>• Adult Spinal Cord End:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. L3-L4: This is incorrect as the spinal cord in adults does not extend to this level. This level is generally where lumbar punctures are performed to avoid the spinal cord.</li><li>• Option A. L3-L4:</li><li>• Option C. T12-L1: This is slightly higher than the actual end of the spinal cord in adults. The spinal cord terminates at L1-L2, not T12-L1.</li><li>• Option C. T12-L1:</li><li>• Option D. L2-L3: This is incorrect as well because the spinal cord ends at L1-L2 in adults, not extending to L2-L3.</li><li>• Option D. L2-L3:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The spinal cord in adults terminates at the lower border of L1, at the region called the conus medullaris, with the cauda equina continuing downward from this point.</li><li>➤ The spinal cord in adults terminates at the lower border of L1, at the region called the conus medullaris, with the cauda equina continuing downward from this point.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1414</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 1414</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following hormones play a permissive role in the attainment of puberty? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GnRH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leptin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leptin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leptin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leptin serves a permissive role in puberty, indicating to the hypothalamus that sufficient energy reserves are available for the safe progression of reproductive development. This hormone essentially \"permits\" the initiation of puberty when energy conditions are met.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Weber-Fechner law relates magnitude of sensation to? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strength of muscle contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intensity of stimulus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amplitude of action potential", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duration of stimulus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intensity of stimulus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-150236.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Intensity of stimulus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Weber-Fechner law illustrates the logarithmic relationship between the actual intensity of a stimulus and the perceived intensity, emphasizing that the human sensory system scales the perception of stimulus magnitude logarithmically rather than linearly.</li><li>➤ Additional information Other Laws in Physiology:</li><li>➤ Additional information</li><li>➤ Other Laws in Physiology:</li><li>➤ Doctrine of specific nerve energies states that the nature of perception is defined by the pathway over which the sensory information is carried. Hence, the origin of the sensation is not important. Law of projection - Regardless of stimulation point for a particular sensory pathway (along its course to cortex), conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of receptor.</li><li>➤ Doctrine of specific nerve energies states that the nature of perception is defined by the pathway over which the sensory information is carried. Hence, the origin of the sensation is not important.</li><li>➤ Law of projection - Regardless of stimulation point for a particular sensory pathway (along its course to cortex), conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of receptor.</li><li>➤ Law of projection</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following Darrow Yannet diagram is suggestive of which condition? ( AIIMS May 2018) Note: The solid line is the original fluid compartment the dotted line denotes the change caused by the condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Excessive sweating", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adrenal Insufficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diarrhoea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SIADH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adrenal Insufficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-151847.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-152035.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adrenal Insufficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adrenal insufficiency leads to a decrease in ECF volume and osmolarity due to loss of sodium and water, prompting a compensatory increase in ICF volume. This is visualized in the Darrow Yannet diagram by the shift from a higher solute concentration and volume to lower levels in the ECF and an increase in the ICF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The mechanism by which glucose is absorbed in the intestine is? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary active transport", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary active transport", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Facilitated diffusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Any of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Secondary active transport", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-152428.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Secondary active transport</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucose is absorbed in the intestine through secondary active transport utilizing the Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter 1 (SGLT1), which couples the energetically favorable transport of sodium with the transport of glucose against its gradient into enterocytes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The earliest stage at which erythropoietin is effective in red blood cell formation? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burst forming units", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colony forming units", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Late erythroblast stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normoblast stage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Burst forming units", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Burst forming units</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Erythropoietin (EPO) primarily acts on early erythroid progenitor cells, particularly the Burst Forming Unit-Erythroid (BFU-E). The BFU-E is among the earliest erythroid progenitor cells and requires EPO to proliferate and differentiate into more mature forms of red blood cell precursors.</li><li>• Mechanism of Action:</li><li>• Mechanism of Action:</li><li>• BFU-E: The Burst Forming Unit-Erythroid is sensitive to erythropoietin and under its influence can proliferate and differentiate, giving rise to Colony Forming Unit-Erythroid (CFU-E). CFU-E: This stage follows BFU-E and leads to the development of more differentiated erythroid cells. Role of EPO: EPO binds to specific receptors on the surface of erythroid progenitor cells, initiating a cascade of intracellular events that promote cell survival, proliferation, and differentiation.</li><li>• BFU-E: The Burst Forming Unit-Erythroid is sensitive to erythropoietin and under its influence can proliferate and differentiate, giving rise to Colony Forming Unit-Erythroid (CFU-E).</li><li>• BFU-E:</li><li>• CFU-E: This stage follows BFU-E and leads to the development of more differentiated erythroid cells.</li><li>• CFU-E:</li><li>• Role of EPO: EPO binds to specific receptors on the surface of erythroid progenitor cells, initiating a cascade of intracellular events that promote cell survival, proliferation, and differentiation.</li><li>• Role of EPO:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Colony forming units: This is a later stage than BFU-E and is also influenced by EPO but not the earliest.</li><li>• Option B. Colony forming units:</li><li>• Option C. Late erythroblast stage: EPO's influence diminishes as cells mature to this stage.</li><li>• Option C. Late erythroblast stage:</li><li>• Option D. Normoblast stage: This is a more mature stage of erythroid development where EPO has minimal effect.</li><li>• Option D. Normoblast stage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erythropoietin is most effective at the burst forming unit stage of red blood cell development, where it stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of these early progenitor cells into more mature red blood cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is high-molecular weight glycoprotein of the extracellular matrix that binds to integrins? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cadherin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitronectin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibronectin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Selectin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fibronectin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fibronectin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibronectin is a key component of the extracellular matrix that interacts with cell surface integrins to mediate various cellular processes including adhesion, migration, and tissue repair.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organelles is absent in the area of the cardiac muscle marked: ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lysosome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Golgi bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endoplasmic reticulum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lysosome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-153718.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lysosome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lysosomes are widely distributed throughout the cytoplasm of cells,</li><li>➤ Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles The enzymes within lysosomes are responsible for breaking down various cellular waste materials, such as proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and even organelles. Lysosomes play a crucial role in cellular homeostasis by recycling and eliminating unwanted or damaged cellular components through a process known as autophagy. The acidic environment within lysosomes (pH around 4.5-5) is necessary for the optimal activity of the digestive enzymes.</li><li>➤ Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles</li><li>➤ The enzymes within lysosomes are responsible for breaking down various cellular waste materials, such as proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and even organelles.</li><li>➤ Lysosomes play a crucial role in cellular homeostasis by recycling and eliminating unwanted or damaged cellular components through a process known as autophagy.</li><li>➤ The acidic environment within lysosomes (pH around 4.5-5) is necessary for the optimal activity of the digestive enzymes.</li><li>➤ Lysosomal storage disorders, such as Tay-Sachs disease and Gaucher's disease, occur when there is a malfunction or deficiency of enzymes within lysosomes, leading to the accumulation of undigested materials and subsequent cellular dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following fibres reach the Purkinje cell directly?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inferior olivary nucleus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Raphe nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vestibular nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Locus coeruleus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inferior olivary nucleus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-154222_fNgzyCp.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inferior olivary nucleus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Climbing fibers from the inferior olivary nucleus directly synapse onto Purkinje cells in the cerebellum, playing a pivotal role in motor control and learning processes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The procedure in the image shows methylene blue dye being injected in the peritumoral region. What is this procedure used for? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Localizing the tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Identifying the margins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sentinel Lymph node biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Identifying metastasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sentinel Lymph node biopsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-88_fHf9HEh.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sentinel lymph node biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SLN biopsy rationale:</li><li>➤ SLN biopsy rationale:</li><li>➤ Afferent lymphatics from a primary tumor first drain into the sentinel node, before draining into the other nodes.</li><li>➤ So, if sentinel lymph node is positive, it is possible that the other axillary nodes are also involved. Hence, axillary dissection would be necessary.</li><li>➤ If the sentinel node is tumor free, then regional nodal metastasis is unlikely.</li><li>➤ The nodes can be identified using:</li><li>➤ The nodes can be identified using:</li><li>➤ Fluorescein dye Methylene blue Radioactive sulfur colloid-labeled albumin</li><li>➤ Fluorescein dye</li><li>➤ Methylene blue</li><li>➤ Radioactive sulfur colloid-labeled albumin</li><li>➤ The recommended site of injection is in the subdermal plexus surrounding the nipple.</li><li>➤ subdermal plexus surrounding the nipple.</li><li>➤ This is used in patients with clinically node-negative disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following given cancers rarely metastasize to the liver? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prostate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prostate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Prostate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common malignant tumors of the liver are metastasis. The liver is a common site of metastases from gastrointestinal tumors because of dissemination via the portal venous system. The most relevant such metastatic tumor of the liver to the surgeon is colorectal cancer because of the well-documented potential for long-term survival after its complete resection.</li><li>➤ The more frequent primary sites include carcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, and breast in adults, and neuroblastoma, Wilms tumor, and rhabdomyosarcoma in pediatric patients. Although the origin of the tumor is often known when metastases are biopsied, carcinomas of the pancreas, stomach, and lung are particularly notorious for being occult primary neoplasms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding the instrument shown below? (INICET MAY 2018) It is used in women not on thromboprophylaxis and planned for caesarean section. It is used in women on thromboprophylaxis and planned for caesarean section. It is removed once the patient starts ambulating.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A and B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B and C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B and C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A, B and C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_xyXdk3I.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-153951.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A, B and C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a pneumatic compression hose. It is used in women who are not on any thromboprophylaxis and planned for caesarean section. It is also used along with pharmacotherapy in women at risk of thromboembolism undergoing a cesarean section It is discontinued once the patient starts ambulating post-surgery. It is used because pregnancy and surgery increase the risk of thromboembolism.</li><li>• The image shows a pneumatic compression hose. It is used in women who are not on any thromboprophylaxis and planned for caesarean section.</li><li>• It is also used along with pharmacotherapy in women at risk of thromboembolism undergoing a cesarean section</li><li>• It is discontinued once the patient starts ambulating post-surgery.</li><li>• It is used because pregnancy and surgery increase the risk of thromboembolism.</li><li>• Different guidelines are there for different societies (Both ACOG and SMFM) recommend pneumatic compression devices for all patients undergoing cesarean section. This table is from Williams and shows the different guidelines:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumatic compression devices are used for thromboembolism prevention in women undergoing cesarean sections, whether or not they are on thromboprophylaxis, and are discontinued once the patient starts ambulating post-surgery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 2575, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 2575, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female has history of a spontaneous abortion. She has had amenorrhea since then. Her FSH now is 6 mlU/ml. Which of the following can be a cause for her amenorrhea? (INICET MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pituitary dysfunction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian dysfunction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "First pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterine synechiae", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Uterine synechiae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Uterine synechiae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Secondary amenorrhea following a spontaneous abortion and subsequent dilation and curettage (D&amp;C) is typically due to intrauterine adhesions, also known as Asherman syndrome.</li><li>• Uterine Synechiae (Asherman Syndrome): This condition involves the formation of scar tissue within the uterine cavity, leading to amenorrhea or menstrual abnormalities. It commonly occurs after uterine surgeries like D&amp;C. Diagnosis: Hysteroscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing Asherman syndrome. Treatment: Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis is the treatment to remove the adhesions and restore normal uterine cavity function.</li><li>• Uterine Synechiae (Asherman Syndrome): This condition involves the formation of scar tissue within the uterine cavity, leading to amenorrhea or menstrual abnormalities. It commonly occurs after uterine surgeries like D&amp;C. Diagnosis: Hysteroscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing Asherman syndrome. Treatment: Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis is the treatment to remove the adhesions and restore normal uterine cavity function.</li><li>• Uterine Synechiae (Asherman Syndrome):</li><li>• Diagnosis: Hysteroscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing Asherman syndrome. Treatment: Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis is the treatment to remove the adhesions and restore normal uterine cavity function.</li><li>• Diagnosis: Hysteroscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing Asherman syndrome.</li><li>• Diagnosis:</li><li>• Treatment: Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis is the treatment to remove the adhesions and restore normal uterine cavity function.</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Pituitary dysfunction: This would typically be associated with abnormal levels of pituitary hormones, including FSH. The normal FSH level (6 mIU/ml) suggests that pituitary function is intact.</li><li>• Option A. Pituitary dysfunction:</li><li>• Option B. Ovarian dysfunction: This condition would generally present with elevated or depressed levels of FSH and other ovarian hormones. The normal FSH level suggests that ovarian function is likely normal.</li><li>• Option B. Ovarian dysfunction:</li><li>• Option C. First pregnancy: In pregnancy, FSH levels are very low (&lt;0.1 mIU/ml). The FSH level of 6 mIU/ml makes this an unlikely cause.</li><li>• Option C. First pregnancy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary amenorrhea following a history of spontaneous abortion and D&amp;C is usually due to intrauterine adhesions (Asherman syndrome), diagnosed by hysteroscopy and treated with hysteroscopic adhesiolysis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 459, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 459, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the net filtration pressure across the GFM for a patient with the data given below? ( AIIMS May 2018) Glomerular ultrafiltration coefficient = 6 Glomerular hydrostatic pressure =45 Glomerular capillary oncotic pressure =20 Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure =10 Bowman's capsule oncotic pressure =0", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "90 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "15 mmHg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 15 mmHg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 15 mmHg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The net filtration pressure (NFP) in the glomerulus, essential for kidney filtration, is calculated based on the differences between hydrostatic and oncotic pressures inside and outside the glomerular capillaries. In this scenario, an NFP of 15 mmHg favors the formation of urine by pushing fluid out of blood vessels into the Bowman's capsule.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a 100-m dash, most of the energy consumed by skeletal muscles to replenish ATP is derived from? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphocreatine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aerobic glycolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxidation of Fatty acids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phosphocreatine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-154947.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Phosphocreatine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During a 100-meter dash, the primary source of energy for rapidly replenishing ATP in skeletal muscles is the phosphagen system, utilizing phosphocreatine for short bursts of maximal muscle power lasting approximately 8 to 10 seconds.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the motor homunculus, which of the following has maximum representation? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low control and skilled movements", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "More muscle fibres are present", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Precision of movements", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intensity of perception", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Precision of movements", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Precision of movements</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The motor homunculus has maximum representation for body parts requiring precision of movements, reflecting the complexity and intricacy needed for fine motor control.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the usual position of the Golgi apparatus in serous acinar cells? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supranuclear", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adjacent to nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Apical", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Supranuclear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Supranuclear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In serous acinar cells, the Golgi apparatus is typically located in the supranuclear region, facilitating the modification and transport of secretory proteins for efficient secretion into the glandular ducts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the drug of choice for scrub typhus during pregnancy and otherwise respectively? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chloramphenicol, doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doxycycline, doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doxycycline, azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azithromycin, doxycycline", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Azithromycin, doxycycline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Azithromycin, doxycycline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drug of choice for treating scrub typhus in pregnant women is azithromycin, while doxycycline is used for non-pregnant individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT a side effect of salbutamol?(AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tremors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tachycardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypoglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hypoglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Salbutamol can cause hypokalemia, tremors, and tachycardia, but it does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it can lead to hyperglycemia due to its effect on glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Therapeutic index is used for assessing which of the following factors? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Safety", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Efficacy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Potency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toxicity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Safety", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Safety</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The therapeutic index is used to assess the safety of a drug, indicating the margin between effective and toxic doses. A higher therapeutic index means a drug is safer, with a lower risk of adverse effects at therapeutic doses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs can cause flagellated pigmentation of skin? ( AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bleomycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doxorubicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vincristine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Minocycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bleomycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Bleomycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bleomycin is known to cause flagellated hyperpigmentation of the skin as a unique side effect. It can also cause pulmonary fibrosis, making it important to monitor patients for respiratory symptoms during treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the anticoagulant of choice for the management of cancer-associated thromboembolism? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unfractionated Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low molecular weight heparin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dabigatran", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Low molecular weight heparin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Low molecular weight heparin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred anticoagulant for managing cancer-associated thromboembolism due to its long half-life, higher bioavailability, and the convenience of not requiring routine anticoagulant monitoring.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following new drugs has been approved for the treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Edaravone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Piracetam", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dabrafenib", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trametinib", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Edaravone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Edaravone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Edaravone is the new drug approved for the treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), primarily due to its free radical scavenging properties that may help reduce oxidative stress, a factor involved in the disease's progression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The manufacturer of a drug company labels a drug as having 500 mg paracetamol. On quantitative analysis of the drug, it actually contained only 200 mg of paracetamol. What is this type of drug called? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spurious drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adulterated drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unethical drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Misbranded drug", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Misbranded drug", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Misbranded drug</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A drug that is labeled as containing a certain amount of an active ingredient but actually contains a different amount is considered misbranded. Misbranded drugs can lead to ineffective treatment and potential harm due to incorrect dosing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to the casualty with signs of dehydration due to severe vomiting. The intern gave the patient a parenteral medication, following which the patient developed grimacing and abnormal posturing. What could have been the inciting drug for this reaction? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ranitidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metoclopramide", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Domperidone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Metoclopramide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Metoclopramide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Metoclopramide, an anti-emetic that blocks D2 receptors and crosses the blood-brain barrier, can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as acute dystonia, drowsiness, abnormal posturing, and Parkinsonism-like symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the wrongly matched pair of antifungals with its mechanism of action? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ketoconazole: Lanosterol-14-demethylase inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flucytosine: Inhibits microtubule synthesis and thus hinders mitosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Terbinafine: Squalene epoxidase inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amphotericin B: Sequesters ergosterol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Flucytosine: Inhibits microtubule synthesis and thus hinders mitosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Flucytosine: Inhibits microtubule synthesis and thus hinders mitosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flucytosine inhibits nucleic acid synthesis, not microtubule synthesis. The correct antifungal that inhibits microtubule synthesis is griseofulvin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following parameters is used to assess the extent of drug absorption in a plasma concentration vs. time graph? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tmax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cmax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T1/2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Area under the curve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Area under the curve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Area under the curve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Area Under the Curve (AUC) in a plasma concentration vs. time graph is used to assess the extent of drug absorption, reflecting the bioavailability of the drug in the systemic circulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following routes of administration will not bypass hepatic first-pass metabolism? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sublingual", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transdermal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oral", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Oral</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The route of administration that does not bypass hepatic first-pass metabolism is Oral. This is because drugs taken orally are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and then pass through the liver where they may be metabolically altered before reaching the systemic circulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For the action of heparin as an anticoagulant, availability of which of the following chemical substances is mandatory? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thrombin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasmin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antithrombin-III", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thrombomodulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Antithrombin-III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Antithrombin-III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The availability of antithrombin-III is mandatory for the anticoagulant action of heparin, as it forms a complex with heparin to inactivate key enzymes in the coagulation cascade.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the bioavailability of a drug administered intravenously?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Variable", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 100%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 100%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The bioavailability of a drug administered intravenously is 100% because the drug is directly delivered into the systemic circulation without any loss due to absorption barriers or first-pass metabolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A drug solution containing 500 mg/5 ml of the drug is given to you. You are provided with a 2 ml syringe (having 10 divisions for each mI). How many divisions of the 2 m syringe need to be administered to deliver 180 mg of the drug to a patient? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1.8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "14", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "18", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 18", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 18</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To deliver 180 mg of the drug using the provided 2 ml syringe with 10 divisions per ml, you need to fill the syringe to 18 divisions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male chronic smoker presents to the AIIMS OPD with fever, fatigue, yellow-colored urine, and RUQ pain. For the past few days, he has developed an aversion to eating food. On examination icterus was present. What investigations would you advise to rule out acute viral hepatitis? (AIIMS MAY 2018) Liver function test results are given below: Total Bilirubin 18.5 Direct Bilirubin 10.5 SGOT/AST 723 SGPT/ALT 812", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc, Anti-HCV, Anti HEV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-HAV, HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc, Anti-HCV", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc, Anti-HDV, Anti-HEV, Anti-HCV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-HAV, IgM anti-HBc, Anti-HCV, Anti-HEV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anti-HAV, HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc, Anti-HCV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anti-HAV, HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc, Anti-HCV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected acute viral hepatitis with significant liver enzyme elevation and icterus, it's essential to conduct a thorough serological evaluation to determine the specific type of hepatitis virus involved. This allows for targeted management and appropriate precautions to prevent transmission.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harrison/gastroenterology/Viral Hepatitis/Chap 339</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The arterial blood gas findings of a patient are pH = 7.32, pCO2 = 50, HCO3- = 29. What is the diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases where ABG shows a low pH and high pCO2 with compensatory high bicarbonate, the diagnosis is typically respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation. This is indicative of a chronic condition where the body adjusts bicarbonate levels to buffer the increased acidity due to CO2 retention.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Acid-Base Disturbances</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged woman with a history of constipation, dry skin and menorrhagia presents to the ER with altered sensorium, non-pitting edema, hypothermia, bradycardia, and hypotension. What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Septic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiogenic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myxedema coma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Myxedema coma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Myxedema coma</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "'a' wave in JVP corresponds to? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right atrial contraction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Closure of tricuspid valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Onset of ventricular systole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maximal atrial filling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right atrial contraction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture56.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Right atrial contraction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Harrison/Cardiology/Basics of CVS/Chap 239</li><li>➤ Harrison/Cardiology/Basics of CVS/Chap 239</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is commonly used for treating community-acquired pneumonia in OPD? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptomycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Azithromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Azithromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Respiratory /Pneumonia/Chapter 126</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year gentleman was referred from outside hospital to AIIMS ER after he developed sudden onset quadriparesis. In hospital patient was treated with 3%NaCl, Oral tolvaptan. Initial metabolic panel revealed Na: 115 mEq/L, K: 2.8 mEq/L, Cl: 85 mEq/L with normal TSH, CBC, RFT, LFT. What is the most likely cause for this patient's condition? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brain infarct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brainstem injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osmotic demyelination syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rare cause of hypernatremia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Osmotic demyelination syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture53_qnfCv6M.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture54_956T8fI.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Osmotic demyelination syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rapid correction of chronic hyponatremia should be avoided to prevent the severe neurological complications associated with osmotic demyelination syndrome. Control and monitoring of serum sodium levels are crucial during treatment.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Electrolytes/Chap 53</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_9.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mummification: Occurs in dry or warm environments, preserving the body by desiccation. Adipocere: Forms in warm, humid conditions through the hydrolysis of lipids, leading to a waxy transformation of body fat. Marbling: Blood vessels become visible as greenish-black streaks due to sulphmethemoglobin formation, appearing within 24 hours and becoming prominent by 36-48 hours. Postmortem Lividity: Blood accumulates in dependent body parts due to gravity, causing discoloration from pink to dark purple.</li><li>➤ Mummification: Occurs in dry or warm environments, preserving the body by desiccation.</li><li>➤ Mummification:</li><li>➤ Adipocere: Forms in warm, humid conditions through the hydrolysis of lipids, leading to a waxy transformation of body fat.</li><li>➤ Adipocere:</li><li>➤ Marbling: Blood vessels become visible as greenish-black streaks due to sulphmethemoglobin formation, appearing within 24 hours and becoming prominent by 36-48 hours.</li><li>➤ Marbling:</li><li>➤ Postmortem Lividity: Blood accumulates in dependent body parts due to gravity, causing discoloration from pink to dark purple.</li><li>➤ Postmortem Lividity:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following trait is a feature of the female skull? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Larger teeth", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontal and maxillary sinuses are larger", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Frontal and parietal eminences are larger", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supratympanic crest is present", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Frontal and parietal eminences are larger", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Frontal and parietal eminences are larger</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ General differences between male and female bones: There are some general features which help to differentiate male and female bones. These are applicable to most bones, hence no need to remember separately for each bone. These are</li><li>➤ General differences between male and female bones:</li><li>➤ Size: Male bones tend are larger than female bones.</li><li>➤ Size:</li><li>➤ Texture: The texture of male bones can be rougher and more rugged due to increased muscle attachment areas.</li><li>➤ Texture:</li><li>➤ Articular Surface Size: Male bones may have larger articular surfaces compared to females .</li><li>➤ Articular Surface Size:</li><li>➤ .</li><li>➤ Bone Markings: Bony markings where muscles and ligaments attach are more prominent in males.</li><li>➤ Bone Markings:</li><li>➤ So for individual bones, just remember the specific features, instead of general features</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of Syndrome Z? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood pressure more than 130/85mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obstructive sleep apnea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LDL more than 100 mg/dl", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fasting triglyceride &gt;150 mg/dl", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. LDL more than 100 mg/dl", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) LDL more than 100 mg/dl</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While LDL cholesterol management is crucial in cardiovascular risk reduction, it is not one of the criteria for diagnosing Metabolic Syndrome, which focuses on abdominal obesity, blood pressure, fasting blood sugar, HDL cholesterol, and triglycerides.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Gastro/Fatty liver/Chap408</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A triad of skin lesions, asymmetric mononeuritis multiplex and eosinophilia is seen in which of the following conditions? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cryoglobulinemic vasculitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polyarteritis nodosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EGPA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Giant cell arteritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. EGPA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture55.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) EGPA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ EGPA is a distinctive form of vasculitis marked by asthma, eosinophilia, and a systemic vasculitis involving skin and nerves among other systems. Its recognition is crucial due to the need for early and aggressive treatment to prevent significant morbidity and mortality.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Rheumatology/Vasculitis/Chap 363</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old girl with the diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemia was treated medically. She developed fever and tachypnea and a chest X-ray showed pulmonary infiltrates. What drug should she be given next? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytarabine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dexamethasone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doxorubicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dexamethasone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dexamethasone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dexamethasone is used to manage differentiation syndrome in patients with acute promyelocytic leukemia, characterized by symptoms like fever, tachypnea, and pulmonary infiltrates following treatment with specific leukemia drugs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Oncology/Acute leukemia/chap100-743</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "60-year-old lady presented with chest pain and exertional dyspnea. Her family says she was previously healthy and there was no similar disease in the family members. ECG on arrival is suggestive of Anterior wall MI. Her son succumbed to Severe COVID-19 pneumonia. CAG showed normal epicardial coronaries. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infective cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Takotsubo cardiomyopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute myocardial infarction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Takotsubo cardiomyopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Takotsubo cardiomyopathy can present with symptoms and ECG changes similar to those of an acute myocardial infarction, but it is distinguished by normal coronary arteries on angiography and is often precipitated by severe emotional stress, fitting the patient's recent personal history.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cardiology/Cardiomyopathies/Chap 259.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used in the treatment of late cardiovascular syphilis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Benzathine penicillin 2.4 million units weekly for three weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Benzathine penicillin 2.4 million units as single dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetracycline 2g daily", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Benzathine penicillin 12-24 million units for 21 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Benzathine penicillin 2.4 million units weekly for three weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/09/screenshot-2024-09-09-155546.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Benzathine penicillin 2.4 million units weekly for three weeks.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely causative organism of ventilator-associated pneumonia among the following? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clostridium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klebsiella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acinetobacter", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haemophilus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acinetobacter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acinetobacter.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acinetobacter, pseudomonas, stenotrophomonas, Burkholderia cepacia are common organisms causing VAP. VAP occurs due to colonization by organisms in &lt; 48 hours.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Pulmonology/Pneumonia/Chap 142</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is not used in rheumatoid arthritis? (AIIMS MAY 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leflunomide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Febuxostat", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Etanercept", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Febuxostat", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Febuxostat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Febuxostat is specifically used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels and does not have a role in the treatment regimen for rheumatoid arthritis, which typically involves DMARDs and biologic agents aimed at controlling systemic inflammation and preventing joint damage.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Rheumatology/RA/Chap 358</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an example of a GPCR? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muscarinic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nicotinic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GABA-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Muscarinic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Muscarinic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Muscarinic receptors are G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) that play a role in various physiological processes through different G-protein signaling pathways.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female undergoes a Burch colposuspension for stress urinary incontinence. During the procedure, there is significant bleeding in the space of Retzius, and the source of bleeding cannot be clearly visualized. What is the most appropriate next step in the management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Call a vascular surgeon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Place generalized sutures in the area of bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Elevate the endopelvic fascia by inserting fingers in the vagina", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insert a surgical drain to monitor further bleeding", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Elevate the endopelvic fascia by inserting fingers in the vagina", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Elevate the endopelvic fascia by inserting fingers in the vagina</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ During pelvic surgeries, if significant bleeding occurs in the space of Retzius and visualization is difficult, lifting the endopelvic fascia by placing fingers in the vagina can facilitate hemostasis. The Burch colposuspension procedure aims to correct stress urinary incontinence by suspending the bladder neck. Proper intraoperative management of bleeding can prevent complications, and it is essential to stabilize the patient before additional interventions.</li><li>➤ During pelvic surgeries, if significant bleeding occurs in the space of Retzius and visualization is difficult, lifting the endopelvic fascia by placing fingers in the vagina can facilitate hemostasis.</li><li>➤ space of Retzius</li><li>➤ lifting the endopelvic fascia by placing fingers in the vagina</li><li>➤ The Burch colposuspension procedure aims to correct stress urinary incontinence by suspending the bladder neck.</li><li>➤ Burch colposuspension</li><li>➤ Proper intraoperative management of bleeding can prevent complications, and it is essential to stabilize the patient before additional interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man was brought to the emergency department in an unconscious state. He had a fever for the past two days and is a known case of severe COPD. His ECG is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multifocal atrial tachycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atrial fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atrial tachycardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Multifocal atrial tachycardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150136.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20165832.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Multifocal atrial tachycardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT) is commonly seen in patients with chronic pulmonary diseases and is characterized by irregular RR intervals and at least three distinct P-wave morphologies on an ECG. Recognizing these ECG features is essential for accurate diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior Semicircular Canal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral Semicircular Canal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Incus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150234.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Incus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The incus is one of the three ossicles in the middle ear and plays a crucial role in sound transmission by articulating with the malleus and stapes.</li><li>➤ incus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the correct option regarding the storage temperatures of blood components.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RBC 20-22°C, Platelet 2-6°C, FFP -30°C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RBC 2-6°C, Platelet 20-22°C, FFP -30°C", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "RBC -30°C, FFP 2-6°C, Platelet 20-22°C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RBC 20-22°C, FFP below -30°C, Platelet 2-6°C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. RBC 2-6°C, Platelet 20-22°C, FFP -30°C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150328.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) RBC 2-6°C, Platelet 20-22°C, FFP -30°C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended storage temperatures:</li><li>➤ Recommended storage temperatures:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A girl was allegedly kidnapped by a man. In court, she states that she is a major and is married to the man. X-ray images of her elbow, wrist, and pelvis are given. What is the approximate age of the girl?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "14 to 15 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "16 to 17 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "18 to 19 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "21 to 22 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 21 to 22 years", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150344.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 21 to 22 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bone fusion patterns are critical in age estimation. Complete fusion of the wrist, elbow, and pelvic joints typically indicates an age of over 21 years, which is crucial in legal cases determining whether an individual is a minor or an adult.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common form of arthritis is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoriatic arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seronegative arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteoarthritis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Osteoarthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Osteoarthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Osteoarthritis is the most prevalent form of arthritis, primarily affecting older adults. It involves the degeneration of joint cartilage, particularly in weight-bearing joints, and differs from inflammatory forms of arthritis like rheumatoid arthritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency room with a fractured forearm and says she tripped and fell. On examination, you notice multiple cigarette burns on her forearm. What will you do next?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conduct a thorough examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seek a social worker’s help", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inform higher authorities immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inform your colleagues", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Conduct a thorough examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Conduct a thorough examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When encountering a suspected case of child abuse, the first step should be a comprehensive physical examination to document and evaluate the injuries, followed by appropriate reporting and interventions to ensure the child's safety.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the sequence of steps in leukocyte migration: a. Stable adhesion b. Integration activation by chemokine c. Rolling d. Migration through endothelium", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "c, b, a, d", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "a, b, c, d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a, c, b, d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "b, c, a, d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. c, b, a, d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150410.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) c, b, a, d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leukocyte migration involves rolling, chemokine-mediated integrin activation, stable adhesion, and migration across the endothelium, a crucial sequence in the immune response during inflammation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child was brought to the OPD with a painless deformity. A radiograph of the child's legs is shown below. The most common cause of this deformity is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skeletal dysplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rickets", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blount disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rickets", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150422.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rickets</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rickets is the most common cause of bone deformities like genu varum in children. It results from a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, leading to improper bone development, particularly in areas with rapid growth like the knees and wrists.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anti-nuclear antibodies are required for the diagnosis of which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sjogren's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Systemic lupus erythematosus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Systemic lupus erythematosus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs) are a required diagnostic criterion for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) and are present in over 95% of SLE patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the device given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dialysis port", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chemoport", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Electro-convulsive therapy lead", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gamma camera", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chemoport", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150437.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150449.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150459.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150517.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chemoport</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A chemoport is an implantable venous access device used for administering chemotherapy, commonly placed in large veins like the internal jugular or subclavian veins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with chronic diarrhea and steatorrhea. D-xylose test was normal and the Schilling test was abnormal. A duodenal biopsy was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Celiac disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulcerative colitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intestinal lymphangiectasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pancreatic insufficiency", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pancreatic insufficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-05%20150601.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pancreatic insufficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Aiims May 2019 2019 05 05 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "After administering the patch test to a 10-year-old boy with a history of allergic contact dermatitis, when should you schedule his return for patch removal? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "72 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "48 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "96 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 48 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture12222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-102824.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 48 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref- Rooks textbook of dermatology - 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4 page no 4.23</li><li>➤ Ref- Rooks textbook of dermatology - 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4 page no 4.23</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no 406</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no 406</li><li>➤ Online resources: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3900336/</li><li>➤ Online resources:</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3900336/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following occupation is a risk factor for this presenting illness? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kennel Worker", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lifeguard in a swimming pool", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Veterinarian", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Poultry worker", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kennel Worker", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-252.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-187.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kennel worker</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cutaneous larva migrans, caused by nematode larvae from Ancylostoma species, is commonly associated with occupations that involve close contact with contaminated soil and animal feces, such as kennel workers.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lesion of the structure marked in the image below cause?( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contralateral hemiplegia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ataxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tinnitus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ipsilateral facial palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Contralateral hemiplegia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-28.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-29.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Contralateral hemiplegia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure marked in the image is the pyramid containing the pyramidal tracts. A lesion here leads to contralateral hemiplegia.</li><li>• This is because the fibers of these tracts decussate (cross over) in the medulla oblongata. Thus, an injury to the pyramidal tract on one side of the brain or upper spinal cord will affect motor function on the opposite side of the body.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ataxia : Ataxia refers to uncoordinated movement and is typically related to damage to the cerebellum or sensory pathways, not the pyramidal tracts. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in fine-tuning motor movements and ensuring coordination. So, an injury to the pyramidal tracts does not typically result in ataxia.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Ataxia</li><li>• Option C. Tinnitus : Tinnitus is the perception of noise or ringing in the ears. It's a symptom of an underlying condition, such as age-related hearing loss, ear injury, or a circulatory system disorder. Injury to the pyramidal tracts would not lead to tinnitus, as they are primarily motor tracts and not involved in auditory processing or function.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Tinnitus</li><li>• Option D. Ipsilateral facial palsy : Facial palsy refers to weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face. It is most commonly associated with damage to the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). While the pyramidal tracts do play a role in voluntary facial movements, a direct injury to these tracts would not typically lead to ipsilateral facial palsy. Furthermore, facial movements are controlled by both sides of the brain, so an isolated pyramidal tract lesion might not manifest as overt facial weakness.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Ipsilateral facial palsy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pyramids in the medulla oblongata, containing the pyramidal tracts, are crucial for voluntary motor control. A lesion here can lead to contralateral hemiplegia due to the crossing over of these tracts within the medulla. This understanding is essential for diagnosing and understanding the implications of brainstem injuries, especially in the context of stroke or other neurological disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman visits a clinic in Mumbai for a consultation about family planning. She discusses various options and services with her healthcare provider. During the conversation, she asks about additional health screenings included in family planning services. Which of the following screenings is NOT typically included as part of family planning services in India? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Screening for cervical cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Providing services for unmarried mothers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Screening for HIV infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Providing adoption services", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Screening for HIV infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Screening for HIV infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Family planning is not synonymous with birth control only. A WHO Expert Committee (1970) recommends that family planning includes in its’ purview:</li><li>➤ Proper spacing and limitation of birth Advice on sterility Education for parenthood Sex education Screening for pathological conditions related to the reproductive system (e.g., cervical cancer) Genetic counselling Premarital consultation and examination Pregnancy tests Marriage counselling Preparation of couples for the first child Providing services to unmarried mothers Teaching home economics and nutrition Providing adoption services</li><li>➤ Proper spacing and limitation of birth</li><li>➤ Advice on sterility</li><li>➤ Education for parenthood</li><li>➤ Sex education</li><li>➤ Screening for pathological conditions related to the reproductive system (e.g., cervical cancer)</li><li>➤ Genetic counselling</li><li>➤ Premarital consultation and examination</li><li>➤ Pregnancy tests</li><li>➤ Marriage counselling</li><li>➤ Preparation of couples for the first child</li><li>➤ Providing services to unmarried mothers</li><li>➤ Teaching home economics and nutrition</li><li>➤ Providing adoption services</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The region marked corresponds to the surface marking for which of the following structures:(AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thoracic duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Right atrium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferomedial bronchopulmonary segments", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hilum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Right atrium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/26/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901222.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Right atrium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The region marked corresponds to the surface marking for the right atrium.</li><li>• This image shows the mid-clavicular line, xiphoid process, and costal margin.</li><li>• The examiner marks a laterally convex line that runs from the third costal cartilage, which is located about three spaces below the second costal cartilage (as shown by the sternal angle), to the sixth costal cartilage. The distance between this line and the sternal margin is around 1.2 cm. This imply that the area designated matches the right atrium's surface marking.</li><li>• An average adult's projected cardiac borders onto the front chest wall form a trapezium shape. The percussion approach can be used to map this out by checking for cardiac dullness.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Thoracic duct: The thoracic duct typically ascends in the posterior mediastinum and does not correspond to the surface marking in the image which is more anterior and lateral.</li><li>• Option A. Thoracic duct:</li><li>• Option C. Inferomedial bronchopulmonary segments: These segments are located more inferiorly in the lung fields and do not correspond to the area marked which is on the chest wall at the level of the heart.</li><li>• Option C. Inferomedial bronchopulmonary segments:</li><li>• Option D. Hilum: The hilum of the lung, where structures enter and exit the lung, is located more laterally than the area marked. It does not align with the vertical placement of the right atrium.</li><li>• Option D. Hilum:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The varying heart borders and the corresponding surface markings are as follows:</li><li>➤ Upper border: Slopes gently from the second left costal cartilage to the third right costal cartilage. It corresponds to the left atrium. Right border: Convex to the right and runs from the third to the sixth right costal cartilages, 1-2 cm lateral to the sternal edge. It corresponds to the right atrium. Inferior border or acute border: Runs leftwards from the 6th right costal cartilage to the cardiac apex which is located approximately 9 cm lateral to the midline, often in the left 5th intercostal space or level with the 5th or 6th rib. It corresponds to the right ventricle. Left border or obtuse border: Convex laterally on the left. It extends superomedially from the cardiac apex to meet the second left costal cartilage about 1 cm from the left sternal edge. It corresponds to the left ventricle.</li><li>➤ Upper border: Slopes gently from the second left costal cartilage to the third right costal cartilage. It corresponds to the left atrium.</li><li>➤ Right border: Convex to the right and runs from the third to the sixth right costal cartilages, 1-2 cm lateral to the sternal edge. It corresponds to the right atrium.</li><li>➤ Inferior border or acute border: Runs leftwards from the 6th right costal cartilage to the cardiac apex which is located approximately</li><li>➤ 9 cm lateral to the midline, often in the left 5th intercostal space or level with the 5th or 6th rib. It corresponds to the right ventricle.</li><li>➤ Left border or obtuse border: Convex laterally on the left. It extends superomedially from the cardiac apex to meet the second left costal cartilage about 1 cm from the left sternal edge. It corresponds to the left ventricle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Transmission assessment survey is carried out for: (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P. vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "P. falciparum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Filariasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leishmania", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Filariasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Filariasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transmission Assessment Surveys (TAS) are essential tools used to evaluate the success of mass drug administration programs for lymphatic filariasis and determine if the transmission levels are low enough to discontinue these programs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The graph shown below is the titration curve of a biochemical compound. Which of the following statement is true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The maximum buffering capacity of the compound is represented by points A and B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "The points A and B represent the range of maximum ionization of the amine and carboxyl group", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The compound has three ionisable side chains", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The compound has one ionisable group", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The maximum buffering capacity of the compound is represented by points A and B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/28/1-bio-29-5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/28/1-bio-29-6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) The maximum buffering capacity of the compound is represented by points A and B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The points A and B on the titration curve represent the maximum buffering capacity of the compound, corresponding to the pKa values of the ionizable groups. The graph shown likely represents an amino acid like glycine, which has two ionizable groups.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is a subcutaneous fungal agent? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cryptococcus neoformans", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histoplasma capsulatum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sporothrix schenckii", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Talaromyces marneffei", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sporothrix schenckii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-21.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sporothrix schenckii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The term systemic mycoses is used here to refer to infections caused by organisms in the following genera: Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Paracoccidioides, Histoplasma, and Cryptococcus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following finger has two dorsal interossei muscles? (AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Index finger", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Little finger", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Middle finger", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ring finger", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Middle finger", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Middle finger</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The middle finger has two dorsal interossei muscles flanking it. One is positioned between the index and middle fingers, and the other is positioned between the middle and ring fingers.</li><li>• This anatomical configuration allows the middle finger to be abducted in both directions: towards the index finger and towards the ring finger.</li><li>• The dorsal interossei muscles are four bipennate muscles located between the metacarpal bones in the hand. They are named \"dorsal\" because they are located on the dorsum (back) of the hand, and \"interossei\" means between bones. Their main action is to abduct the fingers away from the axial line, which runs down the center of the third (middle) finger.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Index finger : This finger has one dorsal interosseous muscle which abducts the index finger away from the middle finger.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Index finger</li><li>• Option B . Little finger : The little finger also has one dorsal interosseous muscle. This muscle abducts the little finger away from the ring finger.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Little finger</li><li>• Option D. Ring finger : The ring finger has one dorsal interosseous muscle which abducts it away from the little finger.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Ring finger</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female presented with a history of profuse vaginal discharge. The discharge has a fishy odour. Which of the following best describes the microscopic finding given below? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epithelial cell with bacteria attached on cell surface", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacteria engulfed by macrophages", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neutrophil engulfed bacteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bacteria arranged in clusters", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epithelial cell with bacteria attached on cell surface", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_gCJnA5T.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Epithelial cell with bacteria attached on cell surface</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clue cells, which are epithelial cells with bacteria attached on their surface, are the most reliable microscopic indicator of bacterial vaginosis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A team of researchers is conducting investigations to evaluate the impact of interventions targeting a specific disease. Two independent studies, labeled as A and B, are analyzed. Study A utilized an intervention denoted as \"X\", and Study B utilized an intervention denoted as \"Y\". Both studies incorporate control groups. The calculated p-values for studies A and B, with 95% confidence intervals, were found to be 0.02 and 0.001, respectively. Based on this information, which of the following conclusions is most appropriate? (AIIMS MAY 2019) Study B is more precise than study A and intervention Y is more significant compared to Intervention X. Study A is more precise than study B and intervention X is more significant compared to Intervention Y. Both X and Y show a significant variation, but Study B is more significant than Study A. Both study A and B show a significant variation and both interventions have similar statistical significance.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "If 1, 2, and 3 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "If 1 and 3 are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "If 2 and 4 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "If all (1,2,3 &amp; 4) are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. If 1 and 3 are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) If 1 and 3 are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In interpreting clinical study results, a lower p-value indicates stronger evidence against the null hypothesis and typically points to a more significant intervention effect. In this scenario, Study B's intervention (Y) is statistically more significant than Study A's intervention (X), indicating a potentially more effective or impactful intervention.</li><li>➤ In interpreting clinical study results, a lower p-value indicates stronger evidence against the null hypothesis and typically points to a more significant intervention effect.</li><li>➤ In this scenario, Study B's intervention (Y) is statistically more significant than Study A's intervention (X), indicating a potentially more effective or impactful intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are participating in a research discussion about the best approach to study the circadian changes in the fat content of expressed breast milk among mothers of preterm babies. The primary aim is to observe the variations over time and establish a temporal relationship. Which of the following study designs would be most suitable to achieve this objective? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prospective Cohort", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ambispective Cohort", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Case control", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cross sectional", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prospective Cohort", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Prospective Cohort</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A prospective cohort study is the optimal design for research that needs to observe how a variable changes over time and establish a chronological sequence of events or effects. This method will allow for the systematic collection of breast milk samples at various times to analyze changes in fat content relative to the time of day in a defined sample of mothers with preterm infants.</li><li>➤ A prospective cohort study is the optimal design for research that needs to observe how a variable changes over time and establish a chronological sequence of events or effects. This method will allow for the systematic collection of breast milk samples at various times to analyze changes in fat content relative to the time of day in a defined sample of mothers with preterm infants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-month-old baby was brought to the hospital with complaints of poor feeding and abnormal twitching of his lower limb. On examination, he has fever with fontanelle bulging and the child was lethargic. The most probable cause is: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Febrile seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meningitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudo tumor cerebri", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intracranial hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Meningitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Meningitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Poor eating, fever, convulsions, a bulging fontanelle, and lethargy are all symptoms of meningitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does this Cardio-Tocography show? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deceleration", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acceleration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deceleration followed by acceleration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Deceleration", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_LB2EmwO.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Deceleration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Cardio-Tocography (CTG) in question shows decelerations, which are characterized by a drop in the fetal heart rate (FHR) by at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting for at least 15 seconds.</li><li>• Types of Decelerations on CTG:</li><li>• Types of Decelerations on CTG:</li><li>• Early Deceleration: The nadir (lowest point) of the deceleration corresponds with the peak of the uterine contraction. Caused by head compression during contractions. Commonly observed in the second stage of labor. Late Deceleration: The nadir of the deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. Indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, which can lead to fetal distress or hypoxia. Considered an ominous sign and requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Variable Deceleration: There is no fixed relationship between the deceleration and uterine contractions. Caused by umbilical cord compression, often seen with oligohydramnios. Significant if persistent, with FHR &lt;70 bpm for more than 60 seconds. Prolonged Deceleration: Occurs when the deceleration lasts beyond 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes. May indicate acute fetal hypoxia, such as with cord prolapse or intrapartum abruption.</li><li>• Early Deceleration: The nadir (lowest point) of the deceleration corresponds with the peak of the uterine contraction. Caused by head compression during contractions. Commonly observed in the second stage of labor.</li><li>• Early Deceleration:</li><li>• The nadir (lowest point) of the deceleration corresponds with the peak of the uterine contraction. Caused by head compression during contractions. Commonly observed in the second stage of labor.</li><li>• The nadir (lowest point) of the deceleration corresponds with the peak of the uterine contraction.</li><li>• Caused by head compression during contractions.</li><li>• Commonly observed in the second stage of labor.</li><li>• Late Deceleration: The nadir of the deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. Indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, which can lead to fetal distress or hypoxia. Considered an ominous sign and requires prompt evaluation and intervention.</li><li>• Late Deceleration:</li><li>• The nadir of the deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. Indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, which can lead to fetal distress or hypoxia. Considered an ominous sign and requires prompt evaluation and intervention.</li><li>• The nadir of the deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction.</li><li>• Indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, which can lead to fetal distress or hypoxia.</li><li>• Considered an ominous sign and requires prompt evaluation and intervention.</li><li>• Variable Deceleration: There is no fixed relationship between the deceleration and uterine contractions. Caused by umbilical cord compression, often seen with oligohydramnios. Significant if persistent, with FHR &lt;70 bpm for more than 60 seconds.</li><li>• Variable Deceleration:</li><li>• There is no fixed relationship between the deceleration and uterine contractions. Caused by umbilical cord compression, often seen with oligohydramnios. Significant if persistent, with FHR &lt;70 bpm for more than 60 seconds.</li><li>• There is no fixed relationship between the deceleration and uterine contractions.</li><li>• Caused by umbilical cord compression, often seen with oligohydramnios.</li><li>• Significant if persistent, with FHR &lt;70 bpm for more than 60 seconds.</li><li>• Prolonged Deceleration: Occurs when the deceleration lasts beyond 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes. May indicate acute fetal hypoxia, such as with cord prolapse or intrapartum abruption.</li><li>• Prolonged Deceleration:</li><li>• Occurs when the deceleration lasts beyond 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes. May indicate acute fetal hypoxia, such as with cord prolapse or intrapartum abruption.</li><li>• Occurs when the deceleration lasts beyond 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes.</li><li>• May indicate acute fetal hypoxia, such as with cord prolapse or intrapartum abruption.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Acceleration: This would show an increase in the fetal heart rate by at least 15 bpm lasting for at least 15 seconds, which is not the case here.</li><li>• Option B. Acceleration:</li><li>• Option C. Normal: A normal CTG would not show any decelerations or would show a typical pattern of fetal heart rate variability and accelerations.</li><li>• Option C. Normal:</li><li>• Option D. Deceleration followed by acceleration: This pattern would indicate a combination of deceleration and acceleration, which is not specified here.</li><li>• Option D. Deceleration followed by acceleration:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decelerations on a Cardio-Tocography indicate a decrease in fetal heart rate by at least 15 bpm lasting for at least 15 seconds, with different types signifying various conditions and levels of concern.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 994, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 994, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The best way to manage the wound shown in the image is: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cleaning and dressing", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Debridement and dressing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cleaning and skin grafting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cleaning and use of allograft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cleaning and dressing", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-274_85LVETP.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cleaning and dressing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Here are some general principles for the management of a superficial abrasion:</li><li>➤ Clean the wound: Gently clean the wound with soap and warm water to remove any dirt or debris. Use a clean cloth or sterile gauze to pat the wound dry. Apply a dressing: Cover the abrasion with a sterile dressing or adhesive bandage to keep it clean and protected. Change the dressing daily or more often if it becomes wet or dirty. Manage pain: Over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen can help relieve pain and reduce inflammation. Watch for signs of infection: Keep an eye on the abrasion for signs of infection such as redness, swelling, pus, or increasing pain. Follow up: Depending on the severity of the abrasion, you may need to follow up with a healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.</li><li>➤ Clean the wound: Gently clean the wound with soap and warm water to remove any dirt or debris. Use a clean cloth or sterile gauze to pat the wound dry.</li><li>➤ Apply a dressing: Cover the abrasion with a sterile dressing or adhesive bandage to keep it clean and protected. Change the dressing daily or more often if it becomes wet or dirty.</li><li>➤ Manage pain: Over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen can help relieve pain and reduce inflammation.</li><li>➤ Watch for signs of infection: Keep an eye on the abrasion for signs of infection such as redness, swelling, pus, or increasing pain.</li><li>➤ Follow up: Depending on the severity of the abrasion, you may need to follow up with a healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "AKIN and RIFLE criteria are used to classify? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute kidney injury (AKI)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nephrotic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute kidney injury (AKI)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture43.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The AKIN and RIFLE criteria are essential tools for diagnosing and assessing the severity of Acute Kidney Injury, which can guide interventions and predict outcomes in affected patients. They emphasize changes in serum creatinine and urine output as key indicators of kidney function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The instrument shown in the image is used for:(AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "For cutting ribs in thoracic surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "For smoothening of edges in amputation surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Used as a bone nibbler", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "To remove fibrous tissue from non-union site", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Used as a bone nibbler", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/08/io11.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_83.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195511.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195523.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Used as a bone nibbler</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion : Decompression surgery is needed with progressive neurological difficulty in Pott’s spine. ( AIIMS May 2019) Reason : Even after completion of ATT, there can be neurological abnormalities.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both assertion and reasoning are independently true/correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both assertion and reasoning are independently true/correct and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is independently a true/correct statement but the Reason is independently an incorrect/false statement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is independently a false/incorrect statement but the reason is independently a true/correct statement", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Both assertion and reasoning are independently true/correct and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194324.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194347.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194401.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194427.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194442.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Both assertion and reasoning are independently true/correct and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When there is stage 4 of pott’s spine with bladder/bowel involvement and more than 50% of sensory loss, the treatment of choice is decompression surgery with bone graft, along with continuation of ATT. Even after the completion of ATT, there can be presence of neurological abnormalities.</li><li>➤ When there is stage 4 of pott’s spine with bladder/bowel involvement and more than 50% of sensory loss, the treatment of choice is decompression surgery with bone graft, along with continuation of ATT.</li><li>➤ Even after the completion of ATT, there can be presence of neurological abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these options is not a causal factor for head and neck malignancies? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EBV infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HPV infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Betel nut", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin A deficiency", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vitamin A deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vitamin A deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The common risk factors known to cause head and neck malignancies includes:</li><li>➤ common risk factors</li><li>➤ Alcohol use Tobacco use (smoking or chewing) Viruses HPV 16 - oropharyngeal cancer EBV – Nasopharyngeal cancer Paan (betel quid) – Oral cancers especially in gingivobuccal sulcus Preserved or salted food consumption - nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Occupational exposure: Exposure to wood or nickel dust or formaldehyde - a risk factor for cancers of the paranasal sinuses and nasal cavity Radiation exposure is a risk factor for salivary gland tumors, thyroid gland carcinoma</li><li>➤ Alcohol use</li><li>➤ Tobacco use (smoking or chewing)</li><li>➤ Viruses HPV 16 - oropharyngeal cancer EBV – Nasopharyngeal cancer</li><li>➤ HPV 16 - oropharyngeal cancer EBV – Nasopharyngeal cancer</li><li>➤ HPV 16 - oropharyngeal cancer</li><li>➤ EBV – Nasopharyngeal cancer</li><li>➤ Paan (betel quid) – Oral cancers especially in gingivobuccal sulcus</li><li>➤ Preserved or salted food consumption - nasopharyngeal carcinoma.</li><li>➤ Occupational exposure: Exposure to wood or nickel dust or formaldehyde - a risk factor for cancers of the paranasal sinuses and nasal cavity Radiation exposure is a risk factor for salivary gland tumors, thyroid gland carcinoma</li><li>➤ Exposure to wood or nickel dust or formaldehyde - a risk factor for cancers of the paranasal sinuses and nasal cavity Radiation exposure is a risk factor for salivary gland tumors, thyroid gland carcinoma</li><li>➤ Exposure to wood or nickel dust or formaldehyde - a risk factor for cancers of the paranasal sinuses and nasal cavity</li><li>➤ Radiation exposure is a risk factor for salivary gland tumors, thyroid gland carcinoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following instrument is used for……: (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "VIA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "VILI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PAP smear", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colposcopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. PAP smear", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_xZqzTuR.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-175609.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) PAP smear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shown is that of Ayre's spatula which is used for preparing PAP smear. It is used to scrape the squamocolumnar junction of the cervix while preparing a Pap smear. A cytobrush is used to take endocervical samples The smear is fixed with 95% ethanol</li><li>• The image shown is that of Ayre's spatula which is used for preparing PAP smear.</li><li>• It is used to scrape the squamocolumnar junction of the cervix while preparing a Pap smear.</li><li>• A cytobrush is used to take endocervical samples</li><li>• The smear is fixed with 95% ethanol</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. VIA : This is Visual Inspection under Acetic Acid. This is done by applying acetic acid on the cervix. Any acetowhite area is suspicious for dysplasia. It is done in low resource settings.</li><li>• Option A. VIA</li><li>• Option B. VILI : Visual inspection under Lugol Iodine: This is done by applying Lugol’s iodine on the cervix. A dysplastic area will not take up iodine. It is also done in low resource settings.</li><li>• Option B. VILI</li><li>• Option D. Colposcopy : This is a magnified view of the cervix. It is done in patients with abnormal pap smear/ HPV +Ve/ VIA +ve or VILI +ve.</li><li>• Option D. Colposcopy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ayre's spatula is used for preparing a Pap smear by scraping cells from the cervix for cytological examination.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 325, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 325, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 75-year-old female had a fall and had intertrochanteric fracture. This is due to:(AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteopetrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paget’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metastasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Osteoporosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195216.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195256.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195307.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195319.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195330.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Osteoporosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hip fractures are most commonly seen in elderly females due to osteoporosis.</li><li>➤ Hip fractures are most commonly seen in elderly females due to osteoporosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of melancholia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Severe anhedonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sleep-onset insomnia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Profound feelings of guilt over trivial events", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sleep-onset insomnia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sleep-onset insomnia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Melancholic depression refers to a depression characterized by severe anhedonia, early morning awakening, weight loss, and profound feelings of guilt. It is also associated with changes in ANS and endocrine functions, hence it is also known as ‘endogenous depression’.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 380-382</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image of a FAST scan in a trauma patient suggests: (AIIMS 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Negative FAST", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive FAST", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Equivocal fast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Positive FAST", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-132.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Positive FAST</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The ultrasound image shows an anechoic area (appearing dark on ultrasound), which is fluid between the liver and kidney. This finding is indicative of a hemoperitoneum, suggesting that the FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma) scan is positive. A positive FAST scan in this context typically points to the presence of free fluid in the abdomen, which in trauma settings, is usually due to bleeding, confirming a hemoperitoneum.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Negative FAST: This would imply no visible free fluid; the image, however, shows clear evidence of fluid.</li><li>• Option A. Negative FAST:</li><li>• Option C. Equivocal FAST: This term would be used if the findings were unclear or uncertain, which is not the case here as the fluid is distinctly visible.</li><li>• Option C. Equivocal FAST:</li><li>• Option D. Pneumoperitoneum: This condition involves the presence of free air in the abdominal cavity and would present differently on an ultrasound, typically as increased echogenicity reflecting off the free air; this is not visible in the provided image.</li><li>• Option D. Pneumoperitoneum:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anechoic fluid between liver and kidney is suggestive of hemoperitoneum-FAST positive</li><li>➤ Anechoic fluid between liver and kidney is suggestive of hemoperitoneum-FAST positive</li><li>➤ eFAST: Extended Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma</li><li>➤ eFAST:</li><li>➤ Focus:</li><li>➤ Focus:</li><li>➤ Hemoperitoneum (free fluid in abdomen) Pericardial effusion Pneumothorax Hemothorax</li><li>➤ Hemoperitoneum (free fluid in abdomen)</li><li>➤ Pericardial effusion</li><li>➤ Pneumothorax</li><li>➤ Hemothorax</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a healthcare consultant in Uttar Pradesh working to improve maternal and child health outcomes, you need to address issues such as inadequate hygiene, lack of skilled staff, and outdated equipment in labor rooms of public health facilities. Which program should you recommend that is specifically designed to enhance the quality of labor rooms? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LAQSHYA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ayushman Bharat", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LAQSHYA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) LAQSHYA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommending the LAQSHYA program is directly aligned with the need to overhaul the quality of labor rooms in public health facilities, targeting specific improvements in infrastructure, hygiene, and staff competencies to ensure safer childbirth experiences.</li><li>➤ Recommending the LAQSHYA program is directly aligned with the need to overhaul the quality of labor rooms in public health facilities, targeting specific improvements in infrastructure, hygiene, and staff competencies to ensure safer childbirth experiences.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following best describes paradoxical suicide? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suicide occurring at the time when the patient starts to recover", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Suicide after taking low dose of drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Accidental completion of suicide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Suicide occurring at the time when the patient starts to recover", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Suicide occurring at the time when the patient starts to recover</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ About 2/3rd of patients with depression have suicidal ideation and 10-15% die by suicide. Patients with depressive disorders are at increased risk of suicide as they begin to improve and regain the energy needed to plan and carry out a suicide, this is known as Paradoxical suicide.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 366.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old male with skin-colored umbilicated papules. Microscopy is as shown below. The most likely diagnosis is: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Verruca vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Molluscum contagiosum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/922.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/923.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/924.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Molluscum contagiosum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Molluscum contagiosum is characterized by the presence of intracytoplasmic molluscum bodies (Henderson-Patterson bodies) within keratinocytes, and it presents clinically as skin-colored, umbilicated papules.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 1940</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 1940</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following drugs with their ocular adverse effects? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-D, 2-F, 3-E, 4-C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-C 4-E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-F, 4-E", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-F, 4-E", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-171440.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ocular adverse-effects of drugs:</li><li>➤ Ocular adverse-effects of drugs:</li><li>➤ Amiodarone: Corneal deposits (cornea verticallata) Optic neuritis Hydroxychloroquine: Bull’s eye maculopathy ( retinopathy ). Systemic steroids: Given topically – cause Open angle Glaucoma; Given systemically – cause Posterior subcapsular cataract . Digoxin: Yellow vision</li><li>➤ Amiodarone: Corneal deposits (cornea verticallata) Optic neuritis</li><li>➤ Amiodarone:</li><li>➤ Optic neuritis</li><li>➤ Hydroxychloroquine: Bull’s eye maculopathy ( retinopathy ).</li><li>➤ Hydroxychloroquine:</li><li>➤ retinopathy</li><li>➤ Systemic steroids: Given topically – cause Open angle Glaucoma; Given systemically – cause Posterior subcapsular cataract .</li><li>➤ Systemic steroids:</li><li>➤ cataract</li><li>➤ .</li><li>➤ Digoxin: Yellow vision</li><li>➤ Digoxin:</li><li>➤ Yellow vision</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /880, 318, 560, Goodman Gilman 13 th / 564</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child with developmental delay, can ride a tricycle, can climb upstairs with alternate feet, can say the name, knows own sex, but cannot narrate a story. What is the developmental age? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/120825767_217617973029723_285448660739346338_n.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 3 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A child's developmental age can be estimated by comparing their abilities to typical developmental milestones; in this case, a child who can ride a tricycle and climb stairs with alternating feet is likely around 3 years old.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a component of the neuromuscular criteria for maturity according to the expanded New Ballard score? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heel-knee test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Finger-nose test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scarf sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cubital angle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Scarf sign", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/picture1_NIyR2rG.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/untitled-2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20183151.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Scarf sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The extended new Ballard score has a component of scarf sign which is a component of the neuromuscular maturity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "APTT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PT", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "TT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bleeding time", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/930.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) PT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prothrombin time (PT) evaluates the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade by measuring the time it takes for plasma to clot after the addition of tissue thromboplastin and calcium. It is commonly prolonged in conditions such as vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, and the use of vitamin K antagonists.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic Basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 232</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic Basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 232</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What to be done next? (AIIMS 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extended curettage with allograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bone biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Curettage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extended curettage with autograft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bone biopsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/io1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194221.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194251.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Bone biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To reach the correct and final diagnosis, a bone biopsy test must be done. The management will follow the result of the bone biopsy.</li><li>➤ To reach the correct and final diagnosis, a bone biopsy test must be done.</li><li>➤ bone biopsy</li><li>➤ The management will follow the result of the bone biopsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the breast condition shown in the image below? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paget's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mondor's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zuska's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tietze syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mondor's disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-273.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mondor’s Disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The clinical presentation of Mondor's disease includes pain, tenderness, and redness over the affected area, along with a palpable cord-like structure that corresponds to the thrombosed vein. The diagnosis of Mondor's disease is made by physical examination. Treatment for Mondor's disease includes restriction of arm movements, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), warm compresses, and compression garments to alleviate pain and inflammation.</li><li>➤ The clinical presentation of Mondor's disease includes pain, tenderness, and redness over the affected area, along with a palpable cord-like structure that corresponds to the thrombosed vein.</li><li>➤ Mondor's disease</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of Mondor's disease is made by physical examination.</li><li>➤ Treatment for Mondor's disease includes restriction of arm movements, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), warm compresses, and compression garments to alleviate pain and inflammation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mention the true statement/s about drug resistant malaria: ( AIIMS May 2019) It is not present in India. Quinine with clindamycin or doxycycline is still effective treatment. Chloroquine with sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine is effective. Artemether with lumefantrine is useful. Monotherapy with artemisinin derivatives is not useful due to high risk of recrudescence.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "b, d and e only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "c and e only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a and c only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only e is correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. b, d and e only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug-resistant malaria in India is effectively treated with ACTs like Artemether with lumefantrine. Monotherapy with artemisinin derivatives is avoided due to the risk of recrudescence.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /876-877</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most specific for diagnosing ankylosing spondylitis is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HLA B27", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bilateral sacroiliitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lumbar movements", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ESR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bilateral sacroiliitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195101.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195145.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Bilateral sacroiliitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HLA-B27 is a significant genetic marker and helps in identifying individuals at risk, the most specific finding for diagnosing ankylosing spondylitis, particularly in its later stages, is often the presence of definite structural changes in the sacroiliac joints, especially bilateral sacroiliitis, on imaging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-month-old child with ambiguous genitalia presented to the hospital, his BP is 118/78 mm Hg, Serum K + is 6 mEq/L, serum sodium is 120 mEq/L. Patient was started on intravenous fluids. What additional specific therapy will you add?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrocortisone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Potassium binding resin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium gluconate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydrocortisone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most appropriate addition to this patient's treatment regimen would be Hydrocortisone, as it addresses the underlying cause of the symptoms in CAH. Additionally, monitoring and adjusting mineralocorticoid therapy (like fludrocortisone) would be important in the long-term management, especially given the electrolyte imbalances.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /314</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male patient is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia. The peripheral blood smear picture is given in the image. The cell indicated by the arrow is best described as: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Auer rod", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flaming promyelocyte", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Faggot cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dusky promyelocyte", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Faggot cell", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/926.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Faggot cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A faggot cell, characterized by multiple Auer rods clustered together in a single cell, is highly indicative of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). While Auer rods are a feature of various forms of AML, the presence of faggot cells is particularly associated with APL.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 1154</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 1154</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The action of the muscle attached to the marked area? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flexion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Abduction", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Abduction", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-19.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Abduction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The greater trochanter is visible in the photograph, and the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscle fibres attach (insert) here. Action of these fibres of abducting the leg, and their anterior fibres rotate the thigh medially.</li><li>• Both are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve (L4, L5, S1)</li><li>• Hip abduction involves moving the thigh laterally, away from the midline. This is the primary function of both the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus. When you stand on one leg, these muscles contract on the standing side to prevent the pelvis from tilting down on the free side. This stabilizing action is crucial for bipedal walking.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Flexion : Hip flexion primarily involves lifting the thigh forward in an anterior direction. While the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus can assist in flexion when the hip is initially in extension, this is not their primary function. Main hip flexors include the iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and sartorius.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Flexion</li><li>• Option B . Adduction : Hip adduction is the action of moving the thigh medially, towards the midline. Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus are not adductors; in fact, they act in opposition to this movement. The primary hip adductors include muscles like the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, and pectineus.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Adduction</li><li>• Option D . Extension : Hip extension involves moving the thigh posteriorly. The primary hip extensor is the gluteus maximus, which is the largest of the gluteal muscles. While the gluteus medius and minimus can assist in hip extension when the hip is initially flexed, this is not their main action.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Extension</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a road traffic accident. He has chest trauma, a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg. The patient is conscious but only able to speak in short phrases. On examination, there is hyperresonance on the affected side of the chest. What should be your next immediate step in managing this patient? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intubate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insert needle in appropriate intercostal space", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start intravenous fluids urgently", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Take a chest X-ray", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Insert needle in appropriate intercostal space", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Insert needle in appropriate intercostal space</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management of tension pneumothorax:</li><li>➤ Management of tension pneumothorax:</li><li>➤ Immediate management: Needle decompression or needle thoracostomy i.e. insertion of a wide-bore needle in the 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line Definitive management: Tube thoracostomy or chest tube insertion in the 5th ICS in the triangle of safety Note: According to ATLS 10th edition In adults, needle thoracostomy or needle decompression location is changed to 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line from 2nd ICS midclavicular line. However, In the pediatric age group, the needle thoracostomy location remains at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line.</li><li>➤ Immediate management: Needle decompression or needle thoracostomy i.e. insertion of a wide-bore needle in the 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line</li><li>➤ Definitive management: Tube thoracostomy or chest tube insertion in the 5th ICS in the triangle of safety</li><li>➤ Note: According to ATLS 10th edition</li><li>➤ In adults, needle thoracostomy or needle decompression location is changed to 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line from 2nd ICS midclavicular line.</li><li>➤ However, In the pediatric age group, the needle thoracostomy location remains at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Child presents with hypotonia and seizures. It was confirmed to be Zellweger syndrome. Which among the following accumulates in brain in this condition?(AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lactic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Long chain fatty acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Triglycerides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Long chain fatty acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Long chain fatty acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zellweger syndrome leads to the accumulation of very long chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) in the brain due to defective peroxisomal oxidation, resulting in severe neurological impairment and early death in affected children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding depersonalization disorder? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "More common after life threatening trauma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seen in seizure and migraine patients", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "More common in females", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mean age at onset is 25 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Seen in seizure and migraine patients", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Seen in seizure and migraine patients</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Depersonalisation disorder is characterized by feelings of unreality or detachment from oneself or one’s body. The patients feel ‘as if’ they have changed. They can be associated with medical conditions such as migraine, seizure disorder, cerebral tumors and encephalitis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 110</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True statements in view of septic arthritis are:(AIIMS MAY 2019) Widening of joint space is there. Staph aureus is the most common organism in young children and neonate. Incision and drainage is frequently required. Kocher criteria used to differentiate from transient synovitis.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, b &amp; c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "b, c &amp; d are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a &amp; d are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All are correct", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194843.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195047.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. All are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given statements in the question are all correct about the septic arthritis.</li><li>➤ There is widening of joint space. Staph aureus is the most common organism in young children and neonate. Incision and drainage is frequently required to treat the infection. Kocher criteria is used to differentiate septic arthritis from transient synovitis.</li><li>➤ There is widening of joint space.</li><li>➤ Staph aureus is the most common organism in young children and neonate.</li><li>➤ Incision and drainage is frequently required to treat the infection.</li><li>➤ Kocher criteria is used to differentiate septic arthritis from transient synovitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anti-D vaccine is not given in which of the following conditions? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amniocentesis at 16 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Manual removal of placenta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "MTP at 63 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-D vaccine is not given after intrauterine transfusion, as this procedure is used to treat severe fetal anemia and does not require further prophylaxis against Rh sensitization.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 919, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 919, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted by sandflies? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kala azar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oriental sore", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oraya fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trench Fever", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Trench Fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/screenshot-2023-10-23-124402.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/screenshot-2023-10-23-124435.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/screenshot-2023-10-23-124503.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-151633.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Trench fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vectors and Diseases Transmitted</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given instrument is used in: (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vaginal hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cesarean section", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Manchester operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fothergill's surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cesarean section", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_Bj2rK4w.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cesarean section</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The instrument shown is a Doyen's retractor , which is specifically used in cesarean sections. It plays a crucial role during the surgical procedure by retracting the bladder to provide proper exposure of the lower uterine segment. This retraction helps in ensuring a clear view and access to the uterus while minimizing the risk of bladder injury. The Doyen's retractor is used once the utero-vesical fold of peritoneum is opened and the bladder is dissected away from the lower uterine segment. It holds the bladder away from the site of the uterine incision, facilitating a safer and more efficient cesarean section.</li><li>• Doyen's retractor</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vaginal hysterectomy: Involves the removal of the uterus through the vaginal canal and typically uses different types of retractors and instruments designed for vaginal access, not the Doyen's retractor.</li><li>• Option A. Vaginal hysterectomy:</li><li>• Option C. Manchester operation: This is a surgical procedure used to correct uterovaginal prolapse and does not involve the use of Doyen's retractor.</li><li>• Option C. Manchester operation:</li><li>• Option D. Fothergill's surgery: This is performed for uterovaginal prolapse and uses different instruments tailored for vaginal repairs, not the Doyen's retractor.</li><li>• Option D. Fothergill's surgery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Doyen's retractor is used during cesarean sections to retract the bladder and prevent bladder injury while providing exposure of the lower uterine segment.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 751, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 751, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male with a smoking history of 36 pack years presents with numbness and weakness of the right hand and arm and tingling in the fingers. There is associated drooping of the right eye with miosis. What is the IOC for the patient? (AIIMS 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chest X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "USG Doppler of right upper limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HRCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. MRI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. MRI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation is pointing towards a diagnosis of right Pancoast or superior sulcus tumor involving the brachial plexus and sympathetic plexus. Radiographic findings include an apical mass or unilateral or asymmetrical apical pleural thickening (“apical cap”). Asymmetry in the thickness of an apical cap exceeding 5 mm is considered suggestive. MRI is more accurate than CT in diagnosing brachial plexus and sympathetic plexus involvement, and define the relationship of the tumor to great vessels and the brachial plexus.</li><li>• The clinical presentation is pointing towards a diagnosis of right Pancoast or superior sulcus tumor involving the brachial plexus and sympathetic plexus.</li><li>• Radiographic findings include an apical mass or unilateral or asymmetrical apical pleural thickening (“apical cap”).</li><li>• Asymmetry in the thickness of an apical cap exceeding 5 mm is considered suggestive.</li><li>• MRI is more accurate than CT in diagnosing brachial plexus and sympathetic plexus involvement, and define the relationship of the tumor to great vessels and the brachial plexus.</li><li>• Regional spread can cause:</li><li>• Tracheal obstruction Esophageal compression with dysphagia Recurrent laryngeal paralysis with hoarseness Phrenic nerve palsy with the elevation of the hemidiaphragm and dyspnea Sympathetic nerve paralysis with Horner's syndrome (enophthalmos, ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis).</li><li>• Tracheal obstruction</li><li>• Tracheal obstruction</li><li>• Esophageal compression with dysphagia</li><li>• Esophageal compression with dysphagia</li><li>• Recurrent laryngeal paralysis with hoarseness</li><li>• Recurrent laryngeal paralysis with hoarseness</li><li>• Phrenic nerve palsy with the elevation of the hemidiaphragm and dyspnea</li><li>• Phrenic nerve palsy with the elevation of the hemidiaphragm and dyspnea</li><li>• Sympathetic nerve paralysis with Horner's syndrome (enophthalmos, ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis).</li><li>• Sympathetic nerve paralysis with Horner's syndrome (enophthalmos, ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Chest X-ray: While helpful for initial evaluation, it lacks the detail required to assess soft tissue involvement and the exact extent of the tumor.</li><li>• Option A. Chest X-ray:</li><li>• Option B. USG Doppler of right upper limb: Useful for vascular assessment but not suitable for visualizing intrathoracic tumors or their impact on neural structures.</li><li>• Option B. USG Doppler of right upper limb:</li><li>• Option C. HRCT: High-resolution CT can identify the presence of an apical mass but does not provide as detailed visualization of soft tissue and neurovascular involvement as MRI.</li><li>• Option C. HRCT:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected Pancoast tumor, MRI is preferred over other imaging modalities for its superior ability to delineate the extent of tumor involvement with the brachial plexus and sympathetic plexus, critical for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A bodybuilder starts eating raw eggs for protein. He starts to develop fatigue on moderate exercise. The doctor prescribes a vitamin. Which enzyme is deficient in him? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose 6 Phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyruvate Carboxylase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "РЕРСК", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glycogen Phosphorylase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pyruvate Carboxylase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pyruvate Carboxylase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eating raw eggs can lead to biotin deficiency due to avidin binding, resulting in a deficiency of pyruvate carboxylase. This enzyme deficiency impairs gluconeogenesis, causing fatigue during exercise. Supplementing biotin can correct the deficiency and alleviate symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The catalytic efficiency of enzyme is best expressed by which of the following kinetic constants? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kcat/Km", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Km/Kcat", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Km/Ka", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ka/Km", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kcat/Km", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Kcat/Km</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The catalytic efficiency of an enzyme is best expressed by the ratio Kcat/Km, as it provides a measure of how effectively the enzyme converts substrate into product, considering both the enzyme's turnover rate and its substrate affinity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A bank employee, felt depressed with no interest in activities, came to AIIMS OPD. He was started on escitalopram. Which of these adverse effects cannot be explained with escitalopram? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sialorrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anorgasmia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nausea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vivid dreams", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sialorrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Sialorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Escitalopram is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI). Other SSRIs include Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Fluvoxamine etc. Side-effects of SSRI include: Most common: Nausea, Vomiting Next most common: Anxiety etc. Other side effects- Delayed ejaculation, anorgasmia, diarrhea, vivid dreams etc. Main drug which causes sialorrhea is CLOZAPINE (an atypical anti-psychotic drug)</li><li>➤ Escitalopram is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI).</li><li>➤ Other SSRIs include Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Fluvoxamine etc.</li><li>➤ Side-effects of SSRI include:</li><li>➤ Most common: Nausea, Vomiting</li><li>➤ Next most common: Anxiety etc.</li><li>➤ Other side effects- Delayed ejaculation, anorgasmia, diarrhea, vivid dreams etc.</li><li>➤ Main drug which causes sialorrhea is CLOZAPINE (an atypical anti-psychotic drug)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /488</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct regarding the image given below: ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is called Argyl Robertson pupil.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both eyes are abnormal.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The vision is normal in right eye.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Seen in optic neuritis, the pupil can paradoxically dilate in the both eyes.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Seen in optic neuritis, the pupil can paradoxically dilate in the both eyes.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/07/untitled-316.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/07/untitled-317.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Seen in optic neuritis, the pupil can paradoxically dilate in the both eyes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Marcus Gunn pupil, indicative of an RAPD, is a significant sign of optic nerve dysfunction often seen in conditions like optic neuritis. Detecting this early through the swinging flashlight test can guide further diagnostic and therapeutic interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who receives recurrent transfusions for thalassemia develops fever and chills during this time. There is no evidence of hemolysis. Which of the following measures can decrease the rate of transfusion reactions? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leuko-reduced RBCs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Irradiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Washed RBCs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leuko-reduced RBCs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Leuko-reduced RBCs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leuko-reduced RBCs are the preferred method to reduce the risk of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTR), especially in patients requiring frequent transfusions like those with thalassemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is/are adverse effect of SGLT2 inhibitors? (AIIMS MAY 2019) 1. Ketoacidosis 2. Urosepsis 3. Fournier’s gangrene 4. Angioedema", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 4 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3 are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only 4 is correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary adverse effects of SGLT2 inhibitors include ketoacidosis, urosepsis, and Fournier's gangrene, while angioedema is not associated with these medications.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /301</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with complaints of vomiting and abdominal distention. A nasogastric (NG) tube is inserted to decompress the stomach. However, the patient remains conscious and alert during the procedure. What is the best position to place the patient in during the insertion of the NG tube? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supine with neck flexion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Supine with neck extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sitting with neck flexion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sitting with neck extension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sitting with neck flexion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sitting with neck flexion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best position for a conscious patient to be in during the insertion of Ryle's tube is sitting with neck flexion.</li><li>➤ Confirmation of the correct position of RT is done by:</li><li>➤ Auscultation in the epigastric area while injecting a bolus of air Aspiration of gastric contents X-ray chest + upper abdomen</li><li>➤ Auscultation in the epigastric area while injecting a bolus of air</li><li>➤ Aspiration of gastric contents</li><li>➤ X-ray chest + upper abdomen</li><li>➤ The approximate length of the Ryle’s tube is 120-125 cm. There are 4 markings on the tube which indicates the traversing of the tube through various parts of the stomach</li><li>➤ 40 cm - Tube has traversed cardia of the stomach 50 cm - Tube has traversed body of the stomach 60 cm - Tube has traversed pylorus 70 cm - Tube has traversed duodenum</li><li>➤ 40 cm - Tube has traversed cardia of the stomach</li><li>➤ 50 cm - Tube has traversed body of the stomach</li><li>➤ 60 cm - Tube has traversed pylorus</li><li>➤ 70 cm - Tube has traversed duodenum</li><li>➤ The length of tube to be inserted is calculated by measuring the distance between nose-tip of ear lobule-xiphoid (N-E-X rule).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the most important light microscopic feature of irreversible cell injury? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amorphous densities in mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cell membrane blebs and loss of microvilli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ribosomal detachment from endoplasmic reticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nuclear changes like pyknosis and karyolysis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nuclear changes like pyknosis and karyolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nuclear changes like pyknosis and karyolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyknosis, karyorrhexis, and karyolysis on light microscopy are signs of irreversible cell injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient who presents with flaccid bullous lesions affecting both the oral cavity and the skin, as shown in the provided image, and exhibits acantholytic cells on Tzanck smear? ( AIIMS May 2019", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pemphigus foliaceus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bullous pemphigoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pemphigus vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture5888.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of flaccid bullous lesions affecting both the oral cavity and the skin , along with the observation of acantholytic cells on a Tzanck smear , is most consistent with a diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris.</li><li>➤ flaccid bullous lesions</li><li>➤ oral cavity</li><li>➤ skin</li><li>➤ acantholytic cells</li><li>➤ Tzanck smear</li><li>➤ pemphigus vulgaris.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Chapter 50 Page no 50.1-50.8</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Chapter 50 Page no 50.1-50.8</li><li>➤ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 356</li><li>➤ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 356</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True statements about fracture shaft of femur: (AIIMS MAY 2019) More commonly in elderly. Easily managed with Gallow’s traction in elderly. Associated with pulmonary complications. Intramedullary nailing is gold standard for management.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, b, c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "c &amp; d are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "b, c &amp; d are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. c & d are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194602.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. c &amp; d are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Femoral shaft fractures are more commonly seen in young males of age 15-35 years. It is easily managed with intramedullary nailing in elderly. It is most commonly associated with pulmonary complications like pulmonary embolism. Intramedullary nailing is gold standard for management in adult patients.</li><li>➤ Femoral shaft fractures are more commonly seen in young males of age 15-35 years.</li><li>➤ It is easily managed with intramedullary nailing in elderly.</li><li>➤ It is most commonly associated with pulmonary complications like pulmonary embolism.</li><li>➤ Intramedullary nailing is gold standard for management in adult patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug. It also produces sedation and adverse effects like dry mouth and hypotension. All these actions result due to action on which of the following receptors?(INICET MAY 2024) 1. D2 and 5HT2 receptors 2. GABA and Beta-adrenergic receptors 3. Muscarinic and alpha-adrenergic receptors 4. H1 receptors", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3 and 4 are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only 2 is correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 2 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 3 and 4 are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-154713.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 3 and 4 are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Actions of anti-psychotic drugs</li><li>➤ Actions of anti-psychotic drugs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /470-471</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an intermediate filament? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vimentin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tubulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Desmin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurofilament", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tubulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-114628.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tubulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tubulin is not an intermediate filament; it is a protein that forms microtubules, which are essential for cell shape, motility, and division. Intermediate filaments, such as vimentin, desmin, and neurofilaments, provide mechanical support and structural integrity to cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male who was involved in a road traffic accident is admitted to the hospital and is placed on mechanical ventilation. While in the ICU, the patient is able to open his eyes on verbal command and moves all four limbs spontaneously. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eyes-2, Verbal-1, Motor-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eyes-2, Verbal-NT, Motor-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eyes-3, Verbal-1, Motor-6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-093312.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the case of endotracheal intubation, the verbal response score is noted as NT.</li><li>➤ Total GCS score is not recorded since one of the components is non-testable (NT).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sign of effective neonatal resuscitation is: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Color change", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bilateral Air entry", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased heart rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Increased heart rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/84.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Increased heart rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best indicator of successful newborn resuscitation is a rise in heart rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion: Distal pole of scaphoid is the most common bone to undergo avascular necrosis. Reason: Blood supply is retrograde from its distal to proximal end.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reasoning are independently true/correct and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reasoning are independently true/correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is independently a true/correct statement but the Reason is independently an incorrect/false statement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is independently a false/incorrect statement but the Reason is independently a true/correct statement", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Assertion is independently a false/incorrect statement but the Reason is independently a true/correct statement", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Assertion is independently a false/incorrect statement but the Reason is independently a true/correct statement</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The proximal pole of scaphoid is the most common bone to undergo avascular necrosis. This is because the blood supply to the scaphoid is retrograde, from its distal end to its proximal end. At the proximal end, the blood supply diminishes. This accounts for increased chances of avascular necrosis or non-union of the proximal fragment when the proximal pole of the scaphoid is fractured. Thus, in the given question, assertion is an incorrect statement while the reason is a correct statement.</li><li>➤ The proximal pole of scaphoid is the most common bone to undergo avascular necrosis.</li><li>➤ This is because the blood supply to the scaphoid is retrograde, from its distal end to its proximal end.</li><li>➤ At the proximal end, the blood supply diminishes.</li><li>➤ This accounts for increased chances of avascular necrosis or non-union of the proximal fragment when the proximal pole of the scaphoid is fractured.</li><li>➤ Thus, in the given question, assertion is an incorrect statement while the reason is a correct statement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "There was outbreak of MRSA in the hospital, and it was found that a nurse of NICU had MRSA colonization of anterior nares. What is the best treatment?(INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Topical mupirocin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral Vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhaled colistin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV cefazolin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Topical mupirocin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Topical mupirocin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For MRSA colonization in the anterior nares, topical mupirocin is the best treatment due to its targeted action, efficacy, and minimal systemic side effects.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /809</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a clinical study exploring the relationship between variables X and Y, a scatter plot with a linear regression line has been generated. Based on the graphical representation provided, which of the following equations corresponds to the linear regression model of the plotted graph? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "y=10-х", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "x=10+у", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "y=11+2x", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "x=11+2y", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. y=11+2x", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/screenshot-2023-10-23-125240.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) y=11+2x</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of regression equations:</li><li>➤ Types of regression equations:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The wrong statement regarding the levator ani muscle is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supports pelvic viscera", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Converge downwards and medially", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Consists of iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Attached to pelvic brim", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Attached to pelvic brim", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Attached to pelvic brim</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The levator ani is not attached to the pelvic brim. Instead, it originates from the posterior surface of the body of the pubis, the obturator fascia, and the ischial spine. It then inserts into the coccyx, anococcygeal ligament, and walls of the prostate or vagina, rectum, and anal canal. The incorrect notion about its attachment to the pelvic brim is a common misconception.</li><li>• Insertion :- The coccyx and the anococcygeal raphe or ligament. Nerve supply:- The branches of the anterior rami of sacral nerves S3 and S4 and the perineal branch of the pudendal nerve. Supports and raises the pelvic floor. Consists of the puborectalis, pubococcygeus, and iliococcygeus.</li><li>• Insertion :- The coccyx and the anococcygeal raphe or ligament.</li><li>• Insertion :-</li><li>• Nerve supply:- The branches of the anterior rami of sacral nerves S3 and S4 and the perineal branch of the pudendal nerve.</li><li>• Nerve supply:-</li><li>• Supports and raises the pelvic floor.</li><li>• Consists of the puborectalis, pubococcygeus, and iliococcygeus.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Supports pelvic viscera : This statement is correct. The levator ani, along with other pelvic floor muscles, forms a supportive sling for the pelvic organs such as the bladder, uterus (in females), and rectum. This muscular support is essential for maintaining continence and facilitating functions such as micturition and defecation.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Supports pelvic viscera</li><li>• Option B. Converge downwards and medially : This statement is also correct. The fibers of the levator ani muscles, especially from the pubococcygeus, tend to converge towards the midline and run in a downward direction. This orientation provides the necessary support to the pelvic organs and creates a muscular barrier between the pelvic cavity and the perineum.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Converge downwards and medially</li><li>• Option C. Consists of iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus : This statement is partially true. The levator ani is made up of three parts: the puborectalis, pubococcygeus, and iliococcygeus. All three parts contribute to the function and support provided by the levator ani. Thus, while the statement includes two components of the levator ani, it omits the puborectalis.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Consists of iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pelvic brim is not connected to the levator ani muscle. It originates from the ischial spine, levator ani's arcus tendinous (a thickened section of the obturator fascia, and the pubic body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is most commonly associated with? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aminopenicillins", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluoroquinolones", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Macrolides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbapenems", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aminopenicillins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Aminopenicillins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clostridium difficile diarrhea, also known as pseudomembranous colitis, is most commonly associated with aminopenicillins such as ampicillin and amoxicillin. Treatment includes oral vancomycin and potentially stool transplants, with bezlotoxumab available as a monoclonal antibody against the toxin of C. difficile.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /744</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gene involved in Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CHYNN-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GABRA-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "FMR-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. GABRA-1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) GABRA-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The GABRA-1 gene is a key genetic factor in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the Eponym with their fractures.(AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-e", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-f", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-e, 3-f, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-e, 4-f", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-e", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194626.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194649.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_84.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194732.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194746.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194816.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-194828.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-e</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1. Pilon’s fracture: It is the intra-articular comminuted fracture of the distal tibia. It is also known as Plafond fracture, Tibia Plafond fracture, Distal Tibial Explosion fracture. The high energy axial compression force if the tibia acts as a pestle, driving vertically into the talus.</li><li>➤ 1. Pilon’s fracture:</li><li>➤ 2. Runner’s fracture: It is the fracture of lower end of the fibula. They are usually the stress fracture, commonly seen in runners.</li><li>➤ Runner’s fracture:</li><li>➤ 3. Cotton’s fracture: It is the trimalleolar fracture in the ankle i.e., there is involvement of medial and lateral malleoli, and posterior aspect of the tibial plafond (also called as posterior malleolus). This is a more unstable fracture and may be associated with ligamentous injury.</li><li>➤ Cotton’s fracture:</li><li>➤ 4. Chauffer’s fracture: It is an intra-articular oblique fracture of the styloid process of the radius. It is sustained from a direct trauma like a blow to the back of the wrist or from forced dorsiflexion and abduction of the wrist.</li><li>➤ 4. Chauffer’s fracture:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not happen in 5' to 3' direction?(AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transcription", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DNA replication", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DNA repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RNA editing", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. RNA editing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011058.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) RNA editing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RNA editing, such as the editing of the apolipoprotein B mRNA, can involve modifications that do not occur in the 5' to 3' direction, unlike transcription, DNA replication, and DNA repair, which all proceed in the 5' to 3' direction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True about the definition of Postural Hypotension: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease in Systolic blood pressure 20 mmHg after 6 mins of standing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease in Diastolic blood pressure 20 mmHg after 6 mins of standing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decrease in Systolic blood pressure 20 mmHg after 3 min of standing", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decrease in diastolic blood pressure 20 mmHg after 3 mins of standing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decrease in Systolic blood pressure 20 mmHg after 3 min of standing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decrease in systolic blood pressure 20 mm Hg after 3 mins of standing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postural hypotension, also known as orthostatic hypotension, is defined as a significant drop in blood pressure when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. The correct definition, as per the consensus, includes a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 20 mmHg or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing. The answer C correctly reflects the component of this definition regarding the systolic blood pressure drop.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cardiology, chap 21/695</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding the lesion of the structure marked by 5 the arrow is: ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ape thumb deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Claw hand", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Claudication", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wrist drop", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Wrist drop", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture9_7SnEl8W.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-36.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Wrist drop</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure marked in the image is the radial nerve demonstrated in the cubital fossa. A lesion of the radial nerve leads to a wrist drop. Injury to the radial nerve leads to paralysis of the extensor muscles of the wrist and fingers. This results in an inability to extend the wrist and fingers actively, leading to the characteristic \"wrist drop\" appearance. The hand hangs flaccidly with the fingers flexed, and the person cannot extend them</li><li>• Anterior view of the right cubital fossa:</li><li>• The structures marked in the given image are:</li><li>• Branch of the median nerve to the brachialis muscle Biceps brachii muscle Brachialis muscle Lateral cutaneous nerve of fore arm Superficial branch of the radial nerve Brachioradialis muscle Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle Pronator teres muscle Brachial artery Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm Median nerve.</li><li>• Branch of the median nerve to the brachialis muscle</li><li>• Biceps brachii muscle</li><li>• Brachialis muscle</li><li>• Lateral cutaneous nerve of fore arm</li><li>• Superficial branch of the radial nerve</li><li>• Brachioradialis muscle</li><li>• Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle</li><li>• Pronator teres muscle</li><li>• Brachial artery</li><li>• Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm</li><li>• Median nerve.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ape thumb deformity : This deformity is primarily associated with the median nerve lesion. It refers to an inability to oppose or flex the thumb due to weakness or paralysis of the thenar muscles (especially the opponens pollicis), which are innervated by the median nerve. This results in a flattened thenar eminence, giving the thumb an appearance reminiscent of an ape's thumb.</li><li>• Option A. Ape thumb deformity</li><li>• Option B . Claw hand : Claw hand, or \"clawing\" of the fingers, usually results from a combined ulnar and median nerve lesion. It is characterized by hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints and flexion at the interphalangeal (IP) joints. It can also result from a high ulnar nerve lesion on its own. The claw hand deformity is not a typical consequence of radial nerve injury.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Claw hand</li><li>• Option C. Claudication : Claudication refers to pain, cramping, or fatigue in muscles, typically the calves, during walking or exercise. It's a symptom of peripheral arterial disease, where there's reduced blood flow to the legs. This is not related to radial nerve injury.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Claudication</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Aspirin and phenobarbitone are acidic drugs whereas diazepam is a basic drug. Which of the following statement/s about these drugs is/are true?(AIIMS MAY 2019) Aspirin is present mainly in non-ionized form in stomach, hence can be easily absorbed Diazepam is mostly absorbed form intestine Phenobarbitone can be absorbed from stomach but most of the absorption occurs in small intestine due to its large surface area No drug is absorbed in large intestine due to its very low surface area Diseases decreasing the transit time of drugs like diarrhea will increase the drug absorption in small intestine", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, b and c", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "d and e", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a, d and e", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, b and d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. a, b and c", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-153807.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-ionized forms of drugs are more lipid-soluble and can cross membranes more easily. Acidic drugs like aspirin and phenobarbitone are primarily non-ionized in the stomach but are absorbed mainly in the intestine due to its large surface area. Basic drugs like diazepam are absorbed maximally from the intestine.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /20-21</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a public health expert, you are consulted about a series of outbreaks in a region that lacks significant prior vaccination campaigns. Given the imperative to contain the spread of disease and protect vulnerable populations, you are asked to prioritize a disease for which mass vaccination would provide the most immediate and impactful reduction in transmission. Which of the following diseases would most benefit from such an intervention? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cholera", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Typhoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polio", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Polio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Polio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Polio, due to its potential for rapid spread and severe outcomes, along with the availability of an effective and easily administered vaccine, makes it the most critical focus for a mass vaccination campaign in response to an outbreak. This strategy not only protects individuals but also aids in the global effort to eradicate polio.</li><li>➤ Polio, due to its potential for rapid spread and severe outcomes, along with the availability of an effective and easily administered vaccine, makes it the most critical focus for a mass vaccination campaign in response to an outbreak.</li><li>➤ This strategy not only protects individuals but also aids in the global effort to eradicate polio.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Outbreak response for Measles includes</li><li>➤ Outbreak response for Measles includes</li><li>➤ Isolation for 7 days after the onset of rash Immunization of the contacts within 2 days of exposure (if vaccine is contraindicated, immunoglobulins should be given within 3-4 days of exposure) Prompt immunization at the beginning of an epidemic is essential to limit the spread.</li><li>➤ Isolation for 7 days after the onset of rash</li><li>➤ Immunization of the contacts within 2 days of exposure (if vaccine is contraindicated, immunoglobulins should be given within 3-4 days of exposure)</li><li>➤ Prompt immunization at the beginning of an epidemic is essential to limit the spread.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a researcher designing a clinical study, you are exploring methods to eliminate confounding variables, which can lead to spurious associations between the independent and dependent variables. Which of the following methods is NOT primarily used to eliminate confounders? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Randomization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blinding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Restriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Matching", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blinding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Blinding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blinding is used to remove Bias.</li><li>➤ Confounding can be removed by:</li><li>➤ Matching (MC used /simplest) Randomisation (2nd Best Method) Restriction Stratification Statistical Modelling / Multivariate analysis (MVA) Stratified Randomization (Overall Best Method)</li><li>➤ Matching (MC used /simplest)</li><li>➤ (MC used /simplest)</li><li>➤ Randomisation (2nd Best Method)</li><li>➤ (2nd Best Method)</li><li>➤ Restriction</li><li>➤ Stratification</li><li>➤ Statistical Modelling / Multivariate analysis (MVA)</li><li>➤ Stratified Randomization (Overall Best Method)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A HIV patient with fever, chronic diarrhea presented to OPD. His stool was examined which showed the following oocysts. Identify the components used for staining the stool? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crystal violet, iodine, acid alcohol, carbol fuchsin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methanol, Kinyoun's carbol fuchsin, acid alcohol, methylene blue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methanol, dilute carbol fuchsin, acid alcohol, crystal violet", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methylene blue, iodine, acid alcohol, carbol fuchsin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Methanol, Kinyoun's carbol fuchsin, acid alcohol, methylene blue", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-250.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Methanol, Kinyoun's carbol fuchsin, acid alcohol, methylene blue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain uses methanol for fixation, Kinyoun’s carbol fuchsin as the primary stain, acid alcohol for decolorization, and methylene blue as the counterstain to detect acid-fast organisms like Cryptosporidium parvum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are the core clinical features for the diagnosis of Lewy body dementia except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluctuating cognition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "REM sleep behavior disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Recurrent visual hallucinations", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Orthostatic hypotension", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Orthostatic hypotension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Orthostatic hypotension.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orthostatic hypotension is a supportive, not core, criterion for the diagnosis of Lewy body dementia.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21e/Neurology, DLB Chapter 434 /12305.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Duration of action of Proparacaine? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "40 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 min", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 20 min", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 20 mins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The duration of action of proparacaine is approximately 15-20 minutes, making it suitable for short ophthalmic procedures.</li><li>➤ The duration of action of proparacaine is approximately 15-20 minutes, making it suitable for short ophthalmic procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is studying the prevalence of a disease among school-aged children in a suburban town across two separate periods during the monsoon season. Two unpaired cohorts of children are observed: one from June to July and another from August to September. To compare the prevalence rates between these two cohorts, which statistical test is most appropriate? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chi square", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paired t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wilcoxan test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chi square", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chi square</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If DNA is damaged in the cell cycle, which gene causes cell cycle arrest? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rb", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MYC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "p53", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "K-RAS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. p53", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/935.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) p53</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The p53 gene is a critical tumor suppressor that causes cell cycle arrest in response to DNA damage, providing time for DNA repair or triggering apoptosis if the damage is irreparable.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, pg 527</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, pg 527</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of tinea is likely affecting the 10-year-old child who presents with patchy hair loss as shown in the image below, along with the presence of black dots in the areas of hair loss?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ectothrix", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endothrix", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kerion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Favus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endothrix", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture62223.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-131316.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture755.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-131512.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-170259.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endothrix</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of patchy hair loss with black dots in the areas of hair loss in a child is indicative of an endothrix type of tinea capitis , where the fungal spores are located inside the hair shaft , causing it to break at the scalp level.</li><li>➤ patchy hair loss</li><li>➤ black dots</li><li>➤ child</li><li>➤ endothrix</li><li>➤ tinea capitis</li><li>➤ fungal spores</li><li>➤ inside</li><li>➤ hair shaft</li><li>➤ break</li><li>➤ scalp</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.8, 32.38-32.40</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.8, 32.38-32.40</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with brown-colored urine and oliguria for the last 3 days. He has mild facial and pedal edema. His blood pressure is 126/90. He has 2+ proteinuria with &gt;100 red cells/HPF and a few granular casts. His creatinine is 0.9, urea is 56. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PSGN", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nephrolithiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior Urethral Valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Minimal change disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PSGN", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/picture2_rNIeuAB.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PSGN</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sudden onset of gross hematuria, edema, hypertension, and renal insufficiency are indicative of PSGN.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely diagnosis based on the given serum electrophoresis image (pink)? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatic cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nephrotic syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nephrotic syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/927.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/928.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/929.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nephrotic syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The electrophoresis pattern showing hypoalbuminemia combined with an increase in alpha-2 globulin is most indicative of nephrotic syndrome, reflecting the characteristic loss of albumin and retention of larger plasma proteins in this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The test given below in the image is used for: ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ocular deviation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stereopsis test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Refractive errors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colour Blindness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stereopsis test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/07/untitled-315.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Titmus stereotest evaluates stereopsis or depth perception, an essential aspect of binocular vision, allowing for the three-dimensional interpretation of the world necessary for various activities and indicating healthy, cooperative eye function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the emergency and his ocular examination reveals the following. Which of the following is not done initially? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Removal of the foreign body", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Check for visual acuity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Do primary survey", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Removal of the foreign body", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture4_ReZiWnL.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Removal of the foreign body</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of ocular injuries involving foreign bodies, immediate removal is not advised due to the potential for further damage. Initial steps should focus on assessment, stabilization, and prevention of infection, followed by careful planning and execution of the foreign body removal under appropriate surgical conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the anion gap from the following values: Na+ = 137 mmol/L; K+ = 4 mmol/L; CI- =100 mmol/L; HCO3- = 15 mmol/L? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "22 mmol/L", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 mmol/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "16 mmol/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12 mmol/L", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 22 mmol/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture49.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 22 mmol/L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are posted as a medical officer in a rural Primary Health Centre (PHC) for your rural internship. As part of your duties, you are required to oversee and understand the roles and responsibilities of ASHA working in your region. Which of the following tasks is NOT traditionally a responsibility of the ASHA worker? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaria slide preparation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ensure immunization as per schedule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Accompany pregnant women to hospital", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spread aware", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Malaria slide preparation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Malaria slide preparation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Responsibilities of ASHA:</li><li>➤ Responsibilities of ASHA:</li><li>➤ Create awareness on health and its social determinants and mobilize the community towards local health planning and increased utilization and accountability of the existing health services Promote good health practices and provide a minimum package of curative care as appropriate and feasible and make timely referrals Provide information on determinants of health, on existing health services and the need for timely utilization of services Counsel women on aspects of reproductive and child health Mobilize the community and facilitate them in accessing health and health related services provided by the government Act as a depot holder for essential provisions like ORS, IFA tablets, chloroquine, disposable delivery kits, oral pills &amp; condoms Provide primary medical care and act as DOTS provider Help develop a comprehensive village health plan Arrange escort/accompany pregnant women and children requiring treatment/ admission to nearest health facility Be a part of JSY (Janani Suraksha Yojana) and help reduce MMR</li><li>➤ Create awareness on health and its social determinants and mobilize the community towards local health planning and increased utilization and accountability of the existing health services</li><li>➤ Promote good health practices and provide a minimum package of curative care as appropriate and feasible and make timely referrals</li><li>➤ Provide information on determinants of health, on existing health services and the need for timely utilization of services</li><li>➤ Counsel women on aspects of reproductive and child health</li><li>➤ Mobilize the community and facilitate them in accessing health and health related services provided by the government</li><li>➤ Act as a depot holder for essential provisions like ORS, IFA tablets, chloroquine, disposable delivery kits, oral pills &amp; condoms</li><li>➤ Provide primary medical care and act as DOTS provider</li><li>➤ Help develop a comprehensive village health plan</li><li>➤ Arrange escort/accompany pregnant women and children requiring treatment/ admission to nearest health facility</li><li>➤ Be a part of JSY (Janani Suraksha Yojana) and help reduce MMR</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Proposed population norm : 2 ASHA worker per 1000 population</li><li>➤ Proposed population norm</li><li>➤ ASHA is expected to act as,</li><li>➤ ASHA is expected to act as,</li><li>➤ Interface between: Community and Health care system Bridge between: ANM and village Accountable to: Panchayat</li><li>➤ Interface between: Community and Health care system</li><li>➤ Bridge between: ANM and village</li><li>➤ Accountable to: Panchayat</li><li>➤ Selection criteria of ASHA:</li><li>➤ Selection criteria of ASHA:</li><li>➤ Woman resident of local community Preferably 25 – 45 years age Literate with formal education up to 10th class (Relaxable for Tribal areas)</li><li>➤ Woman resident of local community</li><li>➤ Preferably 25 – 45 years age</li><li>➤ Literate with formal education up to 10th class (Relaxable for Tribal areas)</li><li>➤ Indicators for Monitoring and Evaluation of ASHA’s Work</li><li>➤ Indicators for Monitoring and Evaluation of ASHA’s Work</li><li>➤ Process indicators: No. of ASHAs selected No. of ASHAs trained % ASHAs attending review meeting after 1 year Outcome indicators: % newborns weighed and families counseled % deliveries with skilled assistance % institutional deliveries % JSY claims made to ASHA Completed immunized 12-23 months age group % unmet need in BPL % fever cases received chloroquine within 1 weeks in endemic area Impact indicators: Infant mortality rate (IMR) Child malnutrition rates No. of cases of TB/Leprosy detected as compared to last year.</li><li>➤ Process indicators: No. of ASHAs selected No. of ASHAs trained % ASHAs attending review meeting after 1 year</li><li>➤ No. of ASHAs selected No. of ASHAs trained % ASHAs attending review meeting after 1 year</li><li>➤ No. of ASHAs selected</li><li>➤ No. of ASHAs trained</li><li>➤ % ASHAs attending review meeting after 1 year</li><li>➤ Outcome indicators: % newborns weighed and families counseled % deliveries with skilled assistance % institutional deliveries % JSY claims made to ASHA Completed immunized 12-23 months age group % unmet need in BPL % fever cases received chloroquine within 1 weeks in endemic area</li><li>➤ % newborns weighed and families counseled % deliveries with skilled assistance % institutional deliveries % JSY claims made to ASHA Completed immunized 12-23 months age group % unmet need in BPL % fever cases received chloroquine within 1 weeks in endemic area</li><li>➤ % newborns weighed and families counseled</li><li>➤ % deliveries with skilled assistance</li><li>➤ % institutional deliveries</li><li>➤ % JSY claims made to ASHA</li><li>➤ Completed immunized 12-23 months age group</li><li>➤ % unmet need in BPL</li><li>➤ % fever cases received chloroquine within 1 weeks in endemic area</li><li>➤ Impact indicators: Infant mortality rate (IMR) Child malnutrition rates No. of cases of TB/Leprosy detected as compared to last year.</li><li>➤ Infant mortality rate (IMR) Child malnutrition rates No. of cases of TB/Leprosy detected as compared to last year.</li><li>➤ Infant mortality rate (IMR)</li><li>➤ Child malnutrition rates</li><li>➤ No. of cases of TB/Leprosy detected as compared to last year.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is not an obvious advantage of high-flow nasal cannula? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreases need of intubation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduces nasopharyngeal dead space", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heating and humidification", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PEEP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decreases need of intubation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-153015.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Decreases need of intubation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Decreases need of intubation: While high-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) can be an intermediate step between standard oxygen therapy and more invasive respiratory support, it doesn't always eliminate the need for intubation. HFNC can improve oxygenation and reduce the work of breathing in many patients, but it may not be sufficient in cases of severe respiratory failure where intubation becomes necessary.</li><li>• Decreases need of intubation: While high-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) can be an intermediate step between standard oxygen therapy and more invasive respiratory support, it doesn't always eliminate the need for intubation. HFNC can improve oxygenation and reduce the work of breathing in many patients, but it may not be sufficient in cases of severe respiratory failure where intubation becomes necessary.</li><li>• Decreases need of intubation:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Reduces nasopharyngeal dead space: High-flow nasal cannula allows for the delivery of oxygen at much higher flow rates than standard nasal cannulae. This higher flow rate can flush out the nasopharyngeal dead space, leading to a more consistent fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) and improving alveolar ventilation.</li><li>• Option B. Reduces nasopharyngeal dead space:</li><li>• Option C. Heating and humidification: One of the distinct features of HFNC systems is that they deliver oxygen that's both heated and humidified. This enhances comfort, reduces the risk of mucosal drying and injury, and can help improve mucociliary clearance.</li><li>• Option C. Heating and humidification:</li><li>• Option D. PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure): PEEP refers to the maintenance of a positive pressure in the airways at the end of expiration, which can prevent alveolar collapse. The high flow rate from HFNC can generate a degree of PEEP, especially with the mouth closed. This can help recruit alveoli and improve oxygenation in certain patients.</li><li>• Option D. PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While high-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) offers several advantages, including reducing nasopharyngeal dead space, providing heated and humidified oxygen, and generating PEEP, it does not always eliminate the need for intubation in patients with severe respiratory failure.</li><li>➤ While high-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) offers several advantages, including reducing nasopharyngeal dead space, providing heated and humidified oxygen, and generating PEEP, it does not always eliminate the need for intubation in patients with severe respiratory failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not present with maculopapular rash? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zoster (shingles)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue (during febrile phase)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zoster (shingles)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture33336.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture477.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Zoster (shingles)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zoster (shingles) does not present with a maculopapular rash but rather with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution. In contrast, rubella, dengue during the febrile phase, and measles are classic causes of maculopapular rashes .</li><li>➤ Zoster (shingles)</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ maculopapular rash</li><li>➤ painful, vesicular</li><li>➤ dermatomal</li><li>➤ rubella, dengue</li><li>➤ measles</li><li>➤ maculopapular rashes</li><li>➤ Ref- Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no. 25.27-25.28 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106 Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 4.13</li><li>➤ Ref- Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no. 25.27-25.28</li><li>➤ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 4.13</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following shows functional assessment of B1 deficiency? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RBC Transketolase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "RBC Glutathione reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum Thiamine levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RBC Glutathione Peroxidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RBC Transketolase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/03.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. RBC Transketolase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Chimeric DNA is used for? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paternity test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternity test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Personal identification", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Organ transplantation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Organ transplantation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Organ transplantation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uses of Chimeric DNA are:</li><li>➤ Uses of Chimeric DNA are:</li><li>➤ Recombinant human insulin Recombinant human growth hormone (HGH, somatotropin) and other human hormones (e.g. FSH) Recombinant blood clotting factor VIII and other clotting factors (Factor IX, tPA, hirudin) Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine, HPV vaccine, etc. Cytokines and growth factors (interferon, interleukins, etc.) Monoclonal antibodies and other related products (rituximab, trastuzumab, etc.) Recombinant enzymes (acid α glucosidase [myozyme], α L iduronidase [aldurazyme]) Recombinant HIV protein for HIV ELISA testing Herbicide and insect resistant crops Other products: Bone morphogenic protein (BMP), albumin, fibinolytic and thrombolytic agents, etc. Gene mapping using techniques such as fluorescence in sit hybridization (FISH). Molecular analysis of disease, to detect gene variations and mutations. Restriction Fragment Length polymorphism (RFLP) and single nucleotide polymorphism (SN) Microsatellite DNA polymorphisms Gene therapy and bone marrow transplantation</li><li>➤ Recombinant human insulin</li><li>➤ Recombinant human growth hormone (HGH, somatotropin) and other human hormones (e.g. FSH)</li><li>➤ Recombinant blood clotting factor VIII and other clotting factors (Factor IX, tPA, hirudin)</li><li>➤ Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine, HPV vaccine, etc.</li><li>➤ Cytokines and growth factors (interferon, interleukins, etc.)</li><li>➤ Monoclonal antibodies and other related products (rituximab, trastuzumab, etc.)</li><li>➤ Recombinant enzymes (acid α glucosidase [myozyme], α L iduronidase [aldurazyme])</li><li>➤ Recombinant HIV protein for HIV ELISA testing</li><li>➤ Herbicide and insect resistant crops</li><li>➤ Other products: Bone morphogenic protein (BMP), albumin, fibinolytic and thrombolytic agents, etc.</li><li>➤ Gene mapping using techniques such as fluorescence in sit hybridization (FISH).</li><li>➤ Molecular analysis of disease, to detect gene variations and mutations.</li><li>➤ Restriction Fragment Length polymorphism (RFLP) and single nucleotide polymorphism (SN)</li><li>➤ Microsatellite DNA polymorphisms</li><li>➤ Gene therapy and bone marrow transplantation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bone mineral density screening is recommended after the age of:(AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "55 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "60 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "65 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 65 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195358.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/screenshot-2024-01-23-195408.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 65 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bone mineral density screening by DEXA scan is recommended at the age more than 65 years.</li><li>➤ Bone mineral density screening by DEXA scan is recommended at the age more than 65 years.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer from the sub-Himalayan belt had a thorn prick injury a year back and developed a warty, verrucous growth at the site of prick. A skin biopsy sample was taken and sent for histopathological examination. The characteristic microscopic body as shown in the image was seen. Which of the following could be the most likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pheohyphomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chromoblastomycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chromoblastomycosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-248.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-185.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chromoblastomycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chromoblastomycosis is characterized by a slowly spreading warty, verrucous lesion following a thorn prick injury, with histopathological evidence of medlar bodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was treated with steroids for psoriasis. On stopping the treatment, he develops fever, malaise, and lesions as seen in the image below. What is the most probable diagnosis? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pustular psoriasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staphylococcal infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute generalized Exanthematous pustulosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sub corneal pustular dermatosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pustular psoriasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pustular psoriasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a patient with a history of psoriasis presents with fever, malaise , and widespread pustules following the abrupt withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids, consider pustular psoriasis as the probable diagnosis. This condition can be a severe, life-threatening variant of psoriasis that requires prompt medical attention and management.</li><li>➤ When a patient with a history of psoriasis presents with fever, malaise , and widespread pustules following the abrupt withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids, consider pustular psoriasis as the probable diagnosis.</li><li>➤ history of psoriasis</li><li>➤ fever, malaise</li><li>➤ pustules</li><li>➤ withdrawal</li><li>➤ corticosteroids,</li><li>➤ pustular psoriasis</li><li>➤ This condition can be a severe, life-threatening variant of psoriasis that requires prompt medical attention and management.</li><li>➤ severe, life-threatening</li><li>➤ prompt</li><li>➤ Ref - Goodman Gillman’s he pharmacological basis of therapeutics – 13 th edition page no 1276</li><li>➤ Ref - Goodman Gillman’s he pharmacological basis of therapeutics – 13 th edition page no 1276</li><li>➤ Online resources - https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/19998529/</li><li>➤ Online resources -</li><li>➤ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/19998529/</li><li>➤ Rook’s textbook of dermatology - 9 th Edition page no 18.18, 26.22, 35.28, 35.33</li><li>➤ Rook’s textbook of dermatology - 9 th Edition page no 18.18, 26.22, 35.28, 35.33</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old unmarried female has come to the gynae OPD for cervical cancer vaccination. Which is preferred? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gardasil", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biovac", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rabivac", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tvac", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gardasil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gardasil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gardasil is the preferred vaccine for cervical cancer prevention. It is a quadrivalent HPV vaccine that provides protection against four serotypes of the Human Papillomavirus (HPV): 6, 11, 16, and 18.</li><li>• HPV Serotypes Covered by Gardasil: 6 and 11: These types are associated with anogenital warts. 16 and 18: These types are linked to cervical cancer and other HPV-related cancers.</li><li>• HPV Serotypes Covered by Gardasil: 6 and 11: These types are associated with anogenital warts. 16 and 18: These types are linked to cervical cancer and other HPV-related cancers.</li><li>• HPV Serotypes Covered by Gardasil:</li><li>• 6 and 11: These types are associated with anogenital warts. 16 and 18: These types are linked to cervical cancer and other HPV-related cancers.</li><li>• 6 and 11: These types are associated with anogenital warts.</li><li>• 6 and 11:</li><li>• 16 and 18: These types are linked to cervical cancer and other HPV-related cancers.</li><li>• 16 and 18:</li><li>• Gardasil is administered as an intramuscular injection with a recommended schedule of three doses (0, 2, and 6 months).</li><li>• Available HPV Vaccines:</li><li>• Available HPV Vaccines:</li><li>• Cervarix (Bivalent): Covers HPV serotypes 16 and 18. Gardasil (Quadrivalent): Covers HPV serotypes 6, 11, 16, and 18. Gardasil 9 (Nonavalent or HPV9): Covers HPV serotypes 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58. Cervavac (India’s indigenous HPV vaccine): Quadrivalent, covers serotypes 6, 11, 16, and 18.</li><li>• Cervarix (Bivalent): Covers HPV serotypes 16 and 18.</li><li>• Cervarix (Bivalent):</li><li>• Gardasil (Quadrivalent): Covers HPV serotypes 6, 11, 16, and 18.</li><li>• Gardasil (Quadrivalent):</li><li>• Gardasil 9 (Nonavalent or HPV9): Covers HPV serotypes 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58.</li><li>• Gardasil 9 (Nonavalent or HPV9):</li><li>• Cervavac (India’s indigenous HPV vaccine): Quadrivalent, covers serotypes 6, 11, 16, and 18.</li><li>• Cervavac (India’s indigenous HPV vaccine):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Biovac: This is a vaccine for Hepatitis A, not related to HPV or cervical cancer.</li><li>• Option B. Biovac:</li><li>• Option C. Rabivac: This is a rabies vaccine for animals, not related to HPV or cervical cancer.</li><li>• Option C. Rabivac:</li><li>• Option D. Tvac: This is a tetanus vaccine, not related to HPV or cervical cancer.</li><li>• Option D. Tvac:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gardasil is the preferred vaccine for preventing cervical cancer and related HPV diseases, covering serotypes 6, 11, 16, and 18.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.who.int/teams/immunization-vaccines-and-biologicals/diseases/human-papillomavirus-vaccines-(HPV)</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/teams/immunization-vaccines-and-biologicals/diseases/human-papillomavirus-vaccines-(HPV)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these structures are retained during radical neck dissection? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tail of parotid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sublingual gland", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Submandibular gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Level 2b lymph nodes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sublingual gland", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-174142.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sublingual gland</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition Page No. 442; Stell and Maran 5 th edition Page No. 710</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition Page No. 442; Stell and Maran 5 th edition Page No. 710</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked a in the image given below? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulnar artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superficial radial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ulnar artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-33.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ulnar artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ulnar artery is an essential vascular structure for the blood supply to the forearm and hand, particularly contributing to the formation of the palmar arches, which are critical for hand perfusion. Its course alongside the ulna bone and through Guyon's canal makes it a significant artery in the vascular anatomy of the forearm and hand. It passes deep to the Guyon's canal in the wrist and contributes to the superficial and deep palmar arch.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A drug trial was initiated under Medicine department to test the efficacy of a new medication in comparison to a placebo. The participants were divided into two cohorts. Cohort A received a placebo, while cohort B was treated with the novel drug. Out of the 120 participants in cohort A, 36 faced fatal outcomes. In cohort B, with 130 participants, there were 26 fatal outcomes. Given this data, if a clinician were to incorporate this novel medication into practice, how many patients would they need to treat with this new medication to prevent one additional fatality when compared to the placebo group? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "250", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "160", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 10", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/screenshot-2023-10-23-124705.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 10</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a practical measure used in decision-making for clinical interventions. It represents the number of patients that need to be treated with a particular therapy over a specific period to prevent one additional bad outcome, such as death in this scenario. An NNT of 10 indicates that the new medication has a significant impact in reducing fatalities compared to the placebo.</li><li>➤ The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a practical measure used in decision-making for clinical interventions.</li><li>➤ It represents the number of patients that need to be treated with a particular therapy over a specific period to prevent one additional bad outcome, such as death in this scenario.</li><li>➤ An NNT of 10 indicates that the new medication has a significant impact in reducing fatalities compared to the placebo.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most common cause of liver failure? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paracetamol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CCI4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pesticides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Paracetamol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-363.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paracetamol poisoning is the most common cause of acute liver failure, and it is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment with N-acetylcysteine (NAC) and close monitoring to prevent serious complications, including liver failure.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 1635</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 1635</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hospital has reported an outbreak of MRSA infection. On investigation, it was found out that a staff nurse had nasal carriage of MRSA. Which of the following drugs helps in the removal of colonization of bacteria? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inj cephalosporin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Topical mupirocin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhaled colistin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Topical mupirocin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-188.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Topical mupirocin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Topical mupirocin is the recommended treatment for the nasal decolonization of MRSA, effectively reducing the nasal carriage of the bacteria and thereby decreasing the risk of transmission and subsequent infections.</li><li>➤ Topical mupirocin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a hemostatic agent? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zeolite", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chitosan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Boric acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kaolin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Boric acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Boric acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Boric acid is not a hemostatic agent. Hemostatic agents like Zeolite, Chitosan, and Kaolin work by activating the coagulation pathways to control bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the plant which produces a toxin of abuse potential? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Erythroxylum coca", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Datura", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Digitalis Purpura", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Erythroxylum coca", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/28/image-9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-104418.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-104520.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-104614.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Erythroxylum coca</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca, which can be identified by following features:</li><li>➤ Leaves : Characteristic of the leaf is an areolated portion bounded by two longitudinal curved lines, one line on each side of the midrib. Flowers are small, and disposed in little clusters on short stalks. Red Berries: The flowers mature into red berries.</li><li>➤ Leaves : Characteristic of the leaf is an areolated portion bounded by two longitudinal curved lines, one line on each side of the midrib.</li><li>➤ Leaves</li><li>➤ Flowers are small, and disposed in little clusters on short stalks.</li><li>➤ Flowers</li><li>➤ Red Berries: The flowers mature into red berries.</li><li>➤ Red Berries:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old man died 24 hours after the onset of substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. On autopsy, an atheromatous plaque was seen obstructing the left anterior descending artery. Which type of calcification is most likely to be seen in this condition? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dystrophic with increased serum calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metastatic with increased serum calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dystrophic with normal serum calcium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metastatic with normal serum calcium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dystrophic with normal serum calcium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-113716.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dystrophic with normal serum calcium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no 83</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no 83</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male with a history of intravenous drug use presents to the emergency department with a pulsatile mass in the inguinal region. Imaging studies reveal a pseudoaneurysm involving an artery. What is the most commonly involved artery in pseudoaneurysm formation? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femoral artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Popliteal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Femoral artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Femoral artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A pseudoaneurysm is a pulsatile hematoma that forms when there is a breach in the arterial wall, resulting in the extravasation of blood into the surrounding tissues. The most commonly involved artery in pseudoaneurysm formation is the femoral artery, due to its superficial location and frequent use for arterial access. Pseudoaneurysms can also occur in other arteries, such as the brachial, radial, ulnar, and carotid arteries. Common causes of pseudoaneurysm formation include trauma, iatrogenic injury during medical procedures (e.g., arterial catheterization), and underlying arterial disease (e.g., atherosclerosis). The clinical presentation of a pseudoaneurysm may include a pulsatile mass, pain, tenderness, and signs of bleeding or hematoma formation. The diagnosis of a pseudoaneurysm is confirmed by imaging studies such as ultrasound, CT scan, or angiography. Treatment options for a pseudoaneurysm may include observation, compression, percutaneous thrombin injection, or surgical repair depending on the size, location, and underlying cause of the lesion. MC site of true peripheral aneurysm is however, the popliteal artery.</li><li>➤ A pseudoaneurysm is a pulsatile hematoma that forms when there is a breach in the arterial wall, resulting in the extravasation of blood into the surrounding tissues.</li><li>➤ The most commonly involved artery in pseudoaneurysm formation is the femoral artery, due to its superficial location and frequent use for arterial access.</li><li>➤ Pseudoaneurysms can also occur in other arteries, such as the brachial, radial, ulnar, and carotid arteries.</li><li>➤ Common causes of pseudoaneurysm formation include trauma, iatrogenic injury during medical procedures (e.g., arterial catheterization), and underlying arterial disease (e.g., atherosclerosis).</li><li>➤ The clinical presentation of a pseudoaneurysm may include a pulsatile mass, pain, tenderness, and signs of bleeding or hematoma formation.</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of a pseudoaneurysm is confirmed by imaging studies such as ultrasound, CT scan, or angiography.</li><li>➤ Treatment options for a pseudoaneurysm may include observation, compression, percutaneous thrombin injection, or surgical repair depending on the size, location, and underlying cause of the lesion.</li><li>➤ MC site of true peripheral aneurysm is however, the popliteal artery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An intraocular lens was placed uneventfully in a young patient during cataract surgery. What should be done thereafter? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IOL replaced every 10yrs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Never replaced", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Replaced when secondary cataract develops", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Replaced when presbyopia develops", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Never replaced", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Never replaced</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An IOL replacement (IOL exchange) may be done under the following conditions:</li><li>➤ Incorrect IOL placed-Incorrect power or Incorrect Type Posterior or anterior dislocation of IOL Hyphema Asymmetrical Haptic Placement Sunset Syndrome Lens-Bag Decentration</li><li>➤ Incorrect IOL placed-Incorrect power or Incorrect Type</li><li>➤ Posterior or anterior dislocation of IOL</li><li>➤ Hyphema</li><li>➤ Asymmetrical Haptic Placement</li><li>➤ Sunset Syndrome</li><li>➤ Lens-Bag Decentration</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which modification will lead to Various short and long-acting analogs of the hormone given in the picture ?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Change in 14-16 in A chain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Change in 5-6 in A chain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Change in 29-30 in B chain", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrolysis of disulphide bonds", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Change in 29-30 in B chain", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_vO2Im60.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_UOrXTVM.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Change in 29-30 in B chain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The hormone depicted in the image is insulin .</li><li>• insulin</li><li>• Insulin's primary structure consists of two polypeptide chains: the A chain (21 amino acids) and the B chain (30 amino acids).</li><li>• There are two interchain disulfide bonds:</li><li>• There are two interchain disulfide bonds:</li><li>• Between the 7th amino acid of the A chain and the 7th amino acid of the B chain. Between the 20th amino acid of the A chain and the 19th amino acid of the B chain. One intrachain disulfide bond exists between the 6th and 11th amino acids of the A chain.</li><li>• Between the 7th amino acid of the A chain and the 7th amino acid of the B chain.</li><li>• Between the 20th amino acid of the A chain and the 19th amino acid of the B chain. One intrachain disulfide bond exists between the 6th and 11th amino acids of the A chain.</li><li>• Modifications in amino acids 29-30 of the B chain result in the production of short- and long-acting insulin types, depending on the changes made</li><li>• Other Options Explanation:</li><li>• Other Options Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Hydrolysis of disulphide bonds: Disrupts the structural integrity of insulin, leading to loss of biological activity.</li><li>• Option A. Hydrolysis of disulphide bonds:</li><li>• Option B. Change in 5-6 in A chain: Changing the sequence in the critical A chain can affect the folding and activity of insulin.</li><li>• Option B. Change in 5-6 in A chain:</li><li>• Option D. Change in 14-16 in A chain: Changing the sequence in the A chain can disrupt the structure and function of insulin.</li><li>• Option D. Change in 14-16 in A chain:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the first step in the management of an 18-month-old child with both eyes deviated medially? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Forced ductions test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Examination under anesthesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Refractive error testing", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Examination of fundus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Refractive error testing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Refractive error testing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first management step for a child presenting with a convergent squint is to test for refractive errors. This helps to identify any need for optical correction which might resolve or reduce the squint, thereby improving the visual development and alignment of the eyes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is diagnosed with Hepatitis B infection. Which of the following markers will always be present in his serum, even during recurrences, or if he develops chronic hepatitis? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HBc Ag", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti HBs Ab", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti HBc Ab", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBe Ag", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anti HBc Ab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/untitled-186_am92v1d.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Anti Hbc Ab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has the freedom to pick his or her caretaker and future course of action in treatment under the Mental Health Care Act of 2017. What is the name of this provision? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treatment directive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mental will", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Future directive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Advance directive", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Advance directive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Advance directive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the Mental Health Care Act 2017 in India, individuals can use an \"Advance Directive\" to state the way they wish to be treated for a mental illness and the way they wish not to be treated for a mental illness. This provision empowers individuals to have a say in their treatment even if they become incapacitated in the future. This is applicable only if a person loses the capacity to make mental healthcare or treatment decisions . Individuals can also appoint “Nominated Representative (NR)”, who will help in taking decisions regarding the treatment if he or she loses the capacity to make decision.</li><li>➤ only if a person loses the capacity to make mental healthcare or treatment decisions</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Forensic Psychiatry in India, Interface of Indian Laws and Mental Health, Page No 42.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mention the true statement/s about digoxin toxicity:(AIIMS MAY 2019) Earliest manifestation of digoxin toxicity is gastrointestinal symptoms Nonspecific vision changes may be noted in digoxin toxicity Early toxicity may not correlate with serum levels Neurological symptoms may occur without corresponding cardiovascular changes Hypokalemia is associated with increased risk of toxicity", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All are true", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "a, b and c only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a and e only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, c and e only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. All are true", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. All are true</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ All statements about digoxin toxicity, including the earliest manifestations, vision changes, correlation with serum levels, neurological symptoms, and the association with hypokalemia, are true.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /560</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a 5 cm renal calculus causing severe flank pain. It is detected as a staghorn calculus. What is the best management? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ESWL (Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ureteroscopic removal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy (PCNL) is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to remove large kidney stones. The following are some of the indications for PCNL:</li><li>➤ Large or complex kidney stones (&gt; 2 cm) or hard stones (Cysteine) that cannot be treated with other minimally invasive procedures such as shock wave lithotripsy (SWL) or ureteroscopy. Staghorn calculi (large branching stones) that occupy a significant portion of the kidney. Stones that are associated with renal obstruction or infection.</li><li>➤ Large or complex kidney stones (&gt; 2 cm) or hard stones (Cysteine) that cannot be treated with other minimally invasive procedures such as shock wave lithotripsy (SWL) or ureteroscopy.</li><li>➤ Staghorn calculi (large branching stones) that occupy a significant portion of the kidney.</li><li>➤ Stones that are associated with renal obstruction or infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following muscle is not supplied by the structure marked by red arrow? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Superior oblique", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levator palpebrae superioris (LPS)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Superior oblique", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-24.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-25.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Superior oblique</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-week neonate presents with ambiguous genitalia with Na+ - 127, K+ - 6 meq with a BP of 50/22 mm Hg. Along with IV fluids, what specific management is done? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Potassium binding resins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrocortisone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Broad spectrum antibiotics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hydrocortisone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-114802.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hydrocortisone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Hydrocortisone is the first-line treatment for congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) with 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which presents with ambiguous genitalia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypotension in neonates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young boy from high altitude came with fever and weakness and had the following reports Hemoglobin 17 gm%, TLC is 21,000 with neutrophils 25, lymphocytes 30, eosinophils 5, myelocytes and metamyelocytes 40 in peripheral smear. Next step in the investigation should be: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Philadelphia chromosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "JAK mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythropoietin levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone Marrow biopsy with reticulin stain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Erythropoietin levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-113555.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Erythropoietin levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erythropoietin levels should be measured to differentiate between primary and secondary polycythemia. In cases of polycythemia vera, erythropoietin levels are typically low due to constitutive JAK2 signaling, while secondary polycythemia is associated with high erythropoietin levels.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortans pathologic basis of disease, Pg 1161, 1242</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortans pathologic basis of disease, Pg 1161, 1242</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is the cause of Hydrops fetalis? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parvovirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxoplasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HIV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Parvovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Parvovirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19 is the most common infectious cause of hydrops fetalis due to its effect on fetal erythroid progenitor cells, leading to severe anemia and subsequent high-output cardiac failure.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 347, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 347, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following drugs poisoning with the antidotes:(AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-A, 2-E, 3-B, 4-C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-F, 2- E, 3-D, 4- B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-F, 2-E, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-F, 2-E, 3-B, 4-A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-163314.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HCN poisoning: DOC is Hydroxocobalamin. Amyl Nitrite(inhalational) with sodium thiosulphate (iv) can also be used. Paracetamol poisoning (causes hepatoxicity): N-acetylcysteine is used. Morphine poisoning: DOC is Naloxone. Nalorphine can also be used. Nicotine poisoning: Trimethaphan and Hexamethonium – Nn receptor blockers</li><li>➤ HCN poisoning: DOC is Hydroxocobalamin. Amyl Nitrite(inhalational) with sodium thiosulphate (iv) can also be used.</li><li>➤ HCN poisoning:</li><li>➤ Paracetamol poisoning (causes hepatoxicity): N-acetylcysteine is used.</li><li>➤ Paracetamol poisoning (causes hepatoxicity):</li><li>➤ Morphine poisoning: DOC is Naloxone. Nalorphine can also be used.</li><li>➤ Morphine poisoning:</li><li>➤ Nicotine poisoning: Trimethaphan and Hexamethonium – Nn receptor blockers</li><li>➤ Nicotine poisoning:</li><li>➤ (ganglionic blockers) are used.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /590, 223, 509, 134</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 46-year-old female is undergoing thyroidectomy for a large goiter. During the procedure, the patient develops tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperthermia. She becomes agitated and confused. Laboratory tests reveal elevated thyroid hormone levels, and a diagnosis of thyroid storm is made. The surgical team immediately stops the procedure, and the patient is transferred to the intensive care unit for treatment. What is the most common cause of thyroid storm during thyroidectomy? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rough handling of thyroid during surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Due to parathyroid gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inadequate patient preparation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infections", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inadequate patient preparation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Inadequate patient preparation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, is a rare but life-threatening medical emergency that occurs in individuals with severe hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland produces an excessive amount of thyroid hormones, primarily thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). In a thyroid storm, these hormone levels become dangerously elevated, leading to a wide range of symptoms and complications.</li><li>➤ Symptoms of a thyroid storm may include:</li><li>➤ High fever Rapid and irregular heartbeat (tachycardia) Elevated blood pressure Extreme agitation and restlessness Profuse sweating Tremors and shaking Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea Delirium or confusion Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes) Coma (in severe cases)</li><li>➤ High fever</li><li>➤ Rapid and irregular heartbeat (tachycardia)</li><li>➤ Elevated blood pressure</li><li>➤ Extreme agitation and restlessness</li><li>➤ Profuse sweating</li><li>➤ Tremors and shaking</li><li>➤ Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea</li><li>➤ Delirium or confusion</li><li>➤ Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes)</li><li>➤ Coma (in severe cases)</li><li>➤ Thyroid storms can be triggered by various factors, such as surgery, infection, trauma, or medication changes in individuals with underlying hyperthyroidism. The condition is more common in people with Graves' disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism.</li><li>➤ Treatment of a thyroid storm is a medical emergency and typically involves a combination of interventions to rapidly lower thyroid hormone levels, control symptoms, and support vital organ function.</li><li>➤ The usual cause of thyroid storm in thyroidectomy is inadequate patient preparation before surgery. Thus, patient preparation pre-operatively involves ensuring a euthyroid state.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A perinatologist is analyzing scatterplots from two research studies on the relationship between bone marrow density and gestational age. Study A shows data points tightly clustered along a trend line, while Study B shows data points that are more spread out but still follow a general trend line. Which statement correctly describes the relationship between bone marrow density and gestational age based on these observations? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strength of correlation is same in A and B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strength of the correlation is more in A than in B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strength of the variation is more in B than A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Variation in variables is more with A than B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Strength of the correlation is more in A than in B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip12.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture11_Zx8B4xH.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/screenshot-2023-10-23-124648.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Strength of the correlation is more in A than in B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the wrong statement about Plasmodium species: (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drug resistant falciparum is seen in India", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Presence of duffy blood group antigen is protective against vivax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe malaria with shock is called algid malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Relapse is seen in P. ovale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Presence of duffy blood group antigen is protective against vivax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Presence of duffy blood group antigen is protective against vivax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The absence of the Duffy blood group antigen is protective against Plasmodium vivax , not its presence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug of choice for treatment of pregnant woman with bacterial vaginosis? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clindamycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metronidazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-154323_QHDxmB9.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating bacterial vaginosis in pregnant women.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with painless decrease in vision and metamorphopsia. Fundus examination revealed the lesion shown in the image. What is the expected finding on ultrasonography? ( AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Smoke-stack appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inkblot appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Collar stud appearance", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Double circulation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Collar stud appearance", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture8_NYlztuP.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/07/untitled-314.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When diagnosing choroidal melanoma via ultrasonography, the \"collar stud appearance\" is a key finding. Recognizing this feature, along with the clinical presentation of painless visual loss and metamorphopsia, supports a timely and accurate diagnosis of this potentially life-threatening condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following TCA cycle intermediate is a part of heme metabolism? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha ketoglutarate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fumarate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Succinyl CoA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Succinyl CoA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Succinyl CoA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important anabolic reactions related with citric acid cycle are:</li><li>➤ Important anabolic reactions</li><li>➤ Oxaloacetate is the precursor of aspartate Alpha ketoglutarate can be made into glutamate Succinyl CoA is used for synthesis of heme Mitochondrial citrate is transported to cytoplasm, where it is cleaved into acetyl CoA, which then is the starting point of fatty acid synthesis.</li><li>➤ Oxaloacetate is the precursor of aspartate</li><li>➤ Oxaloacetate</li><li>➤ Alpha ketoglutarate can be made into glutamate</li><li>➤ Alpha ketoglutarate</li><li>➤ Succinyl CoA is used for synthesis of heme</li><li>➤ Succinyl CoA</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial citrate is transported to cytoplasm, where it is cleaved into acetyl CoA, which then is the starting point of fatty acid synthesis.</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial citrate</li><li>➤ starting point of fatty acid synthesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol use presents to the emergency department with severe epigastric pain that radiates to the back and recurrent vomiting. On examination, the patient has tenderness and guarding in the upper epigastrium. The chest x-ray is normal. What is the next step in the management of this patient? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Upper GI endoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol breath test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum lipase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CECT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serum lipase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Serum Lipase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Abdominal pain with recurrent vomiting in a chronic alcoholic with upper epigastric guarding is highly suggestive of pancreatitis. A normal erect chest x-ray suggests that there is no pneumoperitoneum, effectively ruling out perforation. In this setting, the main differential diagnosis to consider is pancreatitis. The next appropriate investigation would be a serum lipase test to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatitis.</li><li>➤ Abdominal pain with recurrent vomiting in a chronic alcoholic with upper epigastric guarding is highly suggestive of pancreatitis.</li><li>➤ A normal erect chest x-ray suggests that there is no pneumoperitoneum, effectively ruling out perforation.</li><li>➤ In this setting, the main differential diagnosis to consider is pancreatitis.</li><li>➤ The next appropriate investigation would be a serum lipase test to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the given section of the heart, match the marked (4, 9, 12, 1) structures: Outflow to pulmonary trunk (blue) Mitral valve Tricuspid valve Papillary muscles", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a-12, b-9, c-4, d-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a-1, b-4, c-12, d-9", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a-1, b-4, c-9, d-12", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "a-12, b-4, c-9, d-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. a-1, b-4, c-9, d-12", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. a-1, b-4, c-9, D-12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a cut and reflected section of the heart.</li><li>• The ventricles can be identified based upon the wall thickness - Left ventricle has thicker walls.</li><li>• Outflow to pulmonary trunk (marked as 1): This structure represents the exit point for blood traveling to the lungs for oxygenation. Mitral valve (marked as 4): Located between the left atrium and the left ventricle, the mitral valve regulates blood flow within the heart. Tricuspid valve (marked as 9): This valve, situated between the right atrium and right ventricle, prevents backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria. Papillary muscles (marked as 12): These muscles are attached to the ventricular walls and play a critical role in the function of the mitral and tricuspid valves via tendon-like chords.</li><li>• Outflow to pulmonary trunk (marked as 1): This structure represents the exit point for blood traveling to the lungs for oxygenation.</li><li>• Mitral valve (marked as 4): Located between the left atrium and the left ventricle, the mitral valve regulates blood flow within the heart.</li><li>• Tricuspid valve (marked as 9): This valve, situated between the right atrium and right ventricle, prevents backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria.</li><li>• Papillary muscles (marked as 12): These muscles are attached to the ventricular walls and play a critical role in the function of the mitral and tricuspid valves via tendon-like chords.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct match is:</li><li>➤ 1. Outflow to pulmonary trunk (blue)</li><li>➤ 2. Left atrium</li><li>➤ 3. Pulmonary veins (light red)</li><li>➤ 4. Mitral valve</li><li>➤ 5. Aorta (red).</li><li>➤ 6. Superior vena cava (blue)</li><li>➤ 7. Aortic semi lunar valve</li><li>➤ 8. Right atrium</li><li>➤ 9. Tricuspid valve</li><li>➤ 10. Right ventricle</li><li>➤ 11. Inferior vena cave (blue)</li><li>➤ 12. Papillary muscles</li><li>➤ 13. Left ventricle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are the on-call surgeon who is called for an emergency laparotomy for a patient with suspected bowel obstruction. During the surgery, which organ will you first visualize to determine if the obstruction is in the small or large bowel? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ileum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caecum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jejunum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sigmoid colon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Caecum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Caecum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cecum is the first organ to be visualized to differentiate between small and large bowel obstruction in cases of intestinal obstruction. Distension of the cecum will confirm large bowel involvement, while collapsed cecum implies small bowel obstruction. Identifying a collapsed distal segment of the large bowel and its sequential proximal assessment leads to the identification of the cause.</li><li>➤ The cecum is the first organ to be visualized to differentiate between small and large bowel obstruction in cases of intestinal obstruction.</li><li>➤ Distension of the cecum will confirm large bowel involvement, while collapsed cecum implies small bowel obstruction.</li><li>➤ Identifying a collapsed distal segment of the large bowel and its sequential proximal assessment leads to the identification of the cause.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mw vaccine is extracted from which of the following bacteria? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "M. indicus pranii", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "M. welchii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "M. leprae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "M. bovis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. M. indicus pranii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) M. indicus pranii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Mw vaccine is extracted from Mycobacterium indicus pranii and is used in the immunotherapy of leprosy, enhancing immune responses and promoting rapid bacterial clearance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following post-mortem change. ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tattooing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Suggillation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Putrefaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decomposition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Suggillation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/112.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Suggillation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post Mortem Staining (PMS)</li><li>➤ Post Mortem Staining (PMS)</li><li>➤ It is the settling of the blood in the dependent, portion of the body after death due to loss of circulation, causing a purplish red discoloration of the skin. Other names of PMS are: Hypostasis livor mortis Vibices Suggillation Postmortem Lividity Cadaveric lividity Darkening of death It is present on dependent areas, but absent on pressure areas as the blood vessels get compressed. In a supine body the pressure areas are back of chest, buttocks etc as these are in the direct contact with ground.</li><li>➤ It is the settling of the blood in the dependent, portion of the body after death due to loss of circulation, causing a purplish red discoloration of the skin.</li><li>➤ Other names of PMS are: Hypostasis livor mortis Vibices Suggillation Postmortem Lividity Cadaveric lividity Darkening of death</li><li>➤ Hypostasis livor mortis Vibices Suggillation Postmortem Lividity Cadaveric lividity Darkening of death</li><li>➤ Hypostasis</li><li>➤ livor mortis</li><li>➤ Vibices</li><li>➤ Suggillation</li><li>➤ Postmortem Lividity</li><li>➤ Cadaveric lividity</li><li>➤ Darkening of death</li><li>➤ It is present on dependent areas, but absent on pressure areas as the blood vessels get compressed. In a supine body the pressure areas are back of chest, buttocks etc as these are in the direct contact with ground.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which immunoglobulin is elevated in a case of chronic allergy? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgE", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IgE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Momomer.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) IgE</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Paradoxical undressing is seen in? ( AIIMS May 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heat stress", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Voyeurism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "LSD overdose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypothermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hypothermia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paradoxical undressing occurs in hypothermia victims who, despite experiencing extremely low temperatures, remove their clothing due to a sudden and misleading sensation of warmth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The structure that divides the liver in Couinaud's classification system is? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Portal vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bile duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystic duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Portal vein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/ia-23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Portal vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Illustration of the segmental anatomy of the liver based on the third-order portal vein branching (Couinaud's classification system) and the portal vein and hepatic vein branches.</li><li>➤ IVC: inferior vena cava and PV: portal vein.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During your clinical rotations, you are reviewing data from an experiment that examined the correlation between Vitamin D levels and diastolic blood pressure (DBP). The experiment aimed to ascertain the variability within two distinct sample sets. Based on the findings, the average DBP was noted to be 110, with an associated standard deviation of 11. Similarly, the mean Vitamin D level was observed to be 18, with a standard deviation of 3. With reference to the coefficient of variation (COV), which statement accurately represents the collected data? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "COV of DBP is more than Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "COV of Vitamin D is more than DBP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both DBP and Vitamin D have equal variability", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It cannot be ascertained from information provided", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. COV of Vitamin D is more than DBP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/screenshot-2023-10-23-125116.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) COV of Vitamin D is more than DBP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The coefficient of variation provides a useful comparison of variability across different datasets. In this case, the higher COV for Vitamin D indicates a greater relative variation compared to DBP, highlighting important considerations for researchers analyzing the impacts or associations involving these variables.</li><li>➤ The coefficient of variation provides a useful comparison of variability across different datasets.</li><li>➤ In this case, the higher COV for Vitamin D indicates a greater relative variation compared to DBP, highlighting important considerations for researchers analyzing the impacts or associations involving these variables.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How is wound infection severity graded? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ASA classification", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SIRS criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Southampton grading", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "APACHE II score", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Southampton grading", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-094340.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Southampton grading</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Southampton grading:</li><li>➤ Southampton grading:</li><li>➤ In summary, the Southampton grading system is the appropriate option for grading wound infection severity as it provides a structured approach to categorizing surgical site infections based on clinical criteria. This system helps healthcare providers assess the seriousness of wound infections and make appropriate treatment decisions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with chest pain and shortness of breath. Further investigation reveals a mediastinal mass on imaging studies. The patient is referred to a specialist for further evaluation. What is the most common type of tumor found in the anterior mediastinum? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thymoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neurogenic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchial cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thymoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thymoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, thymoma is the most common type of tumor found in the mediastinum, and it originates from the thymus gland. When a patient presents with chest pain and shortness of breath and is found to have a mediastinal mass on imaging studies, thymoma is a likely consideration among other possible mediastinal tumors</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasm is detected to have metastasis in the lungs. It is considered as stage? (INICET MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "II", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "III", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metastasis to the lungs in gestational trophoblastic neoplasm is classified as Stage III.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 364, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 364, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The function of the Golgi tendon organ is to? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sense changes in muscle direction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sense changes in muscle tension", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sense changes in position of the muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sense changes in length of the muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sense changes in muscle tension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-101055.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sense changes in muscle tension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The Golgi tendon organ is responsible for sensing changes in muscle tension, providing crucial feedback to the central nervous system to prevent muscle damage and maintain appropriate muscle tension during various activities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the first-order neuron in the optic pathway? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rods and cones", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ganglion cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cells in lateral geniculate body", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bipolar cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rods and cones", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rods and cones</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In the optic pathway, the first-order neurons are the photoreceptor cells, specifically rods and cones, which convert light into electrical signals. These signals are then relayed through bipolar cells to ganglion cells, whose axons form the optic nerve, ultimately transmitting visual information to the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pacemaker generating the rhythm for breathing is? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumotaxic centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dorsal group of neurons in the medulla", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pre-Bötzinger complex", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Apneustic centre", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pre-Bötzinger complex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pre-Bötzinger complex</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an example of feed forward control mechanism? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Temperature Regulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cephalic phase of gastric secretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cerebellar action in motor coordination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exercise resulting in heart rate increase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Exercise resulting in heart rate increase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-102015.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Exercise resulting in heart rate increase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Single breath nitrogen method is used for measuring? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dead space volume", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "FRC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tidal volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diffusion capacity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dead space volume", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dead space volume</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The single breath nitrogen method (Fowler's method) is used to measure the anatomical dead space volume, which is the volume of air in the respiratory passages where no gas exchange occurs. This method provides a precise measurement of dead space by analyzing the nitrogen concentration in expired air following a single breath of pure oxygen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "I-125 labelled albumin is used for measurement of: ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasma volume", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interstitial fluid volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ICF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ECF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Plasma volume", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Plasma volume</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following hormones is exclusively secreted by adrenal gland but not by the ovaries of females? (AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DHEA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DHEA-S", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. DHEA-S", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) DHEA-S</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DHEA-S (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate) is exclusively secreted by the adrenal glands and not by the ovaries because the ovaries lack the enzyme necessary to produce DHEA-S.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which hormone crosses the plasma membrane for its action? ( AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroxine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucagon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thyroxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thyroxine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Preferred drug for the treatment of a 48-year-old man with uncomplicated grade 2 hypertension without any associated co-morbidity is (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlorthalidone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Triamterene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chlorthalidone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Chlorthalidone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the treatment of uncomplicated grade 2 hypertension without any associated comorbidities, thiazide diuretics, particularly chlorthalidone, are the preferred first-line agents according to ACC and JNC 8 guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /615</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Tigroid white matter on MRI imaging is seen in which of the following conditions? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pantothenate kinase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neuroferritinopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aceruloplasminemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease is a prototypical condition that displays a tigroid pattern on MRI. This appearance is due to the patchy preservation and destruction of myelin in the white matter, creating alternating areas of normal myelin and demyelination. This results in the characteristic striped or tigroid appearance on imaging studies, reflective of the disease’s impact on myelination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hepcidin inhibits iron transfer from the enterocyte to the plasma by binding to? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ferroportin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transferrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ferritin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ferroportin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ferroportin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepcidin regulates iron homeostasis by binding to ferroportin, leading to its degradation, which prevents iron export from enterocytes into the plasma and from macrophages.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Pg 1231</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Pg 1231</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A CKD patient had to undergo dialysis and his Hb was 5.2gm/dL. So two blood transfusions were to be given. The first bag was completed in 2 hours. The second was started and in the midway, he developed shortness of breath and hypertension. Vitals Were BP - 180/120 mmHg and pulse rate - 110 min. What is the cause? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allergic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transfusion related circulatory overload", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transfusion-related acute lung injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Transfusion related circulatory overload", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Transfusion related circulatory overload</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transfusion-related circulatory overload (TACO) is a potential complication of blood transfusion, particularly in patients with predisposing conditions like CKD. It presents with respiratory distress, hypertension, and tachycardia and can be prevented by careful monitoring and slow transfusion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are features of iron deficiency anemia? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TIBC increased, Ferritin decreased, Transferrin saturation increased", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "TIBC increased, Soluble transferrin receptor decreased, Ferritin increased", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TIBC increased, Transferrin saturation decreased, Ferritin decreased", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "TIBC increased, Transferrin saturation decreased, Ferritin increased", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. TIBC increased, Transferrin saturation decreased, Ferritin decreased", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-114103.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) TIBC increased, Transferrin saturation decreased, Ferritin decreased</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Differential Diagnosis:</li><li>➤ Differential Diagnosis:</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Pg 1231-1234</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Pg 1231-1234</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old male admitted to the ICU for acute exacerbation of COPD develops a sudden onset of palpitations. The following ECG changes are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multifocal atrial tachycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atrial tachycardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Multifocal atrial tachycardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm69.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture44.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Multifocal atrial tachycardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia is characterized by multiple ectopic atrial activities leading to variable P wave morphologies and an irregular rhythm, often associated with underlying chronic pulmonary conditions. Management focuses on treating the underlying condition and stabilizing the rate with appropriate medications.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/chap 250/7033</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has recurrent optic neuritis of both eyes with extensive transverse myelitis. Visual acuity in the right eye is 6/60 and visual acuity in the left eye 6/18. The patient showed a partial response to steroids. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neuromyelitis optica", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurosyphilis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neuromyelitis optica", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture45.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture46.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Neuromyelitis optica</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WINGERCHUK Criteria for NMO-SD</li><li>➤ WINGERCHUK Criteria for NMO-SD</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glycopyrrolate is used as a preanesthetic agent for?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reducing the secretions", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sedative effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skeletal muscle relaxant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anxiolytic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Reducing the secretions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Reducing the secretions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Glycopyrrolate is primarily used as a preanesthetic agent to reduce secretions, thus preventing complications during anesthesia and surgery.</li><li>➤ Glycopyrrolate is primarily used as a preanesthetic agent to reduce secretions, thus preventing complications during anesthesia and surgery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 849</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 849</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old who is taking antiepileptics, has had a seizure-free period of 6 months. She has no family history of epilepsy. Her EEG is now normal and she has a normal neurological exam and intelligence. What would be your advice? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop the treatment and follow up", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Continue treatment for another 2 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gradually taper the drug and stop treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue lifelong treatment with antiepileptics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Continue treatment for another 2 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Continue treatment for another 2 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-epileptics once initiated must be continued for a minimum period of 2 years . Decision to stop AED is considered if, seizure free &gt; 2 years with normal MRI, EEG, seizure type .</li><li>➤ must be continued for a minimum period of 2 years</li><li>➤ seizure free &gt; 2 years with normal MRI, EEG, seizure</li><li>➤ type</li><li>➤ Recurrences occur in the first 3 months of discontinuing AED.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison principles of internal Medicine 21st edition Pg. 12076</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements about polycythemia vera is true? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Risk of thrombosis strongly correlates with the degree of thrombocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is protective against H. pylori infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Generalized pruritus is a consequence of mast cell activation by JAK 2 mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute myeloid leukemia is the most common cause of mortality", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Generalized pruritus is a consequence of mast cell activation by JAK 2 mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Generalized pruritus is a consequence of mast cell activation by JAK 2 mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Generalized pruritus in polycythemia vera, exacerbated by warmth or bathing, is a well-known symptom related to mast cell activation due to the JAK2 mutation. This mutation is a hallmark of the disease and leads to several systemic effects, including increased histamine release, which contributes to pruritus.</li><li>➤ All MPN can develop AML, Myelofibrosis in the course of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "EEG pattern given below is suggestive of which of the following diseases? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatic encephalopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Generalized tonic clonic seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes simplex encephalitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm74.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Creutzfeldt- Jakob Disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease is associated with distinct EEG findings that are crucial for its diagnosis. Understanding the typical EEG patterns along with clinical presentation and advanced imaging can aid in the early and accurate diagnosis of this rapidly progressive and fatal disease.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21e/Neurology/Dementia/chap 438/12420</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Acute inflammatory response is not seen in: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyroptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Necroptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Apoptosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Necrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Apoptosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/936.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Apoptosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Apoptosis is a non-inflammatory form of programmed cell death, characterized by the maintenance of membrane integrity and the absence of an acute inflammatory response. In contrast, necrosis, necroptosis, and pyroptosis involve membrane rupture and the release of intracellular contents, leading to inflammation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 33-34</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 33-34</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An affected male does not have affected children but an affected female always has affected children. Type of inheritance? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X linked recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X linked dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitochondrial", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mitochondrial", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/937.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mitochondrial</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial inheritance is characterized by the transmission of genetic traits solely through the maternal line, where affected females pass the condition to all of their offspring, while affected males do not pass it on to their children</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common pulmonary manifestation of SLE? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shrinking lung syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intra alveolar hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleuritis with/without pleural effusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interstitial inflammation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pleuritis with/without pleural effusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture48.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pleuritis with/without pleural effusion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pleuritis with or without pleural effusion stands out as the most frequent pulmonary complication in SLE due to the disease’s propensity to inflame serous membranes. Accurate diagnosis and effective management of SLE and its pulmonary manifestations are crucial for improving quality of life and reducing morbidity in affected patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following characteristics are found in the pleural effusion fluid of a rheumatoid arthritis patient except: (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RA factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cholesterol crystals", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High glucose", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "High LDH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. High glucose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture47.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) High Glucose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the device shown in the image below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Automated External Desynchronizer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Automated External Defibrillator", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Automated Electronic Defibrillator", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Automated External decompressor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Automated External Defibrillator", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-153116.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Automated External Defibrillator</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Automated External Defibrillator (AED):</li><li>• Automated External Defibrillator (AED):</li><li>• Definition: An automated external defibrillator (AED) is a portable electronic device that automatically diagnoses the life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia, and is able to treat them through defibrillation, the application of electricity which stops the arrhythmia, allowing the heart to re-establish an effective rhythm.</li><li>• Definition: An automated external defibrillator (AED) is a portable electronic device that automatically diagnoses the life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia, and is able to treat them through defibrillation, the application of electricity which stops the arrhythmia, allowing the heart to re-establish an effective rhythm.</li><li>• Definition:</li><li>• Rapid Defibrillation: Rapid defibrillation is paramount in improving survival rates from sudden cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.</li><li>• Rapid Defibrillation: Rapid defibrillation is paramount in improving survival rates from sudden cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.</li><li>• Rapid Defibrillation:</li><li>• User-Friendly and Accessible: AEDs are made for laypersons and first responders, not just for medical professionals. They come with voice prompts and sometimes visual displays to guide the user through each step of the defibrillation process. This design makes it possible for people without extensive medical training to assist in a cardiac emergency.</li><li>• User-Friendly and Accessible: AEDs are made for laypersons and first responders, not just for medical professionals. They come with voice prompts and sometimes visual displays to guide the user through each step of the defibrillation process. This design makes it possible for people without extensive medical training to assist in a cardiac emergency.</li><li>• User-Friendly and Accessible:</li><li>• Self-Analyzing: An AED automatically evaluates the heart rhythm of a person in cardiac arrest. If the device detects a shockable rhythm, it will instruct the user to deliver a shock; if not, it will guide the user to continue with CPR or other appropriate interventions. This ensures that shocks are only given when necessary.</li><li>• Self-Analyzing: An AED automatically evaluates the heart rhythm of a person in cardiac arrest. If the device detects a shockable rhythm, it will instruct the user to deliver a shock; if not, it will guide the user to continue with CPR or other appropriate interventions. This ensures that shocks are only given when necessary.</li><li>• Self-Analyzing:</li><li>• Public Availability: Many public places such as airports, gyms, schools, and shopping centers have publicly accessible AEDs. Increasing the availability and visibility of AEDs in public spaces can reduce the time to defibrillation and increase survival rates from out-of-hospital cardiac arrest.</li><li>• Public Availability: Many public places such as airports, gyms, schools, and shopping centers have publicly accessible AEDs. Increasing the availability and visibility of AEDs in public spaces can reduce the time to defibrillation and increase survival rates from out-of-hospital cardiac arrest.</li><li>• Public Availability:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Automated External Desynchronizer: This term is incorrect and not associated with any known medical device.</li><li>• Option A. Automated External Desynchronizer:</li><li>• Option C. Automated Electronic Defibrillator: This term is incorrect and not associated with any known medical device.</li><li>• Option C. Automated Electronic Defibrillator:</li><li>• Option D. Automated External Decompressor: This term is incorrect and not associated with any known medical device.</li><li>• Option D. Automated External Decompressor:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An Automated External Defibrillator (AED) is a crucial device for rapidly diagnosing and treating life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias through defibrillation, especially designed for use by laypersons and first responders to increase survival rates in cases of sudden cardiac arrest.</li><li>➤ An Automated External Defibrillator (AED) is a crucial device for rapidly diagnosing and treating life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias through defibrillation, especially designed for use by laypersons and first responders to increase survival rates in cases of sudden cardiac arrest.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 2537</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 2537</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most commonly implicated drug for causation of acute liver failure is? (AIIMS MAY 2020 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paracetamol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Paracetamol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is the most common drug implicated in the causation of acute liver failure, especially in the context of overdose and in individuals with risk factors like existing liver disease and chronic alcohol use.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /223</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following drugs with the organism they are used for? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-A, 2-C, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-F", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-F", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-F", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-164026.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for treatment of flukes (except liver fluke) and tapeworms (except dog tapeworm) is Praziquantal . Drug of choice for treatment of liver fluke is triclabendazole. Drug of choice for dog tapeworm (Echinococcus) is albendazole Drug of choice for all nematodes (see exceptions below) is albendazole (or Mebendazole ) Drug of choice for treatment of filariasis is Diethylcarbamazine . Drug of choice for treatment of Onchocerca and Strongyloides is ivermectin. Nitazoxanide : DOC for Cryptosporidium and also used for Giardia (DOC is metronidazole and tinidazole)</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for treatment of flukes (except liver fluke) and tapeworms (except dog tapeworm) is Praziquantal . Drug of choice for treatment of liver fluke is triclabendazole. Drug of choice for dog tapeworm (Echinococcus) is albendazole</li><li>➤ Praziquantal</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for treatment of liver fluke is triclabendazole. Drug of choice for dog tapeworm (Echinococcus) is albendazole</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for treatment of liver fluke is triclabendazole.</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for dog tapeworm (Echinococcus) is albendazole</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for all nematodes (see exceptions below) is albendazole (or Mebendazole ) Drug of choice for treatment of filariasis is Diethylcarbamazine . Drug of choice for treatment of Onchocerca and Strongyloides is ivermectin.</li><li>➤ Mebendazole</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for treatment of filariasis is Diethylcarbamazine . Drug of choice for treatment of Onchocerca and Strongyloides is ivermectin.</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for treatment of filariasis is Diethylcarbamazine .</li><li>➤ Diethylcarbamazine</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for treatment of Onchocerca and Strongyloides is ivermectin.</li><li>➤ Nitazoxanide : DOC for Cryptosporidium and also used for Giardia (DOC is metronidazole and tinidazole)</li><li>➤ Nitazoxanide</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: - KDT 8 TH /907</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion : Sacubitril/Valsartan is indicated in the treatment of NYHA class II to IV in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. Reason : Sacubitril/Valsartan is an angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI) counteracts RAAS system and raises the level of vasoactive peptaaides.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is true, but Reason is false.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is false, but Reason is true.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sacubitril/Valsartan is an angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI) indicated for treating NYHA class II to IV heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, functioning by inhibiting the RAAS and increasing levels of beneficial vasoactive peptides.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Regarding prostate cancer, which of the following statements is/are true? Prostate cancer commonly arises from the central zone. Histological grading is done by Gleason's score. The most common type of prostate cancer is squamous cell carcinoma. It is hormone-dependent.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-09%20174235.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prostate cancer is most commonly an adenocarcinoma originating in the peripheral zone, graded using the Gleason score, and is hormone-dependent.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following prenatal scans in the correct chronological order during pregnancy: Nuchal Translucency Scan Triple Marker Test Anomaly Scan Growth Scan", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 1, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct chronological order of prenatal scans during pregnancy is:</li><li>➤ Nuchal Translucency Scan (11–14 weeks) Triple Marker Test (15–20 weeks) Anomaly Scan (18–23 weeks) Growth Scan (28–32 weeks)</li><li>➤ Nuchal Translucency Scan (11–14 weeks)</li><li>➤ Triple Marker Test (15–20 weeks)</li><li>➤ Anomaly Scan (18–23 weeks)</li><li>➤ Growth Scan (28–32 weeks)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following events in the correct sequence as depicted in the Wiggers diagram: Rapid Ejection S1 (First Heart Sound) R wave T wave", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 2, 1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3, 2, 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20113628.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 3, 2, 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the cardiac cycle, the sequence of events is: R wave (ventricular depolarization) → S1 (closure of atrioventricular valves) → Rapid Ejection (blood ejection into the aorta) → T wave (ventricular repolarization).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion: Menopause is associated with hot flashes. Reason: Hot flashes occur because of a decrease or fluctuation in estrogen levels.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and the Reason is the appropriate explanation for the Assertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but the Reason is not the explanation for the Assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is correct, but the Reason is incorrect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is incorrect, but the Reason is correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and the Reason is the appropriate explanation for the Assertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and the Reason is the appropriate explanation for the Assertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hot flashes during menopause are caused by a decrease or fluctuation in estrogen, which disrupts the thermoregulatory system in the hypothalamus, leading to sudden heat sensations and sweating.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion: Larger doses of acyclovir are recommended for treating genital herpes in HIV. Reason: Severe/frequent recurrences are seen in HIV patients.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are independently true statements and the Reason is correct explanation for the Assertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are independently true statements, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is independently true statement, but reason is independently a false statement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is independently false statement, but reason is independently a true statement", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Both Assertion and Reason are independently true statements and the Reason is correct explanation for the Assertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Both Assertion and Reason are independently true statements and the Reason is correct explanation for the Assertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Larger doses of acyclovir are necessary for treating genital herpes in HIV-infected patients due to the increased frequency and severity of herpes recurrences in these individuals, caused by their compromised immune systems.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Device shown in the image is used for which purpose?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prevent viral infections", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevent transfusion-related reactions", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevent infections", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prevent transfusion-related reactions", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20113645.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prevent transfusion-related reactions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary purpose of a leukoreduction filter is to prevent transfusion-related reactions by removing donor WBCs.</li><li>➤ prevent transfusion-related reactions</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the Following: Column A A. Primarily T-cell-associated antigen B. Primarily B-cell-associated antigen C. Primarily NK-cell-associated antigen D. Leukocyte common antigen Column B 1. CD45 2. CD10, CD23, CD19 3. CD16, CD56 4. CD1, CD4, CD8", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A → 4, B → 2, C → 3, D → 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A → 1, B → 2, C → 4, D → 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A → 3, B → 1, C → 2, D → 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A → 2, B → 4, C → 1, D → 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A → 4, B → 2, C → 3, D → 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A → 4, B → 2, C → 3, D → 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CD1, CD4, and CD8 are T-cell-associated antigens; CD10, CD19, and CD23 are B-cell-associated antigens; CD16 and CD56 are NK cell markers; CD45 is a pan-leukocyte marker present on all white blood cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the type of hurt (in Column A) with the corresponding clause of 320 IPC (in Column B): Column A: 1. Destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or joint. 2. Permanent disfigurement of the head or face. 3. Emasculation. 4. Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth. Column B: a. Clause 6 b. Clause 1 c. Clause 7 d. Clause 5", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 → d, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → c", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → d, 4 → c", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → b, 4 → a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 → d, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → c", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1 → d, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines specific types of injuries that are categorized as \"grievous.\" These are:</li><li>➤ Clause 1 : Emasculation, which refers to the permanent loss of reproductive capability. Clause 2 : Complete and irreversible loss of vision in either eye. Clause 3 : Complete and irreversible loss of hearing in either ear. Clause 4 : Loss of function or deprivation of any body part or joint. Clause 5 : Permanent damage or destruction that leads to a lasting impairment in the function of any limb or joint. Clause 6 : Disfigurement of the face or head that causes a lasting alteration in appearance. Clause 7 : Bone fractures or the dislocation of a bone or tooth. Clause 8 : Any injury that poses a serious threat to life or results in the individual suffering from intense pain or being unable to perform usual activities for at least 20 days.</li><li>➤ Clause 1 : Emasculation, which refers to the permanent loss of reproductive capability.</li><li>➤ Clause 1</li><li>➤ Clause 2 : Complete and irreversible loss of vision in either eye.</li><li>➤ Clause 2</li><li>➤ Clause 3 : Complete and irreversible loss of hearing in either ear.</li><li>➤ Clause 3</li><li>➤ Clause 4 : Loss of function or deprivation of any body part or joint.</li><li>➤ Clause 4</li><li>➤ Clause 5 : Permanent damage or destruction that leads to a lasting impairment in the function of any limb or joint.</li><li>➤ Clause 5</li><li>➤ Clause 6 : Disfigurement of the face or head that causes a lasting alteration in appearance.</li><li>➤ Clause 6</li><li>➤ Clause 7 : Bone fractures or the dislocation of a bone or tooth.</li><li>➤ Clause 7</li><li>➤ Clause 8 : Any injury that poses a serious threat to life or results in the individual suffering from intense pain or being unable to perform usual activities for at least 20 days.</li><li>➤ Clause 8</li><li>➤ Grievous hurt is recognized as a cognizable offense, which means that law enforcement authorities can arrest the accused without a warrant.</li><li>➤ Punishments for Grievous Hurt:</li><li>➤ Punishments for Grievous Hurt:</li><li>➤ Section 325 of IPC : If a person voluntarily causes grievous hurt, they may be punished with imprisonment for up to seven years, along with a fine. Section 326 of IPC : If grievous hurt is inflicted using dangerous weapons or methods, the punishment may extend to life imprisonment or up to 10 years, along with a fine.</li><li>➤ Section 325 of IPC : If a person voluntarily causes grievous hurt, they may be punished with imprisonment for up to seven years, along with a fine.</li><li>➤ Section 325 of IPC</li><li>➤ Section 326 of IPC : If grievous hurt is inflicted using dangerous weapons or methods, the punishment may extend to life imprisonment or up to 10 years, along with a fine.</li><li>➤ Section 326 of IPC</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Out of the below mentioned statements regarding anterior shoulder dislocation, true statements are: Recurrence rate is maximum if the patient's age is less than 20 years. Axillary nerve is most commonly injured. CT scan is preferred for knowing the bony lesion. Anterior shoulder dislocation is the most common type.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anterior shoulder dislocation is the most common type, has the highest recurrence rate in patients under 20 years, commonly results in axillary nerve injury, and requires a CT scan for accurate evaluation of bony lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following anesthetic agents with respect to their side effects. Column A: 1. Propofol 2. Fentanyl 3. Midazolam 4. Nitrous oxide Column B: a. Rigid chest syndrome b. Pulmonary vasoconstriction c. Egg allergy d. Hypotension", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 → c, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → b", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → b, 4 → a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 → b, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 → c, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → b", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1 → c, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Propofol : Risk of egg allergy due to its lipid formulation. Fentanyl : Can cause rigid chest syndrome, making ventilation difficult. Midazolam : May lead to hypotension through vasodilatation. Nitrous oxide : Can cause pulmonary vasoconstriction, increasing pulmonary vascular resistance.</li><li>➤ Propofol : Risk of egg allergy due to its lipid formulation.</li><li>➤ Propofol</li><li>➤ Fentanyl : Can cause rigid chest syndrome, making ventilation difficult.</li><li>➤ Fentanyl</li><li>➤ Midazolam : May lead to hypotension through vasodilatation.</li><li>➤ Midazolam</li><li>➤ Nitrous oxide : Can cause pulmonary vasoconstriction, increasing pulmonary vascular resistance.</li><li>➤ Nitrous oxide</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following blisters in order from superficial to deep. 1. Pemphigus vulgaris 2. Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica 3. Linear IgA 4. Bullous pemphigoid", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 4, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4, 3, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 4, 3, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 4, 3, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The order of blister formation from superficial to deep is Pemphigus vulgaris , Bullous pemphigoid , Linear IgA , and Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica , based on the anatomical layer affected.</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris</li><li>➤ Bullous pemphigoid</li><li>➤ Linear IgA</li><li>➤ Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Although CECT thorax is required for the diagnosis of all lung carcinomas, MRI is specifically useful in which of the following cases.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Small cell lung carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pancoast tumor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pancoast tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pancoast tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MRI is crucial for Pancoast tumors due to its ability to provide detailed imaging of soft tissue and nerve involvement, which is essential for accurate staging and surgical planning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements about the carotid sheath is true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The Ansa cervicalis is located on the posterior surface of the carotid sheath.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The carotid sheath is formed by an investing layer of deep cervical fascia.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The carotid sheath encloses cranial nerves IX, X, and the cranial part of XI.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The sympathetic chain runs between the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. The carotid sheath is formed by an investing layer of deep cervical fascia.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) The carotid sheath is formed by an investing layer of deep cervical fascia.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The carotid sheath is formed, in part, by the investing layer of deep cervical fascia. It contains the common carotid artery, internal carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and the vagus nerve. The Ansa cervicalis lies on the anterior surface, while the sympathetic chain is located posterior to the sheath.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "172. Match the following tests and poisons: Column-A 1. Marsh test 2. Silver nitrate paper test 3. Cavett test 4. Marqui's test Column-B a. Opium b. Aluminium phosphide c. Alcohol d. Arsenic", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 → d, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → a", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 → a, 2 → c, 3 → d, 4 → b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 → b, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 → d, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → a", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1 → d, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marsh test detects arsenic. Silver nitrate paper test detects aluminium phosphide. Cavett test is for alcohol detection. Marqui's test detects opium.</li><li>➤ Marsh test detects arsenic.</li><li>➤ Marsh test</li><li>➤ Silver nitrate paper test detects aluminium phosphide.</li><li>➤ Silver nitrate paper test</li><li>➤ Cavett test is for alcohol detection.</li><li>➤ Cavett test</li><li>➤ Marqui's test detects opium.</li><li>➤ Marqui's test</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion : Range of shot can be determined by the spread of pellets. Reason : Shotgun cartridges contain pellets.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion correct but reason wrong", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reason correct, assertion wrong", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The range of a shotgun shot can be estimated by the spread of the pellets, but the fact that shotgun cartridges contain pellets does not explain this. The spread pattern is influenced by the type of shotgun and the distance from the target.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following with regards to Biomedical waste management: Column-A 1. Yellow 2. Red 3. Blue 4. White transparent Column-B a. Glassware b. Scalpel blade c. Chemical waste d. Syringes", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → b, 4 → a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 → b, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20113905.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The correct sequence of maturation of sperms in spermatogenesis: Spermatogonia Spermatocytes Spermatid Spermatozoa", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 2, 4, 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4, 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4, 3, 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2, 3, 4, 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20113943.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2, 3, 4, 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct order of sperm maturation is Spermatogonia → Spermatocytes → Spermatid → Spermatozoa .</li><li>➤ Spermatogonia → Spermatocytes → Spermatid → Spermatozoa</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following with regards to cellular inclusions: Column-A 1. Howell-Jolly bodies 2. Dohle bodies 3. Flame cells 4. Auer rod cells Column-B a. Ig inclusions b. Azurophilic granules c. Nuclear material remnants d. Remnants of ER", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 → b, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → c", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → b, 4 → a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20114046.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20122141.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20122159.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20122214.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Howell-Jolly bodies : Nuclear remnants in RBCs, indicating asplenia. Dohle bodies : Remnants of ER, seen in neutrophils during severe inflammation. Flame cells : Plasma cells with Ig inclusions. Auer rods : Azurophilic granules in myeloblasts, seen in AML.</li><li>➤ Howell-Jolly bodies : Nuclear remnants in RBCs, indicating asplenia.</li><li>➤ Howell-Jolly bodies</li><li>➤ Dohle bodies : Remnants of ER, seen in neutrophils during severe inflammation.</li><li>➤ Dohle bodies</li><li>➤ Flame cells : Plasma cells with Ig inclusions.</li><li>➤ Flame cells</li><li>➤ Auer rods : Azurophilic granules in myeloblasts, seen in AML.</li><li>➤ Auer rods</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For the detection of Diabetes Mellitus in a population over 40 but less than 60, two screening tests are performed simultaneously, without considering the result of one before conducting the other. This method leads to: 1. Decreased Specificity for detecting DM 2. Increased Sensitivity for detecting DM 3. Increased Negative Predictive Value 4. Increased Specificity for detecting DM 5. Reduced sensitivity for detecting diabetes", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Performing two screening tests in parallel increases sensitivity and negative predictive value while decreasing specificity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following ventilation modes is associated with the risk of respiratory alkalosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Assisted Control Mode Ventilation (ACMV)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Controlled Mandatory Ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pressure Controlled Ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Assisted Control Mode Ventilation (ACMV)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Assisted Control Mode Ventilation (ACMV)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Assisted Control Mode Ventilation (ACMV) can lead to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis due to the full support of each patient breath, even if spontaneous.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Propranolol is most commonly used as the treatment of choice for which of the following conditions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulcerated infantile hemangioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphangioma circumscriptum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Capillary malformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyogenic granuloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ulcerated infantile hemangioma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ulcerated infantile hemangioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propranolol is the preferred treatment for infantile hemangiomas , especially when ulceration or significant symptoms are present, due to its ability to cause vasoconstriction, inhibit angiogenesis, and induce apoptosis.</li><li>➤ infantile hemangiomas</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the correct statements regarding the mosquito shown in the image: The mosquito exhibits a hunchback posture when at rest. This is the only mosquito species that does not have a siphon tube. It is commonly known as the 'Tiger mosquito.' It is also referred to as the 'Nuisance mosquito.'", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a and b are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a, b and c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a and c are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "a and d are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. a and c are correct", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20122235.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) a and c are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Aedes mosquito can be identified by its hunchback posture when resting and is commonly known as the 'Tiger mosquito' due to the distinct striping on its legs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is False regarding AFP surveillance?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AFP surveillance is done until 5 years of age.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "At least one case of non-polio AFP should be detected annually per 100,000 population.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stool specimen should reach the laboratory within 72 hours.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "At least 80% should have follow-up after 60 days.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. AFP surveillance is done until 5 years of age.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) AFP surveillance is done until 5 years of age.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AFP surveillance is essential for monitoring poliovirus circulation and includes reporting cases in children under 15, timely stool sample analysis, and thorough follow-up for residual paralysis.</li><li>➤ AFP surveillance</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young boy presents with a history of frequent nosebleeds and unilateral nasal obstruction. A CT scan reveals Holman-Miller sign and a mass located in the nasopharynx extending into the pterygopalatine fossa. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgical management", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hormonal therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Surgical management", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Surgical management</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stages of Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma:</li><li>➤ Stages of Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma:</li><li>➤ Stage IA: Limited to the nasal cavity or nasopharyngeal vault. Stage IB: Extends into one or more sinuses. Stage IIA: Minor extension into the pterygopalatine fossa. Stage IIB: Full involvement of the pterygopalatine fossa, possibly with erosion of the orbital bones. Stage IIC: Invasion into the infratemporal fossa, potentially extending to the cheek or posteriorly to the pterygoid plates. Stage IIIA: Erosion of the skull base with minimal intracranial involvement. Stage IIIB: Extensive intracranial invasion, involving structures like the cavernous sinus.</li><li>➤ Stage IA: Limited to the nasal cavity or nasopharyngeal vault.</li><li>➤ Stage IA:</li><li>➤ Stage IB: Extends into one or more sinuses.</li><li>➤ Stage IB:</li><li>➤ Stage IIA: Minor extension into the pterygopalatine fossa.</li><li>➤ Stage IIA:</li><li>➤ Stage IIB: Full involvement of the pterygopalatine fossa, possibly with erosion of the orbital bones.</li><li>➤ Stage IIB:</li><li>➤ Stage IIC: Invasion into the infratemporal fossa, potentially extending to the cheek or posteriorly to the pterygoid plates.</li><li>➤ Stage IIC:</li><li>➤ Stage IIIA: Erosion of the skull base with minimal intracranial involvement.</li><li>➤ Stage IIIA:</li><li>➤ Stage IIIB: Extensive intracranial invasion, involving structures like the cavernous sinus.</li><li>➤ Stage IIIB:</li><li>➤ Hormonal therapy was used in the past, but not anymore.</li><li>➤ Hormonal therapy was used in the past, but not anymore.</li><li>➤ Recurrent angiofibroma have also been treated by Intensity-modulated radiotherapy-a newer mode of treatment.</li><li>➤ Recurrent angiofibroma have also been treated by Intensity-modulated radiotherapy-a newer mode of treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion : Multidetector CT (MDCT) is the preferred imaging method for diagnosing aortic dissection. Reason : Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE), in the hands of a skilled practitioner, can be as sensitive and specific as MDCT.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20122307.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MDCT is the primary imaging method for aortic dissection, while TEE has limitations despite its high sensitivity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Evaluate the following statements about the use of Tenecteplase and rtPA in a patient presenting with acute stroke symptoms, including right-sided hemiparesis and aphasia for one hour. Statements: Tenecteplase should not be administered if the CT scan appears normal. Tenecteplase should not be given before performing an MRI if the CT scan is normal. rtPA can be administered if the patient’s blood pressure is greater than 150/80 mmHg. rtPA can be given to a patient taking warfarin if the INR is 1.4.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Statements 1 and 2 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Statements 3 and 4 are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All statements are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Statements 3 and 4 are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Statements 3 and 4 are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thrombolytic therapy (rtPA or Tenecteplase) can be initiated in acute ischemic stroke if a CT scan rules out hemorrhage, even if it appears normal. Blood pressure must be managed, but it should only be below 185/110 mmHg for rtPA administration. Warfarin use is not a contraindication if the INR is ≤1.7.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mark the following statements as true or false regarding a thyroglossal cyst. It does not move with protrusion of the tongue. 40% of thyroglossal cysts contain heterotopic thyroid tissue. The most common site is infrahyoid. The thyroglossal duct typically disappears by the 18th week of gestation.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1- True, 2- True, 3- False, 4- False", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1- False, 2- True, 3- True, 4- True", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1- False, 2- False, 3- True, 4- False", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1- True, 2- False, 3- False, 4- True", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1- False, 2- False, 3- True, 4- False", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1- False, 2- False, 3- True, 4- False</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The thyroglossal cyst is a midline neck swelling that moves with tongue protrusion and is most commonly located in the infrahyoid region. The thyroglossal duct normally disappears by the eighth week of gestation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an adverse effect of salbutamol?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tolerance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypoglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypoglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Salbutamol's adverse effects include tachycardia, hypokalemia, and the development of tolerance with prolonged use. It does not cause hypoglycemia but rather can lead to hyperglycemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mark the following statements as true or false regarding Amyloidosis: Serum amyloid associated protein is seen in Mediterranean fever. On Congo red staining, amyloid shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light. AL may have kappa light chain. Senile amyloidosis is due to Beta2-microglobulin.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-True, 2-True, 3-True, 4-False", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-False, 2-True, 3-False, 4-True", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-True, 2-False, 3-True, 4-True", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-True, 2-True, 3-False, 4-False", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-True, 2-True, 3-True, 4-False", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-True, 2-True, 3-True, 4-False</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amyloidosis diagnosis involves recognizing the apple-green birefringence under Congo red staining. AA amyloidosis is related to serum amyloid A protein, while senile amyloidosis is linked to transthyretin, not Beta2-microglobulin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1.5-year-old infant presents to the outpatient department with a generalized convulsive episode lasting for 45 minutes, indicative of status epilepticus. The Senior Resident instructs the Junior Resident to initiate intravenous access but then steps away. If IV access cannot be immediately established, what is the most appropriate next step for managing this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV phenobarbitone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rectal diazepam", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intraosseous midazolam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenytoin IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rectal diazepam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rectal diazepam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For pediatric status epilepticus, when IV access is not attainable, rectal diazepam is the preferred method for rapid seizure control, emphasizing the importance of alternative administration routes in emergency care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following ocular drugs with respect to their side effects: Column A: 1. Amiodarone 2. Digoxin 3. Systemic steroids 4. Hydroxychloroquine Column B: A. Cataract B. Retinopathy C. Yellow vision D. Corneal microdeposits", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The key drug-specific ocular side effects: Amiodarone causes corneal microdeposits, Digoxin leads to yellow vision, systemic steroids can cause cataracts, and Hydroxychloroquine is linked with toxic retinopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs are used in the management of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? a. Misoprostol b. Dinoprostone c. Prostaglandin F2 alpha d. Oxytocin", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, b and c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a and c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "b and d are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All four options are correct", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All four options are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postpartum hemorrhage management commonly involves the use of Oxytocin, Misoprostol, Dinoprostone, and Prostaglandin F2 alpha. Oxytocin is typically the first-line treatment, but all these agents are crucial options in controlling severe bleeding postpartum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: Column A: 1. Drugs of Abuse 2. On Prescription-only drugs 3. Hormones 4. Antibiotics Column B: a. Schedule H b. Schedule G c. Schedule L d. Schedule X", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug Schedules and Associated Categories:</li><li>➤ Drug Schedules and Associated Categories:</li><li>➤ Schedule C : Encompasses biological products, including items like sera and vaccines. Schedule E : Specifies toxic substances used in traditional medicine practices, such as Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani. Schedule G : Covers drugs that are potent and require careful medical oversight, including hormone preparations, antihistamines, and certain anticancer medications. Schedule H : Represents prescription-only medications that must display a warning label indicating they are to be sold only with a registered medical practitioner's prescription. This category includes barbiturates, amphetamines, and sulfonamides. Schedule J : Lists medications that should not be promoted for treating diseases deemed incurable, such as cancer, cataracts, appendicitis, epilepsy, and others. Schedule L : Pertains to antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents that are regulated similarly to Schedule H drugs, often for use in hospitals and healthcare facilities. Schedule X : Involves substances that carry a high risk of abuse and dependency, requiring strict regulation and control.</li><li>➤ Schedule C : Encompasses biological products, including items like sera and vaccines.</li><li>➤ Schedule C</li><li>➤ Schedule E : Specifies toxic substances used in traditional medicine practices, such as Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani.</li><li>➤ Schedule E</li><li>➤ Schedule G : Covers drugs that are potent and require careful medical oversight, including hormone preparations, antihistamines, and certain anticancer medications.</li><li>➤ Schedule G</li><li>➤ Schedule H : Represents prescription-only medications that must display a warning label indicating they are to be sold only with a registered medical practitioner's prescription. This category includes barbiturates, amphetamines, and sulfonamides.</li><li>➤ Schedule H</li><li>➤ Schedule J : Lists medications that should not be promoted for treating diseases deemed incurable, such as cancer, cataracts, appendicitis, epilepsy, and others.</li><li>➤ Schedule J</li><li>➤ Schedule L : Pertains to antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents that are regulated similarly to Schedule H drugs, often for use in hospitals and healthcare facilities.</li><li>➤ Schedule L</li><li>➤ Schedule X : Involves substances that carry a high risk of abuse and dependency, requiring strict regulation and control.</li><li>➤ Schedule X</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following clotting factors in the order they are activated in the coagulation cascade: Factor XIII Factor XII Factor X Factor V Factor XI", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3, 4, 1, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 5, 3, 4, 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 5, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 5, 4, 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 5, 3, 4, 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct order of clotting factor activation: XII → XI → X → V → XIII, which follows the intrinsic and common coagulation pathways.</li><li>➤ The correct order of clotting factor activation: XII → XI → X → V → XIII, which follows the intrinsic and common coagulation pathways.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On the 5th day after coronary artery bypass graft surgery (CABG), a patient develops rapid breathing and low blood pressure. What is the most likely cause?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sepsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute kidney failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute respiratory failure", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute cardiac failure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute respiratory failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Atelectasis is a frequent postoperative respiratory issue following thoracic or upper abdominal surgeries, presenting with symptoms like tachypnea and low oxygen levels. Early mobilization and breathing exercises are crucial for management and recovery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mesangial cell contraction increases Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Efferent arteriolar constriction decreases renal blood flow (RBF).", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mild constriction of the efferent arteriole decreases glomerular filtration rate (GFR).", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mesangial cell contraction increases glomerular hydrostatic pressure.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Efferent arteriolar constriction decreases renal blood flow (RBF).", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Efferent arteriolar constriction decreases renal blood flow (RBF).</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Efferent arteriolar constriction decreases renal blood flow but can transiently increase glomerular filtration rate until severe resistance reduces GFR.</li><li>➤ Efferent arteriolar constriction decreases renal blood flow but can transiently increase glomerular filtration rate until severe resistance reduces GFR.</li><li>➤ Efferent arteriolar constriction decreases renal blood flow but can transiently increase glomerular filtration rate until severe resistance reduces GFR.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a child with a unilateral undescended testis, a diagnostic laparoscopy is performed which shows blind-ending testicular vessels on the right side. What is the next best step?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inguinal exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abdominal exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scrotal exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No further exploration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. No further exploration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) No further exploration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child with an undescended testis, if diagnostic laparoscopy reveals blind-ending vas deferens and testicular vessels, it indicates a vanishing testis, and no further surgical exploration is needed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman presented with hearing loss that developed shortly after her first pregnancy. Her audiometry report is given below. What is the diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ototoxicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meniere's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Noise-induced hearing loss", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Otosclerosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-11%20122347.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Otosclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Otosclerosis is a common cause of conductive hearing loss that can worsen with hormonal changes, such as pregnancy. It is characterized by the presence of Carhart’s notch at 2000 Hz on audiometry and can be treated definitively with a stapedectomy or stapedotomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not considered as toxins?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colchicine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Curare", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Arsenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ All toxins are poisons, but not all poisons are toxins. Toxins must be biologically produced, whereas poisons like arsenic can be of chemical origin.</li><li>➤ All toxins are poisons, but not all poisons are toxins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding the given statements? Assertion: About 10% of patients with sarcoidosis present with hypercalcemia or hypercalciuria along with suppressed PTH levels. Reason: Granulomas convert 25-OH Vitamin D to 1,25-OH Vitamin D due to the increased presence of 1α hydroxylase enzyme.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is true, but the reason is false.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is false, but the reason is true.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Granulomas in sarcoidosis can activate 1α hydroxylase, leading to the conversion of 25-OH Vitamin D to 1,25-OH Vitamin D and causing hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following colored cannula will you use to achieve maximum flow rate in a patient who needs a large amount of fluids?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grey", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pink", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Grey", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Grey</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For rapid fluid administration, especially in emergencies or trauma cases, a grey (16G) or orange (14G) cannula should be used to ensure a high flow rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion (A): Central dogma says DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is subsequently translated into proteins. Reason (R): Retrovirus has reverse transcriptase of central dogma where RNA is first converted into DNA, which is then transcribed to RNA, which is subsequently translated into proteins.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are independently true, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are independently true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is independently true, but the Reason is independently false", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is independently false, but the Reason is independently true", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Both Assertion and Reason are independently true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Both Assertion and Reason are independently true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The central dogma of molecular biology describes the flow of genetic information as DNA → RNA → Proteins. Retroviruses, however, exhibit reverse transcription, an exception to this classical concept.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Aiims May 2020 2020 05 10 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "GeneXpert detects mutations in which of the following genes? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "inhA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "rроB", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "katG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "pncA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. rроB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-183008.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) rроB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Gene(s) involved in anti-tuberculosis drug resistance –</li><li>➤ The Gene(s) involved in anti-tuberculosis drug resistance –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where are the Ito cells in the liver located? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Space of disse", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Space of moll", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sinusoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bile canaliculi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Space of disse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-45.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Space of disse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Space of Disse (perisinusoidal space) is a small space between the sinusoidal endothelial cells and the hepatocytes. Ito cells are located in this space. When there is liver injury, these cells can become activated, transform into myofibroblast-like cells, and contribute to the production of collagen and extracellular matrix, leading to liver fibrosis.</li><li>➤ The Space of Disse (perisinusoidal space) is a small space between the sinusoidal endothelial cells and the hepatocytes. Ito cells are located in this space. When there is liver injury, these cells can become activated, transform into myofibroblast-like cells, and contribute to the production of collagen and extracellular matrix, leading to liver fibrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the air cells located at the anterior most part of the anterior ethmoidal sinus called?(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bulla ethmoidalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Onodi cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Agger nasi", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haller cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Agger nasi", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture25.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture26.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Agger nasi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Agger nasi is the anterior-most air cells of anterior ethmoid air cells. Bulla ethmoidalis is the largest air cells in ethmoidal air sinus Onodi cell/ Sphenoethmoidal air cell is the posterior most ethmoidal air cells Haller cells are ethmoid air cells that extend into the floor of the orbit and can affect the integrity and drainage of the maxillary sinus</li><li>➤ Agger nasi is the anterior-most air cells of anterior ethmoid air cells.</li><li>➤ Bulla ethmoidalis is the largest air cells in ethmoidal air sinus</li><li>➤ Bulla ethmoidalis</li><li>➤ Onodi cell/ Sphenoethmoidal air cell is the posterior most ethmoidal air cells</li><li>➤ Onodi cell/ Sphenoethmoidal air cell</li><li>➤ Haller cells are ethmoid air cells that extend into the floor of the orbit and can affect the integrity and drainage of the maxillary sinus</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 152, 153</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 152, 153</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old woman was taken by her neighbour to the emergency department after an incident involving her husband. She reported that during a domestic altercation, her husband swung an axe at her left arm. Upon examination, a significant injury was observed on her upper left arm. The wound appeared deep, with jagged and irregular edges. The surrounding area showed signs of bruising. Based on the clinical scenario, what type of wound is likely to be present on the patient's upper left arm? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incised wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chop wound", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lacerated wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abrasion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chop wound", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_hmWjKCR.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chop wound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cut laceration / chop wounds:</li><li>➤ Cut laceration / chop wounds:</li><li>➤ Produced by a heavy object which is relatively sharp edged, E.g. axe, chopper It has features of both blunt force (bruised and abraded margins, irregular margins) and sharp force (clean margins) A deep and wide cut over the body tissues. Marked destruction of underlying tissues Below image shows chop wound by axe:</li><li>➤ Produced by a heavy object which is relatively sharp edged, E.g. axe, chopper It has features of both blunt force (bruised and abraded margins, irregular margins) and sharp force (clean margins) A deep and wide cut over the body tissues. Marked destruction of underlying tissues Below image shows chop wound by axe:</li><li>➤ It has features of both blunt force (bruised and abraded margins, irregular margins) and sharp force (clean margins) A deep and wide cut over the body tissues. Marked destruction of underlying tissues Below image shows chop wound by axe:</li><li>➤ It has features of both blunt force (bruised and abraded margins, irregular margins) and sharp force (clean margins)</li><li>➤ A deep and wide cut over the body tissues.</li><li>➤ Marked destruction of underlying tissues</li><li>➤ Below image shows chop wound by axe:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All the following PFT findings in a child are suggestive of asthma except? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in FEV1&gt; 12% after salbutamol inhalation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "FEV1/FVC&lt; 80%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Day- night variation of FEV1 &gt; 12%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decrease in FEV1&gt;12% after exercise", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Day- night variation of FEV1 > 12%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Day- night variation of FEV1 &gt; 12%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An increase in FEV1 &gt; 12% after bronchodilator use and a FEV1/FVC ratio &lt; 80% are key PFT findings suggestive of asthma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A midwife is examining a pregnant woman in labour when she noticed that there is cord prolapse. What should be the next immediate step of management? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gently replace the cord inside the vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inform the doctor and shift to OT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Put her in Trendelenburg position", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Do vaginal examination and find the fetal presentation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Put her in Trendelenburg position", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Put her in Trendelenburg position</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the case of cord prolapse, placing the patient in Trendelenburg position helps to relieve pressure on the prolapsed cord and is a critical step in managing the emergency until a cesarean section can be performed.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1129, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1129, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of skull fracture in the given image? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ring", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depressed", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fissured", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hinge", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fissured", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/30/ch-1_anatomy-3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-153018.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-152959.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fissured</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Skull fractures</li><li>➤ Skull fractures</li><li>➤ Linear fracture/ primary fracture/ fissured fracture Fracture looks like a thin line Due to striking with a broad surface, e.g. ground Most common skull fracture, Usually seen in Road traffic accident Depressed fracture/ signature fracture Due to a heavy objects with small surface area . e.g. hammer Takes the shape of the weapon Indented fracture / ping pong fracture / ponds # Skull is depressed like a ping pong ball Seen in infants Gutter fracture Long narrow depressed fracture Bullet passing adjacent to skull Sutural fracture / diastatic fracture Sutures separate Seen In &lt;3 yrs of age Ring fracture Cause – fall from height # around foramen magnum Associated # of vertebrae Hinge fracture / motorcyclist fracture Skull divided into anterior and posterior halves Spider web fracture / mosaic fracture / comminuted fracture Multiple fractures of skull</li><li>➤ Linear fracture/ primary fracture/ fissured fracture Fracture looks like a thin line Due to striking with a broad surface, e.g. ground Most common skull fracture, Usually seen in Road traffic accident</li><li>➤ Linear fracture/ primary fracture/ fissured fracture</li><li>➤ Fracture looks like a thin line Due to striking with a broad surface, e.g. ground Most common skull fracture, Usually seen in Road traffic accident</li><li>➤ Fracture looks like a thin line</li><li>➤ Due to striking with a broad surface, e.g. ground</li><li>➤ Most common skull fracture,</li><li>➤ Usually seen in Road traffic accident</li><li>➤ Depressed fracture/ signature fracture Due to a heavy objects with small surface area . e.g. hammer Takes the shape of the weapon</li><li>➤ Depressed fracture/ signature fracture</li><li>➤ Depressed fracture/ signature fracture</li><li>➤ Due to a heavy objects with small surface area . e.g. hammer Takes the shape of the weapon</li><li>➤ Due to a heavy objects with small surface area . e.g. hammer</li><li>➤ Takes the shape of the weapon</li><li>➤ Indented fracture / ping pong fracture / ponds # Skull is depressed like a ping pong ball Seen in infants</li><li>➤ Indented fracture / ping pong fracture / ponds #</li><li>➤ Skull is depressed like a ping pong ball Seen in infants</li><li>➤ Skull is depressed like a ping pong ball</li><li>➤ Seen in infants</li><li>➤ Gutter fracture Long narrow depressed fracture Bullet passing adjacent to skull</li><li>➤ Gutter fracture</li><li>➤ Long narrow depressed fracture Bullet passing adjacent to skull</li><li>➤ Long narrow depressed fracture</li><li>➤ Bullet passing adjacent to skull</li><li>➤ Sutural fracture / diastatic fracture Sutures separate Seen In &lt;3 yrs of age</li><li>➤ Sutural fracture / diastatic fracture</li><li>➤ Sutures separate Seen In &lt;3 yrs of age</li><li>➤ Sutures separate</li><li>➤ Seen In &lt;3 yrs of age</li><li>➤ Ring fracture Cause – fall from height # around foramen magnum Associated # of vertebrae</li><li>➤ Ring fracture</li><li>➤ Cause – fall from height # around foramen magnum Associated # of vertebrae</li><li>➤ Cause – fall from height</li><li>➤ # around foramen magnum</li><li>➤ Associated # of vertebrae</li><li>➤ Hinge fracture / motorcyclist fracture Skull divided into anterior and posterior halves</li><li>➤ Hinge fracture / motorcyclist fracture</li><li>➤ Skull divided into anterior and posterior halves</li><li>➤ Skull divided into anterior and posterior halves</li><li>➤ Spider web fracture / mosaic fracture / comminuted fracture Multiple fractures of skull</li><li>➤ Spider web fracture / mosaic fracture / comminuted fracture</li><li>➤ Multiple fractures of skull</li><li>➤ Multiple fractures of skull</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man presents with history of fever with bloody diarrhea 2 weeks back, followed by swollen, red and erythematous joints. What is the likely cause? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rotavirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shigella", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Giardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Shigella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Shigella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Joint infection can occur as a manifestation of gastrointestinal infection from pathogen Shigella. This is most commonly found, and is called reactive arthritis , which causes joint swelling, pain and erythema. It is commonly associated with HLA B27.</li><li>➤ Joint infection can occur as a manifestation of gastrointestinal infection from pathogen Shigella.</li><li>➤ Joint infection can occur as a manifestation of gastrointestinal infection from pathogen Shigella.</li><li>➤ This is most commonly found, and is called reactive arthritis , which causes joint swelling, pain and erythema.</li><li>➤ This is most commonly found, and is called reactive arthritis , which causes joint swelling, pain and erythema.</li><li>➤ reactive arthritis</li><li>➤ It is commonly associated with HLA B27.</li><li>➤ It is commonly associated with HLA B27.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old resident physician was exposed to HIV through a needlestick injury and has come to the emergency department seeking help. You decide to start her on post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP). Which of the following drug combinations is most recommended for PEP in this scenario? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lamivudine+ Tenofovir+ Dolutegravir for 4 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lamivudine+ Zidovudine + Efavirenz for 4 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lamivudine+ Tenofovir+ Dolutegravir for 4 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/screenshot-2023-10-25-192252.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lamivudine+ Tenofovir+ Dolutegravir for 4 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post Exposure Prophylaxis HIV</li><li>➤ Post Exposure Prophylaxis HIV</li><li>➤ Preferably within 24 hours. Maximum within 72 hours.</li><li>➤ Duration of prophylaxis is 28 days</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of fetal biophysical profile? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fetal movement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal breathing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NST", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contraction stress test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Contraction stress test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Contraction stress test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Contraction Stress Test is not a component of the fetal biophysical profile.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 122, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 122, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the lesion as shown in the image below? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arterial insufficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neuropathic ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Venous ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculous ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neuropathic ulcer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-96_pTVeRaC.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-115050.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-115120.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-115147.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Neuropathic ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neuropathic ulcers result from peripheral neuropathy, where lack of sensation over pressure points leads to unnoticed minor wounds or cuts, eventually developing into ulcers. Features of neuropathic ulcers include painless, punched out ulcers with regular margins, commonly located on the plantar surface of the foot. Ulcer margins show the presence of calluses.</li><li>➤ Neuropathic ulcers result from peripheral neuropathy, where lack of sensation over pressure points leads to unnoticed minor wounds or cuts, eventually developing into ulcers.</li><li>➤ Features of neuropathic ulcers include painless, punched out ulcers with regular margins, commonly located on the plantar surface of the foot.</li><li>➤ Ulcer margins show the presence of calluses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the causative organism for the condition shown in the image below? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echinococcus granulosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schistosoma japonicum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trypanosoma cruzi", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schistosoma mansoni", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Echinococcus granulosus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-256.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-26.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Echinococcus granulosus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The condition shown in the image, characterized by a hydatid cyst in the liver, is caused by Echinococcus granulosus. The cysts contain internal daughter cysts and can lead to symptoms related to the pressure effect on the liver and biliary system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the fetal position in the given image? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right occipito-posterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left occipito-anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left occipito-posterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right occipito-anterior", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Right occipito-anterior", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/inicet-obg-may-2020-3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Right occipito-anterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the Right occipito-anterior (ROA) position, the fetal occiput is directed towards the mother's right side and the anterior part of the pelvis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 89, DC Ditta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 89, DC Ditta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spectrin defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cells are spherical", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cells don't lyse in hypotonic solution", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cells lyse in hypertonic solution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cells are spherical", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/978.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cells are spherical</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, red blood cells become spherical (spherocytes) due to oxidative damage and the removal of damaged membrane by the spleen, leading to hemolytic anemia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1198-1199</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1198-1199</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are attending physiology viva. The examiner asks you who recorded the first EEG. You say \"I don't know \"The examiner feels bad for you and gives you a clue that \"the name sounds like something you get commonly in McDonalds\". You remember the name and answer correctly. What type of memory has been implicated here?\" (INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Semantic memory", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Implicit memory", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Associative learning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Priming", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Priming", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Priming</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Priming means that a recent experience makes it easier for you to notice or identify something related.</li><li>➤ Perceptual Priming: Recognizing something becomes easier because you've recently seen something that looks similar. For example, if you've just seen a picture of a lion, you'll be faster at spotting the word \"lion\" even if it's a bit unclear.</li><li>➤ Conceptual Priming: Understanding or noticing something becomes easier because you've recently thought about a related idea. For example, if you've just read about rivers and banks, you'll probably guess the word \"bank\" when given \"ban_\" instead of thinking of \"band.\"</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 116.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of the Bishop score? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical length", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type of maternal pelvis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cervical position", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dilatation of cervix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type of maternal pelvis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-226.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type of maternal pelvis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bishop Score</li><li>• Bishop Score</li><li>• This is a scoring system used to assess the favorability of the cervix to respond to induction of labor. A cervix that is soft in consistency, a little dilated, short in length, anteriorly placed and the station of the presenting low down will respond well to induction of labor. The Bishop score was replaced by the Modified Bishop score, wherein, the cervical effacement (in terms of percentage) was replaced by cervical length (in cm). The 5 components of the Modified Bishop score are: Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• This is a scoring system used to assess the favorability of the cervix to respond to induction of labor.</li><li>• A cervix that is soft in consistency, a little dilated, short in length, anteriorly placed and the station of the presenting low down will respond well to induction of labor.</li><li>• The Bishop score was replaced by the Modified Bishop score, wherein, the cervical effacement (in terms of percentage) was replaced by cervical length (in cm).</li><li>• The 5 components of the Modified Bishop score are: Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• Cervical Dilatation</li><li>• Cervical length</li><li>• Cervical consistency</li><li>• Cervical Position</li><li>• Station of the presenting part</li><li>• Easy to remember Mnemonic</li><li>• Easy to remember Mnemonic</li><li>• B – Bishop</li><li>• I – Effacement</li><li>• S – Station of presenting part</li><li>• H – Hard/ soft (consistency)</li><li>• O – Os dilatation (cervical dilatation)</li><li>• P – Position of the cervix</li><li>• The scoring is as shown in the table. Each component is scored from 0 to 3 The highest score is 13 and the lowest is 0 A favourable score is &gt; 6. This means the patient will respond favorably to methods of induction of labor.</li><li>• The scoring is as shown in the table.</li><li>• Each component is scored from 0 to 3</li><li>• The highest score is 13 and the lowest is 0</li><li>• A favourable score is &gt; 6. This means the patient will respond favorably to methods of induction of labor.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Cervical length : This is a component of the Modified Bishop score, measuring the length of the cervix in centimeters.</li><li>• Option A. Cervical length</li><li>• Option C. Cervical position : This is a component of the Bishop score, assessing the position of the cervix relative to the vaginal canal.</li><li>• Option C. Cervical position</li><li>• Option D. Dilatation of cervix : This is a component of the Bishop score, measuring the extent to which the cervix has opened.</li><li>• Option D. Dilatation of cervix</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Type of maternal pelvis is not a component of the Bishop score.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 600, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 600, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the probable diagnosis of this condition affecting hair? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichorrhexis nodosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trichorrhexis invaginata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichothiodystrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Monilethrix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Trichothiodystrophy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture3_kiwu30E.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/untitled-13511.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/untitled-13512.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture93333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Trichothiodystrophy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ \" Tiger tail \" banding of hair under polarized light microscopy is indicative of trichothiodystrophy , a condition characterized by brittle hair with reduced sulfur content and potentially associated with multisystem involvement .</li><li>➤ Tiger</li><li>➤ tail</li><li>➤ polarized</li><li>➤ microscopy</li><li>➤ trichothiodystrophy</li><li>➤ brittle</li><li>➤ hair</li><li>➤ reduced</li><li>➤ sulfur</li><li>➤ multisystem</li><li>➤ involvement</li><li>➤ Ref - Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no 1537</li><li>➤ Ref - Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no 1537</li><li>➤ Rooks Textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Volume III Pages 68.19, 78.10 89.53-54</li><li>➤ Rooks Textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Volume III Pages 68.19, 78.10 89.53-54</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child transfers an object from one hand to another. What does it signify? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Visual motor coordination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ability to compare objects", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ability to handle small objects", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Voluntary release", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ability to compare objects", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/milestone_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ability to compare objects</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transferring an object from one hand to another in a child signifies their developing ability to compare objects, a cognitive milestone typically reached around 5.5 to 6 months of age.</li><li>➤ Developmental Milestones in 1 st Yr of Life</li><li>➤ Developmental Milestones in 1 st Yr of Life</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was brought to the OPD with a swollen, red knee joint that is tender to touch. 2 weeks prior, he had an episode of fever with bloody diarrhea. Which of the following could be the possible organism? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shigella", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Giardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotavirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Shigella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Shigella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reactive arthritis can occur following an infection with Shigella species, which is known for causing bloody diarrhea. This condition presents with joint inflammation and pain, typically occurring several weeks after the initial gastrointestinal symptoms.</li><li>➤ Infection with Shigella species may be associated with extra gastrointestinal complications-</li><li>➤ extra gastrointestinal complications-</li><li>➤ Bacteremia Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome characterized by acute hemolysis, renal failure, uremia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Metabolic disturbances: Hyponatremia secondary to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone ( SIADH ) secretion may occur. Leukemoid reaction: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count of 50,000/mm3 occurs in approximately 4% of patients, mainly in children aged 2-10 years. Neurologic disease: Seizures, the most common neurologic complication . Encephalopathy with lethargy, confusion, and headache Reactive arthritis (also known as Reiter syndrome) may occur.</li><li>➤ Bacteremia</li><li>➤ Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome characterized by acute hemolysis, renal failure, uremia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).</li><li>➤ Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome</li><li>➤ (DIC).</li><li>➤ Metabolic disturbances: Hyponatremia secondary to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone ( SIADH ) secretion may occur.</li><li>➤ SIADH</li><li>➤ Leukemoid reaction: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count of 50,000/mm3 occurs in approximately 4% of patients, mainly in children aged 2-10 years.</li><li>➤ Neurologic disease: Seizures, the most common neurologic complication .</li><li>➤ Seizures, the most common neurologic complication</li><li>➤ Encephalopathy with lethargy, confusion, and headache</li><li>➤ Encephalopathy</li><li>➤ Reactive arthritis (also known as Reiter syndrome) may occur.</li><li>➤ Reactive arthritis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The presence of antibodies against SARS CoV2 in the blood likely indicates? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Previous infection even if patient has been asymptomatic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Presence of acute viral load", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A high risk of reinfection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "That the patient is in window period", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Previous infection even if patient has been asymptomatic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Previous infection even if patient has been asymptomatic</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cells lining the isthmus of the gastric pits? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chief cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stem cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parietal cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucous cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stem cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-181608.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The isthmus of the gastric pits is lined with stem cells, which are essential for the regeneration of the various cell types in the gastric glands, ensuring the maintenance of the gastric epithelium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Medial lemniscus is a continuation of which of the following structures? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spinothalamic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spinocerebellar tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spinotectal tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fasciculus gracilis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fasciculus gracilis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-46.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Fasciculus gracilis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The fasciculus gracilis (and its counterpart, the fasciculus cuneatus) are ascending tracts in the spinal cord that carry fine touch, vibration, and proprioceptive sensations from the body to the brain.</li><li>➤ These fibers travel upwards in the spinal cord and synapse in the nucleus gracilis (and nucleus cuneatus for the fasciculus cuneatus) located in the medulla oblongata. After synapsing, second-order neurons cross the midline and form the medial lemniscus, which then ascends to the thalamus.</li><li>➤ Thus, the medial lemniscus is indeed a continuation of the fibers originally present in the fasciculus gracilis (and fasciculus cuneatus).</li><li>➤ fasciculus gracilis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia encloses all of the following except?(INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sternocleidomastoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sternohyoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thyroid gland", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sternocleidomastoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image-20231108131354-1.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sternocleidomastoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM) is not enclosed by the pretracheal fascia. Instead, the SCM is associated with the superficial layer of the deep cervical fascia (also known as the investing layer). This layer of the fascia envelops both the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, acting as an investing layer for these superficial neck muscles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An individual who is experiencing vertigo but does not have hearing impairment has consulted an ENT surgeon. The surgeon proceeds with a diagnostic technique followed by a carefully executed therapeutic procedure. What is the diagnostic maneuver?(AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hampton's maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dix-Hallpike maneuver", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epley's maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Simon's maneuver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dix-Hallpike maneuver", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture27.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dix-Hallpike maneuver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is specifically used for diagnosing BPPV by eliciting nystagmus induced by position changes. The Epley's maneuver is used to treat the vertigo symptoms once BPPV is confirmed by the Dix-Hallpike test.</li><li>➤ The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is specifically used for diagnosing BPPV by eliciting nystagmus induced by position changes.</li><li>➤ Dix-Hallpike maneuver</li><li>➤ The Epley's maneuver is used to treat the vertigo symptoms once BPPV is confirmed by the Dix-Hallpike test.</li><li>➤ Epley's maneuver</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 47</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 47</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient undergoes thyroid surgery, and their surgeon is aiming to minimize nerve injury during the procedure. Which of the following nerves is least likely to be injured during thyroid surgery? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Recurrent laryngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ansa cervicalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "External laryngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marginal mandibular nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Marginal mandibular nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Marginal mandibular nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The marginal mandibular nerve is the nerve least likely to be injured during thyroid surgery. The nerve is high up, closer to the mandibular margin. The ansa cervicalis may be injured if the strap muscles are not cut high enough during surgery. The superior laryngeal nerve may be injured near the superior pole of the thyroid. The recurrent laryngeal nerve may be injured if dissection is done below the cricoid cartilage or near the tracheoesophageal groove</li><li>➤ The marginal mandibular nerve is the nerve least likely to be injured during thyroid surgery.</li><li>➤ The nerve is high up, closer to the mandibular margin.</li><li>➤ The ansa cervicalis may be injured if the strap muscles are not cut high enough during surgery.</li><li>➤ The superior laryngeal nerve may be injured near the superior pole of the thyroid.</li><li>➤ The recurrent laryngeal nerve may be injured if dissection is done below the cricoid cartilage or near the tracheoesophageal groove</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with paradoxical respiration. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be affected? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-52.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-53.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Paradoxical respiration occurs due to the damage of the phrenic nerve, which is marked as D, in the given image.</li><li>• The structures marked in the image are:</li><li>• The structures marked in the image are:</li><li>• A. Right vagus nerve</li><li>• B. Left vagus nerve</li><li>• C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve (inferior laryngeal nerve)</li><li>• D. Right phrenic nerve</li><li>• The phrenic nerve provides motor innervation to the diaphragm, the primary muscle of inspiration. Damage or paralysis of one phrenic nerve can cause one hemidiaphragm to rise during inspiration instead of descending as it normally does, leading to paradoxical movement. This is especially noticeable when the patient is in a supine position. If the right phrenic nerve is affected, the right hemidiaphragm will exhibit this paradoxical movement.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Right vagus nerve : The vagus nerve (10th cranial nerve) has a broad distribution and is involved in the parasympathetic innervation of many organs in the thorax and abdomen. It also provides sensory innervation to the larynx, trachea, esophagus, and a portion of the external ear. It doesn't innervate the diaphragm directly for its motor function.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Right vagus nerve</li><li>• Option B. Left vagus nerve : Similarly to the right vagus, the left vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to many thoracic and abdominal organs but does not control diaphragmatic contractions.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Left vagus nerve</li><li>• Option C . Recurrent laryngeal nerve (inferior laryngeal nerve) : This is a branch of the vagus nerve that innervates most intrinsic muscles of the larynx. The recurrent laryngeal nerve is important for vocal cord function. Damage to this nerve can lead to hoarseness or voice changes but does not directly affect respiratory mechanics in the manner described.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Recurrent laryngeal nerve (inferior laryngeal nerve)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paradoxical movements in the chest are as follows:</li><li>➤ Paradoxical movements in the chest are as follows:</li><li>➤ Paradoxical respiration - the aberrant contraction of the abdomen or chest walls, which causes them to move in rather than out during inhalation. It appears in the flail chest.</li><li>➤ Paradoxical respiration - the aberrant contraction of the abdomen or chest walls, which causes them to move in rather than out during inhalation. It appears in the flail chest.</li><li>➤ Paradoxical movement of the diaphragm - Normally, during inspiration, the diaphragm descends. Yet, due to diaphragmatic paralysis in phrenic nerve palsy cases, the affected side of the diaphragm moves upward (paradoxical breathing). The gold standard test to find this is to stimulate the phrenic nerve electrically or magnetically while simultaneously recording the transdiaphragmatic pressure and/or the compound muscle action potential. Both fluoroscopy and ultrasonography can show this.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the correct order of using eye drops and eye ointment?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eye drops first, ointment 15 min later", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ointment first, eye drops 15 min later", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eyedrops first, then ointment immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ointment first, then eyedrops immediately", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Eye drops first, ointment 15 min later", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Eye drops first, ointment 15 min later</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Always use eye drops before eye ointment when both forms of medication are prescribed. Allowing a gap of 15 minutes between applying drops and ointment ensures maximum effectiveness of both medications without interference in absorption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A stool sample is collected. The specimen is processed for examination and is labeled at different levels as A, B, C, and D. Identify the level at which parasitic ova will be seen when viewed under a microscope? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-30.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-31.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The formal ether sedimentation technique separates parasitic elements based on their specific gravity. Parasitic ova, cysts, and larvae will be concentrated in the sediment at the bottom of the tube, labeled as level D.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are used to stop esophageal variceal bleed? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B, C and D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A and B only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B and C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, B and D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A, B and C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-97_Kl9G69y.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A, B and C</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The sequence of vitamin D synthesis is? (INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver- Skin- Kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Skin- Liver- Kidney", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skin- Kidney- Liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liver- Kidney- Skin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Skin- Liver- Kidney", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011065.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Skin- Liver- Kidney</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The synthesis of vitamin D follows the sequence of Skin → Liver → Kidney, with each organ playing a critical role in converting the precursor to its active form.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Counter force brace is used for:(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tennis elbow", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wrist drop", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foot drop", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ankle sprain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tennis elbow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/57_4As0YhS.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/58.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/59.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/60.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/61.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/62_VzqK37H.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tennis elbow</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false regarding acute radiation syndrome? (AIIMS 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GI manifestations occurs at a lower radiation dose than bone marrow depression", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bone marrow suppression appear at doses greater than 1 Gy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bone marrow suppression occurs earlier than neurovascular effects", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GI manifestations occur at a lower radiation dose than neurovascular effects", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GI manifestations occurs at a lower radiation dose than bone marrow depression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-114356.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. GI manifestations occurs at a lower radiation dose than bone marrow depression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS)</li><li>➤ Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS)</li><li>➤ Occurs with accidental exposure of very high dose radiation Result of nuclear accidents</li><li>➤ Occurs with accidental exposure of very high dose radiation</li><li>➤ Result of nuclear accidents</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dialysis will prevent all except? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peripheral neuropathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uremic pericarditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Peripheral neuropathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture35.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Peripheral Neuropathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While dialysis effectively manages many complications of renal failure such as seizures, metabolic acidosis, and uremic pericarditis, it is less effective for peripheral neuropathy due to its limited ability to remove middle molecular weight toxins that contribute to nerve damage. Ongoing management and treatment strategies need to consider these limitations.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/Nephrology, Dialysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A resident had a needle stick injury while dealing with a Hepatitis B positive patient. Serology was done and HBsAg was negative and the Anti-HBs was &gt;105 mIU/ml. What is the next step of management? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Booster dose of vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immunoglobulin with full vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Repeat full course of vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No treatment required as he already has Hep B antibody titres from vaccination", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. No treatment required as he already has Hep B antibody titres from vaccination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_51.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) No treatment required as he already has Hep B antibody titres from vaccination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tests are used for the evaluation of scoliosis?(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bending forward", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bending backward", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Single leg stand", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Straight leg raise", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bending forward", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/screenshot-2024-01-11-111213.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bending forward</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scoliosis curve evaluation is done by forward bending test/Adam’s test. A structural scoliotic curve becomes more prominent on forward bending while the postural curve disappears.</li><li>➤ Scoliosis curve evaluation is done by forward bending test/Adam’s test.</li><li>➤ A structural scoliotic curve becomes more prominent on forward bending while the postural curve disappears.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "JAK2 mutation is most commonly associated with? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polycythemia vera", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Essential thrombocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CML", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PMF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Polycythemia vera", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-132158.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Polycythemia vera</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The JAK2 V617F mutation is most commonly associated with polycythemia vera, where it drives the excessive production of red blood cells through constitutive activation of the JAK-STAT pathway.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1161</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1161</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given is a model of embryological development of the heart. Which structure develops from the area marked with red arrow?(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left Ventricle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infundibulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interventricular septum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Infundibulum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-37.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-38.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-39.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Infundibulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The marked object is the conus cordis (middle part of bulbus cordis). From this structure, the heart's infundibulum emerges.</li><li>• The heart is represented in the model at the stage of embryology where both heart tubes have merged and are undergoing dextro-looping, or bending. During day 23 of intrauterine life, this occurs.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Atria : The atria of the heart primarily develop from the primitive atrial chamber or sinus venosus, not from the conus cordis. The sinus venosus will contribute to the formation of the smooth parts of the right and left atria. The atrial appendages or auricles, however, develop from the primitive atrium.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Atria</li><li>• Option B. Left Ventricle : The left ventricle arises mainly from the primitive ventricle of the embryonic heart tube. As the heart develops, the primitive ventricle gives rise to the muscular parts of both the left and right ventricles, but primarily the left.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Left Ventricle</li><li>• Option D . Interventricular septum :The interventricular septum separates the right and left ventricles. It has a muscular part and a membranous part. The muscular part primarily develops from the growth of the myocardium of the primitive ventricle. The conus cordis and the truncus arteriosus contribute to the formation of the membranous part of the interventricular septum.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Interventricular septum</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The infundibulum, also referred as the conus arteriosus or the outflow tract, develops from the conus cordis. It represents the smooth-walled, anterior portion of the right ventricle and leads to the pulmonary trunk in the mature heart.</li><li>➤ The infundibulum, also referred as the conus arteriosus or the outflow tract, develops from the conus cordis. It represents the smooth-walled, anterior portion of the right ventricle and leads to the pulmonary trunk in the mature heart.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the case of a 37-year-old woman who has been declared brain dead and whose family has agreed to donate her organs, who would be the most suitable or optimal candidate to receive the organs? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10-year-old child with multi organ dysfunction syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "49-year-old alcoholic man with liver cirrhosis with 1 month abstinence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "74-year-old woman with end stage renal disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "31-year-old woman with renal failure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 31-year-old woman with renal failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 31-year-old women with renal failure</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old female came to the hospital with a history of trauma to the ear. On examination, there is swelling, tenderness, and discoloration of the ear. Which of the following is false regarding the given image? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All cases should receive prophylactic antibiotic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "May lead to Pugilistic ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caused by accumulation of blood in perichondrial space", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Resolves spontaneously", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Resolves spontaneously", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture1_2rkRfWn.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Resolves spontaneously</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Perichondral hematoma (cauliflower ear, wrestler's ear, or pugilistic ear):</li><li>➤ Perichondral hematoma</li><li>➤ (cauliflower ear, wrestler's ear, or pugilistic ear):</li><li>➤ It is a deformity of the ear brought on by repeated trauma. Perichondral space refers to the area of blood between the auricular cartilage and its perichondrium. Due to blunt trauma , it is frequently observed in boxers, wrestlers, and rugby players. It does not resolve spontaneously .</li><li>➤ It is a deformity of the ear brought on by repeated trauma.</li><li>➤ repeated trauma.</li><li>➤ Perichondral space refers to the area of blood between the auricular cartilage and its perichondrium.</li><li>➤ Perichondral space</li><li>➤ auricular cartilage</li><li>➤ perichondrium.</li><li>➤ Due to blunt trauma , it is frequently observed in boxers, wrestlers, and rugby players.</li><li>➤ blunt trauma</li><li>➤ boxers, wrestlers, and rugby</li><li>➤ It does not resolve spontaneously .</li><li>➤ It does not resolve spontaneously</li><li>➤ Treatment:</li><li>➤ Treatment:</li><li>➤ Prophylactic antibiotics should be administered in all cases. Under strict aseptic guidelines , aspiration of the hematoma and application of a pressure dressing to stop re-accumulation. Aspiration might have to be done again. Aspiration that doesn't work should be followed by incision and drainage.</li><li>➤ Prophylactic antibiotics should be administered in all cases.</li><li>➤ Prophylactic antibiotics</li><li>➤ Under strict aseptic guidelines , aspiration of the hematoma and application of a pressure dressing to stop re-accumulation.</li><li>➤ aseptic guidelines</li><li>➤ Aspiration might have to be done again. Aspiration that doesn't work should be followed by incision and drainage.</li><li>➤ Aspiration</li><li>➤ Ref - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470424/</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470424/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old nurse in the infectious diseases ward is reviewing the necessary precautions for attending to patients with various primary diagnoses. For which of the following patients would she NOT need to take special airborne precautions? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes Zoster", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chicken Pox", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Herpes Zoster", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Herpes Zoster</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles, Tuberculosis, and chickenpox require airborne transmission precaution unlike herpes zoster. The patient should be made to wear a mask for source control. A fit-tested NIOSH-approved N95 or higher-level respirator should be used by the healthcare personnel whilst care delivery.</li><li>➤ Measles, Tuberculosis, and chickenpox require airborne transmission precaution unlike herpes zoster.</li><li>➤ The patient should be made to wear a mask for source control.</li><li>➤ A fit-tested NIOSH-approved N95 or higher-level respirator should be used by the healthcare personnel whilst care delivery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What concentration of tetanus antitoxin in the blood is considered clinically protective against tetanus? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt;0.1 IU/ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt;0.01 IU/ml", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt;0.001 IU/ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;0.0001 IU/ml", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. >0.01 IU/ml", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) &gt;0.01 IU/ml</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aim of active Immunisation with TT:</li><li>➤ Aim of active Immunisation with TT:</li><li>➤ Vaccinate the entire community Ensure protective level of antitoxin ~ 0.01 IU/mL serum throughout life</li><li>➤ Vaccinate the entire community</li><li>➤ Ensure protective level of antitoxin ~ 0.01 IU/mL serum throughout life</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following arteries passes in close proximity to the area marked by the arrow in the given image? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Internal carotid artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle meningeal artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior cerebral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deep temporal artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Middle meningeal artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture2_dn6iVbB.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-44.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Middle meningeal artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The middle meningeal artery (MMA) is a branch of the maxillary artery (a terminal branch of the external carotid artery). The MMA enters the middle cranial fossa by passing through the foramen spinosum. After entering the skull, it courses laterally to the pterion.</li><li>• Given the proximity of the MMA to the pterion, trauma to this region can lead to an extradural (epidural) hematoma if the MMA is torn. This is because the MMA runs just deep to the pterion, between the skull and the dura mater.</li><li>• This makes the MMA the artery most closely related to the pterion, and a fracture at the pterion can lead to rupture of this artery.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A . Internal carotid artery :</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Internal carotid artery</li><li>• The internal carotid artery (ICA) is a major artery that supplies blood to the brain. It arises from the common carotid artery and enters the cranial cavity through the carotid canal. While the ICA does travel inside the skull and provides blood to the brain, it doesn't have a direct relationship with the pterion. It is more medial in its course.</li><li>• The internal carotid artery (ICA) is a major artery that supplies blood to the brain. It arises from the common carotid artery and enters the cranial cavity through the carotid canal.</li><li>• While the ICA does travel inside the skull and provides blood to the brain, it doesn't have a direct relationship with the pterion. It is more medial in its course.</li><li>• Option C. Anterior cerebral artery :</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Anterior cerebral artery</li><li>• The anterior cerebral artery is one of the terminal branches of the internal carotid artery. It supplies the medial and superior parts of the brain. Though it's an essential artery for cerebral circulation, it doesn't have a direct relationship with the pterion, as its course and distribution are more medial.</li><li>• The anterior cerebral artery is one of the terminal branches of the internal carotid artery. It supplies the medial and superior parts of the brain.</li><li>• Though it's an essential artery for cerebral circulation, it doesn't have a direct relationship with the pterion, as its course and distribution are more medial.</li><li>• Option D . Deep temporal artery :</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Deep temporal artery</li><li>• The deep temporal arteries are branches of the maxillary artery that ascend between the temporalis muscle and the side of the skull. They supply the temporalis muscle, and while they are in the vicinity of the pterion, they are not as closely related as the middle meningeal artery.</li><li>• The deep temporal arteries are branches of the maxillary artery that ascend between the temporalis muscle and the side of the skull.</li><li>• They supply the temporalis muscle, and while they are in the vicinity of the pterion, they are not as closely related as the middle meningeal artery.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pterion is an H shaped sutural junction between four bones of the skull:</li><li>➤ The pterion is an H shaped sutural junction between four bones of the skull:</li><li>➤ Frontal bone Squamous part of the temporal bone Greater wing of the sphenoid bone Parietal bone.</li><li>➤ Frontal bone</li><li>➤ Squamous part of the temporal bone</li><li>➤ Greater wing of the sphenoid bone</li><li>➤ Parietal bone.</li><li>➤ Given that it rests across the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery and the lateral fissure of the cerebral hemisphere, it is a significant structure. Since the bone in this region is fragile, any injury could cause the middle meningeal artery to burst, resulting in an extradural hematoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after sustaining multiple injuries in a motor vehicle accident. The patient is hemodynamically unstable and requires a massive blood transfusion. The physician is concerned about the potential adverse effects of the transfusion and wants to monitor the patient closely. The physician wants to confirm which of the following adverse effects is not commonly observed in patients who receive a massive blood transfusion? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypercalcemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypokalaemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperkalaemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypercalcemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypercalcemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypocalcemia and not Hypercalcemia is an adverse effect of massive blood transfusion. Massive blood transfusion instead leads to Hypocalcemia as the anticoagulant citrate binds to calcium.</li><li>➤ Hypocalcemia and not Hypercalcemia is an adverse effect of massive blood transfusion.</li><li>➤ Massive blood transfusion instead leads to Hypocalcemia as the anticoagulant citrate binds to calcium.</li><li>➤ The complications of massive blood transfusion are:</li><li>➤ Hypocalcemia Hyperkalemia Hypokalemia Hypomagnesemia Hypothermia Alkalosis</li><li>➤ Hypocalcemia</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia</li><li>➤ Hypokalemia</li><li>➤ Hypomagnesemia</li><li>➤ Hypothermia</li><li>➤ Alkalosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the seeds shown in the image below: (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tropicana canna", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nigella sativa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Datura seeds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Opium seeds", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nigella sativa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/28/image-13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_VyQp1mX.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_P6sJHQT.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_UqkDVGM.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Nigella sativa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nigella sativa , or black cumin, is not only recognized for its unique seed appearance but also for its significant medicinal properties, including sedative and analgesic effects on the central nervous system.</li><li>➤ Nigella sativa</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman has cramps in her legs. What will you suggest to her to relieve the pain? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extend knee and dorsiflex foot", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flex knee and dorsiflex foot", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extend knee and plantar flex foot", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flex knee and plantar flex foot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extend knee and dorsiflex foot", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Extend knee and dorsiflex foot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• To relieve leg cramps, the recommended technique is to:</li><li>• Extend the knee : Straightening the leg helps in relieving tension and alleviating the cramp. Dorsiflex the foot : This involves pulling the toes towards the shin, which stretches the calf muscles and helps in reducing the cramp.</li><li>• Extend the knee : Straightening the leg helps in relieving tension and alleviating the cramp.</li><li>• Extend the knee</li><li>• Dorsiflex the foot : This involves pulling the toes towards the shin, which stretches the calf muscles and helps in reducing the cramp.</li><li>• Dorsiflex the foot</li><li>• Leg cramps during pregnancy are commonly caused by factors such as deficiencies in serum calcium, elevated serum phosphorus, or increased pressure on the leg veins. Stretching and adjusting the foot position can provide immediate relief from cramps.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Flex knee and dorsiflex foot : Flexing the knee while dorsiflexing the foot can help in some cases, but extending the knee is generally more effective in relieving cramp pain.</li><li>• Option B. Flex knee and dorsiflex foot</li><li>• Option C. Extend knee and plantar flex foot : Plantar flexion (pointing the toes downward) can actually exacerbate calf cramps. Extending the knee while performing plantar flexion is not as effective for cramp relief.</li><li>• Option C. Extend knee and plantar flex foot</li><li>• Option D. Flex knee and plantar flex foot : Flexing the knee while performing plantar flexion will likely increase the cramp discomfort. This position may not provide effective relief.</li><li>• Option D. Flex knee and plantar flex foot</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To relieve leg cramps during pregnancy, extend the knee and dorsiflex the foot.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://americanpregnancy.org/healthy-pregnancy/pregnancy-health-wellness/leg-cramps-during-pregnancy</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://americanpregnancy.org/healthy-pregnancy/pregnancy-health-wellness/leg-cramps-during-pregnancy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Isotype switching is seen in? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Helper T cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Activated B cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cytotoxic t cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Naive B cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Activated B cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Isotype switching is a process that occurs in activated B cells, allowing them to produce different classes of antibodies to effectively combat various types of pathogens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient's vital signs are stable, and a focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) is ordered. Which condition is least likely to be diagnosed using FAST? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pericardial Effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retroperitoneal hematoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Retroperitoneal hematoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Retroperitoneal hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Among the given options, FAST is the least effective in diagnosing retroperitoneal hematoma due to poor sensitivity of ultrasound for detecting it. CT scan is the preferred diagnostic tool for retroperitoneal injuries, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients. FAST stands for Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma and is a non-invasive, rapid bedside test used to detect free fluid in the abdomen using sonography. The patient is positioned supine, and a 3.5-5.0 MHz convex transducer is used to scan the subxiphoid, right and left upper quadrants, and suprapubic region to assess potential thoracoabdominal injuries. eFAST is an extended version of FAST that incorporates left and right thoracic views to assess for pneumothorax and hemothorax.</li><li>➤ Among the given options, FAST is the least effective in diagnosing retroperitoneal hematoma due to poor sensitivity of ultrasound for detecting it.</li><li>➤ CT scan is the preferred diagnostic tool for retroperitoneal injuries, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients.</li><li>➤ FAST stands for Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma and is a non-invasive, rapid bedside test used to detect free fluid in the abdomen using sonography.</li><li>➤ The patient is positioned supine, and a 3.5-5.0 MHz convex transducer is used to scan the subxiphoid, right and left upper quadrants, and suprapubic region to assess potential thoracoabdominal injuries.</li><li>➤ eFAST is an extended version of FAST that incorporates left and right thoracic views to assess for pneumothorax and hemothorax.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient undergoing ECT for his severe depression was given thiopentone and succinylcholine. The purpose of these medications was to? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To bring calming effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To produce mood elevation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "To induce anesthesia and relax muscles", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "To prevent memory loss after the ECT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. To induce anesthesia and relax muscles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) To induce anesthesia and relax muscles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thiopentone and succinylcholine are administered prior to ECT to induce anesthesia and relax muscles, respectively, to ensure patient safety and comfort during the procedure.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 1069.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old woman presented at the hospital with a reported history of ear trauma. Upon examination, there was observed swelling, tenderness, and discoloration of the ear. Which of the following is false regarding the given image? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It may lead to pugilistic ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is caused by accumulation of blood in perichondrial space", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Resolves spontaneously", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All cases should receive prophylactic antibiotics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Resolves spontaneously", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture33.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Resolves spontaneously</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Perichondrial hematoma does not resolve on its own and requires prompt medical treatment to prevent complications like infection and the formation of cauliflower ear. Management typically involves aspiration of the hematoma, application of a pressure dressing to maintain ear contour, and administration of prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male who is shy and prefers social isolation appears to be emotionally cold and resides alone. There is no history of hallucinations or delusions. The most likely diagnosis is: ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paranoid personality disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schizoid personality disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antisocial personality disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emotionally unstable personality disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Schizoid personality disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Schizoid personality disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by detachment from social relationships and prefer solitary activities . They are emotionally cold and are indifferent to praise or criticism. There is also an absence of close relationships . It is classified as Cluster A personality disorder.</li><li>➤ detachment</li><li>➤ solitary activities</li><li>➤ emotionally cold</li><li>➤ absence of close relationships</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 746.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the enzyme conjugate in the given ELISA technique? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-27.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/1%20(1)_A6DXgWV.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the sandwich ELISA technique, the enzyme conjugate is part of the detection antibody, which binds to the antigen and, upon addition of a substrate, produces a detectable signal. In this diagram, '2' is identified as the enzyme conjugate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image given shows a patient who has undergone total laryngectomy due to laryngeal cancer. Identify the method of voice generation for this patient, as depicted in the provided image.(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Electro-larynx", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chicago implant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tracheoesophageal prosthesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esophageal speech", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tracheoesophageal prosthesis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/27/picture5_2EGf5tp.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tracheoesophageal prosthesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tracheoesophageal prosthesis is a common and effective method for voice restoration following total laryngectomy. It relies on a surgically implanted device that directs air into the esophagus where vibrations are created for speech, significantly enhancing the quality of life for patients who have lost their natural voice box.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A psychiatric patient was started on lithium for the management of bipolar disorder. To monitor the blood lithium levels, at what time interval should the blood sample be collected after the administration of lithium tablets? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "After 24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "After 12 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "After 6 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immediately after taking tablets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. After 12 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. After 12 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To monitor lithium levels accurately and ensure they remain within the therapeutic range, blood samples should be collected 12 hours after the last dose. This helps in avoiding toxicity and ensuring the efficacy of the treatment for bipolar disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sanjana is leading a health initiative in Karnataka, focusing on the prevention of anemia among adult women through the Anemia Mukth Bharath initiative. She needs to communicate the correct dosage of iron and folic acid supplementation. What is the recommended dose according to the guidelines? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60 mg elemental iron + 500 mcg folic acid daily", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60 mg elemental iron + 500 mcg folic acid weekly", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "100 mg elemental iron + 500 mcg folic acid weekly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100 mg elemental iron + 500 mcg folic acid daily", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 60 mg elemental iron + 500 mcg folic acid weekly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/screenshot-2023-10-25-192707.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 60 mg elemental iron + 500 mcg folic acid weekly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs does not need dose adjustment in renal failure? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sitagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Saxagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vildagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Linagliptin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Linagliptin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Linagliptin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Linagliptin is a unique DPP-4 inhibitor that does not require dose adjustments in patients with renal failure due to its primary excretion via the enterohepatic system. This makes it an advantageous option for managing type 2 diabetes in patients with compromised renal function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following features differentiates the exocrine pancreas from the parotid gland? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basal lamina lining the serous acini", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Absence of striated duct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Presence of serous acini with acidophilic tip", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Presence of apical acinar villi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Absence of striated duct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Absence of striated duct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Striated ducts are a characteristic feature of salivary glands, including the parotid gland. These ducts have basal infoldings associated with mitochondria, which gives them their \"striated\" appearance. They play a role in modifying the primary saliva produced by the acinar cells. The exocrine pancreas does not possess striated ducts. Instead, it has intercalated ducts that connect the acinar cells to the larger duct system. This feature, therefore, differentiates the exocrine pancreas from the parotid gland .</li><li>➤ Striated ducts are a characteristic feature of salivary glands, including the parotid gland. These ducts have basal infoldings associated with mitochondria, which gives them their \"striated\" appearance. They play a role in modifying the primary saliva produced by the acinar cells. The exocrine pancreas does not possess striated ducts. Instead, it has intercalated ducts that connect the acinar cells to the larger duct system. This feature, therefore, differentiates the exocrine pancreas from the parotid gland .</li><li>➤ differentiates the exocrine pancreas from the parotid gland</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which part of the internal capsule is affected in hemiplegia due to ischemic stroke? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retrolentiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sublentiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior limb", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Posterior limb", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture36.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture37.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Posterior Limb</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of ischemic stroke, damage to the posterior limb of the internal capsule results in hemiplegia because of the disruption of corticospinal tracts. This knowledge aids in accurate stroke localization and informs rehabilitation strategies to help regain motor functions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nursing assistant posted in the obstetric care unit was asked to plot a partograph to monitor the progress of labour. After how much dilatation of the cervix, should she start plotting the graph? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 4cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plotting on the partograph should start at 4 cm cervical dilatation during the active phase of labor.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 152, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 7 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 152, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 7 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old toxic child presents with tachypnea, high-grade fever, inspiratory stridor, and developed difficulty in swallowing with drooling of saliva within 4-6 hours of fever. Along with airway management. Which of the following needs to be given? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nebulisation with racemic adrenaline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV ceftriaxone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diphtheria antitoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start steroids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IV ceftriaxone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IV Ceftriaxone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency requiring immediate airway management and empirical antibiotic therapy, with IV Ceftriaxone being the treatment of choice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is intubated had an X-ray done. The radiograph is shown below. What is the next step in the management of this patient? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start antibiotics and send samples for culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chest physiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ultrasound guided aspiration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ultrasound guided aspiration", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm75.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture32.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ultrasound guided aspiration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis is learning about available government support for nutritional aid during treatment. Which of the following accurately represents a feature of the Nikshay Poshan Yojana? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "₹ 500 is given per week", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "₹ 500 is given per month", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mid-day meals are given", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dietary advice is given", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ₹ 500 is given per month", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nikshay Poshan Yojana:</li><li>➤ Nikshay Poshan Yojana:</li><li>➤ Financial incentive of Rs 500/- per month for each notified TB patient for duration for which the patient is on anti-TB treatment All TB patients notified on or after 1st April 2018 including all existing TB patients under treatment are eligible to receive incentive</li><li>➤ Financial incentive of Rs 500/- per month for each notified TB patient for duration for which the patient is on anti-TB treatment</li><li>➤ All TB patients notified on or after 1st April 2018 including all existing TB patients under treatment are eligible to receive incentive</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a telemedicine session with patients in a rural health clinic, Dr. Reddy emphasized preventive measures for COVID-19. He highlighted certain practices that are widely recommended. Which of the following, however, is NOT effective in preventing the spread of COVID-19? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Face mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1% glutaraldehyde", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "70% alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hand washing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1% glutaraldehyde", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1% glutaraldehyde</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key measures that effectively curb its spread include behaviors such as maintaining a physical distance of at least 6 feet from others, washing hands with soap and water for a duration of 20 seconds, or employing a hand sanitizer containing a minimum of 70% alcohol. Additionally, wearing a face mask in situations necessitating public outings remains crucial.</li><li>➤ The key measures that effectively curb its spread include behaviors such as maintaining a physical distance of at least 6 feet from others, washing hands with soap and water for a duration of 20 seconds, or employing a hand sanitizer containing a minimum of 70% alcohol.</li><li>➤ Additionally, wearing a face mask in situations necessitating public outings remains crucial.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Before transferring the patient to the operating theatre, which of the following is necessary to do for a 60-year-old man who has been experiencing abdominal pain for the past six hours, has a BP of 84/50mmHg, RR of 26/min, saturation of 92% with 6 L of oxygen, and has extraluminal air in the abdomen on radiograph? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intubate the patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insert a central venous catheter as the initial IV access of choice", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administer 2 litres of crystalloid infusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verify the diagnosis with CECT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Administer 2 litres of crystalloid infusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Administer 2 litres of crystalloid infusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the given clinical scenario, volume resuscitation is crucial for maintaining BP as the patient has no history of trauma, indicating a possible bowel perforation. Peripheral large-bore cannula may be used for initial volume resuscitation, and a central venous catheter may be required if vasopressors are planned. Intubation may not be necessary since the patient is maintaining saturation. CT scan may not be necessary as the provisional diagnosis of bowel perforation has already been established, and the patient's vital signs should be considered.</li><li>➤ In the given clinical scenario, volume resuscitation is crucial for maintaining BP as the patient has no history of trauma, indicating a possible bowel perforation.</li><li>➤ Peripheral large-bore cannula may be used for initial volume resuscitation, and a central venous catheter may be required if vasopressors are planned.</li><li>➤ Intubation may not be necessary since the patient is maintaining saturation.</li><li>➤ CT scan may not be necessary as the provisional diagnosis of bowel perforation has already been established, and the patient's vital signs should be considered.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following can be used for the treatment of PCOD except? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clomiphine citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Letrozole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulipristal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laparoscopic ovarian drilling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ulipristal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ulipristal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ulipristal is not used for the treatment of PCOD. It is a selective progesterone receptor modulator. It is used as an emergency contraceptive and in medical management of fibroids</li><li>• Ulipristal is not used for the treatment of PCOD. It is a selective progesterone receptor modulator. It is used as an emergency contraceptive and in medical management of fibroids</li><li>• It is a selective progesterone receptor modulator. It is used as an emergency contraceptive and in medical management of fibroids</li><li>• It is a selective progesterone receptor modulator.</li><li>• It is used as an emergency contraceptive and in medical management of fibroids</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Clomiphene : Clomiphene is an anti-estrogen used in ovulation induction in women with PCOS (1 st line agent) and infertility</li><li>• Option A. Clomiphene</li><li>• Gonadotropins can also be used in PCOS with infertility in those who have clomiphene resistance (2 nd line therapy)</li><li>• Gonadotropins can also be used in PCOS with infertility in those who have clomiphene resistance (2 nd line therapy)</li><li>• Option B. Letrozole : But nowadays Letrozole (aromatase inhibitor) is the drug for ovulation induction in PCOS with infertility.</li><li>• Option B. Letrozole</li><li>• Option D. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling: It is recommended as second-line therapy in PCOS</li><li>• Option D. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ulipristal is not used for the treatment of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS). It is a selective progesterone receptor modulator primarily used for emergency contraception and managing uterine fibroids.</li><li>➤ Ulipristal</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 244, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 244, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A drug that selectively reduces the reuptake of serotonin would likely cause which of the following side effects? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Constipation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sexual dysfunction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sialorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Visual disturbance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sexual dysfunction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sexual dysfunction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Side effects of SSRIs include:</li><li>➤ Most common: Nausea Most common long-term side effects: Sexual dysfunction including delayed orgasm, poor erection and low libido. CNS side effects- Paradoxical anxiety, sedation, vivid dreams, sweating, seizures, EPSE etc. QTc prolongation Weight gain</li><li>➤ Most common: Nausea</li><li>➤ Most common long-term side effects: Sexual dysfunction including delayed orgasm, poor erection and low libido.</li><li>➤ CNS side effects- Paradoxical anxiety, sedation, vivid dreams, sweating, seizures, EPSE etc.</li><li>➤ QTc prolongation</li><li>➤ Weight gain</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 1018-1020.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The enzyme that is not used in cholesterol synthesis? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiolase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HMG CoA reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HMG CoA synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HMG CoA lyase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HMG CoA lyase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011066.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) HMG CoA lyase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ HMG CoA lyase is not used in the cholesterol synthesis pathway; it is involved in ketogenesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Neurotransmitter secreted by the area marked A in the given image is? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dopamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glutamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Noradrenaline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dopamine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-42.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Dopamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The substantia nigra is the region highlighted in the illustration (meaning- dark substance). Dopamine is the neurotransmitter released by this region.</li><li>• A component of the nigrostriatal pathway is the substantia nigra. Parkinson's disease may be caused by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Acetylcholine (ACh) :</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Acetylcholine (ACh)</li><li>• Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays key roles in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and central nervous system (CNS). In the PNS, ACh is the neurotransmitter released from the axon terminals of motor neurons, making muscles contract. It's also the neurotransmitter in all autonomic ganglia. In the CNS, ACh is involved in a variety of functions, such as attention, arousal, and memory. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the brain, especially in the basal nucleus of Meynert, has been linked with Alzheimer's disease. However, ACh is not the primary neurotransmitter of the substantia nigra.</li><li>• Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays key roles in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and central nervous system (CNS).</li><li>• In the PNS, ACh is the neurotransmitter released from the axon terminals of motor neurons, making muscles contract. It's also the neurotransmitter in all autonomic ganglia.</li><li>• In the CNS, ACh is involved in a variety of functions, such as attention, arousal, and memory. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the brain, especially in the basal nucleus of Meynert, has been linked with Alzheimer's disease.</li><li>• However, ACh is not the primary neurotransmitter of the substantia nigra.</li><li>• Option C. Glutamine :</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Glutamine</li><li>• It's worth noting that there's a potential mix-up in the options: Glutamine is an amino acid, while \"glutamate\" is the neurotransmitter. Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS and plays crucial roles in synaptic plasticity, which is the cellular basis for learning and memory. While glutamate is widespread in the brain, it's not the primary neurotransmitter of the substantia nigra.</li><li>• It's worth noting that there's a potential mix-up in the options: Glutamine is an amino acid, while \"glutamate\" is the neurotransmitter.</li><li>• Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS and plays crucial roles in synaptic plasticity, which is the cellular basis for learning and memory.</li><li>• While glutamate is widespread in the brain, it's not the primary neurotransmitter of the substantia nigra.</li><li>• Option D. Noradrenaline :</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Noradrenaline</li><li>• Noradrenaline is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter. It plays roles in attention, focus, and the fight-or-flight response by preparing the body to react to threats. In the CNS, noradrenergic neurons primarily arise from the locus coeruleus in the pons and project to various regions of the brain, influencing attention, arousal, and mood. While noradrenaline plays a role in various brain functions, it's not the neurotransmitter secreted by the substantia nigra.</li><li>• Noradrenaline is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter. It plays roles in attention, focus, and the fight-or-flight response by preparing the body to react to threats.</li><li>• In the CNS, noradrenergic neurons primarily arise from the locus coeruleus in the pons and project to various regions of the brain, influencing attention, arousal, and mood.</li><li>• While noradrenaline plays a role in various brain functions, it's not the neurotransmitter secreted by the substantia nigra.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dopamine :</li><li>➤ Dopamine</li><li>➤ Dopamine is one of the major neurotransmitters in the brain and is involved in several key functions, including mood regulation, reward-seeking behavior, and motor control.</li><li>➤ The substantia nigra, specifically its pars compacta region, contains dopaminergic neurons that project to the striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen). This pathway is known as the nigrostriatal pathway and is critical for regulating voluntary movement.</li><li>➤ Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra is the primary pathological feature of Parkinson's disease, leading to motor symptoms such as bradykinesia, rigidity, and resting tremor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Verma is examining the criteria used to establish the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) for nutrients and focuses on the typical characteristics of a \"reference woman\". Which of the following correctly describes this reference woman used for RDA calculations? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight 55 kgs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Height 1.73 m", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Works 10 hours/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Age of 18-25 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Weight 55 kgs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Weight 55 kgs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The reference woman used in the calculation of recommended daily allowance (RDA)</li><li>➤ Aged between 19-39 years Non pregnant, non-lactating Weight=55kgs Height = 1.61 m BMI=21.2 Free from disease and physically fit for active work Engaged in moderate activity for 8 hours on each working day Spends 8 hours in bed, 4-6 hours in sitting and moving, 2hours in walking and in active recreation or household activities.</li><li>➤ Aged between 19-39 years</li><li>➤ Non pregnant, non-lactating</li><li>➤ Weight=55kgs</li><li>➤ Height = 1.61 m</li><li>➤ BMI=21.2</li><li>➤ Free from disease and physically fit for active work</li><li>➤ Engaged in moderate activity for 8 hours on each working day</li><li>➤ Spends 8 hours in bed, 4-6 hours in sitting and moving, 2hours in walking and in active recreation or household activities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a second line anti-tubercular drug? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethionamide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acyclovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ethionamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ethionamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethionamide is a second-line anti-tubercular drug used in the management of multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB), whereas isoniazid is a first-line drug, and acyclovir and vancomycin are not used for tuberculosis treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false regarding the management of snakebite in India? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine and neostigmine are very useful in the management of krait bite", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neostigmine and ventilatory support are used in treatment along with ASV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ASV is the mainstay of treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Current ASV in India is less effective against humped pit viper", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Atropine and neostigmine are very useful in the management of krait bite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Atropine and neostigmine are very useful in the management of krait bite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment of snake bite:</li><li>➤ Treatment of snake bite:</li><li>➤ First Aid treatment have limited role. Reassure the patient, immobilize the limb and keep it below the heart level. Light pressure can be applied in neurotoxic snakes. Anti-snake venom (ASV) is the main treatment for snake bite. It contains antivenom against the 4 common poisonous snakes in India (Cobra, Krait, Russel’s viper and saw scaled viper). It does not contain antivenom against humped pit viper, which is found in some states of India, but still can be partially effective in it due to cross antibodies formation. Treatment in addition to ASV: Vasculotoxic symptoms: Dialysis and Blood Transfusion Musculotoxic symptoms: Dialysis Neurotoxic snakes: Ventilation and Neostigmine (along with atropine)</li><li>➤ First Aid treatment have limited role. Reassure the patient, immobilize the limb and keep it below the heart level. Light pressure can be applied in neurotoxic snakes.</li><li>➤ First Aid treatment have limited role.</li><li>➤ Anti-snake venom (ASV) is the main treatment for snake bite. It contains antivenom against the 4 common poisonous snakes in India (Cobra, Krait, Russel’s viper and saw scaled viper). It does not contain antivenom against humped pit viper, which is found in some states of India, but still can be partially effective in it due to cross antibodies formation.</li><li>➤ Anti-snake venom (ASV) is the main treatment for snake bite.</li><li>➤ Treatment in addition to ASV: Vasculotoxic symptoms: Dialysis and Blood Transfusion Musculotoxic symptoms: Dialysis Neurotoxic snakes: Ventilation and Neostigmine (along with atropine)</li><li>➤ Treatment in addition to ASV:</li><li>➤ Vasculotoxic symptoms: Dialysis and Blood Transfusion Musculotoxic symptoms: Dialysis Neurotoxic snakes: Ventilation and Neostigmine (along with atropine)</li><li>➤ Vasculotoxic symptoms: Dialysis and Blood Transfusion</li><li>➤ Vasculotoxic symptoms:</li><li>➤ Musculotoxic symptoms: Dialysis</li><li>➤ Musculotoxic symptoms:</li><li>➤ Neurotoxic snakes: Ventilation and Neostigmine (along with atropine)</li><li>➤ Neurotoxic snakes:</li><li>➤ Other Options: Explained above</li><li>➤ Other Options: Explained above</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old chronic smoker presented with mild recurrent hemoptysis without fever or weight loss. The chest X-ray appears normal and the sputum is negative for AFB. Which of the following is the most useful diagnostic investigation? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fiberoptic bronchoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT Thorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CT Thorax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CT Thorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The choice of CT Thorax (HRCT or CECT) is critical for early detection of potential malignancies or other significant lung conditions in a high-risk individual, particularly when initial less sensitive tests like chest X-ray and sputum analysis have failed to elucidate the cause of symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - (Harrison 21E, 597,598) Resp Med/Hemoptysis/Lung CA</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding liquid-based cytology? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine specimen is used", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sanger sequencing is used", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Study of fluid in tumor microenvironment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DNA is collected in micro vessels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urine specimen is used", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Liquid-based cytology can use urine specimens, among others, to prepare samples for cytological examination, offering advantages over traditional smear techniques in terms of sample preservation and clarity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who was on antiepileptics for the management of seizure disorder started having visual disturbance. Evaluation reveals the contraction of the visual field. The drug responsible is likely to be? (AIIMS NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenobarbitone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vigabatrin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethosuximide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levetiracetam", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vigabatrin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-100536.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Vigabatrin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vigabatrin is an antiepileptic drug associated with visual field contraction, requiring regular monitoring of visual fields in patients receiving this medication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aishwarya, a public health official, is discussing the maternal health situation in a rural district of Uttar Pradesh at a Panchayat meeting. She emphasizes the importance of understanding the maternal mortality ratio (MMR) for her district. Which definition best describes the MMR? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maternal Deaths per 10,000 live births", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal Deaths per 100,000 live births", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maternal Deaths per 10,000 women in reproductive age group", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maternal Deaths per 100,000 women in reproductive age group", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Maternal Deaths per 100,000 live births", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-144548.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Maternal Deaths per 100,000 live births</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MMR is a crucial indicator of maternal health in a population, reflecting the risk of maternal death associated with childbirth and its management. It is typically expressed per 100,000 live births to provide a clear picture of maternal health risks and the effectiveness of health interventions aimed at reducing these risks in specific areas or populations.</li><li>➤ MMR is a crucial indicator of maternal health in a population, reflecting the risk of maternal death associated with childbirth and its management.</li><li>➤ It is typically expressed per 100,000 live births to provide a clear picture of maternal health risks and the effectiveness of health interventions aimed at reducing these risks in specific areas or populations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following procedure is shown in the image given below? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasolacrimal duct syringing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior ethmoidal nerve block", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infraorbital nerve block", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trephination of frontal sinus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anterior ethmoidal nerve block", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture1_wIiIfVz.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anterior ethmoidal nerve block</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An anterior ethmoidal nerve block is crucial for numbing the nasal cavity area, particularly in endonasal surgeries. It is essential for procedures requiring detailed work near the roof of the nasal cavity, reflecting the significance of understanding the specific nerve anatomy for effective anesthesia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given chemical structure is of: ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keratan sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chondroitin sulphate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermatan sulphate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chondroitin sulphate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/28/1-bio-29-12.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011069.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chondroitin sulphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chondroitin sulphate is a glycosaminoglycan found in connective tissues like cartilage and bone, characterized by its repeating units of glucuronic acid and N-acetyl galactosamine sulphate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 51-year-old bomb blast victim is brought to the casualty with life-threatening injuries. There was a lot of chaos and no one was available to sign consent for emergency surgery. Despite surgery the patient died. The doctor is not responsible under which doctrine? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Res Ipsa loquitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doctrine of anticipation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doctrine of extended consent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doctrine of conjugated consent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Doctrine of anticipation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Doctrine of anticipation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Doctrine of anticipation,\" which permits medical interventions without prior consent in emergencies where delays could result in harm or death to the patient. This doctrine is crucial in understanding the legal protections afforded to doctors making critical decisions under duress and with the intent to save lives.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old female with easy fatiguability and pallor presented to the OPD. The image of her hand is as given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aplastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoalbuminemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/987.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Knuckle pigmentation is an early and visible sign of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can precede the more severe hematological and neurological complications associated with megaloblastic anemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old man met with an road traffic accident and was brought to the casualty after 6 hours. His B.P. was 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate was 110/min, and Sp02 was 92%. A blood transfusion was done. After a few hours, the patient is febrile, tachypneic, and starts bleeding from the IV and NG tube sites. His SpO2 levels started falling. What could be the cause? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transfusion reaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute adrenal crisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fat embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemorrhagic shock", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transfusion reaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-132115.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Transfusion reaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), characterized by rapid onset of fever, bleeding from multiple sites, and hemolysis shortly after a blood transfusion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following topical antifungal has both anti- inflammatory effects and anti-pruritic action? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ketoconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sertaconazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Luliconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Terbinafine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sertaconazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-101732.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sertaconazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male patient presented with a headache and altered sensorium. MRI was performed which revealed multiple rings enhancing lesions. MR spectroscopy showed a prominent lipid-lactate peak. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurocysticercosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PML", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cryptococcomas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tuberculoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-137.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Tuberculoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The MRI findings of multiple ring-enhancing lesions in conjunction with a prominent lipid-lactate peak on MR spectroscopy are characteristic of tuberculoma. Tuberculomas are focal infections that typically present as ring-enhancing lesions in the brain, often around the brainstem, and can conglomerate. The lipid-lactate peak on MR spectroscopy is indicative of necrosis, which is a feature seen in tuberculomas (and also in conditions like toxoplasmosis). The combination of imaging and spectroscopy findings helps distinguish tuberculomas from other similar conditions.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Neurocysticercosis (NCC): Typically presents with cystic lesions in the brain, which may show ring enhancement but does not characteristically show a lipid-lactate peak on MR spectroscopy.</li><li>• Option A. Neurocysticercosis (NCC):</li><li>• Option C. Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML ): Generally shows non-enhancing, white matter lesions on MRI without a significant lipid-lactate peak on MR spectroscopy.</li><li>• Option C. Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML</li><li>• Option D. Cryptococcomas: These fungal infections might present similarly on imaging but do not typically show a lipid-lactate peak on MR spectroscopy.</li><li>• Option D. Cryptococcomas:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tuberculomas:</li><li>➤ Tuberculomas:</li><li>➤ Tuberculomas- foci of infection and show ring enhancing lesion More common around brainstem Show conglomeration MR spectroscopy shows lipid lactate peak – necrosis (also seen in toxoplasmosis)</li><li>➤ Tuberculomas- foci of infection and show ring enhancing lesion</li><li>➤ More common around brainstem</li><li>➤ Show conglomeration</li><li>➤ MR spectroscopy shows lipid lactate peak – necrosis (also seen in toxoplasmosis)</li><li>➤ No prominent metabolite is seen in NCC/PML/Cryptococcoses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dicoumarol inhibits the action of vitamin K by? (AIIMS 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suicide inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Competitive inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Noncompetitive inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uncompetitive inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Competitive inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011063.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Competitive inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dicoumarol inhibits the action of vitamin K by competitively inhibiting vitamin K reductase, preventing the regeneration of active vitamin K necessary for blood clotting.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not present with maculopapular rash? (AIIMS MAY 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zoster (shingles)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue (during febrile phase)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zoster (shingles)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture33336.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture477.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Zoster (shingles)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zoster (shingles) does not present with a maculopapular rash but rather with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution. In contrast, rubella, dengue during the febrile phase, and measles are classic causes of maculopapular rashes .</li><li>➤ Zoster (shingles)</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ maculopapular rash</li><li>➤ painful, vesicular</li><li>➤ dermatomal</li><li>➤ rubella, dengue</li><li>➤ measles</li><li>➤ maculopapular rashes</li><li>➤ Ref- Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no. 25.27-25.28 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106 Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 4.13</li><li>➤ Ref- Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no. 25.27-25.28</li><li>➤ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 4.13</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The type of fibers present in the fornix are? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Association and commisural fibers", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Association and projection fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Commissural and projection fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Association fibers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Association and commisural fibers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-47.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Association and commisural fibers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fornix contains both association fibers (linking parts of the hippocampus to other regions within the same hemisphere) and commissural fibers (connecting the hippocampi of the two hemispheres).</li><li>➤ Association fibers : These fibers connect different parts of the same hemisphere. Their function is to enable communication between different cortical areas within the same cerebral hemisphere.</li><li>➤ Association fibers</li><li>➤ Commissural fibers : These are axons that connect one cerebral hemisphere to the other. Their primary function is to allow the two hemispheres to communicate with each other. The corpus callosum is the most significant group of commissural fibers, but the fornix also contains commissural fibers. Specifically, fibers from the fornix contribute to the hippocampal commissure, which connects the two hippocampi of the right and left hemispheres.</li><li>➤ Commissural fibers</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are crosslinking fixatives except? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutaraldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Formaldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methanol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osmium tetraoxide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Methanol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/983.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Methanol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Methanol is a dehydrant coagulant fixative and does not function as a crosslinking fixative like glutaraldehyde, formaldehyde, or osmium tetroxide.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following childhood injuries will lead to a fish tail injury? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Distal humerus in children", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Distal radius", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distal fibula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distal femur", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Distal humerus in children", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/42.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/43.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Distal humerus in children</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fish tail deformity is a rare complication of distal humerus fracture in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "DNA methylation is not related to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mismatch repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chromatin Remodeling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Capping", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gene silencing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Capping", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Capping</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DNA methylation is not related to RNA capping, which is an mRNA modification process. Instead, it is involved in processes such as mismatch repair, chromatin remodeling, and gene silencing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is least likely regarding Rh incompatibility in a newborn? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased unconjugated bilirubin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased fecal urobilinogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased urine bilirubin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased stercobilinogen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Increased urine bilirubin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Increased urine bilirubin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Rh incompatibility, increased urine bilirubin is unlikely due to the immaturity of the newborn's liver enzymes needed for bilirubin conjugation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient with a history of bipolar disorder has recently been started on lithium therapy. During a follow-up visit, the healthcare provider wants to educate the patient on the signs of lithium toxicity. Which of the following side effects should the patient be instructed to monitor and report immediately as they may indicate lithium toxicity? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaise and sore throat", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ataxia and Diarrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breathlessness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ataxia and Diarrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ataxia and Diarrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients on lithium therapy should be educated to monitor and immediately report signs of lithium toxicity, such as ataxia and diarrhea, to prevent serious adverse effects.</li><li>➤ Mnemonic</li><li>➤ Mnemonic</li><li>➤ If DAT symptom is present, report to hospital:</li><li>➤ DAT</li><li>➤ D iarrhea A taxia T innitus</li><li>➤ D iarrhea</li><li>➤ D</li><li>➤ A taxia</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ T innitus</li><li>➤ T</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Type IV hypersensitivity is due to: ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cell mediated response", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cell mediated and antibody mediated response", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibody mediated response", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Innate response", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cell mediated response", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cell mediated response</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type IV hypersensitivity is a cell-mediated response primarily involving T cells and other immune cells, leading to delayed-type reactions such as contact dermatitis and drug hypersensitivity.</li><li>➤ Type IV hypersensitivity</li><li>➤ The four types of hypersensitivity are:</li><li>➤ Type I: reaction mediated by IgE antibodies Type II: cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies Type III: reaction mediated by immune complexes Type IV: delayed reaction mediated by cellular response</li><li>➤ Type I: reaction mediated by IgE antibodies</li><li>➤ Type I:</li><li>➤ Type II: cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies</li><li>➤ Type II:</li><li>➤ Type III: reaction mediated by immune complexes</li><li>➤ Type III:</li><li>➤ Type IV: delayed reaction mediated by cellular response</li><li>➤ Type IV:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is not bactericidal? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifapentin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thioacetazone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kanamycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thioacetazone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Thioacetazone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thioacetazone is a bacteriostatic anti-tubercular drug, which means it inhibits bacterial growth rather than killing the bacteria outright. In contrast, isoniazid, rifapentin, and kanamycin are all bactericidal drugs used in the treatment of tuberculosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare professional is reviewing vaccine protocols to update patient information materials. In doing so, she focuses on the type of vaccine used for diphtheria prevention. Which option correctly describes the type of diphtheria vaccine? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polysaccharide vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toxoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Killed vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Live attenuated vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Toxoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-145824.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Toxoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of vaccine -</li><li>➤ Types of vaccine -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sharma, the head of the pediatric department at a renowned medical college in Uttar Pradesh, is conducting a training session for new medical officers. As part of the session, he aims to ensure the officers are well-versed with the national health programs related to child health. He poses the question, \"Under the Rashtriya Bal Swashthya Karyakram (RBSK) initiative, which of these diseases is not covered? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital glaucoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinopathy of prematurity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin A deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Congenital glaucoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/screenshot-2023-10-25-193311.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Congenital glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Targeted diseases:</li><li>➤ Targeted diseases:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The punishment for the death of a patient by spurious drug? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Life imprisonment", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 year", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Life imprisonment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Life imprisonment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, the distribution of spurious drugs that result in death constitutes grievous hurt, warranting severe legal consequences including life imprisonment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "ERCP is least useful in the diagnosis of: (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Recurrent pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unexplained jaundice", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Periampullary mass", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute Pancreatitis without choledocholithiasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acute Pancreatitis without choledocholithiasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Acute Pancreatitis without choledocholithiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ERCP stands for Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography, which is used to visualize the pancreatic or biliary tree using a side-viewing endoscope. ERCP can be therapeutic or diagnostic and is the best modality for examining the distal biliary tree. Indications for ERCP include relieving biliary obstruction due to gallstone disease, biliary drainage, biliary stenting for strictures and leakage, tissue sampling of the biliary or pancreatic ductal system, balloon dilation of the duodenal papilla or ductal strictures, sphincterotomy, and sphincter of Oddi manometry. Therapeutic ERCP is most commonly used to alleviate biliary obstruction due to gallstone disease and benign or malignant biliary strictures. ERCP can be used to diagnose pancreatic divisum, which may present with recurrent pancreatitis.</li><li>➤ ERCP stands for Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography, which is used to visualize the pancreatic or biliary tree using a side-viewing endoscope.</li><li>➤ ERCP can be therapeutic or diagnostic and is the best modality for examining the distal biliary tree.</li><li>➤ Indications for ERCP include relieving biliary obstruction due to gallstone disease, biliary drainage, biliary stenting for strictures and leakage, tissue sampling of the biliary or pancreatic ductal system, balloon dilation of the duodenal papilla or ductal strictures, sphincterotomy, and sphincter of Oddi manometry.</li><li>➤ Therapeutic ERCP is most commonly used to alleviate biliary obstruction due to gallstone disease and benign or malignant biliary strictures.</li><li>➤ ERCP can be used to diagnose pancreatic divisum, which may present with recurrent pancreatitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male presents to the surgeon with a recurrent inguinal hernia. The surgeon decides to perform a hernioplasty, and the patient inquiries about the most appropriate type of mesh to be used. The surgeon wants to ensure that the patient is aware of the various types of meshes that can be used in hernioplasty. Which of the following is the most appropriate mesh for use in hernioplasty? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heavyweight with small pores", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heavyweight mesh with large pores", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lightweight mesh with small pores", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lightweight mesh with large pores", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lightweight mesh with large pores", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lightweight mesh with large pores</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most appropriate mesh to use in hernioplasty is a lightweight mesh with large pores. Lightweight meshes induce a less-pronounced foreign body reaction and decreased inflammatory response, leading to better tissue incorporation, increased prosthesis compliance, and decreased patient discomfort and pain. Meshes with large pores allow for increased soft tissue ingrowth and exhibit less inflammatory infiltrate, connective tissue, and scar bridging. This results in less adhesion, better tissue incorporation, and decreased patient discomfort and pain. “Meshes with thinner strands and larger spaces (pores) between them are preferred because they have better tissue integration, less contracture, less foreign body reaction, more flexibility and improved comfort.” Bailey 28 th Ed. Pg 1063. Meshes used in hernioplasty can be synthetic or biological, with synthetic meshes made from Polypropylene, Polyester, or PTFE.</li><li>➤ The most appropriate mesh to use in hernioplasty is a lightweight mesh with large pores.</li><li>➤ Lightweight meshes induce a less-pronounced foreign body reaction and decreased inflammatory response, leading to better tissue incorporation, increased prosthesis compliance, and decreased patient discomfort and pain.</li><li>➤ Meshes with large pores allow for increased soft tissue ingrowth and exhibit less inflammatory infiltrate, connective tissue, and scar bridging. This results in less adhesion, better tissue incorporation, and decreased patient discomfort and pain.</li><li>➤ “Meshes with thinner strands and larger spaces (pores) between them are preferred because they have better tissue integration, less contracture, less foreign body reaction, more flexibility and improved comfort.” Bailey 28 th Ed. Pg 1063.</li><li>➤ Meshes used in hernioplasty can be synthetic or biological, with synthetic meshes made from Polypropylene, Polyester, or PTFE.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic nephropathy patient is an ideal candidate for renal graft transplant. Which of the following statements is true? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The survival rate of graft is 95% in the first year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The life expectancy is doubled in a diabetic patient with renal transplant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The transplantation is cost effective after the second transplant year", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The treatment of chronic rejection has improved over the last 10 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The transplantation is cost effective after the second transplant year", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The transplantation is cost effective after the second transplant year</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Renal transplantation becomes cost-effective after the second year post-transplant for diabetic nephropathy patients compared to ongoing dialysis. This consideration, coupled with improved quality of life and potential prolongation of life expectancy, makes it a favorable option for suitable candidates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Surgical correction of VSD is performed in an infant. This will help in relieving which of the following features? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Failure to thrive", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arrythmia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heart block", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Failure to thrive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Failure to thrive.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Surgical correction of VSD in infants primarily helps relieve congestive heart failure symptoms, particularly failure to thrive, by normalizing pulmonary blood flow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the case of a child presenting to the OPD with tense bullae over the torso, and a biopsy of the lesion revealing subepidermal blistering and neutrophil infiltration, what is the preferred drug for treatment? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rituximab", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dapsone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclosporine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azathioprine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dapsone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/untitled-13510.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dapsone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The first - line treatment for Linear IgA disease ( Chronic Bullous Disease of Childhood ) is dapsone , due to its efficacy in managing conditions with neutrophilic infiltrates.</li><li>➤ first</li><li>➤ line</li><li>➤ Linear</li><li>➤ IgA</li><li>➤ disease</li><li>➤ Chronic</li><li>➤ Bullous</li><li>➤ Disease</li><li>➤ Childhood</li><li>➤ dapsone</li><li>➤ neutrophilic</li><li>➤ Ref - Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no 989,998</li><li>➤ Ref - Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no 989,998</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female patient was brought to the ER after RTA, her RR is 22/min, BP is 90/60mmHg. On examination, hyper-resonance is heard over the right side of the chest. The chest X-ray performed is given below. What would be the appropriate management in this case? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wide bore needle insertion in the 5th intercostal space (ICS)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wide bore needle insertion in the 5th ICS followed by an intercostal drain in the 5th ICS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspiration of the pleural fluid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No intervention needed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Wide bore needle insertion in the 5th ICS followed by an intercostal drain in the 5th ICS", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-95_9PDkssD.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Wide bore needle insertion in the 5th ICS followed by an intercostal drain in the 5th ICS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tension pneumothorax usually occurs due to trauma, such as a rib fracture, a puncture wound, or chest surgery, but it can also develop spontaneously in patients with underlying lung diseases, such as emphysema or cystic fibrosis. Immediate treatment of tension pneumothorax is essential to prevent respiratory and cardiac arrest. The first step is to perform needle decompression, which involves inserting a large-bore needle into the affected side of the chest to release the trapped air in the triangle of safety. After that, a chest tube is inserted to further drain the air and prevent the reoccurrence of a pneumothorax.</li><li>➤ Tension pneumothorax usually occurs due to trauma, such as a rib fracture, a puncture wound, or chest surgery, but it can also develop spontaneously in patients with underlying lung diseases, such as emphysema or cystic fibrosis.</li><li>➤ Immediate treatment of tension pneumothorax is essential to prevent respiratory and cardiac arrest. The first step is to perform needle decompression, which involves inserting a large-bore needle into the affected side of the chest to release the trapped air in the triangle of safety. After that, a chest tube is inserted to further drain the air and prevent the reoccurrence of a pneumothorax.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Decussation of the superior cerebellar peduncle occurs at which level?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pons", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Midbrain", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diencephalon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medulla", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Midbrain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-49.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Midbrain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The decussation of the superior cerebellar peduncle occurs in the midbrain, at the level of the inferior colliculus.</li><li>• The midbrain has four decussations:</li><li>• At the level of the superior colliculus: Ventral tegmental decussation of the rubrospinal tract Dorsal tegmental decussation of the tectospinal tract</li><li>• At the level of the superior colliculus: Ventral tegmental decussation of the rubrospinal tract Dorsal tegmental decussation of the tectospinal tract</li><li>• At the level of the superior colliculus:</li><li>• Ventral tegmental decussation of the rubrospinal tract Dorsal tegmental decussation of the tectospinal tract</li><li>• Ventral tegmental decussation of the rubrospinal tract</li><li>• Dorsal tegmental decussation of the tectospinal tract</li><li>• At the level of the inferior colliculus: Decussation of superior cerebellar peduncles Decussation of trochlear nerve</li><li>• At the level of the inferior colliculus: Decussation of superior cerebellar peduncles Decussation of trochlear nerve</li><li>• At the level of the inferior colliculus:</li><li>• Decussation of superior cerebellar peduncles Decussation of trochlear nerve</li><li>• Decussation of superior cerebellar peduncles</li><li>• Decussation of trochlear nerve</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pons : The pons is a part of the brainstem located above the medulla and below the midbrain. It contains nuclei that deal with sleep, respiration, bladder control, hearing, taste, eye movement, facial expressions, facial sensation, and posture. While the pons does have connections with the cerebellum (mainly through the middle cerebellar peduncle), the decussation of the superior cerebellar peduncle doesn't happen here.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Pons</li><li>• Option C . Diencephalon : The diencephalon is a region of the forebrain that includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. While the superior cerebellar peduncle does send fibers to the thalamus, the decussation doesn't happen in the diencephalon.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Diencephalon</li><li>• Option D . Medulla : The medulla oblongata, commonly referred to simply as the medulla, is the lower part of the brainstem. It's continuous with the spinal cord and contains many important neural pathways and centers for autonomic functions. The medulla does contain decussations, but they are mainly associated with the pyramidal tracts (motor pathways) and not with the superior cerebellar peduncle.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Medulla</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The midbrain, or mesencephalon, is the uppermost part of the brainstem, lying between the pons and the diencephalon. The superior cerebellar peduncle fibers decussate (cross) in the midbrain to reach the contralateral red nucleus and thalamus. This is why lesions in the cerebellum typically affect the same side of the body: the fibers effectively \"double-cross,\" first decussating in the midbrain and then crossing again at higher levels in the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most sensitive test for Carpal tunnel syndrome is:(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phalen’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Durkan’s test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tinel’s sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cozen test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Durkan’s test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/picture37.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/picture38.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Durkan’s test</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of blunt chest trauma has been intubated and started on mechanical ventilation. Which of the following is not correct about the initial setting? (AIIMS May 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory rate - 12 Breaths/ min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PEEP - 5 cm H2O", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FiO 2 -100%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tidal volume - 12 ml/kg of actual BW", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tidal volume - 12 ml/kg of actual BW", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tidal volume – 12 ml/kg of actual BW</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient started on mechanical ventilation, ideal ventilatory settings include a tidal volume of 4-6 ml/kg of ideal body weight, a respiratory rate of 12-18 breaths/min, an initial FiO2 of 100% titrated down to maintain SpO2 &gt; 95%, and a starting PEEP of 5 cm H2O. Using a tidal volume of 12 ml/kg of actual body weight is incorrect and can lead to lung injury.</li><li>➤ In a patient started on mechanical ventilation, ideal ventilatory settings include a tidal volume of 4-6 ml/kg of ideal body weight, a respiratory rate of 12-18 breaths/min, an initial FiO2 of 100% titrated down to maintain SpO2 &gt; 95%, and a starting PEEP of 5 cm H2O. Using a tidal volume of 12 ml/kg of actual body weight is incorrect and can lead to lung injury.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9th Ed. Pg 2660</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9th Ed. Pg 2660</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A muscle is attached to the area marked in the given image. What is the action of this muscle on the hip joint?(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flexion and medial rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adduction and lateral rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abduction and medial rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extension and lateral rotation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Extension and lateral rotation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture1_N5Waec1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-41.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Extension and lateral rotation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The gluteal tuberosity is indicated by the marked area in the photograph. The gluteus maximus, which is implanted here, produces lateral rotation and extension of the hip joint. Extension involves increasing the angle between the femur and the pelvis, essentially the opposite of flexion. Lateral rotation, refers to turning the anterior aspect of the femur away from the midline.</li><li>• Three-quarters of the gluteus maximus attach to the iliotibial tract, while one-fourth attach to the gluteal tuberosity (marked in image). The inferior gluteal nerve supplies it. At the hip joint, it serves as the primary extensor of the lower limb. Abduction and lateral rotation are additional effects.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Option A . Flexion and medial rotation :</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Flexion and medial rotation</li><li>• Flexion is the movement of bending the joint, resulting in a decrease of the angle between the femur and the pelvis. Medial rotation involves turning the anterior aspect of the femur inwards, toward the midline. The gluteus maximus is not primarily responsible for these actions. Instead, other muscles, such as the iliopsoas and anterior fibers of the gluteus medius and minimus, play roles in hip flexion and medial rotation.</li><li>• Flexion is the movement of bending the joint, resulting in a decrease of the angle between the femur and the pelvis. Medial rotation involves turning the anterior aspect of the femur inwards, toward the midline.</li><li>• The gluteus maximus is not primarily responsible for these actions. Instead, other muscles, such as the iliopsoas and anterior fibers of the gluteus medius and minimus, play roles in hip flexion and medial rotation.</li><li>• Option B. Adduction and lateral rotation :</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Adduction and lateral rotation</li><li>• Adduction involves drawing the limb toward the midline of the body, while lateral rotation refers to turning the anterior aspect of the femur away from the midline. While the gluteus maximus does have fibers that can contribute to lateral rotation, it's not a primary adductor of the hip. Instead, the hip adductors (like adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus) primarily mediate adduction</li><li>• Adduction involves drawing the limb toward the midline of the body, while lateral rotation refers to turning the anterior aspect of the femur away from the midline.</li><li>• While the gluteus maximus does have fibers that can contribute to lateral rotation, it's not a primary adductor of the hip. Instead, the hip adductors (like adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus) primarily mediate adduction</li><li>• Option C. Abduction and medial rotation :</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Abduction and medial rotation</li><li>• Abduction involves moving the limb away from the midline, and as mentioned above, medial rotation involves turning the anterior aspect of the femur inwards. The gluteus maximus is not a primary abductor or medial rotator of the hip. The gluteus medius and minimus are the primary muscles responsible for hip abduction, and various other muscles, including anterior fibers of the gluteus medius and minimus, contribute to medial rotation.</li><li>• Abduction involves moving the limb away from the midline, and as mentioned above, medial rotation involves turning the anterior aspect of the femur inwards.</li><li>• The gluteus maximus is not a primary abductor or medial rotator of the hip. The gluteus medius and minimus are the primary muscles responsible for hip abduction, and various other muscles, including anterior fibers of the gluteus medius and minimus, contribute to medial rotation.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The gluteus maximus is a primary extensor and lateral rotator of the hip joint. When you stand up from a seated position, climb stairs, or rise from a squat, the gluteus maximus is heavily involved in extending the hip.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A TPN bag consists of 100g glucose, 30g amino acids, and 40g lipids. What is the amount of calories delivered? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "840 Kcal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "880 Kcal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "640 Kcal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "680 Kcal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 880 Kcal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 880 Kcal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a method used to deliver nutrients directly into the bloodstream when patients cannot use their gastrointestinal tract. The caloric value of the nutrients provided in the TPN bag can be calculated based on the caloric content of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.</li><li>➤ Caloric Values:</li><li>➤ Caloric Values:</li><li>➤ Carbohydrates (glucose): 4 KCal/g Proteins (amino acids): Approximately 4 KCal/g Fats (lipids): 9 KCal/g</li><li>➤ Carbohydrates (glucose): 4 KCal/g</li><li>➤ Carbohydrates (glucose):</li><li>➤ Proteins (amino acids): Approximately 4 KCal/g</li><li>➤ Proteins (amino acids):</li><li>➤ Fats (lipids): 9 KCal/g</li><li>➤ Fats (lipids):</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient after a roadside trauma presented to the trauma center. He has a severe pain in his left hip and, on examination the hip is exquisitely tender with restricted range of motion. The patient is lying in the posture seen below. Which of the following deformity is seen in the patient? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior dislocation of hip", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior dislocation of hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior dislocation of hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central dislocation of hip", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior dislocation of hip", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/08/io34.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/44.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/45.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/65.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/picture29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/picture30.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/46.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/47.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anterior dislocation of hip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Restricted hip range of motion with FABER deformity of the hip is suggestive of anterior dislocation of the hip.</li><li>➤ Restricted hip range of motion with FABER deformity of the hip is suggestive of anterior dislocation of the hip.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a prodrug? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proguanil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sulindac", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primidone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "5-Fluorouracil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Primidone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-101615.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Primidone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primidone is not a prodrug because it is pharmacologically active in its original form, although it also produces active metabolites. Prodrugs like Proguanil, Sulindac, and 5-Fluorouracil require metabolic activation to exert their therapeutic effects.</li><li>➤ Mnemonic</li><li>➤ Mnemonic</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An old lady fell in the bathroom with an outstretched hand. She was managed conservatively. Later on, she developed the deformity as shown in the figure. Most likely fracture sustained was:(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intra-articular fracture distal end of radius", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extra-articular fracture distal end of radius", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scaphoid fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dislocation of wrist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Extra-articular fracture distal end of radius", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/08/io32.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/82.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/83_ts2QvpP.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/37.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/screenshot-2024-01-10-173334.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/38.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/39_WZsKVZq.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/40.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/41.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Extra-articular fracture distal end of radius</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "50yr old male presenting with diffuse back pain; Cervical spine Xray shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DISH", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klippel-Feil syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sprengel deformity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. DISH", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-134.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-135.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-115243.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. DISH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The age more than 50 yrs. and diffuse flowing ossification with no joint fusion and normal iv-disc space favors a diagnosis of DISH.</li><li>• Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH), also known as Forestier disease, is a common condition characterized by bony proliferation of the spine affecting elderly individuals. On imaging, it is typically characterized by the flowing ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament involving the thoracic spine.</li><li>• There is no involvement of the sacroiliac synovial joints.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ankylosing spondylitis: This condition would typically present with a \"bamboo spine\" appearance, resulting from fusion across the intervertebral disc spaces and sacroiliac joints, which is not evident in this X-ray.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Ankylosing spondylitis: This</li><li>• Option C. Klippel-Feil syndrome: This syndrome involves congenital fusion of any two of the cervical vertebrae, which does not match the findings in this X-ray.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Klippel-Feil syndrome:</li><li>• Option D. Sprengel deformity: This refers to an abnormally high scapula, a condition unrelated to the spinal changes observed in the X-ray.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Sprengel deformity:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DISH or Forestier's disease is recognized radiologically by its classic flowing ossification along the spine's anterior longitudinal ligament, sparing joint spaces and disc heights, often seen in individuals older than 50 years without signs of sacroiliac joint involvement.</li><li>➤ DISH VS Ankylosing spondylitis</li><li>➤ DISH VS Ankylosing spondylitis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The enzyme that is common for both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyruvate kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphofructokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphoglycerate kinase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Phosphoglycerate kinase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011067_NEQDitq.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Phosphoglycerate kinase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phosphoglycerate kinase is a common enzyme in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis, catalyzing a reversible reaction that interconverts 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and 3-phosphoglycerate.</li><li>➤ Other reversible steps of glycolysis are catalyzed by the following enzymes:</li><li>➤ Other reversible steps of glycolysis are catalyzed by the following enzymes:</li><li>➤ Phosphoglycerate mutase Glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase Triose phosphate isomerase Aldolase Phosphohexose isomerase</li><li>➤ Phosphoglycerate mutase</li><li>➤ Glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ Triose phosphate isomerase</li><li>➤ Aldolase</li><li>➤ Phosphohexose isomerase</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old female underwent hip replacement. After 1 year, she developed fever and pain in the joint. Radiograph revealed loosening of prosthesis. The implant had to be removed. The histological image of the tissue adjoining the implant is shown below. What is the diagnosis?(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metallosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ochronosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rosai Dorfmann syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metallosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_101.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metallosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The image in the question shows extracellular metal deposits (black deposits) surrounded by inflammatory cells, suggestive of metallosis. It is associated with metal-on-metal prosthetic devices.</li><li>➤ The image in the question shows extracellular metal deposits (black deposits) surrounded by inflammatory cells, suggestive of metallosis.</li><li>➤ It is associated with metal-on-metal prosthetic devices.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A senior ENT specialist at the hospital is conducting the clinical examination depicted in the provided image. Which of the subsequent anatomical structures will not be visible to him? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arytenoids", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Torus tubarius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Upper surface of soft palate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arytenoids", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/15_AnVZpUE.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arytenoids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The arytenoids are viewed using indirect laryngoscopy, not posterior rhinoscopy, due to their location in the larynx. Posterior rhinoscopy provides visualization of the nasopharyngeal region, aiding in the assessment of structures like adenoids, torus tubarius, and the upper surface of the soft palate, important for diagnosing various nasopharyngeal conditions.</li><li>➤ The arytenoids are viewed using indirect laryngoscopy, not posterior rhinoscopy, due to their location in the larynx. Posterior rhinoscopy provides visualization of the nasopharyngeal region, aiding in the assessment of structures like adenoids, torus tubarius, and the upper surface of the soft palate, important for diagnosing various nasopharyngeal conditions.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Structures seen on indirect laryngoscopy</li><li>➤ Structures seen on indirect laryngoscopy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who underwent a renal transplant 3 months ago comes with complaints of diarrhea for the last 9 days. The stool sample was subject to Kinyoun stain revealing 4-6m structures shown below. Which of the following is true about the organism? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pathogen does not show autoinfection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptosporidium parvum is the most common organism implicated worldwide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oocysts are immediately infective after being excreted in stool", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is an obligate intracellular organism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oocysts are immediately infective after being excreted in stool", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-257.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-258.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_52.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-182610.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Oocysts are immediately infective after being excreted in stool</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cryptosporidium oocysts are immediately infective after being excreted in the stool, and the infection can cause severe diarrhea, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. The oocysts are identifiable by their acid-fast property in modified Ziehl-Neelsen stains.</li><li>➤ Cryptosporidium oocysts</li><li>➤ Comparative features of coccidian parasites:</li><li>➤ Comparative features of coccidian parasites:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old accountant underwent parotidectomy following which she developed lower lip paralysis. This probably occurred because of an injury to which of the following structures? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Temporal branch of facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical branch of facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parotid duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mandibular branch of facial nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mandibular branch of facial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mandibular branch of facial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lower lip paralysis is a result of an injury to the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve. During parotidectomy, the facial nerve may be at risk of injury since it passes through the parotid gland. The branches of the facial nerve include the temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical branches.</li><li>➤ Lower lip paralysis is a result of an injury to the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve.</li><li>➤ During parotidectomy, the facial nerve may be at risk of injury since it passes through the parotid gland.</li><li>➤ The branches of the facial nerve include the temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical branches.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Please identify the retractor depicted in the image below:( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Joll's retractor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perkins retractor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mollison's mastoid retractor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Langenbeck retractor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mollison's mastoid retractor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture29.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture30.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture32.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mollison's mastoid retractor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mollison's Mastoid retractor is specifically tailored for ear surgeries, particularly mastoidectomy, where precise and sustained retraction of soft tissues is crucial. Understanding the specific applications and features of various retractors enhances surgical efficiency and safety.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the grip shown in the image below: (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pawlik's grip", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral grip", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pelvic grip", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fundal grip", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lateral grip", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/inicet-obg-may-2020-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/whatsapp-image-2023-10-02-at-122945.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lateral grip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Lateral grip (Second Leopold's maneuver) is used to assess the position of the fetal back and limbs by palpating the sides of the maternal abdomen.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 89, DC Ditta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 89, DC Ditta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman in labour presented to the ER. A vaginal breech delivery was planned for her. What statement regarding the management is false? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Breech identified for the first-time during delivery is a contraindication for normal delivery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breech delivery is done in a hospital where a facility for emergency CS is available", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continuous FHR monitoring is required for breech delivery during labor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Should be done by a skilled obstetrician", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Breech identified for the first-time during delivery is a contraindication for normal delivery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Breech identified for the first-time during delivery is a contraindication for normal delivery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The statement that breech presentation identified for the first time during delivery is a contraindication for normal delivery is false.</li><li>• Breech identified for the first-time during delivery is not automatically a contraindication for a vaginal breech delivery. It is crucial to assess the situation carefully, considering the skill of the obstetrician and the facilities available, but it does not universally rule out the possibility of a vaginal breech delivery.</li><li>• Breech identified for the first-time during delivery</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Breech delivery is done in a hospital where a facility for emergency CS is available : This is correct because the presence of a facility for emergency cesarean section is essential for managing unexpected complications during a breech delivery.</li><li>• Option B. Breech delivery is done in a hospital where a facility for emergency CS is available</li><li>• Option C. Continuous FHR monitoring is required for breech delivery during labor : This is correct because continuous fetal heart rate monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress during a breech delivery.</li><li>• Option C. Continuous FHR monitoring is required for breech delivery during labor</li><li>• Option D. Should be done by a skilled obstetrician : This is correct as vaginal breech deliveries should be performed by an experienced and skilled obstetrician to manage the potential risks and complications effectively.</li><li>• Option D. Should be done by a skilled obstetrician</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breech presentation identified for the first-time during delivery is not an automatic contraindication for vaginal delivery, provided other criteria are met and facilities are available.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 449, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 449, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about celiac disease? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Most common cause of malnutrition in developing countries", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Can be diagnosed with CECT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Improves with food rich in carbohydrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased risk of GI lymphoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increased risk of GI lymphoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/976.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increased risk of GI lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac disease is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal lymphoma, specifically enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma, making it a critical long-term concern for individuals with this condition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1518-1519</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1518-1519</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with left-sided head tilt which on straightening leads to right hypotropia. This increases on extroversion and right head tilt. Paralysis of which of the following muscles is involved? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right superior oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right superior rectus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right inferior oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left inferior oblique", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Right superior rectus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Right superior rectus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The three-step test is a vital diagnostic tool in strabismus evaluations to identify which extraocular muscle is paretic based on the changes in eye position with head tilt and gaze direction. In this scenario, the findings align with a right superior rectus muscle palsy, consistent with its role in elevating the right eye especially during right gaze and head tilt to the right.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the true statement regarding retroperitoneal trauma? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All zone 1 injury to be treated conservatively", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zone 3 injury whether blunt or penetrative should always be explored", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zone 2 injury with expanding hematoma should be treated surgically", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mattox maneuver is when the ascending colon is mobilized to the right to visualise the Aorta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Zone 2 injury with expanding hematoma should be treated surgically", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Zone 2 injury with expanding hematoma should be treated surgically</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male patient comes to the psychiatry OPD with complaints of repetitive thoughts that, he always feels his hands are dirty, though they are not. This gives him discomfort and hence he has to wash them again and again. This is a disorder of thought:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Form", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Possession", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Content", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Possession", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Possession</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obsessions, as seen in obsessive-compulsive disorder, are considered disturbances of thought possession because while the individual recognizes the thoughts as their own, they feel as though they can't control them.</li><li>➤ they can't control them.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Fish’s Clinical Psychopathology, 4th edition, Page No 46.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman who had undergone total knee replacement surgery comes with complaints of knee pain with the loosening of implants. The following histopathological slide was obtained which showed foreign body giant cells along with the appearance highlighted in the image below. What is your diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ochronisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metallosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rosai Dorfman disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metallosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/979.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metallosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metallosis is a rare complication of joint replacement surgeries, characterized by the release of metallic debris from implants, leading to a foreign body reaction with the formation of foreign body giant cells and potential loosening of the implant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The serum electrolyte values of a patient weighing 60 kg are given below. Calculate the sodium deficit in the patient. pH: 7.42, Na+: 120 mEq/L, serum K+: 4 mEq/L, serum CI-: 90 mEq/L? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20 mEq", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "400 mEq", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "200 mEq", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "720 mEq", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 720 mEq", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sodium deficit -</li><li>➤ Sodium deficit -</li><li>➤ Rate of Correction : It's critical to correct chronic hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications like osmotic demyelination syndrome. The recommended rate of correction should not exceed 6-8 mEq/L per day.</li><li>➤ Rate of Correction</li><li>➤ Monitoring : Frequent monitoring of serum sodium levels is necessary during the correction phase to adjust the treatment as needed and prevent overcorrection.</li><li>➤ Monitoring</li><li>➤ Ref: Harrison 21/Fluid and electrolyte/Chap 53</li><li>➤ Ref: Harrison 21/Fluid and electrolyte/Chap 53</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a symptom of severe dehydration? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drowsy child", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Skin pinch retracts slowly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thirsty child", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sunken fontanelle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thirsty child", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thirsty child.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A thirsty child indicates some dehydration, whereas signs like drowsiness, slow skin pinch retraction, and a sunken fontanelle are indicative of severe dehydration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The life cycle of an organism is given below. Identify the vector involved? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hard tick", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Soft tick", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trombiculid mite", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Louse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Trombiculid mite", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-25.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Trombiculid mite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The trombiculid mite , particularly its larval stage (chigger), is the vector for scrub typhus, transmitting Orientia tsutsugamushi to humans and rodents through its bite, which leaves a characteristic black eschar.</li><li>➤ trombiculid mite</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following criteria is used for diagnosing abdominal pregnancy? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spiegelberg criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubin criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Studdiford criteria", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ring of fire", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Studdiford criteria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Studdiford criteria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Studdiford Criteria are used to diagnose primary abdominal pregnancy. This criterion involves:</li><li>➤ Studdiford Criteria</li><li>➤ Ensuring that both fallopian tubes and ovaries are normal with no signs of injury. Confirming that no utero-peritoneal fistula is present. Verifying that the placenta is attached exclusively to the peritoneal surface.</li><li>➤ Ensuring that both fallopian tubes and ovaries are normal with no signs of injury.</li><li>➤ Confirming that no utero-peritoneal fistula is present.</li><li>➤ Verifying that the placenta is attached exclusively to the peritoneal surface.</li><li>➤ These criteria help distinguish primary abdominal pregnancy from other types of ectopic pregnancies.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 219, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 219, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A known alcoholic patient is brought to the emergency in a disoriented state. He complains of seeing snakes and insects crawling on his skin. Which of the following should be given to this patient? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haloperidol + thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lorazepam only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lorazepam + thiamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haloperidol only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lorazepam + thiamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lorazepam + thiamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient is displaying signs of alcohol withdrawal, particularly delirium tremens (DTs) which is characterized by confusion, visual and tactile hallucinations (like seeing snakes and feeling bugs crawling on the skin), tremors, and autonomic hyperactivity.</li><li>• Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and is the treatment of choice for alcohol withdrawal, including DTs. Thiamine is essential to administer before or alongside glucose administration to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy in alcohol-dependent individuals. Haloperidol may be used to control severe agitation or hallucinations but is not a first-line therapy for DTs and could lower the seizure threshold.</li><li>• Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and is the treatment of choice for alcohol withdrawal, including DTs.</li><li>• Thiamine is essential to administer before or alongside glucose administration to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy in alcohol-dependent individuals.</li><li>• Haloperidol may be used to control severe agitation or hallucinations but is not a first-line therapy for DTs and could lower the seizure threshold.</li><li>• Haloperidol may be used to control severe agitation or hallucinations but is not a first-line therapy for DTs and could lower the seizure threshold.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) typically presents 48-72 hours after the last drink and is characterized by disturbances of consciousness, disorientation to time, place, and person, hallucinations (especially visual), agitation, coarse tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. Risk factors include surgery, infections or other medical conditions. It is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Treatment includes intravenous lorazepam or diazepam with thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 631-632.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old lady presented to the casualty with Hb - 5.4 g/dL, urea-86 mg/dL, creatinine- 6 mg/dL, calcium - 12 mg/dL, potassium - 4.4 mEq/L. Bone marrow aspiration shows &gt; 60% of plasma cells. What is the next line of management? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urgent consultation for dialysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dexamethasone + fluids", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dexamethasone + lenalidomide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone marrow transplantation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dexamethasone + fluids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dexamethasone + Fluids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediate management of a newly diagnosed multiple myeloma patient presenting with anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia should prioritize rapid medical intervention to stabilize the patient. This includes hydration and the use of steroids to reduce plasma cell proliferation and calcium levels. Subsequent treatments will be based on the patient’s response and overall treatment strategy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/Plasma cell dyscrasia/Chap 111</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false about corneal epithelium? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Regeneration is limited to the limbus.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bowman's membrane regenerates.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lined by stratified squamous epithelium.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Apical cells have microvilli.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bowman's membrane regenerates.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture95.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bowman's membrane regenerates.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ammonia in the brain is detoxified to form? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glutamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ammonium ions", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alanine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glutamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011064.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glutamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the brain, ammonia is detoxified by converting it to glutamine, which is then transported to the liver for further detoxification into urea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was taking metoprolol for hypertension but blood pressure was not controlled. Verapamil was added to the regimen. Which of the following adverse effect is likely to be present with combination? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bradycardia with AV block", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Torsades’ de pointes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bradycardia with AV block", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Bradycardia with AV block</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of metoprolol and verapamil can lead to significant bradycardia and AV block due to their additive effects on slowing heart rate and AV nodal conduction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following conditions are related to the same core pathology except? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parkinson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alzheimer’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lewy body dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multisystem atrophy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alzheimer’s disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alzheimer’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the accumulation of β-amyloid and tau proteins, differentiating it from alpha-synucleinopathies like Parkinson's disease, Lewy body dementia, and multisystem atrophy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are the contents of the carotid sheath except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sympathetic chain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carotid artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal jugular vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "9th cranial nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sympathetic chain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-51.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Sympathetic chain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The carotid sheath's content is not the sympathetic chain. It is located in the neck, behind the carotid sheath and in front of the transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae.</li><li>• The carotid sheath is a layer of loose connective tissue formed by adjacent portions of the investing layer of deep cervical fascia, the pretracheal fascia, and the prevertebral fascia.</li><li>• Contents of carotid sheath:</li><li>• Contents of carotid sheath:</li><li>• Common and internal carotid arteries Internal jugular vein Vagus nerve Ansa cervicalis</li><li>• Common and internal carotid arteries</li><li>• Internal jugular vein</li><li>• Vagus nerve</li><li>• Ansa cervicalis</li><li>• Note: The glossopharyngeal, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves are located in the carotid sheath's upper portion.</li><li>• Note:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B . Carotid artery : The common carotid artery and its internal branch (the internal carotid artery) are primary contents of the carotid sheath. In the neck, the common carotid bifurcates into the internal and external carotid arteries. Only the internal carotid artery continues to ascend within the carotid sheath.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Carotid artery</li><li>• Option C . Internal jugular vein : The internal jugular vein is a major vein in the neck that drains the brain, face, and much of the neck. It runs in close proximity to the internal and common carotid arteries and is another primary content of the carotid sheath.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Internal jugular vein</li><li>• Option D . 9th cranial nerve : The 9th cranial nerve, also known as the glossopharyngeal nerve, is involved in the sensory and motor functions of the tongue and pharynx. It descends from the skull base through the jugular foramen and is present in the carotid sheath. It's more lateral and posteriorly positioned in the sheath relative to the carotid artery and the internal jugular vein.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• 9th cranial nerve</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sympathetic chain (sympathetic trunk) is a bilateral series of ganglia that run vertically alongside the vertebral column. It is involved in the autonomic sympathetic innervation of the body. Importantly, the sympathetic chain itself is not contained within the carotid sheath. However, sympathetic fibers that come from the chain (e.g., the carotid plexus) do accompany structures within the sheath, especially the internal and common carotid arteries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glucose is stored in the form of glycogen because? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is compact", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It has multiple reducing ends", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It can be stored at multiple organs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It can provide glucose for about 1 week when needed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is compact", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is compact</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycogen is stored in a compact form, allowing efficient storage of large amounts of glucose in liver and muscle cells, enabling rapid mobilization of glucose when needed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male presents with long standing history of back pain for 20 years and chest tightness. Lateral radiograph of the cervical spine is shown. What is the diagnosis?(AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DISH", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klippel Feil syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sprengel deformity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. DISH", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/54.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/55.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/picture7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/55_HWaf72g.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/103.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/104.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) DISH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given x-ray image shows DISH i.e., diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis, which is the non-inflammatory disease, with calcification and ossification of spinal ligaments and the enthuses, mainly at the thoracic spine.</li><li>➤ The given x-ray image shows DISH i.e., diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis, which is the non-inflammatory disease, with calcification and ossification of spinal ligaments and the enthuses, mainly at the thoracic spine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is true about the Hayflick limit? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human cells can divide a finite number of times only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Free radical oxidation level is unrestricted", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Telomerase activity is unrestricted", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RNA polymerase can function for a finite number of times only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Human cells can divide a finite number of times only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Human cells can divide a finite number of times only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hayflick limit describes the finite number of times that normal human cells can divide before they become senescent, primarily due to telomere shortening.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glycopyrrolate is used as a preanesthetic agent for? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reducing the secretions", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sedative effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skeletal muscle relaxant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anxiolytic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Reducing the secretions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Reducing the secretions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycopyrrolate is primarily used as a preanesthetic agent to reduce secretions, thus preventing complications during anesthesia and surgery.</li><li>➤ Glycopyrrolate is primarily used as a preanesthetic agent to reduce secretions, thus preventing complications during anesthesia and surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Least frequency of slow waves is seen in? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ileum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jejunum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stomach", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Stomach", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Stomach</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The stomach has the least frequency of slow waves among the given options, with approximately 3 waves per minute. Slow waves determine the rhythmic contractions of the gastrointestinal tract and vary in frequency throughout different regions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Macula densa is formed by which part of the nephron? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DCT", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Afferent arteriole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bowman's capsule", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. DCT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-113846.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) DCT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The macula densa, formed by cells of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT), is crucial for sensing sodium chloride concentration in the tubular fluid and regulating glomerular filtration rate (GFR) through the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As filtrate flows through PCT, the concentration of all of the following decreases except: ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amino acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloride", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bicarbonate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chloride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chloride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ As filtrate flows through the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), the concentration of chloride increases relative to other substances, which are more extensively reabsorbed. This includes glucose and amino acids, which are almost completely reabsorbed, and bicarbonate, which is substantially reabsorbed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ) in a patient with 50kg body weight, if the CO 2 exhaled is 200ml/min and 0 2 consumed is 250 ml/min? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.8", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.25", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1.5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 0.8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The respiratory quotient (RQ) is used for determining the metabolic utilization of various foods.</li><li>➤ RQ of carbohydrates is 1 RQ of fats is 0.70. RQ of proteins is 0.80.</li><li>➤ RQ of carbohydrates is 1</li><li>➤ RQ of fats is 0.70.</li><li>➤ RQ of proteins is 0.80.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following types of amino acids are present in the trans-membranous part of the membrane receptor? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amphipathic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrophobic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrophilic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydrophobic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-115348.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hydrophobic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The transmembrane regions of membrane receptors are composed of hydrophobic amino acids, allowing them to stably integrate into the hydrophobic core of the lipid bilayer.</li><li>➤ Examples of integral protein:</li><li>➤ Cell adhesion proteins Cell junction proteins Some carrier (transport) proteins Channel proteins Some hormone receptors Antigens Some enzymes.</li><li>➤ Cell adhesion proteins</li><li>➤ Cell junction proteins</li><li>➤ Some carrier (transport) proteins</li><li>➤ Channel proteins</li><li>➤ Some hormone receptors</li><li>➤ Antigens</li><li>➤ Some enzymes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parathyroid adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lithium intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic kidney disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Parathyroid adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Parathyroid adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parathyroid adenoma causes primary hyperparathyroidism, whereas secondary hyperparathyroidism is due to external stimuli such as chronic kidney disease, vitamin D deficiency, or lithium intake.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following events occur immediately when a person changes his/her posture from supine to standing? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease in firing from baroreceptor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vagal output to cardiac fibres increase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mesenteric Vasoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase cardiac contractility", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decrease in firing from baroreceptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-120159.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Decrease in firing from baroreceptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The immediate response when a person changes posture from supine to standing is a decrease in baroreceptor firing due to a reduction in mean arterial pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about skeletal muscle contraction? ( INICET May 2020) Extracellular Ca 2+ is important for contraction Ca 2+ is released from mitochondria Ca 2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ligand-gated Ca 2+ channels on sarcolemma have no role in EC coupling", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-120629.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-120738.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 3 only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During skeletal muscle contraction, Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is essential for muscle contraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding mechanisms of depolarization, Repolarization, and hyperpolarization in a skeletal muscle action potential?( INICET May 2020) Depolarization due to influx of Na+ through voltage-gated channels Depolarization due to influx of Na+ through ligand-gated channels Repolarization due to efflux of K+ through a voltage-gated channel Repolarization due to efflux of K+ through a ligand-gated channel Hyperpolarization due to efflux of K+", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 and 4 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3 and 5 are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4 and 5 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4 and 5 are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 3 and 5 are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 3 and 5 are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In skeletal muscle action potential, depolarization occurs due to the influx of Na+ through voltage-gated channels, repolarization occurs due to the efflux of K+ through voltage-gated channels, and hyperpolarization is caused by the prolonged efflux of K+.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the sequence of evets occurring after p wave in ECG? ( INICET May 2020) a wave in JVP First heart sound Rapid filling of ventricles T wave in ECG", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-2-3-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-2-4-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3-1-2-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-3-2-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-2-4-3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-121718.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-121835.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-2-4-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ The sequence of events following the P wave in an ECG is: a wave in JVP, first heart sound, T wave, and then rapid filling of ventricles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Specimen handling for molecular testing of SARS CoV-2 would require? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BSL1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BSL2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "BSL3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BSL4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. BSL2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-32.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) BSL2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ SARS CoV 2 requires BSL-2 or equivalent facilities .</li><li>➤ SARS CoV 2 requires BSL-2 or equivalent facilities</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following method is employed to measure the viral load? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Western blot", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Real time PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immunoelectrophoresis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Real time PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Real time PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Real-time PCR measure viral load Western blotting – detects protein. ELISA - detect antigens of infectious agents Immuno electrophoresis – separates antigen following antigen antibody reaction</li><li>➤ Real-time PCR measure viral load</li><li>➤ Western blotting – detects protein.</li><li>➤ ELISA - detect antigens of infectious agents</li><li>➤ Immuno electrophoresis – separates antigen following antigen antibody reaction</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following is true regarding scrub typhus except: ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transmitted by chiggers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphadenopathy is a feature", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Produces NLF producing colonies in MacConkey agar", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Man is an accidental host", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Produces NLF producing colonies in MacConkey agar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Produces NLF producing colonies in MacConkey agar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orientia tsutsugamushi, the causative agent of scrub typhus, is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot grow on cell-free media like MacConkey agar. It requires living cells for its cultivation. Scrub typhus is transmitted by chiggers and features symptoms such as fever, lymphadenopathy, and a characteristic eschar at the site of the bite. Humans are accidental hosts for this infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "False about the Ebola virus is: ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a filovirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transmitted by mosquito", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bats acts as reservoir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nosocomial transmission seen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Transmitted by mosquito", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Transmitted by mosquito</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ The Ebola virus is a filovirus transmitted through direct contact with the bodily fluids of infected individuals or animals, not by mosquitoes. Fruit bats are the most likely natural reservoir, and nosocomial transmission is a known route of spread.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condenser? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-33.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-171743.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male presents to the STD clinic with painful lesions as shown in the image. What is the most likely microscopic finding of the lesion? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tzanck cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pund cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Henderson-Patterson bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guarnieri bodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tzanck cells", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-262.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-263.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-264.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tzanck cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The presence of Tzanck cells, which are multinucleated giant cells, is indicative of herpes simplex virus infection. This is the most likely microscopic finding in a patient with painful genital lesions consistent with genital herpes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In case of meniscal tear, in which of the following zones the healing is best seen? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red zone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red white zone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "White zone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "White gray zone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Red zone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/48.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Red zone</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ring sequestrum is associated with which of the following? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radiation exposure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salmonella infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TB infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "External pin fixator", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. External pin fixator", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/49.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/screenshot-2024-01-11-100138.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) External pin fixator</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ring sequestrum is most commonly caused due to external pin fixators, mainly Steinmann pins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Indications for surgery (including biopsy) in a patient with Potts spine are all except: ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drug resistant TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cold abscess without neurological involvement", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Evolving cauda equina", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doubtful diagnosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cold abscess without neurological involvement", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/screenshot-2024-01-11-102222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/50.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/51.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/screenshot-2024-01-11-102436.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/screenshot-2024-01-11-102538.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/52.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/screenshot-2024-01-11-103114.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/11/53.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cold abscess without neurological involvement</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Presence of cold abscess without any neurological involvement is not an indication for biopsy or surgical treatment of Pott’s spine. Neurological involvement which is deteriorating with time is an important indication for surgical intervention.</li><li>➤ Presence of cold abscess without any neurological involvement is not an indication for biopsy or surgical treatment of Pott’s spine.</li><li>➤ Neurological involvement which is deteriorating with time is an important indication for surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old woman presented with burns injury. She is covered with burns on her head and neck, both upper limbs, front and back of the chest. Calculate the percentage of burns? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "27%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "36%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "45%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "18%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 45%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-90_poZazyg.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 45%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The percentage of burns calculated in the given patient is 45% according to Wallace's rule of nine.</li><li>➤ Calculation:</li><li>➤ Calculation:</li><li>➤ Burns on the head &amp; neck would account for 9% of burns. Burns on both upper limbs (9% for each limb) would add to 18% Burns on both sides of the chest would account for 18%</li><li>➤ Burns on the head &amp; neck would account for 9% of burns.</li><li>➤ Burns on both upper limbs (9% for each limb) would add to 18%</li><li>➤ Burns on both sides of the chest would account for 18%</li><li>➤ Therefore, the total percentage of burns in the given patient is 9+18+18 = 45%</li><li>➤ Wallace's rule of nine:</li><li>➤ Wallace's rule of nine:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The acronym FAST refers to: (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First assessment with sonography in trauma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focussed assessment with sonography in trauma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "First abdominal sonography in trauma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Focussed abdominal sonography in trauma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Focussed assessment with sonography in trauma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Focused assessment with sonography in trauma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FAST stands for Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma and is a non-invasive , rapid bedside test that uses sonography to detect free fluid in the abdomen. It is used to evaluate patients for potential thoracoabdominal injuries and can be performed within 2-4 minutes . The subxiphoid transverse view is used to assess for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries. The longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant is used to assess for right liver injuries, right kidney injury, and Morison pouch. The longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury. The transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are used to assess the bladder and pouch of Douglas. eFAST is an extended version of FAST that incorporates left and right thoracic views to assess for pneumothorax and hemothorax.</li><li>➤ FAST stands for Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma and is a non-invasive , rapid bedside test that uses sonography to detect free fluid in the abdomen.</li><li>➤ Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma and is a non-invasive</li><li>➤ It is used to evaluate patients for potential thoracoabdominal injuries and can be performed within 2-4 minutes .</li><li>➤ thoracoabdominal injuries</li><li>➤ 2-4 minutes</li><li>➤ The subxiphoid transverse view is used to assess for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries.</li><li>➤ The longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant is used to assess for right liver injuries, right kidney injury, and Morison pouch.</li><li>➤ The longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury.</li><li>➤ The transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are used to assess the bladder and pouch of Douglas.</li><li>➤ eFAST is an extended version of FAST that incorporates left and right thoracic views to assess for pneumothorax and hemothorax.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient comes with repeated infections of trichomonas vaginitis; her physician advises for a Pap smear. She asks you regarding the purpose of this test. What would be your appropriate response? (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a screening test for cervical cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is a diagnostic test for trichomonas infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It helps to diagnose cancer in her genital tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It helps to diagnose other associated genital infections in her", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is a screening test for cervical cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is a screening test for cervical cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer. A cervical smear is prepared using the pap test which is sent for cytological examination The presence of malignant cells on Pap smear requires further evaluation with colposcopy, cervical biopsy, fractional curettage, etc.</li><li>• Pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer.</li><li>• A cervical smear is prepared using the pap test which is sent for cytological examination</li><li>• The presence of malignant cells on Pap smear requires further evaluation with colposcopy, cervical biopsy, fractional curettage, etc.</li><li>• Prerequisites:</li><li>• Prerequisites:</li><li>• It should be done prior to vaginal examination Lubricants should not be used The patient should not be menstruating during the pap test The ideal time is around ovulation The patient should not have intercourse 24hrs prior to the test</li><li>• It should be done prior to vaginal examination</li><li>• Lubricants should not be used</li><li>• The patient should not be menstruating during the pap test</li><li>• The ideal time is around ovulation</li><li>• The patient should not have intercourse 24hrs prior to the test</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. It is a diagnostic test for trichomonas vaginalis : Trichomonas vaginalis is diagnosed by seeing the flagellated organism (T. vaginalis) on a vaginal smear</li><li>• Option B. It is a diagnostic test for trichomonas vaginalis</li><li>• Option C. It helps to diagnose cervical cancer in her genital tract : A pap smear is specifically for cervical cancer screening and also for recurrence from the vaginal vault following hysterectomy for CIN/ cervical cancer.</li><li>• Option C. It helps to diagnose cervical cancer in her genital tract</li><li>• Option D. It helps to diagnose other associated genital infections in her: A pap smear can detect associated genital infections especially cervical infections but is not routinely used for this purpose</li><li>• Option D. It helps to diagnose other associated genital infections in her:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer, used to identify abnormal cells in the cervix.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 113, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 113, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Modified Robson's classification class 1 includes: (INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nulliparous, singleton, cephalic, induced labour", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nulliparous, singleton, cephalic, spontaneous labour", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiparous without previous CS, spontaneous labour", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiparous without previous CS, induced/CS before labour", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nulliparous, singleton, cephalic, spontaneous labour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-227.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Nulliparous, singleton, cephalic, spontaneous labour</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Class 1 of the Modified Robson's classification includes nulliparous women with a singleton cephalic fetus who are ≥37 weeks and are in spontaneous labor.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/259512/9789241513197-eng.pdf?sequence=1</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/259512/9789241513197-eng.pdf?sequence=1</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following increases in COPD? ( INICET May 2020) FRC TLC VC FEV1/FVC", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-122304.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 and 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In COPD, both functional residual capacity (FRC) and total lung capacity (TLC) increase due to air trapping and lung hyperinflation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "This is the graph depicting the filterability of dextran through the kidney, 1 representing complete filtration and 0 representing no filtration. Choose the substance A, B, C respectively? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polycationic, Neutral, polyanionic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polyanionic, neutral, polycationic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neutral, polycationic, polyanionic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polyanionic, Polycationic, Neutral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Polycationic, Neutral, polyanionic", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-122519.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Polycationic, Neutral, polyanionic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The filterability of substances through the kidney glomerular filtration barrier depends on their charge and size. Polycationic substances (positively charged) filter most readily, neutral substances have intermediate filterability, and polyanionic substances (negatively charged) have the least filterability due to repulsion by the negatively charged barrier.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Many drugs are given as enteric coated tablets. All of the following are the advantages of enteric coating of drugs EXCEPT? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protects the acid labile drug from gastric acidity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Protects the gastric mucosa from irritant effects of certain drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prolongs the half-life of the drug", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delivers drugs distal to stomach", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prolongs the half-life of the drug", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Prolongs the half-life of the drug</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enteric coating is primarily used to protect acid-labile drugs from gastric acidity, protect the gastric mucosa from irritant effects, and ensure drug delivery distal to the stomach. It does not prolong the half-life of the drug.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Muscarinic receptor stimulation primarily causes which of the following actions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Erection", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ejaculation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dilation of bronchus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased cardiac contractility", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Erection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-100906.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Erection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Muscarinic receptor stimulation is associated with parasympathetic responses such as erection, while sympathetic stimulation is responsible for ejaculation, bronchodilation, and increased cardiac contractility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rosuvastatin should not be combined with which of the following drugs? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxycodone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clarithromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adalimumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rivoraxaban", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Clarithromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Clarithromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drugs increasing the risk of statin induced myopathy are:</li><li>➤ Amiodarone Gemfibrozil HIV protease inhibitors like saquinavir, ritonavir etc. Clarithromycin Itraconazole</li><li>➤ Amiodarone</li><li>➤ Gemfibrozil</li><li>➤ HIV protease inhibitors like saquinavir, ritonavir etc.</li><li>➤ Clarithromycin</li><li>➤ Itraconazole</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the antidote for fibrinolytic therapy? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protamine sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dalteparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alteptase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid is the antidote for fibrinolytic therapy, used to counteract excessive bleeding due to fibrinolysis. It works by inhibiting plasminogen activators and stabilizing clots.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is least likely to be useful in a patient with severe COVID-19?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low molecular weight heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxygen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Favipiravir", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Steroids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Favipiravir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Favipiravir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Favipiravir is least likely to be useful in a patient with severe COVID-19 compared to low molecular weight heparin, oxygen, and steroids, which have well-established roles in managing severe cases of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If Codeine is coming to the market in combination with dextromethorphan as an anti-tussive, this combination? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Should not be used due to risk of addiction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Can be used as both have different mechanism of action", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Should not be used as it is irrational", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Can be used to treat cough effectively", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Should not be used as it is irrational", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Should not be used as it is irrational</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Combining codeine with dextromethorphan as an anti-tussive is irrational due to their overlapping mechanisms of action and the increased risk of side effects without additional therapeutic benefit. Rational combinations for cough treatment involve combining one centrally acting antitussive with expectorants, antihistamines, and mucolytics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). All the following can be used for treatment except? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptokinase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clopidogrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prasugrel", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Streptokinase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture40.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Streptokinase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21e chap 118/3518</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has complained of fever with chills. A throat examination reveals swollen glands and a thick, whitish membrane over his tonsils. Albert staining is to be done. What are the constituents of Albert's stain? ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toluidine blue 'O' and malachite green", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbol fuschin and methylene blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbol fuschin and malachite green", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toluidine and methylene blue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Toluidine blue 'O' and malachite green", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-265.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Toluidine blue ‘O’ and malachite green</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Albert stain, which contains Toluidine blue 'O' and Malachite green, is specifically used for staining metachromatic granules in Corynebacterium diphtheriae . These granules are an important diagnostic feature for diphtheria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pneumonia caused by a gram-negative pleomorphic bacillus growing on chocolate agar which is catalase and oxidase-positive. Identify the microorganism. ( INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E.coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudomonas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Haemophilus influenzae", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Actinomyces", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Haemophilus influenzae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-185008.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-36.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Haemophilus influenzae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Haemophilus influenzae is a gram-negative pleomorphic bacillus that grows on chocolate agar and is catalase and oxidase-positive. It is a common cause of respiratory infections, including pneumonia, particularly in young children.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The vacutainer tube shown in the given image contains: (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na-EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trisodium citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NAF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clot activator", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Clot activator", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/981.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/982.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Clot Activator</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the drug of choice for hairy cell leukemia? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rituximab", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cladribine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vemurafenib", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interferon-alpha", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cladribine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cladribine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cladribine remains the first-line treatment for hairy cell leukemia due to its high efficacy in inducing remissions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the factors would suggest a higher risk for a patient with TIA developing stroke in the future according to ABCD2 scoring except? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age &lt; 60 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duration of TIA &gt; 5 mins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SBP &gt; 140 mm Hg and DBP &lt; 90 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Age < 60 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture39.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Age &lt; 60 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Additional D3-Dual TIA (within 7 days of first TIA), Imaging (MRI, DWI) were added to original score. However, all these perform very poorly in the light of recent evidences.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a known case of chronic plaque psoriasis with more than 50% skin involvement presents to you. Which of the following will you not recommend? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NB UVB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral steroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral cyclosporine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oral steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-175218.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Oral steroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oral steroids are not recommended for the long-term treatment of chronic plaque psoriasis due to the risk of disease exacerbation upon steroid withdrawal and the potential for serious side effects with long - term use .</li><li>➤ Oral</li><li>➤ steroids</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ exacerbation</li><li>➤ steroid</li><li>➤ withdrawal</li><li>➤ serious</li><li>➤ side</li><li>➤ effects</li><li>➤ long</li><li>➤ term</li><li>➤ use</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for different types of psoriasis:</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for different types of psoriasis:</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 35.22, 35.35, 35.37</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 35.22, 35.35, 35.37</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of Papanicolaou stain? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Light green SF", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orange G", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eosin B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hematoxylin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Eosin B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Eosin B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eosin B is not a component of the Papanicolaou stain, which uses a combination of hematoxylin, Orange G, and Eosin Azure (including Eosin Y and Light Green SF) to differentially stain cellular components.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During rounds, you come across the urinalysis report of the 30-year-old male diagnosed with Fabry's disease. What type of urinary casts would you expect to see in the report? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Waxy cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RBC cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "WBC cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maltese cross cast", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Maltese cross cast", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/985.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Maltese cross cast</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Maltese cross casts in urinalysis are indicative of Fabry's disease due to the presence of glycolipid-laden renal tubular cells. These casts show a characteristic birefringent pattern under polarized light.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rees and Ecker diluting fluid is used in? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wintrobe tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "WBC Pipette", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RBC Pipette", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemoglobin pipette", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. RBC Pipette", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) RBC Pipette</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rees and Ecker's solution is used with the RBC pipette to accurately count platelets by preventing clumping and preserving the cells for microscopic examination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with vertigo, diplopia, hoarseness, dysphagia and left Horner's syndrome associated with numbness of the left face and right-side limbs. Which artery is affected in this patient? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior inferior cerebellar artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior inferior cerebellar artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior cerebellar artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basilar artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture41.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture42.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Image: Arteries involved in brainstem syndromes lateral vs medial brainstem</li><li>➤ Image: Arteries involved in brainstem syndromes lateral vs medial brainstem</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/Chap 426,</li><li>↳ Neurology/stroke</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A concerned mother takes her daughter of 14 years age who was complaining of pain in the private parts to a gynecologist. On eliciting history, the girl admits she had consensual sexual intercourse with a neighbor and refuses to get examined. What should the gynecologist do? (AIIMS MAY 2020) Document informed refusal Do not inform the police Counsel the mother and daughter Examine with necessary force Inform the police", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3 are true", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4 are true", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 5 are true", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4, 5 are true", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3, 5 are true", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 3, 5 are true</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Examination of a victim of sexual assault should be done only after the consent of the victim. It is the accused who can be examined without consent, not the victim. Whether the victim agrees for examination or not, the police always have to be informed as there is an allegation of crime of rape (as sex even with consent with a girl &lt;18 years of age will be considered rape)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cardiac output can be determined using the following except? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thermal dilution technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Capnography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophageal doppler", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Echocardiography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Capnography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Capnography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Capnography is used to measure end-tidal CO2 and confirm tracheal intubation but is not used to determine cardiac output. Cardiac output can be measured using invasive methods such as the thermal dilution technique and non-invasive methods such as esophageal Doppler and echocardiography.</li><li>➤ Capnography is used to measure end-tidal CO2 and confirm tracheal intubation but is not used to determine cardiac output. Cardiac output can be measured using invasive methods such as the thermal dilution technique and non-invasive methods such as esophageal Doppler and echocardiography.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the equipment shown in the image below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mechanical ventilator", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infusion pump", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CPAP machine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High flow nasal cannula", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. High flow nasal cannula", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-111.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) High flow nasal cannula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High flow nasal cannula (HFNC) is a respiratory support system that delivers high flow rates of humidified and warmed oxygen, providing benefits such as improved oxygenation, patient comfort, and flexibility in use.</li><li>➤ High flow nasal cannula (HFNC) is a respiratory support system that delivers high flow rates of humidified and warmed oxygen, providing benefits such as improved oxygenation, patient comfort, and flexibility in use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of skin lesion? ( INICET May 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nummular", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Annular", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Discoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Target", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Annular", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture5_0arw9vm.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture6_WUqOsJX.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture7_1rUnY51.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture8_xxEwTOJ.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture9_hYJiQk9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture102222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-180557.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Annular</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Annular lesions is identified by their characteristic ring -like appearance with central clearing , differentiating them from nummular , discoid , and target lesions.</li><li>➤ Annular</li><li>➤ ring</li><li>➤ central</li><li>➤ clearing</li><li>➤ nummular</li><li>➤ discoid</li><li>➤ target</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4. Page no 4.11- 4.13</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4. Page no 4.11- 4.13</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following is a graphic representation of a patient admitted in medicine ward with fever. What could be the possible diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cerebral malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leptospirosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brucellosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Typhoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leptospirosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture33.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture34.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leptospirosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leptospirosis should be considered in patients presenting with a biphasic fever pattern, especially when supported by epidemiologic data pointing to possible exposure to contaminated water or animals. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications such as Weil's disease, which can lead to severe renal and hepatic issues.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Leptospirosis/Chap 184</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient walks into your clinic and does \"namaste\". The image is given below. What could be the probable cause? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flexor tenosynovitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dupuytrens contracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cheiroarthropathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ankyloses", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cheiroarthropathy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm78.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cheiroarthropathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cheiroarthropathy is a significant indicator of chronic diabetic complications affecting the connective tissue. Recognizing this condition is important as it often correlates with other microvascular complications of diabetes such as retinopathy and nephropathy, prompting comprehensive management of the patient's diabetes to prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false about mycoplasma pneumonia? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Responds well to amoxiclav", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chest X-ray shows bilateral infiltrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibody are useful in diagnosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Can be cultured in a cell-free medium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Responds well to amoxiclav", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Responds well to amoxiclav</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mycoplasma pneumonia does not respond to beta-lactam antibiotics due to its lack of a cell wall.</li><li>➤ The preferred antibiotics for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia include macrolides (e.g., azithromycin), tetracyclines (e.g., doxycycline), and fluoroquinolones for adults.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Resp Med/pneumonia, Harrison chap 188/5430</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Resistant hypertension is defined as? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BP &gt; 160/90 mmHg with one anti-hypertensive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BP &gt; 140/90 mmHg with one anti-hypertensive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BP &gt; 140/90 mmHg with three or more anti hypertensives", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "BP &gt; 160/90 mmHg with three or more anti hypertensives", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. BP > 140/90 mmHg with three or more anti hypertensives", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Resistant HTN refers to BP &gt; 140/90 mmHg despite three anti-HTN, one being a diuretic.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/Cardiology/Hypertensive Disease/ chap 277</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about stem cells? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "They can differentiate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "They can replicate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "They can divide without any regulatory stimulus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "They can regenerate damaged tissues", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. They can divide without any regulatory stimulus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) They can divide without any regulatory stimulus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stem cells do not divide without any regulatory stimulus; their division and differentiation are tightly controlled to maintain tissue homeostasis and prevent uncontrolled growth.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 165-170</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 165-170</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following caspase binds to Cytochrome C and APAF-1 complex? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caspase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caspase 8", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caspase 9", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caspase 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Caspase 9", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/984.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Caspase 9 is the initiator caspase in the intrinsic apoptotic pathway and is activated by binding to the cytochrome C and APAF-1 complex (the apoptosome).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a treatment option in Guillain Barre syndrome? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IVIG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasmapheresis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventilator support", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Steroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Steroids are not recommended for treating Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to their lack of efficacy in this specific condition, while IVIG and plasmapheresis are effective treatments. Supportive care, such as ventilator support, plays a vital role in managing severe cases where respiratory muscles are compromised.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison neurology, Immune mediated neuropathies/GBS/Chap 447/12730</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A gynecologist performs a hysterectomy for endometrial carcinoma. Despite the adequate precaution, the ureter was injured intraoperatively. The gynecologist is not held responsible under? (AIIMS MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Novus actus interveniens", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medical maloccurence", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Res ipsa loquitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physician error", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Medical maloccurence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Medical maloccurence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Medical maloccurence is critical to understand that not all adverse outcomes in medicine result from negligence. Some are inherent risks of medical procedures despite the highest standards of care. Recognizing this helps in managing patient expectations and can protect healthcare providers in cases where complications arise despite proper precautions.</li><li>➤ Medical maloccurence</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman who presented with complaints of fever and joint pain develops the following lesion on her nose after a few days of taking NSAIDs. What is your diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fixed drug eruption", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chikungunya", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20165120.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chikungunya</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with fever and joint pain developing centrofacial hyperpigmentation , consider Chikungunya fever , particularly with the presence of Chik sign on the nose and cheeks. Proper history is crucial to avoid misdiagnosis, such as mistaking the presentation for melasma.</li><li>➤ centrofacial hyperpigmentation</li><li>➤ Chikungunya fever</li><li>➤ Chik sign</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a non-parametric test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Student t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Friedman test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pearson", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Friedman test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Friedman test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand that non-parametric tests , like the Friedman test, are used when data does not meet parametric assumptions, such as normal distribution or when data is ordinal. Parametric tests like the Student t-test, ANOVA, and Pearson correlation are used for quantitative data with assumptions of normality and equal variances.</li><li>➤ non-parametric tests</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with Grave's disease was taking antithyroid medication throughout her pregnancy. The baby was born with aplasia cutis congenita. Which drug could have caused this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carbimazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levothyroxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methimazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrouracil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carbimazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Carbimazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ C arbimazole and methimazole are associated with teratogenic effects, including aplasia cutis congenita , when used in early pregnancy. Propylthiouracil (PTU) is preferred in the first trimester to minimize teratogenic risks but is later replaced to avoid hepatotoxicity.</li><li>➤ arbimazole and methimazole</li><li>➤ aplasia cutis congenita</li><li>➤ Propylthiouracil (PTU)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neuron is receiving 400 inputs from 150 sensory neurons. This is an example of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Divergence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Convergence", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Feedback inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Feedforward excitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Convergence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Convergence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Convergence is a neural network phenomenon where multiple input signals from different sources come together to excite a single neuron, providing the spatial summation necessary for triggering an action potential. This mechanism is crucial for integrating information from various sensory inputs.</li><li>➤ Convergence</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given condition is caused by which drug?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Actinomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bleomycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitomycin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doxorubicin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bleomycin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20165154.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bleomycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flagellate dermatitis is a characteristic skin reaction caused by bleomycin , presenting as whip-like erythematous lesions that heal with hyperpigmentation. Clinicians should also be aware of bleomycin’s potential to cause pulmonary fibrosis .</li><li>➤ Flagellate dermatitis</li><li>➤ bleomycin</li><li>➤ pulmonary fibrosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a finding of large bowel obstruction?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dilated loops of intestine with plica circularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dilated loops with haustrations", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "String of pearls sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central dilated bowel loops", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dilated loops with haustrations", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dilated loops with haustrations</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ L arge bowel obstruction is identified by dilated loops with haustrations . Understanding the differences in radiographic features between small and large bowel obstructions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management.</li><li>➤ arge bowel obstruction</li><li>➤ dilated loops with haustrations</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following bags are latex gloves disposed of after use?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transparent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Red", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Red</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Proper disposal of biomedical waste is crucial for infection control and environmental safety. Latex gloves , after use, should be disposed of in a red bag , which is designated for items like contaminated plastic waste.</li><li>➤ Latex gloves</li><li>➤ red bag</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the cervix and no obvious macroscopic growth. What is the next line of management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colposcopy and biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Follow-up after 6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Colposcopy and biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Colposcopy and biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For HSIL , the immediate management is colposcopy and biopsy to assess the extent and severity of dysplasia. Prompt evaluation and intervention are essential to prevent the progression to invasive carcinoma.</li><li>➤ HSIL</li><li>➤ colposcopy and biopsy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male baby born to a non-consanguineous couple develops blisters on areas of friction. Their previous baby also had similar complaints and died at the age of 2 weeks. What is the diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidermolysis bullosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic bullous disorder of childhood", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neonatal pemphigus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epidermolysis bullosa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epidermolysis bullosa is a congenital mechanobullous disorder marked by blistering in response to minor trauma. It is vital to recognize this to differentiate from other vesiculobullous conditions and manage accordingly.</li><li>➤ Epidermolysis bullosa</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Aiims Nov 2017 2017 11 12 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A patient of supracondylar humerus fracture is unable to flex interphalangeal joint of the thumb. No sensory deficit was found. Which nerve is most likely injured?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superficial branch of ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior interosseous nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior interosseous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anterior interosseous nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Anterior interosseous nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In case of supracondylar humerus fracture, presenting with an inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb, without any sensory deficit, the nerve most commonly injured is the anterior interosseous nerve, a terminal branch of the median nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The time required for preoxygenation before tracheal intubation is?(AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 min", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5-7 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5 min", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3 min", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 3 min</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Preoxygenation or denitrogenation is the process of replacing nitrogen in the lungs with oxygen. This is typically done by giving 100% oxygen to the patient for 3 minutes through a tight-fitting mask or by asking them to take 8 vital capacity breaths. This process helps to lengthen the apnea time, providing an improved margin of safety while the anesthesiologist secures the airway and resumes ventilation.</li><li>• There are two main methods commonly used for preoxygenation:</li><li>• The first method involves utilizing tidal volume ventilation through a face mask for a duration of 3 minutes. This technique allows for the exchange of approximately 95% of the gas present in the lungs. The second method relies on vital capacity breaths to achieve effective preoxygenation in a shorter time frame. While four breaths over 30 seconds are not as efficient as the tidal volume method, it may still be deemed acceptable in specific clinical scenarios. Research has indicated that eight breaths over a span of 60 seconds are more effective for preoxygenation.</li><li>• The first method involves utilizing tidal volume ventilation through a face mask for a duration of 3 minutes. This technique allows for the exchange of approximately 95% of the gas present in the lungs.</li><li>• The second method relies on vital capacity breaths to achieve effective preoxygenation in a shorter time frame. While four breaths over 30 seconds are not as efficient as the tidal volume method, it may still be deemed acceptable in specific clinical scenarios. Research has indicated that eight breaths over a span of 60 seconds are more effective for preoxygenation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 1 min: This duration is insufficient for effective preoxygenation, as it does not allow adequate time to replace the nitrogen in the lungs with oxygen.</li><li>• Option A. 1 min:</li><li>• Option C. 5-7 min: While longer preoxygenation can ensure thorough denitrogenation, it is not typically necessary beyond the 3 minutes required for effective preoxygenation.</li><li>• Option C. 5-7 min:</li><li>• Option D. 5 min : Preoxygenation for this duration can be effective, but the standard practice is to use 3 minutes as it is usually sufficient to achieve the desired effect.</li><li>• Option D. 5 min</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Preoxygenation for tracheal intubation is effectively achieved by administering 100% oxygen for 3 minutes through a tight-fitting mask or by taking 8 vital capacity breaths.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1380</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 1380</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "There are 3 to 5% healthy hepatitis B carriers in India who are asymptomatic. They are at the risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma in the future because? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "They are unable to mount inflammation against the virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Virus can integrate with host DNA and form complementary DNA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "There is a risk of elevation of transaminases", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liver parenchymal cells are in a state of high proliferation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Virus can integrate with host DNA and form complementary DNA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Virus can integrate with host DNA and form complementary DNA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatitis B virus can integrate its DNA into the host genome, leading to genetic mutations and increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30 month old male child was brought with history of fever, and respiratory distress. Suspecting pneumonia , a chest xray was ordered. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent ? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Klebsiella pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycoplasma pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus pneumoniae", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Staphylococcus pneumoniae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Staphylococcus pneumoniae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staphylococcus aureus can cause severe pneumonia in children, often complicated by the formation of pneumatoceles and other serious complications such as empyema and bronchopleural fistula.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a tool used in gene editing: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CRISPR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Big data", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gene Xpert", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GWAS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CRISPR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/61.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CRISPR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CRISPR is a powerful gene editing tool that enables precise modifications of the genome and is used extensively in genetic research and therapeutic applications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient came with complaints of acute abdominal pain on and off and tingling sensation of limbs and at times weakness of limbs. She had a history of eating paint from the wall of a newly built house. Which of the following enzyme defect will be the cause of her condition? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ALA synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ALA dehydratase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heme synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coproporphyrinogen oxidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ALA dehydratase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ALA dehydratase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead poisoning inhibits ALA dehydratase, causing symptoms such as abdominal pain, tingling, and weakness of limbs. Paint ingestion, particularly in children, is a significant source of lead exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman whose obstetric score is G2 P1 L1 had an LMP of Jan 9th 2017. Calculate the EDD according to Naegele's rule? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "September 19", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "October 19", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "October 16", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "September 16", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. October 16", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) October 16</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Naegele's rule is a standard way of calculating the estimated date of delivery by adding 9 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. This method assumes a regular 28-day menstrual cycle.</li><li>➤ Naegele's rule is a standard way of calculating the estimated date of delivery by adding 9 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. This method assumes a regular 28-day menstrual cycle.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 83, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 83, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pharmaceutical company has developed a novel diagnostic test for a rare metabolic disorder. In clinical trials, the test demonstrated a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. In a population where the prevalence of the disease is 30%, the test was applied to every participant. What is the probability that a person who tests negative truly does not have the disease? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Less than 50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "70%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "95%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "72%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 95%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 95%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Negative Predictive Value (NPV) represents the probability that a person with a negative test result truly does not have the disease</li><li>➤ The Negative Predictive Value (NPV) represents the probability that a person with a negative test result truly does not have the disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Black foot is seen in which poisoning: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mercury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arsenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture133334.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Arsenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arsenic, cadmium, lead and mercury are the heavy metals which can cause peripheral vascular disease due to chronic poisoning. This leads to general clinical features of peripheral vascular disease (numbness in feet, rest pain etc.). Blackfoot disease is a unique term given to peripheral vascular disease produced by chronic Arsenic poisoning. The name \"Blackfoot\" refers to the characteristic darkening and gangrene of the feet and lower legs. This ultimately leads to amputation. In peripheral vascular disease caused by other heavy metals, gangrene is not a common manifestation</li><li>➤ Arsenic, cadmium, lead and mercury are the heavy metals which can cause peripheral vascular disease due to chronic poisoning. This leads to general clinical features of peripheral vascular disease (numbness in feet, rest pain etc.).</li><li>➤ Blackfoot disease is a unique term given to peripheral vascular disease produced by chronic Arsenic poisoning. The name \"Blackfoot\" refers to the characteristic darkening and gangrene of the feet and lower legs. This ultimately leads to amputation.</li><li>➤ In peripheral vascular disease caused by other heavy metals, gangrene is not a common manifestation</li><li>➤ Above picture shows Blackfoot disease:</li><li>➤ Above picture shows Blackfoot disease:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following constitutes Hutchinson's triad? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness, mulberry molars", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness, Hutchinson molars", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness, mulberry incisors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness, Hutchinson incisors", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness, Hutchinson incisors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/101.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-201.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness, Hutchinson incisors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hutchinson's triad consists of interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness, and Hutchinson incisors, and it is a diagnostic feature of late congenital syphilis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old man has a lesion over the face as shown below. He complains of bleeding while itching. The most likely diagnosis is: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermatofibrosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marjolin's ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ВСС (Basal cell carcinoma)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Naevus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ВСС (Basal cell carcinoma)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-181.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/picture7_FOMXyQg.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/whatsapp-image-2023-12-01-at-42006-pm-2.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) BCC (Basal cell carcinoma)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basal cell carcinoma is an epithelial tumor that arises from basal cells layer of epidermis. It is the most common type of skin cancer. Most commonly seen over the face, above the line joining corner of the mouth, and lobule of the ear. Clinically it can present either as nodular or pigmented BCC. Features of nodular BCC are:</li><li>➤ Small, slowly growing pearly nodule Tortuous telangiectatic vessels on the surface Rolled borders Central crusting</li><li>➤ Small, slowly growing pearly nodule</li><li>➤ Tortuous telangiectatic vessels on the surface</li><li>➤ Rolled borders</li><li>➤ Central crusting</li><li>➤ The occasional presence of melanin in the nodular variant of BCC (pigmented BCC) may lead to confusion with melanoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is incorrect about PCL? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is the main restraint in posterior drawer test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is an extrasynovial structure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is the main restraint to internal rotation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It originates from anterolateral aspect of medial femoral condyle in the area of intercondylar notch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is the main restraint to internal rotation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/screenshot-2024-02-07-143739.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. It is the main restraint to internal rotation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PCL is the an extrasynovial structure originating from the anterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle in the area of intercondylar notch. It is the main restraint to the posterior translation of the knee i.e., the backward gliding of the tibia over the femur. While evaluating the patient during physical examination, PCL is the main restraint in the posterior drawer test.</li><li>➤ PCL is the an extrasynovial structure originating from the anterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle in the area of intercondylar notch.</li><li>➤ It is the main restraint to the posterior translation of the knee i.e., the backward gliding of the tibia over the femur.</li><li>➤ While evaluating the patient during physical examination, PCL is the main restraint in the posterior drawer test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with severe back pain, vomiting, and hypotension. CT findings are given below. What is the diagnosis?(AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Para pelvic cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal angiomyolipoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Renal angiomyolipoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-154.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Renal angiomyolipoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The CT image shows a left renal lesion with negative /low attenuation (black in color) that indicate fatty tissue. This is consistent with renal angiomyolipoma. Clinical findings of severe back pain, vomiting, and hypotension and hematoma around the renal mass are suggestive of rupture. This is known as Wunderlich syndrome .</li><li>• Wunderlich syndrome</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Renal cysts are homogeneous hypodense lesions.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Renal cysts</li><li>• Option B. Renal cell carcinoma will appear heterogeneous and hypervacular with areas of necrosis.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Renal cell carcinoma</li><li>• Option C. Para pelvic cyst are simple renal cysts that plunge into the renal sinus from the adjacent renal parenchyma. A parapelvic cyst at times may cause compression of the pelvicalyceal system resulting in hydronephrosis.</li><li>• Option C. Para pelvic cyst</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Renal angiomyolipoma is typically composed of fat, muscle, and blood vessels and appears as a low-attenuation mass on CT scans. When associated with symptoms like severe pain and hypotension, it raises concerns for potential hemorrhage or rupture, emphasizing the need for prompt evaluation and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nerve fibre least susceptible to local anaesthetic is? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-delta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A- gamma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A- beta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C fibres", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. C fibres", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. C fibres</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The nerve fibre least susceptible to local anaesthetic is type C. Local anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, which prevents the initiation and propagation of action potentials in nerves. The effectiveness of local anaesthetics depends on the diameter and myelination of the nerve fibres.</li><li>• Type C fibres are unmyelinated and have the smallest diameter, making them the least susceptible to local anaesthetics. This means they require a higher concentration of the anaesthetic to achieve the same level of blockade as larger, myelinated fibres.</li><li>• The order of susceptibility of nerve fibres to local anaesthetics is:</li><li>• B &gt; A-d &gt; A-g &gt; A-b &gt; A-a &gt; C</li><li>• B &gt; A-d &gt; A-g &gt; A-b &gt; A-a &gt; C</li><li>• Nerve fibres most susceptible to local anesthetic: B fibres Nerve fibres most resistant to local anesthetic: C fibres</li><li>• Nerve fibres most susceptible to local anesthetic: B fibres</li><li>• Nerve fibres most susceptible to local anesthetic: B fibres</li><li>• B fibres</li><li>• Nerve fibres most resistant to local anesthetic: C fibres</li><li>• Nerve fibres most resistant to local anesthetic: C fibres</li><li>• C fibres</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. A-delta: These are myelinated fibres with a small diameter, making them more susceptible to local anaesthetics compared to C fibres but less susceptible than larger, myelinated fibres like A-beta and A-alpha.</li><li>• Option A. A-delta:</li><li>• Option B. A-gamma: These are myelinated fibres with a moderate diameter, making them more susceptible to local anaesthetics compared to A-delta fibres but less susceptible than A-beta and A-alpha fibres.</li><li>• Option B. A-gamma:</li><li>• Option C. A-beta: These are myelinated fibres with a larger diameter, making them more susceptible to local anaesthetics compared to A-delta and A-gamma fibres.</li><li>• Option C. A-beta:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Type C nerve fibres are the least susceptible to local anaesthetics due to their small diameter and lack of myelination.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 1416-1417</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs</li><li>➤ 1416-1417</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism from the given image? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vibrio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leptospira", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Helicobacter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leptospira", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-266.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leptospira</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leptospira is identified by its spiral morphology with axial filaments (endoflagella) and is a type of spirochete, along with Treponema and Borrelia.</li><li>➤ Endoflagella are seen in:</li><li>➤ Endoflagella are seen in:</li><li>➤ Treponema Borrelia Leptospira</li><li>➤ Treponema</li><li>➤ Borrelia</li><li>➤ Leptospira</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Best method of diagnosis for Clostridium difficile? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pure strain isolation from culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immunofluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxin gene detection by PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toxin Detection by ELISA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Toxin gene detection by PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Toxin gene detection by PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best method for diagnosing Clostridium difficile infection is through nucleic acid amplification tests, such as PCR assays, which detect the toxin A or B genes in stool due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and rapid turnaround time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man presents with complaints of facial puffiness and frothy urine. Given below is the histological image of the condition. What do you think is the diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Membranous nephropathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Membranoproliferative nephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dense deposit disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Membranous nephropathy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/29.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/30.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Membranous nephropathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Membranous nephropathy is characterized by uniform, diffuse thickening of the glomerular capillary wall with subepithelial immune deposits, as evidenced by the histological image provided.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortans pathologic basis of disease, page no. 1766, 1767</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortans pathologic basis of disease, page no. 1766, 1767</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 53-year-old postmenopausal lady is detected by endometrial hyperplasia with atypia what is the next step in management? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mirena", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dilatation and curettage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hysterectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hysterectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Postmenopausal women with atypical hyperplasia should be offered a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy due to the very high risk of progression to malignancy. This approach effectively removes the source of hyperplasia and eliminates the potential for malignant transformation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Progesterone: High dose Progesterones can be used to manage endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, but this is not the recommended approach for atypical hyperplasia in postmenopausal women.</li><li>• Option A. Progesterone:</li><li>• Option C. Mirena: The LNG-IUS (Mirena) can be recommended for those who want to preserve fertility and for managing endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. However, it is not suitable for postmenopausal women with atypical hyperplasia due to the high risk of progression to malignancy.</li><li>• Option C. Mirena:</li><li>• Option D. Dilatation and curettage: This procedure may be used for diagnostic purposes but is not the definitive treatment for endometrial hyperplasia with atypia in postmenopausal women.</li><li>• Option D. Dilatation and curettage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postmenopausal women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia should undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy due to the high risk of progression to malignancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 329, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 329, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old male with chronic liver disease is evaluated using the Child-Pugh score, which categorizes patients into classes based on disease severity. Which type of data does the Child-Pugh scoring system represent? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nominal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ordinal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Qualitative", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metric", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ordinal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-093615.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ordinal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not seen in low insulin-glucagon ratio?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycogen breakdown", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ketogenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycogen storage", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gluconeogenesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Glycogen storage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Glycogen storage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ A low insulin-glucagon ratio stimulates the mobilization of energy stores by promoting glycogen breakdown, ketogenesis, and gluconeogenesis, while it inhibits glycogen storage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with HIV develops diarrhea and faecal examination shows Isospora belli. He was treated with cotrimoxazole. Diarrhoea subsided but fever persisted. Bone marrow examination of this patient is shown in the given image below. Which of the following statement is false? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It cannot be grown in sabouraud dextrose agar", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spores are infective form", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is intracellular budding yeast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It can cause systemic disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It cannot be grown in sabouraud dextrose agar", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-268.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It cannot be grown in sabouraud dextrose agar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Histoplasma capsulatum, a thermally dimorphic fungus, can grow on Sabouraud dextrose agar, produce infective spores, exist as an intracellular budding yeast in humans, and cause systemic disease, particularly in immunocompromised individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glucosamine supplementation is given in:(AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diabetes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Arthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucosamine supplementations are given in the treatment of osteoarthritis.</li><li>➤ Glucosamine supplementations are given in the treatment of osteoarthritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male presented with cervical lymphadenopathy. The biopsy of the lymph node showed RS cells with vague nodule formation and a background of reactive T-lymphocytes. The cells were positive for CD20, LCA, EMA and negative for CD15 and CD30. What is the diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nodular Sclerosis - Hodgkin Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CLL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T cell rich B cell lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nodular Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma (NLPHL)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nodular Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma (NLPHL)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-172205.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-172238.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-173011.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nodular Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma (NLPHL)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nodular Lymphocyte Predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma (NLPHL) is characterized by the presence of L&amp;H cells, vague nodular formation, and a specific immunophenotypic profile (CD20+, CD45+, EMA+, CD15-, CD30-), which differentiates it from classical Hodgkin lymphoma and other lymphomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient presented with hypoparathyroidism, absent thymus and tetany. Which of the following marked areas in the picture is defective in this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "13", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 12", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-21.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario of hypoparathyroidism, absent thymus, and tetany is suggestive of DiGeorge syndrome. It is caused by defective development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouch.</li><li>• In the image of pharyngeal pouches, \"12\" points to the thymus (derivative of 3rd pharyngeal pouch). Since in the above question, the thymus is absent, option 3 will be the most appropriate answer.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. (1): 1st Pharyngeal pouches, which is unrelated to the thymus or parathyroid glands directly involved in this case.</li><li>• Option A. (1):</li><li>• Option B. (10): External auditory meatus, which is not implicated in DiGeorge syndrome.</li><li>• Option B. (10):</li><li>• Option D. (13): Superior parathyroid gland, derived from the fourth pharyngeal pouch. Although it's closely related to the condition described, the primary indicator in this scenario, given the patient's symptoms, is the thymus rather than the parathyroid glands.</li><li>• Option D. (13):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DiGeorge syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a genetic disorder caused by a missing piece of chromosome 22. It is characterized by a wide range of symptoms that can vary in severity, but are typically grouped together as mnemonic CATCH -22</li><li>➤ Mnemonic \"CATCH-22\":</li><li>➤ Mnemonic \"CATCH-22\":</li><li>➤ C - Cardiac abnormalities, such as ventricular septal defects (VSD) and tetralogy of Fallot.</li><li>➤ A - Abnormal facies, including a small chin, low-set ears, and wide-set eyes.</li><li>➤ T - Thymic aplasia or hypoplasia, leading to a weakened immune system.</li><li>➤ C - Cleft palate or other palate abnormalities.</li><li>➤ H - Hypocalcemia or low levels of calcium due to underdeveloped or missing parathyroid glands.</li><li>➤ 22 - Refers to the chromosome 22q11.2 deletion, which causes the syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old male with Marfanoid habitus presents with sharp chest pain and sudden onset dyspnea. Chest X-ray was performed and is shown below. What is the most probable diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydropneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aortic dissection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pneumothorax", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-153.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Ans. C. Pneumothorax</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• DIAGNOSIS</li><li>• MEDIASTINAL SHIFT</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE IX</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE X-RAY</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Option D</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with endophthalmitis 5 days after cataract surgery. All of the following treatments can be used, except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravitreal antibiotic injection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous steroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pars plana vitrectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Topical antibiotic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intravenous steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture107.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Intravenous steroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For endophthalmitis following ocular surgery, intravitreal antibiotics are crucial, while systemic steroids are generally avoided due to the risk of exacerbating the infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During development, thymic cells recognizing self-antigens are removed to prevent autoimmunity. Which gene among the following is involved in the process? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NOTCH1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RB gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CPK gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AIRE", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. AIRE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) AIRE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The AIRE gene is crucial for central tolerance in the thymus, preventing autoimmunity by ensuring the deletion of self-reactive T cells.</li><li>➤ AIRE gene</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 397-398</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 397-398</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following, all are findings of the condition in the below chest X-ray except: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased pulmonary blood flow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Narrow vascular pedicle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right atrial enlargement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary venous hypertension", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pulmonary venous hypertension", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/98.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pulmonary venous hypertension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"egg-on-a-string\" appearance on a chest X-ray is characteristic of Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA), and pulmonary venous hypertension is not a typical finding in this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Origin of B cell in CLL/SLL is: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Centrocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extranodal mature Peripheral B cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Naive B cells in Interfollicular zones", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone Marrow Progenitors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Naive B cells in Interfollicular zones", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Naive B cells in Interfollicular zones</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The origin of B cells in CLL/SLL is primarily from naive B cells in interfollicular zones or post-germinal center memory B cells. Tumors originating from naive B cells, as indicated by unmutated Ig segments, tend to pursue a more aggressive course.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not ligated for the control of epistaxis?( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Internal carotid artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior ethmoidal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maxillary artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "External carotid artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Internal carotid artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/whatsapp-image-2023-08-29-at-165320_page_3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Internal carotid artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of severe epistaxis, it is critical to understand the hierarchy of arterial ligation, starting with the least risky options. The internal carotid artery should never be ligated due to its vital role in cerebral blood supply, highlighting the importance of targeted vascular control in surgical interventions to minimize complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An autopsy was performed to find the cause of death of a person brought dead to the casualty. It showed abrasions on the neck, fracture of the thyroid cartilage and contused tissues in the neck. The cause of death is? ( AIIMS May 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hanging", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Throttling", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strangulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mugging", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Throttling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Throttling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Throttling involves manual strangulation by applying pressure to the neck, causing abrasions, contusions, and fractures in the neck structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If the RB gene is hypophosphorylated, which of the following will happen? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cell cycle will stop at G2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cell cycle will stop at G1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "There will be no effect on cell cycle as RB gene phosphorylation is not needed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The cell cycle progresses and cell divides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cell cycle will stop at G1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/42.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cell cycle will stop at G1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hypophosphorylated state of the Rb protein prevents the cell cycle from progressing past the G1 phase by binding to and inactivating E2F, thereby acting as a crucial checkpoint in preventing uncontrolled cell proliferation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-day-old infant had conjunctivitis, which later developed into respiratory distress and pneumonia. Chest X-ray examination revealed bilateral lung infiltrates. Peripheral smear count showed 14,300/ML (N 43, L 54, and E3). Which of the following is the most likely pathogenic organism? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlamydia trachomatis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhoeae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycoplasma pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chlamydia trachomatis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chlamydia trachomatis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chlamydia trachomatis can cause neonatal conjunctivitis and pneumonia, typically presenting with an insidious onset of cough, tachypnea, absence of fever, and peripheral eosinophilia in infants aged 1 to 3 months.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A new combined treatment regimen of chemotherapy and immunotherapy has significantly increased survival in patients with metastatic melanoma. If the number of new cases remains consistent, but patients live longer, which epidemiological impact would be observed? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incidence increases and prevalence reduces", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incidence reduces and prevalence remains the same", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incidence reduces and prevalence increases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When patient survival increases due to a new treatment, the incidence of the disease remains the same, but the prevalence increases due to longer survival duration.</li><li>➤ When patient survival increases due to a new treatment, the incidence of the disease remains the same, but the prevalence increases due to longer survival duration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a dimorphic fungus? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastomyces dermatidis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histoplasma capsulatum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumocystis jirovecii", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillium marneffi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pneumocystis jirovecii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pneumocystis jirovecii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Pneumocystis jirovecii is not a dimorphic fungus</li><li>➤ Dimorphic fungi:</li><li>➤ Dimorphic fungi:</li><li>➤ Blastomyces dermatitidis Histoplasma capsulatum Paracoccidioides brasiliensis Penicillium marneffei Sporothrix schenckii Coccidioides immitis Coccidioides posadasii</li><li>➤ Blastomyces dermatitidis</li><li>➤ Histoplasma capsulatum</li><li>➤ Paracoccidioides brasiliensis</li><li>➤ Penicillium marneffei</li><li>➤ Sporothrix schenckii</li><li>➤ Coccidioides immitis</li><li>➤ Coccidioides posadasii</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis of the condition seen in the image? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pinguecula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pterygium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chemical burn", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thermal burn", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pterygium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture8_4OudRq9.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pterygium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pterygium is identifiable by its characteristic growth from the conjunctiva onto the cornea, often due to prolonged UV exposure, appearing as a wing-shaped film on the eye.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For emergency contraception, a single tab of 0.75 mg of LNG was taken, it should be followed by which of the following? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Single dose of 0.75 after 12 hrs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Two doses 12 hrs apart", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Three doses 12 hrs apart", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Single dose of 0.75 after 12 hrs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-094530.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Single dose of 0.75 after 12 hrs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In this case, the 2nd dose of LNG 0.75 mg (levonorgestrel) is taken after 12 hours. One tablet of LNG 0.75mg should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse and another 12 hours later. Alternately, two tablets (of 0.75mg) or a single 1.5mg tablet can be taken as a single dose. The tablets can be offered up to 72h of an act of unprotected intercourse, but the efficacy decreases with the longer coital-drug interval.</li><li>• In this case, the 2nd dose of LNG 0.75 mg (levonorgestrel) is taken after 12 hours.</li><li>• One tablet of LNG 0.75mg should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse and another 12 hours later.</li><li>• Alternately, two tablets (of 0.75mg) or a single 1.5mg tablet can be taken as a single dose.</li><li>• The tablets can be offered up to 72h of an act of unprotected intercourse, but the efficacy decreases with the longer coital-drug interval.</li><li>• Other emergency contraceptives available:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Emergency contraception using levonorgestrel requires a follow-up dose of 0.75 mg taken 12 hours after the initial dose to ensure efficacy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 243, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 243, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism from the given staining technique? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycobacterium leprae", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Actinomyces israelli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nocardia asteroids", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nocardia asteroids", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-270.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nocardia asteroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nocardia species are partially acid-fast, branching, filamentous rods that are found in the soil and cause lung infections in immunocompromised individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presented with the blurring of vision. Urine examination showed proteinuria. Fundus examination showed dot and blot hemorrhages, microaneurysms, and cotton wool spots. Histopathology of the kidney was as shown below. What is your diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal amyloidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lupus nephritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/31.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/33.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/41.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease, a specific form of diabetic nephropathy, is characterized by PAS-positive nodules within the glomeruli, often associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 2206</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 2206</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diagram illustrating the natural history of a disease has points marked A, B, C, and D. Which point indicates the onset of symptoms in the disease's natural history? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Point A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Point B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Point C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Point D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Point C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip33.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip34.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Point C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The flow volume curve after spirometry in patient 1 is given below. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endobronchial neoplasm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emphysema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm109.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Myasthenia gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis can present with a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests due to respiratory muscle weakness, differentiating it from conditions that cause obstructive patterns such as asthma and emphysema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman considers chopping her fingers; she plots and imagines doing so but never accomplishes it. She claims she feels no shame for having such thoughts. Furthermore, she claims that the ideas are disturbing her and that she is unable to control them. The thoughts can stop with a seizure or gradually fade away on their own. Which of the following is the root of the problem? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thought insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Forced thinking", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crowding of thoughts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obsession", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Forced thinking", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Forced thinking</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Forced thinking is a type of psychic aura which is characterized by recurrent intrusive thoughts, or ideas, which subside on seizure activity.</li><li>➤ Forced thinking</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 510.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old presented with diminished vision 1 year after cataract surgery. The findings are shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "After cataract", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Irvine-Gass syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endophthalmitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uveitis-glaucoma-hyphema syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. After cataract", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/arbsf.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/screenshot-2023-04-29-173729.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) After cataract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Posterior capsular opacification or after cataract is a common post-surgical complication following cataract surgery, characterized by the proliferation of lens epithelial cells leading to opacification of the posterior capsule. This can diminish vision and may require further treatment, typically a simple laser procedure called a YAG capsulotomy to restore clarity to the visual axis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old woman was undergoing cholecystectomy. During the procedure, the resident accidentally advanced the scissors along the superior border of the epiploic foramen causing injury. Which of the following structures is likely to be injured?(AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right lobe of liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quadrate lobe of liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caudate lobe of liver", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fundus of gallbladder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Caudate lobe of liver", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-123943.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Caudate lobe of liver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The caudate lobe is a small, distinct lobe of the liver that lies posterior to the porta hepatis and forms the posterior border of the lesser omentum. Importantly, it forms the superior border of the epiploic foramen. Thus, during cholecystectomy, an injury advancing the scissors along the superior border of the epiploic foramen could damage the caudate lobe.</li><li>• superior border</li><li>• Epiploic foramen is a vertical slit of about 3 cm behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. It connects the lesser sac to the greater sac.</li><li>• Clinical note: Pringle maneuver (as shown below) is a technique where the free margin of the lesser omentum is compressed to obtain rapid control of bleeding from the hepatic artery and portal vein in liver trauma and surgery.</li><li>• Clinical note:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Right lobe of liver : The right lobe of the liver is a major lobe, and it constitutes the majority of the liver's mass. It does not directly border the epiploic foramen. The anterior surface of the right lobe faces the anterior abdominal wall, and the posterior surface is related to the diaphragm and right kidney.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Right lobe of liver</li><li>• Option B . Quadrate lobe of liver : The quadrate lobe is a smaller lobe situated on the visceral surface of the liver. It is bounded by the gallbladder on the right and the round ligament of the liver on the left. It is separated from the left lobe by the fissure for the ligamentum teres. While it's close to the region, the quadrate lobe does not form the superior border of the epiploic foramen.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Quadrate lobe of liver</li><li>• Option D . Fundus of gallbladder : The fundus is the most distal part of the gallbladder and it usually projects beyond the inferior border of the liver, contacting the anterior abdominal wall. It is not directly related to the epiploic foramen.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Fundus of gallbladder</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Boundaries of epiploic foramen</li><li>➤ Boundaries of epiploic foramen</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Earliest way to detect development of compartment syndrome by a nurse in a patient with cast is:(AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Check radial pulse by displacing the cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased response to analgesia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Change in color of fingers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Change in odor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decreased response to analgesia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Decreased response to analgesia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The earliest way to detect compartment syndrome in a patient is a decreased response to the analgesics. The patient will complaint of no reduction in the pain symptoms.</li><li>➤ The earliest way to detect compartment syndrome in a patient is a decreased response to the analgesics. The patient will complaint of no reduction in the pain symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Entamoeba dispar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Giardia lamblia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Balantidium coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Entamoeba histolytica", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Giardia lamblia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-10-29%20155016_enhanced.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/07.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Giardia lamblia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Giardia lamblia in its cyst form, is the infective stage responsible for transmission through contaminated water, food, or fecal-oral route.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The histopathology picture below is suggestive of? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Psoriasis vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leishmaniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycosis fungoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pemphigus vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13496.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture30.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13497.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture33.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/screenshot-2023-11-27-180630.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pemphigus vulgaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The histopathology image suggests Pemphigus vulgaris , which is characterized by intraepidermal blistering due to acantholysis , or separation of keratinocytes , as a result of autoantibody attack on desmosomal proteins.</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris</li><li>➤ intraepidermal blistering</li><li>➤ acantholysis</li><li>➤ separation of keratinocytes</li><li>➤ autoantibody</li><li>➤ desmosomal proteins.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition Chapter 50 Page no 50.1</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition Chapter 50 Page no 50.1</li><li>➤ Robbins &amp; cotran Pathologic Basis of disease 10e- page no 1160</li><li>➤ Robbins &amp; cotran Pathologic Basis of disease 10e- page no 1160</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The diagnosis for a 23-year-old patient presenting with non-scarring alopecia in the vertex region of the head, and exhibiting histological findings of hair loss with haemorrhage into the follicular areas and mild perinuclear lymphocytic infiltrate, is what? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alopecia areata", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Telogen effluvium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tinea infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichotillomania", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Trichotillomania", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/screenshot-2023-11-27-181350.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Trichotillomania</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a young patient with non-scarring alopecia in the vertex region and histological findings of hair loss with follicular hemorrhage and mild lymphocytic infiltrate, the diagnosis is likely Trichotillomania .</li><li>➤ non-scarring alopecia</li><li>➤ vertex</li><li>➤ follicular hemorrhage</li><li>➤ mild lymphocytic</li><li>➤ Trichotillomania</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology - 9 th Edition Chapter 86 &amp; 89, page nos 86.17 &amp; 89.31</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology - 9 th Edition Chapter 86 &amp; 89, page nos 86.17 &amp; 89.31</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no: 1695</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no: 1695</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old female came for treatment of infertility to OPD, Bromocriptine was prescribed. What could be the possible reason? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperprolactinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "PCOD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PID", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hyperprolactinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hyperprolactinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bromocriptine is a Dopaminergic agonist that leads to a decrease in the secretion of Prolactin by its action on the D2 dopaminergic receptors of the Nigrostriatal Pathway. Hyperprolactinemia can cause infertility by inhibiting the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus, leading to a decrease in the levels of FSH and LH.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structures of the scapula is palpable in the infraclavicular fossa? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-24.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-25.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The part of the scapula marked as \"A\" in this image is palpable and it is the coracoid process.</li><li>• The apex of the coracoid process lies approximately 2.5cm below the clavicle, immediately lateral to the infraclavicular fossa (deltopectoral triangle). Hence, the coracoid process can be palpated below the clavicle.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. B- Acromion process - Located at the top of the shoulder, this process forms the highest point of the shoulder and serves as an attachment for the clavicle and muscles of the shoulder. It is not palpable in the infraclavicular fossa.</li><li>• Option B. B- Acromion process -</li><li>• Option C. C- Glenoid fossa - This is the socket part of the scapula that articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint. It is not palpable externally due to its deep location.</li><li>• Option C. C- Glenoid fossa -</li><li>• Option D. D- Infraspinous fossa - A broad surface on the posterior aspect of the scapula, covered largely by the infraspinatus muscle. It is not palpable from the anterior aspect of the body.</li><li>• Option D. D- Infraspinous fossa -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The coracoid process (marked as A) is the scapular structure that can be palpated in the infraclavicular fossa, just below the clavicle. This palpation is useful for clinical assessments related to shoulder injuries and muscular attachments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hospital biostatistician analyzes patient wait times over several months to find patterns and outliers for optimizing patient flow. After analyzing four different months, the following box plots are created to illustrate the findings. Based on the given plots, match the correct description? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal distribution, evident outliers, negative skewness, positive skewness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Evident positive skewness, normal distribution, negative skewness, outliers present", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Typical distribution, outliers present, skewed negatively, skewed positively", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Standard distribution, outliers present, evident positive skewness, negative skewness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Typical distribution, outliers present, skewed negatively, skewed positively", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-185312.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-185424.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Typical distribution, outliers present, skewed negatively, skewed positively</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Box and whisker plot</li><li>➤ Box and whisker plot</li><li>➤ Description: A convenient way of graphically depicting groups of numerical data through their quartiles Edges of box: 1st and 3rd Quartile Line in Box: 2nd Quartile (Median) Whiskers end: Minimum &amp; maximum values Outlier: A data point that is located outside the whiskers of the box plot</li><li>➤ Description: A convenient way of graphically depicting groups of numerical data through their quartiles</li><li>➤ Edges of box: 1st and 3rd Quartile</li><li>➤ Line in Box: 2nd Quartile (Median)</li><li>➤ Whiskers end: Minimum &amp; maximum values</li><li>➤ Outlier: A data point that is located outside the whiskers of the box plot</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the grip in the image given below: (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Second Pelvic grip", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abdominal grip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pawlik grip", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fundal grip", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pawlik grip", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/inicet-obg-nov-2017-2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/inicet-obg-nov-2017-3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pawlik grip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Pawlik grip (third Leopold maneuver) involves grasping the lower portion of the maternal abdomen just above the symphysis pubis to assess the engagement of the presenting part of the fetus.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 89-90, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 89-90, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old diabetic male presents with a history of decreased vision. Fluorescein angiography showed the following image. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mild non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Severe non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bird shot choroidopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proliferative diabetic retinopathy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/inicet-ophtha-13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/diabetic-retinopathy.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Proliferative diabetic retinopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is the advanced stage of diabetic eye disease, marked by neovascularization, which requires aggressive treatment like laser photocoagulation to prevent severe visual loss. It is crucial for diabetics, particularly those with a long history or poorly controlled diabetes, to undergo regular eye examinations for early detection and management of diabetic retinopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a branch of the external carotid artery in Kiesselbach's plexus?( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sphenopalatine artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Greater palatine artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Septal branch of superior labial artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mutism and akinesis in a person who is aware of his surroundings and somewhat alert is best described as a feature of: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oneroid state", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Twilight state", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stupor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delirium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Stupor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/11/screenshot-2023-10-11-175904.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Stupor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Sim’s Symptoms in the Mind, 7th edition, Page No 37, 39, 40, 41.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following staphylococcal infections is not toxin mediated? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Food poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toxic shock syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Septicemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Septicemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Septicemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staphylococcal septicemia is not mediated by toxins, unlike staphylococcal food poisoning, toxic shock syndrome, and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, which are all toxin-mediated infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) measure? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypochromia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anisocytosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Poikilocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anisochromia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anisocytosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-144228.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anisocytosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RDW measures the variability in size of red blood cells, which is indicative of anisocytosis. High RDW is associated with conditions like iron deficiency anemia and other types of anemia, where there is significant variation in RBC sizes.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ IDA vs Thalassemia</li><li>➤ IDA vs Thalassemia</li><li>➤ IDA- rbcs are small (low MCV ) with high RDW</li><li>➤ Thalassemia- RBCs are small (low MCV ) with normal RDW</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida came with 6 cm cervical dilatation and a contraction rate of 3/10 minutes. Which stage of labor is she in? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1st stage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2nd stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3rd stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4th stage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1st stage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1st stage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This patient is in the 1st stage of labor, which is defined as the onset of true labor pain until the full dilation of the cervix. The 1st stage of labor can be further classified as:</li><li>• Latent phase: Cervical dilation of less than 5 cm. Active phase: Cervical dilation of 5 cm or more.</li><li>• Latent phase: Cervical dilation of less than 5 cm.</li><li>• Latent phase:</li><li>• Active phase: Cervical dilation of 5 cm or more.</li><li>• Active phase:</li><li>• Earlier, this cutoff for the active phase was considered at 4 cm.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. 2nd stage: The second stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation and ends with the delivery of the fetus. Since the cervix is not fully dilated (10 cm), the patient is not in the second stage.</li><li>• Option B. 2nd stage:</li><li>• Option C. 3rd stage: The third stage of labor is characterized by the delivery of the placenta. The patient is not in this stage as the fetus has not yet been delivered.</li><li>• Option C. 3rd stage:</li><li>• Option D. 4th stage: The fourth stage is a stage of observation for at least an hour after the full expulsion of the placenta. The patient is not in this stage as the delivery process is still ongoing.</li><li>• Option D. 4th stage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The 1st stage of labor, which involves cervical dilation from the onset of true labor pain until full dilation, is divided into latent and active phases, with the active phase beginning at 5 cm dilation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 155, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 155, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The flap shown in the picture is? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serratus anterior flap", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pectoral myocutaneous flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TRAM flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VRAM flap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Serratus anterior flap", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-177.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Serratus anterior flap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flap surgery is a type of plastic surgery that uses tissues from another part of the body to close open wounds while having its own blood supply. The site from which the tissue is obtained is called the donor site, while the site where the tissue is transferred is called the recipient site. Flaps may be of soft tissue, skin, muscle, bone, fat or fascia.</li><li>➤ Flap surgery is a type of plastic surgery that uses tissues from another part of the body to close open wounds while having its own blood supply.</li><li>➤ The site from which the tissue is obtained is called the donor site, while the site where the tissue is transferred is called the recipient site. Flaps may be of soft tissue, skin, muscle, bone, fat or fascia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the egg in the picture given below: (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ancylostoma duodenale", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-269.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ancylostoma duodenale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hookworm eggs are oval, colorless, thin-shelled, and contain 4 to 8 blastomeres. These eggs are not bile-stained and have a clear space between the ovum and the eggshell.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant lady with PIH was being monitored with bed rest in supine position. Which of the following is a complication of the below representation? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ascending aorta syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior vena-caval syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abdominal aorta syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supine vena cava syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Supine vena cava syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/inicet-obg-nov-2017-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Supine vena cava syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image illustrates supine hypotension syndrome, also known as supine vena cava syndrome. This condition occurs in the third trimester of pregnancy when the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava (IVC) while the woman is in a supine position. This compression leads to reduced venous return to the heart, causing hypotension, tachycardia, and syncope. It is especially dangerous during cesarean sections, as spinal anesthesia can exacerbate hypotension. To prevent this, a wedge is placed beneath the right hip during the procedure to tilt the patient slightly to the left, thereby relieving pressure on the vena cava.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Ascending aorta syndrome : This condition is not typically associated with pregnancy and does not involve the pressure of the gravid uterus on the IVC.</li><li>• Option A. Ascending aorta syndrome</li><li>• Option B. Superior vena-caval syndrome : This syndrome involves obstruction of the superior vena cava, leading to symptoms such as facial swelling and dyspnea. It is unrelated to the position of a pregnant woman and the compression of the IVC.</li><li>• Option B. Superior vena-caval syndrome</li><li>• Option C. Abdominal aorta syndrome : There is no specific syndrome by this name. The abdominal aorta may be compressed during pregnancy, but it does not lead to the symptoms associated with supine hypotension syndrome.</li><li>• Option C. Abdominal aorta syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Supine vena cava syndrome occurs in the third trimester of pregnancy due to the pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava when the woman is in a supine position, leading to hypotension, tachycardia, and syncope.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2237, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2237, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In what sequence do muscles develop rigor mortis, progressing from early to late? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbicularis oculi, facial muscles, thorax, upper limb", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbicularis oculi, neck, facial muscles, upper limb, thorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neck, muscles of eyelid, upper limb, thorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neck, muscles of eyelid, facial muscles, thorax, upper limb", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Orbicularis oculi, facial muscles, thorax, upper limb", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Orbicularis oculi, facial muscles, thorax, upper limb</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rigor mortis</li><li>➤ Rigor mortis</li><li>➤ Rigor mortis is the post-mortem stiffening and contraction of muscles in the body, resulting from the depletion of energy stores, usually becoming noticeable a few hours after death and gradually resolving over time.”</li><li>➤ It first affects the involuntary muscles first starting with the myocardium Nysten’s law deals with the progression of rigor mortis in voluntary muscles Order of appearance of Rigor mortis in different organs:</li><li>➤ It first affects the involuntary muscles first starting with the myocardium</li><li>➤ Nysten’s law deals with the progression of rigor mortis in voluntary muscles</li><li>➤ Order of appearance of Rigor mortis in different organs:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male presented with a history of intractable diarrhea. Based on the histological image shown below which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leishmaniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urate nephropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Multiple myeloma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/47.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/49.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/50.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Multiple myeloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Russell bodies in plasma cells, along with a clinical history of intractable diarrhea, strongly suggests a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, a malignancy characterized by the abnormal proliferation of plasma cells.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease, Page No. 1126</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease, Page No. 1126</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male came with complaints of acute abdominal pain. A plain X-ray abdomen erect was taken which is shown below. What is likely diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subdiaphragmatic abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumopericardium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pneumoperitoneum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-155.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-156.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pneumoperitoneum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presence of subdiaphragmatic free gas in the right upper quadrant is clearly visible in the X-ray above. This is an indication of pneumoperitoneum.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Subdiaphragmatic abscess: Typically presents with localized fluid collections that may contain gas produced by bacteria, but the extensive free air pattern as seen in this X-ray is more characteristic of pneumoperitoneum.</li><li>• Option A. Subdiaphragmatic abscess:</li><li>• Option C. Pneumopericardium: Involves air in the pericardial cavity, not typically visible as free air under the diaphragm.</li><li>• Option C. Pneumopericardium:</li><li>• Option D. Intestinal obstruction: May show air-fluid levels and dilated bowel loops, but the clear presence of free air under the diaphragm is distinctly indicative of pneumoperitoneum rather than an obstruction alone.</li><li>• Option D. Intestinal obstruction:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MOST SENSITIVE X RAY: CXR-PA erect</li><li>➤ MOST SENSITIVE X RAY: CXR-PA erect</li><li>➤ Air under the diaphragm-Right</li><li>➤ MOST SENSITIVE Ix: CECT with oral contrast NEXT STEP: Resuscitation with iv fluids, Exploratory laparotomy</li><li>➤ MOST SENSITIVE Ix: CECT with oral contrast</li><li>➤ MOST SENSITIVE Ix: CECT with oral contrast</li><li>➤ NEXT STEP: Resuscitation with iv fluids, Exploratory laparotomy</li><li>➤ NEXT STEP: Resuscitation with iv fluids, Exploratory laparotomy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms causes the following disease? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coxsackievirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Human herpes virus 7", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pox virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Coxsackievirus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/06.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Coxsackievirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Coxsackievirus is the causative agent of hand-foot-and-mouth disease (HFMD), which presents with vesicles on the palms, soles, and oral mucosa.</li><li>➤ Palms and Soles rash is seen in – CARS</li><li>➤ CARS</li><li>➤ Coxsackievirus A16 Rocky mountain spotted fever Secondary Syphilis</li><li>➤ Coxsackievirus A16</li><li>➤ Coxsackievirus A16</li><li>➤ Rocky mountain spotted fever</li><li>➤ Rocky mountain spotted fever</li><li>➤ Secondary Syphilis</li><li>➤ Secondary Syphilis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What represents the marked area in the given histology of lymph nodes? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Marginal zone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paracortical zone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Germinal center", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mantle zone", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mantle zone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/img-20230324-wa0001-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Mantle zone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The mantle zone in lymph nodes is a critical area populated by B cells surrounding the germinal centers, playing a key role in the adaptive immune response by providing a site for B cell quiescence and interaction with helper T cells and antigen-presenting cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old woman underwent a workup for primary infertility. On hysterosalpingography, there was a bilateral cornual block. What is the next step in management? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuboplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy-guided surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrotubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In-vitro fertilization", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy-guided surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy-guided surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cornual block in a young woman with primary infertility should be managed with hysteroscopy and laparoscopy-guided proximal tubal catheterization and cannulation to restore tubal patency before considering more invasive options like IVF.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1158, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1158, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In fetal alcohol syndrome, which of the following is not seen? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thinning of corpus callosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microcephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Holoprosencephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Macrocephaly", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Macrocephaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/99.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Macrocephaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) is associated with microcephaly and other CNS abnormalities, but macrocephaly is not a feature of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Geeta, a senior epidemiologist in Delhi, receives weekly updates on the prevalence of several diseases in the states/region she oversees. Recently, she noticed distinct patterns in three different diseases over a two-week period: (AIIMS NOV 2017) Disease 1: Number of cases last week = 42, this week = 43 Disease 2: Number of cases last week 2 and present week 42 Disease 3: Number of cases last week 6 and present week 1 How should these diseases be categorized?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pandemic, endemic, sporadic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sporadic, endemic, epidemic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endemic, epidemic, sporadic", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endemic, sporadic, epidemic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Endemic, epidemic, sporadic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Endemic, epidemic, sporadic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endemic diseases show a stable presence, epidemics show a sudden increase in cases, and sporadic diseases occur irregularly.</li><li>➤ Endemic diseases show a stable presence, epidemics show a sudden increase in cases, and sporadic diseases occur irregularly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with complaints of itching and discharges on flexure aspect of elbow and the lesions were red as shown below. What is your diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post traumatic pigmentation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atopic dermatitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Atopic dermatitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/17/screenshot-2024-09-17-101712.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Atopic dermatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atopic dermatitis typically presents with pruritic, eczematous lesions on flexural areas, often associated with a personal or family history of atopy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female patient has NYHA class III heart failure, with dyspnea, pedal edema and K+ levels of 5.5mg% and creatinine 1.1 mg%. Which of the following drugs can be used in this patient? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enalapril", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Furosemide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-145106.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Furosemide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In heart failure patients with elevated potassium levels, loop diuretics like furosemide are preferred to manage fluid overload and avoid exacerbation of hyperkalemia, unlike potassium-sparing diuretics or ACE inhibitors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked bond in Orange? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "lonic bond", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Covalent bond", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrogen bond", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphodiester Bond", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hydrogen bond", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011078.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/28/21.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hydrogen bond</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydrogen bonds between purine and pyrimidine bases stabilize the double helix structure of DNA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man had a fall on his outstretched hand, presented to the hospital with pain on the radial side of wrist and swelling in the anatomical snuff box. X-ray showed the following findings. What is the diagnosis? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scaphoid fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trans-scaphoid perilunate disruption fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hook of hamate fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distal radius fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Scaphoid fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture6.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Scaphoid fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given x-ray, mechanism of injury, and presenting complaints of the patient points towards the diagnosis of scaphoid fracture.</li><li>➤ The given x-ray, mechanism of injury, and presenting complaints of the patient points towards the diagnosis of scaphoid fracture.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true about grey rami communicants is all except: (AIIMS NOVEMBER 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unmyelinated", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Connected to spinal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Preganglionic", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Present medial to white rami communicantes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Preganglionic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Preganglionic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The grey rami communicantes are not preganglionic fibers. They are postganglionic fibers. In contrast, the white rami communicantes carry preganglionic sympathetic fibers from the spinal nerve to the sympathetic chain ganglia. Once in the ganglia, these fibers either synapse with postganglionic neurons, which return via the grey rami to spinal nerves, or ascend or descend to synapse at other levels. The sympathetic trunks on either side of the vertebral columns consist of a series of ganglia. They are connected to the spinal nerves by white and grey rami communicantes. The cell bodies of the preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the lateral horn in the spinal grey matter. They leave the cord in the ventral nerve roots to form spinal nerves. These fibers enter the sympathetic trunk in white rami communicantes. They synapse with the postganglionic sympathetic neurons in the sympathetic ganglia. The axons of the postganglionic neurons return to the spinal nerve through the grey rami communicantes.</li><li>• The grey rami communicantes are not preganglionic fibers. They are postganglionic fibers.</li><li>• grey rami</li><li>• postganglionic</li><li>• In contrast, the white rami communicantes carry preganglionic sympathetic fibers from the spinal nerve to the sympathetic chain ganglia. Once in the ganglia, these fibers either synapse with postganglionic neurons, which return via the grey rami to spinal nerves, or ascend or descend to synapse at other levels.</li><li>• white rami communicantes carry preganglionic sympathetic fibers</li><li>• The sympathetic trunks on either side of the vertebral columns consist of a series of ganglia. They are connected to the spinal nerves by white and grey rami communicantes. The cell bodies of the preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the lateral horn in the spinal grey matter. They leave the cord in the ventral nerve roots to form spinal nerves. These fibers enter the sympathetic trunk in white rami communicantes.</li><li>• They synapse with the postganglionic sympathetic neurons in the sympathetic ganglia. The axons of the postganglionic neurons return to the spinal nerve through the grey rami communicantes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Unmyelinated : True. Grey rami communicantes primarily contain unmyelinated postganglionic sympathetic fibers. These fibers are responsible for conveying the postganglionic sympathetic impulses to the spinal nerves, which then distribute these impulses to their target tissues.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Unmyelinated</li><li>• True.</li><li>• Option B. Connected to spinal nerve : True. Grey rami communicantes connect the sympathetic chain ganglia to the adjacent spinal nerves. They are responsible for transmitting postganglionic sympathetic fibers to all spinal nerves (regardless of whether or not the spinal nerve level has a white ramus communicans).</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Connected to spinal nerve</li><li>• True.</li><li>• Option D . Present medial to white rami communicantes : True. Anatomically, when observing the sympathetic chain and its connections to the spinal nerves, the grey rami communicantes are located medially (or more centrally) relative to the white rami communicantes.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Present medial to white rami communicantes</li><li>• True.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Grey rami communicantes contain postganglionic, unmyelinated fibers that connect the sympathetic chain ganglia to spinal nerves, facilitating the distribution of sympathetic impulses to the body, contrasting with the preganglionic fibers found in white rami communicantes.</li><li>➤ Grey rami communicantes contain postganglionic, unmyelinated fibers that connect the sympathetic chain ganglia to spinal nerves, facilitating the distribution of sympathetic impulses to the body, contrasting with the preganglionic fibers found in white rami communicantes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida came to the labor room at 40 weeks + 5 days gestation for induction of labor. On per vaginal examination, the cervix is 1 cm dilated and is 30% effaced. The vertex is at -1 station and the cervix is soft and posterior. What will be the bishop score for this lady? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/untitled-294.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/untitled-295.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Bishop's score, in this case, is 5.</li><li>• This is a scoring system used to assess the favorability of the cervix to respond to induction of labor. A cervix that is soft in consistency, a little dilated, short in length, anteriorly placed and the station of the presenting low down will respond well to induction of labor. The Bishop score was replaced by the Modified Bishop score, wherein, the cervical effacement (in terms of percentage) was replaced by cervical length (in cm). The 5 components of the Modified Bishop score are: Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• This is a scoring system used to assess the favorability of the cervix to respond to induction of labor.</li><li>• A cervix that is soft in consistency, a little dilated, short in length, anteriorly placed and the station of the presenting low down will respond well to induction of labor.</li><li>• The Bishop score was replaced by the Modified Bishop score, wherein, the cervical effacement (in terms of percentage) was replaced by cervical length (in cm).</li><li>• The 5 components of the Modified Bishop score are: Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• Cervical Dilatation</li><li>• Cervical length</li><li>• Cervical consistency</li><li>• Cervical Position</li><li>• Station of the presenting part</li><li>• The scoring is as shown in the table. Each component is scored from 0 to 3 The highest score is 13 and the lowest is 0 A favourable score is &gt; 6. This means the patient will respond favorably to methods of induction of labor.</li><li>• The scoring is as shown in the table.</li><li>• Each component is scored from 0 to 3</li><li>• The highest score is 13 and the lowest is 0</li><li>• A favourable score is &gt; 6. This means the patient will respond favorably to methods of induction of labor.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bishop score is used to evaluate the readiness of the cervix for induction of labor. A score of 6 or more suggests that the cervix is favorable for induction.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 600, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 600, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25yr old woman came to OPD one year after the birth of her last child. She had been treated for iron deficiency anemia while pregnant. On examination, she is pale, and investigations show a HB of 5mg/dl and a reticulocyte count of 9%. What is her corrected reticulocyte count ? (take normal Hb as 15mg/dl) (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corrected reticulocyte count (CRC) adjusts the observed reticulocyte percentage to reflect the degree of anemia by using the patient's actual hemoglobin compared to a normal hemoglobin level.</li><li>➤ The corrected reticulocyte count is crucial for assessing bone marrow response in anemic patients, providing insight into whether the bone marrow is responding appropriately to the anemia. This is particularly important in managing patients with iron deficiency anemia to monitor recovery or response to therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the type of fracture shown in the X-ray of left shoulder? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neer classification grade 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ideberg classification grade 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Garden classification grade 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schatzker classification grade 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neer classification grade 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-622.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/screenshot-2024-02-07-145054.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/screenshot-2024-02-07-152246.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture17.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Neer classification grade 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the grade 4 of the Neer’s classification of the proximal humerus fracture where all the fractured parts of the humerus are displaced.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the grade 4 of the Neer’s classification of the proximal humerus fracture where all the fractured parts of the humerus are displaced.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following site does the restriction enzyme act when RFLP is used in-order to identify the five different species of staphylococci in a surgical ICU? (AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ATGGAC-TACGTG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GATATC- CTATAG", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "TAGATA-ATCTAT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AATATA-TATAAT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. GATATC- CTATAG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-171110.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) GATATC- CTATAG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In RFLP, restriction enzymes recognize and cut at palindromic sequences in DNA. The palindromic sequence GATATC-CTATAG is a correct recognition site for these enzymes, making it crucial for identifying different species, such as staphylococci in a surgical ICU.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient presented with neck swelling as shown. The swelling moves with deglutition and tongue protrusion. What is your diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Branchial cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic hygroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroglossal cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical lymphadenopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thyroglossal cyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-178.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/picture3_nESuEOc.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/picture4_lMHkx1q.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/picture5_qy7FxYT.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/picture6_0WgD2J4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thyroglossal cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Other neck swellings that move with deglutition are:</li><li>➤ Other neck swellings that move with deglutition are:</li><li>➤ Thyroid swellings Subhyoid bursitis Dermoid cysts attached to the hyoid bone</li><li>➤ Thyroid swellings</li><li>➤ Subhyoid bursitis</li><li>➤ Dermoid cysts attached to the hyoid bone</li><li>➤ However, amongst these only the thyroglossal cyst moves with tongue protrusion. This occurs because the duct extends from the foramen caecum of tongue to the isthmus of the gland.</li><li>➤ Sistrunk's operation is the procedure performed to excise the cyst and prevent a recurrence. It involves excision of the whole thyroglossal tract, along with removal of the body of the hyoid bone, and suprahyoid tract through the tongue base to the vallecula at the site of the primitive foramen caecum along with the core of tissue on either side.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the refractive error: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myopia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Presbyopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypermetropia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Astigmatism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myopia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture7_AdNTCqI.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture109.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/inicet-ophtha-14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Myopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myopia results from the focusing of light in front of the retina, making distant objects appear blurry, a condition often corrected with concave lenses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician at a district hospital encounters an 18-month-old boy from a remote village with breathing difficulties, cough, cold, and fever for the past few days. The child is active, with a respiratory rate of 46 breaths per minute and no chest retractions. How should the pediatrician advise the parents? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give IV antibiotics and observe", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give IV antibiotics and refer to higher centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral antibiotics, warn of danger signs, and send home", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "No need of treatment only home remedies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oral antibiotics, warn of danger signs, and send home", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/22222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Oral antibiotics, warn of danger signs, and send home</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the best parameter to assess in case of male infertility? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The quantity of sperms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The motility of sperms", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The morphology of sperms", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The number of sperm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The morphology of sperms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The morphology of sperms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The morphology of sperms is considered the best parameter to assess male infertility. Sperm morphology refers to the size and shape of sperm, and abnormalities in these characteristics can significantly affect a man's fertility.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Sperm Morphology: Characterization of normal sperm morphology shows improved correlation with fertilization rates during IVF cycles. A significantly decreased fertilization rate is observed when the normal morphology of the sample falls below the strict criteria of 4%. Sperm Quantity and Number: While the quantity and number of sperms are important, they are not as critical as morphology in determining fertility potential. Sperm Motility: Motility is also a crucial factor, but morphology has a stronger correlation with fertilization success.</li><li>• Sperm Morphology: Characterization of normal sperm morphology shows improved correlation with fertilization rates during IVF cycles. A significantly decreased fertilization rate is observed when the normal morphology of the sample falls below the strict criteria of 4%.</li><li>• Sperm Morphology:</li><li>• Sperm Quantity and Number: While the quantity and number of sperms are important, they are not as critical as morphology in determining fertility potential.</li><li>• Sperm Quantity and Number:</li><li>• Sperm Motility: Motility is also a crucial factor, but morphology has a stronger correlation with fertilization success.</li><li>• Sperm Motility:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. The quantity of sperms: Refers to the total volume of ejaculate, which is less indicative of fertility compared to morphology.</li><li>• Option A. The quantity of sperms:</li><li>• Option B. The motility of sperms: Important for fertility but not as strongly correlated with fertilization success as morphology.</li><li>• Option B. The motility of sperms:</li><li>• Option D. The number of sperm: Similar to the quantity, the number is important but does not correlate as closely with fertilization rates as morphology does.</li><li>• Option D. The number of sperm:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sperm morphology is the most significant parameter for assessing male infertility, as it closely correlates with fertilization rates during assisted reproductive techniques like IVF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Atropine is indicated in all of the following poisonings except? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Baygon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "TIK 20", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parathion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endrin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Endrin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Endrin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endrin is an organochloride pesticide. It leads to neurotoxicity, and in that case, Atropine cannot be used in the treatment. Parathion and TIK20 are organophosphates and baygon is a combination of organophosphate and carbamate. For all of these poisonings, atropine is the mainstay of management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A trauma patient suffered a renal laceration with urine extravasation. He was managed conservatively. However, after a few days, he presented with a urinoma. The next best management for this patient would be? (AIIMS MAY 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ureteral stenting", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surgical repair and exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Percutaneous drainage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ureteral stenting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ureteral stenting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A urinoma is a collection of urine that has leaked from the urinary tract and has accumulated outside its normal anatomical location. This condition typically occurs due to trauma, injury, or obstruction in the urinary system.</li><li>➤ Causes: Urinomas are usually caused by trauma, such as blunt abdominal or pelvic trauma, that leads to injury to the urinary collecting system. They can also result from urinary tract obstruction, infections, or surgical complications. Symptoms: Common symptoms of a urinoma may include abdominal or flank pain, fever, and swelling in the affected area. In some cases, urinomas may be asymptomatic and discovered incidentally during imaging studies. Diagnosis: Diagnosis involves a combination of medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies, such as ultrasound, CT scans, or MRI, to visualize the urinoma and determine its size and location.</li><li>➤ Causes: Urinomas are usually caused by trauma, such as blunt abdominal or pelvic trauma, that leads to injury to the urinary collecting system. They can also result from urinary tract obstruction, infections, or surgical complications.</li><li>➤ Causes:</li><li>➤ Symptoms: Common symptoms of a urinoma may include abdominal or flank pain, fever, and swelling in the affected area. In some cases, urinomas may be asymptomatic and discovered incidentally during imaging studies.</li><li>➤ Symptoms:</li><li>➤ Diagnosis: Diagnosis involves a combination of medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies, such as ultrasound, CT scans, or MRI, to visualize the urinoma and determine its size and location.</li><li>➤ Diagnosis:</li><li>➤ A persistent urinoma (a mass formed by encapsulated extravasated urine) should be managed with the placement of an internal ureteral stent.</li><li>➤ Patients not cured by ureteral stenting may require percutaneous nephrostomy or transcutaneous drainage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman comes with a history of postcoital bleeding and a visible mass seen in cervix per speculum. The next step to be done? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conisation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Targeted biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pap smear", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Targeted biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Targeted biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a symptomatic patient with a visible cervical lesion and postcoital bleeding, a targeted biopsy is the appropriate next step to obtain a definitive diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 327, DC Dutta’a Textbook of gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 327, DC Dutta’a Textbook of gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a negative acute phase reactants ? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albumin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Haptoglobin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ferritin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C-reactive protein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm105.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-135926.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under anaerobic metabolism which of the following substrates yields 3 molecules of ATP? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amino acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galactose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glycogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011081.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glycogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under anaerobic conditions, glycogen yields 3 molecules of ATP per glucose unit because it enters glycolysis as glucose-6-phosphate, bypassing the initial ATP-consuming step of glycolysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Criminal responsibility of Insane is defined in: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "McNaughten's Rule", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curren’s Rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Durham's Rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "American Law Institute Test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. McNaughten's Rule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. McNaughten's Rule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ McNaughten's rule is defined by section 84 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)</li><li>➤ It states that \"A person of unsound mind is not liable for an act.\"</li><li>➤ It implies that the defendant was unable to distinguish between right and wrong or otherwise didn't understand what they did because of a \"disease of the mind.\"</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old presents with gradually progressive hoarseness of voice over three months and respiratory distress for 2 weeks. Diagnosis is: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Croup", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory papillomatosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vocal nodule", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute epiglottitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Respiratory papillomatosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Respiratory papillomatosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Juvenile respiratory papillomatosis should be considered in young children presenting with a gradual worsening of hoarseness and the development of respiratory symptoms. The condition highlights the need for awareness of HPV-related diseases in children and indicates the importance of early and accurate diagnosis followed by appropriate surgical intervention, which may include cold steel, coblation, debrider, radiofrequency, or laser-assisted microlaryngeal surgery to manage the growth and recurrence of papillomas effectively.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition pg 327, 328, 343, 345, 346</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition pg 327, 328, 343, 345, 346</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Desmosomes are abundant in which of the following layer of skin?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13534.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The stratum spinosum , indicated by arrow A , is the layer of the skin where desmosomes are most abundant . These structures are key for cell adhesion and strength in this layer , which is situated above the stratum basale and below the stratum granulosum.</li><li>➤ stratum spinosum</li><li>➤ arrow A</li><li>➤ desmosomes</li><li>➤ most abundant</li><li>➤ cell adhesion</li><li>➤ strength in this layer</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Volume 1 Chapter 2, Page no 2.1, 2.2, 2.18</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Volume 1 Chapter 2, Page no 2.1, 2.2, 2.18</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is part of the WHO guidelines for the management of second stage of labor? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Do a routine episiotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Manual support to perineum to maintain flexion of head", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Never give warm compress to the perineum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perform labor in lithotomy position", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Manual support to perineum to maintain flexion of head", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Manual support to perineum to maintain flexion of head</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The WHO Recommendations 2018 for the intrapartum second stage of labor emphasize the importance of a positive birth experience. The guidelines suggest manual support to the perineum to maintain the flexion of the fetal head, which helps in reducing perineal trauma.</li><li>• WHO Recommendations 2018 (Intrapartum Second Stage):</li><li>• WHO Recommendations 2018 (Intrapartum Second Stage):</li><li>• Recommended:</li><li>• Recommended:</li><li>• Duration of the second stage in primigravida: up to 3 hours; in multigravida: up to 2 hours Allowing the birthing position of choice Encouraging the mother to follow her own urge to push Reducing perineal trauma by using techniques such as hands-on guarding, warm compresses, and perineal massage</li><li>• Duration of the second stage in primigravida: up to 3 hours; in multigravida: up to 2 hours</li><li>• Allowing the birthing position of choice</li><li>• Encouraging the mother to follow her own urge to push</li><li>• Reducing perineal trauma by using techniques such as hands-on guarding, warm compresses, and perineal massage</li><li>• Not recommended:</li><li>• Not recommended:</li><li>• Routine episiotomy Fundal pressure</li><li>• Routine episiotomy</li><li>• Fundal pressure</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Do a routine episiotomy : This is not recommended as a routine practice according to WHO guidelines. Episiotomy should only be performed when clinically indicated.</li><li>• Option A. Do a routine episiotomy</li><li>• Option C. Never give warm compress to the perineum : This is incorrect. Warm compresses to the perineum are recommended to help reduce perineal trauma.</li><li>• Option C. Never give warm compress to the perineum</li><li>• Option D. Perform labor in lithotomy position : The WHO guidelines recommend allowing the woman to choose her birthing position, rather than mandating the lithotomy position.</li><li>• Option D. Perform labor in lithotomy position</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Manual support to the perineum and maintaining the flexion of the fetal head are part of the WHO recommendations for the second stage of labor to reduce perineal trauma and ensure a positive birth experience.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/337693/9789240017566-eng.pdf</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/337693/9789240017566-eng.pdf</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with open wound, with fracture of both bones of right lower limb came to the emergency. The doctor labelled the injury as type 3B according to Gustilo-Anderson Classification. Which of the following would represent the injury? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Open wound with fracture, with wound &lt;1 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Open wound with fracture, 1 to 10 cm wound size, but mild soft tissue injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Open wound &gt;10 cm, though soft tissue coverage not required", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Open wound &gt; 10 cm, with extensive injury requiring soft tissue coverage", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Open wound > 10 cm, with extensive injury requiring soft tissue coverage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/screenshot-2024-02-07-124925.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Open wound &gt; 10 cm, with extensive injury requiring soft tissue coverage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type IIIB of the open fracture is the open wound with significant periosteal stripping. It requires secondary bone coverage and procedures like skin grafting or flap.</li><li>➤ Type IIIB of the open fracture is the open wound with significant periosteal stripping.</li><li>➤ It requires secondary bone coverage and procedures like skin grafting or flap.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the least likely condition to exhibit lesions and changes on the anterior shin? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diabetes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypothyroidism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/29/picture1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/2_8hBrGJI.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/3_M2uIO5f.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/29/screenshot-2023-11-29-094141.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypothyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Page no 59.11, 64.5, 98.6, 149.10</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Page no 59.11, 64.5, 98.6, 149.10</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician in a remote village encounters an 18-month-old child with no vaccination history. According to the National Immunization Schedule, which set of vaccines should the child receive? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DPT -1, OPV-1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles - 1, Vit. A -1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles - 1, Vit. A - 1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles - 1, Vit. A - 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles -1, Vit.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Case studies</li><li>➤ Case studies</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can alter the gene expression by methylation and acetylation but not change the gene sequence? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epigenetics", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Translocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inversion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epigenetics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Epigenetics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epigenetics involves modifications such as methylation and acetylation that regulate gene expression without changing the DNA sequence, playing a crucial role in various biological processes and diseases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following will not be avid on FDG PET scan? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Typical carcinoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Small cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atypical carcinoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Typical carcinoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Typical carcinoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Typical carcinoids generally do not show avid uptake on an FDG PET scan because they are well-differentiated tumors with relatively low metabolic activity compared to more aggressive cancers. FDG PET scans are most effective in identifying tumors that have high glucose metabolism, which is more characteristic of rapidly growing and less differentiated tumors. Typical carcinoids, being slow-growing, often exhibit minimal FDG uptake, making them less detectable on PET scans.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Small cell carcinoma : This type of cancer is highly aggressive and shows high metabolic activity, making it usually very avid on FDG PET scans.</li><li>• Option B. Small cell carcinoma</li><li>• Option C. Atypical carcinoid: More aggressive than typical carcinoids, often showing intermediate to high FDG uptake due to higher metabolic activity.</li><li>• Option C. Atypical carcinoid:</li><li>• Option D. Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma : A highly aggressive neuroendocrine tumor that generally shows significant FDG uptake due to its rapid growth and high metabolic rate.</li><li>• Option D. Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tumors false-negative on PET-CT:</li><li>➤ Tumors false-negative on PET-CT:</li><li>➤ Lung adenocarcinoma</li><li>➤ Mucinous adenocarcinoma</li><li>➤ Typical carcinoid</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A new diagnostic test for dengue is being evaluated using a Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) graph. As the curve transitions from the green region to the pink region, what is the most likely change in the test characteristics? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both sensitivity and specificity increase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both sensitivity and specificity decrease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sensitivity increases while specificity decreases", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sensitivity decreases while specificity increases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Both sensitivity and specificity increase", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip30.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-100044.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-100216.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Both sensitivity and specificity increase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ On an ROC graph, a transition from one region to another indicating improved test performance generally means that both sensitivity and specificity are increasing.</li><li>➤ On an ROC graph, a transition from one region to another indicating improved test performance generally means that both sensitivity and specificity are increasing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A sensitive diagnostic test for a certain disease returns a positive result for a patient. What statement accurately describes the significance of a positive result from the sensitive test? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It confirms that the person does not have the disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It suggests that if the disease is rare, the person surely has the disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It confirms that the person has the disease if the disease is common", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is an expected finding in case the disease is prevalent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It confirms that the person has the disease if the disease is common", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It confirms that the person has the disease if the disease is common</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A positive result from a highly sensitive test confirms the presence of the disease, particularly when the disease is common.</li><li>➤ A positive result from a highly sensitive test confirms the presence of the disease, particularly when the disease is common.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant lady of 49 kg is in her first trimester. What are her additional calorie requirements in this trimester? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "500", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "300", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continue same diet", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "600", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Continue same diet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Continue same diet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pregnancy requires an additional 80,000 Kcal; mostly in the latter half. During the first trimester, there is no need for additional calories. The caloric increase is recommended as follows:</li><li>• 0 Kcal in 1st trimester 340 Kcal in 2nd trimester 452 Kcal in 3rd trimester</li><li>• 0 Kcal in 1st trimester</li><li>• 340 Kcal in 2nd trimester</li><li>• 452 Kcal in 3rd trimester</li><li>• In this question, extra calories in the 1st trimester are asked, so the answer will be no additional requirement.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ There are no additional calorie requirements in the first trimester of pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Page no 487, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Page no 487, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structures does the cell pointed red arrow inhibit?(AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vestibular nuclei", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior horn of spinal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Basal ganglia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deep nuclei of cerebellum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Deep nuclei of cerebellum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-96.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Deep nuclei of cerebellum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a histopathological section of the cerebellum. The cells marked with the arrow are Purkinje cells and they inhibit deep nuclei of the cerebellum.</li><li>• Within the white matter, there are four pairs of deep cerebellar nuclei: the fastigial, globose, emboliform (these last two are collectively called the interposed nuclei), and the dentate nuclei. These nuclei receive inhibitory input from Purkinje cells and excitatory input from cerebellar afferents and provide the primary output from the cerebellum to other brain regions.</li><li>• Detailed Overview of Cerebellar Architecture:</li><li>• Detailed Overview of Cerebellar Architecture:</li><li>• 1. Three Layers of the Cerebellar Cortex :</li><li>• 1. Three Layers of the Cerebellar Cortex</li><li>• Molecular Layer : This is the outermost layer and contains stellate and basket cells. The dendrites of Purkinje cells also extend into this layer. The axons of granule cells, called parallel fibers, run horizontally in this layer. Purkinje Cell Layer : This layer contains the large, flask-shaped Purkinje cells, which are the principal neurons of the cerebellar cortex. Purkinje cells have a single axon that travels to the deep cerebellar nuclei and extensive dendritic trees that extend into the molecular layer. They are inhibitory neurons that use GABA as their neurotransmitter. Granule Cell Layer : The innermost layer contains numerous small granule cells, along with Golgi cells. Granule cells are excitatory neurons that use glutamate as their neurotransmitter. Their axons ascend into the molecular layer where they bifurcate and run as parallel fibers, synapsing with Purkinje cell dendrites.</li><li>• Molecular Layer : This is the outermost layer and contains stellate and basket cells. The dendrites of Purkinje cells also extend into this layer. The axons of granule cells, called parallel fibers, run horizontally in this layer.</li><li>• Molecular Layer</li><li>• Purkinje Cell Layer : This layer contains the large, flask-shaped Purkinje cells, which are the principal neurons of the cerebellar cortex. Purkinje cells have a single axon that travels to the deep cerebellar nuclei and extensive dendritic trees that extend into the molecular layer. They are inhibitory neurons that use GABA as their neurotransmitter.</li><li>• Purkinje Cell Layer</li><li>• Granule Cell Layer : The innermost layer contains numerous small granule cells, along with Golgi cells. Granule cells are excitatory neurons that use glutamate as their neurotransmitter. Their axons ascend into the molecular layer where they bifurcate and run as parallel fibers, synapsing with Purkinje cell dendrites.</li><li>• Granule Cell Layer</li><li>• 2. White Matter : Beneath the cerebellar cortex is the cerebellar white matter, which consists of myelinated axons. These axons form the afferent and efferent connections of the cerebellum.</li><li>• 2. White Matter</li><li>• 3. Deep Cerebellar Nuclei : Within the white matter are four pairs of deep cerebellar nuclei: the fastigial, globose, emboliform (these last two are collectively called the interposed nuclei), and the dentate nuclei. These nuclei receive inhibitory input from Purkinje cells and excitatory input from cerebellar afferents and provide the primary output from the cerebellum to other brain regions.</li><li>• 3. Deep Cerebellar Nuclei</li><li>• 4. Afferent and Efferent Fibers : The cerebellum receives input (afferent fibers) mainly from the spinal cord, brainstem, and cerebral cortex and sends output (efferent fibers) to the deep cerebellar nuclei and then out to various parts of the brain, primarily the vestibular nuclei and the thalamus.</li><li>• 4. Afferent and Efferent Fibers</li><li>• 5. Bergmann Glia : These are specialized astrocytes found in the cerebellum. They have long processes that extend through the Purkinje cell layer into the molecular layer, providing support for neurons and playing a role in neurotransmission.</li><li>• 5. Bergmann Glia</li><li>• 6. Foliation : Grossly, the cerebellum exhibits a series of folia (folds) which are a result of the convolution of the cerebellar cortex.</li><li>• 6. Foliation</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A: Vestibular nuclei and Option C: Basal ganglia are not directly influenced by Purkinje cells.</li><li>• Option A: Vestibular nuclei</li><li>• Option C: Basal ganglia</li><li>• Option B: Anterior horn of spinal is involved in motor neuron activity, unrelated to Purkinje cell output.</li><li>• Option B: Anterior horn of spinal</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Purkinje cells in the cerebellum play a vital inhibitory role on the deep cerebellar nuclei, crucial for coordinating and refining motor movements and cognitive processing related to movement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most probable diagnosis based on the given image? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3rd cranial nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6th nerve palsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bell's palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Horner's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6th nerve palsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture5_vWSvb95.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture106.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 6th nerve palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 6th nerve palsy is characterized by an inability to abduct the eye, typically presenting as inward turning of the eye due to unopposed medial rectus action, leading to horizontal diplopia that worsens when looking towards the side of the affected nerve. This diagnosis is crucial in patients presenting with lateral gaze limitation following trauma, raised intracranial pressure, or an ischemic event.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following fits into the criteria of severe variable deceleration, variations less than: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "90 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "80 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "100 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "70 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 70 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 70 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severe variable decelerations are defined by a fetal heart rate dropping to less than 70 beats per minute for at least 60 seconds, typically due to umbilical cord compression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young boy was brought to the casualty with a history of fever and acute right lower abdominal pain. On examination, he was febrile and his pulse rate was 106 beats/min. Tenderness was felt in right iliac fossa. The CT scan image is shown below. Which of the following signs will not be seen in this disease? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "McBurney's tenderness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rovsing's sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoas sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ballance sign", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ballance sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-180.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ballance sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Findings on CT that are suggestive of acute appendicitis include:</li><li>➤ Findings on CT that are suggestive of acute appendicitis include:</li><li>➤ Appendiceal dilatation (&gt;6 mm in diameter) Appendiceal wall thickening (&gt;3 mm) and enhancement</li><li>➤ Appendiceal dilatation (&gt;6 mm in diameter)</li><li>➤ Appendiceal wall thickening (&gt;3 mm) and enhancement</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 44 yr old man is referred to your center for management of severe hyperglycemia. During examination, you note that patient has enlarged feet, coarse facial features, and prognathism. You suspect acromegaly. Which of the following tests can you use as a screening method for this condition ? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral glucose challenge test with GH level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insulin like growth factor 1 binding potein -3 (IGFBP-3 )", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulin like growth factor -1 levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Random growth hormone levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Insulin like growth factor -1 levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Insulin like growth factor-1 levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serum IGF-1 is the preferred initial test for screening acromegaly due to its reliability and the persistence of elevated levels in the presence of excessive GH production. This test provides a stable indicator of disease activity and is less variable than direct GH measurements.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male patient has been on 5 mg haloperidol for several days. However, he has been experiencing inner restlessness and a strong want to move for the past four days. The most likely diagnosis is: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Akathisia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tardive dyskinesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rabbit syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute dystonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Akathisia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Akathisia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Akathisia is characterized by a sense of inner restlessness along with objective, observable movements such as fidgeting of legs, pacing around, inability to sit or stand in one place for a long time. They can present soon after starting the antipsychotic or after dosage adjustments. It is the most common extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotics. Drug of choice is Propranolol (beta blockers).</li><li>➤ sense of inner restlessness</li><li>➤ objective, observable movements</li><li>➤ most common extrapyramidal side effect</li><li>➤ Drug of choice is Propranolol</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry, 14th edition, Page No 114</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug must always be available for emergency use in labor ward if a patient is on opioid analgesic? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fentanyl", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Morphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bupivacaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Naloxone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Naloxone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist capable of reversing respiratory depression induced by opioid narcotics. It acts by displacing the narcotic from specific receptors in the central nervous system, thus reversing the effects of the opioid, including respiratory depression. This makes it an essential drug to have on hand in the labor ward when a patient is receiving opioid analgesics.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Fentanyl: This is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for reversing opioid effects.</li><li>• Option A. Fentanyl:</li><li>• Option C. Morphine: This is another opioid analgesic and would not be used to counteract the effects of other opioids.</li><li>• Option C. Morphine:</li><li>• Option D. Bupivacaine: This is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia, not an opioid antagonist.</li><li>• Option D. Bupivacaine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Naloxone must always be available in the labor ward for emergency use when a patient is on opioid analgesic to promptly reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 546, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 546, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is not a feature of myasthenia gravis among the following? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muscle fatigue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Absent deep tendon reflexes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal pupillary reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ptosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Absent deep tendon reflexes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Absent deep tendon reflexes.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deep tendon reflexes are preserved in myasthenia gravis despite significant muscle weakness and fatigability, distinguishing it from other neuromuscular disorders that might also lead to reflex abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While examining a patient in supine position, the examiner keeps his hand below the heel of one foot and asks the patient to flex the other hip against resistance, while keeping the week leg straight. This is known as:(AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Waddell’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "O’ Donoghue’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hoover’s sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "McMurray test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hoover’s sign", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture27.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture28.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture29.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hoover’s sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While examining a patient in supine position, the examiner keeps his hand below the heel of one foot and asks the patient to flex the other hip against resistance, while keeping the week leg straight. This is known as Hoover’s sign .</li><li>➤ Hoover’s sign</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are features of Zika Fever except? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Petechial rash", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Guillan barre syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fever with arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conjunctivitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Petechial rash", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Petechial rash</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zika fever typically presents with a maculopapular rash, conjunctivitis, fever, and arthralgia, and it can be complicated by Guillain-Barre syndrome. Petechial rash is not a common feature and is more indicative of Dengue fever.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who used to work out regularly at the gym gradually developed pain in the hip which is aggravated while squatting. He gives history of regular steroid and creatine use over last six months. There is flattening of femoral head and subchondral cysts were seen on X-ray. What is the likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AVN of hip", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "TB of hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fracture neck of femur", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteomalacia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. AVN of hip", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/screenshot-2024-02-07-155005.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/screenshot-2024-02-07-161342.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture24.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. AVN of hip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pain in the hip aggravated while squatting with history of regular use of steroid over last six months, flattening of femoral head and presence of subchondral cysts on X-ray are suggestive of AVN of the hip.</li><li>➤ Pain in the hip aggravated while squatting with history of regular use of steroid over last six months, flattening of femoral head and presence of subchondral cysts on X-ray are suggestive of AVN of the hip.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sprengel’s deformity associated with all except: (INICET Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital scoliosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dextrocardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diastematomyelia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klippel-Feil syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dextrocardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture25.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/07/picture26.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Dextrocardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dextrocardia is rarely associated with Sprengel’s Deformity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A new IT employee is feeling guilty, miserable, and unable to concentrate on his task. His symptoms began three years ago, when he began college. The following is the most likely diagnosis: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Depressive disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dysthymia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adjustment disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyclothymia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dysthymia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dysthymia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dysthymia is characterized by chronic, less severe depressive symptoms lasting at least two years . Symptoms should not even be severe enough to meet the criteria of mild depressive disorder . (Subsyndromal depression &gt;2 years duration). If the depressive disorder continues for more than 2 years, it is known as chronic depression .</li><li>➤ at least two years</li><li>➤ not even be severe enough to meet the criteria of mild depressive disorder</li><li>➤ chronic depression</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 73.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following instrument commonly used in obstetrics? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mayo scissors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curved scissors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Suture remover", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Episiotomy scissors", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Episiotomy scissors", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_j5V5gW3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Episiotomy scissors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Episiotomy scissors are specifically designed to perform an episiotomy, which is a surgical incision made in the perineum to facilitate childbirth and prevent severe perineal tears. Their use is restricted to specific obstetric situations to avoid unnecessary complications.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 755 Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 755 Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He was discharged after removing the drain tube on the first postoperative day. On day three, the patient returned to the hospital and was febrile. On ultrasound examination, there was a 5 x 5 cm collection in the subhepatic space. Next best step is? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To give oral antibiotics since the given accumulation is normal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To re-explore the wound and insert a T-tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insert pigtail catheter for drainage", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ERCP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Insert pigtail catheter for drainage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Insert pigtail catheter for drainage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bile duct injury</li><li>➤ Bile duct injury</li><li>➤ Usually manifests in the postoperative period</li><li>➤ Usually manifests in the postoperative period</li><li>➤ Clinical features</li><li>➤ Fever Increasing abdominal pain Jaundice Bile leakage from an incision</li><li>➤ Fever</li><li>➤ Increasing abdominal pain</li><li>➤ Jaundice</li><li>➤ Bile leakage from an incision</li><li>➤ Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Imaging: Ultrasonography</li><li>➤ Imaging:</li><li>➤ To assess for a fluid collection and to evaluate the biliary tree</li><li>➤ To assess for a fluid collection and to evaluate the biliary tree</li><li>➤ Treatment Strategy</li><li>➤ Treatment Strategy</li><li>➤ Control of infection, limiting inflammation Percutaneous drainage of periportal fluid collections Parenteral antibiotics Clear and thorough delineation of entire biliary anatomy Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), especially if cystic-duct stump leak is suspected Reestablishment of biliary-enteric continuity (surgery) Tension-free, mucosa-to-mucosa anastomosis Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy</li><li>➤ Control of infection, limiting inflammation</li><li>➤ Percutaneous drainage of periportal fluid collections</li><li>➤ Parenteral antibiotics</li><li>➤ Clear and thorough delineation of entire biliary anatomy</li><li>➤ Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)</li><li>➤ Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), especially if cystic-duct stump leak is suspected</li><li>➤ Reestablishment of biliary-enteric continuity (surgery) Tension-free, mucosa-to-mucosa anastomosis Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy</li><li>➤ Tension-free, mucosa-to-mucosa anastomosis Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy</li><li>➤ Tension-free, mucosa-to-mucosa anastomosis</li><li>➤ Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structures marked in the below image gives rise to the heart in an adult? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "D", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "F", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-13.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The above image is of the embryo and the structure which gives rise to the heart in an adult is the heart bulge - a structure marked as ‘D’.</li><li>• The marked structure in the given diagram are</li><li>• The marked structure in the given diagram are</li><li>• A - Head</li><li>• A -</li><li>• B – Primitive lens</li><li>• B –</li><li>• C – Pharyngeal arches</li><li>• C –</li><li>• D – Heart bulge</li><li>• D –</li><li>• E – liver bulge</li><li>• E –</li><li>• F – Limb bud</li><li>• F –</li><li>• G – Leg Bud</li><li>• G –</li><li>• H – Tai</li><li>• H –</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. E (Liver bulge): Does not develop into the heart.</li><li>• Option A. E (Liver bulge):</li><li>• Option C. F (Limb bud): Develops into limbs, not cardiac structures.</li><li>• Option C. F</li><li>• (Limb bud):</li><li>• Option D. A ( Head): Develops into head structures, not the heart.</li><li>• Option D. A</li><li>• Head):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Detailed Developmental stages:</li><li>➤ Detailed Developmental stages:</li><li>➤ 1. Early Formation :</li><li>➤ 1. Early Formation</li><li>➤ In the third week of embryonic development, paired strands of lateral plate mesoderm called the \"cardiogenic mesoderm\" or \"cardiogenic fields\" begin to form in the anterior region of the embryonic disc. These strands coalesce in the midline of the embryo to form the \"cardiac crescent\" or \"heart bulge\".</li><li>➤ In the third week of embryonic development, paired strands of lateral plate mesoderm called the \"cardiogenic mesoderm\" or \"cardiogenic fields\" begin to form in the anterior region of the embryonic disc.</li><li>➤ These strands coalesce in the midline of the embryo to form the \"cardiac crescent\" or \"heart bulge\".</li><li>➤ 2. Heart Tube Formation :</li><li>➤ 2. Heart Tube Formation</li><li>➤ By the beginning of the fourth week, as the embryo undergoes lateral folding, the cardiac crescent fuses in the midline to form a straight heart tube. This tube comprises an outer myocardial layer and an inner endocardial layer with a cardiac jelly in between.</li><li>➤ By the beginning of the fourth week, as the embryo undergoes lateral folding, the cardiac crescent fuses in the midline to form a straight heart tube. This tube comprises an outer myocardial layer and an inner endocardial layer with a cardiac jelly in between.</li><li>➤ 3. Differential Growth and Looping :</li><li>➤ 3. Differential Growth and Looping</li><li>➤ Soon after its formation, the heart tube undergoes differential growth which leads it to elongate. This elongation and subsequent bending result in the process called \"cardiac looping\", where the tube forms a C-shaped loop. The original straight tube's sections become discernible regions: the sinus venosus, atrium, ventricle, bulbus cordis, and truncus arteriosus (from caudal to cranial).</li><li>➤ Soon after its formation, the heart tube undergoes differential growth which leads it to elongate. This elongation and subsequent bending result in the process called \"cardiac looping\", where the tube forms a C-shaped loop.</li><li>➤ The original straight tube's sections become discernible regions: the sinus venosus, atrium, ventricle, bulbus cordis, and truncus arteriosus (from caudal to cranial).</li><li>➤ 4. Partitioning :</li><li>➤ 4. Partitioning</li><li>➤ The single atrium and ventricle of the looped heart tube undergo partitioning (septation) to form the four chambers of the mature heart. The atrioventricular canal, initially a single passage between the atrium and ventricle, is also divided.</li><li>➤ The single atrium and ventricle of the looped heart tube undergo partitioning (septation) to form the four chambers of the mature heart.</li><li>➤ The atrioventricular canal, initially a single passage between the atrium and ventricle, is also divided.</li><li>➤ 5. Formation of Outflow Tracts :</li><li>➤ 5. Formation of Outflow Tracts</li><li>➤ The bulbus cordis and truncus arteriosus undergo remodeling to give rise to the roots and initial portions of the aorta and pulmonary artery.</li><li>➤ The bulbus cordis and truncus arteriosus undergo remodeling to give rise to the roots and initial portions of the aorta and pulmonary artery.</li><li>➤ 6. Incorporation of Sinus Venosus :</li><li>➤ 6. Incorporation of Sinus Venosus</li><li>➤ Initially, the sinus venosus, which receives all the embryonic venous return, opens into the right side of the primitive atrium. With time, the right side of the sinus venosus is incorporated into the forming right atrium, giving rise to the smooth part of its interior (sinus venarum).</li><li>➤ Initially, the sinus venosus, which receives all the embryonic venous return, opens into the right side of the primitive atrium. With time, the right side of the sinus venosus is incorporated into the forming right atrium, giving rise to the smooth part of its interior (sinus venarum).</li><li>➤ 7. Valve Formation :</li><li>➤ 7. Valve Formation</li><li>➤ Valves form from endocardial cushions in the atrioventricular canal and from additional cushions in the truncus arteriosus and bulbus cordis.</li><li>➤ Valves form from endocardial cushions in the atrioventricular canal and from additional cushions in the truncus arteriosus and bulbus cordis.</li><li>➤ 8. Maturation :</li><li>➤ 8. Maturation</li><li>➤ By the end of the embryonic period (8th week), the heart looks much like it will at birth, though further growth and maturation will occur during the fetal period.</li><li>➤ By the end of the embryonic period (8th week), the heart looks much like it will at birth, though further growth and maturation will occur during the fetal period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A recent medical graduate is attending a seminar on Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM). The speaker emphasizes EBM's integrative approach to patient care. Which statement most accurately encapsulates the core philosophy of EBM? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EBM mandates that clinical decisions should exclusively rely on findings from high-quality randomized controlled trials, disregarding other forms of evidence.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "EBM categorically negates the intrinsic value of accumulated clinical experience, positioning empirical research findings as the sole determinant of clinical practice.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EBM harmoniously amalgamates the clinician's individual expertise, accrued through years of practice, with the most robust and relevant external scientific evidence.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "EBM emphasizes a dependency on recommendations primarily made by pharmaceutical companies, given their investment in large-scale research.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. EBM harmoniously amalgamates the clinician's individual expertise, accrued through years of practice, with the most robust and relevant external scientific evidence.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-185116.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) EBM harmoniously amalgamates the clinician's individual expertise, accrued through years of practice, with the most robust and relevant external scientific evidence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The core philosophy of Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM) is to integrate the clinician's expertise with the best available external evidence and patient values to make informed clinical decisions.</li><li>➤ The core philosophy of Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM) is to integrate the clinician's expertise with the best available external evidence and patient values to make informed clinical decisions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old patient was brought to the casualty with high fever and pain in abdomen. He had a history of bloody diarrhea for several months. There was no past history of long-term medications and previous surgeries. The abdominal X-ray image obtained is shown below. What is the most probable diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toxic megacolon", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sigmoid Volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ogilvie syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumatosis intestinalis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Toxic megacolon", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-179.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Toxic megacolon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The X-ray image shows a dilated loop of the transverse colon &gt; 6 cm. The history of bloody diarrhea and loss of haustrations are suggestive of ulcerative colitis. Sudden onset of fever, abdominal pain with dilated loops of bowel in a patient with ulcerative colitis point towards toxic megacolon.</li><li>➤ A plain abdominal X-ray film can indicate the severity of ulcerative colitis in the acute setting and is especially valuable in demonstrating the development of toxic megacolon. The next step would be to perform a CECT abdomen to assess status of bowel and urgent exploration may be needed if ischemia or perforation is seen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cause of death in the position shown in the image below is: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wedging", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Burking", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positional asphyxia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Traumatic asphyxia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Positional asphyxia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-104356.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Positional asphyxia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classification of Mechanical Asphyxia</li><li>➤ Classification of Mechanical Asphyxia</li><li>➤ 1. Suffocation Asphyxia</li><li>➤ 1. Suffocation Asphyxia</li><li>➤ Smothering Gagging Traumatic Asphyxia (Crush Asphyxia) Positional Asphyxia (Postural Asphyxia) Burking Overlaying Choking (Café Coronary)</li><li>➤ Smothering</li><li>➤ Gagging</li><li>➤ Traumatic Asphyxia (Crush Asphyxia)</li><li>➤ Positional Asphyxia (Postural Asphyxia)</li><li>➤ Burking</li><li>➤ Overlaying</li><li>➤ Choking (Café Coronary)</li><li>➤ 2. Compression of neck</li><li>➤ 2. Compression of neck</li><li>➤ Hanging – force is body weight / body is suspended Strangulation – force is anything other than body weight / no suspension.</li><li>➤ Hanging – force is body weight / body is suspended</li><li>➤ Strangulation – force is anything other than body weight / no suspension.</li><li>➤ 3. Drowning</li><li>➤ 3. Drowning</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a Partogram, where do you start plotting the cervical dilatation? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "On the action line", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Before the action line", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "On the alert line", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "After the alert line", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. On the alert line", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) On the alert line</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the WHO modified partograph, labor progression is charted using alert and action lines. The cervical dilatation is plotted starting in the active phase of labor, typically at 4 cm dilation.</li><li>• Alert Line : Represents a cervical dilation rate of 1 cm per hour. The first marking of cervical dilatation should be on this line. Action Line : Plotted 4 hours to the right of the alert line. It indicates when intervention should be considered if labor is not progressing as expected.</li><li>• Alert Line : Represents a cervical dilation rate of 1 cm per hour. The first marking of cervical dilatation should be on this line.</li><li>• Alert Line</li><li>• Action Line : Plotted 4 hours to the right of the alert line. It indicates when intervention should be considered if labor is not progressing as expected.</li><li>• Action Line</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. On the action line: Plotting starts on the alert line, not the action line. The action line is used for intervention planning.</li><li>• Option A. On the action line:</li><li>• Option B. Before the action line: This is incorrect as the plotting starts on the alert line.</li><li>• Option B. Before the action line:</li><li>• Option D. After the alert line: This is incorrect since plotting should start on the alert line.</li><li>• Option D. After the alert line:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a Partogram, cervical dilatation is first plotted on the alert line, which indicates the expected rate of progress in labor.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/337693/9789240017566-eng.pdf</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/337693/9789240017566-eng.pdf</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following serves as cofactor for Glycogen phosphorylase? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyridoxal Phosphate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biotin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pyridoxal Phosphate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pyridoxal Phosphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) is the cofactor for glycogen phosphorylase and is also involved in amino acid metabolism, heme synthesis, and niacin production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the reason for using phenylbutyrate in urea cycle disorders? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It maintains renal output", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It scavenges nitrogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It maintains energy production", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It activates enzymes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It scavenges nitrogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It scavenges nitrogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phenylbutyrate is used in urea cycle disorders to scavenge nitrogen by reacting with glutamine, converting excess ammonia into phenylacetylglutamine, which is then excreted in the urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Defect at the level of the optic chiasma will result in which of the following visual field defects? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central scotoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bilateral hemianopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Binasal hemianopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bitemporal hemianopia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bitemporal hemianopia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture104.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bitemporal hemianopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bitemporal hemianopia is a classic sign of a lesion at the optic chiasm, often caused by conditions like pituitary tumors or chiasmal compression. This key symptom helps in diagnosing issues that may require urgent intervention to prevent further neurological damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thiamine deficiency results in decreased energy production, because TP? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interferes with alcohol metabolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interferes with transketolase activity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Is coenzyme for pyruvate and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interferes with energy production from amino acids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Is coenzyme for pyruvate and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Is coenzyme for pyruvate and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thiamine deficiency leads to decreased energy production because thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) is a critical coenzyme for pyruvate and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle, essential for ATP generation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young boy from high altitude came with fever and weakness and had the following reports - Hemoglobin 17 g%, TLC is 21,000 with neutrophils 25, lymphocytes 30, eosinophils 5, myelocytes and metamyelocytes 40 in peripheral smear. Next step in the investigation should be: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Philadelphia chromosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "JAK mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythropoietin levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone Marrow biopsy with reticulin stain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Erythropoietin levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-02-132158.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Erythropoietin levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected polycythemia, particularly in patients from high-altitude areas, erythropoietin levels should be assessed first to differentiate between primary and secondary causes of polycythemia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortans pathologic basis of disease, Page No. 1161, 1242</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cortans pathologic basis of disease, Page No. 1161, 1242</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old boy presented to the OPD with a scald injury on his arm. The lesion was pink, oozing, and painful to moving air and touch. Which of the following would be the most appropriate management? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silver sulphadiazine cream dressing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Excision and grafting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paraffin gauze dressing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Collagen dressing", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Collagen dressing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Collagen dressing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best dressing for burn wounds is skin; collagen is a good substitute for skin, especially in partial-thickness burns. For full-thickness burns, sequential excision and grafting must be considered.</li><li>➤ Initial treatment for burns includes cleaning the burnt areas and removing loose dead skin. Blisters are de-roofed and an appropriate dressing is applied.</li><li>➤ Biological dressing (collagen dressings, amniotic membrane, etc.) is the preferred dressing material, especially in partial thickness burns.</li><li>➤ If this is not available then a non-adhesive dressing like paraffin gauze impregnated with silver sulfadiazine (SSD) cream, colloidal silver, ionic silver cream, or silver nitrate cream may be applied. Since increased resistance to SSD has recently emerged, it should be used judiciously and reserved for deep dermal, full thickness, infected, and old neglected burns.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following Immunohistochemistry marker is used in Cyclin D1 negative Mantle cell lymphoma? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SOX11", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ITRA 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MYD88", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Annexin V", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. SOX11", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-173853.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) SOX11</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DDs of NHL: -</li><li>➤ DDs of NHL: -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A metal factory worker suffers from noise-induced hearing loss. Which of the following structures will be affected? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crista ampullaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cupola", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Outer hair cells", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Outer hair cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Outer hair cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Noise-induced hearing loss specifically damages the outer hair cells in the cochlea, leading to hearing impairment.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 36, 37</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 36, 37</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with complaints of inability to move his 4th and 5th digit, cannot hold a pen and he was not able to hold a paper between fingers. Which of the following sites given below is the probable cause of injury to the nerve in question? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "9", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 7", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-23.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 7</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tests for ulnar nerve lesions are as follows:</li><li>➤ Tests for ulnar nerve lesions are as follows:</li><li>➤ 1. Card Test : This isn't a widely recognized test in the context of ulnar nerve pathology. However, in some practices, the card test might refer to asking the patient to hold a card (like a credit card) between their thumb and the side of their index finger. Difficulty or inability to do this due to a weak adductor pollicis muscle (innervated by the ulnar nerve) may suggest ulnar nerve dysfunction.</li><li>➤ 1. Card Test</li><li>➤ 2. Claw Hand Deformity : This is seen in ulnar nerve injuries. In a typical ulnar claw hand, the 4th and 5th digits (ring and little fingers) are hyperextended at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints and flexed at the interphalangeal (IP) joints. This occurs due to the loss of function of the lumbricals and interossei of the hand, which are innervated by the ulnar nerve.</li><li>➤ 2. Claw Hand Deformity</li><li>➤ 3. Froment's Sign : This is a classic sign of ulnar nerve palsy. The patient is asked to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and the side of their index finger (pinch grip). If the ulnar nerve is compromised, the patient will compensate by flexing the thumb's IP joint to maintain grip strength, which is a positive Froment's sign. This indicates weakness or paralysis of the adductor pollicis muscle.</li><li>➤ 3. Froment's Sign</li><li>➤ 4. Wartenberg Sign : In ulnar nerve injury, there's unopposed action of the extensor digiti minimi, which leads to abduction of the little finger. The patient will be unable to bring their little finger back to the side of the hand, leading to the \"Wartenberg sign.\"</li><li>➤ 4. Wartenberg Sign</li><li>➤ 5. Palmaris Brevis Sign : This is a sign of ulnar nerve functionality. The palmaris brevis muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve. Upon tapping or massaging the hypothenar eminence (palm side of the hand, base of the little finger), contraction of the palmaris brevis muscle can be observed as a twitching or dimpling. If present, it indicates that at least part of the ulnar nerve's function remains intact.</li><li>➤ 5. Palmaris Brevis Sign</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the root value of cremasteric reflex? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T8, T9", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L1, L2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "L3, L4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "S1, S2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. L1, L2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. L1, L2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The cremasteric reflex is mediated through the sensory fibers of the ilioinguinal nerve (L1) and the motor fibers of the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve (L1, L2). When the inner thigh is stroked, sensory impulses travel via the ilioinguinal nerve to the spinal cord segments L1 and L2, and motor impulses from these segments, through the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, cause the cremaster muscle to contract, pulling the testicles upward.</li><li>• The cremasteric reflex's afferent and efferent branches:</li><li>• Afferent - Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve Efferent - Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve</li><li>• Afferent - Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve</li><li>• Afferent</li><li>• Efferent - Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve</li><li>• Efferent -</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. T8, T9 : These thoracic spinal nerve roots primarily innervate the muscles and skin of the thoracic region and contribute to the intercostal nerves. They are not involved in the cremasteric reflex.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• T8, T9</li><li>• Option C . L3, L4 : These lumbar spinal nerve roots are primarily associated with the front of the thigh and the medial side of the leg and foot. The femoral nerve, which is the largest nerve arising from the lumbar plexus, is derived from these roots. These roots are not directly involved in the cremasteric reflex but are important for the patellar (knee-jerk) reflex.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• L3, L4</li><li>• Option D . S1, S2 : These sacral spinal nerve roots play a major role in innervating the posterior thigh, most of the leg and foot, and the perineum. They contribute to the sciatic nerve, among others. Reflexes like the ankle jerk (Achilles reflex) involve these nerve roots. They are not associated with the cremasteric reflex.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• S1, S2</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cremasteric reflex is mediated by L1 and L2. In this reflex, there is ipsilateral elevation of the testicle following stroking of the medial thigh.</li><li>➤ Other clinical reflexes and their root values: -</li><li>➤ Other clinical reflexes and their root values: -</li><li>➤ Achilles reflex – S1, S2</li><li>➤ Patellar reflex – L3, L4</li><li>➤ Biceps and brachio-radialis reflexes – C5, C6</li><li>➤ Triceps reflex – C7, C8</li><li>➤ Anal wink reflex – S3, S4</li><li>➤ Abdominal reflex – T7 – T12</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glucosamines are used in which of the following conditions? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Niemann Pick disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alzheimer's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-170736.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Arthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucosamine is used in the treatment of arthritis due to its role in maintaining healthy cartilage and joint function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following represents a holocrine gland? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-92.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-93.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-94.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/untitled-95.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Holocrine secretions are produced in the cytoplasm of the cell and released by the rupture of the plasma membrane, which destroys the cell and results in the secretion of the product into the lumen.</li><li>➤ Examples of holocrine glands are: -</li><li>➤ Examples of holocrine glands are: -</li><li>➤ Sebaceous glands of the skin and Meibomian glands of the eyelid</li><li>➤ Sebaceous glands of the skin and</li><li>➤ Meibomian glands of the eyelid</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image depicts which of the following diseases? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scabies", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ichthyosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contact dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urticaria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Scabies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13535.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/6_ovdQw8L.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/7_RUt0k4v.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Scabies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of linear tunnel like lesions called as burrows in the stratum corneum of the skin, as depicted in the image, is a hallmark sign of scabie s, distinguishing it from other skin conditions like ichthyosis, contact dermatitis, and urticaria.</li><li>➤ linear tunnel like</li><li>➤ burrows</li><li>➤ corneum</li><li>➤ hallmark sign</li><li>➤ scabie</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 34 page no 34.39-34.47</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 34 page no 34.39-34.47</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no: 3274</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page no: 3274</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bio-film confer resistance to antibiotics by all except? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mechanical barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased excretion of antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Slow metabolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adherence", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Adherence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Adherence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Biofilms confer resistance to antibiotics through mechanisms such as mechanical barriers, efflux pumps, slow metabolism, and the presence of persisters. Adherence, while important for colonization, does not contribute directly to antibiotic resistance within biofilms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pharmaceutical company conducted a double-blind clinical trial comparing a new antidiabetic drug to a placebo. The study enrolled an equal number of participants in both arms. Based on the data below, what are the Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) and Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) for adverse effects? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RRR 11%, ARR 11%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RRR 11%, ARR 1%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "RRR 1%, ARR 11%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RRR 1%, ARR 1%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. RRR 11%, ARR 1%", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/screenshot-2023-10-18-185941.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) RRR 11%, ARR 1%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) reflects the proportionate reduction in risk between two groups, while the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) provides the difference in risk between them</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A study on postpartum depression in mothers compares depression rates based on the gender of their newborns using the Edinburgh Depression Scale Score (EDSS). Which statistical method should be used to determine if there's a significant association between the newborn's gender and postpartum depression? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Students t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paired t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chi square test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chi square test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/20/2222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chi square test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is analyzing the results of a study comparing two antihypertensive drugs in an Indian population. She comes across the term \"p-value\" in her statistical analyses. Which of the following best describes the interpretation of a p-value with regard to the probability related to the null hypothesis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Not rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Not rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the pelvic diaphragm in the picture given below? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-26.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-27.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure marked \"A\" is the levator ani muscle which is part of the pelvic diaphragm.</li><li>• The levator ani is the principal muscle of the pelvic floor and is composed of three parts: the puborectalis, the pubococcygeus, and the iliococcygeus. It is primarily innervated by the pudendal nerve and the S4 nerve root.</li><li>• The structure marked in the given image are:</li><li>• The structure marked in the given image are:</li><li>• A. Levator ani</li><li>• A. Levator ani</li><li>• B. Sphincter ani externus</li><li>• B. Sphincter ani externus</li><li>• C. Obturator muscle</li><li>• C. Obturator muscle</li><li>• D. Perianal fascia</li><li>• D. Perianal fascia</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sphincter Ani Externus (External Anal Sphincter) : This is a circular muscle that surrounds the anus. It's located below the level of the levator ani. It is innervated by the pudendal nerve, allowing for voluntary control over defecation.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Sphincter Ani Externus (External Anal Sphincter)</li><li>• Option C. Obturator Muscle : This term often refers to two muscles - obturator externus and obturator internus. They are situated on either side of the obturator membrane in the pelvis. Obturator Externus : Obturator nerve and Obturator Internus : Nerve to obturator internus (a branch of the sacral plexus).</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Obturator Muscle</li><li>• Obturator Externus</li><li>• Obturator Internus</li><li>• Option D. Perianal Fascia : The perianal fascia is not a muscle but is the connective tissue located in the perianal region, around the anus. It's part of the deeper layers of the skin in this region. It's associated with various potential spaces that can become sites of abscess formation if there's an infection.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Perianal Fascia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The levator ani muscle is a key component of the pelvic diaphragm, supporting pelvic organs and aiding in fecal continence, illustrating its critical role in both pelvic structure and function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows the insertion of transversus abdominis muscle. Identify the conjoint tendon: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-17.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/25/inicet-anat-2017-18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transversus Abdominis muscle</li><li>➤ Transversus Abdominis muscle</li><li>➤ Origin: Internal surface of 7th -12th costal cartilages, thoracolumbar fascia, iliac crest, connective tissue deep to lateral third of inguinal ligament.</li><li>➤ Origin:</li><li>➤ Insertion: Linea Alba with aponeurosis of internal oblique, pubic crest, and pecten pubis via the conjoint tendon.</li><li>➤ Insertion:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with complaints of high-grade fever &amp; altered sensorium. He was diagnosed to be suffering from meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate empirical treatment? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Penicillin G", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cefotetan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cefoxitin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ceftriaxone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ceftriaxone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ceftriaxone is the preferred empirical therapy for meningococcal meningitis due to its effective CNS penetration, broad antibacterial coverage, and favorable dosing regimen. Immediate initiation of empirical therapy is crucial in suspected bacterial meningitis to prevent severe outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman has a fetus with Down's syndrome. Triple test done at 15-16 weeks will have? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low MSAFP, high hCG, low UE3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "High MSAFP, low hCG, high UE3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low MSAFP, high hCG, high UE3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High MSAFP, low hCG, low UE3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Low MSAFP, high hCG, low UE3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/untitled-296.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Low MSAFP, high hCG, low UE3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The triple and quadruple test is done between 15 – 21 weeks.</li><li>• Components of Triple test are: Free β hCG, unconjugated Estriol (uE3) and Maternal Serum α-fetoprotein. Components of the Quadruple test are: Free β hCG, unconjugated Estriol (uE3), Maternal Serum α-fetoprotein. And Inhibin A.</li><li>• Components of Triple test are: Free β hCG, unconjugated Estriol (uE3) and Maternal Serum α-fetoprotein.</li><li>• Components of the Quadruple test are: Free β hCG, unconjugated Estriol (uE3), Maternal Serum α-fetoprotein. And Inhibin A.</li><li>• *Easy to remember: B for B ig; so in Down’s syndrome; B eta hCG and Inhi B in A: B ig/ Increased</li><li>• B</li><li>• B</li><li>• B</li><li>• B</li><li>• B</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The triple test results for Down's syndrome typically show low MSAFP, high hCG, and low uE3.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 859, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 859, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presented with heartburn and increased salivation. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy was done, and the biopsy result is shown below. What is the diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophagitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barrett's esophagus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Barrett's esophagus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/43.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-170620.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/45.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Barrett’s esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Barrett's esophagus is a premalignant condition marked by intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells within the esophageal squamous mucosa, requiring regular surveillance for dysplasia and potential progression to adenocarcinoma.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 1464</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 1464</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old female patient presents with an ovarian mass. On further evaluation, her serum biomarkers are found to be normal except for LDH, which is found to be elevated. The most likely diagnosis is: (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysgerminoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endodermal sinus tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant teratoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dysgerminoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dysgerminoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical history of a 16-year-old female presenting with an ovarian mass with raised LDH points towards the diagnosis of dysgerminoma. Dysgerminomas usually arise in young women or in children, with an average incidence at the age of 20. They currently account for approximately one-third of all malignant ovarian germ cell tumors and are the most common malignant ovarian tumors found in pregnancy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Endodermal sinus tumor: This is typically associated with elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), not LDH.</li><li>• Option B. Endodermal sinus tumor:</li><li>• Option C. Malignant teratoma: This type of tumor does not typically present with elevated LDH as the sole abnormal marker.</li><li>• Option C. Malignant teratoma:</li><li>• Option D. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma: This epithelial ovarian tumor is usually associated with elevated CA-125, not LDH.</li><li>• Option D. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dysgerminoma is the most likely diagnosis in a young female with an ovarian mass and elevated LDH levels.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 381, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 381, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with glaucoma presents with a bulging cornea. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keratoconus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Keratomalacia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphyloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Granular dystrophy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Staphyloma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture9_NK8F4My.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture110.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Staphyloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staphyloma, particularly anterior and ciliary types, can develop due to high intraocular pressure in glaucoma, leading to the protrusion of the uveal tissue through a weakened cornea or sclera.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be used as an intravenous induction agent? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propofol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bupivacaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dexmedetomidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neostigmine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Propofol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Propofol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Propofol is a short-acting intravenous anesthetic agent widely used for the induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. It has a rapid onset and produces a smooth and quick recovery, but can cause hypotension and respiratory depression.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Bupivacaine: Bupivacaine is a local anesthetic. It is not used as an intravenous induction agent for general anesthesia. Instead, it's used for regional anesthesia like epidural or nerve blocks. When administered systemically, it can be toxic, especially to the cardiovascular and central nervous systems.</li><li>• Option B. Bupivacaine:</li><li>• Option C. Dexmedetomidine: Dexmedetomidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. It provides sedation without causing respiratory depression. Although it is used for sedation in the ICU and for certain procedures, it's not typically used as a primary induction agent for general anesthesia.</li><li>• Option C. Dexmedetomidine:</li><li>• Option D. Neostigmine : Neostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. It is used to reverse neuromuscular blockade (from non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers) at the end of a surgery. It is not used as an induction agent for anesthesia.</li><li>• Option D. Neostigmine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Propofol is a widely used intravenous induction agent for general anesthesia due to its rapid onset and smooth recovery profile.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct sequence for CPR in Basic life support?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Assess the patient's response, Activate ERS, check carotid pulse, Start CPR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Check carotid pulse, Start CPR, call for help and activate ERS, Defibrillate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Defibrillate, assess response, check carotid pulse, Maintain airway", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start CPR, Activate ERS, Defibrillate, Check pulse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Assess the patient's response, Activate ERS, check carotid pulse, Start CPR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Assess the patient's response, Activate ERS, check carotid pulse, Start CPR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 2715-2716</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs</li><li>➤ 2715-2716</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Absolute refractory period is due to? (AIIMS NOVEMBER 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Opening of calcium channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Closure of potassium channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Closure of active gates of sodium channel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Closure of inactive gates of sodium channel", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Closure of inactive gates of sodium channel", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Closure of inactive gates of sodium channel</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The absolute refractory period is due to the closure of the inactive gates of sodium channels, preventing the initiation of a new action potential during this period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "X, Y, Z are three permeable ions. X = -50 and Y = -30. At RMP, if there is no net electrogenic transfer, what is the value of Z? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "+20", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "-20", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "+80", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "-80", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. +80", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) + 80</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ No net electrogenic transfer at resting membrane potential (RMP) implies that the sum of the equilibrium potentials of the ions is zero</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Slow waves are generated by: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myenteric neurons", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Smooth muscle cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interstitial cells of Cajal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parasympathetic neurons", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Interstitial cells of Cajal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Interstitial cells of Cajal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Slow waves in the gastrointestinal tract are generated by the interstitial cells of Cajal, which act as electrical pacemakers for smooth muscle cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The fourth heart sound is caused by: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vibrations in the ventricular wall during systole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventricular filling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ventricular filling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ventricular filling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fourth heart sound (S4) is caused by the atrial contraction and the subsequent inrush of blood into the ventricles, which initiates vibrations similar to those of the third heart sound.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the 2 vessels shown below, assume the pressure along both the vessels is the same and both follow linear flow pattern. What will be the amount of blood flow in A compared to B? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 times", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "32 times", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "8 times", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "16 times", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 8 times", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2017-05.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/1202.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 8 times</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to Poiseuille's law blood flow (𝐹 F ) is:</li><li>➤ According to Poiseuille's law blood flow (𝐹</li><li>➤ F</li><li>➤ ) is:</li><li>➤ Directly proportional to the pressure difference (Δ𝑃Δ P ) Inversely proportional to the viscosity (𝜂 η ) Directly proportional to the fourth power of the radius (𝑟4 r 4) Inversely proportional to the length of the vessel (𝑙 l )</li><li>➤ Directly proportional to the pressure difference (Δ𝑃Δ P )</li><li>➤ Inversely proportional to the viscosity (𝜂 η )</li><li>➤ Directly proportional to the fourth power of the radius (𝑟4 r 4)</li><li>➤ Inversely proportional to the length of the vessel (𝑙 l )</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old pregnant woman came with a history of thyroid swelling. FNAC was done and the report was suggestive of papillary carcinoma thyroid. The nodule was \"cold\" on scan. Which of the following will not be a treatment option for her? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total Thyroidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total Thyroidectomy plus Lymph node dissection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radioiodine ablation of thyroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right Hemithyroidectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radioiodine ablation of thyroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Radioiodine ablation of thyroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radioiodine ablation of thyroid is contraindicated in pregnant women due to risk of radiation exposure to the fetus.</li><li>➤ Therapeutic uses for Radioactive lodine</li><li>➤ In primary thyrotoxicosis after the age of 45 years. In autonomous toxic nodule after 45 years, it is useful as remaining gland will still function adequately after radiotherapy. In papillary/follicular carcinoma of thyroid, after total thyroidectomy, if there are secondaries elsewhere in the body, as in bones or lungs, then I 131 is given.</li><li>➤ In primary thyrotoxicosis after the age of 45 years.</li><li>➤ In autonomous toxic nodule after 45 years, it is useful as remaining gland will still function adequately after radiotherapy.</li><li>➤ In papillary/follicular carcinoma of thyroid, after total thyroidectomy, if there are secondaries elsewhere in the body, as in bones or lungs, then I 131 is given.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 41-year-old woman was diagnosed with breast cancer of 1.2 X 1 cm with positive axillary nodes and underwent treatment for the same. She completed radiotherapy and chemotherapy and is now receiving tamoxifen. How will you follow up the patient? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Annual mammogram", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Regular checking of LFT once in 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follow-up with tumor markers once in 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yearly bone scans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Annual mammogram", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Annual mammogram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Follow-up of patients after treatment of breast cancer consists of routine physical examination once in 3 months for a year and annual mammogram.</li><li>➤ Mammography is the only imaging modality required for follow-up after breast cancer surgery. Tumor markers, serum investigations, or any other imaging studies like bone scan currently have no role in follow-up.</li><li>➤ Guidelines for follow-up:</li><li>➤ Guidelines for follow-up:</li><li>➤ Physical examination:</li><li>➤ Physical examination:</li><li>➤ For the first 2 years: once every 3 to 6 months For 3-5 years: once every 6 to 12 months After 5 years: Annually</li><li>➤ For the first 2 years: once every 3 to 6 months</li><li>➤ For 3-5 years: once every 6 to 12 months</li><li>➤ After 5 years: Annually</li><li>➤ Mammography:</li><li>➤ Mammography:</li><li>➤ Initially, 6 months after surgery Thereafter, annually.</li><li>➤ Initially, 6 months after surgery</li><li>➤ Thereafter, annually.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL and GFR of 90 ml/min. What is the amount of glucose excreted if the transport maximum of the patient is as shown below? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "80 mg/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50 mg/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "40 mg/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30 mg/min", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 30 mg/min", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2017-01.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 30 mg/min</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Total filtered glucose=GFR × Plasma glucose concentration</li><li>➤ Excretion=Total filtered glucose−Total reabsorbed glucose (Transport Max.)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be responsible for Bezold-Jarisch reflex? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prostaglandin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Angiotensin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Serotonin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2017-02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Serotonin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serotonin, capsaicin, phenyl biguanide, and veratridine can cause Bezold-Jarisch reflex .</li><li>➤ Serotonin, capsaicin, phenyl biguanide, and veratridine can cause Bezold-Jarisch reflex</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "\"a\" wave on JVP is for: ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atrial contraction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial filling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventricular relaxation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular filling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Atrial contraction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2017-03.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2017-04.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Atrial contraction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old boy presents with involuntary dancing movements of his right hand. He was diagnosed with rheumatic fever. What constitutes the ganglia involved in the presenting complication? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caudate nucleus and globus pallidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Globus pallidus and putamen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Globus pallidus and lentiform nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caudate nucleus and putamen", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Caudate nucleus and putamen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Caudate nucleus and putamen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ganglia involved in Sydenham chorea, associated with rheumatic fever, are the caudate nucleus and putamen, which are part of the basal ganglia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male developed 5 episodes of loose stools 2 hours after eating in a restaurant. He is afebrile and has mild dehydration. What should be the treatment? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ciprofloxacin and tinidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only ORS", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ciprofloxacin, tinidazole and ORS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Only ORS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Only ORS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a young male with afebrile, mild dehydration due to acute diarrhea, the appropriate treatment is oral rehydration solution (ORS) to replace lost fluids and electrolytes. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a suspicion of bacterial infection with severe symptoms or fever.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is a mood stabilizer with an anti-suicidal role? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carbamazepine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lamotrigine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lithium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Valproate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lithium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lithium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lithium is unique among mood stabilizers for its anti-suicidal properties. It significantly reduces the risk of suicide and is effective in stabilizing mood in patients with bipolar disorder and major depressive disorder. Valproate is the drug of choice in rapid cyclers, whereas Lamotrigine is effective as a mood stabilizer in Depression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an idiosyncratic reaction of carbamazepine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blurred vision", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Agranulocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Steven Johnson Syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blurred vision", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Blurred vision</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blurred vision is not an idiosyncratic reaction of carbamazepine; it is a common dose-related side effect. Idiosyncratic reactions to carbamazepine include agranulocytosis, rash, and Steven Johnson Syndrome, which are unpredictable and occur due to individual genetic predispositions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a middle-aged diabetic patient with chronic kidney disease stage 5, which of the following drugs can be given safely without altering the dose? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vildagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Linagliptin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Saxagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sitagliptin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Linagliptin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Linagliptin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Linagliptin can be safely administered to patients with chronic kidney disease stage 5 without the need for dose adjustments due to its unique hepatobiliary excretion pathway, making it the preferred DPP-4 inhibitor in such cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs can be used as an antidote for fibrinolytic therapy? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esilon Amino Caproic Acid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Esilon Amino Caproic Acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Esilon Amino Caproic Acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid is the appropriate antidote for fibrinolytic therapy because it inhibits fibrinolysis by preventing the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, thereby stabilizing blood clots and reducing bleeding risks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An epileptic patient on levetiracetam has been seizure-free for 2 years. But he develops agitation and anger issues interfering with his day-to-day activities as a result of the drug intake. Which of the following measures is to be taken next? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Slowly taper the drug over next 6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Continue levetiracetam since a 5-year seizure free interval is needed", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stop levetiracetam and start on a different anti-epileptic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Discontinue the drug as he is seizure free", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Slowly taper the drug over next 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Slowly taper the drug over next 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a patient on levetiracetam experiences significant psychiatric side effects, the best approach is to slowly taper the medication over several months to prevent rebound seizures and address the side effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A drug was given IV at a rate of 1.6 mg/min. The clearance of the drug is 640 ml/min. The half-life of the drug is 1.8 hour. Calculate the plasma concentration of the drug?( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2.88mg/ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.004mg/ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3.55mg/ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.002mg/ml", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 0.002mg/ml", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 0.002mg/ml</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When given the rate of infusion and clearance, the steady-state plasma concentration of a drug can be calculated using the formula:</li><li>➤ Plasma concentration (C)=Rate of infusion (R)/ Clearance (Cl)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Composition of Lente insulin is? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "70% amorphous 30% crystalline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "70% crystalline 30% amorphous", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only 70% amorphous", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D Other name of NPH insulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 70% crystalline 30% amorphous", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 70% crystalline 30% amorphous</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lente insulin is composed of 70% crystalline (long-acting) and 30% amorphous (short-acting) insulin, making it an intermediate-acting insulin formulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mechanism of action of Oseltamivir as an antiviral agent is? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibition of M2 receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neuraminidase inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhibition of RNA dependent DNA polymerase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Apoptosis of infected cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neuraminidase inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Neuraminidase inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor that is used to treat Influenza A and B. Inhibition of viral neuraminidase inhibits the release of viral progeny from the infected host cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient with a psychotic disorder is receiving antipsychotic, antidepressant, and antihypertensive medication. He developed tachycardia and chest tightness all of a sudden. He was diagnosed with metabolic acidosis. The ECG revealed a widened QRS complex and a prolonged QT interval. Which of the following drugs is the cause of this? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amitriptyline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amlodipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chlorthalidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enalapril", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amitriptyline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Amitriptyline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amitriptyline is a TCA which can lead to widened QRS complex in the ECG along with prolonged QT interval-leading to Torsades de pointes. The antidote used in Amitriptyline toxicity is Sodium Bicarbonate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You and your friend plan for a mountain trip for the day after. What medication would you advise him to help with his motion sickness? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ranitidine tablet before start of trip", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dimenhydrinate before start of trip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scopolamine patch the night before trip", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Omeprazole the night before and before starts of trip", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Scopolamine patch the night before trip", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Scopolamine patch the night before trip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scopolamine, particularly in the form of a transdermal patch, is the drug of choice for the prevention of motion sickness. The patch should be applied the night before the trip to ensure it is effective in preventing the symptoms of motion sickness. Ranitidine and Omeprazole are not effective. Dimenhydrinate is an anti-histaminic drug which is not as effective as scopolamine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following suggests storage of drugs in tissue ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Excretion in saliva", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Excretion in urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Large volume of distribution", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small volume of distribution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Large volume of distribution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Large volume of distribution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A large volume of distribution (Vd) suggests that a drug is extensively distributed and stored in the body's tissues, which can result in a prolonged half-life and slower elimination from the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the constituent of the marked area in the electron microscopic picture of muscle? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha actinin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Actin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Titin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tropomyosin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Alpha actinin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/100202.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2017-06.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Alpha actinin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Z line in a sarcomere is primarily constituted by alpha actinin, which plays a critical role in anchoring actin filaments and maintaining the structural integrity of the muscle fiber.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of septicemia was treated with norepinephrine infusion. Which of the following best parameter is used to monitor the effect of therapy? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bradycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increases urine output", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increases mean arterial blood pressure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increases mean arterial blood pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Increases mean arterial blood pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Noradrenaline acts on the α1, α2 and β1 receptors. It leads to an increase in the SBP, a rise in DBP and therefore a rise in MAP. This helps in improving the perfusion in patients suffering from septic shock. The rise in mean arterial pressure also causes reflex bradycardia but it is not a major contributor to the treatment of septic shock</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Management of hyperkalemia includes all except : (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium gluconate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insulin drip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salbutamol nebulisation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Magnesium sulphate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Magnesium sulphate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Magnesium sulphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management of hyperkalemia</li><li>➤ Management of hyperkalemia</li><li>➤ Calcium gluconate- reduces plasma K+ concentration by redistribution in cells rapidly Insulin- lowers plasma K+ concentration by moving potassium intracellular, insulin dose used – 10units of IV regular insulin f/b 50ml of 50%dextrose Salbutamol Cation exchange resins, diuretics, dialysis.</li><li>➤ Calcium gluconate- reduces plasma K+ concentration by redistribution in cells rapidly</li><li>➤ Insulin- lowers plasma K+ concentration by moving potassium intracellular, insulin dose used – 10units of IV regular insulin f/b 50ml of 50%dextrose</li><li>➤ Salbutamol</li><li>➤ Cation exchange resins, diuretics, dialysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not seen in tumor lysis syndrome ? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperphosphatemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperuricemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypercalcemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypercalcemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypercalcemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In tumor lysis syndrome, the rapid breakdown of tumor cells leads to hypocalcemia , not hypercalcemia, making this the key distinguishing feature in identifying the condition. Management strategies like hydration, use of allopurinol, or rasburicase are critical in preventing renal failure and other serious complications.</li><li>➤ hypocalcemia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following features of stroke need not be treated? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysphagia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spasticity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neglect", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Neglect", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Neglect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While neglect is a common symptom following a stroke, it does not typically require specific medical treatment but rather supportive care and rehabilitation to help the patient adapt. Other physical symptoms such as dysphagia, spasticity, and fever require active medical management to prevent complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-year-old male with attempted poisoning was brought to the casualty in a drowsy state. His pulse was 140/min, respiratory rate -30/min. His ABG showed metabolic acidosis. Urine analysis showed Calcium oxalate crystals. Identify the likely poison?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Formaldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethylene glycol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paraldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methyl alcohol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ethylene glycol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ethylene glycol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethylene glycol poisoning</li><li>➤ Ethylene glycol poisoning</li><li>➤ Ethylene glycol is the major constituent of antifreeze solutions. It is a clear, colorless, odorless, non-volatile liquid with a bitter-sweet taste.</li><li>➤ Action: Ethylene glycol itself is not toxic, but the toxicity is due to metabolites glycolic and oxalic acids which inhibits oxidative phosphorylation.</li><li>➤ Oxalic acid combines with calcium to form calcium oxalate crystals which accumulates in the proximal convoluted tubules causing renal failure. Metabolic acidosis occurs from glycolic acid. Ingestion of ethylene glycol produces CNS depression which may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps . Metabolites of ethylene glycol produce severe metabolic acidosis and damage to the brain, heart, and kidneys</li><li>➤ Oxalic acid combines with calcium to form calcium oxalate crystals which accumulates in the proximal convoluted tubules causing renal failure.</li><li>➤ Metabolic acidosis occurs from glycolic acid.</li><li>➤ Ingestion of ethylene glycol produces CNS depression which may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps . Metabolites of ethylene glycol produce severe metabolic acidosis and damage to the brain, heart, and kidneys</li><li>➤ CNS depression which may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps</li><li>➤ Treatment - Sodium bicarbonate, calcium gluconate, and 4-methyl pyrazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the false statement regarding teeth and ethnicity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "In Africanoids the cusps of molars are wide and deep with shovel shaped cusps in incisors", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caucasians have carabelli cusps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper third molar is most commonly absent in Mongolians", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prominent lingual ridge and labial ridge in mongols", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. In Africanoids the cusps of molars are wide and deep with shovel shaped cusps in incisors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-142652.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. In Africanoids the cusps of molars are wide and deep with shovel shaped cusps in incisors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key differences between race</li><li>➤ Key differences between race</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti rheumatoid drug increases extracellular adenosine? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lefunamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sulphasalazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydroxychloroquine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methotrexate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Methotrexate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methotrexate increases extracellular adenosine by inhibiting AICAR transformylase, leading to the accumulation of AICAR, which competes with AMP deaminase and causes AMP to accumulate and be converted to adenosine outside the cell, thus exerting anti-inflammatory effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy with fever, weight loss came to the hospital. On examination, he was pale and had significant lymphadenopathy. The bone marrow histology of the person is as given below. Your diagnosis is: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute monocytic leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute myelomonocytic leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/51.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-161555.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-171159.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) in children is characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and peripheral blood, along with clinical features of bone marrow failure and organ infiltration by malignant cells.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 1113</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 1113</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old female with history of back ache and polyarthralgia was investigated and found to have nucleolar pattern in IF. Which of the following is the best fit in her case? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Raynaud phenomenon and sclerodactyly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Genital and oral painful ulcers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glomerulonephritis and heart failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Joint pains with nodules on skin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Raynaud phenomenon and sclerodactyly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/54.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-160908.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-171539.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Raynaud phenomenon and sclerodactyly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The nucleolar pattern in IF is most often associated with systemic sclerosis, a condition characterized by Raynaud phenomenon and sclerodactyly, among other systemic manifestations.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Page No. 405, 425</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8th edition, Page No. 405, 425</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-year-old presented with fever. On examination, he had enlarged and ulcerated tonsils. His peripheral blood smear showed lymphocytosis. Monospot test was negative. Tonsillectomy was done and it showed large cells mixed with lymphocytes. The cells were positive for CD20, EB LMP1, MUM1, CD 79a. Background cells were positive for CD3. The cells are negative for CD15. Your most probable diagnosis is? ( AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hodgkin lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "EBV positive - DLBCL, NOS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infectious mononucleosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "EBV positive mucocutaneous ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. EBV positive - DLBCL, NOS", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/62.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) EBV positive – DLBCL, NOS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most probable diagnosis for a patient with enlarged, ulcerated tonsils, lymphocytosis, a negative Monospot test, and immunohistochemical findings of CD20, EB LMP1, MUM1, and CD79a positivity is EBV positive Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma, NOS .</li><li>➤ EBV positive Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma, NOS</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 1121-1123</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 1121-1123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The scraping of a painless genital ulcer, when stained with Gram stain and viewed under the microscope, shows a gram-negative coccobacillus surrounded by neutrophils. What is your diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlamydia trachomatis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemophilus ducreyi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klebsiella granulomatis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Klebsiella granulomatis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/64_VDI7xEt.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/68.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/70.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Klebsiella granulomatis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 664</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Page No. 664</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When papain acts on a molecule of immunoglobulin, which of the following are the end products? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 FC and 1 FAB fragment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 Variable chain and 1 constant chain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 Fc and 2 Fab fragments", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 Fc and 2Fab fragments", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 Fc and 2 Fab fragments", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/78.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1 Fc and 2 Fab fragments</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When an immunoglobulin molecule is digested with papain, the end products are 1 Fc fragment and 2 Fab fragments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the following, which cells have MHC class II? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NK cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "All nucleated cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B cells, dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Platelets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. B cells, dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/82.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) B cells, dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MHC Class II molecules are primarily expressed on B cells, dendritic cells, and mononuclear phagocytes , which are essential for antigen presentation to T-helper cells and the regulation of immune responses.</li><li>➤ MHC Class II molecules</li><li>➤ B cells, dendritic cells, and mononuclear phagocytes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Regarding the procedure done with the needle shown below, which of the following is false? (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To be done in lateral recumbent position", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breath holding is not necessary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The bevel should face upwards while inserting the needle.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coagulopathy is not a contraindication.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Coagulopathy is not a contraindication.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm108.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Coagulopathy is not a contraindication.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coagulopathy is a contraindication for lumbar puncture due to the risk of bleeding and potential for serious complications, contrary to the incorrect statement provided. Always assess the patient’s coagulation status prior to performing an LP.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pancreatic cancer has the highest association with: (AIIMS NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FAMMM Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "FAP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hereditary pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peutz Jegher’s syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Peutz Jegher’s syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Peutz Jegher’s syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pancreatic cancer has highest association with Peutz Jeghers syndrome.</li><li>➤ Hereditary risk factors -</li><li>➤ Hereditary risk factors -</li><li>➤ Peutz Jeghers syndrome- STK 11 (LKB1) Hereditary pancreatitis – PRSS1 / SPIN 11 Cystic fibrosis – CFTR FAMMM (familial atypical multiple mole melanoma)- p16/ CDKN2A Hereditary breast &amp;ovarian cancer- BRCA2 HNPCC/ Lynch syndrome – MLH1, MSH2, MSH 6, PMS2</li><li>➤ Peutz Jeghers syndrome- STK 11 (LKB1)</li><li>➤ Hereditary pancreatitis – PRSS1 / SPIN 11</li><li>➤ Cystic fibrosis – CFTR</li><li>➤ FAMMM (familial atypical multiple mole melanoma)- p16/ CDKN2A</li><li>➤ Hereditary breast &amp;ovarian cancer- BRCA2</li><li>➤ HNPCC/ Lynch syndrome – MLH1, MSH2, MSH 6, PMS2</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man is brought to emergency following an episode of syncope during his morning walk. His blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. He has a history of myocardial infarction 5yrs back. His ECG is given below. Which is the most appropriate treatment for patient? ( AIIMS Nov 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lignocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DC Cardioversion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lidocaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. DC Cardioversion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/26/nm111.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) DC Cardioversion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient presenting with ventricular tachycardia and signs of hemodynamic instability, DC Cardioversion is the recommended treatment to quickly restore normal heart rhythm. Pharmacological treatments like amiodarone may be considered post-cardioversion for rhythm stabilization in stable patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "(1-3)-B-D glucan assay cannot be used in? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Invasive cryptococcosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Invasive aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Invasive candidiasis and candidemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Invasive cryptococcosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Invasive cryptococcosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The (1-3)-β-D-glucan assay is not useful for diagnosing invasive cryptococcosis as it does not detect the major components of the Cryptococcus capsule.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was sputum negative for tuberculosis, but chest X-ray was suggestive of tuberculosis. Which is the next step according to RNTCP? (INICET NOV 2017)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Line probe assay", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CBNAAT", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liquid culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CBNAAT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CBNAAT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with negative sputum smears but chest X-ray findings suggestive of TB, CBNAAT is the recommended next diagnostic step under RNTCP guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy presents with severe hypoglycemia after moderate physical activity. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of ketone bodies, lactic acid, triglycerides, and uric acid. Physical examination shows hepatomegaly and renomegaly. A liver biopsy confirms the presence of excess glycogen deposits in the liver and kidneys. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Von Gierke’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pompe’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "McArdle’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cori’s disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Von Gierke’s disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) von Gierke’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ von Gierke’s disease is the most common glycogen storage disease , caused by a deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase . It presents with severe hypoglycemia , lactic acidosis , hypertriglyceridemia , and hyperuricemia , with glycogen accumulation in the liver and kidneys .</li><li>➤ von Gierke’s disease is the most common glycogen storage disease , caused by a deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase .</li><li>➤ von Gierke’s disease</li><li>➤ glycogen storage disease</li><li>➤ glucose-6-phosphatase</li><li>➤ It presents with severe hypoglycemia , lactic acidosis , hypertriglyceridemia , and hyperuricemia , with glycogen accumulation in the liver and kidneys .</li><li>➤ severe hypoglycemia</li><li>➤ lactic acidosis</li><li>➤ hypertriglyceridemia</li><li>➤ hyperuricemia</li><li>➤ glycogen accumulation</li><li>➤ liver and kidneys</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old man donates platelets via apheresis for the first time. During the procedure, he develops paresthesias and circumoral numbness. His vitals remain stable, but his ECG shows tachycardia with ST-T changes. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek's sign. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypovolemic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allergic reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypocalcemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypocalcemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypocalcemia during apheresis is caused by citrate , an anticoagulant that chelates calcium in the blood. Typical symptoms of hypocalcemia include paresthesias , circumoral numbness , and ECG changes such as QT prolongation . Treatment involves administering calcium gluconate to address acute, symptomatic hypocalcemia.</li><li>➤ Hypocalcemia during apheresis is caused by citrate , an anticoagulant that chelates calcium in the blood.</li><li>➤ Hypocalcemia</li><li>➤ apheresis</li><li>➤ citrate</li><li>➤ Typical symptoms of hypocalcemia include paresthesias , circumoral numbness , and ECG changes such as QT prolongation .</li><li>➤ hypocalcemia</li><li>➤ paresthesias</li><li>➤ circumoral numbness</li><li>➤ ECG changes</li><li>➤ QT prolongation</li><li>➤ Treatment involves administering calcium gluconate to address acute, symptomatic hypocalcemia.</li><li>➤ calcium gluconate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old traveler returns from an endemic area and develops malaria. The initial symptoms resolve with treatment, but a few months later, the patient presents again with recurrent fever and malaise. Laboratory testing reveals Plasmodium species infection. Relapse in malaria is most commonly seen with which of the following species?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasmodium vivax and falciparum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasmodium ovale and falciparum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasmodium vivax and ovale", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasmodium vivax and malariae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Plasmodium vivax and ovale", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Plasmodium vivax and ovale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Relapse in malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale due to the formation of hypnozoites , which are dormant forms in the liver that can reactivate later. Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium malariae do not form hypnozoites , and thus relapse does not occur with these species, although recrudescence (due to incomplete clearance) may occur.</li><li>➤ Relapse in malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale due to the formation of hypnozoites , which are dormant forms in the liver that can reactivate later.</li><li>➤ Relapse</li><li>➤ Plasmodium vivax</li><li>➤ Plasmodium ovale</li><li>➤ hypnozoites</li><li>➤ Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium malariae do not form hypnozoites , and thus relapse does not occur with these species, although recrudescence (due to incomplete clearance) may occur.</li><li>➤ Plasmodium falciparum</li><li>➤ Plasmodium malariae</li><li>➤ hypnozoites</li><li>➤ relapse</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A confirmed case of viral hemorrhagic fever was identified in a hospital in India, with transmission occurring person-to-person. The disease is tick-borne and caused by a Nairovirus species. Which of the following viral hemorrhagic fevers was confirmed in this case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ebola", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marburg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is a tick-borne viral hemorrhagic fever caused by Nairovirus . It has been reported in India and can spread via person-to-person transmission, particularly in healthcare settings.</li><li>➤ Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is a tick-borne viral hemorrhagic fever caused by Nairovirus . It has been reported in India and can spread via person-to-person transmission, particularly in healthcare settings.</li><li>➤ Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF)</li><li>➤ tick-borne</li><li>➤ Nairovirus</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ person-to-person</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with signs of shock. The attending physician decides to calculate the Modified Shock Index to better assess the patient's condition and predict the risk of mortality. Which of the following parameters is used to calculate the Modified Shock Index?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HR/SBP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HR/DBP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HR/MAP", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "PR/SBP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HR/MAP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HR/MAP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Modified Shock Index (MSI) is calculated using heart rate (HR) divided by mean arterial pressure (MAP) , and it is a more sensitive indicator of hemodynamic stability and mortality in shock compared to the original Shock Index (HR/SBP) . MAP provides a better assessment of tissue perfusion and disease severity in critically ill patients.</li><li>➤ The Modified Shock Index (MSI) is calculated using heart rate (HR) divided by mean arterial pressure (MAP) , and it is a more sensitive indicator of hemodynamic stability and mortality in shock compared to the original Shock Index (HR/SBP) .</li><li>➤ Modified Shock Index (MSI)</li><li>➤ heart rate (HR)</li><li>➤ mean arterial pressure (MAP)</li><li>➤ hemodynamic stability</li><li>➤ mortality</li><li>➤ Shock Index (HR/SBP)</li><li>➤ MAP provides a better assessment of tissue perfusion and disease severity in critically ill patients.</li><li>➤ MAP</li><li>➤ tissue perfusion</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic for a well-child visit. The mother asks about developmental milestones and what skills her child should have at this age. Which of the following milestones would you expect a 3-year-old child to display?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hopping on one foot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Handling a spoon", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Copying a triangle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Repeats a sentence of 10 syllables", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Handling a spoon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/16/screenshot-2024-10-16-144648.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/16/screenshot-2024-10-16-145002.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/16/screenshot-2024-10-16-145216.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Handling a spoon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fine motor milestones development includes the following</li><li>➤ The fine motor milestones development includes the following</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following amino acids is not formed through post-translational modification?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Selenocysteine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Triiodothyronine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydroxyproline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydroxylysine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Selenocysteine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Selenocysteine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Selenocysteine is incorporated during translation , not after, and is essential for the function of enzymes involved in redox reactions . Other amino acids, like hydroxyproline , hydroxylysine , and triiodothyronine , are formed through post-translational modifications .</li><li>➤ Selenocysteine is incorporated during translation , not after, and is essential for the function of enzymes involved in redox reactions .</li><li>➤ Selenocysteine</li><li>➤ during translation</li><li>➤ redox reactions</li><li>➤ Other amino acids, like hydroxyproline , hydroxylysine , and triiodothyronine , are formed through post-translational modifications .</li><li>➤ hydroxyproline</li><li>➤ hydroxylysine</li><li>➤ triiodothyronine</li><li>➤ post-translational modifications</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man presents with ascites and undergoes paracentesis. His serum ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is ≥1.1 g/dL. Which of the following is least likely to be the cause of his ascites?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liver failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metastasis to the liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculous peritonitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tuberculous peritonitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tuberculous peritonitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A SAAG ≥1.1 g/dL indicates ascites due to portal hypertension , commonly seen in conditions like cirrhosis , liver metastasis , and cardiac ascites . A SAAG &lt;1.1 g/dL is seen in conditions unrelated to portal hypertension, such as tuberculous peritonitis , peritoneal carcinomatosis , or pancreatic ascites .</li><li>➤ A SAAG ≥1.1 g/dL indicates ascites due to portal hypertension , commonly seen in conditions like cirrhosis , liver metastasis , and cardiac ascites .</li><li>➤ SAAG ≥1.1 g/dL</li><li>➤ portal hypertension</li><li>➤ cirrhosis</li><li>➤ liver metastasis</li><li>➤ cardiac ascites</li><li>➤ A SAAG &lt;1.1 g/dL is seen in conditions unrelated to portal hypertension, such as tuberculous peritonitis , peritoneal carcinomatosis , or pancreatic ascites .</li><li>➤ SAAG &lt;1.1 g/dL</li><li>➤ tuberculous peritonitis</li><li>➤ peritoneal carcinomatosis</li><li>➤ pancreatic ascites</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following substances with their commonly associated terms or conditions: Column A Cocaine LSD Abrus precatorius Capsaicin Column B Hunan hand White lady Purple wedge Gunji", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1=a, 2=b, 3=c, 4=d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1=b, 2=c, 3=d, 4=a", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1=d, 2=a, 3=b, 4=c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1=c, 2=d, 3=a, 4=b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1=b, 2=c, 3=d, 4=a", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1=b, 2=c, 3=d, 4=a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cocaine has various street names, including White lady , Coke , and Snow . LSD is known by names like Purple wedge and Acid . Abrus precatorius (Jequirity bean) is associated with the term Gunji . Capsaicin exposure can cause Hunan hand , especially in workers handling chili peppers.</li><li>➤ Cocaine has various street names, including White lady , Coke , and Snow .</li><li>➤ Cocaine</li><li>➤ White lady</li><li>➤ Coke</li><li>➤ Snow</li><li>➤ LSD is known by names like Purple wedge and Acid .</li><li>➤ LSD</li><li>➤ Purple wedge</li><li>➤ Acid</li><li>➤ Abrus precatorius (Jequirity bean) is associated with the term Gunji .</li><li>➤ Abrus precatorius</li><li>➤ Gunji</li><li>➤ Capsaicin exposure can cause Hunan hand , especially in workers handling chili peppers.</li><li>➤ Capsaicin</li><li>➤ Hunan hand</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A school bus carrying children was involved in a major accident. You are the physician responsible for triage at the scene. Which of the following should be your first priority in managing the patients?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Airway obstruction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grade 4 shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flail chest", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe head injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Airway obstruction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/16/screenshot-2024-10-16-150050.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Airway obstruction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The talocalcaneonavicular joint is classified as which type of joint?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ball and Socket", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Saddle type", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ellipsoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ball and Socket", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/16/screenshot-2024-10-16-150342.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ball and Socket</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient undergoing anti-tubercular therapy (ATT) develops tingling and numbness in the limbs. Which of the following should be supplemented to improve the patient's symptoms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methylcobalamin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pyridoxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pyridoxine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) should be supplemented in patients on isoniazid to prevent or treat peripheral neuropathy . This supplementation is especially important in high-risk individuals, such as those who are malnourished, pregnant, or have other underlying conditions like HIV or diabetes.</li><li>➤ Pyridoxine</li><li>➤ isoniazid</li><li>➤ peripheral neuropathy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn presents with hypotonia and seizures. After further evaluation, the child is diagnosed with Zellweger syndrome. Which of the following accumulates in the brain in this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lactic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Long-chain fatty acids", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Triglycerides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Long-chain fatty acids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Long-chain fatty acids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zellweger syndrome is a peroxisomal disorder that results in the accumulation of very long-chain fatty acids in the brain, leading to severe neurological dysfunction , developmental delays, and a high mortality rate.</li><li>➤ Zellweger syndrome</li><li>➤ very long-chain fatty acids</li><li>➤ neurological dysfunction</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Aiims Nov 2018 2018 11 18 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Klenow fragment lacks the activity of? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3'-5' Exonuclease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5'-3' Exonuclease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5'-&gt;3' DNA polymerase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3'-5' DNA polymerase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5'-3' Exonuclease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 5'-3' Exonuclease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I lacks the 5'-3' exonuclease activity but retains the 5'-&gt;3' polymerase and 3'-5' exonuclease (proofreading) activities, making it useful for DNA synthesis and recombinant DNA technology.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old female patient with a history of chronic arthritis on treatment came with complaints of defective vision in both eyes. On examination, vision in RE = 6/12, LE = 6/18, IOP = 18 mmHg in both eyes, and the anterior segment was normal. The fundus examination and fundus fluorescein angiography (FFA) findings are shown in the figure. What is the probable diagnosis? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Choroiditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloroquine toxicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Steroid-induced glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Macular edema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chloroquine toxicity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture10_tPi4IFH.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/whatsapp-image-2023-09-26-at-162632.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chloroquine toxicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All among the following are ionizing radiations except: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha particles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gamma rays", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRI", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "X-rays", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MRI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/1245.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. MRI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ionizing Radiation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a contraindication to the use of morphine? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Emphysema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute myocardial infarction", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acute myocardial infarction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Acute myocardial infarction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Acute myocardial infarction: Morphine is often used in the setting of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) to relieve pain and anxiety. It also has the beneficial effect of reducing preload and afterload on the heart, which can decrease myocardial oxygen demand. This makes it beneficial in the management of AMI. It's not a contraindication.</li><li>• Acute myocardial infarction:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bronchial asthma: Morphine can induce histamine release, which may lead to bronchospasm. In patients with bronchial asthma, this bronchospasm can exacerbate respiratory difficulties, making morphine potentially dangerous for these patients.</li><li>• Option A. Bronchial asthma:</li><li>• Option B. Renal failure: Morphine is metabolized in the liver and its metabolites, especially morphine-6-glucuronide, are excreted by the kidneys. In the case of renal failure, these active metabolites can accumulate, leading to prolonged and potentially toxic effects.</li><li>• Option B. Renal failure:</li><li>• Option C. Emphysema: Morphine has a depressive effect on the respiratory center in the brain, leading to respiratory depression. In patients with emphysema, a condition already characterized by compromised respiratory function, morphine can exacerbate respiratory difficulties and decrease the drive to breathe.</li><li>• Option C. Emphysema:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Morphine is beneficial and not contraindicated in the management of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) as it helps to relieve pain, reduce anxiety, and decrease myocardial oxygen demand.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which method of diagnosis is shown in the image? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Darkfield microscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase contrast microscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluorescent microscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electron microscopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Darkfield microscopy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-271.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Darkfield microscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Darkfield microscopy is identified by its characteristic bright specimen against a dark background and is commonly used for diagnosing syphilis through visualization of spirochetes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding the difference between adult and pediatric resuscitation? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular dysrhythmias are common in children", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The no flow phase precedes the period of cardiac arrest in children.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "More ventilation to be given compared to chest compressions in children", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dysrhythmias are most often due to respiratory insufficiency in children", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dysrhythmias are most often due to respiratory insufficiency in children", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Dysrhythmias are most often due to respiratory insufficiency in children</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pediatric resuscitation, dysrhythmias are most commonly due to respiratory insufficiency or hypoxia, unlike in adults, where intrinsic cardiac causes are more prevalent.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old lady with submucosal fibroid was undergoing myomectomy. The surgeon was using 1.5% glycine as irrigating fluid for the cavity. During the surgery, the nurse informs that there is a 500ml deficit of the irrigating fluid. What is the next step to be done? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop the surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Change the fluid to normal saline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continue the surgery with careful monitoring of fluid status", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give furosemide to the patient and continue surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Continue the surgery with careful monitoring of fluid status", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Continue the surgery with careful monitoring of fluid status</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the context of a 500 mL fluid deficit during hysteroscopy with 1.5% glycine as the irrigating fluid, it is appropriate to continue the surgery with car</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg903</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg903</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most important marker of male fertility in semen analysis is? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Morphology", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Concentration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Motility", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sperm Count", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Morphology", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-288.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Morphology</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The morphology of sperm is considered the most important marker of male fertility. While sperm concentration and progressive motility are valuable for distinguishing between fertile and infertile men, strict sperm morphology is the most discriminating factor in assessing male fertility potential.</li><li>• Morphological abnormalities in spermatozoa can be identified in various parts, including the head, neck, mid-piece, and tail. These abnormalities can result from defective spermatogenesis or certain epididymal pathologies, leading to increased morphological defects in the sperm. Spermatozoa with abnormal morphology have a lower fertilizing potential, making morphology a critical parameter in semen analysis for determining fertility.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Concentration: Sperm concentration is an important parameter, but it is not as critical as morphology in predicting fertility. The WHO 2021 standard for sperm concentration is 16 million/ml.</li><li>• Option B. Concentration:</li><li>• Option C. Motility: Progressive motility is significant, with the WHO 2021 standard being 30%, but it is not the most crucial parameter compared to morphology.</li><li>• Option C. Motility:</li><li>• Option D. Sperm Count: While total sperm count is important, it is encompassed under concentration and motility measures. Morphology remains the most critical individual parameter.</li><li>• Option D. Sperm Count:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sperm morphology is the most important marker of male fertility in semen analysis, as it directly correlates with the fertilizing potential of the sperm.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg443, https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789240030787</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg443,</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789240030787</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-day-old neonate was admitted to the NICU after he was observed to have movements as shown in the image. His APGAR scores were 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. His blood sugar was within the normal range in the first 24 hours. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Focal tonic seizure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focal clonic seizure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spasms", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subtle seizure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Focal clonic seizure", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/09/whatsapp-image-2023-08-08-at-121307.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Focal clonic seizure.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Focal clonic seizures in neonates involve repetitive, rhythmic contractions of muscle groups that are resistant to restraint and can be unifocal or multifocal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the main action of the muscle marked below? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elevation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Protrusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retraction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Elevation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture5_D79Ap5C.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture6_4466EGR.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/whatsapp-image-2023-11-16-at-142429.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-183242.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Elevation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The muscle marked in the image is the temporalis and its main action is elevation of the mandible.</li><li>• Other actions are:</li><li>• Other actions are:</li><li>• It helps in the side-to-side grinding movements of the mandible. The posterior fibres which are horizontal, help in the retraction of the mandible.</li><li>• It helps in the side-to-side grinding movements of the mandible.</li><li>• The posterior fibres which are horizontal, help in the retraction of the mandible.</li><li>• The muscles of mastication are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movements of the jaw during chewing (mastication). These muscles include:</li><li>• Together, these muscles work to elevate and depress the mandible, move it side to side, and protrude it forward. They are important for chewing, speaking, and swallowing. Dysfunction of these muscles can result in temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorders and other oral health problems.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Depression: This action is not associated with the temporalis muscle. Depression of the mandible, which involves opening the jaw, is primarily accomplished by the digastric muscle and, to some extent, by the lateral pterygoid muscle.</li><li>• Option B. Depression:</li><li>• Option C. Protrusion: Protrusion refers to pushing the jaw forward. This action is chiefly performed by the lateral pterygoid muscle, not the temporalis.</li><li>• Option C. Protrusion:</li><li>• Option D. Retraction: While the posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle do assist in retraction of the mandible, pulling it backward, it is not the primary action of the entire muscle. The main retractor of the jaw is the posterior part of the temporalis muscle alongside the digastric muscle (posterior belly).</li><li>• Option D. Retraction:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 76-year-old female presented with a non-healing ulcer on the labia majora for a period of 6 months, measuring 2 cm x 3 cm. No lymph nodes were palpable. Biopsy shows squamous cell carcinoma. How do you manage this case? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radical vulvectomy with unilateral LN dissection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radical vulvectomy with bilateral LN dissection", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Simple vulvectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemoradiation with resection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Radical vulvectomy with bilateral LN dissection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Radical vulvectomy with bilateral LN dissection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This patient has a midline lesion on the labia majora, which indicates that the lesion is close to or crossing the midline. In cases of midline lesions or lesions within 2 cm of the midline, bilateral inguinofemoral lymph node dissection is necessary along with radical vulvectomy. This approach ensures that all potential pathways of lymphatic spread are adequately addressed.</li><li>• New (2021) FIGO staging for carcinoma of the vulva:</li><li>• New (2021) FIGO staging for carcinoma of the vulva:</li><li>• Tumors 2 cm or less in size with 1 mm or less invasion: Treated by wide local excision. Tumors more than 2 cm with more than 1 mm depth of invasion: Treated by modified radical vulvectomy with groin lymph node dissection. LN dissection through separate incision: Lymph node dissection should be inguino-femoral. Bilateral lymph node dissection: Performed for midline lesions and those within 2 cm of the midline. Unilateral dissection: If the lesion is unilateral and ipsilateral nodes are negative, bilateral dissection is not necessary.</li><li>• Tumors 2 cm or less in size with 1 mm or less invasion: Treated by wide local excision.</li><li>• Tumors 2 cm or less in size with 1 mm or less invasion:</li><li>• Tumors more than 2 cm with more than 1 mm depth of invasion: Treated by modified radical vulvectomy with groin lymph node dissection.</li><li>• Tumors more than 2 cm with more than 1 mm depth of invasion:</li><li>• LN dissection through separate incision: Lymph node dissection should be inguino-femoral.</li><li>• LN dissection through separate incision:</li><li>• Bilateral lymph node dissection: Performed for midline lesions and those within 2 cm of the midline.</li><li>• Bilateral lymph node dissection:</li><li>• Unilateral dissection: If the lesion is unilateral and ipsilateral nodes are negative, bilateral dissection is not necessary.</li><li>• Unilateral dissection:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Radical vulvectomy with unilateral LN dissection: This would be appropriate for unilateral lesions with no evidence of contralateral spread, but not for midline lesions.</li><li>• Option A. Radical vulvectomy with unilateral LN dissection:</li><li>• Option C. Simple vulvectomy: Simple vulvectomy is not sufficient for managing invasive squamous cell carcinoma with a lesion size of 2 cm x 3 cm and potential for deeper invasion.</li><li>• Option C. Simple vulvectomy:</li><li>• Option D. Chemoradiation with resection: Chemoradiation followed by resection is typically reserved for advanced or inoperable cases, or where there is a need to downstage the tumor before surgery. This case can be managed surgically given the size and lack of palpable lymph nodes.</li><li>• Option D. Chemoradiation with resection:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For midline lesions or lesions within 2 cm of the midline in squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva, radical vulvectomy with bilateral inguinofemoral lymph node dissection is the appropriate management.</li><li>➤ Ref: FIGO staging of CA vulva, Berek and Novak’s gynecology 15 th edition pg 1436, William’s textbook of gynecology 3rd edition pg 484-485.</li><li>➤ Ref: FIGO staging of CA vulva, Berek and Novak’s gynecology 15 th edition pg 1436, William’s textbook of gynecology 3rd edition pg 484-485.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The patient presented with symptoms of fever, body ache, and joint pain, and was treated with NSAIDs. Subsequently, a few days later, the patient developed brownish pigmentation on the nose. What is the probable diagnosis? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fixed drug eruption (FDE)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chikungunya", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture3_mqsfsVJ.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture26.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chikungunya</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the context of fever, body ache, and joint pain , followed by the development of brownish pigmentation on the nose, Chikungunya is the probable diagnosis, as it can present with persistent joint pain and hyperpigmentation, particularly in regions where the virus is endemic.</li><li>➤ fever, body ache, and joint pain</li><li>➤ brownish pigmentation</li><li>➤ Chikungunya</li><li>➤ joint pain</li><li>➤ hyperpigmentation,</li><li>➤ endemic.</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 118, Page no 118.11</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 118, Page no 118.11</li><li>➤ HARRISONS PRINCIPLES OF INTERNAL MEDICINE 21 ST EDITION PAGE 141-142, 1633</li><li>➤ HARRISONS PRINCIPLES OF INTERNAL MEDICINE 21 ST EDITION PAGE 141-142, 1633</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true about oculomotor nerve palsy except:(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mid-dilated pupil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of light reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral and upward gaze", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lateral and upward gaze", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/screenshot-2023-04-29-173855_hHvu0vD.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/whatsapp-image-2023-09-27-at-165211.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lateral and upward gaze</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oculomotor nerve palsy typically causes an \"down and out\" gaze due to the unopposed action of the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles, not a \"lateral and upward\" gaze, which would instead suggest trochlear nerve involvement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the lesion in the histopathological image of retina: ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drusen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hard exudates", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cotton wool spots", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Macular Edema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Drusen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture4_8iF6kej.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture5_MaNuYKG.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drusen are distinct, granular deposits at the interface between the retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch's membrane, commonly associated with age-related macular degeneration and can be an early sign of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient on anti-tubercular therapy develops tingling sensation in the limbs. Which of the following when substituted can result from in improvement of symptoms? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methylcobalamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pyridoxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pyridoxine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) supplementation is essential for patients receiving isoniazid as part of their anti-tubercular therapy to prevent or manage peripheral neuropathy symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the minimum endometrial thickness on transvaginal ultrasonography, above which you perform a biopsy in a case of postmenopausal bleeding? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 mm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "7 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "9 mm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4 mm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 4 mm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Post menopausal bleeding with a finding of endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm (5 mm or more) requires further evaluation, i.e., a biopsy of the endometrium. If the endometrial thickness is ≤4 mm, then malignancy is unlikely and the likely cause of bleeding being endometrial atrophy and there is no need of a biopsy. The most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding is atrophic endometritis</li><li>• Post menopausal bleeding with a finding of endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm (5 mm or more) requires further evaluation, i.e., a biopsy of the endometrium.</li><li>• If the endometrial thickness is ≤4 mm, then malignancy is unlikely and the likely cause of bleeding being endometrial atrophy and there is no need of a biopsy.</li><li>• The most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding is atrophic endometritis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In postmenopausal women with bleeding, an endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm on transvaginal ultrasonography should prompt further evaluation with an endometrial biopsy to rule out malignancy or other significant pathology.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 186, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 357</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 186, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 357</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has complained of fever with chills. A throat examination reveals swollen glands and a thick, whitish membrane over his tonsils. Albert staining is to be done. What are the constituents of Albert's stain? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carbol fuschin and methylene blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbol fuschin and malachite green", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toluidine and malachite green", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toluidine and methylene blue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Toluidine and malachite green", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-272.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Toluidine and malachite green</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Albert stain contains Toluidine blue and Malachite green, used to identify metachromatic granules in bacteria like Corynebacterium diphtheriae.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young donor came to the blood bank for the first time for platelet apheresis with platelet count of 1.9L. During the course he developed paraesthesia and circumoral numbness during donation. His vitals remained stable though. ECG showed tachycardia with ST-T changes. What is the reason for his symptoms? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypovolemic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allergic reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypocalcemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypocalcemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During platelet apheresis, monitoring for symptoms of hypocalcemia is crucial due to the use of citrate. Symptoms such as tingling, numbness, and ECG changes warrant immediate evaluation and management, typically with calcium supplementation to counteract the effects of citrate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the insertion of a Ryle’s tube, what is the best position for a conscious patient to be in? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supine with neck flexion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Supine with neck extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sitting with neck flexion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sitting with neck extension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sitting with neck flexion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sitting with neck flexion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best position for a conscious patient to be in during the insertion of Ryle's tube is sitting with neck flexion.</li><li>➤ Confirmation of the correct position of RT is done by:</li><li>➤ Auscultation in the epigastric area while injecting a bolus of air Aspiration of gastric contents X-ray chest + upper abdomen</li><li>➤ Auscultation in the epigastric area while injecting a bolus of air</li><li>➤ Aspiration of gastric contents</li><li>➤ X-ray chest + upper abdomen</li><li>➤ The approximate length of the Ryle’s tube is 120-125 cm. There are 4 markings on the tube which indicates the traversing of the tube through various parts of the stomach</li><li>➤ 40 cm - Tube has traversed cardia of the stomach 50 cm - Tube has traversed body of the stomach 60 cm - Tube has traversed pylorus 70 cm - Tube has traversed duodenum</li><li>➤ 40 cm - Tube has traversed cardia of the stomach</li><li>➤ 50 cm - Tube has traversed body of the stomach</li><li>➤ 60 cm - Tube has traversed pylorus</li><li>➤ 70 cm - Tube has traversed duodenum</li><li>➤ The length of tube to be inserted is calculated by measuring the distance between nose-tip of ear lobule-xiphoid (N-E-X rule).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an immunologically privileged site? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seminiferous tubule", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Area postrema", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loop of Henle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Seminiferous tubule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Seminiferous tubule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The seminiferous tubules are an immunologically privileged site, protecting developing sperm from immune system attack.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with 31 weeks of gestation presents with lower abdominal pain. The clinician is concerned if the patient is in preterm labor. Which of the following is the most appropriate test in this scenario? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha fetoprotein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta HCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fetal fibronectin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "PAPP-A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fetal fibronectin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fetal fibronectin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a glycoprotein produced by fetal amnion cells and found in high concentrations in amniotic fluid. It is also found in cervico-vaginal secretions in early pregnancy (less than 22 weeks) and late pregnancy (greater than 37 weeks). The presence of fFN in cervico-vaginal secretions between 22 and 37 weeks is used as a predictor of preterm labor.</li><li>• A fFN level greater than 50 ng/mL is considered a significant predictor of preterm labor. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) does not recommend routine use of fFN testing but it can be helpful in specific clinical scenarios where preterm labor is suspected.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Alpha fetoprotein: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is used in prenatal screening for neural tube defects and as a component of the quadruple marker test for Down syndrome. Elevated AFP levels are associated with neural tube defects, while decreased levels can indicate Down syndrome.</li><li>• Option A. Alpha fetoprotein:</li><li>• Option B. Beta HCG: Beta HCG is used in early pregnancy for confirming pregnancy and in first trimester screening for Down syndrome (where levels are elevated). It is not used for diagnosing preterm labor.</li><li>• Option B. Beta HCG:</li><li>• Option D. PAPP-A: Pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) is used in first trimester screening for Down syndrome, where its levels are decreased. It is not used for diagnosing preterm labor.</li><li>• Option D. PAPP-A:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fetal fibronectin (fFN) testing is the most appropriate test for assessing the risk of preterm labor in a woman presenting with lower abdominal pain at 31 weeks of gestation. A positive fFN test (greater than 50 ng/mL) can help predict the likelihood of preterm labor.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 366</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 366</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant female with known cardiac disease presents in the first trimester with history of warfarin embryopathy. What should be advised now? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Continue warfarin throughout the pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Replace warfarin with heparin in first trimester", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give accoumarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Use LMW heparin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Replace warfarin with heparin in first trimester", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-287.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Replace warfarin with heparin in first trimester</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pregnant women with mechanical heart valves on warfarin, switch to heparin as soon as pregnancy is diagnosed in the first trimester to avoid teratogenic effects, and manage anticoagulation carefully throughout the pregnancy to minimize risks to both mother and fetus.</li><li>➤ Algorithm for management of women with prosthetic heart valves requiring anti-coagulation in pregnancy</li><li>➤ Algorithm for management of women with prosthetic heart valves requiring anti-coagulation in pregnancy</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 2406</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 2406</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You're a physician attending a conference on emerging infectious diseases. As the discussion shifts towards the recent outbreaks in South India, the speaker displays an image showcasing the life cycle of a specific virus. A fellow physician sitting beside you, being relatively unfamiliar with the recent disease trends in South India, asks for your insights about the virus in question. Given the depicted life cycle and the associated clinical syndromes, which of the following viruses would be the most likely culprit? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Japanese encephalitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zika virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nipah virus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nipah virus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip35.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture1433_VvVb14m.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/screenshot-2023-10-20-192633_MN2X6SF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nipah virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nipah virus, transmitted through fruit bats and causing encephalitis, fits the transmission cycle shown in the image and is a significant emerging infectious disease in regions such as Malaysia and Bangladesh.</li><li>➤ Nipah virus, transmitted through fruit bats and causing encephalitis, fits the transmission cycle shown in the image and is a significant emerging infectious disease in regions such as Malaysia and Bangladesh.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a young pediatrician practicing in India, you attend various workshops and training sessions to keep yourself updated with the latest guidelines in child health. During one such session focused on India's National Immunization Program, you discuss with your colleagues about the range of vaccines included in the program. Which of the following vaccines is NOT currently part of India's National Immunization Program? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adult Japanese encephalitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Influenza", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles-Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotavirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Influenza", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-113044.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Influenza</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap is seen in all except? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proximal RTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe diarrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salicylate poisoning", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Salicylate poisoning", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-161817.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Salicylate poisoning.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complains that he feels like the room is spinning when he gets up from lying down or turning his head. He has no history of loss of consciousness. Which of the following could be the probable diagnosis? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meniere's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Labyrinthitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syncope", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/29.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Two distinct patient cohorts at AIIMS New Delhi are subjected to different treatments to monitor their post-treatment blood pressure levels. The groups do not have overlapping members. Which statistical test would best suit the analysis of the blood pressure differences between the two groups? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paired t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unpaired t test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chi-square test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Unpaired t test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture25333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Unpaired t test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You're rotating in the infection control unit of a tertiary care hospital in Chennai. As part of your duties, you have been assigned to educate the staff about the importance of precautionary measures and isolation techniques for various conditions. While discussing droplet precautions, one of the staff inquired about the diseases for which such precautions are necessary. Which of the following conditions does NOT typically require precautionary measures and isolation due to droplet infection? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pertussis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Localized varicella zoster", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycoplasma pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Localized varicella zoster", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Localized varicella zoster</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Localized varicella zoster does not require droplet precautions as it is transmitted through direct contact, while conditions like pertussis, diphtheria, and mycoplasma pneumonia require droplet precautions due to their transmission via respiratory droplets.</li><li>➤ Localized varicella zoster does not require droplet precautions as it is transmitted through direct contact, while conditions like pertussis, diphtheria, and mycoplasma pneumonia require droplet precautions due to their transmission via respiratory droplets.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the usual cause of thyroid storm in thyroidectomy? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rough handling of thyroid during surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Due to parathyroid gland injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inadequate patient preparation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infections", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inadequate patient preparation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Inadequate patient preparation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, is a rare but life-threatening medical emergency that occurs in individuals with severe hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland produces an excessive amount of thyroid hormones, primarily thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). In a thyroid storm, these hormone levels become dangerously elevated, leading to a wide range of symptoms and complications.</li><li>➤ Symptoms of a thyroid storm may include:</li><li>➤ High fever Rapid and irregular heartbeat (tachycardia) Elevated blood pressure Extreme agitation and restlessness Profuse sweating Tremors and shaking Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea Delirium or confusion Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes) Coma (in severe cases)</li><li>➤ High fever</li><li>➤ Rapid and irregular heartbeat (tachycardia)</li><li>➤ Elevated blood pressure</li><li>➤ Extreme agitation and restlessness</li><li>➤ Profuse sweating</li><li>➤ Tremors and shaking</li><li>➤ Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea</li><li>➤ Delirium or confusion</li><li>➤ Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes)</li><li>➤ Coma (in severe cases)</li><li>➤ Thyroid storms can be triggered by various factors, such as surgery, infection, trauma, or medication changes in individuals with underlying hyperthyroidism. The condition is more common in people with Graves' disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism.</li><li>➤ Treatment of a thyroid storm is a medical emergency and typically involves a combination of interventions to rapidly lower thyroid hormone levels, control symptoms, and support vital organ function.</li><li>➤ The usual cause of thyroid storm in thyroidectomy is inadequate patient preparation before surgery. Thus, patient preparation pre-operatively involves ensuring a euthyroid state.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the injury in the image below: ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abrasion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laceration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bruise", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Imprint", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Abrasion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/30/picture299.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Abrasion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Abrasions are superficial injuries involving only the epidermis, with no bleeding and no scar formation, and are typically simple hurts except for corneal abrasions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old male presented with a hard painless testicular swelling. There were no inguinal, intra-abdominal or mediastinal lymph nodes on CT scan. The blood workup showed AFP levels of &gt; 3000. USG shows uniform echotexture with small areas of necrosis. The next line of management is: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High inguinal orchidectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Core needle trucut biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FNAC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Whole body PET/CT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. High inguinal orchidectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) High inguinal orchidectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given features that point towards the diagnosis of non-seminomatous germ cell tumor (NSGCT) in stage I of the tumor. In a case of painless swelling of the testis, a testicular tumor should be suspected. The associated rise in AFP level points toward a diagnosis of NSGCT although tissue diagnosis is required to confirm the nature of the tumor. But tissue diagnosis is not a prerequisite for treatment, and hence, based on the available evidence a high inguinal orchidectomy is done in this case. Further treatment is followed up based on the findings of the excisional biopsy.</li><li>➤ NSGCTs are not radiosensitive, but they are highly sensitive to combination chemotherapy with bleomycin, etoposide, and cis-platinum (BEP chemotherapy). Up to 30% of NSGCT patients with stage I disease have subclinical metastases and will relapse if surveillance alone is done after orchidectomy. Accordingly, some NSGCTs with good prognoses can be managed by surveillance protocols (using regular CT scanning and tumor marker measurement), with the more high-risk cases receiving chemotherapy. For NSGCTs a 5-year survival rate of more than 90% is achievable in patients with good prognosis tumors, while for more advanced tumors, the 5-year survival rate is about 60%.</li><li>➤ NSGCTs are not radiosensitive, but they are highly sensitive to combination chemotherapy with bleomycin, etoposide, and cis-platinum (BEP chemotherapy). Up to 30% of NSGCT patients with stage I disease have subclinical metastases and will relapse if surveillance alone is done after orchidectomy.</li><li>➤ Accordingly, some NSGCTs with good prognoses can be managed by surveillance protocols (using regular CT scanning and tumor marker measurement), with the more high-risk cases receiving chemotherapy.</li><li>➤ For NSGCTs a 5-year survival rate of more than 90% is achievable in patients with good prognosis tumors, while for more advanced tumors, the 5-year survival rate is about 60%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the emblem as shown below, which of the following best describes the warning it signifies? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytotoxic waste", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biomedical waste", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiation hazard", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biohazard", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radiation hazard", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip37.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip38.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Radiation hazard</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following veins drain into brachiocephalic vein? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemiazygous vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior thyroid veins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right superior intercostal vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left superior intercostal vein", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Left superior intercostal vein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/whatsapp-image-2023-11-16-at-131222.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Left superior intercostal vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The left superior intercostal vein directly drain into the brachiocephalic vein. This vein collects venous blood from the left side of the posterior thoracic wall.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hemiazygous Vein: The hemiazygous vein is a tributary of the azygos vein, not the brachiocephalic vein. It drains blood from the left side of the posterior thoracic wall.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Hemiazygous Vein:</li><li>• Option B . Superior Thyroid Vein : It drain into the internal jugular vein , not directly into the brachiocephalic vein. They carry blood from the thyroid gland.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Superior Thyroid Vein : It</li><li>• internal jugular vein</li><li>• Option C. Right Superior Intercostal Vein: It is formed by union of 2nd, 3rd, and 4th right posterior intercostal veins). It drains into the azygous vein . It serves as a major channel for venous blood from the right side of the posterior thoracic wall to return to the superior vena cava and ultimately to the right atrium of the heart.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Right Superior Intercostal Vein:</li><li>• azygous vein</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tributaries of the brachiocephalic vein:</li><li>➤ Tributaries of the brachiocephalic vein:</li><li>➤ Left and right internal thoracic veins Left and right inferior thyroid veins Left superior intercostal vein drains into the left brachiocephalic vein. The right superior intercostal vein drains into the azygos vein.</li><li>➤ Left and right internal thoracic veins</li><li>➤ Left and right inferior thyroid veins</li><li>➤ Left superior intercostal vein drains into the left brachiocephalic vein.</li><li>➤ The right superior intercostal vein drains into the azygos vein.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman has a history of urinating in public without having any remorse for it. She also has difficulty in getting motivated and has mild memory deficits. Which of the following lobes may be affected? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parietal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Occipital", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Frontal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Temporal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Frontal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/11/screenshot-2023-10-11-192354.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Frontal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Frontal Lobe is involved in executive functions, decision-making, motivation, and socially appropriate behavior. Damage can lead to disinhibited behavior, apathy, and memory deficits.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Shorter Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 346-348.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Earliest sign of compartment syndrome of leg is:(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tingling or numbness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Skin mottling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulselessness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pain on passive stretch", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pain on passive stretch", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pain on passive stretch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first sign of compartment syndrome is the pain and resistance to the passive stretch of the distal-most joint of the extremity.</li><li>➤ The first sign of compartment syndrome is the pain and resistance to the passive stretch of the distal-most joint of the extremity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady with 7 weeks amenorrhea presented with slight vaginal spotting. Crown Rump Length was 5 mm with a well-formed gestational sac with a calculated gestational age of 5.6 weeks on TVS. What is the next line of management? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wait and watch for 4 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Repeat TVS after one week", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum HCG levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medical intervention", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Repeat TVS after one week", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Repeat TVS after one week</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In early pregnancy with a CRL of less than 7 mm and no documented cardiac activity, the best approach is to repeat the transvaginal ultrasound after one week to reassess for the presence of cardiac activity and viability of the pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 645</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 645</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Northern blotting is used for detection of which of the following? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DNA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RNA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. RNA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) RNA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ SNoW - DRoP:-</li><li>➤ SOUTHERN - DNA NORTHERN - RNA WESTERN - Protein</li><li>➤ SOUTHERN - DNA</li><li>➤ NORTHERN - RNA</li><li>➤ WESTERN - Protein</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not favor euchromatin formation due to changes occurring at Cytosine residues at Cp islands in DNA?(AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methylation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphorylation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alkylation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sumoylation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methylation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Methylation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methylation of cytosine residues at CpG islands is associated with gene silencing and the formation of transcriptionally inactive heterochromatin, thus not favoring euchromatin formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the ‘1’ in the picture: ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Macular Hole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystoid Macular Edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Smoke stack pattern", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Age related Macular degeneration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cystoid Macular Edema", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture6_yb9dH3O.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture7_PEjlBLh.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture8_VqmOSKD.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture9_c6JCp4s.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-111505.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cystoid Macular Edema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystoid Macular Edema (CME) often presents with a petaloid pattern on fluorescein angiography due to pooling of dye in cystic spaces of the macula and is associated with various underlying conditions affecting the vascular integrity of the retina.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased CAMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium channel blockage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "K+ channel opener", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sodium nitroprusside acts by stimulating guanylyl cyclase, which leads to an increase in cGMP, causing relaxation of vascular smooth muscle and vasodilation. This makes it effective in rapidly reducing blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male presents to the emergency with a BP of 160/100 mg and a heart rate of 120 bpm. CECT done reveals a Stanford type A aortic dissection. What is the initial management of this given condition? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta blocker medication", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "LMWH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Surgical repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K inhibitors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Beta blocker medication", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Beta blocker medication</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial management of patients diagnosed with aortic dissection is Beta-blocker medication to control hypertension, along with pain management. The Preferred Beta-blocker drug is Esmolol.</li><li>➤ Once hypertension is controlled, then definitive repair of aortic dissection is done based on Stanford type.</li><li>➤ Stanford Classification:</li><li>➤ Stanford Classification:</li><li>➤ Type A: This type involves the ascending aorta and possibly the descending aorta. It is considered the more dangerous type and often requires emergency surgery. Given its involvement with the ascending aorta, it's critical to manage promptly to avoid complications such as rupture or impairment of blood flow to vital organs. Type B: Involves only the descending aorta.</li><li>➤ Type A: This type involves the ascending aorta and possibly the descending aorta. It is considered the more dangerous type and often requires emergency surgery. Given its involvement with the ascending aorta, it's critical to manage promptly to avoid complications such as rupture or impairment of blood flow to vital organs.</li><li>➤ Type A:</li><li>➤ Type B: Involves only the descending aorta.</li><li>➤ Type B:</li><li>➤ Symptoms:</li><li>➤ Symptoms:</li><li>➤ Severe, sudden, tearing chest pain Pain that radiates to the back/scapula Shortness of breath Sweating Weakness or paralysis on one side of the body (in rare cases)</li><li>➤ Severe, sudden, tearing chest pain</li><li>➤ Pain that radiates to the back/scapula</li><li>➤ Shortness of breath</li><li>➤ Sweating</li><li>➤ Weakness or paralysis on one side of the body (in rare cases)</li><li>➤ Treatment:</li><li>➤ Treatment:</li><li>➤ Medical Management: Medications, especially beta-blockers, are often given initially to lower heart rate and blood pressure, reducing the force of blood against the aortic walls and potentially preventing further tearing. Surgical Intervention: Emergency surgical correction is the preferred treatment for Stanford type A dissections. The surgery aims to repair the damaged section of the aorta and to prevent rupture or further dissection. Endovascular repair is preferred for Stanford B.</li><li>➤ Medical Management: Medications, especially beta-blockers, are often given initially to lower heart rate and blood pressure, reducing the force of blood against the aortic walls and potentially preventing further tearing.</li><li>➤ Medical Management:</li><li>➤ Surgical Intervention: Emergency surgical correction is the preferred treatment for Stanford type A dissections. The surgery aims to repair the damaged section of the aorta and to prevent rupture or further dissection. Endovascular repair is preferred for Stanford B.</li><li>➤ Surgical Intervention:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is involved in recognition and clearance of necrotic cells? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inflammasome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toll-like receptors (TLRs)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "P selectin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manoreceptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inflammasome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/948.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inflammasomes are crucial in the recognition and clearance of necrotic cells by activating caspase-1 and inducing the secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines, as well as triggering pyroptosis, an inflammatory form of cell death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used in acute mountain sickness?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dexamethasone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diltiazem", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acetazolamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Acetazolamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acetazolamide is the drug of choice for acute mountain sickness because it induces metabolic acidosis and stimulates hyperventilation, helping to improve oxygenation and reduce cerebral edema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the given image represent?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypnogram", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Electroencephalogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polysomnogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epworth sleep assessment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypnogram", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/11/hypnogram-of-sleep-cycle-in-a-healthy-young-adult-normal-sleep-involves-cycling.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypnogram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypnogram is a graphical representation of the stages of sleep over time, usually throughout a night.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of Psychiatry by Allan Tasman, 4th edition, Page No 1271.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A teenager has a mass in his nasopharynx that has minimally spread into the sphenoid sinus with no lateral extension. Which stage of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma could this be?( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage IA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage IB", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage IIA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage IIB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stage IB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/whatsapp-image-2023-08-29-at-165320_page_6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Stage IB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ THE RADKOWSKI STAGING SYSTEM FOR JUVENILE NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA</li><li>➤ THE RADKOWSKI STAGING SYSTEM FOR JUVENILE NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vitamin C cannot be produced in humans due to lack of? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L- gulonolactone oxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xylitol reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "UDP glucose dehydrogenase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. L- gulonolactone oxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) L-gulonolactone oxidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Humans cannot synthesize vitamin C due to the lack of the enzyme L-gulonolactone oxidase, which is necessary for the final step in the biosynthetic pathway of ascorbic acid from glucose.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which muscle is not involved in the inversion of foot? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tibialis anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tibialis posterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peroneus longus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extensor hallucis longus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Peroneus longus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-59.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Peroneus longus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peroneus longus muscle is not involved in the inversion of the foot. It causes eversion and plantar flexion.</li><li>➤ The transverse tarsal joint and the talocalcaneal and talocalcaneonavicular joints also play a role in inversion and eversion movements</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with AIDS was treated with zidovudine, lamivudine, indinavir, ketoconazole and cotrimoxazole. He developed nephrolithiasis, central obesity, hyperlipidemia and insulin resistance. Which of the drugs could have been the cause? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ketoconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indinavir", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lamivudine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zidovudine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Indinavir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Indinavir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Indinavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV/AIDS treatment, is the drug responsible for causing nephrolithiasis, central obesity, hyperlipidemia, and insulin resistance among the medications listed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image depicts: ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Production of monoclonal antibodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cell lines for viral culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaccine synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Process of genetic engineering", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Production of monoclonal antibodies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/screenshot-2024-07-01-102805.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Production of monoclonal antibodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The process depicted in the images is the production of monoclonal antibodies using hybridoma technology.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male child with coarse facies, macroglossia, thick lips with hepatosplenomegaly presents with copious mucous discharge from the nose. The most probable underlying diagnosis is? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hurler disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proteus Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hurler disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hurler disease.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hurler disease, a form of mucopolysaccharidosis type 1, presents with coarse facial features, macroglossia, hepatosplenomegaly, and copious nasal discharge, and is caused by a deficiency in alpha-L-iduronidase leading to the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the features of the color of normal amniotic fluid during? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Milky to yellowish green with mucus flakes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amber colored", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clear colorless to pale yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Golden color", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Clear colorless to pale yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Clear colorless to pale yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The color of normal amniotic fluid varies during pregnancy and can indicate different conditions:</li><li>• In early pregnancy: The amniotic fluid is colorless. Near term: It becomes straw-colored. Deep yellow/golden color: This can indicate fetal anemia. Green (meconium-stained): Indicates fetal distress or post-maturity. Red: Suggests abruption. Dark colored/tobacco-like: Indicates fetal demise.</li><li>• In early pregnancy: The amniotic fluid is colorless.</li><li>• In early pregnancy:</li><li>• Near term: It becomes straw-colored.</li><li>• Near term:</li><li>• Deep yellow/golden color: This can indicate fetal anemia.</li><li>• Deep yellow/golden color:</li><li>• Green (meconium-stained): Indicates fetal distress or post-maturity.</li><li>• Green (meconium-stained):</li><li>• Red: Suggests abruption.</li><li>• Red:</li><li>• Dark colored/tobacco-like: Indicates fetal demise.</li><li>• Dark colored/tobacco-like:</li><li>• Normal amniotic fluid should be clear, colorless, or pale yellow, especially in the earlier stages of pregnancy and near term when the fluid changes to a straw color.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Milky to yellowish green with mucus flakes: This description is not characteristic of normal amniotic fluid. Such a color can indicate the presence of infection or contamination.</li><li>• Option A. Milky to yellowish green with mucus flakes:</li><li>• Option B. Amber colored: Amber-colored amniotic fluid is not a normal finding and may indicate complications such as the presence of blood or other abnormalities.</li><li>• Option B. Amber colored:</li><li>• Option D. Golden color: Golden-colored amniotic fluid typically indicates fetal anemia, which is a pathological condition and not a feature of normal amniotic fluid.</li><li>• Option D. Golden color:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Normal amniotic fluid is clear, colorless to pale yellow, changing to straw-colored near term.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8th edition Pg 43, William’s text book of obstetrics 24th edition pg 298</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8th edition Pg 43, William’s text book of obstetrics 24th edition pg 298</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient alleges negligence by a surgeon and sues him for the same. In case of professional misconduct, the patient's records on demand should be provided within? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "36 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "48 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 days", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 3 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MEDICAL RECORDS</li><li>➤ MEDICAL RECORDS</li><li>➤ 1. Duration of retention of records –</li><li>➤ Digital Records – 10 years Hard copy – OPD patients: 3 years Indoor patients: 3 years MLC: 10 years</li><li>➤ Digital Records – 10 years</li><li>➤ Hard copy –</li><li>➤ OPD patients: 3 years</li><li>➤ Indoor patients: 3 years</li><li>➤ MLC: 10 years</li><li>➤ 2. Time to provide records – 3 days</li><li>➤ 3. What if records not maintained – punished for infamous conduct</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the adjuvant therapy in fungal corneal ulcer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pilocarpine e/d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lignocaine e/d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dexamethasone e/d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atropine Sulfate eye ointment", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Atropine Sulfate eye ointment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-164154.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Atropine Sulfate eye ointment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atropine sulfate eye ointment is used as adjuvant therapy in fungal corneal ulcers to relieve pain and prevent the formation of posterior synechiae by dilating the pupil and paralyzing the ciliary muscle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the procedure? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Angiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myelography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "DEXA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Projectional radiography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Myelography", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-162.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-163.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Myelography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The procedure shows contrast within the subarachnoid space in myelography.</li><li>• Expansion of the contrast-filled space in myelography is seen in intradural extramedullary tumors. In myelography, contrast is injected into the CS space, and if a tumor is present in the intradural extramedullary space, it causes the CS space on that side to widen. Neurofibroma and meningioma are two examples of such lesions and on myelography with the contrast column, these lesions will also have a meniscus-like appearance.</li><li>• Expansion of the contrast-filled space in myelography is seen in intradural extramedullary tumors.</li><li>• In myelography, contrast is injected into the CS space, and if a tumor is present in the intradural extramedullary space, it causes the CS space on that side to widen.</li><li>• Neurofibroma and meningioma are two examples of such lesions and on myelography with the contrast column, these lesions will also have a meniscus-like appearance.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Angiography: Involves the injection of contrast material into blood vessels and is used primarily to examine vascular structures, not visible in this image.</li><li>• Option A. Angiography:</li><li>• Option C. DEXA: Stands for Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry, a method used to measure bone density, not applicable here.</li><li>• Option C. DEXA:</li><li>• Option D. Projectional radiography: Refers to standard X-ray imaging without contrast enhancement, whereas this procedure clearly involves contrast material within the spinal canal.</li><li>• Option D. Projectional radiography:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myelography is an essential diagnostic tool for visualizing the spinal subarachnoid space and identifying pathologies that may impact the spinal cord and nerve roots, providing crucial information that cannot be obtained through standard X-rays alone.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Grainger &amp; Allison’s Diagnostic Radiology Essentials, Second Edition, Page No 822</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You have been called to declare the brain death of a 12-year-old child in the ICU. Which of the following is not seen in brain death? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal BP without pharmacological support", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive spinal reflexes on stimulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sweating and tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decorticate and decerebrate posturing", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Decorticate and decerebrate posturing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Decorticate and decerebrate posturing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brain death is characterized by the complete absence of brain-originating motor responses, including decorticate and decerebrate posturing, despite possible preservation of autonomic functions like normal BP and spinal reflexes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A G3P2L0 presents with 9 weeks of amenorrhea. She has a history of conization being done one year ago and is currently on follow-up, with no recurrence on PAP smear. She also has the history of preterm labor at 30 and 32 weeks. What is the next step of management? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "USG to see cervical length", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical Cerclage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complete Bed rest", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abdominal cerclage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. USG to see cervical length", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) USG to see cervical length</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This patient has several risk factors for preterm labor, including a history of previous preterm births and cervical conization. The appropriate next step in management is to perform a transvaginal ultrasound (USG) to measure the cervical length at 11-14 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Cervical length measurement: If the cervix is found to be short (less than 2.5 cm), with or without funneling of the internal os, cervical cerclage may be indicated. Progesterone supplementation: If the cervical length is normal, the patient should be started on progesterone and serial cervical length measurements should be continued. Cervical cerclage: This is a procedure where a suture is placed around the cervix to prevent or delay preterm birth. It can be done via the vaginal route using techniques like McDonald’s or Shirodkar's. Abdominal cerclage: This is considered for patients with a prior failed vaginal cerclage.</li><li>• Cervical length measurement: If the cervix is found to be short (less than 2.5 cm), with or without funneling of the internal os, cervical cerclage may be indicated.</li><li>• Cervical length measurement:</li><li>• Progesterone supplementation: If the cervical length is normal, the patient should be started on progesterone and serial cervical length measurements should be continued.</li><li>• Progesterone supplementation:</li><li>• Cervical cerclage: This is a procedure where a suture is placed around the cervix to prevent or delay preterm birth. It can be done via the vaginal route using techniques like McDonald’s or Shirodkar's.</li><li>• Cervical cerclage:</li><li>• Abdominal cerclage: This is considered for patients with a prior failed vaginal cerclage.</li><li>• Abdominal cerclage:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Cervical Cerclage: While cerclage may be necessary, it should be based on the findings of cervical length measurement. Immediate cerclage without assessment is not recommended.</li><li>• Option B. Cervical Cerclage:</li><li>• Option C. Complete Bed rest: Bed rest alone is not an effective strategy for preventing preterm labor and is not indicated without further assessment.</li><li>• Option C. Complete Bed rest:</li><li>• Option D. Abdominal cerclage: This is reserved for patients with a history of failed vaginal cerclage and is not the first-line approach.</li><li>• Option D. Abdominal cerclage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with risk factors for preterm labor, including a history of cervical conization and previous preterm births, the next step is to perform a transvaginal ultrasound to measure cervical length at 11-14 weeks of gestation. Based on the findings, appropriate interventions, such as cervical cerclage or progesterone supplementation, can be considered.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg2094</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg2094</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are ocular manifestations of dengue except: ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cataract", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subconjunctival hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retinal hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cataract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cataract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ocular manifestations of dengue:</li><li>➤ Ocular manifestations of dengue:</li><li>➤ Typically, patients complain of painless visual impairment within 1 week from illness onset, often around the time of the platelet nadir. Conjunctival injection and subconjunctival hemorrhage. Complications such as retinal hemorrhage, retinal edema, macular ischemia, macular edema, vitreous hemorrhage, vitritis, and optic neuritis or papillitis. Depending on the severity of the ocular lesion, gradual improvement in vision occurs over several weeks, although in rare cases permanent visual impairment may result.</li><li>➤ Typically, patients complain of painless visual impairment within 1 week from illness onset, often around the time of the platelet nadir.</li><li>➤ Conjunctival injection and subconjunctival hemorrhage.</li><li>➤ Complications such as retinal hemorrhage, retinal edema, macular ischemia, macular edema, vitreous hemorrhage, vitritis, and optic neuritis or papillitis.</li><li>➤ Depending on the severity of the ocular lesion, gradual improvement in vision occurs over several weeks, although in rare cases permanent visual impairment may result.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of atypical depression? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased sleep", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reactive mood response to positive stimulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heaviness of the body", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Responds better to TCAs than MAO-I and SSRI", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Responds better to TCAs than MAO-I and SSRI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Responds better to TCAs than MAO-I and SSRI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atypical depression, as its name implies, has features that deviate from classic presentations of depression. It is characterized by reversal of vegetative symptoms (i.e., increased sleep, appetite and weight), presence of mood reactivity, leaden paralysis (subjective feeling heaviness of limbs and difficulty in moving them) and extreme sensitivity to interpersonal rejection. SSRIs &amp; MAO-Is have shown efficacy in treating atypical depression, making them a potential therapeutic option for this subtype.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Shorter Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 197.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diabetic drug that should be stopped immediately with a creatinine of 5.6mg/dl? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metformin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Linagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metformin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metformin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metformin should be discontinued in patients with a creatinine level above 1.5 mg/dL for men and 1.4 mg/dL for women, or a GFR below 30 mL/min to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in the context of significant renal impairment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cranial nerve that passes through the marked foramen marked 2 in the image below: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oculomotor nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Olfactory nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oculomotor nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-54.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-55.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-56.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Oculomotor nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The marked structure is the superior orbital fissure and the oculomotor nerve passes through this fissure.</li><li>• Superior orbital fissure is divided into three compartments by the common tendinous ring. The oculomotor nerve passes through its intermediate compartment.</li><li>• The oculomotor nerve primarily controls the movements of several eye muscles, including the levator palpebrae superioris (lifts the upper eyelid), and the superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles, which control eye movements. It also controls the constriction of the pupil (miosis) and accommodation of the lens for near vision.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Olfactory Nerve (CN I):</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Olfactory Nerve (CN I):</li><li>• The olfactory nerve originates from the olfactory bulbs , which are extensions of the brain, located on the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone within the anterior cranial fossa.</li><li>• The olfactory nerve originates from the olfactory bulbs , which are extensions of the brain, located on the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone within the anterior cranial fossa.</li><li>• olfactory bulbs</li><li>• cribriform plate</li><li>• ethmoid bone</li><li>• The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. It carries sensory information related to odors from the nasal cavity to the olfactory bulbs.</li><li>• The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. It carries sensory information related to odors from the nasal cavity to the olfactory bulbs.</li><li>• Option C. Optic Nerve (CN II):</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Optic Nerve (CN II):</li><li>• The optic nerve emerges from the optic canal , which is located in the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone within the middle cranial fossa.</li><li>• The optic nerve emerges from the optic canal , which is located in the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone within the middle cranial fossa.</li><li>• optic canal</li><li>• lesser wing of the sphenoid bone</li><li>• The optic nerve is crucial for vision. It transmits visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli.</li><li>• The optic nerve is crucial for vision. It transmits visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli.</li><li>• Option D. Facial Nerve (CN VII):</li><li>• Option D. Facial Nerve (CN VII):</li><li>• The facial nerve emerge from a stylomastoid foramen from the base of the skull.</li><li>• The facial nerve emerge from a stylomastoid foramen from the base of the skull.</li><li>• It controls the muscles of facial expression, taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and the production of saliva and tears. It also carries sensory information related to taste.</li><li>• It controls the muscles of facial expression, taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and the production of saliva and tears. It also carries sensory information related to taste.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A rape victim is brought to the casualty of a government hospital for examination. Within what time should a vaginal swab be taken to look for the presence of spermatozoa? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Within 72 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Within 36 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Within 5 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Within 48 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Within 72 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Within 72 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Presence of spermatozoa and other microorganisms</li><li>➤ Presence of spermatozoa and other microorganisms</li><li>➤ •Spermatozoa remain motile in the vagina for 6-8 hours, occasionally up to 12 hours.</li><li>➤ •Nonmotile forms can be detected for about 24 hours, rarely up to 48-72 hours.</li><li>➤ •Detection involves aspirating vaginal contents and examining under a microscope.</li><li>➤ •Motile sperms suggest recent intercourse; nonmotile sperms indicate a broader time frame (12-72 hours).</li><li>➤ •Intact spermatozoa are rarely found in the vagina after 72 hours.</li><li>➤ •Seminal fluid detection from vasectomized males requires prostatic acid phosphatase demonstration.</li><li>➤ •P30, a semen-specific glycoprotein, is used as a screening test, detectable in vaginal fluid for about 27 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient's plasma has high levels of interferon beta. He most likely has an infection due to? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fungi", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycoplasm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/screenshot-2024-07-01-103903.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of interferons:</li><li>➤ Types of interferons:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most conspicuous sign of breast cancer?(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peaud'orange", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nipple retraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Puckering", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both nipple retraction and puckering", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Peaud'orange", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-63.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Peaud'orange</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most conspicuous sign of breast cancer is Peau d' orange appearance.</li><li>• Peaud'orange (orange peel like texture), is the edematous swollen and pitted breast skin due to obstruction of the subcutaneous lymphatics.</li><li>• obstruction of the subcutaneous lymphatics.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B . Nipple retraction: Nipple retraction, or inversion, is another potential sign of breast cancer. In some cases, a cancerous lump or tumor can pull on the tissues surrounding the nipple, causing it to retract or appear inverted. However, nipple retraction can also be a benign condition and may not always indicate breast cancer.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Nipple retraction:</li><li>• Option C. Puckering: Puckering of the breast skin can occur when there is an underlying mass or tumor. This may cause changes in the normal contours of the breast, leading to visible puckering or dimpling. Like nipple retraction, puckering can result from both cancerous and non-cancerous breast conditions.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Puckering:</li><li>• Option D. Both nipple retraction and puckering: Some individuals may present with both nipple retraction and puckering as signs of breast cancer. These signs may indicate the presence of a tumor or mass within the breast tissue.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Both nipple retraction and puckering:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peau d'orange term refers to the \"orange peel\" appearance of the skin on the breast. It is characterized by dimpling or thickening of the skin that resembles the texture of an orange peel.</li><li>➤ Peau d'orange</li><li>➤ Peau d'orange can be a sign of advanced breast cancer. It occurs when cancer cells block the lymphatic channels in the breast, causing the skin to pucker and become swollen. While it is a significant sign of breast cancer, it typically indicates a more advanced stage of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Craniopagus is defined as the fusion of? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Head and spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Head only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thorax and spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thorax only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Head only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/102.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Head only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Craniopagus is a specific type of conjoined twins where the fusion occurs only at the cranium (head), and these twins are genetically identical and of the same sex.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs does not increase the risk of bleeding in patients undergoing warfarin therapy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cimetidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbamazepine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Carbamazepine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Carbamazepine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Warfarin is mainly metabolized by the CYP2C9 enzyme. Drugs like Cimetidine, Isoniazid, Amiodarone, Clopidogrel, Ketoconazole, Verapamil etc inhibit the enzyme, thus reducing the metabolism of warfarin. This increases the plasma concentration of Warfarin and leads to increased risk of bleeding.</li><li>➤ Carbamazepine is an enzyme inducer and increases the metabolism of warfarin leading to decrease in effect of warfarin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which pattern of inheritance does the pedigree chart denote? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autosomal-dominant disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "X- linked dominant disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autosomal-recessive disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "X- linked recessive disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Autosomal-recessive disorder", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/103.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Autosomal-recessive disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autosomal-recessive disorders are typically characterized by a horizontal pattern of inheritance, where the disorder appears in siblings of the same generation but may skip generations, with unaffected parents often being carriers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patellar Clunk Syndrome scar is present at superior pole of patella and impinging on: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Femoral component during flexion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femoral component during extension", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior pole during flexion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superior pole during extension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Femoral component during extension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Femoral component during extension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The scar of the patellar clunk syndrome after TKR is present at the superior pole of the patella and it impinges on the femoral component of the implant of active knee extension.</li><li>➤ The scar of the patellar clunk syndrome after TKR is present at the superior pole of the patella and it impinges on the femoral component of the implant of active knee extension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which amongst the following is true about Turner's syndrome? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Webbing of hands and toes are associated with risk of visceral anomalies", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Noonan syndrome is more associated with cardiac defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Absence of neck webbing is associated with higher risk of coarctation of aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Webbing of neck is associated with higher risk of cardiac anomalies", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Webbing of neck is associated with higher risk of cardiac anomalies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/951.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Webbing of neck is associated with higher risk of cardiac anomalies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Turner syndrome, the presence of neck webbing is significantly associated with an increased risk of cardiac anomalies, particularly coarctation of the aorta and bicuspid aortic valve.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition, Pg no 318-319</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition, Pg no 318-319</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old girl was brought to the OPD. Genital examination revealed the findings as given below: (AIIMS NOV 2018) Labia majora - separated Labia minora- flabby Fourchette tear present Roomy vagina seen with intact hymen What is true about this girl from the options below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "True virgin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "False virgin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Premenstrual stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Molestation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. False virgin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. False virgin</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Type I collagen is not seen in? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aponeurosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Elastic cartilage", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Elastic cartilage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-184305.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Elastic cartilage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ List of types of collagens in various tissues:</li><li>➤ List of types of collagens in various tissues:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis of the image shown below?(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coxa magna", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coxa valga", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coxa vara", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coxa saltans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Coxa vara", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-628.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Coxa vara</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows coxa vara i.e., reduced angle between the neck and shaft of the femur.</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows coxa vara i.e., reduced angle between the neck and shaft of the femur.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs is associated with ophthalmic toxicity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ethambutol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kanamycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rifampin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ethambutol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ethambutol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethambutol is a first line anti tubercular drug that can cause optic neuritis and red green color blindness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the infectious disease ward, you notice a multi-drug therapy packet placed neatly on a patient's bedside table. Based on the drug composition, which of the following diseases do you think the packet is intended to treat? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leprosy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaginal discharge", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonorrhea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leprosy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture1533.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture1633.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture17333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture1866.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture1933.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leprosy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multi-drug therapy packets containing drugs like rifampicin, clofazimine, and dapsone are specifically intended for the treatment of leprosy.</li><li>➤ Multi-drug therapy packets containing drugs like rifampicin, clofazimine, and dapsone are specifically intended for the treatment of leprosy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The fetal adrenal gland production of which of the following is maximum? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DHEA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cortisol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corticosterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. DHEA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) DHEA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fetal adrenal gland produces the maximum amount of DHEA, which is a precursor for estrogen synthesis, critical for maintaining pregnancy and supporting fetal development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A preterm infant in the NICU was observed to have marked nasal flare, distinct xiphoid retractions, minimal intercostal retractions, and inspiratory lag with an audible grunt. What would be the Silverman Anderson score? ? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "8", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "9", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/104.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Silverman-Anderson score is used to assess the severity of respiratory distress in neonates, with a score of 8 indicating significant distress requiring close monitoring and possibly intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the procedure done in the labor room? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amniocentesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MCA doppler", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardiotocography", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amniotic fluid index determination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cardiotocography", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_ttNZkYp.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cardiotocography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a procedure called Cardiotocography (CTG). CTG is a method used to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine contractions during pregnancy and labor. It helps assess the well-being of the fetus and identify any signs of fetal distress.</li><li>• Key points about Cardiotocography (CTG):</li><li>• Key points about Cardiotocography (CTG):</li><li>• If done antenatally (when the patient is not in labor), it is called a Non-Stress Test (NST). During labor, CTG is used to continuously monitor the fetal heart rate and contractions to ensure the fetus is not in distress.</li><li>• If done antenatally (when the patient is not in labor), it is called a Non-Stress Test (NST).</li><li>• If done antenatally (when the patient is not in labor), it is called a Non-Stress Test (NST).</li><li>• During labor, CTG is used to continuously monitor the fetal heart rate and contractions to ensure the fetus is not in distress.</li><li>• During labor, CTG is used to continuously monitor the fetal heart rate and contractions to ensure the fetus is not in distress.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Amniocentesis: Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure in which a sample of amniotic fluid is aspirated for prenatal diagnosis or therapeutic purposes. This is not the procedure shown in the image.</li><li>• Option A. Amniocentesis:</li><li>• Option B. MCA Doppler: MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery) Doppler is performed to assess fetal growth restriction and fetal anemia. It is an ultrasound procedure and does not match the image shown.</li><li>• Option B. MCA Doppler:</li><li>• Option D. Amniotic Fluid Index (AFI): AFI is an ultrasound estimation of amniotic fluid volume. It is not depicted in the image.</li><li>• Option D. Amniotic Fluid Index (AFI):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiotocography (CTG) is used to monitor the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions during pregnancy and labor. When performed antenatally without labor, it is referred to as a Non-Stress Test (NST).</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg339, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg122</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg339, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg122</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to POCSO, aggravated sexual assault includes: ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sexual assault done by police officer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Threatening", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gang penetrative sexual assault", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sexual assault done by police officer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Sexual assault done by police officer</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following nerves is not involved in olfaction?(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vagus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoglossal nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypoglossal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hypoglossal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The hypoglossal nerve is purely motor cranial nerve and is not involved in olfaction.</li><li>• All intrinsic and the majority of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue are innervated by General Somatic Efferent fibres, which are motor fibres that supply skeletal muscles. It emerges as many rootlets from the medulla's front surface, travels laterally across the posterior cerebral fossa, and then leaves through the hypoglossal canal. All intrinsic tongue muscles, including the hyoglossus, styloglossus, and genioglossus muscles, are innervated by this nerve.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Trigeminal nerve (CN V): The trigeminal nerve a mixed cranial nerve primarily responsible for sensations in the face, including touch, temperature, and pain. While it is not directly involved in olfaction (smell), it can indirectly influence the perception of smell. Irritants or substances that produce strong odors can activate the trigeminal nerve's pain and temperature receptors in the nasal passages, leading to sensations like \"spiciness\" or irritation when inhaling certain substances.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Trigeminal nerve (CN V):</li><li>• Option B. Vagus nerve (CN X): The vagus nerve is not directly involved in olfaction. It primarily serves functions related to the autonomic nervous system, including controlling various organs and muscles in the thoracic and abdominal regions. It does not have a direct role in the sense of smell but Vagal nerve stimulation modifies the electrical activity of the olfactory bulb.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Vagus nerve (CN X):</li><li>• Option C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX): The glossopharyngeal nerve is also a mixed cranial nerve and not directly involved in olfaction. It has various functions, including the transmission of sensory information from the back of the throat and parts of the tongue.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is primarily responsible for the motor control of the muscles of the tongue. It does not have any direct involvement in olfaction or the sense of smell.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged woman presents with fissured tongue and peripheral neuropathy. Investigations showed reduced glutathione reductase activity. Which vitamin deficiency is the likely cause of this? (AIIMS NOVEMBER 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/01_6M1IkOb.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin B2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency, indicated by reduced glutathione reductase activity, can cause symptoms such as a fissured tongue, cheilosis, and peripheral neuropathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy was brought with the complaints of protrusion of the right eye with no h/o fever. CT Scan showed a well-defined mass in the orbit with an irregular border and adjacent bony destruction. Biopsy showed small, round cells which were positive for Desmin in Immunohistochemistry. What is the probable diagnosis? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cavernous Hemangioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orbital Cellulitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhabdomyosarcoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rhabdomyosarcoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-112128.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are doing an emergency laparotomy for a case of intestinal obstruction. Which organ will be first visualized to know if this is a case of small bowel or large bowel obstruction? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ileum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caecum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jejunum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sigmoid colon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Caecum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cecum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cecum is the first organ to be visualized to differentiate between small and large bowel obstruction in cases of intestinal obstruction.</li><li>➤ Distension of the cecum will confirm large bowel involvement, while collapsed cecum implies small bowel obstruction.</li><li>➤ Identifying a collapsed distal segment of the large bowel and its sequential proximal assessment leads to the identification of the cause.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old female presented to the emergency department with the sudden onset of severe epigastric pain, she had a history of heart burn and dyspeptic symptoms for past 10 years. On physical exam, she had a temperature of 101.44° F, a pulse of 115bpm and a blood pressure of 125/72mmHg. Abdomen was tender &amp; rigid. What is the likely diagnosis?(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subdiaphragmatic abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pneumoperitoneum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-159.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-160.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pneumoperitoneum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presence of free gas under the right diaphragm in the X-ray. This is suggestive of pneumoperitoneum.</li><li>• C/F: Acute abdominal pain, rigidity, tenderness, guarding MOST SENSITIVE X RAY: CXR-PA erect</li><li>• C/F: Acute abdominal pain, rigidity, tenderness, guarding</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE X RAY: CXR-PA erect</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE X RAY: CXR-PA erect</li><li>• Air under the diaphragm-Right</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE Ix: CECT with oral contrast NEXT STEP: Resuscitation with iv fluids, Exploratory laparotomy</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE Ix: CECT with oral contrast</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE Ix: CECT with oral contrast</li><li>• NEXT STEP: Resuscitation with iv fluids, Exploratory laparotomy</li><li>• NEXT STEP: Resuscitation with iv fluids, Exploratory laparotomy</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pneumothorax which represents air in the pleural space, collapsed lung and sometimes mediastinal shift to the opposite side. Presentation is variable and may range from no symptoms to severe dyspnea with tachycardia and hypotension.</li><li>• Option A. Pneumothorax</li><li>• Option C. Subdiaphragmatic abscess , there is an infradiaphragmatic localized collection of fluid with gas bubbles or gas-fluid level which has an enhancing wall. It is often combined with elevation of the hemidiaphragm and a pleural effusion.</li><li>• Option C. Subdiaphragmatic abscess</li><li>• Option D. Intestinal obstruction on abdominal radiographs show dilated loops of small bowel proximal to the obstruction with visible valvulae conniventes.</li><li>• Option D. Intestinal obstruction</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumoperitoneum is a critical diagnosis identified by the presence of free air under the diaphragm on X-ray, indicative of gastrointestinal perforation, requiring immediate surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the following image show? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autophagy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Emperipolesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phagocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amoebic autophagy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Emperipolesis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/941.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Emperipolesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Emperipolesis is a unique process where one cell enters another without being destroyed, differentiating it from phagocytosis and entosis, with the host cell usually being a megakaryocyte or histiocyte .</li><li>➤ Emperipolesis</li><li>➤ megakaryocyte</li><li>➤ histiocyte</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i. = a, ii. = d, iii. = c, iv. = b", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "i. = b, ii. = c, iii. = a, iv. = d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i. = c, ii. = a, iii. = d, iv. = b", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "i. = c, ii. = a, iii. = b, iv. = d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. i. = c, ii. = a, iii. = d, iv. = b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/30/screenshot-2023-11-30-192053.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• i. Heroin = c. Brown sugar Heroin is a semi-synthetic opioid also known by street names such as brown sugar, smack, dope, junk. ii. Joint = a. Ganja A joint is a term used for a rolled marijuana cigarette. Ganja is also known as pot, grass, weed, rope, mull, dope, joint, Mary Jane, skunk, hash, reefer. iii. LSD = d. Acid LSD is known by various street names including acid, blotter acid, blue caps, blue dots, brown caps, crackers, purple owle. iv. Eve = b. Amphetamine Methamphetamine and related substances are often referred to as Eve, meth, etc.</li><li>• i. Heroin = c. Brown sugar Heroin is a semi-synthetic opioid also known by street names such as brown sugar, smack, dope, junk.</li><li>• i. Heroin = c. Brown sugar</li><li>• Heroin is a semi-synthetic opioid also known by street names such as brown sugar, smack, dope, junk.</li><li>• Heroin is a semi-synthetic opioid also known by street names such as brown sugar, smack, dope, junk.</li><li>• ii. Joint = a. Ganja A joint is a term used for a rolled marijuana cigarette. Ganja is also known as pot, grass, weed, rope, mull, dope, joint, Mary Jane, skunk, hash, reefer.</li><li>• ii. Joint = a. Ganja</li><li>• A joint is a term used for a rolled marijuana cigarette. Ganja is also known as pot, grass, weed, rope, mull, dope, joint, Mary Jane, skunk, hash, reefer.</li><li>• A joint is a term used for a rolled marijuana cigarette. Ganja is also known as pot, grass, weed, rope, mull, dope, joint, Mary Jane, skunk, hash, reefer.</li><li>• iii. LSD = d. Acid LSD is known by various street names including acid, blotter acid, blue caps, blue dots, brown caps, crackers, purple owle.</li><li>• iii. LSD = d. Acid</li><li>• LSD is known by various street names including acid, blotter acid, blue caps, blue dots, brown caps, crackers, purple owle.</li><li>• LSD is known by various street names including acid, blotter acid, blue caps, blue dots, brown caps, crackers, purple owle.</li><li>• iv. Eve = b. Amphetamine Methamphetamine and related substances are often referred to as Eve, meth, etc.</li><li>• iv. Eve = b. Amphetamine</li><li>• Methamphetamine and related substances are often referred to as Eve, meth, etc.</li><li>• Methamphetamine and related substances are often referred to as Eve, meth, etc.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Street names of narcotic substances</li><li>➤ Street names of narcotic substances</li><li>➤ Ganja is called Pot, grass, weed, rope, mull, dope, joint, Mary Jane, skunk, hash, reefer. Heroin is a semisynthetic opioid also known as brown sugar, smack, dope, junk Cocaine is called by names like snuff, Rock, Crack, Coke, Snow, Cadillac, White lady Methamphetamine is also called eve, meth etc. LSD is called by names like acid, blotter acid, blue caps, blue dots, brown caps, crackers, purple Owle. Abrus Precatorius is called by names like Indian liquor ice, prayer head, crab's eye, weather plant, gulagunchi, ratti, gunja. Capsaicin is called by names like 'Hunan hand' as it causes burning of fingers.</li><li>➤ Ganja is called Pot, grass, weed, rope, mull, dope, joint, Mary Jane, skunk, hash, reefer.</li><li>➤ Ganja</li><li>➤ Heroin is a semisynthetic opioid also known as brown sugar, smack, dope, junk</li><li>➤ Heroin</li><li>➤ Cocaine is called by names like snuff, Rock, Crack, Coke, Snow, Cadillac, White lady</li><li>➤ Cocaine</li><li>➤ Methamphetamine is also called eve, meth etc.</li><li>➤ Methamphetamine</li><li>➤ LSD is called by names like acid, blotter acid, blue caps, blue dots, brown caps, crackers, purple Owle.</li><li>➤ Abrus Precatorius is called by names like Indian liquor ice, prayer head, crab's eye, weather plant, gulagunchi, ratti, gunja.</li><li>➤ Abrus Precatorius</li><li>➤ Capsaicin is called by names like 'Hunan hand' as it causes burning of fingers.</li><li>➤ Capsaicin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this condition? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Twin to Twin Transfusion Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Monochorionic monoamniotic pregnancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Monochorionic monoamniotic pregnancy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_QSiuVik.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Monochorionic monoamniotic pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a monochorionic monoamniotic placenta, characterized by a single placenta with two umbilical cords and no intervening membrane. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins share both a chorion and an amniotic sac. This type of twinning occurs when the inner cell mass divides between days 8 to 12 of gestation, after the formation of the trophoblast, leading to a monochorionic condition.</li><li>• Monochorionic monoamniotic twin gestations have a high fetal death rate due to several complications:</li><li>• Monochorionic monoamniotic twin gestations have a high fetal death rate due to several complications:</li><li>• Preterm birth Congenital anomalies Low birth weight Cord entanglement</li><li>• Preterm birth</li><li>• Congenital anomalies</li><li>• Low birth weight</li><li>• Cord entanglement</li><li>• The best time for delivery of monochorionic monoamniotic twins is between 32-34 weeks via Caesarean section.</li><li>• The best time for delivery of monochorionic monoamniotic twins is between 32-34 weeks via Caesarean section.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Twin to Twin Transfusion Syndrome: This is a complication seen in monochorionic twin pregnancies. It involves a donor twin and a recipient twin. The donor twin is anemic, growth-restricted, and has oligohydramnios, while the recipient twin is polycythemic, has polyhydramnios, and suffers from circulatory overload.</li><li>• Option A. Twin to Twin Transfusion Syndrome:</li><li>• Option B. Monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy: In this type of pregnancy, there are two amniotic cavities and one chorion. This occurs when the inner cell mass divides between 4-7 days of gestation.</li><li>• Option B. Monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy:</li><li>• Option D. Dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy: This pregnancy type involves two amniotic cavities and two chorions. It occurs when the inner cell mass divides between 0-3 days of gestation.</li><li>• Option D. Dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Monochorionic monoamniotic pregnancies involve a single placenta with two umbilical cords and no intervening membrane, occurring when the inner cell mass divides between days 8 to 12 of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition pg 233-234,</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition pg 233-234,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which component of cement causes allergic contact dermatitis among construction workers in India? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cobalt", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nickel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chromate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chromate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture20.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture24.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/17/screenshot-2024-06-17-102211.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chromate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Among construction workers in India, allergic contact dermatitis is most commonly caused by chromate in cement , due to a type IV hypersensitivity reaction when chromate comes into contact with the skin.</li><li>➤ construction workers</li><li>➤ allergic contact dermatitis</li><li>➤ chromate</li><li>➤ cement</li><li>➤ type IV hypersensitivity</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 128 page no 128.2-14</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 128 page no 128.2-14</li><li>➤ Online source: https://europepmc.org/article/pmc/2965911</li><li>➤ Online source:</li><li>➤ https://europepmc.org/article/pmc/2965911</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female comes to Gynecology OPD for pre-conceptual counseling, with 2 prior second trimester abortions. What is the next investigation you will advise? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pelvic sonography", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hysterosalpingography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Karyotyping of the parents", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pelvic sonography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pelvic sonography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most common cause of recurrent second trimester pregnancy loss (RPL) is anatomical abnormalities of the uterus. The initial investigation for anatomical abnormalities is a transvaginal ultrasound (pelvic sonography) as it is non-invasive and provides detailed imaging of the uterine structure.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Recurrent first trimester abortions: Often associated with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APLA) or endocrinological causes. Recurrent second trimester abortions: Often associated with anatomical uterine problems. Single spontaneous abortion: Most commonly caused by fetal genetic abnormalities.</li><li>• Recurrent first trimester abortions: Often associated with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APLA) or endocrinological causes.</li><li>• Recurrent first trimester abortions:</li><li>• Recurrent second trimester abortions: Often associated with anatomical uterine problems.</li><li>• Recurrent second trimester abortions:</li><li>• Single spontaneous abortion: Most commonly caused by fetal genetic abnormalities.</li><li>• Single spontaneous abortion:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Hysterosalpingography: This is not routinely advised for anatomical abnormalities of the uterus. It is more commonly used for evaluating tubal patency and uterine cavity shape but is not the first-line investigation in this scenario.</li><li>• Option B. Hysterosalpingography:</li><li>• Option C. Endometrial Biopsy: This is advised in women with suspected genital tuberculosis or in women with suspected luteal phase defect. It is not typically indicated for recurrent second trimester pregnancy loss.</li><li>• Option C. Endometrial Biopsy:</li><li>• Option D. Karyotyping of the parents: Chromosomal abnormalities, such as balanced translocations, account for only about 5% of recurrent pregnancy loss (RPL). Therefore, parental karyotyping is not an initial investigation of choice.</li><li>• Option D. Karyotyping of the parents:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial investigation for recurrent second trimester pregnancy loss (RPL) is pelvic sonography to evaluate for anatomical abnormalities of the uterus.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 2 t6h edition pg 203</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 2 t6h edition pg 203</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument: (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Episiotomy scissors", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curved artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Curve Mayo scissor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mosquito forceps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Episiotomy scissors", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_S2GYht4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-283.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-284.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-285.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Episiotomy scissors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The instrument given in the picture is an episiotomy scissors. The angulation in the scissor is to prevent extension of pelvic tear into the anal margins and obstetric anal sphincter injuries / complete perineal tear. An episiotomy is NOT given routinely. It’s use is restricted and is given in situations like. Macrosomia After coming head of breech Instrumental delivery Shoulder dystocia</li><li>• The instrument given in the picture is an episiotomy scissors.</li><li>• The angulation in the scissor is to prevent extension of pelvic tear into the anal margins and obstetric anal sphincter injuries / complete perineal tear.</li><li>• An episiotomy is NOT given routinely.</li><li>• It’s use is restricted and is given in situations like. Macrosomia After coming head of breech Instrumental delivery Shoulder dystocia</li><li>• Macrosomia After coming head of breech Instrumental delivery Shoulder dystocia</li><li>• Macrosomia</li><li>• After coming head of breech</li><li>• Instrumental delivery</li><li>• Shoulder dystocia</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Curved artery : It has serrated tips and ratchet lock . It is used to clamp blood vessels, hold peritoneal edges, tissue dissection</li><li>• Option B. Curved artery</li><li>• Option C. Curved mayo scissors : These are used to cut tissue such as the uterus, rectus sheath etc.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Curved mayo scissors</li><li>• Option D. Mosquito forceps : It is a small artery forceps used to catch small bleeders.</li><li>• Option D. Mosquito forceps</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Episiotomy scissors are specifically designed with an angulated blade to prevent the extension of pelvic tears into the anal margins, thereby reducing the risk of obstetric anal sphincter injuries and complete perineal tears during childbirth.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta textbook of obstetrics 8th edition pg 755</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta textbook of obstetrics 8th edition pg 755</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following infection presents with mucus in stools and abdominal pain? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Giardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Entamoeba", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Campylobacter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Entamoeba", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Entamoeba</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Entamoeba histolytica infection presents with dysentery, characterized by stools containing mucus and blood, along with abdominal pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with prolonged labor in emergency. She is being taken for a Cesarean section. Which of the following is the correct position in which the nurse should keep the patient on the OT table? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supine with wedge under right hip", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Semi fowlers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trendelenburg with legs stirrup", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prone position", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Supine with wedge under right hip", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Supine with wedge under right hip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The preferred position for a cesarean section is supine with a wedge under the right hip. This positioning is crucial to prevent supine hypotension syndrome, which is commonly seen in the third trimester of pregnancy.</li><li>• Supine hypotension syndrome:</li><li>• Supine hypotension syndrome:</li><li>• Occurs due to the pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava (IVC) when the patient is in the supine position. This pressure can cause hypotension, tachycardia, and syncope. It is particularly dangerous during cesarean sections where spinal anesthesia can exacerbate hypotension. A right tilt (placing a wedge under the right hip) helps to alleviate the pressure on the IVC, thereby preventing hypotension.</li><li>• Occurs due to the pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava (IVC) when the patient is in the supine position.</li><li>• This pressure can cause hypotension, tachycardia, and syncope.</li><li>• It is particularly dangerous during cesarean sections where spinal anesthesia can exacerbate hypotension.</li><li>• A right tilt (placing a wedge under the right hip) helps to alleviate the pressure on the IVC, thereby preventing hypotension.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Semi fowlers: The individual lies on the bed with the head elevated 30-45 degrees. This position is not suitable for a cesarean section.</li><li>• Option B. Semi fowlers:</li><li>• Option C. Trendelenburg with legs stirrup: This position involves having the head low and is not appropriate for a cesarean section. The reverse Trendelenburg position (head high) is also not suitable for this purpose.</li><li>• Option C. Trendelenburg with legs stirrup:</li><li>• Option D. Prone position: The prone position (lying face down) is inappropriate for cesarean sections.</li><li>• Option D. Prone position:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During a cesarean section, the patient should be positioned supine with a wedge under the right hip to prevent supine hypotension syndrome, which is caused by the pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 1405</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 1405</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "NARP syndrome is a? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lysosomal storage disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitochondrial function disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycogen storage disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Golgi body transport disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mitochondrial function disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NARP syndrome is a mitochondrial function disorder caused by a point mutation in the mitochondrial ATPase-6 gene, leading to a spectrum of neurological and retinal symptoms.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no 2572</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no 2572</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under the Mental Health Care Act 2017, a patient has the right to choose his or her caretaker and future course of action in treatment. What is this provision known as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treatment directive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mental will", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Future directive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Advance directive", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Advance directive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Advance directive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the Mental Health Care Act 2017 in India, individuals can use an \"Advance Directive\" to state the way they wish to be treated for a mental illness and the way they wish not to be treated for a mental illness. This provision empowers individuals to have a say in their treatment even if they become incapacitated in the future. This is applicable only if a person loses the capacity to make mental healthcare or treatment decisions . Individuals can also appoint “Nominated Representative (NR)”, who will help in taking decisions regarding the treatment if he or she loses the capacity to make decision.</li><li>➤ only if a person loses the capacity to make mental healthcare or treatment decisions</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Forensic Psychiatry in India, Interface of Indian Laws and Mental Health, Page No 42.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A drug used to treat Tinea cruris that is experiencing an increasing development of widespread resistance is? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Itraconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Griseofulvin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Terbinafine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Voriconazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Terbinafine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/02/whatsapp-image-2023-12-01-at-190431.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Terbinafine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Terbinafine is increasingly encountering resistance in the treatment of Tinea cruris , likely due to mutations in the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase , which is the drug's target .</li><li>➤ Terbinafine</li><li>➤ resistance</li><li>➤ Tinea cruris</li><li>➤ mutations</li><li>➤ enzyme squalene epoxidase</li><li>➤ drug's target</li><li>➤ Online source:</li><li>➤ Online source:</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC148991 HYPERLINK \"https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC148991/\"/</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC148991 HYPERLINK \"https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC148991/\"/</li><li>➤ ncbi.nlm.nih.gov - Management of tinea corporis, tinea cruris, and tinea pedis</li><li>➤ ncbi.nlm.nih.gov - Management of tinea corporis, tinea cruris, and tinea pedis</li><li>➤ ncbi.nlm.nih.gov - Update on terbinafine with a focus on dermatophytoses</li><li>➤ ncbi.nlm.nih.gov - Update on terbinafine with a focus on dermatophytoses</li><li>➤ [ijdvl.com - III. Antifungal resistance and treatment options https://ijdvl.com/the-unprecedented-epidemic-like-scenario-of-dermatophytosis-in-india-iii-antifungal-resistance-and-treatment-options/</li><li>➤ [ijdvl.com - III. Antifungal resistance and treatment options</li><li>➤ https://ijdvl.com/the-unprecedented-epidemic-like-scenario-of-dermatophytosis-in-india-iii-antifungal-resistance-and-treatment-options/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following features will not be manifested in an infection of the post-styloid compartment of the parapharyngeal space?( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trismus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vocal cord palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parotid swelling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Horner's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trismus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/26_jqTAhkd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trismus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Presentation in a post-styloid abscess:</li><li>➤ Presentation in a post-styloid abscess:</li><li>➤ Bulge behind posterior tonsillar pillar.</li><li>➤ Since post styloid compartment contains CN IX, X, XI, XII, their palsies may be seen. Sympathetic chain involvement in this compartment will cause Horner's syndrome. Swelling of the parotid region No trismus or minimal trismus General Symptoms - Fever, odynophagia, sore throat, torticollis (due to spasm of prevertebral muscles) and signs of toxemia</li><li>➤ Since post styloid compartment contains CN IX, X, XI, XII, their palsies may be seen.</li><li>➤ Sympathetic chain involvement in this compartment will cause Horner's syndrome.</li><li>➤ Swelling of the parotid region</li><li>➤ No trismus or minimal trismus</li><li>➤ General Symptoms - Fever, odynophagia, sore throat, torticollis (due to spasm of prevertebral muscles) and signs of toxemia</li><li>➤ Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Contrast-enhanced CT scan neck – for extent of a lesion. Magnetic resonance arteriography is useful if thrombosis of the internal jugular vein or aneurysm of the internal carotid artery is suspected.</li><li>➤ Contrast-enhanced CT scan neck – for extent of a lesion.</li><li>➤ Magnetic resonance arteriography is useful if thrombosis of the internal jugular vein or aneurysm of the internal carotid artery is suspected.</li><li>➤ Treatment</li><li>➤ Treatment</li><li>➤ IV antibiotics with aerobic and anaerobic cover Incision and drainage of abscess</li><li>➤ IV antibiotics with aerobic and anaerobic cover</li><li>➤ Incision and drainage of abscess</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the following, what is the most common symptom of adult obsessive-compulsive disorder? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aggressive symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Need for symmetry", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pathological doubt", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sexual symptoms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pathological doubt", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/11/screenshot-2023-10-11-190855.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pathological doubt</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In adult OCD, most common presentation is obsession of contamination with compulsion of washing, followed by pathological doubt and checking rituals.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 96.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During your residency, you learn about a specific protocol essential for physicians when dealing with challenging scenarios. This protocol, known as the SPIKES protocol, serves a unique purpose in medical communication. Can you identify the primary objective of employing the SPIKES protocol? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Consent for study participation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hospital infection control", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breaking bad news", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Breaking bad news", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Breaking bad news</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The SPIKES protocol is specifically designed to guide physicians in breaking bad news to patients, ensuring the communication is handled with sensitivity and clarity.</li><li>➤ The SPIKES protocol is specifically designed to guide physicians in breaking bad news to patients, ensuring the communication is handled with sensitivity and clarity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the helminth from the life cycle given below? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Strongyloides stercoralis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Strongyloides stercoralis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Strongyloides stercoralis infects through skin penetration by filariform larvae from contaminated soil.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Heller's operation is performed for: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Achalasia cardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carcinoma esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophageal stricture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Achalasia cardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Achalasia cardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Achalasia cardia, commonly referred to as achalasia, is a medical condition that affects the esophagus, specifically the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) and the muscles of the esophageal wall. This condition is characterized by the following features:</li><li>➤ Failure of LES Relaxation: In achalasia, the LES, a muscular ring that separates the esophagus from the stomach, does not relax properly during swallowing. Normally, the LES should relax to allow food and liquids to pass into the stomach, but in achalasia, this relaxation is impaired. Incomplete Emptying of the Esophagus: Due to the dysfunctional LES, the esophagus is unable to empty food and liquids into the stomach efficiently. This leads to a gradual buildup of food and fluids in the esophagus, causing symptoms. Difficulty in Swallowing: The most prominent symptom of achalasia is dysphagia, which is difficulty in swallowing. Patients often experience a sensation of food getting stuck in the chest while eating and may need to drink fluids or change their body position to help food pass into the stomach. Regurgitation: As a result of the esophageal emptying problems, patients with achalasia may also experience regurgitation of undigested food, often occurring at night when lying down. Chest Pain: Some individuals with achalasia may experience chest pain or discomfort, often due to the accumulation of food and fluids in the esophagus.</li><li>➤ Failure of LES Relaxation: In achalasia, the LES, a muscular ring that separates the esophagus from the stomach, does not relax properly during swallowing. Normally, the LES should relax to allow food and liquids to pass into the stomach, but in achalasia, this relaxation is impaired.</li><li>➤ Failure of LES Relaxation:</li><li>➤ Incomplete Emptying of the Esophagus: Due to the dysfunctional LES, the esophagus is unable to empty food and liquids into the stomach efficiently. This leads to a gradual buildup of food and fluids in the esophagus, causing symptoms.</li><li>➤ Incomplete Emptying of the Esophagus:</li><li>➤ Difficulty in Swallowing: The most prominent symptom of achalasia is dysphagia, which is difficulty in swallowing. Patients often experience a sensation of food getting stuck in the chest while eating and may need to drink fluids or change their body position to help food pass into the stomach.</li><li>➤ Difficulty in Swallowing:</li><li>➤ Regurgitation: As a result of the esophageal emptying problems, patients with achalasia may also experience regurgitation of undigested food, often occurring at night when lying down.</li><li>➤ Regurgitation:</li><li>➤ Chest Pain: Some individuals with achalasia may experience chest pain or discomfort, often due to the accumulation of food and fluids in the esophagus.</li><li>➤ Chest Pain:</li><li>➤ Achalasia is typically diagnosed through tests such as esophageal manometry, which measures the pressure within the esophagus, and barium swallow studies, which show the narrowing of the esophagus and the delayed emptying of contrast material.</li><li>➤ Treatment options for achalasia include:</li><li>➤ Heller Myotomy: This surgical procedure involves cutting the muscles of the LES to allow for improved passage of food and liquids into the stomach. It is the primary surgical treatment for achalasia. Pneumatic Dilation: In this non-surgical procedure, a balloon is inflated within the LES to stretch and disrupt the muscle fibers, making it easier for food to pass. Botulinum Toxin Injection: Injecting botulinum toxin directly into the LES can help relax the muscle temporarily. However, this treatment may need to be repeated periodically.</li><li>➤ Heller Myotomy: This surgical procedure involves cutting the muscles of the LES to allow for improved passage of food and liquids into the stomach. It is the primary surgical treatment for achalasia.</li><li>➤ Heller Myotomy:</li><li>➤ Pneumatic Dilation: In this non-surgical procedure, a balloon is inflated within the LES to stretch and disrupt the muscle fibers, making it easier for food to pass.</li><li>➤ Pneumatic Dilation:</li><li>➤ Botulinum Toxin Injection: Injecting botulinum toxin directly into the LES can help relax the muscle temporarily. However, this treatment may need to be repeated periodically.</li><li>➤ Botulinum Toxin Injection:</li><li>➤ The choice of treatment depends on various factors, including the patient's age, overall health, and the severity of the condition. Effective management of achalasia can alleviate symptoms and improve the quality of life for individuals with this disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The presence of a pearly white papule on the mother's forehead, which is also seen in her infant, can be due to which of the following virus? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pox virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenovirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pox virus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13537.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture27.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pox virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of pearly white papules in both a mother and her infant is indicative of molluscum contagiosum , a skin infection caused by a Poxvirus.</li><li>➤ pearly white papules</li><li>➤ mother</li><li>➤ infant</li><li>➤ molluscum contagiosum</li><li>➤ Poxvirus.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 25, Page no 25.12-14</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 25, Page no 25.12-14</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vitamin K in its coenzyme form is regenerated by the enzyme? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutathione reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quinone reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin K reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epoxide reductase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Epoxide reductase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011082.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Epoxide reductase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epoxide reductase regenerates the active coenzyme form of vitamin K from its epoxide form, ensuring the continuous availability of active vitamin K for critical carboxylation reactions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is a critical parameter used to evaluate maternal health within countries. In the context of public health statistics, how is the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) for a country conventionally expressed? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maternal deaths per 100 live births", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal deaths per 10,000 live births", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maternal deaths per 1.000 live births", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture133355.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is expressed as the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births, providing a measure of the safety and quality of maternal care in a country.</li><li>➤ The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is expressed as the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births, providing a measure of the safety and quality of maternal care in a country.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bone marrow aspirate of a patient shows the following features. Which of the following is true? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Buffy coat is used to diagnose the parasite", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is an obligate extracellular parasite", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is transmitted from sheep", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stibogluconate is the first line of treatment in India", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Buffy coat is used to diagnose the parasite", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-274.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Buffy coat is used to diagnose the parasite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Buffy coat is used to diagnose Leishmania donovani by detecting the amastigote form in intracellular macrophages in patients with visceral leishmaniasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Child presents with hypotonia and seizures. It was confirmed to be Zellweger syndrome. Which among the following accumulates in brain in this condition? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lactic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Long chain fatty acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Triglycerides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Long chain fatty acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011086.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Long chain fatty acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zellweger syndrome leads to the accumulation of very long chain fatty acids (VLCFA) in the brain due to defective peroxisomal oxidation, resulting in severe neurological impairments and early childhood death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination breasts were found to be poorly developed, vagina was present. Ultrasound revealed a normal uterus, but gonads weren't detected. Further evaluation done showed 46XY karyotype. The most probable diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Androgen insensitivity syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "True hermaphrodite", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Swyer's syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Swyer's syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Swyer's syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Swyer syndrome (46XY gonadal dysgenesis) is a condition where individuals with a 46XY karyotype present phenotypically as females with primary amenorrhea, poorly developed secondary sexual characteristics, and a normal uterus but lack functioning gonads.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 33446, Williams textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg373</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 33446, Williams textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg373</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If carbamazepine is added to ongoing valproate therapy, what adverse effect is risked?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thrombocytopenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatotoxicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperammonemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hepatotoxicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hepatotoxicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When carbamazepine is added to ongoing valproate therapy, there is an increased risk of hepatotoxicity due to the induction of cytochrome P450 enzymes by carbamazepine, leading to increased production of a hepatotoxic metabolite of valproate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the diluting segment of the kidney? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Collecting duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ascending thick loop of Henle", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Descending loop of Henle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ascending thick loop of Henle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/untitled-969.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ascending thick loop of Henle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The thick ascending loop of Henle is the diluting segment of the kidney due to its impermeability to water and active reabsorption of solutes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What would be the respiratory quotient if someone is on an exclusive carbohydrate diet? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.7", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.8", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1.2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/02_anx99YL.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/03_GMxc2Ks.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Respiratory quotient (RQ) is defined as the ratio of volume of CO 2 produced in L/g to the oxygen consumed in L/g.</li><li>➤ ratio of volume of CO 2 produced in L/g to the oxygen consumed in L/g.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old girl suffers from an inadequately treated type 1 diabetes mellitus. She is currently hyperglycemic. Which of the following is most likely to occur? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycogenesis in muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased protein synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased conversion of fatty acids to acetyl-CoA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased cholesterol synthesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Increased conversion of fatty acids to acetyl-CoA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Increased conversion of fatty acids to acetyl-CoA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In type 1 diabetes mellitus with inadequate insulin, the most likely occurrence is the increased conversion of fatty acids to acetyl-CoA due to uninhibited hormone-sensitive lipase activity, leading to increased lipolysis and subsequent ketogenesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine, 2018 was awarded to James P. Allison and Tasuku Honjo for which of the following discoveries? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Discovery of mechanisms of autophagy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Discoveries of molecular mechanisms controlling the circadian rhythm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Discovery of cancer therapy by inhibition of negative immune regulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Discovery that mature cells can be reprogrammed to become pluripotent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Discovery of cancer therapy by inhibition of negative immune regulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Discovery of cancer therapy by inhibition of negative immune regulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immune checkpoint inhibitors function by blocking the proteins that control the immune system's reactions to cancer cells. The immune system's brake is removed when these proteins are inhibited, making it easier for T cells to more efficiently eliminate cancer cells.</li><li>➤ James P. Allison and Tasuku Honjo were awarded the 2018 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their discovery of cancer therapy through inhibition of negative immune regulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient present with oral cavity findings as seen in the image below. He is a smoker. What would you choose as your next step in the management of this patient? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give corticosteroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cessation of smoking and do biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lifestyle modifications", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Injection vitamin B12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cessation of smoking and do biopsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/27_mhd3pxQ.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cessation of smoking and do biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For leukoplakia, particularly in smokers, the primary management strategy includes cessation of smoking and histological examination through biopsy. This is crucial not only to assess the current state of the lesion but also to guide further therapeutic decisions which may include surgical excision, laser ablation, or cryotherapy depending on the biopsy results. Regular monitoring and photographic documentation of the lesion are also important for long-term follow-up.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 253</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 253</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) is seen with: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Natural killer (NK) cells only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macrophages only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NK cells, neutrophils and eosinophils", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neutrophils and eosinophils only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. NK cells, neutrophils and eosinophils", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/947.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) NK cells, neutrophils and eosinophils</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) is primarily mediated by NK cells, neutrophils, and eosinophils, which kill target cells coated with antibodies through mechanisms that do not involve phagocytosis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no. 356</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no. 356</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You can use a stenopaeic slit for all of the following except? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fincham's test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Corneal tattooing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optical Iridectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "To find out the axis in astigmatism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Corneal tattooing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture2_dRKMWwS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Corneal tattooing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uses of stenopaeic slit test:</li><li>➤ Fincham's test: to differentiate between the colored halos due to cataract and corneal edema due to glaucoma. To find out the optimal site for optical iridectomy in case of corneal opacities. To find out the axis in astigmatism.</li><li>➤ Fincham's test: to differentiate between the colored halos due to cataract and corneal edema due to glaucoma.</li><li>➤ To find out the optimal site for optical iridectomy in case of corneal opacities.</li><li>➤ To find out the axis in astigmatism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ligamentum flavum has high levels of: ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 collagen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2 collagen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reticular fibres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Elastin fibres", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Elastin fibres", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Elastin fibres</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ligamentum flavum has high levels of elastin fibres.</li><li>• The ventral portions of the laminae of nearby vertebrae are connected by a network of ligaments called the Ligament flava. They make up a portion of the posterior surface of the spinal canal and primarily consist of elastic tissue. Because it contains a lot of elastin, it can be stretched by 80% without suffering any harm. The ligamentum flava helps with extension back to the anatomical position by helping to prevent laminae separation during flexion.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Type 1 collagen: Collagen is the primary structural protein, among the different types of collagen, Type 1 collagen is the most abundant. It's found in many tissues including skin, tendons, internal organs, and the organic part of bones. Its primary function is to provide tensile strength to these tissues. It forms strong fibers and is responsible for the strength of the tissue. However, while present in many areas of the body, Type 1 collagen is not the predominant component of the ligamentum flavum.</li><li>• Option A. Type 1 collagen:</li><li>• Option B. Type 2 collagen: Type 2 collagen is primarily found in cartilaginous tissues. Its main function is to provide resistance against intermittent pressure, making it ideal for cartilaginous structures like the intervertebral discs, hyaline cartilage, and the vitreous humor of the eye. Given that ligamentum flavum is not a cartilaginous structure, Type 2 collagen is not its predominant component.</li><li>• Option B. Type 2 collagen:</li><li>• Option C. Reticular fibers: Reticular fibers are a type of fiber in connective tissue composed of Type 3 collagen. These fibers form a mesh-like framework in various organs such as the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes. They provide a supportive framework for these and other organs. While they are present in various parts of the body, they are not the main component of the ligamentum flavum.</li><li>• Option C. Reticular fibers:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ligamentum flavum, which connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae, contains a high concentration of elastin fibers, which allows the ligament to stretch during spine flexion and then return to its original shape when the spine is extended.</li><li>➤ This characteristic helps maintain the stability and alignment of the vertebral column. Thus, among the given options, elastin fibers are the predominant component of the ligamentum flavum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following best represents the primary concern addressed by the POCSO Act? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Women empowerment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Human trafficking", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Juvenile delinquency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Child sexual abuse", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Child sexual abuse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-121427.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Child sexual abuse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ POCSO Act (Prevention of Children from Sexual Offences Act) 2012</li><li>➤ Child definition: Any person less than 18 years of age Includes: Sexual abuses and pornography Punishments under the act:</li><li>➤ Child definition: Any person less than 18 years of age</li><li>➤ Includes: Sexual abuses and pornography</li><li>➤ Punishments under the act:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You're an intern in a bustling hospital laboratory. As you're overseeing the day's activities, you notice that a newly appointed technician accidentally spills a blood sample on the floor. The technician, looking panicked, turns to you for guidance. Given the potential risks associated with blood spills, what is the most immediate and appropriate action you should instruct the technician to take? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Call the infection control team of the hospital", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mop it", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cover it with 1% sodium hypochlorite", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clean with absorbable material", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Clean with absorbable material", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Clean with absorbable material</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypochlorites in Hospital waste Management</li><li>➤ Hypochlorites in Hospital waste Management</li><li>➤ Disinfection of countertops and floors Decontamination of blood spills Irrigating agent in endodontic treatment Disinfectant for manikins, laundry, dental appliances, hydrotherapy tanks Treatment of liquid medical waste before disposal Decontaminating water distribution systems in dialysis</li><li>➤ Disinfection of countertops and floors</li><li>➤ Decontamination of blood spills</li><li>➤ Irrigating agent in endodontic treatment</li><li>➤ Disinfectant for manikins, laundry, dental appliances, hydrotherapy tanks</li><li>➤ Treatment of liquid medical waste before disposal</li><li>➤ Decontaminating water distribution systems in dialysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Empty thecal sac sign on MRI is seen in: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arachnoiditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Discitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vertebral osteomyelitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tethered cord syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arachnoiditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-158.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Arachnoiditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The empty thecal sac sign, which appears on MRI as an apparent absence or clumping of the nerve roots within the thecal sac, is indicative of arachnoiditis. Arachnoiditis is an inflammation of the arachnoid linings of the spinal canal, which can cause the nerve roots to clump together and adhere to one another or the lining of the canal, leaving the thecal sac appearing empty or devoid of its normal content of floating nerve roots.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Discitis: An inflammation of the intervertebral disc, which would not typically show the empty thecal sac sign but might show disc space narrowing and endplate erosions.</li><li>• Option B. Discitis:</li><li>• Option C. Vertebral osteomyelitis: An infection of the vertebral bodies, generally presenting with bony destruction, soft tissue swelling, and possibly an abscess but not the empty thecal sac sign.</li><li>• Option C. Vertebral osteomyelitis:</li><li>• Option D. Tethered cord syndrome: Characterized by an abnormally low conus medullaris with associated thickened filum terminale, not typically associated with the empty thecal sac sign.</li><li>• Option D. Tethered cord syndrome:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MRI of Arachnoiditis shows Empty thecal sac sign.</li><li>➤ Due to inflammation, nerve roots are clumped and empty thecal sac are seen on MRI of the lumbar spine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During your rural internship, you are tasked with overseeing vaccine distribution to Community Health Centres (CHCs) and Primary Health Centres (PHCs). Due to the tropical climate and frequent power outages at your posting area, ensuring the vaccines' integrity is crucial. Which of the following tests would you employ to check if the vaccines have incurred any freeze damage due to temperature fluctuations? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shake test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schick test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Habel test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tine test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Shake test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture23555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Shake test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Shake Test currently applies to freeze sensitive vaccines which are:</li><li>➤ The Shake Test currently applies to freeze sensitive vaccines which are:</li><li>➤ DPT-Hep B-Hib TT PCV13 Hepatitis B HPV</li><li>➤ DPT-Hep B-Hib</li><li>➤ TT</li><li>➤ PCV13</li><li>➤ Hepatitis B</li><li>➤ HPV</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is normally seen in lumbar spine? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scoliosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kyphosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lordosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Recurvatum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lordosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-60.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lordosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lordosis refers to the inward (anterior) curvature of the spine. It's the normal anatomical curvature seen in the lumbar (lower back) and cervical (neck) regions. In the lumbar region, lordosis allows for an upright posture and helps to evenly distribute the body's weight and the forces exerted on the spine. While a certain degree of lumbar lordosis is normal and healthy, excessive lordosis (often called \"swayback\") can lead to pain and other issues.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Scoliosis: Scoliosis refers to a lateral (side-to-side) curvature of the spine. While any part of the spine can be affected, scoliosis most commonly develops in the thoracic (upper/mid back) and/or lumbar (lower back) regions. It's important to note that while scoliosis can affect the lumbar spine, it is not the normal anatomical curvature for that region. Instead, it's a pathological condition which can be idiopathic (most common, especially in adolescents), congenital, or secondary to other conditions.</li><li>• Option A. Scoliosis:</li><li>• Option B. Kyphosis: Kyphosis describes a forward (anterior) rounding or curvature of the spine, producing a \"hunchback\" appearance. The normal anatomical region that displays kyphosis is the thoracic spine (upper/mid back). When present in the lumbar spine, it is considered pathological and is usually secondary to conditions like osteoporosis (which causes compression fractures), degenerative diseases, or other spine disorders.</li><li>• Option B. Kyphosis:</li><li>• Option D. Recurvatum: Recurvatum typically refers to a backward bending or hyperextension of a joint. While this term can be applied to various joints in the body, it's most commonly associated with the knee joint, where the knee bends backward excessively. It doesn't directly pertain to the natural anatomical curvatures of the spine.</li><li>• Option D. Recurvatum:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In adults,</li><li>➤ The cervical curve is a lordosis (convex forwards), The thoracic curve is a kyphosis (convex dorsally), The lumbar curve is also a lordosis, The pelvic curve is concave anteroinferiorly.</li><li>➤ The cervical curve is a lordosis (convex forwards),</li><li>➤ The thoracic curve is a kyphosis (convex dorsally),</li><li>➤ The lumbar curve is also a lordosis,</li><li>➤ The pelvic curve is concave anteroinferiorly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Costochondritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical Rib", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rib Fracture 2nd / 3rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C5/C6 Spondylolisthesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cervical Rib", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-161.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cervical Rib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• Cervical Ribs</li><li>• Cervical Ribs</li><li>• Cervical ribs are supernumerary or accessory ribs arising from the seventh cervical vertebra.</li><li>• C/F: Usually asymptomatic, they are the most important anatomic rib variant clinically, because they can cause thoracic outlet syndrome by compression of the brachial plexus or subclavian vessels.</li><li>• Thoracic outlet syndrome: Most commonly-C8, T1 roots compression</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Costochondritis: Involves inflammation of the rib cage's cartilage, particularly where the upper ribs attach to the sternum, an area not visible as an anomaly on X-rays.</li><li>• Option A. Costochondritis:</li><li>• Option C. Rib Fracture 2nd / 3rd: Would show discontinuity or displacement of the rib bones, which is not evident here.</li><li>• Option C. Rib Fracture 2nd / 3rd:</li><li>• Option D. C5/C6 Spondylolisthesis: Pertains to the displacement of one of the spinal vertebra in relation to another, typically seen in the neck's vertebral column, not visible on this thoracic X-ray.</li><li>• Option D. C5/C6 Spondylolisthesis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Cervical ribs are supernumerary ribs that can cause complications such as thoracic outlet syndrome due to their position and potential to compress nearby nerves and blood vessels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged male patient has proteinuria. Looking at the immunofluorescence image below, what is the diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSG)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Good pasture syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lupus nephritis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lupus nephritis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/946.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lupus nephritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The full-house effect on immunofluorescence (positive staining for IgG, IgA, IgM, C1q, C3, λ chain, and κ light chain) is a hallmark of lupus nephritis .</li><li>➤ full-house effect</li><li>➤ lupus nephritis</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition, Pg 409-410</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition, Pg 409-410</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with fever and discharging pus from right leg for 3 months. Following is the radiograph of the child. Identify the labelled structured:(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sequestrum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cloacae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Involucrum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Worsen Bone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Involucrum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-625.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Involucrum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the dense sclerotic bone called the involucrum . It has some holes to drain out pus, called as cloaca . Sequestrum is a piece of dead bone, surrounded by infected granulation tissue. This appears denser than the normal bone because there is no decalcification like the normal bone.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the dense sclerotic bone called the involucrum . It has some holes to drain out pus, called as cloaca .</li><li>➤ involucrum</li><li>➤ cloaca</li><li>➤ Sequestrum is a piece of dead bone, surrounded by infected granulation tissue. This appears denser than the normal bone because there is no decalcification like the normal bone.</li><li>➤ Sequestrum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the center for vertical gaze? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pontine Paramedian Reticular Formation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Raphe Nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rostral Interstitial Nucleus of Cajal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nucleus of Perlia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rostral Interstitial Nucleus of Cajal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-140905.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rostral Interstitial Nucleus of Cajal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Rostral Interstitial Nucleus of Cajal (INC) is the central control site for vertical gaze movements in the brainstem, playing a critical role in coordinating upward and downward eye movements.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following would be considered as an absolute contraindication for insertion of copper T to a patient? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unmotivated patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Menorrhagia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Previous ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Previous history of abortion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Unmotivated patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Unmotivated patient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An unmotivated patient or one who does not consent is an absolute contraindication for the insertion of a copper T intrauterine device (IUD).</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6th edition pg 480</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6th edition pg 480</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the phenomenon shown below? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Translation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complementation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conjugation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Complementation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011083.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Complementation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The blue-white screening assay uses the complementation of the beta-galactosidase gene to distinguish between bacterial colonies with recombinant and non-recombinant plasmids based on the color change in the presence of X-Gal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis?(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aneurysmal bone cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Giant cell tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteoblastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Giant cell tumor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-626.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Giant cell tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows a Giant Cell Tumor of the distal end of radius.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve is biopsied for the diagnosis of Pure Neuritic leprosy? (AIIMS NOVEMBER 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superficial branch of radial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral popliteal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Superficial branch of radial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Superficial branch of radial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the diagnosis of Pure Neuritic Leprosy , the superficial branch of the radial nerve is the preferred site for biopsy due to its accessibility, lower risk of complications, and high diagnostic yield.</li><li>➤ Pure Neuritic Leprosy</li><li>➤ superficial branch of the radial</li><li>➤ accessibility, lower risk of complications, and high diagnostic yield.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Chapter 28 Page no 28.11 28.14</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Chapter 28 Page no 28.11 28.14</li><li>➤ Sensory reanimation of the hand by transfer of the superficial branch of the radial nerve to the median and ulnar nerve - Scientific Figure on ResearchGate. Available from: https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Transfer-of-the-superficial-branch-of-the-radial-nerve-SBRN-to-the-median-nerve-MN_fig5_309138539 [accessed 9 Nov, 2023]</li><li>➤ Sensory reanimation of the hand by transfer of the superficial branch of the radial nerve to the median and ulnar nerve - Scientific Figure on ResearchGate. Available from: https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Transfer-of-the-superficial-branch-of-the-radial-nerve-SBRN-to-the-median-nerve-MN_fig5_309138539 [accessed 9 Nov, 2023]</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male patient came to OPD with the complaints of glare during night drives. He had undergone cataract surgery 1 year back. The best-corrected visual acuity in RE = 6/12 and LE = 6/9. No improvement with pinhole. What is the probable diagnosis? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystoid macular edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudophakic bullous keratopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ARMD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior capsular opacification", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Posterior capsular opacification", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture3_w46fH0D.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/screenshot-2023-04-29-175012.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Posterior capsular opacification</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Posterior capsular opacification after cataract surgery can mimic the symptoms of the original cataract and cause significant visual impairment, primarily glare and blurred vision. It is treatable with a simple laser procedure known as Nd YAG laser posterior capsulotomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most potent stimulator of naive T-cells? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mature dendritic cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular dendritic cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NK cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mature dendritic cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mature dendritic cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mature dendritic cells are the most potent stimulators of naive T cells due to their high levels of MHC-II and costimulatory molecules.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following elements is not included in the provisions of the Mental Health Care Act of 2017, as per the WHO's mhGAP? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Screening of family members", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mobilization of resources", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Social support", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interpersonal therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Screening of family members", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Screening of family members</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Screening of family members is not included in the Mental Health Care Act, 2017.</li><li>➤ Screening of family members is not included in the Mental Health Care Act, 2017.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ MENTAL HEALTHCARE ACT, 2017 (MHCA 2017)</li><li>➤ MENTAL HEALTHCARE ACT, 2017 (MHCA 2017)</li><li>➤ Deals with rights of patients with mental illness and treatment delivery. Important clauses-</li><li>➤ Deals with rights of patients with mental illness and treatment delivery. Important clauses-</li><li>➤ A. Capacity to make mental healthcare and treatment decision- Every person, including patients with mental illness, are assumed to have it if they can-</li><li>➤ Can understand the information provided to them Understand the consequences of their decisions Can communicate their decision</li><li>➤ Can understand the information provided to them</li><li>➤ Understand the consequences of their decisions</li><li>➤ Can communicate their decision</li><li>➤ B. Advance directive- Every person (not a minor) can make an advance directive in which he can mention-</li><li>➤ How they wish to be treated/not treated for a mental illness Applicable only if a person loses the capacity to take mental healthcare or treatment decisions Duty of psychiatrist (or medical officer) to give treatment according to the advance directive Doctor is not liable in case of unforeseen consequences while following the advance directive</li><li>➤ How they wish to be treated/not treated for a mental illness</li><li>➤ Applicable only if a person loses the capacity to take mental healthcare or treatment decisions</li><li>➤ Duty of psychiatrist (or medical officer) to give treatment according to the advance directive</li><li>➤ Doctor is not liable in case of unforeseen consequences while following the advance directive</li><li>➤ C. Nominated representative (NR)-</li><li>➤ Every person can appoint a nominated representative In case of loss of capacity to make mental healthcare and treatment decision, NR would help in taking decisions about treatment</li><li>➤ Every person can appoint a nominated representative</li><li>➤ In case of loss of capacity to make mental healthcare and treatment decision, NR would help in taking decisions about treatment</li><li>➤ D. Admission- MHCA 2017 allows two types of admissions</li><li>➤ Independent admissions- When the patient himself wants to get admitted Supported admission (for a maximum of 30 days)- A person who has lost the capacity to make mental healthcare or treatment decisions and requires significant support from a nominated representative can be admitted under a “supported admission”</li><li>➤ Independent admissions- When the patient himself wants to get admitted</li><li>➤ Supported admission (for a maximum of 30 days)- A person who has lost the capacity to make mental healthcare or treatment decisions and requires significant support from a nominated representative can be admitted under a “supported admission”</li><li>➤ E. Ban on direct ECT</li><li>➤ F. Ban on ECT for minors</li><li>➤ G. Ban on psychosurgery</li><li>➤ H. Decriminalisation of suicide attempt - Any person who attempts suicide shall be presumed to be under severe stress and should not be tried or punished</li><li>➤ I. Restraints and seclusions - A patient can be physically restrained only-</li><li>➤ If it is the only way to prevent harm to self or others If authorised by a psychiatrist in charge</li><li>➤ If it is the only way to prevent harm to self or others</li><li>➤ If authorised by a psychiatrist in charge</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB). According to the World Health Organization's guidelines, which of the following treatment schedules is recommended? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 drugs for 4-6 months followed by 4 drugs for 12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7 drugs for 4-6 months followed by 4 drugs for 5 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 drugs for 4 months followed by 6 drugs for 10-12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5 drugs for 6 months followed by 4 drugs for 12 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 7 drugs for 4-6 months followed by 4 drugs for 5 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-120911.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 7 drugs for 4-6 months followed by 4 drugs for 5 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ New Regimens for Treatment Drug Resistant TB (RNTCP 2017-18)</li><li>➤ New Regimens for Treatment Drug Resistant TB (RNTCP 2017-18)</li><li>➤ (Drugs: Hh: High dose isoniazid; E:Ethambutol; Z:Pyrazinamide; K:Kanamycin; Cm: Capreomycin; A Amikacin; L: Levofloxacin; M: Moxifloxacin; Mh: High dose moxifloxacin; Et; Ethionamide; Cs: Cycloserine; Cz: Clofazimine; Lz: Linezolid; Bq: Bedaquiline</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not usually involved in the immunohistochemistry of acute lymphoblastic leukemia? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TdT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CD1a", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CD3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytokeratin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cytokeratin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-184729.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cytokeratin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cytokeratin is not a marker for acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and is instead an epithelial cell marker used in identifying epithelial tumors such as thymoma.</li><li>➤ Cytokeratin</li><li>➤ acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 111</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 111</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Patient came with sudden onset palpitations. ECG showed narrow complex, regular tachycardia without P waves, and a rate of 160bpm. His BP is 96/68mmHg. What is the next step in management? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carotid sinus massage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Defibrillator", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carotid sinus massage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Carotid sinus massage.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carotid sinus massage is the first-line intervention for clinically stable patients presenting with AVNRT, potentially stopping the arrhythmia without the need for drug intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The correct pair of lymph node level in the neck and anatomical boundaries amongst the following are? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Level 3 - Cricoid to clavicle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Level 4 - Hyoid to cricoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Level 5 - Base of skull to cricoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Level 6 - Hyoid to clavicle", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Level 6 - Hyoid to clavicle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture7_vAc8U7Z.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Level 6 - Hyoid to clavicle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct pair of lymph nodes and levels among the following options are level 6- Hyoid to clavicle.</li><li>• Level 6 lymph nodes are the anterior or central compartment nodes. They span from the hyoid bone (superiorly) to the sternum/clavicle (inferiorly), and from the carotid arteries laterally. This group includes pretracheal, paratracheal, and precricoid (Delphian) nodes. These nodes often come into consideration in thyroid cancers and some laryngeal and hypopharyngeal malignancies.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Level 3 - Cricoid to clavicle: This is incorrect. Level 3 lymph nodes are located in the middle jugular region, and their anatomical boundaries are the lower border of the hyoid bone (superiorly) and the lower border of the cricoid cartilage (inferiorly). They are situated along the middle third of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.</li><li>• Option A. Level 3 - Cricoid to clavicle:</li><li>• Option B. Level 4 - Hyoid to cricoid: This is also incorrect. Level 4 lymph nodes are the lower jugular nodes, and their anatomical boundaries are the lower border of the cricoid cartilage (superiorly) and the clavicle (inferiorly). These nodes are situated along the inferior third of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.</li><li>• Option B. Level 4 - Hyoid to cricoid:</li><li>• Option C. Level 5 - Base of skull to cricoid: This is not correct. Level 5 lymph nodes are located in the posterior triangle of the neck, which is bound by the sternocleidomastoid muscle (anteriorly), the trapezius muscle (posteriorly), and the clavicle (inferiorly). Level 5 is further divided into Level 5A (located above the cricoid) and Level 5B (located below the cricoid to the clavicle). So, Level 5 spans from the base of the skull to the clavicle.</li><li>• Option C. Level 5 - Base of skull to cricoid:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lymph node level in the neck and their anatomical boundaries -</li><li>➤ Lymph node level in the neck and their anatomical boundaries -</li><li>➤ To aid in the description and localization of lymph nodes, especially in cancer treatment and surgery, they have been categorized into specific levels. Each level is defined by anatomical landmarks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is not used for typhoid fever in adults? ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amikacin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Amikacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Amikacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amikacin is not effective in the treatment of typhoid fever, despite its efficacy in vitro against Salmonella.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes to ED with fever and headache. On examination, he has neck stiffness. CSF analysis was done and it shows the following findings. Most likely diagnosis is: (AIIMS NOV 2018) Opening pressure- increased Proteins- mildly increased Glucose – normal Lymphocytes- increased", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coxsackie", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Coxsackie", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-161535.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Coxsackie</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The results of semen analysis of a young male have been given below. What is the diagnosis? 5 million/mI concentration, 50% motility, 4% normal morphology? (INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oligospermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Teratozoospermia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asthenozoospermia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oligoasthenoteratozoospermia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oligospermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-289.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oligospermia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given semen analysis results show a sperm concentration of 5 million/mL, which is below the normal reference value set by the WHO. According to the WHO 2021 guidelines, a normal sperm concentration is 16 million/mL or higher. Therefore, this patient has oligospermia, which is defined as a sperm concentration of less than 15 million/mL. Counts below 5 million/mL are considered severe.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Oligospermia: Sperm concentration &lt;15 million/mL. Severe oligospermia is when counts are &lt;5 million/mL. Teratozoospermia: Abnormal sperm morphology. Asthenozoospermia: No motile sperms or diminished motility. Oligoasthenoteratozoospermia: A combination of low sperm count, poor motility, and abnormal morphology.</li><li>• Oligospermia: Sperm concentration &lt;15 million/mL. Severe oligospermia is when counts are &lt;5 million/mL.</li><li>• Oligospermia:</li><li>• Teratozoospermia: Abnormal sperm morphology.</li><li>• Teratozoospermia:</li><li>• Asthenozoospermia: No motile sperms or diminished motility.</li><li>• Asthenozoospermia:</li><li>• Oligoasthenoteratozoospermia: A combination of low sperm count, poor motility, and abnormal morphology.</li><li>• Oligoasthenoteratozoospermia:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Teratozoospermia: Teratozoospermia refers to abnormal sperm morphology. The morphology here is 4%, which is within the normal range according to WHO criteria.</li><li>• Option B. Teratozoospermia:</li><li>• Option C. Asthenozoospermia: Asthenozoospermia refers to reduced sperm motility. In this case, the motility is 50%, which is normal.</li><li>• Option C. Asthenozoospermia:</li><li>• Option D. Oligoasthenoteratozoospermia: This term describes a condition where there is a combination of low sperm count, poor motility, and abnormal morphology. In this case, only the sperm concentration is abnormal.</li><li>• Option D. Oligoasthenoteratozoospermia:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oligospermia is defined as a sperm concentration of less than 15 million/mL, with counts below 5 million/mL considered severe. The given semen analysis results show oligospermia based on the sperm concentration of 5 million/mL.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 442, Duttas textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg232</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 442, Duttas textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg232</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789240030787</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789240030787</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following techniques is based on RNA? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RT PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sanger's technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Next generation sequencing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Western blot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RT PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) RT-PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RT-PCR is an RNA-based technique that involves reverse transcription of RNA into cDNA followed by PCR amplification, widely used in gene expression analysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Out of the options given below, what is the cause of death in smoke inhalation? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histotoxic hypoxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ischemic hypoxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anemic hypoxia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anemic hypoxia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Anemic hypoxia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image shows two data distribution curves from separate studies within the same population: one depicted with a red line and the other with a blue line. Given the graphical representation, which of the following correctly represents the relationship among the mean, median, and mode for the data presented? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mean = mode = median", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mean = median, not equal to mode", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mean, median, mode not equal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mode = median, not equal to mean", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mean = median, not equal to mode", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip39.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mean = median, not equal to mode</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a bimodal distribution, the mean and median can be equal, but the mode will not be equal to them, as there are two modes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A cook prepares sandwiches for 10 people going for picnic. Eight out of them develop severe gastroenteritis within 4-6 hrs. of consumption of the sandwiches. It is likely that on investigations the cook is found to be the carrier of: ( INICET NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Salmonella typhi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vibrio cholera", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Entamoeba histolytica", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Staphylococcus aureus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/screenshot-2024-07-01-101153.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Staphylococcus aureus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the color of vacutainer containing sodium fluoride as a content? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grey", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Grey", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-184153.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Grey</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has right upper limb BP of &gt;180/95 mmHg and a left upper limb BP of 130/90 mmHg. He also has early diastolic murmur in right 2 nd intercostal space. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with these findings? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supravalvular aortic stenosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coarctation of aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Takayasu arteritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aortic dissection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Supravalvular aortic stenosis.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While differential arm blood pressure can suggest several cardiovascular anomalies, supravalvular aortic stenosis is least likely among the options given to be associated with these findings, especially concerning the presence of a diastolic murmur indicative of aortic regurgitation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following best describes the nutritional targets of Mid-Day Meal Program, as per the Indian government guidelines? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1/2 protein and 1/3 calorie requirements", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1/3 protein and 1/3 calorie requirements", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1/2 protein and 1/2 calorie requirements", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1/3 protein and 1/2 calorie requirements", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1/2 protein and 1/3 calorie requirements", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture22333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1/2 protein and 1/3 calorie requirements</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Principles for formulating mid-day meals:</li><li>➤ Principles for formulating mid-day meals:</li><li>➤ Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>➤ Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet</li><li>➤ Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins</li><li>➤ Meal cost should be low</li><li>➤ Complicated cooking process must not be involved</li><li>➤ Use locally available foods</li><li>➤ Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>➤ Mid-Day Meal Scheme is now renamed as PM POSHAN or Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman.</li><li>➤ Mid-Day Meal Scheme is now renamed as PM POSHAN or Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old man from a rural area of Bihar presents to the outpatient department of a tertiary care hospital in Patna. He has been experiencing fever for the past week, associated with abdominal distension, loss of appetite, and palpable lymphadenopathy. Despite being treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics and antimalarial agents by a local practitioner, there's been no significant relief. Blood investigations for typhoid (Widal test) are negative; however, the rk39 dipstick test is positive. Based on the clinical picture and the diagnostic findings, what would be the most appropriate drug of choice for the treatment of his condition? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liposomal Amphotericin B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Linezolid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bedaquiline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Liposomal Amphotericin B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-121923.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Liposomal Amphotericin B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala Azar) should be treated with liposomal amphotericin B, especially when diagnosed with a positive rk39 dipstick test.</li><li>➤ Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala Azar) should be treated with liposomal amphotericin B, especially when diagnosed with a positive rk39 dipstick test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A condition requires the surgery depicted in the image shown below. Which of the following is not usually seen associated with this condition? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Absent kidney", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatic artery anomalies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malrotation of gut", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polysplenia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Absent kidney", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-182.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture1555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Absent kidney</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image is of Porto-enterostomy procedure which is done for extra-hepatic biliary atresia. Associated anomalies occur in about 20% of cases and include cardiac lesions, polysplenia, situs inversus, absent vena cava, and a preduodenal portal vein.</li><li>➤ Portoenterostomy, also known as the Kasai procedure, is a surgical treatment for a condition called biliary atresia. Biliary atresia is a rare and serious liver disease that affects neonates. In this condition, the bile ducts (intra/extrahepatic) are obliterated at birth.</li><li>➤ The Portoenterostomy procedure involves the surgical creation of a new pathway for bile to flow from the liver into the small intestine. This is done by connecting a loop of the jejunum directly to the liver, allowing bile to bypass the blocked or absent bile ducts. The goal of the procedure is to restore bile flow and prevent liver damage, as untreated biliary atresia can lead to liver failure. Ideal management of high grades of biliary atresia (Kasai type 3) is liver transplant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Meissner corpuscles are present in: (AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Papillary dermis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reticular dermis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Basal epidermis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stratum lucidum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Papillary dermis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-62.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Papillary dermis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The papillary dermis is the uppermost layer of the dermis, lying directly beneath the epidermis. It is named so because of its projections called dermal papillae that interlock with the rete ridges of the epidermis.</li><li>• These dermal papillae increase the surface area between the epidermis and dermis, allowing for better nutrient exchange and anchoring. Meissner corpuscles, also known as tactile corpuscles, are located in the papillary dermis, especially in areas sensitive to light touch, such as the fingertips and lips. They are oval-shaped mechanoreceptors that are sensitive to fine touch and low-frequency vibration.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Reticular dermis: The reticular dermis is the deeper and thicker layer of the dermis, located beneath the papillary dermis. It is comprised mainly of dense irregular connective tissue containing collagen and elastin fibers. While it contains other structures like sweat glands, hair follicles, and blood vessels, Meissner corpuscles are not found in this layer.</li><li>• Option B. Reticular dermis:</li><li>• Option C. Basal epidermis: The basal epidermis, or stratum basale, is the innermost layer of the epidermis. It consists of a single layer of columnar or cuboidal keratinocytes. These cells are continuously dividing and pushing older cells upwards towards the skin surface. The basal layer also contains melanocytes, which produce the pigment melanin, and Merkel cells, another type of tactile mechanoreceptor. However, Meissner corpuscles are not found in this layer.</li><li>• Option C. Basal epidermis:</li><li>• Option D. Stratum lucidum: The stratum lucidum is a thin, clear layer of the epidermis, typically found only in areas of thick skin such as the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. It lies between the stratum corneum (outermost layer) and the stratum granulosum. The stratum lucidum is made up of dead, flat keratinocytes that have a translucent appearance. Meissner corpuscles are not located in this epidermal layer.</li><li>• Option D. Stratum lucidum:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meissner corpuscles are found in papillary dermis, are enriched in the fingers and toes, and have an unmyelinated nerve terminal that is surrounded by Schwann cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hormone degradation as an important mechanism for regulating local concentrations is seen in? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase inactivation of glucocorticoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid hormone 5 deiodinases inactivating T3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Degradation of retinoic acid by Cyp26b1 in primordial germ cells of males", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hormone degradation is a vital regulatory mechanism observed in various processes, including the inactivation of glucocorticoids by 11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, the conversion and inactivation of thyroid hormones by 5 deiodinases, and the degradation of retinoic acid by Cyp26b1 in male primordial germ cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The diagram below shows the pressure-volume curves for 3 different lungs. Which of the following is the best representation of compliance between the three lungs? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A&lt;B&lt;C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "В&gt;А&gt;С", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "B&gt;C&gt;A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C&gt;A&gt;B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. В>А>С", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2018-04.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2018-05.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) В&gt;А&gt;С</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The steepness of the pressure-volume curve indicates lung compliance. In this graph, lung B has the highest compliance, lung A has moderate compliance, and lung C has the lowest compliance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the deformity:(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Swan Neck deformity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Boutonniere deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jersey Finger", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mallet Finger", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Swan Neck deformity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/picture10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Swan Neck deformity</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was admitted after a road traffic accident and later put on mechanical ventilation. He opens his eyes to verbal command and moves all four limbs spontaneously. Calculate his GCS: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eyes-2, Verbal-1, Motor-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eyes-2, Verbal-NT, Motor-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eyes-3, Verbal-1, Motor-6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/glasgow-coma-scale.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the casualty after an RTA. He has suffered chest trauma, has respiratory rate of 44/min and BP is 90/40 mm of hg. He is conscious and speaks single words. There is a hyper-resonance on percussion on the involved side of his chest. What will be your immediate next step? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intubate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insert needle in appropriate intercostal space", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start intravenous fluids urgently", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Take a chest X-ray", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Insert needle in appropriate intercostal space", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Insert needle in appropriate intercoastal space</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management of tension pneumothorax:</li><li>➤ Management of tension pneumothorax:</li><li>➤ Immediate management: Needle decompression or needle thoracostomy i.e. insertion of a wide-bore needle in the 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line Definitive management: Tube thoracostomy or chest tube insertion in the 5th ICS in the triangle of safety Note: According to ATLS 10th edition In adults, needle thoracostomy or needle decompression location is changed to 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line from 2nd ICS midclavicular line. However, In the pediatric age group, the needle thoracostomy location remains at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line.</li><li>➤ Immediate management: Needle decompression or needle thoracostomy i.e. insertion of a wide-bore needle in the 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line</li><li>➤ Definitive management: Tube thoracostomy or chest tube insertion in the 5th ICS in the triangle of safety</li><li>➤ Note: According to ATLS 10th edition</li><li>➤ In adults, needle thoracostomy or needle decompression location is changed to 5th ICS anterior to the midaxillary line from 2nd ICS midclavicular line.</li><li>➤ However, In the pediatric age group, the needle thoracostomy location remains at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lithium usage in pregnancy can lead to which of the following teratogenic effects?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac defects", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Facial defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CNS defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urogenital defects", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cardiac defects", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Cardiac defects</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lithium is teratogenic in pregnancy as it can give rise to Ebstein’s anomaly. It is characterized by arterialization of the right ventricle, giving rise to a box-shaped heart when seen radiologically.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the ions A and B based on conductance graph of a neuron shown below: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na, K", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "K. Na", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Na, Ca", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ca, Na", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Na, K", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/screenshot-2023-10-25-121817.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Na, K</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During an action potential, sodium conductance increases first (Channel A), followed by an increase in potassium conductance (Channel B), causing depolarization and subsequent repolarization of the neuron.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On performing a Histamine test on an individual with brachial plexus trunk injury, you can expect? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central capillary dilatation → Wheal → Surrounding flare.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Central capillary dilatation → Wheal without surrounding flare.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central capillary dilatation → Wheal with exaggerated surrounding flare.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Absent Triple Response", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Central capillary dilatation → Wheal without surrounding flare.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Central capillary dilatation → Wheal without surrounding flare</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with a brachial plexus trunk injury, the histamine test will result in central capillary dilatation and a wheal without the surrounding flare due to the disruption of the axon reflex.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "GFR is increased by all except? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased renal blood flow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Efferent arteriolar constriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ureteric stone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased oncotic pressure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ureteric stone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-174822.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ureteric stone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Baroreceptor provides? ( AIIMS Nov 2018", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Negative feedback", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive feedback", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both negative and positive feedback", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Feedforward control", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Negative feedback", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2018-03.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Negative feedback</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Baroreceptors provide negative feedback to help maintain blood pressure within normal limits by triggering responses that counteract increases in blood pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is gametocidal to all the species causing malaria? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primaquine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Primaquine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Primaquine is the antimalarial drug that is gametocidal to all Plasmodium species, making it essential for preventing the transmission of malaria and addressing relapses in cases of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A drug label suggests storage in a 'cool' place. What is the temperature at which this drug is to be stored? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "- 2 degree Celsius", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0 degree Celsius", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2-6 degree Celsius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "8-15 degree Celsius", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 8-15 degree Celsius", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 8-15 degree Celsius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drugs labeled to be stored in a 'cool' place should be kept at a temperature of 8-15 degrees Celsius to ensure their stability and effectiveness. This is neither freezing nor typical room temperature, but a moderate cool environment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of dapsone, considering that it is used in the treatment of leprosy, fungal infections and, also for immunomodulatory actions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cell wall synthesis inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Folic acid synthesis inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Protein synthesis inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cell membrane inhibitor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Folic acid synthesis inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Folic acid synthesis inhibitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dapsone is a competitive inhibitor of Dihydropteroate synthase that is required in the step of conversion of PABA + Pteridine into Dihydropteroic acid, which is the first step in the synthesis of folic acid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Levothyroxine/liothyronine acts by binding to thyroid receptors. Thyroid hormone receptors belong to which of the following class of receptors?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transmembrane receptor linked to tyrosine kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nuclear receptor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ion channel receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G protein coupled receptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nuclear receptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Nuclear receptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thyroid hormone receptors are intracellular and intranuclear receptors. They primarily function as transcription factors and directly interact with the genomic DNA to regulate gene expression.</li><li>➤ Other examples of intranuclear receptors include Vitamin A and Vitamin D receptors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs does not require dose reduction in patients with renal failure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gentamicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amphotericin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Doxycycline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Doxycycline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drugs which are secreted in bile and safe in renal disease include:</li><li>➤ The drugs which are secreted in bile and safe in renal disease include:</li><li>➤ Cef in: Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone</li><li>➤ The: Tigecycline</li><li>➤ R: Rifampicin</li><li>➤ E: Erythromycin</li><li>➤ N: Nafcillin</li><li>➤ A: Ampicillin</li><li>➤ L: Lincosamide (Clindamycin)</li><li>➤ D: Doxycycline</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with diabetic macular edema developed glaucoma. Which of the following drugs would you consider giving last?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alpha blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pilocarpine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prostaglandin analogues", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Prostaglandin analogues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Prostaglandin analogues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystoid Macular edema is one of the side effects of Prostaglandin analogues. The other side effects are Iris hyperpigmentation and hypertrichosis of the eye lashes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism by which acetylcholine causes a decrease in the heart rate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delayed diastolic depolarization", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in plateau", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decrease in preload", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase in afterload", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Delayed diastolic depolarization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Delayed diastolic depolarization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The acetylcholine acts on the M2 receptor present on the SA node. This opens a special set of potassium channels causing an efflux of potassium (kAch) which hyperpolarizes the SA node. This leads to delayed depolarization of the SA node during ventricular diastole, thus leading to a slow heart rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diamox is given to a patient with glaucoma. It is a non-competitive inhibitor of the carbonic anhydrase enzyme. Which of the following would be the effect of this drug?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease in Vmax", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease in Km", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decrease in both Km and Vmax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No change in Vmax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decrease in Vmax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Decrease in Vmax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Option B. Decrease in Km: Explanation:</li><li>• Option C. Decrease in both Km and Vmax: Explanation: Non-competitive inhibitors do not affect Km because they do not interfere with substrate binding directly. They only reduce the catalytic activity, hence only Vmax is decreased.</li><li>• Option C. Decrease in both Km and Vmax: Explanation:</li><li>• Option D. No change in Vmax: Explanation: This is incorrect for non-competitive inhibitors, which specifically lower Vmax due to the reduced number of active enzyme molecules available for the reaction.</li><li>• Option D. No change in Vmax: Explanation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diamox, as a non-competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase, decreases the maximum velocity (Vmax) of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction without changing the Michaelis constant (Km). This inhibition reduces the enzyme's catalytic activity but does not alter its substrate binding affinity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Low apparent volume of distribution of drug indicates?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low t 1/2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low bioavailability", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low efficacy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Not extensively distributed to tissues", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Not extensively distributed to tissues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Not extensively distributed to tissues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A low apparent volume of distribution (Vd) indicates that the drug is not extensively distributed to tissues and remains largely confined to the blood plasma. This parameter is essential for understanding the pharmacokinetic behavior of the drug in the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infant of 2 months had a serum bilirubin level of 33 mg/dL. The mother might have taken which of the following drugs during the third trimester for this to occur?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ampicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Co-trimoxazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chloramphenicol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Co-trimoxazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Co-trimoxazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Co-trimoxazole, which contains the sulfonamide sulfamethoxazole, can displace bilirubin from plasma albumin, increasing the risk of hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus in newborns. Therefore, it is contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy or during lactation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with abdominal distension and intermittent fever. Peripheral smear findings are normal. A tumor is resected and the histopathology image of the resected lymph node is shown below. What is the most probable diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Angiolymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hodgkin's lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgG4-related disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Castleman disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Castleman disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/943.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-100617.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Castleman disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Castleman disease is a lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by follicular hyperplasia and is associated with HHV-8 in some cases. The treatment involves IL-6 inhibitors due to the elevated IL-6 levels.</li><li>➤ Castleman disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As an intern in emergency ward, which of the following method would you consider as correct regarding nasogastric tube length estimation? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tip of nose to ear to xiphisternum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tip of nose to angle of ear to umbilicus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mouth to ear to umbilicus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mouth to ear to midway between xiphisternum and umbilicus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tip of nose to ear to xiphisternum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm113.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tip of nose to ear to xiphisternum (i.e., N-E-X)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When inserting a nasogastric tube, the correct measurement to estimate the necessary tube length is from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphisternum, ensuring the tube reaches the stomach properly for effective therapeutic or diagnostic use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A morbidly obese diabetic woman is not responsive to metformin therapy. She has a history of pancreatitis and family history of bladder cancer. She does not want to take injections. Which of the following would be suitable to reduce her glucose levels? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sitagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pioglitazone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Canagliflozin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liraglutide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Canagliflozin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Canagliflozin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In choosing diabetes medications for patients with specific health concerns, it's crucial to consider both the efficacy and the side-effect profile of the drug, as well as patient preferences for administration methods to ensure compliance and safety. Canagliflozin is an appropriate choice for this patient due to its oral administration and lower risk concerning her medical history.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Disappearance of loud S1 in mitral stenosis occurs in all except: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First degree of heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "AR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcified valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mild MS", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mild MS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mild MS.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In mitral stenosis, a loud S1 is typically present unless there is an associated condition that affects the mobility or timing of the mitral valve leaflet closure, such as calcification, regurgitation in other valves, or disturbances in electrical conduction that affect heart rhythm</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given ECG depicts which of the following conditions: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PSVT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular bigeminy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "P pulmonale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Re-entrant atrial fibrillation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ventricular bigeminy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm112.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ventricular bigeminy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ventricular bigeminy is identified by the presence of alternating normal sinus beats and PVCs, each PVC typically followed by a compensatory pause, creating a repeating pattern of one normal beat followed by one abnormal beat.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The drug of choice for treating scrub typhus? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloramphenicol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Doxycycline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Doxycycline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Doxycycline is the first-choice medication for treating scrub typhus in adults and non-pregnant women, offering effective relief and eradication of the pathogen when taken for the recommended duration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of skull fracture sustained in a motorcycle accident? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Depressed fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hinge fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pond fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Comminuted fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hinge fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/30/picture1_QRK1ieI.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hinge fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ‘Hinge’ (also called Motorcyclist):</li><li>➤ ‘Hinge’ (also called Motorcyclist):</li><li>➤ linear fracture passes across the middle cranial fossa, separating the skull base into Ant and post halves, Occurs Severe Force to side of head (e.g. in motorcycle accidents). Such fractures are commonly associated with injuries of the brain stem, especially pontomedullary tears.</li><li>➤ linear fracture passes across the middle cranial fossa, separating the skull base into Ant and post halves,</li><li>➤ Occurs Severe Force to side of head (e.g. in motorcycle accidents).</li><li>➤ Such fractures are commonly associated with injuries of the brain stem, especially pontomedullary tears.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bullet fingerprinting involves? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary markings", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary markings", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Both</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bullet fingerprinting utilizes both primary and secondary markings to identify a bullet, making it a comprehensive approach to forensic analysis in firearm-related investigations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following enhances iron absorption? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by reducing ferric ions (Fe+++) to ferrous ions (Fe++) and forming a chelate that protects iron from oxidation, thereby facilitating its absorption in the intestine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How is an electrical synapse different from a chemical synapse? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No cytoplasmic continuity between presynaptic and postsynaptic membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Direction of impulse is unidirectional", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Connexons are involved in electrical synapse", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electrical synapse has more latent period than chemical synapse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Connexons are involved in electrical synapse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2018-02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Connexons are involved in electrical synapse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Electrical synapses involve connexons, which are gap junctions that allow direct ion flow between adjacent cells, facilitating rapid and synchronized electrical communication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The factors that can cause a person to drink water due to stimulation of thirst mechanism is/are? (AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dehydration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prandial Drinking", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-174011.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Inhibitory control by the hypothalamus is exerted on:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prolactin only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prolactin and growth hormone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Growth hormone only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neither", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prolactin and growth hormone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/45.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prolactin and growth hormone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cardiac output can be determined using the following except? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thermal dilution technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Capnography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophageal doppler", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Echocardiography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Capnography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Capnography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Capnography primarily measures the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) in exhaled air, which gives information about ventilation and metabolism. It does not measure cardiac output. Capnography is commonly used to monitor end-tidal CO2 and confirm tracheal intubation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Thermal dilution technique: The thermal dilution technique is a method used primarily with a pulmonary artery catheter (also known as a Swan-Ganz catheter). Cold saline is injected into the right atrium, and the change in blood temperature is measured as it passes a thermistor in the pulmonary artery. The degree of temperature change allows for the calculation of cardiac output. This method is invasive and provides continuous or intermittent measurements, depending on the specific catheter and monitor used.</li><li>• Option A. Thermal dilution technique:</li><li>• Option C. Esophageal Doppler: The esophageal Doppler uses ultrasound waves to measure blood flow velocity in the descending aorta via a probe placed in the esophagus. By knowing the cross-sectional area of the aorta and calculating the velocity of blood flow, cardiac output can be estimated.</li><li>• Option C. Esophageal Doppler:</li><li>• Option D. Echocardiography: Echocardiography, or cardiac ultrasound, allows for visualization of cardiac structures and blood flow. Cardiac output can be estimated by measuring the velocity of blood flow across the mitral or tricuspid valves and then multiplying this by the valve area.</li><li>• Option D. Echocardiography:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Capnography measures the concentration of CO2 in exhaled air and is not used to determine cardiac output.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has been brought with severe bleeding to your ER. His blood group is unknown. Fresh frozen plasma from which of the following blood groups can be given? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "O", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "AB", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. AB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-104002.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) AB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following proto-oncogenes is not implicated in carcinoma of thyroid? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RAS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RET", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BRAF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "p53", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. p53", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-104500.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-180427_9gWSV27.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) p53</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Selected oncogenes, Their Mode of Activation, and Associated Human Tumors</li><li>➤ Selected oncogenes, Their Mode of Activation, and Associated Human Tumors</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no 520</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no 520</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 53-year-old patient was admitted complains of dyspnea. On examination he has puffy face, with engorged veins over the chest. SVC obstruction is suspected. Chest X-ray shows mediastinal enlargement. What is the next step? (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total blood count with peripheral smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT thorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urgent referral to RT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CT thorax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CT thorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CT thorax is critical for detailed evaluation in suspected SVC obstruction to confirm the diagnosis and guide further specific treatment, whether surgical, medical, or radiation therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with ascites is found to have SAAG ≥ 1.1. All of the following causes except: (AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liver failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metastasis to liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TB peritonitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. TB peritonitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm114.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) TB peritonitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the site which is responsible for relieving pain when pressure is applied to the painful area? ( AIIMS Nov 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Periaqueductal gray", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": " Corticospinal tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Medial lemniscus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " Medial longitudinal fasciculus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Periaqueductal gray", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Periaqueductal gray</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The periaqueductal gray (PAG) is a critical component of the analgesia system, responsible for relieving pain by sending inhibitory signals to block pain transmission in the spinal cord.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which tumor does not cause osteomalacia and phosphaturia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemangiopericytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breast carcinoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Breast carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Breast carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breast carcinoma does not cause osteomalacia and phosphaturia, whereas mesenchymal tumors such as hemangiopericytoma, osteosarcoma, and fibrosarcoma are commonly associated with tumor-induced osteomalacia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following colored cannula will you use to achieve maximum flow rate, in a patient who needs a large amount of fluids?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grey", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pink", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Grey", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20111116.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Grey</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common bleeding manifestation seen in severe hemophilia is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Recurrent hematomas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Recurrent hemarthrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hematuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intracranial hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Recurrent hemarthrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Recurrent hemarthrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recurrent hemarthrosis is the most common bleeding manifestation in severe hemophilia, particularly affecting large joints such as the knees.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "AKIN and RIFLE criteria are used to classify:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute kidney injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nephrotic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute kidney injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acute kidney injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AKIN, RIFLE, and KDIGO criteria are used to classify and stage acute kidney injury, aiding in early detection and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most specific marker for alcoholism?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ALT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GGT", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ALP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LDH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. GGT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) GGT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GGT is the most specific marker for chronic alcohol use and alcoholic liver disease, especially when levels are elevated independently or out of proportion to other liver enzymes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl, who is taking antiepileptics, has had a seizure-free period of 6 months. She has no family history of epilepsy. Her EEG is now normal and she has a normal neurological exam and intelligence. What would your advice be?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop the treatment and follow up", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gradually taper the drug and stop treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continue treatment for another 18 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue lifelong treatment with antiepileptics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Continue treatment for another 18 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Continue treatment for another 18 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of seizure-free patients on antiepileptics, the minimum recommended duration of therapy is 2 years before considering drug withdrawal, provided the patient meets all criteria for stopping treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person was brought dead, and an autopsy was performed to determine the cause of death. The following findings were noted on examination. What is the probable cause of death?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Throttling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strangulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hanging", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mugging", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Throttling", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20112448.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Throttling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Throttling, or manual strangulation, results in asphyxia primarily by occluding blood flow to the brain and can cause petechial hemorrhages and marked venous congestion, which are distinct findings in autopsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following leads would show maximum R wave with the cardiac axis as +90 degrees?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lead aVF", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lead aVL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lead I", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead II", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lead aVF", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lead aVF</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When the cardiac axis is at +90 degrees, lead aVF, positioned at the same angle, will display the maximum R wave amplitude due to alignment with the direction of ventricular depolarization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A polytrauma patient with massive hemorrhage presents to the ER after an RTA (road traffic accident). Which of the following is contraindicated?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Administer 1 litre of IV crystalloids initially", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tranexamic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Check coagulation with thromboelastography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immediate management of femur fracture with internal fixation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Immediate management of femur fracture with internal fixation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Immediate management of femur fracture with internal fixation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In polytrauma patients with massive hemorrhage, immediate internal fixation of fractures is contraindicated. Instead, external fixation as part of Damage Control Orthopedics is preferred to stabilize the patient before definitive surgical interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following instrument.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rectal temperature probe", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NAVA catheter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Swan-Ganz catheter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CVP transducer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rectal temperature probe", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20113112.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20113237.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20113250.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20113301.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rectal temperature probe</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A rectal temperature probe provides accurate core temperature monitoring and is especially useful in critical care or during surgical procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the color of 16 French Foley's catheters?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orange", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Orange", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20113654.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Orange</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 8 Fr : Light blue 10 Fr : Black 12 Fr : White 14 Fr : Green 16 Fr : Orange 18 Fr : Red 20 Fr : Yellow 22 Fr : Violet 24 Fr : Blue</li><li>➤ 8 Fr : Light blue</li><li>➤ 8 Fr</li><li>➤ 10 Fr : Black</li><li>➤ 10 Fr</li><li>➤ 12 Fr : White</li><li>➤ 12 Fr</li><li>➤ 14 Fr : Green</li><li>➤ 14 Fr</li><li>➤ 16 Fr : Orange</li><li>➤ 16 Fr</li><li>➤ 18 Fr : Red</li><li>➤ 18 Fr</li><li>➤ 20 Fr : Yellow</li><li>➤ 20 Fr</li><li>➤ 22 Fr : Violet</li><li>➤ 22 Fr</li><li>➤ 24 Fr : Blue</li><li>➤ 24 Fr</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following conditions is relative bradycardia commonly observed?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Typhoid fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Q fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leptospirosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-06%20114008.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Causes of relative bradycardia:</li><li>➤ Causes of relative bradycardia:</li><li>➤ Relative bradycardia is often associated with infections caused by organisms that are both gram-negative and intracellular.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient walks with a stomping gait. When asked to close his eyes and walk, he is unable to do so. Which of the following tracts is probably affected?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spinocerebellar tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior column tract", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vestibulospinal tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubrospinal tract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior column tract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Posterior column tract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The posterior column tract is responsible for proprioception, and damage to this tract results in a stomping gait and difficulty walking with eyes closed, due to impaired spatial awareness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with multiple nodulocystic lesions on the face. Which among the following is the drug of choice in this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isotretinoin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Isotretinoin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Isotretinoin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Isotretinoin is the first-line treatment for severe nodulocystic acne due to its efficacy in reducing sebaceous gland activity and inflammation, but it requires careful monitoring due to its teratogenic effects and impact on serum lipids and liver enzymes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not used in the treatment of pilonidal sinus disease? Z-plasty Limberg flap Bascom's procedure Incision and drainage Surgical approaches along the natal cleft", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 &amp; 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 &amp; 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 &amp; 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Only 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Only 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pilonidal sinus disease, surgical approaches should be parallel to the natal cleft rather than along it to reduce recurrence risk.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with thalassemia has a history of multiple blood transfusions, iron overload, and cardiac arrhythmia. She has now come for blood transfusion and during the process, complains of backache and looks very anxious. What would you do next?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop the blood transfusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Continue the transfusion but do an ECG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stop the transfusion, wait for the patient to stabilize, and then restart it", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Do clerical check and get an ECG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stop the blood transfusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stop the blood transfusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the first and most crucial step is to immediately stop the blood transfusion to prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Aiims Nov 2019 2019 11 17 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Which of the following is not true regarding the procedure done using the instrument given in the image below? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contraindicated if platelet count &lt;40,000", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breath holding is required", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Procedure can be done in both lateral &amp; prone position", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diagnosing an infiltrative or granulomatous disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Contraindicated if platelet count <40,000", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/956.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/957.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Contraindicated if platelet count &lt;40,000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A platelet count of &lt;40,000 is not an absolute contraindication for bone marrow biopsy, as platelet transfusion can be performed to mitigate bleeding risk.</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ Source - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK559232/</li><li>➤ Source -</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK559232/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Giemsa stain of a thin peripheral smear is prepared. Which of the following cannot be diagnosed? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coxiella burnetii", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toxoplasma gondii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bartonella henselae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ehrlichia chaffeensis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Coxiella burnetii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Coxiella burnetii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coxiella burnetii cannot be diagnosed using a Giemsa stain of a thin peripheral smear. Serology for specific antibodies is the method used for its diagnosis. Giemsa stain is a versatile stain used to diagnose a variety of blood parasites and intracellular pathogen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The blood supply to the structure marked in the image is by? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vertebral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Internal carotid artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior cerebral artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Middle cerebral artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anterior cerebral artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-78.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-79.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Anterior cerebral artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The marked structure is fornix which is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.</li><li>• The optic chiasma, lamina terminalis, hypothalamus, para-olfactory regions, and cingulate gyrus are all supplied by the anteromedial central branches of the anterior cerebral artery in addition to the fornix.</li><li>• The fornix is a C-shaped bundle of nerve fibers in the brain that plays a crucial role in memory and cognitive functions. It is supplied by</li><li>• Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA): The ACA is one of the major arteries of the Circle of Willis and is responsible for supplying blood to the frontal lobes of the brain, including the anterior part of the fornix. Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA): The PCA is another major artery of the Circle of Willis, and its branches supply blood to the posterior part of the fornix. Anterior Choroidal Artery: This artery arises from the internal carotid artery and supplies blood to the choroid plexus in the lateral and third ventricles of the brain. It also sends branches to the fornix, particularly the inferior part. Septal Branches: The fornix also receives blood supply from septal branches, which originate from the anterior cerebral arteries. Top of Form</li><li>• Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA): The ACA is one of the major arteries of the Circle of Willis and is responsible for supplying blood to the frontal lobes of the brain, including the anterior part of the fornix.</li><li>• Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA):</li><li>• Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA): The PCA is another major artery of the Circle of Willis, and its branches supply blood to the posterior part of the fornix.</li><li>• Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA):</li><li>• Anterior Choroidal Artery: This artery arises from the internal carotid artery and supplies blood to the choroid plexus in the lateral and third ventricles of the brain. It also sends branches to the fornix, particularly the inferior part.</li><li>• Anterior Choroidal Artery:</li><li>• Septal Branches: The fornix also receives blood supply from septal branches, which originate from the anterior cerebral arteries. Top of Form</li><li>• Septal Branches:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In urea cycle disorders, which of the following can be used to reduce the levels of ammonia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutamate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phenylbutyrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isoleucine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L-carnitine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phenylbutyrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Phenylbutyrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phenylbutyrate is used in urea cycle disorders to reduce ammonia levels by converting ammonia into phenylacetylglutamine, which is then excreted in the urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is deficient in a patient with features as shown below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenylalanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tryptophan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glutamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arginine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tryptophan", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/29/untitled-229.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tryptophan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Pellagra can occur due to:</li><li>➤ Pellagra can occur due to:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency Tryptophan deficiency: Niacin is synthetised from tryptophan Deficient synthesis: Kynureninase, an important enzyme in the pathway of tryptophan, is pyridoxal phosphate dependent. So, conversion of tryptophan to niacin is not possible in pyridoxal deficiency. Isoniazid (INH): It is an anti-tubercular drug, which inhibits pyridoxal phosphate formation. Hence, there is block in conversion of tryptophan to NAD. Hartnup disease: Tryptophan absorption from intestine is defective in this congenital disease. Moreover, tryptophan is excreted in urine in large quantities. This leads to lack of tryptophan and consequently deficiency of nicotinamide. Carcinoid syndrome: The tumor utilizes major portion of available tryptophan for synthesis of serotonin; so, tryptophan is unavailable.</li><li>➤ Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency</li><li>➤ Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency</li><li>➤ Tryptophan deficiency: Niacin is synthetised from tryptophan</li><li>➤ Tryptophan deficiency:</li><li>➤ Deficient synthesis: Kynureninase, an important enzyme in the pathway of tryptophan, is pyridoxal phosphate dependent. So, conversion of tryptophan to niacin is not possible in pyridoxal deficiency.</li><li>➤ Deficient synthesis:</li><li>➤ Isoniazid (INH): It is an anti-tubercular drug, which inhibits pyridoxal phosphate formation. Hence, there is block in conversion of tryptophan to NAD.</li><li>➤ Isoniazid (INH):</li><li>➤ Hartnup disease: Tryptophan absorption from intestine is defective in this congenital disease. Moreover, tryptophan is excreted in urine in large quantities. This leads to lack of tryptophan and consequently deficiency of nicotinamide.</li><li>➤ Hartnup disease:</li><li>➤ Carcinoid syndrome: The tumor utilizes major portion of available tryptophan for synthesis of serotonin; so, tryptophan is unavailable.</li><li>➤ Carcinoid syndrome:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false about influenza? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Virus shedding is present before symptoms begins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5-12 years is a high-risk group", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aquatic birds act as reservoir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary attack rate is 5-15%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5-12 years is a high-risk group", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 5-12 years is a high-risk group</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Children under 5 years, pregnant women, the elderly, individuals with chronic medical conditions or immunosuppressive conditions, and health care workers are at greater risk of severe disease or complications from influenza. The 5-12 years age group is not specifically categorized as high-risk for severe disease from influenza.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The correct statement regarding the physiological changes in the respiratory system in pregnancy? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Minute volume decreases by 50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Residual volume increases", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FRC decreases", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Total lung capacity increases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. FRC decreases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/30/untitled-277.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) FRC decreases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Minute volume decreases by 50%: This statement is incorrect. In fact, minute ventilation, which is the total volume of air inspired in a minute, increases by 40% during pregnancy due to an increase in tidal volume.</li><li>• Option A. Minute volume decreases by 50%:</li><li>• Option B. Residual volume increases: This statement is incorrect. Residual volume, which is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration, decreases by 20-25% during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. Residual volume increases:</li><li>• Option D. Total lung capacity increases: This statement is incorrect. Total lung capacity, which is the maximum amount of air the lungs can hold, is either unaffected or slightly decreased (by about 5%) during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option D. Total lung capacity increases:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) decreases by approximately 22% during pregnancy due to the upward displacement of the diaphragm by the enlarging uterus.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg189, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 6</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg189, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 6</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of diabetes and hypertension underwent fundus fluorescein angiography (FFA) to evaluate his decreasing vision. The FFA yields an image as shown below. The given FFA is characteristic of which of the following? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Macular ischemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macular edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Submacular haemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Premacular haemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Macular ischemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture1_lGMMpSl.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/07/untitled-320.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/07/untitled-319.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Macular ischemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Macular ischemia in diabetic patients can be identified in FFA images by an enlarged foveal avascular zone and visible areas of capillary non-perfusion, key indicators of decreased vascular supply to the macula.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hormone Replacement Therapy is not indicated for: (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hot flashes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CAD Prophylaxis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Premature menopause", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CAD Prophylaxis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CAD Prophylaxis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is not recommended for the prophylaxis of coronary artery disease (CAD). Although there was some belief in the past that HRT might provide cardiovascular benefits, extensive research has shown that HRT does not prevent CAD and may, in fact, increase the risk of certain cardiovascular events in some women.</li><li>• HRT is primarily indicated for the management of symptoms associated with menopause and for certain therapeutic and prophylactic uses:</li><li>• Therapeutic Indications:</li><li>• Therapeutic Indications:</li><li>• Gonadal dysgenesis in adolescents Premature ovarian failure Hot flashes (vasomotor symptoms) Vaginal dryness</li><li>• Gonadal dysgenesis in adolescents</li><li>• Premature ovarian failure</li><li>• Hot flashes (vasomotor symptoms)</li><li>• Vaginal dryness</li><li>• Prophylactic Indications:</li><li>• Prophylactic Indications:</li><li>• Prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women</li><li>• Prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women</li><li>• Risks of HRT:</li><li>• Risks of HRT:</li><li>• Increased risk of endometrial cancer (particularly with unopposed estrogen in women with an intact uterus) Increased risk of breast cancer Increased risk of ovarian cancer Increased risk of thromboembolism Possible adverse effects on lipid profiles Increased risk of gallstones and liver dysfunction</li><li>• Increased risk of endometrial cancer (particularly with unopposed estrogen in women with an intact uterus)</li><li>• Increased risk of breast cancer</li><li>• Increased risk of ovarian cancer</li><li>• Increased risk of thromboembolism</li><li>• Possible adverse effects on lipid profiles</li><li>• Increased risk of gallstones and liver dysfunction</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Hot flashes: HRT is widely used to manage hot flashes and other vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause. It is one of the most effective treatments for these symptoms.</li><li>• Option A. Hot flashes:</li><li>• Option C. Osteoporosis: HRT is used prophylactically to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by maintaining bone density and reducing the risk of fractures.</li><li>• Option C. Osteoporosis:</li><li>• Option D. Premature menopause: Women experiencing premature menopause or premature ovarian failure can benefit from HRT to manage symptoms and reduce the long-term risks associated with early loss of estrogen, including osteoporosis.</li><li>• Option D. Premature menopause:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is not indicated for the prophylaxis of coronary artery disease (CAD).</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 61,62</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 61,62</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with scoliosis. X-ray shown below. Identify the likely cause:(AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Idiopathic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuromuscular", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurofibromatosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture18.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture19.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture20_rZDtczB.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SCOLIOSIS</li><li>• SCOLIOSIS</li><li>• Scoliosis is characterized by lateral curvature of the spine associated with rotation of the involved vertebrae . There are four main categories of scoliosis: Idiopathic: Idiopathic scoliosis accounts for around 80% of cases. It is more common in girls and typically develops around 10-12 years of age but can occur earlier. There is a genetic component, but the etiology is multifactorial. Congenital: Congenital scoliosis accounts for 5-7% of cases and is a result of vertebral abnormalities due to a failure of formation or segmentation of the affected vertebrae. Neuromuscular (associated with a neurological or muscular disease) Syndromic (associated with a known syndrome)</li><li>• Scoliosis is characterized by lateral curvature of the spine associated with rotation of the involved vertebrae .</li><li>• lateral curvature of the spine associated with rotation of the involved vertebrae</li><li>• There are four main categories of scoliosis: Idiopathic: Idiopathic scoliosis accounts for around 80% of cases. It is more common in girls and typically develops around 10-12 years of age but can occur earlier. There is a genetic component, but the etiology is multifactorial. Congenital: Congenital scoliosis accounts for 5-7% of cases and is a result of vertebral abnormalities due to a failure of formation or segmentation of the affected vertebrae. Neuromuscular (associated with a neurological or muscular disease) Syndromic (associated with a known syndrome)</li><li>• There are four main categories of scoliosis:</li><li>• Idiopathic: Idiopathic scoliosis accounts for around 80% of cases. It is more common in girls and typically develops around 10-12 years of age but can occur earlier. There is a genetic component, but the etiology is multifactorial. Congenital: Congenital scoliosis accounts for 5-7% of cases and is a result of vertebral abnormalities due to a failure of formation or segmentation of the affected vertebrae. Neuromuscular (associated with a neurological or muscular disease) Syndromic (associated with a known syndrome)</li><li>• Idiopathic: Idiopathic scoliosis accounts for around 80% of cases. It is more common in girls and typically develops around 10-12 years of age but can occur earlier. There is a genetic component, but the etiology is multifactorial.</li><li>• Idiopathic:</li><li>• Congenital: Congenital scoliosis accounts for 5-7% of cases and is a result of vertebral abnormalities due to a failure of formation or segmentation of the affected vertebrae.</li><li>• Congenital:</li><li>• Neuromuscular (associated with a neurological or muscular disease)</li><li>• Neuromuscular</li><li>• Syndromic (associated with a known syndrome)</li><li>• Syndromic</li><li>• CONGENITAL SCOLIOSIS</li><li>• CONGENITAL SCOLIOSIS</li><li>• Congenital scoliosis is the most frequent congenital deformity of the spine. Congenital curvatures are due to anomalous development of the vertebrae (failure of formation and/or segmentation). In most cases, congenital scolioses are non-hereditary. It is believed to be related to an insult to the fetus during spine embryological development (between the 5 th -8 th week of gestation). 25% of curves are non-progressive, 25% mildly progressive and 50% highly progressive and will require treatment. The mainstay of treatment is either observation or surgery. The rigidity of the curve is assessed, and the rib hump measured. Associated malformations must be looked for clinically: look for foot or leg asymmetry, craniofacial malformation, a Klippel-Feil web neck, and cardiac and urinary malformations. Full-body-width Postero-anterior (PA) and lateral X-rays are essential. After 1 year of age, X-rays should be taken standing, with the legs in extension and the pelvis level, to compensate for any leg length discrepancy. The Cobb angle will be measured. CT scans shows a bony bar. Congenital scoliosis can be classified into defect of formation or defect of segmentation: Fully segmented hemivertebra (two growth plates) with a contralateral bar Unilateral unsegmented bar Two consecutives fully segmented hemivertebrae Fully segmented hemivertebra Semi segmented hemivertebra Wedge vertebra (partial failure of formation) Incarcerated hemivertebra (smaller and induce little deformity as the hemivertebra sits in a non-growing block; the alignment of the pedicles usually remains straight)</li><li>• Congenital scoliosis is the most frequent congenital deformity of the spine.</li><li>• Congenital curvatures are due to anomalous development of the vertebrae (failure of formation and/or segmentation).</li><li>• In most cases, congenital scolioses are non-hereditary.</li><li>• It is believed to be related to an insult to the fetus during spine embryological development (between the 5 th -8 th week of gestation).</li><li>• 25% of curves are non-progressive, 25% mildly progressive and 50% highly progressive and will require treatment.</li><li>• The mainstay of treatment is either observation or surgery.</li><li>• The rigidity of the curve is assessed, and the rib hump measured.</li><li>• Associated malformations must be looked for clinically: look for foot or leg asymmetry, craniofacial malformation, a Klippel-Feil web neck, and cardiac and urinary malformations.</li><li>• Full-body-width Postero-anterior (PA) and lateral X-rays are essential.</li><li>• After 1 year of age, X-rays should be taken standing, with the legs in extension and the pelvis level, to compensate for any leg length discrepancy.</li><li>• The Cobb angle will be measured.</li><li>• CT scans shows a bony bar.</li><li>• Congenital scoliosis can be classified into defect of formation or defect of segmentation: Fully segmented hemivertebra (two growth plates) with a contralateral bar Unilateral unsegmented bar Two consecutives fully segmented hemivertebrae Fully segmented hemivertebra Semi segmented hemivertebra Wedge vertebra (partial failure of formation) Incarcerated hemivertebra (smaller and induce little deformity as the hemivertebra sits in a non-growing block; the alignment of the pedicles usually remains straight)</li><li>• Fully segmented hemivertebra (two growth plates) with a contralateral bar Unilateral unsegmented bar Two consecutives fully segmented hemivertebrae Fully segmented hemivertebra Semi segmented hemivertebra Wedge vertebra (partial failure of formation) Incarcerated hemivertebra (smaller and induce little deformity as the hemivertebra sits in a non-growing block; the alignment of the pedicles usually remains straight)</li><li>• Fully segmented hemivertebra (two growth plates) with a contralateral bar</li><li>• Unilateral unsegmented bar</li><li>• Two consecutives fully segmented hemivertebrae</li><li>• Fully segmented hemivertebra</li><li>• Semi segmented hemivertebra</li><li>• Wedge vertebra (partial failure of formation)</li><li>• Incarcerated hemivertebra (smaller and induce little deformity as the hemivertebra sits in a non-growing block; the alignment of the pedicles usually remains straight)</li><li>• Treatment: Treatment consists of either observation of the curve or surgery, or, rarely, bracing. Observation should be applied only for non-progressive curves with a balanced spine. Bracing is inefficient in congenital scoliosis. It may be indicated for long flexible curves or to control the compensatory lumbar curve or help rebalancing the spine, or it may be used after an operation, for instance, until the fusion is solid. Surgery is the mainstay of care. Prophylactic surgery: surgery that will prevent further worsening or allow progressive correction over time. These operations are in situ fusion and hemi epiphysiodesis. In situ fusion can be done with a single posterior fusion, with or without instrumentation or with an anterior fusion, or a 360° fusion.</li><li>• Treatment: Treatment consists of either observation of the curve or surgery, or, rarely, bracing. Observation should be applied only for non-progressive curves with a balanced spine. Bracing is inefficient in congenital scoliosis. It may be indicated for long flexible curves or to control the compensatory lumbar curve or help rebalancing the spine, or it may be used after an operation, for instance, until the fusion is solid. Surgery is the mainstay of care. Prophylactic surgery: surgery that will prevent further worsening or allow progressive correction over time. These operations are in situ fusion and hemi epiphysiodesis. In situ fusion can be done with a single posterior fusion, with or without instrumentation or with an anterior fusion, or a 360° fusion.</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Treatment consists of either observation of the curve or surgery, or, rarely, bracing. Observation should be applied only for non-progressive curves with a balanced spine. Bracing is inefficient in congenital scoliosis. It may be indicated for long flexible curves or to control the compensatory lumbar curve or help rebalancing the spine, or it may be used after an operation, for instance, until the fusion is solid. Surgery is the mainstay of care. Prophylactic surgery: surgery that will prevent further worsening or allow progressive correction over time. These operations are in situ fusion and hemi epiphysiodesis. In situ fusion can be done with a single posterior fusion, with or without instrumentation or with an anterior fusion, or a 360° fusion.</li><li>• Treatment consists of either observation of the curve or surgery, or, rarely, bracing.</li><li>• Observation should be applied only for non-progressive curves with a balanced spine.</li><li>• Bracing is inefficient in congenital scoliosis. It may be indicated for long flexible curves or to control the compensatory lumbar curve or help rebalancing the spine, or it may be used after an operation, for instance, until the fusion is solid.</li><li>• Surgery is the mainstay of care.</li><li>• Prophylactic surgery: surgery that will prevent further worsening or allow progressive correction over time. These operations are in situ fusion and hemi epiphysiodesis.</li><li>• Prophylactic surgery:</li><li>• In situ fusion can be done with a single posterior fusion, with or without instrumentation or with an anterior fusion, or a 360° fusion.</li><li>• Hemiepiphysiodesis tends to achieve progressive correction over time, taking advantage of the intact growth plates on the concave side of the deformity . It has to be done ideally before the age of 5 to take advantage of the growth potential of the spine to allow a progressive correction of the deformity. It should not be carried out if there is a kyphosis component to the deformity.</li><li>• Hemiepiphysiodesis tends to achieve progressive correction over time, taking advantage of the intact growth plates on the concave side of the deformity . It has to be done ideally before the age of 5 to take advantage of the growth potential of the spine to allow a progressive correction of the deformity. It should not be carried out if there is a kyphosis component to the deformity.</li><li>• .</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Idiopathic . Idiopathic scoliosis accounts for around 80% of cases. It is more common in girls and typically develops around 10-12 years of age, but can occur earlier. There is a genetic component, but the etiology is multifactorial. It is grouped by age. In children age 3 and younger, it is called infantile scoliosis. In age 4-10, it is called juvenile scoliosis. In age &gt;10, it is called adolescent scoliosis. Structural curve becomes more prominent on forward bending (Adams test) as opposed to postural scoliosis. Compensatory curve due to limb length discrepancy or sciatic list (due to disc prolapsed) disappear on sitting. Postural scoliosis disappears on forward bending.</li><li>• Option B. Idiopathic</li><li>• It is grouped by age.</li><li>• Option C. Neuromuscular . This type is caused by a nervous system problem such as cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, spina bifida, and polio. It may present at any age; and in many cases progresses relentlessly, particularly in patients with more severe neurologic and systemic involvement. Progressive deformity may limit mobility and seating status, and may be associated with primary or secondary effects on cardiopulmonary function over time. Management includes observation, non-operative interventions such as bracing, specialized seating systems, and surgery.</li><li>• Option C. Neuromuscular</li><li>• cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy,</li><li>• polio.</li><li>• Option D. Neurofibromatosis . It is hereditary, hamartomatous disorder, that affects central and peripheral nervous system, skeletal, skin and deeper soft tissue. It is one of the commonest single gene disorder affecting the skeletal system. Clinical presentation includes- cafe au lait spots (most common feature) axillary, and inguinal freckling (2nd m.c), cutaneous neurofibromas, plexiform neurofibromas (~5% are premalignant), Lisch nodule on iris, veruccous hyperplasia (thickened overgrown valvety soft skin), elephantiasis (pachy- dermatocele), optic glioma, skeletal abnormalities (scoliosis, congenital pseudoarthrosis of tibia, hemihypertrophy) and cognitive deficits (learning disability).</li><li>• Option D. Neurofibromatosis</li><li>• cafe au lait spots</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows hemivertebra and block vertebra, which are characteristic of congenital type of scoliosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes, recently diagnosed with end-stage renal disease (stage 5) and on hemodialysis, seeks dietary advice. Which of the following characterizes the ideal renal feed for him? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low volume, high calories", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "High volume, low calories", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High volume, high calories", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low volume, low calories", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Low volume, high calories", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Low volume, high calories</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An ideal diet for patients with end-stage renal disease should be low in volume to manage fluid balance and high in calories to prevent malnutrition and wasting.</li><li>➤ An ideal diet for patients with end-stage renal disease should be low in volume to manage fluid balance and high in calories to prevent malnutrition and wasting.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The patient developed pigmentation on the nose after experiencing fever and joint pain, which appeared shortly after taking NSAIDs as shown below. What would be the likely diagnosis in this case? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fixed drug eruption", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chikungunya", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13541.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-131002.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-131147.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chikungunya</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the context of fever, body ache, and joint pain , followed by the development of brownish pigmentation on the nose, Chikungunya is the probable diagnosis, as it can present with persistent joint pain and hyperpigmentation, particularly in regions where the virus is endemic.</li><li>➤ fever, body ache, and joint pain</li><li>➤ brownish pigmentation</li><li>➤ Chikungunya</li><li>➤ joint pain</li><li>➤ hyperpigmentation,</li><li>➤ endemic.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True about anaphylactoid reaction are all except: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Involves degranulation of mast cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgE mediated", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Can occur on first exposure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Most commonly caused by NSAIDs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IgE mediated", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IgE mediated</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anaphylactoid reactions are not IgE-mediated and can occur on first exposure to the triggering substance, with NSAIDs being one of the common causes.</li><li>➤ IgE-mediated</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The risk of fetal varicella syndrome is maximum when the mother is infected between: (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 to 10 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8 to 12 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "13 to 20 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 to 28 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 13 to 20 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 13 to 20 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) is a double-stranded DNA virus that is primarily acquired in childhood and causes chickenpox. The virus is transmitted through direct contact with an infected individual. Nonimmune pregnant women who come into close contact with a patient with chickenpox are at risk of contracting the infection.</li><li>• If a pregnant woman contracts chickenpox, particularly early in pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital varicella syndrome in the fetus. The highest risk period for the development of congenital varicella syndrome is between 13 and 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Congenital varicella syndrome includes the following features:</li><li>• Chorioretinitis Microphthalmia Cerebral cortical atrophy Fetal growth restriction Hydronephrosis Limb hypoplasia Cicatricial skin lesions</li><li>• Chorioretinitis</li><li>• Microphthalmia</li><li>• Cerebral cortical atrophy</li><li>• Fetal growth restriction</li><li>• Hydronephrosis</li><li>• Limb hypoplasia</li><li>• Cicatricial skin lesions</li><li>• If the fetus or neonate is exposed to active VZV infection just before or during delivery (less than 5 days before and up to 2 days after delivery), there is a significant risk of disseminated disease and CNS involvement in the neonate, with a mortality rate of approximately 30%. In such cases, administration of VZIG (Varicella-Zoster Immune Globulin) is recommended.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The highest risk period for the development of congenital varicella syndrome in a fetus is when the mother is infected with Varicella Zoster Virus between 13 and 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 3085</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 3085</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The toxin produced by the organisms shown below acts via? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in cAMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in cGMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ADP ribosylation of EF2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "RNA glycosidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ADP ribosylation of EF2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-143517.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/screenshot-2024-07-01-110733.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/screenshot-2024-07-01-110821.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ADP ribosylation of EF2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diphtheria toxin acts by ADP-ribosylating elongation factor 2 (EF-2), thereby inhibiting protein synthesis and leading to cell death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old man presents with the history of cough for one week. He also gives a history of hemoptysis for 1 month and fever for 4 days. The X-ray is given below. What is the diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RML consolidation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "RLL consolidation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RUL consolidation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pericardial effusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RML consolidation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-092839.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-092925.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. RML consolidation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The X-ray shown above indicates consolidation due to presence of opacities in the right middle lobe silhouetting the right heart border along with the history of fever, cough and hemoptysis.</li><li>• Silhouette sign</li><li>• Silhouette sign</li><li>• When the markings of heart are not visible – silhouette sign positive – localized to middle lobe /lingula When the markings of heart are visible – silhouette sign negative – localized to lower lobe.</li><li>• When the markings of heart are not visible – silhouette sign positive – localized to middle lobe /lingula</li><li>• When the markings of heart are visible – silhouette sign negative – localized to lower lobe.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. RLL consolidation: Typically presents with obscuration of the right hemidiaphragm on X-ray, not the heart border.</li><li>• Option B. RLL consolidation:</li><li>• Option C. RUL consolidation: Would more commonly show opacities in the upper right lung without affecting the silhouette of the heart.</li><li>• Option C. RUL consolidation:</li><li>• Option D. Pericardial effusion: Would generally show an enlarged cardiac silhouette (\"water bottle\" sign), which is not evident in this image.</li><li>• Option D. Pericardial effusion:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ RML consolidation can be diagnosed when there is obscuration of the right heart border due to lung opacities in the middle lobe, accompanied by clinical symptoms of respiratory infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structures given below is related to the structure highlighted green in image? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pudendal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sciatic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obturator nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pudendal nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-65.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-66.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pudendal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure marked in green is the ischial spine and the pudendal nerve is related to it.</li><li>• The ischial spine is a bony projection from the posterior part of the ischium in the pelvis</li><li>• The pudendal nerve originates from the sacral plexus S2-S4. It exits out of the pelvis by passing through the greater sciatic foramen. It then enters the perineum below the pelvic floor by passing around the ischial spine. The ischial spine is used as a landmark for pudendal nerve block.</li><li>• Sensory function: The pudendal nerve provides sensation to the external genitalia, perineum, and anus. Motor function: The pudendal nerve also supplies motor function to the pelvic floor muscles, including the external anal sphincter, bulbospongiosus muscle, and ischiocavernosus muscle. Sexual function: The pudendal nerve plays a crucial role in sexual function by supplying motor and sensory innervation to the genital organs. Urinary and fecal continence: The pudendal nerve is involved in maintaining urinary and fecal continence by controlling the external anal sphincter muscle. Damage to the pudendal nerve can lead to incontinence, which is the loss of control over urinary or fecal elimination.Top of Form</li><li>• Sensory function: The pudendal nerve provides sensation to the external genitalia, perineum, and anus.</li><li>• Motor function: The pudendal nerve also supplies motor function to the pelvic floor muscles, including the external anal sphincter, bulbospongiosus muscle, and ischiocavernosus muscle.</li><li>• Sexual function: The pudendal nerve plays a crucial role in sexual function by supplying motor and sensory innervation to the genital organs.</li><li>• Urinary and fecal continence: The pudendal nerve is involved in maintaining urinary and fecal continence by controlling the external anal sphincter muscle. Damage to the pudendal nerve can lead to incontinence, which is the loss of control over urinary or fecal elimination.Top of Form</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sciatic nerve: The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body and originates from the sacral plexus (L4-S3). It exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen, below the piriformis muscle. While it is near the ischial spine, it descends posteriorly down the thigh, dividing into the tibial and common fibular (peroneal) nerves. It provides motor and sensory innervation to the posterior thigh and most of the leg and foot. Its relation to the ischial spine is less clinically significant than the pudendal nerve's.</li><li>• Option B. Sciatic nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Obturator nerve: The obturator nerve arises from the lumbar plexus (L2-L4). It exits the pelvis through the obturator foramen and provides sensory and motor innervation to the medial thigh. In terms of its relationship to the ischial spine, it is anatomically distinct, as it courses more anteriorly in the pelvis, and it doesn't have significant clinical associations with the ischial spine.</li><li>• Option C. Obturator nerve:</li><li>• Option D. Femoral nerve: The femoral nerve also originates from the lumbar plexus (L2-L4). It descends through the psoas muscle and enters the thigh beneath the inguinal ligament. It provides motor innervation to the anterior thigh muscles and sensory innervation to the anterior thigh and medial leg. The femoral nerve's course is anterior in the pelvis, and it doesn't have a direct relationship or significant clinical association with the ischial spine.</li><li>• Option D. Femoral nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pudendal nerve arises from the sacral plexus (S2-S4 nerve roots). It exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen, just inferior to the piriformis muscle. It then courses around the ischial spine and re-enters the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen. The pudendal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation to the perineal region and external genitalia. Due to its proximity to the ischial spine, the pudendal nerve can be blocked for pain relief during childbirth and certain surgical procedures in the perineal region.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Steps of surgery of DDH in a child &lt; 2 years:(AIIMS NOV 2019) Capsulotomy Femoral osteotomy Identification of true acetabulum using round ligament Placing the head back into acetabulum", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "b → c → d → a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "c → d → a → b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a → c → b → d", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "b → d → a → c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. a → c → b → d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-200208.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-200222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-200233.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-165252.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) a → c → b → d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• DEVELOPMENTAL DYSPLASIA OF HIP (DDH)</li><li>• DEVELOPMENTAL DYSPLASIA OF HIP (DDH)</li><li>• This is a spontaneous dislocation of the hip occurring before, during or shortly after birth. DDH is failure of maintenance of femoral head due to malformations of acetabulum or femur. More common in girls usually seen on left side. Etiology and Pathogenesis: Hereditary predisposition Hormonal factors: High levels of maternal estrogen, progesterone &amp; relax in the last few weeks of pregnancy may aggravate ligamentous laxity in the infant. Breech malposition favors dislocation. It is associated with higher incidence of plagiocephaly and congenital torticollis. Clinical diagnosis:</li><li>• This is a spontaneous dislocation of the hip occurring before, during or shortly after birth.</li><li>• DDH is failure of maintenance of femoral head due to malformations of acetabulum or femur.</li><li>• More common in girls usually seen on left side.</li><li>• Etiology and Pathogenesis: Hereditary predisposition Hormonal factors: High levels of maternal estrogen, progesterone &amp; relax in the last few weeks of pregnancy may aggravate ligamentous laxity in the infant. Breech malposition favors dislocation. It is associated with higher incidence of plagiocephaly and congenital torticollis.</li><li>• Etiology and Pathogenesis:</li><li>• Hereditary predisposition Hormonal factors: High levels of maternal estrogen, progesterone &amp; relax in the last few weeks of pregnancy may aggravate ligamentous laxity in the infant. Breech malposition favors dislocation. It is associated with higher incidence of plagiocephaly and congenital torticollis.</li><li>• Hereditary predisposition</li><li>• Hormonal factors: High levels of maternal estrogen, progesterone &amp; relax in the last few weeks of pregnancy may aggravate ligamentous laxity in the infant.</li><li>• Hormonal factors:</li><li>• Breech malposition favors dislocation.</li><li>• It is associated with higher incidence of plagiocephaly and congenital torticollis.</li><li>• Clinical diagnosis:</li><li>• Clinical diagnosis:</li><li>• 1. Barlow’s test:</li><li>• 1. Barlow’s test:</li><li>• The examiner grasps the upper part of each thigh, with his fingers behind on the greater trochanter and thumb in front. An attempt is made to lever the femoral head in and out of the acetabulum during abduction and adduction . If femoral head is normally in reduced position but can be made to slip out of the socket &amp; back in again, hip is classed as ‘dislocatable’ (i.e. unstable).</li><li>• The examiner grasps the upper part of each thigh, with his fingers behind on the greater trochanter and thumb in front.</li><li>• An attempt is made to lever the femoral head in and out of the acetabulum during abduction and adduction .</li><li>• femoral head in and out of the acetabulum during abduction and adduction</li><li>• If femoral head is normally in reduced position but can be made to slip out of the socket &amp; back in again, hip is classed as ‘dislocatable’ (i.e. unstable).</li><li>• ‘dislocatable’</li><li>• 2. Ortolani test:</li><li>• 2. Ortolani test:</li><li>• This test is similar to the second part of Barlow’s test . The hips and knees are held in a flexed position and gradually abducted. A ‘click of entrance’ will be felt as the femoral head slips into the acetabulum from the position of dislocation.</li><li>• This test is similar to the second part of Barlow’s test .</li><li>• similar to the second part of Barlow’s test</li><li>• The hips and knees are held in a flexed position and gradually abducted.</li><li>• A ‘click of entrance’ will be felt as the femoral head slips into the acetabulum from the position of dislocation.</li><li>• ‘click of entrance’</li><li>• 3. Galeazzi’s sign:</li><li>• 3. Galeazzi’s sign:</li><li>• The level of the knees is compared in a child lying with hip flexed to 70° and knees flexed. There is a lowering of the knee on the affected side</li><li>• The level of the knees is compared in a child lying with hip flexed to 70° and knees flexed.</li><li>• There is a lowering of the knee on the affected side</li><li>• 4. Vascular sign of Narath:</li><li>• 4. Vascular sign of Narath:</li><li>• The femoral artery pulse is palpated against the femoral head. If very readily palpated: Possible unreduced anterior hip dislocation. If palpated with great difficulty, it implies femoral head displaced from the hip joint due to hip dislocation, most commonly posterior hip dislocation . Imaging:</li><li>• The femoral artery pulse is palpated against the femoral head.</li><li>• If very readily palpated: Possible unreduced anterior hip dislocation.</li><li>• If very readily palpated:</li><li>• If palpated with great difficulty, it implies femoral head displaced from the hip joint due to hip dislocation, most commonly posterior hip dislocation .</li><li>• If palpated with great difficulty,</li><li>• most commonly posterior hip dislocation</li><li>• Imaging:</li><li>• Imaging:</li><li>• Ultrasonography: It is widely used as a screening test for DDH. It has the advantage of demonstrating acetabulum the non-ossified femoral head. Plain Radiograph: Delayed appearance of the ossification centre of the head of the femur. Retarded development of the ossification centre of the head of the femur. Sloping acetabulum Lateral and upward displacement of the ossification centre of the femoral head. A break in Shenton’s line Treatment: Surgical approach: The aim in DDH is to place the head of femur in acetabulum. Open the joint, identify the acetabulum, cut and rotate the femur and place the head in acetabulum. Surgical procedure: Percutaneous adductor tenotomy is performed in all patients prior to open reduction. The hip joint is approached superficially between sartorius and tensor fascia lata. The sartorius is detached from anterior superior iliac spine to improve exposure. The anteromedial capsule is incised to remove the obstacle to reduction. The femoral head is identified and ligamentum teres is cut and traced to the acetabulum. The psoas tendon is identified and tenotomy is done to improve access to the acetabulum. The acetabular labrum is identified and care is taken to keep it intact and undamaged. The transverse acetabular ligament is identified and incised to remove the inferior obstacle to reduction. The acetabulum is cleared of fibrocartilaginous tissue and femoral head is reduced into the acetabulum.</li><li>• Ultrasonography: It is widely used as a screening test for DDH. It has the advantage of demonstrating acetabulum the non-ossified femoral head.</li><li>• Ultrasonography:</li><li>• Plain Radiograph: Delayed appearance of the ossification centre of the head of the femur. Retarded development of the ossification centre of the head of the femur. Sloping acetabulum Lateral and upward displacement of the ossification centre of the femoral head. A break in Shenton’s line</li><li>• Plain Radiograph:</li><li>• Delayed appearance of the ossification centre of the head of the femur. Retarded development of the ossification centre of the head of the femur. Sloping acetabulum Lateral and upward displacement of the ossification centre of the femoral head. A break in Shenton’s line</li><li>• Delayed appearance of the ossification centre of the head of the femur.</li><li>• Retarded development of the ossification centre of the head of the femur.</li><li>• Sloping acetabulum</li><li>• Lateral and upward displacement of the ossification centre of the femoral head.</li><li>• A break in Shenton’s line</li><li>• Treatment: Surgical approach: The aim in DDH is to place the head of femur in acetabulum. Open the joint, identify the acetabulum, cut and rotate the femur and place the head in acetabulum. Surgical procedure: Percutaneous adductor tenotomy is performed in all patients prior to open reduction. The hip joint is approached superficially between sartorius and tensor fascia lata. The sartorius is detached from anterior superior iliac spine to improve exposure. The anteromedial capsule is incised to remove the obstacle to reduction. The femoral head is identified and ligamentum teres is cut and traced to the acetabulum. The psoas tendon is identified and tenotomy is done to improve access to the acetabulum. The acetabular labrum is identified and care is taken to keep it intact and undamaged. The transverse acetabular ligament is identified and incised to remove the inferior obstacle to reduction. The acetabulum is cleared of fibrocartilaginous tissue and femoral head is reduced into the acetabulum.</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Surgical approach: The aim in DDH is to place the head of femur in acetabulum. Open the joint, identify the acetabulum, cut and rotate the femur and place the head in acetabulum. Surgical procedure: Percutaneous adductor tenotomy is performed in all patients prior to open reduction. The hip joint is approached superficially between sartorius and tensor fascia lata. The sartorius is detached from anterior superior iliac spine to improve exposure. The anteromedial capsule is incised to remove the obstacle to reduction. The femoral head is identified and ligamentum teres is cut and traced to the acetabulum. The psoas tendon is identified and tenotomy is done to improve access to the acetabulum. The acetabular labrum is identified and care is taken to keep it intact and undamaged. The transverse acetabular ligament is identified and incised to remove the inferior obstacle to reduction. The acetabulum is cleared of fibrocartilaginous tissue and femoral head is reduced into the acetabulum.</li><li>• Surgical approach: The aim in DDH is to place the head of femur in acetabulum. Open the joint, identify the acetabulum, cut and rotate the femur and place the head in acetabulum.</li><li>• Surgical approach:</li><li>• The aim in DDH is to place the head of femur in acetabulum. Open the joint, identify the acetabulum, cut and rotate the femur and place the head in acetabulum.</li><li>• The aim in DDH is to place the head of femur in acetabulum.</li><li>• Open the joint, identify the acetabulum, cut and rotate the femur and place the head in acetabulum.</li><li>• Surgical procedure: Percutaneous adductor tenotomy is performed in all patients prior to open reduction. The hip joint is approached superficially between sartorius and tensor fascia lata. The sartorius is detached from anterior superior iliac spine to improve exposure. The anteromedial capsule is incised to remove the obstacle to reduction. The femoral head is identified and ligamentum teres is cut and traced to the acetabulum. The psoas tendon is identified and tenotomy is done to improve access to the acetabulum. The acetabular labrum is identified and care is taken to keep it intact and undamaged. The transverse acetabular ligament is identified and incised to remove the inferior obstacle to reduction. The acetabulum is cleared of fibrocartilaginous tissue and femoral head is reduced into the acetabulum.</li><li>• Surgical procedure:</li><li>• Percutaneous adductor tenotomy is performed in all patients prior to open reduction. The hip joint is approached superficially between sartorius and tensor fascia lata. The sartorius is detached from anterior superior iliac spine to improve exposure. The anteromedial capsule is incised to remove the obstacle to reduction. The femoral head is identified and ligamentum teres is cut and traced to the acetabulum. The psoas tendon is identified and tenotomy is done to improve access to the acetabulum. The acetabular labrum is identified and care is taken to keep it intact and undamaged. The transverse acetabular ligament is identified and incised to remove the inferior obstacle to reduction. The acetabulum is cleared of fibrocartilaginous tissue and femoral head is reduced into the acetabulum.</li><li>• Percutaneous adductor tenotomy is performed in all patients prior to open reduction.</li><li>• The hip joint is approached superficially between sartorius and tensor fascia lata.</li><li>• The sartorius is detached from anterior superior iliac spine to improve exposure.</li><li>• The anteromedial capsule is incised to remove the obstacle to reduction.</li><li>• The femoral head is identified and ligamentum teres is cut and traced to the acetabulum.</li><li>• The psoas tendon is identified and tenotomy is done to improve access to the acetabulum.</li><li>• The acetabular labrum is identified and care is taken to keep it intact and undamaged.</li><li>• The transverse acetabular ligament is identified and incised to remove the inferior obstacle to reduction.</li><li>• The acetabulum is cleared of fibrocartilaginous tissue and femoral head is reduced into the acetabulum.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The correct order of surgical procedure for DDH in a child &lt; 2 years of age is:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following denotes an \"infant at risk\"? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Working mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mother who has not taken folic acid during pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infant with history of premature birth &lt;32 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pre-eclampsia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Infant with history of premature birth <32 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Working mother</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An infant born before 32 weeks of gestation is considered high-risk due to the increased likelihood of complications associated with prematurity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-week multigravida woman presents with epigastric pain, headache, visual symptoms, proteinuria: 3+. The next step of management would be? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate C- section", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dexamethasone for fetal lung maturity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Induction - vaginal delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MgSO4 IV", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. MgSO4 IV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) MgSO4 IV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MgSO4 is recommended for neuro-prophylaxis in women with severe or imminent eclampsia to prevent seizures.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 1840</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 1840</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person is diagnosed to have diabetes on his 45th birthday. When will you recommend a dilated fundus examination for him? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediately", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Before his 50th birthday", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "After his 50th birthday", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "When he complains of decrease in vision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Immediately", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/07/untitled-318_5qo6oBy.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Immediately</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following:(AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-154252_CK2hyZl.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_112.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_113.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_114.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_115.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-154530.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A. Madelung deformity involves distal radius. It is the volar translation of the wrist. It is seen associated with Turner Syndrome.</li><li>• A. Madelung deformity</li><li>• B. Haglund deformity is the bony prominence over calcaneum and the overlying retrocalcaneal bursitis.</li><li>• B. Haglund deformity</li><li>• C. Buttonhole deformity is the abnormal extension at distal interphalangeal joint and flexion at proximal interphalangeal joint and is seen with Rheumatoid arthritis.</li><li>• C. Buttonhole deformity</li><li>• D. Gunstock deformity is seen in Cubitus varus. It is a complication frequently seen after untreated supracondylar fracture of humerus.</li><li>• D. Gunstock deformity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lesion of the structure marked '11' causes: ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loss of sensation of the nail of index finger", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypothenar muscles wasting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of sensation at the tip of radial tubercle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loss of sensation of the 4th interdigital cleft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Loss of sensation of the nail of index finger", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/19.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-73.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-74.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Loss of sensation of the nail of index finger</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The median nerve supplies sensory fibers to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and the radial half of the ring finger. This means that an injury to the median nerve can lead to sensory loss in these areas, including the nail of the index finger.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-year-old boy with sensorineural hearing loss and eye defects presents to the OPD with hematuria. His renal biopsy on light microscopy was normal. Family history reveals the maternal uncle had Gr 5 CKD and is undergoing dialysis. Which of the following would be the probable diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alport syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Goodpasture syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgA nephropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PSGN", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Alport syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/17/screenshot-2024-09-17-141312.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/108.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Alport syndrome.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alport syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by hematuria, sensorineural hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities, with characteristic findings on electron microscopy, including a \"basket-weave\" appearance of the glomerular basement membrane.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman is admitted with dengue hemorrhagic fever. After several days of management, her condition stabilizes, and the medical team considers discharging her. Which of the following is an appropriate criterion to decide the discharge of a patient recovering from dengue hemorrhagic shock? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No episode of fever for more than 24 hours with paracetamol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "After the return of appetite", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine output more than 200ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "After 24hrs from recovery of shock", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. After the return of appetite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) After the return of appetite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CRITERIA FOR DISCHARGING PATIENTS:</li><li>➤ CRITERIA FOR DISCHARGING PATIENTS:</li><li>➤ Absence of fever for at least 24 hours without the use of anti-fever therapy Return of appetite Visible clinical improvement Good urine output Minimum of three days after recovery from shock No respiratory distress from pleural effusion and no ascites Platelet count of more than 50,000/mm</li><li>➤ Absence of fever for at least 24 hours without the use of anti-fever therapy</li><li>➤ Return of appetite</li><li>➤ Visible clinical improvement</li><li>➤ Good urine output</li><li>➤ Minimum of three days after recovery from shock</li><li>➤ No respiratory distress from pleural effusion and no ascites</li><li>➤ Platelet count of more than 50,000/mm</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The instrument given in the image is: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Romovac", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Jackson-Pratt drain", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Minivac", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corrugated drain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Jackson-Pratt drain", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-664.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-665.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-667.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-668.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Jackson-Pratt drain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The Jackson-Pratt drain is a closed drainage system that uses gentle suction to remove fluids from surgical sites, helping prevent fluid accumulation and reducing infection risk.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following form the marked structure except? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2nd Dorsal interossei", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lumbricals", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extensor digitorum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2nd Palmar interossei", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2nd Palmar interossei", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/18.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-68.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-69.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2nd Palmar interossei</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The dorsal digital expansion plays a key role in extending the finger joints and is formed by the integration of tendons from several muscles, excluding the 2nd Palmar interossei, which primarily functions in adduction and does not extend to the dorsal side of the fingers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child presents with leg pain. She had fever and cough 3 days prior. Currently, there is pain on palpation of the calf muscles. Reflexes and other clinical examinations are normal. Lab test reveals CK levels of 2000 IU. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Viral Myositis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duchenne", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GBS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermatomyositis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Viral Myositis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Viral myositis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Viral myositis is characterized by muscle pain, especially in the calves, following a viral infection, with elevated CK levels and normal reflexes, distinguishing it from other neuromuscular conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 48-year-old male presents to the ER with confusion and shaking of the entire body. He has a history of excessive alcohol consumption. What is the cause of delirium tremens in an alcoholic? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fatty liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gradual withdrawal of alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small doses of regular consumption of alcohol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acute infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) typically presents 48-72 hours after the last drink and is characterized by disturbances of consciousness, disorientation to time, place, and person, hallucinations (especially visual), agitation, coarse tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. Risk factors include surgery, infections or other medical conditions. It is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Treatment includes intravenous lorazepam or diazepam with thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Shorter Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 572-573.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify which of these is not a component of qSOFA? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory rate ≥22/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systolic BP &lt; 100 mm Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Altered mental status", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bilateral absent pupillary reflex", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bilateral absent pupillary reflex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bilateral absent pupillary reflex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ qSOFA includes three criteria for assessing sepsis risk: respiratory rate ≥ 22/min, systolic BP &lt; 100 mm Hg, and altered mental status. It does not include pupillary reflex assessment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following about γδ T-cells is incorrect? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kills extracellular bacteria by granulysin and perforin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Need antigen processing and presentation for it recognition", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Direct killing of infected macrophages", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Provide protection against mycobacteria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Need antigen processing and presentation for it recognition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Need antigen processing and presentation for it recognition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ γδ T-cells do not require antigen processing and presentation by MHC molecules for their recognition, unlike αβ T-cells, making them unique in their ability to directly recognize and respond to a variety of antigens.</li><li>➤ γδ T-cells do not require antigen processing and presentation</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 352-353</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 352-353</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of mutation is seen in sickle cell anemia? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deletion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Point mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Frameshift mutations", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Point mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-120128.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Point mutations</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community with a population of 20,000 documented 456 births in a year, of which 56 were stillbirths. The total number of deaths in the community for that year was 247, including 56 deaths within the first 28 days of life and 34 additional deaths after 28 days but before completing the first year of life. What is the infant mortality rate (IMR) for this community? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "197", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "392", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "225", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "344", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 225", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/screenshot-2023-10-25-161612.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 225</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) for the community, calculated as the number of infant deaths per 1000 live births. This rate serves as a crucial indicator of the health status and effectiveness of maternal and child health services in the community.</li><li>➤ The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) for the community, calculated as the number of infant deaths per 1000 live births.</li><li>➤ This rate serves as a crucial indicator of the health status and effectiveness of maternal and child health services in the community.</li><li>➤ NOTE - UNICEF considers U5MR or CMR as ‘single best indicator of socio-economic development and well-being’ (even better than IMR)</li><li>➤ NOTE - UNICEF considers U5MR or CMR as ‘single best indicator of socio-economic development and well-being’ (even better than IMR)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient with squamous cell carcinoma of the neck undergoes radical neck dissection. Which of the following structures is typically spared during this procedure? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Digastric muscle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sternocleidomastoid muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spinal accessory nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ipsilateral cervical lymph nodes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Digastric muscle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Digastric muscle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A radical neck dissection is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of lymph nodes level 1 to 5, ipsilateral submandibular gland and tail of parotid, as well as other structures in the neck such as the sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, and spinal accessory nerve.</li><li>➤ In modified radical neck dissections, some structures may be spared, such as the internal jugular vein, sternocleidomastoid muscle or the spinal accessory nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The ECG of a pregnant lady having pre-eclampsia is shown below. Her vitals are stable. What is the best step in the management of the condition? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DC Shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV MgS04", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Synchronized cardioversion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IV MgS04", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm123.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In a stable pregnant patient displaying Torsades de Pointes, especially in the context of pre-eclampsia, IV magnesium sulfate is the recommended treatment. It helps in both controlling the arrhythmia and providing prophylaxis against eclamptic seizures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following supply the structure marked ‘E’ except? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right coronary artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior interventricular artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marginal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diagonal artery", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diagonal artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/21.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-84.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Diagonal artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the vascular supply of the heart is crucial, especially in clinical settings dealing with coronary artery disease. The right ventricle is primarily supplied by the right coronary artery and its branches, including the marginal artery. The diagonal artery, a branch of the left coronary system (specifically the anterior interventricular artery), mainly supplies the left ventricle and does not contribute significantly to the blood supply of the right ventricle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old male child is found to have a unilateral undescended testis on the right side during a routine physical exam. A diagnostic laparoscopy is performed, which reveals blind-ending testicular vessels and vas deferens on the right side. What is the next step in the management of this patient? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inguinal exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abdominal exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scrotal exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nothing to be done", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nothing to be done", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nothing to be done</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A unilateral undescended testis refers to a condition in which only one of the testes has not descended into the scrotum, while the other testis has descended normally. This condition is relatively common in male infants and can occur on either the right or left side.</li><li>➤ Here are some key points about unilateral undescended testis:</li><li>➤ Incidence: It is one of the most common congenital anomalies in male infants, with the majority of cases involving the left testis. Diagnosis: Unilateral undescended testis is typically diagnosed during a physical examination, such as a routine well-baby check or pediatric evaluation. Management: The management of unilateral undescended testis may vary based on the age of the child and the specific circumstances. In many cases, the testis will descend into the scrotum on its own within the first few months of life. If the testis has not descended by the age of 6 months, treatment options may include hormone therapy to stimulate descent or surgical intervention (orchidopexy) to bring the testis down into the scrotum. Importance of Treatment: The goal of treatment is to ensure that the undescended testis is properly positioned in the scrotum. This is important for several reasons, including the potential impact on fertility and the increased risk of testicular cancer in undescended testes if left untreated.</li><li>➤ Incidence: It is one of the most common congenital anomalies in male infants, with the majority of cases involving the left testis.</li><li>➤ Incidence:</li><li>➤ Diagnosis: Unilateral undescended testis is typically diagnosed during a physical examination, such as a routine well-baby check or pediatric evaluation.</li><li>➤ Diagnosis:</li><li>➤ Management: The management of unilateral undescended testis may vary based on the age of the child and the specific circumstances. In many cases, the testis will descend into the scrotum on its own within the first few months of life. If the testis has not descended by the age of 6 months, treatment options may include hormone therapy to stimulate descent or surgical intervention (orchidopexy) to bring the testis down into the scrotum.</li><li>➤ Management:</li><li>➤ Importance of Treatment: The goal of treatment is to ensure that the undescended testis is properly positioned in the scrotum. This is important for several reasons, including the potential impact on fertility and the increased risk of testicular cancer in undescended testes if left untreated.</li><li>➤ Importance of Treatment:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a busy day at the outpatient clinic, a nurse accidentally sustains a needle stick injury while drawing blood from a patient known to have HIV. She asks for guidance on immediate management steps to mitigate her risk of acquiring the infection. Which of the following recommendations would NOT be appropriate? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Washing hands with soap and water", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Administration of tenofovir monotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measure baseline viral markers of health care worker immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measure viral markers after 6 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Administration of tenofovir monotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Administration of tenofovir monotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For needle stick injuries involving HIV exposure, a triple drug regimen for post-exposure prophylaxis is recommended, not monotherapy. Immediate washing, baseline viral markers, and follow-up testing are also critical components of the management protocol.</li><li>➤ For needle stick injuries involving HIV exposure, a triple drug regimen for post-exposure prophylaxis is recommended, not monotherapy.</li><li>➤ Immediate washing, baseline viral markers, and follow-up testing are also critical components of the management protocol.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structures of brachial plexus do not give branches? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Roots", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cords", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trunks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Divisions", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Divisions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-174639.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Divisions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The divisions in the brachial plexus do not give any branches.</li><li>• However, the roots, trunks, and cords of the brachial plexus give out direct branches.</li><li>• The brachial plexus is a complex network of nerves that originates from the ventral rami of the fifth cervical to the first thoracic spinal nerves (C5-T1). The brachial plexus is typically organized into five stages: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and terminal branches.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Roots: The roots of the brachial plexus are the five ventral rami (C5-T1) that serve as the origin of the brachial plexus. These roots give off several branches:</li><li>• Option A. Roots:</li><li>• C5 root can contribute to the dorsal scapular nerve. C5 and C6 roots together give rise to the upper trunk, but before they merge, they can give off the nerve to the subclavius muscle (from C5 and C6). C8 and T1 roots can contribute to the long thoracic nerve along with C7 root.</li><li>• C5 root can contribute to the dorsal scapular nerve.</li><li>• C5 and C6 roots together give rise to the upper trunk, but before they merge, they can give off the nerve to the subclavius muscle (from C5 and C6).</li><li>• C8 and T1 roots can contribute to the long thoracic nerve along with C7 root.</li><li>• Option B. Cords: The cords are named based on their position relative to the axillary artery: lateral, medial, and posterior cords.</li><li>• Option B. Cords:</li><li>• The lateral cord gives branches like the lateral pectoral nerve. The medial cord gives branches like the medial pectoral, medial cutaneous nerve of arm, and medial cutaneous nerve of forearm. The posterior cord provides branches like the upper subscapular, thoracodorsal, and lower subscapular nerves.</li><li>• The lateral cord gives branches like the lateral pectoral nerve.</li><li>• The medial cord gives branches like the medial pectoral, medial cutaneous nerve of arm, and medial cutaneous nerve of forearm.</li><li>• The posterior cord provides branches like the upper subscapular, thoracodorsal, and lower subscapular nerves.</li><li>• Option C. Trunks: There are three trunks in the brachial plexus: upper, middle, and lower.</li><li>• Option C. Trunks:</li><li>• The upper trunk is formed by the union of C5 and C6 roots and gives off the suprascapular nerve and the nerve to the omohyoid muscle. The middle and lower trunks usually do not give any significant branches.</li><li>• The upper trunk is formed by the union of C5 and C6 roots and gives off the suprascapular nerve and the nerve to the omohyoid muscle.</li><li>• The middle and lower trunks usually do not give any significant branches.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Each trunk divides into two divisions: an anterior division and a posterior division. The divisions do not provide any branches.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is not a feature of Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Temperature &gt; 38 degrees Celsius", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory Rate &gt; 22/minute and PaCO2 &lt;35 mmHg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulse rate &gt; 90/minute", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "WBC &gt; 12000/mm3 or &lt; 4000/mm3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Respiratory Rate > 22/minute and PaCO2 <35 mmHg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Respiratory rate &gt; 22/ minute and PaCO2 &lt;35mmHg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Features of Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) are:</li><li>➤ Fever (body temperature &gt;38°C) or temperature &lt;36°C. Tachycardia (heart rate &gt;90 beats per minute). Tachypnea (respiratory rate &gt;20 breaths per minute or arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) &lt; 32 mm Hg). Leukocytosis (white blood cell count &gt;12,000 cells/mm³), leukopenia (white blood cell count &lt;4,000 cells/mm³), or the presence of &gt;10% immature neutrophils (band forms) in the blood. Other signs of systemic inflammation such as elevated levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) or procalcitonin.</li><li>➤ Fever (body temperature &gt;38°C) or temperature &lt;36°C.</li><li>➤ Tachycardia (heart rate &gt;90 beats per minute).</li><li>➤ Tachypnea (respiratory rate &gt;20 breaths per minute or arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) &lt; 32 mm Hg).</li><li>➤ Leukocytosis (white blood cell count &gt;12,000 cells/mm³), leukopenia (white blood cell count &lt;4,000 cells/mm³), or the presence of &gt;10% immature neutrophils (band forms) in the blood.</li><li>➤ Other signs of systemic inflammation such as elevated levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) or procalcitonin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient says that he feels that there is something wrong with him mentally and it is because of the summer season. How much would he score on the insight scale? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20155759.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Insight is graded from 1 to 5.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 967.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following device shown attached to the baby is used in all except: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "In CPR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To know about apnea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "In neonatal resuscitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measure central cyanosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Measure central cyanosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/109.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Measure central cyanosis.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A pulse oximeter is useful in various neonatal and resuscitation settings to monitor oxygen saturation and heart rate, but it is not reliable for detecting central cyanosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common presentation of inhalational anthrax? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atypical pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lung abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemorrhagic mediastinitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Broncho pulmonary pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hemorrhagic mediastinitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hemorrhagic mediastinitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemorrhagic mediastinitis is the hallmark presentation of inhalational anthrax, indicating a severe systemic infection that requires immediate medical attention and aggressive antibiotic therapy. Awareness of this presentation is crucial, particularly in contexts involving potential exposure to anthrax spores, such as bioterrorism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old woman presented with a gradually diminishing visual field. She was found to have a pituitary mass and underwent trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy. Now she has low levels of ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH. Which of the following hormone supplements is not needed in the patient postoperatively? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mineralocorticoids", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucocorticoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroid hormones", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Estradiol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mineralocorticoids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mineralocorticoids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-hypophysectomy, patients often require supplementation of several hormones, including glucocorticoids and thyroid hormones, due to impaired pituitary function. However, mineralocorticoid supplementation is typically not needed as aldosterone secretion is primarily regulated by the RAAS system, independent of pituitary control.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/ Chapter 379/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following a surgical procedure on the lateral aspect of the skull base, the patient experiences postoperative aspiration. However, there is no alteration in the patient's voice. What could be the explanation for this?( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior laryngeal nerve injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High vagal injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Superior laryngeal nerve injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/whatsapp-image-2023-08-29-at-165318.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Superior laryngeal nerve injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Injury to the superior laryngeal nerve, particularly its internal branch, is a plausible explanation for the patient's aspiration post-surgery, especially when there is no accompanying change in voice quality. This suggests that the sensory function above the vocal cords is compromised, increasing the risk of aspiration without necessarily affecting voice modulation handled by the external laryngeal nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of anorexia nervosa was eating all her meals according to the prescribed diet chart but there is no change in her weight after 1 week. Which of the following needs to be done? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Observe the patient for 2 hours post meal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ask the psychiatrist to prescribe anti-anxiety medication", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase the calories from 1500 to 2000 in her diet", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase water intake", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Observe the patient for 2 hours post meal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Observe the patient for 2 hours post meal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with anorexia nervosa who are not gaining weight despite adherence to a meal plan, it's important to first rule out surreptitious purging behaviors. Observing the patient post-meal can help ensure that they are not engaging in behaviors like vomiting or excessive exercise after eating.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Shorter Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 320.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy, previously vaccinated against rabies a year ago, was bitten by his vaccinated family pet dog on the toe, resulting in a bleeding wound. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 doses of vaccine on Day 0 &amp; 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5 doses of vaccine with Immunoglobulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5 doses of vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 doses of vaccine on Day 0 & 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/screenshot-2023-10-25-174245.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/screenshot-2023-10-25-174320.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2 doses of vaccine on Day 0 &amp; 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a previously vaccinated individual bitten by a potentially rabid animal, the appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis is to administer 2 booster doses of the rabies vaccine on days 0 and 3.</li><li>➤ For a previously vaccinated individual bitten by a potentially rabid animal, the appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis is to administer 2 booster doses of the rabies vaccine on days 0 and 3.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A preterm infant in the NICU was observed to have marked nasal flare, distinct xiphoid retractions, minimal intercostal retractions, and inspiratory lag with an audible grunt without a stethoscope. What would be the Silverman Anderson score? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "8", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "9", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Silverman-Anderson score is used to assess the severity of respiratory distress in neonates, with a score of 8 indicating significant distress requiring close monitoring and possibly intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which cells are not present in the layer marked as D? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keratinocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Merkel cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Melanocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Langerhans cells", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Langerhans cells", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13534_QMQ2Xbb.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/screenshot-2023-11-27-124309.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/screenshot-2023-11-27-124434.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Langerhans cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Volume 1 Chapter 2, Page no 2.4</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition: Volume 1 Chapter 2, Page no 2.4</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the major source of plasma von-Willebrand factor? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platelets", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Macrophages", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endothelial cells", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Endothelial cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Endothelial cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The major source of plasma von Willebrand factor (vWF) is endothelial cells , which release vWF into the bloodstream upon vascular injury to facilitate platelet adhesion.</li><li>➤ endothelial cells</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1253</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1253</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Out of the options given below the most common pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor (PNET) is: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Somatostatinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "VIPoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Insulinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Insulinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PNETs are a rare type of pancreatic tumor that originate from neuroendocrine cells in the pancreas. PNETs are classified as either functioning or non-functioning based on their ability to produce hormones. Diagnosis of PNETs typically involves imaging studies such as CT or MRI, as well as biopsy or blood tests to measure hormone levels. Treatment options for PNETs may include surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation therapy, depending on the size, location, and type of tumor.</li><li>➤ PNETs are a rare type of pancreatic tumor that originate from neuroendocrine cells in the pancreas.</li><li>➤ PNETs are classified as either functioning or non-functioning based on their ability to produce hormones.</li><li>➤ Diagnosis of PNETs typically involves imaging studies such as CT or MRI, as well as biopsy or blood tests to measure hormone levels.</li><li>➤ Treatment options for PNETs may include surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation therapy, depending on the size, location, and type of tumor.</li><li>➤ Insulinoma:</li><li>➤ Insulinoma:</li><li>➤ The investigation of choice for insulinoma 72-hour fasting glucose and serum insulin levels. Medical management: Octreotide Surgical management - Enucleation</li><li>➤ The investigation of choice for insulinoma 72-hour fasting glucose and serum insulin levels.</li><li>➤ Medical management: Octreotide</li><li>➤ Octreotide</li><li>➤ Octreotide</li><li>➤ Surgical management - Enucleation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman comes with a history of postcoital bleeding and a visible mass seen in cervix per speculum. The next step to be done? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Targeted biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pap smear", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Targeted biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Targeted biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A targeted biopsy (punch biopsy) is the next line of management in the above case as the patient is symptomatic (postcoital bleeding) and has a visible lesion. The biopsy will help in diagnosing the nature of the lesion, which is crucial for further management.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Conization: Conization is an excisional procedure done once biopsy-proven intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN 2 and 3) is diagnosed. It is not the initial step when a visible lesion is present and needs to be assessed.</li><li>• Option A. Conization:</li><li>• Option B. Cryotherapy: Cryotherapy is an ablative procedure done for CIN 1 or 2. It is not suitable for a visible lesion with postcoital bleeding without a prior biopsy.</li><li>• Option B. Cryotherapy:</li><li>• Option D. Pap smear: Pap smear is done when there are symptoms with no identifiable lesion. In the presence of a visible mass, a direct biopsy is more appropriate.</li><li>• Option D. Pap smear:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a symptomatic patient with postcoital bleeding and a visible lesion on the cervix, the next step is a targeted biopsy to diagnose the nature of the lesion.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg662, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg345</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg662, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg345</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In preterm labor which drug has a neuro-protective role? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MgSO4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ritoridine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isoxsuprine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MgSO4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) MgSO4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Neuroprotection in preterm labor:</li><li>• Neuroprotection in preterm labor:</li><li>• The drug given is MgSO4. It reduces the incidence of cerebral palsy and neurodevelopmental delay. IV MgSO4 should be offered for neuroprotection of the baby to all women between 24+0 and 29+6 weeks who are: In established preterm labor or Having a planned preterm birth within 24 hours. It can be considered for neuroprotection of the baby for women between 30+0 and 33+6 weeks. Dose: 4 g intravenous bolus of magnesium sulfate over 15 minutes, followed by an intravenous infusion of 1 g per hour until the birth or for 24 hours (whichever is sooner).</li><li>• The drug given is MgSO4.</li><li>• It reduces the incidence of cerebral palsy and neurodevelopmental delay.</li><li>• IV MgSO4 should be offered for neuroprotection of the baby to all women between 24+0 and 29+6 weeks who are: In established preterm labor or Having a planned preterm birth within 24 hours.</li><li>• In established preterm labor or Having a planned preterm birth within 24 hours.</li><li>• In established preterm labor or</li><li>• Having a planned preterm birth within 24 hours.</li><li>• It can be considered for neuroprotection of the baby for women between 30+0 and 33+6 weeks.</li><li>• Dose: 4 g intravenous bolus of magnesium sulfate over 15 minutes, followed by an intravenous infusion of 1 g per hour until the birth or for 24 hours (whichever is sooner).</li><li>• Dose:</li><li>• Uses of MgSO4 in Obstetrics:</li><li>• Uses of MgSO4 in Obstetrics:</li><li>• Treatment of Eclampsia (Anti-seizure) Prophylaxis in severe pre-eclampsia (to prevent eclampsia) As a tocolytic in preterm labor As a neuroprotective drug in preterm labor (especially &lt; 30 weeks)</li><li>• Treatment of Eclampsia (Anti-seizure)</li><li>• Prophylaxis in severe pre-eclampsia (to prevent eclampsia)</li><li>• As a tocolytic in preterm labor</li><li>• As a neuroprotective drug in preterm labor (especially &lt; 30 weeks)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Nifedipine: A calcium channel blocker used as a tocolytic and antihypertensive but has no role in neuroprotection.</li><li>• Option B. Nifedipine:</li><li>• Option C. Ritodrine: A beta-sympathomimetic used as a tocolytic but has no neuroprotective role.</li><li>• Option C. Ritodrine:</li><li>• Option D. Isoxsuprine: Another beta-sympathomimetic used as a tocolytic without neuroprotective properties.</li><li>• Option D. Isoxsuprine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In preterm labor, MgSO4 is used for neuroprotection, reducing the incidence of cerebral palsy and neurodevelopmental delay in preterm infants.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 538</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 538</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these characteristics is not linked to superior semicircular canal dehiscence syndrome?(AIIMS NOV 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gaze dependent nystagmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive Fistula test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sensorineural hearing loss", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Positive Tullio's phenomenon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sensorineural hearing loss", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-174717.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sensorineural hearing loss</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In SSCDS, conductive hearing loss is typical due to the additional pathway for sound and pressure transmission created by the dehiscence, not sensorineural hearing loss, which involves damage to the hair cells in the cochlea or the auditory nerve. Understanding these distinct characteristics helps in accurately diagnosing and managing the condition.</li><li>➤ Ref - Scott Brown 8 th edition, volume 2, Page no. 843-847</li><li>➤ Ref - Scott Brown 8 th edition, volume 2, Page no. 843-847</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Locally advanced breast cancer can be defined as all except? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tumor more than 4 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inflammatory breast cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chest wall involvement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin involvement", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tumor more than 4 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tumor more than 4 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tumor more than 5 cm, not 4 is classified as LABC.</li><li>➤ Locally advanced breast cancer (LABC) includes: (Mnemonic – CUBE N2)</li><li>➤ C - Chest wall invasion</li><li>➤ U - Ulceration of skin</li><li>➤ B - Both (chest wall invasion and ulceration of skin)</li><li>➤ E - E(I)nflammatory carcinoma</li><li>➤ N2 - fixed axillary lymph nodes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument in the image below? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unipolar cautery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bipolar cautery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Harmonic scalpel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LigaSure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bipolar cautery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-656.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-657.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-658.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-659.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bipolar cautery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bipolar cautery is ideal for controlled, precise tissue coagulation in delicate surgeries due to its localized current flow, making it more specific than unipolar cautery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is related to the marked area in the image? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stomach", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spleen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2nd part of duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pancreas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stomach", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-75.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-76.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-77.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Stomach</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The stomach is located anterior to the right kidney. The part of the stomach that lies in close proximity to the right kidney is the lesser curvature, specifically the anterior aspect of the stomach. The right kidney is situated posterior to this portion of the stomach.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A study on 100 urban women evaluates potential risk factors for breast cancer using odds ratios (OR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI). An OR &gt; 1 with a CI not including 1 suggests a significant association. How many risk factors show a statistically significant association with breast cancer? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip40.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_IjtklbT.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ There are three factors (early menarche, BRCA mutation, obesity), that have statistically significant associations with breast cancer according to the odds ratios and their 95% confidence intervals provided.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old man presents with 2-3 hypopigmented, slightly raised patches on his forearm with reduced sensation for 4 months. He is diagnosed with paucibacillary leprosy. What is the recommended treatment regimen? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 drug therapy for 6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 drug therapy for 12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 drug therapy for 12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 drug therapy for 6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2 drug therapy for 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/screenshot-2023-10-25-174718.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/33333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2 drug therapy for 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MDT blister pack Colour</li><li>➤ MDT blister pack Colour</li><li>➤ PBL adult - Green color</li><li>➤ MBL adult - Red color</li><li>➤ PBL child - Blue color</li><li>➤ MBL child - Yellow colour</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "To accurately calculate the perinatal mortality rate, which of the following should specifically be considered as part of the numerator? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Post-neonatal period death", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Early neonatal death of fetus &gt; 1000 g", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stillbirth of fetus &lt; 500 g", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abortion after 16 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Early neonatal death of fetus > 1000 g", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture8555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Early neonatal death of fetus &gt; 1000 g</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Perinatal mortality rate includes late fetal deaths (stillbirths) and early neonatal deaths, focusing on the period from 28 weeks of gestation to 7 days after birth.</li><li>➤ Perinatal mortality rate includes late fetal deaths (stillbirths) and early neonatal deaths, focusing on the period from 28 weeks of gestation to 7 days after birth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which transporter is required for the transport of iron into the enterocyte? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ferroportin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Divalent metal transporter 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Divalent metal transporter 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haptocorrin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Divalent metal transporter 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/959.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Divalent metal transporter 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) is critical for the transport of Fe²⁺ iron across the apical membrane of enterocytes, facilitating iron absorption in the gut.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8th edition Pg 1230</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8th edition Pg 1230</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are an intern posted in the ICU. While taking a blood sample for ABG, which of the following steps would you not do? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal pH can't rule out acid base disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Add 0.5 ml Heparin to the syringe before taking blood", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "If modified Allen’s test is negative, alternate site is chosen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radial artery is the preferred site", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Add 0.5 ml Heparin to the syringe before taking blood", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Add 0.5 ml Heparin to the syringe before taking blood</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Add 0.5 ml Heparin to the syringe before taking blood: Traditionally, to prevent blood from clotting inside the syringe when obtaining an ABG, a small amount of heparin was added to the syringe. However, in contemporary practice, syringes used for ABG are pre-heparinized, which means they already contain a coating of dry heparin that will mix with the blood sample and prevent clotting. Adding additional heparin to such a syringe is unnecessary and can dilute the sample, potentially altering the results.</li><li>• Add 0.5 ml Heparin to the syringe before taking blood:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Normal pH can't rule out acid base disorder: This statement is accurate. A patient can have a mixed acid-base disorder where two primary disorders (e.g., metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis) coexist and \"cancel\" each other out, leading to a seemingly \"normal\" pH. However, when the components of the arterial blood gas (ABG) like PaCO2 and HCO3- are evaluated, abnormalities can be detected.</li><li>• Option A. Normal pH can't rule out acid base disorder:</li><li>• Option C. If modified Allen’s test is negative, alternate site is chosen: The modified Allen's test is a simple way to evaluate the collateral blood flow to the hand via the ulnar artery. Before taking a sample or placing an arterial line in the radial artery, it's a recommended step to ensure that if the radial artery becomes occluded, the hand will still receive adequate blood flow. If the test is negative (indicative of inadequate collateral flow), it's safer to choose an alternate site for arterial puncture.</li><li>• Option C. If modified Allen’s test is negative, alternate site is chosen:</li><li>• Option D. Radial artery is the preferred site: The radial artery is commonly chosen for ABG sampling and arterial line placement due to its accessibility, the presence of collateral blood flow (via the ulnar artery), and its relatively superficial location which makes puncture technically easier. Furthermore, complications like hematoma or injury are less problematic at this location when compared to other potential sites, such as the femoral artery.</li><li>• Option D. Radial artery is the preferred site:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Adding extra heparin to pre-heparinized ABG syringes is unnecessary and can alter the blood sample.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following causes vasodilation? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thromboxane A2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leukotriene C4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Histamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Histamine is the primary mediator responsible for causing vasodilation, playing a critical role in the inflammatory response by increasing blood flow and vascular permeability.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During your clinical rotation in infectious diseases, a patient with dengue fever develops warning signs like abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, clinical fluid accumulation, and an increase in hematocrit with a decrease in platelet count. Which of the following is the cornerstone of management for a patient showing warning signs of dengue? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV Fluids", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Platelets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryoglobulins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "FFP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IV Fluids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111607.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IV Fluids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All the followings are seen in Gestational Diabetes Mellitus except: (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malformations", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polyhydramnios", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fetal Macrosomia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neonatal Hypoglycemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Malformations", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Malformations</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital anomalies are not typically seen with Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM); they are associated with pre-existing overt diabetes mellitus.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 2787</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 2787</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the nerve supply of the structure marked by red arrow in the image below? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oculomotor nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trochlear nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abducens nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trochlear nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/22.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Trochlear nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure marked in the image is the superior oblique muscle. It is innervated by the trochlear nerve.</li><li>• There are seven extraocular muscles present in the eye. They are:</li><li>• Levator palpebrae superioris - Which elevates the upper eyelids Four recti muscles - Superior, inferior, medial, and lateral recti Two obliques - Superior and inferior oblique</li><li>• Levator palpebrae superioris - Which elevates the upper eyelids</li><li>• Four recti muscles - Superior, inferior, medial, and lateral recti</li><li>• Two obliques - Superior and inferior oblique</li><li>• The muscles originate from the back of the orbit in a common tendinous ring called the annulus of Zinn and are inserted into the sclera.</li><li>• All the extraocular muscles are innervated by the oculomotor (III) except Superior Oblique (Trochlear nerve, IV) and Lateral rectus (Abducens, VI)</li><li>• All the extraocular muscles are innervated by the oculomotor (III) except Superior Oblique (Trochlear nerve, IV) and Lateral rectus (Abducens, VI)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Oculomotor nerve: This nerve innervates most of the extraocular muscles except for the superior oblique and the lateral rectus. It does not innervate the structure marked in the image, which is the superior oblique muscle.</li><li>• Option A. Oculomotor nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Trigeminal nerve: This nerve primarily provides sensory innervation to the face and does not innervate any of the extraocular muscles, including the superior oblique.</li><li>• Option C. Trigeminal nerve:</li><li>• Option D. Abducens nerve: This nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle only, which abducts the eye. It does not innervate the superior oblique muscle.</li><li>• Option D. Abducens nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The superior oblique muscle, is uniquely innervated by the trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV), which is the only cranial nerve that exits the brainstem dorsally. This muscle functions to depress, abduct, and internally rotate the eyeball, and it is the only extraocular muscle innervated by the trochlear nerve. Remembering this specific innervation is crucial for diagnosing and managing ocular motility disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Marked structure is derived from the?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endocardial cushions", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Septum primum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left venous valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bulbous venosus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endocardial cushions", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-80.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-81.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-82.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Endocardial cushions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The interventricular septum's membranous portion is the indicated structure. It comes from the endocardial cushions.</li><li>• Endocardial cushions are soft tissue masses that protrude in the atrioventricular and conotruncal regions. Atrioventricular cushions are derived from overlying endocardial cells. The conotruncal cushions are derived from the neural crest cells.</li><li>• Endocardial cushions are soft tissue masses that protrude in the atrioventricular and conotruncal regions. Atrioventricular cushions are derived from overlying endocardial cells. The conotruncal cushions are derived from the neural crest cells.</li><li>• Atrioventricular cushions are derived from overlying endocardial cells. The conotruncal cushions are derived from the neural crest cells.</li><li>• Atrioventricular cushions are derived from overlying endocardial cells.</li><li>• The conotruncal cushions are derived from the neural crest cells.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Option B. Septum primum: The septum primum is involved in the development of the atrial septum, not the interventricular septum. It forms a temporary structure in the embryonic heart that helps separate the atria.</li><li>• Option B. Septum primum:</li><li>• Option C. Left venous valve: The left venous valve is not directly involved in the formation of the interventricular septum. It is a structure found within the embryonic heart that helps direct oxygenated blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle.</li><li>• Option C. Left venous valve:</li><li>• Option D. Bulbous venosus: The bulbous venosus is an embryonic structure that contributes to the formation of the smooth part of the right ventricle. It is not associated with the development of the interventricular septum.</li><li>• Option D. Bulbous venosus:</li><li>• Cardiac abnormalities, such as ASs, VSDs, and anomalies affecting the major arteries, can be caused by errors in the creation of the endocardial cushion (transposition of the great vessels, common truncus arterious, and tetralogy of Fallot).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endocardial cushions contribute to the formation of:</li><li>➤ Atrial septa Ventricular septa (membranous portion) Atrioventricular canals Atrioventricular valves</li><li>➤ Atrial septa</li><li>➤ Ventricular septa (membranous portion)</li><li>➤ Atrioventricular canals</li><li>➤ Atrioventricular valves</li><li>➤ The membranous portion of the interventricular septum develops from the endocardial cushions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On finding a congenital heart block in a fetus which of the following conditions would you evaluate for in the mother? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "APLA syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital heart defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SLE", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. SLE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) SLE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital heart block (CHB) in a fetus is associated with maternal antibodies to SS-A (Ro) or SS-B (La), commonly seen in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 722</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 722</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Restriction endonuclease will act on which of the following? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AAGAAG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GAGAGG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AAGCTT", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "TACGAG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. AAGCTT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) AAGCTT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Restriction endonucleases act and cleave at the site of a palindromic sequence, such as:</li><li>➤ 5' --AAGCTT-- 3'</li><li>➤ 3' --TTCGAA-- 5'</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which gene is not involved in SCID? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BTK", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "JAK-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RAG1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IL-7Ra", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. BTK", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) BTK</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SCID is caused by mutations in several different genes</li><li>➤ JAK3 RAG1 IL-7Ra</li><li>➤ JAK3</li><li>➤ JAK3</li><li>➤ RAG1</li><li>➤ RAG1</li><li>➤ IL-7Ra</li><li>➤ IL-7Ra</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 438-439</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg 438-439</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used in the treatment of hypercalcemia due to Vitamin D toxicity? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dexamethasone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydroxychloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketoconazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dexamethasone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Dexamethasone, Bisphosphonates, IV fluids, Loop diuretics, Calcitonin are used in the management of Hypercalcemia.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - (Harrison/Endocrinology/Hypercalcemia)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old public health nurse is attending a seminar on primary prevention strategies. She needs to identify interventions that fall under specific protection, a subset of primary prevention. Which of the following interventions does NOT come under the primary level of prevention for specific protection? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meningitis prophylaxis in exposed contacts/relatives", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hand washing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adding iron to wheat flour", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hand washing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hand washing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hand washing is a health promotion measure and does not fall under specific protection in primary prevention strategies. Note - Chinese Medicine is the Pioneer in concept of ‘Specific protection by vaccine’</li><li>➤ Hand washing is a health promotion measure and does not fall under specific protection in primary prevention strategies.</li><li>➤ Note - Chinese Medicine is the Pioneer in concept of ‘Specific protection by vaccine’</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which toxin acts via the mechanism depicted in the image below? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Botulinum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pertussis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Botulinum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/screenshot-2024-07-01-110223.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/screenshot-2024-07-01-110414.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Botulinum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Botulinum toxin causes flaccid paralysis by preventing the release of acetylcholine at peripheral nerve endings through the proteolysis of SNARE proteins necessary for acetylcholine vesicle exocytosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with renal failure develops vomiting in ICU. ABG analysis showed pH - 7.4, Na+ = 145 mEq/L, Cl- = 100 mEq/L, HC03- = 24mEq/L, PaC02 = 40 mmHg. What is the likely metabolic abnormality? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal ABG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Normal anion gap, metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "High anion gap metabolic alkalosis with normal metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In patients with renal failure and symptoms like vomiting, it's crucial to evaluate both the anion gap and changes in bicarbonate to identify complex acid-base disturbances such as the coexistence of high anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a 25-year-old man who visited a primary health center with complaints as shown in the image below, 5 days after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse. The patient experienced painful ulcers upon palpation, and there was suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy on the right side. Additionally, the patient has no history of drug allergy. What specific kit will be used for managing this sexually transmitted disease? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kit 6/Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kit 2/green", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kit 3/white", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kit 1/grey", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kit 3/white", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/2_Py1ZGSh.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13539.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13540_WqInQ3d.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Kit 3/white</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When managing a patient presenting with painful genital ulcers and suppurative lymphadenopathy (Bubo) , the primary consideration is to treat for chancroid which is a STI, typically with a kit containing appropriate antibiotics.</li><li>➤ When managing a patient presenting with painful genital ulcers and suppurative lymphadenopathy (Bubo) , the primary consideration is to treat for chancroid which is a STI, typically with a kit containing appropriate antibiotics.</li><li>➤ painful genital ulcers</li><li>➤ suppurative lymphadenopathy (Bubo)</li><li>➤ chancroid</li><li>➤ Kit 3/white consists of:</li><li>➤ Kit 3/white consists of:</li><li>➤ Tablet Azithromycin, which is used for the treatment of chancroid. Injection Benzathine Penicillin, which is used for syphilis.</li><li>➤ Tablet Azithromycin, which is used for the treatment of chancroid.</li><li>➤ Injection Benzathine Penicillin, which is used for syphilis.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II - 9th Edition, Chapter 30 Page no 30.21</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II - 9th Edition, Chapter 30 Page no 30.21</li><li>➤ Online Resource</li><li>➤ Online Resource</li><li>➤ https://www.uptodate.com/contents/chancroid?source=search_result HYPERLINK \"https://www.uptodate.com/contents/chancroid?source=search_result&amp;search=chancroid&amp;selectedTitle=1~47\"&amp; HYPERLINK \"https://www.uptodate.com/contents/chancroid?source=search_result</li><li>➤ https://www.uptodate.com/contents/chancroid?source=search_result HYPERLINK \"https://www.uptodate.com/contents/chancroid?source=search_result&amp;search=chancroid&amp;selectedTitle=1~47\"&amp; HYPERLINK \"https://www.uptodate.com/contents/chancroid?source=search_result</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which causative agent is responsible for the 4-year-old boy's condition, characterized by painful mouth sores, a rash on the hands, and fever as shown below? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pox virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coxsackievirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HHV-7", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parvovirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coxsackievirus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-125720.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-130109.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coxsackievirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The clinical presentation of fever, painful oral sores , and a vesicular rash on the hands and feet in a young child is characteristic of Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease , which is most commonly caused by Coxsackievirus.</li><li>➤ fever, painful oral sores</li><li>➤ vesicular rash</li><li>➤ hands and feet</li><li>➤ child</li><li>➤ Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease</li><li>➤ most commonly</li><li>➤ Coxsackievirus.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition, Chapter 25 Page no 25.81, chapter 117, Page no 117.6</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition, Chapter 25 Page no 25.81, chapter 117, Page no 117.6</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology, 9 th edition, Page no 1591</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology, 9 th edition, Page no 1591</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with flu-like symptoms after a camping trip and multiple insect bites. You suspect a vector-borne illness. Which pathogen is likely if the vector is a Trombiculid mite? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kyasanur forest disease virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orientia tsutsugamushi", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chandipura virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaplasma phagocytophilia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Orientia tsutsugamushi", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip42.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture5666.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/image.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture7666.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Orientia tsutsugamushi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orientia tsutsugamushi, transmitted by Trombiculid mites, causes scrub typhus.</li><li>➤ Orientia tsutsugamushi, transmitted by Trombiculid mites, causes scrub typhus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding investigation of malignant bone tumors? (AIIMS NOV 2019) Always done by transverse incision. Sample should be taken from 2 different planes. Sample should be taken before any radiological investigations. Sample should be taken from periphery and not from necrotic centre.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, b, c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a and c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "b and d are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, b, c, d are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. b and d are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) b and d are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Longitudinal incision is given for bone biopsy. Sample should be taken from 2 different planes. Radiological investigations are usually done before the biopsy. It is better to take tissue at the periphery of the lesion, where there are viable cells. On the contrary, necrosis and so nondiagnostic tissue are usually present within the tumor.</li><li>➤ Longitudinal incision is given for bone biopsy.</li><li>➤ Sample should be taken from 2 different planes.</li><li>➤ Radiological investigations are usually done before the biopsy.</li><li>➤ It is better to take tissue at the periphery of the lesion, where there are viable cells. On the contrary, necrosis and so nondiagnostic tissue are usually present within the tumor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Deep y descent in Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP) is seen in all of the following conditions except: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Constrictive pericarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tricuspid regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cardiac tamponade", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cardiac Tamponade</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In cardiac tamponade, the presence of fluid in the pericardial space restricts all phases of cardiac filling, leading to a blunted or absent y descent, differentiating it from conditions where a deep y descent is observed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The procedure displayed below is? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nasogastric tube insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orogastric tube Insertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oropharyngeal airway insertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Orogastric tube Insertion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/105_r2ydN0d.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Orogastric tube insertion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orogastric tube insertion involves placing a tube through the mouth into the stomach and is used for rehydration and nutritional support in pediatric patients, particularly those with dehydration or severe illness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Stage the bedsore in the following image: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-662.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-161307.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Stage 4 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness tissue loss with visible muscle, bone, or supporting structures, making them the most severe and challenging to manage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Like all the opioids, tramadol acts as an analgesic drug by stimulating mu opioid receptors. Apart from this, the additional analgesic mechanism of tramadol is? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serotonin and nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anticholinergic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antihistaminic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serotonin and dopamine reuptake inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Serotonin and nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Serotonin and nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tramadol provides pain relief not only through mu opioid receptor agonism but also by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline, thereby activating the descending inhibitory pain pathways in the spinal cord.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8th/504</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are small round blue cell tumors except: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemangioblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ewing's sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neuroblastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hemangioblastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hemangioblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemangioblastoma is not classified as a small round blue cell tumor, unlike Ewing's sarcoma, retinoblastoma, and neuroblastoma.</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 882</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 882</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument shown below used in laparoscopic surgeries? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Veress needle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morris' needle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yankauer suction tip", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Von Graefe needle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Veress needle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-660.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Veress needle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The use of the Veress needle helps to minimize the risk of injury to surrounding organs and tissues during laparoscopic procedures. It is typically used at the beginning of the procedure, after which the laparoscope and other instruments are inserted through separate ports or trocars placed in the abdomen. The Veress needle is then removed and the incision closed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following can be seen intracellularly in hepatocytes except: (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toxoplasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasmodium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Babesia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leishmania", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Babesia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Babesia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obligate intracellular parasites-</li><li>➤ Trypanosoma cruzi Leishmania spp. Plasmodium spp. Babesia spp. -&gt; RBC Toxoplasma gondii Microsporidia</li><li>➤ Trypanosoma cruzi</li><li>➤ Leishmania spp.</li><li>➤ Plasmodium spp.</li><li>➤ Babesia spp. -&gt; RBC</li><li>➤ Toxoplasma gondii</li><li>➤ Microsporidia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What dose of epinephrine is used in anaphylactic shock? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1:10000 I.V. - 10 ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1:1000 I.M. - 0.5 ml", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1:1000 I.M. - 1 ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1:1000 I.V. - 0.5 ml", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1:1000 I.M. - 0.5 ml", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-103204.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1:1000 I.M. - 0.5 ml</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "By which mechanism does gene repair occur when mediated by CRISPR-Cas9?( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Base excision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non- Homologous End Joining", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Homologous End Joining", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mismatch repair", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Non- Homologous End Joining", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Non-Homologous End joining</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CRISPR-Cas9 mediated gene repair primarily occurs through Non-Homologous End Joining (NHEJ), an error-prone repair process that ligates broken DNA ends together, often resulting in small insertions or deletions at the repair site.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A new vaccine has been developed to target the 23 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae . This polysaccharide vaccine promises to reduce the morbidity and mortality associated with pneumococcal infections, particularly in certain high-risk groups. Which of the following patient groups would most likely derive the most benefit from this vaccine? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A child &lt; 2 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A patient with sickle cell disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A patient with cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A patient with recurrent otitis media", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A patient with sickle cell disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A patient with sickle cell disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The PPSV-23 vaccine is most beneficial for patients with sickle cell disease due to their increased susceptibility to pneumococcal infections caused by compromised spleen function.</li><li>➤ The PPSV-23 vaccine is most beneficial for patients with sickle cell disease due to their increased susceptibility to pneumococcal infections caused by compromised spleen function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What was ETDRS study related to? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central retinal artery occlusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diabetic Macular edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary open angle glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-infectious uveitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Diabetic Macular edema", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Diabetic Macular edema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ETDRS study established the beneficial effects of photocoagulation in treating diabetic macular edema, recommending it as an early treatment option to prevent vision loss in patients with clinically significant macular edema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female patient undergoes surgery for a clean-contaminated wound after receiving prophylactic antibiotics. What is the expected rate of surgical site infection in this patient? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-2%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "13-20%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20-30%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-154011.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 3%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A surgical site infection (SSI) is an infection that occurs at or near a surgical incision or operative site after surgery. SSIs can range from mild to severe and can affect the skin and underlying tissues, including muscles and organs. These infections are a common complication of surgery and can lead to various health problems if not treated promptly.</li><li>➤ Key characteristics and considerations related to surgical site infections (SSIs) include:</li><li>➤ Classification: SSIs are classified into three main categories based on the timing of onset: Superficial Incisional SSI: Infection occurs within 30 days after the operation and involves only the skin and subcutaneous tissues at the incision site. Deep Incisional SSI: Infection also occurs within 30 days after the operation but involves deeper tissues, such as muscles and fascia, at the incision site. Organ/Space SSI: Infection can occur within 30 or 90 days after the operation and affects any part of the body other than the incision area. This can include infections within the abdominal or chest cavities. Signs and Symptoms: The symptoms of an SSI may include redness, warmth, swelling, pain, and discharge at or near the surgical site. Systemic symptoms like fever, chills, and malaise can also occur if the infection is severe or has spread. Prevention: Preventive measures are crucial in reducing the risk of SSIs. These measures include: Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis Proper hand hygiene and sterile techniques during surgery Maintaining a clean surgical environment Adequate skin preparation before incision Proper wound care and postoperative monitoring Treatment: Treatment of an SSI typically involves antibiotics to target the specific bacteria causing the infection. In some cases, additional interventions may be necessary, such as wound drainage, debridement (removal of infected tissue), or, rarely, reoperation. Complications: If left untreated or not managed appropriately, SSIs can lead to more serious complications, such as abscess formation, cellulitis, tissue necrosis, and the spread of infection to other parts of the body.</li><li>➤ Classification: SSIs are classified into three main categories based on the timing of onset: Superficial Incisional SSI: Infection occurs within 30 days after the operation and involves only the skin and subcutaneous tissues at the incision site. Deep Incisional SSI: Infection also occurs within 30 days after the operation but involves deeper tissues, such as muscles and fascia, at the incision site. Organ/Space SSI: Infection can occur within 30 or 90 days after the operation and affects any part of the body other than the incision area. This can include infections within the abdominal or chest cavities.</li><li>➤ Classification:</li><li>➤ SSIs are classified into three main categories based on the timing of onset: Superficial Incisional SSI: Infection occurs within 30 days after the operation and involves only the skin and subcutaneous tissues at the incision site. Deep Incisional SSI: Infection also occurs within 30 days after the operation but involves deeper tissues, such as muscles and fascia, at the incision site. Organ/Space SSI: Infection can occur within 30 or 90 days after the operation and affects any part of the body other than the incision area. This can include infections within the abdominal or chest cavities.</li><li>➤ SSIs are classified into three main categories based on the timing of onset:</li><li>➤ Superficial Incisional SSI: Infection occurs within 30 days after the operation and involves only the skin and subcutaneous tissues at the incision site.</li><li>➤ Deep Incisional SSI: Infection also occurs within 30 days after the operation but involves deeper tissues, such as muscles and fascia, at the incision site.</li><li>➤ Organ/Space SSI: Infection can occur within 30 or 90 days after the operation and affects any part of the body other than the incision area. This can include infections within the abdominal or chest cavities.</li><li>➤ Signs and Symptoms: The symptoms of an SSI may include redness, warmth, swelling, pain, and discharge at or near the surgical site. Systemic symptoms like fever, chills, and malaise can also occur if the infection is severe or has spread.</li><li>➤ Signs and Symptoms:</li><li>➤ The symptoms of an SSI may include redness, warmth, swelling, pain, and discharge at or near the surgical site. Systemic symptoms like fever, chills, and malaise can also occur if the infection is severe or has spread.</li><li>➤ The symptoms of an SSI may include redness, warmth, swelling, pain, and discharge at or near the surgical site.</li><li>➤ Systemic symptoms like fever, chills, and malaise can also occur if the infection is severe or has spread.</li><li>➤ Prevention: Preventive measures are crucial in reducing the risk of SSIs. These measures include: Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis Proper hand hygiene and sterile techniques during surgery Maintaining a clean surgical environment Adequate skin preparation before incision Proper wound care and postoperative monitoring</li><li>➤ Prevention:</li><li>➤ Preventive measures are crucial in reducing the risk of SSIs. These measures include: Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis Proper hand hygiene and sterile techniques during surgery Maintaining a clean surgical environment Adequate skin preparation before incision Proper wound care and postoperative monitoring</li><li>➤ Preventive measures are crucial in reducing the risk of SSIs. These measures include: Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis Proper hand hygiene and sterile techniques during surgery Maintaining a clean surgical environment Adequate skin preparation before incision Proper wound care and postoperative monitoring</li><li>➤ Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis Proper hand hygiene and sterile techniques during surgery Maintaining a clean surgical environment Adequate skin preparation before incision Proper wound care and postoperative monitoring</li><li>➤ Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis</li><li>➤ Proper hand hygiene and sterile techniques during surgery</li><li>➤ Maintaining a clean surgical environment</li><li>➤ Adequate skin preparation before incision</li><li>➤ Proper wound care and postoperative monitoring</li><li>➤ Treatment: Treatment of an SSI typically involves antibiotics to target the specific bacteria causing the infection. In some cases, additional interventions may be necessary, such as wound drainage, debridement (removal of infected tissue), or, rarely, reoperation.</li><li>➤ Treatment:</li><li>➤ Treatment of an SSI typically involves antibiotics to target the specific bacteria causing the infection. In some cases, additional interventions may be necessary, such as wound drainage, debridement (removal of infected tissue), or, rarely, reoperation.</li><li>➤ Treatment of an SSI typically involves antibiotics to target the specific bacteria causing the infection.</li><li>➤ In some cases, additional interventions may be necessary, such as wound drainage, debridement (removal of infected tissue), or, rarely, reoperation.</li><li>➤ Complications: If left untreated or not managed appropriately, SSIs can lead to more serious complications, such as abscess formation, cellulitis, tissue necrosis, and the spread of infection to other parts of the body.</li><li>➤ Complications:</li><li>➤ If left untreated or not managed appropriately, SSIs can lead to more serious complications, such as abscess formation, cellulitis, tissue necrosis, and the spread of infection to other parts of the body.</li><li>➤ If left untreated or not managed appropriately, SSIs can lead to more serious complications, such as abscess formation, cellulitis, tissue necrosis, and the spread of infection to other parts of the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms cause multiple alveolar-like lesions in the liver? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echinococcus multilocularis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Echinococcus granulosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Entamoeba histolvtica", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cysticercus cellulose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Echinococcus multilocularis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Echinococcus multilocularis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Echinococcus multilocularis causes multiple alveolar-like lesions in the liver, leading to a serious condition known as alveolar echinococcosis. The prognosis is poor without treatment, emphasizing the importance of early detection and appropriate therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these labeled structures represents a division of the internal carotid artery? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/31_sui9nIs.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/32_vngPIsW.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vascular Supply of the Nasal Cavity:</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 198</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 198</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newly established hospital aims to maintain the highest standards of care and ensure patient safety by standardizing injection practices among health workers. They seek a reliable method for real-time assessment of these practices. Which of the following would be the most appropriate method to monitor the injection practices of health workers? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct observation with a structured checklist", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Closed circuit camera surveillance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "In-depth interview with the patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In-depth interview with the healthcare provider", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Direct observation with a structured checklist", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-104556.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Direct observation with a structured checklist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most effective approach for assessing the injection practices of healthcare workers is through direct observation using a structured checklist.</li><li>➤ The most effective approach for assessing the injection practices of healthcare workers is through direct observation using a structured checklist.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the clinical diagnosis: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facial nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Masticator space abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plexiform neurofibromatosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibrous dysplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Plexiform neurofibromatosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm119.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Plexiform neurofibromatosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plexiform neurofibromatosis should be suspected in patients with extensive, soft, non-tender, and irregularly contoured masses along nerve pathways, particularly in those known to have or suspected of having NF1. Surgical resection can be considered for symptomatic relief or cosmetic reasons, though complete removal is often challenging due to the nature of the growth</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Evaluate the following statements with respect to CTEV.(AIIMS NOV 2019) 50% cases are in males and are bilateral Forefoot is adducted and supinated With Ponsetti technique, correction is up to 90% Equinus should be corrected first", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, b, c are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "a and c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "b and d are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, b, c, d are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. a, b, c are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. a, b, c are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In CTEV, male children are more affected than females. 50% of cases of CTEV have bilateral lower limb involvement. There is forefoot adduction and supination in cases of CTEV. Ponseti method of conservative treatment gives correction of up to 90%.</li><li>➤ In CTEV, male children are more affected than females.</li><li>➤ In CTEV, male children are more affected than females.</li><li>➤ 50% of cases of CTEV have bilateral lower limb involvement.</li><li>➤ 50% of cases of CTEV have bilateral lower limb involvement.</li><li>➤ There is forefoot adduction and supination in cases of CTEV.</li><li>➤ There is forefoot adduction and supination in cases of CTEV.</li><li>➤ Ponseti method of conservative treatment gives correction of up to 90%.</li><li>➤ Ponseti method of conservative treatment gives correction of up to 90%.</li><li>➤ Equinus deformity is corrected at last, following the C-A-V-E sequence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "β 1-3 glucan assay is used to diagnose all except? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumocystis pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mucormycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mucormycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The β 1-3 glucan assay is not effective for diagnosing mucormycosis because the fungi causing mucormycosis (Mucor, Rhizopus) either lack (1-3)-β-D-glucan or produce it at minimal levels. This assay is useful for diagnosing fungal infections like candidiasis, aspergillosis, and Pneumocystis pneumonia which involve fungi that produce significant levels of BDG.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient with a history of liver cirrhosis presents to the emergency room with active variceal bleeding. Which of the following interventions is not typically performed in this situation? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platelet transfusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arrange PRBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV Octreotide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urgent Endoscopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Platelet transfusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Platelet transfusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management of variceal bleeding:</li><li>➤ Initial resuscitation: The first step in the management of variceal bleeding is to stabilize the patient with aggressive resuscitation measures, including airway management, fluid and blood product resuscitation, and correction of coagulopathy. Endoscopy: Early endoscopy allows for the identification of the bleeding site and the application of endoscopic therapies such as band ligation or sclerotherapy. Pharmacological therapy: Vasopressin and its analogs (such as terlipressin) are commonly used in the management of variceal bleeding to decrease portal pressure and reduce the risk of re-bleeding. Antibiotics: Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended in patients with variceal bleeding to reduce the risk of bacterial infections, such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS): In patients with recurrent bleeding despite endoscopic and pharmacological therapy, TIPS may be considered to reduce portal pressure and prevent further bleeding. Surgery: In rare cases, surgical intervention may be necessary to control variceal bleeding, particularly in patients with refractory bleeding or severe liver disease.</li><li>➤ Initial resuscitation: The first step in the management of variceal bleeding is to stabilize the patient with aggressive resuscitation measures, including airway management, fluid and blood product resuscitation, and correction of coagulopathy.</li><li>➤ Endoscopy: Early endoscopy allows for the identification of the bleeding site and the application of endoscopic therapies such as band ligation or sclerotherapy.</li><li>➤ Pharmacological therapy: Vasopressin and its analogs (such as terlipressin) are commonly used in the management of variceal bleeding to decrease portal pressure and reduce the risk of re-bleeding.</li><li>➤ Antibiotics: Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended in patients with variceal bleeding to reduce the risk of bacterial infections, such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.</li><li>➤ Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS): In patients with recurrent bleeding despite endoscopic and pharmacological therapy, TIPS may be considered to reduce portal pressure and prevent further bleeding.</li><li>➤ Surgery: In rare cases, surgical intervention may be necessary to control variceal bleeding, particularly in patients with refractory bleeding or severe liver disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was prescribed escitalopram. Which of the following adverse effect is the least likely?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nausea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vivid dreams", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anorgasmia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sialorrhea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sialorrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sialorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Side effects of SSRIs include:</li><li>➤ Most common: Nausea Most common long-term side effects: Sexual dysfunction including delayed orgasm, poor erection and low libido. CNS side effects- Paradoxical anxiety, sedation, vivid dreams, sweating, seizures, EPSE etc. QTc prolongation Weight gain</li><li>➤ Most common: Nausea</li><li>➤ Most common long-term side effects: Sexual dysfunction including delayed orgasm, poor erection and low libido.</li><li>➤ CNS side effects- Paradoxical anxiety, sedation, vivid dreams, sweating, seizures, EPSE etc.</li><li>➤ QTc prolongation</li><li>➤ Weight gain</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 3156-3158</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following would have no effect on the function of the protein product? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutamine replaced by asparagine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glutamine replaced by alanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glutamine replaced by glutamate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glutamine replaced by arginine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glutamine replaced by asparagine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glutamine replaced by asparagine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Conservative replacements, such as replacing glutamine with asparagine, typically do not affect the protein's function because the substituted amino acids have similar properties. Radical replacements, involving amino acids with different properties, are more likely to impact protein function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient with RTA sustained an open fracture of femur which was operated and stabilized as shown below. Identify the fixator.(AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "K nail", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rail fixator", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ilizarov fixator", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proximal femoral nail", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rail fixator", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture3_Wufh0hr.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-152913.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture4_EBdZbBT.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-154014.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-154053.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture5_YcVvWWB.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture6_jJ1IJcg.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture7_71GgakL.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rail fixator</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fixator shown in the image in the question is a Rail Fixator, used to treat open fractures to fill the bone gap.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child presents with pain and swelling in the left side of his scrotum. The surgeon suspects testicular torsion based on the clinical presentation. Which is the most appropriate next step in management? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate exploration on both symptomatic and asymptomatic side", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immediate exploration on symptomatic side only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delayed exploration on both symptomatic and asymptomatic side", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delayed exploration on symptomatic side only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Immediate exploration on both symptomatic and asymptomatic side", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Immediate exploration on both symptomatic and asymptomatic side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management of testicular torsion:</li><li>➤ Timely diagnosis: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency and requires prompt diagnosis and management to salvage the testis as the blood supply to the testicle is compromised due to the twisting of the spermatic cord within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in ischemia of the epididymis and the testis. Surgery: The definitive management of testicular torsion is surgical exploration with detorsion and fixation of the testis to prevent future torsion. The surgery should be performed within 6 hours of the onset of symptoms to maximize the chances of testicular salvage. At the time of surgical exploration contralateral testes also must be explored and fixed as the same anatomic defect can allow torsion on the contralateral side.</li><li>➤ Timely diagnosis: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency and requires prompt diagnosis and management to salvage the testis as the blood supply to the testicle is compromised due to the twisting of the spermatic cord within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in ischemia of the epididymis and the testis.</li><li>➤ Timely diagnosis:</li><li>➤ Surgery: The definitive management of testicular torsion is surgical exploration with detorsion and fixation of the testis to prevent future torsion. The surgery should be performed within 6 hours of the onset of symptoms to maximize the chances of testicular salvage. At the time of surgical exploration contralateral testes also must be explored and fixed as the same anatomic defect can allow torsion on the contralateral side.</li><li>➤ Surgery:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the use of the given instrument?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To hold bone and plate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To hold bone fragments with traction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "To cut the bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "For creating a gap in wound", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. To hold bone fragments with traction", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_118.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture25.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/page0007.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture26.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture27.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) To hold bone fragments with traction.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• BONE HOLDING FORCEPS</li><li>• BONE HOLDING FORCEPS</li><li>• Bone holding forceps are used to manipulate bone fragments in place during surgery. They are typically used in orthopedic procedures, such as the repair of fractures or the realignment of bones. These forceps are designed to grip the bone securely without damaging it, and can be adjusted to apply the appropriate amount of force to hold the bone in the desired position.</li><li>• Bone holding forceps are used to manipulate bone fragments in place during surgery.</li><li>• They are typically used in orthopedic procedures, such as the repair of fractures or the realignment of bones.</li><li>• These forceps are designed to grip the bone securely without damaging it, and can be adjusted to apply the appropriate amount of force to hold the bone in the desired position.</li><li>• They allow for more precise manipulation of the bones during surgery and can help ensure the success of the procedure.</li><li>• They allow for more precise manipulation of the bones during surgery and can help ensure the success of the procedure.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. To hold bone and plate . For this purpose, a Bone-Plate Holding Forcep is used. They are designed to aid in the reduction of fractures and can help secure a plate in place during installation . Aid in the reduction of fractures such as spiral, transverse, compound, oblique, or butterfly. The clamp can also be used to secure a plate in place while the screw holes are being drilled and screws inserted. The fracture site can also be manipulated with the clamp being used as a lever. It has teeth in the jaws for a better grip and a ratchet locking handle for use on various bone diameters.</li><li>• Option A. To hold bone and plate</li><li>• Option C. To cut the bone . For this purpose, a Bone Cutter is used.</li><li>• Option C. To cut the bone</li><li>• Option D. For creating a gap in wound. Wound Spreader is a specialized device that is used to grasp, retract and manipulate the edges of wounds and incisions, in order to spread the space between them and localize surgical targets with ease.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• For creating a gap in wound. Wound Spreader</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To hold the bone with traction during the surgical procedure, a Bone Holding Forcep is used.</li><li>➤ To hold the bone with traction during the surgical procedure, a Bone Holding Forcep is used.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a xenodiagnostic method? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rabbit ileal loop assay for ETEC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Injecting Aedes thorax with blood of a patient with suspected dengue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Injecting a hamster with splenic biopsy for diagnosis of leishmaniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intradermal test on guinea pigs for toxigenicity of Corynebacterium diphtheria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Injecting Aedes thorax with blood of a patient with suspected dengue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Injecting Aedes thorax with blood of a patient with suspected dengue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Xenodiagnosis involves using a vector to detect the presence of pathogens by allowing the vector to feed on or be injected with the patient's tissue, then examining the vector for the pathogen. Injecting Aedes thorax with blood of a patient with suspected dengue is a classic example of this diagnostic method.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a large, deep wound and the healthcare provider decides to use a specific wound-healing procedure. What is the principle behind the wound-healing procedure shown in the image below? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Negative pressure wound therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive pressure wound therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foam therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sponge therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Negative pressure wound therapy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-661.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Negative pressure wound therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ VAC therapy = vacuum assisted closure therapy</li><li>➤ Mechanism of action: VAC therapy involves the application of negative pressure (-125 mm of hg) to a wound to promote wound healing. The negative pressure removes excess fluid and promotes the formation of granulation tissue and new blood vessels. Indications: VAC therapy is commonly used for the management of complex wounds, such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure ulcers, and surgical wounds. It can also be used to manage wounds with high risk of infection. Procedure: VAC therapy involves placing a foam dressing over the wound and covering it with an adhesive film. A tube is then inserted through the film and connected to a vacuum pump, which applies negative pressure to the wound. The pressure can be adjusted to provide the optimal level of tension for the specific wound.</li><li>➤ Mechanism of action: VAC therapy involves the application of negative pressure (-125 mm of hg) to a wound to promote wound healing. The negative pressure removes excess fluid and promotes the formation of granulation tissue and new blood vessels.</li><li>➤ Mechanism of action:</li><li>➤ Indications: VAC therapy is commonly used for the management of complex wounds, such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure ulcers, and surgical wounds. It can also be used to manage wounds with high risk of infection.</li><li>➤ Indications:</li><li>➤ Procedure: VAC therapy involves placing a foam dressing over the wound and covering it with an adhesive film. A tube is then inserted through the film and connected to a vacuum pump, which applies negative pressure to the wound. The pressure can be adjusted to provide the optimal level of tension for the specific wound.</li><li>➤ Procedure:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ciliocytophthoria is seen in? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute respiratory infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kartagener syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Situs inversus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute respiratory infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acute respiratory infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ciliocytophthoria, the degeneration of ciliated cells, is typically seen in viral infections, such as acute respiratory infections.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1292</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1292</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young marathon runner is participating in a marathon competition. After running for 100 m, he develops pain at the anteromedial aspect of tibia which was mild to start with, but increased on further running. X-ray was normal. The doctor ordered a bone scan. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lisfranc fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Jones fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shin splint", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nutcracker fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Shin splint", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture1_fqIXgzu.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture2_enik85f.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Shin splint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Lisfranc fracture. A Lisfranc dislocation is a spectrum of injuries involving the tarsometatarsal joints of the foot. The Lisfranc joint is composed of the articulation between the first, second, and third metatarsals bones, and the cuneiform bones. Injury of the joint can range from complete tarsometatarsal displacement with associated fractures and ligamentous tears to partial sprains with no displacement. Lisfranc injuries are uncommon and are often misdiagnosed. Even when recognized and treated promptly, there is still a high risk for chronic disability and complications. There are two main mechanisms of injury: direct, and indirect. A direct mechanism occurs as a crush injury to the joint from motor vehicle collision or industrial accident. An indirect injury is more common and is often associated with sports participation involving a longitudinal force with the foot in plantarflexion with a medial or lateral rotational force. The patient presents with complaint of midfoot pain with weight-bearing, following an acute injury. The pain worsens by forefoot weight bearing, and the patient may describe pain or difficulty with the push-off phases of walking and/or running. There is pain with abduction and eversion of the forefoot. Pain can also commonly be reproduced with passive pronation or supination of the tarsometatarsal joint. Radiographic findings show misalignment of the lateral margin of the first metatarsal base with the lateral edge of the medial cuneiform, misalignment of the medial aspect of the second metatarsal base with the medial edge of the middle cuneiform, and/or small avulsion fragments a one of metatarsal or cuneiform bones. On oblique view, the medial aspect of the cuboid should line up with the medial aspect of the fourth metatarsal base. The dorsal cortex of the first metatarsal and medial cuneiform should be aligned on the lateral radiographs. Lisfranc injuries can be managed operatively. Initial treatment includes reduction, splinting, and elevation. After six weeks, if the patient is non-tender and radiographs are negative, then begin weight-bearing and rehabilitation. If there is any tenderness but no displacement, then the patient should be in a boot or cast for at least another four weeks before starting rehabilitation. Any displacement requires surgical fixation.</li><li>• Option A. Lisfranc fracture.</li><li>• Option B. Jones fracture. A Jones fracture is a fracture of the proximal metadiaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal bone that involves the 4 th -5 th metatarsal articulation. The fracture occurs as a result of significant adduction force to the forefoot with the ankle in plantar flexion. On a plain radiograph, Jones fracture is located at the metadiaphyseal junction, approximately 2 cm (1.5-3 cm) from the tip of the 5 th metatarsal and has a predominantly horizontal course. It should not extend distally. Jones fractures are particularly prone to non-union due to being in a vascular watershed zone and take longer than two months to heal. Displacement of the fracture can increase with persistent weight-bearing; therefore, immobilization is important, with a non-weight bearing cast for 6-8 weeks. Indications for non-operative management include undisplaced fractures and fractures in patients with limited activity (i.e. recreational athletes). Operative management is indicated in patients that are elite or competitive athletes or when delayed union has occurred. Management includes either intramedullary screw fixation or open reduction and internal fixation.</li><li>• Option B. Jones fracture.</li><li>• Jones fracture</li><li>• Option D. Nutcracker fracture. A nutcracker fracture refers to a cuboid bone fracture with associated navicular avulsion fracture due to compression between the bases of 4 th and 5 th metatarsals and calcaneus bone. The injury usually occurs secondary to the traumatic abduction of the forefoot. This results in loss of the normal lateral column support and excess valgus force upon the medial column that commonly causes rupture of tibialis posterior tendon or avulsion fracture of its attachment onto medial aspect of the tarsal navicular bone. Nutcracker fractures are clinically significant because they can interfere with the medchanical alignment of the foot.</li><li>• Option D. Nutcracker fracture.</li><li>• nutcracker fracture</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Shint splint or stress fracture of tibia is the most common injury in runners.</li><li>• Shint splint or stress fracture of tibia is the most common injury in runners.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The CLED medium is preferred over other media for the culture of organisms in case of UTI because: (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It inhibits proteus swarming", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It promotes the growth of candida, streptococcus and staphylococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It differentiates between lactose-fermenting and non-lactose fermenting bacteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It promotes the growth of pseudomonas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It inhibits proteus swarming", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. It inhibits proteus swarming</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystine-Lactose-Electrolyte-Deficient (CLED) medium is a differential medium used for the isolation and enumeration of bacteria from urine. The medium supports the growth of all urinary potential pathogens and provides distinct colony morphology. It supports the growth of urinary pathogens and contaminants and gives good colonial differentiation without the spread of Proteus species due to its lack of electrolytes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Evaluate the following statements with respect to intertrochanteric fracture: ( AIIMS Nov 2019) More common in males than females. 1 year mortality rate is 20-30%. It is more commonly associated with nonunion than fracture neck of femur. 1 year mortality can be reduced by operating within 48 hours.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, b, c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a and c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "b and d are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, b, c, d are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. b and d are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-155254_OXXasFn.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-155523.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) b and d are correct.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• INTERTROCHANTERIC FRACTURE FEMUR</li><li>• INTERTROCHANTERIC FRACTURE FEMUR</li><li>• Intertrochanteric fractures are extracapsular fractures of the proximal femur that occur between the greater and lesser trochanter. This metaphyseal region has a more abundant blood supply, contributing to a higher union rate and less osteonecrosis compared to femoral neck fractures. Etiology: These fractures occur both in the elderly and the young, but they are more common in the elderly population with osteoporosis due to a low energy mechanism. The female to male ration is between 2:1 and 8:1. In the younger population, these fractures typically result from a high-energy mechanism. These patients present with a short and externally rotated limb. Treatment:</li><li>• Intertrochanteric fractures are extracapsular fractures of the proximal femur that occur between the greater and lesser trochanter.</li><li>• This metaphyseal region has a more abundant blood supply, contributing to a higher union rate and less osteonecrosis compared to femoral neck fractures.</li><li>• Etiology: These fractures occur both in the elderly and the young, but they are more common in the elderly population with osteoporosis due to a low energy mechanism. The female to male ration is between 2:1 and 8:1. In the younger population, these fractures typically result from a high-energy mechanism.</li><li>• Etiology:</li><li>• These fractures occur both in the elderly and the young, but they are more common in the elderly population with osteoporosis due to a low energy mechanism. The female to male ration is between 2:1 and 8:1. In the younger population, these fractures typically result from a high-energy mechanism.</li><li>• These fractures occur both in the elderly and the young, but they are more common in the elderly population with osteoporosis due to a low energy mechanism.</li><li>• The female to male ration is between 2:1 and 8:1.</li><li>• In the younger population, these fractures typically result from a high-energy mechanism.</li><li>• These patients present with a short and externally rotated limb.</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Treatment of choice: Dynamic Hip Screw (Undisplaced fracture). Displaced fracture: Proximal femoral nail (Cephalomedullary nail). Latest literature claims better results with Proximal Femoral Nail (PFN). Most common complication is malunion. 1 year mortality rate is 20-30%. 1 year mortality can be reduced by operating within 48 hours.</li><li>• Treatment of choice: Dynamic Hip Screw (Undisplaced fracture).</li><li>• Treatment of choice:</li><li>• Displaced fracture: Proximal femoral nail (Cephalomedullary nail).</li><li>• Displaced fracture:</li><li>• Latest literature claims better results with Proximal Femoral Nail (PFN).</li><li>• Most common complication is malunion.</li><li>• 1 year mortality rate is 20-30%.</li><li>• 1 year mortality can be reduced by operating within 48 hours.</li><li>• INTERTROCHANTERIC FRACTURE VS NECK OF FEMUR FRACTURE</li><li>• INTERTROCHANTERIC FRACTURE VS NECK OF FEMUR FRACTURE</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intertrochanteric fracture is more common in females than males. Most common complication is malunion. 1 year mortality rate is 20-30%. 1 year mortality can be reduced by operating within 48 hours.</li><li>➤ Intertrochanteric fracture is more common in females than males.</li><li>➤ Most common complication is malunion.</li><li>➤ 1 year mortality rate is 20-30%.</li><li>➤ 1 year mortality can be reduced by operating within 48 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-year-old public health officer is assigned to lead a healthcare team aiming to address and manage endemic conditions in a remote village with limited healthcare access. As part of the initiative, there's a proposal to start a mass drug administration (MDA) program targeting common health concerns in the area. Which of the following conditions would NOT traditionally be managed through mass drug administration? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Worm infestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin A deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Filariasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin A deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin A deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin A deficiency is managed through targeted prophylaxis in children rather than mass drug administration. In contrast, MDA is carried out for conditions like scabies (using ivermectin), worm infestations (using albendazole), and filariasis (using DEC + albendazole).</li><li>➤ Vitamin A deficiency is managed through targeted prophylaxis in children rather than mass drug administration.</li><li>➤ In contrast, MDA is carried out for conditions like scabies (using ivermectin), worm infestations (using albendazole), and filariasis (using DEC + albendazole).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old man presents with a history of urethral discharge for the last three days. A gram stain smear of the discharge is shown below. All of the following are true regarding the likely etiology except: (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Catalase and oxidase positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pili is a virulence factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obligate intracellular organism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shows twitching motility", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Obligate intracellular organism", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-277.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Obligate intracellular organism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Morphology of Neisseria Gonorrhea -</li><li>➤ Gram –ve cocci Shape is spherical Coffee bean shaped diplococcic Usually seen in pairs with adjacent sides flattened LPS has highly branched basal oligosaccharide structure Contains fimbriae Possess pili on the surface Motile (Twitching motility ) Non-capsulated Non-sporing</li><li>➤ Gram –ve cocci</li><li>➤ Gram –ve</li><li>➤ Shape is spherical</li><li>➤ Coffee bean shaped diplococcic</li><li>➤ Coffee bean shaped diplococcic</li><li>➤ Usually seen in pairs with adjacent sides flattened</li><li>➤ in pairs</li><li>➤ adjacent sides flattened</li><li>➤ LPS has highly branched basal oligosaccharide structure</li><li>➤ oligosaccharide</li><li>➤ Contains fimbriae</li><li>➤ Possess pili on the surface</li><li>➤ Possess pili</li><li>➤ Motile (Twitching motility )</li><li>➤ Motile (Twitching motility</li><li>➤ Non-capsulated</li><li>➤ Non-capsulated</li><li>➤ Non-sporing</li><li>➤ It is catalase and oxidase positive.</li><li>➤ catalase and oxidase positive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent bacterial infections and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. The flowcytometry analysis of the boy (Boxes c &amp; d) is shown below (Boxes a &amp; b are normal). What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bare lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic granulocyte deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyper IgM syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "DiGeorge syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyper IgM syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/953.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/954.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hyper IgM syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyper IgM syndrome is characterized by a deficiency in class switching due to defective CD40-CD40L interactions, leading to elevated levels of IgM and a lack of other immunoglobulin isotypes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this sign on USG: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seashore sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stratosphere sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lung point sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sinusoidal sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Seashore sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-092554.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-102120.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Seashore sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the \"Seashore sign\" on M-mode ultrasound, which is used primarily to evaluate for lung sliding. The seashore sign is characterized by a sandy or granular pattern in the lower half of the M-mode display, beneath the pleural line. This pattern is caused by the motion of the lung relative to the pleura during breathing. It is a normal finding, indicating that the lung is sliding smoothly against the parietal pleura, which helps rule out conditions like pneumothorax in the area scanned.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Stratosphere sign: Also known as the \"barcode sign,\" it appears as parallel lines in M-mode and is associated with the absence of lung sliding, often seen in cases of pneumothorax.</li><li>• Option B. Stratosphere sign:</li><li>• Option C. Lung point sign: This is seen in lung ultrasound as the point at which the normal seashore sign of lung sliding transitions to the stratosphere sign in cases of pneumothorax. It is specific for pneumothorax but not depicted in this ultrasound image.</li><li>• Option C. Lung point sign:</li><li>• Option D. Sinusoidal sign: Typically refers to a waveform pattern seen in various types of medical imaging and monitoring, not relevant to the depiction of lung sliding on ultrasound.</li><li>• Option D. Sinusoidal sign:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lung sliding- seen at the pleural lining due to relative motion between pleural layer. Seashore sign- M mode counterpart of lung sliding. Motion of the lung deep to the pleura causes grainy appearance in M-mode, stimulating sand in a seashore.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has protective as well as lubricating property? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Collagen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immunoglobulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mucin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucins have both protective and lubricating properties, forming a barrier on epithelial surfaces and reducing friction in various body tracts. They are essential for maintaining the integrity and function of mucosal surfaces.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are causes for expanding blind spot, except? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "POAG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypoplasia of optic disc", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Papilledema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medullated nerve fibres", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypoplasia of optic disc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/asdcadas.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypoplasia of optic disc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Optic disc hypoplasia, a congenital underdevelopment of the optic nerve, does not typically result in an expanding blind spot, unlike conditions like POAG, papilledema, and the presence of medullated nerve fibers, which can directly affect the structure or function of the area surrounding the optic disc.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked with a yellow question mark ? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inner nuclear layer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inner plexiform layer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Outer plexiform layer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Outer nuclear layer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inner nuclear layer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/10/screenshot-2023-10-10-103037.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/wefcs.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-114547.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inner nuclear layer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient undergoes parotidectomy surgery to remove a tumor. During the postoperative period, the patient complains of loss of sensation while shaving. Which nerve is most likely affected in this patient? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Great auricular nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marginal mandibular nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Great auricular nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Great auricular nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nerves that can be injured in parotidectomy and its significance:</li><li>➤ A) Auriculotemporal nerve injury – Frey’s syndrome</li><li>➤ B) Great auricular nerve- loss of sensation in area of shaving</li><li>➤ C) Facial nerve- facial palsy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "ABCDE rule is seen in: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ВСС", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SCC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Actinic keratosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Malignant melanoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Malignant melanoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ABCDE rule for the clinical evaluation of malignant melanoma:</li><li>➤ A - Asymmetry : One half of the mole does not match the other half.</li><li>➤ A - Asymmetry</li><li>➤ B - Border irregularity : The edges of the mole are irregular, ragged, or blurred.</li><li>➤ B - Border irregularity</li><li>➤ C - Color variation : The mole has different shades of color, such as black, brown, tan, or red.</li><li>➤ C - Color variation</li><li>➤ D - Diameter : The mole is larger than 6 millimeters or has grown in size.</li><li>➤ D - Diameter</li><li>➤ E - Evolution : The mole has changed in size, shape, or color, or has started to bleed, itch, or crust over.</li><li>➤ E - Evolution</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with pain in the forearm following a trauma. The radiograph of the forearm reveal the findings as shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?(AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colles’ fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Smith’s fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Monteggia fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galeazzi fracture", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Galeazzi fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture12_kDdooyp.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture13_gzmSza3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-154720.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/whatsapp-image-2024-01-17-at-41614-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/picture17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Galeazzi fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• GALEAZZI FRACTURE-DISLOCATION</li><li>• GALEAZZI FRACTURE-DISLOCATION</li><li>• Fracture of distal third of radius with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, along with damage to interosseous membrane and triangular fibrocartilage complex A treatment regimen of closed reduction and cast immobilization has a high rate of unsatisfactory results. Open reduction and internal fixation with plate is the treatment of choice in adult.</li><li>• Fracture of distal third of radius with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, along with damage to interosseous membrane and triangular fibrocartilage complex</li><li>• A treatment regimen of closed reduction and cast immobilization has a high rate of unsatisfactory results.</li><li>• Open reduction and internal fixation with plate is the treatment of choice in adult.</li><li>• Monteggia and Galeazzi Fractures:</li><li>• Monteggia and Galeazzi Fractures:</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Colle’s fracture. Colles’s fracture is fracture of lower end of radius at its corti-cocancellous junction mostly occurring in post-menopausal osteoporotic elderly women, as a result of fall on outstretched hand, with wrist in extension. It is one of the most common fractures in elderly. Most Colles fractures can be successfully treated nonoperatively, and cast (hand-shaking cast) is applied on opposite forces to displacement. Complications include finger stiffness (most common), malunion (2nd most common) leading to dinner fork deformity. Colles’s fracture is the commonest cause of Sudeck's dystrophy in upper limb.</li><li>• Option A. Colle’s fracture.</li><li>• Dinner fork deformity</li><li>• Dinner fork deformity</li><li>• Reduction and application of Hand-shaking cast</li><li>• Reduction and application of Hand-shaking cast</li><li>• Option B. Smith’s fracture . A Smith fracture is a break to the end of the radius. The end part of the bone, which forms part of the wrist joint, is displaced or angled in the direction of the palm of the hand. Often, this injury occurs by a fall to the back of a flexed wrist but can occur in any fall to an outstretched hand. Smith fracture is treated by close reduction and immobilization in long arm (above elbow) cast with forearm in supination and wrist in extension (dorsiflexion).</li><li>• Option B. Smith’s fracture</li><li>• Option C. Monteggia fracture. Fractures between the proximal third of the ulna and the base of olecranon combined with dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint. The clue to successful treatment is to restore the length of the fractured ulna; only then can the dislocated joint be fully reduced and remain stable. In adults, treatment is reduction and fixation. In children, treatment is reduction and cast application. Posterior interosseous nerve has been most commonly injured nerve in association with Monteggia fracture dislocation because it takes a turn around radial head and is injured with its dislocation. This causes paralysis of thumb and finger extensors.</li><li>• Option C. Monteggia fracture.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The given image in the question reveals a Galeazzi fracture of the forearm.</li><li>• The given image in the question reveals a Galeazzi fracture of the forearm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If the lung is allowed to undergo elastic recoil without the chest wall, the resultant volume of the lung would be? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Minimum volume", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zero", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Functional residual capacity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Residual volume", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Minimum volume", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Minimum volume</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ If the lung undergoes elastic recoil without the chest wall, it would collapse to its minimum volume due to the lung's inherent elastic properties.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Myosin head detaches from actin by which of the following mechanism? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Binding of ATP", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Entry of calcium into sarcoplasmic reticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Change in troponin C configuration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Release of ADP and Pi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Binding of ATP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2019-04.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Binding of ATP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The detachment of the myosin head from actin is caused by the binding of ATP to the myosin head, which is a critical step in the muscle contraction and relaxation cycle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are an intern and want to determine the quantity of IV fluids needed for a patient. How much amount of transient loss/insensible loss per day would you account for in your calculations? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "150-200 ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "500-600 ml", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "200-350 ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "350-400 ml", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 500-600 ml", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 500-600 ml</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When calculating the quantity of IV fluids needed for a patient, it is essential to account for approximately 500-600 ml/day of insensible water loss due to evaporation from the respiratory tract and diffusion through the skin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A soldier posted in Siachen is brought to you in the ER. In order to rule out hypothermia, how do you best measure his temperature? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rectal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infrared tympanic thermometer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Axillary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rectal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rectal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For accurate measurement of core body temperature in cases of suspected hypothermia, rectal temperature is the preferred method, especially in extreme environmental conditions like those in Siachen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "\"Vasopressin escape\" in SIADH results due to: ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Downregulation of aquaporin 2 production", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in urine osmolarity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decrease in ADH secretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Upregulation of aquaporin 2 production", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Downregulation of aquaporin 2 production", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/29/aiims-physio-nov-2019-02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Downregulation of aquaporin 2 production</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone (SIADH): Pathogenesis and clinical findings</li><li>➤ Syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone (SIADH): Pathogenesis and clinical findings</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following hormones do not act on the pancreas? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Secretin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastrin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cholecystokinin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GIP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gastrin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2019-03_yC9p1uA.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gastrin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gastrin does not act on the pancreas. Instead, it stimulates gastric acid secretion and gastric mucosal growth, while Secretin, CCK, and GIP have direct or indirect actions on the pancreas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is not used in heart failure? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trimetazidine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sacubitril", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nesiritide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trimetazidine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Trimetazidine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8th/ 599, 600</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was given ampicillin 2 g intravenously. After that, the person developed rash on skin, hypotension and difficulty in breathing. The patient should be managed by? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intramuscular route", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intravenous route", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.5 ml of 1:10000 adrenaline by intramuscular route", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.5 ml of 1:10000 adrenaline by intravenous route", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intramuscular route", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/19/screenshot-2023-12-19-185948.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intramuscular route</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th / 97</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to emergency with overdose some drug. There were increased salivation and increased bronchial secretions. On examination, blood pressure was 88/60 mmHg. RBC esterase level is 50. What should be the treatment of this person? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neostigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physostigmine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atropine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Atropine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8th/122</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following can cause miosis except", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Organophosphates", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Belladonna", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Morphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pilocarpine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Belladonna", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Belladonna</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th /115,122,127,499</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was schedule for surgery. Before giving anaesthesia, he was administered glycopyrrolate. What is rationale of giving glycopyrrolate before anaesthesia? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To allay anxiety", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To decrease secretions", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "As inducing agent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "For muscle relaxation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. To decrease secretions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. To decrease secretions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8th/. 413,414</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Non-pulsatile dose of GnRH agonist is used in all of the following conditions except? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Male infertility", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central precocious puberty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prostate cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Male infertility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Male infertility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-pulsatile (continuous) GnRH agonists are used to decrease sex hormone levels in conditions such as endometriosis, central precocious puberty, and prostate cancer. In male infertility, pulsatile GnRH agonists are used to increase testosterone and induce spermatogenesis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8th/. 262,263</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A ll of the following can be used to decreased intraocular pressure in glaucoma except? ( AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methazolamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clonidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dexamethasone", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dexamethasone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/20/screenshot-2024-07-20-122430.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Dexamethasone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Note - Dexamethasone is contraindicated in glaucoma</li><li>➤ Note</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th / 318, 167, 170</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pegloticase is used in the treatment of (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic gout", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paralytic ileus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoriatic arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chronic gout", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Chronic gout</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8th/. 235</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "W hich of the following is clinical use of tafenoquine? ( AIIMS Nov 2019", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prophylaxis of malaria in pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Treatment of severe falciparum malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treatment of endemic malaria in children &lt; 2 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8th/. 878</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "G-protein coupled receptor that does not act through opening of potassium channels is (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muscarinic M2 receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dopamine D2 receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serotonin 5 HT 1 receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Angiotensin 1 receptor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Angiotensin 1 receptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Angiotensin 1 receptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GPCR that acts through opening of K + channels can result in hyper-polarization, thus leading to inhibition. So, receptor which causes stimulation cannot act through opening of K + channels.</li><li>➤ Muscarinic M2 receptor, Dopamine D2 receptor and serotonin 5HT1 receptor act through opening of K + channels. Whereas Angiotensin 1 receptor act by increasing Ca 2+ .</li><li>➤ Muscarinic M2 receptor, Dopamine D2 receptor and serotonin 5HT1 receptor act through opening of K + channels.</li><li>➤ Whereas Angiotensin 1 receptor act by increasing Ca 2+ .</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th /56</li><li>↳ KDT 8 th /56</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nurse got accidental prick from the HIV infected needle. Which of the following statements is false regarding the management of this nurse? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zidovudine is used as monotherapy for post-exposure prophylaxis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Washing hands with soap and water is advised", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Baseline viral markers of health care personnel should be done at the time of prick", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Follow up viral markers of health care personnel should be measured at 6 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zidovudine is used as monotherapy for post-exposure prophylaxis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Zidovudine is used as monotherapy for post-exposure prophylaxis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ POST EXPOSURE PROPHYLAXIS</li><li>➤ POST EXPOSURE PROPHYLAXIS</li><li>➤ Treatment should be started within 72 hours of exposure, preferably as early as possible At first the wound is washed with soap and water. Secondly before initiating drug therapy blood samples are taken to measure the baseline viral markers Then, triple drug therapy is given which includes Tenofovir, Lamivudine and a boosted protease inhibitor for 28 days. After 6 weeks again viral markers are measured to check for the infection.</li><li>➤ Treatment should be started within 72 hours of exposure, preferably as early as possible</li><li>➤ At first the wound is washed with soap and water.</li><li>➤ Secondly before initiating drug therapy blood samples are taken to measure the baseline viral markers</li><li>➤ Then, triple drug therapy is given which includes Tenofovir, Lamivudine and a boosted protease inhibitor for 28 days.</li><li>➤ After 6 weeks again viral markers are measured to check for the infection.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th /872</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is True regarding drugs used for viral infections? Treatment of HCV with ribavirin is considered better than sofosbuvir Ombitasvir is inhibitor of proteins synthesis Imiquimod is used for Condyloma acuminata Simprevir inhibits protease of hepatitis C Oseltamivir is used for swine flu", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C, D and E", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A, B and C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, C and D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "B and D only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. C, D and E", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-100220.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. C, D and E</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sofosbuvir is preferred over ribavirin for HCV treatment due to better efficacy, ombitasvir is an NS5A inhibitor, imiquimod is used for condyloma acuminata, simprevir inhibits HCV protease, and oseltamivir is used for swine flu.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8th/. 853,856,858</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug with mechanism of action are given in two columns. Which of the following is the correct match? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/20/screenshot-2024-07-20-124051.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-101044.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 TH /251-52,943</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Prucalopride is a (AIIMS NOVEMBER 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5HT4 agonist", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "5HT2b agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5HT2b antagonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5HT1a partial agonist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 5HT4 agonist", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 5HT4 agonist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th /724</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion: In a patient admitted in hospital for community acquired pneumonia, combination therapy of beta lactams and azithromycin is given. Reason: The combination covers gram positive organisms as well as anaerobes.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A is true and R is false", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A is false and R is true", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A is true and R is false", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Katzung 13 th /878</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug of choice for treatment of bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy is", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clindamycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rovamycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metronidazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy due to its effectiveness against anaerobic bacteria and its safety profile during pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Rovamycin i.e. spiramycin (which is a macrolide) is drug of choice for toxoplasmosis in pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th /894-896.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "W hich of the following statements about tedizolid is true? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peripheral neuropathy is a common adverse effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is active against gram positive organisms", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It has poor oral bioavailability", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Major mode of elimination is renal excretion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is active against gram positive organisms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. It is active against gram positive organisms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th /808</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Z track technique is used for ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monitoring of lithium therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monitoring of carbamazepine therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administration of long acting depot antipsychotics", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administration of nicotine patches", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Administration of long acting depot antipsychotics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Administration of long acting depot antipsychotics</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements regarding foscarnet are True? It is used for resistant CMV infections Renal toxicity is seen It is activated by viral thymidine kinase Regular monitoring of serum electrolytes is required It can cause genital ulceration", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All are true", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A, B and C only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, C, and E only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, B, D and E", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A, B, D and E", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. A, B, D and E</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: KDT 8 th /852, 853</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "W hich of the following is a schedule X-drug?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thalidomide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colistin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Halothane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ketamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ketamine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways are seen in: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Apoptosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Necroptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyroptosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Apoptosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/952.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Apoptosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Apoptosis is characterized by both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways, which lead to programmed cell death in a controlled and regulated manner.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Maltese cross crystals in the urine are seen in which of the following diseases other than nephrotic syndrome? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Friedrich's ataxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Felty syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fanconi anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fabry's disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fabry's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/958.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fabry's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Maltese cross crystals in the urine are seen in Fabry's disease, indicating the presence of lipid-laden cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Basophils are activated by? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IL-5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "INF-gamma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TNF-alpha", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IL-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IL-5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IL-5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Interleukins are a type of cytokine, which are small proteins produced by immune cells that play a crucial role in regulating the immune response.</li><li>➤ A brief overview of some of the key interleukins and their functions:</li><li>➤ Interleukin-1 (IL-1): This interleukin is involved in the regulation of inflammation and immune responses, as well as activation of immune cells such as T cells and B cells. Interleukin-2 (IL-2): This cytokine is primarily produced by T cells and plays a key role in the activation and proliferation of T cells and natural killer (NK) cells. It is also involved in the differentiation of immune cells, such as the development of memory T cells. Interleukin-4 (IL-4): Plays a key role in the development of Th2 cells, which are involved in the immune response to parasites and allergies. IL-4 also stimulates the production of antibodies by B cells. Interleukin-5 (IL-5): S pecifically activates basophils, contributing to their role in allergic responses and inflammation. Interleukin-6 (IL-6): Plays a key role in the regulation of inflammation and immune responses. It can stimulate the production of acute-phase proteins, such as C-reactive protein, as well as the activation of immune cells like plasma cells. Interleukin-10 (IL-10) : Plays a key role in regulating the immune response and limiting inflammation. It can suppress the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, as well as the activation of immune cells. Interleukin-12 (IL-12 ): IL-12 is involved in the activation of T cells and NK cells. It can stimulate the differentiation of Th1 cells, which are involved in the immune response to intracellular pathogens.</li><li>➤ Interleukin-1 (IL-1): This interleukin is involved in the regulation of inflammation and immune responses, as well as activation of immune cells such as T cells and B cells.</li><li>➤ Interleukin-1 (IL-1):</li><li>➤ Interleukin-2 (IL-2): This cytokine is primarily produced by T cells and plays a key role in the activation and proliferation of T cells and natural killer (NK) cells. It is also involved in the differentiation of immune cells, such as the development of memory T cells.</li><li>➤ Interleukin-2 (IL-2):</li><li>➤ Interleukin-4 (IL-4): Plays a key role in the development of Th2 cells, which are involved in the immune response to parasites and allergies. IL-4 also stimulates the production of antibodies by B cells.</li><li>➤ Interleukin-4 (IL-4):</li><li>➤ Interleukin-5 (IL-5): S pecifically activates basophils, contributing to their role in allergic responses and inflammation.</li><li>➤ Interleukin-5 (IL-5): S</li><li>➤ Interleukin-6 (IL-6): Plays a key role in the regulation of inflammation and immune responses. It can stimulate the production of acute-phase proteins, such as C-reactive protein, as well as the activation of immune cells like plasma cells.</li><li>➤ Interleukin-6 (IL-6):</li><li>➤ Interleukin-10 (IL-10) : Plays a key role in regulating the immune response and limiting inflammation. It can suppress the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, as well as the activation of immune cells.</li><li>➤ Interleukin-10 (IL-10)</li><li>➤ Interleukin-12 (IL-12 ): IL-12 is involved in the activation of T cells and NK cells. It can stimulate the differentiation of Th1 cells, which are involved in the immune response to intracellular pathogens.</li><li>➤ Interleukin-12 (IL-12</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The mutations/changes that convert proto-oncogene to oncogene include all except: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Promoter insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enhancer deletion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gene amplification", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Point mutation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Enhancer deletion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-104500_7dqf6dT.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-180427.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Enhancer deletion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transformation of proto-oncogene (i.e., normal cell proliferation gene) to oncogenes (i.e., cancer cell proliferation gene) may occur by three mechanisms:</li><li>➤ Point mutations i.e., an alteration of a single base in the DNA chain. Eg:- RAS oncogene carried in many human tumors such as bladder cancer, pancreatic adenocarcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma. Point mutations, deletions, or insertions in the promoter region of a proto-oncogene that led to increased transcription. Chromosomal translocations i.e., transfer of a portion of one chromosome carrying protooncogene to another chromosome and making it independent of growth controls. Eg :- Philadelphia chromosome seen in 95% cases of chronic myelogenous leukemia in which c-ABL protooncogene on chromosome 9 is translocated to chromosome 22. Gene amplification i.e., increasing the number of copies of DNA sequence in protooncogene leading to increased mDNA and thus increased or overexpressed gene product. Eg:- Neuroblastoma having n-MYC HSR region, ERB-B1 in breast and ovarian cancer.</li><li>➤ Point mutations i.e., an alteration of a single base in the DNA chain. Eg:- RAS oncogene carried in many human tumors such as bladder cancer, pancreatic adenocarcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma. Point mutations, deletions, or insertions in the promoter region of a proto-oncogene that led to increased transcription.</li><li>➤ Point mutations</li><li>➤ Chromosomal translocations i.e., transfer of a portion of one chromosome carrying protooncogene to another chromosome and making it independent of growth controls. Eg :- Philadelphia chromosome seen in 95% cases of chronic myelogenous leukemia in which c-ABL protooncogene on chromosome 9 is translocated to chromosome 22.</li><li>➤ Chromosomal translocations</li><li>➤ Gene amplification i.e., increasing the number of copies of DNA sequence in protooncogene leading to increased mDNA and thus increased or overexpressed gene product. Eg:- Neuroblastoma having n-MYC HSR region, ERB-B1 in breast and ovarian cancer.</li><li>➤ Gene amplification</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no. 549-551</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 8 th edition, Pg no. 549-551</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hepcidin inhibits iron transfer from the enterocyte to the plasma by binding to? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transferrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ferroportin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ferritin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Divalent metal transporter 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ferroportin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ferroportin</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient affected with acute hepatitis B infection has currently come for follow up. Identify the serological marker marked in the image? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti-HBc Ab", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-HBe Ab", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti-HBs Ab", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBsAg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anti-HBc Ab", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm121.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm122.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anti-HBc Ab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Anti-HBc antibodies are crucial in diagnosing hepatitis B infection, as they appear early after exposure and persist throughout the infection. They are typically seen during the \"window period\" when HBsAg starts to wane and before Anti-HBs becomes detectable, indicating the body's initial immune response to the infection.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/Hepatology/Viral hepatitis/ chap 339/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most common cause of infection post-solid organ transplantation in an Indian setting? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epstein-Barr virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Varicella zoster virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes simplex virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cytomegalovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cytomegalovirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most prevalent and clinically significant viral infection in the post-solid organ transplant setting in India, necessitating targeted prophylaxis and monitoring protocols to mitigate its risks.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Critical Care Nephrology /Chapter 95</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young girl refuses to go to Mathematics class everyday citing abnormal excuses. It was discovered by the principal that the mathematics teacher was touching her genitalia inappropriately. The duty of the principal is to report this to?(AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Magistrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Police", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Child Welfare Committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parents", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Police", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Police</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, the principal should refer to Section 19 which states that “Any person who has apprehension that an offence under this Act is likely to be committed or has knowledge that such an offence has been committed shall provide such information to the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police.”</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Option A) Magistrate, Option C) child welfare committee, Option D) Parents: According to POCSO Act, Article 19, the immediate duty is to inform the police when there is knowledge or apprehension of a child being sexually abused. Others can be informed later.</li><li>• Option A) Magistrate, Option C) child welfare committee, Option D) Parents:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ POCSO Act Provisions</li><li>➤ POCSO Act Provisions</li><li>➤ Section 19 of the Act makes it mandatory for any person including the child to approach the police in case of an apprehension that an offence under the Act is likely to be committed or \"has the knowledge\" that such an act has been committed.</li><li>➤ Section 19 of the Act makes it mandatory for any person including the child to approach the police in case of an apprehension that an offence under the Act is likely to be committed or \"has the knowledge\" that such an act has been committed.</li><li>➤ The POCSO act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age. It defines various forms of sexual offenses which include:</li><li>➤ Sexual harassment - Threatening Sexual assault - Any act with sexual intent that involves physical contact without penetration. Aggravated sexual assault - Similar to sexual assault along with the criteria explained under the term aggravated Penetrative sexual assault - An act with sexual intent that involves physical penetration of the penis or any object into the vagina, mouth, urethra, or anus. Aggravated penetrative sexual assault - Similar to penetrative sexual assault along with the criteria explained under the term aggravated Pornography</li><li>➤ Sexual harassment - Threatening</li><li>➤ Sexual assault - Any act with sexual intent that involves physical contact without penetration.</li><li>➤ Aggravated sexual assault - Similar to sexual assault along with the criteria explained under the term aggravated</li><li>➤ Penetrative sexual assault - An act with sexual intent that involves physical penetration of the penis or any object into the vagina, mouth, urethra, or anus.</li><li>➤ Aggravated penetrative sexual assault - Similar to penetrative sexual assault along with the criteria explained under the term aggravated</li><li>➤ Pornography</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The postmortem change seen in the image below corresponds to which of the following?(AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Marbling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Algor mortis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rigor mortis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post mortem lividity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Marbling", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-174551.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-174634.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Marbling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Marbling.</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Option B) Algor mortis: Algor mortis refers to the postmortem cooling of the body. After death, the body temperature gradually decreases until it reaches the ambient temperature hence this option is incorrect.</li><li>• Option B) Algor mortis:</li><li>• Option C) Rigor mortis: Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles that occurs after death due to ATP depletion in the muscles.</li><li>• Option C) Rigor mortis:</li><li>• Option D) Post mortem lividity is a passive process of blood accumulating within the blood vessels in the dependent parts of the body as a result of gravity, causing a discoloration of the skin that varies from pink to dark purplish. The pale looking areas on the skin are the pressure areas. The below image of PM Lividity</li><li>• Option D)</li><li>• Post mortem lividity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Marbling</li><li>➤ Marbling</li><li>➤ Marbling is a characteristic color change occurring in Putrefaction in which the superficial veins become visible on the skin due to staining by Hemoglobin or sulphmethhaemoglobin Mechanism of color change in putrefaction:</li><li>➤ Marbling is a characteristic color change occurring in Putrefaction in which the superficial veins become visible on the skin due to staining by Hemoglobin or sulphmethhaemoglobin</li><li>➤ occurring in Putrefaction</li><li>➤ superficial veins become visible on the skin</li><li>➤ Mechanism of color change in putrefaction:</li><li>➤ Direct staining by Hemoglobin (Hb): Lyses of RBCs occur in putrefaction which releases the Hb. This Hb itself stains the tissues and vessels producing a reddish brown coloration which later becomes greenish black. Staining by Sulph-meth-haemoglobin: Hydrogen sulphides gas produced by decomposing tissues combine with Hb to form sulph-meth-haemoglobin. This sulph-meth-haemoglobin stains the tissues and vessels producing a greenish black color.</li><li>➤ Direct staining by Hemoglobin (Hb): Lyses of RBCs occur in putrefaction which releases the Hb. This Hb itself stains the tissues and vessels producing a reddish brown coloration which later becomes greenish black.</li><li>➤ Direct staining by Hemoglobin (Hb):</li><li>➤ Staining by Sulph-meth-haemoglobin: Hydrogen sulphides gas produced by decomposing tissues combine with Hb to form sulph-meth-haemoglobin. This sulph-meth-haemoglobin stains the tissues and vessels producing a greenish black color.</li><li>➤ Staining by Sulph-meth-haemoglobin:</li><li>➤ This greenish black staining of superficial veins appears as prominent lines on the skin called Marbling Marbling is distinctly appreciable in the superficial veins of abdomen, shoulders, chest and inguinal region. Marbling starts in 24 hours and becomes prominent in about 36–48 hours after death in summer</li><li>➤ This greenish black staining of superficial veins appears as prominent lines on the skin called Marbling</li><li>➤ Marbling is distinctly appreciable in the superficial veins of abdomen, shoulders, chest and inguinal region.</li><li>➤ Marbling starts in 24 hours and becomes prominent in about 36–48 hours after death in summer</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is bullet wipe? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Residual from barrel of gun", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blackening", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gutter fracture of skull", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tattooing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Residual from barrel of gun", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Residual from barrel of gun</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A \"bullet wipe\" is a gray or black ring around an entrance bullet hole. The ring is formed by bullet lubricant, byproducts of propellant, traces of bullet metal, and residue in the gun barrel from previous use. It is caused due to residue from barrel of the gun.</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Option B) Blackening: It occurs due to combustion (smoke) produced by burning of gun powder when a firearm is fired.</li><li>• Option B) Blackening:</li><li>• Option C) Gutter fracture of skull: It occurs due to a bullet passing adjacent to the skull</li><li>• Option C) Gutter fracture of skull:</li><li>• Option D) Tattooing: It occurs due to unburnt gun powder particles which gets deposited around the firearm wound.</li><li>• Option D) Tattooing:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Bullet Wipe (Grease/Dirt Collar)</li><li>➤ Bullet Wipe (Grease/Dirt Collar)</li><li>➤ • Black/gray ring around gunshot wound.</li><li>➤ • Composition includes bullet lubrication, paraffin, lead, barrel debris, and gun oil.</li><li>➤ • Wider side of the ring indicates the direction of fire.</li><li>➤ • More noticeable in shots from freshly oiled weapons.</li><li>➤ • It is dark in the center, fading towards the periphery.</li><li>➤ • Prominent in clothing, termed as ‘bullet wipe.’</li><li>➤ • It serve as proof of an entry wound in forensic analysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old male arrives in the emergency department after being exposed to an unidentified toxic substance given to him by a friend. His symptoms include dry mouth, urinary retention, and constipation. During the examination, his pulse rate is recorded at 140 beats per minute, and his pupils are observed to be dilated. Which substance is the most likely cause of these symptoms? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heroin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malathion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Belladona", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Belladona", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-174955.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Belladona</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Atropa Belladona</li><li>➤ Atropa Belladona</li><li>➤ Solanaceae family: Datura stramonium, Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade) and Hyoscyamus Niger (henbane) all belong to same family Solanaceae Anticholinergic alkaloids: All of these plants have similar alkaloids, and all of these alkaloids have anticholinergic properties. Active Principles: Examples of important active principles found in these alkaloids are Atropine, Hyoscine (scopolamine), Hyoscyamine.</li><li>➤ Solanaceae family: Datura stramonium, Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade) and Hyoscyamus Niger (henbane) all belong to same family Solanaceae</li><li>➤ Solanaceae family:</li><li>➤ Anticholinergic alkaloids: All of these plants have similar alkaloids, and all of these alkaloids have anticholinergic properties.</li><li>➤ Anticholinergic alkaloids:</li><li>➤ Active Principles: Examples of important active principles found in these alkaloids are Atropine, Hyoscine (scopolamine), Hyoscyamine.</li><li>➤ Active Principles:</li><li>➤ Sign and symptoms: All of these have similar anticholinergic sign and symptoms. So, Atropa belladonna will also have features same as that of Datura: Dry hot skin, Dilatated pupils, Diplopia, Dry mouth, Decreased Body Secretions, Dysphagia, Dysarthria, Drunken gait, Delirium</li><li>➤ Sign and symptoms: All of these have similar anticholinergic sign and symptoms. So, Atropa belladonna will also have features same as that of Datura: Dry hot skin, Dilatated pupils, Diplopia, Dry mouth, Decreased Body Secretions, Dysphagia, Dysarthria, Drunken gait, Delirium</li><li>➤ Sign and symptoms:</li><li>➤ Treatment is Physostigmine Atropa Belladona have black berries as shown below:</li><li>➤ Treatment is Physostigmine</li><li>➤ Atropa Belladona have black berries as shown below:</li><li>➤ Atropa Belladona have black berries as shown below:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT true about proteoglycans?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carries negative charge", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chondroitin sulfate is a proteoglycan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Made of amino acids and sugars", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Holds less water", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Holds less water", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Holds less water</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Proteoglycans are complex molecules made of amino acids and sugars, carrying negative charges and holding a significant amount of water due to their hydrophilic nature. Chondroitin sulfate, a type of GAG, forms proteoglycans when bound to a protein.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Topical steroids are most effective in: ( AIIMS Nov 2019", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermal atrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eczematous dermatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vesicular lesions due to Herpes simplex infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rosacea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Eczematous dermatitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/picture565.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Eczematous dermatitis.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Topical steroids are effective in treating eczematous dermatitis due to their anti-inflammatory properties, but they should not be used for conditions like herpes simplex infections or rosacea , and can cause dermal atrophy if used inappropriately.</li><li>➤ eczematous dermatitis</li><li>➤ anti-inflammatory properties,</li><li>➤ herpes simplex infections or rosacea</li><li>➤ dermal atrophy</li><li>➤ Ref - Fitzpatrick’s Dermatology, 9 th edition page number 377</li><li>➤ Ref - Fitzpatrick’s Dermatology, 9 th edition page number 377</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a risk factor for postoperative pulmonary complications? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BMI &gt; 30", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Well controlled asthma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper abdominal surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Age &gt; 70 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Well controlled asthma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Well controlled asthma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Well controlled asthma: Asthma, when well controlled, should not significantly increase the risk of postoperative pulmonary complications. Uncontrolled or poorly controlled asthma, on the other hand, would be a risk factor due to increased airway hyperreactivity and potential for bronchospasm or other complications in the postoperative period.</li><li>• Well controlled asthma:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. BMI &gt; 30: Obesity can reduce functional residual capacity and total lung volume, which increases the risk of atelectasis after surgery. Additionally, obese patients often have decreased diaphragmatic movement and may have associated conditions like obstructive sleep apnea, which can contribute to postoperative respiratory issues.</li><li>• Option A. BMI &gt; 30:</li><li>• Option C. Upper abdominal surgery: Upper abdominal surgeries are associated with a higher risk of postoperative pulmonary complications. The diaphragmatic movement can be impaired after these surgeries, leading to decreased lung expansion and atelectasis, especially in the bases of the lungs. This can increase the chances of postoperative pneumonia and other respiratory issues.</li><li>• Option C. Upper abdominal surgery:</li><li>• Option D. Age &gt; 70 years: Advanced age is a recognized risk factor for postoperative complications, including pulmonary complications. Older patients often have reduced physiological reserve, which means they have less ability to compensate for postoperative stress and changes in lung function. Furthermore, they are more likely to have comorbid conditions that can contribute to respiratory issues.</li><li>• Option D. Age &gt; 70 years:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Well-controlled asthma is not a significant risk factor for postoperative pulmonary complications, unlike other conditions such as obesity, upper abdominal surgery, and advanced age.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 2591-2594</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs</li><li>➤ 2591-2594</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Berry aneurysm occurs due to? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endothelial injury of vessel due to HTN", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arterial internal elastic lamina defect", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endothelial layer defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adventitia defect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arterial internal elastic lamina defect", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arterial internal elastic lamina defect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Berry aneurysms occur due to a defect in the arterial internal elastic lamina , leading to a weakened vessel wall and the potential for aneurysmal outpouching and rupture.</li><li>➤ Berry aneurysms</li><li>➤ arterial internal elastic lamina</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The ECG of a patient who presented to the ER is as given below. The patient was already given a carotid massage and IV Adenosine but the BP is currently 60/30 mm Hg. What is the next best step of management? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Repeat Inj. adenosine 6 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Synchronized cardioversion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inj. amiodarone 300 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DC cardioversion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Synchronized cardioversion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm97.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/11/screenshot-2024-09-11-112319.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm118.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of hemodynamically unstable tachyarrhythmias where initial pharmacological interventions fail, synchronized cardioversion should be promptly employed to stabilize the patient. This technique is crucial for preventing progression to more severe complications such as cardiac arrest.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of hemophilia received multiple blood transfusions. Which of the following metabolic abnormalities can be seen in a patient? (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metabolic alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/11/whatsapp-image-2024-09-11-at-101953-am.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/11/whatsapp-image-2024-09-11-at-101953-am-1.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metabolic Alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metabolic alkalosis is a potential complication of multiple or massive blood transfusions due to the metabolism of citrate preservative into bicarbonate, emphasizing the importance of monitoring electrolytes and acid-base balance during such procedures.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Delayed complications: GVHD, PTP, Infections</li><li>➤ Delayed complications:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Addison's disease is commonly associated with: (AIIMS NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autoimmune adrenalitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypernephroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adrenocortical carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medullary carcinoma thyroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Autoimmune adrenalitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Autoimmune adrenalitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Addison's disease is most commonly caused by autoimmune adrenalitis, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the adrenal glands, leading to insufficient production of vital hormones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The loading dose of MgSo4 in pre-eclampsia is? (INICET NOV 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 ml Mgso4 (50% w/v) in 16 ml NS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8 ml MgSo4 (50% w/v) in 12 ml NS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 ml MgSo4 (50% w/v) in 8 ml NS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10 ml MgSO4 (50% w/v)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 8 ml MgSo4 (50% w/v) in 12 ml NS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 8 ml MgSo4 (50% w/v) in 12 ml NS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The drug of choice for the management of eclampsia is Magnesium Sulfate (MgSO4). The most commonly used regimen in India is the Pritchard regimen, which involves an initial loading dose followed by maintenance doses.</li><li>• For the loading dose, the Pritchard regimen recommends:</li><li>• Loading dose: 4 grams of MgSO4 as a 20% solution administered intravenously at 1 gram per minute. Additionally, 10 grams of 50% MgSO4 is administered intramuscularly, with 5 grams in each buttock.</li><li>• Loading dose: 4 grams of MgSO4 as a 20% solution administered intravenously at 1 gram per minute.</li><li>• Loading dose:</li><li>• Additionally, 10 grams of 50% MgSO4 is administered intramuscularly, with 5 grams in each buttock.</li><li>• In this question, option B, \"8 ml MgSO4 (50% w/v) in 12 ml NS,\" correctly refers to the preparation required to administer the initial dose of MgSO4.</li><li>• The preparation details:</li><li>• MgSO4 is available in 50% and 20% concentrations. To make a 50% MgSO4 solution into a 20% solution, a 1.5 times dilution is required. For a 50% MgSO4 solution, 1 ml of the solution contains 0.5 grams of MgSO4 (1 ampoule = 2 ml).</li><li>• MgSO4 is available in 50% and 20% concentrations.</li><li>• To make a 50% MgSO4 solution into a 20% solution, a 1.5 times dilution is required.</li><li>• For a 50% MgSO4 solution, 1 ml of the solution contains 0.5 grams of MgSO4 (1 ampoule = 2 ml).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The loading dose of MgSO4 in pre-eclampsia, as per the Pritchard regimen, is 4 grams of MgSO4 as a 20% solution administered intravenously, often prepared using 8 ml of 50% MgSO4 diluted in 12 ml normal saline.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg273, Williams textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 1840</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg273, Williams textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 1840</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where do afferent fibers from baroreceptors primarily project for blood pressure control? ( AIIMS Nov 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nucleus ambiguous", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rostral-ventro lateral medulla", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nucleus Tractus Solitarius", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caudal ventrolateral medulla", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nucleus Tractus Solitarius", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/aiims-physio-nov-2018-03_uoyP3dK.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nucleus Tractus Solitarius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Afferent fibers from baroreceptors project to the Nucleus Tractus Solitarius (NTS) in the medulla oblongata, where they integrate and process information related to blood pressure regulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The attachment of Eukaryotic mRNA to the ribosome is mediated through?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Poly A tail", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "tRNA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Guanyl Cap", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shine-Dalgarno Sequence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Guanyl Cap", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Guanyl cap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The attachment of eukaryotic mRNA to the ribosome is mediated through the 5' guanyl cap, which plays a crucial role in the initiation of translation, protection of mRNA, and its processing and export from the nucleus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the items in Column A with their correct description in Column B: Column A: 1. Primary survey 2. Secondary survey 3. Definitive care 4. Resuscitation Column B: a. Make a management plan b. Identify what can cause death c. Identify other injuries d. Treat what can cause death", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ATLS protocol steps emphasize a structured approach for trauma assessment, prioritizing immediate life-threatening conditions first, followed by a comprehensive examination and a definitive management plan.</li><li>➤ Primary survey - Identify what can cause death Secondary survey - Identify other injuries Definitive care - Make a management plan Resuscitation - Treat what can cause death</li><li>➤ Primary survey - Identify what can cause death</li><li>➤ Identify what can cause death</li><li>➤ Secondary survey - Identify other injuries</li><li>➤ Identify other injuries</li><li>➤ Definitive care - Make a management plan</li><li>➤ Make a management plan</li><li>➤ Resuscitation - Treat what can cause death</li><li>➤ Treat what can cause death</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The instrument shown in the image is used for which of the following procedures?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "VIA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "VILI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PAP smear", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colposcopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. PAP smear", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123118.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) PAP smear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ayre’s spatula is a key tool used in PAP smear tests, which is a primary screening method for cervical cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following steps in the correct order for delivering bad news to a patient, according to the accepted standard protocol: Giving information and knowledge to the patient Setting up the interview Addressing the patient’s emotions with empathetic responses Assessing the patient’s understanding of the situation", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-3-2-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2-3-1-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2-1-3-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2-4-1-3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2-4-1-3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2-4-1-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The SPIKES protocol emphasizes the importance of a structured approach to delivering difficult news: setting up the interview, assessing understanding, giving information, and addressing emotional responses empathetically.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following methods are used to record the cause of death in India? Sample registration system Census Death declaration and medical certificate Lay reporting", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In India, the cause of death is primarily recorded through the Sample Registration System, death certification, and lay reporting, not through the Census.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding the given statements: Assertion: WHO recommends Typhoid Vaccine for disaster management in endemic areas. Reason: Vaccination is a cost-effective method of disaster control.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both the statement and the reason are true, and the reason explains the statement correctly.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both the statement and the reason are true, but the reason does not explain the statement.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The statement is false, but the reason is true.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both the statement and the reason are false.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Both the statement and the reason are false.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO does not recommend widespread typhoid vaccination after a disaster. Instead, providing safe water and sanitation is essential for preventing disease in affected areas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sequentially arrange the following renal injuries from least severe to most severe. Subcapsular hematoma Injury confined to Gerota’s fascia Avulsion of Pelvi-ureteric junction Shattered kidney", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3, 4, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 4, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123144.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The American Association for the Surgery of Trauma (AAST) grading helps assess the severity of renal injuries, and CT scans are typically used for evaluating these injuries in trauma cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the device shown in the image.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cock-up splint", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colles' cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Knuckle bender splint", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dynamic finger splint", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cock-up splint", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123154.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123205.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123216.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123226.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cock-up splint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cock-up splint is effective for managing radial nerve palsy by positioning the wrist to counteract wrist drop and support hand functionality.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion (A): Malathion is used as an ultra-low volume fogger during epidemics. Reason (R): Ultra-low volume foggers have no residual effects.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are false.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malathion is preferred as an ultra-low volume fogger due to its low toxicity among organophosphates, but it does have residual effects lasting up to 3 months.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the snakes with the corresponding images: Column A: 1. Cobra 2. Viper 3. Python 4. Krait Column B:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123247.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cobra - Hooded with spectacle mark Viper - Diamond-shaped spots Python - Thick and large Krait - White bands on body</li><li>➤ Cobra - Hooded with spectacle mark</li><li>➤ Cobra</li><li>➤ Viper - Diamond-shaped spots</li><li>➤ Viper</li><li>➤ Python - Thick and large</li><li>➤ Python</li><li>➤ Krait - White bands on body</li><li>➤ Krait</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following organisms with their characteristic inclusion bodies: Column A: 1. Molluscum contagiosum 2. BK Polyomavirus 3. Rabies 4. CMV Column B: A. Negri Bodies B. Henderson Patterson Body C. Decoy cells D. Owl’s eye cells", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Viral infections and their unique inclusion bodies:</li><li>➤ Molluscum contagiosum - Henderson Patterson Bodies BK Polyomavirus - Decoy Cells Rabies - Negri Bodies CMV - Owl’s Eye Cells</li><li>➤ Molluscum contagiosum - Henderson Patterson Bodies</li><li>➤ Molluscum contagiosum</li><li>➤ BK Polyomavirus - Decoy Cells</li><li>➤ BK Polyomavirus</li><li>➤ Rabies - Negri Bodies</li><li>➤ Rabies</li><li>➤ CMV - Owl’s Eye Cells</li><li>➤ CMV</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion : Ultrasonography is the primary imaging modality for the screening and diagnosis of IVH and parenchymal hemorrhage in neonates. Reason : The posterior fontanelle offers a good acoustic window for imaging using USG.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both the assertion and reason are true statements, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is true but the reason is false.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is false but the reason is true.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Assertion is true but the reason is false.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Assertion is true but the reason is false.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anterior fontanelle, not the posterior, is the primary acoustic window used in ultrasonography for imaging intracranial structures in neonates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: Column A: 1. Box car Nuclei 2. Myocyte disarray 3. Vacuolation in myocyte 4. Myocyte hypertrophy Column B: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Hypertension C. Subendocardial ischemia D. Dilated Cardiomyopathy", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypertension → Box car nuclei Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy → Myocyte disarray Subendocardial ischemia → Myocyte vacuolation Dilated cardiomyopathy → Myocyte hypertrophy</li><li>➤ Hypertension → Box car nuclei</li><li>➤ Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy → Myocyte disarray</li><li>➤ Subendocardial ischemia → Myocyte vacuolation</li><li>➤ Dilated cardiomyopathy → Myocyte hypertrophy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion : A patient comatose due to stroke in the past few hours should be intubated. Reason : Following a stroke, there are high chances of a patient having sleep apnea.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The assertion is correct statement, but the Reason is an incorrect statement.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The assertion is a incorrect statement, but the Reason is a correct statement.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The assertion is correct statement, but the Reason is an incorrect statement.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The assertion is correct statement, but the Reason is an incorrect statement.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of comatose stroke patients, intubation is indicated primarily to prevent aspiration pneumonia due to compromised protective reflexes, not due to concerns about sleep apnea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Regarding CPR, identify which statements are True and which are False: CPR can be administered regardless of rib fractures. Chest compressions should be at a rate of 100-120/min for adults and 90/min for infants. In adult CPR, even with two rescuers, the compression-to-ventilation ratio remains 30:2. In infant CPR, the compression-to-ventilation ratio changes to 15:2 if a second rescuer is available. If an AED is available, alternate defibrillation and chest compressions every 3 minutes.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Statements 1, 3 and 4 are True; Statements 2 and 5 are False.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Statements 1, 2 and 4 are True; Statements 3 and 5 are False.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Statements 1, 2 and 3 are True; Statements 4 and 5 are False.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Statements 2, 4 and 5 are True; Statements 1 and 3 are False.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are True; Statements 2 and 5 are False.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are True; Statements 2 and 5 are False</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For effective CPR, use a consistent chest compression rate of 100-120/min across all age groups, and alternate defibrillation with chest compressions every 2 minutes if an AED is available.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the statement that is false regarding Subacute Sclerosing Pan Encephalitis (SSPE).", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It occurs as a sequela following infection with Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seizures, personality changes, and myoclonus are common clinical features", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EEG shows a characteristic periodic sharp wave pattern", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Symptoms typically present 8 - 10 years after the initial infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It occurs as a sequela following infection with Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It occurs as a sequela following infection with Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SSPE is a late-onset, progressive, and fatal neurological disorder resulting from a previous measles infection, not VZV. It commonly presents years after the initial infection with specific clinical and EEG findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true regarding Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polygenic inheritance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lamotrigine helps control myoclonic jerks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Benzodiazepines can be used as monotherapy for myoclonic jerks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Valproate is not useful for the treatment", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Valproate is not useful for the treatment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Valproate is not useful for the treatment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Valproate is the primary drug of choice for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, effectively controlling all seizure types associated with this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion: Topical Steroids are contraindicated in a viral corneal ulcer. Reason: Topical steroids can increase intraocular pressure.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason explains the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Topical steroids should not be used in viral corneal ulcers primarily due to the risk of aggravating the infection, not because of increased eye pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which route is used to administer LMWH?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravenous", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subcutaneous", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intramuscular", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intradermal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subcutaneous", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Subcutaneous</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LMWH is best administered through the subcutaneous route to ensure effective and sustained anticoagulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not given in Wilson's disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zinc", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium citrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trientine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Calcium citrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Calcium citrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Calcium citrate is not used in Wilson's disease. Treatment primarily involves chelating agents (like D-penicillamine and trientine) and zinc to manage copper accumulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the steps of intubation in the correct order, starting from the initial preparation to confirmation of placement: 1. Introduction of laryngoscope 2. Check breath sounds with a stethoscope 3. Position the neck with extension and flexion 4. Inflate the tube cuff", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1234", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4213", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3124", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3142", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3142", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 3142</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for intubation is Positioning the neck → Introducing the laryngoscope → Inflating the tube cuff → Confirming with breath sounds .</li><li>➤ Positioning the neck → Introducing the laryngoscope → Inflating the tube cuff → Confirming with breath sounds</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which statement is correct regarding the procedures for administering surfactant replacement therapy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The surfactant should be gently warmed before administration.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shaking the surfactant vial vigorously ensures thorough mixing.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is mandatory to change the ET tube position between each surfactant dose.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ET tube suctioning should occur every 30 minutes for the first two hours after surfactant administration.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The surfactant should be gently warmed before administration.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) The surfactant should be gently warmed before administration.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The surfactant should be gently warmed before administration, but it should not be shaken or subjected to frequent suctioning afterward.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion: In pregnancy, anemia has a different cutoff point. Reason: Physiological hemodilution takes place during pregnancy.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reasons are correct statements, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reasons are correct statements, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The assertion is correct statement, but the Reason is incorrect statement.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The assertion is incorrect statement, but the Reason is correct statement.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Both Assertion and Reasons are correct statements, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pregnancy, physiological hemodilution necessitates a different cutoff for diagnosing anemia due to the increase in plasma volume relative to red cell mass.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence for performing the Ziehl-Neelsen staining technique: Apply carbol fuchsin to cover the smear. Rinse with distilled water. Decolorize by flooding with 3% acid-alcohol. Let the slide sit for 2-3 minutes. Heat the slide with a flame to allow stain penetration. Air dry the slide. Apply methylene blue as a counterstain. The correct sequence is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "iii, ii, i, iv, v, vi, vii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "i, v, ii, iii, iv, vii, vi", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "vii, ii, v, i, vi, iii, iv", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ii, i, iv, v, vi, iii, vii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. i, v, ii, iii, iv, vii, vi", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) i, v, ii, iii, iv, vii, vi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For effective Ziehl-Neelsen staining, the sequence involves applying carbol fuchsin with heat, followed by decolorization with acid-alcohol, counterstaining with methylene blue, and drying.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding Haab's Striae? Not seen in juvenile glaucoma Usually horizontal or concentric to the limbus Are usually indistinguishable from birth trauma striae Persist even after control of glaucoma", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 &amp; 2 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 &amp; 4 are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 &amp; 4 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 &amp; 4 are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 & 4 are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123459.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2 &amp; 4 are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Haab's striae are breaks in Descemet's membrane commonly seen in congenital glaucoma, characterized by horizontal or concentric lines around the limbus, and persist even after glaucoma management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion: Amphotericin B is given as 5% Dextrose infusion. Reason: Coadministration of Dextrose reduces the nephrotoxicity.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is true but the reason is false.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is false but the reason is true.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Assertion is true but the reason is false.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Assertion is true but the reason is false.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amphotericin B is administered with 5% Dextrose as a carrier solution, while 0.9% saline is used to reduce nephrotoxicity risks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion: The most common hematological finding in a case of lead poisoning is eosinophilia. Reason: Lead causes inhibition of ALA Dehydratase.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Assertion and Reasons are correct statements and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Assertion and Reasons are correct statements, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The assertion is correct statement, but the Reasons is incorrect statement.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The assertion is independently an incorrect statement, but the Reasons is a correct statement.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. The assertion is independently an incorrect statement, but the Reasons is a correct statement.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In lead poisoning, typical hematological findings include anemia and basophilic stippling, not eosinophilia. Lead toxicity inhibits enzymes critical for heme synthesis, such as ALA Dehydratase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT included in Malarial Vector indices?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human Blood Index", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biting Density", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Slide Positivity Rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inoculation Rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Slide Positivity Rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Slide Positivity Rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Slide Positivity Rate is a measure of malaria prevalence in humans and is not a part of malarial vector indices , which focus on assessing vector behavior and transmission potential.</li><li>➤ Slide Positivity Rate</li><li>➤ not a part of malarial vector indices</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following autoimmune diseases with their respective antibodies: (PATHO) Column A: Systemic Sclerosis SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus) Dermatomyositis Mixed Connective Tissue Disease Column B: Anti-U1RNP Anti-Sm Anti-topoisomerase Anti-Jo", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Each autoimmune disease has a specific antibody association which aids in diagnosis: Systemic Sclerosis with Anti-topoisomerase, SLE with Anti-Sm, Dermatomyositis with Anti-Jo, and Mixed Connective Tissue Disease with Anti-U1RNP.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following actions leads to an increase in acetylcholine (ACh) release from the presynaptic neuron?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Potassium channel blocker", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium channel blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium channel blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlorine channel blocker", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Potassium channel blocker", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Potassium channel blocker</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Potassium channel blockers enhance acetylcholine release by prolonging neuronal depolarization and increasing calcium influx at the presynaptic terminal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following pairs correctly match the techniques of organ removal in autopsy? Letulle - one by one Virchow - en masse Ghon's - En bloc Rokitansky - in situ", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ghon's technique involves en bloc organ removal, and Rokitansky's technique is an in situ dissection approach in autopsy procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a neck nodule presents to the surgery outpatient department. The junior resident employs a specific technique to palpate the nodule as demonstrated. Identify the method being used in this examination.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lahey's method", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crile's method", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kocher's method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pemberton's method", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lahey's method", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123658.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lahey's method</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lahey's method is used for thyroid gland palpation by medial displacement of one lobe to assess the other, offering detailed information on the gland's borders and consistency.</li><li>➤ Lahey's method</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the management of Atonic Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The first step in the management of PPH is the uterine massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV methyl ergometrine is routinely administered for all patients", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The B-Lynch suture is done if all medical methods fail", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manual removal of the placenta is done if there are retained products", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IV methyl ergometrine is routinely administered for all patients", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IV methyl ergometrine is routinely administered for all patients</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IV methyl ergometrine is not routinely used in all patients for PPH management; oxytocin is preferred as the first-line treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can cause Pulmonary-Renal Syndrome? Goodpasture Syndrome Leptospirosis Hantavirus Wegener’s Granulomatosis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulmonary-Renal Syndrome can be caused by autoimmune conditions like Goodpasture Syndrome and Wegener’s Granulomatosis, as well as by infections such as Leptospirosis and Hantavirus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are true regarding chalazion? Always Painful Can occur in the upper or lower eyelid Hair follicle inflammation Meibomian Gland Inflammation Always treated with antibiotics", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4, 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-12%20123753.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A chalazion is a painless inflammation of the Meibomian gland and can appear on either the upper or lower eyelid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Primigravida presents with a transverse lie at 35 weeks and 0 days of pregnancy. Mark the following statements true regarding this condition.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A transverse lie is associated with placenta previa", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Admission is indicated at 35 weeks (immediately)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "An external cephalic version can be tried in patients beyond 34 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LSCS is to be done only at the onset of labor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A transverse lie is associated with placenta previa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A transverse lie is associated with placenta previa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of transverse lie at 36 weeks, transverse lie can be associated with conditions such as placenta previa. Monitoring, admission at 37 weeks, and elective LSCS are recommended to minimize risks associated with labor in this fetal position.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 241</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge Aug 2020 2020 08 31 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 241</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 241 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Deep inguinal ring is a defect in? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "External oblique aponeurosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Internal oblique aponeurosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fascia transversalis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectus sheath", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fascia transversalis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_fmge-anat-2-2_LZfvDs1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_fmge-anat-23_VclBOX6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Fascia transversalis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The deep inguinal ring is a defect in the fascia transversalis, located specifically midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the symphysis pubis, just above the inguinal ligament.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female who was using IUCD for contraception presents in the emergency following two episodes of painless spotting per vagina preceded by amenorrhea for 8 weeks. She complained of lightheadedness and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg and the pulse rate is 138 beats/ minute, with a positive urine pregnancy test. What should be the management of this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV fluids followed by oral methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immediate laparotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stabilizing the patient followed by suction evacuation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dilatation and curettage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Immediate laparotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Immediate laparotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Immediate laparotomy is indicated as this is a scenario of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy Ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most likely diagnosis because of Amenorrhoea + pain + bleeding (classic triad of ectopic) She is in shock (hypotension and tachycardia) that is why ruptured ectopic is suspected) IUCD: this is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy Immediate laparotomy and salpingectomy is required in this scenario</li><li>• Immediate laparotomy is indicated as this is a scenario of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most likely diagnosis because of Amenorrhoea + pain + bleeding (classic triad of ectopic) She is in shock (hypotension and tachycardia) that is why ruptured ectopic is suspected) IUCD: this is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Amenorrhoea + pain + bleeding (classic triad of ectopic) She is in shock (hypotension and tachycardia) that is why ruptured ectopic is suspected) IUCD: this is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Amenorrhoea + pain + bleeding (classic triad of ectopic)</li><li>• She is in shock (hypotension and tachycardia) that is why ruptured ectopic is suspected)</li><li>• IUCD: this is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Immediate laparotomy and salpingectomy is required in this scenario</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. IV fluids followed by oral methotrexate : There is no role of Methotrexate in a rupture ectopic pregnancy. It only has a role in an unruptured ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Option A. IV fluids followed by oral methotrexate</li><li>• Option C. Stabilizing the patient followed by suction evacuation : Suction and evacuation is not done in an ectopic pregnancy. It is done in an inevitable or incomplete abortion</li><li>• Option C. Stabilizing the patient followed by suction evacuation</li><li>• Option D. Dilatation and curettage : Dilatation and curettage is done only if retained products of conception are there inside the uterus. Again no role in a ruptured ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Option D. Dilatation and curettage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediate laparotomy is the indicated management for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, which presents with amenorrhea, pain, bleeding, hypotension, and tachycardia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 574, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 574, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Auspitz sign is seen in? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Psoriasis vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pustular psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pemphigus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bullous pemphigoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Psoriasis vulgaris", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-181717.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_15_6oSAgUN.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-181919.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Auspitz sign as a clinical feature of psoriasis vulgaris , which is characterized by pinpoint bleeding when scales from psoriatic plaques are removed.</li><li>➤ psoriasis vulgaris</li><li>➤ pinpoint bleeding</li><li>➤ psoriatic plaques</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 35 page no 35.9 35.10</li><li>↳ ijdvl.com - Scaly signs in dermatology</li><li>↳ ijdvl.com - Scaly signs in dermatology</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A sexually active male presented with warts on his penis as shown below. Similar looking lesions were present near the anal canal of his wife. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Penile cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condyloma acuminata", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bowen disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemorrhoids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Condyloma acuminata", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Condyloma acuminata</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Condyloma acuminata (genital warts) as soft, skin-colored , cauliflower-like lesions typically found on genital and periana l areas, associated with HPV infection, and often occurring in sexually active individuals.</li><li>➤ Condyloma acuminata (genital warts)</li><li>➤ soft, skin-colored</li><li>➤ cauliflower-like</li><li>➤ genital</li><li>➤ periana</li><li>➤ HPV</li><li>➤ sexually active</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 25 Page no 25.43, 25.56, 25.58</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 25 Page no 25.43, 25.56, 25.58</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient being treated for eclampsia, the next dose of MgSO4 should be skipped if: (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Knee jerks are sluggish", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urine output exceeds 30 ml/hr", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory rate more than 14/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Knee jerks are sluggish", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Knee jerks are sluggish</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Loss of deep tendon reflexes (DTR) is a sign of magnesium toxicity. If knee jerks are sluggish, it indicates that the patient may be experiencing magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is used in the management of eclampsia to prevent seizures. However, monitoring for toxicity is crucial. Signs of magnesium toxicity include: Loss of DTR Decreased urine output Decreased respiratory rate</li><li>• Loss of deep tendon reflexes (DTR) is a sign of magnesium toxicity. If knee jerks are sluggish, it indicates that the patient may be experiencing magnesium toxicity.</li><li>• Loss of deep tendon reflexes</li><li>• Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is used in the management of eclampsia to prevent seizures. However, monitoring for toxicity is crucial.</li><li>• Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4)</li><li>• Signs of magnesium toxicity include: Loss of DTR Decreased urine output Decreased respiratory rate</li><li>• Loss of DTR Decreased urine output Decreased respiratory rate</li><li>• Loss of DTR</li><li>• Decreased urine output</li><li>• Decreased respiratory rate</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Urine output exceeds 30 ml/hr:</li><li>• Option B. Urine output exceeds 30 ml/hr:</li><li>• Explanation : Adequate urine output is required to ensure magnesium is being excreted and to avoid toxicity. If urine output exceeds 30 ml/hr, it is generally a positive sign indicating good renal function and not a reason to withhold MgSO4.</li><li>• Explanation : Adequate urine output is required to ensure magnesium is being excreted and to avoid toxicity. If urine output exceeds 30 ml/hr, it is generally a positive sign indicating good renal function and not a reason to withhold MgSO4.</li><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option C. Respiratory rate more than 14/min:</li><li>• Option C. Respiratory rate more than 14/min:</li><li>• Explanation : A respiratory rate above 14 breaths per minute is not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Concerns arise when the respiratory rate is below 12 breaths per minute, suggesting possible respiratory depression due to toxicity.</li><li>• Explanation : A respiratory rate above 14 breaths per minute is not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Concerns arise when the respiratory rate is below 12 breaths per minute, suggesting possible respiratory depression due to toxicity.</li><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option D. None of the above:</li><li>• Option D. None of the above:</li><li>• Explanation : This is incorrect because sluggish knee jerks (Option A) are a valid sign of magnesium toxicity and warrant withholding the next dose of MgSO4.</li><li>• Explanation : This is incorrect because sluggish knee jerks (Option A) are a valid sign of magnesium toxicity and warrant withholding the next dose of MgSO4.</li><li>• Explanation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient receiving magnesium sulfate for eclampsia, the next dose should be withheld if there is evidence of magnesium toxicity, such as loss of deep tendon reflexes (DTR).</li><li>➤ Ref: page no 439, Textbook of Obstetrics, Dr JB Sharma 1 st edition</li><li>➤ Ref: page no 439, Textbook of Obstetrics, Dr JB Sharma 1 st edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying the principles of Primary Health Care (PHC) as laid out by the World Health Organization (WHO) during a global conference on primary health care. He learns that these principles aim to provide accessible, affordable, and acceptable quality care to all individuals. He reads about several key principles, too. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the principles of Primary Health Care? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Community participation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Appropriate facility", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intersectoral coordination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Equitable distribution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Appropriate facility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Appropriate facility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ There are Four Principles of Primary Health Care (PHC):</li><li>➤ There are Four Principles of Primary Health Care (PHC):</li><li>➤ Equitable distribution Community participation Intersectoral coordination Appropriate technologies</li><li>➤ Equitable distribution</li><li>➤ Community participation</li><li>➤ Intersectoral coordination</li><li>➤ Appropriate technologies</li><li>➤ Appropriate technologies</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-week-old baby was brought to the pediatric OPD with yellowish discoloration of skin and hypotonia. On examination, the baby was also having large protruded tongue and umbilical hernia. Which of the following would be initial step in the management of this clinical condition? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum cortisol levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "TSH levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sepsis screening", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum IGF-1 levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. TSH levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture158.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) TSH levels.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For an infant presenting with symptoms such as jaundice, hypotonia, large protruding tongue, and umbilical hernia, the initial step in management should be to measure TSH levels to diagnose congenital hypothyroidism. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent severe developmental issues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health intern is working on a research project that requires the calculation of various population health metrics for a region. In one of the conversations with her colleague, they discuss the importance of considering the mid-year population to get accurate results for some specific indicators. Her colleague asks her on what date the mid-year population is typically taken. The correct date for determining the mid-year population is? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "19 September", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "21 June", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "01 April", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "01 July", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 01 July", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 01 July</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The midyear population is taken on July 1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the Xray? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Empyema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydropneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hydropneumothorax", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_151.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hydropneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydropneumothorax is characterized by an air-fluid level within the pleural space and requires prompt diagnosis and management to prevent complications such as respiratory distress. The presence of both air and fluid distinguishes it from conditions that involve only one or the other.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis of the patient after looking at the karyotype given in the image as shown: (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Down syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klinefelter syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Edward syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Down syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-231.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/14/picture3_nz3lxV4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Down Syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Down syndrome is characterized by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to a total of 47 chromosomes. This genetic abnormality results in a range of physical and intellectual features, and the karyotype provided confirms the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The CXR of a 65-year-old male with a previous history of heart surgery is shown. Identify the device? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prosthetic mitral valve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prosthetic aortic valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Implantable defibrillator", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pacemaker", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prosthetic mitral valve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_142.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_143.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Prosthetic mitral valve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The positioning of heart valves as shown on a CXR can help identify the type of prosthetic valve a patient has. This CXR shows a prosthetic mitral valve based on its relative position below the line from the left hilum to the right cardiophrenic angle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In ORS, sodium is given along with glucose to facilitate? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Co-transport", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Simple diffusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Facilitated diffusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primary active transport", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Co-transport", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/26/geeta.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Co-transport</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Co-transport refers to the process where two substances are simultaneously transported across a membrane in the same direction by a single protein, or symporter. In the case of Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS), sodium and glucose are absorbed together through the Sodium Glucose Linked Transporter (SGLT-1) in the intestines. This is an example of secondary active transport because it relies on the electrochemical gradient of sodium, which is maintained by primary active transport systems like the sodium-potassium pump. Cotransporters can be classified as symporters and antiporters depending on whether the substances move in the same or opposite directions.</li><li>• Co-transport refers to the process where two substances are simultaneously transported across a membrane in the same direction by a single protein, or symporter. In the case of Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS), sodium and glucose are absorbed together through the Sodium Glucose Linked Transporter (SGLT-1) in the intestines. This is an example of secondary active transport because it relies on the electrochemical gradient of sodium, which is maintained by primary active transport systems like the sodium-potassium pump.</li><li>• Co-transport</li><li>• Cotransporters can be classified as symporters and antiporters depending on whether the substances move in the same or opposite directions.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Simple diffusion : Incorrect because simple diffusion does not involve transport proteins and occurs without energy input, unlike the sodium-glucose co-transport.</li><li>• Option B. Simple diffusion</li><li>• Option C. Facilitated diffusion : Incorrect as this process does not require energy but still needs a carrier protein, and it doesn't apply to sodium and glucose transport in ORS.</li><li>• Option C. Facilitated diffusion</li><li>• Option D. Primary active transport : Incorrect for this context because although primary active transport does play a role in maintaining the sodium gradient utilized by SGLT-1, the actual transport of sodium and glucose via SGLT-1 is not primary active transport.</li><li>• Option D. Primary active transport</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of transport:</li><li>➤ Types of transport:</li><li>➤ Active transport: ATP dependent</li><li>➤ Active transport:</li><li>➤ 1. Primary – energy is used directly to transport the substances</li><li>➤ 1. Primary –</li><li>➤ Primary active transport directly uses ATP to move molecules or ions across the membrane.</li><li>➤ E.g., sodium potassium pump present in all cell</li><li>➤ 2. Secondary - energy is used indirectly to create the gradient for the transport by primary active transporters after which the secondary active transporters are activated.</li><li>➤ 2. Secondary -</li><li>➤ Secondary active transport uses the energy stored in the electrochemical gradient of one molecule or ion to power the transport of another molecule or ion against its gradient.</li><li>➤ E.g., SGLT [Sodium linked glucose transport]</li><li>➤ SGLT-1 Present in the intestine SGLT-2 present in the kidney</li><li>➤ SGLT-1 Present in the intestine</li><li>➤ SGLT-2 present in the kidney</li><li>➤ Passive transport</li><li>➤ Passive transport</li><li>➤ Simple diffusion: No energy is required. No carrier molecule is involved. E.g., O2 exchange in alveoli. Facilitated diffusion: No energy is required BUT always requires carrier protein E.g., GLUT for the transport of glucose Osmosis Movement of water along its gradient via specific channels for water movement. E.g., Aquaporins</li><li>➤ Simple diffusion: No energy is required. No carrier molecule is involved. E.g., O2 exchange in alveoli.</li><li>➤ Simple diffusion:</li><li>➤ No energy is required. No carrier molecule is involved. E.g., O2 exchange in alveoli.</li><li>➤ No energy is required.</li><li>➤ No carrier molecule is involved.</li><li>➤ E.g., O2 exchange in alveoli.</li><li>➤ Facilitated diffusion: No energy is required BUT always requires carrier protein E.g., GLUT for the transport of glucose</li><li>➤ Facilitated diffusion:</li><li>➤ No energy is required BUT always requires carrier protein E.g., GLUT for the transport of glucose</li><li>➤ No energy is required BUT always requires carrier protein</li><li>➤ E.g., GLUT for the transport of glucose</li><li>➤ Osmosis Movement of water along its gradient via specific channels for water movement. E.g., Aquaporins</li><li>➤ Osmosis</li><li>➤ Movement of water along its gradient via specific channels for water movement. E.g., Aquaporins</li><li>➤ Movement of water along its gradient via specific channels for water movement.</li><li>➤ E.g., Aquaporins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old male comes with complaints in his fingernail. On examination, nail folds were seen to be erythematous &amp; with pus collection as shown in the picture. The most likely diagnosis is? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paronychia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow nail syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alopecia areata", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Paronychia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd7.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-184403.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_20.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_21.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paronychia as a condition presenting with erythematous and edematous nail folds , often accompanied by pus collection, commonly resulting from bacterial infection.</li><li>➤ Paronychia</li><li>➤ erythematous and edematous nail folds</li><li>➤ pus</li><li>➤ bacterial</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Fitzpatrick’s Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition chapter 150 page no 2725</li><li>↳ Fitzpatrick’s Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition chapter 150 page no 2725</li><li>↳ Andrews Diseases of the skin Clinical Dermatology 11 th edition Chapter 14, Page no 248</li><li>↳ Andrews Diseases of the skin Clinical Dermatology 11 th edition Chapter 14, Page no 248</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition Chapter 95 Page no 95.35</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition Chapter 95 Page no 95.35</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image given below? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P. Vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "P. falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "P. malariae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "P. ovale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. P. falciparum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-171219.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) P. falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plasmodium falciparum is identified by the presence of multiple ring forms within RBCs, Maurer’s dots, and accole forms. It is a significant cause of severe and cerebral malaria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is analyzing historical data to understand the long-term changes in the incidence and outcomes of a particular disease in a community. Which of the following patterns is most appropriate for observing these long-term changes? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Secular trend of a disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclical trend of a disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disease changing its traits according to herd immunity in the population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disease changing the symptoms as per seasons", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Secular trend of a disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Secular trend of a disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secular trends are important for understanding the long-term changes in disease patterns and the sequelae of diseases within a population.</li><li>➤ Secular trend of a Disease is best depicted by Line diagram</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical college student with irreducible inguinal hernia was brought to the casualty. What should be the next step? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exploratory laparotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Attempt Reduction followed by elective surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Emergency surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Attempt reduction under local anesthesia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Attempt Reduction followed by elective surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Attempt reduction followed by elective surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the absence of signs of strangulation or obstruction, the best management for an irreducible inguinal hernia is to attempt reduction followed by elective surgery, providing relief from immediate symptoms while planning a controlled and less emergent surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer was brought to the emergency department with a history of snake bite from the snake shown in the picture below. During treatment of the snake bite the patient died. What is the main cause of death in this patient? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heart failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory paralysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coagulopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Respiratory paralysis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/88.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Respiratory paralysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary cause of death in krait envenomation is respiratory paralysis due to the neurotoxic effects of the venom.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-month-old boy was brought with history of loose stools 18 episodes, vomiting 2 episodes. The child is irritable but can drink orally. What is the best way to manage this child? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give IV fluids only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give IV fluids for 4 hours followed by ORS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give ORS only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plain water", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Give ORS only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture160.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Give ORS only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child with some dehydration who is irritable but able to drink, the best management is to administer ORS according to the IMNCI guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Arjun, a public health researcher in Kolkata, is tasked with formulating guidelines for a novel health intervention in the community. Recognizing the complex nature of the task, he opts for delphi method that seeks expert consensus. Given this approach which of the following best describes the method Dr. Arjun is employing? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total Population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Group", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Community", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Individual", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Group", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Group</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Delphi method is a type of group discussion and consensus-building process used to solve complex problems by collecting and synthesizing expert opinions through multiple rounds of questionnaires and feedback.</li><li>➤ Delphi method</li><li>➤ group</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old nulliparous female who is on hormone replacement therapy developed abdominal pain and on examination, the right adnexal mass was palpable, non-tender. After workup, she was posted for laparotomy in which ovaries were seen as below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Functional ovarian cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chocolate cyst of ovary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovarian fibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ovarian Carcinoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ovarian Carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/761.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/ovary_fibroma_gross4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ovarian Carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most likely diagnosis is ovarian carcinoma. Points in favor Age (post-menopausal) h/o HRT The image shows bilateral, irregular lesions suggestive of ovarian malignancy</li><li>• The most likely diagnosis is ovarian carcinoma.</li><li>• Points in favor Age (post-menopausal) h/o HRT The image shows bilateral, irregular lesions suggestive of ovarian malignancy</li><li>• Age (post-menopausal) h/o HRT The image shows bilateral, irregular lesions suggestive of ovarian malignancy</li><li>• Age (post-menopausal)</li><li>• h/o HRT</li><li>• The image shows bilateral, irregular lesions suggestive of ovarian malignancy</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Functional ovarian cysts:</li><li>• Option A. Functional ovarian cysts:</li><li>• Seen in reproductive age group Appear regular, usually unilocular</li><li>• Seen in reproductive age group</li><li>• Appear regular, usually unilocular</li><li>• Option B. Chocolate cyst of the ovary:</li><li>• Option B. Chocolate cyst of the ovary:</li><li>• Seen in reproductive age group Appears as chocolate filled material in the cyst Treatment of choice: Ovarian cystectomy</li><li>• Seen in reproductive age group</li><li>• Appears as chocolate filled material in the cyst</li><li>• Treatment of choice: Ovarian cystectomy</li><li>• Option C. Ovarian fibroma:</li><li>• Option C. Ovarian fibroma:</li><li>• This is a solid ovarian tumor Rarely malignant Seen in the postmenopausal age group May be associated with Meig syndrome (Fibroma + ascites + pleural effusion) This is how a fibroma looks like</li><li>• This is a solid ovarian tumor</li><li>• Rarely malignant</li><li>• Seen in the postmenopausal age group</li><li>• May be associated with Meig syndrome (Fibroma + ascites + pleural effusion)</li><li>• This is how a fibroma looks like</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ovarian carcinoma should be highly suspected in postmenopausal women presenting with a palpable adnexal mass, especially if they have a history of hormone replacement therapy and imaging shows bilateral, irregular ovarian lesions.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 375, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 375, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old lady presents to the emergency department with complaints of palpitation, sweating, heaviness and pain in chest with a feeling of impending doom. Her ECG, troponin levels, random blood sugar and chest radiograph are normal. What is the next best step? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Admit for detailed investigation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start counseling sessions", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Use benzodiazepines for symptom relief", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Use beta blocker", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Use benzodiazepines for symptom relief", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Use benzodiazepines for symptom relief</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For an acute panic attack, once cardiac causes are ruled out, benzodiazepines are the first-line treatment for immediate symptom relief.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 407</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is not true regarding renal stones? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Most common type of stone is triple phosphate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stone can be managed conservatively with pharmacotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most of the renal stones can be removed by ESWL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stones &lt;5 mm can be managed conservatively", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Most common type of stone is triple phosphate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Most common type of stone is triple phosphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common type of kidney stone is calcium oxalate, not triple phosphate. Small stones (&lt;5 mm) can often be managed conservatively, and many stones can be treated with ESWL or pharmacotherapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Patel, an epidemiologist from Kolkata, attending a conference on global health security in Geneva. During one of the breakout sessions, a delegate from Africa shared about a recent surge in a rare but severe disease in their region. Dr. Patel recalled his own experiences managing outbreaks in India and the protocols that had to be followed for international notification. This got him pondering about the obligations and standards set by the World Health Organization (WHO) for countries suspecting a severe disease outbreak. As a member nation, within what specified duration should a country notify the WHO about a suspected severe disease to ensure timely global interventions and preventive measures? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "12 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "48 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 24 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 24 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Countries are required to notify the WHO within 24 hours of identifying a suspected case of a severe disease that could be a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC), to facilitate timely and effective global response measures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was brought to the Emergency with Generalized Tonic Clonic Seizures. Which drug should be given first to control his symptoms? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diazepam", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Diazepam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/01-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Diazepam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first line of treatment for managing acute generalized tonic-clonic seizures in children is the administration of benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, or midazolam.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old woman came with the complaints of palpitations and weight loss on examination, sinus tachycardia is present and the following lesion was noticed on the shin of the patient. What is the clinical diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Filariasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Milroy's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyperthyroidism", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-39.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hyperthyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Graves' disease, an autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism, can present with pretibial myxedema, weight loss, palpitations, and sinus tachycardia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aadhya, the head of a prestigious hospital in Mumbai, is keen on improving the efficiency of healthcare delivery in his institution. She plans to meticulously document the time doctors spend with patients versus the time they spend on other non-patient related tasks. Her goal is to streamline operations and ensure optimal utilization of resources in the future. Which management technique is Dr. Aadhya employing to achieve this? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Network analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "System analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Work sampling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decision making", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Work sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Work Sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Work Sampling is a management technique used to systematically observe and record the time spent on various activities. It helps in identifying inefficiencies and optimizing resource utilization by providing quantitative data on how time is allocated across different tasks.</li><li>➤ Work Sampling</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image given below shows a female baby with rash on face and perineal area. What could be the underlying deficiency responsible for this rash? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zinc", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Zinc", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture37.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Zinc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zinc deficiency, characterized by Acrodermatitis Enteropathica, presents with rashes around the orifical regions such as the mouth and perineal area, and is diagnosed with clinical symptoms and confirmed by low serum zinc levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding UTI in pregnancy:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The prevalence of ASB is 50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is lower in people with sickle cell trait", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The preferred antibiotic in pregnancy is amoxicillin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ASB is not treated", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The preferred antibiotic in pregnancy is amoxicillin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The preferred antibiotic in pregnancy is amoxicillin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The prevalence of asymptomatic bacteriuria (ASB) in pregnancy is approximately 5%, not 50%. ASB, if untreated, can lead to pyelonephritis in up to 25% of cases. It is crucial to treat ASB in pregnancy to prevent such complications. Additionally, ASB is more common in patients with sickle cell trait, contrary to the suggestion in option B. The preferred antibiotic for treating UTIs in pregnancy is amoxicillin due to its safety profile for both the mother and the fetus.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. The prevalence of ASB is 50%: This statement is incorrect. The actual prevalence of ASB in pregnancy is around 5%.</li><li>• Option A. The prevalence of ASB is 50%:</li><li>• Option B. It is lower in people with sickle cell trait: This statement is incorrect. ASB is more common in people with sickle cell trait, not lower.</li><li>• Option B. It is lower in people with sickle cell trait:</li><li>• Option D. ASB is not treated: This statement is incorrect. ASB is always treated in pregnancy to prevent progression to pyelonephritis and other complications.</li><li>• Option D. ASB is not treated:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred antibiotic for treating UTIs in pregnancy is amoxicillin.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2584, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2584, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old office worker has a strong false belief that the colleagues in his office are planning to kill him, which is not true. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delusion of persecution", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Delusion of guilt", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delusion of infidelity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Othello syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Delusion of persecution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Delusion of persecution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delusions are false beliefs that are unshakeable and cannot be explained based on a person's social and cultural background. A delusion of persecution specifically refers to the belief that others are plotting harm against the individual.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 345-346</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aishwarya is a Public Health Specialist from Pune, India. She has recently been awarded a grant to establish a non-governmental organization (NGO) focused on improving maternal and child health in rural Maharashtra. As she begins to lay the foundation for her NGO, she participates in several workshops to refine her organizational strategy. One workshop emphasized the need to differentiate between planning terminologies to ensure clarity in setting the organization's direction and milestones. If Dr. Aishwarya wishes to set a broad desired outcome, which isn't typically bound by a specific time frame or limited resources, which terminology should she prioritize? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Target", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Goal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mission", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Goal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Goal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vision – ultimate impact expected out of a health program Mission – how to achieve the vision Objectives- Short term end points. Targets- Achievable midterm milestones Goal-Ultimate desired end point.</li><li>➤ Vision – ultimate impact expected out of a health program</li><li>➤ Mission – how to achieve the vision</li><li>➤ Objectives- Short term end points.</li><li>➤ Targets- Achievable midterm milestones</li><li>➤ Goal-Ultimate desired end point.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic present with visual hallucinations and disorientation two days after the last alcohol intake. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal delirium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcoholic hallucination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dementia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alcohol withdrawal delirium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alcohol withdrawal delirium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) typically presents 48-72 hours after the last drink and is characterized by disturbances of consciousness, disorientation to time, place, and person, hallucinations (especially visual), agitation, coarse tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. It is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 276-277</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the OPD with history of excessive cheerfulness, increased activity, excessive talking and lack of sleep for last 10 days. What is the treatment of choice in this case? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lithium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbamazepine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Haloperidol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Haloperidol.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the acute management of mania, antipsychotics like haloperidol are preferred due to their rapid onset of action. Mood stabilizers such as lithium are more appropriate for long-term management and prevention of bipolar disorder episodes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 373</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old female with a history of MI 2 years ago presented with cough and shortness of breath on walking a few meters. Physical examination revealed dullness to percussion and reduced breath sounds on the right side. Chest X-ray showed moderate pleural effusion. Thoracocentesis was performed under USG guidance and lab investigations are given below. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020) Pleural protein: 3.2 g/dL LDH: 80 U/L PF protein/Serum protein ratio: 0.34 Glucose: 54 mg/dL ADA: 30 U/L AFB smear microscopy: Negative", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parapneumonic effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malignant pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congestive cardiac failure", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tubercular pleural effusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Congestive cardiac failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/fmge-medicine-15_mTRhh60.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Congestive cardiac failure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In patients with a history of heart disease, presenting with symptoms of pleural effusion and lab findings consistent with transudative effusion, congestive cardiac failure should be highly suspected.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely causative organism in a 33-year-old female patient presenting with symptoms of pruritus, greenish vaginal discharge. (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichomonas", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlamydia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trichomonas", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-1241.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trichomonas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichomonas vulvovaginitis presents with profuse, frothy, greenish discharge and pruritus. It is diagnosed by identifying motile trichomonads in a wet mount and is treated with Metronidazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman comes for her regular antenatal checkup. Which arterial gas abnormality is expected to be seen in this woman? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic respiratory alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chronic respiratory alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chronic respiratory alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pregnancy typically causes a state of chronic respiratory alkalosis due to progesterone-induced increased ventilation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 63, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 63, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nitric oxide is synthesized from: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L-Hydroxy proline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arginine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "D-Histidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cysteine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arginine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture1_I5ybb0Z.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arginine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NO is also called as Endothelium Derived Relaxing Factor (EDRF). NO (nitric oxide) is synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) in the endothelial cells.</li><li>➤ NO (nitric oxide) is</li><li>➤ synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS</li><li>➤ NO synthase complex</li><li>➤ NO synthase complex</li><li>➤ There are three isoforms of NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) nNOS - neuronal eNOS- endothelial iNOS- inducible</li><li>➤ There are three isoforms of NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) nNOS - neuronal eNOS- endothelial iNOS- inducible</li><li>➤ nNOS - neuronal eNOS- endothelial iNOS- inducible</li><li>➤ nNOS - neuronal</li><li>➤ eNOS- endothelial</li><li>➤ iNOS- inducible</li><li>➤ The secondary messenger involved in the mechanism of action of NO vasodilation is cGMP by the activation of enzyme guanylate cyclase.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 286, 307</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 286, 307</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old nutritionist is discussing the nutritional differences between buffalo milk and cow's milk with her patients. Which of the following statements accurately describes buffalo milk compared to cow's milk? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High calories and high protein", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low calories and high protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High calories and low protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low calories and low protein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. High calories and high protein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. High calories and high protein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Comparative contents of nutrients in different types of milk:</li><li>➤ Comparative contents of nutrients in different types of milk:</li><li>➤ Fat content of milk: Buffalo &gt; Goat &gt; Cow &gt; Human Protein content of milk: Buffalo &gt; Goat &gt; Cow &gt; Human Energy content of milk: Buffalo &gt; Goat &gt; Cow &gt; Human Lactose content of milk: Human &gt; Buffalo &gt; Goat &gt; Cow</li><li>➤ Fat content of milk: Buffalo &gt; Goat &gt; Cow &gt; Human</li><li>➤ Protein content of milk: Buffalo &gt; Goat &gt; Cow &gt; Human</li><li>➤ Energy content of milk: Buffalo &gt; Goat &gt; Cow &gt; Human</li><li>➤ Lactose content of milk: Human &gt; Buffalo &gt; Goat &gt; Cow</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a busy tertiary care hospital in Kolkata, Nurse Sunita was assisting a surgeon during a complicated surgical procedure. During the operation, there was an unexpected arterial bleed, and some of the blood splashed onto the operation theatre floor. Given the potential for blood-borne pathogens, it is critical to disinfect the spilled blood promptly and effectively. Nurse Sunita instructed her junior to clean the area as per the disinfection protocols. Which of the following should the junior use to disinfect the blood spill? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cresol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "70% Ethyl alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glutaraldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1% Sodium hypochlorite", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1% Sodium hypochlorite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1% Sodium hypochlorite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For effectively disinfecting blood spills, especially in high-risk areas like operation theatres, 1% sodium hypochlorite is the recommended disinfectant. It ensures thorough eradication of potential blood-borne pathogens, maintaining the critical sterility required in surgical environments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following compounds is responsible for the development of angiosarcoma of the liver? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sulphur", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arsenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arsenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic arsenic exposure is associated with the development of angiosarcoma of the liver, as well as other liver lesions and skin pathologies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old migraine patient has taken a drug which resulted in numbness of his hand. His hand appears like in the image shown below. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be implicated in this case? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dihydroergotamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sumatriptan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Butorphanol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dihydroergotamine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/screenshot-2023-11-22-182453.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Dihydroergotamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dihydroergotamine can cause severe peripheral vasoconstriction, leading to symptoms such as numbness and bluish discoloration of the extremities, which can be a serious concern in migraine treatment. Its use should be carefully monitored, especially in patients with existing cardiovascular issues or those susceptible to vascular complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The major thyroxine-binding protein is? ( FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transthyretin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroxine- binding globulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the following bind equally", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thyroxine- binding globulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-191507.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Thyroxine -binding globulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) is the primary carrier of thyroid hormones (thyroxine and triiodothyronine) in the blood. It binds a significant portion of the circulating T4 and T3, more so than any other proteins.</li><li>• Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Albumin : Incorrect because although albumin has a high plasma concentration, it binds a smaller proportion of thyroid hormones compared to TBG.</li><li>• Option A. Albumin</li><li>• Option B. Transthyretin : Incorrect as it binds less thyroid hormone than TBG, making it a secondary binder.</li><li>• Option B. Transthyretin</li><li>• Option D. All of the following bind equally : Incorrect because TBG binds a significantly higher percentage of thyroid hormones than the other proteins listed.</li><li>• Option D. All of the following bind equally</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child has large head, large tongue and his both testicles are also large in size. The child also has features of autism spectrum disorder. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rett syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fragile X syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eisenmenger syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "William syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fragile X syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture161.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Fragile X syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fragile X syndrome is characterized by intellectual disability, large head, large ears, long face, prominent jaw, large testicles, and autism spectrum disorder features. It is caused by an expansion of the CGG trinucleotide repeat in the FMR1 gene and follows an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a lecture on epidemiology and biostatistics at a medical college, Dr. Shyam, an Assistant Professor in Community Medicine, displayed a particular statistical diagram. He emphasized its relevance in illustrating specific types of data. Intrigued by its representation, a student later approached Dr. Shyam seeking clarity about the exact nature of data the diagram was tailored to depict. Which among the following best describes the type of data this diagram represents? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nominal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Discrete", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continuous", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Continuous", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-2020-01.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-2020-03.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-2020-02.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-2020-04.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Continuous</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A histogram is used to represent continuous quantitative data , where continuous groups are marked on the x-axis and frequencies are marked on the y-axis.</li><li>➤ histogram</li><li>➤ continuous quantitative data</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct sequence of muscles used in ejaculation? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ischiocavernosus contraction - External urethral sphincter relaxation- Bulbospongiosus contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ischiocavernosus contraction – Bulbospongiosus contraction- external urethral sphincter relaxation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ischiocavernosus relaxation - External urethral sphincter contraction- Bulbospongiosus relaxation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bulbospongiosus contraction - Ischiocavernosus contraction -external urethral sphincter relaxation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ischiocavernosus contraction – Bulbospongiosus contraction- external urethral sphincter relaxation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Picture1_cIQXzSJ.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ischiocavernosus contraction – Bulbospongiosus contraction- external urethral sphincter relaxation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The sequences of events:</li><li>• Ejaculation involves a series of muscle contractions that expel seminal fluid from the prostatic urethra to the exterior, encompassing both autonomic and somatic control components. The correct sequence begins with the contraction of the ischiocavernosus muscle, which aids in the erection of the penis by compressing the base of the penile shaft and obstructing blood flow out of the erect penis, thereby maintaining its rigidity. Following this, the bulbospongiosus muscle contracts, which propels the seminal fluid along the urethra. The final step is the relaxation of the external urethral sphincter, which allows the semen to exit the urethra.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of muscular contractions during ejaculation: first, the ischiocavernosus muscle contracts to maintain erection, followed by the contraction of the bulbospongiosus muscle to propel seminal fluid, and finally, the relaxation of the external urethral sphincter allows the ejaculate to exit.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Gray’s Anatomy- the Anatomical basis of clinical practice – 42 nd edition- page no. 1304</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the gold standard investigation performed prior to FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antral lavage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT scan", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. CT scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. CT scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Before undergoing Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery, a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses is imperative. It plays a critical role in confirming the diagnosis, ruling out other conditions, and providing a clear map of the sinus anatomy to guide surgical intervention effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Priya, a senior epidemiologist at a premier medical research institution in India, has observed an alarming rise in depressive symptoms among young adults. Intrigued by this trend and recognizing the increasing usage of social media among this demographic, she postulates a possible association between the two. To ascertain if the history of social media usage might be a contributing factor to depression, she meticulously designs a study. Dr. Priya recruits two distinct groups: the first comprises social media users who have clinically been diagnosed with depression, and the second includes social media users who, after rigorous psychological assessment, show no signs of depression. Based on this setup and the approach she intends to adopt, which of the following epidemiological study methodologies is Dr. Priya most likely employing? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Case control study", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cross sectional study", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Random sampling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Case control study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Case control study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A case control study is an observational study design used to identify and evaluate associations between exposures and outcomes by comparing subjects with the disease (cases) and without the disease (controls). It is particularly useful for studying rare diseases or diseases with a long latency period.</li><li>➤ case control study</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rotten egg odor smell is seen with? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrogen Sulphide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HCN", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphorous", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydrogen Sulphide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydrogen Sulphide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HYDROGEN SULPHIDE – Rotten egg odor HCN –Bitter almond odor ARSENIC-, PHOSPHORUS - Garlicky odor</li><li>➤ HYDROGEN SULPHIDE – Rotten egg odor</li><li>➤ HCN –Bitter almond odor</li><li>➤ ARSENIC-, PHOSPHORUS - Garlicky odor</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5 -year-old child presents with development of fever, petechial spots and complaint of fatigue. He is Also having presence of pallor, hepato-splenomegaly as well as sternal tenderness. The clinical situation of the above condition is associated with which of the following? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic lymphocytic leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of fever, petechial spots, fatigue, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and sternal tenderness in a child is highly suggestive of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the false statement among the following for the condition given in the picture? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retention cyst of major salivary glands", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Most common site is lower lip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retention cyst of minor salivary glands", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treatment is surgical excision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retention cyst of major salivary glands", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/44.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Retention cyst of major salivary glands</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucoceles are retention cysts of the minor salivary glands commonly found on the lower lip and should not be confused with cysts of the major salivary glands. Treatment typically involves surgical excision to remove the cyst and associated glandular tissue to prevent recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After returning from a malaria-endemic area in sub-Saharan Africa, Sarah, who took preventive measures during her trip, consults you about continuing her malaria chemoprophylaxis. How long should she continue the treatment to effectively prevent malaria? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 week", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 4 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For optimal protection against malaria after travel to an endemic area, it's recommended to continue chemoprophylaxis for 4 weeks. This duration covers the incubation period of the parasite, ensuring any late-developing infections are prevented.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In fatty liver, which is not given: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Choline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethanol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methionine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ethanol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ethanol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LIPOTROPIC FACTORS</li><li>➤ LIPOTROPIC FACTORS</li><li>➤ These are factors which are required for the synthesis of phospholipids. They help in mobilization of TG out of liver cells. Their deficiency leads to Fatty Liver (due to TG accumulation in liver) Lipotropic factors: EFA/PUFAs Vitamins- B 9 and B 12 Choline , Betaine and Inositol Three amino acids Serine Glycine Methionine</li><li>➤ These are factors which are required for the synthesis of phospholipids. They help in mobilization of TG out of liver cells. Their deficiency leads to Fatty Liver (due to TG accumulation in liver)</li><li>➤ Lipotropic factors: EFA/PUFAs Vitamins- B 9 and B 12 Choline , Betaine and Inositol Three amino acids Serine Glycine Methionine</li><li>➤ EFA/PUFAs Vitamins- B 9 and B 12 Choline , Betaine and Inositol Three amino acids Serine Glycine Methionine</li><li>➤ EFA/PUFAs</li><li>➤ Vitamins- B 9 and B 12</li><li>➤ B 9</li><li>➤ Choline , Betaine and Inositol</li><li>➤ Choline</li><li>➤ Three amino acids Serine Glycine Methionine</li><li>➤ Serine Glycine Methionine</li><li>➤ Serine</li><li>➤ Glycine</li><li>➤ Methionine</li><li>➤ Methionine</li><li>➤ Lipotropic factors reverse the effects of fatty liver by mobilization of TG out of liver. Ethanol on the other hand can cause increased formation of fat synthesis in liver due to excess NADH/NAD ratio which inhibit acetyl CoA oxidation for energy through TCA and ETC thereby increasing the flux of acetyl CoA in the fatty acid synthesis in liver.</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry by Dinesh Puri 3 rd ed/p 249-250</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry by Dinesh Puri 3 rd ed/p 249-250</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child was brought to the OPD following a sting on his toe. On examination, he had tachycardia, hypertension, tongue fasciculation, hypersalivation, and dilated pupils. Local examination of the wound showed mild erythema. He remembers the animal having a curved tail upwards. Which of the following has most likely bitten him? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caterpillar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sea urchin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scorpion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black widow spider", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Scorpion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Scorpion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scorpion stings can cause severe systemic effects due to an autonomic storm characterized by excessive catecholamine release, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, tachycardia, hypersalivation, and dilated pupils. The characteristic description of the animal with a curved tail upwards aids in identifying the scorpion as the culprit.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with severe dysmenorrhea; dyspareunia infertility and a diagnosis of endometriosis was made. The patient was posted for laparoscopy and at surgery dense pelvic adhesions were seen with bowel stuck to the fundus. Ovaries were cystic and stuck to each other. What is the next step of management in this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LUNA for chronic pelvic pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gestrinone to decrease the LH surge", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystectomy and adhesiolysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy and oophorectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cystectomy and adhesiolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cystectomy and adhesiolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical scenario is suggestive of endometriosis , characterized by severe dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, infertility, and the presence of dense pelvic adhesions observed during laparoscopy. In endometriosis , the management approach differs based on the primary concern: For infertility : Surgery is generally preferred to improve fertility outcomes. This involves cystectomy and adhesiolysis to remove endometriotic cysts and adhesions, thereby restoring normal pelvic anatomy and improving the chances of conception. For pain management : Medical treatment is often the first line. However, in this scenario where infertility is also a concern, surgical intervention is prioritized.</li><li>• The clinical scenario is suggestive of endometriosis , characterized by severe dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, infertility, and the presence of dense pelvic adhesions observed during laparoscopy.</li><li>• endometriosis</li><li>• In endometriosis , the management approach differs based on the primary concern: For infertility : Surgery is generally preferred to improve fertility outcomes. This involves cystectomy and adhesiolysis to remove endometriotic cysts and adhesions, thereby restoring normal pelvic anatomy and improving the chances of conception. For pain management : Medical treatment is often the first line. However, in this scenario where infertility is also a concern, surgical intervention is prioritized.</li><li>• endometriosis</li><li>• For infertility : Surgery is generally preferred to improve fertility outcomes. This involves cystectomy and adhesiolysis to remove endometriotic cysts and adhesions, thereby restoring normal pelvic anatomy and improving the chances of conception. For pain management : Medical treatment is often the first line. However, in this scenario where infertility is also a concern, surgical intervention is prioritized.</li><li>• For infertility : Surgery is generally preferred to improve fertility outcomes. This involves cystectomy and adhesiolysis to remove endometriotic cysts and adhesions, thereby restoring normal pelvic anatomy and improving the chances of conception.</li><li>• infertility</li><li>• cystectomy</li><li>• adhesiolysis</li><li>• For pain management : Medical treatment is often the first line. However, in this scenario where infertility is also a concern, surgical intervention is prioritized.</li><li>• pain management</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. LUNA for chronic pelvic pain: Laparoscopic uterosacral nerve ablation (LUNA) is used for severe pelvic pain associated with endometriosis that is not relieved by medication. It is not the first choice when infertility is also an issue.</li><li>• Option A. LUNA for chronic pelvic pain: Laparoscopic uterosacral nerve ablation (LUNA)</li><li>• Option B. Gestrinone to decrease the LH surge: Gestrinone is a progesterone derivative used in the medical management of endometriosis to alleviate pain. However, it is not suitable when fertility is a primary concern, as it does not address the mechanical and structural problems caused by endometriotic cysts and adhesions.</li><li>• Option B. Gestrinone to decrease the LH surge: Gestrinone</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy and oophorectomy: Hysterectomy and oophorectomy are considered definitive treatments for endometriosis but are not suitable for a young woman seeking fertility. This approach is more appropriate for patients who have completed their families or are in severe, refractory pain not managed by other means.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy and oophorectomy: Hysterectomy and oophorectomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of endometriosis with associated infertility, surgical management involving cystectomy and adhesiolysis is preferred to improve fertility outcomes.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 249, DC Duttas Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 249, DC Duttas Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female patient presented with a thyroid swelling, weight loss and cervical lymphadenopathy. For the thyroid swelling, Total thyroidectomy with radical lymph node dissection was performed. Histopathology report of the resected specimen is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Papillary carcinoma thyroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular carcinoma thyroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Papillary carcinoma thyroid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-38.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-104931.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-104953.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Papillary carcinoma thyroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Papillary carcinoma thyroid is identified by the presence of Orphan Annie eye nuclei, lymphatic spread, and specific genetic mutations (BRAF, RET/PTC).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female patient presents with sweating, headache, anxiety and palpitations. On examination, her heart rate is 110/min and BP 140/100 mm Hg. She gives history of Renal cell cancer in her mother. What would be the investigation of choice in this patient? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal cysts", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum hydroxy-tryptamine levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24 hours urinary V.M.A levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasma free metanephrines", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Plasma free metanephrines", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-41.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Plasma free metanephrines</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The investigation of choice for suspected pheochromocytoma is plasma free metanephrines due to its high sensitivity, especially in the context of a family history suggestive of a genetic predisposition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old G2P1L1 presents with abdominal pain, bleeding per vaginum in labour and loss of fetal movements. She occasionally smokes but does not consume alcohol or recreational drugs. On examination, her pulse rate is 80 bpm and BP is 150/90 mm of Hg and a tense abdomen on palpation. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abruption placenta", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydramnios", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preterm labour", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Abruption placenta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Abruption placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Painful vaginal bleeding after 28 weeks is suggestive of abruption Abruption is premature separation of a normally implanted placenta It presents as an acute emergency requiring urgent delivery Other clues in this scenario Loss of fetal movements: Abruption is commonly associated with fetal distress/ death Tense abdomen: Typically seen in abruption High BP: Hypertension in pregnancy is commonly associated with abruption</li><li>• Painful vaginal bleeding after 28 weeks is suggestive of abruption</li><li>• Abruption is premature separation of a normally implanted placenta</li><li>• It presents as an acute emergency requiring urgent delivery</li><li>• Other clues in this scenario Loss of fetal movements: Abruption is commonly associated with fetal distress/ death Tense abdomen: Typically seen in abruption High BP: Hypertension in pregnancy is commonly associated with abruption</li><li>• Loss of fetal movements: Abruption is commonly associated with fetal distress/ death Tense abdomen: Typically seen in abruption High BP: Hypertension in pregnancy is commonly associated with abruption</li><li>• Loss of fetal movements: Abruption is commonly associated with fetal distress/ death</li><li>• Tense abdomen: Typically seen in abruption</li><li>• High BP: Hypertension in pregnancy is commonly associated with abruption</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Placenta previa:</li><li>• Option B. Placenta previa:</li><li>• Typically presents as painless vaginal bleeding Commonly presents as recurrent episodes of bleeding Abdomen is soft and non tender High BP is not a risk factor Fetal distress is rare unless the bleeding is excessive</li><li>• Typically presents as painless vaginal bleeding</li><li>• Commonly presents as recurrent episodes of bleeding</li><li>• Abdomen is soft and non tender</li><li>• High BP is not a risk factor</li><li>• Fetal distress is rare unless the bleeding is excessive</li><li>• Option C. Hydramnios:</li><li>• Option C. Hydramnios:</li><li>• This present as a tense, overdistended abdomen due to which the patient will be uncomfortable and may have respiratory distress in severe cases FHR is difficult to hear Vaginal bleed is rare unless associated with abruption</li><li>• This present as a tense, overdistended abdomen due to which the patient will be uncomfortable and may have respiratory distress in severe cases</li><li>• FHR is difficult to hear</li><li>• Vaginal bleed is rare unless associated with abruption</li><li>• Option D. Preterm labor:</li><li>• Option D. Preterm labor:</li><li>• This would present as regular contractions (abdominal pain) before 37 weeks Vaginal bleeding will not be seen (Show may be seen) Fetal heart will be normal The uterus will not be tense or tender, but contractions will be appreciated There wil be associated cervical dilatation and effacement</li><li>• This would present as regular contractions (abdominal pain) before 37 weeks</li><li>• Vaginal bleeding will not be seen (Show may be seen)</li><li>• Fetal heart will be normal</li><li>• The uterus will not be tense or tender, but contractions will be appreciated</li><li>• There wil be associated cervical dilatation and effacement</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• Educational objective</li><li>• Painful vaginal bleeding with loss of fetal movements and tense abdomen after 28 weeks is suggestive of abruptio placentae.</li><li>• Ref: Page 295, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>• Ref: Page 295, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with vertigo, tinnitus, and head tilt. He underwent myringoplasty for the safe type of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) 6 months back. What is your diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perilymphatic fistula", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Labyrinthitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paget's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vestibular schwannoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Perilymphatic fistula", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Perilymphatic fistula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Perilymphatic fistula should be suspected in patients presenting with vestibular symptoms following ear surgery, particularly when associated with activities that change intracranial or middle ear pressure. Diagnosis is largely based on clinical history, symptomatology, and specific imaging tests.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ravi, an aspiring public health official, is reviewing the components of the National Health Mission (NHM) for his upcoming examination. He is aware that NHM focuses on various health strategies and services to improve maternal and child health in India. He comes across a list detailing the key elements under NHM. Which of the following is NOT a standard component mentioned within the official National Health Mission framework? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Target of infant mortality to double digit by 2030", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antenatal care", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Postnatal visits", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Care during labor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Target of infant mortality to double digit by 2030", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/reproductive-and-child-health.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Target of infant mortality to double digit by 2030</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NHM Components</li><li>➤ NHM Components</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Goals of NHM: (According to XII FYP 2012-17)</li><li>➤ Goals of NHM: (According to XII FYP 2012-17)</li><li>➤ Reduce MMR to 1/1000 live births Reduce IMR to 25/1000 live births Reduce TFR to 2.1 Prevention and reduction of anaemia in women aged 15–49 years Prevent and reduce mortality &amp; morbidity from communicable, non-communicable; injuries and emerging diseases Reduce household out-of-pocket expenditure on total health care expenditure Reduce annual incidence and mortality from Tuberculosis by half Reduce prevalence of Leprosy to &lt;1/10000 population and incidence to zero in all districts Annual Malaria Incidence to be &lt;1/1000 Less than 1 per cent microfilaria prevalence in all districts Kala-azar Elimination by 2015, &lt;1 case per 10000 population in all blocks</li><li>➤ Reduce MMR to 1/1000 live births</li><li>➤ Reduce IMR to 25/1000 live births</li><li>➤ Reduce TFR to 2.1</li><li>➤ Prevention and reduction of anaemia in women aged 15–49 years</li><li>➤ Prevent and reduce mortality &amp; morbidity from communicable, non-communicable; injuries and emerging diseases</li><li>➤ Reduce household out-of-pocket expenditure on total health care expenditure</li><li>➤ Reduce annual incidence and mortality from Tuberculosis by half</li><li>➤ Reduce prevalence of Leprosy to &lt;1/10000 population and incidence to zero in all districts</li><li>➤ Annual Malaria Incidence to be &lt;1/1000</li><li>➤ Less than 1 per cent microfilaria prevalence in all districts</li><li>➤ Kala-azar Elimination by 2015, &lt;1 case per 10000 population in all blocks</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old first-time expectant mother comes to the local community health center. She is in her first trimester and is overwhelmed by the amount of advice she has received from well-meaning friends and family. They've given her various opinions on everything, from diet to exercise and even the number of doctor's visits she should have. Wanting to ensure her baby's and her own health, she seeks clarity on how often she should ideally see her doctor. Based on standard guidelines, what is the minimum number of antenatal visits she should have during her pregnancy if it progresses without complications? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "8", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The standard guideline recommends a minimum of four antenatal visits during an uncomplicated pregnancy to ensure effective monitoring and health maintenance of both mother and baby.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is presents with pain along the course of trigeminal nerve while speaking and chewing. Which of the following drug should be given for the management? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lamotrigine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbamazepine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenobarbitone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Carbamazepine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Carbamazepine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carbamazepine is the preferred initial treatment for trigeminal neuralgia due to its effectiveness in reducing the hyperactivity of sodium channels that contributes to the neuropathic pain characteristic of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female with a history of recurrent headaches presented for further evaluation. Evaluation revealed normal hemoglobin and WBC counts with elevated platelet count. Bone marrow showed increased megakaryocytes and JAK2 mutation. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Essential thrombocytosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polycythemia vera", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic myelogenous leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primary myelofibrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Essential thrombocytosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Essential thrombocytosis (ET)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Essential thrombocytosis (ET) is indicated by an elevated platelet count, normal hemoglobin and WBC counts, increased megakaryocytes in the bone marrow, and the presence of JAK2 mutation. It is one of the myeloproliferative neoplasms, characterized primarily by increased platelet production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child ingested a bottle full of iron tablets. Which drug is used as antidote for poisoning? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Luspatercept", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desferrioxamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DMSA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Desferrioxamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Desferrioxamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Desferrioxamine is the crucial antidote for acute iron poisoning, efficiently chelating excess iron and facilitating its excretion through the urine, thereby rapidly reducing the toxicity associated with iron overdose.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother brought her 16-year-old daughter to the hospital with complaints of primary amenorrhea. On evaluation axillary and pubic hair were present and other secondary sexual characteristics normal. USG showed absence of uterus. What is the next step in diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Testosterone levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Karyotyping", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estrogen measurement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LH and FSH measurement", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Karyotyping", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-218.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-219.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Karyotyping</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The probable diagnosis is MRKH syndrome (mullerian agenesis) and the next step in the diagnosis is karyotyping. MRKH syndrome (46XX) presents with primary amenorrhoea in the presence of secondary sexual characters with an absent uterus</li><li>• The probable diagnosis is MRKH syndrome (mullerian agenesis) and the next step in the diagnosis is karyotyping.</li><li>• MRKH syndrome (46XX) presents with primary amenorrhoea in the presence of secondary sexual characters with an absent uterus</li><li>• Evaluation of primary amenorrhoea</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Testosterone levels: Measuring testosterone levels would be more relevant if androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) was suspected. In AIS, patients typically have a 46XY karyotype and elevated testosterone levels.</li><li>• Option A. Testosterone levels:</li><li>• Option C. Estrogen measurement: Estrogen levels might provide some information about ovarian function, but they are not specific for diagnosing the absence of the uterus or differentiating between possible underlying causes of primary amenorrhea.</li><li>• Option C. Estrogen measurement:</li><li>• Option D. LH and FSH measurement: While these measurements are useful in evaluating gonadal function and hypothalamic-pituitary axis, they are not as specific as karyotyping in diagnosing MRKH syndrome or other structural anomalies.</li><li>• Option D. LH and FSH measurement:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a 16-year-old girl presenting with primary amenorrhea, normal secondary sexual characteristics, and an absent uterus on ultrasound, the next diagnostic step should be karyotyping to confirm the diagnosis of MRKH syndrome or other potential conditions.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 451, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 451, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis of the condition shown in the image which has been progressively increasing for the last 6 months? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nevus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Malignant melanoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-63.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-64.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-65.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-66.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-67.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Malignant melanoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malignant melanoma is identified by asymmetry, irregular borders, multiple colors, a diameter larger than 1/4 inch, and changes over time. It has a high risk of metastasis and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man was receiving treatment for a high-grade soft-tissue sarcoma with radiotherapy. Unresponsive to the treatment, he was shifted to chemotherapy. Following chemotherapy, he developed erythematous rashes over the areas where radiotherapy was administered earlier. Which of the following drugs is most likely implicated in this condition? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vincristine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doxorubicin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6-mercaptopurine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Doxorubicin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Doxorubicin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Doxorubicin can trigger Radiation Recall Syndrome in previously irradiated areas when administered post-radiotherapy. This syndrome is an inflammatory reaction that mimics acute radiation effects, and awareness of this potential reaction is crucial for managing patients undergoing combined modalities of cancer treatment. Additionally, it's important to recognize the cardiotoxic risk associated with doxorubicin, which can be mitigated with the concurrent use of cytoprotective drugs like Dexrazoxane.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An operated appendix specimen is shown below. Patient had raised serum chromogranin levels. What is likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colorectal cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystic tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carcinoid tumor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Carcinoid tumor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-33.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Carcinoid tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carcinoid tumors are neuroendocrine tumors that arise from enterochromaffin cells, most commonly in the appendix, and are associated with raised serum chromogranin levels and serotonin release.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "35-year-old female with fever, weight loss, elevated levels of ACE levels presented with chest X-ray as below. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sarcoidosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_150.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sarcoidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The clinical scenario with elevated ACE levels and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is suggestive of sarcoidosis.</li><li>• elevated ACE levels and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy</li><li>• SARCOIDOSIS</li><li>• SARCOIDOSIS</li><li>• C/F: Fever with dry cough, bilateral hilar lymph nodes are enlarged.</li><li>• C/F: Fever with dry cough, bilateral hilar lymph nodes are enlarged.</li><li>• C/F:</li><li>• Non caseating/non-necrotic lymph nodes – Sarcoidosis</li><li>• (Vs Necrotic lymph nodes - TB)</li><li>• Characteristic lab findings: Increased ACE levels, Hypercalcemia Chest X-Ray - 1-2-3 sign / Garland Sign Gallium scan - Lambda sign / Panda sign</li><li>• Characteristic lab findings: Increased ACE levels, Hypercalcemia</li><li>• Characteristic lab findings:</li><li>• Chest X-Ray - 1-2-3 sign / Garland Sign</li><li>• Chest X-Ray -</li><li>• Garland Sign</li><li>• Gallium scan - Lambda sign / Panda sign</li><li>• Gallium scan -</li><li>• Panda sign</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. TB (Tuberculosis ): Typically presents with a more localized infection, often with cavitation and necrotic lymph nodes, which are not evident here.</li><li>• Option A. TB (Tuberculosis</li><li>• Option C. Silicosis : A pneumoconiosis that would show more diffuse nodular opacities predominantly in the upper lobes, not just the hilar lymphadenopathy.</li><li>• Option C. Silicosis</li><li>• Option D. Lymphoma: Could also present with lymphadenopathy, but would more likely show mediastinal widening and may not correlate with elevated ACE levels.</li><li>• Option D. Lymphoma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient presenting with systemic symptoms, elevated ACE levels, and a chest X-ray showing bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, sarcoidosis is a likely diagnosis. This condition's management requires a comprehensive approach involving respiratory, rheumatological, and sometimes dermatological evaluation due to its systemic nature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During submandibular gland tumor removal lingual nerve was found to be damaged. Which of the following statement is correct? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Taste sensation of posterior one-third of tongue is lost", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Taste sensation of anterior two-third of tongue is lost", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "General sensation of posterior one-third of tongue is lost", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "General sensation of anterior two-third of tongue is lost", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. General sensation of anterior two-third of tongue is lost", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/05/untitled-208.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. General sensation of anterior two-third of tongue is lost</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• General sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue is carried by the lingual nerve, which is injured in this case.</li><li>• Lingual nerve damage results in the loss of general sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (V3), carries general sensory information from this area.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A: Incorrect because taste sensation of the posterior one-third of the tongue is carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial nerve IX), not affected by lingual nerve damage.</li><li>• Option A:</li><li>• Option B: Incorrect as the chorda tympani (a branch of the facial nerve, VII), which carries taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds, is not impacted by lingual nerve injury.</li><li>• Option B:</li><li>• Option C: Incorrect because general sensation of the posterior one-third of the tongue is primarily mediated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), unrelated to the lingual nerve.</li><li>• Option C:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sensory supply of the tongue</li><li>➤ Sensory supply of the tongue</li><li>➤ Anterior two-thirds: Lingual nerve (a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve – V3), which carries General sensation from the respective part.</li><li>➤ Chorda Tympani (Branch of Facial nerve 7 th cranial nerve) carries the special sense i.e., Taste Sensation from Anterior two-third part of tongue.</li><li>➤ Taste sensation from Posterior one-third carried by Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial nerve IX),</li><li>➤ Taste sensation from Posterior most part of tongue carried by small branch of the internal laryngeal nerve (branch of the vagus nerve, cranial nerve X).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a Train accident, the morbidity and mortality chart were as follows- 74 dead, 64 were severely injured, 20 moderately injured and 32 mildly injured. Color-coding in triage highest to lowest category is? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "White – Yellow – Red – Black", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow – Red – Green – Black", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Black – Blue – Red – Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Red – Yellow – Green – Black", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Red – Yellow – Green – Black", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Red – Yellow – Green – Black</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In triage, the correct color-coding sequence from highest to lowest priority is Red, Yellow, Green, and Black, ensuring that critically injured patients receive immediate treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the clinical condition from the skin finding as given below? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Influenza virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chicken pox", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-1240.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-170619.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chicken pox</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chickenpox, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, presents with a characteristic itchy, blistering rash that can be rapidly diagnosed using methods such as immunofluorescence assay (IFA) and PCR.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old male presented with history of dysphagia, halitosis and aspiration pneumonia. A barium swallow was done and is given below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diffuse esophageal spasm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Achalasia cardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zenker's diverticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esophageal cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Zenker's diverticulum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/36_hn2ssZI.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102055.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102056.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Zenker’s diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zenker's diverticulum should be suspected in elderly patients presenting with dysphagia, halitosis, and regurgitation of undigested food. It is a pseudo-diverticulum that forms at Killian’s dehiscence and is managed surgically, typically by a procedure known as Dohlman’s procedure to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with head and neck cancer was told by his oncologist that he needs radiotherapy at a total dose of 60 Gy over a 6-week period for his tumor. He was scheduled to receive a dose of 1 Gy per fraction, once daily over 6 days a week, for 6 weeks. What is this type of radiotherapy called? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Regular Fractionated radiotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyper fractionated radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Accelerated fractionation radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brachytherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Regular Fractionated radiotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Regular Fractionated radiotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• This method of dividing the total dose in multiple fractions with a break in between is called Regular/Conventional Fractionated Radiotherapy .</li><li>• Regular/Conventional Fractionated Radiotherapy</li><li>• Fractionated RT: 5Rs</li><li>• Fractionated RT: 5Rs</li><li>• Repair - for normal surrounding cells Repopulation Reoxygenation Reassortment /Redistribution Radiosensitivity</li><li>• Repair - for normal surrounding cells</li><li>• Repopulation</li><li>• Reoxygenation</li><li>• Reassortment /Redistribution</li><li>• Radiosensitivity</li><li>• CHART</li><li>• CHART</li><li>• It stands for: C ontinuous H yper fractionated A ccelerated R adio T herapy Used for: Non-small cell Ca lung</li><li>• It stands for: C ontinuous H yper fractionated A ccelerated R adio T herapy</li><li>• C</li><li>• H</li><li>• A</li><li>• R</li><li>• T</li><li>• Used for: Non-small cell Ca lung</li><li>• Used for:</li><li>• Hypo fractionated Radiotherapy</li><li>• Hypo fractionated Radiotherapy</li><li>• The entire dose is given as single regime.</li><li>• Commonly used in bone metastasis for palliation ~ 8 Gy dose is given in bone metastasis</li><li>• Commonly used in bone metastasis for palliation</li><li>• ~ 8 Gy dose is given in bone metastasis</li><li>• 8 Gy dose</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hyperfractionated Radiotherapy : Involves smaller doses given more than once a day, which isn't the case here.</li><li>• Option B. Hyperfractionated Radiotherapy</li><li>• Option C. Accelerated Fractionation Radiotherapy : Has a shorter overall treatment time with the same total dose, usually by giving more than one fraction per day.</li><li>• Option C. Accelerated Fractionation Radiotherapy</li><li>• Option D. Brachytherapy : Involves placing radioactive sources close to or inside the tumor, which is different from the external beam radiotherapy described.</li><li>• Option D. Brachytherapy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Regular or conventional fractionated radiotherapy is a standard approach in treating cancers, including head and neck cancers. It balances the efficacy of radiation in controlling the tumor with the need to minimize side effects by allowing healthy tissue recovery time between treatments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old female patient with dysphagia underwent a barium swallow whose image is shown. what is the diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nutcracker esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophageal cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Achalasia cardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esophagitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Achalasia cardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-26.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-27.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Achalasia cardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Achalasia Cardia is characterized by a loss of inhibitory ganglion in the esophageal myenteric plexus, leading to loss of LES relaxation and a characteristic 'Bird Beak or Rat Tail' appearance on a barium swallow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young adult presents with a deformed nose after falling from a ladder. The CT scan shows a displaced nasal fracture. What is the ideal time to reduce the fracture in this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Within 12 hours following the injury.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5-7 days following injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "After 2 weeks of injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "After 4 weeks of injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5-7 days following injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102051.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102052.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 5-7 days following injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Best time to reduce the fracture in this patient would be after 5-7 days.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 204</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Iron poisoning antidote is: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deferoxamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "N acetyl cysteine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxygen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ethanol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Deferoxamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Deferoxamine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14 years old girl was brought by her mother with complaints that the child has not even menstruated once. On examination secondary sexual characters are seen and uterus and ovaries were seen to be normal on USG. What is next step of management? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Combined oral contraceptives", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Karyotyping", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reassure mother and patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "LH, FSH level and TSH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Reassure mother and patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Reassure mother and patient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Definition of primary amenorrhea: Absent menses in a girl 13 years in the absence of secondary sexual characters 15 years in the presence of secondary sexual characters Hence this patient, who is 14 years and has presence of secondary sexual characters, we can wait for an additional 1 year before we need to evaluate her</li><li>• Definition of primary amenorrhea: Absent menses in a girl 13 years in the absence of secondary sexual characters 15 years in the presence of secondary sexual characters</li><li>• Absent menses in a girl 13 years in the absence of secondary sexual characters 15 years in the presence of secondary sexual characters</li><li>• Absent menses in a girl 13 years in the absence of secondary sexual characters 15 years in the presence of secondary sexual characters</li><li>• 13 years in the absence of secondary sexual characters 15 years in the presence of secondary sexual characters</li><li>• 13 years in the absence of secondary sexual characters</li><li>• 15 years in the presence of secondary sexual characters</li><li>• Hence this patient, who is 14 years and has presence of secondary sexual characters, we can wait for an additional 1 year before we need to evaluate her</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Combined oral contraceptives : This is indicated only in girls diagnosed with Turner syndrome/ gonadal dysgenesis</li><li>• Option A. Combined oral contraceptives</li><li>• Option B. Karyotype : This is indicated in evaluation of a woman with primary amenorrhoea.</li><li>• Option B. Karyotype</li><li>• Option D. LH, FSH, TSH : This is indicated especially in differentiating hypergonadotropic hypogonadism from hypergonadotropic hypogonadism.</li><li>• Option D. LH, FSH, TSH</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary amenorrhea with secondary sexual characteristics in a 14-year-old girl does not require immediate intervention; reassurance and observation for another year is appropriate.</li><li>➤ Ref: Amenorrhoea, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology, 16 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Amenorrhoea, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology, 16 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has been diagnosed with DNA repair gene defect. He is having hyper pigmentation on the skin and high risk for development of skin cancers as per physical examination. Which of the following is a likely enzyme defect in the patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P53 gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NER gene", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "BRCA 1 gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MSH gene", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. NER gene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) NER gene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deficiencies in NER are associated with the extremely skin cancer-prone inherited disorder xeroderma Pigmentosum. DNA Helicase defect is associated with Werner syndrome ATM gene defect is associated with Ataxia Telangiectasia. MSH gene defect is associated with colon cancer</li><li>➤ Deficiencies in NER are associated with the extremely skin cancer-prone inherited disorder xeroderma Pigmentosum.</li><li>➤ DNA Helicase defect is associated with Werner syndrome</li><li>➤ ATM gene defect is associated with Ataxia Telangiectasia.</li><li>➤ MSH gene defect is associated with colon cancer</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arjun (32, M) comes to your clinic for a regular health check-up with his wife, 28-years-old. He weighs 65 kg and his lifestyle is predominantly sedentary. His wife weighs 55 Kg, is pregnant and is in her second trimester. Her lifestyle is sedentary too. According to the latest NINDA guideline, how many calories should Arjun and his wife respectively consume? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2010 Kcal, 2110 Kcal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2110 Kcal, 2010 Kcal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2180 kcal, 2110 Kcal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2350 kcal, 2150 Kcal", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2350 kcal, 2150 Kcal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-221_OKwX5Yu.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2350 kcal, 2150 kcal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The dietary guidelines of the National Institute of Nutrition are as follows:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to NINDA guidelines, a sedentary man should consume 2350 kcal/day, and a sedentary pregnant woman in her second trimester should consume 2150 kcal/day.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.nin.res.in/downloads/DietaryGuidelinesforNINwebsite.pdf</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.nin.res.in/downloads/DietaryGuidelinesforNINwebsite.pdf</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is having different types of rashes all over the body including papules, vesicles and pustules and these rashes are present all at the same time. The rash is associated with the onset of fever. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chicken pox", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture22.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture159.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chicken pox</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chicken pox is characterized by a polymorphous rash with lesions at different stages (papules, vesicles, pustules) present simultaneously, often associated with fever. The presence of these types of lesions at the same time is a hallmark of chicken pox.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old female presented with intractable seizures. CT Brain shows intracranial space occupying lesion for which the mass was excised and sent for histopathology. The histopathology reported presence of psammoma bodies. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this patient? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Astrocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meningioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ependymoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medulloblastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Meningioma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-59.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-60.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-61.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-62.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Meningioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psammoma bodies are characteristic of meningiomas and are a key histopathological feature distinguishing them from other intracranial tumors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient has a solitary thyroid nodule. What is the first investigation the surgeon should advice before planning thyroid surgery? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TFT", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FNAC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RFT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. TFT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) TFT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first investigation for a patient with a solitary thyroid nodule is the Thyroid Function Test (TFT) to determine the hormonal status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old unmarried woman complained of missed periods. She always had regular menstrual cycles. The pelvic examination is normal. What is the next step of management for this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transvaginal ultrasound", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reassure her that it's normal to have delayed period", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta HCG estimation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum FSH and LH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Beta HCG estimation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Beta HCG estimation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Beta-HCG estimation is the next step. Pregnancy (even if unmarried) needs to be ruled out as it is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea</li><li>• Beta-HCG estimation is the next step.</li><li>• Pregnancy (even if unmarried) needs to be ruled out as it is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Transvaginal ultrasound : Transvaginal ultrasound can be done in women who are sexually active to rule out structural causes in the uterus. It can also detect pregnancy as early as 5 weeks</li><li>• Option A. Transvaginal ultrasound</li><li>• Option B. Reassure her that its normal to have a delayed period : Although anovulatory cycles may occasionally occur, a missed period in a woman with otherwise regular cycles, pregnancy should always be checked.</li><li>• Option B. Reassure her that its normal to have a delayed period</li><li>• Option D. FSH and LH : This is indicated when suspecting hypothalamic/ pituitary causes of anovulation</li><li>• Option D. FSH and LH</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a woman with missed periods and previously regular cycles, Beta-HCG estimation is the first step to rule out pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked in the given image of nasopharynx? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sinus of Morgagni", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Passavant's ridge", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fossa of Rosenmüller", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Torus tubarius", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Torus tubarius", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102057.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102058.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Torus tubarius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The torus tubarius, marked in the image, is an anatomical landmark in the nasopharynx formed by the cartilage of the Eustachian tube. Its identification is essential in the evaluation of nasopharyngeal anatomy and pathology, particularly in the context of nasopharyngeal carcinoma arising from the nearby fossa of Rosenmüller.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is involved in protein folding: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chaperone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ubiquitin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arginine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chaperone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chaperone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chaperons are protein which helps in folding of protein. They are present in Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER), where Protein Synthesis occurs on Ribosomes. Chaperons are present in RER, so that during the translation process, side by side folding can also occur, so that the end result of translation is a fully folded polypeptide chain e.g. of chaperons BIP (Immunoglobulin Heavy chain Binding Protein) GRP – 78 GRP – 94 GRP – 170 Calnexin Calreticulin HSP – 40 (Also known as Cochaperone) HSP – 47 (Heat Shock Protein) HSP – 70 HSP – 90 ERP – 29 (Endoplasmic Reticulum protein) ERP – 57</li><li>➤ Chaperons are protein which helps in folding of protein. They are present in Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER), where Protein Synthesis occurs on Ribosomes.</li><li>➤ Chaperons are present in RER, so that during the translation process, side by side folding can also occur, so that the end result of translation is a fully folded polypeptide chain</li><li>➤ e.g. of chaperons BIP (Immunoglobulin Heavy chain Binding Protein) GRP – 78 GRP – 94 GRP – 170 Calnexin Calreticulin HSP – 40 (Also known as Cochaperone) HSP – 47 (Heat Shock Protein) HSP – 70 HSP – 90 ERP – 29 (Endoplasmic Reticulum protein) ERP – 57</li><li>➤ e.g. of chaperons</li><li>➤ BIP (Immunoglobulin Heavy chain Binding Protein) GRP – 78 GRP – 94 GRP – 170 Calnexin Calreticulin HSP – 40 (Also known as Cochaperone) HSP – 47 (Heat Shock Protein) HSP – 70 HSP – 90 ERP – 29 (Endoplasmic Reticulum protein) ERP – 57</li><li>➤ BIP (Immunoglobulin Heavy chain Binding Protein)</li><li>➤ GRP – 78</li><li>➤ GRP – 94</li><li>➤ GRP – 170</li><li>➤ Calnexin</li><li>➤ Calreticulin</li><li>➤ HSP – 40 (Also known as Cochaperone)</li><li>➤ HSP – 47 (Heat Shock Protein)</li><li>➤ HSP – 70</li><li>➤ HSP – 90</li><li>➤ ERP – 29 (Endoplasmic Reticulum protein)</li><li>➤ ERP – 57</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 582-584</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 582-584</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person returning from malaria endemic country should continue chemoprophylaxis for how long? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 week", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 4 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For effective malaria prevention, individuals returning from malaria-endemic regions should continue their chemoprophylaxis for 4 weeks after returning, regardless of whether they used doxycycline or mefloquine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A G2P1L1 lady underwent LSCS in previous pregnancy for fetal distress. This time she had an uneventful vaginal birth after caesarean section (VBAC) but the placenta could not be removed completely. The cord snapped on traction, but the placenta did not deliver. She also started to bleed more profusely now. What is the likely reason for this? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abruptio placenta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Placenta Percreta", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Placenta Percreta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Placenta Percreta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Morbidly adherent placenta, such as placenta percreta, should be suspected in cases of retained placenta with a history of previous cesarean section, and it often requires urgent hysterectomy to manage severe hemorrhage.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 484, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 484, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rakesh is a young emergency physician, who recently began his duty at a district hospital in Uttar Pradesh. One fateful evening, he received news of a catastrophic train accident nearby. As victims began pouring into the emergency department, he quickly realized the necessity for triage - an essential procedure during mass casualty events to determine the order of treatment based on the severity of a patient's condition. Keeping in mind the situation described, with 74 deceased, 64 severely injured, 20 moderately injured, and 32 mildly injured individuals, Dr. Rakesh recalls the color coding system used in triage. What is the correct order of priority, from the highest to the lowest? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Green - Yellow - Red - Black", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow - Red - Green - Black", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Black - Yellow – Red - Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Red – Yellow – Green – Black", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Red – Yellow – Green – Black", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-131911.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Red – Yellow – Green – Black</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image of a cut specimen of gall bladder is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carcinoma gall bladder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mixed gall bladder stone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gall bladder polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Strawberry gall bladder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carcinoma gall bladder", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-53.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-54.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-55.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Carcinoma gall bladder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carcinoma of the gall bladder presents as a fungating mass within the lumen, unlike gall bladder stones, polyps, or the speckled appearance of a strawberry gall bladder.</li><li>➤ Strawberry Gallbladder (Note the appearance of mucosa)</li><li>➤ Strawberry Gallbladder (Note the appearance of mucosa)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the Instrument shown below? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LMA ProSeal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "LMA Supreme", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LMA classic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I-GEL LMA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LMA ProSeal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-112054.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-112135.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-189.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-112218.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) LMA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The LMA depicted in the image in the question is LMA Proseal.</li><li>➤ The LMA depicted in the image in the question is LMA Proseal.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 1389-1391</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs</li><li>➤ 1389-1391</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sunita, a prominent researcher in Bengaluru, is evaluating the impact of yoga on reducing the risk of infections among healthcare professionals. Her study cohort comprises staff members, nurses, and junior resident doctors, and she further stratifies the participants based on gender. Preliminary findings suggest a 25% decreased risk of infections in those practicing yoga regularly. Given the categorical nature of her variables (job roles and gender) and the outcome of interest (reduced infection risk), Dr. Sunita aims to test the significance of these results. What statistical test would be most appropriate for her to determine the significance of the observed differences in infection rates among the various groups? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chi square test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Z test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Correlation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chi square test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-2020-05.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-123438.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Chi square test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting the enzyme, catechol-0-methyltransferase? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amantadine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotigotine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tolcapone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Selegiline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tolcapone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tolcapone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tolcapone is a COMT inhibitor used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, enhancing the effectiveness of L-dopa therapy by reducing the peripheral and central metabolism of L-dopa and decreasing competition at the blood-brain barrier, thus increasing the availability of dopamine in the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a diabetic patient which of the following is a macrovascular complication that occurs in the later stage of the disease? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Foot ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nephropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coronary artery disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Coronary artery disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Coronary artery disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coronary artery disease is a macrovascular complication of diabetes mellitus and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in diabetic patients. It highlights the need for cardiovascular risk management, including the use of statins, in this population.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Enzyme deficient in Tay Sachs disease is: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hexosaminidase A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucocerebrosidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "G-6-PD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hexosaminidase A &amp; B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hexosaminidase A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-094115.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hexosaminidase A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tay-Sachs disease, is an autosomal recessive disorder involving neurodegeneration and early death. It is a sphingolipidoses or lipid storage disease, due to deficiency of the enzyme Hexosaminidase A. C/F: Mental retardation. Cherry red spot in the macula but No organomegaly.</li><li>➤ C/F:</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 245</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 245</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman 3 months postpartum who regularly breastfeeds presented with amenorrhea for 3 months and is concerned about this problem and is requesting surgery. Before considering surgery what can be done to manage this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laparoscopic ovarian drilling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contraceptives to be prescribed", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulsatile GRH for ovarian stimulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reassure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Reassure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Reassure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The best management of this patient is to reassure her, as this is normal during the postpartum period and is due to lactational amenorrhea. A woman who is exclusively breastfeeding will be anovulatory due to high prolactin levels and hence have amenorrhea. Lactational amenorrhea is a natural contraceptive method that occurs when a woman breastfeeds exclusively, leading to suppression of the menstrual cycle.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling : Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is done as a second-line measure in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) who do not respond to ovulation induction methods. It is not appropriate for managing lactational amenorrhea.</li><li>• Option A. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling</li><li>• Option B. Contraceptives to be prescribed : Contraceptives may be prescribed to women who are not exclusively breastfeeding, are not amenorrheic, or if their infant is older than 6 months. In this case, the patient is exclusively breastfeeding and experiencing normal lactational amenorrhea, so contraceptives are not necessary.</li><li>• Option B. Contraceptives to be prescribed</li><li>• Option C. Pulsatile GnRH : Pulsatile GnRH has no role in the management of lactational amenorrhea. It is typically used for ovarian stimulation in specific infertility treatments, which is not relevant for this patient.</li><li>• Option C. Pulsatile GnRH</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lactational amenorrhea is a normal physiological response to exclusive breastfeeding, leading to anovulation and temporary cessation of menstruation due to elevated prolactin levels.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 635, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 635, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old boy is brought to the emergency unit after he is pushed down while playing. After falling on his knees, he developed swelling and bruising of his left knee. History revealed that his maternal uncle is also having similar presentation. What could be the probable mode of inheritance of this clinical condition? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "XLD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "XLR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "AD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. XLR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture190.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) XLR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder characterized by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child is presented with short stature. On biochemical examination, growth hormone levels are normal with very low levels of IGF-1. Which of the following could be the possible defect in this child? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GH deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GH receptor deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "GHRH deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GHRH receptor deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. GH receptor deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) GH receptor deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A child with short stature, normal GH levels, and low IGF-1 levels likely has a GH receptor deficiency (Laron dwarfism). This condition results from the body's inability to respond to GH due to defective receptors, leading to low IGF-1 levels and subsequent growth failure. Treatment involves administering recombinant IGF-1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old female presented previous history of chlamydia infection now presents with low-grade fever and non-specific lower abdominal pain. Examination reveals mild diffuse lower abdominal tenderness on deep palpation, cervical motion tenderness, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. What is the long-term sequelae of this condition? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infertility", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pelvic organ Prolapse", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Infertility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Infertility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease most likely due to Chlamydia trachomatis Long term sequelae of PID include Infertility Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy Tubo-ovarian abscess Hydrosalpinx</li><li>• The diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease most likely due to Chlamydia trachomatis</li><li>• Long term sequelae of PID include Infertility Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy Tubo-ovarian abscess Hydrosalpinx</li><li>• Infertility Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy Tubo-ovarian abscess Hydrosalpinx</li><li>• Infertility</li><li>• Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Tubo-ovarian abscess</li><li>• Hydrosalpinx</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Risk factors of uterine cancer are:</li><li>• Option B. Risk factors of uterine cancer are:</li><li>• Endometrial hyperplasia Unopposed estrogen: PCOS, anovulation, HRT Tamoxifen Nulliparity Diabetes Family h/o cancer syndromes</li><li>• Endometrial hyperplasia</li><li>• Unopposed estrogen: PCOS, anovulation, HRT</li><li>• Tamoxifen</li><li>• Nulliparity</li><li>• Diabetes</li><li>• Family h/o cancer syndromes</li><li>• Option C. Risk factors for Pelvic organ prolapse are:</li><li>• Option C. Risk factors for Pelvic organ prolapse are:</li><li>• Hypoestrogenism Multiple vaginal births; unsupervised births, forceps delivery Raised intra-abdominal pressure Congenital weakness of muscles/ connective tissue disorders</li><li>• Hypoestrogenism</li><li>• Multiple vaginal births; unsupervised births, forceps delivery</li><li>• Raised intra-abdominal pressure</li><li>• Congenital weakness of muscles/ connective tissue disorders</li><li>• Option D. Risk factors for cervical cancer:</li><li>• Option D. Risk factors for cervical cancer:</li><li>• HPV infection Early age at 1 st intercourse Multiple sexual partners Smoking Immunocompromised states Low socio-economic status Prolonged use of OCPs (?)</li><li>• HPV infection</li><li>• Early age at 1 st intercourse</li><li>• Multiple sexual partners</li><li>• Smoking</li><li>• Immunocompromised states</li><li>• Low socio-economic status</li><li>• Prolonged use of OCPs (?)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The long-term sequelae of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include infertility, increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy, tubo-ovarian abscess, and hydrosalpinx.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 144, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 144, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are components of Tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Overriding of aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tricuspid stenosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right ventricular hypertrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular Septal defect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tricuspid stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture33.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tricuspid stenosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tetralogy of Fallot consists of four components: a large ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis, an overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient presents with frequent urination, nocturia, enuresis. 24-hour urine volume was measured and recorded to be 7 liters. The urine osmolarity was 260 mOsm/L. ADH assay was performed and reported as 0.8 pg/ml. An MRI of the brain in T1 weighted indicated absence of pituitary bright spot. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nephrogenic DI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mannitol infusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary polydipsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pituitary DI", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pituitary DI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pituitary DI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pituitary (central) diabetes insipidus is characterized by a deficiency in ADH, leading to polyuria, dilute urine, and low ADH levels, often accompanied by the absence of the pituitary bright spot on MRI.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Anjali, an epidemiologist, consults on a case where a teacher has been exposed to an infectious disease. To prevent the spread within the community, she recommends keeping him isolated until the incubation period has passed. What is this preventative strategy called? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Absolute quarantine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isolation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Generation time", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serial interval", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Absolute quarantine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Absolute quarantine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ \"Absolute quarantine\" is implemented to monitor exposed, asymptomatic individuals during the incubation period to prevent potential outbreaks in community settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient on anti-cancer therapy developed infection. Blood Analysis revealed a Total Leucocyte Count of 2000/mm3. Which of the following drug is likely to be effective in this patient? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Romiplostim", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oprelvekin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Filgrastim", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythropoietin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Filgrastim", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Filgrastim</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Filgrastim is the recommended treatment for chemotherapy-induced leukopenia, due to its ability to specifically stimulate the proliferation of granulocytes and thereby counteract the reduced white blood cell counts that significantly increase infection risk in cancer patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which amino acids is required for the formation of nitric oxide in the blood vessels? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lysine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arginine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Histidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tryptophan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arginine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arginine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arginine is essential for the production of nitric oxide, a critical molecule for vasodilation and endothelial health.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "X-ray of a 2-year-old child presenting in an unconscious state is given, what is the possible diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumatosis Intestinalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subcutaneous Emphysema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duodenal Atresia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pneumoperitoneum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_144.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_145.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_148.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_147.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_146.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pneumoperitoneum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"football sign\" on an abdominal X-ray of a young child is a classic indication of pneumoperitoneum, suggesting a significant underlying pathology such as gastrointestinal perforation that requires immediate medical attention to determine the cause and appropriate intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image shown below? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Taenia solium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichuris trichiura eggs", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "H.Nana", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Trichuris trichiura eggs", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/16_FEh80M6.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Trichuris trichiura eggs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichuris trichiura eggs are identified by their barrel shape, thick shell, and polar plugs. They are unembryonated when passed in stool and are associated with iron deficiency anemia and rectal prolapse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After undergoing a vasectomy performed by Dr. Patel, a 35-year-old farmer finds out three months later through his wife’s unexpected pregnancy that crucial post-procedure advice may have been missed. What should Dr. Patel have recommended immediately after the procedure to ensure its effectiveness? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abstinence for 3 months after the procedure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Usage of barrier methods for 3 months after the procedure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "OCPS usage for 1 month", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Female condom usage for 1 month", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Usage of barrier methods for 3 months after the procedure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Usage of barrier methods for 3 months after the procedure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Following a vasectomy, barrier methods should be used for three months or until a semen analysis confirms no sperm presence, ensuring the effectiveness of the procedure in preventing pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Post-operative advice:</li><li>➤ Post-operative advice:</li><li>➤ Patient need 30 ejaculations after vasectomy, before turning sterile Use of barriers methods till aspermia Avoid bath for 24 hours after operation T-bandage for support for 15 days, keep site dry Avoid cycling, lifting heavy weights for 15 days Stitch removal on 5th day</li><li>➤ Patient need 30 ejaculations after vasectomy, before turning sterile</li><li>➤ Use of barriers methods till aspermia</li><li>➤ Avoid bath for 24 hours after operation</li><li>➤ T-bandage for support for 15 days, keep site dry</li><li>➤ Avoid cycling, lifting heavy weights for 15 days</li><li>➤ Stitch removal on 5th day</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ After-effects of vasectomy:</li><li>➤ After-effects of vasectomy:</li><li>➤ Operative: Pain, scrotal hematoma, local infection Sperm granules: 7 mm painful mass; appears 10–14 days after vasectomy; can provide a medium for re-anastomosis of vas; using metal clips reduce this problem; Spontaneous recanalization - seen in 0–6% cases; require regular follow-up for 3 years Autoimmune response - seen in 54% of vasectomised persons; require regular follow-up for 3 years Psychological - diminution of sex vigour, impotence, fatigue, headache Post-Vasectomy Pain Syndrome: primary long-term complication (permanent feeling)</li><li>➤ Operative: Pain, scrotal hematoma, local infection</li><li>➤ Sperm granules: 7 mm painful mass; appears 10–14 days after vasectomy; can provide a medium for re-anastomosis of vas; using metal clips reduce this problem;</li><li>➤ Spontaneous recanalization - seen in 0–6% cases; require regular follow-up for 3 years</li><li>➤ Autoimmune response - seen in 54% of vasectomised persons; require regular follow-up for 3 years</li><li>➤ Psychological - diminution of sex vigour, impotence, fatigue, headache</li><li>➤ Post-Vasectomy Pain Syndrome: primary long-term complication (permanent feeling)</li><li>➤ Failure of vasectomy – MCC in India: Mistaken identification of vas deferens</li><li>➤ Failure of vasectomy</li><li>➤ Failure rate (Pearl Index): 0.15 per HWY Confirmation of successful vasectomy by Histology - Smear of squeeze of vas by Wright’s stain</li><li>➤ Failure rate (Pearl Index): 0.15 per HWY</li><li>➤ Confirmation of successful vasectomy by Histology - Smear of squeeze of vas by Wright’s stain</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following indications is not true regarding medical termination of pregnancy? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pregnancy resulting from rape", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "When the family is large", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Baby with serious mental or physical abnormality", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Failure of contraceptives", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. When the family is large", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) When the family is large</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act provides specific indications under which a pregnancy can be legally terminated. The following are the primary indications:</li><li>• Maternal (Therapeutic or Medical Indication): When there is a significant risk to the mother's health if the pregnancy continues. This includes conditions such as: Cardiac disease Chronic kidney disease Malignant hypertension Malignancies (e.g., cervical or breast cancer) Psychiatric illnesses Uncontrolled epilepsy Eugenic/Fetal: When there are significant fetal anomalies, which could include: Congenital anomalies Chromosomal anomalies Infections like rubella Social: This includes situations such as pregnancies resulting from rape or where continuing the pregnancy would cause significant social or psychological distress. Failure of Contraception: This indication allows for termination when contraceptives fail, and the pregnancy is unintended.</li><li>• Maternal (Therapeutic or Medical Indication): When there is a significant risk to the mother's health if the pregnancy continues. This includes conditions such as: Cardiac disease Chronic kidney disease Malignant hypertension Malignancies (e.g., cervical or breast cancer) Psychiatric illnesses Uncontrolled epilepsy</li><li>• Maternal (Therapeutic or Medical Indication):</li><li>• Cardiac disease Chronic kidney disease Malignant hypertension Malignancies (e.g., cervical or breast cancer) Psychiatric illnesses Uncontrolled epilepsy</li><li>• Cardiac disease</li><li>• Chronic kidney disease</li><li>• Malignant hypertension</li><li>• Malignancies (e.g., cervical or breast cancer)</li><li>• Psychiatric illnesses</li><li>• Uncontrolled epilepsy</li><li>• Eugenic/Fetal: When there are significant fetal anomalies, which could include: Congenital anomalies Chromosomal anomalies Infections like rubella</li><li>• Eugenic/Fetal:</li><li>• Congenital anomalies Chromosomal anomalies Infections like rubella</li><li>• Congenital anomalies</li><li>• Chromosomal anomalies</li><li>• Infections like rubella</li><li>• Social: This includes situations such as pregnancies resulting from rape or where continuing the pregnancy would cause significant social or psychological distress.</li><li>• Social:</li><li>• Failure of Contraception: This indication allows for termination when contraceptives fail, and the pregnancy is unintended.</li><li>• Failure of Contraception:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pregnancy resulting from rape: This is a valid indication for MTP under the social category as the pregnancy is a result of an act of rape and could lead to significant psychological and social distress.</li><li>• Option A. Pregnancy resulting from rape:</li><li>• Option C. Baby with serious mental or physical abnormality: This falls under the eugenic/fetal category and is a valid reason for MTP, as carrying such a pregnancy to term could result in severe mental or physical abnormalities in the baby.</li><li>• Option C. Baby with serious mental or physical abnormality:</li><li>• Option D. Failure of contraceptives: This is a valid indication under the MTP Act. It recognizes that unintended pregnancies due to contraceptive failure can be terminated.</li><li>• Option D. Failure of contraceptives:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The MTP Act allows for the termination of pregnancy under specific conditions, including maternal health risks, fetal anomalies, pregnancies resulting from rape, and failure of contraception.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of substance abuse? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Huffing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blading", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bagging", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sniffing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bagging", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/87.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bagging</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a person inhaling a chemical from a bag, which is a method of substance abuse known as bagging. In this method, the substance is placed inside a plastic or paper bag and then inhaled.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Huffing: Huffing involves sniffing a chemical from a cloth and then inhaling it by mouth or nose. It is different from bagging as it does not involve using a bag.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Huffing:</li><li>• Option B. Blading: This is not a recognized term for a method of substance abuse in common medical or forensic contexts.</li><li>• Option B. Blading:</li><li>• Option D. Sniffing: Sniffing is the inhalation of a liquid from an open container, which differs from bagging as it does not use a bag to contain the substance.</li><li>• Option D. Sniffing:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Huffing . Sniffing a chemical from a cloth and then inhaling it by mouth or nose</li><li>➤ Huffing</li><li>➤ Bagging . Sniffing a chemical from a bag</li><li>➤ Bagging</li><li>➤ Sniffing . Inhaling of liquid from an open container.</li><li>➤ Sniffing</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A heart patient suddenly has chest pain. Which isoenzyme of LDH enzyme is elevated: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LDH -1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "LDH -5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LDH -2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LDH -4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LDH -1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) LDH-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LDH-1 is an isoenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase predominantly found in cardiac muscle. During a heart-related event such as myocardial infarction (heart attack), the damage to cardiac cells can lead to the release of LDH-1 into the bloodstream, causing an elevation in its levels.</li><li>➤ In normal person, LDH-2 is more than LDH-1 in serum. BUT in myocardial infarction, LDH-1&gt;&gt;LDH-2. This is known as Flipped ratio of LDH in Myocardial Infarction.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 67</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 67</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with a gradual loss of visual acuity in the right eye. A post-contrast MRI reveals 'tram-track' appearance, as shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic nerve glioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic nerve sheath Meningioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhabdomyosarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Optic nerve sheath Meningioma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_128.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_129.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_130.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_131.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_132.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Optic nerve sheath Meningioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Optic nerve sheath meningioma should be considered in patients presenting with gradual visual loss and characteristic 'tram-track' appearance on post-contrast MRI. This finding highlights the tumor's pattern of encasing the optic nerve, leading to symptoms through compressive effects. Early diagnosis and management can help preserve visual function and address any potential complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Iyer, treating a 40-year-old farmer with a chronic cough and weight loss in a rural Tamil Nadu clinic, suspects tuberculosis due to the region's high incidence and the patient's symptoms. What is the initial recommended test for diagnosing TB? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chest X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sputum smear examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CB-NAAT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liquid culture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sputum smear examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sputum smear examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ First investigation for TB Diagnosis Sputum smear examination First investigation for TB Diagnosis among HIV positives CBNAAT</li><li>➤ First investigation for TB Diagnosis Sputum smear examination</li><li>➤ First investigation for TB Diagnosis among HIV positives CBNAAT</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 8-month-old child is brought to the ED by his mother with complains of incessant crying and blood-stained stools. The barium enema is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intussusception", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CHPS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intussusception", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_133.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_134.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_135.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_136.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_137.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_138.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Intussusception</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of intussusception is confirmed by the classic radiographic \"coil-spring\" or \"pincer\" sign on barium enema, coupled with the clinical presentation of cyclical pain and bloody stools. Prompt diagnosis is crucial as intussusception can lead to bowel necrosis and perforation if not treated in a timely manner.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient with heart disease has been brought to the emergency with breathlessness. He also has bipedal edema as shown in the image below. Which of the following is the best drug for the management of edema in this patient? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ACE inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Na-K-2CI symporter inhibitor in loop of Henle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Na-CI symporter inhibitor in DCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aldosterone blocker in DCT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Na-K-2CI symporter inhibitor in loop of Henle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture1_t9PCIYs.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Na-K-2CI symporter inhibitor in loop of Henle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In acute decompensated heart failure, especially presenting with significant edema, loop diuretics like Furosemide are the best choice due to their potent diuretic effects, which are essential for rapidly reducing fluid overload and easing cardiac workload.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a senior resident in the OBG department, you would consider uterine artery embolization as a treatment option in all of the following cases except: (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patient with Postpartum hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prior to the removal of Placenta accreta in Multiparous woman", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Patient diagnosed with calcified and pedunculated submucous fibroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiparous woman with menorrhagia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Patient diagnosed with calcified and pedunculated submucous fibroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Patient diagnosed with calcified and pedunculated submucous fibroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Uterine artery embolization (UAE) is a procedure used to control bleeding and treat conditions like fibroids by reducing the blood supply to the uterus. While it is effective for many indications, it is contraindicated in certain situations. Pedunculated and submucous fibroids are contraindications for UAE due to the risk of expulsion and infection of the fibroids after the procedure.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Patient with Postpartum hemorrhage : UAE is an effective treatment for controlling primary and secondary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH).</li><li>• Option A. Patient with Postpartum hemorrhage</li><li>• Option B. Prior to the removal of Placenta accreta in Multiparous woman : UAE can be used to manage bleeding associated with placenta accreta syndromes, making it a useful adjunct prior to surgical intervention.</li><li>• Option B. Prior to the removal of Placenta accreta in Multiparous woman</li><li>• Option D. Multiparous woman with menorrhagia : UAE is indicated for the treatment of menorrhagia, especially in cases where it is caused by fibroids or other uterine vascular issues.</li><li>• Option D. Multiparous woman with menorrhagia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uterine artery embolization is contraindicated in patients with calcified and pedunculated submucous fibroids due to the risk of complications such as expulsion and infection.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 283, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 283, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In retroperitoneal trauma, in which zones of retroperitoneum is surgical exploration mandatory? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-57.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-58.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In retroperitoneal trauma, Zone 1 requires mandatory surgical exploration due to the high risk of vascular injuries involving the aorta and inferior vena cava.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following feature associated with Barrett’s esophagus? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous Metaplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intestinal columnar metaplasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stratified Metaplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Simple columnar metaplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intestinal columnar metaplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/14/picture1_I5FrDQ0.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Intestinal columnar metaplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Barrett’s esophagus is characterized by the replacement of the normal squamous epithelium of the esophagus with intestinal-type columnar epithelium, often as a result of chronic GERD.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following incisions is not used for Appendicectomy? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kocher’s incision", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lanz’", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "McBurney’s incision", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rutherford Morrison", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kocher’s incision", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-34.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kocher’s incision</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kocher’s incision is used for open cholecystectomy, not appendectomy. For appendectomy, incisions such as McBurney’s, Lanz, and Rutherford Morrison are utilized.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old boy presents in the emergency because of development of allergy due to pollen inhalation. Which cell is important in the pathogenesis of this condition? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Macrophages", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Helper T cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytotoxic T cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Helper T cell", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Helper T cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation: -</li><li>• The two cells critical in the pathogenesis of Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction are TH2 cells and mast cells</li><li>• TH2 cells and mast cells</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Macrophages: Involved in phagocytosis and antigen presentation, but not directly in the pathogenesis of Type 1 hypersensitivity. They play a key role in chronic inflammation and innate immunity.</li><li>• Option A. Macrophages:</li><li>• Option B. Lymphocytes: A general term for white blood cells, including T cells and B cells, but the specific role of TH2 cells is critical in allergies.</li><li>• Option B. Lymphocytes:</li><li>• Option D. Cytotoxic T cells: These cells are involved in directly killing infected or cancerous cells but do not play a primary role in allergic reactions. They are more involved in Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions and cellular immunity.</li><li>• Option D. Cytotoxic T cells:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The development of allergy due to pollen inhalation is primarily driven by Helper T cells (TH2), which are crucial in the pathogenesis of Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old presents with chest pain, dyspnea increasing on lying down and relieved on sitting upright. On examination, heart sounds are muffled. CXR given below. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tetralogy of Fallot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transposition of great arteries", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pericardial effusion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pericardial effusion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture27.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pericardial effusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pericardial effusion presents with symptoms such as chest pain and dyspnea that worsen when lying down, muffled heart sounds, and characteristic X-ray findings like cardiomegaly, rounded cardiophrenic angles, and a \"money bag\" appearance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is contraindicated in Acute Intermittent Porphyria? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiopentone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thiopentone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thiopentone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Contraindications of Thiopentone:</li><li>➤ Contraindications of Thiopentone:</li><li>➤ Acute Intermittent Porphyria : As already mentioned, Thiopentone can exacerbate AIP symptoms. Shock : Thiopentone can cause a decrease in blood pressure, which can be harmful in patients already in shock. Bronchial Asthma : Thiopentone has the potential to cause bronchoconstriction, which can be dangerous in patients with bronchial asthma as it may trigger an asthma attack.</li><li>➤ Acute Intermittent Porphyria : As already mentioned, Thiopentone can exacerbate AIP symptoms.</li><li>➤ Acute Intermittent Porphyria</li><li>➤ Shock : Thiopentone can cause a decrease in blood pressure, which can be harmful in patients already in shock.</li><li>➤ Shock</li><li>➤ Bronchial Asthma : Thiopentone has the potential to cause bronchoconstriction, which can be dangerous in patients with bronchial asthma as it may trigger an asthma attack.</li><li>➤ Bronchial Asthma</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 426</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 426</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mehta, a seasoned physician in a tertiary care hospital in Cochin, is witnessing an upsurge in cases of a novel viral illness. He is actively involved in collating data on patient outcomes, specifically focusing on understanding the severity and lethality of this newfound disease. To determine the percentage of people diagnosed with the disease who eventually succumb to it, which metric would Dr. Mehta most likely employ to indicate the Severity / lethality of disease? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proportional mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Case specific death rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Case fatality rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Total deaths due to that disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Case fatality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-124731.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Case fatality rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Case Fatality Rate (CFR) is the most appropriate metric to use when determining the severity or lethality of a disease, as it indicates the percentage of people diagnosed with the disease who eventually succumb to it.</li><li>➤ Case Fatality Rate (CFR)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A veterinary surgeon presents with fever, muscle pain, joint pain, and weight loss for a few weeks. The fever persists for weeks before resolving, only to relapse. You obtain his blood sample and inoculate it on the medium shown below to isolate the organism. What is the likely organism? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burkholderia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coxiella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycobacterium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brucella", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Brucella", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture38.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Brucella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brucella is identified in individuals with undulating fever and systemic symptoms, particularly in those working with animals. The organism can be cultured on Castaneda biphasic medium and requires specific serological tests for confirmation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "15-year-old girl was kidnapped from school. The kidnapper was nabbed by the police, but he died in police custody. Who would do the inquiry for the kidnapper’s death? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medical officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Police officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Judicial magistrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lawyer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Judicial magistrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Judicial magistrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inquiry is carried out by a judicial/ executive magistrate is cases of:</li><li>➤ Death in police custody Death in police firing Death in mental hospital</li><li>➤ Death in police custody</li><li>➤ Death in police firing</li><li>➤ Death in mental hospital</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the labelled structure in the image? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Midbrain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pons", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medulla", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebellum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Midbrain", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_124.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_125.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Midbrain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The midbrain is identified on MRI scans by anatomical structures including the red nuclei, substantia nigra, and the cerebral aqueduct.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male patient presented to the hospital with palpitations. Physical examination showed diastolic murmur in the left 3rd intercostal space with pistol shots over femoral arteries. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aortic stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tricuspid regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aortic regurgitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aortic regurgitation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A diastolic murmur in the left 3rd intercostal space with pistol shots over femoral arteries is highly indicative of aortic regurgitation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harrison 21E/Physical Examination of CVS/Chapter 239</li><li>➤ Ref: Harrison 21E/Physical Examination of CVS/Chapter 239</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 47-year-old male patient comes with abdominal pain and hepatomegaly. Ultrasound image is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydatid cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amebic liver abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liver abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatic cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydatid cyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-50.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-113429.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-52.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydatid cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A hydatid cyst shows a characteristic 'Water-lily' sign on ultrasound due to detached endocyst membranes. It is caused by Echinococcus granulosus and is managed with Albendazole and PAIR.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following clinical syndromes is most likely in this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cushing syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Advanced obesity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acromegaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PCOS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cushing syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/medicine-16.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cushing syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cushing syndrome is characterized by a constellation of signs and symptoms due to prolonged exposure to high cortisol levels, including facial plethora, buffalo hump, violaceous striae, easy bruising, and muscle weakness. It requires specific screening tests for diagnosis, and the most common cause is iatrogenic glucocorticoid use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Minimum number of antenatal visits according to WHO is? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Protocol for Antenatal Visits</li><li>• Protocol for Antenatal Visits</li><li>• MOHFW (Indian guidelines)</li><li>• MOHFW (Indian guidelines)</li><li>• At least 4 visits including the first (Registration visit) – Minimum requirement Suggested schedule 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks 2nd Visit: 14 – 26 weeks 3rd Visit: 28 – 34 weeks 4th visit: 36 weeks – term</li><li>• At least 4 visits including the first (Registration visit) – Minimum requirement</li><li>• At least</li><li>• 4 visits</li><li>• Suggested schedule 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks 2nd Visit: 14 – 26 weeks 3rd Visit: 28 – 34 weeks 4th visit: 36 weeks – term</li><li>• 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks 2nd Visit: 14 – 26 weeks 3rd Visit: 28 – 34 weeks 4th visit: 36 weeks – term</li><li>• 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks</li><li>• 2nd Visit: 14 – 26 weeks</li><li>• 3rd Visit: 28 – 34 weeks</li><li>• 4th visit: 36 weeks – term</li><li>• WHO (2016): 8 visits.</li><li>• WHO (2016): 8 visits.</li><li>• 1st Trimester: Contact 1: upto 12 weeks 2nd Trimester Contact 2 (20 weeks) &amp; Contact 3 (26 weeks) 3rd Trimester Contact 4 (30 week), Contact 5 (34 weeks), contact 6 (36 weeks), contact 7 (38 weeks) &amp; Contact 8 (40 weeks)</li><li>• 1st Trimester: Contact 1: upto 12 weeks</li><li>• Contact 1: upto 12 weeks</li><li>• Contact 1: upto 12 weeks</li><li>• 2nd Trimester Contact 2 (20 weeks) &amp; Contact 3 (26 weeks)</li><li>• Contact 2 (20 weeks) &amp; Contact 3 (26 weeks)</li><li>• Contact 2 (20 weeks) &amp; Contact 3 (26 weeks)</li><li>• 3rd Trimester Contact 4 (30 week), Contact 5 (34 weeks), contact 6 (36 weeks), contact 7 (38 weeks) &amp; Contact 8 (40 weeks)</li><li>• Contact 4 (30 week), Contact 5 (34 weeks), contact 6 (36 weeks), contact 7 (38 weeks) &amp; Contact 8 (40 weeks)</li><li>• Contact 4 (30 week), Contact 5 (34 weeks), contact 6 (36 weeks), contact 7 (38 weeks) &amp; Contact 8 (40 weeks)</li><li>• Ideally (&amp; as per ACOG): once every month till 28 weeks, every 2 weeks till 36 weeks and then weekly till 40 weeks: So total of 12 – 14 visits.</li><li>• Ideally</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The World Health Organization recommends a minimum of 8 antenatal visits to ensure comprehensive care and monitoring throughout pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: WHO Website, MOHFW guidelines and Williams Obstetrics, 25 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: WHO Website, MOHFW guidelines and Williams Obstetrics, 25 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male is brought to the emergency with acute chest pain for which nitroglycerin was administered sublingually. His pain got relieved within 5 minutes. What could be the possible mechanism of this drug? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Release of endothelin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Release of NO", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium channel blockade", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Beta blockade", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Release of NO", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Release of NO</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nitroglycerin relieves chest pain primarily through the release of nitric oxide (NO), which causes vasodilation, predominantly venous, reducing the preload on the heart and thereby decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. This mechanism is crucial for the quick relief of symptoms associated with acute chest pain, particularly in conditions like angina pectoris.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old woman presents with complaints of swollen fingers, heartburn, and occasional joint pains. On examination, the skin over her hands was shiny, taut, and thickened with non-pitting edema. There is associated interstitial lung disease and the presence of ANA, Topoisomerase I (Anti-SCL 70), and Polymerase III antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis here? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peutz Jeghers syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Raynaud's phenomenon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-155311.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fast vibration sense is mediated by? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Merkel's cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meissner's corpuscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pacinian corpuscles", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ruffini's endings", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pacinian corpuscles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/fmg-physio-12-psd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pacinian corpuscles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rapid adapting touch receptors are -</li><li>➤ Rapid adapting touch receptors are -</li><li>➤ Meissner's corpuscle – responsible for fine Touch, Low frequency Vibration (tap and flutter) present in superficial dermis i.e., dermal papillae Pacinian corpuscles it senses High Frequency (Fast) vibration and pressure as it is present deeper in the dermis. Hair end organ - Mechanoreceptor</li><li>➤ Meissner's corpuscle – responsible for fine Touch, Low frequency Vibration (tap and flutter) present in superficial dermis i.e., dermal papillae</li><li>➤ Pacinian corpuscles it senses High Frequency (Fast) vibration and pressure as it is present deeper in the dermis.</li><li>➤ Hair end organ - Mechanoreceptor</li><li>➤ [Note- always remember corpuscles are rapid adapting]</li><li>➤ Slow adapting touch receptors are:</li><li>➤ Slow adapting touch receptors are:</li><li>➤ Merkel disc: it senses fine touch and Edges so best for Two Point Discrimination located in epidermis Ruffini's endings: it senses skin stretch and Sustained Pressure</li><li>➤ Merkel disc: it senses fine touch and Edges so best for Two Point Discrimination located in epidermis</li><li>➤ Ruffini's endings: it senses skin stretch and Sustained Pressure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year P3L3 woman presented with a lower abdominal mass and lower abdominal discomfort. On examination, the uterus appears uniformly enlarged and adnexa is free. MRI shows the presence of a myometrial cyst. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenomyosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leiomyoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometrial hyperplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adenomyosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adenomyosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium, leading to a uniformly enlarged uterus often associated with pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. In multiparous women over 40 years old, presenting with a lower abdominal mass, discomfort, and myometrial cysts on MRI, adenomyosis is a highly probable diagnosis.</li><li>• Clinical features of adenomyosis:</li><li>• Clinical features of adenomyosis:</li><li>• Age and parity: Commonly affects multiparous women over 40 years old. Symptoms: Lower abdominal mass, discomfort, heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia), and dysmenorrhea. Physical examination: Uniformly enlarged uterus with free adnexa. Imaging: MRI showing myometrial cysts, irregular endo-myometrial junctional zone, and bulky myometrium.</li><li>• Age and parity: Commonly affects multiparous women over 40 years old.</li><li>• Age and parity:</li><li>• Symptoms: Lower abdominal mass, discomfort, heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia), and dysmenorrhea.</li><li>• Symptoms:</li><li>• Physical examination: Uniformly enlarged uterus with free adnexa.</li><li>• Physical examination:</li><li>• Imaging: MRI showing myometrial cysts, irregular endo-myometrial junctional zone, and bulky myometrium.</li><li>• Imaging:</li><li>• Management of adenomyosis:</li><li>• Management of adenomyosis:</li><li>• Definitive treatment: Total hysterectomy, especially if the family is complete. Other options: NSAIDs and anti-fibrinolytics to manage dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia, combined oral contraceptives (OCPs), and Levonorgestrel-containing intrauterine device (IUCD) (MIRENA).</li><li>• Definitive treatment: Total hysterectomy, especially if the family is complete.</li><li>• Definitive treatment:</li><li>• Other options: NSAIDs and anti-fibrinolytics to manage dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia, combined oral contraceptives (OCPs), and Levonorgestrel-containing intrauterine device (IUCD) (MIRENA).</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Endometriosis : Endometriosis involves the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, often causing pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. It does not typically present with a uniformly enlarged uterus or myometrial cysts.</li><li>• Option A. Endometriosis</li><li>• Option C. Leiomyoma : Leiomyomas (fibroids) are benign tumors of the smooth muscle of the uterus. They can cause an enlarged uterus, but the enlargement is usually irregular, not uniform. Myometrial cysts are not a feature of fibroids.</li><li>• Option C. Leiomyoma</li><li>• Option D. Endometrial hyperplasia : Endometrial hyperplasia is the thickening of the endometrial lining, which can present with abnormal uterine bleeding. It does not typically cause a uniformly enlarged uterus or myometrial cysts.</li><li>• Option D. Endometrial hyperplasia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenomyosis is characterized by a uniformly enlarged uterus, often in multiparous women over 40 years old, and is identified by the presence of myometrial cysts on imaging.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://obgyn.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1002/uog.19096</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://obgyn.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1002/uog.19096</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old man presents with a facial lesion as shown in the image below. On examination, the lesions are painful &amp; the edges are well demarcated &amp; raised. Ear is also showing similar erythematous lesions. He also complains of blisters over his body. He is otherwise normal &amp; does not have any other diseases. This infection is most likely to be caused by which of the following organisms? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Group B streptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Group A streptococcus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemophilus influenza type b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Group A streptococcus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-182503.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture8_2wUTT4x.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture9_eCEeb0B.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Group A streptococcus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erysipelas as a skin infection most commonly caused by Group A streptococcus , which presents with painful, well-demarcated, raised lesions with erythema.</li><li>➤ Group A streptococcus</li><li>➤ painful, well-demarcated, raised lesions with erythema.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 26 page no 26.17-21</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "30-year-old woman presents with headache, amenorrhea, loss of libido and infertility with acromegaly. Examination shows bitemporal hemianopia. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gonadotroph adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mammotroph adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corticotroph adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mammotroph adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mammotroph adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A mammotroph adenoma (prolactinoma) can produce both prolactin and growth hormone, leading to symptoms such as amenorrhea, loss of libido, infertility, and acromegaly, along with bitemporal hemianopia due to compression of the optic chiasm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which cell in the liver is primarily responsible for phagocytosis, similar to the crucial role played by macrophages in phagocytosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parietal Cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kupffer Cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatocytes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kupffer Cell", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-114336.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Kupffer cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Macrophages of the liver - Kupffer cells</li><li>➤ Specialized macrophages:</li><li>➤ Specialized macrophages:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 19-year-old female comes to the OPD with complaints of weakness, amenorrhea, and fatigue. Upon eliciting history, she reveals that she is always worried about gaining weight. Her mother complains that she doesn't eat well. Her BMI is 15.8. Laboratory findings in this patient will show which of the following? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypocholesterolemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypersecretion of corticotrophin-releasing hormone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperglycemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypersecretion of corticotrophin-releasing hormone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypersecretion of corticotrophin-releasing hormone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical vignette is suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is a type of eating disorder characterized by self-induced starvation to a significant degree, an intense drive for thinness, a morbid fear of fatness, and the presence of medical signs and symptoms resulting from starvation.</li><li>• In patients with anorexia nervosa, there is hypersecretion of corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH). This hormonal alteration is part of the body's stress response to severe caloric restriction and malnutrition. The hypersecretion of CRH can lead to an increase in the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and cortisol, contributing to many of the physiological changes seen in these patients, including amenorrhea and fatigue.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Hypocholesterolemia : Hypocholesterolemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. In fact, patients with anorexia nervosa may have elevated cholesterol levels due to changes in liver metabolism and reduced clearance of cholesterol from the blood.</li><li>• Option A. Hypocholesterolemia</li><li>• Option B. Hyperthyroidism : Hyperthyroidism is not a common finding in patients with anorexia nervosa. These patients are more likely to exhibit symptoms of hypothyroidism (e.g., bradycardia, cold intolerance) due to the body's metabolic adaptation to chronic starvation.</li><li>• Option B. Hyperthyroidism</li><li>• Option D. Hyperglycemia : Hyperglycemia is not typical in patients with anorexia nervosa. These patients often present with hypoglycemia due to reduced caloric intake and depleted glycogen stores.</li><li>• Option D. Hyperglycemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypersecretion of corticotrophin-releasing hormone is seen in patients with anorexia nervosa and is part of the body's stress response to severe caloric restriction and malnutrition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 376, Williams Gynecology, 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 376, Williams Gynecology, 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and weakness. After laboratory tests reveal iron deficiency anemia, Now you have to advise the patient on dietary sources of iron to help increase her iron levels. Which of the following foods should be identified as containing the least amount of iron? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beans", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Milk", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spinach", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Milk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Milk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Among the given options, milk has the least iron content. Human milk has a better bioavailability of iron compared to cow’s milk. Liver, meat, beans, spinach have high iron content.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "24-year-old presents with prolonged menstrual bleeding. Her investigations showed normal platelet, PT, aPTT while bleeding time was increased. Further analysis showed GpIIb-IIIa deficiency. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bernard soulier syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glanzman thrombaesthenia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemophilia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Von-Willebrand disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glanzman thrombaesthenia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glanzman thrombaesthenia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glanzmann thrombasthenia is characterized by GpIIb-IIIa deficiency, leading to increased bleeding time with normal platelet count, PT, and aPTT, indicative of a qualitative platelet defect.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about renal tubular transport? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maximum reabsorption in loop of Henle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urea is absorbed 100% in PCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maximum water absorption take place in collecting duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amino acid is reabsorbed in proximal tubule", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Amino acid is reabsorbed in proximal tubule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/27/fmg-physio-10jpg.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Amino acid is reabsorbed in proximal tubule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amino acids are completely reabsorbed in the proximal tubule along with glucose, highlighting the tubule's critical role in conserving essential nutrients. Most other substances also see significant reabsorption in the PCT, contrary to some options which suggest otherwise.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which condition is the reservoir sign seen along with mastoid tenderness? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otosclerotic lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute mastoiditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intra-tympanic glomus tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic suppurative otitis media", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute mastoiditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Acute mastoiditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute mastoiditis is identified by symptoms like pain behind the ear, fever, and characteristics such as the reservoir sign and mastoid tenderness. It is critical to diagnose and treat acute mastoiditis promptly to prevent further complications such as intracranial spread of the infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A one and half -year-old child presents with 1st episode of wheeze and breathing difficulty. Chest X-ray shows bilateral hyperinflation. Which of the following can be a causative organism for this case? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RSV", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "S. pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "H. influenza", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "COVID 19", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RSV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) RSV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RSV is a leading cause of wheezing and respiratory difficulty in young children, often presenting with bilateral hyperinflation on chest X-ray, indicating lower respiratory tract involvement</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following appearance in IVP is caused by? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Horse shoe kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ureterocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bladder tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior urethral valve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ureterocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_139.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_141.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_140.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ureterocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"adder head\" or \"cobra head\" appearance on an IVP is diagnostic of a ureterocele, representing the cystic dilation of the distal ureter as it enters the bladder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presented in her 8th week of pregnancy seeking MTP. The appropriate dosage of Misoprostol (administered by mucosal route) would be: (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "200 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "600 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "400 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "800 mcg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 800 mcg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-215_vGcdZNi.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 800 mcg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Medical MTP: Can be done Upto 9 weeks</li><li>• Medical MTP: Can be done Upto 9 weeks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appropriate dosage of Misoprostol (administered by mucosal route) is 800 mcg</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the below circumstances does Dying declaration become invalid? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dying declaration recorded by medical officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The victim survive after recording dying declaration.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dying declaration not sign by attendant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dying declaration by police officer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. The victim survive after recording dying declaration.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) The victim survive after recording dying declaration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A dying declaration becomes invalid if the victim survives after recording the declaration, as it then becomes a regular statement subject to cross-examination and other legal procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 64 years-old patient presented to the OPD with excruciating low backache not responding to NSAIDs. His PSA levels are 100 ng/ml and MRI spine shows lytic lesions at L5-S1. DRE shows asymmetrically enlarged stony hard prostate. Which of the following drug is indicated for the treatment? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Somatostatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Goserelin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Testosterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Terlipressin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Goserelin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Goserelin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Goserelin, a GnRH agonist, is indicated for the treatment of advanced prostate cancer due to its ability to inhibit testosterone production, which is essential for the growth of prostate cancer cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following instrument used in anesthesia? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flexometallic tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Single Endo tracheal Lumen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Double Lumen Endotracheal Tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ryle’s tube", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Double Lumen Endotracheal Tube", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-190.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-104646.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-105145.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-105239.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Double Lumen Endotracheal Tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Double lumen tube allows selective deflation of one lung whilst maintaining ventilation of the other lung. This is called as ‘One lung ventilation’</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 1392-1393</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs</li><li>➤ 1392-1393</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old woman who recently received a kidney transplant 2 months ago developed a high-grade fever, dyspnea, and hacking cough. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Urine examination shows “owl eye” appearance of cells. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible for her condition? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Influenza virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory syncytial virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenovirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cytomegalovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-152932.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cytomegalovirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Timeline and Infection Risk Post-Transplant:</li><li>➤ Timeline and Infection Risk Post-Transplant:</li><li>➤ This patient is in a period of immunosuppression where CMV/Opportunistic infection are most common. Owl eye inclusion are suggestive of CMV disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-month-old baby has respiratory rate of 58/minute and chest indrawing. The baby has not been able to feed for last 10 hrs. What is the best management? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prescribe oral Antibiotics and follow up after 2 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give first dose Ampicillin and Gentamicin and refer urgently to hospital", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reassure mother that it’s just cough and cold", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Do nothing and refer baby to tertiary care centre", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Give first dose Ampicillin and Gentamicin and refer urgently to hospital", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture165.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In infants with severe pneumonia or very severe disease, characterized by chest indrawing and danger signs like inability to feed, the immediate administration of antibiotics followed by urgent hospital referral is essential.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old girl lies frequently at home and school, misbehaves with her teachers, often fights with younger kids and has been caught stealing money on multiple occasions. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antisocial personality disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conduct disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oppositional defiant disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Conduct disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Conduct disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conduct disorder is characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others and societal norms or rules are violated. This can include aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, or serious violations of rules. It differs from oppositional defiant disorder, which doesn't include more serious violations like theft or physical aggression.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 190</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-year-old male child brought with urinary retention was found to have bilateral hydronephrosis. The mother gives a history of recurrent urinary tract infections in the child since birth. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PUJ obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior urethral valve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Horseshoe kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retrocaval ureter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior urethral valve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-49.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Posterior urethral valve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Posterior urethral valve (PUV) is the most likely cause of urinary retention, recurrent UTIs, and bilateral hydronephrosis in a young male child. It is characterized by an abnormal valve-like tissue in the posterior urethra obstructing urine flow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old lactating female presented with complaints of pain in one breast. On examination, the affected breast was tender and engorged. Baby was not able to feed from the affected breast. What is the best management for this condition? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NSAIDS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Warm compresses", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incision and drainage with antibiotics", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Incision and drainage with antibiotics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-37.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Incision and drainage with antibiotics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best management for a breast abscess includes incision and drainage along with antibiotic coverage to address the underlying infection and prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given non spore forming bacteria? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiobacillus Novellus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clostridium Perfringens", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Escherichia Coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corynebacterium Diphtheria", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Corynebacterium Diphtheria", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-171033.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a non-spore-forming, Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known for its characteristic \"Chinese letter\" arrangement and the cause of diphtheria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following nerves get compromised in a lesion at the arrow marked area: ( FMGE August 2020 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Axillary nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Radial nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/whatsapp-image-2023-05-01-at-51127-pm2_oOSTZDn.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/30/whatsapp-image-2023-09-30-at-171037.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-338.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Radial nerve</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the correct sequence of events in the process of ejaculation? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ischiocavernosus contraction – external urethral sphincter relaxation – Bulbospongiosus contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ischiocavernosus contraction – Bulbospongiosus contraction- external urethral sphincter relaxation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bulbospongiosus contraction - external urethral sphincter relaxation – Ischiocavernosus contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bulbospongiosus contraction - Ischiocavernosus contraction -external urethral sphincter relaxation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ischiocavernosus contraction – Bulbospongiosus contraction- external urethral sphincter relaxation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-34.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ischiocavernosus contraction – Bulbospongiosus contraction- external urethral sphincter relaxation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Ans. B. Ischiocavernosus contraction – Bulbospongiosus contraction- external urethral sphincter relaxation</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The sequences of events:</li><li>• Ejaculation involves a series of muscle contractions that expel seminal fluid from the prostatic urethra to the exterior, encompassing both autonomic and somatic control components. The correct sequence begins with the contraction of the ischiocavernosus muscle, which aids in the erection of the penis by compressing the base of the penile shaft and obstructing blood flow out of the erect penis, thereby maintaining its rigidity. Following this, the bulbospongiosus muscle contracts, which propels the seminal fluid along the urethra. The final step is the relaxation of the external urethral sphincter, which allows the semen to exit the urethra.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of muscular contractions during ejaculation: first, the ischiocavernosus muscle contracts to maintain erection, followed by the contraction of the bulbospongiosus muscle to propel seminal fluid, and finally, the relaxation of the external urethral sphincter allows the ejaculate to exit.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Gray’s Anatomy- the Anatomical basis of clinical practice – 42 nd edition- page no. 1304</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of antagonism is demonstrated when adrenaline causes bronchodilation through beta-2 receptors while histamine causes bronchoconstriction through H1 receptors? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Physiological antagonism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chemical antagonism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reversible antagonism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Competitive antagonism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Physiological antagonism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Physiological antagonism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Physiological antagonism describes the situation where two drugs produce opposing effects through actions at different receptors or cellular mechanisms, as seen with adrenaline and histamine in the regulation of bronchial muscle tone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After overhead weight-lifting exercises, a patient developed the following deformity. Which specific muscle or muscle group is likely to be involved in causing this deformity? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Latissimus dorsi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trapezius", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serratus anterior", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supraspinatus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serratus anterior", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-39_1Yp8smT.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-15_Kv6mwix.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Serratus anterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The serratus anterior muscle is critical for stabilizing the scapula against the thoracic wall. Damage or weakness in this muscle, particularly through repetitive or strenuous overhead motions such as weight-lifting, can lead to a winged scapula, characterized by the outward protrusion of the medial border of the scapula.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kapoor, a pediatrician, is discussing the treatment of acute gastroenteritis in children with medical students, focusing on the role of Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS). He explains why ORS includes both sodium and glucose. What physiological mechanism do these components leverage to enhance water and electrolyte absorption in the intestines? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reducing secretions", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Facilitative diffusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Co-transport", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Co-transport", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Co-transport</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The inclusion of sodium and glucose in ORS capitalizes on the co-transport mechanism to enhance the absorption of water and electrolytes in the intestines, critical for treating dehydration in acute gastroenteritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A school is undergoing renovations to optimize the learning environment for its students. The school board, in consultation with the health department, is evaluating various recommendations for the best health and ergonomic practices in classrooms. Which of the following is a recognized guideline related to the school health environment? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Minimum area 5 sq. ft. per student", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Minus type desk", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Can allot 60 students per classroom", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Light coming from front of the expressed glass", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Minus type desk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Minus type desk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ School health service guidelines recommendations are:</li><li>➤ School health service guidelines recommendations are:</li><li>➤ One class room for maximum 40 students Minus type desk Doors and windows ≥ 25% of floor area 1 urinal /60 student, 1 latrine/100 student. Natural light from left side Minimum area 10 sq. ft. per student for sitting. school health examination every 6 months. Walls should be white in colour. Canteen should be present if number of students are more than 250.</li><li>➤ One class room for maximum 40 students</li><li>➤ Minus type desk</li><li>➤ Doors and windows ≥ 25% of floor area</li><li>➤ 1 urinal /60 student, 1 latrine/100 student.</li><li>➤ Natural light from left side</li><li>➤ Minimum area 10 sq. ft. per student for sitting.</li><li>➤ school health examination every 6 months.</li><li>➤ Walls should be white in colour.</li><li>➤ Canteen should be present if number of students are more than 250.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly male patient was brought by his son because he was not using his left arm for day-to-day functioning. He has an unkempt appearance on the left side of his body and has a history of bumping into door frames while walking through them. The evaluation performed is shown below. Where does a lesion in the brain cause this presentation? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right parietotemporal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left parietal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right parietal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right premotor cortex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Right parietal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture23.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/screenshot-2023-05-20-130452.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Right parietal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Neuroanatomy through clinical cases by Halblumenfeld, Page 44</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following methods of cervical ripening is a type of hygroscopic dilator? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intracervical Dinoprostone gel", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intracervical laminaria tent", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foley catheter at internal os of cervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Misoprostol in posterior fornix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intracervical laminaria tent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Intracervical laminaria tent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intracervical laminaria tent is a type of hygroscopic dilator used for cervical ripening by absorbing water and expanding to dilate the cervix.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1250, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1250, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Alcoholic patient presents with neurological symptoms. There is the deficiency of which vitamin: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B9", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "B12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. B1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) B1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ As vitamin B 1 is mainly involved in oxidative decarboxylation reactions, so in B 1 deficiency, highly aerobic tissues e.g. Heart and Brain fail first causing neurological symptoms which is also known as Wernicke’s Korsakoff’s syndrome. It is common in alcoholics due to thiamine deficiency as Alcohol interferes with the absorption of Thiamine.</li><li>➤ Wernicke’s</li><li>➤ Korsakoff’s</li><li>➤ thiamine deficiency as</li><li>➤ Deficiency of Vitamin B is known as Beri-Beri</li><li>➤ Deficiency of Vitamin B is known as Beri-Beri</li><li>➤ Dry Beriberi Affect CNS No oedema Wet Beriberi Affect CVS Oedema present There is also lactic acidosis in B1 def RBC Transketolase activity is used as a marker for B 1 deficiency. Richest source of B1 - Rice Polishing (outer Aleurone layer of grains is rich in Vit B1)</li><li>➤ Dry Beriberi Affect CNS No oedema</li><li>➤ Dry Beriberi</li><li>➤ Affect CNS No oedema</li><li>➤ Affect CNS</li><li>➤ No oedema</li><li>➤ Wet Beriberi Affect CVS Oedema present There is also lactic acidosis in B1 def RBC Transketolase activity is used as a marker for B 1 deficiency. Richest source of B1 - Rice Polishing (outer Aleurone layer of grains is rich in Vit B1)</li><li>➤ Wet Beriberi</li><li>➤ Affect CVS Oedema present There is also lactic acidosis in B1 def RBC Transketolase activity is used as a marker for B 1 deficiency. Richest source of B1 - Rice Polishing (outer Aleurone layer of grains is rich in Vit B1)</li><li>➤ Affect CVS</li><li>➤ Oedema present</li><li>➤ There is also lactic acidosis in B1 def</li><li>➤ RBC Transketolase activity is used as a marker for B 1 deficiency.</li><li>➤ Richest source of B1 - Rice Polishing (outer Aleurone layer of grains is rich in Vit B1)</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 536, 542</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 536, 542</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cofactor for Mitochondrial SOD: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mn", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cu", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zn", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mo", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mn", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mn</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ C ytoplasmic SOD requires C opper (Cu) as cofator But M itochondrial SOD requires M anganese (Mn) as cofactor</li><li>➤ C ytoplasmic SOD requires C opper (Cu) as cofator</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ But M itochondrial SOD requires M anganese (Mn) as cofactor</li><li>➤ M</li><li>➤ M</li><li>➤ Extra Information:</li><li>➤ Extra Information:</li><li>➤ All Oxidases need Copper Cu 2+ (except Xanthine Oxidase and Sulfite Oxidase which requires molybdenum) All Kinases need Mg 2+ (But Pyruvate Kinase need K + &gt;&gt; Mg 2+ ) All Carboxylases need Mg 2+</li><li>➤ All Oxidases need Copper Cu 2+ (except Xanthine Oxidase and Sulfite Oxidase which requires molybdenum)</li><li>➤ Oxidases</li><li>➤ Copper Cu 2+</li><li>➤ All Kinases need Mg 2+ (But Pyruvate Kinase need K + &gt;&gt; Mg 2+ )</li><li>➤ Kinases</li><li>➤ Mg 2+</li><li>➤ All Carboxylases need Mg 2+</li><li>➤ Carboxylases</li><li>➤ Mg 2+</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 102</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 102</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given a specific logo displayed during a workshop on quality assurance and standards, participants were asked to determine its affiliation. The emblem, notable in its design, represents which of the following organizations? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AGMARK", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indian Standards Institution", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Food Standards and Safety Authority of India (FSSAI)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Bureau of Indian standards (BIS)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the National Standard Body of India, responsible for the standardization, marking, and quality certification of goods.</li><li>➤ Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Person with dyspnea has slight limitation in physical activity and doing ordinary activity causes symptoms but he is asymptomatic at rest. Which class of New York Heart Association (NYHA) does he belong to? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right parietotemporal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left parietal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right parietal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right premotor cortex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Right parietal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-151848.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-151806.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Right parietal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Risk of Sudden Cardiac Death (SCD) ↑ from NYHA IV →NYHA 1</li><li>➤ Risk of pump failure from NYHA 1→NYHA IV</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man often gets repetitive thoughts of washing his hands repeatedly. This is a feature of which of the following disorders? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Panic attacks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Agoraphobia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Generalized anxiety disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ OCD is characterised by obsessions and compulsions. Life time prevalence is around 2-3% and is more common among females. Most common presentation is obsessive contamination with compulsive washing followed by pathological doubt with repeated checking. Most common comorbidity is depression. First line treatment includes SSRIs and chlomipramine. Atypical antipsychotics are used as adjunctive treatment.</li><li>➤ 2-3%</li><li>➤ Most common presentation is obsessive contamination with compulsive washing</li><li>➤ Most common comorbidity is depression. First line treatment includes SSRIs and chlomipramine.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 415</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male presents with a history of high-grade fever for 5 days. His hands show the following lesions which are painless, and he has a new regurgitant murmur. 2D ECHO shows a mass on the mitral valve. Which of the following abdomen findings is expected in this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatomegaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Portal hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Splenomegaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascites", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Splenomegaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Splenomegaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Splenomegaly is a common abdominal finding in infective endocarditis due to embolic phenomena and the body's immune response.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harrison 21E/Infective endocarditis/Chapter 128</li><li>➤ Ref: Harrison 21E/Infective endocarditis/Chapter 128</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old woman comes with chronic vulval itching and pain. On examination, there is a vulval lesion suspicious of vulval cancer. Which of the following lymph nodes should be considered for sentinel node biopsy to look for the metastatic spread? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pelvic lymph nodes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cloquet node", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superficial inguinal lymph nodes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deep inguinal lymph nodes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The vulva primarily drains into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. These nodes are the first group of lymph nodes to receive lymphatic drainage from the vulva. Therefore, they are the most likely site for metastatic spread in cases of vulval cancer. Sentinel lymph node biopsy aims to identify the first lymph node or group of nodes where cancer cells are most likely to spread from a primary tumor. For vulval cancer, this is typically the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Pelvic lymph nodes: The pelvic lymph nodes are secondary sites for drainage and would be involved after the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes.</li><li>• Option A. Pelvic lymph nodes:</li><li>• Option B. Cloquet node: Also known as the node of Rosenmüller, this is a deep inguinal lymph node located in the femoral canal, representing a more advanced stage of lymphatic spread.</li><li>• Option B. Cloquet node:</li><li>• Option D: Deep inguinal lymph nodes: These nodes receive drainage from the superficial inguinal lymph nodes and would be a secondary site for cancer spread from the vulva.</li><li>• Option D: Deep inguinal lymph nodes:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In vulval cancer, the first lymph nodes to which cancer is most likely to spread are the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, making them the primary site for sentinel node biopsy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 686, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 686, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old man presented with chronic pain in his hand, knees, hips aggravated on climbing stairs, while pain in his hands increases when he writes or types. He also complaints of stiffness in his joints in the morning, which lasts for around half an hour. On examination of the hands, herbedens and bouchard nodes are visible. Xray of the knee showed narrowed joint space with osteophytes. Which among the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteoarthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bone tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Osteoarthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Osteoarthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Osteoarthritis is characterized by joint pain that worsens with activity, morning stiffness lasting less than 60 minutes, and the presence of Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes. X-ray findings typically show narrowed joint space and osteophytes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother while bathing her newborn found the left sided scrotum to be empty. On examination by the pediatrician, left testis is in inguinal region and right testis is in perineum. Which of the following is correct? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right testis is undescended and left testis is ectopic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left testis is undescended and right testis is ectopic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both testes are absent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both testes are ectopic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Left testis is undescended and right testis is ectopic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-40.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Left testis is undescended and right testis is ectopic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An undescended testis is in the normal path of descent but has not reached the scrotum, while an ectopic testis deviates from this path and is found in an abnormal location. Proper identification and management are crucial for preventing complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female, married for the past 5 years, presents with complaints of inability to conceive despite regular intercourse. Physical examination is unremarkable. Semen analysis of the husband revealed no abnormalities. Hysterosalpingography reveals the following picture. The anomaly shown in the image below falls under which category of the American fertility society classification of mullerian duct anomalies? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Class IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Class III", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Class II", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Class I", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Class II", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/262.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Class II</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a hysterosalpingogram of a unicornuate uterus, which falls under Class II of Mullerian duct anomalies AFS Classification of Mullerian Anomalies is as follows Class 1: Hypoplasia/ aplasia Class 2: Unicornuate Class 3: Didelphys Class 4: Bicornuate Class 5: Septate Class 6: Arcuate Class 7: DES related</li><li>• The image shows a hysterosalpingogram of a unicornuate uterus, which falls under Class II of Mullerian duct anomalies</li><li>• AFS Classification of Mullerian Anomalies is as follows Class 1: Hypoplasia/ aplasia Class 2: Unicornuate Class 3: Didelphys Class 4: Bicornuate Class 5: Septate Class 6: Arcuate Class 7: DES related</li><li>• Class 1: Hypoplasia/ aplasia Class 2: Unicornuate Class 3: Didelphys Class 4: Bicornuate Class 5: Septate Class 6: Arcuate Class 7: DES related</li><li>• Class 1: Hypoplasia/ aplasia</li><li>• Class 2: Unicornuate</li><li>• Class 3: Didelphys</li><li>• Class 4: Bicornuate</li><li>• Class 5: Septate</li><li>• Class 6: Arcuate</li><li>• Class 7: DES related</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Unicornuate uterus falls under Class II of Mullerian duct anomalies.</li><li>• Ref: Page no 44, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>• Ref: Page no 44, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mother side uncle has disease... Her son has disease. Which type of inheritance is this? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X-linked recessive", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "X-linked dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autosomal dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. X-linked recessive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture2_E3V1SXu.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-100348.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) X-linked recessive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ There is no male to male transmission here, so, it is most probably a X-linked inheritance. In X-linked recessive disorders, 50% of sons will have disease but daughter will be either carrier or normal.</li><li>➤ Important pointers to determine inheritance patterns</li><li>➤ Important pointers to determine inheritance patterns</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the statements is correct about Ranula? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mainly a retention cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Characteristic transillumination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Related to submandibular gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diagnosed by FNAC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Characteristic transillumination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-56.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Characteristic Transillumination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A ranula often appears as a bluish, transilluminant swelling in the floor of the mouth due to mucus collection from the sublingual gland, which gives it a characteristic \"blue dome\" appearance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structure related to 6th pharyngeal arch? ( FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial pterygoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tensor velipalatini", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ductus arteriosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral pterygoids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ductus arteriosus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-36.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/30/ch-1_anatomy-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ductus arteriosus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The left sixth aortic arch artery contributes to the ductus arteriosus, a fetal vascular structure connecting the pulmonary artery to the aorta, which shunts blood away from the non-functional fetal lungs. After birth, it typically constricts and becomes the ligamentum arteriosum.</li><li>• The arteries of body develop from two main sources: pharyngeal (aortic) arch arteries and dorsal aorta.</li><li>• pharyngeal (aortic) arch arteries</li><li>• dorsal aorta.</li><li>• The aortic arches give rise to the arteries of head and neck region. The dorsal aorta gives rise to the arteries of rest of the body. the pharyngeal arch artery derived from the aortic sac gives rise to six pairs of aortic arch arteries (fifth pair disappears.) Hence, the five aortic arch arteries are numbered as I, II, III, IV, and VI Sixth arch artery on each side gives off an artery to the developing lung bud. On the right side, ‘portion of the sixth arch artery beyond the artery to lung bud disappears. On the left side, portion of the sixth arch artery beyond the artery to lung bud remains patent and forms the ductus arteriosus</li><li>• The aortic arches give rise to the arteries of head and neck region.</li><li>• The dorsal aorta gives rise to the arteries of rest of the body. the pharyngeal arch artery derived from the aortic sac gives rise to six pairs of aortic arch arteries (fifth pair disappears.) Hence, the five aortic arch arteries are numbered as I, II, III, IV, and VI</li><li>• the pharyngeal arch artery</li><li>• Sixth arch artery on each side gives off an artery to the developing lung bud. On the right side, ‘portion of the sixth arch artery beyond the artery to lung bud disappears. On the left side, portion of the sixth arch artery beyond the artery to lung bud remains patent and forms the ductus arteriosus</li><li>• On the right side, ‘portion of the sixth arch artery beyond the artery to lung bud disappears. On the left side, portion of the sixth arch artery beyond the artery to lung bud remains patent and forms the ductus arteriosus</li><li>• On the right side, ‘portion of the sixth arch artery beyond the artery to lung bud disappears.</li><li>• On the left side, portion of the sixth arch artery beyond the artery to lung bud remains patent and forms the ductus arteriosus</li><li>• ductus arteriosus</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Medial pterygoid: It is the muscle of mastication developing from the first pharyngeal arch and supplied by mandibular nerve.</li><li>• Option A. Medial pterygoid:</li><li>• Option B. Tensor veli palatini: It is the muscle arising from first pharyngeal arch.</li><li>• Option B. Tensor veli palatini:</li><li>• Option D. Lateral pterygoid: It is the muscle of mastication which develops from the first pharyngeal arch.</li><li>• Option D. Lateral pterygoid:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ductus arteriosus is a key fetal cardiovascular structure arising from the sixth pharyngeal arch. It is essential for directing blood flow away from the fetal lungs, which are not yet functional, and towards the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing occurs due to lesion at the level of: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic radiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipital cortex", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Occipital cortex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-29_j2oNBVg.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/whatsapp-image-2023-05-01-at-51127-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Occipital cortex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing is a specific type of visual field loss that usually occurs due to a lesion in the occipital cortex.</li><li>• The occipital cortex, located at the back of the brain, is responsible for processing visual input from the eyes. When this area is damaged, particularly if the lesion affects the visual cortex but spares the macula's cortical representation, it can lead to loss of vision in the same half of each visual field (hemianopia) across both eyes, while sparing the central vision (macula). The macula has a more robust blood supply, often provided by both the middle and posterior cerebral arteries, which may protect it from damage during vascular events affecting the occipital region.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A) Optic nerve: (e.g., optic neuritis) – lesion of optic nerve causes complete blindness in the affected side of eye, Homonymous Hemianopia , Central Scotoma (A blind spot in the center of the visual field) and Color Vision Deficits. Injury to optic chiasma can lead to bitemporal hemianopia (loss of peripheral vision in both eyes. Top of Form</li><li>• Option A) Optic nerve:</li><li>• Option B) Optic tract: injury to optic tract can lead to contralateral homonymous hemianopia (contralateral nasal and ipsilateral temporal retinal projections).</li><li>• Option B) Optic tract:</li><li>• Option C) Optic radiation: injury to the optic radiation leads to contralateral homonymous hemianopia (loss of right nasal and left temporal vision).</li><li>• Option C) Optic radiation:</li><li>• Educational objective</li><li>• Educational objective</li><li>• Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing occurs due to lesion at the level of occipital cortex, as may be seen in posterior cerebral artery block.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient A is having deviation of angle of mouth to left, right eyelids completely closed, and wrinkling of the forehead on the right side. Patient B is having deviation of angle of mouth to left, the right eyelid is not closed, and no wrinkling of the forehead on the right side. Identify the correct type of facial palsy in both patients: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-Right LMN facial nerve palsy B-Left UMN facial nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-Right UMN facial nerve palsy B-Right LMN facial nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-Left UMN facial nerve palsy B-Right LMN facial nerve palsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-Left LMN facial nerve palsy B-Right UMN facial nerve palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A-Left UMN facial nerve palsy B-Right LMN facial nerve palsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/05/untitled-205_fO2KbLb.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. A-Left UMN facial nerve palsy B-Right LMN facial nerve palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Distinguish between UMN and LMN facial palsies based on symptoms such as forehead wrinkling and eyelid closure. UMN lesions often spare the forehead while LMN lesions affect the entire ipsilateral face.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. Raghav, a 52-year-old factory worker from Andhra Pradesh who has worked with groundnuts for several years, visits a hospital with abdominal discomfort and unintentional weight loss. Dr. Agarwal, suspecting a link between his symptoms and occupational exposure, considers the possibility of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) due to an environmental toxin. Which toxin associated with groundnut processing is most likely responsible for the development of HCC? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ergot toxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aflatoxin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sanguinarine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyrrolizidine alkaloids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aflatoxin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-140624.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Aflatoxin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Food adulteration diseases</li><li>➤ Food adulteration diseases</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aravind, a diligent researcher from Hyderabad, embarks on a longitudinal study evaluating the emergence of a novel infectious disease in a specific region. Over the course of the study, he notices that more people in the community start manifesting symptoms of the disease as time progresses. During a discussion with his team, he uses a term to describe the increased risk of the disease in the population over a specified time frame. Which of the following terms most accurately captures the essence of his observation? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incidence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cumulative incidence", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevalence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Relative risk", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cumulative incidence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cumulative incidence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cumulative incidence is the most accurate term to describe the increased risk of a disease in a population over a specified time frame, measuring the number of new cases in a population at risk during a given period.</li><li>➤ Cumulative incidence</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old gentleman presented with high-grade fever and a purpuric rash. CSF showed gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following is the most likely etiology? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Escherichia Coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neisseria meningitidis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Neisseria meningitidis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture367.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Neisseria meningitidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neisseria meningitidis should be strongly suspected in cases of bacterial meningitis with a purpuric rash and the presence of gram-negative diplococci in the CSF. Prompt treatment and prophylaxis for contacts are essential.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Raghav, an epidemiologist at NCDC, Delhi, is deeply concerned about the rising incidence of malaria over the past decade. With the aim to present his findings in a seminar with states representatives, he is looking for the most appropriate graph to visually represent the secular trend, showcasing the progression and frequency variations of the disease over several years. Given the continuous nature of the data and its long duration, which type of graph would Dr. Raghav most likely choose for a clear and comprehensive representation? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Line diagram", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bar graph", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Box and whiskers plot", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stem leaf plot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Line diagram", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-2020-06.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-2020-08.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/18/fmge-psm-june-2020-07.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-124245.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Line diagram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A line diagram is the best choice for representing secular trends, illustrating the progression and frequency variations of continuous data over an extended period.</li><li>➤ A line diagram</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis based on the given image of barium enema? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carcinoid tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucoviscidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoma colon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intussusception", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Intussusception", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-30.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-32.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Intussusception</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another, most commonly seen in children, and is diagnosed by imaging showing a claw sign on barium meal or target sign on CT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is confirmatory to ensure central line is in the jugular vein: (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ETCO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood pH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood color", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chest Xray", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chest Xray", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chest Xray</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A chest X-ray is the confirmatory test used to ensure the correct placement of a central line in the jugular vein, verifying both the position of the catheter tip and the absence of complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man in an inebriated state fell in the bathroom and was taken to the casualty. He complained of intense pain in the suprapubic region. On examination, abdominal distention was present without suprapubic bulge. Heart rate and blood pressure was normal. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Membranous urethral injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute urinary retention", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intraperitoneal bladder rupture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extraperitoneal bladder rupture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intraperitoneal bladder rupture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-46.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-47.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Intraperitoneal bladder rupture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intraperitoneal bladder rupture results from trauma to a full bladder, leading to urine leakage into the peritoneal cavity, and requires surgical repair. It is important to differentiate from extraperitoneal rupture, which is managed conservatively with catheterization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old female complains of foul-smelling vaginal discharge. A Giemsa-stained smear of the discharge is shown below. Which of the following is not seen in this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strawberry cervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curdy white discharge", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Burning micturition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vulval pruritus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Curdy white discharge", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/770.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-175134.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Curdy white discharge</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows Trichomonas vaginalis and infection causes a frothy, greenish-yellow discharge. Curdy white discharge is seen in vaginal candidiasis.</li><li>• The image shows Trichomonas vaginalis and infection causes a frothy, greenish-yellow discharge. Curdy white discharge is seen in vaginal candidiasis.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Strawberry cervix: This is seen in trichomoniasis due to the characteristic punctate hemorrhages on the cervix.</li><li>• Option A. Strawberry cervix:</li><li>• Option C. Burning micturition: This is a common symptom in trichomoniasis due to the irritation and inflammation of the urethra and vaginal tissues.</li><li>• Option C. Burning micturition:</li><li>• Option D. Vulval pruritus: Itching is a common symptom of trichomoniasis due to the irritation caused by the infection.</li><li>• Option D. Vulval pruritus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichomoniasis typically presents with frothy, greenish-yellow discharge, a strawberry cervix, burning micturition, and vulval pruritus, but not with curdy white discharge which is indicative of candidiasis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 127, Dc Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 127, Dc Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical officer is evaluating workers in mines suspected of having Silicosis. Considering their clinical presentation, what is the typical initial step for diagnosing tuberculosis, and what should be the subsequent step? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perform a sputum smear examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Order a chest X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conduct a Tuberculin skin test (TST)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Refer the workers to a pulmonologist for further evaluation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Perform a sputum smear examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-1239_QxaiuhW.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Perform a sputum smear examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial step for diagnosing tuberculosis in workers with suspected Silicosis involves performing a sputum smear examination to detect the presence of acid-fast bacilli, which indicates active TB infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young lady was taken for upper elective LSCS. The drug given during spinal anesthesia was more than planned and this leads to breathlessness in the patient. What is most probably reason for that? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High Spinal Anesthesia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Septic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypoxic Encephalopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cranial nerve palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. High Spinal Anesthesia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) High Spinal Anesthesia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High spinal anesthesia can lead to breathlessness due to the spread of the anesthetic to the cervical and thoracic spinal nerves, affecting the phrenic nerve and cardio-accelerator fibers. Prompt management includes reassurance and oxygen therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ductus arteriosus develops from which pharyngeal arch artery: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-37.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-3-8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ductus arteriosus, which is essential for fetal circulation by allowing blood to bypass the lungs, develops from the sixth pharyngeal arch artery. Understanding the embryological origin of this structure highlights its role and transformation post-birth into the ligamentum arteriosum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old patient with HIV, presented to the casualty with shortness of breath, and fever with chills. The chest X-ray is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcal pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klebsiella pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Miliary TB", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Miliary TB", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_152.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_153.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Miliary TB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with HIV presenting with systemic symptoms and a diffuse nodular pattern on chest X-ray, miliary TB should be considered a leading differential, particularly due to their immunocompromised status which predisposes them to disseminated infections. Diagnosis often requires confirmation via microbiological and histological studies to initiate appropriate antimicrobial therapy.</li><li>➤ Differential diagnosis for miliary nodules:</li><li>➤ Differential diagnosis for miliary nodules:</li><li>➤ Healed varicella Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia/Loeffler’s syndrome Hemosiderosis Histoplasmosis</li><li>➤ Healed varicella</li><li>➤ Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia/Loeffler’s syndrome</li><li>➤ Hemosiderosis</li><li>➤ Histoplasmosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aman, a medical officer, conducts health examinations in a Rajasthan mining area and observes several miners with symptoms suggestive of silicosis. He discusses the condition with the mine's supervisor, emphasizing a critical aspect of managing the disease. Which statement about silicosis is accurate? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is reversible once we remove the cause", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It takes 6-10 years to develop", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrotic changes in the lungs of the patient can be reversed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TB screening should be done at regular intervals", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. TB screening should be done at regular intervals", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. TB screening should be done at regular intervals</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Silicosis: Caused by the inhalation of fine silica dust, often from quartz mining. And there's an increased risk of tuberculosis and certain lung malignancies in miners.</li><li>➤ Silicosis:</li><li>➤ The particles of the size 0.5 – 3 microns are most dangerous for causation of silicosis. Among the occupational diseases, silicosis is the major cause of permanent disability and mortality. IP - Few months to 6 years X ray Chest shows ‘snow storm appearance'. No effective treatment is available Silicosis is a notifiable disease under Factories Act, 1948 and Mines Act 1952.</li><li>➤ The particles of the size 0.5 – 3 microns are most dangerous for causation of silicosis.</li><li>➤ Among the occupational diseases, silicosis is the major cause of permanent disability and mortality.</li><li>➤ IP - Few months to 6 years</li><li>➤ X ray Chest shows ‘snow storm appearance'.</li><li>➤ No effective treatment is available</li><li>➤ Silicosis is a notifiable disease under Factories Act, 1948 and Mines Act 1952.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Around 9 to 10 months of age, what type of vertebral spinal curvature typically starts to develop in a baby? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Secondary curvature at cervical spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary curvature at thoracic spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary curvature at lumbar spine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary curvature at sacral spine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Secondary curvature at lumbar spine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-39_5NBAUnf.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Secondary curvature at lumbar spine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The development of a secondary curvature in the lumbar spine around 9 to 10 months of age is a critical adaptation to the infant’s growing ability to sit and stand. This lumbar lordosis plays a crucial role in enabling upright posture, which is key for further motor development such as walking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV-positive patient presents with the following finding. What is the diagnosis &amp; WHO staging of the HIV? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral candidiasis &amp; WHO Stage 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral candidiasis &amp; WHO Stage 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hairy leukoplakia and WHO stage 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hairy leukoplakia and WHO stage 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oral candidiasis & WHO Stage 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture35.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-154408.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Oral candidiasis &amp; WHO Stage 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO Staging for HIV/AIDS:</li><li>➤ WHO Staging for HIV/AIDS:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements about the phenomenon shown in the graph below, depicting the dose-response with multiple administrations of the drug, is correct? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drugs are given at short intervals in the same dose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Drugs are given at short intervals in gradually increasing doses", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "This incident is not seen with drugs such as ephedrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "This action is rarely seen in clinical practice", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Drugs are given at short intervals in the same dose", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_f38zqNl.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Drugs are given at short intervals in the same dose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tachyphylaxis is the rapid onset of drug tolerance due to repeated dosing at short intervals, necessitating careful management in clinical practice to maintain drug efficacy, particularly for drugs that operate by releasing or modifying neurotransmitter levels like ephedrine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the diagnosis from the ECG strip provided. (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sinus rhythm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lead misplacement", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ventricular tachycardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture32.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Ventricular tachycardia is identified on an ECG by the presence of a regular, wide QRS complex tachycardia, typically without discernible P waves, indicating rapid electrical activity originating from the ventricles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has swelling in MCP joints. Serum uric acid levels were raised. Doctor will prescribe medicine against which enzyme: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thymidylate synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xanthine oxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ADA (Adenosine Deaminase)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HGPRT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Xanthine oxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-094005.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Xanthine Oxidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Increased uric acid occur due to deficiency of xanthine oxidase which converts xanthine to uric acid during the catabolism of purine in our body.</li><li>➤ Allopurinol is an inhibitor of xanthine oxidase enzyme. The administration of allopurinol is an effective treatment of gout because it decreases the amount of uric acid produced, which in turn alleviates the formation of sodium urate crystals.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 334-335</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 334-335</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kumar, a newly appointed Medical Officer in Nashik, Maharashtra, is under the guidance of the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP). As part of his responsibilities, he has been tasked with overseeing the malaria control measures in the region. Given the ecological conditions and understanding the life cycle of the malaria vector, he is considering the usage of Malathion as a prophylactic measure. Based on NVBDCP guidelines and the behavior of the vector, how frequently should Dr. Kumar ideally decide to spray Malathion to effectively control the malaria spread? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Once every fortnight", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Once every 3 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Twice every 3 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Once every month", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Once every 3 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Once every 3 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malathion should be sprayed at a dosage of 100-200 mg per square foot every three months as a prophylactic measure against malaria, according to NVBDCP guidelines, due to its effectiveness and low toxicity compared to other insecticides. This schedule optimizes both efficacy and safety in controlling the vector population.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old pilot presented to a neurologist with rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, ataxia, and visual disturbances. FLAIR MRI scan shown below. EEG showed periodic complexes. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Variant CJD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alzheimer's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Whipple disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vascular dementia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Variant CJD", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture36.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Variant CJD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (vCJD) presents with rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, ataxia, and characteristic MRI findings of hyperintense pulvinar and dorsomedial thalamic nuclei. EEG often shows periodic complexes, supporting the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is started on a DMARD which requires regular monitoring of visual acuity and fundus examination. Identify the drug. (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydroxychloroquine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sulfasalazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leflunomide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydroxychloroquine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hydroxychloroquine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydroxychloroquine requires regular monitoring of visual acuity and fundus examination to detect and prevent ocular toxicities like corneal opacity and bull's eye maculopathy, making ophthalmic monitoring a critical component of its long-term use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl has come to you with primary amenorrhea; on examination, thelarche is absent; she has a normal stature; her karyotype is 46XX. Suggest an investigation useful for further treatment planning for the girl: (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diagnostic laparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "USG pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LH, FSH levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT Brain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. LH, FSH levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-218_Ge1W4G3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-219_nQe9Rhm.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) LH, FSH levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Primary amenorrhea in the presence of absent secondary sexual characteristics (thelarche) suggests an issue at either the ovarian or hypothalamic-pituitary level. The patient has normal stature and a 46XX karyotype , which helps rule out Turner syndrome (which often presents with short stature and a 45X karyotype). To differentiate between pure gonadal dysgenesis and a hypothalamic-pituitary cause, measuring LH and FSH levels is crucial: In gonadal dysgenesis , LH and FSH levels will be high due to the lack of negative feedback from the ovaries. In hypothalamic-pituitary causes , LH and FSH levels will be low due to an issue with the release or production of these hormones.</li><li>• Primary amenorrhea in the presence of absent secondary sexual characteristics (thelarche) suggests an issue at either the ovarian or hypothalamic-pituitary level.</li><li>• Primary amenorrhea</li><li>• The patient has normal stature and a 46XX karyotype , which helps rule out Turner syndrome (which often presents with short stature and a 45X karyotype).</li><li>• normal stature</li><li>• 46XX karyotype</li><li>• To differentiate between pure gonadal dysgenesis and a hypothalamic-pituitary cause, measuring LH and FSH levels is crucial: In gonadal dysgenesis , LH and FSH levels will be high due to the lack of negative feedback from the ovaries. In hypothalamic-pituitary causes , LH and FSH levels will be low due to an issue with the release or production of these hormones.</li><li>• LH and FSH levels</li><li>• In gonadal dysgenesis , LH and FSH levels will be high due to the lack of negative feedback from the ovaries. In hypothalamic-pituitary causes , LH and FSH levels will be low due to an issue with the release or production of these hormones.</li><li>• In gonadal dysgenesis , LH and FSH levels will be high due to the lack of negative feedback from the ovaries.</li><li>• gonadal dysgenesis</li><li>• high</li><li>• In hypothalamic-pituitary causes , LH and FSH levels will be low due to an issue with the release or production of these hormones.</li><li>• hypothalamic-pituitary causes</li><li>• low</li><li>• Evaluation of primary amenorrhoea</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Diagnostic laparoscopy:</li><li>• Option A. Diagnostic laparoscopy:</li><li>• Explanation : Diagnostic laparoscopy is an invasive procedure and not the first-line investigation for primary amenorrhea without secondary sexual characteristics. It is more appropriate when structural abnormalities are suspected after initial non-invasive tests.</li><li>• Explanation : Diagnostic laparoscopy is an invasive procedure and not the first-line investigation for primary amenorrhea without secondary sexual characteristics. It is more appropriate when structural abnormalities are suspected after initial non-invasive tests.</li><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option B. USG pelvis:</li><li>• Option B. USG pelvis:</li><li>• Explanation : While pelvic ultrasound can help identify structural abnormalities, it will not help differentiate between gonadal dysgenesis and hypothalamic-pituitary causes. It is useful if a structural cause of amenorrhea is suspected.</li><li>• Explanation : While pelvic ultrasound can help identify structural abnormalities, it will not help differentiate between gonadal dysgenesis and hypothalamic-pituitary causes. It is useful if a structural cause of amenorrhea is suspected.</li><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option D. CT Brain:</li><li>• Option D. CT Brain:</li><li>• Explanation : CT brain may be considered if there is suspicion of a hypothalamic or pituitary tumor. However, initial hormonal assays (LH, FSH) are more appropriate first steps in the workup of primary amenorrhea with absent secondary sexual characteristics.</li><li>• Explanation : CT brain may be considered if there is suspicion of a hypothalamic or pituitary tumor. However, initial hormonal assays (LH, FSH) are more appropriate first steps in the workup of primary amenorrhea with absent secondary sexual characteristics.</li><li>• Explanation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To differentiate between ovarian and hypothalamic-pituitary causes of primary amenorrhea, measure LH and FSH levels.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 451, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 451, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female presents to the OPD following a surgery. The chest X-ray is as shown below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post mastectomy of right side", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post mastectomy of left side", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Post mastectomy of left side", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_149.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Post mastectomy of left side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The chest x-ray shows a hyperlucent left hemithorax suggestive of post-left-sided mastectomy image as the breast shadow is missing on the left side.</li><li>• hyperlucent left hemithorax</li><li>• Differentials for unilateral hyperlucent hemithorax:</li><li>• Differentials for unilateral hyperlucent hemithorax:</li><li>• Rotation of patient Absent soft tissue - Mastectomy, Poland syndrome More air-Intrabronchial obstruction due to FB, granuloma, tumor Less vascularity - Pulmonary embolism (Westermark sign)</li><li>• Rotation of patient</li><li>• Absent soft tissue - Mastectomy, Poland syndrome</li><li>• Poland syndrome</li><li>• More air-Intrabronchial obstruction due to FB, granuloma, tumor</li><li>• Less vascularity - Pulmonary embolism (Westermark sign)</li><li>• (Westermark sign)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• A. Right pneumothorax and B. Left pneumothorax: Pneumothorax typically shows as a sharp line demarcating the collapsed lung from the air-filled space, with no lung markings visible beyond this line.</li><li>• A. Right pneumothorax and B. Left pneumothorax:</li><li>• C. Post mastectomy of right side: The right side shows normal soft tissue density consistent with intact breast tissue.</li><li>• C. Post mastectomy of right side:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The absence of the left breast shadow on a chest X-ray in a patient known to have undergone surgery is highly suggestive of a mastectomy, specifically on the left side. This observation helps differentiate from other causes of unilateral hyperlucency, supporting a surgical rather than pathological cause for the radiographic findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the organism responsible for this rash seen in an otherwise well child, who also had oral ulcers? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pox virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coxsackie virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adeno virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ebstein Barr virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coxsackie virus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture27.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coxsackie virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease (HFMD) is caused by Coxsackievirus A16 and Enterovirus A71, characterized by a vesicular rash on the hands and feet and oral ulcers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mehta, a renowned ophthalmologist in Delhi with over 25 years of experience, is conducting a seminar on visual impairments and their global implications. She emphasizes the importance of standardized definitions to facilitate international collaboration, research, and policy implementation. She mentions the World Health Organization's criteria for categorizing visual impairments. If a patient were to be classified as \"blind\" as per the WHO, their visual acuity, even after the best possible correction, in which scenario would warrant this classification? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt;1/60 in better eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt;1/60 in worse eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&lt;3/60 in better eye", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "&lt;3/60 in worse eye", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. <3/60 in better eye", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-125211.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. &lt;3/60 in better eye</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ (PL+: Perception of Light; PL–: No perception of light)</li><li>➤ (PL+: Perception of Light; PL–: No perception of light)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked arrow? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatic vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Portal vein", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Portal vein", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-340.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/whatsapp-image-2023-05-01-at-51127-pm1_KaSfuWp.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Portal vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The portal vein is characterized by its bifurcation into right and left branches at the liver's hilum, and it is formed by the convergence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with carcinoma in pyriform Fossa. On laryngoscopy, the lesion is around 5cm and the right vocal folds are not mobile. There is no Lymph Node involvement and no distant metastasis. What is the TNM staging for the malignancy? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T2N0M0", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T3N0M0", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "T4aN0M0", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T4bN0M0", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. T3N0M0", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102059.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. T3N0M0</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The TNM classification of T3N0M0 for hypopharyngeal carcinoma indicates a significant local invasion with a tumor size larger than 4 cm, involving clinical fixation of the hemilarynx, with no regional lymph node involvement or distant metastasis, necessitating a focused approach on local disease control.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic, anxious about his health after the recent loss of his father to a cerebrovascular accident. Upon inquiry, he reveals that his father had a history of hypertension and had been on medication for the same from 15 years. The young man is concerned about his own risk and wishes to undertake measures to prevent a similar fate. In the context of public health and preventive medicine, the type of prevention he is seeking falls under which category? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primordial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Specific protection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Primary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-120408.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Primary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary prevention is used to reduce or eliminate risk factors and prevent the onset of disease in individuals known to be at risk due to hereditary or other predisposing factors.</li><li>➤ Levels of Prevention</li><li>➤ Levels of Prevention</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is contraindicated in Anal Fissure? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Topical calcium channel blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proctoscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "High fiber diet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Proctoscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-35.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-36.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Proctoscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Proctoscopy is contraindicated in patients with anal fissure due to the extreme pain caused by the spasm of the anal sphincter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with hoarseness of voice. On examination, an ulceroproliferative mass is seen on right vocal cord, cord was however mobile. There is no lymph node involvement and no metastasis. Which of the following is the best treatment modality for this patient? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total laryngectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conservative laryngectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Radiotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Radiotherapy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother of a 5-day-year-old baby presents with the complaint that her baby is \"unable to latch on\" for breastfeeding. She also says there is some leakage of milk at times and on examination, there is bilateral tenderness and swelling. What is the most likely cause of this? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial mastitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lactational mastitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breast engorgement", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Breast engorgement", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Breast engorgement</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breast engorgement is a common postpartum condition characterized by the excessive accumulation of milk, leading to swollen, tender, and heavy breasts.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 173, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 173, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rabies virus uses which molecular motor to cause involvement of the central nervous system from the site of the host? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kinesin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dynein", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Actin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myosin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dynein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Dynein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rabies virus uses dynein for transport from site of inoculation to the central Nervous system.</li><li>• Dynein is the molecular motor responsible for retrograde axonal transport, which is the movement of substances from the axon terminal back to the neuron's cell body (soma). Rabies virus utilizes this mechanism to travel from the site of inoculation to the central nervous system.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Kinesin: Incorrect because kinesin is involved in anterograde transport, moving substances from the neuron's cell body towards the axon terminal, not the direction taken by rabies virus.</li><li>• Option A. Kinesin:</li><li>• Option C. Actin: Incorrect as actin is involved in providing structural support and muscle contraction, not intracellular transport of viruses.</li><li>• Option C. Actin:</li><li>• Option D. Myosin : Incorrect because myosin is primarily involved in muscle contraction and cellular movement, not neural transport.</li><li>• Option D. Myosin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of axonal transport -</li><li>➤ Types of axonal transport -</li><li>➤ 1. Anterograde axonal transport also known as Orthograde transport – vesicles, neurotransmitters, growth factors, mitochondria move from cell body of neuron to nerve ending (Axon terminal)</li><li>➤ Molecular motor involved Anterograde axonal transport -Kinesin</li><li>➤ 2. Retrograde transport also known as Reverse axonal transport – empty vesicles, toxins, viruses move from nerve ending to the cell body of neuron (Soma)</li><li>➤ Molecular motor involved retrograde axonal transport - Dynein</li><li>➤ NOTE: Sometime pathologically some viruses (E.g., herpes simplex, rabies, and polio) get transported back to cell body.</li><li>➤ NOTE:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Oxytocin plays a role in? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Milk production", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Milk ejection", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Milk storage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Milk ejection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/05/untitled-209.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Milk ejection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Oxytocin is specifically involved in the milk ejection (or let-down) reflex in breastfeeding women. It is released in response to nipple stimulation when a baby suckles, triggering contractions of the myoepithelial cells around the milk-producing alveoli, leads to compression of lobules, which results in the ejection of milk.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Milk production : Incorrect because prolactin, not oxytocin, is responsible for milk production.</li><li>• Option A. Milk production</li><li>• Option C. Milk storage : Incorrect as milk storage is not directly influenced by oxytocin; it is a function of the glandular tissue of the breast.</li><li>• Option C. Milk storage</li><li>• Option D. None of the above : Incorrect as oxytocin indeed plays a crucial role in milk ejection.</li><li>• Option D. None of the above</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxytocin is vital for the milk let-down reflex, facilitating milk ejection during breastfeeding. This is distinct from milk production, which is governed by prolactin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female has presented to the OPD with burning sensation during urination, increased frequency and urgency. Which of the following fluoroquinolones should not be given to the patient? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moxifloxacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levofloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Moxifloxacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Moxifloxacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Moxifloxacin should not be used for urinary tract infections as it does not accumulate significantly in the urine and thus does not achieve therapeutic concentrations necessary for effective treatment of these infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most commonly observed emotional state? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Love", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Joy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fear", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fear is the most common basic human emotion that can manifest as either excitement or depression and can lead to fight or flight responses when triggered.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 26th Edition, Chapter 4 - Psychology in Health and Disease, Page 804.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man suffers from sudden financial loss. After the event, he starts feeling fearful that someone is about to harm him because of which he develops reduced sleep and appetite. He begins to hear voices that say that he is useless and that he should kill himself. However, all his symptoms stop after one week. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Schizophreniform disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brief psychotic disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Brief psychotic disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Brief psychotic disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by the sudden onset of psychotic symptoms that last for at least 1 day but less than 1 month, after which the individual returns to their baseline level of functioning. The duration of symptoms is crucial in differentiating it from other psychotic disorders. It can be triggered by stressors, but this is not a requirement for the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 344</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which artery can be palpated by gently pressing your fingers between the medial malleolus and the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior tibial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior tibial artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dorsalis pedis artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Popliteal artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior tibial artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_fmge-anat-22_Aje2A85.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Posterior tibial artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The posterior tibial artery can be palpated just below and behind the medial malleolus, anterior to the medial border of the Achilles tendon. This is an important palpation site for assessing circulatory health in the lower extremities, particularly in patients with peripheral vascular disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the inheritance pattern observed in patients suffering from color blindness? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autosomal dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X linked dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "X linked recessive", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. X linked recessive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) X-linked recessive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Red-green color blindness is an example of an X-linked recessive condition, primarily affecting males due to the presence of the gene mutation on the X chromosome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 59-year-old man underwent a bone marrow examination which revealed the presence of the finding shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis of the affected individual? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ALL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Multiple myeloma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-236.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-237.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Multiple myeloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of sheets of plasma cells with abnormal morphology and bone marrow infiltration seen in the image confirms the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy presented with hematemesis. On further examination patient had splenomegaly. He had history of exchange transfusion for neonatal jaundice. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Budd Chiari syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Portal hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liver cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Portal Vein thrombosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Portal Vein thrombosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Portal Vein thrombosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Portal vein thrombosis should be considered in children presenting with hematemesis and splenomegaly, particularly if there is a history of neonatal exchange transfusion or umbilical vein catheterization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female presented with an unsteady gait, forgetfulness, and mood fluctuation. The neurologist noticed a multicolored iris with concentric rings around the periphery as shown in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wilsons disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neurofibromatosis 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurofibromatosis 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wilsons disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture25.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wilson's disease can present with neuropsychiatric symptoms and is characterized by Kayser-Fleischer rings due to copper deposition in the eyes. Diagnosis involves confirming low serum ceruloplasmin and elevated urinary copper excretion, with treatment focusing on chelation and management of copper levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old G3P1L1A1 at 37 weeks of gestation with a previous history of emergency cesarean section and a dilatation and curettage presents to the ER with labor pains. During abdominal examination it was difficult to palpate fetal parts. Per vaginal examination revealed a 5 cm dilated cervix and her vitals were: BP - 80/60 mm of Hg, RR - 20/ min, HR - 106/ min, Sp02 - 97% under room air. CTG showed a non-reassuring variable fetal heart rate pattern. The most likely diagnosis is: (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amniotic fluid embolization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placental abruption", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine rupture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Uterine rupture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Uterine rupture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario suggests uterine rupture. The following points support this diagnosis:</li><li>• History of previous uterine surgery: The patient has had an emergency cesarean section and a dilatation and curettage, both of which increase the risk of uterine rupture. Difficult to palpate fetal parts: This can occur if the fetus has moved out of the uterine cavity. Patient is in shock: The patient's blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg, and her heart rate is 106/min, indicating hypovolemic shock. Fetal distress: The non-reassuring variable fetal heart rate pattern on CTG indicates fetal distress, which is often associated with uterine rupture.</li><li>• History of previous uterine surgery: The patient has had an emergency cesarean section and a dilatation and curettage, both of which increase the risk of uterine rupture.</li><li>• History of previous uterine surgery:</li><li>• Difficult to palpate fetal parts: This can occur if the fetus has moved out of the uterine cavity.</li><li>• Difficult to palpate fetal parts:</li><li>• Patient is in shock: The patient's blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg, and her heart rate is 106/min, indicating hypovolemic shock.</li><li>• Patient is in shock:</li><li>• Fetal distress: The non-reassuring variable fetal heart rate pattern on CTG indicates fetal distress, which is often associated with uterine rupture.</li><li>• Fetal distress:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Amniotic fluid embolization: This condition typically presents with sudden cardiovascular collapse and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The patient would show signs of respiratory distress, which is not mentioned in the scenario.</li><li>• Option A. Amniotic fluid embolization:</li><li>• Option B. Placental abruption: This condition usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding and a tense or tender abdomen. There is no mention of vaginal bleeding or a tense abdomen in this case.</li><li>• Option B. Placental abruption:</li><li>• Option D. Placenta previa: Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding. It is less likely to be associated with shock or fetal distress without significant bleeding. The clinical scenario does not mention vaginal bleeding.</li><li>• Option D. Placenta previa:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uterine rupture should be suspected in a laboring patient with a history of uterine surgery, hypovolemic shock, difficulty in palpating fetal parts, and signs of fetal distress.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 497, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 497, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the molecule required for presentation of the antigens by the antigen presenting cell to the TH2 cell? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toll like receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MHC", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "G protein coupled receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lectin receptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MHC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-115120.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) MHC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MHC molecules, specifically MHC Class II, are essential for presenting processed exogenous antigens on APCs to CD4+ T cells, including TH2 cells, facilitating the adaptive immune response.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the primary location where a nasal polyp commonly obstructs the maxillary sinus? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inferior meatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior meatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Middle meatus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphenoethmoidal recess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Middle meatus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Middle meatus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The middle meatus is the most common site for nasal polyps to obstruct the maxillary sinus, due to its role in the drainage of the sinus. Obstruction in this area can lead to symptoms of sinusitis and requires appropriate medical or surgical management to restore proper sinus ventilation and drainage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Macrocytic anemia case with normal methyl-malonyl with increased level of homocysteine. Diagnosis? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B9 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B12, 9 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anemia of chronic ds", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. B9 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-094905_MhByJo8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) B9 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deficiency of both Vit B9 and B12 causes macrocytic anemia whereas high homocysteine levels are caused due to deficiency of Vit B6, B9 and B12. But in vitamin B12 deficiency, methyl malonyl CoA levels are also increased which is not the case here. Hence the most accurate diagnosis for the above patient is Vit B9 deficiency.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 536, 545</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 536, 545</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure in the USG of liver given below: (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatic vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Portal vein", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Portal vein", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_126.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_127.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Portal vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The portal vein is a major vascular structure in the liver, visible on ultrasound with color Doppler, showing red to indicate blood flowing towards the liver. This imaging technique is essential for evaluating liver vascular anatomy and pathology, such as assessing for signs of portal hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old term primigravida was admitted with complaints of draining per vaginum. She delivered a male baby by assisted vaginal delivery as face to pubis. What is the most probable type of pelvis in this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gynecoid pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthropoid pelvis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Android pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Platypelloid pelvis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anthropoid pelvis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-217.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anthropoid pelvis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Face to pubis delivery is most commonly associated with the anthropoid pelvis due to the frequent occurrence of occipito-posterior positions in this pelvic type.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 403, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 403, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following chart shows the hormonal variations in the menstrual cycle. Identify the true statement: (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The pink line represents estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The blue line represents FSH hormone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Purple line represents LH hormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grey line represents progesterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. The blue line represents FSH hormone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-220.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) The blue line represents FSH hormone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In this image:</li><li>• The purple line represents progesterone (low in the follicular phase and increases in the luteal phase) The grey line is estrogen which is increased in the follicular phase The pink line represents LH where we can see the LH surge happening just prior to ovulation The blue line represents FSH</li><li>• The purple line represents progesterone (low in the follicular phase and increases in the luteal phase)</li><li>• The grey line is estrogen which is increased in the follicular phase</li><li>• The pink line represents LH where we can see the LH surge happening just prior to ovulation</li><li>• The blue line represents FSH</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The blue line in the menstrual cycle chart represents Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 74, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 74, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presented with flu-like symptoms and a palmoplantar rash as seen below. Examination showed epitrochlear lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endemic disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steven-Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary syphilis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primary syphilis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Secondary syphilis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture230.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-154023.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Secondary syphilis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Syphilis types, diagnosis and management:</li><li>➤ Syphilis types, diagnosis and management:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male who is a professional trumpet blower presented with a swelling on the left side of the neck. On examination, there is a gurgling sound when compressing the swelling. As the X-ray neck was inconclusive a CT neck was taken which is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pharyngeal pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laryngocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tracheoesophageal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tonsillar cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Laryngocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/32_xfGJBh6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102053.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102054.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Laryngocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Laryngoceles are a significant occupational hazard for professionals like trumpet players due to repeated elevation of intralaryngeal pressure, presenting as a neck swelling that changes size with coughing and produces a characteristic gurgling sound on compression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What should be the best initial feeding method for a baby born at 33 weeks gestation, with no perinatal complications? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast feeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orogastric tube feed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paladai feeding", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Paladai feeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture162_CyD0UQO.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture31.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Paladai feeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For preterm infants born between 32-34 weeks gestation, paladai feeding is recommended as the initial feeding method to ensure adequate nutrition and support the development of oral feeding skills.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the tachycardia depicted in the ECG image below? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atrial fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atrial flutter", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Atrial flutter", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture33.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Atrial flutter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atrial flutter is characterized by a sawtooth pattern of P waves, especially prominent in the inferior leads, and involves a reentrant circuit most commonly around the cavotricuspid isthmus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is seen in the OPD after her delivery which was 5 days ago. She presents with smelly greenish vaginal discharge. What is the initial step in the management of this patient? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "USG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Per vaginum examination", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Per vaginum examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Per vaginum examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most likely diagnosis in this patient is postpartum endometritis however, the next line of management in this patient is to undergo a per vaginal examination A P/V examination will help determine the size of the uterus, look for tenderness (positive in PID), rule out adnexal lesions and also rule out the presence of a gauze/ foreign body in the vagina</li><li>• The most likely diagnosis in this patient is postpartum endometritis</li><li>• however, the next line of management in this patient is to undergo a per vaginal examination</li><li>• A P/V examination will help determine the size of the uterus, look for tenderness (positive in PID), rule out adnexal lesions and also rule out the presence of a gauze/ foreign body in the vagina</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Antibiotics : Broad spectrum antibiotics need to be started in case of postpartum sepsis but that would be the 2 nd step after doing a vaginal examination</li><li>• Option A. Antibiotics</li><li>• Option B. Ultrasound : This is also indicated to look for the presence of retained products but again after doing a vaginal exam</li><li>• Option B. Ultrasound</li><li>• Option C. Urinalysis : This is done if symptoms of UTI are there</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Urinalysis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial step in managing a postpartum woman presenting with smelly greenish vaginal discharge is to perform a per vaginum examination to guide further diagnostic and therapeutic steps.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 500, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 500, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a rural health clinic in the southern district of Tamil Nadu, a 5-year-old boy is brought in by his concerned parents. The boy has had a fever and runny nose for the past 3 days. Notably, he developed a rash that began on his face and subsequently spread to cover the trunk of his body. His vaccination history is uncertain due to missing records. The physician examining him is considering various viral etiologies. Based on these clinical findings, which diagnosis is most likely? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Measles", "question_images": ["https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/yKvZAK6Tr8qB7fYp-nh62N5WlaY_KvYGSNP2az6GOyuoj1PFA7bcRk-gKvVjJGZ4nwAny9qqADdsvCSYuyrJfF5-v0GYjizijNwdMrAED__olBbnjej9XJBG4Hg-sdXZeml3Xh22SeZ6ZlVHjOIppnA"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles is characterized by a fever, coryza, Koplik spots, and a maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads cephalocaudally.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The girl seen in the image has had history of severe sunburns after just a few minutes in the sun. She also has history of photosensitivity &amp; severe freckling in the sun exposed areas. The most likely diagnosis is? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blooms syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xeroderma Pigmentosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Warts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SLE", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Xeroderma Pigmentosa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-181945.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Xeroderma Pigmentosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Xeroderma pigmentosum in patients who exhibit extreme photosensitivity, resulting in severe sunburns and pronounced freckling on sun-exposed areas, due to a genetic defect in DNA repair mechanisms.</li><li>➤ Xeroderma pigmentosum</li><li>➤ severe sunburns</li><li>➤ pronounced freckling</li><li>➤ sun-exposed</li><li>➤ genetic</li><li>➤ DNA repair</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: -</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume II Chapter 78 Page no 78.1</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume II Chapter 78 Page no 78.1</li><li>↳ Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30 th edition page number 390</li><li>↳ Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30 th edition page number 390</li><li>↳ Harpers illustrated biochemistry 31 st edition page number 370</li><li>↳ Harpers illustrated biochemistry 31 st edition page number 370</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the human fingerprint shown below? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Whorl", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arch", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loop", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Composite", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arch", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/85.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/09/whatsapp-image-2024-01-09-at-62250-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Different types of human fingerprints are as below:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man presented with the finding shown in the image. What is this physical finding called? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pallor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spoon shaped nails", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clubbing", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Raynaud's phenomenon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Clubbing", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/20/picture29.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Clubbing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clubbing is characterized by a bulbous enlargement of the distal fingers and toes and is associated with various chronic diseases, particularly those involving hypoxia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition shown in the Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) given below? (FMGE AUGUST 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ureterocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ectopic ureteric orifice", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PUJ obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior urethral valve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ureterocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-42.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-43.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-44.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-45.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ureterocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A ureterocele shows a characteristic \"adder-head\" or \"cobra head\" appearance on IVP and involves ballooning at the end of the ureter inside the bladder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Meera, a gynecologist from Chandigarh, India, is conducting a session on family planning methods for a group of medical interns. She showcases various contraceptive devices, emphasizing their specific designs and usage benefits. Holding up one particular intrauterine device (IUD), she quizzes the interns. Based on its specific features and design, which of the following contraceptives is she most likely displaying? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CuT 375", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CuT 7", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CuT 380A", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "NOVA-T", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CuT 380A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture411.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-130333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-130808.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-131015.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. CuT 380A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shelf-life of IUDs</li><li>➤ Shelf-life of IUDs</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy presents with fever and a skin rash. The rashes are a mix of macules, papules, and vesicles located on the axilla and flexor surfaces of the limbs. The lesions are in various stages of development, with some emerging and others healing. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE AUG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chickenpox", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Smallpox", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epstein Barr", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chickenpox", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/01/screenshot-2024-08-01-141351.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Chickenpox</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chickenpox presents with a pleomorphic rash, where lesions are at different stages of development simultaneously. This distinguishing feature, along with fever and centripetal distribution, helps diagnose chickenpox.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient had blunt injury to his calf during a hit and run accident. On examination, there was pain on passive stretching and distal pulses were feeble. What is the most probable diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Compartment syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Varicose vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Buerger’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DVT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Compartment syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Compartment syndrome</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man is brought to emergency with loss of consciousness following RTA. GCS is 8/15 and patient has decerebrate rigidity. CT brain was performed and the image is given below. Which of the following is the diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subdural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cerebral amyloid angiopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diffuse axonal injury", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diffuse axonal injury", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/16_nTkFf87.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Diffuse axonal injury</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the Specific tumor marker for carcinoma pancreas?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CA19-9", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "P53", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuron-specific enolase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BRCA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CA19-9", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/1_teRNMqT.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. CA19-9</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following features is associated with Barrett’s esophagus?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperplasia of goblet cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe dysplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An indirect inguinal hernia occurs due to a defect (Deep inguinal ring) which is seen in?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conjoint tendon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extraperitoneal fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal oblique muscle aponeurosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fascia transversalis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fascia transversalis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/8_tWEbHf4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Fascia transversalis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cutaneous horn as shown in the image below is associated with which of the following skin cancer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Squamous cell carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/19_XEo9lmB.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Squamous cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the skin condition as shown in the image shown below of a patient from rural India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical lymphadenopathy with occult primary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Castleman disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scrofuloderma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reactive lymphadenopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Scrofuloderma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/20_4tn5hQ5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Scrofuloderma</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 251 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 239</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge Dec 2020 2020 12 04 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 239</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 239 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 14-year-old boy who is a football player comes to the casualty with complaints of epistaxis while playing football on the ground. There is no history of trauma or fall. He also gives a history of recurrent spontaneous nasal bleeding and also unilateral nasal obstruction and denasal speech. Contrast-enhanced CT scan of the head is shown below. What is this sign known as? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aquino sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Holman Miller sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Teardrop sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hanging drop sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Holman Miller sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102071.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102072.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102073.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Holman Miller sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Holman Miller sign on a CT scan is a diagnostic indicator of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma, a benign tumor that causes significant morbidity due to its vascularity and location. It primarily affects adolescent males and presents with symptoms like recurrent nosebleeds and nasal obstruction. The preferred treatment is surgical excision, often preceded by embolization of feeding vessels to minimize intraoperative bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the following image, which is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculoid leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Borderline tuberculoid leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leishmaniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lepromatous leprosy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lepromatous leprosy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture190.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture189.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture14_dsQha5Z.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Lepromatous leprosy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lepromatous leprosy is a severe form of leprosy with extensive skin and nerve involvement. Recognizing its presentation is crucial for timely and appropriate treatment to manage symptoms and prevent progression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male who was a chronic smoker started noticing blackening of his fingertips and cold sensation of his fingers. Identify the condition from the picture given below. (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kawasaki Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Buerger’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "APLA syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Buerger’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/22_KWrRQJP.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Buerger’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Buerger’s disease should be considered in young male smokers presenting with symptoms of distal extremity ischemia, such as claudication, ischemic ulcers, or gangrene, and Raynaud's phenomenon. The condition is closely linked to tobacco use and requires a thorough clinical evaluation to exclude other causes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old asymptomatic woman on US shows a unilocular cyst in the ovary of 6cm with negative serology. Treatment involves:(FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laparotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follow-up after 1-2 cycles of OCPs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovariotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Follow-up with CA-125", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Follow-up after 1-2 cycles of OCPs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/29/untitled-252.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Follow-up after 1-2 cycles of OCPs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Follow up after 1-2 cycles of oral combined pills (conservative management) is the best treatment modality in the given scenario as it is most likely to be a functional cyst. Simple cysts &lt; 5 -6cm can be managed conservatively</li><li>• Follow up after 1-2 cycles of oral combined pills (conservative management) is the best treatment modality in the given scenario as it is most likely to be a functional cyst.</li><li>• Simple cysts &lt; 5 -6cm can be managed conservatively</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Laparotomy : As it is a simple cyst and &lt; 8 cm, laparotomy is not required. If surgery is necessary, laparoscopy is preferred for a simple cyst.</li><li>• Option A. Laparotomy</li><li>• Option D. Follow-up with CA-125 : CA-125 is considered if there are suspicious features on ultrasound. In this case, the cyst appears simple and the serology is negative.</li><li>• Option D. Follow-up with CA-125</li><li>• Option C. Ovariotomy : Ovariotomy is not indicated as it appears to be a simple cyst, and the patient is young, warranting conservative management first.</li><li>• Option C. Ovariotomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Functional ovarian cysts less than 8 cm in premenopausal women can be managed conservatively with follow-up after 1-2 cycles of oral contraceptive pills.</li><li>➤ Ref: Adnexal mass, Berek and Novak Textbook of Gynecology, 16 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Adnexal mass, Berek and Novak Textbook of Gynecology, 16 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about BERA? (Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry) (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It can be used for screening of hearing loss", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is an invasive procedure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It cannot be used for assessing sensorineural hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is a subjective investigation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It can be used for screening of hearing loss", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/26/screenshot-2024-06-26-104826.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/26/screenshot-2024-06-26-104909.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. It can be used for screening of hearing loss</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BERA is an effective, non-invasive, and objective method for screening hearing loss, particularly in newborns and uncooperative individuals. It assesses the integrity of the auditory pathway, providing crucial information on both hearing function and neurological status related to the auditory system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The man present with a case of cervical rib has tingling sensation and paresthesia on the medial side of arm. Which of the marked structure is most likely affected? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Choice A - upper trunk of brachial plexus (C5 &amp; C6 roots)</li><li>• Choice A</li><li>• Choice B - middle trunk of the brachial plexus (C7)</li><li>• Choice B</li><li>• Choice C - lower trunk of the brachial plexus (C8 &amp; T1)</li><li>• Choice C - lower trunk of the brachial plexus (C8 &amp; T1)</li><li>• Choice D –Phrenic nerve (C3, C4 &amp; C5)</li><li>• This condition known as thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) , specifically the type caused by the presence of a cervical rib. In this condition, a cervical rib is an extra rib that develops above the first rib in the neck area. This can compress or impinge upon nerves and blood vessels in the neck and shoulder region, leading to symptoms such as tingling sensations, paresthesia, and weakness in the affected arm.</li><li>• thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS)</li><li>• Given the description of tingling sensations and paresthesia on the medial side of the arm, it is likely that the lower trunk of the brachial plexus and the ulnar nerve may be affected. The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that controls the muscles of the arm and hand, while the ulnar nerve specifically innervates the medial side of the forearm and hand. Compression or irritation of these nerves due to the cervical rib can result in the described symptoms.</li><li>• lower trunk of the brachial plexus</li><li>• ulnar nerve</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Upper Trunk of Brachial Plexus (C5 &amp; C6 roots) :</li><li>• Option A. Upper Trunk of Brachial Plexus (C5 &amp; C6 roots)</li><li>• Effects of Injury : An injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus can result in a condition known as Erb's palsy or Erb-Duchenne palsy . This type of injury often occurs during childbirth or as a result of trauma to the shoulder area. Common effects include:</li><li>• Effects of Injury</li><li>• Erb's palsy</li><li>• Erb-Duchenne palsy</li><li>• Loss of sensation : Reduced sensation in the shoulder, upper arm, and lower neck regions.</li><li>• Loss of sensation</li><li>• Motor deficits : Weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control the shoulder and elbow. This typically results in a characteristic posture known as the \"waiter's tip position,\" where the arm hangs by the side with the wrist extended and the hand turned inward.</li><li>• Motor deficits</li><li>• Muscle atrophy : Over time, muscle wasting may occur in the affected areas.</li><li>• Muscle atrophy</li><li>• Option B. Middle Trunk of the Brachial Plexus (C7) :</li><li>• Option B. Middle Trunk of the Brachial Plexus (C7)</li><li>• Effects of Injury : Isolated injury to the middle trunk of the brachial plexus is relatively rare. Typically, injuries involve more proximal portions of the plexus. However, if the middle trunk is affected, it may result in:</li><li>• Effects of Injury</li><li>• Loss of sensation : Reduced sensation in the middle of the arm.</li><li>• Loss of sensation</li><li>• Motor deficits : Weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control the elbow and wrist movements, depending on the severity of the injury.</li><li>• Motor deficits</li><li>• Option D. Phrenic Nerve (C3, C4 &amp; C5) :</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Phrenic Nerve (C3, C4 &amp; C5)</li><li>• Effects of Injury : Injury to the phrenic nerve can result in paralysis or weakness of the diaphragm , the primary muscle responsible for breathing. Common effects include:</li><li>• Effects of Injury</li><li>• diaphragm</li><li>• Breathing difficulties : Paralysis of the diaphragm leads to impaired lung ventilation, causing difficulty in breathing and the need for respiratory support.</li><li>• Breathing difficulties</li><li>• Hypoxia : Reduced oxygen intake can lead to low oxygen levels in the blood (hypoxia), which can affect various organs and bodily functions.</li><li>• Hypoxia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus (C8 &amp; T1 roots) by a cervical rib can lead to symptoms like tingling and paresthesia in the medial side of the arm, consistent with thoracic outlet syndrome. Awareness of the anatomical relationship between cervical ribs and the brachial plexus is critical in diagnosing and managing TOS.</li><li>➤ Injury to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus can result in a condition known as Klumpke's palsy . Common effects include the reduced / l oss of sensation in the hand and fingers. The most severe form of Klumpke's palsy, known as a total palsy, can result in a claw-like deformity of the hand.</li><li>➤ Klumpke's palsy</li><li>➤ oss of sensation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The ophthalmic surgical instrument shown in the figure is used in which of the following conditions?( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eye injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ectropion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chalazion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bitot’s spot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chalazion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/19/picture9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/19/picture10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chalazion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chalazion forceps are specifically designed for the surgical treatment of chalazia, providing a secure grip on the eyelid and the cyst during the procedure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old female presents within 8 hours of having sexual intercourse and asking for emergency contraception. She says she doesn't want multiple pills and wants just one pill. What would be your advice? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethinyl estradiol+ levonorgestrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Desogestrel 3 mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/23/screenshot-2024-08-23-091925.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• LNG: Given within 72 hours of unprotected sexual activity. One tablet of 0.75 mg can be taken, followed by another 12 hours later. As an alternative, two tablets can be consumed at once. Failure rate is 1.1%. LNG inhibits ovulation and causes endometrial desynchronization (luteal phase deficiency). Methods of emergency contraception are as described in the table</li><li>• LNG: Given within 72 hours of unprotected sexual activity. One tablet of 0.75 mg can be taken, followed by another 12 hours later. As an alternative, two tablets can be consumed at once. Failure rate is 1.1%. LNG inhibits ovulation and causes endometrial desynchronization (luteal phase deficiency).</li><li>• Methods of emergency contraception are as described in the table</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg : This regimen requires two doses, 12 hours apart, which does not align with the patient's preference for a single pill.</li><li>• Option A. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg</li><li>• Option B. Ethinyl estradiol + levonorgestrel : This is the Yuzpe regimen, which involves taking multiple pills and is not suitable for a patient seeking a single-pill solution.</li><li>• Option B. Ethinyl estradiol + levonorgestrel</li><li>• Option D. Desogestrel 3 mg : Desogestrel is not commonly used for emergency contraception. The preferred progesterone for emergency contraception is levonorgestrel.</li><li>• Option D. Desogestrel 3 mg</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse, a single 1.5 mg dose of levonorgestrel is recommended, providing a convenient and effective solution.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 630, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 630, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient presented with difficulty in foot eversion and sensory loss on the lateral leg &amp; dorsum of foot. Which nerve lesion will lead to the following condition: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deep peroneal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sural nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superficial peroneal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Saphenous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Superficial peroneal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/15/1-1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/15/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190170.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Superficial peroneal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The superficial peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve (a division of the sciatic nerve). It innervates the muscles that control foot eversion, specifically the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles. It also provides sensory innervation to the anterolateral aspect of the leg and the dorsum (top) of the foot.</li><li>• superficial peroneal nerve</li><li>• Effect of Lesion : If the superficial peroneal nerve is damaged or compressed, it can lead to weakness in the muscles responsible for foot eversion. Additionally, it can result in sensory loss on the anterolateral aspect of the leg and the dorsum of the foot. This condition is known as superficial peroneal nerve entrapment or injury .</li><li>• Effect of Lesion</li><li>• superficial peroneal nerve entrapment or injury</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Deep Peroneal Nerve : The deep peroneal nerve innervates the muscles that control foot dorsiflexion and toe extension. It also provides sensory innervation to the space between the first and second toes. Damage to this nerve would result in difficulty in dorsiflexion and toe extension, along with sensory loss in that specific area.</li><li>• Option A. Deep Peroneal Nerve</li><li>• Option B. Sural Nerve : The sural nerve is a sensory nerve that provides innervation to the lateral aspect of the leg and the lateral foot. Damage to the sural nerve would primarily result in sensory loss in these areas. It would not directly affect foot eversion or motor function.</li><li>• Option B. Sural Nerve</li><li>• Option D. Saphenous Nerve : The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that innervates the medial aspect of the leg and the foot. Damage to the saphenous nerve would primarily result in sensory loss in these areas. It would not directly affect foot eversion or motor function.</li><li>• Option D. Saphenous Nerve</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the Anomaly shown in the picture below. (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyloric stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pancreatic Divisum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Annular Pancreas", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duodenal Atresia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Annular Pancreas", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Annular pancreas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Annular pancreas is an abnormal ring of pancreatic tissue encircling the duodenum, leading to symptoms of intestinal obstruction. It is due to the failure of the rotation of the ventral bud of the pancreas. The definitive treatment is duodenoduodenostomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 74-year-old female suffered with heart disease and with cardiac atrophy. On H/E stain perinuclear, brown colored deposits were seen. Which pigment responsible for this? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemosiderin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stellate cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lipofuscin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lipofuscin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-281.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lipofuscin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lipofuscin, identified by its golden-brown perinuclear deposits, is a marker of aging and cellular wear and tear, especially in long-lived cells like cardiac myocytes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old nurse got needle prick injury from a HIV positive patient while doing blood sampling. Which test would be the confirmatory test to rule out the infection? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "p24 assay", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Western blot", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blood culture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. p24 assay", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. p24 assay</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The p24 test identifies actual HIV virus particles in blood. p24 is a capsid structural protein which makes up a protein ‘shell’ on the surface of the HIV virus. It is one of the earliest antigenic markers to come positive in an HIV patient so diagnosing p24 in a needle stick patient is confirmatory test to rule out early infection</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old woman presents with rash over her lips as shown in image below, 1 hour after she had taken NSAIDs for her joint pain. She had reported that she developed the same rash in the same location 5 months ago when she took the same drugs for back pain. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post inflammatory hyperpigmentation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fixed drug eruption", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drug Hypersensitivity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fixed drug eruption", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-192046.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Fixed drug eruption</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recurrence of a rash at the same site upon re-exposure to a drug, particularly with a rapid onset following drug intake, is characteristic of Fixed Drug Eruption. This should be distinguished from other causes of drug reactions and hyperpigmentation due to its localized nature and recurrence pattern.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Rooks text book of dermatology, 9 th edition, page no 88.28, 118.12</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is exploring tools to address health disparities in urban areas and discusses a WHO-developed guide. What is the correct name of this tool designed to help cities assess and respond to urban health equity issues? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urban Health Equity Assessment and Response Tool", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urban Health Evaluation assessment and Response Tool", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urban Health Equity Assessment and Response Technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urban Health Evaluation Assessment and Response Technique", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urban Health Equity Assessment and Response Tool", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Urban Health Equity Assessment and Response Tool</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Urban Health Equity Assessment and Response Tool are vital for effectively tackling health inequities in urban settings through informed policy and practice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 39-year-old patient complaint of frequent perianal pruritus. On microscopic examination, following Image was Seen. Find out the most probable causative organism? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichuris Trichura", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Enterobius vermicularis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/18_bIZlbtg.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Enterobius vermicularis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is characterized by its eggs, which are responsible for causing perianal pruritus due to nocturnal migration of the female worms to lay eggs. Trichuria has dumb-bell shaped eggs with mucous plugs on both the sides. Ankylostoma has typical bile-stained eggs which look like 4-5 blastomeres. Ascaris also has bile-stained eggs.</li><li>➤ Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is characterized by its eggs, which are responsible for causing perianal pruritus due to nocturnal migration of the female worms to lay eggs.</li><li>➤ Trichuria has dumb-bell shaped eggs with mucous plugs on both the sides.</li><li>➤ Trichuria has dumb-bell shaped eggs</li><li>➤ Ankylostoma has typical bile-stained eggs which look like 4-5 blastomeres.</li><li>➤ Ascaris also has bile-stained eggs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old girl is brought to you by her mother with complaints of mouth breathing. She has a flat, expressionless long face with an open mouth. On examination, a high-arched palate and crowded upper teeth are noted. The X-ray is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lingual tonsils", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quinsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tonsillar hypertrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenoid hypertrophy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Adenoid hypertrophy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture44.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102063.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102067.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102068.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102069.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Adenoid hypertrophy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenoid hypertrophy should be considered in children presenting with mouth breathing, characteristic facial features, and crowded dental arches. A combination of clinical examination and imaging typically confirms the diagnosis, guiding appropriate management to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the past one year, a patient had more than 4 episodes of psychiatric illness, consisting of mania, hypomania, and depression, with complete recovery in between the episodes. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Major depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dysthymia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclothymia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rapid cycling bipolar disorder", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rapid cycling bipolar disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rapid cycling bipolar disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Rapid cycling bipolar disorder is defined as the occurrence of four or more mood episodes (mania, hypomania, or depression) in a 12-month period. Drug of choice for rapid cycling is valproate.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 368-369.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic present with visual hallucinations and disorientation two days after the last alcohol intake. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal delirium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcoholic hallucination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dementia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alcohol withdrawal delirium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alcohol withdrawal delirium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) typically presents 48-72 hours after the last drink and is characterized by disturbances of consciousness, disorientation to time, place, and person, hallucinations (especially visual), agitation, coarse tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. Risk factors include surgery, infections or other medical conditions. It is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Treatment includes intravenous lorazepam or diazepam with thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 276-277.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child is having progressive anemia. On examination spleno-hepatomegaly is noted with malar eminence prominence. Peripheral smear is shown here. The clinical Diagnosis is? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sideroblastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead poisoning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thalassemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-294.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-143948.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thalassemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thalassemia is characterized by the presence of target cells, microcytic hypochromic anemia, and hepatosplenomegaly, with a clinical presentation that includes malar eminence prominence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a clinical teaching session in a teaching hospital, a senior physician is guiding a medical intern on the appropriate method to elicit the knee reflex. The intern is carefully observing and then practicing the technique himself under supervision. Considering the domains of learning, this type of hands-on learning where a skill or physical action is being taught and practiced primarily pertains to which category? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cognitive learning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Affective learning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psychomotor learning", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Psychomotor learning", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Psychomotor learning</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type of Learning and Associations</li><li>➤ Type of Learning and Associations</li><li>➤ Cognitive learning - Knowledge Affective learning - Attitudes Psychomotor learning - Skills</li><li>➤ Cognitive learning - Knowledge</li><li>➤ Affective learning - Attitudes</li><li>➤ Psychomotor learning - Skills</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child from a poor family is brought with complaints of fever, convulsions, and abnormal behavior for the last 2 months and has not been responding to the parents for the past 2 days. On examination, neck rigidity is seen with CSF showing increased lymphocytes, glucose-30mg% and proteins 300mg%. The diagnosis is: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Viral meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacterial meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tubercular meningitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Partially treated bacterial meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tubercular meningitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/905.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tubercular meningitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tubercular meningitis presents with chronic neurological symptoms, and CSF analysis shows high lymphocytes, low glucose, and high protein, along with cobweb coagulum formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What of the following statement is incorrect about the given image?( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Occurs more commonly in sunny areas.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conjunctival autograft may be used in its treatment.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It causes myopia.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron deposition is found.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It causes myopia.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-145642.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It causes myopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pterygium typically does not cause myopia but can induce astigmatism. It is characterized by a fibrovascular growth on the cornea, often associated with UV exposure, and can be treated surgically with techniques like conjunctival autografting to reduce recurrence.</li><li>➤ Ref: Pg 198/ Ch.6 Conjunctiva/ Kanski’s clinical ophthalmology/ 9 th ed.</li><li>➤ Ref: Pg 198/ Ch.6 Conjunctiva/ Kanski’s clinical ophthalmology/ 9 th ed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following proteoglycans is responsible for maintaining the transparency of cornea? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chondroitin sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Keratan sulphate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyaluronic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heparan sulfate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Keratan sulphate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-151319.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Keratan sulphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corneal transparency is maintained by:</li><li>➤ Corneal transparency is maintained by:</li><li>➤ Dehydrated state (hydration leads to loss of transparency) Avascularity Regular arrangement of corneal lamellae Unmyelinated nerve fibres</li><li>➤ Dehydrated state (hydration leads to loss of transparency)</li><li>➤ Avascularity</li><li>➤ Regular arrangement of corneal lamellae</li><li>➤ Unmyelinated nerve fibres</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Postoperative delirium and hallucination is seen with which intravenous anesthetic agent? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propofol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiopentone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ketamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ketamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Ketamine is known to cause postoperative delirium and hallucinations.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs. 2643-2644</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs.</li><li>➤ 2643-2644</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dohlman's procedure is for: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meckel's diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zenker's diverticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bochdalek hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Menetrier's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Zenker's diverticulum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102078.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Zenker’s diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zenker's diverticulum is managed surgically, primarily through procedures like Dohlman's, which address the underlying mechanical dysfunction causing the diverticulum. This treatment is focused on improving symptoms and preventing complications like aspiration or chronic inflammation from retained food.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At a public health conference, a researcher emphasizes the importance of using robust datasets for health policy planning in India. Which agency is known for conducting extensive, ongoing surveys that collect health-related data? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AIIMS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Central Bureau of Health", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "National Sample Survey", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sample registration system", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. National Sample Survey", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. National Sample Survey</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Sample Survey taken up by NSSO (National Sample Survey Organization).</li><li>➤ It carries out large scale sample surveys that too in diverse fields, mainly based on household.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy develops hypoglycemia after moderate activity. Blood report shows raised ketones, lactic acid and triglycerides. On examination, liver and kidney were found to be enlarged and patient is diagnosed with Von Gierke’s disease. which enzyme deficiency he has? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose-6-phosphatase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acid maltase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycogen synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G-6-PD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glucose-6-phosphatase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glucose-6-phosphatase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Von Gierke's disease, also known as glycogen storage disease type Ia, is caused by a deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase.</li><li>➤ The clinical manifestations includes hypoglycemia after moderate activity, raised ketones, lactic acid, and triglycerides, along with hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) and nephromegaly (enlarged kidneys).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the labelled tarsal bone in the image below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcaneus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cuboid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Navicular", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Talus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Navicular", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-312.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Navicular</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ There are 7 tarsal bones and they occupy the proximal half of foot.</li><li>➤ 7 tarsal bones</li><li>➤ The proximal row is made up of the talus and calcaneus . The distal row from medial - lateral contains - cuneiforms ( medial, intermediate, lateral ) and the cuboid .</li><li>➤ The proximal row is made up of the talus and calcaneus .</li><li>➤ talus</li><li>➤ calcaneus</li><li>➤ The distal row from medial - lateral contains - cuneiforms ( medial, intermediate, lateral ) and the cuboid .</li><li>➤ from medial - lateral</li><li>➤ cuneiforms</li><li>➤ medial, intermediate, lateral</li><li>➤ cuboid</li><li>➤ Medially the navicular bone is interposed between the head of the talus and the cuneiforms</li><li>➤ navicular bone</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a cause of sensorineural hearing loss? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Labyrinthitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ear wax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CSOM", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Labyrinthitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Labyrinthitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CAUSES OF ACQUIRED SNHL:</li><li>➤ CAUSES OF ACQUIRED SNHL:</li><li>➤ Infections of labyrinth—viral, bacterial or spirochetal Trauma to labyrinth or VIIIth nerve, e.g., fractures of temporal bone or concussion of the labyrinth or the ear surgery Noise-induced hearing loss Ototoxic drugs Presbycusis Meniere’s disease Acoustic neuroma Sudden hearing loss Familial progressive SNHL Systemic disorders, e.g., diabetes, hypothyroidism, kidney disease, autoimmune disorders, multiple sclerosis, blood dyscrasias.</li><li>➤ Infections of labyrinth—viral, bacterial or spirochetal</li><li>➤ Trauma to labyrinth or VIIIth nerve, e.g., fractures of temporal bone or concussion of the labyrinth or the ear surgery</li><li>➤ Noise-induced hearing loss</li><li>➤ Ototoxic drugs</li><li>➤ Presbycusis</li><li>➤ Meniere’s disease</li><li>➤ Acoustic neuroma</li><li>➤ Sudden hearing loss</li><li>➤ Familial progressive SNHL</li><li>➤ Systemic disorders, e.g., diabetes, hypothyroidism, kidney disease, autoimmune disorders, multiple sclerosis, blood dyscrasias.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "32-year-old woman is having progressive dysphagia. On examination she has thickening of oral mucosa and leather like skin. She is also hypertensive and has immense exercise capacity due to lung fibrosis. Which of the following is the possible diagnosis: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peutz-Jeghers syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post cricoid dysphagia.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Achalasia cardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Scleroderma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Scleroderma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) involves skin thickening, internal organ fibrosis, and autoimmune features, leading to symptoms like dysphagia, hypertensive complications, and decreased exercise capacity due to lung fibrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient presents with redness, pain, and light sensitivity in right eye. After examination, a diagnosis of anterior uveitis is made. Which of the following HLAs can be associated with his condition? ( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HLA B5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HLA B27", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HLA B7", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HLA DR4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HLA B27", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-145529.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HLA B27</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Before traveling to a tropical area, a pregnant woman seeks advice on preventing Zika virus transmission, as travelling to tropical region. Which mosquito is the primary vector for Zika virus? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sandfly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aedes aegypti", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Culex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anopheles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aedes aegypti", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/category2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Aedes aegypti</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old obese patient presented with colicky abdominal pain, diarrhea and no history of fever. What could be the diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Entamoeba histolytica", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shigella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Giardia lamblia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Entamoeba histolytica", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Entamoeba histolytica</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Entamoeba histolytica is the causative organism for amoebiasis, presenting with colicky abdominal pain and diarrhea without fever. The infective form is the quadrinucleate cyst, and the liver can be a significant site of infection, producing characteristic abscesses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lysosomal enzymes are present in: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytosol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endoplasmic reticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nucleus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Endoplasmic reticulum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Endoplasmic reticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Lysosomes are the Principal Sites of Intracellular Digestion. Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum and then transported to the Golgi apparatus, where they are modified and packaged into lysosomes. Once inside lysosomes, these enzymes help to break down a variety of substances, including proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids.</li><li>• endoplasmic reticulum</li><li>• They contain about 40 types of hydrolytic enzymes, including proteases, nucleases, glycosidases, lipases, phospholipases, phosphatases, and sulfatases</li><li>• proteases, nucleases, glycosidases, lipases, phospholipases, phosphatases, and sulfatases</li><li>• Proteases: enzymes that break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids. Nucleases: enzymes that break down nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA. Glycosidases: enzymes that break down carbohydrates, such as sugars and glycogen. Lipases: enzymes that break down lipids, such as fats and cholesterol.</li><li>• Proteases: enzymes that break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids.</li><li>• Nucleases: enzymes that break down nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA.</li><li>• Glycosidases: enzymes that break down carbohydrates, such as sugars and glycogen.</li><li>• Lipases: enzymes that break down lipids, such as fats and cholesterol.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cytosol : Incorrect because lysosomal enzymes are not free in the cytosol; they are contained within lysosomes.</li><li>• Option A. Cytosol</li><li>• Option B. Mitochondria : Incorrect as mitochondria do not contain lysosomal enzymes; they have their own distinct set of enzymes for cellular respiration.</li><li>• Option B. Mitochondria</li><li>• Option D. Nucleus : Incorrect because the nucleus does not house lysosomal enzymes; it is primarily involved in storing and processing genetic information.</li><li>• Option D. Nucleus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum, further processed in the Golgi apparatus, and finally sorted into lysosomes where they aid in breaking down a variety of substances, playing a crucial role in the cellular degradation pathway.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old man presented with complaints of long-standing black urine. Both, Ferric chloride and Benedict's test were found to be positive in this patient. Pinna and Sclera of eyes have black pigmentation. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenylketonuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Galactosemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alkaptonuria", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "MSUD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Alkaptonuria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Alkaptonuria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alkaptonuria is a rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme homogentisate oxidase (old name) homogentisate 1, 2-dioxygenase (new name). This enzyme is involved in the metabolism of the amino acids phenylalanine and tyrosine. In individuals with alkaptonuria, there is an accumulation of homogentisic acid which is reducing substance and comes out in the urine of patient, giving positive Benedict test and FeCl 3 test. The accumulation of homogentisate in connective tissues give rise to black pigmentation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Down syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klinefelter syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Noonan syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Turner syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/912.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Turner syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome presents with short stature, shield chest, webbed neck , and is associated with cardiac (coarctation of the aorta) and renal anomalies (horseshoe kidney) .</li><li>➤ short stature, shield chest, webbed neck</li><li>➤ cardiac (coarctation of the aorta) and renal anomalies (horseshoe kidney)</li><li>➤ Ref - Essential paediatrics by OP Ghai 9 Th Edition – Page No-637</li><li>➤ Ref - Essential paediatrics by OP Ghai 9 Th Edition – Page No-637</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "PrP deposition is seen in? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CJD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parkinson’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alzheimer’s disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CJD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CJD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PrP deposition and the transformation of normal prion protein (PrPc) to its abnormal form (PrPsc) are characteristic features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health graduate student is exploring how age-specific mortality rates impact fertility indicators. Which fertility indicator is influenced by variations in these mortality rates? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gross Reproductive rate (GRR)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Net reproduction rate (NRR)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total fertility rate (TFR)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "General fertility rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Net reproduction rate (NRR)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Net reproduction rate (NRR)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NRR is dependent on change in age specific fertility and mortality rate.</li><li>➤ Net reproduction rate (NRR) = Expected number of daughters, per newborn prospective mother, who may or may not survive to and through the ages of childbearing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following Structure develops in the dorsal mesogastrium? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Falciform ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spleen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lesser omentum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Spleen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-110.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/1-backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-2-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Spleen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• During embryonic development, the spleen develops with in the dorsal mesogastrium and is suspended by it. As development progresses, the spleen rotates into its normal position in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen while maintaining its connection to the dorsal mesogastrium.</li><li>• Note - The dorsal mesogastrium is a double-layered fold of peritoneum that connects the stomach and other abdominal organs to the posterior abdominal wall during embryonic development. As the digestive system and other organs develop, various structures form within the dorsal mesogastrium.</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A) Liver : The liver does not develop within the dorsal mesogastrium. Instead, the liver originates from endodermal tissue and is located in the upper right quadrant of the abdominal cavity. It has its own set of ligaments, including the falciform ligament and the lesser omentum, which are associated with its support and attachment.</li><li>• Option A) Liver</li><li>• Option B) Falciform Ligament : The falciform ligament is a thin, fold of peritoneum that extends from the anterior abdominal wall to the liver. It does not develop within the dorsal mesogastrium but rather serves to suspend the liver from the anterior abdominal wall.</li><li>• Option B) Falciform Ligament</li><li>• Option D) Lesser Omentum : The lesser omentum is a double-layered fold of peritoneum that connects the liver and the stomach. While it is associated with the liver, it does not develop within the dorsal mesogastrium. Instead, it forms as part of the development of the digestive organs in the abdominal cavity.</li><li>• Option D) Lesser Omentum</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Spleen develops in the mesenchyme of the dorsal mesogastrium. Lesser omentum in falciform ligament and liver develop in ventral mesogastrium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with carcinoma of the breast presents with swelling of the ankle for the past 3 months. Urinary examination showed heavy proteinuria and hematuria. Renal biopsy is likely to reveal? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FSGS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MPGN", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C.MGN", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Minimal change disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C.MGN", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) MGN</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary Membranous Glomerulonephritis (MGN) is the most likely diagnosis in an elderly patient with a history of carcinoma of the breast, presenting with heavy proteinuria, hematuria, and swelling of the ankle. MGN is commonly linked with malignancies and is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in the elderly. Renal biopsy would reveal thickening of the glomerular basement membrane with subepithelial immune deposits.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 53-year-old patient was brought to the ER with altered sensorium and rapid shallow breathing. His abdomen is distended with palpable hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and icterus. Lab investigations show AST ratio of 3:1. What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute viral hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcoholic liver disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autoimmune hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetaminophen poisoning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alcoholic liver disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/whatsapp-image-2023-05-23-at-160443.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alcoholic liver disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcoholic liver disease is suggested by the presence of jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, spider nevi, altered sensorium, and an AST ratio of 3:1. This condition is distinguished from other liver diseases by these clinical and laboratory findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a village with 5,000 residents, the birth rate is reported as 25 live births per 1,000 people per year. Including estimated pregnancy losses, what is the total number of pregnancies expected in one year? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "119", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "138", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "172", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "250", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 138", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 138</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When calculating the total number of pregnancies in a population, it is essential to include both the expected live births based on the birth rate and an estimated percentage for pregnancy losses to obtain a comprehensive figure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother with her preterm newborn is worried as the newborn hasn't passed the meconium till now. What is the maximum time to wait for meconium to pass in this infant? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "18 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "48 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "36 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "72 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 48 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/908.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 48 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A normal newborn should pass meconium within 48 hours after birth; delays beyond this may indicate Hirschsprung's disease or other gastrointestinal pathology.</li><li>➤ 48 hours</li><li>➤ Hirschsprung's disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person was found dead on road side. On examination there was cyanosis of the nails, scratches over face, neck and chin, and laceration near lips. Which of the following is not the probable mode of death in this case? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Throttling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It’s a Homicide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asphyxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Case of a suicide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Case of a suicide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Case of a suicide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of multiple external injuries and signs of a struggle strongly indicates that the mode of death is likely homicide due to throttling and asphyxia, not suicide.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A health worker nurse experiences a needle stick injury with a needle known to be from HIV positive patient. She immediately seeks a confirmatory test for HIV. Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for confirming HIV status after such exposure? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "P24 Antigen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Western Blot assay", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PCR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. P24 Antigen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. p24 assay</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The p24 assay is an early diagnostic test that detects the presence of HIV capsid proteins approximately 2-3 weeks after infection , while the Western blot is used as a confirmatory test after a positive initial screening result.</li><li>➤ p24 assay</li><li>➤ 2-3 weeks after infection</li><li>➤ Western blot</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient presents with acute abdominal pain to the casualty. He has history of taking painkillers for a month due to dental pain. X-Ray abdomen was done in erect position. Which of the following is correct about management of this condition? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drain the peritoneal fluid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "X Ray guided drainage of peritoneal accumulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exploratory laparotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insert Flatus tube and repeat X ray", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Exploratory laparotomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/29_LGBvrC8.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Exploratory laparotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the case of suspected hollow viscous perforation, especially in the presence of free gas under the diaphragm on X-ray, the definitive management is exploratory laparotomy to repair the perforation and prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Complex IV in ETC is inhibited by? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyanide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barbiturates", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenobarbitone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malonate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cyanide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cyanide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old female presents with rapidly enlarging breast lump which is firm, mobile and does not have any lymph nodes involved. What could be the diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibroadenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brodie’s serocystic disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Breast Cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galactocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Brodie’s serocystic disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/12_aHdYd6x.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Brodie’s serocystic disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brodie’s serocystic disease, also known as Phyllodes tumor or Cystosarcoma phyllodes, presents as a rapidly enlarging breast lump without lymph node involvement and is characterized by its leaf-like appearance on cut section. The investigation of choice is a biopsy, and management involves wide local excision or simple mastectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is a tour guide on Mount Everest presented with blisters on the foot as shown. The patient has severe pain and the examination reveals erythema and tenderness. Which of the following is not used in the management of this patient? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pentoxifylline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NSAID", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Apply heat to the area and cast as soon as possible", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxygen supplementation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Apply heat to the area and cast as soon as possible", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1222.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Apply heat to the area and cast as soon as possible.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of frostbite, avoid applying direct heat or casting the affected area. Proper management includes rewarming, pain control, wound cleaning, and in severe cases, considering thrombolytic therapy and possibly amputation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sonographic evaluation of a 26-year-old woman, who presented with complaints of amenorrhea for 12 weeks revealed the twin gestation as shown in the image below. The type of gestation seen here is which of the following? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monochorionic Diamniotic (MCDA)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conjoined twins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-211.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-212.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lambda sign or twin peak sign is indicative of a dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twin pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 870, William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 870, William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The lab reports of a 40-year-old man show positive IgG anti-HbC and negative HbsAg. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immunization with HbsAg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis B in the remote past", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Recovering from hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hepatitis B in the remote past", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-161251.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old animal handler came to the clinic with cough, chest pain for one week, and fatigue for a month. Chest X-ray is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydatid cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthrax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydatid cyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_154.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hydatid cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with a history of exposure to animals and presenting with symptoms suggestive of a lung lesion, along with characteristic imaging findings of a cystic structure with a \"Waterlily sign,\" hydatid cyst should be considered as a likely diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with chronic small bowel diarrhea and says that he is allergic to wheat. Duodenal biopsy shows villous atrophy. Anti-endomysial antibodies and TTG IgA antibodies are positive. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020) TTG - tissue transglutaminase", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Whipple's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tropical sprue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Celiac sprue", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Celiac sprue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Celiac sprue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac disease is characterized by villous atrophy on biopsy and is diagnosed by positive anti-endomysial and TTG IgA antibodies. The treatment is lifelong gluten avoidance.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition, Chapter 387- Page No 8386.</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Nelson 21 st Edition, Chapter 387- Page No 8386.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An intern is preparing for a health awareness session and needs to know which diseases the NPCDCS focuses on in India. Which group of conditions is targeted by this program? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchial Asthma, Hypertension, CVD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diabetes, Hypertension, Bronchial Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CVD, Diabetes, Bronchial Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CVD, Cancer, Diabetes, Stroke", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. CVD, Cancer, Diabetes, Stroke", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. CVD, Cancer, Diabetes, Stroke</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR PREVENTION &amp; CONTROL OF DIABETES, CV DISEASES &amp; STROKE (NPCDCS)</li><li>➤ NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR PREVENTION &amp; CONTROL OF DIABETES, CV DISEASES &amp; STROKE (NPCDCS)</li><li>➤ Through formation of NCD clinics, this was established in 100+ districts in India</li><li>➤ Set of 9 voluntary Global NCD targets for 2025 are:</li><li>➤ Smoking and salt intake to be reduced by 30% Risk factors like alcohol and less physical activity to be reduced by 10% Reduction the premature deaths due to non-Communicable diseases by 25% Reduction in the prevalence of Hypertension by 25% &gt; 80% of the community must have access to affordable medicines for all NCDs in all private and public centres &gt; 50% of all patients must get access to drugs and medicines to prevent coronary artery disease or stroke Halt the epidemics of diabetes and obesity.</li><li>➤ Smoking and salt intake to be reduced by 30%</li><li>➤ Risk factors like alcohol and less physical activity to be reduced by 10%</li><li>➤ Reduction the premature deaths due to non-Communicable diseases by 25%</li><li>➤ Reduction in the prevalence of Hypertension by 25%</li><li>➤ &gt; 80% of the community must have access to affordable medicines for all NCDs in all private and public centres</li><li>➤ &gt; 50% of all patients must get access to drugs and medicines to prevent coronary artery disease or stroke</li><li>➤ Halt the epidemics of diabetes and obesity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug inhibits the marked enzyme in vitamin K cycle? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clopidogrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dicumarol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alteplase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dicumarol", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/01/screenshot-2024-06-01-103109.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-134316.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dicumarol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The vitamin K cycle is crucial for the synthesis and activation of clotting factors in the blood as shown in figure below:</li><li>➤ Drugs like Dicumarol and warfarin, by inhibiting the enzyme epoxide reductase in this cycle, interferes with the production of clotting factors, thereby acts as an anticoagulant. This makes it useful in preventing and treating conditions involving abnormal blood clotting, such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the logo depicted in the image, which of the following does it represent? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allopathic private clinic practitioner", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "First aid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red cross emblem", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Suraksha clinic", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Suraksha clinic", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Suraksha clinic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Suraksha clinics, established under the National AIDS Control Program to provide specialized healthcare services related to STIs and RTIs, enhancing public health outreach in sexual health.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Visual field testing of a patient revealed the following lesion. Where is the likely localisation of this defect? ( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frontal eye field", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic radiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic Chiasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipital lobe", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Occipital lobe", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1218.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing localizes to the occipital lobe, as the occipital lobe lesions are behind the optic chiasma and can affect the same side of the visual field in both eyes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the listed drugs, which one is a monoclonal antibody used in cancer treatment? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Omalizumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Denosumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rituximab", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rituximab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Rituximab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omalizumab, Denosumab and Rituximab are all examples of monoclonal antibodies, but Rituximab is used in cancer treatment.</li><li>➤ Denosumab – it is a RANK ligand inhibitor and is used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Omalizumab – It is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody which is used in the prophylaxis of asthma. Rituximab – It is used as anti-CD-20 Monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of CLL, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, Mantle cell lymphoma etc.</li><li>➤ Denosumab – it is a RANK ligand inhibitor and is used in the treatment of osteoporosis.</li><li>➤ Denosumab – it is a RANK ligand inhibitor and is used in the treatment of osteoporosis.</li><li>➤ Omalizumab – It is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody which is used in the prophylaxis of asthma.</li><li>➤ Omalizumab – It is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody which is used in the prophylaxis of asthma.</li><li>➤ Rituximab – It is used as anti-CD-20 Monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of CLL, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, Mantle cell lymphoma etc.</li><li>➤ Rituximab – It is used as anti-CD-20 Monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of CLL, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, Mantle cell lymphoma etc.</li><li>➤ Methotrexate is not a monoclonal antibody, it is a DMARD used in treatment of autoimmune conditions like Rheumatoid arthritis etc.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the listed medications is classified as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tamoxifen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anastrozole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mifepristone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ethinyl estradiol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tamoxifen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Tamoxifen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SERM (Selective estrogen receptor modulator)</li><li>➤ SERM (Selective estrogen receptor modulator)</li><li>➤ Tamoxifen – Used in the treatment of ER +ve Breast cancers in Premenopausal women. It increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma. Raloxifene - Can be used to treat Osteoporosis in post-menopausal women as a second line therapy. It doesn’t cause endometrial hyperplasia. Clomiphene - Used for ovulation induction Ospemifene – It is used to treat senile vaginal atrophy. Ormeloxifene – It is available as Centchroman or ‘ Saheli’ . It is used a once-a-week non-steroidal contraceptive pill.</li><li>➤ Tamoxifen – Used in the treatment of ER +ve Breast cancers in Premenopausal women. It increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma.</li><li>➤ Tamoxifen</li><li>➤ Raloxifene - Can be used to treat Osteoporosis in post-menopausal women as a second line therapy. It doesn’t cause endometrial hyperplasia.</li><li>➤ Raloxifene</li><li>➤ Clomiphene - Used for ovulation induction</li><li>➤ Clomiphene</li><li>➤ Ospemifene – It is used to treat senile vaginal atrophy.</li><li>➤ Ospemifene</li><li>➤ Ormeloxifene – It is available as Centchroman or ‘ Saheli’ . It is used a once-a-week non-steroidal contraceptive pill.</li><li>➤ Ormeloxifene</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a study at a rehabilitation center, participants were divided into those who were divorced and those who were not, to investigate the influence of past substance use. What type of study was employed? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Case Control study", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Descriptive study", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Case Control study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-161156.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Case Control study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Case-Control study is effective for exploring associations between exposure factors and outcomes by comparing subjects with the outcome to those without, making it ideal for examining links between behaviors like substance use and social outcomes such as divorce.</li><li>➤ Exposure &amp; Outcome in Analytical Studies</li><li>➤ Exposure &amp; Outcome in Analytical Studies</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old primigravida presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the first trimester. On examination the cervical os is closed and uterine size is normal. Gestational sac is visible on ultrasound. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inevitable abortion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Threatened abortion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incomplete abortion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Complete abortion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Threatened abortion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/23/screenshot-2024-08-23-091311.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Threatened abortion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Threatened abortion is diagnosed when there is painless vaginal bleeding in the first trimester with a closed cervical os, normal uterine size, and a visible gestational sac on ultrasound.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page No: 159 DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics; 9 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page No: 159 DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics; 9 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dead Body of fetus was found submerged in water by a local fisherman. The crown heel length was found to be 25 cm. Few hairs were present on his body and ossification center was present on the skull. Approximate age of the fetus is? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "7 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "9 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 5 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 5 months</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition shown in the CT scan below. (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pan Cake Kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polycystic kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Horseshoe kidney", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal cell cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Horseshoe kidney", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/30_X8zn6mJ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Horseshoe kidney</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Horseshoe kidney is characterized by the fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys, forming a U-shape, and is the most common type of renal fusion anomaly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old lady with hypertension presented with dyspnea on exertion for one week. Examination showed elevated JVP, fine crackles in both lung fields, and palpable liver. What is the likely physical examination finding that is shown? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pitting pedal edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep vein thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superficial vein thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CCF (Congestive cardiac failure)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pitting pedal edema", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1219.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pitting pedal edema, often associated with congestive cardiac failure, is a clinical finding characterized by the indentation left after pressing on the swollen area, indicating fluid accumulation in the interstitial spaces.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year- old female died within 7 years of marriage. The cause of death was suspected as dowry. Who will perform the inquest in this case? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Police officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Magistrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Member of parliament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Judge", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Magistrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/screenshot-2023-10-30-164801.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Magistrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of inquest are as follows:</li><li>➤ Types of inquest are as follows:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 8-day old neonate with respiratory distress showed the following findings on chest X-ray. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchogenic cysts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyaline membrane disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/914.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH), particularly Bochdalek hernia, is a diaphragmatic defect that leads to herniation of abdominal contents into the thoracic cavity, causing severe respiratory distress due to lung compression and pulmonary hypoplasia.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition – Page No- 3855-3856</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition – Page No- 3855-3856</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 11-year-old boy presented with a swollen knee after suffering a trauma. Which of the following is the likely condition seen in this patient? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Von Willebrand disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor 8 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immune thrombocytopenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Factor 8 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Factor 8 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor 8 deficiency (Hemophilia A) is characterized by bleeding into joints (hemarthrosis) following trauma due to impaired clot formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 8-year-old boy weighing 30 Kgs has been posted for surgical resection of a tumor. What is the daily maintenance fluid required for this child while he's NPO? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1000 mL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1700 mL", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2500 mL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3000 mL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1700 mL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture166.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1700 mL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To calculate daily maintenance fluid for children, use the formula based on their weight, adjusting for ranges over 10 and 20 kg.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old woman presented with deformity of the hand as shown below. There is decreased motion in the small joints and loss of wrinkle lines on the facial skin. Her chest radiograph showed prominent bilateral lower lobe infiltrates. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systemic Lupus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Scleroderma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1210.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-161600.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scleroderma, characterized by sclerodactyly and systemic involvement such as interstitial lung disease, is the most likely diagnosis given the patient's clinical presentation and radiographic findings.</li><li>➤ Comparison of Limited vs. Diffuse Scleroderma:</li><li>➤ Comparison of Limited vs. Diffuse Scleroderma:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic presents to the OPD with fever, shortness of breath, chest pain, and productive cough. On examination, there is bronchial breathing on the right side and a dull note on percussion. A chest X-ray is done. What is the most likely causative agent? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klebsiella pneumoniae", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumocystis jirovecii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Klebsiella pneumoniae", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1213.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Klebsiella pneumoniae is a common cause of necrotizing pneumonia in chronic alcoholics, characterized by copious \"currant jelly\" sputum, upper lobe involvement, and significant sputum production leading to a bulging fissure sign on chest X-ray.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harrison 21E/Pneumonia/Chapter 126/Table 126-1</li><li>➤ Ref: Harrison 21E/Pneumonia/Chapter 126/Table 126-1</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug is given to mother delivering premature baby for fetal lung maturation? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dexamethasone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Magnesium sulfate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Depot medroxy progesterone acetate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dexamethasone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Dexamethasone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the purpose of accelerating lung maturity in fetuses at risk of premature birth, corticosteroids such as dexamethasone are the treatment of choice. This intervention is critical to enhancing neonatal outcomes by reducing the incidence and severity of respiratory distress and other complications associated with prematurity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication of the device shown below? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Suspected pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HIV infected women", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "PID", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HIV infected women", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/792.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HIV infected women</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image is Copper-T 380A, which is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). HIV-infected women can use IUCDs as long as they are clinically well and not at risk of acquiring more sexually transmitted infections. Absolute contraindications for an IUCD include: Unexplained uterine or vaginal bleeding Suspected pregnancy Post-abortal sepsis, puerperal sepsis, current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), genital tuberculosis Cancers such as endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, and gestational trophoblastic neoplasia Large fibroids distorting the uterine cavity and Mullerian anomalies distorting the uterine cavity</li><li>• The given image is Copper-T 380A, which is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD).</li><li>• HIV-infected women can use IUCDs as long as they are clinically well and not at risk of acquiring more sexually transmitted infections.</li><li>• Absolute contraindications for an IUCD include: Unexplained uterine or vaginal bleeding Suspected pregnancy Post-abortal sepsis, puerperal sepsis, current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), genital tuberculosis Cancers such as endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, and gestational trophoblastic neoplasia Large fibroids distorting the uterine cavity and Mullerian anomalies distorting the uterine cavity</li><li>• Unexplained uterine or vaginal bleeding Suspected pregnancy Post-abortal sepsis, puerperal sepsis, current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), genital tuberculosis Cancers such as endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, and gestational trophoblastic neoplasia Large fibroids distorting the uterine cavity and Mullerian anomalies distorting the uterine cavity</li><li>• Unexplained uterine or vaginal bleeding</li><li>• Suspected pregnancy</li><li>• Post-abortal sepsis, puerperal sepsis, current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), genital tuberculosis</li><li>• Cancers such as endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, and gestational trophoblastic neoplasia</li><li>• Large fibroids distorting the uterine cavity and Mullerian anomalies distorting the uterine cavity</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding : This is an absolute contraindication because the underlying cause needs to be determined before placing an IUCD.</li><li>• Option A. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding</li><li>• Option B. Suspected pregnancy : An IUCD should not be inserted if there is any suspicion of pregnancy due to the risk of miscarriage or infection.</li><li>• Option B. Suspected pregnancy</li><li>• Option D. PID : Current PID is an absolute contraindication because inserting an IUCD can exacerbate the infection and lead to serious complications.</li><li>• Option D. PID</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HIV infection is not an absolute contraindication for the use of an intrauterine contraceptive device, whereas unexplained vaginal bleeding, suspected pregnancy, and current pelvic inflammatory disease are absolute contraindications.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789241549257</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789241549257</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anesthesia is required for dental surgery? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Field block", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nerve block", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infiltration anesthesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Dental surgeries employ a combination of various anesthetic blocks including field block, nerve block and infiltration anesthesia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The flow volume curve of a patient after spirometry is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "COPD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vocal cord palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. COPD", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1216.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The characteristic scooping or coving pattern on the expiratory limb of the flow volume curve is indicative of COPD, an obstructive lung disease. Other conditions like asbestosis, vocal cord palsy, and myasthenia gravis would present with different patterns on the flow volume curve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Image below shows origin from which of the following cells? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CD4 Cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NK cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CD8 cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. B cells", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-282.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-283.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) B cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reed-Sternberg cells are derived from B lymphocytes and are a hallmark of Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by their distinctive owl-eye appearance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An epidemiology graduate is analyzing a graph that delineates the timing of disease detection through screening. The graph segments from point B, representing the initial detection through screening, to point C, marking a crucial diagnostic milestone. What does the duration between points B and C represent? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lead time", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Screening time", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incubation time", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Latent period", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Screening time", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Screening time</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Screening time\" between points B and C on the disease detection timeline graph is critical for understanding the benefits of early diagnostic interventions in managing diseases more effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the ER with a history of a road traffic accident. On examination his vitals are stable, but he could not speak. He had no other neurological findings, had normal handwriting skills, and could understand what was being asked of him to which he responds by nodding. Where could be the lesion for this clinical condition? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Broca's area", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wernicke's area", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary motor cortex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brainstem", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Broca's area", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-199.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Broca’s area</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Broca's and Wernicke's areas are critical regions for language processing. Broca's area handles the production of speech and language. In contrast, Wernicke's area is crucial for the comprehension of language. Damage to these areas can lead to distinct types of aphasia, highlighting their specific functions in language processing. Both areas are interconnected by the arcuate fasciculus, emphasizing the integrated nature of language processing in the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-year-old boy often has difficulty in writing and he tends to make multiple spelling mistakes. His IQ level is normal and he is good at mathematics. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Specific learning disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mental retardation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exam phobia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Specific learning disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Specific learning disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Specific learning disorder is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by significant impairment in one or more of the scholastic skills which are out of proportion to the intellectual functioning of the child. Children with this disorder often excel in areas not affected by the disorder.</li><li>➤ significant impairment</li><li>➤ scholastic skills</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 141</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged man presents with the following lesion on his face. He has a history of acne rosacea. The condition is? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rhinophyma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhinoscleroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rhinophyma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture101.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102074.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102075.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102076.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Rhinophyma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Rhinophyma is a notable dermatological condition linked with chronic acne rosacea, leading to hypertrophic and vascular changes to the nasal skin. It is important for cosmetic and functional reasons to manage this condition effectively, often necessitating surgical intervention to restore the normal appearance and function of the nose.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition shown in the image below. (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute cholecystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Porcelain gall bladder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gall bladder polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mirizzi Syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mirizzi Syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_6.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mirizzi Syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mirizzi syndrome is a condition caused by the external compression of the common hepatic duct by gallstones, leading to symptoms similar to acute cholecystitis. It is diagnosed using imaging techniques and typically requires surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most dependent part of a female? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rectouterine pouch", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian fossa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior fornix", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vesicouterine pouch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rectouterine pouch", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rectouterine pouch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The rectouterine pouch, also known as the pouch of Douglas, is the most dependent part of a female pelvis. Being the lowest point in the female peritoneal cavity, it is the site where fluid accumulates when there is intraperitoneal bleeding or infection. This area is clinically significant because it can be assessed for the presence of fluid collection, such as blood in cases of ruptured ectopic pregnancy, by performing a culdocentesis.</li><li>• The rectouterine pouch, also known as the pouch of Douglas, is the most dependent part of a female pelvis.</li><li>• Being the lowest point in the female peritoneal cavity, it is the site where fluid accumulates when there is intraperitoneal bleeding or infection.</li><li>• This area is clinically significant because it can be assessed for the presence of fluid collection, such as blood in cases of ruptured ectopic pregnancy, by performing a culdocentesis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ovarian fossa : The ovarian fossa is a shallow depression on the lateral wall of the pelvis where the ovary resides. It is not the most dependent part of the female pelvis.</li><li>• Option B. Ovarian fossa</li><li>• Option C. Posterior fornix : The posterior fornix is a recess formed by the vagina around the cervix. Although it is a low point in the vagina, it is not the most dependent part of the pelvic cavity.</li><li>• Option C. Posterior fornix</li><li>• Option D. Vesicouterine pouch : The vesicouterine pouch is an area between the bladder and the uterus. It is higher than the rectouterine pouch and therefore not the most dependent part of the pelvis.</li><li>• Option D. Vesicouterine pouch</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The rectouterine pouch (pouch of Douglas) is the most dependent part of the female pelvis, making it the primary site for the collection of fluid from intraperitoneal bleeding.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 442, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 442, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male presents with diffuse back pain. Upon examination, there is no limitation of motion in the sacroiliac joints, and the intervertebral disc spaces appear preserved. The cervical spine X-ray reveals flowing ossifications along the anterolateral aspects of the vertebral bodies. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DISH", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klippel-Feil syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sprengel deformity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. DISH", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/image-20230403134334-1.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-184726.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. DISH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Ankylosing Spondylitis: Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) primarily affects the sacroiliac joints and the axial skeleton , leading to the fusion of affected joints , known as ankylosis . The hallmark radiographic findings in AS are sacroiliitis and syndesmophytes , leading to a \"bamboo spine\" appearance . However, the intervertebral disc spaces are typically preserved until late in the disease.</li><li>• Option A. Ankylosing Spondylitis:</li><li>• affects the sacroiliac joints</li><li>• axial skeleton</li><li>• fusion of affected joints</li><li>• ankylosis</li><li>• radiographic findings</li><li>• AS are sacroiliitis</li><li>• syndesmophytes</li><li>• \"bamboo spine\" appearance</li><li>• Option C. Klippel-Feil Syndrome: Klippel-Feil syndrome is a congenital condition characterized by the fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae . It may present with a short neck, limited neck movement, and low hairline. Radiographs would show fused cervical vertebrae, but not the flowing ossifications typical of DISH.</li><li>• Option C. Klippel-Feil Syndrome:</li><li>• congenital condition</li><li>• fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae</li><li>• Option D. Sprengel Deformity: Sprengel deformity is a congenital condition in which the scapula is abnormally high due to its failure to descend during development . It's not related to spinal pathology and wouldn't show the characteristic findings of DISH on spinal imaging.</li><li>• Option D. Sprengel Deformity:</li><li>• congenital condition</li><li>• scapula is abnormally high</li><li>• failure to descend during development</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The X-ray findings of flowing ossification along the anterior aspects of the thoracic spine with preserved intervertebral disc spaces in an elderly patient is indicative of DISH , which does not involve the sacroiliac joints.</li><li>➤ X-ray findings of flowing ossification</li><li>➤ anterior aspects of the thoracic spine</li><li>➤ preserved intervertebral disc spaces</li><li>➤ DISH</li><li>➤ Ref : Grainger &amp;amp; Allison’s Diagnostic Radiology Essentials, Second Edition, Page No 616</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Grainger &amp;amp; Allison’s Diagnostic Radiology Essentials, Second Edition, Page No 616</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with mental retardation (MR) was found to have an IQ level of 55. This would be classified as: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mild MR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Moderate MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Borderline intelligence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe MR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mild MR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mild MR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mild intellectual disability (formerly mild MR) is characterized by an IQ level between 50 and 70.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition, Page No 156.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old developed progressive vision loss in both eyes with a history of chronic oral steroid intake for the last 10 years. What is the likely cause of vision loss? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cataract", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinal detachment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystoid macular edema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cataract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic oral steroid use can lead to the development of posterior subcapsular cataracts, causing progressive vision loss in both eyes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical officer at the NCDC is developing a rabies prevention program and notes that certain Indian territories are rabies-free. Which of the following is recognized as such? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sikkim", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kerala", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jammu &amp; Kashmir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Andaman &amp; Nicobar", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Andaman & Nicobar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Andaman &amp; Nicobar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Andaman &amp; Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep Island and now goa are currently Rabies-free.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a suburban district, healthcare professionals are reviewing data on child mortality to calculate the Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR) using recent statistics. The district recorded a total of 4000 live births. Given the following numbers of deaths in different neonatal age groups, what is the NMR for this district? (FMGE DEC 2020) Data: Total death among day 0-7 :40 Total death among day 7-28 :40 Total death &gt;than 1 month :40 Perinatal death :40", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "30", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "40", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 20", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 20</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR) is a critical indicator of neonatal health and reflects the effectiveness of healthcare services during the neonatal period. It is calculated as the number of neonatal deaths (age 0-28 days) per 1000 live births, highlighting areas for potential healthcare improvements</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following pneumoconiosis is associated with increased risk of tuberculosis: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Berylliosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coal workers pneumoconiosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Silicosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Silicosis is the pneumoconiosis associated with an increased risk of tuberculosis due to the impairment of pulmonary macrophage function by silica particles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the condition seen in the following X ray in a 2-month infant with bilious vomiting? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyloric stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jejunal obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Duodenal atresia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/911.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/911_6iYkbDE.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Duodenal atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Duodenal atresia is characterized by bilious vomiting and the double bubble sign on X-ray, often associated with Down syndrome .</li><li>➤ Duodenal atresia</li><li>➤ bilious vomiting</li><li>➤ double bubble sign</li><li>➤ Down syndrome</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with inflammatory bowel disease presented with the following lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diabetic ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venous Ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyoderma gangrenosum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythema nodosum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pyoderma gangrenosum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1223.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pyoderma gangrenosum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with inflammatory bowel disease presenting with ulcerative skin lesions on the legs, pyoderma gangrenosum is the most likely diagnosis. Treatment typically involves corticosteroids and immunosuppressive therapies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old boy presents to pediatric OPD with incoordination of movements and abdominal pain. On further examination, a ring is seen around the cornea of the child as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis?( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keratitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Keratoconus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wilson’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neuroblastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Wilson’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/19/picture14.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Wilson’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wilson’s disease should be suspected in young patients presenting with a combination of liver, neurological, and psychiatric symptoms, along with characteristic Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to managing this disorder effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old woman with no comorbidities presented with numbness and paresthesia of the fingers along with characteristic findings as shown. She has no other illnesses, and she says the episodes occur during stress/cold climates. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary Raynaud’s", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary Raynaud’s", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cold sores", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Primary Raynaud’s", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1215.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-162800.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nitrogenous waste is excreted from the body in the form of? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nitrous oxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glutamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Urea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urea is formed in the liver through the urea cycle, a process that converts ammonia, a highly toxic substance, into urea, which is less toxic and more soluble in water. The urea is then transported to the kidneys, where it is filtered out of the blood and excreted in the urine. It is the major product formed from the nitrogenous waste in humans.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health resident is reviewing intersectoral coordination between various national health initiatives in India. Which national program is known to work in collaboration with the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) to support holistic child development? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NREGA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NRHM", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "NLEP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NACP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. NRHM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. NRHM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The intersectoral collaboration between ICDS and NRHM is crucial for effectively addressing the holistic needs of child development, highlighting how health services can be integrated to enhance public health outcomes in rural areas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn is found to be born with the condition shown in the image below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrochisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epigastric Hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ectopia Vesica", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Omphalocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/26_yRnBMmt.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-143509.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Omphalocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omphalocele is characterized by herniation of abdominal viscera covered by peritoneum and is associated with various congenital anomalies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the image provided, what is the likely diagnosis of the depicted condition? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medulloblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ewings sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neuroblastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retinoblastoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-286.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/pathology-20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Retinoblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes are pathognomonic for Retinoblastoma and are key in its histopathological diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the active principle of the plant shown below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyoscine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tobacco", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetrahydro-cannabinol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyoscine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/89.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/screenshot-2023-10-30-163616.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture1066.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture11666.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/whatsapp-image-2023-10-30-at-165157.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture622.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture7333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyoscine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Active Principles of Datura: Hyoscine (Scopolamine) ; Atropine and Hyoscyamine</li><li>➤ Active Principles of Datura: Hyoscine (Scopolamine)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "56-year-old diabetic patient has chronic renal failure and is undergoing Hemodialysis. Which of the following amyloid most likely to get deposited? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A beta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A beta 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A Cal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A beta 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-135033.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A beta 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AA is associated with multiple myeloma, A beta with Alzheimer’s disease and A cal with medullary carcinoma thyroid.</li><li>➤ AA is associated with multiple myeloma, A beta with Alzheimer’s disease and A cal with medullary carcinoma thyroid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized by? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytosol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endoplasmic reticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nucleus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Endoplasmic reticulum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/untitled-47.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Endoplasmic reticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, undergo modifications in the Golgi apparatus, and are finally targeted to lysosomes. This complex process ensures that these enzymes are correctly processed and delivered to their functional location within the cell.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following visual field defects will be seen in a patient with anterior pituitary tumor causing pressure over optic chiasma?( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Homonymous hemianopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bitemporal hemianopia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heteronymous hemianopia with central sparing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Monocular vision loss", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bitemporal hemianopia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_259.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bitemporal hemianopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The visual pathway and various lesions along the pathway are summarized in the following diagram</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The device seen in the following image is ___ ? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chemoport device", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiac pacemaker", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chest Xray artifact", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Travel tract for accessory pathway", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cardiac pacemaker", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1214.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ A cardiac pacemaker, is identified by the device and leads extending into the cardiac chambers. This device is used to regulate the heartbeat in patients with arrhythmias or heart block.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the cardiac muscle, the inhibition of Na+ K+ ATPase results in? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperpolarisation and then Depolarisation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depolarisation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperpolarisation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Repolarisation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Depolarisation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Depolarisation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Inhibition of Na+K+ATPase results in depolarisation.</li><li>• Depolarisation occurs when the Na+ K+ ATPase, a vital pump responsible for maintaining the cell's electrochemical gradient, is inhibited. This pump actively transports Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell, thereby maintaining lower intracellular Na+ levels and higher K+ levels.</li><li>• Depolarisation</li><li>• When this pump's function is inhibited:</li><li>• Intracellular accumulation of Na+ occurs because it is not being pumped out. The reduction in the gradient negatively affects the function of other ion exchangers, particularly the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger, leading to reduced Ca2+ extrusion from the cell. The resultant increase in intracellular Ca2+ contributes to a less negative resting membrane potential, thus causing depolarization. Continued dysfunction of this pump can also lead to cellular swelling and eventual cell injury due to water following the retained Na+ into the cell.</li><li>• Intracellular accumulation of Na+ occurs because it is not being pumped out.</li><li>• The reduction in the gradient negatively affects the function of other ion exchangers, particularly the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger, leading to reduced Ca2+ extrusion from the cell.</li><li>• The resultant increase in intracellular Ca2+ contributes to a less negative resting membrane potential, thus causing depolarization.</li><li>• Continued dysfunction of this pump can also lead to cellular swelling and eventual cell injury due to water following the retained Na+ into the cell.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hyperpolarisation and then Depolarisation : Incorrect as the primary immediate effect of Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition is depolarisation, not hyperpolarisation.</li><li>• Option A. Hyperpolarisation and then Depolarisation</li><li>• Option C. Hyperpolarisation : Incorrect because the inhibition leads to depolarisation, as explained above.</li><li>• Option C. Hyperpolarisation</li><li>• Option D. Repolarisation : Incorrect as repolarisation in cardiac muscle cells is primarily managed by the outflow of K+ from the cell, which is distinct from the effects seen with Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition.</li><li>• Option D. Repolarisation</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Inhibition of the Na+ K+ ATPase in cardiac muscle leads to depolarisation due to the disruption of Na+ and Ca2+ homeostasis within the cell. This highlights the importance of this pump in maintaining cardiac cell stability and function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old comes to your OPD with the complaint that he develops pain in penis during erection and interfering with sexual intercourse. Examination reveals a plaque on glans. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paraphimosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phimosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypospadias", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peyronie’s disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Peyronie’s disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Peyronie’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peyronie’s disease is characterized by the presence of fibrous scar tissue (plaque) in the penis, leading to curved, painful erections and difficulty with sexual intercourse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the clinical sign shown in the below picture? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermographism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nikolsky Sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Koebner's phenomenon", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Auspitz sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Koebner's phenomenon", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd16.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd17.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-170134.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-170242.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Koebner's phenomenon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some rare causes of true Koebner phenomenon are:</li><li>➤ Some rare causes of true Koebner phenomenon are:</li><li>➤ Darier’s disease, Hailey-Hailey disease, EMF erythema multiforme, Kaposi’s sarcoma &amp; lichen nitidus .</li><li>➤ lichen nitidus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the genetic disorder: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Testicular feminizing syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kallmann syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Turner's syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klinefelter's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Turner's syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/2.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Turner’s syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome (45XO) is characterized by short stature, primary amenorrhea, and characteristic physical features such as a webbed neck and widely spaced nipples.</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome (45XO) is characterized by short stature, primary amenorrhea, and characteristic physical features such as a webbed neck and widely spaced nipples.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 442, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 442, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient after gunshot injury is brought to emergency department with acute blood loss resulting in severe hypovolemia. Which color iv cannula can be used for most rapid blood transfusion? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orange", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gray", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Green", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Orange", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-160342.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Orange</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For rapid blood transfusion in emergency situations involving severe hypovolemia, the orange IV cannula (14G) is preferred due to its large diameter, allowing for the highest flow rate among the commonly used IV cannulas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause for the appearance shown in the image below?( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HSV keratitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Geographic ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Retinoblastoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/19/picture11.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Retinoblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Retinoblastoma is the most common cause of leukocoria (white eye reflex) in children and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent life-threatening complications.</li><li>➤ Other Common causes of leukocoria are-</li><li>➤ Other Common causes of leukocoria are-</li><li>➤ Coats disease Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) Persistent fetal vasculature (PFV) Ocular toxocariasis and toxoplasmosis Astrocytic hamartoma Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy (FEVR) Vitreous haemorrhage</li><li>➤ Coats disease</li><li>➤ Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)</li><li>➤ Persistent fetal vasculature (PFV)</li><li>➤ Ocular toxocariasis and toxoplasmosis</li><li>➤ Astrocytic hamartoma</li><li>➤ Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy (FEVR)</li><li>➤ Vitreous haemorrhage</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 8-year-old child is brought to the OPD with a history of repeated fractures for the past 2 years. On examination, there is the presence of blue sclera and dental abnormalities. There is a positive family history. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rickets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteogenesis imperfecta", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteomalacia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Osteogenesis imperfecta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/900.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Osteogenesis imperfecta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Osteogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder characterized by recurrent fractures, blue sclera, dental abnormalities, and often has an autosomal dominant inheritance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A housewife presents with complaints of a blocked nose, loss of smell, and dry, greenish crusty nasal discharge. On examination, nasal cavities appear roomy and turbinates are atrophied. Which of the following surgeries can be done on this patient? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Submucous resection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Young's operation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Septoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vidian neurectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Young's operation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102061.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Young’s operation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Young's operation is an effective surgical treatment for atrophic rhinitis, designed to reduce nasal airflow and facilitate the healing and regeneration of the nasal mucosa. This operation is particularly beneficial in severe cases where medical treatments have been insufficient.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 173</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with 2 months history of erythematosquamous lesions involving the exposed areas especially in the neck region associated with diarrhea, photosensitivity and irritability. What do you think diagnosis is? ( FMGE December 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ascorbic acid deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Niacin deficiency", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Niacin deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Niacin deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pellagra is a condition caused by a deficiency of niacin (vitamin B3) and tryptophan in the diet. It typically presents with the following \"3 D's\" of pellagra:</li><li>➤ Dermatitis: Erythematosquamous lesions, which are red, scaly skin rashes, are a characteristic dermatological feature of pellagra. These rashes often appear on sun-exposed areas of the skin, such as the neck, hands, and face. Diarrhea: Pellagra can also lead to gastrointestinal symptoms, including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. Dementia: Irritability and neurological symptoms, including confusion, memory loss, and even psychosis, can occur in advanced cases of pellagra.</li><li>➤ Dermatitis: Erythematosquamous lesions, which are red, scaly skin rashes, are a characteristic dermatological feature of pellagra. These rashes often appear on sun-exposed areas of the skin, such as the neck, hands, and face.</li><li>➤ Dermatitis:</li><li>➤ Diarrhea: Pellagra can also lead to gastrointestinal symptoms, including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea.</li><li>➤ Diarrhea:</li><li>➤ Dementia: Irritability and neurological symptoms, including confusion, memory loss, and even psychosis, can occur in advanced cases of pellagra.</li><li>➤ Dementia:</li><li>➤ In addition to the \"3 D's,\" patients with pellagra may also experience photosensitivity, fatigue, and a sore mouth and tongue. Pellagra is most commonly associated with a diet lacking in niacin-rich foods (such as meat, fish, and legumes) or tryptophan, which can be converted to niacin in the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What clinical test is depicted in the image? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epley's maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heimlich maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cottle's test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trotter's method", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cottle's test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture66.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture77.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cottle’s test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cottle’s test is a simple and effective diagnostic tool for evaluating the integrity and functionality of the nasal valve, particularly useful in patients complaining of nasal obstruction. It helps to determine if surgical intervention might be necessary to correct any identified nasal valve collapse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old male presents with neck nodes. Examination of left ear reveals a dull tympanic membrane, deafness and tinnitus. On tympanogram, a Type B curve is obtained. Most probable diagnosis is? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glomus tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sensorineural hearing loss", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102065.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In elderly patients presenting with unilateral serous otitis media and neck nodes, nasopharyngeal carcinoma should be considered as a potential underlying cause, especially if accompanied by symptoms such as tinnitus and hearing loss. Diagnostic evaluations, including imaging and possibly a biopsy of the nasopharyngeal region and neck nodes, are crucial for confirming the diagnosis and determining the extent of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A political science postgraduate student at Jawaharlal Nehru University in New Delhi is preparing for a presentation on the evolution of planning bodies in India. As he delves into recent developments, he recalls that a renowned institution, which played a pivotal role in India's developmental planning for decades, was replaced by a new institution called NITI Aayog. Which of the following institutions was superseded by the formation of NITI Aayog? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "National Board of Examinations (NBE)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "National Institute of Health &amp; Family Welfare (NIHFW)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical Council of India (MCI)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "National Planning Commission (NPC)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. National Planning Commission (NPC)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. National Planning Commission (NPC)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NITI Aayog was established to replace the National Planning Commission, reflecting a shift towards a more inclusive and cooperative approach in India’s economic strategy formulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old female presents with irregular periods. Her ultrasound scan revealed the finding shown in the image. This is most likely due to: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCOD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obesity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hirsutism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Turner's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PCOD", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/776.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PCOD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) is characterized by the presence of polycystic ovaries on ultrasound, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and oligo or anovulation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 379, Williams Gynecology, 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 379, Williams Gynecology, 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the following LV pressure-volume loop diagram, point C denotes: ( FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mitral valve closes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic valve opens", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aortic valve closes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitral valve opens", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aortic valve opens", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-196_7lKyHwU.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-197.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Aortic valve opens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Point C on the left ventricular pressure-volume loop marks the moment when the aortic valve opens. This occurs at the end of the isovolumetric contraction phase when the pressure within the left ventricle exceeds the pressure in the aorta, forcing the aortic valve to open and allowing blood to be ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta.</li><li>• Point C on the left ventricular pressure-volume loop marks the moment when the aortic valve opens. This occurs at the end of the isovolumetric contraction phase when the pressure within the left ventricle exceeds the pressure in the aorta, forcing the aortic valve to open and allowing blood to be ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta.</li><li>• Point C</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mitral valve closes : Incorrect as this occurs at point B, marking the end of ventricular filling and the beginning of isovolumetric contraction.</li><li>• Option A. Mitral valve closes</li><li>• Option C. Aortic valve closes : Incorrect because this happens at point D, which signifies the beginning of isovolumetric relaxation.</li><li>• Option C. Aortic valve closes</li><li>• Option D. Mitral valve opens : Incorrect as this occurs at point A, indicating the start of ventricular filling when the pressure in the left ventricle falls below that in the left atrium.</li><li>• Option D. Mitral valve opens</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Point C - Aortic valve opens</li><li>➤ Point D - Aortic valve closes</li><li>➤ Point A - Mitral valve opens</li><li>➤ Point B - Mitral valve closes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ophthalmology OPD with the complaint of chronic epiphora for the past one year. What is the most appropriate treatment? ( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasolacrimal duct massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dacryocystorhinostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tarsal plate fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lacrimal sac massage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dacryocystorhinostomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-152329.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dacryocystorhinostomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) is the appropriate treatment for chronic epiphora in older children, as it creates a new drainage pathway between the lacrimal sac and the nasal cavity, effectively bypassing the obstructed nasolacrimal duct.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was posted for dilatation and curettage and a sound was introduced into the uterus but there was no resistance felt. What is the next line of management in the given options? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Continue the procedure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Do planned evacuation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immediate laparoscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mifepristone and Misoprostol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Immediate laparoscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Immediate laparoscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• As the uterine sound enters without any resistance, it signals that there is a perforation, necessitating rapid laparoscopy. Uterine perforation can be a serious complication during dilatation and curettage procedures. Immediate laparoscopy is recommended to assess the extent of the perforation, manage any associated injuries, and complete the procedure safely.</li><li>• As the uterine sound enters without any resistance, it signals that there is a perforation, necessitating rapid laparoscopy.</li><li>• Uterine perforation can be a serious complication during dilatation and curettage procedures. Immediate laparoscopy is recommended to assess the extent of the perforation, manage any associated injuries, and complete the procedure safely.</li><li>• Management protocol of uterine perforation:</li><li>• Management protocol of uterine perforation:</li><li>• The procedure is stopped immediately. Perforation made by small instruments (e.g., smaller size dilator) and if the procedure is completed: Expectant treatment with observation of vital signs. Administration of antibiotics to prevent infection. Perforation caused by larger instruments (e.g., bigger size dilator, ovum forceps, suction cannula) or if the procedure is incomplete: Diagnostic laparoscopy to assess the perforation and complete the procedure. In cases of lateral cervical tear or broad ligament hematoma, laparotomy with repair or hysterectomy might be necessary.</li><li>• The procedure is stopped immediately. Perforation made by small instruments (e.g., smaller size dilator) and if the procedure is completed: Expectant treatment with observation of vital signs. Administration of antibiotics to prevent infection. Perforation caused by larger instruments (e.g., bigger size dilator, ovum forceps, suction cannula) or if the procedure is incomplete: Diagnostic laparoscopy to assess the perforation and complete the procedure. In cases of lateral cervical tear or broad ligament hematoma, laparotomy with repair or hysterectomy might be necessary.</li><li>• The procedure is stopped immediately.</li><li>• Perforation made by small instruments (e.g., smaller size dilator) and if the procedure is completed: Expectant treatment with observation of vital signs. Administration of antibiotics to prevent infection. Perforation caused by larger instruments (e.g., bigger size dilator, ovum forceps, suction cannula) or if the procedure is incomplete: Diagnostic laparoscopy to assess the perforation and complete the procedure. In cases of lateral cervical tear or broad ligament hematoma, laparotomy with repair or hysterectomy might be necessary.</li><li>• Perforation made by small instruments (e.g., smaller size dilator) and if the procedure is completed: Expectant treatment with observation of vital signs. Administration of antibiotics to prevent infection.</li><li>• Perforation made by small instruments (e.g., smaller size dilator) and if the procedure is completed:</li><li>• Expectant treatment with observation of vital signs. Administration of antibiotics to prevent infection.</li><li>• Expectant treatment with observation of vital signs.</li><li>• Administration of antibiotics to prevent infection.</li><li>• Perforation caused by larger instruments (e.g., bigger size dilator, ovum forceps, suction cannula) or if the procedure is incomplete: Diagnostic laparoscopy to assess the perforation and complete the procedure. In cases of lateral cervical tear or broad ligament hematoma, laparotomy with repair or hysterectomy might be necessary.</li><li>• Perforation caused by larger instruments (e.g., bigger size dilator, ovum forceps, suction cannula) or if the procedure is incomplete:</li><li>• Diagnostic laparoscopy to assess the perforation and complete the procedure. In cases of lateral cervical tear or broad ligament hematoma, laparotomy with repair or hysterectomy might be necessary.</li><li>• Diagnostic laparoscopy to assess the perforation and complete the procedure.</li><li>• In cases of lateral cervical tear or broad ligament hematoma, laparotomy with repair or hysterectomy might be necessary.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Continue the procedure : Continuing the procedure without addressing the perforation could lead to further complications and is not advisable.</li><li>• Option A. Continue the procedure</li><li>• Option B. Do planned evacuation : Planned evacuation without assessing and managing the perforation is not appropriate. Immediate evaluation and management of the perforation are crucial.</li><li>• Option B. Do planned evacuation</li><li>• Option D. Mifepristone and Misoprostol : Mifepristone and Misoprostol are used for medical termination of pregnancy, not for managing uterine perforation.</li><li>• Option D. Mifepristone and Misoprostol</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediate laparoscopy is indicated in cases of suspected uterine perforation during dilatation and curettage to assess the extent of the perforation and manage associated injuries.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 526, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 9 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 526, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 9 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presented to the outpatient department with a non-tender, non-mobile, non-compressible firm swelling over his palm as shown in the image. A few months back he got injured with a thorn. What is the presentation given below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ameloblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Embryogenic dermoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sequestration dermoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Implantation dermoid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Implantation dermoid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Implantation dermoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most likely diagnosis for a farmer presenting with a non-tender, non-mobile, non-compressible firm swelling on the palm following a puncture wound from a thorn is an implantation dermoid cyst (D). These cysts are acquired through the traumatic implantation of epidermal elements into the dermis, which is consistent with the patient's history and clinical presentation.</li><li>➤ non-tender, non-mobile, non-compressible</li><li>➤ swelling</li><li>➤ wound</li><li>➤ thorn</li><li>➤ traumatic implantation of epidermal</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following condition is Dohlman’s procedure is performed? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cricoid webs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zenker’s diverticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Achalasia Cardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diffuse esophageal spasm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Zenker’s diverticulum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-134935.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-135018.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-135100.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-135154.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Zenker’s diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dohlman’s procedure is specifically used to treat Zenker’s diverticulum, which is an esophageal diverticulum characterized by symptoms such as dysphagia and halitosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old patient after surgery of breast cancer developed the deformity as shown below. Which of the following is most likely cause for this condition? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paralysis of latissimus dorsi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Injury to suprascapular nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Injury to long thoracic nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paralysis of deltoid muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Injury to long thoracic nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/15/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190160.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-15_g8EImoS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Injury to long thoracic nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The long thoracic nerve is a nerve that originates from the roots of the brachial plexus (C5-C7) and supplies the serratus anterior muscle .</li><li>• long thoracic nerve</li><li>• serratus anterior muscle</li><li>• Effect of Injury : If the long thoracic nerve is injured or compromised, it can lead to weakness or paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle. This, in turn, results in an inability to adequately stabilize the scapula, leading to winging of the scapula when the arm is moved away from the body. In the case of breast cancer surgery, injury to the long thoracic nerve can occur during the surgical procedure or due to damage to nearby structures.</li><li>• Effect of Injury</li><li>• Appearance : The winged scapula deformity is typically seen when the patient is asked to push against a wall or perform similar movements that require scapular stability.</li><li>• Appearance</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A) Paralysis of Latissimus Dorsi : Paralysis of the latissimus dorsi muscle can result in impaired arm extension and adduction. However, it is not the primary cause of winged scapula. The latissimus dorsi muscle has a different function and innervation (thoracodorsal nerve).</li><li>• Option A) Paralysis of Latissimus Dorsi</li><li>• Option B) Injury to Suprascapular Nerve : Injury to the suprascapular nerve can result in weakness or atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. While this can affect shoulder function, it does not directly cause winged scapula.</li><li>• Option B) Injury to Suprascapular Nerve</li><li>• Option D) Paralysis of Deltoid Muscle : Paralysis of the deltoid muscle can lead to difficulty in raising the arm at the shoulder (abduction), but it does not cause winged scapula.</li><li>• Option D) Paralysis of Deltoid Muscle</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Winged scapula is characterized by the protrusion of the scapula (shoulder blade) away from the ribcage. The condition can result from various causes, but the most likely cause is Injury to the long thoracic nerve .</li><li>➤ Winged scapula</li><li>➤ Injury to the long thoracic nerve</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old male child presents with a history of spontaneous excessive bruising and hemarthrosis. On investigation, he has a normal platelet count, prolonged PTT, and a normal PT. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Von Willebrand disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemophilia A", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bernard-soulier syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glanzmann thrombasthenia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hemophilia A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture169.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hemophilia A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemophilia A is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, resulting in prolonged aPTT with normal PT and platelet count, and presenting clinically with hemarthrosis and easy bruising.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the procedure in the following image? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "End Colostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loop ileostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Entero-cutaneous fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Appendectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Loop ileostomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/21_csABfQC.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-134445.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A loop ileostomy is characterized by two lumens brought out to the skin and is typically used as a temporary measure to divert stool and protect distal anastomoses in surgeries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A post operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised CVP, pulsus paradoxus at the 4th operative hour. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CHF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventricular dysfunction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mediastinal effusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cardiac tamponade", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiac tamponade should be suspected in a post-operative cardiac surgical patient who develops sudden hypotension, raised CVP, and pulsus paradoxus, as these are hallmark signs of this potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate evaluation and management are critical.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with the following condition as shown below. What could be the diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arterial ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venous ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuropathic ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pressure ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Venous ulcer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/23_fn7vMOs.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-135758.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Venous ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Venous ulcers are commonly located just above the medial malleolus in the Gaiter’s region and present with discoloration of the surrounding skin. They are associated with chronic venous insufficiency and are differentiated from arterial, neuropathic, and pressure ulcers by their location, appearance, and associated skin changes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person was lost in the desert. For more than 24 hours he did not consume food or water. His vitals were normal. In which of the following parts of the nephron must have been the site of maximum water reabsorption in this case? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proximal convoluted tubule", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loop of Henle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distal convoluted tubule", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Collecting duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Proximal convoluted tubule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/26/fmg-physio-10jpg.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Proximal convoluted tubule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Percentage of reabsorption occurring in pct -</li><li>➤ Sodium potassium and Water (67%)</li><li>➤ Calcium (70%)</li><li>➤ Phosphate and HCO3 (80%)</li><li>➤ Glucose and amino acid (100%)</li><li>➤ Parts of nephron and their major function is shown in the image below</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In all of the following, laryngeal crepitus is absent except? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypopharyngeal abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parapharyngeal abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post-cricoid malignancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prevertebral abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Parapharyngeal abscess", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Parapharyngeal abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Parapharyngeal abscess is the only condition listed that does not inherently restrict the side-to-side movement of the larynx to the degree that would abolish laryngeal crepitus. This differentiates it from the other conditions which involve structures directly affecting the ability of the larynx to move freely over the cervical spine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient is brought to the ER after sustaining a fall from a height. His X-ray was done which showed a fractured neck of the femur and was operated on for the same. On post-operative Day 2, he experienced a sharp severe burning pain over the right half of his back. On general physical examination, the lesion is seen which is shown below. The affected region is tender to touch with erythematous rash. Which of the following drugs should be prescribed to this patient? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amitriptyline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Topical corticosteroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Valacyclovir", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mupirocin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Valacyclovir", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/25.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Valacyclovir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For acute Herpes Zoster, prompt treatment with Valacyclovir is recommended to manage the viral infection effectively and reduce the risk of complications such as postherpetic neuralgia. Early intervention with an appropriate antiviral is key to improving outcomes in patients with shingles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-month-old child is brought to the casualty with symptoms of recurrent non-bilious vomiting and extreme hunger after vomiting. The mother has felt a lump in his abdomen while bathing him. What could he possibly be suffering from? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Divarication of recti", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CHPS", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peri-umbilical hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CHPS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/25e76906ceb0761ac5bca77dd47815_jumbo.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CHPS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS) presents with projectile non-bilious vomiting and a palpable \"olive-like\" mass in the abdomen, with the diagnosis confirmed by ultrasound showing increased pyloric canal length and muscle wall thickness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old G2P1 comes to the physician at 32 weeks of gestation. She underwent OGTT (75 g of glucose) and her values were fasting 110 mg/dl and 2 hours glucose at 180 mg/dI. Which of the following is the next step regarding the management of this patient? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Start oral hypoglycemics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reassurance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Admit and start insulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Induce labour due to risk of fetal macrosomia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Admit and start insulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Admit and start insulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient is diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) as her OGTT results exceed the normal ranges. The diagnostic criteria for GDM with a 75 g OGTT are: Fasting glucose: ≥92 mg/dl 1-hour glucose: ≥180 mg/dl 2-hour glucose: ≥153 mg/dl Given her fasting glucose level of 110 mg/dl and 2-hour glucose of 180 mg/dl, her levels are significantly elevated, indicating the need for medical management. Insulin is preferred over oral hypoglycemics (OHAs) in this scenario due to the elevated fasting glucose level. The initial insulin dose is typically divided and ranges from 0.7 to 1 unit/kg/day, often using a combination of intermediate-acting and short-acting insulin.</li><li>• The patient is diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) as her OGTT results exceed the normal ranges.</li><li>• The diagnostic criteria for GDM with a 75 g OGTT are: Fasting glucose: ≥92 mg/dl 1-hour glucose: ≥180 mg/dl 2-hour glucose: ≥153 mg/dl</li><li>• Fasting glucose: ≥92 mg/dl 1-hour glucose: ≥180 mg/dl 2-hour glucose: ≥153 mg/dl</li><li>• Fasting glucose: ≥92 mg/dl</li><li>• 1-hour glucose: ≥180 mg/dl</li><li>• 2-hour glucose: ≥153 mg/dl</li><li>• Given her fasting glucose level of 110 mg/dl and 2-hour glucose of 180 mg/dl, her levels are significantly elevated, indicating the need for medical management.</li><li>• Insulin is preferred over oral hypoglycemics (OHAs) in this scenario due to the elevated fasting glucose level.</li><li>• The initial insulin dose is typically divided and ranges from 0.7 to 1 unit/kg/day, often using a combination of intermediate-acting and short-acting insulin.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Start oral hypoglycemics : OHAs are not the first choice in this scenario due to the elevated fasting glucose levels. Insulin is preferred for better control.</li><li>• Option A. Start oral hypoglycemics</li><li>• Option B. Reassurance : Reassurance alone is inappropriate as the patient has gestational diabetes requiring intervention to prevent complications.</li><li>• Option B. Reassurance</li><li>• Option D. Induce labour due to risk of fetal macrosomia : Immediate induction of labour is not indicated solely based on the diagnosis of gestational diabetes at this stage. Proper management with insulin and monitoring is necessary.</li><li>• Option D. Induce labour due to risk of fetal macrosomia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of gestational diabetes mellitus, especially with elevated fasting glucose levels, insulin is the preferred treatment to achieve optimal glycemic control and prevent complications.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2783, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2783, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old woman presents with weakness in the right arm for 6 hours. The weakness gradually became lesser and resolved. She is a known case of diabetes and hypertension and is obese. Which of the following is the probable diagnosis of this case? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ischemic stroke", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transient ischemic attack", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Compressive neuropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetic neuropathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Transient ischemic attack", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-161924.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is characterized by sudden onset of neurological symptoms that resolve within 24 hours. The ABCD² score is used to assess the risk of stroke following a TIA, with higher scores indicating a greater risk.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman visits a gynecologist, troubled by greenish, frothy vaginal discharge and burning discomfort for the past month. After examination, which treatment kit should be prescribed based on her symptoms? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grey", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "White", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Green", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-162107.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Green</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Along with scorpion sting, which of the following venoms produces catecholamine storm? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spider", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tick", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sea Urchin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ciguatera", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Spider", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Spider</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spider venom, similar to scorpion venom, can cause a catecholamine storm due to the release of excitatory neurotoxins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old lady has been wearing contact lens for the past two years. She presents with the complaints of pain and redness in the eyes and decreased vision. What is the most common differential diagnosis in this case?( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial corneal ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Giant papillary conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fungal keratitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HSV keratitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bacterial corneal ulcer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bacterial corneal ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bacterial corneal ulcer, or bacterial keratitis, is the most common differential diagnosis in a contact lens wearer presenting with pain, redness, and decreased vision. It is primarily caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa and requires immediate treatment to prevent rapid and severe vision loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Beta blockers should be avoided in all of the following conditions, except? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bradycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute decompensated Congestive heart failure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glaucoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta blockers should be avoided in -</li><li>➤ Beta blockers should be avoided in -</li><li>➤ Bradycardia Bronchial asthma Diabetes mellitus Peripheral vascular disease Acute decompensated Congestive heart failure</li><li>➤ Bradycardia</li><li>➤ Bradycardia</li><li>➤ Bronchial asthma</li><li>➤ Bronchial asthma</li><li>➤ Diabetes mellitus</li><li>➤ Diabetes mellitus</li><li>➤ Peripheral vascular disease</li><li>➤ Peripheral vascular disease</li><li>➤ Acute decompensated Congestive heart failure</li><li>➤ Acute decompensated Congestive heart failure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 31-year-old pregnant woman diagnosed with malaria based on the peripheral blood smear, as shown below. What could be the causative organism? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P. vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "P. falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "P. ovale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "P. malariae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. P. falciparum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-180650.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) P. falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important points to remember can be simplified as AMBER:</li><li>➤ Important points to remember can be simplified as AMBER:</li><li>➤ A – All age RBCs are affected M – Maurer’s dot can be seen B – Banana shaped gametocyte are observed A – Accole forms are observed R – Recrudescence is associated with it also renal failure is seen</li><li>➤ A – All age RBCs are affected</li><li>➤ All age</li><li>➤ M – Maurer’s dot can be seen</li><li>➤ Maurer’s dot</li><li>➤ B – Banana shaped gametocyte are observed</li><li>➤ Banana shaped</li><li>➤ A – Accole forms are observed</li><li>➤ Accole forms</li><li>➤ R – Recrudescence is associated with it also renal failure is seen</li><li>➤ Recrudescence</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old male student and several of his peers from the same boarding school present with abdominal pain, jaundice, and fever after eating in their canteen. Which immunological marker should be tested to confirm the suspected infectious disease? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgM for Hepatitis A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgG for Hepatitis A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgM for Hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG for Hepatitis B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IgM for Hepatitis A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/category1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. IgM for Hepatitis A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old patient presented with chronic projectile vomiting and weight loss. What is the likely metabolic abnormality that can be seen? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hyponatremia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hypernatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hypercalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic acidosis with hyponatremia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hyponatremia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Initial vomiting → HCL loss = metabolic alkalosis = loss of alkali in urine (with Na)→ Hyponatremia → RAAS Activation → Hypokalemia + loss of H + = aciduria.</li><li>➤ metabolic alkalosis</li><li>➤ Hyponatremia</li><li>➤ Hypokalemia</li><li>➤ aciduria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A gunshot case brought for autopsy shows an entry wound with inverted margins and the wound is surrounded by blackening and tattooing. Singed burnt hair was noted. What is the range of the weapon? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Near Range", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intermediate Range", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Close contact", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distant Range", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Close contact", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Close contact</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Entry Wound features:</li><li>➤ Entry Wound features:</li><li>➤ Contact (tight contact): Burning, blackening and tattooing present just on the margin; not around the wound. Very minimally visible. Loose contact (Near contact) / Close Range (close contact range): Burning, blackening and tattooing present in large amount around the wound (esp. blackening is prominent) Intermediate Range / Near range/ Medium Range: Only Tattooing present around the wound Distant range / Long Range: None of these present around the wound.</li><li>➤ Contact (tight contact): Burning, blackening and tattooing present just on the margin; not around the wound. Very minimally visible.</li><li>➤ Contact (tight contact):</li><li>➤ Loose contact (Near contact) / Close Range (close contact range): Burning, blackening and tattooing present in large amount around the wound (esp. blackening is prominent)</li><li>➤ Loose contact (Near contact) / Close Range (close contact range):</li><li>➤ Intermediate Range / Near range/ Medium Range: Only Tattooing present around the wound</li><li>➤ Intermediate Range / Near range/ Medium Range:</li><li>➤ Distant range / Long Range: None of these present around the wound.</li><li>➤ Distant range / Long Range:</li><li>➤ Near Contact and Near range are different</li><li>➤ Near Contact and Near range are different</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presented with gum bleeding and fatigue. His peripheral smear showing marked leukocytosis with 70% cells showing MPO positivity. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AML", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CML", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CLL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ALL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. AML", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) AML</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myeloperoxidase (MPO) positivity is a key marker for diagnosing Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly diabetic male patient underwent kidney transplantation from his twin brother. The type of grafting is SURGERY. (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isograft", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Xenograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Autograft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Isograft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Isograft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autografts: Taking from one part to another in the same body Allografts: between genetically different individuals of same species Isografts: The graft between identical twins Xeno grafts: The graft between two different species</li><li>➤ Autografts: Taking from one part to another in the same body</li><li>➤ Allografts: between genetically different individuals of same species</li><li>➤ Isografts: The graft between identical twins</li><li>➤ Isografts: The graft between identical twins</li><li>➤ Xeno grafts: The graft between two different species</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man visits a clinic with concerns about ano-rectal discharge but no pain, itching, or risky sexual behaviors. Based on the finding, which treatment kit should the physician prescribe? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grey", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "White", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Grey", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-162742.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Grey</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A kidney disease patient comes for organ transplantation. He has a twin brother who is a match donor for him. Which type of grafting it would be considered as?(FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isograft", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Allograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Xenograft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Isograft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Isograft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autografts: from one part to another in the same body Allografts : between genetically different individuals of same species Isografts: graft between identical twins Xenografts: graft between two different species</li><li>➤ Autografts: from one part to another in the same body</li><li>➤ Autografts:</li><li>➤ Allografts : between genetically different individuals of same species</li><li>➤ Allografts</li><li>➤ Isografts: graft between identical twins</li><li>➤ Isografts:</li><li>➤ Xenografts: graft between two different species</li><li>➤ Xenografts:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old lady presents with the complaint of reduced sleep at night. She is anxious that her parents might die soon and she would have to live alone. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Generalized anxiety disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adjustment disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Major depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Panic disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Generalized anxiety disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Generalized anxiety disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is characterized by excessive anxiety (also called “ free floating anxiety ”) and worry about various aspects of life, lasting for a period of 6 months or longer. This is often associated with physical symptoms such as restlessness, easy fatigability, muscle tension, insomnia etc. Treatment mainly includes SSRIs with short duration of benzodiazepines with CBT.</li><li>➤ free floating anxiety</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 405.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The HV interval in the given His-bundle electrogram represents which of the following? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "From bundle of His and bundle branches to ventricles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "From AV node to bundle of His", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "From purkinje fibers to ventricles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Throughout His-Purkinje system", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. From bundle of His and bundle branches to ventricles", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1217.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-163407.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HV interval refers to conduction from H (His bundle, bundle branches) to V(ventricles)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A black ribbon collected from a crime scene was found to have yellow-colored, needle-shaped crystals on histo examination as shown below. These crystals are indicative of which type of body secretion? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Semen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Saliva", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CSF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Semen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-133603.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111909.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/12/screenshot-2024-06-10-111939.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111920.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Semen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of yellow needle-shaped crystals indicates the Barberio test for semen, identifying the component spermine picrate from the prostate gland.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While performing surgery for acute appendicitis on a 5-year-old child the following structure was found 2 feet proximal to ileocecal junction and it was 2 inches long. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Appendicitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meckel's diverticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zenker's diverticulum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Meckel's diverticulum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Meckel’s diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meckel's diverticulum is a congenital outpouching found near the ileocecal junction, diagnosed by the \"Rule of 2's\" and often discovered incidentally during surgery.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition Chapter 357 – Page No- 7762</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Nelson 21 st Edition Chapter 357 – Page No- 7762</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For disposal of which of the following, a white bag is used? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anatomical waste", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sharp waste", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glassware waste", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plastic waste", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sharp waste", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/category.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sharp waste</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NEW BMW Management Guidelines</li><li>➤ NEW BMW Management Guidelines</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows a procedure that was done in the patient. What is the procedure? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Needle cricothyroidotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tracheostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oropharyngeal airway", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tracheostomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture102.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102079.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102080.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tracheostomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure that provides direct access to the breathing tube (trachea) and is used for long-term ventilation and airway management in patients with chronic respiratory problems, severe throat obstructions, or neurological impairments that compromise breathing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old male presents to you with a nasal discharge which has the following appearance on a handkerchief. Presence of which of the following features helps you in diagnosing the condition as CSF rhinorrhea? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Halo sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Handkerchief sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schwartz sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phelp’s sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Halo sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture25.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102062.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Halo sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image shown below is a pathognomonic finding in Psoriasis. What is it called? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nail pitting", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subungual oil drop sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thinning of nails", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pterygium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subungual oil drop sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd11.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Features of Nail Psoriasis - Mnemonic</li><li>➤ Features of Nail Psoriasis</li><li>➤ Mnemonic</li><li>➤ \"Nail - POLISH\"</li><li>➤ \"Nail - POLISH\"</li><li>➤ • P – Pitting (Most common feature)</li><li>➤ • P</li><li>➤ • O - Oil drop sign (Pathognomonic), Onycholysis</li><li>➤ • O</li><li>➤ • L - Leukonychia</li><li>➤ • L</li><li>➤ • I - Irregular pitting pattern</li><li>➤ • I -</li><li>➤ • S - Splinter Hemorrhage</li><li>➤ • S</li><li>➤ • H - Hyperkeratosis (Subungual)</li><li>➤ • H</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 35 page no 35.4-35.6, 35.9</li><li>↳ Rooks</li><li>↳ textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 35 page no 35.4-35.6, 35.9</li><li>↳ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 333</li><li>↳ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 333</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male presents with enlarged lymph nodes, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Further investigations reveal the presence of abnormal cells in a lymph node biopsy. The histopathological examination shows large cells with multiple nuclei and prominent nucleoli, consistent with Reed-Sternberg cells. Additionally, the biopsy reveals characteristic owl's eye inclusions within the cells. Which type of cell gives rise to Reed-Sternberg cells, and in which disease are owl's eye inclusions seen? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B cells, Hodgkin lymphoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monocytes, Infectious mononucleosis (EBV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neutrophils, Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T cells, Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. B cells, Hodgkin lymphoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/09/untitled-1248.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-173655.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) B cells, Hodgkin’s lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the disease shown in the image below? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Elephantiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leishmaniasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Elephantiasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd18.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Elephantiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Elephantiasis (lymphatic filariasis) is identified by the characteristic severe limb swelling and skin thickening .</li><li>➤ Elephantiasis (lymphatic filariasis)</li><li>➤ limb swelling</li><li>➤ skin thickening</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Harrisons Principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 1630</li><li>↳ Harrisons Principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 1630</li><li>↳ Paniker’s Textbook of medical Parasitology 8 th Edition Page no 215</li><li>↳ Paniker’s Textbook of medical Parasitology 8 th Edition Page no 215</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old patient presented with difficulty in breathing and rashes after ingestion sea food. He has shown similar reaction in the past following consumption of the same food items. Which of the following hypersensitivity reaction do you relate with this? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Type 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/untitled-46.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Type 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While camping in a forest, backpackers find a dead body of a 10-year-old child. Which bone would be best for gender assessment? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skull", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femur", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hip", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mandible", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hip", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/screenshot-2023-10-30-164951.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hip (pelvis) bone is the most reliable for gender assessment, providing the highest accuracy according to Krogman’s table.</li><li>➤ Krogman’s Table: percentage of accuracy in determination of sex from bone</li><li>➤ Krogman’s Table:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is high-level disinfectant? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutaraldehyde", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lysol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glutaraldehyde", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glutaraldehyde</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glutaraldehyde is a high-level disinfectant commonly used for disinfecting medical instruments. It is effective against a broad spectrum of microorganisms and is activated by alkalinization before use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man at an airport was found in an agitated state and was shouting at passersby following which he suddenly collapsed. An Xray chest and abdomen showed the below picture. All of the following are true regarding this case except? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abdominal scan is mandatory", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The person is malingering", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "He is at a risk of intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It’s a case of body packer’s syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. The person is malingering", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/90.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) The person is malingering</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of body packer's syndrome, an abdominal scan is mandatory, and the individual is at risk of intestinal obstruction. The X-ray findings confirm the presence of ingested drug packets, ruling out malingering.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is brought to you with complaints of noisy breathing. On examination, you notice inspiratory stridor in the child and laryngeal examination is as below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vocal cord paralysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subglottic stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laryngeal papilloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laryngomalacia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Laryngomalacia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture88.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102064.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102070.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Laryngomalacia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laryngomalacia is a benign, self-limiting condition seen in infants, characterized by a floppy epiglottis and other supraglottic structures that collapse inward during inspiration, causing stridor. Most cases resolve spontaneously by the age of 2 years, though severe cases may require surgical intervention such as supraglottoplasty to alleviate symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male came with complaints of right flank a pain associated with fever and chills. On examination, the patient had pain on the passive extension of the hip over the right side. CT scan shows findings as shown. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyelonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoas Abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Appendicitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Torsion of Right undescended testis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Psoas Abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_158.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_159.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_160.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Psoas Abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psoas abscess should be suspected in patients presenting with flank pain, fever, and hip extension pain, particularly when imaging shows a bulky psoas muscle with a ring-enhancing lesion.</li><li>➤ bulky psoas muscle with a ring-enhancing lesion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn at birth was noticed to have a herniated liver and small intestine via the umbilicus. The herniated mass was covered with membranes. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastroschisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Persistent Vitello intestinal duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bochdalek hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Omphalocele", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/904.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture170.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Omphalocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omphalocele is characterized by the herniation of abdominal organs through the umbilical ring, covered by a membrane composed of amnion and peritoneum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which muscle is attached in the given pointed structure of femur bone: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gluteus maximus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adductor magnus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quadriceps femoris", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iliopsoas", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Iliopsoas", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121018.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Iliopsoas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The image shown is the posterior surface of the right femur, and the pointed structure is the lesser trochanter, which houses the iliopsoas muscle.</li><li>• The iliopsoas comprises Psoas major and Iliacus. They arise from the lumbar spine and the inner surface of the ilium bone respectively, and insert on the lesser trochanter. The iliopsoas cause flexion of the hip.</li><li>• The iliopsoas comprises Psoas major and Iliacus.</li><li>• They arise from the lumbar spine and the inner surface of the ilium bone respectively, and insert on the lesser trochanter.</li><li>• The iliopsoas cause flexion of the hip.</li><li>• Other option:</li><li>• Other option:</li><li>• Option A) Gluteus Maximus : The gluteus maximus is a large muscle of the buttocks that originates from the ilium and sacrum and inserts into the femur's posterior surface. It is primarily responsible for hip extension, which is the movement of moving the thigh backward, as well as external rotation of the hip.</li><li>• Option A) Gluteus Maximus</li><li>• Option B) Adductor Magnus : The adductor magnus is a muscle of the inner thigh. While it has multiple attachments, it primarily inserts into the linea aspera of the femur. Its main function is to adduct the thigh, bringing it toward the midline of the body.</li><li>• Option B) Adductor Magnus</li><li>• Option C) Quadriceps Femoris : The quadriceps femoris, often referred to as the quadriceps, is a group of four muscles on the front of the thigh. These muscles converge to form the quadriceps tendon, which inserts into the patella (kneecap) and then continues as the patellar tendon, attaching to the tibial tuberosity on the anterior surface of the tibia. The quadriceps muscles are primarily responsible for knee extension.Top of Form</li><li>• Option C) Quadriceps Femoris</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The iliopsoas is a group of muscles located in the hip region, composed of the iliacus muscle and the psoas major muscle . These muscles originate from different areas but converge to form a common tendon that attaches to the lesser trochanter of the femur.</li><li>➤ The iliopsoas</li><li>➤ iliacus muscle</li><li>➤ psoas major muscle</li><li>➤ lesser trochanter</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Beta blockers should be avoided in all of the following conditions except?( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peripheral vascular disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "COPD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glaucoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-142839.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta Blockers</li><li>➤ Beta Blockers</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For day care surgeries, which of the following intravenous anesthetic agent is preferred? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiopentone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propofol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Opioid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Propofol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Propofol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propofol is preferred for day care surgeries due to its rapid onset, short duration, and minimal side effects. It also provides antiemetic and antipruritic benefits, ensuring a comfortable postoperative recovery for patients.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs. 646-648</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs. 646-648</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition shown in the Xray abdomen: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transient Tachypnoea of newborn", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Duodenal atresia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/31_udZ1lva.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_11_page_14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Duodenal atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Double bubble sign\" on X-ray is characteristic of duodenal atresia, which presents with bilious or non-bilious vomiting within the first 24 to 48 hours of life.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the standard thickness of lead aprons used by radiology technicians to protect against scattered radiation during procedures? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.5 mm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1.5 mm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.5 mm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 0.5 mm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A 0.5 mm lead apron is the standard choice in radiology settings, offering effective protection against scattered radiation while allowing sufficient mobility for healthcare professionals during medical imaging procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female presented with a history of discomfort while swallowing food. She has no history of fever, sore throat, or smoking but has a history of Marfan's syndrome in her father. On examination of the oral cavity, there is unilateral swelling of the tonsils along with pulsation. What is the most likely cause of the swelling? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extracranial internal carotid artery aneurysm", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intracranial external carotid artery aneurysm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extracranial external carotid artery aneurysm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intracranial internal carotid artery aneurysm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extracranial internal carotid artery aneurysm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Extracranial internal carotid artery aneurysm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of an extracranial internal carotid artery aneurysm in a patient with a background of Marfan's syndrome and presenting with pulsatile tonsil swelling is consistent with the pathophysiological expectations of the condition. Proper imaging studies such as a Doppler ultrasound, CT angiography, or MRI would be crucial for confirming the diagnosis and planning appropriate management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this movement that takes place in the intestine? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Segmented movement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peristalsis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intersegmental contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diffusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Peristalsis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-198_xHZrbmb.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Peristalsis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peristalsis is the propulsive muscular movement in the gastrointestinal tract that moves food from the esophagus to the rectum. It is governed by neurotransmitters like Substance P and Acetylcholine causing contraction, and Nitric Oxide and Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide causing relaxation.</li><li>➤ Proximal Contraction done by -</li><li>➤ Substance P ACh</li><li>➤ Substance P</li><li>➤ ACh</li><li>➤ Distal Relaxation done by -</li><li>➤ NO VIP</li><li>➤ NO</li><li>➤ VIP</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old boy with presents with limitation of abduction and internal rotation of the left hip. The X-ray pelvis is shown in the below image. What is the diagnosis of this patient? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Slipped capital femoral epiphysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perthes disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Developmental Dysplasia of hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_ffYnWu0.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_155.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_156.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_157.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis should be suspected in adolescents presenting with hip pain and limited range of motion, particularly if the X-ray shows a displacement of the growth plate relative to the femoral head, as evidenced by the absence of overlap with the Klein line. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further slippage and associated complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the given peripheral smear, which of the following is most likely diagnosis: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IDA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thalassemia major", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myelofibrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myelodysplastic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Myelofibrosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-293.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Myelofibrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear-drop shaped RBCs (dacrocytes) in the peripheral smear, resulting from bone marrow fibrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female presents with a swelling on the lateral side of her eye. There are no vision disturbances or pain at site. What should be the definitive treatment for her condition? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steroid injection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Excision", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conservative management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Excision", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/11_liIwfLV.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Excision</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The definitive treatment for a dermoid cyst, especially one causing symptoms or cosmetic concerns, is surgical excision.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman presents with post-coital bleeding. On per vaginal examination, the following lesion is seen which bleeds on touching. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemorrhagic cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical polyp", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical fibroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cervical polyp", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/794.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cervical Polyp</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image with the history of post-coital bleeding in a woman of childbearing age is suggestive of a cervical polyp. An endocervical polyp arises from the mucous membrane of the cervical canal. The polyp is pedunculated; the pedicle being attached to the mucous membrane of the cervical canal. Occur in women during the childbearing period of life but may occasionally develop in menopausal and postmenopausal women. Treatment- avulsion or by torsion and specimen should always be sent for microscopic examination as malignant changes may be seen.</li><li>• The given image with the history of post-coital bleeding in a woman of childbearing age is suggestive of a cervical polyp.</li><li>• An endocervical polyp arises from the mucous membrane of the cervical canal.</li><li>• The polyp is pedunculated; the pedicle being attached to the mucous membrane of the cervical canal.</li><li>• Occur in women during the childbearing period of life but may occasionally develop in menopausal and postmenopausal women.</li><li>• Treatment- avulsion or by torsion and specimen should always be sent for microscopic examination as malignant changes may be seen.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hemorrhagic cyst : This is an ovarian cyst and will not be visible on the cervix</li><li>• Option A. Hemorrhagic cyst</li><li>• Option C. Cervical cancer : Will appear as an irregular fungating/ ulcerative lesion on the cervix</li><li>• Option C. Cervical</li><li>• cancer</li><li>• Option D. Cervical fibroid : This appears as part of the cervix; and not protruding from the os. It is best diagnosed on ultrasound.</li><li>• Option D. Cervical fibroid</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cervical polyps, which may cause post-coital bleeding, are typically pedunculated lesions arising from the cervical canal mucous membrane and should be microscopically examined for any malignant changes upon removal.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 287, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 287, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a protuberance shown in the picture below which reduces when he lies down. What is the likely cause of the protuberance? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Para-umbilical Hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omphalo-mesenteric cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caput medusae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Omphalitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Para-umbilical Hernia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/10_McJDieY.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture934.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Para-umbilical Hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A para-umbilical hernia presents as a reducible swelling adjacent to the umbilicus, typically protruding through the linea alba and reducing when the patient lies down.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old boy presents with a history of facial edema that has now progressed to generalized swelling affecting his face, abdomen, scrotum, and feet. Urinalysis revealed protein 4+ and a urine protein: creatinine ratio of 3. What is the primary treatment of choice for this child? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prednisolone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levamisole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyclosporine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prednisolone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Prednisolone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For initial episodes of Nephrotic Syndrome in children, particularly when minimal change disease is suspected, Prednisolone is the first-line treatment, effectively reducing proteinuria and managing symptoms with a high success rate in inducing remission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of chest pain seen on exertion or exercise lasting for 3-5 minutes. The patient has persistently elevated BP and has been diagnosed with stable angina. What is the most appropriate drug? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enalapril", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiazide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amlodipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atenolol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Atenolol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Beta-blockers like atenolol are the first-line treatment for stable angina as they improve coronary perfusion and decrease myocardial oxygen demand. Other medications like ACE inhibitors, thiazide diuretics, and calcium channel blockers can be used based on the patient's overall condition but are not the primary choice for stable angina.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-year-old male chronic alcoholic abstained from alcohol. 2 days later he was brought to the emergency with disorientation, tremors, hallucination, and hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delirium tremens", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Korsakoff psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcoholic hallucinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Delirium tremens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1220_i7yaq92.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delirium tremens is a severe and potentially life-threatening condition that occurs 48-72 hours after alcohol withdrawal, characterized by disorientation, tremors, hallucinations, and autonomic hyperactivity such as hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient presented with bloody diarrhea. On Investigation of stool sample, the organism was found to be gram negative, non-motile and oxidase negative. What could be the cause? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shigella", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yersinia pestis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Shigella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Shigella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shigella is a gram-negative, non-motile, and oxidase-negative bacterium that is a common cause of bacillary dysentery, presenting with bloody diarrhea and several potential severe complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the obstetric grip performed in the picture? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pelvic grip", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pawlick grip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fundal grip", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Umbilical grip", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pelvic grip", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/17/fmge-ques-image.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/23/screenshot-2024-08-23-093653.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-209.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pelvic grip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The obstetric grip shown in the picture is Pelvic grip.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Pawlick grip : The Pawlick grip is the third Leopold maneuver and is used to determine the presenting part of the fetus and its location relative to the true pelvis.</li><li>• Option B. Pawlick grip</li><li>• Option C. Fundal grip : The fundal grip is the first Leopold maneuver and is used to determine which fetal pole occupies the uterine fundus.</li><li>• Option C. Fundal grip</li><li>• Option D. Umbilical grip : The umbilical grip is the second Leopold maneuver and is used to locate the fetal back and extremities.</li><li>• Option D. Umbilical grip</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pelvic grip, part of the Leopold maneuvers, assesses the descent of the presenting fetal part into the maternal pelvis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 424, William’s Obstetrics; 25 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 424, William’s Obstetrics; 25 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a rural district of Madhya Pradesh, a medical officer learns about the ASHA program during an orientation. He's interested in knowing how many people in rural settings does one ASHA worker typically support. What is the standard population size catered to by a single ASHA worker? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 per 3000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 per 5000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 per 1000", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 per 2000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 per 1000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-155747.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2 per 1000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Suggested Norms for Health Personnel</li><li>➤ Suggested Norms for Health Personnel</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 48-year-old female presents with arthralgia, difficulty in swallowing the food and gritty feeling in the eyes. He is also found to be having increased titers of ANA. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sjogren syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum sickness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SLE", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sjogren syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sjogren syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sjogren syndrome is characterized by dry eyes, dry mouth, and arthralgia, often with increased ANA titers, resulting from autoimmune infiltration of exocrine glands.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with IQ of 50 comes under: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mild MR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Moderate MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Profound MR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mild MR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/901.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mild MR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mild intellectual disability is defined as an IQ range of 50-70, and children with mild intellectual disability can often live independently with some support.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old male presented with chronic back pain, fatigue, and easy bruisability. ESR was elevated and the radiograph shown below. What is the next test to help in the evaluation? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PET-CT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum electrophoresis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT brain with contrast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI Brain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Serum electrophoresis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1221.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/fmge-medicine-1_Z4nay1u.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Serum electrophoresis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with symptoms and radiographic findings suggestive of multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis is the appropriate next test to identify a monoclonal protein spike and help confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ MDE (Myeloma defining Events)</li><li>➤ MDE (Myeloma defining Events)</li><li>➤ 1. Myeloma related organ impairment (ROTI): Lytic bone lesions, ↑Ca &gt;11, S. Creat &gt;2, Hb &lt;10</li><li>➤ 2. Any 1 of the 3 biomarkers</li><li>➤ BM Plasma cell &gt;60% Serum Free Light Chain ratio &gt;100:1 &gt;1 focal lesion on MRI</li><li>➤ BM Plasma cell &gt;60%</li><li>➤ Serum Free Light Chain ratio &gt;100:1</li><li>➤ &gt;1 focal lesion on MRI</li><li>➤ Treatment: Definitive Rx= Transplant</li><li>➤ Treatment:</li><li>➤ Drugs: Dexamethasone + Lenalidomide + Bortezomib ± Daratumumab (Anti-CD38)</li><li>➤ Drugs:</li><li>➤ Newer Drugs:</li><li>➤ Newer Drugs:</li><li>➤ 1.Elotuzumab: Anti-SLAM7</li><li>➤ 2.Panobinostat (HiDAC - Histone deacetylase inhibitors)</li><li>➤ 3.CAR-T cell therapy with idecabtagene vicleucel</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 66-year-old man with chronic hypertension presented to the ER with altered mental status and elevated blood pressure of 210/110 mmHg. CT scan of the brain revealed intraparenchymal hemorrhage. Which of the site is most common for hemorrhage? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thalamus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Putamen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pons", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebellum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Putamen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ In patients with chronic hypertension presenting with intracerebral hemorrhage, the putamen is the most common site of bleeding. Non-contrast CT scans are essential for diagnosing and determining the location of the hemorrhage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent episodes of UTI. His mother says that he urinates frequently but has a poor urinary stream along with dribbling of urine. On examination, he has a palpable bladder. What investigation can be used to find out the underlying diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ultrasonogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Micturating cystourethrography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine routine examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DMSA scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Micturating cystourethrography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Micturating cystourethrography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Micturating cystourethrography (MCU) is the investigation of choice for diagnosing posterior urethral valve (PUV) in a male child with recurrent UTIs and poor urinary stream.</li><li>➤ Micturating cystourethrography (MCU)</li><li>➤ posterior urethral valve (PUV)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 47-year-old woman was brought to casualty in an unconscious state after having suddenly collapsed. There was no pulse and hence CPR was started. The monitor showed the following rhythm. What is the next step? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Defibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synchronized cardioversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epinephrine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Epinephrine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/23/medicine-1208_HaL4tuS.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-160722.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-160846.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ For a patient in cardiac arrest with PEA, the next step is to continue high-quality CPR and administer epinephrine while evaluating for and treating reversible causes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of Local anesthetic agents? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blocking voltage gated sodium channel", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blocking of calcium channel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Opening Sodium channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Opening of potassium channel", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blocking voltage gated sodium channel", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blocking voltage gated sodium channel</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Local anesthetics primarily work by blocking the voltage-gated sodium channels in nerves.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 872</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 872</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism stained with India Ink stain? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlamydia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histoplasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspergillus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cryptococcus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-180458.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-120616.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-175834_PU6SQHZ.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cryptococcus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The India Ink stain is a negative staining technique used to identify Cryptococcus neoformans by visualizing its characteristic thick capsule, especially in CSF samples of HIV-positive individuals.</li><li>➤ Staining inks for additional microorganisms:</li><li>➤ Staining inks for additional microorganisms:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man presents with a sudden onset headache, profuse sweating, and palpitations. He had several such episodes in the past with elevated BP recordings. A 24-hour urinary metanephrine is elevated. What is the most likely etiology? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renal artery stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibromuscular dysplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pheochromocytoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pheochromocytoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pheochromocytoma presents with episodic headaches, palpitations, and sweating, along with elevated blood pressure. Diagnosis is supported by elevated 24-hour urinary metanephrine levels. The ROIZEN criteria are used to assess the adequacy of alpha-blockade in the management of pheochromocytoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient’s father has complained against the doctor for negligence leading to patient’s death and under which IPC section can the medical practitioner be held liable? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IPC 304 A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IPC 304 B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IPC 84", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IPC 302", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IPC 304 A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IPC 304 A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Medical practitioners can be held liable under IPC 304 A for causing death due to rash or negligent acts, with a punishment of up to two years of imprisonment, or a fine, or both.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 79-year-old female suffered with heart disease and with cardiac atrophy. On H/E, perinuclear yellow brown deposits were seen. Which pigment is responsible for this? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemosiderin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lipofuscin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zinc", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lipofuscin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-173228.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-173250.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lipofuscin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with miosis, anhidrosis and ptosis as shown in the given image. What is the likely diagnosis?( FMGE Dec 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "III cranial nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Horner’s syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "VI cranial nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Orbital cellulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Horner’s syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/19/picture12.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Horner’s syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Horner’s syndrome is characterized by the triad of miosis, ptosis, and anhidrosis, resulting from a disruption of the sympathetic nerves.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient underwent a sternal cyst excision. After 1 year he presents with the growth shown in the picture below. Which of the following is likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell papilloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertrophic scar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marjolin’s ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Keloid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Keloid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/13_mUp8AVQ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-131801.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Keloid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Keloids are characterized by poorly-organized collagen, typically appear on pigmented skin with a family history, extend beyond the original wound, and do not self-resolve. They often recur even after treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked red in the below image? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caudate nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lentiform nucleus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basal ganglia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lentiform nucleus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/picture1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/picture2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lentiform nucleus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure marked in the image is the Lentiform nucleus.</li><li>• It is composed of two structures: the putamen and the globus pallidus . The lentiform nucleus, together with other basal ganglia structures, is primarily involved in motor control and regulation of movement. It plays a role in refining and modulating motor signals before they are transmitted to the motor cortex. Dysfunction in the lentiform nucleus can lead to movement disorders such as dystonia.</li><li>• putamen</li><li>• globus pallidus</li><li>• motor control</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Caudate Nucleus : The caudate nucleus is one of the major structures that make up the basal ganglia , which is a collection of nuclei found deep within the brain. It is a C-shaped structure that is part of the telencephalon. It is involved in various functions, including motor control , cognitive processes , and emotional processing . It plays a role in coordinating voluntary movements, procedural learning, and forming habits. Dysfunction in the caudate nucleus can contribute to movement disorders such as Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease.</li><li>• Option A. Caudate Nucleus</li><li>• basal ganglia</li><li>• motor control</li><li>• cognitive processes</li><li>• emotional processing</li><li>• Option B. The insula , also known as the insular cortex or the island of Reil, is a region of the cerebral cortex located deep within the lateral sulcus (a groove) of the brain. It is considered part of the telencephalon. It is involved in a wide range of functions, including emotion , consciousness , perception , and self-awareness . It plays a role in processing emotional and sensory information, as well as regulating autonomic functions like heart rate and blood pressure. The insula is also implicated in social cognition and empathy.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• insula</li><li>• emotion</li><li>• consciousness</li><li>• perception</li><li>• self-awareness</li><li>• Option D. The basal ganglia is a complex network of nuclei located deep within the brain. It includes structures such as the caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, and subthalamic nucleus. The basal ganglia plays a central role in motor control , cognitive functions , and emotional processing . It helps initiate and regulate voluntary movements, modulate muscle tone, and contribute to procedural learning and habit formation. Dysfunction in the basal ganglia can lead to a range of neurological and psychiatric disorders, including Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• basal ganglia</li><li>• motor control</li><li>• cognitive functions</li><li>• emotional processing</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nomenclature of basal ganglia:</li><li>➤ Nomenclature of basal ganglia:</li><li>➤ Corpus striatum: Caudate nucleus and lenticular nuclei (the putamen, globus pallidus externus, and internus), the subthalamic nucleus (STN), and the substantia nigra (SN) Lentiform nucleus: Putamen + globus pallidus Neostriatum: Caudate nucleus + putamen</li><li>➤ Corpus striatum: Caudate nucleus and lenticular nuclei (the putamen, globus pallidus externus, and internus), the subthalamic nucleus (STN), and the substantia nigra (SN)</li><li>➤ Lentiform nucleus: Putamen + globus pallidus</li><li>➤ Neostriatum: Caudate nucleus + putamen</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male who is an agricultural worker presented with the lesion shown in the image below. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystic hygroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Collar stud abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Branchial cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thyroglossal cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Collar stud abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/19_Ed4QVrf.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture938_page_5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Collar stud abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tuberculous lymphadenitis, known as collar stud abscess, presents as a minimally inflamed lesion near the collar bone, resembling a collar stud.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where is lactate dehydrogenase primarily located within the cell? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytoplasm", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cell Membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DNA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cytoplasm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cytoplasm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lactate dehydrogenase is a cytoplasmic enzyme essential for anaerobic glycolysis, and its presence in the blood can indicate cellular damage or necrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is not a microelement? ( FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Selenium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zinc", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Calcium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-135908.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Calcium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Microelements, also known as trace elements or micronutrients, are essential elements required by living organisms in relatively small amounts for various physiological functions.</li><li>➤ Classification of minerals based on body requirements:</li><li>➤ Classification of minerals based on body requirements:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mode of insertion of this contraceptive? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysteroscopic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abdominal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hysteroscopic", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/793.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hysteroscopic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows an Essure coil, a type of contraceptive device used for permanent birth control. The Essure device is inserted hysteroscopically, which means it is placed into the fallopian tubes through the vagina and uterus using a hysteroscope. This method does not require incisions in the abdomen, making it a less invasive procedure compared to laparoscopic or abdominal methods.</li><li>• The image shows an Essure coil, a type of contraceptive device used for permanent birth control.</li><li>• The Essure device is inserted hysteroscopically, which means it is placed into the fallopian tubes through the vagina and uterus using a hysteroscope.</li><li>• This method does not require incisions in the abdomen, making it a less invasive procedure compared to laparoscopic or abdominal methods.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Abdominal : This is not applicable as the Essure coil is not inserted through the abdomen.</li><li>• Option B. Abdominal</li><li>• Option C. Laparoscopic : While some contraceptive devices are placed laparoscopically, the Essure coil is specifically inserted hysteroscopically.</li><li>• Option C. Laparoscopic</li><li>• Option D. Oral : This is not applicable as the Essure coil is a physical device that is inserted into the fallopian tubes, not taken orally.</li><li>• Option D. Oral</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Essure coil is a contraceptive device that is inserted hysteroscopically to occlude the fallopian tubes for permanent birth control.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 502, Textbook of Gynecology, DC Dutta, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 502, Textbook of Gynecology, DC Dutta, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman who underwent dilatation and curettage previously, now presents with amenorrhea. The urine pregnancy test is negative. HSG revealed a honeycomb appearance in the uterine cavity. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asherman syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kallman syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sheehan syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stein-Leventhal syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Asherman syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-206.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Asherman syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The above clinical characteristics, history, and hysteroscopic findings are suggestive of Asherman syndrome. Asherman syndrome is intra-uterine adhesions which usually occurs following a D &amp; C. It can also be seen as a sequalae of genital TB C/F: Hypomenorrhea, Secondary amenorrhea and infertility Diagnosis: HSG: moth eaten appearance, honeycomb appearance</li><li>• The above clinical characteristics, history, and hysteroscopic findings are suggestive of Asherman syndrome.</li><li>• Asherman syndrome is intra-uterine adhesions which usually occurs following a D &amp; C.</li><li>• It can also be seen as a sequalae of genital TB</li><li>• C/F: Hypomenorrhea, Secondary amenorrhea and infertility</li><li>• Diagnosis: HSG: moth eaten appearance, honeycomb appearance</li><li>• HSG: moth eaten appearance, honeycomb appearance</li><li>• HSG: moth eaten appearance, honeycomb appearance</li><li>• Treatment: Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis</li><li>• Treatment: Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Kallman syndrome : Kallman syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by delayed or absent puberty and an impaired sense of smell (anosmia). It is not related to intrauterine adhesions or previous surgical history.</li><li>• Option B. Kallman syndrome</li><li>• Option C. Sheehan syndrome : Sheehan syndrome refers to hypopituitarism caused by ischemic necrosis due to severe postpartum hemorrhage. It presents with symptoms of pituitary hormone deficiencies, not intrauterine adhesions.</li><li>• Option C. Sheehan syndrome</li><li>• Option D. Stein-Leventhal syndrome : Stein-Leventhal syndrome, commonly known as Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), is characterized by irregular menstrual periods, excess androgen levels, and polycystic ovaries. It does not cause intrauterine adhesions or a honeycomb appearance on HSG.</li><li>• Option D. Stein-Leventhal syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asherman syndrome is characterized by intrauterine adhesions often following procedures like dilatation and curettage, presenting with secondary amenorrhea, hypomenorrhea, and infertility. It can be diagnosed through HSG showing a honeycomb appearance.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 384, DC Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 384, DC Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A footballer got injured on the head while trying to direct the ball toward the goal. He loses consciousness transiently but continues to play the match after receiving first aid. During drinks break, he is found unconscious in the changing room and is rushed to the hospital. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EDH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "SDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SAH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intracerebral hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. EDH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) EDH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of a \"lucid interval\" following head trauma is highly indicative of an Extradural Hematoma (EDH).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding seen in this hysterosalpingogram: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bilateral hydrosalpinx", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extravasation into venous system", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal HSG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bilateral cornual block", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bilateral hydrosalpinx", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-210.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bilateral hydrosalpinx</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The hysterosalpingogram (HSG) image shows features indicative of bilateral hydrosalpinx. Hydrosalpinx refers to a condition where the fallopian tubes are filled with a clear fluid, resulting from a blockage at the fimbrial end of the tubes, typically due to acute salpingitis or other inflammatory processes. The image displays the characteristic retort shape of the dilated ampulla, with the interstitial end of the tube remaining open and the fimbrial end being closed.</li><li>• In the context of infertility, the treatment often involves salpingectomy (surgical removal of the fallopian tube) or clipping of the tubes near the cornua, followed by in vitro fertilization (IVF).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Extravasation into the venous system : This would show contrast leaking into the surrounding venous structures, which is not evident in the given image.</li><li>• Option B. Extravasation into the venous system</li><li>• Option C. Normal HSG : A normal HSG would show a well-defined uterine cavity with contrast filling and spilling out from the fallopian tubes into the peritoneal cavity, which is not seen here.</li><li>• Option C. Normal HSG</li><li>• Option D. Bilateral cornual block : A cornual block would show an obstruction at the cornua (the junction of the fallopian tubes and the uterus), preventing contrast from passing through the tubes, which is not the case in this image.</li><li>• Option D. Bilateral cornual block</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bilateral hydrosalpinx appears as a retort-shaped dilation of the fallopian tubes on a hysterosalpingogram, typically resulting from inflammatory processes such as salpingitis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 658, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 658, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old factory worker with tuberculosis is advised to rest for three months and seeks financial support during this period. Under the Employees’ State Insurance scheme, which benefit allows him to receive about 70% of his daily wages while he recovers? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medical Benefit", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sickness Benefit", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disablement Benefit", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dependent’s Benefit", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sickness Benefit", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sickness Benefit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Employees State Insurance (ESI)</li><li>➤ Employees State Insurance (ESI)</li><li>➤ It comes under the Ministry of Labour. It is not applicable for Defence, Mining and Railway.</li><li>➤ People with a monthly wage of less than Rs.21000/month are eligible to get the benefits.</li><li>➤ The benefits include the following:</li><li>➤ benefits</li><li>➤ Medical Care Sickness benefit (70% wages for 91 days or 3 months) If extended it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females) Disablement benefit is 90% wages depending on temporary or permanent disability Dependent’s benefit is also 90% Under ESI Funeral expense 15,000 is also given</li><li>➤ Medical Care</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit (70% wages for 91 days or 3 months) If extended it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ If extended it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ If extended it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years)</li><li>➤ Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ Disablement benefit is 90% wages depending on temporary or permanent disability</li><li>➤ Dependent’s benefit is also 90%</li><li>➤ Under ESI Funeral expense 15,000 is also given</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Introduction of new drug in the market is done after which of the following phases of clinical trials? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phase 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Phase 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/16/screenshot-2024-07-16-185404.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Phase 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phases Overview:</li><li>➤ Phases Overview:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old male presents with complaints of a weak urinary stream and frequent urination in small amounts and is on prazosin. He also mentions that he frequently feels lightheaded and has low blood pressure. Which of the following alpha-blockers will you prefer to give him? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alfuzosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Terazosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tamsulosin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doxazosin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tamsulosin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tamsulosin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In treating BPH symptoms in patients who are sensitive to blood pressure changes, Tamsulosin is preferred due to its selectivity for alpha-1A receptors predominantly found in the prostate, thereby minimizing cardiovascular side effects while effectively managing urinary obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of joint is present in the marked image of pelvis: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary cartilaginous", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Synovial", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrous", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary cartilaginous", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Secondary cartilaginous", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-17.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-311.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Secondary cartilaginous</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Secondary Cartilaginous Joint (Symphysis) :</li><li>• Secondary Cartilaginous Joint (Symphysis)</li><li>• Characteristics : Secondary cartilaginous joints are connected by fibrocartilage and provide limited movement and flexibility.</li><li>• Characteristics</li><li>• fibrocartilage</li><li>• Examples : The most common example of a secondary cartilaginous joint is the intervertebral disc between adjacent vertebrae in the spine. The pubic symphysis, which connects the two pubic bones in the pelvis, is another example.</li><li>• Examples</li><li>• intervertebral disc</li><li>• Function : Secondary cartilaginous joints offer stability and support to the structures they connect while allowing for limited flexibility and shock absorption.</li><li>• Function</li><li>• Sacroiliac joint- plain synovial joint (2nd best answer is syndesmosis)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Primary Cartilaginous Joint (Synchondrosis) :</li><li>• Option A. Primary Cartilaginous Joint (Synchondrosis)</li><li>• Characteristics : In primary cartilaginous joints, the bones are connected by hyaline cartilage , which allows for very limited movement or no movement at all.</li><li>• Characteristics</li><li>• hyaline cartilage</li><li>• Examples : The most common example of a primary cartilaginous joint is the epiphyseal plate , which is the growth plate in growing long bones. It allows for bone growth until maturity when it ossifies and becomes a bony joint.</li><li>• Examples</li><li>• epiphyseal plate</li><li>• Function : Primary cartilaginous joints provide structural support and allow for longitudinal growth in developing bones.</li><li>• Function</li><li>• Option B. Synovial Joint :</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Synovial Joint</li><li>• Characteristics : Synovial joints are the most common type of joint in the human body. They are characterized by the presence of a synovial cavity filled with synovial fluid, which lubricates the joint and allows for a wide range of movements.</li><li>• Characteristics</li><li>• synovial cavity</li><li>• Examples : Examples of synovial joints include the knee joint , shoulder joint , hip joint , and many others.</li><li>• Examples</li><li>• knee joint</li><li>• shoulder joint</li><li>• hip joint</li><li>• Function : Synovial joints are highly mobile and allow for various types of movements, including flexion, extension, rotation, and more. They are essential for body movement and function.</li><li>• Function</li><li>• Option C. Fibrous Joint (Synarthrosis) :</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Fibrous Joint (Synarthrosis)</li><li>• Characteristics : Fibrous joints are connected by fibrous connective tissue and allow for minimal to no movement. They provide stability and support to adjacent bones.</li><li>• Characteristics</li><li>• fibrous connective tissue</li><li>• Examples : Examples of fibrous joints include the sutures of the skull , which are immovable, and the syndesmosis found between the tibia and fibula in the lower leg, which allows for limited movement.</li><li>• Examples</li><li>• sutures of the skull</li><li>• syndesmosis</li><li>• Function : Fibrous joints provide structural integrity and protect vital organs. In some cases, like the syndesmosis, they allow for a small amount of movement while maintaining stability.</li><li>• Function</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged woman presented with dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and infertility. On examination, you note fixed, tender, retroverted uterus and tender nodularity of the uterosacral ligaments. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PID", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pelvic TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leiomyoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endometriosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endometriosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tender nodularity of the uterosacral ligament (cobblestone appearance) is seen in endometriosis. Also, the uterus is retroverted and fixed which is also classically seen in endometriosis Endometriosis means endometrial deposits in sites outside the uterus Endometriosis presents with symptoms which can be remembered as 5D’s Dysmenorrhoea Dyschezia Dysfertility (infertility) Dyspareunia Dull aching abdominal pain</li><li>• Tender nodularity of the uterosacral ligament (cobblestone appearance) is seen in endometriosis. Also, the uterus is retroverted and fixed which is also classically seen in endometriosis</li><li>• Endometriosis means endometrial deposits in sites outside the uterus</li><li>• Endometriosis presents with symptoms which can be remembered as 5D’s Dysmenorrhoea Dyschezia Dysfertility (infertility) Dyspareunia Dull aching abdominal pain</li><li>• Dysmenorrhoea Dyschezia Dysfertility (infertility) Dyspareunia Dull aching abdominal pain</li><li>• Dysmenorrhoea</li><li>• Dyschezia</li><li>• Dysfertility (infertility)</li><li>• Dyspareunia</li><li>• Dull aching abdominal pain</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. PID : Presents lower abdominal pain + vaginal discharge and sometimes fever. On examination, there is classically tenderness present (adnexal/ uterine/ forniceal)</li><li>• Option A. PID</li><li>• Option C. Pelvic TB : This has varied presentations but usually there will be menstrual abnormalities (initially menorrhagia followed by hypomenorrhea/ amenorrhea). There also causes infertility. Examination may be completely normal or there may be a tubo-ovarian (Adnexal) mass palpable.</li><li>• Option C. Pelvic TB</li><li>• Option D. Leiomyoma : Presents commonly with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhoea. On examination there is an enlarged uterus.</li><li>• Option D. Leiomyoma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endometriosis often presents with a fixed, retroverted uterus and tender nodularity of the uterosacral ligaments, accompanied by dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and infertility.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 253, DC Dutta Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 253, DC Dutta Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female presented with abdominal swelling. The swelling was moving perpendicular to the line of attachment of mesentery. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chylolymphatic cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudocyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fat nodule", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peritoneal cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chylolymphatic cyst", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chylolymphatic cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Tillaux sign, which indicates a swelling moving perpendicular to the line of attachment of the mesentery, is specific for mesenteric cysts, most commonly chylolymphatic cysts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The X-ray image of a child with muscle weakness and failure to thrive is attached below. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteogenesis Imperfecta.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rickets", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteopetrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rickets", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/906.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture1_qxAcZGT.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rickets</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rickets is characterized by radiological findings such as cupping, fraying, and widening of the metaphyses due to defective bone mineralization from vitamin D deficiency.</li><li>➤ cupping, fraying, and widening</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following disease shows the presence of deposition of Tau protein? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CJD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parkinson’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alzheimer’s disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Alzheimer’s disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-135508.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-289.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-290.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Alzheimer’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CJD- Prpsc protein in neuronal Cytoplasm Rabies - Negri bodies in cerebellum and Ammon horn of hippocampus. Parkinson’s disease -Lewy Bodies in neuronal cytoplasm Alzheimer disease -Tau protein in microtubular associated protein in axons that contributes to neurofibrillary tangles.</li><li>➤ CJD- Prpsc protein in neuronal Cytoplasm</li><li>➤ Rabies - Negri bodies in cerebellum and Ammon horn of hippocampus.</li><li>➤ Parkinson’s disease -Lewy Bodies in neuronal cytoplasm</li><li>➤ Alzheimer disease -Tau protein in microtubular associated protein in axons that contributes to neurofibrillary tangles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following organisms can cause croup except? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parainfluenza 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parainfluenza 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhinovirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "RSV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rhinovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Rhinovirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute laryngotracheobronchitis or croup is a viral infection caused by parainfluenzae type 1, 2, and sometimes 3.</li><li>➤ Rhinovirus causes common cold, Acute pharyngitis, Acute Viral Rhinosinusitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient developed the following deformity, after overhead weight-lifting exercises. Which of the following muscle is involved? ( FMGE DECEMBER 2020 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Latissimus dorsi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trapezius", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serratus anterior", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supraspinatus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serratus anterior", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-39.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Serratus anterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The condition shown in the figure is the winged scapula. Dysfunction or weakness of the serratus anterior muscle can lead to a condition known as \"winged scapula.\" This condition is characterized by the medial border of the scapula sticking out from the rib cage, rather than lying flat against it. It can result in pain, limited shoulder movement, and functional impairment.</li><li>• The condition shown in the figure is the winged scapula.</li><li>• serratus anterior muscle</li><li>• Serratus anterior muscle (boxer’s muscle) receives innervation from long thoracic nerve, which when damaged results in paralysis of muscle, the phenomenon known as winged scapula. Repetitive overhead movements presented with scapular dyskinesis (which is an abnormal scapulohumeral interaction during kinetic motion) and medial scapular winging caused by overhead weight-lifting exercises.</li><li>• Serratus anterior muscle (boxer’s muscle) receives innervation from long thoracic nerve, which when damaged results in paralysis of muscle, the phenomenon known as winged scapula.</li><li>• long thoracic nerve,</li><li>• Repetitive overhead movements presented with scapular dyskinesis (which is an abnormal scapulohumeral interaction during kinetic motion) and medial scapular winging caused by overhead weight-lifting exercises.</li><li>• Repetitive overhead movements presented with scapular dyskinesis (which is an abnormal scapulohumeral interaction during kinetic motion) and medial scapular winging caused by overhead weight-lifting exercises.</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Option A) Lattissimus dorsi - Latissimus dorsi is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve, from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, C6, 7 and 8. It is active in adduction, extension and especially in medial rotation of the humerus.</li><li>• Option A) Lattissimus dorsi -</li><li>• Option B) Trapezius - I nnervated by the spinal part of the accessory nerve. Sensory (proprioceptive) branches are derived from the ventral rami of C3 and C4. Acting with levator scapulae, the upper fibres elevate the scapula and with it the point of the shoulder; acting with serratus anterior, trapezius rotates the scapula forward (upwards) so that the arm can be raised above the head; and acting with the rhomboids, it retracts the scapula, bracing back the shoulder. With the shoulder fixed, trapezius may bend the head and neck backwards and laterally.</li><li>• Option B) Trapezius - I</li><li>• Option D) Supraspinatus - Supraspinatus is innervated by the suprascapular nerve, C5 and 6. supraspinatus initiates abduction of the shoulder and assists deltoid in abduction. As part of the rotator cuff, supraspinatus helps to stabilize the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa during movements of the glenohumeral joint.</li><li>• Option D) Supraspinatus -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The serratus anterior muscle is crucial for keeping the scapula flat against the rib cage. Damage to the long thoracic nerve can lead to a winged scapula, a distinct protrusion of the scapula away from the ribcage, commonly exacerbated by overhead activities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with symptoms of fatigue, with smear showing macrocytosis. Evaluation showed normal B12 and Methylmalonate levels and elevated homocysteine levels. What is the appropriate management? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treatment with B12, folate supplements", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Folate therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron supplementation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Folate, B1 therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Folate therapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with macrocytosis, normal B12 and MMA levels, and elevated homocysteine levels, folate deficiency is the most likely diagnosis, and folate therapy is the appropriate management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which murmur is depicted in the image below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "End diastolic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pan systolic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mid systolic", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mid diastolic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mid systolic", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-200.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Mid systolic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mid systolic murmurs are characterized by a crescendo-decrescendo pattern occurring between the first and second heart sounds. They are most commonly associated with conditions that impair the flow through the major valves during systole, such as aortic or pulmonary stenosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient developed loose stools 6 hours after consuming fried rice. He had 20 episodes of watery stools per day with gradual reduction of urinary frequency. What lab values are consistent with this patient's physiology? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BUN/Cr &gt;40:1, Urine Na &lt;40, FeNa &lt;1, urine osmolarity &gt;500", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BUN:Cr &gt;40:1, Urinary Na &lt;20, FeNa &lt;1, Urine osm &gt;250", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BUN:Cr &gt;20:1, Urinary Na &lt;20, FeNa &lt;1, Urine Osm &gt;250", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BUN:Cr &gt;20:1, Urinary Na &lt;20, FeNa &lt;1, Urine Osm &gt;500", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. BUN:Cr >20:1, Urinary Na <20, FeNa <1, Urine Osm >500", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-164449.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida presents with labour pain and on per vaginal examination her cervix is 7 cm dilated and fully effaced. What stage of labour is she in? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acceleration phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Latent phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deceleration phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase of maximum slope", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Phase of maximum slope", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/untitled-213.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Phase of maximum slope</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The phase of maximum slope in labor is characterized by rapid cervical dilation, typically occurring between 4-9 cm.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition, pg- 433, 442-43</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition, pg- 433, 442-43</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl presents to the OPD with a history of primary amenorrhea and cyclical pain. Perineal examination reveals a bulge protruding from the vagina and is shown as below. Identify the cause of this presentation: (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transverse septum in the proximal vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complete vaginal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Imperforate hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical agenesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Imperforate hymen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/790.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Imperforate hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Imperforate hymen causes primary amenorrhea and cyclical abdominal pain, diagnosed by the presence of a bulging bluish vaginal membrane on examination and confirmed by pelvic ultrasound. Treatment involves a cruciate incision on the hymen.</li><li>➤ Imperforate hymen causes primary amenorrhea and cyclical abdominal pain, diagnosed by the presence of a bulging bluish vaginal membrane on examination and confirmed by pelvic ultrasound. Treatment involves a cruciate incision on the hymen.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 450, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 450, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with anal discharge. On examination there is no pain. The picture is as shown below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anal abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemorrhoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anal Fissure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fistula-in-Ano", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fistula-in-Ano", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture936.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-132213.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fistula in Ano</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A fistula-in-Ano is characterized by an epithelial-lined tract connecting the anal canal to the perianal skin, commonly resulting from an anorectal abscess and presenting with skin irritation, constant throbbing pain, and anal discharge.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument shown in the image below: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allis Forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sponge holder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Babcock forceps", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doyen Retractor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Babcock forceps", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/17_8RH6yAU.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-132914.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Babcock forceps</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Babcock Forceps are non-perforating forceps used to grasp delicate tissues such as the intestines and fallopian tubes during surgical procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man presented to the hospital with symptoms of nausea, vomiting and fever. He was diagnosed with appendicitis and posted for emergency appendectomy. Identify the incidental finding found intra-operatively and shown in the figure below. (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intussusception", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meckel’s diverticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diverticulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Meckel’s diverticulum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/20_Lx3lYzx.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Meckel’s diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meckel's diverticulum is a common congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract, often found incidentally during surgeries like appendectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following fluid is avoided in Intracranial Head Injury? (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5% dextrose", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertonic solution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 5% dextrose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 5% dextrose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypotonic solutions like 5% dextrose should be avoided in patients with intracranial head injuries to prevent exacerbating cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rice water stools are characteristic feature of: (FMGE DECEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shigella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cholera", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cholera", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cholera</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rice water stools are characteristic of cholera, which is caused by the cholera toxin leading to severe watery diarrhea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Total-body folate in the adult is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "∼ 10 mg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "∼ 20 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "∼ 30 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "∼ 40 mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ∼ 10 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Training is given to an ANM worker. Now you have to check her ability to do immunization. You are the medical officer. She is having cotton, lunch box and syringe-needle after immunization of a child. Which of the following is true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syringe without needle in translucent White container", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Used Vial in translucent White container", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cotton swab in Yellow bag", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Food waste in Blue box", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cotton swab in Yellow bag", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cotton swab in Yellow bag</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• The yellow bin receives human/animal wastes, lab wastes, cytotoxic drugs, expired drugs, cotton swabs, soiled linen, blood bag etc.</li><li>• The red container receives rubber tubes, IV tubes, syringes, urine bags etc.</li><li>• The blue container receives glassware, orthopedic implants, pacemakers etc.</li><li>• The white container is a puncture proof container that receives sharps likes needles etc.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sample Registration system includes all of the following except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maternal Mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infant Mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Birth rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. E. All of the above</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When reviewing the effectiveness of a diagnostic test, a healthcare analyst examines how the prevalence of a disease influences certain test metrics. Which metric is most affected by changes in the disease's prevalence? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positive predictive value", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Accuracy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Positive predictive value", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-165057.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Positive predictive value</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sensitivity = a/a + b Specificity = c/c + d Positive Predictive Value (PPV) = a/a + c Negative Predictive value = d/d + b Positive Predictive Value is dependent on: Sensitivity Specificity Prevalence</li><li>➤ Sensitivity = a/a + b</li><li>➤ Specificity = c/c + d</li><li>➤ Positive Predictive Value (PPV) = a/a + c</li><li>➤ Negative Predictive value = d/d + b</li><li>➤ Positive Predictive Value is dependent on: Sensitivity Specificity Prevalence</li><li>➤ Sensitivity Specificity Prevalence</li><li>➤ Sensitivity</li><li>➤ Specificity</li><li>➤ Prevalence</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a study assessing hypertension management techniques, 200 patients are divided into two groups: one receiving medication and the other undergoing lifestyle changes. After three months, blood pressure levels are compared. Which statistical test is most suitable for evaluating the differences in average blood pressure between these two independent groups? (FMGE DEC 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paired Student’s T test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unpaired Student’s T test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fischer test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chi-Square test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Unpaired Student’s T test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-180256.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Unpaired Student’s T test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who suffered from a stroke and requires long term mechanical ventilation undergoes a procedure to create a secure opening in his airway as shown in the picture below. Identify the procedure:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracheostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thoracotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radical neck dissection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tracheostomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/15_aHDJosO.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Tracheostomy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-year-old child, 17 kg child presents with watery diarrhea since 2 days. He is very fatigued and unable to feed. He is admitted to the hospital for the same. What is the amount of maintenance fluid required in 24 hours?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1000 ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1700 ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1350 ml", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2000 ml", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1350 ml", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1350 ml</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby born yesterday has not yet passed meconium. The mother is very concerned and she approaches the pediatrician. The doctor reassures her and tells her to report to him if the baby has not passed meconium till _____ hours after birth?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "48 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "72 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 48 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 48 hours</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 63-year-old with restricted ambulation and prolonged bed rest due to a recent hip injury presented with severe pain in right leg below the knee. On examination there is severe discoloration of calf on the right leg with significant swelling as shown in the image. What is the clinical diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute lymphangitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superficial migratory thrombophlebitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deep vein thrombosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Milroy disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Deep vein thrombosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/32_WqhTRMo.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Deep vein thrombosis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A cricket player was hit on the head with the cricket ball and was fine and then collapsed suddenly. He woke up to play the match brilliantly but was later found unconscious in the dressing room. Which of the following is correct about this presentation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subdural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cortical venous thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sub arachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extradural hemorrhage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Extradural hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Image shows below origin from which of the following cells?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "LYMPHOCYTES", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NK cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CD8 T cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. B cells", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/17_HM4qQWF.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. B cells</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After which phase of clinical trials, a new drug is introduced in the market?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phase 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Phase 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Phase 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lactating woman came to OPD 6 weeks after delivery for check-up and to get advice for the Contraception, which of the following is not advised?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Combined OCP", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Norplant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IUCD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mini pills", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Combined OCP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Combined OCP</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A low socio-economic female worker who is 22 years-old presents within 8 hours of sexual assault on the 13 th day of cycle and asked for emergency contraception. What will be the best advice for the patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LNG 1.5 milligram", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Misoprostol 800 mcg stat", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mifepristone 3 doses", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "OCP from 1 st day of next cycle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LNG 1.5 milligram", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. LNG 1.5 milligram</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Contraindication of the device from the following image includes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Breast feeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monogamous", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PID", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. PID", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-6.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. PID</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with an IQ level of 55, He is having which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mild MR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Moderate MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Profound MR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mild MR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Mild MR</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Used to prevent Covid-19 among health workers, Relative risk for two vaccines, Relative risk for two Vaccines A and B is 0.5 and 2.0 respectively. Identify the graph(s) which represent them correctly?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A &amp; B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A &amp; C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A & B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-12.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A &amp; B</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A bed ridden patient developed fever and pedal edema. On examination there is calf tenderness which is aggravated on squeezing the calf. What could be the diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cellulitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep vein thrombosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Varicose veins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calf sprain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Deep vein thrombosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Deep vein thrombosis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the congenital syndrome shown in the picture below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spondylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disc prolapse", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klippel Feil Syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dislocation of scapula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Klippel Feil Syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/9_xHgJuVN.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Klippel Feil Syndrome</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the comorbidity this patient is suffering from?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diabetes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diabetes", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/18_DFq1Wxb.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Diabetes</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy falls down and hurts his knee. He presents with hemarthrosis as shown in the image below. Deficiency of which coagulation factor can lead to hemarthrosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factor XIII", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor IX", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thrombocytopenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factor VIII deficiency", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Factor VIII deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/27_tDGDyp0.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Factor VIII deficiency</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "This is the Xray of a patient post central line insertion now presenting with respiratory distress. What is the management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left sided ICD insertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right sided ICD insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conservative management", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emergency thoracotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Left sided ICD insertion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/28_m9Bs78Q.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Left sided ICD insertion</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 249 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 250</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge Dec 2021 2021 12 12 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 250</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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( FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypercarbia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase in 2,3-DPG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/27/fmg-physio-11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alkalosis will shift the Oxygen-Hb dissociation curve to the left factors responsible for shifting the curve right</li><li>➤ Hypoxia Hypercarbia Decrease in pH (acidosis) Increase in temperature Increased 2,3-DPG</li><li>➤ Hypoxia</li><li>➤ Hypercarbia</li><li>➤ Decrease in pH (acidosis)</li><li>➤ Increase in temperature</li><li>➤ Increased 2,3-DPG</li><li>➤ Factors responsible for shifting the curve left</li><li>➤ Increase in pH (alkalosis) Decrease in PCO2 2,3-DPG Temperature HbF Carbon Monoxide</li><li>➤ Increase in pH (alkalosis)</li><li>➤ Decrease in PCO2 2,3-DPG Temperature HbF Carbon Monoxide</li><li>➤ 2,3-DPG Temperature HbF Carbon Monoxide</li><li>➤ 2,3-DPG</li><li>➤ Temperature</li><li>➤ HbF</li><li>➤ Carbon Monoxide</li><li>➤ Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is shown below</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to OPD with complaints of diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia. It was also found that he was a maize eater. Which of the following could be most probably deficient? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biotin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Niacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pellagra, resulting from niacin deficiency, manifests as the triad (3Ds) of symptoms: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Niacin deficiency can occur in individuals with diets heavily reliant on maize (corn), which may contain niacin in a form less bioavailable to humans.</li><li>➤ Pellagra, resulting from niacin deficiency, manifests as the triad (3Ds) of symptoms:</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 542</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 542</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the axis of this ECG? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Northwest", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-125234.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-133005.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Right</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Right axis deviation on an ECG is characterized by a negative QRS complex in lead I and a positive QRS complex in lead aVF, indicating an axis of more than +90 degrees.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the heart chamber marked in the given CT image. (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right atrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right ventricle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left ventricle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left atrium", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Left atrium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_165.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_166.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Left atrium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The posterior-most heart chamber is left atrium which is marked in this image. The pulmonary veins are draining in the LA which is an additional clue.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The left atrium is typically situated posterior to the other cardiac chambers in axial sections of the chest. Right Ventricle (RV) located anteriorly and typically appears triangular in transverse sections. Left Ventricle (LV) situated next to the left atrium but is more anterior and has a thicker wall, responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body.</li><li>➤ The left atrium is typically situated posterior to the other cardiac chambers in axial sections of the chest.</li><li>➤ Right Ventricle (RV) located anteriorly and typically appears triangular in transverse sections.</li><li>➤ Left Ventricle (LV) situated next to the left atrium but is more anterior and has a thicker wall, responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following enzyme deficiency is most likely to cause Classical Galactosemia in infants: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GALT (Galactose-1-phosphate Uridyl Transferase)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Galactokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UDP-galactose -4- Epimerase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucose-6-phosphatase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GALT (Galactose-1-phosphate Uridyl Transferase)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/22/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GALT (Galactose-1-phosphate Uridyl Transferase)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deficiency of GALT (Galactose-1-phosphate Uridyl Transferase) leads to the accumulation of toxic intermediates, including galactose-1-phosphate, causing various symptoms such as cataract, jaundice, hepatomegaly, mental retardation and oil drop cataract.</li><li>➤ GALT (Galactose-1-phosphate Uridyl Transferase)</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 198</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 198</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If all extraocular muscles are paralysed, where would you suspect the lesion? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frontal eye field", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cerebral surface", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brainstem", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spinal cord", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Brainstem", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Brainstem</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paralysis of all extraocular muscles typically indicates a brainstem lesion affecting cranial nerve nuclei.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cannon ball metastasis is seen due to which of the following? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Choriocarcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Choriocarcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-298.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Choriocarcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cannon ball metastasis in the lungs is commonly seen in cases of choriocarcinoma, characterized by multiple large, round nodules in both lungs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old lady recovered from COVID-19 infection 6 months ago. She presented to OPD with complaints of excessive sweating, palpitations and the fear that she is about to die. The physical examination and blood investigations are normal. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PTSD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Panic disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mania", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Panic disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Panic disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Panic disorder involves recurrent and unexpected panic attacks, often accompanied by physiological symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 401</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A worried mother brought her 6-year-old unimmunized child to the ER with complaints of fever, cough, and shortness of breath. On examination, a pseudo membrane was noted over the tonsils which bleed on trying to remove and a bull-neck appearance of the neck. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infectious mononucleosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tonsillitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Diphtheria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102083.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Diphtheria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Diphtheria is a serious bacterial infection that requires immediate medical attention and treatment. The presence of a bleeding pseudo membrane and severe neck swelling in an unimmunized child is highly indicative of this condition, emphasizing the importance of vaccination and early intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple who recently welcomed their first child into their home consulted a family therapist to navigate this new chapter in their lives. According to standard family life cycle theory, which stage is this family entering? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Formation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Expansion/Extension", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dissolution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Expansion/Extension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Expansion / Extension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Family Cycle has SIX phases; each phase begins with the following events as described below.</li><li>➤ Formation = Marriage of the husband and wife till Birth of the first child Extension = Birth of the first child till Birth of the last child Complete extension = Birth of the last child till First child moving out of the home Contraction = First child moving out of the home of his/her parents till All the children moving out Complete Contraction = All the children moving out of their parents’ home till Death of one parent. Dissolution = Death of one parent till Death of the other spouse (Extinction)</li><li>➤ Formation = Marriage of the husband and wife till Birth of the first child</li><li>➤ Extension = Birth of the first child till Birth of the last child</li><li>➤ Complete extension = Birth of the last child till First child moving out of the home</li><li>➤ Contraction = First child moving out of the home of his/her parents till All the children moving out</li><li>➤ Complete Contraction = All the children moving out of their parents’ home till Death of one parent.</li><li>➤ Dissolution = Death of one parent till Death of the other spouse (Extinction)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At what level does the spinal cord end in infants? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "L3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "L4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. L3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-210.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. L3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The spinal cord in infants usually ends at the L3 vertebral level. This information is important especially during procedures such as lumbar punctures (spinal taps), where the needle is inserted below the level of the spinal cord to obtain cerebrospinal fluid.</li><li>• As an individual grows, the vertebral column lengthens, and the spinal cord appears to \"ascend\" within the vertebral canal, which is why, in adults, the spinal cord typically ends around the L1-L2 vertebral level.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A) L1 : The L1 vertebra is located slightly above the level where the spinal cord typically ends in infants. In most adults, the spinal cord typically extends only to the level of the first or second lumbar vertebra (L1-L2).</li><li>• Option A) L1</li><li>• Option B) L2 : Similar to the L1 vertebra, the L2 vertebra is also located above the typical level where the spinal cord ends in infants.</li><li>• Option B)</li><li>• L2</li><li>• Option D) L4 : The L4 vertebra is located below the typical level where the spinal cord ends in infants.</li><li>• Option D)</li><li>• L4</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In infants, the termination of the spinal cord is at L3 following which the cord moves up with age. In adults, the termination of the spinal cord is at L1 (Gray’s anatomy update 41 st &amp; 42 nd edition)</li><li>➤ In infants, the termination of the spinal cord is at L3 following which the cord moves up with age.</li><li>➤ In adults, the termination of the spinal cord is at L1 (Gray’s anatomy update 41 st &amp; 42 nd edition)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child presents to the clinic with a high fever, difficulty swallowing, and a visibly swollen neck. The child's parents mention that the symptoms started with a sore throat a few days ago. On physical examination, the child has a thick grayish-white membrane covering the tonsils and posterior pharynx, extending into the nasopharynx. The neck is noticeably swollen, giving it a \"bull neck\" appearance. Based on these findings, which causative organism is most likely responsible for this presentation? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corynebacterium diphtheria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Corynebacterium ulcerans", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corynebacterium minutissimum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corynebacterium tenuis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Corynebacterium diphtheria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/09/untitled-1255.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Corynebacterium diphtheria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the causative organism of diphtheria, characterized by the formation of a grayish-white pseudomembrane in the throat, high fever, and a swollen neck (bull neck). Early recognition and treatment are critical to managing this potentially life-threatening infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady was incidentally diagnosed with a 0.5 cm solid mass in her Gall Bladder on USG which is immobile and it is diagnosed as a gall bladder polyp. She is asymptomatic. What is the next step in the management? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reassure the patient and follow up", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Open Cholecystectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CECT Abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Reassure the patient and follow up", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-97.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Reassure the patient and follow up</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For an asymptomatic gallbladder polyp smaller than 1 cm, the appropriate management is to reassure the patient and arrange regular follow-up to monitor for any changes in the polyp size or characteristics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with symptoms below, the site of lesion as shown in the image. (FMGE DECEMBER 2021) Shows the site of the lesion Has loss of proprioception, vibration, and discriminative touch on the same side Has loss of pain and temperature on the contralateral side. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weber's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dejerine syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brown Squared syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wallenberg syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Brown Squared syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/05/untitled-201.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Brown Squared syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brown-Séquard syndrome is characterized by a unique pattern of neurological deficits resulting from hemisection of the spinal cord, leading to ipsilateral proprioceptive and motor deficits and contralateral pain and temperature loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a rural community healthcare initiative, a specific type of health worker plays a crucial role. These workers are usually women from the village they serve, aged 25 to 45, known for their effective communication skills, and are tasked with bridging the gap between the community and healthcare services. What is the official title given to these health workers? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multipurpose Worker", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Accredited social health worker", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anganwadi worker", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dai/Trained birth assistant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Accredited social health worker", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Accredited social health worker</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ASHAs are crucial in rural health systems for their role in primary healthcare outreach, education, and community engagement, making healthcare more accessible and effective at the grassroots level.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Safety pin appearance is seen in: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemophilus influenza", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Burkholderia pseudomallei", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudomonas aeroginosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Burkholderia cepacian", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Burkholderia pseudomallei", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Burkholderia pseudomallei</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The safety pin appearance on Gram stain is a distinctive feature of Burkholderia pseudomallei, the causative agent of melioidosis. Recognizing this staining pattern can aid in the rapid identification and diagnosis of this potentially serious infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male laborer, recently enrolled in the Employee State Insurance (ESI) scheme, visits a clinic with a chronic cough. He consults a registered medical practitioner under the ESI scheme and inquires about the benefits he can receive. What type of service is the practitioner most likely able to provide to this beneficiary?(FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct medical benefit", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indirect medical benefit", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sickness benefit", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extended sickness benefit", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Indirect medical benefit", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Indirect medical benefit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Employees State Insurance (ESI)</li><li>➤ Employees State Insurance (ESI)</li><li>➤ It comes under the Ministry of Labour. It is not applicable for Defence Mining and Railway.</li><li>➤ People with a monthly wage of less than Rs.21000/month are eligible to get the benefits.</li><li>➤ The benefits include the following:</li><li>➤ Direct medical benefit in the form of ESI hospitals and dispensaries. Sickness benefit (70% wages for 91 days or 3 months) If Extended, it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females) Disablement benefit is 90% wages depending on temporary or permanent disability Dependent’s benefit is also 90% Indirect Medical Benefit by private medical practitioners through panel system in the rural areas (Insurance medical practitioners). Under ESI Funeral expense 15,000 is also given</li><li>➤ Direct medical benefit in the form of ESI hospitals and dispensaries.</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit (70% wages for 91 days or 3 months) If Extended, it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ If Extended, it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ If Extended, it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years)</li><li>➤ Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ Disablement benefit is 90% wages depending on temporary or permanent disability</li><li>➤ Dependent’s benefit is also 90% Indirect Medical Benefit by private medical practitioners through panel system in the rural areas (Insurance medical practitioners). Under ESI Funeral expense 15,000 is also given</li><li>➤ Indirect Medical Benefit by private medical practitioners through panel system in the rural areas (Insurance medical practitioners). Under ESI Funeral expense 15,000 is also given</li><li>➤ Indirect Medical Benefit by private medical practitioners through panel system in the rural areas (Insurance medical practitioners).</li><li>➤ Under ESI Funeral expense 15,000 is also given</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with herniation of intestinal loop which passes along the spermatic cord and reaches till scrotum. Identify the pathology. (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Femoral hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Direct inguinal hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indirect inguinal hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paraumbilical hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Indirect inguinal hernia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Indirect inguinal hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An indirect inguinal hernia is characterized by herniation through the deep inguinal ring, traveling along the inguinal canal with the spermatic cord, and potentially extending into the scrotum. This type of hernia is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and distinct from other types of hernias based on its pathway and location.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn presented to the NICU with respiratory distress and meconium discharge from the umbilicus. The condition occurs due to the patency of which of the following structures? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mesonephric duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Allantois", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urachus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitello intestinal duct", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vitello intestinal duct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_fmge-anat-21.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Vitello intestinal duct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presence of meconium discharge at the umbilicus is suggestive of vitelline fistula, which occurs due to patent vitelline duct, which connects the primitive gut to the yolk sac.</li><li>• The presence of meconium discharge at the umbilicus is suggestive of vitelline fistula, which occurs due to patent vitelline duct, which connects the primitive gut to the yolk sac.</li><li>• The condition described, where a newborn presents with respiratory distress and meconium discharge from the umbilicus, is known as Meconium Peritonitis . Meconium is the earliest stool of a newborn, and its presence outside of the digestive tract is abnormal and can indicate a problem in the fetal development of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.The condition occurs due to the patency (failure to close) of the Vitellointestinal (Vitelline) Duct .</li><li>• Meconium Peritonitis</li><li>• Vitellointestinal (Vitelline) Duct</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Mesonephric Duct (Wolffian Duct) : The mesonephric duct is part of the early urinary and reproductive systems in the developing embryo. It plays a role in the formation of the male reproductive system but is not associated with meconium discharge from the umbilicus.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Mesonephric Duct (Wolffian Duct)</li><li>• Option B. Allantois : The allantois is a fetal structure that plays a role in the formation of the urinary bladder. It normally obliterates and becomes a ligament without causing meconium discharge from the umbilicus.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Allantois</li><li>• Option C. Urachus : The urachus is a remnant of a canal that connects the bladder to the umbilicus during fetal development. Normally, the urachus obliterates before birth, forming a fibrous cord known as the median umbilical ligament. Failure of the urachus to close can lead to a condition called urachal anomalies, but it does not typically result in meconium discharge from the umbilicus.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Urachus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitellointestinal (Vitelline) Duct is a narrow tube that connects the developing embryo's midgut to the yolk sac. Normally, it obliterates during fetal development. When it fails to close properly, it can lead to the persistence of a tubular structure known as a Meckel's diverticulum. This diverticulum may contain gastric or intestinal mucosa and can be a source of complications, including meconium discharge from the umbilicus.</li><li>➤ Vitellointestinal (Vitelline) Duct</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old girl presented with cyclical abdominal pain and a midline hypogastric lump. She has not achieved menarche yet. The per vaginal examination is shown below and a bluish swelling is seen along with it. What is the likely cause of her condition? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bartholin cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transverse vaginal septum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Imperforate hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometrioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Imperforate hymen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/790_oG3DaTj.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Imperforate hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Primary amenorrhea with cyclical pain is suggestive of an obstructive cause. O/e a bulge seen protruding from the vagina is suggestive of an imperforate hymen. This classically presents as a bluish bulge distending the hymen in girls with primary amenorrhea The bulge (hamatocolpos) is felt along the entire length of the vagina on doing a PR examination Treatment: Cruciate incision and drainage of hamatocolpos is done.</li><li>• Primary amenorrhea with cyclical pain is suggestive of an obstructive cause.</li><li>• O/e a bulge seen protruding from the vagina is suggestive of an imperforate hymen.</li><li>• This classically presents as a bluish bulge distending the hymen in girls with primary amenorrhea</li><li>• The bulge (hamatocolpos) is felt along the entire length of the vagina on doing a PR examination</li><li>• Treatment: Cruciate incision and drainage of hamatocolpos is done.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bartholin cyst : There is a blockage of the Bartholin’s duct resulting in accumulation of secretions, presents as a unilateral swelling over the posterior part of labia majora extending into minora. It is treated by marsupialization.</li><li>• Option A. Bartholin cyst</li><li>• Option B. Transverse vaginal septum : It occurs due to defective fusion and canalization of the mullerian duct and urogenital sinus. It may vary in thickness and location. Treatment is excision. Presenting symptoms may be similar to imperforate hymen.</li><li>• Option B. Transverse vaginal septum</li><li>• Option D. Endometrioma : Ovarian endometriosis results in the formation of ovarian endometriotic cysts referred to as endometrioma Or chocolate cysts. Treatment is surgical excision.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Endometrioma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An imperforate hymen in a girl with primary amenorrhea and cyclical abdominal pain presents as a bluish bulge distending the hymen, treated with a cruciate incision.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 450,</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 450,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mother while giving a bath to her 9-day old baby noticed that the scrotum of the baby is empty. What treatment should be prescribed to this baby? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wait and watch for spontaneous resolution", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give GnRH for 1 month, if testis does not descend down on its own, then do surgery before 2years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give GnRH for 1 month, if testis does not descend down on its own, then do surgery before 5 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Do immediate Surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wait and watch for spontaneous resolution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wait and watch for spontaneous resolution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a newborn with undescended testis, the initial management is to wait and monitor for spontaneous descent within the first few months of life. If the testis has not descended by 3-6 months, further evaluation and potential intervention are considered.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A vegetarian patient presents with anemia &amp; hypersegmented neutrophil. The most probable diagnosis is: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anemia of chronic disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Megaloblastic anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sideroblastic anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Megaloblastic anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/22/picture1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Megaloblastic anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In vegetarian individuals, vitamin B12 deficiency is more common as vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal products. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow. This is because B12 is required for nucleic acid synthesis so, in B12 deficiency, the nucleus is not able to divide and but cell will keep growing in size causing formation of megaloblasts.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 657</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 657</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The subcellular organelle which is associated with killing viruses &amp; bacteria is: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peroxisome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lysosome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Golgi apparatus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lysosome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lysosome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain enzymes capable of breaking down all types of biological polymers – proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. They are key to the intracellular degradation process. When a cell engulfs a virus or bacterium (through phagocytosis), the resulting phagosome fuses with a lysosome, where the engulfed material is degraded and rendered harmless.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 482</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 482</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is used for treatment of Pregnancy Induced Hypertension?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha methyl dopa", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lisinopril", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydralazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Telmisartan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Alpha methyl dopa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Alpha methyl dopa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For managing hypertension during pregnancy, Alpha Methyl dopa is considered a safe and effective first-line treatment. Its safety profile during pregnancy is well-documented compared to other antihypertensive agents that carry significant risks of fetal harm. This makes it a preferred choice in clinical practice to ensure both maternal and fetal well-being.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following features are NOT associated with the condition shown in the image below? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wickham's striae", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidermal acanthosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Munro micro abscesses", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colloid bodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Munro micro abscesses", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd21.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd24.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-113157.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd25.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Munro micro abscesses</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Munro microabscesses are specific to Psoriasis and do not occur in Lichen Planus, which instead presents with a unique combination of Wickham's striae, hyperkeratosis, and a distinctive histological appearance with saw-toothed rete ridges and band-like infiltrates.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 32.36, 32.38, 34.42, 35.7, 35.8, 37.3, 37.12, 37.14, 37.14</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old female presented to oncologist with breast lump. On examination and investigations, breast cancer was diagnosed. Echocardiography of the patient shows ejection fraction of 25%. Which of the following drug will you avoid in this patient? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epirubicin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Irinotecan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epirubicin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Epirubicin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In managing breast cancer in patients with compromised cardiac function, such as a significantly reduced ejection fraction, it is crucial to select chemotherapeutic agents that minimize the risk of exacerbating heart conditions. Epirubicin, due to its potential for severe cardiotoxicity, should be avoided in favor of other agents that do not significantly impact cardiac health. In such scenarios, alternative treatments or the use of cardioprotective agents like dexrazoxane may be considered if anthracyclines are necessary.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old primi with a history of 3 months of amenorrhea undergoes USG. The USG done is suggestive of? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydatidiform mole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple Renal Cysts in the fetus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oligohydramnios", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydatidiform mole", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/997.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hydatidiform mole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ultrasound appearance of a complete molar pregnancy typically shows a \"snowstorm\" pattern, which is characteristic of a hydatidiform mole.</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 225</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 225</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gamma radiation is used for sterilization of: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syringes, needles and catheters", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contaminated clothes and animal carcasses", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gloves and aprons", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bacterial vaccines and intravenous solutions", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Syringes, needles and catheters", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Syringes, needles and catheters</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gamma radiation is an effective sterilization method for medical devices like syringes, needles, and catheters due to its deep penetration and ability to destroy pathogens without raising temperatures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-day postpartum mother comes in the hospital with history of pain, red, fluctuant, 2 cm mass in the breast. USG shows fluid collection. What will you do in the management of this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibiotics and follow-up after 3days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incision and Drainage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hot fomentation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Empty the breasts every 3 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Incision and Drainage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture5_vaSo1lO.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Incision and Drainage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a lactating mother with a confirmed breast abscess, the definitive treatment is incision and drainage to alleviate pain and resolve the infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. Sanjay Gupta 45-year-old male presented to OPD with acute onset of fever, weight loss, fatigue and pallor. CBC shows: HB – 7gm/dl, TLC-13000/cumm, Platelet count- 1Lakh/cumm. On physical examination hepatosplenomegaly noted. Bone marrow examination shows M: E ratio is increased. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aplastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute Leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CML", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leukemoid reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute Leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acute Leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute leukemia can present with pancytopenia and splenomegaly Aplastic anemia presents with pancytopenia, there is no splenomegaly. Leukemoid reaction presents with high level of leukocytosis secondary to severe systemic inflammation. CML presents with high TLC count but has insidious onset.</li><li>➤ Acute leukemia can present with pancytopenia and splenomegaly</li><li>➤ Aplastic anemia presents with pancytopenia, there is no splenomegaly.</li><li>➤ Aplastic anemia presents with pancytopenia, there is no splenomegaly.</li><li>➤ Leukemoid reaction presents with high level of leukocytosis secondary to severe systemic inflammation.</li><li>➤ Leukemoid reaction</li><li>➤ CML presents with high TLC count but has insidious onset.</li><li>➤ CML</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man was working in a field and he suddenly collapsed on a hot summer afternoon. On examination, there were no physical signs of dehydration but radial pulse was present. His serum electrolytes level was normal. The doctor found that the body temperature was 106 degrees Fahrenheit. Which of the following should be given as first aid in this case? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inject epinephrine immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cover with hot damp sheets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cover with cool damp sheets", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start CPR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cover with cool damp sheets", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cover with cool damp sheets</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cooling measures, like covering with cool damp sheets, are crucial in the first aid for heat stroke.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man comes with complaints of fever and increasing fatigue for the past week. On examination, he is febrile, hypotensive and tachycardic. The findings of microscopic examination of his peripheral blood smear are given below. What is the causative agent? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasmodium vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasmodium falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasmodium ovale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasmodium malariae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Plasmodium falciparum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Plasmodium falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple ring forms in red blood cells on a peripheral blood smear are characteristic of Plasmodium falciparum infection, which causes the most severe form of malaria. It is crucial to identify and treat P. falciparum promptly due to its potential for causing severe and life-threatening complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What appearance seen on Chest Xray of a patient of silicosis who is having respiratory difficulty? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Honey comb appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Starry Sky appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tram Track appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Snow storm appearance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Snow storm appearance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/picture2_b08hUHN.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Snow storm appearance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"snow storm\" appearance on a chest X-ray is characteristic of silicosis, the most common occupational lung disease caused by inhalation of silica particles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the emergency following a car accident. His Blood Pressure is 90/60 mm of Hg, His Glasgow coma scale is 9. He has suffered injuries to the abdominal viscera. The least likely cause of hypovolemia in this patient is? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Splenic injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subdural hematoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retroperitoneal hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subdural hematoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-94.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Subdural hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subdural hematoma, characterized by bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, is least likely to cause hypovolemia compared to splenic injury, retroperitoneal hematoma, or hemothorax</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient from Uttar Pradesh is diagnosed with tumor in abdomen and got operated. On histopathological examinations tumor was found to be originated from all three germ layers. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Teratoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anus material", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Teratoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-311.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Teratoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Teratomas originate from all three germ layers and can be found in the gonads or extragonadal sites such as the mediastinum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with sudden onset increased shortness of breath. His ABG analysis reveals pH - 7.27, pCO2 - 60 mm Hg, pO2 - 52 mmHg, and HCO3 - 27 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Invasive positive pressure ventilation (IPPV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung Volume reduction surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NIPPV is indicated for acute exacerbations of COPD with respiratory acidosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child is suffering from constipation. Despite giving stool softeners the child is able to pass only one stool in a week. There is a history of delayed passage of meconium after 48 hours at birth. What initial management will you prescribe for this child? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ask the mother to give high fiber diet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plain X-ray of the abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium enema and Anorectal manometry", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgical treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Barium enema and Anorectal manometry", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-96.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Barium enema and Anorectal manometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Initial management of suspected Hirschsprung’s disease involves confirming the diagnosis with a Barium enema and Anorectal manometry.</li><li>➤ Surgeries: Soave, Duhamel and Swenson procedures are done.</li><li>➤ Surgeries:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the test shown in the image below: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Teichman test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Takayama’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barberio’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Benzidine test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Teichman test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/98.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111939.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111920_yWuWnRT.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111909_7Ky5fKZ.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111851.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Teichman test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The brownish-black rhombic crystals observed under the microscope are characteristic of the Teichmann test, which is a confirmatory test for the presence of blood stains.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ MICROCHEMICAL TESTS FOR SEMEN ( Both are presumptive tests)</li><li>➤ MICROCHEMICAL TESTS FOR SEMEN (</li><li>➤ 1) Florence test</li><li>➤ 1) Florence test</li><li>➤ Reagent: KI + I2 + H2O Component of semen detected: Coline (secreted from seminal vesicles) Shape of crystals: Dark Brown rhombic crystals of choline iodide (resemble hemin but larger than hemin crystals) as shown below</li><li>➤ Reagent: KI + I2 + H2O</li><li>➤ Component of semen detected: Coline (secreted from seminal vesicles)</li><li>➤ Shape of crystals: Dark Brown rhombic crystals of choline iodide (resemble hemin but larger than hemin crystals) as shown below</li><li>➤ 2) Barberio’s test</li><li>➤ 2) Barberio’s test</li><li>➤ Reagent: Picric Acid Component of semen detected: Spermine (secreted from prostate gland) Shape of crystals: Yellow needle shaped crystals of spermine picrate as shown below.</li><li>➤ Reagent: Picric Acid</li><li>➤ Component of semen detected: Spermine (secreted from prostate gland)</li><li>➤ Shape of crystals: Yellow needle shaped crystals of spermine picrate as shown below.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of oxygen delivery of the following device? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Photoelectric effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bernoulli effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Venturi effect", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Boyles law", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Venturi effect", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-122134.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-122226.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Venturi effect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Venturi mask utilizes the Venturi effect to deliver a precise and consistent concentration of oxygen by mixing ambient air with pure oxygen. This principle ensures the patient receives the required FiO2, crucial for managing specific respiratory conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with lesions as shown in the image below and later developed arthritis also. What is the treatment of choice for a patient who presented with the following findings? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycophenolate mofetil", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rituximab", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methotrexate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd33.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Methotrexate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for different types of psoriasis:</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for different types of psoriasis:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The fallopian tube is lined by? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Simple columnar epithelium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ciliated columnar epithelium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cuboidal epithelium with microvilli", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ciliated columnar epithelium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-324_Vc0YZpx.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-325.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ciliated columnar epithelium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The lining epithelium of the fallopian tube is a single layer of ciliated columnar epithelium. The fallopian tube, also known as the uterine tube or oviduct, is a crucial part of the female reproductive system responsible for transporting eggs from the ovaries to the uterus. It is lined by ciliated columnar epithelium .</li><li>• ciliated columnar epithelium</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Simple Columnar Epithelium : Simple columnar epithelium consists of a single layer of column-shaped cells. This type of epithelium is commonly found in various parts of the digestive tract, including the stomach and intestines, where it plays a role in absorption and secretion. However, it is not the lining of the fallopian tube.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Simple Columnar Epithelium</li><li>• Option B. Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium : Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is characterized by columnar cells that appear stratified due to variations in cell height and the presence of cilia on their apical surfaces. This type of epithelium is found in the respiratory tract, where the cilia help move mucus and foreign particles away from the lungs. It is not the lining of the fallopian tube.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium</li><li>• Option D. Cuboidal Epithelium with Microvilli : Cuboidal epithelium consists of cube-shaped cells and is found in various glands and ducts in the body. The presence of microvilli on the apical surface of cuboidal cells can enhance their absorptive capacity. However, this type of epithelium is not the lining of the fallopian tube. Top of Form</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Cuboidal Epithelium with Microvilli</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fallopian tube is indeed lined by ciliated columnar epithelium. This type of epithelium is specialized for its role in facilitating the movement of eggs (ova) from the ovaries toward the uterus.</li><li>➤ The cilia on the surface of the columnar cells create coordinated, wave-like movements that help transport the egg. Additionally, the secretions of these cells nourish and protect the egg.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following explains the role of sunlight in Vitamin D metabolism: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conversion of cholecalciferol to 25-OH cholecalciferol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conversion of 25-OH cholecalciferol to Calcitriol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conversion of 25-OH cholecalciferol to 24, 25 di-OH cholecalciferol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conversion of 7 dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Conversion of 7 dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/31/screenshot-2024-05-31-171305.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 498</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 498</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with carcinoma endometrium is treated with pelvic external beam irradiation to the whole pelvis. Which of the following organs is most radiosensitive in the pelvic region? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ovary", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bladder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ovary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ovary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most radiosensitive organ in the pelvic region is the ovary. This is because:</li><li>• The ovary has a low radiation tolerance level of 2-3 Gy. Age significantly impacts the radiation dose required to induce ovarian failure. Most women over the age of 40 can experience amenorrhea after a single dose of 3–4 Gy. In contrast, oogenesis in younger women is considerably less susceptible to radiation damage. The vagina, in comparison, is highly radio-resistant, with a tolerance dose of around 90 Gy.</li><li>• The ovary has a low radiation tolerance level of 2-3 Gy.</li><li>• Age significantly impacts the radiation dose required to induce ovarian failure. Most women over the age of 40 can experience amenorrhea after a single dose of 3–4 Gy. In contrast, oogenesis in younger women is considerably less susceptible to radiation damage.</li><li>• The vagina, in comparison, is highly radio-resistant, with a tolerance dose of around 90 Gy.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Vagina : This organ is highly radio-resistant, requiring doses up to 90 Gy.</li><li>• Option B. Vagina</li><li>• Option C. Bladder : While it is radiosensitive, its tolerance is higher compared to the ovary.</li><li>• Option C. Bladder</li><li>• Option D. Rectum : Similarly, the rectum is sensitive to radiation but has a higher tolerance dose compared to the ovary.</li><li>• Option D. Rectum</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ovary is the most radiosensitive organ in the pelvic region, with a radiation tolerance level of 2-3 Gy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta's textbook of Gynecology 6th edition pg 509</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta's textbook of Gynecology 6th edition pg 509</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an indication for expectant management in unruptured ectopic gestation? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Initial serum beta hCG level &lt; 200 mlU/mL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gestational sac size &gt;4 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asymptomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreasing beta hCG measurements", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gestational sac size >4 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gestational sac size &gt;4 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Expectant management of unruptured ectopic pregnancy is only suitable for clinically stable, asymptomatic women with specific criteria:</li><li>• Clinically stable with no pain. Serum βhCG &lt; 1000 IU/L. Tubal ectopic &lt; 35 mm with no visible heartbeat. Able to return for follow-up.</li><li>• Clinically stable with no pain.</li><li>• Serum βhCG &lt; 1000 IU/L.</li><li>• Tubal ectopic &lt; 35 mm with no visible heartbeat.</li><li>• Able to return for follow-up.</li><li>• Management involves repeating βhCG levels on days 2, 4, and 7 after the initial test. If βhCG levels drop ≥ 15% from previous values, continue weekly monitoring until a negative result. If values fall &lt; 15%, remain the same, or rise, review the condition and consider shifting to medical or surgical management.</li><li>• A gestational sac size &gt; 4 cm is not suitable for expectant management and typically requires surgical intervention.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Initial serum beta hCG level &lt; 200 mlU/mL: This can be considered for expectant management if other criteria are met.</li><li>• Option A. Initial serum beta hCG level &lt; 200 mlU/mL:</li><li>• Option C. Asymptomatic: Asymptomatic patients may be managed expectantly if other criteria are met.</li><li>• Option C. Asymptomatic:</li><li>• Option D. Decreasing beta hCG measurements: Decreasing levels indicate a non-viable pregnancy and can be managed expectantly if other criteria are met.</li><li>• Option D. Decreasing beta hCG measurements:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A gestational sac size greater than 4 cm in an unruptured ectopic pregnancy requires surgical intervention and is not suitable for expectant management.</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 216, page no 378, William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition, https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng126</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 216, page no 378, William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition, https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng126</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the rhythm in the following ECG: (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atrial Fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial Flutter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal Sinus Rhythm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "AV Block", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Normal Sinus Rhythm", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-125325.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Normal Sinus Rhythm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Normal sinus rhythm is indicated by regular rhythm, normal P waves, and consistent PR interval, confirming proper electrical conduction from the SA node through the heart.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glucagon activates all except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gluconeogenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lipolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ketone body synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glycolysis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glycolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Glycolysis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A school-going child presents with a history of recurrent upper respiratory tract infections, mouth breathing, and impaired hearing. On examination, a high arched palate is noted. What is the management of this condition? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tonsillectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenoidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myringotomy with grommet insertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102096.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In cases of adenoid hypertrophy with concurrent serous otitis media, combining adenoidectomy with grommet insertion provides a comprehensive approach, treating both the root cause and its secondary complications. This strategy ensures both immediate and long-term relief from the symptoms, promoting better respiratory and auditory health.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Menke’s kink hair disease is due to: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P53 defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Copper excess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Copper deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zinc deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Copper deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Copper deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Menkes disease, also known as Menkes syndrome, is a genetic disorder caused by impaired copper absorption and transport due to defect in ATP7A gene, resulting in copper deficiency.</li><li>➤ Menke’s kinky hair syndrome- Clinical features</li><li>➤ Menke’s kinky hair syndrome- Clinical features</li><li>➤ Grey depigmented hair : Tyrosinase (an oxidase) is affected as oxidases require Cu. Tyrosinase is required for synthesis of Melanin. so, melanin synthesis is decreased causing grey hair. Brittle kinky hair: As lysyl oxidase affected, so defective and weak collagen synthesis Decreased Cu in blood and urine Premature birth Hypotonia Growth retardation Mental retardation</li><li>➤ Grey depigmented hair : Tyrosinase (an oxidase) is affected as oxidases require Cu. Tyrosinase is required for synthesis of Melanin. so, melanin synthesis is decreased causing grey hair.</li><li>➤ Grey depigmented hair</li><li>➤ Brittle kinky hair: As lysyl oxidase affected, so defective and weak collagen synthesis</li><li>➤ Brittle kinky hair:</li><li>➤ Decreased Cu in blood and urine</li><li>➤ Premature birth</li><li>➤ Hypotonia</li><li>➤ Growth retardation</li><li>➤ Mental retardation</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 603</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 603</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The usage of the given device in the picture is? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysterosalpingography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measure the length of the uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Menstrual regulation/aspiration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Menstrual regulation/aspiration", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/994.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/mtp-1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/995.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Menstrual regulation/aspiration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is a Karman’s cannula used to evacuate products in a Dilatation and Evacuation (Used in surgical MTP or missed/ incomplete abortions) It is attached to the manual vacuum aspirator or an electrical suction apparatus Dilatation prior to the procedure can be done pharmacologically (misoprostol) or mechanically (Hegar’s dilator) Diameter of the suction cannula (Karman’s cannula) Corresponds to the POG End of procedure: No more material sucked out Gripping of cannula by the contracting uterus Grating sensation on all uterine walls Air bubbles seen</li><li>• This is a Karman’s cannula used to evacuate products in a Dilatation and Evacuation (Used in surgical MTP or missed/ incomplete abortions)</li><li>• It is attached to the manual vacuum aspirator or an electrical suction apparatus</li><li>• Dilatation prior to the procedure can be done pharmacologically (misoprostol) or mechanically (Hegar’s dilator)</li><li>• Diameter of the suction cannula (Karman’s cannula) Corresponds to the POG</li><li>• End of procedure: No more material sucked out Gripping of cannula by the contracting uterus Grating sensation on all uterine walls Air bubbles seen</li><li>• No more material sucked out Gripping of cannula by the contracting uterus Grating sensation on all uterine walls Air bubbles seen</li><li>• No more material sucked out</li><li>• Gripping of cannula by the contracting uterus</li><li>• Grating sensation on all uterine walls</li><li>• Air bubbles seen</li><li>• Image of a MVA Syringe with color coded Karman’s cannula attached</li><li>• In EVA: this common suction machine is used; with these color-coded Karma’s cannula</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hysterosalpingography : It is a radiographic test used to assess tubal patency and to assess tubal and uterine anatomy. Dye is instilled using specialized metallic HSG cannula such as the leech-Wilkinson cannula.</li><li>• Option A. Hysterosalpingography</li><li>• Option B. Measure the length of the uterus : Simpsons Uterine sound is used to measure the length of the uterus. It has markings for measurement and an angulation at the end for the uterocervical angle.</li><li>• Option B. Measure the length of the uterus</li><li>• Option C. Retraction : Various types of retractors may be used for retraction of tissues to improve the field of vision during surgery, such as c-shaped retractors. L shaped retractors, doyens retractor, Landon’s retractor, Deaver’s retractor etc.</li><li>• Option C. Retraction</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Karman's cannula is used for menstrual regulation or aspiration in procedures like Dilatation and Evacuation (D&amp;E) for surgical termination of pregnancy or managing missed/incomplete abortions.</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition page 646</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition page 646</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-years-old male has bruising under the eyes. Which of following vitamin deficiency leads to easy bruising and bleeding gums?(FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin C is essential for the synthesis of collagen, a structural protein that helps maintain the integrity of blood vessels and connective tissues. Deficiency in vitamin C leads to weakened blood vessels, increased capillary fragility, and impaired wound healing, resulting in easy bruising and bleeding gums.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 548</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 548</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with complaints of diarrhea, dermatitis and mental retardation. It was also found that he was a maize eater. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Night blindness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pellagra", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Beri Beri", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pellagra", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_57.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pellagra</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pellagra is recognized by its classic triad of diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia , especially in the context of a diet predominantly consisting of maize , which lacks adequate niacin and tryptophan.</li><li>➤ triad</li><li>➤ diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia</li><li>➤ maize</li><li>➤ lacks</li><li>➤ niacin and tryptophan.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition Chapter 63 Page number 63.4</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old chronic alcoholic is brought to the hospital due to fever and abdominal pain. He was diagnosed to have a cirrhotic liver 2 years back. The ascitic fluid shows a neutrophil count of 360 cells/microliter. Which of the following is the drug of choice in this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cefotaxime", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amoxicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cefotaxime", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cefotaxime</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cefotaxime is the preferred treatment for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhotic patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During your internship, you notice the following instrument being used by the senior resident. The uses of this instrument include all the following except: (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To differentiate between chronic inversion and fibroid polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is used to diagnose cervical stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is used in Fallopian Tube Recanalization", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is used to measure the uterine cavity and the cervical length", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is used in Fallopian Tube Recanalization", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/998.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is used in Fallopian Tube Recanalization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The object in the photograph above is Simpson's uterine sound. It is NOT used in the recanalization of the fallopian tube. Special thin cannulae are used for this purpose. Uterine sound uses include: Measuring the uterine cavity and cervical length. Diagnosing cervical stenosis. Identifying a missing intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). Differentiating between chronic inversion and fibroid polyp (in fibroid polyp, the sound can enter the uterine cavity; in chronic inversion, it cannot as the whole uterus is inverted inside out).</li><li>• The object in the photograph above is Simpson's uterine sound.</li><li>• It is NOT used in the recanalization of the fallopian tube. Special thin cannulae are used for this purpose.</li><li>• Uterine sound uses include: Measuring the uterine cavity and cervical length. Diagnosing cervical stenosis. Identifying a missing intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). Differentiating between chronic inversion and fibroid polyp (in fibroid polyp, the sound can enter the uterine cavity; in chronic inversion, it cannot as the whole uterus is inverted inside out).</li><li>• Measuring the uterine cavity and cervical length. Diagnosing cervical stenosis. Identifying a missing intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). Differentiating between chronic inversion and fibroid polyp (in fibroid polyp, the sound can enter the uterine cavity; in chronic inversion, it cannot as the whole uterus is inverted inside out).</li><li>• Measuring the uterine cavity and cervical length.</li><li>• Diagnosing cervical stenosis.</li><li>• Identifying a missing intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD).</li><li>• Differentiating between chronic inversion and fibroid polyp (in fibroid polyp, the sound can enter the uterine cavity; in chronic inversion, it cannot as the whole uterus is inverted inside out).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. To differentiate between chronic inversion and fibroid polyp : This is a use of the uterine sound as described.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• To differentiate between chronic inversion and fibroid polyp</li><li>• Option B. It is used to diagnose cervical stenosis : This is a valid use of the uterine sound.</li><li>• Option B. It is used to diagnose cervical stenosis</li><li>• Option D. It is used to measure the uterine cavity and the cervical length : This is another correct use of the uterine sound.</li><li>• Option D. It is used to measure the uterine cavity and the cervical length</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Simpson's uterine sound is not used in Fallopian Tube Recanalization; it is primarily used to measure the uterine cavity, diagnose cervical stenosis, identify missing IUCDs, and differentiate between chronic inversion and fibroid polyp.</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 750, Duttas textbook of Gynaecology 6th edition 224</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 750, Duttas textbook of Gynaecology 6th edition 224</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the embryological basis of the developmental defect shown in the image below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Failure in closure of anterior neuropore of neural tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Failure in closure of posterior neuropore of neural tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Failure in closure of complete neural tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Failure in closure of caudal neuropore of neural tube", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Failure in closure of anterior neuropore of neural tube", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-122704.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-2-3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Failure in closure of anterior neuropore of neural tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The image shows the congenital defect - Anencephaly.</li><li>• Anencephaly occurs when the anterior (cranial) portion of the neural tube fails to close properly during embryonic development. As a result, the brain and skull do not form correctly, and a major portion of the brain may be missing. Babies born with anencephaly typically have a very short life expectancy and severe neurological deficits. This condition is incompatible with long-term survival, and infants with anencephaly are usually stillborn or die shortly after birth.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B) Failure in Closure of Posterior Neuropore of Neural Tube : This condition is known as \"spina bifida.\" Spina bifida occurs when the posterior (caudal) portion of the neural tube fails to close completely during development. There are different forms and severities of spina bifida, including spina bifida occulta (mildest), meningocele, and myelomeningocele (most severe). In myelomeningocele, the spinal cord and its protective covering (meninges) protrude through an opening in the spine, leading to significant neurological and motor impairments.</li><li>• Option B)</li><li>• Failure in Closure of Posterior Neuropore of Neural Tube</li><li>• Option C) Failure in Closure of Complete Neural Tube : The complete failure of neural tube closure would likely result in a situation where there is no development of the brain or spinal cord, rendering the embryo nonviable.</li><li>• Option C)</li><li>• Failure in Closure of Complete Neural Tube</li><li>• Option D) Failure in Closure of Caudal Neuropore of Neural Tube : Failure to close the caudal (lower) neuropore of the neural tube results in a condition known as \"caudal dysplasia\" or \"caudal regression syndrome.\" This condition primarily affects the lower part of the spine and may lead to abnormalities in the development of the lower limbs, urinary and gastrointestinal systems, and the spinal cord itself.</li><li>• Option D)</li><li>• Failure in Closure of Caudal Neuropore of Neural Tube</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Exencephaly is the failure of the anterior end (cranial end) of the neural tube to close. As a result, the skull vault does not form. This exposes the deformed brain. The exposed brain tissue degenerates, leaving a mass of necrotic tissue. Anencephaly is the absence of a significant portion of the brain, skull, and scalp. The brain stem is still intact.</li><li>➤ Exencephaly is the failure of the anterior end (cranial end) of the neural tube to close. As a result, the skull vault does not form. This exposes the deformed brain. The exposed brain tissue degenerates, leaving a mass of necrotic tissue.</li><li>➤ Exencephaly</li><li>➤ Anencephaly is the absence of a significant portion of the brain, skull, and scalp. The brain stem is still intact.</li><li>➤ Anencephaly</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Whitaker test is performed for: (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior Urethral valves", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydronephrosis to compare abdominal and urinary bladder pressures", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ureterocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Benign prostatic hyperplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydronephrosis to compare abdominal and urinary bladder pressures", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hydronephrosis to compare abdominal and urinary bladder pressures</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Whitaker test is a pressure flow study used to measure the pressure difference between the kidney and the bladder, specifically to evaluate the severity of obstruction in cases of hydronephrosis, particularly at the pelviureteric junction (PUJ).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vitamin K supplementation is given to neonates to prevent? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Breast milk jaundice", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemorrhagic disease of newborn", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Keratomalacia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hemorrhagic disease of newborn", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture172.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hemorrhagic disease of newborn</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin K supplementation is crucial for preventing hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, which is due to the deficiency of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a detailed epidemiological study of a remote region, researchers discovered that the sex ratio among a representative sample of 10,000 individuals was over 1000. What does this indicate about the male population in this sample? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Male population less than 500", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Male population less than 5000", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Female population less than 500", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Female population less than 5000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Male population less than 5000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Male population less than 5000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sex ratio is typically defined as the number of females per 1000 males.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Miss. Uma presents to you with complaints of mass descending per vaginum for the past 6 months. On examination, you notice a grade 3 uterovaginal prolapse and a decubitus ulcer over the prolapse. Which of the following is a cause for this decubitus ulcer and treatment? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malignancy and excision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venous congestion and reduction of the prolapsed part and daily packing with glycerin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infection and antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trauma and dressing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Venous congestion and reduction of the prolapsed part and daily packing with glycerin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Venous congestion and reduction of the prolapsed part and daily packing with glycerin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Decubitus ulcers in prolapsed organs are primarily caused by localized alterations in the circulatory system, specifically venous congestion, rather than trauma or friction. The continuous externalization of the prolapsed organ leads to impaired venous return and subsequent ulcer formation.</li><li>• The recommended treatment includes:</li><li>• Daily packing with glycerin and acriflavine. Glycerin is a hygroscopic substance that helps to draw fluid out of the tissues, thereby reducing swelling. Acriflavine is an antibacterial substance that helps to prevent infection. Reduction of the prolapsed portion into the vagina to alleviate the venous congestion.</li><li>• Daily packing with glycerin and acriflavine. Glycerin is a hygroscopic substance that helps to draw fluid out of the tissues, thereby reducing swelling. Acriflavine is an antibacterial substance that helps to prevent infection.</li><li>• Glycerin is a hygroscopic substance that helps to draw fluid out of the tissues, thereby reducing swelling. Acriflavine is an antibacterial substance that helps to prevent infection.</li><li>• Glycerin is a hygroscopic substance that helps to draw fluid out of the tissues, thereby reducing swelling.</li><li>• Glycerin</li><li>• Acriflavine is an antibacterial substance that helps to prevent infection.</li><li>• Acriflavine</li><li>• Reduction of the prolapsed portion into the vagina to alleviate the venous congestion.</li><li>• If the ulcer does not heal with these measures, a biopsy from the margins of the ulcer should be considered to rule out malignancy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Malignancy and excision: Decubitus ulcers in the context of uterovaginal prolapse are generally due to venous congestion, not malignancy. Malignancy would present differently and would require histopathological confirmation before excision.</li><li>• Option A. Malignancy and excision:</li><li>• Option C. Infection and antibiotics: While infection can complicate ulcers, the primary cause in this scenario is venous congestion, and antibiotics alone would not address the underlying issue.</li><li>• Option C. Infection and antibiotics:</li><li>• Option D. Trauma and dressing: Trauma is not the primary cause of decubitus ulcers in prolapsed organs. Proper reduction and addressing the venous congestion are essential for treatment.</li><li>• Option D. Trauma and dressing:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decubitus ulcers in uterovaginal prolapse are caused by venous congestion, and treatment involves reducing the prolapsed part and daily packing with glycerin and acriflavine.</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of gynecology 6 th edition page 206</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of gynecology 6 th edition page 206</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 46-year-old woman experiences an allergic reaction after eating a meal containing pearl millet (bajra) mixed with unknown black seeds. To analyze the seeds by separating them based on density, which solution should be used to effectively differentiate between the bajra and the black seeds? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Distilled water", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10% salt solution", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20% salt solution", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal saline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 20% salt solution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 20% salt solution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ergotism</li><li>➤ Ergotism</li><li>➤ Occurs due to food toxicant - ergot fungus ‘Claviceps fusiformis’ Food items having a tendency for ergotism - Bajra, Rye, Sorghum, Wheat, Removal of ergot: Float in 20% salt water Hand-picking Air-floatation Upper safe limit for ergot: 0.05 mg per 100 grams’ food material</li><li>➤ Occurs due to food toxicant - ergot fungus ‘Claviceps fusiformis’</li><li>➤ Food items having a tendency for ergotism - Bajra, Rye, Sorghum, Wheat,</li><li>➤ Removal of ergot: Float in 20% salt water Hand-picking Air-floatation</li><li>➤ Float in 20% salt water Hand-picking Air-floatation</li><li>➤ Float in 20% salt water</li><li>➤ Hand-picking</li><li>➤ Air-floatation</li><li>➤ Upper safe limit for ergot: 0.05 mg per 100 grams’ food material</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old public health officer in a state health department is focusing on evaluating birth and death rates to aid in health program planning. She needs to select a system specifically designed to assess these rates accurately at state or national levels. Which system or method is the most appropriate for her needs? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sample Registration System", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Census", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Death certificate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lay reporting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sample Registration System", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Sample Registration System</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Evaluation of birth and death rate done by Sample Registration system.</li><li>➤ Main objective of SRS : To provide reliable estimates of Birth Rate, Death Rate and Infant Mortality Rate at the natural division level for rural areas and at the state level for urban areas.</li><li>➤ Main objective of SRS</li><li>➤ SRS is a dual record system:</li><li>➤ SRS is a dual record system:</li><li>➤ Field Investigation: continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator Independent retrospective survey: every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor</li><li>➤ Field Investigation: continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator</li><li>➤ Independent retrospective survey: every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Advantages of SRS:</li><li>➤ Advantages of SRS:</li><li>➤ Elimination of errors of duplication Leads to a quantitative assessment of the sources of distortion in the two sets of records making it a self evaluating technique.</li><li>➤ Elimination of errors of duplication</li><li>➤ Leads to a quantitative assessment of the sources of distortion in the two sets of records making it a self evaluating technique.</li><li>➤ Primary objective: To build up statistics on ‘Most Probable Causes of Death’ for rural and urban areas using lay diagnosis reporting (Post Death Verbal Autopsy)’ method</li><li>➤ Primary objective:</li><li>➤ Main components of SRS:</li><li>➤ Main components of SRS:</li><li>➤ Base-line survey - To obtain usual resident population of the sample areas Continuous (longitudinal) enumeration of vital events Independent retrospective half-yearly surveys for recording births and deaths which occurred during the half-year under reference and updating the Houselist, Household schedule and the list of women in the reproductive age group along with their pregnancy status by the Supervisor Matching of events recorded during continuous enumeration and those listed in course of half-yearly survey Field verification of unmatched and partially matched events Filling of Verbal Autopsy forms for finalized deaths</li><li>➤ Base-line survey - To obtain usual resident population of the sample areas</li><li>➤ Continuous (longitudinal) enumeration of vital events</li><li>➤ Independent retrospective half-yearly surveys for recording births and deaths which occurred during the half-year under reference and updating the Houselist, Household schedule and the list of women in the reproductive age group along with their pregnancy status by the Supervisor</li><li>➤ Matching of events recorded during continuous enumeration and those listed in course of half-yearly survey</li><li>➤ Field verification of unmatched and partially matched events</li><li>➤ Filling of Verbal Autopsy forms for finalized deaths</li><li>➤ Sample design adopted for SRS: A unistage stratified simple random sample. Infant Mortality is the decisive indicator for estimation of sample size at Natural Division</li><li>➤ Sample design adopted for SRS:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the imaging modality and diagnosis. (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI of Horseshoe kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT of Horseshoe kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRI of Polycystic kidney disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT of Polycystic kidney disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MRI of Polycystic kidney disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_167.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. MRI of Polycystic kidney disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Given image is MRI: Bone cortex will be hypointense (dark) while in a CT the bone cortex will appear hyperdense (white) . The image shows multiple large cysts in bilateral kidneys suggestive of Autosomal dominant Polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) Inheritance: Autosomal dominant trait Genes: PKD1(chromosome 16) and PKD2 genes (chromosome 4). Presentation: Adults in fourth or fifth decade Associations: Liver, pancreas, ovarian and spleen cysts Berry aneurysm Colonic diverticulosis</li><li>• Given image is MRI: Bone cortex will be hypointense (dark) while in a CT the bone cortex will appear hyperdense (white) .</li><li>• Given image is MRI:</li><li>• in a CT the bone cortex will appear hyperdense (white)</li><li>• The image shows multiple large cysts in bilateral kidneys suggestive of Autosomal dominant Polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)</li><li>• multiple large cysts in bilateral kidneys</li><li>• Inheritance: Autosomal dominant trait</li><li>• Inheritance:</li><li>• Genes: PKD1(chromosome 16) and PKD2 genes (chromosome 4).</li><li>• Genes:</li><li>• Presentation: Adults in fourth or fifth decade</li><li>• Presentation:</li><li>• Associations: Liver, pancreas, ovarian and spleen cysts Berry aneurysm Colonic diverticulosis</li><li>• Associations:</li><li>• Liver, pancreas, ovarian and spleen cysts Berry aneurysm Colonic diverticulosis</li><li>• Liver, pancreas, ovarian and spleen cysts</li><li>• Berry aneurysm</li><li>• Colonic diverticulosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MRI is a valuable imaging modality for diagnosing Polycystic Kidney Disease due to its detailed visualization of soft tissues and cystic structures within the kidneys.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following gastrectomy, the patient is most likely to have which of the following? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folic acid deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastric ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Constipation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency is a common complication after gastrectomy due to reduced intrinsic factor production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following side effects are seen most commonly with Isotretinoin?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Discoloration of teeth", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ebstein’s anomaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neural tube defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Embryopathy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Embryopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-114141.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Embryopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic and is associated with severe embryopathy, including a range of developmental abnormalities in fetuses exposed during pregnancy. Due to its significant risks, isotretinoin use is strictly regulated with mandatory contraceptive measures and pregnancy testing to prevent fetal exposure.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Oral retinoids in acne:</li><li>➤ Oral retinoids in acne:</li><li>➤ DOC: Isotretinoin = 13-cis Retinoic acid Indication: Nodulocystic acne, resistant acne Most common side effect: cheilitis Dose: 0.5-1 mg/kg/ body weight daily (TCD: 120-150 mg/kg body weight) Lab monitoring: Fasting lipid profile, LFT as oral retinoids are associated with increased triglycerides &amp; total cholesterol Most severe adverse effect: DISH (Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis)</li><li>➤ DOC: Isotretinoin = 13-cis Retinoic acid</li><li>➤ DOC:</li><li>➤ Indication: Nodulocystic acne, resistant acne</li><li>➤ Indication:</li><li>➤ Most common side effect: cheilitis</li><li>➤ Most common side effect:</li><li>➤ Dose: 0.5-1 mg/kg/ body weight daily (TCD: 120-150 mg/kg body weight)</li><li>➤ Dose:</li><li>➤ Lab monitoring: Fasting lipid profile, LFT as oral retinoids are associated with increased triglycerides &amp; total cholesterol</li><li>➤ Lab monitoring:</li><li>➤ Fasting lipid profile, LFT</li><li>➤ Most severe adverse effect: DISH (Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis)</li><li>➤ Most severe adverse effect: DISH</li><li>➤ Pregnancy Category X Teratogenic:</li><li>➤ Pregnancy Category X Teratogenic:</li><li>➤ Period of drug stoppage prior to conception (women): 28 days or 3 months</li><li>➤ Period of drug stoppage prior to conception (women): 28 days or 3 months</li><li>➤ Drugs safe in pregnancy:</li><li>➤ Drugs safe in pregnancy:</li><li>➤ Topical erythromycin, azelaic acid, Benzoyl peroxide Oral erythromycin</li><li>➤ Topical erythromycin, azelaic acid, Benzoyl peroxide</li><li>➤ Oral erythromycin</li><li>➤ Some important Drugs, their indications &amp; their ADR:</li><li>➤ Some important Drugs, their indications &amp; their ADR:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Williams obstetrics 25 th edition Page no 540-543</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 90 page no 90.1, 90.2, 90.18, 90.37</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 90 page no 90.1, 90.2, 90.18, 90.37</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old boy fell from the bed and developed swelling in the nose and difficulty in breathing. Examination revealed smooth rounded swellings on either side of the septum, through both the nares. On palpation, it was soft and fluctuant. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incision and drainage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "High-resolution computerized tomography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Submucosal resection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Incision and drainage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102084.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Incision and drainage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 168</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old patient, a known case of hypertension, was being treated with antihypertensive drugs. He is having chronic cough for 2 weeks. He was started on antimicrobials, but the cough did not resolve. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs may induce chronic cough in this patient? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amlodipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Minoxidil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lisinopril", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lisinopril", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Lisinopril</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients who develop a chronic dry cough while on ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril should consider consulting their healthcare provider to possibly switch to another class of antihypertensives, such as angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), which typically do not cause cough.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a hospital orientation on waste management, staff are instructed on the proper disposal of contaminated materials. If a medical staff member uses a cotton swab that becomes contaminated with blood, which colored bag should be used for disposal according to the hospital's waste segregation protocols? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "White", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/category_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 78-year-old patient was urgently brought to the casualty department due to recurring episodes of severe breathlessness. The patient mentioned experiencing a fever and cough over the last three days. To investigate the underlying cause of the symptoms, laboratory tests were conducted, and the test report indicated the presence of target sequences for the RdRp gene, E gene, N gene, and ORF1ab. Which diagnostic test was most likely performed to obtain these results? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CLIA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CBNAAT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RT-PCR", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. RT-PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) RT-PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RT-PCR is the gold standard diagnostic test for detecting COVID-19 by identifying specific genetic sequences of the SARS-CoV-2 virus in respiratory samples.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which substance helps in the adhesion of leukocyte to the endothelium? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Selectin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "P53", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leukotriene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PECAM-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Selectin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Selectin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Selectins facilitate the adhesion of leukocytes to the endothelium during the inflammatory response.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which causes SCID (Severe Combined Immuno-Deficiency syndrome)? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deficiency of Adenosine deaminase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deficiency of Tyrosine kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Combined deficiency of folate and vitamin B12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Deficiency of Adenosine deaminase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Deficiency of Adenosine deaminase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deficiency of adenosine deaminase (ADA) causes severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID), a condition characterized by profound immunodeficiency and susceptibility to severe infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old girl is having continuous dribbling of urine with normal voiding pattern. What is the most likely cause? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior urethral valves", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ectopic ureter / Duplicate ureter", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urinary tract infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vesicoureteric reflux", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ectopic ureter / Duplicate ureter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ectopic ureter/ Duplicate ureter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a young female patient presenting with continuous dribbling of urine with a normal voiding pattern, consider the possibility of an ectopic ureter or duplicated ureter. This congenital anomaly allows urine to bypass the bladder, leading to continuous leakage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cardiac output returns to pre-pregnant levels by? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 days postpartum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 days postpartum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "7 days postpartum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10 days postpartum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 10 days postpartum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 10 days postpartum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cardiac output begins to increase in pregnancy up to 40 % reaching its peak during pregnancy around 30-34 weeks. It increases up to 50% during labour and it is increased by 70% in the immediate post-partum period. Cardiac output typically remains increased for 24 to 48 hours following delivery and then begins to fall by 10 days to non-pregnant levels.</li><li>• Cardiac output begins to increase in pregnancy up to 40 % reaching its peak during pregnancy around 30-34 weeks.</li><li>• It increases up to 50% during labour and</li><li>• it is increased by 70% in the immediate post-partum period.</li><li>• Cardiac output typically remains increased for 24 to 48 hours following delivery and then begins to fall by 10 days to non-pregnant levels.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiac output typically returns to pre-pregnant levels by 10 days postpartum.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 671 , Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 60</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 671 , Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 60</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What dose of folic acid is recommended for a woman who wants to become pregnant but has a history of pregnancy complicated with a neural tube defect? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "400 mcg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 mg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 mg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 mg/day", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4 mg/day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4mg/day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pre-conceptional Folic Acid (400 mcg /day ie. 0.4 mg / day to low risk women; 4 mg/ day to high risk for neural tube defects - NTD). Women at high risk for NTD are H/o previous baby with NTD Pre-gestational Diabetes Mellitus Folic acid deficiency Obesity hiii Epilepsy/ on Antiepileptic Drugs (AED)</li><li>• Pre-conceptional Folic Acid (400 mcg /day ie. 0.4 mg / day to low risk women; 4 mg/ day to high risk for neural tube defects - NTD).</li><li>• Women at high risk for NTD are H/o previous baby with NTD Pre-gestational Diabetes Mellitus Folic acid deficiency Obesity hiii Epilepsy/ on Antiepileptic Drugs (AED)</li><li>• H/o previous baby with NTD Pre-gestational Diabetes Mellitus Folic acid deficiency Obesity hiii Epilepsy/ on Antiepileptic Drugs (AED)</li><li>• H/o previous baby with NTD</li><li>• Pre-gestational Diabetes Mellitus</li><li>• Folic acid deficiency</li><li>• Obesity hiii</li><li>• Epilepsy/ on Antiepileptic Drugs (AED)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For women with a history of pregnancy complicated by neural tube defects, the recommended pre-conceptional folic acid dose is 4 mg/day.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 441</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 441</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child was brought to her pediatrician for routine well-child care. Her physical examination is normal except for a systolic murmur and a widely split-second heart sound that does not vary with respiration. She has no family history of heart disease. Which among the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular Septal defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atrial septal defect", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonic stenosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Atrial septal defect", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Atrial septal defect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atrial septal defect (ASD) is characterized by a systolic murmur and a wide, fixed split-second heart sound that does not vary with respiration.</li><li>➤ Ref - O P Ghai, Page No- 405-410.</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ O P Ghai, Page No- 405-410.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "DASH DIET includes the following food except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rich in potassium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rich on calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rich in sodium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rich in magnesium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rich in sodium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rich in sodium</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a health outreach program in a rural village in Bihar, a healthcare worker distributes government-provided pregnancy test kits and educates women on their use to promote early detection of pregnancy. What is the official name of this home-based pregnancy test kit distributed by the Government of India? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nikshay", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nishchay", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nikusth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Today", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nishchay", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/picture100.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/picture200.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/picture3000.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/picture400.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Nishchay</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ \"Nishchay\" kits are part of a critical health initiative by the Government of India to promote early pregnancy detection and subsequent healthcare engagement, crucial for ensuring maternal and neonatal health in rural and underserved areas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is incorrect about colostrum? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is the breastmilk that is seen in the initial 3-4 days.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is yellow in color", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contains large number of antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contains high amount of lactose and low amounts of protein.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Contains high amount of lactose and low amounts of protein.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Contains high amount of lactose and low amounts of protein.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Colostrum, the initial breastmilk produced in the first few days postpartum, is rich in protein and antibodies but low in lactose.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman with no history of pregnancies is considering a CuT 380A IUD and discusses her health concerns related to its use. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to this contraceptive device? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterine fibroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine malformations", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unexplained vaginal bleeding", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Unexplained vaginal bleeding", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/20/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-174722.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Unexplained vaginal bleeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young woman visited the ENT OPD reporting a sudden onset of hearing loss in one ear, accompanied by tinnitus and dizziness. This occurred after experiencing an episode of acute otitis media two weeks ago. During her initial visit, the Rinne test and fistula test showed positive results, but she declined treatment at that time. Now, she returned with aggravated hearing loss in the same ear. Upon examination, the fistula test yielded negative results. Considering the situation, what would be the most probable result on the Rinne test in this case? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "True positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "True negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "False positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "False negative", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. False negative", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102085.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. False negative</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 24</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old male with known history of asthma developed sudden onset breathlessness, and wheezing. He was rushed to the emergency, where the preliminary assessment was done. The pulse is 140/min, respiratory rate 28/min, and the FEV1 is 40% of the predicted value. Which of the following is the best next step in treatment in this case? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A high concentration of oxygen should be given by a face mask + Salbutamol nebulization", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "High doses of SABA to be given by a nebulizer only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sedatives should be added to alleviate anxiety", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nebulized anticholinergics to be added immediately as the mainstay of treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A high concentration of oxygen should be given by a face mask + Salbutamol nebulization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A high concentration of oxygen should be given by a face mask + Salbutamol nebulization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of severe acute asthma, administer high-concentration oxygen via a face mask and nebulized SABA (e.g., salbutamol) as the first-line treatment to address hypoxemia and bronchoconstriction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the class of immunoglobulin shown in the image below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgM", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "lgE", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IgA", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/19.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-093940.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-093957.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IgA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old multiparous woman presented with grade II/III uterine prolapse with cystocele. She complains of passing urine on coughing and sneezing. What is the type of urinary incontinence seen in this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Overflow incontinence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urge incontinence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stress incontinence", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurogenic bladder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Stress incontinence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Stress incontinence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Stress incontinence is a form of urine incontinence that patients with prolapse and cystocele experience when they urinate during coughing and sneezing. When there is an increase in intraabdominal pressure, it is known as stress incontinence (e.g. coughing, sneezing, laughing, Valsalva maneuver). In urodynamic investigations, there is no evidence of detrusor muscle contraction.</li><li>• Stress incontinence is a form of urine incontinence that patients with prolapse and cystocele experience when they urinate during coughing and sneezing.</li><li>• When there is an increase in intraabdominal pressure, it is known as stress incontinence (e.g. coughing, sneezing, laughing, Valsalva maneuver).</li><li>• In urodynamic investigations, there is no evidence of detrusor muscle contraction.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Overflow incontinence : Overflow incontinence the inability to completely empty the bladder, characterized by uncontrollable, continuous urination.</li><li>• Option A. Overflow incontinence</li><li>• Option B. Urge incontinence : Urge incontinence is the urgent desire to urinate. It happens because of detrusor instability or overactive detrusor muscles.</li><li>• Option B. Urge incontinence</li><li>• Option D. Neurogenic bladder : Patients with neurogenic dysfunction that results in detrusor hyperreflexia experience neurogenic bladder. It is seen in multiple sclerosis, stroke, Parkinson's disease, and spinal injury. They exhibit urge incontinence or urgency.</li><li>• Option D. Neurogenic bladder</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stress incontinence is a type of urinary incontinence characterized by the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, or laughing, often seen in patients with uterine prolapse and cystocele.</li><li>➤ Stress incontinence is a type of urinary incontinence characterized by the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, or laughing, often seen in patients with uterine prolapse and cystocele.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6th edition pg 398,399 , Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg514</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6th edition pg 398,399 , Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg514</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which ovarian follicle development is shown in the given image:(FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary follicle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antral follicle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primordial follicle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corpus Luteum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Antral follicle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-321.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-322.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The antral follicle stage is a critical phase in the maturation of the oocyte, marked by the formation of the antrum, which facilitates hormonal and nutritional support for the developing oocyte.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is part of trotter's triad, seen in nasopharyngeal carcinoma? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conductive hearing loss, Ipsilateral temporoparietal neuralgia, Palatal paralysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensorineural hearing loss, Contralateral temporoparietal neuralgia, Palatal paralysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sensorineural hearing loss, Ipsilateral temporoparietal neuralgia, Palatal paralysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conductive hearing loss, Contralateral temporoparietal neuralgia, Palatal paralysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Conductive hearing loss, Ipsilateral temporoparietal neuralgia, Palatal paralysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 285</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male went to mountain. He developed shortness of breath. Which of the following drug will you use for the treatment of mountain sickness at high altitude? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eplerenone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salbutamol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acetazolamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Acetazolamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For individuals traveling to high altitudes and experiencing symptoms of acute mountain sickness, Acetazolamide is the most effective pharmacological option. It aids in acclimatization by promoting increased ventilation and reducing the risk of both cerebral and pulmonary edema associated with rapid altitude ascent. The ultimate remedy for severe cases, however, remains descent to lower altitudes alongside supportive care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-month-old child undergoes treatment for diarrhea with hypokalemia but the child does not respond to the treatment appropriately and on examination muscular weakness is noted. What is the most likely cause of treatment failure? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypomagnesemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyponatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypermagnesemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypernatremia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypomagnesemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypomagnesemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of hypokalemia that do not respond to potassium supplementation, always check and correct serum magnesium levels to ensure effective treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs can cause gynecomastia? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tamoxifen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clomiphene citrate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Spironolactone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Spironolactone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drugs leading to gynecomastia: (Mnemonic “ DISCO ”) D – D igoxin I – I soniazid S – S teroids, S pironolactone C - C imetidine, K etoconazole O – O estrogen</li><li>➤ Drugs leading to gynecomastia: (Mnemonic “ DISCO ”) D – D igoxin I – I soniazid S – S teroids, S pironolactone C - C imetidine, K etoconazole O – O estrogen</li><li>➤ Drugs leading to gynecomastia: (Mnemonic “ DISCO ”)</li><li>➤ D – D igoxin I – I soniazid S – S teroids, S pironolactone C - C imetidine, K etoconazole O – O estrogen</li><li>➤ D – D igoxin</li><li>➤ D – D igoxin</li><li>➤ I – I soniazid</li><li>➤ I – I soniazid</li><li>➤ S – S teroids, S pironolactone</li><li>➤ S – S teroids, S pironolactone</li><li>➤ C - C imetidine, K etoconazole</li><li>➤ C - C imetidine, K etoconazole</li><li>➤ O – O estrogen</li><li>➤ O – O estrogen</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old male presented with recurrent epistaxis. There is no history of trauma associated with it. He also complained of nasal obstruction and rhinorrhea. On examination, there is a firm purplish mass on the posterior nasopharynx. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhabdomyosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyogenic granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102088.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102089.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102090.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102091.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma should be strongly considered in adolescent males presenting with unexplained, recurrent epistaxis and nasal obstruction, especially when a nasopharyngeal mass is identified. Prompt and thorough diagnostic imaging followed by surgical planning is essential for effective management of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn baby presents with irritability and cyanosis which subsides on crying. On examination, you are unable to pass a nasogastric tube and no mist formation is noted on the laryngeal mirror test. Which of the following is the best next step in management? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oro pharyngeal airway", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxygen inhalation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epinephrine nebulization", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oro pharyngeal airway", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/918.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Oro pharyngeal airway</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a newborn presenting with cyanosis that subsides on crying and an inability to pass a nasogastric tube, suspect bilateral choanal atresia and use an oropharyngeal airway as the initial management step.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fat sugar baby is seen in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diabetes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kwashiorkor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marasmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kwashiorkor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Kwashiorkor</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following complete ileal and partial jejunal resection, the patient is most likely to have: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folic acid deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastric ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Constipation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency is a likely complication following complete ileal and partial jejunal resection due to the disruption of its absorption site in the terminal ileum. This highlights the importance of monitoring and possibly supplementing Vitamin B12 in patients who have undergone such surgical procedures.</li><li>➤ Major Sites of Absorption of Hematopoietic Factors:</li><li>➤ Major Sites of Absorption of Hematopoietic Factors:</li><li>➤ Duodenum and upper jejunum: Iron Jejunum: Folate Terminal Ileum: Vitamin B12</li><li>➤ Duodenum and upper jejunum: Iron</li><li>➤ Jejunum: Folate</li><li>➤ Terminal Ileum: Vitamin B12</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was diagnosed with ear wax and was subjected to syringing to remove the wax. She developed a syncopal episode while doing the procedure when the tip of the syringe touched the ear canal. Which of the nerves is responsible for this episode of syncope? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arnold's nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jacobson's nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arnold's nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102081.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102082.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Arnold’s nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Arnold's nerve is crucial in the context of ear procedures, where its stimulation can lead to significant autonomic responses, including syncope. Awareness of this nerve's sensitivity is important for clinicians performing ear syringing or other manipulative treatments involving the ear canal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presented with greenish vaginal discharge and pruritus. Clue cells were present. What is the drug of choice for this condition? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metronidazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Bacterial Vaginosis due to its effectiveness against the anaerobic bacteria commonly associated with the condition. It can be administered either orally or as a topical gel or cream. In cases where metronidazole cannot be used, clindamycin is a suitable alternative. This knowledge is crucial for appropriate clinical management to relieve symptoms and prevent potential complications related to BV.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A research study is set up to explore the impact of maternal smoking during pregnancy on neonatal birth weight. Researchers collect data on the smoking habits of expectant mothers during their antenatal visits and later record the birth weights of the newborns. Which epidemiological research design best describes this study? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retrospective Cohort", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prospective Cohort", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Case control", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cross-sectional", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prospective Cohort", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/category_page_2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Prospective Cohort</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the emergency with hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, engorged neck veins. He died in the hospital and an autopsy was done which showed the following image. The most likely cause of death in this patient would be? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heart rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Perforation of the intestine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cardiac tamponade", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture2_4kKuosU.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cardiac tamponade</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiac tamponade is characterized by Beck's Triad: hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds. Immediate treatment includes needle pericardiocentesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While performing the US assessment of a woman at 28 weeks of gestation, you note her amniotic fluid index to be 12.8. When does this parameter reach its maximum value in a normal pregnancy? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "32 weeks of gestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "33 weeks of gestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "34 weeks of gestation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "35 weeks of gestation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 34 weeks of gestation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 34 weeks of gestation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Average volume versus gestational age</li><li>• Average volume versus gestational age</li><li>• 20 weeks - 400 ml 28 weeks - 800 - 1000 ml 34 weeks - 1000 – 1500 ml (peak) Starts declining thereafter 40 weeks - 800ml (declines) After 40 weeks: declines 150 ml/week 42 weeks - 400 ml Other options have been ruled out based on the above table. The amniotic fluid index is calculated by dividing the abdomen into four quadrants and sum of the deepest pocket measured in each quadrant is calculated by ultrasound. Normal range for AFI (Amniotic fluid index) is 5 to 25 Normal range for Single deepest pocket is 2 – 8 cm. Where values less than are oligohydramnios and more than the normal range are polyhydramnios.</li><li>• 20 weeks - 400 ml</li><li>• 28 weeks - 800 - 1000 ml</li><li>• 34 weeks - 1000 – 1500 ml (peak)</li><li>• 34 weeks - 1000 – 1500 ml (peak)</li><li>• Starts declining thereafter</li><li>• Starts declining thereafter</li><li>• 40 weeks - 800ml (declines)</li><li>• After 40 weeks: declines 150 ml/week</li><li>• 42 weeks - 400 ml Other options have been ruled out based on the above table. The amniotic fluid index is calculated by dividing the abdomen into four quadrants and sum of the deepest pocket measured in each quadrant is calculated by ultrasound. Normal range for AFI (Amniotic fluid index) is 5 to 25 Normal range for Single deepest pocket is 2 – 8 cm. Where values less than are oligohydramnios and more than the normal range are polyhydramnios.</li><li>• Other options have been ruled out based on the above table. The amniotic fluid index is calculated by dividing the abdomen into four quadrants and sum of the deepest pocket measured in each quadrant is calculated by ultrasound. Normal range for AFI (Amniotic fluid index) is 5 to 25 Normal range for Single deepest pocket is 2 – 8 cm. Where values less than are oligohydramnios and more than the normal range are polyhydramnios.</li><li>• Other options have been ruled out based on the above table.</li><li>• The amniotic fluid index is calculated by dividing the abdomen into four quadrants and sum of the deepest pocket measured in each quadrant is calculated by ultrasound. Normal range for AFI (Amniotic fluid index) is 5 to 25</li><li>• Normal range for Single deepest pocket is 2 – 8 cm.</li><li>• Where values less than are oligohydramnios and more than the normal range are polyhydramnios.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The amniotic fluid index reaches its maximum value around 34 weeks of gestation in a normal pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition page43, Williams textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition page 250</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition page43, Williams textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition page 250</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is brought to the pediatrician with short stature. On evaluation, growth hormone levels are found to be high and Insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1) levels are low. Which among the following could be the abnormality here? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GH deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GHRH deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GH receptor anomaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IGF-1 deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. GH receptor anomaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) GH receptor anomaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A high growth hormone level and low IGF-1 level in a child with short stature indicate a growth hormone receptor anomaly, also known as Laron syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a child presenting with febrile seizures, which is the first-line drug used to control the seizures? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sodium valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Midazolam", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenobarbitone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Midazolam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Midazolam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Midazolam is the first-line drug used to control febrile seizures in children due to its rapid onset and efficacy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old patient was referred by physician to a radiologist go for a CT Brain. The radiologist later visits the physician offering him gifts and money for the referral. Which of the below statements are true regarding the above practice? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Association of Doctor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doctor should be punished under the law", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The doctor is practicing dichotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is called Covering", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The doctor is practicing dichotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The doctor is practicing dichotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The practice of accepting gifts or money for patient referrals is known as dichotomy, an unethical act punishable by the state medical council.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Enzyme deficient in Gaucher’s disease:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta galacto cerebrosidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta glucocerebrosidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucose-6-phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alpha gluco cerebrosidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Beta glucocerebrosidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Beta glucocerebrosidase</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is taking chemotherapy for treatment of lung cancer. Which of the following drug should be used to prevent the nausea and vomiting in this patient? ( FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Domperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Promethazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Palonosetron", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metoclopramide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Palonosetron", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Palonosetron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Palonosetron is the preferred choice among the options listed for preventing nausea and vomiting in a patient undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer. Its efficacy in controlling both acute and delayed phases of CINV makes it a critical component of supportive care in cancer therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for breastfeeding? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alcoholic Mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Classic galactosemia for the infant", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A mother with HIV infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infants born to an HbsAg positive mother", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Classic galactosemia for the infant", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Classic galactosemia for the infant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classic galactosemia in the infant is an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding due to the inability to metabolize galactose, leading to serious health complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chest X-ray from a patient of Covid-19 would show: (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ground glass opacification", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Halo around nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cavitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sigma sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ground glass opacification", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-302.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ground glass opacification</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ground glass opacification (GGO) at the periphery of the lower lobes is a characteristic finding on chest X-rays of patients with COVID-19.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male presented with a 1-week history of yellow skin and sclerae but is otherwise asymptomatic. He gives a history of viral infection for 10 days which resolved 2 days back. There is a history of a similar episode of icterus 2 years back for a period of 2 weeks. The current serum bilirubin is 2.4 mg/ dL, unconjugated bilirubin 2.1mg/dl, conjugated bilirubin is 0.3mg/dl, Serum AST and ALT levels are normal. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dubin-Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Criggler-Najar type 1 syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gilbert syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotor Syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gilbert syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gilbert syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gilbert syndrome causes intermittent jaundice with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and normal liver enzymes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child who was fed only on rice water presents with a swollen belly and dull face. His appearance is of a 'fat sugar baby' and is found to have low serum protein and low albumin. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marasmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indian childhood cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kawasaki disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kwashiorkor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kwashiorkor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kwashiorkor is primarily due to a severe deficiency in protein intake, leading to edema, hepatomegaly, and characteristic skin and hair changes, with low serum protein and albumin levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which serotype of HPV is responsible for Ca Cervix? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "16, 19, 31, 32", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "16, 18, 31, 32", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "16, 19, 31, 33", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "16, 18, 31, 33", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 16, 18, 31, 33", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 16, 18, 31, 33</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• HPV - 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68 are associated with Ca Cervix.</li><li>• Human Papilloma Virus (DNA Virus):</li><li>• The most common serotype of HPV responsible for Ca. Cervix: HPV-16 The most malignant serotype of HPV for Ca Cervix: HPV-18 HPV serotype most specific for Ca. Cervix is HPV-18. The most common serotype of HPV associated with Squamous Cell Carcinoma is HPV-16 The most common serotype of HPV associated with Adenocarcinoma is HPV-18 Low risk HPV responsible for genital warts, papilloma : 6, 11</li><li>• The most common serotype of HPV responsible for Ca. Cervix: HPV-16</li><li>• The most malignant serotype of HPV for Ca Cervix: HPV-18</li><li>• HPV serotype most specific for Ca. Cervix is HPV-18.</li><li>• The most common serotype of HPV associated with Squamous Cell Carcinoma is HPV-16</li><li>• The most common serotype of HPV associated with Adenocarcinoma is HPV-18</li><li>• Low risk HPV responsible for genital warts, papilloma : 6, 11</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) serotypes 16, 18, 31, and 33 are commonly associated with cervical cancer, with HPV-16 being the most common and HPV-18 being the most malignant serotype.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 323, Williams textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 627</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 323, Williams textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 627</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following is the Normal level of ALP seen? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paget’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VitB1 deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Osteoporosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Osteoporosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Osteoporosis typically presents with normal alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels and is diagnosed by measuring bone mineral density using a DEXA scan.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man with a 5-year history of type 2 diabetes is seeking advice on choosing foods that minimally impact his blood sugar levels. Which of the following foods has the lowest glycemic index, making it the best option for him? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Water melon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Papaya", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sweet corn", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Potato", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sweet corn", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sweet corn</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycemic index scale is 0 to 100 when using glucose as the standard.</li><li>➤ Glycemic index scale is 0 to 100 when using glucose as the standard.</li><li>➤ Low Glycemic index: ≤ 55 - Most fruits and vegetables ( EXCEPT potato/watermelon/sweet potato ), Whole grains, Beans, Pasta, Lentils. Medium Glycemic index: 56-69 - Sucrose, Basmati rice, Brown rice High Glycemic index: ≥ 70 - Corn flakes, White bread, syrup foods, jasmine rice.</li><li>➤ Low Glycemic index: ≤ 55 - Most fruits and vegetables ( EXCEPT potato/watermelon/sweet potato ), Whole grains, Beans, Pasta, Lentils.</li><li>➤ Low</li><li>➤ EXCEPT potato/watermelon/sweet potato</li><li>➤ Medium Glycemic index: 56-69 - Sucrose, Basmati rice, Brown rice</li><li>➤ Medium</li><li>➤ High Glycemic index: ≥ 70 - Corn flakes, White bread, syrup foods, jasmine rice.</li><li>➤ High</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient suffered from Blunt trauma to the abdomen and was brought to the Emergency room. He is unstable with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm of Hg. You are the doctor, basic resuscitation is done with Intravenous fluids, FAST is positive. He is not improving despite Intravenous fluids. The next step is? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NCCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Exploratory Laparotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PET", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Exploratory Laparotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Exploratory Laparotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a trauma patient with hemodynamic instability and a positive FAST, exploratory laparotomy is the definitive diagnostic and therapeutic intervention to control bleeding and repair injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A HIV patient presents with persistent diarrhea. Microscopic examination of the stool is given below. Identify the causative organism? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cryptosporidium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclospora", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Microspora", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystoisospora", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cryptosporidium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture1_BoLHKca.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cryptosporidium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In HIV patients with persistent diarrhea, Cryptosporidium is a common causative organism, identified by its characteristic oocysts in stool samples stained with special stains like the kinoun stain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following options contains all intravenous hypnotic agents? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propofol, Sodium thiopentone, Etomidate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Halothane, sevoflurane, desflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sugammadex, Sufentanil, tramadol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vecuronium, Rocuronium, Atracurium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Propofol, Sodium thiopentone, Etomidate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Propofol, Sodium thiopentone, Etomidate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When selecting an agent for inducing anesthesia, it is important to choose a drug that is specifically intended for this purpose. Intravenous hypnotic agents like those listed in Option A are specifically designed to induce unconsciousness rapidly and safely, with properties that allow for quick adjustment of anesthesia depth and easy recovery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health team is planning an educational outreach in an urban slum to teach residents how to prepare Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) effectively. Considering the practical nature of the task and the residents' limited literacy, which educational method would be most effective for teaching them to accurately and independently prepare ORS? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Roleplay", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Demonstration", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Group discussion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flashcard", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Demonstration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Demonstration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For practical skills, especially in health education among populations with limited literacy, demonstrations provide a clear, direct way to learn and master essential tasks, ensuring that participants can effectively carry out these practices independently, enhancing their ability to respond to health needs effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following breast cancer has the best prognosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "p53", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Luminal A", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HER 2+ve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Luminal B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Luminal A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-153739.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Luminal A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Luminal A breast cancer subtype, characterized by ER/PR positivity, HER2 negativity, and low Ki67 index, has the best prognosis among breast cancer subtypes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic present with visual hallucinations and disorientation two days after the last alcohol intake. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal delirium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcoholic hallucination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dementia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alcohol withdrawal delirium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alcohol withdrawal delirium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) typically presents 48-72 hours after the last drink and is characterized by disturbances of consciousness, disorientation to time, place, and person, hallucinations (especially visual), agitation, coarse tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. Risk factors include surgery, infections or other medical conditions. It is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Treatment includes intravenous lorazepam or diazepam with thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 276-277</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the 14th century Bubonic plague outbreak in Europe, maritime authorities imposed a quarantine period for ships coming from affected areas before allowing them to dock. What was the duration of this quarantine to prevent the spread of the plague? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "7 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "14 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "40 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "60 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 40 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 40 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Quarantine is required for -</li><li>➤ Yellow fever (6 days) Cholera (from the onset of symptoms until seven days after resolution of diarrhoea) Plague (40 days)</li><li>➤ Yellow fever (6 days)</li><li>➤ Cholera (from the onset of symptoms until seven days after resolution of diarrhoea)</li><li>➤ Plague (40 days)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent Laparoscopic cholecystectomy and he was discharged on the same day. Later the patient developed severe abdominal pain and tenderness. Her liver function tests were normal, total leukocyte count was raised and Serum Amylase was also Normal. What is the most likely because of her condition? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bile leak due to bile duct injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CBD stone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right lobar pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bile leak due to bile duct injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bile leak due to bile duct injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients presenting with severe abdominal pain and tenderness after laparoscopic cholecystectomy, along with raised leukocyte count and normal liver function tests and serum amylase, a bile leak due to bile duct injury should be strongly considered.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with leprosy presented with the deformity as shown below. Which nerve injury causes the given condition? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior interosseous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ulnar nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-316.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-2-1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/15/fmge-anat-22-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ulnar nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The given image shows extension at the metacarpophalangeal joint and flexion at interphalangeal joints of the ring and little finger. It is caused by ulnar nerve injury, since ulnar nerve supplies 3 rd and 4 th lumbricals. It produces a claw hand (main engriffe). Leprosy can affect peripheral nerves and lead to their associated conditions.</li><li>• The given image shows extension at the metacarpophalangeal joint and flexion at interphalangeal joints of the ring and little finger.</li><li>• It is caused by ulnar nerve injury, since ulnar nerve supplies 3 rd and 4 th lumbricals.</li><li>• It produces a claw hand (main engriffe).</li><li>• Leprosy can affect peripheral nerves and lead to their associated conditions.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B) Radial nerve - Radial nerve injury can lead to a deformity known as \"wrist drop.\" In wrist drop, the patient is unable to extend the wrist and fingers at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and interphalangeal joints (IP). As a result, the hand hangs in a flexed position, and the fingers appear to be in a semi-flexed state. There may also be sensory loss on the dorsal aspect of the hand.</li><li>• Option B) Radial nerve -</li><li>• Option C) Median nerve - Median nerve injury can result in a deformity known as \"ape hand\" or \"Benediction hand.\" In this condition, the patient is unable to flex the thumb, index finger, and middle finger at the MCP joints. These fingers remain extended and do not participate in a grip. The thumb also remains in an extended and abducted position. This deformity resembles an ape's hand or the hand of someone making a blessing gesture (hence the term \"Benediction hand\").</li><li>• Option C) Median nerve -</li><li>• Option D) Posterior interosseous nerve - The posterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the radial nerve, and injury to it can result in a specific deformity known as \"finger drop\" or \"pointing finger.\" In this condition, the patient is unable to extend the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and interphalangeal (IP) joints, except for the thumb. The thumb remains functional. When trying to extend the fingers, they remain flexed at the MCP and IP joints, giving the appearance of pointing.</li><li>• Option D) Posterior interosseous nerve -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Injury to the ulnar nerve (known as ulnar nerve palsy), can result in Claw hand.</li><li>➤ In ulnar claw hand, the patient is unable to extend the fourth and fifth fingers (ring and pinky fingers) at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints while the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints are hyperextended. This creates a claw-like appearance of the hand. Additionally, there may be a loss of sensation along the ulnar side of the hand.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An alcoholic patient who is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis has been admitted to the emergency room for hematemesis for the last 2 days due to variceal bleeding. The patient is in shock. You are the doctor in the emergency medicine and you have started the first-line treatment, but the patient does not survive. What is the underlying cause of death in this patient? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatic failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspiration pneumonitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypovolemic shock", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypovolemic shock", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-92.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypovolemic shock</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Profound blood loss from variceal bleeding can lead to hypovolemic shock, which is the immediate cause of death in such patients if not promptly managed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged man presents with a genital ulcer, as shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Granuloma inguinale", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphogranuloma venerum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonorrhoea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Granuloma inguinale", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Granuloma inguinale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to casualty complaining of a severe headache. On examination, there was no focal neurological defect. However, neck rigidity was present. The casualty medical officer ordered an emergency CT which revealed the following finding. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subdural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pituitary apoplexy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pituitary carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-131558.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Subarachnoid hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a sudden severe headache and neck rigidity, often confirmed by CT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In evaluating a health report on a developing country, a metric is highlighted that quantifies the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births. This statistic is vital for understanding the status of maternal health and monitoring the progress of health initiatives. What is this specific metric called? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maternal mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal mortality ratio", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infant Mortality Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Under 5 Mortality rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Maternal mortality ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/screenshot-2023-11-04-114207.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Maternal mortality ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Maternal Mortality Ratio is crucial for gauging the health of pregnant women and new mothers, providing insights into the safety and quality of maternal health services in any given region.</li><li>➤ Ref. Park 27/e p635</li><li>➤ Ref. Park 27/e p635</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was operated on for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On evaluation, incidentally, cancer of the Prostate was detected and on further workup was found to have metastasis. Which of the following drug is used for treatment? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Goserelin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adriamycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cisplatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BCG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Goserelin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Goserelin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer, the preferred drug is an LHRH agonist like Goserelin to reduce testosterone levels, providing a medical alternative to surgical orchidectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old woman presented with malodorous discharge in the vagina which started a week earlier. On examination, the whiff test is positive, and the gram stain shows the presence of clue cells. This infection is commonly treated with which of the following? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nystatin pessary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metronidazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is Bacterial vaginosis, which is diagnosed by Amsel’s criteria Bacterial Vaginosis is diagnosed by Amsel’s criteria in which 3 out of 4 of these have to be present: Greyish white homogenous discharge Whiff Test Presence of Clue cells Vaginal pH: Alkaline (&gt; 4.5) Treatment is Metronidazole (200mg TDS for 7 days) or metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream</li><li>• This is Bacterial vaginosis, which is diagnosed by Amsel’s criteria Bacterial Vaginosis is diagnosed by Amsel’s criteria in which 3 out of 4 of these have to be present: Greyish white homogenous discharge Whiff Test Presence of Clue cells Vaginal pH: Alkaline (&gt; 4.5) Treatment is Metronidazole (200mg TDS for 7 days) or metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream</li><li>• Bacterial Vaginosis is diagnosed by Amsel’s criteria in which 3 out of 4 of these have to be present: Greyish white homogenous discharge Whiff Test Presence of Clue cells Vaginal pH: Alkaline (&gt; 4.5) Treatment is Metronidazole (200mg TDS for 7 days) or metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream</li><li>• Bacterial Vaginosis is diagnosed by Amsel’s criteria in which 3 out of 4 of these have to be present: Greyish white homogenous discharge Whiff Test Presence of Clue cells Vaginal pH: Alkaline (&gt; 4.5)</li><li>• Greyish white homogenous discharge Whiff Test Presence of Clue cells Vaginal pH: Alkaline (&gt; 4.5)</li><li>• Greyish white homogenous discharge</li><li>• Whiff Test</li><li>• Presence of Clue cells</li><li>• Vaginal pH: Alkaline (&gt; 4.5)</li><li>• Treatment is Metronidazole (200mg TDS for 7 days) or metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Nystatin pessary : It is an antifungal used in cases with candidial vaginitis as an alternative to azole group (clotrimazole, fluconazole) of antifungals.</li><li>• Option B. Nystatin pessary</li><li>• Option D. Azithromycin and Option C. Tetracycline (Doxycycline ) are useful in treating chlamydial infection which causes PID</li><li>• Option D. Azithromycin</li><li>• Option C. Tetracycline (Doxycycline</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bacterial vaginosis, characterized by a positive whiff test and clue cells on a gram stain, is commonly treated with metronidazole.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 152, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 61</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 152, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 61</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old patient of type 2 diabetes mellitus was controlled on oral hypoglycemic drugs. This patient presented to hospital with profuse sweating and dizziness. Suspecting Hypoglycemia, which among the following drugs is most likely responsible for the patient’s presentation? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Voglibose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vildagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glipizide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glipizide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Glipizide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drugs causing hypoglycemia:</li><li>➤ Drugs causing hypoglycemia:</li><li>➤ Insulin Sulfonylureas: Glipizide, Gliclazide, Glibenclamide Meglitinides: Nateglinide, Repaglinide Pramlintide (Amylin analogue)</li><li>➤ Insulin</li><li>➤ Insulin</li><li>➤ Sulfonylureas: Glipizide, Gliclazide, Glibenclamide</li><li>➤ Sulfonylureas: Glipizide, Gliclazide, Glibenclamide</li><li>➤ Meglitinides: Nateglinide, Repaglinide</li><li>➤ Meglitinides: Nateglinide, Repaglinide</li><li>➤ Pramlintide (Amylin analogue)</li><li>➤ Pramlintide (Amylin analogue)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows the cross-section of the trachea. Identify the structure marked? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trachealis muscle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracheal cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Submucosal Glands", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perichondrium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trachealis muscle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-323.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Trachealis muscle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The trachealis muscle, also known as the Tracheal muscle/ Tracheal ring. It is a smooth muscle that forms a continuous C-shaped ring in the posterior part of the trachea.</li><li>➤ These muscle rings are incomplete, with a gap on the posterior side, bridged by fibrous tissue. The trachealis muscle's primary function is to control the diameter of the trachea.</li><li>➤ The contraction of the trachealis muscle narrows the trachea, increasing airway resistance, and expiration. Relaxation of the muscle widens the trachea, reducing airway resistance and facilitating inspiration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thermogenin is present in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cytoplasm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lysosomes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peroxisomes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mitochondria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mitochondria</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old construction factory worker presents with dyspnoea. He has been working in this industry for the past 25 years. Which is the most specific malignancy that we can expect in this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenocarcinoma of lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malignant mesothelioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Small cell carcinoma of lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma of lung", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Malignant mesothelioma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Malignant mesothelioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malignant mesothelioma is highly specific to asbestos exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The cell marked as A in the given histological section of thyroid gland secretes which hormone? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thyroxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcitonin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parathormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calcitonin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-01-04%20192011.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Calcitonin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thyroxine -The thyroid gland produces three hormones:</li><li>➤ Thyroxine</li><li>➤ Triiodothyronine, also known as T3. Tetraiodothyronine, also called thyroxine or T4 Parathyroid hormone ( PTH )- also called parathormone or parathyrin , is a peptide hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands that regulates the serum calcium concentration through its effects on bone, kidney, and intestine</li><li>➤ Triiodothyronine, also known as T3.</li><li>➤ Tetraiodothyronine, also called thyroxine or T4</li><li>➤ Parathyroid hormone ( PTH )- also called parathormone or parathyrin , is a peptide hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands that regulates the serum calcium concentration through its effects on bone, kidney, and intestine</li><li>➤ Parathyroid hormone</li><li>➤ PTH</li><li>➤ parathormone</li><li>➤ parathyrin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient presented to hospital with tachycardia, hypertension, palpitations and pupil dilatation. He Is found to be a substance abuser. Which of the following drug withdrawal can cause the following symptoms? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LSD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Opioid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Opioid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Opioid</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the auscultatory areas of the heart from image given below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-Aortic, 2-Pulmonary, 3-Mitral, 4-Tricuspid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-Aortic, 2-Pulmonary, 3- Tricuspid, 4-Mitral", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-Mitral, 2-Pulmonary, 3- Tricuspid, 4-Mitral", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-Aortic, 2-Tricuspid, 3- Pulmonary, 4-Mitral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-Aortic, 2-Pulmonary, 3- Tricuspid, 4-Mitral", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-24.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-25.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.1-Aortic, 2-Pulmonary, 3- Tricuspid, 4-Mitral</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the auscultation areas of the heart and option B is correctly matched.</li><li>• Auscultation sounds are primarily generated by the closing of heart valves and blood flow through the chambers. Let's discuss these auscultation areas in detail:</li><li>• 1. Aortic Area (Second Right Intercostal Space) :</li><li>• 1. Aortic Area (Second Right Intercostal Space)</li><li>• Location : This area is in the second right intercostal space, just to the right of the sternum (breastbone).</li><li>• Location</li><li>• Sounds: The primary sound heard in the aortic area is the second heart sound (S2), which corresponds to the closing of the aortic valve. It is a high-pitched \"dub\" sound.</li><li>• Sounds:</li><li>• 2. Pulmonary Area (Second Left Intercostal Space) :</li><li>• 2. Pulmonary Area (Second Left Intercostal Space)</li><li>• Location : This area is in the second left intercostal space, just to the left of the sternum.</li><li>• Location</li><li>• Sounds: The primary sound heard in the pulmonary area is also the second heart sound (S2), which corresponds to the closing of the pulmonary valve. It is another high-pitched \"dub\" sound.</li><li>• Sounds:</li><li>• 3. Tricuspid Area (Fourth Left Intercostal Space) :</li><li>• 3. Tricuspid Area (Fourth Left Intercostal Space)</li><li>• Location : The tricuspid area is in the fourth left intercostal space, along the lower left sternal border.</li><li>• Location</li><li>• Sounds : The tricuspid area primarily allows for the auscultation of the first heart sound (S1), which corresponds to the closing of the tricuspid valve. S1 is a low-pitched \"lub\" sound. Additionally, some tricuspid regurgitation murmurs may be heard in this area.</li><li>• Sounds</li><li>• 4. Mitral Area (Fifth Left Intercostal Space, Midclavicular Line) :</li><li>• 4. Mitral Area (Fifth Left Intercostal Space, Midclavicular Line)</li><li>• L ocation : The mitral area is in the fifth left intercostal space, along the midclavicular line (an imaginary line drawn vertically from the midpoint of the clavicle).</li><li>• ocation</li><li>• Sounds: The mitral area primarily allows for the auscultation of the first heart sound (S1), which corresponds to the closing of the mitral valve. S1 is a low-pitched \"lub\" sound. Additionally, some mitral regurgitation murmurs may be heard in this area.</li><li>• Sounds:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Auscultation areas of the heart</li><li>➤ Auscultation areas of the heart</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male presented to emergency with head trauma due to road traffic accident. In hospital, the patient developed seizures. Emergency CT scan revealed widespread cerebral edema. Which of the following is diuretic of choice for cerebral edema in this patient? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrochlorothiazide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mannitol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Mannitol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important indications of mannitol are:</li><li>➤ Important indications of mannitol are:</li><li>➤ Acute congestive glaucoma (DOC) Cerebral edema (DOC) Incipient renal failure</li><li>➤ Acute congestive glaucoma (DOC)</li><li>➤ Acute congestive glaucoma (DOC)</li><li>➤ Cerebral edema (DOC)</li><li>➤ Cerebral edema (DOC)</li><li>➤ Incipient renal failure</li><li>➤ Incipient renal failure</li><li>➤ Contra-indications of Mannitol are:</li><li>➤ Contra-indications of Mannitol are:</li><li>➤ Congestive heart failure Pulmonary edema Acute renal failure Cerebral hemorrhage</li><li>➤ Congestive heart failure</li><li>➤ Congestive heart failure</li><li>➤ Pulmonary edema</li><li>➤ Pulmonary edema</li><li>➤ Acute renal failure</li><li>➤ Acute renal failure</li><li>➤ Cerebral hemorrhage</li><li>➤ Cerebral hemorrhage</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which filter is used in a colposcope? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Black", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Green", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Green", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Green</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Green is the color of the filter used in a colposcope. Colposcopy is a procedure in which the cervix is seen on microscopy. This device offers binocular vision with a 6x–15x magnification. To see the vascular pattern clearly, a green filter is utilized to investigate vascular patterns. The distinctive vascular pattern of abnormal regions, such as mosaic, reticular, and punctate, can be used to identify them. Grading is done using Reid Colposcopic Index. Colposcopic examination may be assisted using acetic acid (3-5℅) which stains the abnormal area white (due to clumping of nuclear chromatin) or by the use of Lugol’s iodine where normal cells take up the brown stain (due to glycogen content) whereas the abnormal areas remain unstained.</li><li>• Green is the color of the filter used in a colposcope.</li><li>• Colposcopy is a procedure in which the cervix is seen on microscopy.</li><li>• This device offers binocular vision with a 6x–15x magnification.</li><li>• To see the vascular pattern clearly, a green filter is utilized to investigate vascular patterns. The distinctive vascular pattern of abnormal regions, such as mosaic, reticular, and punctate, can be used to identify them.</li><li>• Grading is done using Reid Colposcopic Index.</li><li>• Colposcopic examination may be assisted using acetic acid (3-5℅) which stains the abnormal area white (due to clumping of nuclear chromatin) or by the use of Lugol’s iodine where normal cells take up the brown stain (due to glycogen content) whereas the abnormal areas remain unstained.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Black : A black filter is not used in colposcopy. Black filters do not aid in visualizing vascular patterns.</li><li>• Option A. Black</li><li>• Option B. Red : A red filter is not typically used in colposcopy. Red filters do not enhance the visibility of the vascular patterns necessary for this procedure.</li><li>• Option B. Red</li><li>• Option D. Yellow : A yellow filter is not used in colposcopy. Yellow filters are not useful in differentiating the vascular patterns of the cervix.</li><li>• Option D. Yellow</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The green filter in a colposcope is used to clearly visualize the vascular patterns of the cervix, aiding in the identification of abnormal regions.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 115, Williams textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 665</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 115, Williams textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 665</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation comes to the ER with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Nausea and vomiting began one day back and now the patient is unable to tolerate fluids. She complains of pain in the right upper quadrant which started a few hours back. On examination, her temperature is 100.2 F, the pulse is 118 bpm and her BP is 110/70 mm of Hg. She has swelling of her lower limbs up to the ankles bilaterally. Abdominal examination shows a gravid uterus corresponding to 10 weeks of gestation and tenderness in the right upper quadrant, with mild guarding and is diagnosed as acute appendicitis. What is the next step of management? (FMGE DEC 2021) Complete blood count Hemoglobin: 11g/dL Leukocytes: 13,000 cells/uL Platelets: 150,000 cells/uL Liver function tests Aspartate transaminase (AST): 40U/L Alanine transaminase (ALT): 48U/L Urinalysis Protein: negative Pus cells: 1-2/HPF Bacteria: none USG Abdomen: Reveals a 7mm diameter, peristaltic, non-compressible, dilated, blind-ending structure arising from the base of the caecum:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Do appendicectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wait till 2nd trimester", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conservative management", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reassurance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Do appendicectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Do appendicectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Laparoscopic appendicectomy is the next stage of treatment at the earliest. It is possible to do a laparoscopic appendectomy before 28 weeks of pregnancy. The most frequent surgical, non-gynecological cause of acute abdomen in pregnancy is acute appendicitis. Whenever acute appendicitis is suspected, it is better to operate since perforation and peritonitis can result in significant maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. While performing laparoscopy, the position of trocars, type of entry, and rate of CO2 insufflation need to be adjusted due to the gravid uterus.</li><li>• Laparoscopic appendicectomy is the next stage of treatment at the earliest. It is possible to do a laparoscopic appendectomy before 28 weeks of pregnancy.</li><li>• The most frequent surgical, non-gynecological cause of acute abdomen in pregnancy is acute appendicitis.</li><li>• Whenever acute appendicitis is suspected, it is better to operate since perforation and peritonitis can result in significant maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.</li><li>• While performing laparoscopy, the position of trocars, type of entry, and rate of CO2 insufflation need to be adjusted due to the gravid uterus.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Wait till 2nd trimester : This is not recommended as delaying surgery can lead to complications such as perforation and peritonitis, which can significantly increase maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.</li><li>• Option B. Wait till 2nd trimester</li><li>• Option C. Conservative management : Conservative management is not advisable in cases of suspected acute appendicitis during pregnancy due to the high risk of complications.</li><li>• Option C. Conservative management</li><li>• Option D. Reassurance : Reassurance is not appropriate in this scenario as acute appendicitis requires surgical intervention.</li><li>• Option D. Reassurance</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pregnant women with suspected acute appendicitis, prompt surgical intervention, preferably a laparoscopic appendectomy, is recommended to avoid complications.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24th edition pg 1079,</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24th edition pg 1079,</li><li>➤ 928, Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 355</li><li>➤ 928, Duttas textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 355</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-day old baby is passing greenish-yellow fecal discharge from the umbilicus. What could be the embryological cause of this condition? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patent Allantois", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Patent Vitello intestinal duct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meckel’s diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patent umbilical end of the omphalomesenteric duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Patent Vitello intestinal duct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Patent Vitello intestinal duct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A patent Vitello-intestinal duct can lead to the passage of fecal matter from the umbilicus in newborns.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 61-year-old male presented to physician with fever, weight loss, fatigue and pallor. CBC shows: Hb- 9mg/dl, TLC- 17000/mm 3 , Basophil -4%, Platelet count 1,60,000/cumm, myeloid blasts &lt;11%. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HCL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ALL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CML", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "NHL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CML", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CML</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome t (9;22), leading to the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which can be diagnosed using FISH.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of gene mutation is seen in hereditary hemochromatosis disease? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ceruloplasmin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transferrin receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ATP7B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HFE", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HFE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-114329.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) HFE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hereditary hemochromatosis is caused by mutations in the HFE gene, leading to iron overload and associated complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A government health department launches a campaign to raise awareness about tobacco's effects, focusing exclusively on extreme cases of tobacco-related illnesses without broader context. What is this type of biased or misleading information dissemination, aimed at promoting a specific cause, best described as? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Health Propaganda", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Health promotion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Health education", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Advocacy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Health Propaganda", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-174211.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Health Propaganda</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was operated for prostate carcinoma and during surgery, local metastasis was noted. Which of the following drug should this patient receive? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tamsulosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desmopressin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Octreotide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leuprolide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Leuprolide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Leuprolide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with prostate cancer, especially with noted local metastasis, drugs that suppress testosterone production, such as Leuprolide, are essential for slowing the progression of the disease. This approach is particularly relevant in cases where the cancer is known to be hormone-sensitive. Continuous administration of GnRH agonists like Leuprolide is a cornerstone of advanced prostate cancer treatment, aiming to reduce testosterone levels and subsequently the growth stimulus of the cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the airway examination test given below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mallampati grading", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ASA scoring", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glasgow coma scale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cormack –Lehane grading", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mallampati grading", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-193.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-122433_HqOPs2k.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mallampati grading</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Mallampati grading system is a pre-anesthetic assessment tool used to predict difficult tracheal intubation by classifying the visibility of oropharyngeal structures. It is essential for anesthesiologists to evaluate airway management needs.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1379</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 1379</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old male came to the physician with complaints of chronic back pain and easy fatigability and a past history of multiple urinary tract infections in the last 3 months. His ESR is elevated and X-ray of his skull is shown below. Which of the following investigations will be useful for diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI brain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PET scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Head CT scan with contrast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum electrophoresis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Serum electrophoresis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-132025.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Serum electrophoresis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serum electrophoresis is essential for diagnosing multiple myeloma as it detects monoclonal proteins (M proteins) in the blood, which are indicative of this malignancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common pattern in CT of patients affected with COVID-19? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interlobular septal thickenings", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Air bronchograms", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ground glass opacity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crazy paving pattern", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ground glass opacity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ground glass opacity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ground glass opacities are the most common CT finding in COVID-19 pneumonia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image shown below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scar", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tattoo", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ligature Mark", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Scar", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/100.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Scar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypertrophic scars are raised, red scars that stay within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the original wound boundaries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presented in her 8th week of pregnancy seeking MTP. The appropriate dosage of Misoprostol (administered by mucosal route) would be? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "200 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "600 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "400 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "800 mcg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 800 mcg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-245.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 800 mcg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Medical MTP:</li><li>• Medical MTP:</li><li>• Success Rate:</li><li>• Success Rate:</li><li>• 95 - 99% till 7 weeks 90 - 95% 7 – 9 weeks</li><li>• 95 - 99% till 7 weeks</li><li>• 95 - 99% till 7 weeks</li><li>• 90 - 95% 7 – 9 weeks</li><li>• 90 - 95% 7 – 9 weeks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For medical termination of pregnancy in the 7-9 week period, the appropriate dosage of misoprostol administered by the mucosal route is 800 mcg.</li><li>➤ For medical termination of pregnancy in the 7-9 week period, the appropriate dosage of misoprostol administered by the mucosal route is 800 mcg.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 203</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 203</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cholesterol is synthesized from:(FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acetyl CoA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malonyl CoA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenylalanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxaloacetate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acetyl CoA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acetyl CoA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cholesterol synthesis begins with acetyl CoA, a two-carbon molecule that serves as a building block for many biosynthetic pathways. In the liver, multiple acetyl CoA molecules are combined to eventually form cholesterol through a complex series of reactions. This process involves the key intermediate mevalonate and several enzymatic steps, including the rate-limiting step catalyzed by HMG-CoA reductase.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 260</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 260</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When analyzing the characteristics of the normal distribution curve, how much of the data is expected to fall within one standard deviation from the mean in such distributions? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "34%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "68%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "95%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "99%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 68%", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/20/fmge-psm-june-2020-08-2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/20/fmge-psm-june-2020-08-3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 68 %</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Serial monitoring of serum beta hCG is required for which of the following conditions? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Downs syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pregnancy associated with Neural tube defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molar Pregnancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rh negative pregnancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Molar Pregnancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Molar pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Serum testing repeatedly A molar pregnancy is tested for with beta CG. Serum hCG levels are monitored after the termination of molar pregnancy (post evacuation surveillance) Post Evacuation Surveillance Risk of progression to GTN Done by serial measurement of β hCG to detect persistent/ renewed trophoblastic proliferation. 2 days post evacuation – Baseline Then weekly till negative (7 weeks for partial; 9 weeks for complete) Then monthly for 6 months Contraception</li><li>• Serum testing repeatedly A molar pregnancy is tested for with beta CG.</li><li>• Serum hCG levels are monitored after the termination of molar pregnancy (post evacuation surveillance) Post Evacuation Surveillance Risk of progression to GTN Done by serial measurement of β hCG to detect persistent/ renewed trophoblastic proliferation. 2 days post evacuation – Baseline Then weekly till negative (7 weeks for partial; 9 weeks for complete) Then monthly for 6 months Contraception</li><li>• Post Evacuation Surveillance Risk of progression to GTN Done by serial measurement of β hCG to detect persistent/ renewed trophoblastic proliferation. 2 days post evacuation – Baseline Then weekly till negative (7 weeks for partial; 9 weeks for complete) Then monthly for 6 months Contraception</li><li>• Post Evacuation Surveillance</li><li>• Post Evacuation Surveillance</li><li>• Risk of progression to GTN</li><li>• Done by serial measurement of β hCG to detect persistent/ renewed trophoblastic proliferation.</li><li>• 2 days post evacuation – Baseline</li><li>• Then weekly till negative (7 weeks for partial; 9 weeks for complete)</li><li>• Then monthly for 6 months</li><li>• Contraception</li><li>• Other options :</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Option A. Downs syndrome: Trisomy 21:</li><li>• Option A. Downs syndrome: Trisomy 21:</li><li>• First trimester screening : NT-NB scan and Dual marker test (beta HCG raised, PAPPA pregnancy associated plasma protein A decreased) Second trimester screening : Quadruple marker test ( Beta HCG : raised; Alpha feto protein : decreased; Unconjugated estradiol: decreased Inhibin A : raised</li><li>• First trimester screening : NT-NB scan and Dual marker test (beta HCG raised, PAPPA pregnancy associated plasma protein A decreased)</li><li>• First trimester screening</li><li>• Second trimester screening : Quadruple marker test ( Beta HCG : raised; Alpha feto protein : decreased; Unconjugated estradiol: decreased Inhibin A : raised</li><li>• Second trimester screening</li><li>• Option B. Pregnancy associated with Neural tube defects : raised levels of alpha feto protein</li><li>• Option B. Pregnancy associated with Neural tube defects</li><li>• Option D. Rh negative pregnancy : when the fetus is Rh positive causes isoimmunization which may affect subsequent pregnancies. Indirect Coombs test (ICT) done at monthly intervals is useful to monitor these cases. A titer more than 1:16 is considered significant.</li><li>• Option D. Rh negative pregnancy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serial monitoring of serum beta hCG is essential for post-evacuation surveillance of molar pregnancy to detect persistent or renewed trophoblastic proliferation, helping to manage and monitor the risk of progression to gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 227</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 227</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old girl is brought to a clinic with a fever lasting two days and increased breathlessness. She has a respiratory rate of 51 breaths per minute and shows chest indrawing with each breath, but she can feed without difficulty and shows no signs of cyanosis. Based on her age and symptoms, what is the most appropriate initial management for her condition? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Home management", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotic, follow up", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immediate referral", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antibiotic and immediate referral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Antibiotic, follow up", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/picture700.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Antibiotic, follow up</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the Battle sign? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mastoid ecchymosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Periorbital hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bezold abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perichondritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mastoid ecchymosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102086.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Mastoid ecchymosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Battle’s sign is ecchymosis over the mastoid seen in fractures of temporal bone</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 507</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old man with hypertension is seeking dietary advice to help manage his blood pressure. He wants to know which of the following foods he should eat less frequently due to its high sodium content. (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cereals", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green vegetable", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loaf of bread", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Canned soup", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Loaf of bread", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Loaf of bread</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For managing hypertension, it's crucial to monitor and limit sodium intake.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient aged 25 years, presents with hypopigmented macules over the back and upper trunk. On KOH mount, spaghetti and meat ball appearance was seen. What can be the causative agent? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malassezia furfur", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tinea nigra", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichosporon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Malassezia furfur", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd30.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_58.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_59.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Malassezia furfur</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ P ityriasis versicolor is diagnosed by its clinical presentation of hypopigmented macules and the characteristic \"spaghetti and meatball \" appearance of Malassezia furfur on KOH mount.Top of Form</li><li>➤ ityriasis versicolor</li><li>➤ hypopigmented macules</li><li>➤ \"spaghetti and meatball</li><li>➤ Malassezia furfur</li><li>➤ KOH</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition</li><li>↳ Chapter 32, Page nos 32.11-32.13</li><li>↳ Chapter 32, Page nos 32.11-32.13</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a 9-year-old child, the following features are observed: (FMGE DEC 2021) History of recurrent visits for infection Atrophy of the thymus and parathyroid glands Presence of facial defects Microdeletion in chromosome 22q11.2 Based on these findings, which syndrome is most likely to be associated with this presentation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DiGeorge syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Down syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gilbert syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. DiGeorge syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/picture2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) DiGeorge syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A village in Uttar Pradesh plans to manage its waste by constructing a 2-meter deep trench for 10,000 residents. What is the ideal land area needed for this project? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 acre", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 acres", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 acres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 acres", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 acre", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 acre</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For waste management involving trenching, approximately 1 acre is suitable for every 10,000 residents.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old woman visits a reproductive health clinic with symptoms of malodorous vaginal discharge and persistent cramping lower abdominal pain, following an unprotected sexual encounter about a month ago. Her pelvic examination reveals cervical motion tenderness and purulent discharge. To assist with diagnosis and treatment, the physician opts for a specific color-coded STD kit. Which kit is typically used for these symptoms? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kit 7 – Black", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kit 5 – Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kit 4 – Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kit 6 – Yellow", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Kit 6 – Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-120638.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Kit 6 – Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ STD Color coded kits and their indications are as follows: -</li><li>➤ STD Color coded kits and their indications are as follows: -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibits Vit K dependent factors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibits factor X", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Promotes fibrinolysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Activation of thrombin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Promotes fibrinolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-114829.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Promotes fibrinolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alteplase's ability to promote fibrinolysis by converting plasminogen to plasmin directly at the site of a thrombus makes it a vital drug in the treatment of conditions caused by arterial or venous thrombosis. Its use must be carefully managed to balance the benefits of clot dissolution with the risks of serious bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old intellectually disabled boy was brought with large warty crusts on the trunk, hands &amp; feet as shown below. Severe fissuring &amp; scaling of the skin noted over the soles. What is the possible diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scabies incognito", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Animal scabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nodular scabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Norwegian scabies", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Norwegian scabies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd35.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd36.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd37.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Norwegian scabies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Norwegian scabies identified by its hallmark presentation of extensive crusting and scaling , particularly in patients with compromised immune systems or sensory deficits , as it requires prompt and aggressive treatment to prevent outbreaks.</li><li>➤ Norwegian scabies</li><li>➤ crusting</li><li>➤ scaling</li><li>➤ compromised immune systems</li><li>➤ sensory deficits</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 34 page no 34.42, 34.43, 34.45, 34.47</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the investigation shown? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT enterography", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barium enteroclysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium meal follow-through", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT enteroclysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CT enterography", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_170.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_171.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. CT enterography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ CT enterography is particularly useful for identifying and evaluating small bowel pathologies, such as tumors, inflammation, and strictures, using a non-invasive method that provides comprehensive details of the bowel and surrounding tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the term used for excessive sexual desire in men? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Voyeurism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sadism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nymphomania", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Satyriasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Satyriasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Satyriasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Satyriasis is the term used to describe excessive sexual desire in men. It's the male counterpart to the term nymphomania in women.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 591.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old farmer from the hills of Mizoram presents with symptoms of intense episodic fever and shaking chills, accompanied by an enlarged spleen. Blood tests confirm a P. falciparum malaria infection. Considering the regional resistance profiles and climatic conditions of Mizoram, which antimalarial regimen is most appropriate as the first-line treatment? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Artemether plus lumefantrine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Choroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mefloquine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Artemether plus lumefantrine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Artemether plus lumefantrine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Artemether plus Lumefantrine is the initial treatment for P. falciparum malaria in NE states as per current guidelines that recommend effective and rapid-acting therapies suitable for regions with documented resistance to traditional antimalarials</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health officer is setting occupancy guidelines for a residential facility to prevent overcrowding and ensure good ventilation. What is the maximum recommended number of people that can be accommodated in two rooms to promote a healthy living environment? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-162111.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/screenshot-2023-11-04-122256.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended spaces:</li><li>➤ Recommended spaces:</li><li>➤ Floor space per person in a house: minimum 70– 90 sq. ft. Floor area per student in a class: &gt; 10 sq. ft. Space per worker in a factory (The Factory Act, 1948): &gt;500 cu. Ft 3 people maximum can be accommodated in 2 rooms.</li><li>➤ Floor space per person in a house: minimum 70– 90 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor area per student in a class: &gt; 10 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Space per worker in a factory (The Factory Act, 1948): &gt;500 cu. Ft</li><li>➤ 3 people maximum can be accommodated in 2 rooms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following best describes the postmortem image given below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cutis anserina", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rigor mortis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cadaveric spasm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Café coronary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cadaveric spasm", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/96.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cadaveric spasm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cadaveric spasm</li><li>➤ Cadaveric spasm</li><li>➤ It is a condition in which the muscles of the body which were in a state of contraction immediately before death, continue to be so after death without passing through the stage of primary relaxation. Cadaveric spasm, being an antemortem phenomenon, reflects the last act of the subject Occurs immediately after death. Only Selected muscles involved (Hands) Intensity of muscle contraction is much more as compared to Rigor Mortis Mechanism: Not known</li><li>➤ It is a condition in which the muscles of the body which were in a state of contraction immediately before death, continue to be so after death without passing through the stage of primary relaxation.</li><li>➤ Cadaveric spasm, being an antemortem phenomenon, reflects the last act of the subject</li><li>➤ Occurs immediately after death.</li><li>➤ Only Selected muscles involved (Hands)</li><li>➤ Intensity of muscle contraction is much more as compared to Rigor Mortis</li><li>➤ Mechanism: Not known</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old man presented with weight loss, decreased appetite, and iron deficiency anemia. Chest X-ray was done and given below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lung metastasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchogenic carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Miliary tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mesothelioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lung metastasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-131702.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lung metastasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lung metastasis is indicated by the presence of multiple nodules in the lungs, often accompanied by systemic symptoms like weight loss and decreased appetite in patients with known primary cancers</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient comes to your clinic with an 8-month history of shortness of breath and non-productive cough. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes for the past 30 years. On physical examination, clubbing is seen, and fine crackles are heard on both sides during inspiration. You perform pulmonary function tests, and it shows an FVC of 78% and FEV1/FVC ratio of 92%. You request a CT scan of the chest. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchial Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary Fibrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "COPD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pulmonary Fibrosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-131835.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pulmonary Fibrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulmonary fibrosis presents with restrictive lung disease, clubbing, and fine crackles on examination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An intern observed that a patient was unresponsive, and an ECG which was performed urgently showed an arrhythmia as below. DC shock was delivered but the arrhythmia persisted and the patient is still unresponsive. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Synchronised cardioversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Continue CPR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deliver another DC shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 mg epinephrine IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Continue CPR", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-125438.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Continue CPR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After delivering an initial DC shock in a cardiac arrest situation, the next step is to continue CPR to maintain circulation until further advanced interventions can be administered.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of tachycardia, tachypnea, sweating and diarrhea. The overdose of which of the following agents can cause these symptoms? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Opioid poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cocaine poisoning", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannabis poisoning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cocaine poisoning", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cocaine poisoning</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Cocaine poisoning can present with symptoms of sympathomimetic toxicity due to its effect on neurotransmitter reuptake. It is characterized by tachycardia, palpitations, hypertension, sweating, mydriasis, paranoid ideations and auditory hallucinations. Tactile hallucinations (“ magnun phenomenon ” or cocaine bugs ) is also seen.</li><li>➤ magnun phenomenon</li><li>➤ cocaine bugs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 303</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A non-alcoholic patient starts developing a strong belief that his daughter is trying to kill him, which is not true. What is the diagnosis? ( FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bipolar disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delusional disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Xenophobia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Delusional disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Delusional disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delusional disorder is characterized by one or more delusions that persist for at least one month, without other significant psychiatric symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 345-346</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old clinical researcher is setting up a trial to evaluate a new antihypertensive drug. He wants to ensure the trial design eliminates biases that could arise from non-random assignment of participants, which might affect the study's validity. Which method would be most effective in making sure that participants in both the treatment and control groups are comparable at the start of the trial? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Matching", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blinding", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Randomization", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stratification", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Randomization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-162947.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Randomization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Randomization is the cornerstone of a well-conducted randomized controlled trial, essential for ensuring that treatment and control groups are equivalent at baseline and that the results are generalizable and free from selection bias.</li><li>➤ Randomization is Superior to BOTH Matching and Blinding</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Randomization is done to remove selection bias. It ensures comparability of both the groups by removal of both known and unknown confounding factors.</li><li>↳ Other Options:</li><li>↳ Other Options:</li><li>↳ Option A. Matching: Involves pairing individuals who have similar characteristics before allocating them to treatment groups. It's primarily used in observational studies to control confounding, but it does not eliminate the risk of selection bias inherent in non-random assignment.</li><li>↳ Option A. Matching:</li><li>↳ Option B. Blinding: This technique ensures that the participants, caregivers, or those evaluating the outcomes do not know which treatment the participant received, thereby preventing measurement and observer bias.</li><li>↳ Option B. Blinding:</li><li>↳ Option D. Stratification: Involves dividing participants into subgroups based on one or more characteristics, and then randomizing within these strata. It ensures balance between treatment groups in terms of the stratified variable, but by itself, it does not eliminate selection bias.</li><li>↳ Option D. Stratification:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old pregnant woman in 7 th week of pregnancy presents with right lower abdominal quadrant pain. She was diagnosed with acute appendicitis. What is the best management for this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate Laparoscopic appendectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wait till 28 weeks of pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oschner Sherren regimen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MTP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Immediate Laparoscopic appendectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Immediate Laparoscopic appendectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appropriate management of acute appendicitis in a pregnant patient is immediate laparoscopic appendectomy to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The neurovascular plane of the abdominal wall lies in? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Between the internal oblique and external oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep to transversus abdominis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Between the internal oblique and rectus abdominis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_fmge-anat-2-2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_fmge-anat-23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The neurovascular plane of the abdominal wall is a clinically significant anatomical plane that is used for certain surgical procedures and regional anesthesia. It lies between the internal oblique muscle and the transversus abdominis muscle</li><li>• neurovascular plane of the abdominal wall</li><li>• internal oblique muscle</li><li>• transversus abdominis muscle</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A) Between the Internal Oblique and External Oblique : The space between the internal oblique and external oblique muscles is not typically referred to as the neurovascular plane of the abdominal wall. These two muscles are adjacent and superficial to the deeper muscles, such as the transversus abdominis.</li><li>• Option A) Between the Internal Oblique and External Oblique</li><li>• Option B) Deep to Transversus Abdominis : This option is incorrect because the neurovascular plane is located between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles, not deep to the transversus abdominis.</li><li>• Option B) Deep to Transversus Abdominis</li><li>• Option C) Between the Internal Oblique and Rectus Abdominis : The space between the internal oblique and rectus abdominis muscles is known as the arcuate line , but it is not typically referred to as the neurovascular plane. The arcuate line represents a transition in the muscle layers of the abdominal wall.</li><li>• Option C)</li><li>• Between the Internal Oblique and Rectus Abdominis</li><li>• arcuate line</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The neurovascular plane of the abdominal wall is located between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This plane is important for certain surgical procedures, such as transversus abdominis plane (TAP) blocks, where local anesthetic is injected into this plane to provide regional anesthesia for abdominal surgeries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old man presents to the clinic with a persistent cough, weight loss, and chest pain over the past few months. His occupational history reveals prolonged exposure to construction materials. On further inquiry, he mentions he used to work in a facility that used asbestos extensively. Given the strong occupational association and the nature of his symptoms, which of the following occupational diseases is most commonly linked with an increased risk of lung malignancy? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Asbestosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/category_page_5_qYGYiuQ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Asbestosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under Factories Act 1948, there are 29 diseases which are notifiable (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of toxin is released by the snake shown below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hematotoxic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myotoxic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neurotoxic", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vasculotoxic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neurotoxic", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/95.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/screenshot-2023-10-28-160040.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Neurotoxic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An El Tor vibrio was identified to be the causative agent of a diarrhea epidemic. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of this organism? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Resistant to El Tor phage V", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intrinsic resistance to polymyxin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Voges-Proskauer test is positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Not susceptible to group IV phage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Resistant to El Tor phage V", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Resistant to El Tor phage V</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ El Tor vibrios are characterized by their susceptibility to El Tor phage V, intrinsic resistance to polymyxin B, positive Voges-Proskauer test, and non-susceptibility to group IV phage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old patient complaints of progressive pallor, loss of appetite and abdominal fullness for last 7 months. His bone marrow aspiration revealed band neutrophils with basophil count of 4%, increased number of Myelocytes and metamyelocytes. He also has elevated platelet count and leukocytosis. Which is the likely finding in this patient? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "t (8; 14)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "t (14;18)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "t (9;22)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "t (15;27)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. t (9;22)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-112329.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) t (9;22)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome t (9;22), leading to the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which can be diagnosed using FISH.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Tall and tented T waves, wide QRS, and absent P wave are features of: (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bundle branch block", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute MI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular ectopic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hyperkalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia shows tall T waves, wide QRS complexes, and absent P waves on ECG.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Bollywood actress is on a Vegan Diet presented to the OPD with weakness and fatigue. Her CBC report shows her hemoglobin to be low. Her peripheral blood smear is given below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Folic acid deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/picture3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-308.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency is commonly seen in individuals following a strict vegetarian or vegan diet and presents with megaloblastic anemia and hypersegmented neutrophils on the peripheral blood smear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9 young boy was brought to hospital with complaints of few episodes of fast blinking and staring at something for around 20 seconds. EEG shows spike and wave pattern. Which of the following drug should be used for treatment? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium valproate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbamazepine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sodium valproate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sodium valproate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For managing absence seizures, particularly in children, Sodium Valproate offers effective control and is a well-established first-line treatment. It's important for clinicians to differentiate between types of seizures when prescribing antiepileptic drugs to ensure that the chosen medication will not exacerbate the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female presented to the emergency with upper abdominal pain radiating to the back. On X-ray, Colon Cut off sign is seen. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute Cholecystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute appendicitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute Pancreatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic Pancreatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute Pancreatitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-98.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute Pancreatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"colon cut off sign\" on X-ray is indicative of acute pancreatitis, characterized by severe epigastric pain radiating to the back.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old police man presents with bony pain. His calcium level is 14mg/dL. As per given image, what is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LCH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paget’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Multiple myeloma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-299.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Multiple Myeloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple myeloma is characterized by hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and lytic bone lesions, with distinctive punched out lesions seen on skull radiographs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child got a sting bite. After that, the child presented with hypotension, edema, breathlessness. Which of the following antibody is responsible for this? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgE", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgM", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IgE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-152638.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) IgE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE antibodies, which cause mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, leading to symptoms such as hypotension, edema, and breathlessness following an allergen exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain and difficulty swallowing. He describes the chest pain as a squeezing sensation that radiates to his back. He has been experiencing intermittent episodes of chest pain and difficulty swallowing for the past few months, but this episode is the most severe and has lasted for the past 30 minutes. Barium swallow was done and is shown here. What is the sign? ( FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corkscrew esophagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rat tail sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bird beak sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Feline esophagus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Corkscrew esophagus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_161.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_162.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_163.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_164.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Corkscrew esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corkscrew appearance of the esophagus on a barium swallow study is indicative of diffuse esophageal spasm, a condition that should be considered in patients presenting with non-cardiac chest pain and dysphagia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man presented with excessive fatigability towards the end of the day that improved with rest. He also gives a history of ptosis, difficulty in speech, and swallowing. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lambert-Eaton syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Myasthenia gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis presents with fluctuating muscle weakness that improves with rest, and symptoms like ptosis, and difficulty in speech and swallowing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Tetralogy of Fallot is most commonly associated with which of the following: (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Klinefelter’s syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Edwards syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Downs syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Turner’s syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Downs syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1_1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/916.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Downs syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect that is most commonly associated with Down syndrome (trisomy 21).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug is contraindicated in XDR tuberculosis in pregnancy? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kanamycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethambutol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyrazinamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amoxycillin- clavulanic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kanamycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Kanamycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aminoglycosides and injectable drugs like Streptomycin, Capreomycin, Kanamycin, Amikacin etc. are not used for treatment of TB In pregnancy. These are teratogenic drugs causing hearing loss in baby so C/I in pregnancy. Fluoroquinolones likes Moxifloxacin are also avoided in pregnancy for most infections but can be used in XDR (Extensive drug resistant) TB in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Aminoglycosides and injectable drugs like Streptomycin, Capreomycin, Kanamycin, Amikacin etc. are not used for treatment of TB In pregnancy. These are teratogenic drugs causing hearing loss in baby so C/I in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Aminoglycosides and injectable drugs like Streptomycin, Capreomycin, Kanamycin, Amikacin etc. are not used for treatment of TB In pregnancy. These are teratogenic drugs causing hearing loss in baby so C/I in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Fluoroquinolones likes Moxifloxacin are also avoided in pregnancy for most infections but can be used in XDR (Extensive drug resistant) TB in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Fluoroquinolones likes Moxifloxacin are also avoided in pregnancy for most infections but can be used in XDR (Extensive drug resistant) TB in pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient has developed tuberculosis in which mycobacterium is resistant to rifampicin, isoniazid, bedaquiline, and levofloxacin. This tuberculosis is referred to as? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MDR TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin resistant TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extensively drug resistant TB", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extremely drug resistant TB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Extensively drug resistant TB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-112751.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Extensively drug resistant TB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Terminologies used for tuberculosis are as follows:</li><li>➤ Terminologies used for tuberculosis are as follows:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient suffering from inflammatory bowel disease presented with ileal perforation and peritonitis. Intra-operatively, severe peritoneal contamination is found. What is the surgical management of choice in this patient? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ileostomy and definitive surgery later", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ileal pouch-anal anastomosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Resection of the diseased segment and anastomosis of the normal segment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right hemicolectomy and ileo - transverse anastomosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ileostomy and definitive surgery later", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ileostomy and definite surgery later</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with Crohn’s disease presenting with ileal perforation and severe peritoneal contamination, the preferred surgical management is to perform an ileostomy and plan for definitive surgery later, to minimize complications and allow for stabilization of the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-day old male neonate who has not yet passed meconium developed abdominal distension. There is no history of fever. On rectal examination, forceful expulsion of stool was observed. A barium enema is performed and the findings are shown in the image below. Which of the following is the gold standard for the diagnosis of the above condition? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ultrasonography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI Abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rectal biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anorectal manometry", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rectal biopsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-200.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/919.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rectal biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hirschsprung's disease is best diagnosed with a rectal biopsy, which shows the absence of ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexus.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition, Chapter- 358, – Page No- 7769.</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Nelson 21 st Edition, Chapter- 358, – Page No- 7769.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following condition is true about fed state? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in insulin level and decrease in glucagon level", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in glucagon level and decrease in insulin level", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both insulin and glucagon levels decrease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only insulin levels increase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increase in insulin level and decrease in glucagon level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increase in insulin level and decrease in glucagon level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the fed state, after a meal, the body experiences an increase in insulin levels which is an anabolic hormone. Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells for energy production and promotes the storage of excess glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscles. Simultaneously, glucagon levels decrease in the fed state. Glucagon, which is released in response to low blood glucose levels (fasting state), promotes the release of glucose from the liver.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 188</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 188</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which hormone is produced by parafollicular cells: (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parathormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcitonin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "T3/T4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TSH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calcitonin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Calcitonin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parafollicular cells (C cells) in the thyroid gland produce calcitonin, which helps regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the blood.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The vertical plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts is known as? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coronal plane", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transverse plane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Axial plane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Median plane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Coronal plane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-21.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Coronal plane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male presented to emergency in comatose state after consuming some unknown fruit. Excessive sweating is evident and on general physical examination, there is bradycardia and his Blood Pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Which of the following drugs is the antidote for the treatment of this patient? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neostigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Physostigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "N-acetylcysteine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atropine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Atropine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected organophosphate poisoning, prompt administration of atropine is critical for reversing life-threatening muscarinic symptoms. Monitoring and supportive care in an intensive care setting are also necessary to manage the patient's condition effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient after resection of lipoma on the neck, developed an elevated scar which showed itching and burning sensation. The scar was contained within the wound margin. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keloid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertrophic scar", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Suture granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incision cut", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypertrophic scar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-89.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-88.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-90.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-174718.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypertrophic scar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding vasectomy? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The procedure is done under local anesthesia.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sterility is achieved 3 weeks after the procedure.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A no-scalpel technique is being widely used now.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The vas deferens is the structure that is divided in the procedure.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sterility is achieved 3 weeks after the procedure.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sterility is achieved 3 weeks after the procedure.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sterility is not immediately achieved after a vasectomy and may take up to three months, requiring confirmation through semen analysis to ensure azoospermia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 495, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg. 118</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 495, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg. 118</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with a history of infertility is on treatment with HMG. She presented the following finding in the US. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Theca lutein cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PCOD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/999.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image is a transvaginal ultrasound showing the ovaries which appear significantly enlarged. In view of her history of controlled ovarian hyperstimulation in IVF, the answer is OHSS Theca lutein cysts are enlarged cysts seen in molar pregnancy PCOS is a risk factor for OHSS, in view of the history, OHSS is a more appropriate answer Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is characterized by multiple ovarian follicular cysts accompanied by increased capillary permeability and leakage of intravascular fluid to the third space. It is commonly seen after exogenous administration of FSH, LH or HCG injections. Bilateral ovaries are enlarged and show presence of multiple follicular cysts The OHSS risk is high in women with PCOS with high AMH, high AFC Or with history of previous high response. Risk can be reduced using antagonist protocol with GnRH agonist trigger . The mainstay of management is conservative. The ongoing stimulation cycle is suspended, and further administration of exogenous gonadotropins is stopped in that cycle. Severe OHSS can also cause ascites, pleural effusion, liver dysfunction, raised hematocrit (&gt;55%), oliguria, thromboembolic phenomenon etc. and must be managed conservatively.</li><li>• The image is a transvaginal ultrasound showing the ovaries which appear significantly enlarged.</li><li>• In view of her history of controlled ovarian hyperstimulation in IVF, the answer is OHSS</li><li>• Theca lutein cysts are enlarged cysts seen in molar pregnancy</li><li>• PCOS is a risk factor for OHSS, in view of the history, OHSS is a more appropriate answer Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is characterized by multiple ovarian follicular cysts accompanied by increased capillary permeability and leakage of intravascular fluid to the third space. It is commonly seen after exogenous administration of FSH, LH or HCG injections. Bilateral ovaries are enlarged and show presence of multiple follicular cysts The OHSS risk is high in women with PCOS with high AMH, high AFC Or with history of previous high response. Risk can be reduced using antagonist protocol with GnRH agonist trigger . The mainstay of management is conservative. The ongoing stimulation cycle is suspended, and further administration of exogenous gonadotropins is stopped in that cycle. Severe OHSS can also cause ascites, pleural effusion, liver dysfunction, raised hematocrit (&gt;55%), oliguria, thromboembolic phenomenon etc. and must be managed conservatively.</li><li>• Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is characterized by multiple ovarian follicular cysts accompanied by increased capillary permeability and leakage of intravascular fluid to the third space. It is commonly seen after exogenous administration of FSH, LH or HCG injections. Bilateral ovaries are enlarged and show presence of multiple follicular cysts The OHSS risk is high in women with PCOS with high AMH, high AFC Or with history of previous high response. Risk can be reduced using antagonist protocol with GnRH agonist trigger . The mainstay of management is conservative. The ongoing stimulation cycle is suspended, and further administration of exogenous gonadotropins is stopped in that cycle. Severe OHSS can also cause ascites, pleural effusion, liver dysfunction, raised hematocrit (&gt;55%), oliguria, thromboembolic phenomenon etc. and must be managed conservatively.</li><li>• Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is characterized by multiple ovarian follicular cysts accompanied by increased capillary permeability and leakage of intravascular fluid to the third space.</li><li>• It is commonly seen after exogenous administration of FSH, LH or HCG injections.</li><li>• Bilateral ovaries are enlarged and show presence of multiple follicular cysts</li><li>• The OHSS risk is high in women with PCOS with high AMH, high AFC Or with history of previous high response.</li><li>• Risk can be reduced using antagonist protocol with GnRH agonist trigger .</li><li>• antagonist protocol</li><li>• GnRH agonist trigger</li><li>• The mainstay of management is conservative. The ongoing stimulation cycle is suspended, and further administration of exogenous gonadotropins is stopped in that cycle.</li><li>• Severe OHSS can also cause ascites, pleural effusion, liver dysfunction, raised hematocrit (&gt;55%), oliguria, thromboembolic phenomenon etc. and must be managed conservatively.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Theca lutein cysts : They may be seen in gestational trophoblastic diseases such as molar pregnancies. They subside once the HCG normalizes.</li><li>• Option B. Theca lutein cysts</li><li>• Option C. PCOS : It is characterized by the presence of 2 out of 3 criteria (Rotterdam criteria))</li><li>• Option C. PCOS</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is characterized by multiple ovarian follicular cysts, increased capillary permeability, and leakage of intravascular fluid into the third space, commonly seen after exogenous administration of FSH, LH, or HCG injections, particularly in women undergoing controlled ovarian hyperstimulation for IVF.</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of Gynaecology 6 th edition pg 529 Williams textbook of gynaecology 3 rd edition pg 453</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of Gynaecology 6 th edition pg 529 Williams textbook of gynaecology 3 rd edition pg 453</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pressure required to cause a pressure sore is: (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 mm of Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20 mm of Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "25 mm of Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30 mm of Hg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 30 mm of Hg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 30 mm of Hg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pressure ulcers develop when external pressure exceeds capillary occlusive pressure (30 mmHg), leading to tissue ischemia and necrosis. Prevention and management strategies are crucial to mitigate the risk and promote healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female came with chief complaints of vaginal discharge with lower abdominal pain and cervical motion tenderness. Which color kit will you prescribe her? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grey kit (1)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red kit (5)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow kit (6)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black kit (7)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Yellow kit (6)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-175318.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-121349_OtnNgeL.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-121905_NnZclGG.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_56.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Yellow kit (6)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lucid Interval is seen in? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural hematoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subdural hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scalp hematoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extradural hematoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-175507.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Extradural hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lucid interval is a key clinical feature of Extradural Hematoma, characterized by a transient period of consciousness following initial unconsciousness due to traumatic arterial bleeding between the skull and dura mater.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis based on the image shown: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hodgkin's lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary hamartoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metastasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pulmonary hamartoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_168.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_169.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pulmonary hamartoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulmonary hamartoma is a benign lung tumor characterized by the presence of popcorn calcifications on imaging studies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the virus given in the image below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "EBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corona virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HIV", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-094446.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/01-4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HIV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HIV is an enveloped virus with positive-sense single-stranded RNA, known for targeting CD4+ T cells and macrophages, and is identified by the presence of gp120 and gp41 glycoproteins on its surface.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female patient came to OPD with features of anemia. She had undergone subtotal gastrectomy few months back. General examination showed the following changes in the tongue as shown in the image. (FMGE DECEMBER 2021) Which of the following vitamin is responsible for this?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture10_OqduzDQ.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin B12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subtotal gastrectomy can lead to malabsorption of vitamin B12, as the stomach produces intrinsic factor necessary for its absorption in the ileum. Vitamin B12 deficiency can result in megaloblastic anemia and various neurological symptoms. One of the characteristic features of this condition is the fissured tongue aka scrotal tongue or lingua plicata.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 544</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 544</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old boy has non-blanching rashes on the legs and buttocks as seen in the picture. He also complains of joint pains, abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood in the stool. Lab investigations revealed normal platelet count and urine analysis shows hematuria + ++ and proteinuria +. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Henoch Schonlein purpura (HSP)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Henoch Schonlein purpura (HSP)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-199.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/917.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Henoch Schonlein purpura (HSP)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) presents with a purpuric rash, joint pain, abdominal pain, and renal involvement, often following an upper respiratory infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Adverse effect of orlistat is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suicidal tendency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steatorrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weight gain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperglycemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Steatorrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Steatorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orlistat is a useful medication for those looking to lose weight, especially in cases where diet and exercise alone have not been sufficient. Patients prescribed Orlistat should be counseled about the possibility of experiencing gastrointestinal side effects such as steatorrhea and advised on dietary adjustments to manage or minimize such effects, emphasizing a reduced fat intake.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a discussion among global health experts on assessing disease impact, a key metric is highlighted that combines the years lost due to premature mortality and the years lived with disability to provide a comprehensive measure of health loss in populations. Which metric best represents this holistic view of a disease's burden? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DALY", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sullivan index", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HALE", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "QALY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. DALY", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. DALY</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DALYs provide a comprehensive metric for quantifying the burden of diseases, considering both the quality and the quantity of life affected, which helps in understanding the true impact of diseases on society and guiding health policy and funding decisions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Intravenous anesthetic agent of choice for cardiac surgeries is? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propofol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sevoflurane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Etomidate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Etomidate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Etomidate is the preferred intravenous anesthetic agent for cardiac surgeries due to its minimal impact on hemodynamics, maintaining stable blood pressure and heart rate. Propofol and Ketamine have significant effects on hemodynamics, making them less ideal for cardiac surgeries. Sevoflurane, while useful in cardiac surgeries, is an inhalational agent, not intravenous.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 668</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 668</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-year-old boy presented with dark-colored urine as shown below, oliguria, hypertension, and facial puffiness for 3 days. The urine test is positive for albumin. He had a history of throat infection 2 weeks back. On microscopic examination, enlarged, pale glomeruli and epithelial humps are seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Post-staphylococcal glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nephrotic syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgA nephropathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-198.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis typically presents with hematuria, oliguria, hypertension, and facial edema following a streptococcal throat infection, with microscopic findings of enlarged glomeruli and epithelial humps.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the parasite? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Giardia lamblia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trichomonas vaginalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trypanosoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyclospora", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Giardia lamblia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-100742.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-100821.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-100900.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Giardia lamblia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Giardia lamblia is identified by its distinct trophozoite form with a pear shape and two nuclei giving a \"smiling face\" appearance. It causes giardiasis, which is commonly diagnosed by detecting trophozoites or cysts in stool samples</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Three Testicle appearance’ is seen in? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vaginal hydrocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spermatocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epididymo-orchitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Torsion Testis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Spermatocele", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture9_uQMRByF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Spermatocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The 'Three Testicle appearance' is characteristic of a spermatocele, which is a retention cyst located in the head of the epididymis, creating an additional palpable mass in the scrotum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple wished to abort their female fetus after 30 weeks of gestation as they already had five daughters. Their gynecologist refused to resort to criminal methods so they got an abortion done by a quack. What is the method most likely to be? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vacuum aspiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prostaglandins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dilatation &amp; curettage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abortion stick", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Abortion stick", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture1299.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Abortion stick</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The use of an abortion stick is a method of criminal abortion, particularly in late stages of pregnancy, and is characterized by inserting a stick covered with irritant substances into the uterus to induce abortion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes with a BP of 160/100 mmHg and left-sided facial paralysis and weakness for 8 hours. Her CT is shown below. What is the next step? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Observation and monitoring", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous thrombolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endovascular Therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Observation and monitoring", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-131322.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Observation and monitoring</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient presenting with ischemic stroke symptoms beyond 4.5 hours of onset and a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg, observation and monitoring are appropriate unless further specific imaging indicates a different course of action.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nutritionist aims to visually demonstrate the nutritional composition of a family's daily diet, highlighting the proportions of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, and vitamins from their meals. Which visual representation tool would best help the family understand the relative contributions of different nutrients in their diet? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bar chart", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pie chart", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pictogram", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pie chart", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pie chart</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PIE CHART</li><li>➤ PIE CHART</li><li>➤ Qualitative data diagram Each qualitative category is represented as pie of a circle Each category drawn as % of 360 degrees Categories are mutually-exclusive and total of all categories is 100%.</li><li>➤ Qualitative data diagram</li><li>➤ Each qualitative category is represented as pie of a circle</li><li>➤ Each category drawn as % of 360 degrees</li><li>➤ Categories are mutually-exclusive and total of all categories is 100%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female patient presents with cold intolerance, dry skin, constipation, and on examination slow ankle jerk with a TSH level of 15 IU/L and low T3, and T4. Of the following, the next best step in the management is: (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Begin treatment with levothyroxine (LT4)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measure Thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Order a thyroid radionuclide uptake and scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Order thyroid ultrasonography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Begin treatment with levothyroxine (LT4)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Begin treatment with levothyroxine (LT4)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Levothyroxine replacement therapy is the appropriate treatment for hypothyroidism confirmed by elevated TSH and low T3 and T4 levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year male presented with a mass in the left lumbar region which was ballotable. He was having abdominal discomfort and on investigations, he was found to have a mass of 7 x 5 x 3cm which was confined within the kidney and was diagnosed as renal cell carcinoma. What would be the treatment for this patient? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Partial nephrectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radical nephrectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Radical nephrectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Radical nephrectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a renal cell carcinoma confined within the kidney and of a size 7 x 5 x 3 cm, the treatment of choice is radical nephrectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used as a screening test for pheochromocytoma?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urinary Metanephrines and VMA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5-HIAA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urinary Metanephrines and VMA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Urinary Metanephrines and VMA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urinary metanephrines and VMA are the screening tests of choice for pheochromocytoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a contraindication for breastfeeding? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mother on radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galactosemic child", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CMV infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Galactosemic child", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Galactosemic child</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Galactosemia is a rare genetic disorder in which the body is unable to metabolize galactose, a component of lactose found in breast milk and formula. The breastfeeding is strictly C/I in galactosemic child to prevent severe mental retardation in child.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true with respect to the Little's area?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kiesselbach’s plexus is present in the Little's area.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is situated at the posteroinferior part of the nasal septum.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Least common site for epistaxis.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anastomoses of 7 major arteries occur here.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kiesselbach’s plexus is present in the Little's area.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102087.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Little's area is a critical site for understanding nasal bleeds in clinical practice, due to the confluence of several arteries forming the Kiesselbach’s plexus. Recognizing this area's location and significance helps in effectively managing and treating cases of anterior epistaxis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The dermatome of the area marked in the given image is? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "L5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "S1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "S2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. L4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-326.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_fmge-anat-2-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. L4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The medial side of the leg and medial malleolus is supplied by the L4 dermatome</li><li>• The L4 dermatome primarily covers the medial aspect of the leg, extending from the knee down to the medial malleolus (inner ankle bone). It also includes a small portion of the foot's dorsum and the big toe. Patients with L4 dermatome sensory abnormalities might experience altered sensation or numbness in these areas.</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Option B) L5 : The L5 dermatome covers the lateral aspect of the leg, the dorsum of the foot, and extends to the space between the first and second toes (great toe and second toe). It does not include the medial malleolus. Sensory abnormalities in the L5 dermatome may manifest as altered sensation or numbness in these regions.</li><li>• Option B)</li><li>• L5</li><li>• Option C) S1 : The S1 dermatome covers the lateral and posterior aspects of the leg, the lateral border of the foot, and extends to the fifth toe (pinky toe). It does not include the medial malleolus or the medial side of the leg. Sensory abnormalities in the S1 dermatome may affect these regions but not the specific areas mentioned in the question.</li><li>• Option C)</li><li>• S1</li><li>• Option D) S2 : The S2 dermatome covers the posterior aspect of the thigh and buttock, not the medial malleolus or the medial side of the leg. Sensory abnormalities in the S2 dermatome may manifest as altered sensation in these regions but are not associated with the medial ankle and leg.</li><li>• Option D)</li><li>• S2</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Dermatomes</li><li>➤ Dermatomes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of smell is produced by the decomposed body from the given image? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ammoniacal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Odorless", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Offensive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Garlicky", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Odorless", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/12345.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Odorless</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mummified bodies are generally odorless due to the drying and dehydration process that preserves the body and prevents the production of decomposition odors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the tarsal bone pointed in the image below: (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcaneus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cuboid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Navicular", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Talus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Navicular", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-318.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-312_9VgfIof.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Navicular</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The image shows the navicular bone.</li><li>• Navicular bone is another tarsal bone situated on the medial (inner) side of the foot. It is located between the head of talus and the cuneiform bones. The navicular bone is important for maintaining the longitudinal arch of the foot.</li><li>• Navicular bone</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Calcaneus: It is the largest bone in the human foot and forms the heel. It is located at the posterior (back) part of the foot, just below the talus. It articulates with the talus bone superiorly and with the cuboid bone anteriorly. Injuries to the calcaneus, such as fractures, can be quite disabling and may result from falls or high-impact trauma.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Calcaneus:</li><li>• Option B. Cuboid: It is one of the seven tarsal bones in the foot. It is located on the lateral (outer) side of the foot, between the calcaneus and the fourth and fifth metatarsal bones. The cuboid bone helps to maintain the arch of the foot and provides stability to the lateral aspect of the midfoot.</li><li>• Option B. Cuboid:</li><li>• Option D. Talus bone: often referred to as the anklebone, is a small bone that forms the main connection between the foot and the leg. It sits atop the calcaneus and articulates with the tibia and fibula to form the ankle joint. The talus is essential for ankle movement, allowing dorsiflexion (raising the foot) and plantarflexion (pointing the foot downward). It also plays a role in inversion and eversion of the foot.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Talus bone:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Navicular bone is a key element in the structural integrity and functional mechanics of the foot, particularly in forming the medial arch. Its position and role are essential in understanding foot biomechanics and addressing issues related to arch abnormalities or injuries</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At what level does spinal cord end in infants? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "S1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "S2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. L3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-122620.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) L3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spinal cord ends at L3 level in infants.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1414</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 1414</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of difficulty in hearing in the right ear which is slowly progressive. She also has tinnitus which is pulsatile in nature. On examination, a reddish mass was seen behind the tympanic membrane and an audible bruit is heard over the mastoid when auscultation with a stethoscope. Her Rinne test was negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CSOM", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ASOM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mastoiditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glomus tumor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glomus tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102092.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102093.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102094.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102095.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Glomus tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of a reddish, pulsating mass behind the tympanic membrane, along with conductive hearing loss and pulsatile tinnitus in a middle-aged female, is highly indicative of a glomus tumor, particularly glomus tympanicum. Prompt referral for appropriate imaging and specialist evaluation is essential for accurate diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 121,122</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked as 'B'? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epiglottis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyoid bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroid cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cricoid cartilage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epiglottis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-28.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-29.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Epiglottis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The structure marked as 'B', is the Epiglottis.</li><li>• The epiglottis is a leaf-shaped cartilaginous structure located at the base of the tongue, just behind the hyoid bone.</li><li>• Its main function is to prevent food and liquids from entering the trachea (windpipe) during swallowing. When you swallow, the epiglottis folds down to cover the opening of the trachea, directing the ingested material into the esophagus and toward the stomach. Failure of this process can lead to choking.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hyoid Bone : The hyoid bone is a horseshoe-shaped bone located in the neck, just above the larynx (voice box) and below the mandible (jawbone). It is unique in that it does not articulate with any other bone in the body but is suspended by ligaments and muscles.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Hyoid Bone</li><li>• Option C. Thyroid Cartilage : The thyroid cartilage is a large, shield-shaped cartilaginous structure located in the front of the neck. It forms the anterior portion of the larynx and is commonly referred to as the \"Adam's apple.\" The thyroid cartilage houses the vocal cords, and its movement, along with the vocal cords, plays a critical role in voice production. During puberty, the thyroid cartilage often enlarges in males, resulting in the prominent Adam's apple seen in adult men.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Thyroid Cartilage</li><li>• Option D. Cricoid Cartilage : The cricoid cartilage is a ring-shaped cartilage located just below the thyroid cartilage in the neck. It forms the lower part of the larynx and provides support for the trachea above it. The cricoid cartilage is essential for maintaining the patency (openness) of the airway.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Cricoid Cartilage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Rh-ve mother had a pregnancy with a Rh+ve fetus. This Rh incompatibility is which of the following type of hypersensitivity reaction? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type-I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type-II", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type-III", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type-IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type-II", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-152300.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type II</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Rh incompatibility, where a Rh-negative mother produces antibodies against Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, is a Type II hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 31-year-old lady with diabetes mellitus delivers a term neonate. Which of the following problems may be associated with the baby born to this lady? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperglycemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tetralogy of Fallot", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypercalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypoglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypoglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infants born to diabetic mothers are at increased risk of hypoglycemia due to high insulin levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the disease shown in the image, which of the following specimens would the filarial worms be absent? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Saliva", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrocoele fluid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Saliva", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Saliva</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In lymphatic filariasis, filarial worms (microfilariae) are typically absent in saliva. Blood samples collected at night are the most common and effective specimens for diagnosing the presence of these parasites.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which group of drug combinations contain all intarvenous hypnotic agents? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propofol, Thiopentone sodium, Etomidate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Halothane, sevoflurane, Tramadol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vecuronium, sulfentanil, desflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sugammadex, Rocuronium, Atracurium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Propofol, Thiopentone sodium, Etomidate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-122319.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Propofol, Thiopentone sodium, Etomidate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Intravenous hypnotic agents, such as Propofol, Thiopentone sodium, and Etomidate, are used for the rapid induction of anesthesia. They differ from inhalational anesthetics and muscle relaxants, which serve different purposes in anesthesia management.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Chapter 23, Intravenous Anesthetics</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Chapter 23, Intravenous Anesthetics</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old patient felt heaviness in his left scrotum, and reported to OPD. There was no pain or tenderness and transillumination test was negative. Most likely diagnosis in this patient would be? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varicocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Testicular Torsion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epididymo orchitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Varicocele", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Varicocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A varicocele is characterized by dilated and tortuous veins within the scrotum, presenting with heaviness and a negative transillumination test. It is often more common on the left side.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A central line was being put in the Subclavian vein and the patient collapsed during insertion of the central line. On examination, breath sounds suddenly were found to be absent on the side of insertion of Central line, on Percussion there was hyper resonance on the same side of insertion of the central line. Most likely cause in this patient: (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tension pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurogenic Shock", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pneumothorax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Accidental puncture of the pleura during subclavian vein central line insertion can lead to pneumothorax, characterized by absent breath sounds and hyper-resonance on percussion on the affected side.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old man was brought to the casualty with fever, headache, and focal seizures. EEG shows focal temporal lobe spikes. CSF sample analysis shows 50 cells with 90% Lymphocytes and 10% Neutrophils. What would be the drug of choice for this condition? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Valacyclovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acyclovir", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gancyclovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Foscarnet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acyclovir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acyclovir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acyclovir is the treatment of choice for HSV encephalitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is a common symptom seen after gall bladder removal? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight Loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steatorrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "High Cholesterol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Steatorrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Steatorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After gallbladder removal, patients may experience steatorrhea due to altered bile flow affecting fat digestion and absorption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which artery is being palpated in the image shown below? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior tibial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior tibial artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dorsalis pedis artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Popliteal artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior tibial artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-320.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_fmge-anat-22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Posterior tibial artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The posterior tibial artery is palpated between the medial malleolus and the calcaneal tendon, as shown in the image.</li><li>• The posterior tibial artery is palpated between the medial malleolus and the calcaneal tendon, as shown in the image.</li><li>• The posterior tibial artery pulse can be felt against the heel bone calcaneum about 2 cm below and behind (postero-inferior) the medial malleolus. The artery is felt in front (anterior) of the medial border of the tendocalcaneus, between the tendons of flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus.</li><li>• Note: Posterior tibial artery lies deep to the flexor retinaculum, hence, the patient is asked to 'invert' (turn the sole inside) his foot to relax the flexor retinaculum, before palpating the artery.</li><li>• Note:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A) Anterior tibial artery- The anterior tibial artery terminates at the level of the ankle joint, where it gives off its terminal branch, the dorsalis pedis artery. The anterior tibial artery pulse can be palpated near the origin of the dorsalis pedis artery on the dorsum of the foot lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon.</li><li>• Option A) Anterior tibial artery-</li><li>• Option C) Dorsalis pedis artery - The dorsalis pedis artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the dorsum of the foot. It can be palpated by gently pressing your fingers along the midline of the foot, usually just lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon, between the first and second metatarsal bones.</li><li>• Option C) Dorsalis pedis artery</li><li>• Option D) Popliteal artery- The popliteal artery is a major blood vessel located in the popliteal fossa, which is the hollow area at the back of the knee joint. This artery is a continuation of the femoral artery, which runs down the thigh, and it plays a crucial role in supplying blood to the lower leg and foot</li><li>• Option D) Popliteal artery-</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The posterior tibial artery lies just posterior to the medial malleolus. It can be felt most readily by curling the fingers of the examining hand anteriorly around the ankle, indenting the soft tissues in the space between the medial malleolus and the Achilles tendon, above the calcaneum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly obese man was brought to casualty with complaints of severe chest pain for the last two hours. He has also had profuse sweating, pain in the left arm, nausea, and one episode of vomiting. On examination, his HR is 58 and BP is 90/60 mm of Hg. ECG was done and it shows the following finding. Cardiac biomarkers showed elevated troponin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior wall MI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior wall MI", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior wall MI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pericarditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inferior wall MI", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-125138.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Inferior wall MI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inferior wall MI is characterized by chest pain, bradycardia, hypotension, and elevated troponin levels.</li><li>➤ MC affected right coronary artery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What should be the treatment for the pathology as shown in the given image? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incision and drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sclerotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Excision", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Excision", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/16/untitled-95.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Excision</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The treatment for angular dermoid cysts, which are congenital lesions typically located near the outer angle of the eye, is surgical excision to prevent recurrence and potential complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dystrophin protein is absent completely in which of the following diseases? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Becker's Muscular Dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myasthenia Gravis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/920.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is characterized by the complete absence of dystrophin protein due to a mutation in the dystrophin gene.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 20 th Edition, Page No- 2976 to 2977.</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Nelson 20 th Edition, Page No- 2976 to 2977.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cell organelles is associated with killing bacteria and viruses? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peroxisomes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lysosomes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Golgi apparatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ribosomes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lysosomes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Lysosomes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lysosomes are critical in the cellular defense against pathogens through their content of hydrolytic enzymes capable of degrading foreign invaders such as bacteria and viruses. They also play a role in the turnover of cellular components and can induce cell death through autolysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presents to you with features of anemia, fever, and recurrent nose bleeds. On examination there is hepatosplenomegaly, Lab investigations revealed: Hb = 6g/dL, TLC count = 40,000/ cu.mm with 10% blasts and platelet count = 12,000/cu.mm. On further investigation, t(8;21) was detected in the blasts. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Preleukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aleukemic leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AML is suggested by anemia, hepatosplenomegaly, blasts in blood, and the t(8;21) translocation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old girl presents with severe headache, photophobia and high fever of 101°F. On examination, papilledema and nuchal rigidity was present. Kernig's and Brudzinski signs were positive. CS examination shows reduced glucose, increased protein, and increased leukocytes with the predominance of neutrophils. Gram staining of the CSF is shown below. What is the Causative organism? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haemophilus influenzae type B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neisseria meningitidis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Listeria monocytogenes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neisseria meningitidis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-095839.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Neisseria meningitidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child with signs of malnutrition, including wasting, stunted growth, generalized edema, and symptoms of vitamin A deficiency such as Bitot's spots and xerophthalmia, has a recorded weight of 7.5 kg. What is the most appropriate oral dose of vitamin A for therapeutic supplementation in this child? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50000 IU", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100000 IU", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 Lakh IU", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "150000 IU", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 100000 IU", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-115727.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-120023.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-120136.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under JSSK scheme, a child more than 12 months old less than 8 kg weight, malnourished with Vitamin A deficiency, oral dose of Vitamin A required is 1 Lac IU</li><li>➤ Under JSSK scheme,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman reports sudden high fever, intense muscle pain, eye pain, and a rash. Lab tests indicate low white blood cell and platelet counts. She had a similar fever years ago. Her doctor considers a re-infection with a different viral strain that might worsen due to an immunological reaction. Which virus is known for severe symptoms upon re-infection? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dengue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Dengue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dengue is notorious for more severe symptoms during a second infection with a different serotype due to antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE). ADE facilitates the virus's entry into cells, leading to higher viral loads and severe clinical outcomes like Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever or Dengue Shock Syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At her first antenatal checkup, a 26-year-old woman asks about the recommended number of visits during pregnancy. What is the minimum number of antenatal visits advised for optimal health outcomes for her and her baby? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Minimum ANC visits:</li><li>➤ Minimum ANC visits:</li><li>➤ 1st visit - within 12 weeks, preferably as soon as the pregnancy is suspected, for registration of pregnancy and first antenatal check-up. 2nd visit - between 14 and 26 weeks. 3rd visit - between 28 and 34 weeks. 4th visit - between 36 weeks and term.</li><li>➤ 1st visit - within 12 weeks, preferably as soon as the pregnancy is suspected, for registration of pregnancy and first antenatal check-up.</li><li>➤ 2nd visit - between 14 and 26 weeks.</li><li>➤ 3rd visit - between 28 and 34 weeks.</li><li>➤ 4th visit - between 36 weeks and term.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug is not used for a patient diagnosed with sarcoidosis with multi-organ involvement? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fludrocortisone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydroxychloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prednisone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fludrocortisone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fludrocortisone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fludrocortisone is not used in the treatment of sarcoidosis with multi-organ involvement; instead, corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents are used.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Marsupialization is an ideal treatment of choice for condition X involving the female reproductive tract, the lesion responsible for condition X is located at? (FMGE DEC 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perineal body", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bartholin gland", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bartholin gland", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bartholin gland</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Marsupialization is the best course of treatment for a Bartholin cyst or abscess. The clinical vignette suggests a Bartholin gland lesion. The Bartholin glands are situated in the superficial perineal pouch and can develop cysts or abscesses due to blockage of their ducts. Marsupialization involves incising the abscess, draining it, and suturing the walls of the cyst to the surrounding vaginal mucosa to prevent recurrence.</li><li>• Marsupialization is the best course of treatment for a Bartholin cyst or abscess. The clinical vignette suggests a Bartholin gland lesion.</li><li>• The Bartholin glands are situated in the superficial perineal pouch and can develop cysts or abscesses due to blockage of their ducts.</li><li>• Marsupialization involves incising the abscess, draining it, and suturing the walls of the cyst to the surrounding vaginal mucosa to prevent recurrence.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Perineal body: The perineal body, or obstetric perineum, is a pyramidal-shaped tissue where the muscles of the pelvic floor and perineal muscles and fascia meet, situated between the vagina and the anal opening.</li><li>• Option A. Perineal body:</li><li>• Option C. Vagina: The vagina rarely has cysts as its mucosa is devoid of glands. However, vaginal cysts may present as Gartner’s duct cysts or epidermal inclusion cysts.</li><li>• Option C. Vagina:</li><li>• Option D. Cervix: The cervix has cysts in the form of nabothian follicles, which do not require treatment.</li><li>• Option D. Cervix:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marsupialization is an ideal treatment for a Bartholin gland cyst or abscess.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition p 162</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition p 162</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is a chronic alcoholic, has signs of B1 deficiency. Which of the following is the marker for Vitamin B1 deficiency? (FMGE DECEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RBC transketolase activity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "RBC Glyceraldehyde reductase activity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Homocysteine activity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyridoxal 5'-phosphate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RBC transketolase activity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RBC transketolase activity is a marker used to assess thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Thiamine is essential for the activity of enzymes, including transketolase, involved in carbohydrate metabolism. Reduced transketolase activity in red blood cells (RBCs) can indicate a deficiency of thiamine.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 542</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 542</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The micronutrient that is deficient after ileal resection:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B12 (Vitamin B12)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B12 (Vitamin B12)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B12 (Vitamin B12)</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old lady came to the surgery OPD with 2 cm single, mobile, asymptomatic breast lump with well-defined margins, noticed by the patient herself on self-breast examination, presented to the OPD. She was diagnosed as having a benign breast lesion. As the treating doctor, what would you recommend to this patient? (FMGE DECEMEBR 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reassure, continue to follow-up the patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surgical Excision", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give Danazol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Reassure, continue to follow-up the patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Reassure, continue to follow-up patient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For small, asymptomatic fibroadenomas confirmed to be benign, the recommended management is reassurance and regular follow-up to monitor for any changes in the lump.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the level at which spinal cord ends in infants?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "S1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "S3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. L3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. L3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Battle sign is seen in?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Middle cranial fossa fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CSF rhinorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Periorbital staining", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Frontal Bone abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Middle cranial fossa fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture3_dUcpkqB.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Middle cranial fossa fracture</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Soldier was participating in a marathon in hot temperatures of 40 degrees Celsius. After running for 10 kilometres he suddenly collapsed. What first aid should have been provided to him by the local people?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediately pour ice-cold water on his body", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Put the foot of the soldier in ice immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Injection of Benzodiazepine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wrap a cool water-soaked blanket over the person at around 25-degree Celsius temperature and switch on the fan.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Wrap a cool water-soaked blanket over the person at around 25-degree Celsius temperature and switch on the fan.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Wrap a cool water-soaked blanket over the person at around 25-degree Celsius temperature and switch on the fan.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Branchial fistula the internal opening is located in which part of the pharynx?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tonsil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyriform Sinus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cricopharyngeus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "External auditory canal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pyriform Sinus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pyriform Sinus</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient suffered from Blunt trauma to the abdomen and is taken to the casualty. He is unconscious and hypotensive. You are the casualty doctor and you carry out basic resuscitation with Intravenous fluids and the FAST comes out to be positive. He is not improving despite Intravenous fluids. The next step is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT SCAN", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Exploratory Laparotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PET", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Exploratory Laparotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Exploratory Laparotomy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common cause of blindness among children in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pantothenic acid deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin A deficiency", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vitamin A deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/20/fmge-psm-june-2020-08-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Vitamin A deficiency</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are true for vasectomy except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate sterilization", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Permanent method", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The contraceptive result after 3 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-scalpel method", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Immediate sterilization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Immediate Sterilization</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient suffered from a fracture neck of Femur for which he underwent Total hip replacement and was immobilized for a period of 3 months. Suddenly he developed breathlessness, cyanosis and was brought to the emergency. What can be the likely cause of this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fat Embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venous thromboembolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cartilage thromboembolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Air Embolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Venous thromboembolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Venous thromboembolism</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the radiological investigation showing polycystic kidney below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PET-Scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRI", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "USG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MRI", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture7_rsQN0R4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. MRI</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 260 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 255</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge Jan 2023 2023 01 20 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 255</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 255 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Xerophthalmia/ conjunctival xerosis occurs due to deficiency of which of the following vitamin: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-185342.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Xerophthalmia, including conjunctival xerosis (dryness of the conjunctiva), is a hallmark sign of Vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the maintenance of healthy epithelial tissues, including the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye. It also plays a crucial role in vision, particularly in low-light conditions. Deficiency can lead to dryness of the eye, night blindness, and in severe cases, can progress to keratomalacia and blindness.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin B1: Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency primarily affects the nervous system and can lead to conditions like beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. It does not typically manifest as xerophthalmia or conjunctival xerosis, which are eye-related conditions.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin B1:</li><li>• Option B. Vitamin B3: Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency leads to pellagra, which is characterized by the \"three Ds\": dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. While dermatitis can affect the skin around the eyes, it does not cause xerophthalmia, which is specifically related to dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea.</li><li>• Option B. Vitamin B3:</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin D: Vitamin D deficiency is primarily associated with bone diseases like rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults due to its role in calcium and phosphate metabolism. It is not typically associated with xerophthalmia or eye disorders.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin D:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eye manifestations of vitamin a deficiency:</li><li>➤ Eye manifestations of vitamin a deficiency:</li><li>➤ Night Blindness or Nyctalopia -The patient cannot read or drive a car in poor light. Xerophthalmia- conjunctival and corneal dryness Bitot's Spots - greyish-white triangular plaques adherent to the conjunctiva. All the above-mentioned ocular changes are completely reversible with vitamin A supplementation. Keratomalacia -softening of the cornea</li><li>➤ Night Blindness or Nyctalopia -The patient cannot read or drive a car in poor light.</li><li>➤ Night Blindness or Nyctalopia</li><li>➤ Xerophthalmia- conjunctival and corneal dryness</li><li>➤ Xerophthalmia-</li><li>➤ Bitot's Spots - greyish-white triangular plaques adherent to the conjunctiva.</li><li>➤ Bitot's Spots</li><li>➤ All the above-mentioned ocular changes are completely reversible with vitamin A supplementation.</li><li>➤ Keratomalacia -softening of the cornea</li><li>➤ Keratomalacia</li><li>➤ Table: WHO Vitamin A deficiency grading</li><li>➤ Table: WHO Vitamin A deficiency grading</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 536</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 536</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child presented with edema for last few months. It started on face but now it is generalized with pedal edema and ascites. He showed good response to steroids. His was RBS 112 mg/dl. On urine examination massive proteinuria was seen. On light microscopy the findings were unremarkable, on electron microscopy of kidney biopsy, effacement of podocytes was seen. Identify the given condition? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Minimal change disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Membranous glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Minimal change disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture156.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture157.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Minimal change disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Minimal Change Disease is characterized by generalized edema, massive proteinuria, and unremarkable light microscopy findings, with podocyte effacement seen on electron microscopy. It typically responds well to corticosteroids.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During neonatal resuscitation at which heart rate you will start chest compression? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heart rate less than 60", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart rate less than 75", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heart rate less than 50", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heart rate less than 25", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Heart rate less than 60", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Heart rate less than 60</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During neonatal resuscitation, chest compressions should be initiated if the heart rate falls below 60 beats per minute despite adequate positive pressure ventilation.</li><li>➤ Neonatal Resuscitation algorithm-2015 update</li><li>➤ Neonatal Resuscitation algorithm-2015 update</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Study of all aspects of death is called as: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thanatology", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Traumatology", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxicology", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epidemiology", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thanatology", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thanatology</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thanatology is the field that comprehensively studies death and the various aspects associated with it.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the true statement regarding level of uterus just after delivery? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Below pubic symphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Above pubic symphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Below umbilicus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Above umbilicus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Below umbilicus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-112353.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Below umbilicus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Below pubic symphysis: This is not accurate immediately after delivery as the uterus is still quite large and palpable above the pubic symphysis.</li><li>• Option A. Below pubic symphysis:</li><li>• Option B. Above pubic symphysis: While this is true in a general sense postpartum, it is not specific enough to accurately describe the position immediately after delivery.</li><li>• Option B. Above pubic symphysis:</li><li>• Option D. Above umbilicus: This is incorrect because the uterus immediately after delivery is positioned at the lower border of the umbilicus, not above it.</li><li>• Option D. Above umbilicus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediately after delivery, the uterus is positioned at the lower border of the umbilicus, equivalent to the size it would be at 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C. Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition page 170</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C. Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition page 170</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-month-old boy is brought to a clinic in a developing region after receiving the MMR vaccination as part of a mass immunization program. Supplemental vitamin A is given alongside the vaccination. What is the appropriate dose of vitamin A to be given immediately after the MMR vaccination and then on the following day? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,00,000 IU", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "50,000 IU", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2,00,000 IU", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1,50,000 IU", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1,00,000 IU", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1,00,000 IU</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For children aged 6-12 months, the appropriate dose of vitamin A supplementation given alongside the MMR vaccine is 1,00,000 IU.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding shown in image given below: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stria Gravidarum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Linea Alba", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Linea Nigra", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stria albicans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Linea Nigra", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1046_Xio1rZb.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Linea Nigra</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A hyperpigmented line from xiphisternum to pubic symphysis is Linea Nigra.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Stria gravidarum : Stria gravidarum is a reddish stria of present pregnancy.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Stria gravidarum</li><li>• Option B. Linea Alba : The midline of the anterior abdominal wall skin. It takes on dark brown-black pigmentation to form the linea nigra.</li><li>• Option B. Linea Alba</li><li>• Option D. Stria albicans : Stria albicans is a silvery stria of previous pregnancies.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Stria albicans</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A hyperpigmented line from xiphisternum to pubic symphysis is Linea Nigra.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 79, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 79, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old shipyard worker presents with increasing shortness of breath and a persistent dry cough over the past year. He has worked with insulation materials for 35 years. Physical examination reveals diminished breath sounds bilaterally. A chest X-ray reveals a \"ground glass\" appearance. Which of the following conditions is most consistent with these findings? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Asbestosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/silicosis.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Asbestosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asbestosis is associated with a \"ground glass\" appearance on chest X-ray and occurs in workers exposed to asbestos over long periods.</li><li>➤ Asbestosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old patient with a history of smoking presents with high-grade fever, cough, confusion, and diarrhea. Chest X-ray shows bilateral infiltrates in bilateral lower lung fields. On sputum gram stain, no organisms were detected. Laboratory results reveal Na: 126 mEq/L, AST: 62, ALT: 56, RBS: 112 mg/dL, and serum bilirubin of 0.8 mg%. Which of the following organisms is responsible? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Legionella", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumocystis jiroveci", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klebsiella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Legionella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient presenting with high-grade fever, cough, confusion, diarrhea, bilateral lung infiltrates, hyponatremia, and elevated liver enzymes, Legionella pneumonia should be strongly suspected.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct about function of utricle and saccule? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Linear acceleration", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hearing high frequency sounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hearing low frequency sounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Angular acceleration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Linear acceleration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/whatsapp-image-2023-07-07-at-175212.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Linear acceleration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The utricle and saccule are essential for detecting linear movements, helping the body maintain balance and posture in response to everyday activities and motion, while the cochlea and semicircular canals perform separate functions related to hearing and angular motion detection, respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an automobile manufacturing company, the HR department notes an increase in absenteeism among the factory workers over the past six months. The company collaborates with a public health expert to investigate the reasons. The expert decides to use the metric of sickness absenteeism as a tool. What is the primary aspect this metric would evaluate? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Health of the worker", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Health of the family", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Industrial environment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Community health", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Health of the worker", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Health of the worker</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sickness absenteeism primarily evaluates the health of the worker and is a key indicator of occupational health.</li><li>➤ Methods of reducing sickness absenteeism:</li><li>➤ Methods of reducing sickness absenteeism:</li><li>➤ Good factory management and practices Adequate pre-placement examination Good human relations Application of ergonomics</li><li>➤ Good factory management and practices</li><li>➤ Adequate pre-placement examination</li><li>➤ Good human relations</li><li>➤ Application of ergonomics</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given image:( FMGE Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central retinal vein occlusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Central retinal artery occlusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Branched retinal artery occlusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Branched retinal vein occlusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Central retinal artery occlusion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-105740.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-105933.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Central retinal artery occlusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"cherry red spot\" is a hallmark of central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO), which results from the blockage of the retinal artery and leads to retinal ischemia. Immediate management is critical to attempt to restore vision, although the prognosis is generally poor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Although Apo B 48 and Apo B 100 are derived from the same gene but are finally translated into separate proteins. This is mainly due to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DNA gene mutation in intestines", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Point mutation in liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DNA gene splicing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RNA editing", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. RNA editing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/21/02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) RNA editing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The difference between Apo B 48 and Apo B 100 is due to RNA editing. In the intestine, a specific cytidine in the mRNA for Apo B is deaminated to uridine, which changes the codon from one encoding amino acid to a stop codon. This results in the production of a shorter protein, Apo B 48. In the liver, this editing does not occur, so the full-length Apo B 100 is produced.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. DNA Gene Mutation in Intestines: Incorrect. The difference between Apo B 48 and Apo B 100 is not due to a DNA gene mutation specific to the intestines. Both proteins are derived from the same gene, and the variation in their production is not the result of a DNA mutation.</li><li>• Option A. DNA Gene Mutation in Intestines:</li><li>• Option B. Point Mutation in Liver: Incorrect. Similarly, the production of these two forms of apolipoprotein B is not due to a point mutation in the liver. The liver produces Apo B 100, but this is not because of a mutation in the hepatic DNA.</li><li>• Option B. Point Mutation in Liver:</li><li>• Option C. DNA Gene Splicing: Incorrect. While alternative splicing is a common mechanism in generating protein diversity, it is not the process responsible for the difference between Apo B 48 and Apo B 100.</li><li>• Option C. DNA Gene Splicing:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Apo-B-48 is the major apoprotein of chylomicrons. It is synthesized only in the intestinal cells. Apo-B100 and apo-B48 are products of the same gene, but in the intestine, the mRNA undergoes editing and so produces the B48 protein. It is named so because it is only 40% of the size of B100.</li><li>➤ Apo-B-48 is the major apoprotein of chylomicrons.</li><li>➤ It is synthesized only in the intestinal cells.</li><li>➤ Apo-B100 and apo-B48 are products of the same gene, but in the intestine, the mRNA undergoes editing and so produces the B48 protein.</li><li>➤ It is named so because it is only 40% of the size of B100.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 249</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 249</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presented with complaints of bone pain and abdominal cramps. Her family says she has a history of abnormal behavior. The consultant doctor arrived at a provisional diagnosis based on the clinical features. Which of the following would be the best test to arrive at a definitive diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ultrasonogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sestamibi scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sestamibi scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Sestamibi scan is the best diagnostic test for localizing abnormal parathyroid glands in primary hyperparathyroidism</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old woman presented with difficulty in activities like climbing stairs, getting up from a chair, and combing hair. Violaceous erythema of the upper eyelids was noted. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inclusion body myositis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dermatomyositis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polymyositis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dermatomyositis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Proximal muscle weakness combined with characteristic skin rashes, such as heliotrope rash, is indicative of dermatomyositis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presents with complaints of hearing loss and pulsatile tinnitus. Rinne’s test reveals conductive hearing loss. On otoscopy, a red and bulgy mass behind the intact tympanic membrane is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glomus tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glomus tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-133258.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture41.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Glomus tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of a red, pulsatile mass behind an intact tympanic membrane in a patient with pulsatile tinnitus and conductive hearing loss is highly suggestive of a glomus tympanicum tumor, requiring detailed imaging for confirmation and planning of appropriate intervention strategies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a menstrual cycle, the primary oocyte undergoes meiotic division to produce 2 unequal daughter cells under the influence of the mid-cycle LH surge. What is the cause of LH surge? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estradiol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "LH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Estradiol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1033.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Estradiol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sustained peak level of estrogen for 24–48 hours in the late follicular phase results in LH surge from the anterior pituitary</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynaecology page 68</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynaecology page 68</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All the following are indications of caesarean section except? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Previous history of macrosomia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Absolute Cephalopelvic disproportion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Advanced CA cervix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Previous history of macrosomia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1040.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Previous history of macrosomia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Options B, C and D are Absolute Indications for caesarean section. It means vaginal delivery is not possible</li><li>• Options B, C</li><li>• D</li><li>• Absolute indications for caesarean section include:</li><li>• Absolute indications</li><li>• Central placenta praevia Contracted pelvis or CPD Pelvic mass causing obstruction Advanced CA cervix Vaginal obstruction (atresia, stenosis)</li><li>• Central placenta praevia</li><li>• Contracted pelvis or CPD</li><li>• Pelvic mass causing obstruction</li><li>• Advanced CA cervix</li><li>• Vaginal obstruction (atresia, stenosis)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Previous history of macrosomia is not an indication for caesarean section.</li><li>➤ Previous history of macrosomia is not an indication for</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics page 670</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics page 670</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be expected if division of zygote occurs between 8 – 12 days after fertilization? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dichorionic Diamniotic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dichorionic Monoamniotic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Monochorionic Monoamniotic", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conjoined twins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Monochorionic Monoamniotic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-113846.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Monochorionic Monoamniotic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Dichorionic Diamniotic: Occurs when the division of the zygote happens within the first 3 days after fertilization.</li><li>• Option A. Dichorionic Diamniotic:</li><li>• Option B. Dichorionic Monoamniotic: This is not a typical classification in twin pregnancies.</li><li>• Option B. Dichorionic Monoamniotic:</li><li>• Option D. Conjoined twins: Result from the division of the zygote occurring after the 13th day of fertilization.</li><li>• Option D. Conjoined twins:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Monochorionic monoamniotic twins result from the division of the zygote occurring between 8 to 12 days after fertilization.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of Obstetrics 24 th edition page 893</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Williams Textbook of Obstetrics 24 th edition</li><li>➤ page 893</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is experiencing loss of vision on both left sides of the visual fields, but retains the ability to see a small portion in the middle. Based on the history, where is the likely location of the lesion? ( FMGE Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic radiations", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipital cortex", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Occipital cortex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-111531_IUnROiD.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-115850.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Occipital cortex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A lesion in the occipital cortex can cause homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, where the patient loses vision on the same side of the visual field in both eyes but retains central vision due to the dual blood supply to the macular region.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During management of a labor in case of shoulder dystocia, a maneuver was done as shown below. This maneuver is known as? ( FMGE jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Symphysiotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zavanelli maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cleidotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Craniotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cleidotomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1048.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1049.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1049-a_CiuQGdu.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cleidotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cleidotomy is intentional fetal clavicular fracture, which reduces the diameter of the shoulder girdle that requires to pass through the birth canal.</li><li>• The table below enlists the manoeuvres used in the management of shoulder dystocia including the options A B C D</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cleidotomy is an intentional fetal clavicular fracture performed to reduce the shoulder girdle diameter in cases of shoulder dystocia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition Page 469-470</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition Page 469-470</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician reviews medical records of children aged 6-10 years to determine if there's a higher history of MMR vaccination in children with autism compared to those without. What type of observational study design is this? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Case control study", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cross sectional study", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ecological study", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Case control study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Case control study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A case control study compares groups with and without a condition to identify past exposures or risk factors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old boy was brought to OPD with complaint of painless lump in left knee. X-ray is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enchondroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoclastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteochondroma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Osteochondroma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210109.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture14_BkTn8VT.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210112.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Osteochondroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Osteochondromas are developmental malformations rather than true neoplasms that are usually painless. The pain can be due to bursitis (most common). The physical finding is usually a palpable mass.</li><li>➤ Osteochondromas are developmental malformations rather than true neoplasms that are usually painless.</li><li>➤ The pain can be due to bursitis (most common).</li><li>➤ The physical finding is usually a palpable mass.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image is due to defect in fusion of? (FMGE JANUARY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial nasal and maxillary process", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medial nasal and lateral nasal process", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maxillary and mandibular process", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral nasal and maxillary process", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Medial nasal and maxillary process", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1091.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1094.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Medial nasal and maxillary process</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Above image is showing Cleft lip; it is due to failure of fusion between the medial nasal and maxillary process.</li><li>• In embryonic development, the face forms from a series of swellings and processes. The medial nasal process contributes to the formation of the middle part of the upper lip, philtrum, and part of the nasal septum. The maxillary process gives rise to the upper jaw and the lateral parts of the upper lip.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B) Medial Nasal and Lateral Nasal Process : The medial nasal process and lateral nasal process are both involved in the formation of the nose and upper lip. The medial nasal process contributes to the middle part of the upper lip and part of the nasal septum. The lateral nasal process forms the sides of the nose.</li><li>• Option B) Medial Nasal and Lateral Nasal Process</li><li>• Option C) Maxillary and Mandibular Process : The maxillary process, as mentioned earlier, contributes to the upper jaw and lateral parts of the upper lip. The mandibular process, on the other hand, forms the lower jaw or mandible. These two processes are essential for the formation of the upper and lower jaws, respectively.</li><li>• Option C) Maxillary and Mandibular Process</li><li>• Option D) Lateral Nasal and Maxillary Process : The lateral nasal process, as mentioned earlier, contributes to the sides of the nose. The maxillary process, as mentioned earlier, forms the upper jaw and lateral parts of the upper lip.</li><li>• Option D) Lateral Nasal and Maxillary Process</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CLEFT LIP VS CLEFT LIP AND CLEFT PALATE.</li><li>➤ CLEFT LIP VS CLEFT LIP AND CLEFT PALATE.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the sinus marked in the given image: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ethmoid sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maxillary sinus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Frontal sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphenoid sinus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Maxillary sinus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture30.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture33.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Maxillary sinus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethmoid Sinus : Located between the nose and the eyes, within the ethmoid bone. It is a collection of small air cells. Frontal Sinus : Located above the eyes, in the frontal bone. These are typically well above the maxillary sinuses. Sphenoid Sinus : Located deeper and more centrally behind the nasal cavity, in the sphenoid bone. Maxillary Sinus: Located beneath the orbits, on either side of the nose.</li><li>➤ Ethmoid Sinus : Located between the nose and the eyes, within the ethmoid bone. It is a collection of small air cells.</li><li>➤ Ethmoid Sinus</li><li>➤ Frontal Sinus : Located above the eyes, in the frontal bone. These are typically well above the maxillary sinuses.</li><li>➤ Frontal Sinus</li><li>➤ Sphenoid Sinus : Located deeper and more centrally behind the nasal cavity, in the sphenoid bone.</li><li>➤ Sphenoid Sinus</li><li>➤ Maxillary Sinus: Located beneath the orbits, on either side of the nose.</li><li>➤ Maxillary Sinus:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following diuretic acts on the site X shown in the figure? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrochlorothiazide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydrochlorothiazide", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/28/picture22231.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hydrochlorothiazide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that acts on the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) by inhibiting the Na-Cl symporter, thereby reducing sodium reabsorption and promoting diuresis. This makes it effective for treating conditions such as hypertension and edema. Other diuretics like furosemide, spironolactone, and acetazolamide act on different parts of the nephron and have distinct mechanisms of action.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old pregnant woman, recently employed in a textile factory in Ludhiana, Punjab, comes for her first antenatal checkup at 8 weeks of gestation. She inquires about the duration of maternity leave according to the Employees' State Insurance (ESI) Act of India. How long can she expect to be on maternity leave? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "26 weeks and 4 weeks after commencing", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "30 weeks and 8 weeks after commencing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "9 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 26 weeks and 4 weeks after commencing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 26 weeks and 4 weeks after commencing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Employees State Insurance (ESI)</li><li>➤ Employees State Insurance (ESI)</li><li>➤ It comes under the Ministry of Labour. It is not applicable for Defence Mining and Railway.</li><li>➤ People with a monthly wage of less than Rs.21000/month are eligible to get the benefits.</li><li>➤ The benefits include the following:</li><li>➤ Medical Care Sickness benefit (70% wages for 91 days or 3 months) If extended it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females) Disablement benefit is 90% wages depending on temporary or permanent disability. Dependent’s benefit is also 90% Under ESI Funeral expense 15,000 is also given Maternity benefit: 100% of wages × 26 weeks of leave (delivery) or 6 weeks of leave (for abortions/loss of baby) or 4 weeks (for any medical condition affecting the pregnancy)</li><li>➤ Medical Care</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit (70% wages for 91 days or 3 months) If extended it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ If extended it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years) Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ If extended it becomes (80% of wages for 2 years)</li><li>➤ Enhanced sickness benefit (100% of the wages for sterilization procedures – 7 days for males and 14 days for females)</li><li>➤ Disablement benefit is 90% wages depending on temporary or permanent disability.</li><li>➤ Dependent’s benefit is also 90%</li><li>➤ Under ESI Funeral expense 15,000 is also given</li><li>➤ Maternity benefit: 100% of wages × 26 weeks of leave (delivery) or 6 weeks of leave (for abortions/loss of baby) or 4 weeks (for any medical condition affecting the pregnancy)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man has chosen to undergo vasectomy. What advice will you give this patient regarding the use of contraception post-vasectomy? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "9 – 11 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 – 6 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 – 16 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "16 – 20 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 12 – 16 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 12 – 16 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After a vasectomy, alternative contraception should be used until a semen analysis confirms azoospermia, usually around 12-16 weeks post-surgery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta textbook of obstetrics page 32</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta textbook of obstetrics page 32</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old male is brought to OPD with recurrent epistaxis. There is no history of trauma associated with it. On examination, a mass was observed on left posterior choanae as shown below. What is the management of the patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FNAC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgical excision", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Surgical excision", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture34.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture35.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Surgical excision</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected JNA, especially with the classical presentation of recurrent nosebleeds in adolescent males, prompt referral for imaging and surgical consultation is critical. Surgical excision, following detailed imaging and possibly preoperative embolization, represents the best approach to manage this condition effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mark the correct sequence of vaginal discharge during puerperium: (FMGE Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lochia Serosa → Lochia Alba → Lochia Rubra", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lochia Serosa → Lochia Rubra → Lochia Alba", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lochia Rubra → Lochia Serosa → Lochia Alba", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lochia Rubra → Lochia Alba → Lochia Serosa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lochia Rubra → Lochia Serosa → Lochia Alba", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1052.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lochia Rubra</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lochia is vaginal discharge after delivery.</li><li>• It is composed of sloughed off decidua, blood, necrotic debris and secretions of the cervixand vagina.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of lochia during the puerperium is Lochia Rubra (red, first 3-4 days), Lochia Serosa (yellowish-brownish, 5-9 days), and Lochia Alba (white, lasts 10-28 days).</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th Edition page 170</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th Edition page 170</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with complaints of unilateral nasal obstruction and bleeding. After diagnosis, it is determined to be inverted papilloma. What is the correct description of this diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malignant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Benign and locally invasive", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Benign and non-invasive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignant and locally invasive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Benign and locally invasive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture44.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture45.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Benign and locally invasive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inverted papilloma is a benign but locally invasive tumor primarily affecting the nasal cavity, requiring aggressive surgical management due to its invasive characteristics and potential complications. Regular follow-up is crucial due to the risk of recurrence and rare malignant transformation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following correctly describes the phenomenon of vasomotor reversal of Dale? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Repeated administration of ephedrine decreases its effect on blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High dose of acetylcholine after pretreatment with atropine produces increase in blood pressure and heart rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A patient pre-treated with phentolamine develops severe hypotension on administration of adrenaline", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase in blood pressure is produced by intravenous propranolol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A patient pre-treated with phentolamine develops severe hypotension on administration of adrenaline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture40.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. A patient pre-treated with phentolamine develops severe hypotension on administration of adrenaline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The phenomenon of vasomotor reversal of Dale occurs when a patient pre-treated with an alpha blocker like phentolamine experiences severe hypotension upon administration of adrenaline due to the unopposed stimulation of β2 receptors, leading to vasodilation instead of the usual vasoconstriction and pressor effect.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An unconscious patient in ICU is on endotracheal intubation and now needs a tracheostomy. What type of tube should be considered in this situation? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uncuffed tracheostomy tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cuffed tracheostomy tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metallic tracheostomy tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endotracheal tube", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cuffed tracheostomy tube", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cuffed tracheostomy tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cuffed tracheostomy tube : This type of tube is preferred for patients who require prolonged mechanical ventilation. The cuff can be inflated to:</li><li>• Cuffed tracheostomy tube</li><li>• Prevent Aspiration : The cuff acts as a barrier, preventing secretions from the upper airway from entering the trachea and lungs. Maintain Positive Pressure Ventilation : The cuff ensures that air does not leak around the tracheostomy tube, which is crucial for effective mechanical ventilation.</li><li>• Prevent Aspiration : The cuff acts as a barrier, preventing secretions from the upper airway from entering the trachea and lungs.</li><li>• Prevent Aspiration</li><li>• Maintain Positive Pressure Ventilation : The cuff ensures that air does not leak around the tracheostomy tube, which is crucial for effective mechanical ventilation.</li><li>• Maintain Positive Pressure Ventilation</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Uncuffed tracheostomy tube : Not suitable for patients who are at risk of aspiration or who require positive pressure ventilation since it does not provide a seal.</li><li>• Option A. Uncuffed tracheostomy tube</li><li>• Option C. Metallic tracheostomy tube : Typically used in long-term tracheostomies but lacks a cuff, which means it cannot prevent aspiration or maintain a seal for positive pressure ventilation.</li><li>• Option C. Metallic tracheostomy tube</li><li>• Option D. Endotracheal tube : This is used for short-term airway management and is not suitable for long-term tracheostomy requirements.</li><li>• Option D. Endotracheal tube</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For unconscious patients in ICU requiring prolonged mechanical ventilation, a cuffed tracheostomy tube is the preferred choice. The cuff provides a seal to prevent aspiration and ensure effective positive pressure ventilation, making it safer and more effective for such patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child is brought to the outpatient department by her grandmother Which of the following is correct about the given image? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor due to less energy intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marasmus due to less energy intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marasmus due to less protein intake", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/picture12_R0Qe0y5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-183804.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-183908.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complains of ptosis and increasing muscle weakness by evening. This is relieved by neostigmine. What is the likely diagnosis? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lambert Eaten syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polymyositis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple sclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Myasthenia gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis is characterized by ptosis and muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest. The diagnosis is supported by the relief of symptoms with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like neostigmine. This condition results from autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented in the ENT OPD with nasal obstruction. On examination, a mulberry-shaped hypertrophied inferior turbinate was observed. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Common cold", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nasal Polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertrophic Rhinitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atrophic Rhinitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypertrophic Rhinitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture54.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hypertrophic Rhinitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypertrophic Rhinitis involves chronic inflammation leading to noticeable enlargement and characteristic textural changes in the nasal turbinates, often requiring a combination of medical and surgical treatments to manage symptoms effectively and improve nasal airflow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with pain in the abdomen and on further imaging the following is obtained. What is the best management option for this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCNL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ESWL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ureteroscopic removal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reassurance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ureteroscopic removal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-108.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ureteroscopic removal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For symptomatic distal ureteric stones, ureteroscopic removal is typically the best management option due to its effectiveness and minimal invasiveness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is suffering from fever and he is diagnosed with condition caused by a lactose fermenting bacteria, he is advised for culture, Which culture media is used to differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermenter? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mac conkey agar", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bile salt agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LJ media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sabouraud Dextrose Agar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mac conkey agar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture7111.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mac conkey agar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MacConkey agar is a selective and differential medium used to distinguish lactose fermenters, which appear as pink colonies, from non-lactose fermenters, which appear as colorless or pale colonies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a nutritionist conducting a study on dietary habits of families from different religions in urban Delhi. To ensure adequate representation of each religious group, which sampling method should you use? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stratified random sampling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Snowball sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cluster sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systematic random sampling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stratified random sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Stratified random sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stratified random sampling is the best method to ensure that all subgroups within a diverse population are adequately represented in the study.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given instrument: (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kielland’s Forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pipers Forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Outlet forceps", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Das Forceps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Outlet forceps", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1054.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1055_otv4YLe.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1056_1On2MF7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Outlet forceps</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This instrument is Wrigley’s (Outlet) Forceps.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Kielland’s Forceps : Slight pelvic curve, rotational forceps</li><li>• Option A. Kielland’s Forceps</li><li>• Option B. Pipers Forceps : After coming head of breech, reverse pelvic curve, long parallel shanks for the body to rest on</li><li>• Option B. Pipers Forceps</li><li>• Option D. Das Forceps : It is an Indian type of long Obstetric forceps, lighter than its western counterparts, may be available with axis traction device</li><li>• Option D. Das Forceps</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wrigley's (Outlet) Forceps are used for assisted vaginal delivery when the fetal head is at the perineum.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8thedition page 652,659</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8thedition page 652,659</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is brought to casualty and a whole-body CT scan has to be done. This CT scan will include the following except? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT Head", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT Limbs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT Abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT Cervical spine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CT Limbs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. CT Limbs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A whole-body CT scan for trauma includes NCCT of the head and C-spine, and CECT of the chest and abdomen, while limb injuries are typically evaluated through physical examination and imaged only when necessary.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the bustling streets of Mumbai, a young filmmaker is working on a documentary about the impact of media on public opinion. During his interviews with several media experts, he encounters the term \"propaganda\" frequently. Intrigued, he decides to explore this concept further and learns that it plays a significant role in shaping public perception. In the context of media and communication, which of the following best describes the essence of \"propaganda\"?(FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trying to make them think for themselves", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Behavior centric", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acquiring knowledge", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Appeals to emotions", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Appeals to emotions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-131837.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Appeals to emotions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old pregnant woman in her second trimester has a 2-year-old child. She received a complete vaccination course during her last pregnancy. What tetanus immunization is recommended for her now? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Td dose 0,3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tt booster dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Td booster dose", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tt dose 0", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Td booster dose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Td booster dose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For pregnant women who received the complete Td vaccination course during their last pregnancy within the last three years, a Td booster dose is recommended.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image is caused by infection with which virus? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CMV", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "EBV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CMV", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture6222.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CMV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Owl's eye inclusion bodies, which are intranuclear basophilic inclusions, are characteristic of CMV infection. This feature helps distinguish CMV from other viral infections in histopathological examinations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the shelf life of CuT 380 A? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 Yrs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 Yrs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 Yrs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5 Yrs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 10 Yrs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/picture10_o02QxA8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-182854.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 10 Yrs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shelf-life of IUDs</li><li>➤ Shelf-life of IUDs</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old patient is a diagnosed case of depression. He is concerned about side effects of his medication and requests you to prescribe a drug least likely to cause sexual dysfunction. Which of the following drugs would you prescribe? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Escitalopram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venlafaxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bupropion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fluoxetine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bupropion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bupropion</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old female has recently undergone total thyroidectomy for a thyroid mass. The histopathological examination shows papillary thyroid cancer. What would be the further management of this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radioiodine scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conservative management", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Radioiodine scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Radioiodine scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After a total thyroidectomy for papillary thyroid cancer, a radioiodine scan is typically used to detect any remaining thyroid tissue or metastatic disease, guiding further therapeutic interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an ophthalmic examination, the patient is asked to direct her gaze to her right side. During this ocular movement, the right lateral rectus muscle is being used. Which of the following is its yoke muscle?( FMGE Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left superior oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left medial rectus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right medial rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left lateral rectus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Left medial rectus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/22/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_40.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Left medial rectus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Yoke muscles are pairs of extraocular muscles from opposite eyes that work together to direct the gaze in a specific direction. For rightward gaze, the yoke muscles are the right lateral rectus and the left medial rectus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old patient with a history of fall on an outstretched hand presented in OPD with complaints of pain and swelling in the right wrist. On examination, you observe a dinner fork deformity can be noticed. What is the correct statement regarding this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proximal and Lateral displacement of radius", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proximal and dorsal displacement of radius", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proximal and Lateral displacement of ulna", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proximal and dorsal displacement of ulna", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Proximal and dorsal displacement of radius", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/193.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/194.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/195.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/196.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/197.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Proximal and dorsal displacement of radius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The dinner fork deformity is commonly seen in the colle’s fracture, which is the proximal and dorsal displacement of the radius after a fall on the outstretched hand. It is most commonly seen in post-menopausal osteoporotic females.</li><li>➤ The dinner fork deformity is commonly seen in the colle’s fracture, which is the proximal and dorsal displacement of the radius after a fall on the outstretched hand. It is most commonly seen in post-menopausal osteoporotic females.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Absolute contraindication for breastfeeding is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Galactosemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytomegalovirus infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Galactosemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Galactosemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Galactosemia is a rare genetic disorder where the body cannot properly metabolize galactose, a sugar present in breast milk and many other foods. Infants with galactosemia are unable to break down galactose and its accumulation can lead to severe complications. Therefore, breastfeeding is an absolute contraindication for infants with galactosemia, and they require a special galactose-free formula.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. HIV: This option is incorrect. While HIV can be transmitted through breast milk, the transmission risk can be significantly reduced by antiretroviral therapy (ART) and other precautions. In certain situations, such as in resource-limited settings where safe alternatives to breastfeeding are not available, the benefits of breastfeeding may outweigh the risks of HIV transmission. However, in areas where safe and affordable alternatives are accessible, avoiding breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants born to HIV-positive mothers.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• HIV:</li><li>• Option C. Hepatitis B: This option is incorrect. Breastfeeding is not an absolute contraindication for infants born to mothers with hepatitis B. Transmission of hepatitis B through breast milk is considered low, and the World Health Organization (WHO) recommends that infants receive the hepatitis B vaccine and a dose of hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) within 12 hours of birth to prevent transmission. Breastfeeding can generally continue in these cases.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Hepatitis B:</li><li>• Option D. Cytomegalovirus infection: This option is incorrect. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can be transmitted through breast milk, but the transmission risk can be reduced. In most cases, breastfeeding is not an absolute contraindication for infants with CMV infection. Precautions such as pasteurization of breast milk or using frozen breast milk from before the infection occurred can be taken to reduce the risk of transmission.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Cytomegalovirus infection:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The question aims to identify conditions where breastfeeding is absolutely contraindicated. Understanding absolute contraindications for breastfeeding is crucial for ensuring the safety and health of both the neonate and the mother. In certain medical conditions, breastfeeding can pose significant health risks to the infant, necessitating alternative feeding methods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true about Chronic starvation except? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exhaustion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperthermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heart Atrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyperthermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121065.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyperthermia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following tzanck smear finding is seen in? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HSV", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HPV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HSV", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture5333.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HSV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tzanck smears are useful for diagnosing skin infections caused by herpes viruses, including HSV-1 and HSV-2. The presence of multinucleated giant cells with ground-glass chromatin is a hallmark of HSV infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fluid of choice for a child in shock with severe acute malnutrition is? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25% dextrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ringer lactate + 5% dextrose", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal saline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ringer lactate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ringer lactate + 5% dextrose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ringer lactate + 5% dextrose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In children with severe acute malnutrition (SAM) who are in shock, the fluid of choice is Ringer lactate with 5% dextrose to manage dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and prevent hypoglycemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Testosterone is secreted by? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leydig cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ant. Pituitary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "From the conversion of dihydrotestosterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "From Sertoli cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leydig cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Leydig cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Testosterone is primarily produced by Leydig cells in the testes, under the regulation of LH from the anterior pituitary. This hormone is crucial for the development of male reproductive tissues, secondary sexual characteristics, and several other physiological functions such as muscle mass maintenance, bone density, and mood regulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding Creatinine clearance? ( FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Creatinine clearance is lesser than inulin clearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Creatinine clearance is greater than inulin clearance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Creatinine is equal to inulin clearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Creatinine clearance is greater than inulin clearance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Creatinine clearance is greater than inulin clearance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Creatinine clearance is commonly used to estimate GFR but it is greater than inulin clearance due to slight secretion of creatinine by the renal tubules. In contrast, inulin clearance, being neither secreted nor reabsorbed, provides a more accurate measurement of renal filtration function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 49-year-old male presents with recurrent episodes of watery diarrhea, dehydration, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria. Which of the following neuroendocrine tumors can be responsible for these symptoms? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insulinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Somatostatinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "VIPoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucagonoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. VIPoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ VIPomas cause WDHA syndrome, characterized by watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If any unsound minded person commits any crime unconsciously it won't be considered as a punishable offence. This is defined by which of the following law? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mc Naughten's rule", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curren's rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Durham's rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Locard's principle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mc Naughten's rule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mc Naughten's rule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ McNaughten's rule provides the legal framework for the insanity defense, asserting that an individual who commits a crime while being incapable of understanding the nature or wrongfulness of their actions due to unsoundness of mind cannot be held criminally responsible.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs does not reduce mortality in patients with chronic heart failure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Valsartan plus Sacubitril", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Telmisartan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Furosemide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Furosemide</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly male on bed rest for many months presented with breathlessness and chest pain. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT pulmonary angiogram", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ECG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT thorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Echocardiography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CT pulmonary angiogram", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The CT pulmonary angiogram is the gold standard investigation for confirming pulmonary embolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure. (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Putamen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thalamus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal capsule", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "External capsule", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Internal capsule", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Internal capsule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The internal capsule is a key white matter structure in the brain, crucial for transmitting motor and sensory information between the cerebral cortex and the spinal cord. It is located between the thalamus and the basal ganglia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Airway resistance in endotracheal tube is dependent on: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Circumference of the tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Length of the tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diameter of the tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Curvature of the tube", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Diameter of the tube", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-131329.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Diameter of the tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding Poiseuille's law is crucial for selecting appropriate endotracheal tubes. The diameter of the tube has the most significant impact on airway resistance. A larger diameter tube will decrease resistance, facilitating easier ventilation and oxygenation of the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of placenta previa: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low lying", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marginal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incomplete", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Complete", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Marginal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1059.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1060.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1061.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Marginal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marginal Placenta Previa is characterized by the placenta reaching the margin of the internal os but not covering it.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition page 284, Williams textbook of Obstetrics 24 th edition page 800</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition page 284, Williams textbook of Obstetrics 24 th edition page 800</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old primigravida presented in OBG emergency with 38 weeks of amenorrhea. She is in first stage of labour and on examination, cervical dilatation is 6 cm. According to you, what will be a satisfactory dilatation rate? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5 cm/hr", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1.2 cm/hr", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.5 cm/hr", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.75 cm/hr", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1.2 cm/hr", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-102454.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-102618.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1.2 cm/hr</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In a nullipara, 1.2 cm/hr is the best dilatation rate among given options.</li><li>• First stage of labour has 2 phases:</li><li>• Ideal rate of cervical dilatation in a primi is 1 cm/h Ideal rate of cervical dilatation in a multi is 1.5 cm/h</li><li>• Ideal rate of cervical dilatation in a primi is 1 cm/h</li><li>• Ideal rate of cervical dilatation in a multi is 1.5 cm/h</li><li>• The WHO Labour Care guide (2021) differs from the earlier partograph in the following ways:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ideal rate of cervical dilatation in a primi is 1 cm/h</li><li>➤ Ref: WHO labour care guide Users Manual 2021</li><li>➤ Ref: WHO labour care guide Users Manual 2021</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the stapler in the image given below: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Linear stapler", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Circular stapler", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endo stapler", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin stapler", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Linear stapler", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-111.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-112.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Linear stapler</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A linear stapler is used to close the bowel completely or partially, providing a secure and uniform closure in gastrointestinal surgeries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A homosexual man presented with painful defecation, foul-smelling protruding mass through anus which is non-reducible. Biopsy of the mass shows squamous cell carcinoma of the anus. What will be the next line of management? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chemoradiation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Excision", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abdominoperineal resection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chemoradiation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chemoradiation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary treatment for squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal is chemoradiation, which preserves anal sphincter function and avoids the need for a permanent colostomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given arrow corresponds to which level of thoracic vertebra? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First and Second", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Second and Third", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fourth and Fifth", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fifth and Sixth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fourth and Fifth", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1095.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-194204.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Fourth and Fifth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The arrow in the above image represents the sternal angle (Angle of Louis), which corresponds to the T4-T5 intervertebral disc.</li><li>• The \"angle of Louis,\" also known as the \"sternal angle\" or \"manubriosternal joint,\" is an anatomical landmark located in the chest area. The angle of Louis is located at the junction of two important anatomical structures:</li><li>• The manubrium of the sternum: This is the uppermost part of the sternum (breastbone) and is shaped like a flat, triangular bone. The body of the sternum : This is the long, flat portion of the sternum that extends downward from the manubrium.</li><li>• The manubrium of the sternum: This is the uppermost part of the sternum (breastbone) and is shaped like a flat, triangular bone.</li><li>• manubrium</li><li>• The body of the sternum : This is the long, flat portion of the sternum that extends downward from the manubrium.</li><li>• body of the sternum</li><li>• Clinical Significance : The angle of Louis is a clinically significant reference point because it corresponds to the level of several important anatomical structures:</li><li>• Clinical Significance</li><li>• It is located at the approximate level of the second rib anteriorly. This makes it useful for counting ribs and identifying rib fractures or landmarks during clinical examinations.</li><li>• second rib</li><li>• It is also close to the carina of the trachea, which is a critical point in the respiratory system where the trachea divides into the left and right main bronchi.</li><li>• carina</li><li>• The angle of Louis serves as a reference for the superior border of the heart and is used in clinical assessments such as cardiac auscultation.Top of Form</li><li>• superior border of the heart</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A) First and Second Thoracic Vertebrae (T1 and T2) : The first thoracic vertebra (T1) is located just below the seventh cervical vertebra (C7). It marks the transition from the cervical spine to the thoracic spine. The second thoracic vertebra (T2) is located just below T1 and continues the thoracic spine.</li><li>• Option A) First and Second Thoracic Vertebrae (T1 and T2)</li><li>• Option B) Second and Third Thoracic Vertebrae (T2 and T3) : These vertebrae are adjacent to each other, with T2 immediately below T1 and T3 following T2.</li><li>• Option B) Second and Third Thoracic Vertebrae (T2 and T3)</li><li>• Option D) Fifth and sixth Thoracic Vertebrae ( T5 and T6) : This option suggests that the arrow corresponds to the region between the fifth and sixth thoracic vertebrae which is lower than the marked arrow in the diagram.</li><li>• Option D) Fifth and sixth Thoracic Vertebrae ( T5 and T6)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sternal angle / Angle of Louis - Between Manubrium &amp; Body of sternum Lies at level of Lower border of T4</li><li>➤ Sternal angle / Angle of Louis - Between Manubrium &amp; Body of sternum Lies at level of Lower border of T4</li><li>➤ Between Manubrium &amp; Body of sternum Lies at level of Lower border of T4</li><li>➤ Between Manubrium &amp; Body of sternum</li><li>➤ Lies at level of Lower border of T4</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the histological image below? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transitional epithelium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stratified cuboidal epithelium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stratified squamous epithelium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudostratified columnar epithelium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transitional epithelium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1108.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Transitional epithelium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transitional epithelium is crucial for the proper function of the urinary system, accommodating fluctuations in volume while protecting underlying tissues from urine’s potential chemical harm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy has developed white patches on his anterior incisors, which have recently turned brown. His mother is concerned about the cause. Which element is most likely responsible for this discoloration? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlorine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iodine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fluorine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-181749.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-181922.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Fluorine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dental fluorosis is caused by the ingestion of excess fluoride during the early years of life, leading to characteristic tooth discoloration.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Fluorine is a double edged sword.</li><li>➤ Dental Fluorosis occurs when Fluorine level is &gt; 0.8mg/l in water. In that case, the water should be defluoridated using Nalgonda technique. If the level of fluorine is &lt; 0.5mg/l, then the fluorine deficiency will lead to Dental Caries. In that case, fluorine supplementation should be done. Level &gt; 1.5 ppm: Dental fluorosis (mottling) Level 3.0 - 6.0 ppm: Skeletal fluorosis Level &gt; 10.0 ppm: Crippling fluorosis</li><li>➤ Dental Fluorosis occurs when Fluorine level is &gt; 0.8mg/l in water. In that case, the water should be defluoridated using Nalgonda technique.</li><li>➤ If the level of fluorine is &lt; 0.5mg/l, then the fluorine deficiency will lead to Dental Caries. In that case, fluorine supplementation should be done. Level &gt; 1.5 ppm: Dental fluorosis (mottling) Level 3.0 - 6.0 ppm: Skeletal fluorosis Level &gt; 10.0 ppm: Crippling fluorosis</li><li>➤ Level &gt; 1.5 ppm: Dental fluorosis (mottling) Level 3.0 - 6.0 ppm: Skeletal fluorosis Level &gt; 10.0 ppm: Crippling fluorosis</li><li>➤ Level &gt; 1.5 ppm: Dental fluorosis (mottling)</li><li>➤ Level 3.0 - 6.0 ppm: Skeletal fluorosis</li><li>➤ Level &gt; 10.0 ppm: Crippling fluorosis</li><li>➤ Fluorosis endemic area: Habitation/village/town having fluoride level &gt; 1.5 ppm in drinking water. Villages classification based on the level of fluoride content:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman presented to OPD with complaint of greenish-frothy vaginal discharge for 1 month. Examination revealed finding as shown in image. On saline microscopy, motile organisms are noticed. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichomoniasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacterial Vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chlamydial Cervicitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trichomoniasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1050.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-115204.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trichomoniasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and image showing strawberry cervix, is suggestive of Trichomoniasis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Bacterial Vaginosis</li><li>• Option B. Bacterial Vaginosis</li><li>• Discharge: White, thin, homogenous with a foul odor. Diagnosis: Amsel Criteria - clue cells on wet mount, whiff test positive, pH &gt; 4.5, homogenous discharge. Symptoms: Usually no erythema or significant irritation.</li><li>• Discharge: White, thin, homogenous with a foul odor.</li><li>• Diagnosis: Amsel Criteria - clue cells on wet mount, whiff test positive, pH &gt; 4.5, homogenous discharge.</li><li>• Symptoms: Usually no erythema or significant irritation.</li><li>• Option C. Chlamydial Cervicitis</li><li>• Option C. Chlamydial Cervicitis</li><li>• Typically associated with mucopurulent cervical discharge and may not present with frothy discharge or a strawberry cervix. Diagnosis: Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are used to detect Chlamydia trachomatis.</li><li>• Typically associated with mucopurulent cervical discharge and may not present with frothy discharge or a strawberry cervix.</li><li>• Diagnosis: Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are used to detect Chlamydia trachomatis.</li><li>• Option D. Candidiasis</li><li>• Option D. Candidiasis</li><li>• Discharge: Thick, curdy white with no odor. Diagnosis: KOH prep revealing pseudohyphae or spores, wet mount. Symptoms: Pruritis and dysuria with notable erythema.</li><li>• Discharge: Thick, curdy white with no odor.</li><li>• Diagnosis: KOH prep revealing pseudohyphae or spores, wet mount.</li><li>• Symptoms: Pruritis and dysuria with notable erythema.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichomoniasis is characterized by greenish-frothy vaginal discharge, a strawberry cervix, and motile organisms on saline microscopy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Gynaecology 6 th edition page 166</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Gynaecology 6 th edition page 166</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a small coastal town in Kerala, a sudden surge of gastroenteritis cases is reported within two days after a community seafood feast. Health officials suspect the seafood feast as the source of the epidemic. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of single exposure point source epidemic? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "With more than 1 incubation period", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Explosive in nature", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "With multiple peaks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Explosive in nature", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-113315.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Explosive in nature</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Single exposure point source epidemics are explosive in nature with a rapid increase and decline in cases, confined to one incubation period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the best option to define a post-term neonate: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Born after 37 weeks of gestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Born after 40 weeks of gestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Born after 42 weeks of gestation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Born between 37 – 40 weeks of gestation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Born after 42 weeks of gestation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-172547.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Born after 42 weeks of gestation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-term neonates are those who are born after 42 weeks / 294 days of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition, chapter on preterm labor</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition, chapter on preterm labor</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old man visits your clinic with his 2-year-old son, expressing concerns about vaccinations due to a belief in his community that vaccinations can lead to impotency. He is fearful for his son's future but is also influenced by societal beliefs. Addressing his concerns requires overcoming which type of barrier? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Psychological barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Environmental barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Physiological barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cultural barrier", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cultural barrier", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cultural barrier</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cultural beliefs can significantly influence health decisions, and understanding these beliefs is crucial for effective healthcare communication and intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tests is not used to assess the blood stain? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Takayama test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barberio’s test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Teichmann’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of these", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Barberio’s test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111851_wjuxqrV.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111909_eCGXk68.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111920_Fflensb.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111939_my685YS.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Barberio’s test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests for Semen: Florence and Barberio test (Both are presumptive tests)</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests for Semen:</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests for Blood: Teichmann’s and Takayama test (Both are confirmatory tests)</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests for Blood:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old female presented in OPD as shown below. She is a known case of Diabetes Mellitus. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foreign Body", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucormycosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture55.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mucormycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In diabetic patients presenting with black necrotic tissue and signs of invasive fungal infection in the nasal or orbital area, mucormycosis is the most likely diagnosis, requiring immediate and aggressive treatment to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient presents with a severe headache. He has never experienced a headache of this severity before. He has hypertension and nuchal rigidity on examination. Which of the following could be the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cluster headache", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Encephalitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-153841.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with sudden, severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and hypertension. CT scan shows blood in the subarachnoid space, appearing as a \"star of death.\"</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old female is presenting with the special lesions as shown in the below image. What are these lesions called as? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Comedones", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pustules", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Papules", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Comedones", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture6.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-103612.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-185539.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Comedones</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Comedones is identified as small, non-inflamed lesions found in acne, characterized by a plug of sebum and keratin within a hair follicle, presenting as blackheads or whiteheads.</li><li>➤ Comedones</li><li>➤ non-inflamed lesions</li><li>➤ plug of sebum and keratin</li><li>➤ blackheads or whiteheads.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Volume 3 Chapter 90 page no 90.1, 90.10, 90.13, 90.32 &amp; 90.37</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a contraindication to given drug? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malpresentation of fetus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart disease in mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Premature labour", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Malpresentation of fetus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1053.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Malpresentation of fetus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given drug in the image is Oxytocin, which is commonly used to induce or augment labor. However, its use is contraindicated in several conditions to avoid complications during childbirth. One such contraindication is malpresentation of the fetus, where the fetus is not in a head-down position, potentially complicating a vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Contraindications to Oxytocin:</li><li>• Contraindications to Oxytocin:</li><li>• Grand multipara: Women who have given birth five or more times. Contracted pelvis: A pelvis that is too small to allow the passage of the fetus. History of Classical Cesarean Section: Classical C-sections involve a vertical incision in the uterus, increasing the risk of uterine rupture. History of 2 or more Lower Segment Cesarean Sections (LSCS): Multiple C-sections also increase the risk of uterine rupture. Malpresentation: Includes breech, transverse, or any non-cephalic presentation of the fetus. Obstructed labor: Labor that does not progress due to physical obstruction. Fetal distress: Signs that the fetus is not well, such as abnormal heart rate patterns. Hypovolemia: Reduced blood volume in the mother, which can complicate the use of oxytocin.</li><li>• Grand multipara: Women who have given birth five or more times.</li><li>• Grand multipara:</li><li>• Contracted pelvis: A pelvis that is too small to allow the passage of the fetus.</li><li>• Contracted pelvis:</li><li>• History of Classical Cesarean Section: Classical C-sections involve a vertical incision in the uterus, increasing the risk of uterine rupture.</li><li>• History of Classical Cesarean Section:</li><li>• History of 2 or more Lower Segment Cesarean Sections (LSCS): Multiple C-sections also increase the risk of uterine rupture.</li><li>• History of 2 or more Lower Segment Cesarean Sections (LSCS):</li><li>• Malpresentation: Includes breech, transverse, or any non-cephalic presentation of the fetus.</li><li>• Malpresentation:</li><li>• Obstructed labor: Labor that does not progress due to physical obstruction.</li><li>• Obstructed labor:</li><li>• Fetal distress: Signs that the fetus is not well, such as abnormal heart rate patterns.</li><li>• Fetal distress:</li><li>• Hypovolemia: Reduced blood volume in the mother, which can complicate the use of oxytocin.</li><li>• Hypovolemia:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Heart disease in mother : Heart disease in the mother is considered a relative contraindication for oxytocin administration. It requires careful monitoring and assessment by the healthcare provider, but it is not an absolute contraindication.</li><li>• Option B. Heart disease in mother</li><li>• Option C. Premature labour : Oxytocin can sometimes be used to manage labor in preterm situations under strict medical supervision. It is not an absolute contraindication.</li><li>• Option C. Premature labour</li><li>• Option D. Hypothyroidism : Hypothyroidism is not a contraindication for the use of oxytocin. Proper management of hypothyroidism is necessary during pregnancy, but it does not specifically preclude the use of oxytocin.</li><li>• Option D. Hypothyroidism</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxytocin is contraindicated in malpresentation of the fetus, grand multipara, contracted pelvis, history of classical cesarean, history of 2 or more LSCS, obstructed labor, fetal distress, and hypovolemia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 573, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 226 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 573, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 226 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old girl is brought to a health clinic with difficulty seeing in the evening and dry, irritated eyes. Her diet mainly consists of rice and lentils, with limited access to green leafy vegetables or animal products. On examination, dryness and Bitot's spots are noted on the conjunctiva. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely responsible for her symptoms? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-05-185613.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-105719.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin A deficiency leads to Xerophthalmia, which presents with symptoms like dryness of eyes, night blindness, and Bitot's spots. This condition is common in children with diets lacking in vitamin A-rich foods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old male patient presents with visual acuity of 6/18, which improves upon performing the pinhole test. During the examination, the presence of fibrosis in the lens nucleus is noted, and his near vision displays improvement. Based on these findings, what is the refractive error he is presenting with? ( FMGE Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Index myopia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Index hypermetropia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Presbyopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Axial myopia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Index myopia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Index myopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Index myopia is characterized by an increase in the refractive index of the lens nucleus, often associated with nuclear sclerosis in cataracts, and can result in the \"second sight phenomenon,\" where near vision temporarily improves</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child presented with recurrent respiratory infections with thickened sputum. CXR showed bronchial wall thickening. He has been suffering from steatorrhea since birth. Which of the following is the first differential diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyaline membrane disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malabsorption syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cystic fibrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystic fibrosis should be the first differential diagnosis in children with recurrent respiratory infections, thickened sputum, bronchial wall thickening on CXR, and steatorrhea since birth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is a symptom of cannabis intake? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Depressed mood", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Irritability", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sleep disturbance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dreamy State", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dreamy State", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Dreamy State</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding mechanism of action of dicumarol? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It acts as a calcium chelator and reduces the availability of calcium in coagulation pathway", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It binds and activates anti-thrombin 3 that accelerates its interaction with thrombin and factor Xa resulting in their degradation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It acts as a Vitamin K inhibitor that leads to inhibition of activation of clotting factors 2,7,9 and 10", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It inhibits tissue plasminogen activator resulting in stoppage of conversion of plasminogen to plasmin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It acts as a Vitamin K inhibitor that leads to inhibition of activation of clotting factors 2,7,9 and 10", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. It acts as a Vitamin K inhibitor that leads to inhibition of activation of clotting factors 2,7,9 and 10</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dicumarol acts as a Vitamin K inhibitor, preventing the activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X by inhibiting the enzyme Vitamin K Epoxide Reductase (VKOR). This inhibition is crucial for its anticoagulant effect, similar to that of warfarin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of following is less suggestive of an organic cause of mental illness? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Old age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute onset", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of consciousness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Auditory Hallucination", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Auditory Hallucination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Auditory Hallucination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Auditory hallucinations are more commonly associated with psychiatric illnesses and are less suggestive of an organic cause of mental illness compared to symptoms like loss of consciousness or acute neurological changes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "LH surge in the menstrual cycle is because of?(FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Estradiol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "FSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HCG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Estradiol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture100000.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Estradiol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LH surge in the menstrual cycle is because of Estradiol</li><li>➤ Estradiol</li><li>➤ Increase in estrogen is responsible for increase in LH (Positive feedback)</li><li>➤ LH surge - 36 hours before ovulation</li><li>➤ LH peak - 8-10 hrs’ before ovulation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a public health officer in a remote village experiencing a rise in dog bites due to an increase in stray dogs. The local panchayat asks you to teach the villagers essential first aid steps after a dog bite. Which method would you primarily use? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Panel discussion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flash cards", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Demonstration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Symposium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Demonstration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-130424.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Demonstration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Demonstration is the most effective method for teaching practical first aid steps, such as wound care after a dog bite, especially in settings with limited healthcare access.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false regarding audit in obstetrics? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Improve treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal death rate analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Improving hospital administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Done before analysing outcomes", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Done before analysing outcomes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Done before analysing outcomes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clinical audits in obstetrics are conducted after analyzing outcomes to ensure that healthcare provisions are standardized and continuously improved based on evidence-based practices.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta textbook of Obstetrics page728-729</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta textbook of Obstetrics page728-729</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old nurse in a busy city hospital is focused on infection control for general respiratory illnesses. Regular hand washing with soap and water or using an alcohol-based hand rub is recommended to prevent the spread of infections. This recommendation falls under which level of prevention? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primordial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tertiary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Primary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Primary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Levels of prevention</li><li>➤ Levels of prevention</li><li>➤ Primordial-Prevention of development of risk factors Primary- Risk factor is present, but disease is being prevented. Secondary-Disease is already present. Screening/early diagnosis and treatment is done in order to prevent the complications. Tertiary- Complications are present, death is being prevented.</li><li>➤ Primordial-Prevention of development of risk factors</li><li>➤ Primary- Risk factor is present, but disease is being prevented.</li><li>➤ Secondary-Disease is already present. Screening/early diagnosis and treatment is done in order to prevent the complications.</li><li>➤ Tertiary- Complications are present, death is being prevented.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child is presenting with short stature, the height of the child to parent’s height and the chronological age of the child corresponds to bone age, what is the likely condition the child is associated with? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Constitutional delay", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Familial short stature", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "GH deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Familial short stature", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Familial short stature</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In familial short stature, the bone age corresponds to the chronological age, and the child's short stature is consistent with their genetic potential.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with dyspnea and distended neck veins that increase on inspiration. There is no murmur. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Constrictive pericarditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tricuspid stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary arterial hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Constrictive pericarditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kussmaul's sign, an increase in JVP on inspiration, is indicative of constrictive pericarditis. It is not associated with murmurs or primary valvular heart diseases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In PALS ABCDE all pairs are matched correctly except? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A for airway", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B for breathing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C for circulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D for dehydration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. D for dehydration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) D for dehydration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In PALS, the \"D\" in the ABCDE mnemonic stands for Disability, which involves assessing the child’s neurological status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the most common site of implantation in ectopic pregnancy: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infundibulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ampulla", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isthmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interstial portion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ampulla", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/29/whatsapp-image-2023-09-29-at-110123.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ampulla</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Ectopic pregnancy refers to implantation occurring outside the endometrial cavity.</li><li>• Sites of implantation</li><li>• Uterine (.5%) such as cervical (1%), caesarean scar ectopic &lt;1%)</li><li>• Management of tubal ectopic may be medical or surgical: medical management maybe considered if the patient is haemodynamically stable , foetal cardiac activity absent, beta HCG level less than 5000 , size of gestational sac less than 4 cm .</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Infundibulum: Accounts for 18% of ectopic pregnancies, but not the most common site.</li><li>• Option A. Infundibulum:</li><li>• Option C. Isthmus: Accounts for 25% of ectopic pregnancies, but not the most common site.</li><li>• Option C. Isthmus:</li><li>• Option D. Interstitial portion: Accounts for 2% of ectopic pregnancies, but not the most common site.</li><li>• Option D. Interstitial portion:</li><li>• Management of Tubal Ectopic Pregnancy:</li><li>• Management may be medical or surgical:</li><li>• Medical Management: Considered if the patient is hemodynamically stable, fetal cardiac activity is absent, beta HCG level is less than 5000, and the size of the gestational sac is less than 4 cm.</li><li>• Medical Management: Considered if the patient is hemodynamically stable, fetal cardiac activity is absent, beta HCG level is less than 5000, and the size of the gestational sac is less than 4 cm.</li><li>• Medical Management:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ampulla of the fallopian tube is the most common site of implantation in ectopic pregnancy, accounting for 55% of cases.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of obstetrics page 207</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of obstetrics page 207</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is analyzing demographic patterns in a tribal region of Jharkhand, India. The community has high birth and death rates due to limited healthcare and high disease prevalence. In which stage of the demographic transition model is the birth rate typically the highest? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stage 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-112928.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-112955.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Stage 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Five stages of demographic cycle</li><li>➤ Five stages of demographic cycle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mark the correct description for laryngeal cancer stage T1b N0 M0.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both Vocal cords involved and fixed", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both Vocal cords involved and mobile", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "One Vocal cord involved and fixed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "One Vocal cord involved and mobile", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Both Vocal cords involved and mobile", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Both vocal cords involved and mobile</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ TNM staging for CA Larynx:</li><li>➤ TNM staging for CA Larynx:</li><li>➤ T1 – only 1 subsite (supraglottis/glottis/subglottis) T2 – involves adjacent subsites or sites, impaired vocal cord mobility . T3 – involving pre-epiglottic space &amp; post-cricoid area, fixed vocal cords . T4a – local invasion through thyroid cartilage or tissues beyond larynx T4b – Invasion to distant places (prevertebral space, mediastinum, carotid, etc) N0 – no cervical lymph nodes N1 – single ipsilateral &lt; 3cm N2 – single ipsilateral 3-6cm / multiple ipsilateral, contralateral or bilateral &lt; 6cm N3 – single or multiple nodes &gt; 6cm M0 – no metastasis M1 – metastasis present</li><li>➤ T1 – only 1 subsite (supraglottis/glottis/subglottis)</li><li>➤ T2 – involves adjacent subsites or sites, impaired vocal cord mobility .</li><li>➤ impaired vocal cord mobility</li><li>➤ T3 – involving pre-epiglottic space &amp; post-cricoid area, fixed vocal cords .</li><li>➤ fixed vocal cords</li><li>➤ T4a – local invasion through thyroid cartilage or tissues beyond larynx</li><li>➤ local invasion</li><li>➤ T4b – Invasion to distant places (prevertebral space, mediastinum, carotid, etc)</li><li>➤ N0 – no cervical lymph nodes</li><li>➤ N1 – single ipsilateral &lt; 3cm</li><li>➤ N2 – single ipsilateral 3-6cm / multiple ipsilateral, contralateral or bilateral &lt; 6cm</li><li>➤ N3 – single or multiple nodes &gt; 6cm</li><li>➤ M0 – no metastasis</li><li>➤ M1 – metastasis present</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic tobacco chewer presents with left cheek swelling. On examination a white membrane is seen over the gingiva buccal fold, which doesn’t get rubbed off. What will be your next line of management? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgical excision and Biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stop tobacco and don’t worry about the patch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chemical cauterization with trichloroacetic acetic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MVAC Chemotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Surgical excision and Biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Surgical excision and biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leukoplakia can potentially transform into a malignancy, and thus, any suspicious lesion in the oral cavity should be excised and biopsied for a definitive diagnosis and to rule out cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is receiving chemotherapy with platinum compounds. Which of the following drugs are used for treatment of chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Granisetron, Dexamethasone and Aprepitant", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metoclopramide, dexamethasone and domperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prochlorperazine, Granisetron and domperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Promethazine, doxylamine and metoclopramide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Granisetron, Dexamethasone and Aprepitant", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Granisetron, Dexamethasone and Aprepitant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the treatment of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, particularly with platinum compounds like cisplatin, the combination of Granisetron (a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist), Dexamethasone (a corticosteroid), and Aprepitant (an NK1 receptor antagonist) is highly effective. This regimen targets multiple pathways involved in emesis and provides comprehensive control of both acute and delayed phases of CINV.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with Reinke’s edema will have which of the following symptoms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysphonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dysphagia to solids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dysphagia to liquids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diplophonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dysphonia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_02NbipD.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Dysphonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reinke's edema primarily affects the vocal cords leading to characteristic symptoms related to voice changes where the patient may experience pain due to movement of swollen vocal cords. Heavy vocal cords require more effort by the vocal muscles to move them. Hence this extra effort of muscles causes pain and early vocal fatigue to the patient. Management involves addressing the underlying causes, surgical intervention, and supportive therapies like voice rest and speech therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the parameter seen in all types of shock: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased pulse pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased peripheral resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased Tissue Perfusion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Decreased Tissue Perfusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-105.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Decreased Tissue Perfusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decreased tissue perfusion is a universal characteristic of all types of shock, leading to inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Elective splenectomy is preferred in which of the following conditions? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G6PD deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hereditary spherocytosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hairy cell leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hereditary spherocytosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hereditary spherocytosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Elective splenectomy is indicated in hereditary spherocytosis to decrease hemolysis and improve symptoms, particularly in patients with severe anemia or those who require frequent blood transfusions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An accused died in lock up during the police interrogation. Enquiry in this case will be done by? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Judicial magistrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Executive magistrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Police IG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Head constable", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Judicial magistrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-183308.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Judicial magistrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of inquest are as follows:</li><li>➤ Types of inquest are as follows:</li><li>➤ Ref: KSN Reddy, Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 33 rd Ed., p. 132</li><li>➤ Ref: KSN Reddy, Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 33 rd Ed., p. 132</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with multiple painful blisters on the trunk as shown in the image. Identify the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes zoster", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SCID", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Herpes zoster", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_67.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Herpes zoster</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpes zoster is identified as painful, unilateral vesicular lesions within a dermatomal d istribution on the patient's trunk.</li><li>➤ Herpes zoster</li><li>➤ painful, unilateral vesicular lesions</li><li>➤ dermatomal d</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition Page nos 4.13, 25.27-25.28</li><li>↳ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition Page no 106</li><li>↳ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition Page no 106</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the reason behind developing breathing difficulty at high altitudes? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease in hemoglobin concentration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both option a and b are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above is correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breathing difficulty at high altitudes is primarily caused by a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen due to reduced atmospheric pressure, leading to insufficient oxygen availability and hypoxia. This challenges the body to adapt through various physiological mechanisms to maintain adequate oxygen delivery to tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the type of pelvis shown below? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Android Pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthropoid Pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Platypelloid Pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gynecoid Pelvis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gynecoid Pelvis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1057.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-120415.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Gynecoid Pelvis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Given image shows a Gynecoid pelvis.</li><li>• Based on the shape of the inlet female pelvis can be divided into 4 types: Gynecoid (50%) Android (25%) Anthropoid (20%) and platypelloid (5%) (Caldwell-Molloy anatomical classification)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Gynecoid pelvis, which is slightly oval or round in the transverse axis, is the most common and ideal type for childbirth.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 403, William’s textbook of Obstetrics page 34</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 403, William’s textbook of Obstetrics page 34</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of colorectal cancer was treated with folinic acid, 5-fluorouracil and irinotecan therapy. He developed diarrhea following the regimen. Which of the following drug can be used for treatment of chemotherapy related diarrhea in this patient? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loperamide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Loperamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Loperamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Option D. Metronidazole</li><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the treatment of chemotherapy-induced diarrhea, particularly following regimens that include drugs like irinotecan, loperamide is the appropriate choice. Loperamide effectively reduces intestinal motility and secretions, helping to control and reduce diarrhea. Other medications such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole are used for infectious causes of diarrhea and are not suitable for chemotherapy-induced cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old was brought to the emergency room with difficulty in swallowing since 2 hours. A radiograph was done as shown below. What will be the next step to manage the patient? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracheostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophagoscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heimlich’s maneuver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Esophagoscopy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture42.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Esophagoscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected esophageal foreign bodies in children, esophagoscopy is the preferred method for both confirmation and removal of the object. It ensures that the foreign body is safely and effectively retrieved while minimizing risk to the patient.</li><li>➤ esophagoscopy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not included in Gaisböck syndrome? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erythrocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal leukocyte counts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obesity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypotension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gaisböck syndrome is characterized by relative erythrocytosis, hypertension, normal leukocyte counts, and obesity. Hypotension &amp; splenomegaly is not a feature of this syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is found only in cytoplasm: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TCA cycle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta-oxidation of Fatty acids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycolysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gluconeogenesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Glycolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Glycolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Correct Answer. Glycolysis, the process of breaking down glucose to pyruvate, occurs exclusively in the cytoplasm. It is the first major pathway of glucose catabolism and occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions. Glycolysis is unique among these options as being the only pathway confined to the cytoplasm.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. CA Cycle: The Tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, takes place in the mitochondria, not in the cytoplasm. It is a key metabolic pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, leading to the production of ATP.</li><li>• Option A. CA Cycle:</li><li>• Option B. Beta-oxidation of Fatty Acids: Beta-oxidation, the process of breaking down fatty acids to produce acetyl-CoA, occurs in the mitochondria. In some cells, like liver cells, it can also occur in peroxisomes, but it does not take place in the cytoplasm.</li><li>• Option B. Beta-oxidation of Fatty Acids:</li><li>• Option D. Gluconeogenesis: Although some steps of gluconeogenesis occur in the cytoplasm, it is not exclusive to this compartment. This metabolic pathway, which generates glucose from non-carbohydrate substrates, involves steps that occur in both the cytoplasm and mitochondria (and to a lesser extent, the endoplasmic reticulum).</li><li>• Option D. Gluconeogenesis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Generally, all Anabolic Pathways occur in Cytoplasm and all Catabolic Pathways occur in Mitochondria Exception: Two catabolic pathways also occur in cytoplasm. Glycolysis Glycogenolysis</li><li>➤ Generally, all Anabolic Pathways occur in Cytoplasm and all Catabolic Pathways occur in Mitochondria</li><li>➤ Exception: Two catabolic pathways also occur in cytoplasm. Glycolysis Glycogenolysis</li><li>➤ Glycolysis Glycogenolysis</li><li>➤ Glycolysis</li><li>➤ Glycogenolysis</li><li>➤ However, three processes occur both in cytoplasm and mitochondria.</li><li>➤ Urea cycle Gluconeogenesis TCA</li><li>➤ Urea cycle</li><li>➤ Gluconeogenesis</li><li>➤ TCA</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 139</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 139</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following conditions, ovarian drilling is beneficial? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ovarian tumour", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polycystic ovarian syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Polycystic ovarian syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1032.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Polycystic ovarian syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is used in management of polycystic ovarian syndrome</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynaecology page471</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynaecology page471</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient with a history of smoking a pack of cigarettes for the past 15 years presents with hemoptysis. CXR shows a 3 cm upper lobe mass near the apex of the lung. What is the next best step for the management of this patient? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT guided biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sputum cytology", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sputum for AFB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CT guided biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with a significant smoking history and a peripheral lung mass larger than 2 cm, a CT guided biopsy is the next best step to diagnose the nature of the mass.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old male patient on cancer chemotherapy developed neutropenia. Which of the following drug is used to increase the immunity in this person? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Filgrastim", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Darbepoetin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oprelvekin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron dextran", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Filgrastim", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Filgrastim</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Filgrastim is the drug used to increase immunity in patients with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia. It works by stimulating the production of neutrophils, thereby reducing the risk of infection. Other drugs like darbepoetin, oprelvekin, and iron dextran are used for different hematological conditions and do not directly increase neutrophil counts or improve immunity in neutropenic patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman from a resource-limited setting presents to a local health camp with complaints of chronic eye irritation and a gritty feeling in her eyes for the past few months. On examination, conjunctival scarring and inward turning of the eyelashes are noted. The physician suspects trachoma and recalls the recommended WHO's SAFE strategy for managing trachoma in endemic areas. What does the \"S\" in the SAFE strategy stand for in this context? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spectacles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sanitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"S\" in the WHO's SAFE strategy for trachoma stands for Surgery.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Trachoma Treatment</li><li>➤ Trachoma Treatment</li><li>➤ Treatment of choice for Trachoma: Azithromycin 20 mg/kg oral stat Current WHO recommendations for antibiotic treatment of trachoma: District level prevalence is &gt; 10% in 1-9 years old children: Mass treatment with Azithromycin District level prevalence is 5-10% in 1-9 years old children: Targeted treatment with Azithromycin (the identification and treatment of all members of any family in whom one or more members have follicular trachoma) District level prevalence is &lt; 5% in 1-9 years old children: Azithromycin distribution may not be necessary Mass treatment for Trachoma: [NEW GUIDELINES–WHO] Indication of mass treatment in Trachoma: &gt; 10% prevalence of severe and moderate Trachoma in children &lt; 10 yrs of age Treatment: 1% tetracycline ointment BD for 5 consecutive days each month or OD for 10 days each month for 6 consecutive months, or for 60 consecutive days</li><li>➤ Treatment of choice for Trachoma: Azithromycin 20 mg/kg oral stat</li><li>➤ Current WHO recommendations for antibiotic treatment of trachoma: District level prevalence is &gt; 10% in 1-9 years old children: Mass treatment with Azithromycin District level prevalence is 5-10% in 1-9 years old children: Targeted treatment with Azithromycin (the identification and treatment of all members of any family in whom one or more members have follicular trachoma) District level prevalence is &lt; 5% in 1-9 years old children: Azithromycin distribution may not be necessary</li><li>➤ District level prevalence is &gt; 10% in 1-9 years old children: Mass treatment with Azithromycin District level prevalence is 5-10% in 1-9 years old children: Targeted treatment with Azithromycin (the identification and treatment of all members of any family in whom one or more members have follicular trachoma) District level prevalence is &lt; 5% in 1-9 years old children: Azithromycin distribution may not be necessary</li><li>➤ District level prevalence is &gt; 10% in 1-9 years old children: Mass treatment with Azithromycin</li><li>➤ District level prevalence is 5-10% in 1-9 years old children: Targeted treatment with Azithromycin (the identification and treatment of all members of any family in whom one or more members have follicular trachoma)</li><li>➤ District level prevalence is &lt; 5% in 1-9 years old children: Azithromycin distribution may not be necessary</li><li>➤ Mass treatment for Trachoma: [NEW GUIDELINES–WHO] Indication of mass treatment in Trachoma: &gt; 10% prevalence of severe and moderate Trachoma in children &lt; 10 yrs of age Treatment: 1% tetracycline ointment BD for 5 consecutive days each month or OD for 10 days each month for 6 consecutive months, or for 60 consecutive days</li><li>➤ Mass treatment for Trachoma: [NEW GUIDELINES–WHO]</li><li>➤ Indication of mass treatment in Trachoma: &gt; 10% prevalence of severe and moderate Trachoma in children &lt; 10 yrs of age Treatment: 1% tetracycline ointment BD for 5 consecutive days each month or OD for 10 days each month for 6 consecutive months, or for 60 consecutive days</li><li>➤ Indication of mass treatment in Trachoma: &gt; 10% prevalence of severe and moderate Trachoma in children &lt; 10 yrs of age</li><li>➤ Treatment: 1% tetracycline ointment BD for 5 consecutive days each month or OD for 10 days each month for 6 consecutive months, or for 60 consecutive days</li><li>➤ India declared ‘Trachoma-Free’ in December 2017.</li><li>➤ India declared ‘Trachoma-Free’ in December 2017.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 57-year-old woman has an endometrial thickness of 14 mm with an adnexal mass. A previous report of endometrial biopsy shows complex endometrial hyperplasia with the presence of atypical cells. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metastasis endometrial carcinoma to ovary", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polycystic ovarian disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Struma Ovarii", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immature ovarian teratoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metastasis endometrial carcinoma to ovary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-103858.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metastasis endometrial carcinoma to ovary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endometrial thickness &gt; 5 mm in postmenopausal women with bleeding should prompt an endometrial biopsy, especially if complex hyperplasia with atypia is suspected due to the high risk of progression to endometrial carcinoma.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta Textbook of Gynaecology page 329, 460, 294</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta Textbook of Gynaecology page 329, 460, 294</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient is presenting with a mucous discharge involving his orbital cavity was found to be spreading from nasal cavity with. Blackish discoloration what is the organism responsible? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mucormycosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-114315.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mucormycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis, especially in diabetic patients, can lead to black necrotic lesions and rapid spread from the nasal cavity to the orbital region. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with Amphotericin B and surgical debridement are essential.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Cattle farmer with a scab lesion in the arm. Microscopic examination shows brick/box shaped gram-positive organism with squared ends and spores in the centre. Most likely organism which is responsible for his condition is? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacillus anthracis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Listeria monocytogens", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B ceres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bacillus anthracis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture855.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bacillus anthracis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bacillus anthracis, with its brick/boxcar shape and central spores, is the causative agent of cutaneous anthrax, a zoonotic infection often seen in individuals handling livestock or animal products.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old smoker, male presented with painless hematuria. On further investigation he is diagnosed with bladder cancer extending upto the muscle layer. What should be the treatment of choice in this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravesical BCG followed by chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systemic chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radical cystectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radical cystectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Radical cystectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radical cystectomy is the treatment of choice for muscle-invasive bladder cancer</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient’s higher mental functions were being assessed by a psychiatrist. He was asked to serially subtract 7 from 100. Which mental function is being assessed? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Judgement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Concentration", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orientation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Attention", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Concentration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210103.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Concentration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Concentration, the ability to maintain attention on a task over a period of time, is assessed through the Serial Seven Subtraction Test in mental function evaluations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Plasma sterilization is used for the purpose of disinfection, to create the plasma which of the following substance is used? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ethylene oxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glutaraldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Formaldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrogen peroxide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hydrogen peroxide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hydrogen peroxide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plasma sterilization : Is done with hydrogen peroxide, which creates reactive species that effectively sterilize medical instruments through free radical injury. Ethylene oxide - Heart lung machines, respirators, dental equipments etc. Gluteraldehyde - Cystoscopes, bronchoscopes, Plastic ETT, face masks etc. Formaldehyde - Fumigation of operating theater's, wards and labs.</li><li>➤ Plasma sterilization : Is done with hydrogen peroxide, which creates reactive species that effectively sterilize medical instruments through free radical injury.</li><li>➤ Plasma sterilization</li><li>➤ Ethylene oxide - Heart lung machines, respirators, dental equipments etc.</li><li>➤ Ethylene oxide</li><li>➤ Gluteraldehyde - Cystoscopes, bronchoscopes, Plastic ETT, face masks etc.</li><li>➤ Gluteraldehyde</li><li>➤ Formaldehyde - Fumigation of operating theater's, wards and labs.</li><li>➤ Formaldehyde</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A civil engineer in Kerala is designing a wastewater treatment facility for a growing town. He considers implementing an oxidation pond, a natural wastewater treatment system. Which of the following best describes the microbial activity of the oxidation pond? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aerobic during day time and anaerobic during night time", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anaerobic during day time and aerobic during night time", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anaerobic during day time and night time", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aerobic during day time and night time", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aerobic during day time and anaerobic during night time", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-132143.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Aerobic during day time and anaerobic during night time.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxidation ponds utilize aerobic microbial activity during the day and anaerobic activity at night to treat wastewater effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Patient is infected with a dimorphic fungus which involves the subcutaneous layers, identify the organism responsible for it? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chromoblastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sporothrix", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sporothrix", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture12333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sporothrix</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sporothrix schenckii is a dimorphic fungus that causes subcutaneous infections, commonly known as \"rose gardener's disease,\" and spreads via lymphatic channels.</li><li>➤ Examples of dimorphic fungi - Coccidioides , Paracoccidioides, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Histoplasma capsulatum, Sporothrix schenckii</li><li>➤ , Paracoccidioides, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Histoplasma capsulatum, Sporothrix schenckii</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A city school board is determining the minimum classroom space per student for safety and well-being. What is the minimum per capita space that should be available for each child in a school classroom based on public health guidelines? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt; 10 Sqft", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt; 15 Sqft", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt; 20 Sqft", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 5 Sqft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. > 10 Sqft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. &gt; 10 Sqft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ School health service guidelines recommendations are:</li><li>➤ One class room for maximum 40 students Minus type desk Doors and windows ≥ 25% of floor area 1 urinal /60 student, 1 latrine/100 student. Natural light from left side Minimum area 10 sq. ft. per student for sitting. School health examination every 6 months. Walls should be white in colour. Canteen should be present if number of students are more than 250.</li><li>➤ One class room for maximum 40 students</li><li>➤ Minus type desk</li><li>➤ Doors and windows ≥ 25% of floor area</li><li>➤ 1 urinal /60 student, 1 latrine/100 student.</li><li>➤ Natural light from left side</li><li>➤ Minimum area 10 sq. ft. per student for sitting.</li><li>➤ School health examination every 6 months.</li><li>➤ Walls should be white in colour.</li><li>➤ Canteen should be present if number of students are more than 250.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic smoker presented with bilateral pitting pedal edema, and abdominal distension. On examination, he had ascites and auscultation revealed an S3. Which of the following defects can be seen in this patient? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aortic regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tricuspid regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aortic stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tricuspid regurgitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tricuspid regurgitation is a common cause of right heart failure, presenting with symptoms such as pedal edema, abdominal distension, and ascites.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic presented with anorexia, nausea, vomiting and epigastric pain radiating towards the back. On investigation, Serum amylase is 1400; all other lab parameters are normal, what is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute Pancreatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute cholecystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute appendicitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic hepatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute Pancreatitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acute Pancreatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute pancreatitis should be suspected in a patient with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, especially with significantly elevated serum amylase levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn is presenting with history of continuous drooling of saliva and frothiness in mouth, it is also associated with respiratory distress, the X ray of the child reveals the following image, what will be probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transient tachypnea of new born", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracheoesophageal fistula", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diaphragmatic eversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyaline membrane disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tracheoesophageal fistula", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-173101.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tracheoesophageal fistula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A newborn with continuous drooling, frothiness in the mouth, and respiratory distress, along with an X-ray showing a coiled NG tube and gas in the stomach, is likely to have a tracheoesophageal fistula.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mucormycosis can be caused by following except? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neutropenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uncontrolled diabetes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Long steroid use", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Broad spectrum antibiotics", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Broad spectrum antibiotics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Broad spectrum antibiotics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Risk factors for mucormycosis are:</li><li>➤ Risk factors for mucormycosis are:</li><li>➤ Uncontrolled diabetes Prolonged or high-dose corticosteroid therapy Post - organ transplantation Neutropenia Intravenous drug use Prolonged hospitalization Immunodeficiency</li><li>➤ Uncontrolled diabetes</li><li>➤ Prolonged or high-dose corticosteroid therapy</li><li>➤ Post - organ transplantation</li><li>➤ Neutropenia</li><li>➤ Intravenous drug use</li><li>➤ Prolonged hospitalization</li><li>➤ Immunodeficiency</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following compound(s) is most likely to cause diabetic cataract:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Accumulation of sorbitol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Accumulation of galactose + glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Accumulation of galactitol + glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Accumulation of glucose only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Accumulation of sorbitol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Accumulation of sorbitol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In diabetes, high levels of glucose in the lens of the eye can lead to increased production of sorbitol via the aldose reductase pathway. Sorbitol, being osmotically active, cannot easily cross cell membranes and thus accumulates in the lens, leading to an osmotic imbalance that causes swelling, opacification, and eventually, cataract formation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B . Accumulation of Galactose + Glucose: While accumulation of galactose can lead to cataract formation (as seen in classic galactosemia), in the context of diabetes, the primary issue is the accumulation of sorbitol derived from glucose. Galactose is not typically elevated in diabetic patients unless there is a concurrent metabolic disorder affecting galactose metabolism.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Accumulation of Galactose + Glucose:</li><li>• Option C . Accumulation of Galactitol + Glucose: Similar to option B, while galactitol (formed from galactose) can contribute to cataract formation in conditions like galactosemia, it is not the primary concern in diabetic cataract where the key issue is sorbitol accumulation from glucose.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Accumulation of Galactitol + Glucose:</li><li>• Option D . Accumulation of Glucose Only: While hyperglycemia (high glucose levels) is the underlying cause of diabetic complications, including cataracts, it's the metabolic conversion of this excess glucose to sorbitol in the lens that primarily contributes to cataract formation, not the accumulation of glucose alone.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Accumulation of Glucose Only:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Diabetes mellitus, in the lens by polyol pathway, glucose converted to sorbitol by the enzyme Aldose reductase. Excess Glucose can enter the lens of the eye and get converted to Sorbitol with the help of aldose reductase. This enzyme is a major contributor to diabetic complication due to accumulation of sorbitol which is hygroscopic sugar and causes swelling of the eye in untreated diabetic patients In galactosemia, Dulcitol or Galactitol is responsible for cataract.</li><li>➤ In Diabetes mellitus, in the lens by polyol pathway, glucose converted to sorbitol by the enzyme Aldose reductase. Excess Glucose can enter the lens of the eye and get converted to Sorbitol with the help of aldose reductase. This enzyme is a major contributor to diabetic complication due to accumulation of sorbitol which is hygroscopic sugar and causes swelling of the eye in untreated diabetic patients</li><li>➤ sorbitol</li><li>➤ In galactosemia, Dulcitol or Galactitol is responsible for cataract.</li><li>➤ Dulcitol or Galactitol</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 200</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 200</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with a history of headaches for the past 9 months that worsen in a recumbent position and improve as the day progresses. She also gives a history of taking oral contraceptives. Fundal examination shows papilledema. There are no focal neurological deficits. What is the most probable cause of her headaches? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temporal arteritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic migraine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudotumor cerebri", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pseudotumor cerebri", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pseudotumor cerebri should be suspected in patients with chronic headaches that worsen when lying down, especially if they have papilledema and are on oral contraceptives.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old male was brought to OPD by his mother with reduced hearing since 2 months. On otoscopy, tympanic membrane was observed as shown in the image. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myringitis Bullosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myringitis Granulosa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Myringitis Bullosa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture46.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture47.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture49.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture50.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Myringitis Bullosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myringitis Bullosa should be considered when a patient presents with the acute onset of ear pain accompanied by visible blisters on the tympanic membrane, particularly in the context of a recent upper respiratory infection or influenza-like illness. Management focuses on pain relief and monitoring for resolution, with antibiotics or antivirals tailored to the underlying cause if identified.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle aged female presents with headache. Radiological examination reveals a 2 cm mass attached to the dura. Which of the following will most likely be observed on histopathology? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fried Egg Appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antony A and B Areas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Verrucae Bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Psammoma Bodies with Whirling", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Psammoma Bodies with Whirling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/26/screenshot-2024-09-25-191957.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Psammoma Bodies with Whirling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psammoma bodies with a whirling appearance are characteristic of meningiomas, a type of brain tumor that often arises from the dura.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a cause of exudative pleural effusion? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heart failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liver failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nephrotic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rheumatoid arthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Exudative pleural effusions are typically caused by conditions that involve inflammation or injury to the pleura, such as rheumatoid arthritis, while transudative effusions are usually due to systemic conditions like heart failure, liver failure, and nephrotic syndrome that affect hydrostatic or oncotic pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person with dyspnea has slight limitation in physical activity and doing ordinary activity causes symptoms but he is asymptomatic at rest. Which class of New York Heart Association (NYHA) does he belong to? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Class I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Class II", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Class III", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Class IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Class II", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NYHA class –most powerful prognostic marker of HF.</li><li>➤ NYHA class –most powerful prognostic marker of HF.</li><li>➤ Class 1 - asymptomatic with ordinary activities Class 2 - symptomatic with ordinary activities, not at rest Class 3 - symptomatic with &lt; ordinary activity Class 4 - symptomatic at rest</li><li>➤ Class 1 - asymptomatic with ordinary activities</li><li>➤ Class 2 - symptomatic with ordinary activities, not at rest</li><li>➤ Class 3 - symptomatic with &lt; ordinary activity</li><li>➤ Class 4 - symptomatic at rest</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year old male patient is presenting with hematuria and hemoptysis. On further testing Anti glomerular basement membrane antibody is positive, what will be the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Goodpasture syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glomerular nephropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alport’s syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Goodpasture syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/26/screenshot-2024-09-25-191628.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Goodpasture syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Goodpasture syndrome is characterized by the presence of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies, hematuria, and hemoptysis, and is a type II hypersensitivity reaction associated with type I Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (RPGN).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A biopsy was taken from the lymph node. What is name of the cell found in the lymph node? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RS cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mott cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Popcorn cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasma cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RS cell", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-217.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-191532.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) RS cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells, identifiable by their \"owl's eye\" appearance, are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma and can be identified using markers like CD15, CD30, and PAX-5.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is studying the spread of a new viral illness. He wants to determine the probability that a susceptible person will contract the disease after close contact with an infected person. Which measure best describes this probability? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Secondary attack rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serial interval", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incubation period", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Case fatality rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Secondary attack rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Secondary attack rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The secondary attack rate (SAR) is a critical measure for assessing the infectious potential of a disease, indicating the likelihood that a disease will spread among susceptible individuals after exposure to an infected person.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common indication for elective splenectomy is? ( FMGE Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hereditary spherocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "G6PD deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immune thrombocytopenia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Immune thrombocytopenia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Immune thrombocytopenia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common indication for elective splenectomy is Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nulliparous woman presented with 26 weeks of gestation for routine antenatal check-up. Her blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg. What can be the next best step? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum uric acid levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liver Function tests", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complete blood count", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine dipstick", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Urine dipstick", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-191550.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Urine dipstick</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pregnant women with BP &gt; 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks of gestation, the next best step is to evaluate for proteinuria using a urine dipstick test to screen for pre-eclampsia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics page 256, 262</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics page 256, 262</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked segment of liver. (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "V", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "VII", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "III", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IVa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. V", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/14.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/whatsapp-image-2023-07-13-at-134845.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. V</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The liver is divided into eight anatomical segments according to the Couinaud classification</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Correct about rheumatoid arthritis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgE Mediated", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Defective Cellular and Humoral Immunity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autoimmunity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic Microbial Infections", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Autoimmunity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/26/screenshot-2024-09-25-192307.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Autoimmunity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Imp. Characteristic features of RA:</li><li>➤ Imp. Characteristic features of RA:</li><li>➤ Synovial cell hyperplasia and proliferation Dense inflammatory infiltrates Osteoclastic activity in the underlying bone Subcutaneous nodule</li><li>➤ Synovial cell hyperplasia and proliferation</li><li>➤ Dense inflammatory infiltrates</li><li>➤ Osteoclastic activity in the underlying bone</li><li>➤ Subcutaneous nodule</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure? ( FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Internal capsule", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "External capsule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caudate lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Globus pallidus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Internal capsule", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1099.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1100_0rCUWGW.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1101.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Internal capsule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Above marked structure is internal capsule.</li><li>• The internal capsule is a critical white matter structure in the brain. It is located deep within the cerebral hemispheres and separates the caudate nucleus and the thalamus from the putamen and the globus pallidus. The internal capsule contains axon tracts that serve as major pathways for communication between different parts of the brain, including the cortex, thalamus, and various subcortical nuclei.</li><li>• The internal capsule is often subdivided into three parts: the anterior limb, genu (knee), and posterior limb. Each limb contains different types of nerve fibers that transmit motor, sensory, and other information between the cerebral cortex and other brain regions.</li><li>• The internal capsule consists of several parts and is V-shaped when cut horizontally, in a transverse plane.</li><li>• the bend in the V is called the genu the anterior limb or crus anterius is the part in front of the genu, between the head of the caudate nucleus and the lenticular nucleus the posterior limb or crus posterius is the part behind the genu, between the thalamus and lenticular nucleus the retrolenticular portion is caudal to the lenticular nucleus and carries the optic radiation (from medial part of lateral geniculate nucleus) also known as the geniculocalcarine tract. The fiber from lateral part of lateral geniculate nucleus is carried through the retrolenticular portion. the sublenticular portion is beneath the lenticular nucleus and are tracts involved in the auditory pathway from the medial geniculate nucleus to the primary auditory cortex (Brodmann areas 41 and 42)</li><li>• the bend in the V is called the genu</li><li>• the anterior limb or crus anterius is the part in front of the genu, between the head of the caudate nucleus and the lenticular nucleus</li><li>• anterior limb or crus anterius</li><li>• the posterior limb or crus posterius is the part behind the genu, between the thalamus and lenticular nucleus</li><li>• posterior limb or crus posterius</li><li>• the retrolenticular portion is caudal to the lenticular nucleus and carries the optic radiation (from medial part of lateral geniculate nucleus) also known as the geniculocalcarine tract. The fiber from lateral part of lateral geniculate nucleus is carried through the retrolenticular portion.</li><li>• retrolenticular portion</li><li>• the sublenticular portion is beneath the lenticular nucleus and are tracts involved in the auditory pathway from the medial geniculate nucleus to the primary auditory cortex (Brodmann areas 41 and 42)</li><li>• sublenticular portion</li><li>• Lesions or damage to the internal capsule can result in various neurological deficits, including motor and sensory impairments.</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Option B. External Capsule : The external capsule is another white matter structure located in the brain, but it is less well-known than the internal capsule. It is located lateral to the putamen and globus pallidus and is considered part of the deep gray matter of the basal ganglia. The exact function and significance of the external capsule are still a subject of ongoing research, and its role in brain function is not as well-defined as that of the internal capsule.</li><li>• Option B. External Capsule</li><li>• Option C. Caudate Lobe : The caudate lobe, also known as the caudate nucleus, is a part of the basal ganglia. It is a C-shaped structure located within each cerebral hemisphere. The caudate nucleus is involved in various functions, including motor control, cognition, and emotional processing. It is interconnected with other basal ganglia nuclei and plays a role in regulating movement. Lesions or dysfunction in the caudate nucleus can lead to movement disorders such as Parkinson's disease or Huntington's disease.</li><li>• Option C. Caudate Lobe</li><li>• Option D. Globus Pallidus : The globus pallidus is another component of the basal ganglia. It is divided into two segments: the external segment (GPe) and the internal segment (GPi). The globus pallidus is involved in motor control and plays a role in modulating motor signals sent from the cortex to the thalamus. Dysfunctions of the globus pallidus can result in movement disorders, including dystonia and Parkinson's disease.</li><li>• Option D. Globus Pallidus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The internal capsule's strategic location and structure facilitate critical communication pathways in the brain, making its integrity vital for normal motor and sensory functions. Damage to this area can lead to severe neurological deficits.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cherry red color staining is due to: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyanide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "H2S", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbon monoxide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Carbon monoxide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-181735.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Carbon monoxide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ (In Aniline Deep blue as well as Red Brown colour can occur)</li><li>➤ Ref: Simpson’s Forensic Medicine, 13th edition, page 45</li><li>➤ Ref: Simpson’s Forensic Medicine, 13th edition, page 45</li><li>➤ Text book of forensic medicine and toxicology, 5th edition, Krishan Vij, page 83.</li><li>➤ Text book of forensic medicine and toxicology, 5th edition, Krishan Vij, page 83.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old male presented to the OPD with a painless, very slowly growing mass of the right third finger. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enchondroma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoclastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteochondroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Enchondroma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210115.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210116.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/198.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture14_hk8hAld.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210119.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210120.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Enchondroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enchondromas as painless, very slowly growing masses that commonly affect the short bones of the hand.</li><li>➤ Enchondromas as painless, very slowly growing masses that commonly affect the short bones of the hand.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which structure passes through the marked opening? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thoracic duct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phrenic nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thoracic duct", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1105.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1106.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1107.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Thoracic duct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The arrow points to the diaphragm's aortic hiatus. It is crossed by the thoracic duct.</li><li>• Structures passing through the aortic opening are:</li><li>• Structures passing through the aortic opening are:</li><li>• Aorta Thoracic duct Azygous vein Hemiazygous vein</li><li>• Aorta</li><li>• Thoracic duct</li><li>• Azygous vein</li><li>• Hemiazygous vein</li><li>• The diaphragm is a thin, dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity (containing the heart and lungs) from the abdominal cavity (containing the digestive organs). It has several structures passing through it, each serving important functions. Let's discuss the structures passing through the diaphragm in detail:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vena Cava (Inferior and Superior) :</li><li>• Option A. Vena Cava (Inferior and Superior)</li><li>• The Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower half of the body to the right atrium of the heart. It passes through the central tendon of the diaphragm, entering the right atrium just above the diaphragm. The Superior Vena Cava (SVC) is another large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium. It pierces the diaphragm at the level of the 3rd thoracic vertebra.</li><li>• The Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower half of the body to the right atrium of the heart. It passes through the central tendon of the diaphragm, entering the right atrium just above the diaphragm.</li><li>• Inferior Vena Cava (IVC)</li><li>• The Superior Vena Cava (SVC) is another large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium. It pierces the diaphragm at the level of the 3rd thoracic vertebra.</li><li>• Superior Vena Cava (SVC)</li><li>• Option C. Esophagus : The Esophagus is a muscular tube that carries food and liquids from the mouth to the stomach for digestion. It passes through an opening in the diaphragm called the \"esophageal hiatus.\" The diaphragm helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, contributing to the prevention of acid reflux.</li><li>• Option C. Esophagus</li><li>• Esophagus</li><li>• Option D. Phrenic Nerve : The Phrenic Nerve is a paired nerve (right and left) that originates from the cervical spinal nerves (C3, C4, and C5) and descends through the neck and thorax. It supplies motor and sensory innervation to the diaphragm, enabling it to contract and control breathing. The phrenic nerves pass through the diaphragm on both sides, allowing for coordinated breathing movements.</li><li>• Option D. Phrenic Nerve</li><li>• Phrenic Nerve</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Thoracic Duct is the largest lymphatic vessel in the body. It collects lymph from the lower limbs, pelvis, abdomen, left thorax, left upper limb, and left side of the head and neck. The thoracic duct passes through the diaphragm to drain lymphatic fluid into the venous system, connecting to the left subclavian vein.</li><li>➤ Thoracic Duct</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A postmortem examination of a dead body reveals contracted muscles but no primary relaxation. This can be called as? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cadaveric spasm", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rigor mortis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Algor mortis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Livor mortis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cadaveric spasm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121061.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cadaveric spasm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cadaveric spasm involves the immediate and extreme contraction of muscles without primary relaxation, occurring right at the moment of death, and is often significant in determining the circumstances surrounding the death.</li><li>➤ Ref: Text book of forensic medicine and toxicology, 5th edition, Krishan Vij, page 87</li><li>➤ Ref: Text book of forensic medicine and toxicology, 5th edition, Krishan Vij, page 87</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a recent community health survey in Rajasthan, India, there has been a significant surge in cases of oral and lung cancers. It was found that tobacco consumption, both smoking and chewing, was a significant contributor. The government implemented legislation to curb tobacco use. This action is an example of which level of prevention? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primordial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tertiary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Primary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Primary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Level of Prevention:</li><li>➤ Level of Prevention:</li><li>➤ Primordial - Prevention of development of risk factors Primary - Risk factor is present, but disease is being prevented. Secondary - Disease is already present. Screening/early diagnosis and treatment is done in order to prevent the complications. Tertiary - Complications are present, death is being prevented.</li><li>➤ Primordial - Prevention of development of risk factors</li><li>➤ Primary - Risk factor is present, but disease is being prevented.</li><li>➤ Secondary - Disease is already present. Screening/early diagnosis and treatment is done in order to prevent the complications.</li><li>➤ Tertiary - Complications are present, death is being prevented.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While doing endoscopy a constriction is noted at the level of 25 cm from incisors. Identify the probable cause of the constriction? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arch of aorta", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left upper bronchus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right upper bronchus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right lower bronchus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arch of aorta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-106.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Arch of aorta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The constriction of the esophagus observed at 25 cm from the upper incisors during an endoscopy is most commonly due to the crossing of the esophagus by the arch of the aorta and the left principal bronchus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug is used to decrease the progression of lung fibrosis and increase exercise capacity of a person? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Roflumilast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pirfenidone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Imatinib", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bortezomib", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pirfenidone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pirfenidone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pirfenidone is the drug used to decrease the progression of lung fibrosis and increase exercise capacity in patients with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). It has antifibrotic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties that help to manage this condition. Other drugs like roflumilast, imatinib, and bortezomib are used for different medical conditions and do not have the same therapeutic effects on pulmonary fibrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man presented to the psychiatry OPD and tells that aliens have been speaking to him and telling him to kill his cousins. This has been going on for 7 months. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Delusional Disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brief psychotic disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mania", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Schizophrenia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Schizophrenia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Melanin is synthesized from which of the following amino acid? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tryptophan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tyrosine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenylalanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histidine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tyrosine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture70.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/bio-chem-10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tyrosine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Correct Answer. Tyrosine, an amino acid, is the primary precursor for melanin synthesis. The process starts with the conversion of tyrosine to DOPA (dihydroxyphenylalanine) by the enzyme tyrosinase, followed by several steps leading to the formation of melanin. This pathway takes place in melanocytes, specialized cells found in the skin.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Tryptophan: Tryptophan is an essential amino acid and a precursor to serotonin and melatonin, but it is not directly involved in the synthesis of melanin. Tryptophan's metabolic pathway is distinct from the pathway leading to melanin production.</li><li>• Option A. Tryptophan:</li><li>• Option C. Phenylalanine: Incorrect, but with a caveat. While phenylalanine itself is not directly used in melanin synthesis, it is important to note that phenylalanine can be converted into tyrosine in the body. Therefore, phenylalanine can be considered an indirect precursor to melanin. However, in the context of direct involvement in melanin synthesis, tyrosine is the correct answer.</li><li>• Option C. Phenylalanine:</li><li>• Option D. Histidine: Histidine is another amino acid, but it is not involved in melanin synthesis. Instead, histidine plays roles in protein synthesis and the formation of histamine, a compound involved in immune responses.</li><li>• Option D. Histidine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Melanin is synthesized from tyrosine by following pathway.</li><li>➤ Melanin</li><li>➤ tyrosine</li><li>➤ Uses of tyrosine:</li><li>➤ Uses of tyrosine:</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 103</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 103</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS) which of these would not be seen? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It presents with non-bilious vomiting", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "USG is nearly 100% sensitive to detect IHPS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is due to hypertrophy of longitudinal muscles alone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Common metabolic condition seen is Hypokalemic alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is due to hypertrophy of longitudinal muscles alone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is due to hypertrophy of longitudinal muscles alone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS) involves hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus, leading to gastric outlet obstruction and presenting with non-bilious vomiting. It is commonly diagnosed via highly sensitive ultrasonography, and the associated metabolic disturbance is hypokalemic alkalosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the true statement about the given dose-response curve? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The efficacy of the drug b and c are equal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Drug A is the most potent drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drug C is less potent and equally efficacious to drug B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drug D is more potent than drugs A, B &amp; C, but less efficacious than drugs A &amp; B, and equally efficacious as drug C", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Drug D is more potent than drugs A, B & C, but less efficacious than drugs A & B, and equally efficacious as drug C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_yGwcqtN.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Drug D is more potent than drugs A, B &amp; C, but less efficacious than drugs A &amp; B and equally efficacious as drug C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the given Log Dose-Response curve, Drug D is the most potent drug but is less efficacious than drugs A and B, and equally efficacious as drug C. Potency is determined by the position of the curve along the X-axis, while efficacy is determined by the maximum height of the curve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the most suitable agent for IV regional anesthesia? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bupivacaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lidocaine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mepivacaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Procaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lidocaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-125939.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lidocaine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lidocaine is the preferred agent for IV regional anesthesia due to its rapid onset, suitable duration, and safety profile. This technique, known as Bier's block, is commonly used for short procedures on the extremities, requiring careful management to avoid systemic toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was asked to stand on his left leg and his right hip falls down, which among the following muscles will be affected in this case? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gluteus maximus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left Gluteus minimus and Gluteus medius", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right Gluteus minimus and Gluteus medius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quadriceps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Left Gluteus minimus and Gluteus medius", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Left Gluteus minimus and Gluteus medius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Weakness in the left gluteus minimus and medius is indicated by the positive Trendelenburg's sign, where the pelvis drops on the side of the non-weight bearing leg (right), due to inadequate stabilization by these muscles on the standing leg (left).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old male patient presents to the OPD with a 10-year history of coarse facial features and progressive enlargement of the hands and feet. Laboratory evaluation revealed elevated IGF-1 and non-suppressible growth hormone levels after the 75 g glucose challenge test. A diagnosis of acromegaly is made. Which of the following drugs is preferred for the management of this condition? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lanreotide depot formulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Terlipressin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ketoconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leuprolide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lanreotide depot formulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred medical management for acromegaly, especially as a bridge to surgery or when surgery has failed, is the use of somatostatin receptor agonists like lanreotide depot formulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The green line corresponds to which vertebral level? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "T12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. L5", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-194457.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-194559.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. L5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The green line marked on the torso corresponds to the L5 vertebral level. This line is also known as the intertubercular plane or Tuffier's line, which is anatomically aligned with the upper border of the L5 vertebra. The intertubercular plane is significant in clinical settings as it passes through the highest points of the iliac crests, located at the L4-L5 intervertebral disc space. This reference point is crucial for procedures such as spinal anesthesia and lumbar punctures, where accurate identification of vertebral levels is essential.</li><li>• Clinical Significance:</li><li>• Clinical Significance:</li><li>• It serves as a reference point for various medical procedures, particularly those involving the lumbar spine, spinal anesthesia, and the placement of lumbar punctures (spinal taps). When performing a lumbar puncture, healthcare providers often use the intertubercular plane as a landmark to identify the appropriate level for inserting the needle into the subarachnoid space. Tuffier's Line: The term \"Tuffier's line\" is often used interchangeably with the intertubercular plane. Dr. Paul Tuffier, a French surgeon, introduced this reference point in the early 20th century. Variations: It's important to note that individual anatomical variations exist, and the level of the iliac crests can vary among individuals. Therefore, healthcare providers may use additional methods, such as palpation of bony landmarks or radiological guidance, to accurately identify the L4-L5 intervertebral space.</li><li>• It serves as a reference point for various medical procedures, particularly those involving the lumbar spine, spinal anesthesia, and the placement of lumbar punctures (spinal taps).</li><li>• When performing a lumbar puncture, healthcare providers often use the intertubercular plane as a landmark to identify the appropriate level for inserting the needle into the subarachnoid space. Tuffier's Line: The term \"Tuffier's line\" is often used interchangeably with the intertubercular plane. Dr. Paul Tuffier, a French surgeon, introduced this reference point in the early 20th century. Variations: It's important to note that individual anatomical variations exist, and the level of the iliac crests can vary among individuals. Therefore, healthcare providers may use additional methods, such as palpation of bony landmarks or radiological guidance, to accurately identify the L4-L5 intervertebral space.</li><li>• Tuffier's Line: The term \"Tuffier's line\" is often used interchangeably with the intertubercular plane. Dr. Paul Tuffier, a French surgeon, introduced this reference point in the early 20th century. Variations: It's important to note that individual anatomical variations exist, and the level of the iliac crests can vary among individuals. Therefore, healthcare providers may use additional methods, such as palpation of bony landmarks or radiological guidance, to accurately identify the L4-L5 intervertebral space.</li><li>• Tuffier's Line: The term \"Tuffier's line\" is often used interchangeably with the intertubercular plane. Dr. Paul Tuffier, a French surgeon, introduced this reference point in the early 20th century.</li><li>• Tuffier's Line:</li><li>• Variations: It's important to note that individual anatomical variations exist, and the level of the iliac crests can vary among individuals. Therefore, healthcare providers may use additional methods, such as palpation of bony landmarks or radiological guidance, to accurately identify the L4-L5 intervertebral space.</li><li>• Variations:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. T12: Incorrect as it corresponds to the lower end of the thoracic spine.</li><li>• Option B. T12:</li><li>• Option C. L1: Incorrect and typically aligns with the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra.</li><li>• Option C. L1:</li><li>• Option D. L3: Incorrect as it corresponds to the subcostal plane, not the intertubercular plane.</li><li>• Option D. L3:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Abdominal Planes &amp; Quadrants –</li><li>➤ Abdominal Planes &amp; Quadrants –</li><li>➤ #2 Horizontal Plane -</li><li>➤ Subcostal Plane (L3) Trans tubercular Plane (L5- upper border)</li><li>➤ Subcostal Plane (L3)</li><li>➤ Trans tubercular Plane (L5- upper border)</li><li>➤ #2 Vertical Planes</li><li>➤ Midclavicular Line / Plane (from midpoint of clavicle till midinguinal point)</li><li>➤ Trans-pyloric Plane of Addison - Lower border of L1</li><li>➤ Trans-pyloric Plane of Addison - Lower border of L1</li><li>➤ Supracristal Plane - L4</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old man with a history of HTN, DM2, and DLP is brought to the ER because of reports of palpitations and dizziness. ECG is ordered and shown in the image. His temperature is 36.8°C, PR is 106/min, RR is 18/min, BP is 84/46 mm Hg, and SpO2 is 92% on room air. What is the next step? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DC shock", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. DC shock", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-091830.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of tachyarrhythmia with hemodynamic instability (e.g., systolic BP &lt; 90 mm Hg), immediate synchronized cardioversion (DC shock) is the treatment of choice.</li><li>➤ Rule of thumb: \"If the patient is in shock, shock the patient.\"</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has highest glycemic index: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fructose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sucrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sugar alcohols", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glucose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/21/screenshot-2023-12-21-095902.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glucose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Glucose is often used as the standard reference for measuring the glycemic index, with a value set at 100. It is absorbed rapidly into the bloodstream, causing a quick and significant increase in blood sugar levels. Thus, it has the highest glycemic index among the options listed.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Fructose: Fructose has a lower glycemic index compared to glucose. This is because fructose is metabolized differently, primarily in the liver, and leads to a slower and lower rise in blood glucose levels compared to glucose.</li><li>• Option B. Fructose:</li><li>• Option C. Sucrose: Sucrose, or table sugar, is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose. Its glycemic index is lower than that of pure glucose because the presence of fructose moderates the overall blood sugar response.</li><li>• Option C. Sucrose:</li><li>• Option D. Sugar Alcohols: Sugar alcohols, such as xylitol, sorbitol, and mannitol, generally have lower glycemic indices than glucose. They are absorbed more slowly and incompletely in the intestine, leading to a lesser impact on blood sugar levels.</li><li>• Option D. Sugar Alcohols:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycemic index (GI) - This is the increase in blood glucose after the test dose of a carbohydrate compared with that of an equivalent amount of glucose. GI is a value assigned to foods based on how slowly or how quickly those foods cause an increase in blood glucose levels.</li><li>➤ Glycemic index (GI)</li><li>➤ GI measures sugar in the blood (only glucose). It does not measure fructose or glucose - fructose blends. The highest glycemic index is for glucose &amp; galactose (Also, maltose, trehalose &amp; isomaltose get converted to glucose, so they also have high GI). Also, lactose is broken down to glucose and galactose, so has high GI. This is because glucose and galactose are absorbed from intestine via SGLT-1, which is active transport and absorbs all of glucose &amp; galactose, even against the concentration gradient. Fructose and sugar alcohols have less glycemic index because they are not absorbed completely (because glucose transporter is GLUT-5, which absorbs fructose only down the concentration gradient). HFCS (High Fructose Corn Syrup)- 58% glucose, Sucrose (50% glucose) gets split into glucose, so have high GI (HFCS &amp; Sucrose has fructose as the other component).</li><li>➤ GI measures sugar in the blood (only glucose). It does not measure fructose or glucose - fructose blends.</li><li>➤ The highest glycemic index is for glucose &amp; galactose (Also, maltose, trehalose &amp; isomaltose get converted to glucose, so they also have high GI). Also, lactose is broken down to glucose and galactose, so has high GI. This is because glucose and galactose are absorbed from intestine via SGLT-1, which is active transport and absorbs all of glucose &amp; galactose, even against the concentration gradient.</li><li>➤ highest glycemic index</li><li>➤ glucose &amp; galactose</li><li>➤ Fructose and sugar alcohols have less glycemic index because they are not absorbed completely (because glucose transporter is GLUT-5, which absorbs fructose only down the concentration gradient).</li><li>➤ Fructose and sugar alcohols</li><li>➤ less glycemic index</li><li>➤ HFCS (High Fructose Corn Syrup)- 58% glucose, Sucrose (50% glucose) gets split into glucose, so have high GI (HFCS &amp; Sucrose has fructose as the other component).</li><li>➤ GI of Glucose = 100 % or 1 GI of Fructose = 25 % GI of Sucrose = 65 %</li><li>➤ GI of Glucose = 100 % or 1</li><li>➤ GI of Glucose</li><li>➤ GI of Fructose = 25 %</li><li>➤ GI of Fructose</li><li>➤ GI of Sucrose = 65 %</li><li>➤ GI of Sucrose</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 528</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 528</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statement is correct regarding the mechanism of action of labetalol? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It blocks both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It acts as directly acting arterial vasodilator resulting in indirect effect of tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It primarily acts as venodilator with little effect on arterioles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It decreases peripheral vascular resistance by directly acting as relaxant of vascular smooth muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It blocks both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. It blocks both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child was playing at home. Suddenly his mother found him lying on the floor choking. She suspects he has ingested a foreign body and rushes him to the casualty. An X-ray is done which shows the following picture. What is the next line of management? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate Endoscopic removal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immediate Bronchoscopic removal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heimlich's maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait and Watch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Immediate Endoscopic removal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-101.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Immediate Endoscopic removal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a foreign body such as a coin is detected in the esophagus on X-ray, immediate endoscopic removal is indicated to prevent potential complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A teacher presented with complaints of hoarseness of voice. On examination, bilateral swelling was noted on anterior 1/3 rd and posterior 2/3 rd . What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vocal polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vocal nodule", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vocal cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reinke’s edema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vocal nodule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture37.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture38.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture39.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Vocal nodule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vocal nodules are common in individuals who frequently use their voices intensely, and they require a combination of vocal rest, speech therapy, and possibly surgical intervention to manage effectively and prevent recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man lives with his pregnant wife and a child under 3 years old. His brother and his wife are staying with them for a month. How should this family be categorized? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nuclear family", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extended family", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Joint family", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Third generation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nuclear family", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Nuclear family</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A nuclear family consists of parents and their children, even if other relatives are temporarily staying with them.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged patient who underwent perimetry had the following visual field defect. What is the site of the lesion?( FMGE Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic radiations", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipital cortex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Optic chiasma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-111531.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-110010.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-110051.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Optic chiasma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bitemporal hemianopsia, characterized by loss of the outer visual fields in both eyes, is typically caused by a lesion at the optic chiasma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about nephroblastoma? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spread by lymphatics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Early lung metastasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Treatment is by chemotherapy and surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is the most common intra-abdominal malignancy in children", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It is the most common intra-abdominal malignancy in children", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-109.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-110.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) It is the most common intra-abdominal malignancy in children</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neuroblastoma is the most common intra-abdominal malignancy in children, not Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A truck driver is presenting with a painless ulcer with firm base, what is the next investigation you will prefer to do? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dark field microscopy for spirochetes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gram staining", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tzanck smear for giant cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cell line culture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dark field microscopy for spirochetes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-114619.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-114812.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dark field microscopy for spirochetes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As the member of a school health committee, you are revising the school health program to improve student well-being. Which of the following is NOT a standard component of school health? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doctor on school premises", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Teaching Handicapped children", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dental and eye health services", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "School health records", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Doctor on school premises", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Doctor on school premises</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ School Health Program includes:</li><li>➤ School Health Program includes:</li><li>➤ Screening of general health assessment of visual acuity, hearing problem, dental check-up etc. First-aid and emergency care Education of handicapped children Health education Maintenance and use of school health records</li><li>➤ Screening of general health assessment of visual acuity, hearing problem, dental check-up etc.</li><li>➤ First-aid and emergency care</li><li>➤ Education of handicapped children</li><li>➤ Health education</li><li>➤ Maintenance and use of school health records</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 44-year-old female suffers from wheezing, cough every year at the same period of time. Degranulation of which cells will be responsible for these types of findings? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mast cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eosinophil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgE", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neutrophil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mast cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/26/screenshot-2024-09-26-194326.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mast cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Degranulation of mast cells, mediated by IgE antibodies, is responsible for the symptoms observed in type I hypersensitivity reactions such as seasonal allergies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Imaging modality of choice for fistula in Ano is: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PET-CT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sinogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MRI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-104.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) MRI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The imaging modality of choice for evaluating fistula-in-ano is MRI due to its high-resolution imaging capabilities, which provide detailed information about the course, depth, branches of the fistula tract, and its relationship with surrounding structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the marker of intestinal inflammation? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fecal Lactoferrin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Procalcitonin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tissue Trans Glutaminase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Albumin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fecal Lactoferrin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) fecal lactoferrin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fecal lactoferrin is a highly sensitive and specific marker for detecting intestinal inflammation and is used to diagnose and monitor inflammatory bowel disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A combination of traumatic asphyxia and smothering is called: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burking", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gagging", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Choking", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Traumatic asphyxia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Burking", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121064.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Burking</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Burking involves a deadly combination of traumatic asphyxia and smothering, making it a unique and specific method of homicide.</li><li>➤ Ref: Text book of forensic medicine and toxicology, 5th edition, Krishan Vij, page 119.</li><li>➤ Ref: Text book of forensic medicine and toxicology, 5th edition, Krishan Vij, page 119.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female took aspirin for headache and she developed wheezing and breathlessness. This will be associated with? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasal polyp", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased IgE", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extrinsic asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drug interaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nasal polyp", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Nasal Polyp</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognizing the link between aspirin ingestion and respiratory symptoms in patients with nasal polyps is crucial for managing their condition effectively. Patients diagnosed with AERD should avoid NSAIDs and may need specific treatments for asthma and nasal polyps, along with alternatives to NSAIDs for pain management.</li><li>➤ Samter’s triad: Asthma, Nasal polyposis (ethmoidal), Aspirin hypersensitivity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly male patient was brought by his son because he was not using his left arm for day-to-day functioning. He has an unkempt appearance on the left side of his body and has a history of bumping into door frames while walking through them. The evaluation performed is shown below. Where does the lesion in the brain cause this presentation? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right parietotemporal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left parietal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right parietal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right premotor cortex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Right parietal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-181657.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Left-sided hemineglect is typically caused by a lesion in the right parietal lobe.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female who is sexually active, presented to the OPD with complaints of lower abdominal pain, bleeding, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. On examination, she had 103 ◦F fever and cervical motion tenderness was present. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pelvic inflammatory disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenomyosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Appendicitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pelvic inflammatory disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1034.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1035.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pelvic inflammatory disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A young, sexually active female with features like lower abdominal pain, bleeding and foul-smelling vaginal discharge and signs like fever and cervical motion tenderness, is suggestive of Pelvic inflammatory disease.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Endometriosis : Endometriosis patient presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and infertility. But there is no foul-smelling discharge.</li><li>• Option A. Endometriosis</li><li>• Option C. Adenomyosis . Adenomyosis patient presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea and pelvic examination reveals uniformenlargement of the uterus.</li><li>• Option C. Adenomyosis</li><li>• Option D. Appendicitis : Appendicitis causes migrating pain from umbilical area to right iliac fossa.</li><li>• Option D. Appendicitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A young, sexually active female with features like lower abdominal pain, bleeding and foul-smelling vaginal discharge and signs like fever and cervical motion tenderness, is suggestive of Pelvic inflammatory disease.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Gynaecology pg 131-133</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Gynaecology pg 131-133</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During neonatal resuscitation of a term baby, what is the amount of oxygen you will start with? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "21%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "100%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "75%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 21%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture12_TNm00xF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 21%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During neonatal resuscitation of a term baby, resuscitation should start with 21% oxygen, equivalent to room air, to minimize the risk of oxygen toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female presents with a breast condition as demonstrated in the image below. This condition is due to invasion of? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermal lymphatics", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep lymphatics", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superficial veins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deep veins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dermal lymphatics", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-102.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dermal lymphatics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The peau d'orange appearance of the breast is due to blockage of the superficial dermal lymphatics by tumor invasion, leading to edema and the characteristic skin changes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is presenting with fever, rhinorrhea, conjunctivitis, rash and spots in the oral cavity as shown in the given image, what is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Measles", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture11666.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Koplik spots, along with fever, rhinorrhea, conjunctivitis, and rash, is highly indicative of measles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During which phase of cardiac cycle is the first heart sound produced? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isovolumetric contraction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rapid ejection phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Slow ejection phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isovolumetric relaxation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Isovolumetric contraction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/26/fmg-physio-12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phases of cardiac cycle -</li><li>➤ Phases of cardiac cycle -</li><li>➤ Cardiac cycle in ventricles last for 0.8 sec Ventricular Systole - 0.3 sec. – consist of 3 phases. Ventricular Diastole - 0,5 sec - consist of 5 phases.</li><li>➤ Cardiac cycle in ventricles last for 0.8 sec</li><li>➤ Ventricular Systole - 0.3 sec. – consist of 3 phases.</li><li>➤ Ventricular Diastole - 0,5 sec - consist of 5 phases.</li><li>➤ Phases of ventricular Systole -</li><li>➤ Phases of ventricular Systole -</li><li>➤ 1 st Phase - Starts with closure of Mitral valve, which produces S1 sound. This phase is called as Isovolumetric contraction, it ends by opening of aortic valve.</li><li>➤ 1 st Phase -</li><li>➤ 2 nd Phase - Phase of Rapid ejection - 2/3rd of the stroke volume is ejected.</li><li>➤ 2 nd Phase</li><li>➤ 3 rd Phase - Phase of Slow ejection phase: Approximately 1/3rd of the remaining stroke volume is ejected</li><li>➤ 3 rd Phase</li><li>➤ Phases of ventricular Diastole -</li><li>➤ Phases of ventricular Diastole -</li><li>➤ 1 st phase (Protodiastole) – which occurs just before the beginning of diastole (last for 0.04 Sec.)</li><li>➤ 1 st phase (Protodiastole)</li><li>➤ 2 nd Phase - starts with closure of aortic valve, which produces S2 sound which is taken as- beginning of diastole proper. This phase is known as Isovolumetric relaxation.</li><li>➤ 2 nd Phase</li><li>➤ Volume - constant, pressure – decrease</li><li>➤ 3 rd Phase - Early Rapid filling phase and 4 th Slow filling phase (passive filling of 2/3 rd of blood)</li><li>➤ 3 rd Phase</li><li>➤ * S3 sound produce due to rapid filling phase. Normally Can not be heard except few Hyperdynamic condition like: exercise, Pregnancy</li><li>➤ 4. Active filling phase (Remaining 1/3 rd of filling due to atrial contraction)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presented with pain and redness in great toe. Serum uric acid level is 9.6 mg/dL. Apart from prescribing analgesics for relieving pain, the physician prescribed a drug which can decrease the formation of uric acid. Which of the following enzyme is likely to be inhibited by this drug? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Xanthine oxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thymidylate synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phosphoribosyl transferase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DHFR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Xanthine oxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Xanthine oxidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Xanthine oxidase is the enzyme responsible for the final steps in the production of uric acid from purines. Inhibitors of xanthine oxidase, such as allopurinol and febuxostat, are used to reduce uric acid levels and are effective treatments for hyperuricemia and gout.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child who is regularly eating outside is presenting with icterus and diarrhea, which of the following infectious agent can spread through the Feco-oral route? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hepatitis A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hepatitis A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E spread through the Feco-oral route</li><li>➤ Feco-oral route</li><li>➤ Transmission of Hepatitis B, C, and D can occur sexually</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the sagittal section of the brain given below the colored area. Which of the following structures are affected in a lesion to this area? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scapular region and neck", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trunk and shoulder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Perineum and leg", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Face and neck", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Perineum and leg", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-153933.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The paracentral lobule provides sensory and motor innervation to the perineum and legs. Lesions in this area can affect these regions and potentially lead to urinary incontinence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the type of inheritance shown in the Image: (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "AR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "XLD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "XLR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. AD", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/26/screenshot-2024-09-25-191705.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) AD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of the disease in all three generations and transmission from both affected fathers and mothers to their progeny indicates autosomal dominant (AD) inheritance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the site marked in given barium follow-through of small intestine.(FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jejunum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ileum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Jejunum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/11.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Jejunum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The jejunum can be identified in imaging by the presence of valvulae conniventes creating a feathery appearance, distinguishing it from the ileum and colon.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs reduce mortality in a patient with heart failure? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prazosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Torsemide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metoprolol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta-blockers, such as metoprolol succinate , are essential in reducing mortality in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction</li><li>➤ metoprolol succinate</li><li>➤ Note –</li><li>➤ Note</li><li>➤ –</li><li>➤ Drugs That Reduce Mortality in Heart Failure</li><li>➤ Drugs That Reduce Mortality in Heart Failure</li><li>➤ ARNIs (Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitors) : Examples: Sacubitril/Valsartan Currently the first-line treatment, considered superior to ACE inhibitors and ARBs when available. ACE Inhibitors (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme inhibitors) and ARBs (Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers) : Considered equally effective in efficacy; used when ARNIs are not available. Beta Blockers : Specific agents highlighted: Metoprolol, Bisoprolol, and Carvedilol. MRS (Mineralocorticoid Receptor Antagonists) : Examples: Spironolactone and Eplerenone. SGLT2 Inhibitors (Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2 inhibitors) : Emerging class of drugs also showing benefits in heart failure management. Hydralazine and Isosorbide Dinitrate (HISDN) : Noted specifically for proven benefits in African American patients with heart failure.</li><li>➤ ARNIs (Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitors) : Examples: Sacubitril/Valsartan Currently the first-line treatment, considered superior to ACE inhibitors and ARBs when available.</li><li>➤ ARNIs (Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitors)</li><li>➤ Examples: Sacubitril/Valsartan Currently the first-line treatment, considered superior to ACE inhibitors and ARBs when available.</li><li>➤ Examples: Sacubitril/Valsartan</li><li>➤ Currently the first-line treatment, considered superior to ACE inhibitors and ARBs when available.</li><li>➤ ACE Inhibitors (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme inhibitors) and ARBs (Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers) : Considered equally effective in efficacy; used when ARNIs are not available.</li><li>➤ ACE Inhibitors (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme inhibitors) and ARBs (Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers)</li><li>➤ Considered equally effective in efficacy; used when ARNIs are not available.</li><li>➤ Considered equally effective in efficacy; used when ARNIs are not available.</li><li>➤ Beta Blockers : Specific agents highlighted: Metoprolol, Bisoprolol, and Carvedilol.</li><li>➤ Beta Blockers</li><li>➤ Specific agents highlighted: Metoprolol, Bisoprolol, and Carvedilol.</li><li>➤ Specific agents highlighted: Metoprolol, Bisoprolol, and Carvedilol.</li><li>➤ MRS (Mineralocorticoid Receptor Antagonists) : Examples: Spironolactone and Eplerenone.</li><li>➤ MRS (Mineralocorticoid Receptor Antagonists)</li><li>➤ Examples: Spironolactone and Eplerenone.</li><li>➤ Examples: Spironolactone and Eplerenone.</li><li>➤ SGLT2 Inhibitors (Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2 inhibitors) : Emerging class of drugs also showing benefits in heart failure management.</li><li>➤ SGLT2 Inhibitors (Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2 inhibitors)</li><li>➤ Emerging class of drugs also showing benefits in heart failure management.</li><li>➤ Emerging class of drugs also showing benefits in heart failure management.</li><li>➤ Hydralazine and Isosorbide Dinitrate (HISDN) : Noted specifically for proven benefits in African American patients with heart failure.</li><li>➤ Hydralazine and Isosorbide Dinitrate (HISDN)</li><li>➤ Noted specifically for proven benefits in African American patients with heart failure.</li><li>➤ Noted specifically for proven benefits in African American patients with heart failure.</li><li>➤ Drugs with No Impact on Mortality</li><li>➤ Drugs with No Impact on Mortality</li><li>➤ Diuretics : Including loop and thiazide diuretics, noted to not improve survival but are used primarily for symptom management and fluid regulation. Calcium Channel Blockers and Nitrates : Mentioned as not improving survival in heart failure, particularly in patients with reduced ejection fraction.</li><li>➤ Diuretics : Including loop and thiazide diuretics, noted to not improve survival but are used primarily for symptom management and fluid regulation.</li><li>➤ Diuretics</li><li>➤ Including loop and thiazide diuretics, noted to not improve survival but are used primarily for symptom management and fluid regulation.</li><li>➤ Including loop and thiazide diuretics, noted to not improve survival but are used primarily for symptom management and fluid regulation.</li><li>➤ Calcium Channel Blockers and Nitrates : Mentioned as not improving survival in heart failure, particularly in patients with reduced ejection fraction.</li><li>➤ Calcium Channel Blockers and Nitrates</li><li>➤ Mentioned as not improving survival in heart failure, particularly in patients with reduced ejection fraction.</li><li>➤ Mentioned as not improving survival in heart failure, particularly in patients with reduced ejection fraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A HIV patient is presenting with cough without sputum, on examination his CD4 counts were &lt;100 and chest x ray shown bilateral infiltration of lung, on further proceeding Bronchoalveolar lavage is done and the organisms were positive for acid fast staining, what is the organism responsible for his condition? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumocyctis jirovecii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycobacterium avium complex", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mycobacterium avium complex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mycobacterium avium complex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In HIV patients with CD4 counts &lt;100 cells/µL presenting with a cough without sputum, bilateral lung infiltrates on chest x-ray, and positive acid-fast staining, Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) is the most likely causative organism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-dyslipidemic drug work by stimulating Peroxisome proliferator activated receptor (PPAR) alpha? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gemfibrozil", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atorvastatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ezetimibe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gemfibrozil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Gemfibrozil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibrates, including gemfibrozil, work by stimulating PPAR-α, which enhances the activity of lipoprotein lipase, leading to increased clearance of VLDL and triglycerides. This mechanism makes fibrates particularly effective in treating hypertriglyceridemia and related disorders. Other hypolipidemic drugs like atorvastatin, ezetimibe, and niacin have different mechanisms of action targeting other aspects of lipid metabolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with a fever for 11 days with neck rigidity. A lumbar puncture was done and it showed lymphocytes predominantly, Glucose 50 mg/dL, and protein 300 mg/dL. Gram-staining was negative. CXR of the patient shows upper lobe infiltrates with hilar lymph node enlargement. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculous meningitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacterial meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fungal meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Viral meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tuberculous meningitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with lymphocyte-predominant CSF, low glucose, high protein, and associated pulmonary findings such as upper lobe infiltrates with hilar lymph node enlargement, tuberculous meningitis should be highly suspected.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following situations is not managed by using Ventouse for a delivery? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prolonged second stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal Exhaustion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fetal Distress", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Premature baby", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Premature baby", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1042.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1043.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1044.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Premature baby</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ventouse assisted delivery can cause Intracranial hemorrhage in a preterm fetus</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Prolonged second stage: Ventouse is commonly indicated for prolonged second stage of labor to assist in the delivery process.</li><li>• Option A. Prolonged second stage:</li><li>• Option B. Maternal Exhaustion: Maternal exhaustion is another indication for operative vaginal delivery using either forceps or ventouse to expedite delivery and reduce maternal strain.</li><li>• Option B. Maternal Exhaustion:</li><li>• Option C. Fetal Distress: Fetal distress is an indication for immediate delivery, and ventouse can be used to quickly assist in the delivery when immediate intervention is required.</li><li>• Option C. Fetal Distress:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ventouse-assisted delivery is contraindicated in premature babies due to the risk of intracranial hemorrhage.</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C. Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition page 652,661</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C. Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition page 652,661</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the airway which can be used to maintain FiO2 of 0.24 to 0.60. (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasal Cannula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Simple face mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-Rebreathing mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Venturi Mask", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Venturi Mask", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-125757.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-125834.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Venturi Mask</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Venturi mask can be used to maintain FiO2 of 0.24 to 0.60.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the best parameter for estimating fetal age during the first trimester using ultrasound? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biparietal diameter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Head circumference", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crown rump length", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abdominal circumference", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Crown rump length", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1041.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Crown rump length</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Crown rump length is the best parameter for estimating fetal age during the first trimester using ultrasound.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Options A. Biparietal diameter, B. Head circumference and D. Abdominal circumference are parameters useful in second trimester</li><li>• Options A. Biparietal diameter, B. Head circumference</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Abdominal circumference</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Crown rump length is the best parameter for estimating fetal age during the first trimester using ultrasound.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition page 84</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th Edition page 84</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A factory worker was brought to the emergency room after consuming wood spirt with complaints of headache, vomiting and blurred vision. What treatment will you give the patient? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "N-Acetyl Cysteine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fomepizole", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fomepizole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fomepizole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fomepizole is the appropriate treatment for methanol poisoning as it inhibits the conversion of methanol to its toxic metabolites by blocking alcohol dehydrogenase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common cause of Cushing's disease in a 60-year-old male is: (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Small-cell lung cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adrenal tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ectopic ACTH syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pituitary microadenoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pituitary microadenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pituitary microadenoma is the most common cause of Cushing's disease, which is characterized by excess ACTH production from the pituitary gland.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 75-year-old female presents to emergency department with pain in right hip and is unable to walk. She gives a history of fall in bathroom. On examination, you observe that there is shortening of left lower limb and is externally rotated. There is no history of arthritis. X-ray of hip is given below. What will be the management? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Closed reduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemiarthroplasty", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total hip replacement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hemiarthroplasty", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210121.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/199.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/200.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/201.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hemiarthroplasty</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In an elderly patient with neck of femur fracture, hemiarthroplasty is the treatment of choice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV-positive man presents with a high-grade fever. Examination reveals a positive Kernig's sign. CSF shows reduced glucose, increased protein, and increased leukocytes. A diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis is made. What is the appropriate management for this patient? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High dose fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Voriconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liposomal amphotericin B with flucytosine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Liposomal amphotericin B with flucytosine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For cryptococcal meningitis in HIV-positive patients, the first-line induction therapy is a combination of liposomal amphotericin B and flucytosine for at least 14 days.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child is diagnosed with amblyopia in one eye, what will be the best management? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Occlusion therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Refraction with near addition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laser surgery.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Occlusion therapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-105608.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Occlusion therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best management for a 3-year-old child with amblyopia is occlusion therapy, which involves covering the normal eye to encourage use and development of the amblyopic eye. Regular monitoring and compliance are essential for successful treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which gene is commonly associated with the development of a round blue cell tumor in a child who underwent surgery for ocular malignancy? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rb Gene", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "P53 Gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "P57 Gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RET", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rb Gene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rb gene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Rb gene mutation is responsible for retinoblastoma, the most common intraocular malignancy in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions Hamman’s sign can be appreciated? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumomediastinum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydropneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumopericardium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pneumomediastinum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pneumomediastinum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hamman's sign, a crunching or crackling sound with each heartbeat, is associated with pneumomediastinum caused by the entry of air into the mediastinum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "65-year-old male presented with unexplained fever and prolonged respiratory distress despite appropriate treatment. A diagnosis of cryptic TB was made. Which of the following is the correct statement related to this condition? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Negative skin tuberculin test and negative chest X-ray", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive skin tuberculin test and positive chest X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positive skin tuberculin test and negative chest X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Negative skin tuberculin test and positive chest X-ray", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Negative skin tuberculin test and negative chest X-ray", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cryptic TB is a form of disseminated tuberculosis common in the elderly, characterized by a negative skin tuberculin test and no obvious imaging evidence of TB. Diagnosis is often confirmed through empirical treatment and advanced imaging techniques.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Organisms entering via enteric route into our body are countered by which cells of the liver? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kupffer cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dust cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ito cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mesangial cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kupffer cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kupffer cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kupffer cells are the liver macrophages responsible for countering organisms entering the body via the enteric route.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is presenting with the ptosis of the eye and the following presentation. What will be the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cavernous hemangioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Capillary hemangioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Port wine stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salmon patches or nevus simplex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Capillary hemangioma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/03/09/whatsapp-image-2024-03-08-at-65115-pm_gt0sU9J.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-102728.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Capillary Hemangioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diagnose capillary Hemangioma by recognizing a raised, bright red lesion on the skin, which can cause distortion of local structures, such as ptosis when it occurs on the eyelid.</li><li>➤ capillary Hemangioma</li><li>➤ raised, bright red lesion</li><li>➤ distortion</li><li>➤ ptosis</li><li>➤ eyelid.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Ghai essential pediatrics 9 th edition- page no 679</li><li>↳ Yanoff &amp; Duker Textbook of Ophthalmology 5 th Edition Page no 1327</li><li>↳ Yanoff &amp; Duker Textbook of Ophthalmology 5 th Edition Page no 1327</li><li>↳ Robbins &amp; Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10e Page no 518-520</li><li>↳ Robbins &amp; Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10e Page no 518-520</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 8-year-old child presents with sudden onset of high-grade fever, loss of consciousness and anemia, on examination the child is hypoglycemic and no focal neurological deficit is noted, what will be the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cerebral malaria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "TB meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Viral meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fungal meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cerebral malaria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210165.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cerebral malaria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cerebral malaria is a severe complication of Plasmodium falciparum infection, characterized by sudden onset of high-grade fever, loss of consciousness, anemia, and hypoglycemia, without focal neurological deficits.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adult male is presented with duodenal ulcer is offered various surgical options for its treatment. Which of the surgical options listed below causes least side effects with good healing of ulcers? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Truncal vagotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Selective vagotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Highly selective vagotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastro jejunostomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Highly selective vagotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/24/screenshot-2024-07-24-100702_QaVMKzh.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Highly selective vagotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The highly selective vagotomy (HSV) is the preferred surgical option for chronic duodenal ulcers due to its effective reduction of acid secretion, minimal side effects, and good ulcer healing rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The marked landmark corresponds to which structure? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Musculocutaneous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ulnar nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1089.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-193648.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ulnar nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Marked landmark corresponds to ulnar nerve</li><li>• Arrow points toward the medial epicondyle and Ulnar nerve passes below it.</li><li>• The ulnar nerve gives no branches in the arm. It runs distally through the axilla medial to the axillary artery and between it and the vein, continuing distally medial to the brachial artery as far as the midarm. Here it pierces the medial intermuscular septum, inclining medially as it descends anterior to the medial head of triceps to the interval between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon, with the superior ulnar collateral artery</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Median Nerve: The median nerve enters the arm lateral to the brachial artery. Near the insertion of coracobrachialis it crosses in front of the artery, descending medial to it to the cubital fossa where it is posterior to the bicipital aponeurosis and anterior to brachialis, separated by the latter from the elbow joint.</li><li>• Option B. Median Nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Radial nerve: supplies the long head of triceps, and gives rise to the posterior cutaneous nerve of the arm which supplies the skin along the posterior surface of the upper arm. It then spirals obliquely across the back of the humerus, lying posterior to the uppermost fibres of the medial head of triceps which separate the nerve from the bone in the first part of the spiral groove. On reaching the lateral side of the humerus it pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment; it then descends deep in a furrow between brachialis and proximally brachioradialis, then more distally extensor carpi radialis longus</li><li>• Option C. Radial nerve:</li><li>• Option D. Musculocutaneous nerve: The musculocutaneous nerve arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, which is formed by the anterior rami (branches) of the spinal nerves C5, C6, and C7. After its origin, the musculocutaneous nerve courses downward through the axilla (armpit) alongside the axillary artery. It then enters the anterior compartment of the arm by piercing through the coracobrachialis muscle. It provide motor innervation to the muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm. These muscles include coracobrachialis and biceps brachii.</li><li>• Option D. Musculocutaneous nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The nerves related to the humerus are:</li><li>➤ Axillary nerve is at the surgical neck Ulnar nerve is at the medial epicondyle Radial nerve is at the spiral groove of the shaft of the humerus.</li><li>➤ Axillary nerve is at the surgical neck</li><li>➤ Ulnar nerve is at the medial epicondyle</li><li>➤ Radial nerve is at the spiral groove of the shaft of the humerus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Defect in which of the following essential amino acids metabolism can cause cardiac problems:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tryptophan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methionine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isoleucine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenylalanine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Methionine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Methionine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option B . Methionine: Correct Answer. Methionine metabolism defects can lead to homocystinuria, a condition characterized by elevated levels of homocysteine in the blood. High levels of homocysteine are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, such as thrombosis, atherosclerosis, and other vascular problems. The cardiac issues in homocystinuria are related to the damaging effects of high homocysteine levels on blood vessels.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Methionine:</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A . Tryptophan: Tryptophan is an essential amino acid involved in the synthesis of serotonin and niacin (Vitamin B3). Defects in tryptophan metabolism are more likely to affect neurological and mental health, rather than directly causing cardiac problems.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Tryptophan:</li><li>• Option C . Isoleucine: Isoleucine is a branched-chain amino acid, and while disorders in its metabolism (like Maple Syrup Urine Disease) can have serious health consequences, they are not typically known to directly cause cardiac problems. These conditions more commonly affect the nervous system and metabolic balance.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Isoleucine:</li><li>• Option D . Phenylalanine: Phenylalanine metabolism defects lead to phenylketonuria (PKU). While untreated PKU can lead to severe neurological problems due to the accumulation of phenylalanine and its metabolites, it does not primarily cause cardiac problems.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Phenylalanine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Defect in the metabolism of methionine can cause homocystinuria which is associated with high risk of cardiovascular disease. Classical homocystinuria is due to the deficiency of the enzyme, cystathionine beta Synthase. Clinical features : failure to thrive, developmental delay, ectopia lentis, severe myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and optic atrophy. Progressive mental retardation, skeletal abnormalities may resemble Marfan syndrome. Thromboembolic episodes may be seen at any age. Elevated homocysteine level is a risk factor for CAD, CVA, PAD and DVT.</li><li>➤ Defect in the metabolism of methionine can cause homocystinuria which is associated with high risk of cardiovascular disease.</li><li>➤ Classical homocystinuria is due to the deficiency of the enzyme, cystathionine beta Synthase.</li><li>➤ cystathionine beta Synthase.</li><li>➤ Clinical features : failure to thrive, developmental delay, ectopia lentis, severe myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and optic atrophy. Progressive mental retardation, skeletal abnormalities may resemble Marfan syndrome. Thromboembolic episodes may be seen at any age. Elevated homocysteine level is a risk factor for CAD, CVA, PAD and DVT.</li><li>➤ Clinical features</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4326479/</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4326479/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition that does not lead to bilateral hydronephrosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phimosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urethral Stricture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior urethral valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retrocaval ureter", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Retrocaval ureter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-545.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Retrocaval ureter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Retrocaval ureter is a condition that affects only the right ureter, leading to right-sided hydronephrosis and does not cause bilateral hydronephrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is presenting with itchy lesions on the wrist and involvement of oral mucosa, and on examination, following findings were noted. What will be the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lichen nitidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lichen planus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Lichen Planus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lichen planus is recognized as the characteristic pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules and plaques , often with Wickham's striae , and the presence of lacy white lesions on the oral mucosa.</li><li>➤ Lichen planus is recognized as the characteristic pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules and plaques , often with Wickham's striae , and the presence of lacy white lesions on the oral mucosa.</li><li>➤ Lichen planus</li><li>➤ pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules and plaques</li><li>➤ Wickham's striae</li><li>➤ lacy white</li><li>➤ oral mucosa.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9th Edition page no 31.24, 34.39, 35.1, 37.1, 37.4, 37.6</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most common cause of mortality in DKA? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute respiratory distress syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiac arrhythmia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cerebral edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute kidney injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cerebral edema", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cerebral edema is the most common cause of mortality in diabetic ketoacidosis, especially during the treatment phase when rapid shifts in osmolality occur.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug acts at the site marked by arrow as shown in the diagram? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aliskiren", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ramipril", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Losartan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aliskiren", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/4_31lX0YU.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Aliskiren</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aliskiren acts at the step where renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, effectively inhibiting the renin enzyme and reducing the downstream effects of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). This helps in managing hypertension by reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone-mediated sodium retention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient diagnosed with cancer is undergoing radiotherapy. She is given a dose of 1.8 to 2 Gy daily for five days a week, for a total treatment duration of 6 to 8 weeks. What among the following explains this type of radiotherapy? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conventional Fractionation radiotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypofractionation radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Accelerated Fractionation radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperfractionation radiotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Conventional Fractionation radiotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/18/screenshot-2024-05-18-182008.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Conventional Fractionation radiotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conventional Fractionation radiotherapy involves delivering 1.8 to 2 Gy per day, five days a week, for 6 to 8 weeks, allowing for normal tissue recovery between treatments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male patient presents with ptosis and muscle weakness which reportedly worsens in the evening and improves in the morning. This is relieved by neostigmine. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Huntington chorea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "External ophthalmoplegia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluctuating muscle weakness with diurnal variation and improvement with cholinesterase inhibitors are hallmark features of myasthenia gravis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 59-year-old patient who underwent cataract surgery, presented with gradual diminution of vision in the operated eye, suggesting secondary cataract. Which laser is used for the management of this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nd:YAG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femto second laser", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EXCIMER", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Argon laser", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nd:YAG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-110150.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-110334.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nd:YAG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Various lasers and their uses in ophthalmological procedures: -</li><li>➤ Various lasers and their uses in ophthalmological procedures: -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old female is brought to OPD with the following deformity. What can be inferred from this? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Genu Varum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Genu Valgum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wind swept deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genu recurvatum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Genu Valgum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210104.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-191959.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210106.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210107.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210108.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Genu Valgum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given question describes the genu valgum deformity (also called as knock knees). It is the abnormal approximation of the knees with abnormally divergent ankles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incorrect match out of the following: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EDH - ipsilateral pupil dilatation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Injury to base of skull - CSF Otorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Penetrating trauma to eye - Battle sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Midbrain injury – gaze paresis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Penetrating trauma to eye - Battle sign", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Penetrating trauma to eye - Battle sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Battle sign is a classic indicator of a base of skull fracture and not associated with penetrating trauma to the eye.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following are the features of Stage of excitement of cocaine except? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Feeling of well-being", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cocaine bugs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tingling and numbness in peripheral areas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dilated pupil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cocaine bugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-184524.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-184543.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cocaine bugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cocaine bugs (formication) are associated with chronic cocaine use and hallucinations, whereas the features listed for the excitement stage of acute cocaine poisoning include euphoria, numbness, and dilated pupils but not formication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old male presents to OPD with rashes around his neck region, diarrhoea from the last 3 days, and recent forgetfulness. He is hailing from the northern states in India and is mainly surviving on a maize rich diet. Which of the following vitamin deficiency is most likely associated with his condition? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin B3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/21/picture1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin B3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's symptoms - dermatitis (especially in areas exposed to sunlight), diarrhea, and dementia (forgetfulness) - are characteristic of pellagra, which is caused by niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency. Pellagra is often associated with diets high in maize (corn), as maize is a poor source of niacin and lacks the amino acid tryptophan, which the body can use to synthesize niacin.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Vitamin B1 (Thiamine): Vitamin B1 deficiency leads to beriberi, which presents with symptoms like weight loss, emotional disturbances, impaired sensory perception, weakness, and pain in the limbs, and periods of irregular heart rate. While neurological symptoms can occur, the overall clinical picture doesn't align with the patient's presentation.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Vitamin B1 (Thiamine):</li><li>• Option B . Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin): Deficiency of vitamin B2 can cause ariboflavinosis, symptoms of which include sore throat, hyperemia, and edema of the pharyngeal and oral mucosa, cheilosis, angular stomatitis, glossitis, seborrheic dermatitis, and anemia. However, these symptoms are not as aligned with the patient's presentation as the symptoms of another vitamin deficiency.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin):</li><li>• Option D . Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine): Vitamin B6 deficiency can lead to seborrheic dermatitis, microcytic anemia, electroencephalographic abnormalities, convulsions, and peripheral neuropathy. While some symptoms may overlap, the specific combination of dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia is more indicative of niacin deficiency.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Casal’s Necklace shown in the figure occur due to Niacin deficiency (Pellagra) Pellagra is seen in people whose staple diet is maize. In maize, niacin is present but in a bound form and is unavailable to the body. Symptoms of pellagra: Dermatitis: In early stages, bright red erythema occurs in feet, ankles and face. Increased pigmentation around the neck is known as Casal’s necklace. Diarrhea Dementia, delirium, irritability, inability to concentrate and poor memory, ataxia, and spasticity are seen.</li><li>➤ Casal’s Necklace shown in the figure occur due to Niacin deficiency (Pellagra)</li><li>➤ Pellagra is seen in people whose staple diet is maize.</li><li>➤ In maize, niacin is present but in a bound form and is unavailable to the body.</li><li>➤ Symptoms of pellagra: Dermatitis: In early stages, bright red erythema occurs in feet, ankles and face. Increased pigmentation around the neck is known as Casal’s necklace. Diarrhea Dementia, delirium, irritability, inability to concentrate and poor memory, ataxia, and spasticity are seen.</li><li>➤ Symptoms of pellagra:</li><li>➤ Dermatitis: In early stages, bright red erythema occurs in feet, ankles and face. Increased pigmentation around the neck is known as Casal’s necklace. Diarrhea Dementia, delirium, irritability, inability to concentrate and poor memory, ataxia, and spasticity are seen.</li><li>➤ Dermatitis: In early stages, bright red erythema occurs in feet, ankles and face. Increased pigmentation around the neck is known as Casal’s necklace.</li><li>➤ Casal’s necklace.</li><li>➤ Diarrhea</li><li>➤ Dementia, delirium, irritability, inability to concentrate and poor memory, ataxia, and spasticity are seen.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK557749/</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK557749/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which stain is commonly used to differentiate the infarcted portion from the normal portion of the heart in a deceased patient who died due to myocardial infarction (MI)? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triphenyl Tetrazolium chloride", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methylene blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congo red", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oil red O", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Triphenyl Tetrazolium chloride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/untitled-221_Mj8uUPx.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Triphenyl Tetrazolium chloride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (TTC) stain is used to differentiate infarcted myocardial tissue from normal tissue, with normal tissue appearing brick red and infarcted tissue appearing pale.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an Orexinergic hormone? ( FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ghrelin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Testosterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ghrelin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ghrelin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Ghrelin is an orexinergic hormone primarily produced in the stomach. It plays a significant role in stimulating appetite and promoting food intake by activating orexin neurons in the hypothalamus. Orexinergic hormones are those that activate orexin receptors, which are involved in the regulation of sleep-wake cycles and feeding behaviors.</li><li>• Ghrelin is an orexinergic hormone primarily produced in the stomach. It plays a significant role in stimulating appetite and promoting food intake by activating orexin neurons in the hypothalamus. Orexinergic hormones are those that activate orexin receptors, which are involved in the regulation of sleep-wake cycles and feeding behaviors.</li><li>• Ghrelin</li><li>• Orexinergic System</li><li>• Orexinergic System</li><li>• The orexinergic system includes hormones and neurotransmitters that affect the orexin receptors in the brain. Ghrelin is specifically known for its role in increasing hunger and is sometimes referred to as the \"hunger hormone.\" It also influences the secretion of growth hormone and insulin, and it has a broader role in energy balance and metabolic processes. Some examples of orexigenic hormones: Ghrelin - Increases food intake (Hormones hunger), Growth hormone secretion, Increases insulin secretion. Orexin - produced by the hypothalamus and is involved in regulating sleep and appetite. Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti-related peptide (AgRP), can also stimulate appetite and promote food intake. Dysregulation of these hormones can contribute to conditions such as obesity and eating disorders.</li><li>• The orexinergic system includes hormones and neurotransmitters that affect the orexin receptors in the brain. Ghrelin is specifically known for its role in increasing hunger and is sometimes referred to as the \"hunger hormone.\"</li><li>• It also influences the secretion of growth hormone and insulin, and it has a broader role in energy balance and metabolic processes.</li><li>• Some examples of orexigenic hormones: Ghrelin - Increases food intake (Hormones hunger), Growth hormone secretion, Increases insulin secretion. Orexin - produced by the hypothalamus and is involved in regulating sleep and appetite. Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti-related peptide (AgRP), can also stimulate appetite and promote food intake. Dysregulation of these hormones can contribute to conditions such as obesity and eating disorders.</li><li>• Some examples of orexigenic hormones:</li><li>• Ghrelin - Increases food intake (Hormones hunger), Growth hormone secretion, Increases insulin secretion. Orexin - produced by the hypothalamus and is involved in regulating sleep and appetite. Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti-related peptide (AgRP), can also stimulate appetite and promote food intake. Dysregulation of these hormones can contribute to conditions such as obesity and eating disorders.</li><li>• Ghrelin - Increases food intake (Hormones hunger), Growth hormone secretion, Increases insulin secretion.</li><li>• Ghrelin</li><li>• Orexin - produced by the hypothalamus and is involved in regulating sleep and appetite. Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti-related peptide (AgRP), can also stimulate appetite and promote food intake.</li><li>• Orexin</li><li>• Dysregulation of these hormones can contribute to conditions such as obesity and eating disorders.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Testosterone : Incorrect as testosterone is a steroid hormone primarily involved in the development and maintenance of male sexual characteristics and reproductive functions.</li><li>• Option B. Testosterone</li><li>• Option C. Progesterone : Incorrect because progesterone is a steroid hormone involved in the menstrual cycle, pregnancy, and embryogenesis of humans and other species.</li><li>• Option C. Progesterone</li><li>• Option D. All of the above : Incorrect as only ghrelin among the listed options functions as an orexinergic hormone.</li><li>• Option D. All of the above</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ghrelin is the correct answer as it is the only hormone among the options that is classified as orexinergic, playing a critical role in stimulating appetite and regulating energy balance through its interaction with orexin neurons in the brain. This mechanism is pivotal in understanding metabolic disorders and targets for obesity treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is characteristic feature of hemolysis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reticulocytopenia.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased haptoglobin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neutropenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased conjugated bilirubin.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decreased haptoglobin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Decreased haptoglobin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decreased haptoglobin is a characteristic feature of hemolysis, distinguishing it from other conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes with silvery scaly erythematous plaques over extensors with pitting of nails and involvement of scalp is also noted, these findings are consistent with which diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoriasis vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ichthyosis vulgaris", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Psoriasis vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_61_ELMjE98.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_62.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_63.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_64.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_65.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_66.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/screenshot-2023-11-20-163937.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Psoriasis vulgaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psoriasis vulgaris by the presence of silvery scaly erythematous plaques predominantly on extensor surfaces , associated with nail pitting and scalp involvement.</li><li>➤ Psoriasis vulgaris</li><li>➤ silvery scaly erythematous plaques</li><li>➤ extensor surfaces</li><li>➤ nail pitting</li><li>➤ scalp</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ ijdvl.com - Scaly signs in dermatology</li><li>↳ ;</li><li>↳ Rooks</li><li>↳ textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 35 page no 35.4-35.6, 35.9 35.10; Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 333</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old woman is diagnosed with CA cervix. Investigations revealed a lesion of 3.5 cm. What can the appropriate management? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2 hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 3 hysterectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 4 hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Type 3 hysterectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-104746.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-104945.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Type 3 hysterectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient has CA cervix Stage 1B2 and the management will be Type 3 / Radical hysterectomy.</li><li>• FIGO Revised staging of cervical cancer (2018)</li><li>• TREATMENT</li><li>• TREATMENT</li><li>• Surgery: for early stages like stage 1, stage 2A1 Radiotherapy: for all patients from Stage 1 to 4</li><li>• Surgery: for early stages like stage 1, stage 2A1</li><li>• Radiotherapy: for all patients from Stage 1 to 4</li><li>• Type 1: Simple extra fascial hysterectomy</li><li>• Type 2: Modified radical hysterectomy</li><li>• Type3: Radical Hysterectomy</li><li>• Type4: Extended Radical hysterectomy</li><li>• Type 5: Partial Exenteration</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Type 1 hysterectomy (Simple extra fascial hysterectomy): Suitable for Stage 1A1 (without lymph-vascular space invasion - LVSI) or conization.</li><li>• Option A. Type 1 hysterectomy (Simple extra fascial hysterectomy):</li><li>• Option B. Type 2 hysterectomy (Modified radical hysterectomy): Suitable for Stage 1A1 (with LVSI) and Stage 1A2.</li><li>• Option B. Type 2 hysterectomy (Modified radical hysterectomy):</li><li>• Option D. Type 4 hysterectomy (Extended radical hysterectomy): Typically used for more advanced stages or extensive disease beyond Stage 1B2.</li><li>• Option D. Type 4 hysterectomy (Extended radical hysterectomy):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cervical cancer staging, a lesion size between 2 to 4 cm (Stage 1B2) is best managed with a Type 3 (Radical) hysterectomy.</li><li>➤ Ref: FIGO Revised Staging of Cervical Cancer, Berek and Novak’s Gynaecology 15 th Edition, Dutta’s textbook of Gynaecology 8 th edition page367</li><li>➤ Ref: FIGO Revised Staging of Cervical Cancer, Berek and Novak’s Gynaecology 15 th Edition, Dutta’s textbook of Gynaecology 8 th edition page367</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a micronutrient? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chromium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iodine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calcium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-190909.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Calcium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inorganic material mainly required as cofactor for many enzymes. So, they are essential in diet.</li><li>➤ Classification of Minerals (Based on daily requirements)</li><li>➤ Classification of Minerals</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 97</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 97</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "CSF otorrhea can occur in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TM rupture due to trauma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stab injury in eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cribriform plate fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Temporal Bone fracture", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Temporal Bone fracture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-190932.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/whatsapp-image-2023-07-07-at-182016.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture53.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Temporal Bone fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CSF otorrhea is a serious condition often linked with fractures of the temporal bone. Prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to prevent complications and promote effective healing. Monitoring for signs of infection or persistent leakage is essential, as these may necessitate more aggressive interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bell's palsy involves: (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ipsilateral upper and lower halves of the face", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contralateral upper and lower halves of the face", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ipsilateral lower half of the face", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contralateral lower half of the face", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ipsilateral upper and lower halves of the face", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bell's palsy involves ipsilateral paralysis of both the upper and lower halves of the face due to a lower motor neuron lesion of the facial nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman is bitten by a stray dog. She had received post-exposure prophylaxis for a monkey bite two months ago. What is the appropriate management for her current rabies exposure? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wound care +IM vaccine + Rabies serum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wound care + IM vaccine 0,3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wound care + IM vaccine 0.3 7", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wound care only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Wound care + IM vaccine 0,3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-112007.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Wound care + IM vaccine 0,3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For individuals with a recent history of rabies vaccination (within the past three months), re-exposure prophylaxis includes wound care and two doses of the rabies vaccine on days 0 and 3.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which structure is advised to occlude in ligation of splenic artery? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "D", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1102.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/untitled-1103.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-195325.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Structure D will be occluded in order to ligate the splenic artery.</li><li>• Peritoneal ligaments</li><li>• Peritoneal ligaments</li><li>• Gastrosplenic ligaments Splenorenal ligaments / Lienorenal ligaments (Extends from spleen to Left kidney)</li><li>• Gastrosplenic ligaments</li><li>• Splenorenal ligaments / Lienorenal ligaments (Extends from spleen to Left kidney)</li><li>• Contents</li><li>• Contents</li><li>• TAIL of PANCREAS SPLENIC VESSELS</li><li>• TAIL of PANCREAS</li><li>• SPLENIC VESSELS</li><li>• In the ligation of the splenic artery, the primary objective is to interrupt the blood supply to the spleen. This procedure may be performed for various medical reasons, such as treating splenic artery aneurysms or managing traumatic injuries to the spleen</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Portal Vein : The portal vein is a major blood vessel that carries nutrient-rich, oxygen-poor blood from the digestive organs (stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and spleen) to the liver. It is not advisable to occlude the portal vein during ligation of the splenic artery because doing so would disrupt blood flow to the liver, potentially leading to severe liver dysfunction and complications.</li><li>• Option A. Portal Vein</li><li>• Option B. Hepatogastric Ligament: The hepatogastric ligament is a connective tissue structure that attaches the liver to the stomach. It does not play a significant role in the blood supply to the spleen, so occluding it would not achieve the intended goal of interrupting blood flow to the spleen.</li><li>• Option B. Hepatogastric Ligament:</li><li>• Option C. Gastrosplenic Ligament : The gastrosplenic ligament connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the spleen. Although it is in close proximity to the spleen, occluding this ligament alone would not effectively disrupt the blood supply to the spleen.</li><li>• Option C. Gastrosplenic Ligament</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lienorenal ligament, also known as the splenorenal ligament, is the structure that connects the spleen to the kidney. It contains the splenic artery, which is the primary vessel supplying blood to the spleen. During ligation of the splenic artery, the lienorenal ligament is typically addressed, and the splenic artery within this ligament is occluded, effectively cutting off the blood supply to the spleen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old Type 2 diabetic patient presents with fever and hypotension to the casualty. He gives a history of a boil in the perianal area which developed 2 weeks ago. On examination, the perianal area is as shown in the picture below. Identify the correct statement about this condition? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is caused by staphylococcus only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The testis remains unaffected", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It a self-resolving condition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is a case of testicular torsion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. The testis remains unaffected", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-539.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) The testis remains unaffected</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fournier's gangrene is a severe necrotizing infection of the perineal and genital regions, often sparing deeper structures like the testes. Immediate surgical debridement and broad-spectrum antibiotics are critical for management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with complaints of sudden onset headache, palpitations, and profuse sweating. The patient has had multiple similar episodes in the past. During these episodes, the patient's blood pressure is elevated. A 24-hour urinary metanephrine is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Addison's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal artery stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pheochromocytoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pheochromocytoma presents with the classic triad of headache, palpitations, and sweating, along with episodic hypertension and elevated urinary metanephrine levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male patient presents to hospital with pain in great toe. His serum uric acid was raised. He was given a medication to relieve the pain and inflammation and after that, he was put on a drug for long term treatment of gout. Which of the following drug increases the excretion of uric acid in urine? (Fmge Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colchicine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Probenecid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Allopurinol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Febuxostat", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Probenecid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Probenecid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Probenecid is a uricosuric drug that increases the excretion of uric acid in the urine by inhibiting its reabsorption in the renal tubules. This makes it effective for the long-term management of gout by lowering serum uric acid levels. Other drugs like colchicine, allopurinol, and febuxostat have different mechanisms of action and do not increase uric acid excretion in the urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following listed minerals is NOT typically classified as a trace nutrient? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Selenium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iodine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Calcium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Calcium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Calcium is a macronutrient, needed in larger amounts. Selenium, iodine, and copper are trace nutrients, required in smaller quantities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT typically recognized as a primary component of the RCH program? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Women education and empowerment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Children and new-born care.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Screening and treatment for STI and RTI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Safe motherhood", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Women education and empowerment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Women education and empowerment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Component of RCH program -</li><li>➤ Component of RCH program -</li><li>➤ Community Needs Assessment Approach (CNAA) Integrated packages of services for mother and child MTP services at PHC and safe abortion Control and prevention of RTI/STI Adolescent health Services in urban slums Improving quality of services Unmet needs and sub-centre action plans Communication strategy Gender sensitiveness Greater involvement of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), NGOs and community</li><li>➤ Community Needs Assessment Approach (CNAA)</li><li>➤ Integrated packages of services for mother and child</li><li>➤ MTP services at PHC and safe abortion</li><li>➤ Control and prevention of RTI/STI</li><li>➤ Adolescent health</li><li>➤ Services in urban slums</li><li>➤ Improving quality of services</li><li>➤ Unmet needs and sub-centre action plans</li><li>➤ Communication strategy</li><li>➤ Gender sensitiveness</li><li>➤ Greater involvement of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), NGOs and community</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old male, employed as a welder, presents with the following eye symptoms: pain, redness, and excessive tearing. What would be the appropriate next step in managing this condition?( FMGE Jan 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syringing and washing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotics and steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Keratoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Remove with 26G needle", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Remove with 26G needle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-105704.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Remove with 26G needle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appropriate management of a corneal foreign body, especially in an occupational setting like welding, involves careful removal using a sterile hypodermic needle, followed by the application of antibiotic ointment to prevent infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The vasodilator Nitric oxide is synthesized by which amino acid? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L -Arginine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "L -Citrulline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lysine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. L -Arginine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) L -Arginine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Nitric oxide is synthesized from the amino acid L-arginine. This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS). L-arginine is converted to L-citrulline with the release of NO. This process is crucial for the regulation of vascular tone, as NO is a potent vasodilator.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. L-Citrulline: While L-citrulline is involved in the nitric oxide cycle, it is not the precursor for NO synthesis. Instead, it is a byproduct of NO synthesis from L-arginine. L-citrulline can be recycled back to L-arginine, which can then be used again for NO synthesis.</li><li>• Option B. L-Citrulline:</li><li>• Option C. Glycine: Glycine is a simple amino acid involved in various metabolic pathways, but it is not the precursor for nitric oxide synthesis. Glycine plays roles in the synthesis of proteins, purines, and other molecules, but not directly in the production of NO.</li><li>• Option C. Glycine:</li><li>• Option D. Lysine: Lysine, an essential amino acid, is not involved in the synthesis of nitric oxide. It plays roles in protein synthesis and other metabolic processes, but NO synthesis specifically requires L-arginine.</li><li>• Option D. Lysine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NO is also called as Endothelium Derived Relaxing Factor (EDRF). NO (nitric oxide) is synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) in the endothelial cells.</li><li>➤ NO (nitric oxide) is</li><li>➤ synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the most important risk factor for acute mastitis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast engorgement", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lactation failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cracked nipple", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cracked nipple", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cracked nipple</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of cracks and fissures in the nipples is the most important risk factor for acute mastitis due to the direct pathway it provides for bacterial entry.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following factor is involved in the extrinsic pathway? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "VII", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IX", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "XI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VIII", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. VII", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/26/screenshot-2024-09-25-191910.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) VII</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor VII is involved in the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, and its function can be assessed by the prothrombin time (PT) assay.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman, recently married, visits a local healthcare facility with her husband for family planning counseling. The healthcare provider advises various contraceptive options and takes some details to add to a specific register. This register helps the healthcare workers monitor and provide reproductive health services to eligible couples in the region. At which level of the healthcare system is this \"Eligible Couple Register\" typically maintained? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subcenter", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "PHC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CHC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "District hospital", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Subcenter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Subcenter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eligible Couple Register is maintained at subcentre, primarily by female health worker/ ANM</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official notes that there were 60 infant deaths and 5,000 live births in the past year. What denominator should she use to calculate the infant mortality rate? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1000", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1,00,000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-111122.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-111310.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The standard denominator for calculating and expressing the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is 1000 live births.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For Coronary artery prevention, which needs to be given: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Saturated fatty acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omega 3 FA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Omega 6 FA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Omega 9 FA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Omega 3 FA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Omega 3 FA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omega-3 PUFAs:</li><li>➤ Omega-3 PUFAs:</li><li>➤ Affect membrane fluidity in a positive way Help in transfer of cell signal molecules Many of ω-3 metabolites are anti-inflammatory Prevents conversion of ω-6 PUFAs into pro-inflammatory eicosanoids by acting as alternate substrate for enzymes such as lipoxygenase and cyclooxygenase involved in these conversions</li><li>➤ Affect membrane fluidity in a positive way</li><li>➤ Help in transfer of cell signal molecules</li><li>➤ Many of ω-3 metabolites are anti-inflammatory</li><li>➤ Prevents conversion of ω-6 PUFAs into pro-inflammatory eicosanoids by acting as alternate substrate for enzymes such as lipoxygenase and cyclooxygenase involved in these conversions</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 209</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 209</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old female patient who is a known case of ovarian cancer presents with difficulty in activities like climbing stairs, getting up from the chair, combing hair etc. The following characteristic sign was found on examination. The most probable diagnosis is? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dermatomyositis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Systemic sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cushing syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dermatomyositis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture14.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dermatomyositis is diagnosed by the presence of heliotrope rash, Gottron's papules , and proximal muscle weakness , and consider its association with underlying malignancies in adult patients.</li><li>➤ Dermatomyositis</li><li>➤ heliotrope rash, Gottron's papules</li><li>➤ proximal muscle weakness</li><li>➤ malignancies</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Page no 53.5, 53.6 and 53.8, 56.12-15</li><li>↳ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition page no 2914</li><li>↳ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition page no 2914</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Skull of a dead person was found during investigation. Police asked the relatives to bring the photo of deceased. Which of the following method can be used for identification of dead body? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anthropometry test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dactylography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superimposition", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "DNA fingerprinting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Superimposition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Superimposition.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Superimposition is the appropriate method for identifying a skull using a photograph of the deceased, by comparing anatomical features to establish a match.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked rib. (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 rd Anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 rd Posterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 th Anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 th Posterior", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4 th Posterior", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/17.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 4thPosterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Posterior ribs on a chest X-ray are horizontally oriented, while anterior ribs are obliquely oriented.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following procedures, this instrument is used for? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dilatation and curettage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial Sampling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterosalpingography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Endometrial Sampling", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/19/untitled-1038.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Endometrial Sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Given image is for Pipelle aspirator, used to obtain endometrial sample for biopsy.</li><li>• Endometrial aspiration is an OPD procedure, it doesn’t require cervical dilation. It’s painless, but it is a blind procedure, so tissue can be missed.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Dilatation and curettage : It may be diagnostic or therapeutic. It involves mechanical dilatation using metallic dilators such as Hegars followed by curettage of the cavity using a curette.</li><li>• Option A. Dilatation and curettage</li><li>• Option B. Cervical sampling : It may be used for screening or for cytohormonal study. Ayres spatula made of wood or plastic may be used for collection of material from the Squamo-columnar junction. Endocervical sampling can be performed using a cytobrush or with a moist tip applicator. A cervical biopsy is used for confirmation of diagnosis.</li><li>• Option B. Cervical sampling</li><li>• Option D. Hysterosalpingography : It is a radiological procedure using contrast to assess tubal patency and tubal and uterine anatomy using sequential x-rays. Either water soluble dye diatrizoate (renografin 60) or low viscosity oil-based dye ethiodized oil (ethiodol) may be introduced slowly (5-10 ml) using an HSG cannula.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterosalpingography</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Pipelle aspirator is used to obtain endometrial sample for biopsy</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C. Dutta’s Textbook of gynaecology 6 th Edition page 120, 604, 110</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C. Dutta’s Textbook of gynaecology 6 th Edition page 120, 604, 110</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person is summoned by court to attend and record evidence in court. Which of the following describes the type of evidence? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hearsay Evidence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subpoena", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral Evidence", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Circumstantial Evidence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oral Evidence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Oral Evidence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oral evidence refers to the statements made by a witness in court regarding matters of fact under inquiry. It is the testimony given by witnesses who have firsthand knowledge of the events in question.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A covid patient was discharged from hospital &amp; was recovering at home. In order to join back his duties, he himself started taking excessive multivitamin supplements and he developed symptoms of nerve sensations- tingling sensations. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the associated symptoms seen in this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin D excess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12 excess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B6 excess", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B3 excess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin B6 excess", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin B6 Excess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Excessive intake of pyridoxine can lead to toxicity, which can cause a range of symptoms and health problems. The recommended daily intake of pyridoxine for adults is 1.3-1.7 mg/day, and the tolerable upper intake level (UL) is set at 100 mg/day for adults. Exceeding the UL can lead to pyridoxine toxicity.</li><li>➤ Symptoms of pyridoxine toxicity can include:</li><li>➤ Sensory neuropathy: Numbness, tingling, and pain in the extremities, which can progress to loss of sensation and muscle weakness. Ataxia: Difficulty with coordination and balance. Photosensitivity: Increased sensitivity to sunlight, which can cause skin rash and sunburn. Gastrointestinal symptoms: Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Impaired glucose tolerance: High doses of pyridoxine can interfere with glucose metabolism and lead to impaired glucose tolerance. Cognitive impairment: High doses of pyridoxine can cause confusion, irritability, and depression. Seizures: Rarely, high doses of pyridoxine can cause seizures.</li><li>➤ Sensory neuropathy: Numbness, tingling, and pain in the extremities, which can progress to loss of sensation and muscle weakness.</li><li>➤ Ataxia: Difficulty with coordination and balance.</li><li>➤ Photosensitivity: Increased sensitivity to sunlight, which can cause skin rash and sunburn.</li><li>➤ Gastrointestinal symptoms: Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.</li><li>➤ Impaired glucose tolerance: High doses of pyridoxine can interfere with glucose metabolism and lead to impaired glucose tolerance.</li><li>➤ Cognitive impairment: High doses of pyridoxine can cause confusion, irritability, and depression.</li><li>➤ Seizures: Rarely, high doses of pyridoxine can cause seizures.</li><li>➤ Pyridoxine toxicity is rare and usually occurs only with prolonged use of high-dose supplements (usually over 1,000 mg/day) over a period of time.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 543-544</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 543-544</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these are the components of Child Pugh score? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Encephalopathy, AST, albumin, bilirubin, Prothrombin time", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Encephalopathy, ascites, albumin, bilirubin, prothrombin time", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Encephalopathy, AST, INR, albumin, bilirubin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Encephalopathy, ascites, albumin, bilirubin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Encephalopathy, ascites, albumin, bilirubin, prothrombin time", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/untitled-103.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Encephalopathy, ascites, albumin, bilirubin, prothrombin time.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The components of the Child-Pugh score include encephalopathy, ascites, bilirubin, albumin, and prothrombin time (INR). This scoring system is used to assess the prognosis of chronic liver disease and cirrhosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following immunoglobulins shows highest concentration in the serum? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ig-M", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ig-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ig-E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ig-G", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ig-G", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture4333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ig-G</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is inhalational anesthetic of choice for pediatric age group? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Halothane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isoflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sevoflurane", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Desflurane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sevoflurane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sevoflurane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sevoflurane is the preferred inhalational anesthetic for pediatric patients due to its rapid onset, pleasant odor, and favorable safety profile. It is particularly useful for inhalational induction, making it easier for children to tolerate the induction process.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which urinary components is Tamm Horsfall protein present? (FMGE JAN 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine Cast", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urine Crystal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bilirubin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bile Salts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urine Cast", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) urine cast</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tamm-Horsfall protein (uromodulin) is present in urine casts and is the most abundant protein found in normal human urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with painful vesicles on the tympanic membrane and in the external auditory meatus, accompanied by features of facial nerve palsy. What is the diagnosis and which site is affected?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ramsay hunt syndrome and geniculate ganglion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ramsay hunt syndrome and basal ganglion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome and basal ganglion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome and otic ganglion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ramsay hunt syndrome and geniculate ganglion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture43.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ramsay hunt syndrome and geniculate ganglion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a reactivation of herpes zoster in the geniculate ganglion, leading to a characteristic vesicular eruption on the ear and facial nerve palsy. Early recognition and treatment are vital to prevent complications and improve recovery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following are the reasons for thiamine deficiency Except: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Veganism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic alcoholic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic use of diuretics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bariatric surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Veganism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Veganism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• While vegan diets exclude animal products, thiamine deficiency is not commonly associated with veganism, especially if the diet is well-planned and includes diverse sources of nutrients. Thiamine is found in whole grains, legumes, seeds, and some fortified foods, which are all components of a typical vegan diet.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Chronic Alcoholic: Chronic alcoholism is a well-known risk factor for thiamine deficiency. Alcohol impairs thiamine absorption and increases its excretion. Furthermore, alcoholics often have poor dietary intake, contributing to a deficiency. Thiamine deficiency in alcoholics can lead to serious conditions such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.</li><li>• Option B. Chronic Alcoholic:</li><li>• Option C. Chronic Use of Diuretics: Prolonged use of diuretics, particularly loop diuretics, can lead to increased urinary excretion of thiamine, thus potentially causing or exacerbating a deficiency. This is especially relevant in patients with conditions like heart failure, where diuretics are commonly prescribed.</li><li>• Option C. Chronic Use of Diuretics:</li><li>• Option D. Bariatric Surgery: Bariatric surgery, especially procedures that involve bypassing parts of the stomach and small intestine, can lead to malabsorption of various nutrients, including thiamine. Patients undergoing bariatric surgery are at risk for nutritional deficiencies and require careful monitoring and supplementation.</li><li>• Option D. Bariatric Surgery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Major source of Thiamine are whole grains and cereals. So, veganism does not cause thiamine deficiency. Thiamine (also known as vitamin B1) deficiency can be caused by a variety of factors, including:</li><li>➤ Major source of Thiamine are whole grains and cereals. So, veganism does not cause thiamine deficiency.</li><li>➤ Thiamine (also known as vitamin B1) deficiency can be caused by a variety of factors, including:</li><li>➤ Poor nutrition: Thiamine deficiency is most commonly caused by inadequate dietary intake of thiamine-rich foods such as whole grains, legumes, nuts, and meat.</li><li>➤ Poor nutrition:</li><li>➤ Alcoholism: Chronic alcohol consumption can interfere with the absorption and utilization of thiamine in the body, leading to deficiency.</li><li>➤ Alcoholism:</li><li>➤ Malabsorption disorders : Conditions such as celiac disease, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis can impair the body's ability to absorb thiamine from food.</li><li>➤ Malabsorption disorders</li><li>➤ Bariatric surgery Certain types of weight loss surgery, such as gastric bypass, can reduce the body's ability to absorb thiamine.</li><li>➤ Bariatric surgery</li><li>➤ Genetic disorders : Rare genetic disorders such as thiamine-responsive megaloblastic anemia and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can cause thiamine deficiency.</li><li>➤ Genetic disorders</li><li>➤ Medications: Some medications, such as diuretics and certain types of chemotherapy, can interfere with thiamine absorption and utilization.</li><li>➤ Medications:</li><li>➤ Pregnancy and breastfeeding: Pregnant and breastfeeding women have increased thiamine requirements and may develop deficiency if their intake is insufficient.</li><li>➤ Pregnancy and breastfeeding:</li><li>➤ Aging: Older adults may be at increased risk of thiamine deficiency due to decreased absorption and utilization of the vitamin.</li><li>➤ Aging:</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 541-542</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 541-542</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Serum osmolality is most affected by which of the following ions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na +", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "K +", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HCO3 -", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "H +", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Na +", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Na+</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Element iron exists in 2 states, ferrous and ferric. Which among the following possess ferric form?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HbA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HbS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HbF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methemoglobin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Methemoglobin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Methemoglobin</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A normal JVP and a patient’s JVP graph is shown below. Which of the following conditions patient most likely have?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tricuspid Regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic Regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tricuspid Stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atrial Fibrillation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tricuspid Regurgitation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/29/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901263.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Tricuspid Regurgitation</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct about the given image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor due to less calorie intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marasmus due to less calorie intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marasmus due to less protein intake", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210166.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210167.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210168_Yy9rUki.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210169.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy is brought to OPD with fever, cough, runny nose, red eyes and rash as shown in the following image. What can be the diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chickenpox", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythema infectiosum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Measles", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210170.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210171.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210172.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210173.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210174.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Measles</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In all of the following conditions, a mother can breastfeed her child except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV +ve mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis C in mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galactosemia in infant", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculosis in mother", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Galactosemia in infant", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Galactosemia in infant</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a growing child, gonadal growth corresponds to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skeletal Growth", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brain development", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphoid System Development", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dental growth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Skeletal Growth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210175.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Skeletal Growth</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is brought to Emergency department with a history of consuming iron tablets of her mother. He is complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. What can be the antidote for this case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deferoxamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "BAL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Deferoxamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Deferoxamine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was diagnosed for acute mania and was prescribed Lithium for the same. All are true statements about lithium except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lithium toxicity exaggerates by thiazides", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lithium can decrease thyroid hormone levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lithium is teratogenic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lithium toxicity can’t be treated by hemodialysis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lithium toxicity can’t be treated by hemodialysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Lithium toxicity can’t be treated by hemodialysis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following graph shows response of a drug, identify the drug?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dopamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isoproterenol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Norepinephrine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Norepinephrine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture42.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture43.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture44.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Norepinephrine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man presented to OPD with a rash as shown below. He has a history of multiple sexual partners. On examination, he has enlarged epitrochlear lymph nodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steven-Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leprosy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Syphilis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture15.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture17.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/picture18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Syphilis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 265 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 397</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge Jan 2024 2024 01 20 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 397</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 397 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Most common site of genital TB is? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fallopian tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ovary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fallopian tube", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fallopian tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Genital tuberculosis (TB) primarily affects the female reproductive system, with the fallopian tubes being the most common site of infection. Tuberculous salpingitis can lead to various complications, including:</li><li>• Endosalpingitis or Exosalpingitis: Inflammation inside or around the fallopian tubes. Beading of the tube: Formation of small nodular masses or swellings along the tube. Constriction of the tube: Narrowing of the tube, which can obstruct the passage of the ovum. Hydrosalpinx: Accumulation of fluid in the fallopian tube, often due to obstruction caused by TB.</li><li>• Endosalpingitis or Exosalpingitis: Inflammation inside or around the fallopian tubes.</li><li>• Beading of the tube: Formation of small nodular masses or swellings along the tube.</li><li>• Constriction of the tube: Narrowing of the tube, which can obstruct the passage of the ovum.</li><li>• Hydrosalpinx: Accumulation of fluid in the fallopian tube, often due to obstruction caused by TB.</li><li>• These complications can significantly impact fertility, making infertility a common issue in women with genital TB.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Sites of Genital TB:</li><li>• Option A. Cervix: Less commonly affected.</li><li>• Option A. Cervix:</li><li>• Option B. Endometrium: Can be involved, but not as frequently as the fallopian tubes.</li><li>• Option B. Endometrium:</li><li>• Option D. Ovary: Also less commonly affected compared to the fallopian tubes.</li><li>• Option D. Ovary:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fallopian tube is the most common site of genital tuberculosis, leading to significant complications such as salpingitis, hydrosalpinx, and infertility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a part of the Global Hunger Index? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "U5MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malnutrition (wasting, stunting)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inadequate food supply", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infant Mortality Rate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Infant Mortality Rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-121002.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Infant Mortality Rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Global Hunger Index is calculated based on the following indicators:</li><li>• Till 2014 – following 3 indicators</li><li>• After 2016, the Global Hunger Index calculation was done using above four indicators, which do not include the infant mortality rate directly.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. U5MR: Because the under-five mortality rate is one of the four indicators used in the calculation of the Global Hunger Index.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. U5MR:</li><li>• Option B. Malnutrition (wasting, stunting): Because both child wasting and child stunting are part of the four indicators used in the calculation of the Global Hunger Index.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Malnutrition (wasting, stunting):</li><li>• Option C. Inadequate food supply: Because, while inadequate food supply can contribute to child undernourishment, it is not directly used as an indicator in the calculation of the Global Hunger Index.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Inadequate food supply:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Global Hunger Index is calculated using four indicators: child undernourishment, under-five mortality rate, child wasting, and child stunting. The infant mortality rate is not directly included in the calculation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bubo seen in which of the following conditions? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphogranuloma venereum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Granuloma inguinale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonorrhea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lymphogranuloma venereum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-162357.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lymphogranuloma venereum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3.</li><li>• A bubo refers to an inflamed, swollen lymph node, often filled with pus. In LGV, this typically presents as inguinal lymphadenitis with pus formation, which is a key characteristic feature.</li><li>• Another important sexually transmitted disease associated with bubo formation is chancroid.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Syphilis: Syphilis typically presents with a painless genital ulcer and painless lymphadenopathy.</li><li>• Option B. Syphilis:</li><li>• Option C. Granuloma inguinale: Also known as donovanosis, caused by Klebsiella granulomatis. It presents with subcutaneous nodules in the inguinal region but does not involve lymphadenopathy. These nodules are sometimes referred to as pseudo-bubo because of their superficial similarity to buboes, but they do not have the same pathophysiology.</li><li>• Option C. Granuloma inguinale:</li><li>• pseudo-bubo</li><li>• Option D. Gonorrhea: Gonorrhea typically presents with urethral discharge and does not cause bubo formation.</li><li>• Option D. Gonorrhea:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A bubo is a characteristic feature of lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) and chancroid, involving inflamed, pus-filled lymph nodes, particularly in the inguinal region. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A post-operative patient who is immobilized develops sudden onset severe calf pain. What is the next investigation to be done? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT angiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duplex USG", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Duplex USG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Duplex USG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The correct answer is duplex ultrasound (USG). The clinical picture suggests deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a common complication in immobilized, post-operative patients.</li><li>• Duplex ultrasound is the investigation of choice for diagnosing DVT as it combines traditional ultrasound and Doppler ultrasound to visualize blood flow and identify any thrombus in the veins.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. CT angiography: This is primarily used for pulmonary embolism, not for initial evaluation of suspected DVT.</li><li>• Option A. CT angiography:</li><li>• Option C. X-ray: This is not useful for diagnosing DVT, as it does not provide information about the veins or blood flow.</li><li>• Option C. X-ray:</li><li>• Option D. MRI: While MRI can visualize DVT, it is not the first-line investigation due to higher cost, longer procedure time, and less availability compared to duplex ultrasound.</li><li>• Option D. MRI:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For post-operative, immobilized patients with sudden onset severe calf pain, suggesting DVT, the next investigation should be a duplex ultrasound, which effectively visualizes the veins and assesses blood flow to confirm the diagnosis. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with ptosis which gets worsened by evening. He was diagnosed to be a case of myasthenia gravis. What is the preferred treatment of this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasma exchange", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclosporine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyridostigmine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physostigmine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pyridostigmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pyridostigmine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor and is the mainstay of treatment for myasthenia gravis. It helps increase the levels of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, thereby improving muscle strength.</li><li>➤ Pyridostigmine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, particularly involving the skin and respiratory tract. The patient's parents report that he has had multiple abscesses and lymphadenitis. Dihydro-rhodamine test results show an abnormal pattern. What is the primary suspicion based on these findings?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic Granulomatous Disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Severe Combined Immunodeficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sialyl Lewis X defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leukocyte Adhesion Defect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chronic Granulomatous Disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chronic Granulomatous Disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to produce reactive oxygen species (ROS) necessary to kill certain bacteria and fungi. This condition is most commonly inherited in an X-linked recessive manner due to a defect in the CYBB gene , which encodes a component of the NADPH oxidase enzyme complex.</li><li>• CYBB gene</li><li>• Patients with CGD typically present with recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, particularly affecting the skin, lungs, and lymph nodes. The dihydro-rhodamine (DHR) test, which measures the oxidative burst of neutrophils, is used to diagnose CGD. An abnormal DHR test indicates a defect in the NADPH oxidase enzyme , confirming the diagnosis of CGD.</li><li>• dihydro-rhodamine (DHR) test,</li><li>• defect in the NADPH oxidase enzyme</li><li>• Investigation – NBT and DHR 123 test (flow cytometry)</li><li>• TOC – Allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation; IFN gamma</li><li>• TOC –</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) : SCID is characterized by a severe defect in both T- and B-lymphocyte systems. It presents very early in life with severe immunodeficiency and is often due to adenosine deaminase deficiency.</li><li>• Option B. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)</li><li>• Option C. Sialyl Lewis X defect : This results in leukocyte adhesion defect type 2 (LAD-2), which involves issues with leukocyte migration due to defective carbohydrate metabolism affecting leukocyte rolling.</li><li>• Option C. Sialyl Lewis X defect</li><li>• Option D. Leukocyte Adhesion Defect (LAD) : LAD type 1 involves a defect in the CD18 gene affecting leukocyte adhesion and migration, leading to recurrent infections without pus formation and poor wound healing. LAD type 2 involves a defect in the Sialyl Lewis X structure.</li><li>• Option D. Leukocyte Adhesion Defect (LAD)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Chronic Granulomatous Disease is diagnosed with the DHR test, which reveals defects in the oxidative burst of neutrophils due to NADPH oxidase deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the chest x-ray finding shown below. ( FMGE Jan 2024 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Consolidation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lung collapse", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intrathoracic mass lesion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lung collapse", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-110347.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lung collapse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The opacity and associated signs of volume loss indicate that part of the lung has collapsed, likely due to an obstruction or compression of the airways.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mitochondrial matrix enzyme is? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Citrate synthase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monoamine oxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ATP synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Catalase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Citrate synthase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-151810.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Citrate synthase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Citrate synthase is a key enzyme of the TCA cycle located in the mitochondrial matrix.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presented with unilateral pulsatile headache, photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea, which is exaggerated on skipping her meals. What is your diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Migraine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tension headache", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cluster headache", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malingering", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Migraine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Migraine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient presents with a unilateral, pulsatile headache accompanied by photophobia (sensitivity to light), phonophobia (sensitivity to sound), and nausea. These are classic features of a migraine.</li><li>• Additionally, the headache is exacerbated by skipping meals, a known trigger for migraines. Other common triggers include stress, certain foods, and hormonal changes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tension headache: This type of headache is usually bilateral, non-pulsatile, and described as a band-like tightness around the head. It does not typically present with photophobia, phonophobia, or nausea.</li><li>• Option B. Tension headache:</li><li>• Option C. Cluster headache: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye, often accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as tearing, nasal congestion, and redness of the eye. They do not typically involve photophobia, phonophobia, or nausea.</li><li>• Option C. Cluster headache:</li><li>• Option D. Malingering: This refers to the intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms, motivated by external incentives such as avoiding work or obtaining drugs. There is no indication in the question to suggest malingering.</li><li>• Option D. Malingering:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Migraine is characterized by unilateral, pulsatile headaches accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea, and can be triggered by factors such as skipping meals, stress, and certain foods. Recognizing these features is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dwarf female patient brought to the hospital with a history of primary amenorrhea, webbed neck, and widely placed nipples. What is the most common karyotype associated with this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "46XXY", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "45XX", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "45X0", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "46XY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 45X0", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 45X0</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The presentation of a dwarf female patient with primary amenorrhea, webbed neck, and widely spaced nipples is characteristic of Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is a chromosomal disorder caused by complete or partial monosomy of the X chromosome, most commonly represented by the karyotype 45X0. This syndrome is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome, characterized by the karyotype 45X0, is the most common chromosomal disorder associated with features such as primary amenorrhea, webbed neck, and widely spaced nipples in females.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "CT scan given in the image is suggestive of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subdural hematoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraparenchymal hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subdural hematoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-125609.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Subdural hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The CT scan shows a crescent-shaped hemorrhage, which is characteristic of a subdural hematoma (SDH). Subdural hematomas typically occur due to tearing of the bridging veins and are crescent-shaped because they can cross suture lines but are limited by the dural reflections.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Extradural (epidural) hematoma : Usually appears as a biconvex, lenticular shape and does not cross suture lines due to the tight attachment of the dura to the skull at the sutures.</li><li>• Option A. Extradural (epidural) hematoma</li><li>• Option C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage : Blood is found within the subarachnoid space, typically around the basal cisterns or within the sulci, and is not crescent-shaped.</li><li>• Option C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage</li><li>• Option D. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage : Appears as a hyperdense area within the brain parenchyma and does not have the crescent shape seen here.</li><li>• Option D. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ A crescent-shaped hemorrhage on a CT scan, especially if it crosses suture lines, is indicative of a subdural hematoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The instrument given below is used to measure: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Air temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Air velocity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Air humidity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cooling air", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Air humidity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-112204.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Air humidity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a sling psychrometer , which is an instrument used to measure the water content, moisture content, or air humidity .</li><li>• sling psychrometer</li><li>• water content, moisture content, or air humidity</li><li>• A sling psychrometer consists of two thermometers, one of which has a wet bulb (covered in a wet cloth) and the other a dry bulb. By comparing the temperatures of the wet and dry bulbs, the relative humidity can be determined using a psychrometric chart or calculation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Air temperature: While the sling psychrometer does measure air temperature using the dry bulb thermometer, its primary purpose is to measure humidity by comparing the dry and wet bulb temperatures.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Air temperature:</li><li>• Option B. Air velocity: The sling psychrometer is not designed to measure air velocity.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Air velocity:</li><li>• Option D. Cooling air: In the past, the Kata thermometer was used to measure the cooling power of air, but it is now primarily used to assess low air velocity. The sling psychrometer is not designed to measure the cooling effect of air.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Cooling air:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sling psychrometer is an instrument used to measure air humidity by comparing the temperatures of a wet bulb and a dry bulb thermometer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn is delivered with the defect seen in the image below. Identify the condition? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrochisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Persistent vitellointestinal duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Omphalocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture2_Vdg5G7v.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Omphalocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omphalocele is a congenital abdominal wall defect where abdominal organs protrude into the base of the umbilical cord and are covered by a sac composed of peritoneum and amniotic membranes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Total number of children born to a woman in comparison with other women of same reproductive age is called:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TFR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NRR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GFR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GRR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. TFR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) TFR (Total Fertility Rate)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The total number of children born to a woman in comparison with other women of the same reproductive age group is referred to as the Total Fertility Rate (TFR).</li><li>• The following definitions are provided:</li><li>• TFR: Total number of children born to a woman GRR: Number of girls born to a woman in her entire reproductive lifespan NRR: Total number of girls born to a woman in her entire reproductive lifespan, minus mortality (taking into account their deaths) GFR: Number of live births per 1,000 women in the reproductive age group</li><li>• TFR: Total number of children born to a woman</li><li>• GRR: Number of girls born to a woman in her entire reproductive lifespan</li><li>• NRR: Total number of girls born to a woman in her entire reproductive lifespan, minus mortality (taking into account their deaths)</li><li>• GFR: Number of live births per 1,000 women in the reproductive age group</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. NRR (Net Reproduction Rate) - This option is incorrect because NRR takes into account the mortality of the girls born, not the total number of children born to a woman.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. NRR (Net Reproduction Rate)</li><li>• Option C. GFR (General Fertility Rate) - This option is incorrect because GFR is the number of live births per 1,000 women in the reproductive age group, not the total number of children born to an individual woman.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. GFR (General Fertility Rate) -</li><li>• Option D. GRR (Gross Reproduction Rate) - This option is incorrect because GRR specifically refers to the number of girls born to a woman, not the total number of children born.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. GRR (Gross Reproduction Rate)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is the measure that represents the total number of children born to a woman in comparison with other women of the same reproductive age group.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is not a feature of refeeding syndrome? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypophosphatemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypomagnesemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hyperkalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Refeeding syndrome is characterized by hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia, not hyperkalemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24y woman presents with suspected ovarian torsion. What is the investigation of choice? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ultrasound + Xray", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ultrasound + Color Doppler", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ultrasound + DSA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ultrasound + Color Doppler", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-153332.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ultrasound + Color Doppler</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The investigation of choice for suspected ovarian torsion is an ultrasound combined with Color Doppler, which helps visualize the characteristic whirlpool sign and assess blood flow to the ovary.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A teacher presents with the following condition and hoarseness of the voice. Identify.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vocal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vocal nodule", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reinke’s edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vocal polyp", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vocal nodule", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-125209.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vocal nodule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vocal nodules are benign, symmetrical lesions typically located at the junction of anterior 1/3 rd and posterior 2/3 rd of the vocal cords, often resulting from chronic vocal strain, and present with symptoms of hoarseness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old female patient with early satiety, bleeding and on examination, patient has spleen palpable till umbilicus. WBC count is 85,000/mm³ with immature WBCs seen in the peripheral blood smear. What is the diagnosis? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute Myeloid Leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic Myeloid Leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chronic Myeloid Leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The correct answer is Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML). The patient presents with massive splenomegaly, early satiety, bleeding, and a significantly elevated white blood cell (WBC) count of 85,000/mm³ with immature WBCs in the peripheral smear. These features are characteristic of CML, a type of leukemia where the bone marrow makes too many white blood cells. The presence of immature WBCs (a left shift) and massive splenomegaly are classic signs of CML.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML): While AML also involves immature WBCs, it usually presents more acutely and with less pronounced splenomegaly.</li><li>• Option A. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML):</li><li>• Diagnosed if – Myeloid blast count &gt;20%; APL (t15:17); CBF (t8:21; t16:16 inversion 16)</li><li>• Diagnosed if –</li><li>• Option C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL): CLL typically presents with a high number of mature lymphocytes rather than immature WBCs .</li><li>• Option C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL):</li><li>• immature WBCs</li><li>• Option D. Sickle cell anemia: This condition is unlikely in a 60-year-old due to autosplenectomy typically occurring by age 3-4, making splenomegaly in this age group highly unlikely. Moreover, the WBC count in sickle cell anemia is not usually elevated to this extent.</li><li>• Option D. Sickle cell anemia:</li><li>• autosplenectomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CML should be suspected in patients presenting with massive splenomegaly, significantly elevated WBC count, and immature WBCs on peripheral smear. Recognizing these signs can prompt further diagnostic evaluation, including the detection of the Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL fusion gene).</li><li>➤ CML ideally Diagnosed as – Blast count &lt;20% + Philadelphia +ve + Left shift in PS (lots of immature WBC)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the arrangement from near to far of the recti muscles attached towards the limbus? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial rectus, inferior rectus, lateral rectus, superior rectus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior rectus, lateral rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial rectus, lateral rectus, inferior rectus, superior rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medial rectus, superior rectus, lateral rectus, inferior rectus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Medial rectus, inferior rectus, lateral rectus, superior rectus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-121554.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-121601.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Medial rectus, inferior rectus, lateral rectus, superior rectus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a cross-sectional view of the eye with the extraocular muscles labeled along with their distances of attachment from the limbus (sclerocorneal junction). The order of the recti muscles from closest to farthest attachment to the limbus is:</li><li>• Medial rectus (5.5 mm) Inferior rectus (6.5 mm) Lateral rectus (6.9 mm) Superior rectus (7.7 mm)</li><li>• Medial rectus (5.5 mm)</li><li>• Inferior rectus (6.5 mm)</li><li>• Lateral rectus (6.9 mm)</li><li>• Superior rectus (7.7 mm)</li><li>• Remember :</li><li>• Remember :</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B, C and D are incorrect because they do not list the recti muscles in the correct order from nearest to farthest attachment to the limbus.</li><li>• Option B, C and D</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The order of the recti muscles from nearest to farthest attachment to the limbus (sclerocorneal junction) is: medial rectus, inferior rectus, lateral rectus, and superior rectus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was given 0.5% bupivacaine for supraclavicular brachial plexus block and suddenly developed hypotension and arrhythmias. Which of the following is the first line of management? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV Epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20% IV Intralipid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV Soda Bicarbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV Dobutamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 20% IV Intralipid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 20% IV Intralipid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient experienced toxicity due to bupivacaine, a local anesthetic. The first-line treatment for local anesthetic toxicity, including bupivacaine toxicity, is the administration of 20% IV intralipid (lipid emulsion therapy). This treatment works by acting as a \"lipid sink,\" which helps to absorb the lipophilic local anesthetic molecules and reduce their toxic effects on the cardiovascular and central nervous systems.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. IV Epinephrine : Suitable for cardiac arrest but not the first line for local anesthetic toxicity.</li><li>• Option A. IV Epinephrine</li><li>• Option C. IV Soda Bicarbonate : Used in cases of tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) toxicity causing ventricular arrhythmias but not for local anesthetic toxicity.</li><li>• Option C. IV Soda Bicarbonate</li><li>• Option D. IV Dobutamine : Used to treat heart failure and certain types of shock, but not specifically for local anesthetic toxicity</li><li>• Option D. IV Dobutamine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ The first-line treatment for bupivacaine toxicity is the administration of 20% IV intralipid (lipid emulsion therapy).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old male patient, who underwent midline laparotomy for colonic cancer one month ago, presents with a palpable abdominal bulge at the surgical site. Physical examination reveals a reducible midline incisional hernia of 12cm. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Schedule for laparoscopic mesh repair", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prescribe an abdominal belt for the daily use", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Advise observations and reassessment in 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laparoscopic closure without mesh", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Schedule for laparoscopic mesh repair", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Schedule for laparoscopic mesh repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most appropriate next step in the management of a patient with a large, reducible midline incisional hernia is to schedule a laparoscopic mesh repair, which offers a minimally invasive approach with a lower risk of recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the primary identification made by a CBNAAT or GeneXpert? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MTB + Rifampicin resistance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "MTB + Rifampicin resistance + Isoniazid resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MTB + Rifampicin resistance + Ethambutol resistance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MTB + Rifampicin resistance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121409.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121441.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Cartridge-Based Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (CBNAAT), also known as GeneXpert, is a molecular diagnostic test used for the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB) and its resistance to the anti-tubercular drug rifampicin.</li><li>• The key points are:</li><li>• The key points are:</li><li>• CBNAAT or GeneXpert is a molecular method based on real-time PCR that can detect the presence of MTB. (Detection limit à about 131 bacilli/mL of specimen) In addition to detecting MTB, it can also detect resistance to the drug rifampicin by identifying mutations in the rpoB gene, which is associated with rifampicin resistance CBNAAT/GeneXpert primarily identifies the presence of MTB and rifampicin resistance.</li><li>• CBNAAT or GeneXpert is a molecular method based on real-time PCR that can detect the presence of MTB. (Detection limit à about 131 bacilli/mL of specimen)</li><li>• In addition to detecting MTB, it can also detect resistance to the drug rifampicin by identifying mutations in the rpoB gene, which is associated with rifampicin resistance</li><li>• CBNAAT/GeneXpert primarily identifies the presence of MTB and rifampicin resistance.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other</li><li>• Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis: While CBNAAT can detect the presence of MTB, it also provides information on rifampicin resistance, making this option incomplete.</li><li>• Option A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis:</li><li>• Option C. MTB + Rifampicin resistance + Isoniazid resistance: CBNAAT does not directly detect resistance to isoniazid, another first-line anti-tubercular drug.</li><li>• Option C. MTB + Rifampicin resistance + Isoniazid resistance:</li><li>• Option D. MTB + Rifampicin resistance + Ethambutol resistance: CBNAAT does not detect resistance to ethambutol, another first-line anti-tubercular drug.</li><li>• Option D. MTB + Rifampicin resistance + Ethambutol resistance:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Cartridge-Based Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (CBNAAT or GeneXpert) is a molecular diagnostic tool that primarily identifies the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB) and its resistance to the anti-tubercular drug rifampicin by detecting mutations in the rpoB gene.</li><li>➤ Additional Information –</li><li>➤ Additional Information –</li><li>➤ Laboratory Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Laboratory Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Direct microscopy by acid-fast staining Kinyoun’s Cold acid-fast Staining Fluorescence Staining Culture Methods Conventional Media Automated Liquid Culture à BACTEC MGIT Molecular Methods Polymerase Chain reaction (PCR) Automated real Time PCR à CBNAAT, TrueNat</li><li>➤ Direct microscopy by acid-fast staining</li><li>➤ Kinyoun’s Cold acid-fast Staining</li><li>➤ Fluorescence Staining</li><li>➤ Culture Methods Conventional Media Automated Liquid Culture à BACTEC MGIT</li><li>➤ Conventional Media Automated Liquid Culture à BACTEC MGIT</li><li>➤ Conventional Media</li><li>➤ Automated Liquid Culture à BACTEC MGIT</li><li>➤ Molecular Methods</li><li>➤ Polymerase Chain reaction (PCR)</li><li>➤ Polymerase Chain reaction (PCR)</li><li>➤ Automated real Time PCR à CBNAAT, TrueNat</li><li>➤ Automated real Time PCR à CBNAAT, TrueNat</li><li>➤ RNTCP diagnostic algorithm -</li><li>➤ RNTCP diagnostic algorithm -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female had unprotected sexual intercourse and now more than 5 days have passed. She fears getting pregnant. What is the contraceptive of choice in this case? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IUCD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "OCP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levonorgestrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IUCD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IUCD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IUCD (Intrauterine Contraceptive Device) is an effective form of emergency contraception. Certain types of IUCDs, particularly the copper IUCD, can be used as emergency contraception if inserted within five days (120 hours) after unprotected intercourse. They are one of the most effective forms of emergency contraception available.</li><li>➤ IUCD (Intrauterine Contraceptive Device)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents after 5 days of unprotected intercourse for emergency contraception. What is the method of choice? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Misoprostol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levonorgestrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IUCD", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Combined OCP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IUCD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) IUCD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) is the preferred method for emergency contraception if presented within 120 hours (5 days) of unprotected intercourse. The IUCD is highly effective and provides long-term contraception, which makes it suitable for women seeking ongoing birth control.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Misoprostol: This is not used for emergency contraception; it is typically used for medical termination of pregnancy.</li><li>• Option A. Misoprostol:</li><li>• Option B. Levonorgestrel: Although effective as emergency contraception, it is most efficacious within 72 hours (3 days) of unprotected intercourse.</li><li>• Option B. Levonorgestrel:</li><li>• Option D. Combined OCP: The Yuzpe regimen, which uses a high dose of combined oral contraceptive pills, is also most effective within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.</li><li>• Option D. Combined OCP:</li><li>• Additionally, another option not mentioned in the question is ulipristal acetate, a selective progesterone receptor modulator, which can be used up to 120 hours (5 days) after unprotected intercourse. However, it is not available in India.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) is the method of choice for emergency contraception if presented within 120 hours (5 days) of unprotected intercourse, offering both immediate and long-term contraception.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child with a previous history of GTCS presents with convulsions which are ongoing since 45 minutes. What should be the appropriate management of this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valproate followed by gabapentin.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethosuximide followed by gabapentin.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbamazepine followed by gabapentin.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and is one of the first-line treatments for the acute management of seizures, particularly in status epilepticus. Following the control of immediate seizures with lorazepam, levetiracetam can be used as maintenance antiepileptic therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with foul-smell from nose and nasal obstruction. The image of the finding is given below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atrophic rhinitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhinitis sicca", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allergic rhinitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Atrophic rhinitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-124446.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Atrophic rhinitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The clinical presentation of Atrophic Rhinitis is crucial, especially the distinctive symptoms of nasal obstruction and a foul-smelling discharge, along with visible crusting as seen in the provided image. This helps differentiate it from other forms of rhinitis, which do not present with such severe crusting or malodour.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Kinesin, dynein and myosin proteins are an example of? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transport protein", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cell membrane protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cell organelle adherent protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intercellular junctional protein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transport protein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kinesin, dynein, and myosin are transport proteins essential for intracellular cargo movement along cytoskeletal filaments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to European hernia society classification (EHS), hernia labelled as PL2 implies? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary direct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary indirect", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Recurrent direct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Recurrent indirect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Primary indirect", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Primary indirect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to the EHS classification, a hernia labeled as PL2 refers to a primary indirect inguinal hernia that is having a defect of size 2 finger breadths (3 cm).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A schizophrenic patient after receiving haloperidol developed torticollis and dystonia. What will be the best drug in this situation? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase haloperidol dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Change haloperidol to clozapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give benzhexol (anticholinergic)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Change haloperidol to fluphenazine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Give benzhexol (anticholinergic)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Give benzhexol (anticholinergic)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient has developed extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), which are side effects commonly associated with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. EPS can include dystonia (muscle contractions causing twisting and repetitive movements or abnormal postures) and torticollis (a type of dystonia involving the neck muscles).</li><li>• Benzhexol , also known as trihexyphenidyl, is an anticholinergic drug that is effective in treating EPS, including acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergics help to balance the neurotransmitters in the brain, thereby reducing the symptoms of EPS.</li><li>• Benzhexol</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Increase haloperidol dose : This would likely worsen the EPS.</li><li>• Option A. Increase haloperidol dose</li><li>• Option B. Change haloperidol to clozapine : While clozapine has a lower risk of EPS, this is not an immediate treatment for the acute dystonia.</li><li>• Option B. Change haloperidol to clozapine</li><li>• Option D. Change haloperidol to fluphenazine : Fluphenazine, like haloperidol, is a potent dopamine receptor blocker and would likely exacerbate the EPS.</li><li>• Option D. Change haloperidol to fluphenazine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ The immediate treatment for drug-induced dystonia is the administration of anticholinergic drugs like benzhexol (trihexyphenidyl).</li><li>➤ The immediate treatment for drug-induced dystonia is the administration of anticholinergic drugs like benzhexol (trihexyphenidyl).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct sequence of the family cycle.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Formation → extension → contraction → dissolution", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dissolution → extension → formation → contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Formation → contraction → extension → dissolution", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Formation → contraction → dissolution → extension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Formation → extension → contraction → dissolution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Formation → extension → contraction → dissolution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The family cycle consists of the following 6 stages in the correct sequence:</li><li>• Formation: From marriage until the birth of the first child. Extension : From the birth of the first child until the birth of the last child. Complete Extension - From the birth of the last child until the first child leaves home Contraction: from first child leaves home to the last child leaves home Complete contraction: from last child leave home to the death of first spouse Dissolution: From the death of the first spouse until the death of the surviving spouse.</li><li>• Formation: From marriage until the birth of the first child.</li><li>• Formation:</li><li>• Extension : From the birth of the first child until the birth of the last child.</li><li>• Extension</li><li>• Complete Extension - From the birth of the last child until the first child leaves home</li><li>• Contraction: from first child leaves home to the last child leaves home</li><li>• Contraction:</li><li>• Complete contraction: from last child leave home to the death of first spouse</li><li>• Dissolution: From the death of the first spouse until the death of the surviving spouse.</li><li>• Dissolution:</li><li>• The correct sequence is formation, extension, contraction, and finally, dissolution.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of the family cycle is formation, extension, complete extension, contraction, complete contraction and dissolution, representing the stages from marriage to the death of the surviving spouse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a triage setting, which of the following categories requires the highest priority intervention? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Red", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Red</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In triage, patients categorized as 'Red' require the highest priority intervention due to the life-threatening nature of their injuries and the necessity of immediate treatment to save their lives.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with fatigue and pallor. Investigations show Hb = 5.8 gm/dl, low ferritin, high TIBC, low MCV, high RDW. Diagnosis is? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron Deficiency Anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Megaloblastic Anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anemia of Chronic Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sideroblastic Anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iron Deficiency Anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iron Deficiency Anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron deficiency anemia is indicated by low hemoglobin, low ferritin, high TIBC, low MCV, and high RDW.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient reports to the OPD with complaints of fatigue and pallor. Investigations indicated hemoglobin of 5.9 g/dL, increased RDW, increased total iron binding capacity, and low ferritin. The peripheral smear shows microcytosis. What is the likely diagnosis? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Megaloblastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sideroblastic anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iron deficiency anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152957.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iron deficiency anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with symptoms of fatigue and pallor, which are common findings in anemia. The investigations reveal a low hemoglobin level of 5.9 g/dL, indicating the presence of anemia. The increased red cell distribution width (RDW) suggests anisocytosis, or variation in the size of red blood cells.</li><li>• The increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC) and low ferritin levels indicate a deficiency in iron stores. Additionally, the peripheral smear shows microcytosis, which means the presence of small, hypochromic red blood cells. These findings are characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hemolytic anemia is incorrect because these patients typically have an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) due to the premature destruction of red blood cells and the release of larger, immature cells into the circulation.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Option C. Megaloblastic anemia is incorrect because it is characterized by the presence of large, macrocytic red blood cells, rather than the small, microcytic cells seen in this case.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Option D. Sideroblastic anemia is incorrect because it is typically associated with elevated ferritin levels due to increased iron storage, whereas this patient has low ferritin levels.</li><li>• Option D.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by low hemoglobin, increased RDW, increased TIBC, low ferritin, and the presence of microcytic red blood cells on peripheral smear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image and it is associated with which vitamin deficiency? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Casal necklace – vitamin B3 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rickets", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "P. alba (Pityriasis alba)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Casal necklace – vitamin B3 deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture7_PsNAG0u.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Casal necklace – vitamin B3 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Casal necklace is a classic dermatological manifestation of pellagra, which is caused by Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At what period of gestation is the nuchal translucency measured? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "8-10 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "11-14 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "16-18 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "18-20 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 11-14 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-123543.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 11-14 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Nuchal translucency (NT) measurement is an ultrasound marker used for the screening of chromosomal abnormalities, particularly Down syndrome (trisomy 21). The optimal time to measure NT is between 11 and 14 weeks of gestation, more specifically between 11 weeks and 13 weeks and 6 days. During this period, the NT measurement is most accurate and predictive. The NT scan involves measuring the clear space in the tissue at the back of the baby's neck.</li><li>• An absent Nasal Bone (NB) and increased NT measurement both are the marker of Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Nuchal translucency should be measured between 11 and 14 weeks of gestation to effectively screen for chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs cause visual problems as an adverse effect? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethambutol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyrazinamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ethambutol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ethambutol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethambutol is the anti-tubercular drug known for its association with visual problems. It can cause optic neuritis and changes in color vision, which may be reversible upon discontinuation of the drug.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which appendicular carcinoma is most commonly associated with pseudomyxoma peritoneii? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucinous cystadenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucinous adenocarcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoid tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serous cystadenoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucinous adenocarcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mucinous adenocarcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucinous adenocarcinoma, particularly of the appendix, is the most common appendicular carcinoma associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei, characterized by the accumulation of mucinous material in the peritoneal cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used as a diagnostic test for CML? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FISH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bone marrow Aspiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LAP score", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Karyotyping", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. FISH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) FISH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Fluorescent In-Situ Hybridization (FISH) is the gold standard for diagnosing Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML). This test detects the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome, which is the result of a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, creating the BCR-ABL fusion gene. This fusion gene produces a protein with abnormal tyrosine kinase activity, which drives the pathogenesis of CML.</li><li>• Fluorescent In-Situ Hybridization (FISH) is the gold standard for diagnosing Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Bone marrow Aspiration : While it can show increased cellularity and myeloid hyperplasia, i.e. help in assessing the extent of disease and marrow involvement but is not definitive for diagnosing CML.</li><li>• Option B. Bone marrow Aspiration</li><li>• Option C. LAP score : Low in CML but also low in other conditions, hence not specific.</li><li>• Option C. LAP score</li><li>• Option D. Karyotyping : While it can detect chromosomal abnormalities, it is less sensitive compared to FISH for detecting the BCR-ABL fusion gene.</li><li>• Option D. Karyotyping</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Fluorescent In-Situ Hybridization (FISH) is the gold standard diagnostic test for Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) because it specifically identifies the BCR-ABL fusion gene.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding marked in the image ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prostatomegaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Membranous urethral stricture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bulbar urethral stricture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal urethra", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bulbar urethral stricture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-105321.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bulbar urethral stricture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Urethral strictures, particularly in the bulbar region, are commonly evaluated and diagnosed with a urethrogram, which provides clear visualization of any narrowing or obstruction along the urethral tract.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient comes with excruciating ear pain, bloody discharge from the ear and HbA1c of 10. What is the diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otitis externa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Necrotizing otitis externa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute otitis media", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Necrotizing otitis externa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Necrotizing otitis externa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a diabetic patient presenting with excruciating ear pain and bloody otorrhea, the diagnosis of necrotizing otitis externa should be considered, especially when the patient has a significantly elevated HbA1c, indicating poor glycemic control.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Criteria for FRU include all except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood storage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surgical intervention", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24-hour MTP facility", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "RTI/STI management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 24-hour MTP facility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 24-hour MTP facility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The criteria for a functional First Referral Unit (FRU) include:</li><li>• criteria for a functional First Referral Unit (FRU)</li><li>• 24-hour delivery services Emergency obstetric care, including surgical intervention (implying surgical intervention is a criterion) Blood storage facility RTI/STI management Newborn care Care of sick children Full range of family planning services, including safe abortion services (but not explicitly 24-hour MTP facility) Essential laboratory services Transport facility</li><li>• 24-hour delivery services</li><li>• Emergency obstetric care, including surgical intervention (implying surgical intervention is a criterion)</li><li>• Blood storage facility</li><li>• RTI/STI management</li><li>• Newborn care</li><li>• Care of sick children</li><li>• Full range of family planning services, including safe abortion services (but not explicitly 24-hour MTP facility)</li><li>• Essential laboratory services</li><li>• Transport facility</li><li>• The criteria \"not included\" for an FRU is the availability of a 24-hour MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) facility. It states that while 24-hour delivery services are available, a 24-hour MTP facility is not explicitly listed as a criterion for an FRU.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a functional First Referral Unit (FRU), the criteria include 24-hour delivery services, emergency obstetric care (including surgical intervention), blood storage facility, RTI/STI management, newborn care, care of sick children, family planning services, essential laboratory services, and transport facility. However, the availability of a 24-hour MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) facility is not explicitly a criterion for an FRU.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug of choice for malaria (plasmodium vivax) in pregnancy? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chloroquine + Primaquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Artesunate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chloroquine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chloroquine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment of Malaria in Pregnancy</li><li>➤ Treatment of Malaria in Pregnancy</li><li>➤ Chloroquine – 600 mg base P.O. followed by 300 mg 12 hours later. Then 300 mg daily for next 2 days. To prevent relapse during pregnancy, 300 mg is to be taken weekly until delivery. For radical cure, primaquine should be postponed until pregnancy is over. Parasites resistant to chloroquine should be given quinine under supervision. Patients with severe anemia may need blood transfusion. Folic acid 10 mg should be given daily to prevent megaloblastic anemia. Complicated malaria: Artesunate IV 2.4 mg/kg at 0, 12 and 24 hours, then daily thereafter. Oral therapy (2 mg/kg) is started when the patient is stable. Alternatively, Quinine IV followed by oral therapy is given.</li><li>➤ Chloroquine – 600 mg base P.O. followed by 300 mg 12 hours later. Then 300 mg daily for next 2 days.</li><li>➤ To prevent relapse during pregnancy, 300 mg is to be taken weekly until delivery.</li><li>➤ For radical cure, primaquine should be postponed until pregnancy is over.</li><li>➤ Parasites resistant to chloroquine should be given quinine under supervision.</li><li>➤ Patients with severe anemia may need blood transfusion.</li><li>➤ Folic acid 10 mg should be given daily to prevent megaloblastic anemia.</li><li>➤ Complicated malaria: Artesunate IV 2.4 mg/kg at 0, 12 and 24 hours, then daily thereafter. Oral therapy (2 mg/kg) is started when the patient is stable.</li><li>➤ Alternatively, Quinine IV followed by oral therapy is given.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Central venules have which type of cells in the center? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neutrophils", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Macrophages", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RBCs", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. RBCs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) RBCs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In central venules, RBCs are found in the center due to their shape, flexibility, and the dynamics of parabolic flow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Philadelphia chromosome is caused by translocation of which of the following chromosomes? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12 and 9", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "22 and 8", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "22 and 9", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "9 and 11", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 22 and 9", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 22 and 9</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Philadelphia chromosome, a hallmark genetic abnormality in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), is caused by a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22, denoted as t (9;22) (q34;q11). This translocation results in the fusion of the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9, creating the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene.</li><li>• t (9;22) (q34;q11).</li><li>• BCR-ABL1 fusion gene.</li><li>• The BCR-ABL1 fusion gene encodes a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, which is responsible for the uncontrolled proliferation and survival of myeloid cells in CML. The enhanced tyrosine kinase activity of the BCR-ABL1 fusion protein leads to the development of this malignancy.</li><li>• The specific involvement of the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22 in the translocation can be denoted as t(9q;22q) or t(9;22)(q34;q11), where 'q' represents the long arm, and '34' and '11' represent the specific bands on the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22, respectively, where the breakpoints occur.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Philadelphia chromosome, the hallmark genetic abnormality in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), is caused by a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22, denoted as t(9;22)(q34;q11). This translocation creates the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene, which encodes a constitutively active tyrosine kinase responsible for the development of CML.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does it mean when a drug has a bioavailability of 30 percent? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "70 percent of the drug undergoes first pass metabolism in liver.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The drug is 30 percent pure in its chemical composition.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The drug is 30 percent potent in producing therapeutic effect.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30 percent of the drug reaches the systemic circulation in unchanged form", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 30 percent of the drug reaches the systemic circulation in unchanged form", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about laryngomalacia? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Expiratory stridor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Improves in supine position", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most common in newborn", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgical management is required in most children", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Most common in newborn", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Most common in newborn</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laryngomalacia is characterized by inspiratory stridor that typically worsens in the supine position and is most commonly diagnosed in newborns. The condition generally resolves on its own without the need for surgical intervention in most cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In seat belt injury, the most commonly involved organ is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver + Spleen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lungs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Head of Pancreas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hollow viscus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hollow viscus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hollow viscus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Seat belts are known to decrease mortality and prevent head injuries in accidents. However, they can increase the risk of certain abdominal and thoracic injuries.</li><li>• Among all the thoracic and abdominal injuries associated with seat belt use, the maximum damage occurs to three organs: mesentery, omentum, and bowel (hollow viscus). This combination of injuries is known as the \"seat belt syndrome.\" Therefore, the most commonly involved organ in seat belt injury is the hollow viscus.</li><li>• three organs: mesentery, omentum, and bowel (hollow viscus).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. A. Liver + Spleen: Although liver and spleen injuries can occur in seat belt injuries, they are not the most commonly involved organs compared to the hollow viscus.</li><li>• Option. A. Liver + Spleen:</li><li>• Option. B. Lungs: While thoracic injuries can be increased due to seat belt use, the lungs are not the most commonly involved organ in seat belt injuries.</li><li>• Option. B. Lungs:</li><li>• Option. C. Head of Pancreas: The head of the pancreas is not the most commonly involved organ in seat belt injuries compared to the hollow viscus.</li><li>• Option. C. Head of Pancreas:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In seat belt injuries, the most commonly involved organ is the hollow viscus (bowel), along with the mesentery and omentum, constituting the \"seat belt syndrome.\" Although seat belts are protective and prevent head injuries, they can increase the risk of certain abdominal and thoracic injuries, with the hollow viscus being the most frequently affected.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10 year old girl post tonsillectomy ate a packet of chips 2-3 days after the surgery and now came to the hospital with oral bleed. What shall be the management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibiotics with semisolid food", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surgical exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conservative management with observation and ice chips.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immediate cauterization of the bleeding site", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Antibiotics with semisolid food", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Antibiotics with semisolid food</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-tonsillectomy bleeding is a potential complication that can be managed conservatively with antibiotics and dietary modifications, such as semisolid food, to prevent further mechanical trauma to the surgical site. However, the approach to management should be tailored to the severity of the bleeding and the clinical condition of the patient, with more aggressive interventions like surgical exploration or cauterization reserved for significant or persistent bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The marked line corresponds to which vertebral level? ( FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T12", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "L2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. L3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-094612.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-123059-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. L3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a diagram with a line indicating the subcostal plane, which corresponds to a specific vertebral level. The subcostal plane is an important anatomical landmark and is used to divide the abdomen into regions for clinical and surgical purposes.</li><li>• Subcostal Plane: The subcostal plane passes through the lowest point of the costal margin, which is generally at the level of the third lumbar vertebra (L3). Anatomical Landmarks: The subcostal plane is a horizontal plane that typically lies just below the rib cage. It is an important reference point for dividing the abdomen into regions. The umbilicus, lies at the level of the L3-L4 junction, but the subcostal plane is typically slightly superior to this and corresponds to L3.</li><li>• Subcostal Plane: The subcostal plane passes through the lowest point of the costal margin, which is generally at the level of the third lumbar vertebra (L3).</li><li>• Anatomical Landmarks: The subcostal plane is a horizontal plane that typically lies just below the rib cage. It is an important reference point for dividing the abdomen into regions. The umbilicus, lies at the level of the L3-L4 junction, but the subcostal plane is typically slightly superior to this and corresponds to L3.</li><li>• The subcostal plane is a horizontal plane that typically lies just below the rib cage. It is an important reference point for dividing the abdomen into regions. The umbilicus, lies at the level of the L3-L4 junction, but the subcostal plane is typically slightly superior to this and corresponds to L3.</li><li>• The subcostal plane is a horizontal plane that typically lies just below the rib cage.</li><li>• It is an important reference point for dividing the abdomen into regions.</li><li>• The umbilicus, lies at the level of the L3-L4 junction, but the subcostal plane is typically slightly superior to this and corresponds to L3.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. T12: This is incorrect. T12 is located higher up in the thoracic region.</li><li>• Option A. T12:</li><li>• Option B. L1: This is incorrect. The transpyloric plane, passes through the level of L1.</li><li>• Option B. L1:</li><li>• Option C. L2 : This is incorrect. L2 is also superior to the subcostal plane.</li><li>• Option C. L2</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The subcostal plane is an important anatomical landmark that typically corresponds to the level of the third lumbar vertebra (L3), helping to divide the abdomen into regions for clinical and surgical reference.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old boy is having tapping movements and lack of attention. He seems to be irritated, disturbing others, and restless most of the time. What should be the drug to be given? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methylphenidate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atomoxetine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Guanfacine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clozapine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methylphenidate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Methylphenidate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methylphenidate is the drug of choice for managing ADHD in children six years and older due to its effectiveness in reducing symptoms of inattention and hyperactivity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Defect of enzyme tyrosine transaminase (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type I tyrosinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2 tyrosinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alkaptonuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type III tyrosinemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 2 tyrosinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-150147.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type 2 tyrosinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Tyrosinemia is a genetic disorder characterized by the body's inability to effectively break down the amino acid tyrosine. There are three types of tyrosinemia, each associated with a specific enzyme deficiency:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Type I tyrosinemia : This type is associated with a deficiency in fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (FAH), not tyrosine transaminase.</li><li>• Option A. Type I tyrosinemia</li><li>• Option C. Alkaptonuria : This condition involves a deficiency in the enzyme homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase, not tyrosine transaminase.</li><li>• Option C. Alkaptonuria</li><li>• Option D. Type III tyrosinemia : This type involves a deficiency in 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (HPPD), not tyrosine transaminase.</li><li>• Option D. Type III tyrosinemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type 2 tyrosinemia is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme t yrosine t ransaminase and is also known as Richner-Hanhart syndrome or Oculocutaneous syndrome.</li><li>➤ 2</li><li>➤ t</li><li>➤ t</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents to the clinic with fatigue, joint pain, swollen gums. Physical examination reveals fatigue on her skin. Which of the following can be given to treat her condition? (FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-150309.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The clinical presentation of fatigue, joint pain, swollen gums, and specific skin manifestations such as perifollicular hemorrhages is characteristic of vitamin C deficiency, known as scurvy.</li><li>• Scurvy occurs due to inadequate intake of vitamin C (ascorbic acid), which is essential for collagen synthesis. Collagen is a critical component of connective tissues, and its deficiency leads to weakened blood vessels, poor wound healing, and the symptoms observed in scurvy.</li><li>• Key clinical features of scurvy include:</li><li>• Key clinical features of scurvy include:</li><li>• Fatigue : Generalized weakness and tiredness due to impaired energy metabolism. Joint pain : Due to bleeding within joints and weakened connective tissues. Swollen gums : Gingival swelling, bleeding gums, and dental issues. Skin manifestations : Perifollicular hemorrhages and petechiae due to fragile blood vessels.</li><li>• Fatigue : Generalized weakness and tiredness due to impaired energy metabolism.</li><li>• Fatigue</li><li>• Joint pain : Due to bleeding within joints and weakened connective tissues.</li><li>• Joint pain</li><li>• Swollen gums : Gingival swelling, bleeding gums, and dental issues.</li><li>• Swollen gums</li><li>• Skin manifestations : Perifollicular hemorrhages and petechiae due to fragile blood vessels.</li><li>• Skin manifestations</li><li>• The treatment for scurvy is supplementation with vitamin C, which will help restore collagen synthesis and resolve the symptoms.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin D : Deficiency in vitamin D typically presents with symptoms related to bone health, such as rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults, rather than the symptoms described here. Option C. Vitamin A : Vitamin A deficiency primarily affects vision (night blindness), immune function, and skin health. It does not typically cause the symptoms described. Option D. Vitamin E : Vitamin E deficiency is rare and usually presents with neurological symptoms and hemolytic anemia, not with the symptoms described in this case.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin D : Deficiency in vitamin D typically presents with symptoms related to bone health, such as rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults, rather than the symptoms described here.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin D</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin A : Vitamin A deficiency primarily affects vision (night blindness), immune function, and skin health. It does not typically cause the symptoms described.</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin A</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin E : Vitamin E deficiency is rare and usually presents with neurological symptoms and hemolytic anemia, not with the symptoms described in this case.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin E</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Vitamin C deficiency (scurvy) presents with fatigue, joint pain, swollen gums, and specific skin manifestations. Treatment is supplementation with vitamin C.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with history of HIV was started on anti-retroviral therapy consisting of lamivudine 300 mg, tenofovir 150 mg and dolutegravir 50 mg once daily at night. Few weeks later, he developed tuberculosis and was started on anti-tubercular drugs. Which of the following dose adjustment may be required in this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No dose adjustment is required", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Add tenofovir 150 mg in the morning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Add lamivudine 300 mg in the morning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Add dolutegravir 50 mg in the morning", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Add dolutegravir 50 mg in the morning", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Add dolutegravir 50 mg in the morning</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ In patients on a dolutegravir-based regimen who start rifampicin-based anti-tubercular therapy, an additional dose of dolutegravir 50 mg should be taken in the morning (12 hours apart from the regular dose) to maintain effective drug levels and manage HIV effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image: (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urachal cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Omphalocele with cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Umbilical adenoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Omphalocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/14/picture43.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Omphalocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omphalocele is a birth defect characterized by an abdominal wall defect with herniation of abdominal contents into an overlying sac due to a failure of normal return of contents during embryonic development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs can increase glucose excretion in urine? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glimepiride", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liraglutide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acarbose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Empagliflozin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Empagliflozin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Empagliflozin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Empagliflozin is an SGLT2 inhibitor .</li><li>• an SGLT2 inhibitor</li><li>• Drugs in this class (such as empagliflozin, canagliflozin, and dapagliflozin) inhibit the sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) in the kidneys, leading to increased glucose excretion in the urine (glycosuria). This helps lower blood glucose levels.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Glimepiride: A sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas.</li><li>• Option A. Glimepiride:</li><li>• Option B. Liraglutide: A GLP-1 receptor agonist that increases insulin secretion, slows gastric emptying, and promotes satiety.</li><li>• Option B. Liraglutide:</li><li>• Option C. Acarbose: An alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that delays carbohydrate absorption in the intestines, leading to increased excretion of undigested carbohydrates in the stools.</li><li>• Option C. Acarbose:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Empagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor, increases glucose excretion in the urine by inhibiting the sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 in the kidneys.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant female who is a known case of bronchial asthma presented to the hospital with blood pressure of 210/110 mm Hg. Which of the following is the preferred drug for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral Labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV Labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ramipril", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nifedipine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nifedipine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In managing hypertension in a pregnant patient with a history of bronchial asthma, the choice of antihypertensive medication is critical due to the contraindications of certain drug classes in both pregnancy and asthma.</li><li>• Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that is considered safe in pregnancy and does not cause bronchoconstriction, making it the preferred choice for hypertensive management in a pregnant patient with asthma.</li><li>• Nifedipine</li><li>• Nicardipine, another calcium channel blocker, can also be used, especially in IV form, but nifedipine is often chosen due to its safety profile and efficacy.</li><li>• Nicardipine,</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Oral Labetalol and Option C. IV Labetalol : Contraindicated in asthma due to bronchoconstriction. These drugs can exacerbate bronchial asthma by causing bronchoconstriction, making them unsuitable for patients with asthma.</li><li>• Option B. Oral Labetalol</li><li>• Option C. IV Labetalol</li><li>• Option D. Ramipril : ACE inhibitors like Ramipril are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their association with fetal toxicity, including renal damage and oligohydramnios</li><li>• Option D. Ramipril</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ For hypertensive management in a pregnant patient with bronchial asthma, nifedipine is the preferred drug due to its safety in pregnancy and lack of bronchoconstrictive effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the milestone shown in the image? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transfer objects from one hand to another", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bidextrous approach", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hand regard", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hands come in midline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transfer objects from one hand to another", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture3_LwvitbY.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Transfer objects from one hand to another</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ By around 6 months of age, infants typically develop the ability to transfer objects from one hand to another, demonstrating emerging fine motor skills and hand-eye coordination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male patient presents with a chronic productive cough and progressive difficulty in breathing. On examination, his FEV1% is significantly reduced. Based on this finding, which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "COPD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary Fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. COPD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) COPD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is characterized by a chronic productive cough, progressive difficulty in breathing, and a significant reduction in FEV1%. It is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary symptoms in older adults, particularly those with a history of smoking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic male presented to the emergency with sudden onset of abdominal pain radiating to the back, which is aggravated on lying down. Serum amylase and lipase levels are elevated. Which of the following should be avoided in managing the condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NPO initially to avoid pancreatic stimulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infusion of 5% Dextrose", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enteral nutrition should be considered 2-3 days after admission in pancreatitis instead of total parenteral nutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Early initiation of oral feeds in mild acute pancreatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Infusion of 5% Dextrose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Infusion of 5% Dextrose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of acute pancreatitis, a condition confirmed by elevated serum amylase and lipase levels.</li><li>• Infusion of 5% Dextrose : This should be avoided in managing acute pancreatitis. Patients often experience hyperglycemia, and the administration of dextrose could worsen this condition. Preferred intravenous fluids for rehydration and initial resuscitation in acute pancreatitis are normal saline (NS) or Ringer's lactate (RL).</li><li>• Infusion of 5% Dextrose</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. NPO initially to avoid pancreatic stimulation : Keeping the patient NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to avoid stimulating the pancreas and exacerbating the condition.</li><li>• Option A. NPO initially to avoid pancreatic stimulation</li><li>• Option C. Enteral nutrition should be considered 2-3 days after admission in pancreatitis instead of total parenteral nutrition : This is correct. Early enteral nutrition is preferred over total parenteral nutrition as it helps maintain gut integrity and reduce the risk of infection.</li><li>• Option C. Enteral nutrition should be considered 2-3 days after admission in pancreatitis instead of total parenteral nutrition</li><li>• Option D. Early initiation of oral feeds in mild acute pancreatitis : This is also correct. For mild cases, early reintroduction of oral feeding is beneficial.</li><li>• Option D. Early initiation of oral feeds in mild acute pancreatitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ In the management of acute pancreatitis, avoid the infusion of 5% dextrose due to the risk of exacerbating hyperglycemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male presents with complaints of pain in the calf muscles after walking for a certain distance. The pain is relieved by rest and reoccurs upon resuming walking. Based on Boyd’s classification, what is the most likely grade? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grade I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grade II", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grade III", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grade IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Grade III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Grade III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The patient's symptoms of calf pain upon walking that is relieved by rest is indicative of intermittent claudication, likely corresponding to Grade III of Boyde.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "2 handkerchiefs with blood stains are found at a crime scene. What is the most appropriate procedure for handling these items? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Place them in same plastic bag and seat it for preservation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Preserve in envelope or paper bag", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fold the handkerchiefs in such a manner that the stained edges come together", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Place them in different plastic bags and seal for preservation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Preserve in envelope or paper bag", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Preserve in envelope or paper bag</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When handling blood-stained items found at a crime scene, preserve them in an envelope or paper bag to allow for air circulation, and dry the stains in the shade or by air drying to prevent DNA denaturation. Avoid using plastic bags or exposing the stains to direct sunlight or heat.</li><li>➤ Avoid using plastic bags or exposing the stains to direct sunlight or heat.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The patient is having the following hand movements. Which of the following conditions is responsible? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thyrotoxicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypercarbia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemiballismus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoxia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypercarbia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-05-170640.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypercarbia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The hand movements shown in the image are characteristic of asterixis or flapping tremors, which is a form of negative myoclonus.</li><li>• Asterixis is most commonly associated with hepatic encephalopathy but can also be seen in other conditions such as hypercarbia (CO2 narcosis).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Thyrotoxicosis: This condition typically presents with fine tremors rather than the flapping tremors seen in asterixis.</li><li>• Option A. Thyrotoxicosis:</li><li>• Option C. Hemiballismus: This condition involves violent, involuntary movements of one side of the body, not the flapping tremors associated with asterixis.</li><li>• Option C. Hemiballismus:</li><li>• Option D. Hypoxia: While hypoxia can cause various neurological symptoms, it is not specifically associated with asterixis.</li><li>• Option D. Hypoxia:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asterixis, or flapping tremors, is a form of negative myoclonus often associated with hepatic encephalopathy and hypercarbia (CO2 narcosis). Recognizing these characteristic hand movements can help identify underlying conditions such as hypercarbia. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the substance used in PET scan? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoro-deoxy-glucose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tc99m pertechnatte", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iodine-123", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tc99-M", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fluoro-deoxy-glucose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fluoro-deoxy-glucose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Fluoro-deoxy-glucose (FDG) is the primary tracer used in PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scans to image metabolic activity of tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given instrument. (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Montgomery T tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracheoesophageal prosthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blom-Singer prosthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grommet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Montgomery T tube", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-125620.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Montgomery T tube</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old male presented with infertility, and he has chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, and situs inversus. What is the likely disorder?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kartagener's syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucoviscidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klinefelter syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kartagener's syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kartagener's syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Kartagener's syndrome, a subset of primary ciliary dyskinesia, is characterized by the triad of chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, and situs inversus.</li><li>• Infertility in males is also a common feature due to the dysfunction of cilia and flagella, leading to impaired sperm motility.</li><li>• Situs inversus is a condition where the major visceral organs are mirrored from their normal positions, often seen in Kartagener's syndrome.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Cystic fibrosis : While patients with cystic fibrosis may also present with sinusitis, infertility, and bronchiectasis, they do not typically have situs inversus, which is specific to Kartagener's syndrome.</li><li>• Option B. Cystic fibrosis</li><li>• Option C. Mucoviscidosis : This is another term for cystic fibrosis, and thus the same reasoning applies as above.</li><li>• Option C. Mucoviscidosis</li><li>• Option D. Klinefelter syndrome : This genetic disorder can present with infertility but does not include chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, or situs inversus.</li><li>• Option D. Klinefelter syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kartagener's syndrome is characterized by the triad of chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, and situs inversus, and is associated with infertility in males due to primary ciliary dyskinesia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Radioactive tracer used in PET scans:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "F18-Deoxyglucose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tc99m", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "I131", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Co60", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. F18-Deoxyglucose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) F18-Deoxyglucose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The most commonly used radioactive tracer in PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scans is F18-deoxyglucose (FDG) . FDG is a glucose analog that gets taken up by metabolically active cells, including cancer cells, making it very useful for identifying areas of high metabolic activity such as tumors and sites of inflammation.</li><li>• F18-deoxyglucose (FDG)</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Tc99m (Technetium-99m) : Used in certain SPECT (Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography) scans, not PET scans. It is used for a variety of diagnostic imaging purposes, including cardiac and skeletal imaging.</li><li>• Option B. Tc99m (Technetium-99m)</li><li>• Option C. I131 (Iodine-131) : Used primarily for radioactive iodine ablation therapy in thyroid cancer and hyperthyroidism, not for PET scans.</li><li>• Option C. I131 (Iodine-131)</li><li>• Option D. Co60 (Cobalt-60) : Used in external beam radiotherapy for cancer treatment, not for PET scans.</li><li>• Option D. Co60 (Cobalt-60)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ F18-deoxyglucose (FDG) is the primary radioactive tracer used in PET scans for detecting areas of high metabolic activity, such as tumors and inflammatory sites.</li><li>➤ F18-deoxyglucose (FDG)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old child presents with history of fall leading to injury to the right elbow. The X-ray is given below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elbow dislocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial head dislocation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supracondylar fracture of humerus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral condyle fracture of humerus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Radial head dislocation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175518.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175538.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175553.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175606.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175617.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175630.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Radial head dislocation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the radial head dislocation. Since it is common at the age between 4-10 years, it is the correct diagnosis of the given condition.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the radial head dislocation.</li><li>➤ Since it is common at the age between 4-10 years, it is the correct diagnosis of the given condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant lady comes to the OPD for a regular check-up. She has decreased iron levels and the doctor prescribed her iron medication. Which of the following decreases the iron absorption from the gut? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amla", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lemon juice", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tea", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sprouts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tea contains tannins that decrease iron absorption from the gut by binding to non-heme iron and forming insoluble complexes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following regulates the body temperature? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothalamus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basal ganglia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalamus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Limbic system", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypothalamus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The regulation of body temperature is primarily controlled by the hypothalamus. Specifically, the anterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for cooling mechanisms, akin to standing in front of an air conditioner during hot weather. Conversely, the posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus manages warming mechanisms, similar to standing near an exhaust to receive warm air during cold weather.</li><li>• anterior nucleus</li><li>• cooling</li><li>• posterior nucleus</li><li>• warming</li><li>• This dual role in temperature regulation is unique to the hypothalamus.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Basal ganglia: The basal ganglia are involved in the coordination of movement and motor control, but they do not play a role in temperature regulation.</li><li>• Option B. Basal ganglia:</li><li>• Option C. Thalamus: The thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex, and does not regulate body temperature.</li><li>• Option C. Thalamus:</li><li>• Option D. Limbic system: The limbic system is involved in emotions, behavior, and long-term memory, but it does not have a role in the regulation of body temperature.</li><li>• Option D. Limbic system:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hypothalamus, specifically its anterior and posterior nuclei, is responsible for regulating body temperature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman presents with a genital lesion as shown below. What is the best treatment option for her? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgical excision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Podophyllin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5% imiquimod", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cryotherapy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cryotherapy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-125512.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cryotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts a genital wart, which is caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), specifically referred to as condyloma acuminata. In the context of pregnancy, the treatment options for genital warts must be chosen with caution to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.</li><li>• Treatment Considerations in Pregnancy:</li><li>• Cryotherapy: This method involves freezing the wart with liquid nitrogen, which is a safe and effective treatment for genital warts during pregnancy. It is widely preferred due to its safety profile and effectiveness. Trichloroacetic acid is another safe option during pregnancy for treating genital warts.</li><li>• Cryotherapy: This method involves freezing the wart with liquid nitrogen, which is a safe and effective treatment for genital warts during pregnancy. It is widely preferred due to its safety profile and effectiveness.</li><li>• Trichloroacetic acid is another safe option during pregnancy for treating genital warts.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Surgical excision: Though safe, it is not the first-line treatment in most cases unless the warts are extensive.</li><li>• Option A. Surgical excision:</li><li>• Option B. Podophyllin: Not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.</li><li>• Option B. Podophyllin:</li><li>• Option C. 5% imiquimod: Also avoided during pregnancy due to safety concerns.</li><li>• Option C. 5% imiquimod:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best treatment option for genital warts in a pregnant woman is cryotherapy, as it is safe and effective during pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the shown congenital anomaly in which the intestinal loops are present outside the abdominal cavity covered by amniotic membrane. (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastroschisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Omphalocele with enteric cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastroschisis with enteric cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Omphalocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-130026.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Omphalocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts a congenital anomaly known as omphalocele. This condition is characterized by the presence of intestinal loops and sometimes other abdominal organs outside the abdominal cavity. These organs are covered by a transparent sac composed of the amniotic membrane, peritoneum, and Wharton's jelly.</li><li>• Omphalocele Characteristics: In omphalocele, the herniated organs protrude through the umbilical ring and are covered by the amniotic membrane. This condition is associated with various other congenital anomalies and syndromes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Gastroschisis : This is incorrect. In gastroschisis, the intestines protrude through a defect in the abdominal wall, usually to the right of the umbilical cord, without any covering membrane. The exposed intestines are directly exposed to the amniotic fluid, which distinguishes it from omphalocele.</li><li>• Option A. Gastroschisis</li><li>• Option C. Omphalocele with enteric cyst : This is incorrect. While an omphalocele can be associated with various anomalies, the specific mention of an enteric cyst is not a standard characteristic of typical omphalocele presentations.</li><li>• Option C. Omphalocele with enteric cyst</li><li>• Option D. Gastroschisis with enteric cyst: This is incorrect. Gastroschisis involves exposed intestines without a covering membrane. The presence of an enteric cyst does not align with the typical presentation of gastroschisis.</li><li>• Option D. Gastroschisis with enteric cyst:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omphalocele is a congenital anomaly where the intestines and possibly other organs protrude through the umbilical ring, covered by the amniotic membrane. This differentiates it from gastroschisis, where the intestines are exposed without a covering membrane.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which biological method will you use to control mosquito larvae? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DDT Spray 3 times a month", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Distribute mosquito nets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gambusia fish", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyrethrum spray", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gambusia fish", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gambusia fish</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The biological method for controlling mosquito larvae involves the use of larvivorous fish species, such as Gambusia, which feed on and help to control the population of mosquito larvae in their aquatic habitats.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25 year old woman discovers a well-defined, mobile and rubbery breast lump measuring 2.5 x 6 cm on self-examination. The lesion is painless and has been stable over several months. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the described characteristics?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibroadenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "DCIS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Invasive ductal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraductal papilloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fibroadenoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-153022.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-122256.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fibroadenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given scenario describes a young female with a well-defined, mobile lump in the breast, which is characteristic of a breast mouse or fibroadenoma. Fibroadenomas are benign breast tumors that typically present as freely mobile masses in young women. They consist of an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the breast stroma. Depending on the arrangement of the fibrous tissue, fibroadenomas can be classified as pericanalicular or intracanalicular subtypes. Notably, the use of the immunosuppressive drug cyclosporine has been associated with an increased risk of developing fibroadenomas.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. DCIS (Ductal Carcinoma In Situ), Option C. Invasive ductal carcinoma, and Option D. Intraductal papilloma are all malignant or precancerous lesions that would typically present with additional signs such as skin dimpling, nipple retraction, or ulceration, rather than as a mobile, painless lump in a young woman.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibroadenomas are the most common cause of benign, mobile breast lumps in young women. They are characterized by an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the breast stroma and may be associated with the use of cyclosporine.</li><li>➤ may be associated with the use of cyclosporine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked chamber? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right atrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left atrium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right ventricle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left ventricle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Left atrium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-122614.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-122712.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Left atrium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The radiological image shows a transverse section of the heart.</li><li>• In a CT scan taken with the patient lying supine, the right atrium and right ventricle will be seen on the front side, while the left atrium and left ventricle will be at the back. The base (posterior surface) of the heart is mainly formed by the left atrium (two-thirds) and the right atrium (one-third).</li><li>• In the image, the vertebra is at the back, and the aorta is on the left side in front of the vertebra. The esophagus is closely related to the base of the heart, particularly the left atrium. The chamber marked in the question is the one just in front of the esophagus is the left atrium.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Right atrium: The right atrium is towards the right side and forms the right border of the heart in this view.</li><li>• Option A. Right atrium:</li><li>• Option C. Right ventricle: The right ventricle lies on the front side along with the right atrium. It forms the sternocostal surface of the heart. The marked chamber is at the back, so it cannot be the right ventricle.</li><li>• Option C. Right ventricle:</li><li>• Option D. Left ventricle : The left ventricle lies next to the left atrium at the back in this transverse section. However, the marked chamber is the one closest to the esophagus, which is the left atrium, not the left ventricle.</li><li>• Option D. Left ventricle</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a transverse CT section of the heart, the right atrium and ventricle are seen anteriorly, while the left atrium and ventricle are seen posteriorly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the histopathological image. (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Basal cell carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-173242.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Basal cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The histopathological image shows a characteristic palisading arrangement of hyperchromatic (darkly stained) cells, which is indicative of basal cell carcinoma (BCC).</li><li>• Basal cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that arises from the basal cells of the epidermis. It is characterized by the presence of basaloid cells arranged in a palisading pattern, with peripheral cells exhibiting hyperchromatic nuclei and a paler center.</li><li>• The key features that suggest this image represents basal cell carcinoma include:</li><li>• Palisading arrangement: The tumor cells are arranged in a distinct palisading pattern, with peripheral cells arranged in a radial fashion around the center. Hyperchromatic cells: The cells at the periphery of the tumor nests have darkly stained (hyperchromatic) nuclei, which is a characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma. Lack of keratinization: Unlike squamous cell carcinoma, there is no evidence of keratinization (formation of keratin pearls) in this image.</li><li>• Palisading arrangement: The tumor cells are arranged in a distinct palisading pattern, with peripheral cells arranged in a radial fashion around the center.</li><li>• Hyperchromatic cells: The cells at the periphery of the tumor nests have darkly stained (hyperchromatic) nuclei, which is a characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma.</li><li>• Lack of keratinization: Unlike squamous cell carcinoma, there is no evidence of keratinization (formation of keratin pearls) in this image.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Squamous cell carcinoma: This type of skin cancer typically shows evidence of keratinization and does not exhibit the distinctive palisading pattern observed in the image.</li><li>• Option B. Squamous cell carcinoma:</li><li>• Option C. Adenocarcinoma: This is a type of cancer that originates from glandular epithelial cells and is not typically found in the skin.</li><li>• Option C. Adenocarcinoma:</li><li>• Option D. Malignant melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes and typically exhibits a different morphological appearance, with the presence of melanin pigment and atypical melanocytes.</li><li>• Option D. Malignant melanoma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The characteristic palisading arrangement of hyperchromatic basaloid cells is a hallmark feature of basal cell carcinoma, a type of skin cancer that arises from the basal cells of the epidermis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve is most commonly damaged after parotid surgery?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spinal accessory nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Facial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Facial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Facial nerve is the most commonly damaged nerve during parotid surgery due to its anatomical path through the parotid gland, making it vulnerable to injury during surgical procedures involving this gland</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A high dose of folic acid should be given pre-conceptionally in women with? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Previous h/o preeclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Previous preterm delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Poorly controlled diabetes", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Poorly controlled diabetes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Poorly controlled diabetes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A high dose of folic acid is recommended pre-conceptionally for women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects. This includes women with poorly controlled diabetes, which is associated with an increased risk of congenital abnormalities, including neural tube defects. A high dose of folic acid (4 to 5 mg daily) should be started at least three months before conception to reduce this risk and to be given till 16 weeks of pregnancy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Previous h/o preeclampsia: The preventive strategy for women with a history of preeclampsia includes the use of low-dose aspirin (Ecosprin), not high-dose folic acid.</li><li>• Option A. Previous h/o preeclampsia:</li><li>• Option B. Previous preterm delivery: Management includes progesterone supplementation or considering a cervical cerclage in cases of cervical insufficiency, rather than high-dose folic acid.</li><li>• Option B. Previous preterm delivery:</li><li>• Option C. Sickle cell anemia: While folic acid is important in hemoglobinopathies, the primary concern in sickle cell anemia is maintaining adequate folic acid levels due to increased hemolysis, but it is not specifically indicated at high doses for pre-conception.</li><li>• Option C. Sickle cell anemia:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Women with poorly controlled diabetes, epileptics, should receive a high dose of folic acid pre-conceptionally to reduce the risk of neural tube defects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true about neutrophil extracellular trap except: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Induced by sepsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phagocytosis is enhanced", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Higher risk of SLE", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Affected cell does not survive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phagocytosis is enhanced", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Phagocytosis is enhanced</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Phagocytosis is enhanced: This statement is incorrect. NET formation does not directly enhance phagocytosis. Instead, it is a distinct mechanism where the neutrophil traps and kills pathogens extracellularly, without engulfing them through phagocytosis.</li><li>• Phagocytosis is enhanced:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) are a defense mechanism employed by neutrophils to trap and kill extracellular pathogens. During NET formation, neutrophils undergo a process called NETosis, which involves chromatin decondensation and the release of DNA along with antibacterial enzymes into the extracellular space. This forms a mesh-like structure that can trap and kill bacteria.</li><li>• Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)</li><li>• Option A: Induced by sepsis: True. NETs are induced by various stimuli, including sepsis. In septicemia-like conditions, the presence of pathogens triggers the formation of NETs as a response to the infection.</li><li>• Option A: Induced by sepsis:</li><li>• Option C: Higher risk of SLE: True. NET formation also has some negative consequences. The exposure of nuclear antigens during NETosis can lead to an increased risk of developing autoimmune disorders, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nuclear antigens released during NET formation can be recognized as \"self\" by the immune system, leading to the production of autoantibodies and the development of SLE.</li><li>• Option C: Higher risk of SLE:</li><li>• Option D: Affected cell does not survive: True. In NET formation, the neutrophil undergoes a form of cell death called NETotic cell death. The affected neutrophil does not survive the process of NETosis, as it involves the release of its cellular contents, including DNA and enzymes. This process is sometimes referred to as \"beneficial suicide\" because the neutrophil sacrifices itself to create the extracellular trap that can capture and kill pathogens.</li><li>• Option D: Affected cell does not survive:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neutrophil extracellular traps are induced by sepsis, increase the risk of developing SLE due to exposure of nuclear antigens, and result in the death of the affected neutrophil, but they do not enhance phagocytosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the preferred treatment for a benign tumor of the superficial parotid gland on FNAC? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wide local incision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superficial parotidectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiation therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Superficial parotidectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Superficial parotidectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Superficial parotidectomy is the preferred treatment for a benign tumors like pleomorphic adenoma, providing targeted removal of the entire superficial lobe.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "60-year-old obese lady underwent cholecystectomy. After 3 days she develops respiratory distress. What is the likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Air embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atelectasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myocardial Infarction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pulmonary embolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pulmonary embolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient, an obese post-operative case following cholecystectomy, presents with respiratory distress three days after surgery. This is highly suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, particularly in the context of immobilization and the hypercoagulable state following surgery. Pulmonary embolism is a common and serious complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can occur due to immobilization and endothelial injury during surgery.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Air embolism: This is less likely in this scenario as it typically occurs immediately during or after surgical procedures involving vascular access.</li><li>• Option B. Air embolism:</li><li>• Option C. Atelectasis: While atelectasis can cause respiratory distress post-operatively, it typically does not cause sudden severe symptoms three days post-op.</li><li>• Option C. Atelectasis:</li><li>• Option D. Myocardial Infarction: Although possible, the context of recent surgery and immobilization makes pulmonary embolism a more likely diagnosis.</li><li>• Option D. Myocardial Infarction:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In post-operative patients, particularly those who are obese and immobilized, the development of sudden respiratory distress should raise suspicion for pulmonary embolism due to the increased risk of deep vein thrombosis and subsequent embolization. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial.</li><li>➤ Note - The rule of threes (in Immobilization) whenever the patient is immobilized for more than 72 hours/ &gt;3 days in the last 3 months that is called significant immobilization and that increases the risk of DVT and pulmonary embolism.</li><li>➤ Note -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structures forms the lateral boundary of Hesselbach’s triangle? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rectus abdominis muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inguinal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior epigastric vessels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conjoint tendon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inferior epigastric vessels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Inferior epigastric vessels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The inferior epigastric vessels form the lateral boundary of Hesselbach's triangle, which is an area of the abdominal wall clinically significant in the diagnosis of direct inguinal hernias.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old boy presents to the clinic with his mother, who is concerned about his nasal-sounding voice. She reports that her son seems to be frequently \"talking through his nose,\" especially when he is trying to pronounce 'm' and 'n' sounds. Additionally, she mentions that he breathes through his mouth most of the time, especially at night, and has been having difficulty sleeping. On examination, the boy has no signs of acute respiratory distress but does have a hyponasal voice. Xray reveals enlarged adenoids obstructing the nasopharynx. No other abnormalities are noted. What type of voice change is most likely present in this patient due to his enlarged adenoids? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rhinolalia clausa", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhinolalia aperta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hot potato voice", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Echolalia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rhinolalia clausa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-124620.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rhinorrhea clausa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The voice of a patient with enlarged adenoids is likely to exhibit Rhinolalia clausa, characterized by a nasal quality due to obstruction of the nasal passages.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which plasmodium species affects the brain? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P. vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "P. falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "P. malariae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "P. ovale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. P. falciparum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) P. falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Plasmodium species that affects the brain and can cause cerebral malaria is Plasmodium falciparum.</li><li>• Among the four major Plasmodium species that cause malaria (P. vivax, P. falciparum, P. malariae, and P. ovale), only P. falciparum is associated with cerebral malaria.</li><li>• While all Plasmodium species can cause malaria symptoms like fever, anemia, and splenomegaly, complications like cerebral malaria are caused specifically by P. falciparum.</li><li>• Pernicious malaria - (due to heavy parasitization)</li><li>• Pernicious malaria - (due to heavy parasitization)</li><li>• In cerebral malaria, P. falciparum parasites invade and clog the cerebral blood vessels, leading to brain involvement, hyperpyrexia, coma and paralysis Algid malaria: characterized by cold clammy skin leading to peripheral circulatory failure Septicemic malaria: characterized by high continuous fever with involvement of various organs</li><li>• In cerebral malaria, P. falciparum parasites invade and clog the cerebral blood vessels, leading to brain involvement, hyperpyrexia, coma and paralysis</li><li>• Algid malaria: characterized by cold clammy skin leading to peripheral circulatory failure</li><li>• Septicemic malaria: characterized by high continuous fever with involvement of various organs</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• A. P. vivax, C. P. malariae, and D. P. ovale: These species can cause uncomplicated malaria but do not typically affect the brain or lead to cerebral malaria.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plasmodium falciparum is the only Plasmodium species that can cause cerebral malaria, a potentially life-threatening complication in which the parasites invade and clog the brain's blood vessels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female presents with a mobile, rubbery mass in her left breast. A histological image is provided. What is the most likely diagnosis for the given image? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Invasive ductal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fibroadenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phyllodes tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lobular carcinoma in-situ", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fibroadenoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/14/picture41.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Fibroadenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibroadenoma is the likely diagnosis of a mobile, rubbery breast mass in a young woman, characterized histologically by a benign proliferation of stromal and epithelial components.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In measurement of rifled barrel weapon, caliber depends on: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Distance between two opposite lands", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Distance between two opposite grooves", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Number of lead pellets", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mass and velocity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Distance between two opposite lands", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-110546.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-110559.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Distance between two opposite lands</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In a rifled firearm, the barrel's interior has alternating projecting parts called lands and the adjacent parts called grooves. The caliber of a rifled barrel weapon is defined as the distance between two opposite lands, which represents the diameter of the rifled firearm.</li><li>• This is different from a smooth bore firearm, where the diameter is simply called the bore, as there are no lands or grooves present.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. B. Distance between two opposite grooves: The distance between two opposite grooves is not used to determine the caliber of a rifled barrel weapon. The caliber is measured between the lands, not the grooves.</li><li>• Option. B. Distance between two opposite grooves:</li><li>• Option. C. Number of lead pellets : The number of lead pellets is not related to the caliber of a rifled barrel weapon. Lead pellets are typically associated with shotguns, which have smooth bore barrels.</li><li>• Option. C. Number of lead pellets</li><li>• Option. D. Mass and velocity : While the mass and velocity of a projectile are important factors in the performance of a firearm, they do not determine the caliber of a rifled barrel weapon.</li><li>• Option. D. Mass and velocity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The caliber of a rifled barrel weapon is determined by the distance between two opposite lands, which represents the diameter of the rifled firearm's barrel. This is different from a smooth bore firearm, where the diameter is simply called the bore.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which virus outbreak occurred in Kerala following consumption of date palm sap? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nipah virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ebola virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Litchi Virus Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "West Nile Fever", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nipah virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nipah virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Nipah virus outbreak in Kerala was linked to the consumption of fruits contaminated with bat secretions. Date palm sap, which is a popular drink in the region, can become contaminated with bat secretions containing the Nipah virus when bats feed on the sap. Consumption of this contaminated sap led to the Nipah virus outbreak in Kerala.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ebola virus transmission occurs through contact with contaminated body fluids from infected individuals. It is not associated with the consumption of date palm sap or fruits.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Ebola virus</li><li>• contaminated body fluids</li><li>• Option C. Litchi Virus Disease, also known as acute encephalitis syndrome (AES), has been reported in West Bengal. It is linked to the consumption of litchis on an empty stomach by children, which can lead to severe hypoglycemia and death due to the generation of methylenecyclopropylglycine (MCPG).</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Litchi Virus Disease,</li><li>• empty stomach by children,</li><li>• severe hypoglycemia and death</li><li>• Option D. West Nile Fever, transmitted by the Culex pipiens mosquito, has been reported in Kerala.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. West Nile Fever,</li><li>• Note - Although a single case of Ebola virus was reported at the Delhi International Airport, it is not related to the Kerala outbreak caused by the consumption of date palm sap.</li><li>• Note</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Nipah virus outbreak in Kerala was linked to the consumption of date palm sap contaminated with bat secretions containing the virus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Shield ulcer is seen in:( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phlyctenular conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spring catarrh", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atopic keratoconjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cataract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Spring catarrh", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-104031.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Spring catarrh</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Spring catarrh, also known as vernal keratoconjunctivitis, is a chronic allergic condition of the conjunctiva that typically occurs in children and young adults during the spring and summer months. It is characterized by symptoms such as itching, redness, and photophobia, and may lead to the development of shield ulcers on the cornea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following factor is not derived from an ABG analysis directly? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bicarbonate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "PO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PCO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "pH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bicarbonate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bicarbonate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is a critical test in clinical settings that measures the levels of oxygen (PO2), carbon dioxide (PCO2), and the pH of the blood. These parameters are directly measured by the ABG machine. However, bicarbonate (HCO3-) is not directly measured by the ABG machine; instead, it is calculated using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation , which involves the measured pH and PCO2 values.</li><li>• Henderson-Hasselbalch equation</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. PO2: The partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is directly measured by the ABG machine, providing vital information about oxygenation status.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. PO2:</li><li>• Option C. PCO2: The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is also directly measured by the ABG machine and indicates the level of CO2 in the blood, reflecting respiratory function.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. PCO2:</li><li>• Option D. pH: The pH level of the blood, which indicates its acidity or alkalinity, is directly measured by the ABG machine.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. pH:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ABG analysis measures the levels of oxygen (PO2), carbon dioxide (PCO2), and the pH of the blood, not bicarbonate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Common carotid artery pulse is taken at which level? (FMGE JANUARY 2024 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cricoid cartilage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laryngeal prominence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Suprasternal notch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Angle of mandible", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cricoid cartilage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cricoid cartilage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The common carotid artery pulse is palpated at the level of the cricoid cartilage, which corresponds to the C6 vertebral level. The \"magic of C6\" is an important anatomical landmark.</li><li>• The \"magic of C6\" is an important anatomical landmark.</li><li>• At the C6 level, there is the c ricopharyngeal junction, the c ricoid c artilage, and the pulsation of the c ommon c arotid artery can be felt.</li><li>• c</li><li>• c</li><li>• c</li><li>• c</li><li>• c</li><li>• The common carotid artery lies just anterior to the carotid tubercle (also known as the Chassaignac tubercle), which is the anterior tubercle of the transverse process of the C6 vertebra. An artery is palpable when it lies close to a firm bony structure, and in this case, the common carotid artery is palpable due to its proximity to the carotid tubercle at the C6 level.</li><li>• HNF Cadaveric section</li><li>• HNF Cadaveric section</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Laryngeal prominence: The laryngeal prominence, also known as the Adam's apple, is located at a higher level than the cricoid cartilage and is not the correct landmark for palpating the common carotid artery pulse.</li><li>• Option B. Laryngeal prominence:</li><li>• Option C. Suprasternal notch: The suprasternal notch is located inferior to the cricoid cartilage and is not the correct level for palpating the common carotid artery pulse.</li><li>• Option C. Suprasternal notch:</li><li>• Option D. Angle of mandible: The angle of the mandible is located superior and lateral to the cricoid cartilage and is not the correct landmark for palpating the common carotid artery pulse.</li><li>• Option D. Angle of mandible:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The common carotid artery pulse is palpated at the level of the cricoid cartilage, which corresponds to the C6 vertebral level. The carotid tubercle of the C6 vertebra serves as a bony landmark for the pulsation of the common carotid artery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While performing epidural anaesthesia which of these layers is not punctured ? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arachnoid mater", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ligamentum Flavum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supraspinous ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interspinous ligament", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arachnoid mater", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Arachnoid mater</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For epidural anesthesia, the needle is inserted through several layers before reaching the epidural space, which is just outside the dura mater. The arachnoid mater is a delicate membrane that encloses the cerebrospinal fluid and runs just under the dura mater. In epidural anesthesia, the arachnoid mater is not punctured, as this would mean the needle has gone too deep, entering the subarachnoid (intrathecal) space.</li><li>• Layers pierced for Epidural anesthesia (from outside to inside):</li><li>• Layers pierced for Epidural anesthesia (from outside to inside):</li><li>• Skin, subcutaneous tissue Supraspinous ligament Interspinous ligament Ligamentum flavum Epidural space</li><li>• Skin, subcutaneous tissue</li><li>• Supraspinous ligament</li><li>• Interspinous ligament</li><li>• Ligamentum flavum</li><li>• Epidural space</li><li>• Structures pierced during spinal anesthesia / lumbar puncture (outside to inside): Skin, subcutaneous fat, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, duramater, arachnoid mater. Last structure to be pierced during epidural anesthesia : Ligamentum flavum Last structure to be pierced during spinal anesthesia / lumbar puncture: Arachnoid mater</li><li>• Structures pierced during spinal anesthesia / lumbar puncture (outside to inside): Skin, subcutaneous fat, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, duramater, arachnoid mater.</li><li>• Structures pierced during spinal anesthesia / lumbar puncture</li><li>• Last structure to be pierced during epidural anesthesia : Ligamentum flavum</li><li>• Last structure to be pierced during epidural anesthesia : Ligamentum flavum</li><li>• Last structure to be pierced during spinal anesthesia / lumbar puncture: Arachnoid mater</li><li>• Last structure to be pierced during spinal anesthesia / lumbar puncture: Arachnoid mater</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ligamentum Flavum: This is a strong ligament that connects the laminae of the vertebrae. It is the last ligamentous layer that the needle passes through before entering the epidural space.</li><li>• Option B. Ligamentum Flavum:</li><li>• Option C. Supraspinous Ligament: This is a strong, fibrous cord that connects the tips of the spinous processes from the seventh cervical vertebra to the sacrum. This ligament is pierced as the needle progresses towards the epidural space.</li><li>• Option C. Supraspinous Ligament:</li><li>• Option D. Interspinous Ligament: This ligament lies immediately below the supraspinous ligament and connects the adjoining spinous processes to each other. The needle also traverses this ligament as it moves toward the epidural space.</li><li>• Option D. Interspinous Ligament:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The arachnoid mater is not punctured during epidural anesthesia; penetration of this layer indicates a breach into the subarachnoid space, which is not the target for an epidural block.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2 month pregnant female presents with swelling in legs and diagnosed with Deep vein thrombosis, she requires anticoagulation. Which of the following is Preferred? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apixaban", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enoxaparin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Enoxaparin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Enoxaparin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In pregnant women diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT), low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) such as enoxaparin is the preferred anticoagulant.</li><li>• LMWH is effective and has a better safety profile for both the mother and the fetus compared to other anticoagulants.</li><li>• Warfarin is teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy, particularly in the first trimester. Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban are not recommended during pregnancy due to insufficient safety data. Aspirin alone is not effective for treating DVT.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Warfarin: This is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects.</li><li>• Option A. Warfarin:</li><li>• Option B. Apixaban: DOACs are not approved for use in pregnant or lactating women due to a lack of sufficient safety data.</li><li>• Option B. Apixaban:</li><li>• Option D. Aspirin: While it may be used for certain cardiovascular conditions, it is not effective as a sole agent for the treatment of DVT.</li><li>• Option D. Aspirin:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enoxaparin (LMWH) is the preferred anticoagulant for pregnant women with DVT due to its safety and effectiveness, whereas warfarin, DOACs, and aspirin are not appropriate choices in this context.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a police investigation, bones are uncovered at the crime scene. What key characteristic feature would be crucial in differentiating between human and animal bones, aiding forensic analysis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Precipitin test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acid phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenolphthalein test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Precipitin test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-110617.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Precipitin test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The precipitin test is the key characteristic feature used to differentiate between human and animal bones found at a crime scene. This test is species-specific and can be applied to various tissues, including blood, semen, and bones. The formation of a precipitate upon the addition of an anti-human serum to the sample extract indicates the presence of human tissue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which container will you dispose of the needle with the syringe after vaccination?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "White", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. White", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-112851.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) White</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The needle of the syringe, being a metallic and sharp component, should be disposed of in the white container after vaccination. The needle, being a sharp waste, goes into the white container, which is specifically designated for disposing of sharp and metallic waste.</li><li>• After proper treatment methods like autoclaving, dry heat destruction, shredding, or mutilation, the contents of the white container are sent to iron foundries, sharp pits, or landfills for final disposal.</li><li>• Plastic component of syringe – in Red container</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the airway management of choice in a patient with maxillofacial trauma after a road traffic accident? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tracheostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nasotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxygen therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tracheostomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tracheostomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tracheostomy is the preferred airway management technique in cases of severe maxillofacial trauma. This approach is chosen because severe facial injuries can make other forms of intubation difficult or impossible due to anatomical disruptions.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Orotracheal Intubation: Typically the first-line method in emergency airway management, it may be contraindicated or challenging in maxillofacial trauma due to the risk of causing further injury.</li><li>• Option B. Orotracheal Intubation:</li><li>• Option C. Nasotracheal Intubation: Avoided in maxillofacial injuries due to the risk of creating a false passage or worsening a basal skull fracture.</li><li>• Option C. Nasotracheal Intubation:</li><li>• Option D. Oxygen Therapy: While important for providing oxygen, it does not secure the airway and is insufficient in cases of airway compromise.</li><li>• Option D. Oxygen Therapy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In severe maxillofacial trauma where the airway is compromised, an emergency tracheostomy is often necessary if orotracheal intubation is not feasible or safe due to the extent of the injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thiazide works on ________ in DCT:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na + K + 2Cl - Cotransporter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ENaC Channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Na + Cl - Cotransporter", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Na + H + Antiport", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Na + Cl - Cotransporter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Na+Cl-Cotransporter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Thiazide diuretics act specifically on the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron. They inhibit the sodium-chloride (Na + Cl - ) cotransporter, which is responsible for the reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the lumen of the DCT into the cells. This inhibition leads to increased excretion of sodium and chloride, resulting in diuresis (increased urine production).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Na + K + 2Cl - Cotransporter : This cotransporter is located in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, not in the DCT. Therefore, thiazide diuretics do not act on this transporter.</li><li>• Option A. Na + K + 2Cl - Cotransporter</li><li>• Option B. ENaC Channels : Epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) are found in the collecting duct (CD), not the DCT. Thiazide diuretics do not affect these channels.</li><li>• Option B. ENaC Channels</li><li>• Option D. Na + H + Antiport : This antiport mechanism is not the target of thiazide diuretics. They do not act on this transport system in the DCT.</li><li>• Option D. Na + H + Antiport</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thiazide diuretics inhibit the Na + Cl - cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to increased excretion of sodium and chloride and resulting in diuresis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given congenital anomaly develops due to non-fusion of: ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1st and 2nd pharyngeal pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-125654.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts a preauricular sinus, a congenital anomaly characterized by a small opening or pit near the external ear. This condition arises due to incomplete fusion during embryonic development.</li><li>• Embryological Development: The external ear develops from six small hillocks of tissue that form around the 1st pharyngeal cleft, derived from the 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches. These hillocks eventually merge to form the pinna (external ear). Non-fusion of Pharyngeal Arches: If there is incomplete or improper fusion between the 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches, a preauricular sinus may form. This sinus can present as a small pit or dimple in front of the ear and can sometimes become infected or form cysts.</li><li>• Embryological Development: The external ear develops from six small hillocks of tissue that form around the 1st pharyngeal cleft, derived from the 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches. These hillocks eventually merge to form the pinna (external ear).</li><li>• Non-fusion of Pharyngeal Arches: If there is incomplete or improper fusion between the 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches, a preauricular sinus may form. This sinus can present as a small pit or dimple in front of the ear and can sometimes become infected or form cysts.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arch : This is incorrect. The structures formed by the 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arches do not contribute to the formation of the external ear and thus are not involved in the formation of preauricular sinuses.</li><li>• Option B. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arch</li><li>• Option C. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal pouch : This is incorrect. The pharyngeal pouches form internal structures such as the tonsils, thymus, and parts of the ear's auditory tube but are not involved in the formation of preauricular sinuses.</li><li>• Option C. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal pouch</li><li>• Option D. 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch: This is incorrect. These pouches are involved in forming structures like the thymus and parathyroid glands and do not play a role in the formation of the external ear or preauricular sinuses.</li><li>• Option D. 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Preauricular sinuses result from the incomplete fusion of the 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches during embryonic development, leading to the formation of a small pit or tract near the external ear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the investigation shown below. (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colour Doppler", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "USG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Colour Doppler", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-110400.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Colour Doppler</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In the image provided, the Color Doppler is displaying the blood flow within a specific blood vessel, likely a carotid artery (indicated by R Prox ICA, meaning the proximal right internal carotid artery). The Doppler waveform below the image shows the blood flow velocity during the cardiac cycle, indicating the health and patency of the vessel.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which gene is affected in Reiter's syndrome? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HLA-DR3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HLA-DR4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HLA-B27", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "HLA-DQ8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HLA-B27", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-173046.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HLA-B27</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Reiter's syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is strongly associated with the HLA-B27 gene. The presence of the HLA-B27 gene is a risk factor for developing Reiter's syndrome.</li><li>• Reiter's syndrome is a type of spondyloarthritis, a group of inflammatory diseases that primarily affect the spine and joints. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms: arthritis (joint inflammation, typically affecting the knees, ankles, and feet), conjunctivitis (inflammation of the eye), and urethritis (inflammation of the urethra).</li><li>• The HLA-B27 gene is a component of the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system, which plays a crucial role in the immune system's recognition of foreign substances. The association between HLA-B27 and Reiter's syndrome suggests that the gene may contribute to the development of the condition, possibly by influencing the immune response.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. HLA-DR3: This gene is associated with autoimmune diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Hashimoto's thyroiditis, and Graves' disease.</li><li>• Option A. HLA-DR3:</li><li>• Option B. HLA-DR4: This gene is strongly linked to rheumatoid arthritis.</li><li>• Option B. HLA-DR4:</li><li>• Option D. HLA-DQ8: This gene, along with HLA-DQ2, is associated with celiac disease.</li><li>• Option D. HLA-DQ8:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The HLA-B27 gene is the primary genetic factor associated with the development of Reiter's syndrome, a type of spondyloarthritis characterized by a triad of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient after road traffic accident was brought to the emergency. His pulse rate was 50 beats per minute, blood pressure was 80/60 mm of Hg. On evaluation his ECG was normal, eFAST was negative, and chest X-ray was normal. This status of the patient could be best classified under which type of shock?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemorrhagic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiogenic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neurogenic shock", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaphylactic shock", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neurogenic shock", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Neurogenic shock</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Neurogenic shock is a type of distributive shock resulting from the loss of sympathetic tone due to spinal cord injury, often seen in trauma cases like road traffic accidents. This leads to hypotension due to vasodilation and bradycardia due to unopposed vagal tone.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Hemorrhagic shock : Characterized by tachycardia and clinical signs of bleeding. The normal eFAST and chest X-ray, along with bradycardia, make this unlikely.</li><li>• Option A. Hemorrhagic shock</li><li>• Option B. Cardiogenic shock : Expected to show ECG changes and usually presents with tachycardia.</li><li>• Option B. Cardiogenic shock</li><li>• Option D. Anaphylactic shock : Typically presents with tachycardia, urticaria, and respiratory symptoms due to allergen exposure.</li><li>• Option D. Anaphylactic shock</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Neurogenic shock should be suspected in trauma patients with hypotension and bradycardia, especially when there is no evidence of hemorrhage or other common shock etiologies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure. (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flexor carpi radialis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flexor carpi ulnaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Palmaris longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extensor carpi radialis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Flexor carpi radialis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175414.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175435.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175451.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175503.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Flexor carpi radialis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The marked muscle tendon in the image is of the flexor carpi radialis muscle.</li><li>➤ The marked muscle tendon in the image is of the flexor carpi radialis muscle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After cataract surgery, endophthalmitis developed. How will you prevent post operative endophthalmitis?( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Povidone iodine before surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intra-vitreal anti-bacterial injections", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mydriatics before surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antibiotic eye drops post surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Povidone iodine before surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Povidone iodine before surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To prevent postoperative endophthalmitis following cataract surgery, the application of povidone-iodine on the ocular surface before surgery is the standard prophylactic procedure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with Ventricular Tachycardia. What is the best drug?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ivabradine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amiodarone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Amiodarone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• For treating ventricular tachycardia (VT), the drug of choice in acute situations according to Advanced Life Support (ALS) protocols is Amiodarone. It is a class III antiarrhythmic medication that works by prolonging the action potential duration and refractory period in the myocardial cells, thus stabilizing the cardiac rhythm.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Adenosine : Ineffective for ventricular tachycardia as it is primarily used for supraventricular tachycardia.</li><li>• Option B. Adenosine</li><li>• Option C. Propranolol : A beta-blocker used for various cardiac conditions, but not typically effective for acute VT.</li><li>• Option C. Propranolol</li><li>• Option D. Ivabradine : Used to reduce heart rate in chronic heart failure and stable angina, not suitable for VT management</li><li>• Option D. Ivabradine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Amiodarone is the best drug for the acute management of ventricular tachycardia due to its efficacy in stabilizing cardiac rhythm by prolonging the action potential and refractory period in myocardial cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the mechanism of action of thiazides in DCT? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blockade of Na-Cl symporter", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blockade of Na K 2Cl symporter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blockade of aldosterone receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blockade of epithelial sodium channels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blockade of Na-Cl symporter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blockade of Na-Cl Symporter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thiazide diuretics primarily work by inhibiting the sodium-chloride symporter in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This inhibition reduces sodium reabsorption, leading to increased excretion of sodium and water, thereby lowering blood pressure and reducing edema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is observed with Philadelphia chromosome:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reciprocal translocation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deletion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Reciprocal translocation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Reciprocal translocation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Philadelphia chromosome, characteristic of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), is the result of a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 , denoted as t(9;22) (q34;q11).</li><li>• characteristic of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), is the result of a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22</li><li>• denoted as t(9;22) (q34;q11).</li><li>• This translocation leads to the formation of the BCR-ABL fusion gene , which encodes a constitutively active tyrosine kinase that drives the uncontrolled proliferation of myeloid cells in CML.</li><li>• BCR-ABL fusion gene</li><li>• The presence of the BCR-ABL fusion gene can be detected using Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH), a highly specific and sensitive technique for identifying chromosomal abnormalities. The identification of this fusion gene is crucial for the diagnosis of CML and for guiding targeted therapy with tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as imatinib.</li><li>• Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization</li><li>• (FISH), a highly specific and sensitive technique for identifying chromosomal abnormalities.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Inversion involves a reversal of a chromosomal segment within a single chromosome and is not the mechanism underlying the Philadelphia chromosome.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Option C. Deletion refers to the loss of a portion of a chromosome and is not the primary chromosomal abnormality in CML.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Option D. Insertion involves the integration of a segment of one chromosome into another chromosome and is not the characteristic finding in the Philadelphia chromosome.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The Philadelphia chromosome in CML is the result of a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, leading to the formation of the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which can be detected using FISH and is the target of tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate Maternal Mortality Ratio in a population of 2 lacs, with 4000 live births, Death were 4 by PPH, 2 deaths by electrocution, 2 deaths by sepsis, 2 deaths by abortion, 2 deaths due to ectopic pregnancy, and 5 still births. (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25 per 1 lac", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "250 per 1 lac", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "500 per 1 lac", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "300 per 1 lac", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 250 per 1 lac", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 250 per 1 lac</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is calculated by dividing the number of maternal deaths by the number of live births and multiplying by 100,000.</li><li>• Maternal death is defined as the death of a mother at any time during pregnancy, labor, delivery, or within 42 days of delivery, provided it is related to maternity or its complications.</li><li>• In the given scenario, the maternal deaths are:</li><li>• In the given scenario, the maternal deaths are:</li><li>• 4 deaths by postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) 2 deaths by sepsis 2 deaths by abortion 2 deaths due to ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• 4 deaths by postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)</li><li>• 2 deaths by sepsis</li><li>• 2 deaths by abortion</li><li>• 2 deaths due to ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• These deaths should be included in the calculation as they are related to maternity or its complications.</li><li>• The deaths due to electrocution and stillbirths are not included in the calculation of MMR.</li><li>• The deaths due to electrocution and stillbirths are not included</li><li>• Therefore, the total number of maternal deaths is 10 (4 + 2 + 2 + 2).</li><li>• The number of live births is given as 4,000.</li><li>• MMR = (Number of maternal deaths / Number of live births) × 100,000</li><li>• = (10 / 4,000) × 100,000</li><li>• = 250 per 1,00,000 live births</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is calculated by dividing the number of maternal deaths (deaths related to maternity or its complications) by the number of live births and multiplying by 100,000.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which HLA is associated with Reiter’s syndrome? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HLA B27", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HLA DR3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HLA DR4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HLA DQ8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HLA B27", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HLA B27</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HLA-B27 is strongly associated with reactive arthritis (Reiter's syndrome) and other spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, and enteropathic arthritis. Approximately 75-80% of patients with reactive arthritis test positive for HLA-B27. But it should not be used as a diagnostic tool for acute ReA.</li><li>➤ HLA-B27 is strongly associated with reactive arthritis (Reiter's syndrome) and other spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, and enteropathic arthritis.</li><li>➤ Approximately 75-80% of patients with reactive arthritis test positive for HLA-B27.</li><li>➤ But it should not be used as a diagnostic tool for acute ReA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which receptor plays a crucial role in glucose uptake by skeletal muscles? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GLUT 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GLUT 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GLUT 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GLUT 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. GLUT 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-151327.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) GLUT 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• GLUT 4 is the glucose transporter responsible for insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in skeletal muscles, as well as in cardiac muscles and adipose tissues . Upon insulin binding, GLUT 4 translocates to the cell membrane, allowing glucose to enter the cells and be utilized for energy or stored as glycogen. This process is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels postprandially (after meals).</li><li>• skeletal muscles, as well as in cardiac muscles and adipose tissues</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. GLUT 1: GLUT 1 is involved in basal glucose uptake and is widely distributed in tissues such as the brain, placenta, kidneys, and red blood cells.</li><li>• Option A. GLUT 1:</li><li>• Option B. GLUT 2: GLUT 2 is found in the liver, ancreas, intestines, and kidneys, playing a role in glucose absorption, glycogen formation, insulin secretion, and reabsorption processes.</li><li>• Option B. GLUT 2:</li><li>• Option C. GLUT 3: GLUT 3, similar to GLUT 1, is involved in basal glucose uptake and is primarily located in the brain, placenta, and kidneys.</li><li>• Option C. GLUT 3:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GLUT Transporters</li><li>➤ GLUT Transporters</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How will you collect samples for blood culture in a patient with suspected Infective Endocarditis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 aerobic and 1 anaerobic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 samples - 1 aerobic, 2 anaerobic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 samples - 2 aerobic and 1 anaerobic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 aerobic and 3 anaerobic", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3 aerobic and 3 anaerobic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 3 aerobic and 3 anaerobic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Infective endocarditis is diagnosed using Duke's criteria , which includes major and minor criteria. One of the major criteria involves positive blood cultures.</li><li>• Duke's criteria</li><li>• For accurate diagnosis, it is essential to collect multiple blood cultures to identify the causative organism reliably.</li><li>• A blood culture set includes both aerobic and anaerobic samples.</li><li>• culture set</li><li>• According to Duke's criteria:</li><li>• A minimum of two cultures should be drawn at least 12 hours apart. Ideally, three or more cultures should be collected. When collecting three or more cultures, each culture set includes both aerobic and anaerobic samples.</li><li>• A minimum of two cultures should be drawn at least 12 hours apart.</li><li>• A minimum of two cultures should be drawn at least 12 hours apart.</li><li>• Ideally, three or more cultures should be collected.</li><li>• Ideally, three or more cultures should be collected.</li><li>• When collecting three or more cultures, each culture set includes both aerobic and anaerobic samples.</li><li>• Therefore, for three culture sets, you would collect three aerobic and three anaerobic samples.</li><li>• The rules for collection are:</li><li>• If two culture sets are collected, both should be drawn at least 12 hours apart and both should be positive. If three or more culture sets are collected, all three should be positive for the same organism. If more than three culture sets are collected, the majority should be positive for the same organism. The gap between the first and the last culture should be at least one hour.</li><li>• If two culture sets are collected, both should be drawn at least 12 hours apart and both should be positive.</li><li>• If three or more culture sets are collected, all three should be positive for the same organism.</li><li>• If more than three culture sets are collected, the majority should be positive for the same organism.</li><li>• The gap between the first and the last culture should be at least one hour.</li><li>• The gap between the first and the last culture should be at least one hour.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For suspected infective endocarditis, the recommended blood culture collection includes three aerobic and three anaerobic samples to ensure accurate diagnosis and identification of the causative organism</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following amino acids are necessary for purine ring formation? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycine, aspartate, valine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycine, aspartate, glutamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycine, aspartate, glutamate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glycine, aspartate, alanine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glycine, aspartate, glutamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glycine, aspartate, glutamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Purine ring formation requires the amino acids glycine, aspartate, and glutamine.</li><li>• These three amino acids provide crucial nitrogen and carbon atoms that are incorporated into the purine ring structure during its biosynthesis. Specifically, glycine contributes carbon and nitrogen, aspartate contributes a nitrogen, and glutamine provides another nitrogen atom. This combination is essential for the complex two-ring structure of purines.</li><li>• In contrast, pyrimidine rings, which have a single-ring structure, require only aspartate and glutamine for their formation.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Glycine, aspartate, valine: Valine is not involved in purine synthesis. Valine is a branched-chain amino acid used primarily in protein synthesis and energy production.</li><li>• Option A. Glycine, aspartate, valine:</li><li>• Option C. Glycine, aspartate, glutamate: Glutamate does not participate in purine ring formation. Glutamate is primarily involved in amino acid metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis.</li><li>• Option C. Glycine, aspartate, glutamate:</li><li>• Option D. D. Glycine, aspartate, alanine: Alanine is not involved in purine ring formation. It is a non-essential amino acid involved in protein synthesis and glucose metabolism, but it does not contribute to the nitrogen or carbon framework of purines.</li><li>• Option D. D. Glycine, aspartate, alanine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important one liner</li><li>➤ Important one liner</li><li>➤ AA for Purines - Aspartate, Glutamine, Glycine AA for Pyrimidines - Aspartate, Glutamine Sources of N &amp; C of Urea - CO2, Ammonia, Aspartate AA linking Kreb's and Urea cycle - Aspartate Molecule linking Kreb's and Urea cycle - Fumarate</li><li>➤ AA for Purines - Aspartate, Glutamine, Glycine</li><li>➤ AA for Pyrimidines - Aspartate, Glutamine</li><li>➤ Sources of N &amp; C of Urea - CO2, Ammonia, Aspartate</li><li>➤ AA linking Kreb's and Urea cycle - Aspartate</li><li>➤ Molecule linking Kreb's and Urea cycle - Fumarate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged man presented to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and breathlessness but was medically fit. The patient is refusing to go back home and he doesn’t want to leave the hospital. The patient gives a history of robbery under gun-point that happened 10 days ago. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Avoidant personality disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Delusional disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute stress disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute stress disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute stress disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute stress disorder occurs within one month of a traumatic event and is characterized by anxiety and other stress-related symptoms. If symptoms last longer than one month, the diagnosis changes to PTSD.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is related to Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lactating women", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Children", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Newborn", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pregnant women", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Newborn", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Newborn</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (NSSK) is a training program for healthcare personnel at all levels, focusing on the care and resuscitation of newborns (neonates) in the first 7 days of life.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had a drop in Systolic Blood Pressure of 15 mm Hg during inspiration. Which of the following is NOT associated with it? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac Tamponade", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Status Asthmaticus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tension Pneumothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• A drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mm Hg during inspiration is termed pulsus paradoxus. This phenomenon is seen in several conditions, including cardiac tamponade, status asthmaticus, and tension pneumothorax.</li><li>• pulsus paradoxus.</li><li>• cardiac tamponade, status asthmaticus, and tension pneumothorax.</li><li>• Cardiac tamponade is a classic cause of pulsus paradoxus due to the restriction of ventricular filling during inspiration. Status asthmaticus and tension pneumothorax also cause significant intrathoracic pressure changes, leading to a similar hemodynamic effect.</li><li>• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, on the other hand, is not associated with pulsus paradoxus. Instead, HCM can be associated with pulsus bisferiens, a double-peaked pulse.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cardiac Tamponade: This is a well-known cause of pulsus paradoxus.</li><li>• Option A. Cardiac Tamponade:</li><li>• Option B. Status Asthmaticus: This can cause pulsus paradoxus due to severe obstruction and changes in intrathoracic pressure.</li><li>• Option B. Status Asthmaticus:</li><li>• Option D. Tension Pneumothorax: This condition can also lead to pulsus paradoxus due to significant intrathoracic pressure changes.</li><li>• Option D. Tension Pneumothorax:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulsus paradoxus, a significant drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration, is seen in conditions like cardiac tamponade, status asthmaticus, and tension pneumothorax. It is not associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which can present with pulsus bisferiens instead.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following, when consumed with oral iron, reduces its absorption?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lemon juice", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amla juice", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tea", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sprouts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The absorption of oral iron can be affected by various dietary substances. Tea contains tannins, which are polyphenolic compounds that can bind to iron and reduce its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is why tea consumption is often advised to be separated from iron supplementation.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Lemon juice : Contains high amounts of vitamin C (ascorbic acid), which actually enhances iron absorption by reducing ferric iron to the more absorbable ferrous form.</li><li>• Option A. Lemon juice</li><li>• Option B. Amla juice : Like lemon juice, it is rich in vitamin C and thus enhances iron absorption.</li><li>• Option B. Amla juice</li><li>• Option C. Sprouts : Contain iron and proteins, which can aid in iron absorption.</li><li>• Option C. Sprouts</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Tea, due to its tannin content, can reduce the absorption of oral iron when consumed together.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which muscle is inserted on the lesser trochanter of the femur? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Psoas major", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoas minor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obturator internus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Piriformis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Psoas major", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175251.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175309.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175331.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175341.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Psoas major</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Psoas Major muscle inserts at the lesser trochanter of the femur and is involved in flexing the hip joint.</li><li>➤ The Psoas Major muscle inserts at the lesser trochanter of the femur and is involved in flexing the hip joint.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl with a history of beta thalassemia undergoes a blood transfusion. During the transfusion, she develops anxiety, hypotension, and fever. What is the next step?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop the blood transfusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stop the blood transfusion and restart after stabilization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Do clerical work and check ECG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administer Hydrocortisone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stop the blood transfusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stop the blood transfusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The development of anxiety, hypotension, and fever during a blood transfusion indicates a possible acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, which is a serious and potentially life-threatening reaction often due to ABO incompatibility. The immediate and most critical step in managing this reaction is to stop the transfusion immediately.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Stop the blood transfusion and restart after stabilization : This may be considered in mild allergic reactions with symptoms like urticaria and itching, but not in the presence of hypotension and fever.</li><li>• Option B. Stop the blood transfusion and restart after stabilization</li><li>• Option C. Do clerical work and check ECG : These are part of the subsequent steps, but the immediate action is to stop the transfusion.</li><li>• Option C. Do clerical work and check ECG</li><li>• Option D. Administer Hydrocortisone : This may be appropriate for mild allergic reactions but is not the first line of action in suspected severe transfusion reactions.</li><li>• Option D. Administer Hydrocortisone</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ In any suspected severe transfusion reaction, immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further complications.</li><li>➤ In any suspected severe transfusion reaction, immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are features of Conn's syndrome except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Muscle cramps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metabolic acidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metabolic acidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Conn's syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is characterized by an excess production of aldosterone, usually due to an adrenal adenoma.</li><li>• The typical features of Conn's syndrome include:</li><li>• Hypertension: Due to increased sodium and water retention. Hypokalemia: Caused by increased potassium excretion. Metabolic alkalosis: Due to increased hydrogen ion excretion and bicarbonate retention.</li><li>• Hypertension: Due to increased sodium and water retention.</li><li>• Hypokalemia: Caused by increased potassium excretion.</li><li>• Metabolic alkalosis: Due to increased hydrogen ion excretion and bicarbonate retention.</li><li>• Metabolic acidosis is not a feature of Conn's syndrome. It is more commonly associated with conditions where there is a deficiency of aldosterone, such as adrenal insufficiency.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Metabolic alkalosis: Correctly associated with Conn's syndrome due to aldosterone's effect on renal tubular excretion of hydrogen ions.</li><li>• Option A. Metabolic alkalosis:</li><li>• Option C. Hypertension : Correctly associated with Conn's syndrome due to sodium and water retention.</li><li>• Option C. Hypertension</li><li>• Option D. Muscle cramps : Can be associated with hypokalemia seen in Conn's syndrome.</li><li>• Option D. Muscle cramps</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) is characterized by hypertension, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis is not a feature of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Reiter's syndrome is associated with: ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HLA B51", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HLA B27", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HLA DR4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HLA B8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HLA B27", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HLA B27</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Reiter's syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is strongly associated with the HLA-B27 antigen. This association is part of a broader category of diseases called seronegative spondyloarthropathies. The key conditions linked with HLA-B27 include:</li><li>• Ankylosing Spondylitis : This condition has the highest association with HLA-B27. Psoriatic Arthritis : A form of arthritis that affects some people with psoriasis. Reactive Arthritis (Reiter's Syndrome) : Characterized by a triad of arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. Enteropathic Arthritis : Associated with inflammatory bowel diseases like Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis.</li><li>• Ankylosing Spondylitis : This condition has the highest association with HLA-B27.</li><li>• Ankylosing Spondylitis</li><li>• Psoriatic Arthritis : A form of arthritis that affects some people with psoriasis.</li><li>• Psoriatic Arthritis</li><li>• Reactive Arthritis (Reiter's Syndrome) : Characterized by a triad of arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis.</li><li>• Reactive Arthritis (Reiter's Syndrome)</li><li>• Enteropathic Arthritis : Associated with inflammatory bowel diseases like Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis.</li><li>• Enteropathic Arthritis</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. HLA B51 : It is linked with Behçet's disease.</li><li>• Option A. HLA B51</li><li>• Option C. HLA DR4 : Associated with rheumatoid arthritis.</li><li>• Option C. HLA DR4</li><li>• Option D. HLA B8 : Associated with diseases such as myasthenia gravis and celiac disease.</li><li>• Option D. HLA B8</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Reiter's syndrome is part of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is strongly associated with the HLA-B27 antigen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the reservoir of leishmaniasis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fowl", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Man", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cattle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fox", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Man", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-112958.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Man</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The reservoir of visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kalazar or Indian kala-azar, is humans.</li><li>• Visceral leishmaniasis (kalazar) is caused by the parasite Leishmania donovani. The vector responsible for transmitting the disease is the sandfly (Phlebotomus species).</li><li>• Visceral leishmaniasis (kalazar) is caused by the parasite Leishmania donovani.</li><li>• The vector responsible for transmitting the disease is the sandfly (Phlebotomus species).</li><li>• The reservoir host of the disease is humans (man).</li><li>• The reservoir host of the disease is humans (man).</li><li>• Other 3 options are incorrect</li><li>• Other 3 options are incorrect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For visceral leishmaniasis (kalazar or Indian kala-azar), the reservoir host is humans.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is considered a “sure sign” of wound dehiscence in a post-operative hypotensive patient? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased bowel sounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Persistent abdominal pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serosanguinous drainage from the wound", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Widening of the abdominal scar with palpable edges", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serosanguinous drainage from the wound", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Serosanguinous drainage from the wound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serosanguinous drainage from the surgical wound is a \"sure sign\" of wound dehiscence and warrants immediate medical evaluation to prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A portion of animal’s intestine is fixed in the Dales chamber. After infusing a drug, changes are seen in intestinal contractility as depicted in the graph. Which of the following agent resembles the effect? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "BaCl", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adrenaline", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/screenshot-2024-05-28-165212.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adrenaline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The graph shows a decrease in the amplitude of intestinal contractions following the infusion of a drug. This decrease in contractility is indicative of the sympathetic nervous system's effect on the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Adrenaline, a sympathetic agent, reduces GI motility and contractility, prioritizing the body's resources for a \"fight or flight\" response rather than digestion.</li><li>• Adrenaline (epinephrine) activates the sympathetic nervous system. During stress, adrenaline reduces GI motility by decreasing the contractility of intestinal muscles, which is evident from the decreased amplitude in the graph.</li><li>• Adrenaline (epinephrine) activates the sympathetic nervous system. During stress, adrenaline reduces GI motility by decreasing the contractility of intestinal muscles, which is evident from the decreased amplitude in the graph.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Acetylcholine : Acetylcholine is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system, which enhances GI motility and contractility . Therefore, acetylcholine would increase, not decrease, the amplitude of intestinal contractions.</li><li>• Option A. Acetylcholine</li><li>• enhances GI motility and contractility</li><li>• Option C. BaCl₂ (Barium Chloride) : Barium chloride increases the contractility of smooth muscles, often used in medical imaging to enhance the visibility of the GI tract. The increased contractility would result in an increased amplitude of contractions.</li><li>• Option C. BaCl₂ (Barium Chloride)</li><li>• increases the contractility</li><li>• Option D. Serotonin : Serotonin increases GI motility and contractility . It plays a significant role in peristalsis by contracting the proximal part of the intestine. Thus, it would also increase the amplitude of contractions.</li><li>• Option D. Serotonin</li><li>• increases GI motility and contractility</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adrenaline reduces the contractility of intestinal muscles by activating the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in decreased GI motility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man eats 3 cones of ice cream. After some time, he starts feeling more colder ears than the central parts of his body. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermo-regulation? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thalamus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypothalamus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amygdala", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caudate nuclei", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypothalamus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypothalamus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hypothalamus is the part of the brain responsible for regulating body temperature and maintaining homeostasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old lady presents with complaints of dizziness and palpitations. Her ECG was done and shown below. What is the best treatment for this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta-blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adenosine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-092126.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adenosine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient presents with dizziness and palpitations, and her ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia .</li><li>• regular narrow complex tachycardia</li><li>• This is characteristic of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT), specifically AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT), the most common type of PSVT. The QRS complexes are narrow (less than 0.12 seconds), and the rhythm is regular with no clearly discernible P waves in their usual locations.</li><li>• The drug of choice for PSVT, especially AVNRT, is adenosine. Adenosine rapidly terminates the tachycardia by transiently blocking the AV node, which disrupts the reentrant circuit responsible for the tachycardia.</li><li>• adenosine.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Amiodarone: Amiodarone is used for wide complex tachycardias and is not the first-line treatment for narrow complex tachycardias like PSVT.</li><li>• Option B. Amiodarone:</li><li>• Option C. Beta-blocker: Beta-blockers can be used if adenosine is not available, but they are not the first-line treatment.</li><li>• Option C. Beta-blocker:</li><li>• Option D. Digoxin: Digoxin is used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and heart failure but is not effective for terminating PSVT.</li><li>• Option D. Digoxin:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ The best treatment for a regular narrow complex tachycardia like PSVT is adenosine, which acts quickly to terminate the arrhythmia by blocking AV nodal conduction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An unknown substance consumption leads to tachycardia and red coloured halo. This is seen with consumption of: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crack/Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LSD", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heroine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. LSD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) LSD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The consumption of an unknown substance leading to tachycardia and ared-coloured halo can be associated with both cocaine and LSD. However, based on the limited information provided in the question, LSD is the more likely answer.</li><li>• Both cocaine and LSD can cause sympathomimetic features such as tachycardia, sweating, increased heart rate, and increased blood pressure. However, these symptoms are generally more pronounced with cocaine consumption. On the other hand, hallucinogenic features, such as hallucinations, are more commonly associated with LSD use.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option. A. Cannabis : Cannabis has minimal physiological effects and is unlikely to cause tachycardia and sweating.</li><li>• Option. A. Cannabis</li><li>• Option. B. Crack/Cocaine: If the question had emphasized intense tachycardia, intense sweating, and other sympathomimetic symptoms, cocaine would have been the more appropriate answer. However, based on the given information, LSD is the better fit.</li><li>• Option. B. Crack/Cocaine:</li><li>• Option. D. Heroine: Heroin is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant and typically leads to bradycardia rather than tachycardia.</li><li>• Option. D. Heroine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Both cocaine and LSD can cause sympathomimetic features like tachycardia and sweating, but these symptoms are more intense with cocaine. Hallucinations are more commonly associated with LSD. The correct answer depends on the specific details provided in the question, emphasizing either sympathomimetic or hallucinogenic features.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A wife is complaining that her husband is not taking medications for his diabetes regularly and not maintaining his blood glucose for a long time. Which of the following markers is best for long-duration glucose analysis? ( FMGE Jan 2024", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RBS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "FBS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PPBS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HbA1C", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HbA1C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) HbA1C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• HbA1c, or glycated hemoglobin, is the best marker for assessing long-term glucose control in diabetic patients. It reflects the average blood glucose levels over the past two to three months. This is because glucose binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells, and since red blood cells have a lifespan of about 120 days, the HbA1c value provides a long-term overview of blood glucose levels.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. RBS : Not suitable for long-term glucose control as it only measures blood sugar at a specific moment.</li><li>• Option A. RBS</li><li>• Option B. FBS : Provides fasting glucose levels but does not give a long-term picture.</li><li>• Option B. FBS</li><li>• Option C. PPBS : Useful for assessing post-meal glucose control but not for long-term analysis.</li><li>• Option C. PPBS</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ HbA1c is the best marker for long-term glucose analysis in diabetic patients as it reflects average blood glucose levels over the past two to three months.</li><li>➤ The target HbA1c for most patients with diabetes to ensure adequate control is less than 7%, though this may vary based on individual patient circumstances.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely ECG change associated with Bedaquiline?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "QT prolongation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "PR prolongation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ST elevation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wide QRS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. QT prolongation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) QT prolongation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bedaquiline is a modern anti-tubercular drug used primarily for the treatment of multidrug-resistant (MDR) and extensively drug-resistant (XDR) tuberculosis. One of the significant side effects of bedaquiline is QT prolongation.</li><li>• QT prolongation is a measure of delayed ventricular repolarization, which can be seen on an ECG as an extended QT interval. This side effect is critical as it can predispose patients to potentially fatal arrhythmias, such as Torsades de Pointes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. PR prolongation : This represents delayed atrioventricular conduction and is not a known side effect of bedaquiline.</li><li>• Option B. PR prolongation</li><li>• Option C. ST elevation : This is typically associated with myocardial infarction and is not a side effect of bedaquiline.</li><li>• Option C. ST elevation</li><li>• Option D. Wide QRS : This indicates delayed intraventricular conduction and is not associated with bedaquiline.</li><li>• Option D. Wide QRS</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline, an important drug for treating MDR and XDR tuberculosis, is known for causing QT prolongation on ECG.</li><li>➤ Note - The \"Q\" in bedaquiline can be a mnemonic to remember this important side effect.</li><li>➤ Note -</li><li>➤ The \"Q\" in bedaquiline can be a mnemonic to remember this important side effect.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Medical termination of pregnancy at 22 weeks of gestation for contraceptive failure after 21 weeks requires approval from: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 doctor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 doctors", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Court", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medical board", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 doctors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2 doctors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Now, MTP is permitted till 24 weeks of gestation. It is divided into two categories: low-risk MTP and high-risk MTP.</li><li>• Low-risk MTP : performed up to 20 weeks of gestation, requires the approval of only one doctor.</li><li>• Low-risk MTP</li><li>• High-risk MTP : includes cases where the gestational age is between 20 weeks to 24 weeks, the approval of two doctors is required.</li><li>• High-risk MTP</li><li>• The specifies that the MTP is being considered at 22 weeks of gestation, which falls under the high-risk category. Therefore, the approval of two doctors is necessary.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 1 doctor: This option is incorrect because gestational ages above 20 weeks and up to 24 weeks, the approval of two doctors is required.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. 1 doctor:</li><li>• Option C. Court: This option is incorrect because court approval is not required for MTP up to 24 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Court:</li><li>• Option D. Medical board: This option is incorrect because a medical board's approval is only required for cases involving severe fetal malformations after 24 weeks of gestation, not for the scenario described in the question.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Medical board:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For medical termination of pregnancy between 20 and 24 weeks of gestation, which is considered a high-risk category, the approval of two doctors is required.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which GLUT is present in the skeletal muscle, adipose tissue? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GLUT 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GLUT 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "GLUT 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GLUT 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. GLUT 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) GLUT 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• GLUT 4 is the glucose transporter primarily found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue. It is an insulin-dependent glucose transporter, meaning that its activity is stimulated by insulin. This allows for the efficient uptake of glucose into cells in response to insulin, helping to regulate blood sugar levels.</li><li>• insulin-dependent</li><li>• GLUT 2 is insulin-independent and is found in the liver, beta cells of the pancreas, intestines, and kidneys. It helps in the regulation of insulin and plays a key role in glucose sensing. GLUT 5 is primarily involved in fructose transport and is found in the small intestine, kidney, and sperm. GLUT 1 is a ubiquitous glucose transporter found in most tissues, including the brain, erythrocytes, and endothelial cells of the blood-brain barrier. It is responsible for the basal glucose uptake necessary for cellular metabolism.</li><li>• GLUT 2 is insulin-independent and is found in the liver, beta cells of the pancreas, intestines, and kidneys. It helps in the regulation of insulin and plays a key role in glucose sensing.</li><li>• GLUT 2</li><li>• insulin-independent</li><li>• GLUT 5 is primarily involved in fructose transport and is found in the small intestine, kidney, and sperm.</li><li>• GLUT 5</li><li>• GLUT 1 is a ubiquitous glucose transporter found in most tissues, including the brain, erythrocytes, and endothelial cells of the blood-brain barrier. It is responsible for the basal glucose uptake necessary for cellular metabolism.</li><li>• GLUT 1</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. GLUT 2: As stated, GLUT 2 is insulin-independent and is not primarily involved in glucose uptake in skeletal muscle or adipose tissue.</li><li>• Option A. GLUT 2:</li><li>• Option C. GLUT 5: This transporter is primarily for fructose, not glucose, and is found in the small intestine and other locations, not in skeletal muscle or adipose tissue.</li><li>• Option C. GLUT 5:</li><li>• Option D. GLUT 1: Although present in many tissues, GLUT 1 is not the primary glucose transporter for skeletal muscle and adipose tissue, which rely on insulin-dependent GLUT 4 for glucose uptake.</li><li>• Option D. GLUT 1:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GLUT 4 is the insulin-dependent glucose transporter present in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Asymmetrical ion differentiation on the cell membrane is due to: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na-K with primary active transport", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gibbs Donan reaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Na-Cl pump", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nernst Equilibrium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gibbs Donan reaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Gibbs Donan reaction explains the asymmetrical ion differentiation on the cell membrane due to the presence of non-diffusible ions and the semi-permeable nature of the membrane.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the correct order of insertion of muscles from near to far from the limbus?( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral rectus &gt; Superior rectus &gt; Medial rectus &gt; Inferior rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medial rectus &gt; Lateral rectus &gt; Superior rectus &gt; Inferior rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial rectus &gt; Inferior rectus &gt; Lateral rectus &gt; Superior rectus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superior rectus &gt; Inferior rectus &gt; Lateral rectus &gt; Medial rectus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Medial rectus > Inferior rectus > Lateral rectus > Superior rectus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-105815.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Medial rectus &gt; Inferior rectus &gt; Lateral rectus &gt; Superior rectus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct order of insertion of the extraocular muscles from near to far from the limbus is: Medial rectus &gt; Inferior rectus &gt; Lateral rectus &gt; Superior rectus</li><li>➤ Medial rectus &gt; Inferior rectus &gt; Lateral rectus &gt; Superior rectus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young girl presented with delayed puberty. On examination, secondary sexual characters were absent, the nipples were widely spaced, and she was short in height. The most likely karyotype would be? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "45XO", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "46XX", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "46XY", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "46XXX", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 45XO", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 45XO</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical features described in the question are characteristic of Turner syndrome, which is caused by the presence of only one X chromosome (45XO karyotype). The key features of Turner syndrome include:</li><li>• Delayed puberty and absence of secondary sexual characteristics: Due to ovarian dysgenesis or streak ovaries, which lead to primary ovarian insufficiency. Short stature: Almost all girls with Turner syndrome are short. Widely spaced nipples and shield-like chest: These are typical physical features of Turner syndrome. Webbed neck (common feature).</li><li>• Delayed puberty and absence of secondary sexual characteristics: Due to ovarian dysgenesis or streak ovaries, which lead to primary ovarian insufficiency.</li><li>• Short stature: Almost all girls with Turner syndrome are short.</li><li>• Widely spaced nipples and shield-like chest: These are typical physical features of Turner syndrome.</li><li>• Webbed neck (common feature).</li><li>• Note - 46XXX: This karyotype, also known as triple X syndrome, typically presents with taller than average stature and normal sexual development, which does not match the described clinical features.</li><li>• Note</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The karyotype 45XO is associated with Turner syndrome, which is characterized by delayed puberty, absence of secondary sexual characteristics, short stature, widely spaced nipples, and other distinctive physical features.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lactulose is ? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Galactose and glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose and fructose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galactose and fructose", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fructose and mannose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Galactose and fructose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Galactose and fructose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lactulose is composed of galactose and fructose, differentiating it from lactose, which is made up of galactose and glucose. It is commonly used for its medicinal properties, particularly as a laxative.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with complaint of delayed puberty, primary amenorrhea, and secondary sexual development. On examination, there was webbed neck and widely spaced nipples. Which karyotype is associated with the given condition? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "47 XXX", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "46 XX", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "45 XO", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "47 XXY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 45 XO", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152825.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 45 XO</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation described in the question is characteristic of Turner syndrome, a genetic disorder caused by complete or partial absence of one X chromosome in females. The key features that suggest Turner syndrome in this patient are:</li><li>• Delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea: Due to the presence of streak gonads (non-functional ovaries) in Turner syndrome, patients often experience delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods). Lack of secondary sexual development: The absence of functional ovaries leads to a lack of estrogen production, resulting in poor development of secondary sexual characteristics, such as breast development and pubic hair growth. Webbed neck: A short, wide neck with excess skin folds (webbing) is a common physical feature in Turner syndrome. Widely spaced nipples (shield chest): This is another characteristic physical finding in Turner syndrome, resulting from the altered body proportions.</li><li>• Delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea: Due to the presence of streak gonads (non-functional ovaries) in Turner syndrome, patients often experience delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods).</li><li>• Delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea:</li><li>• Lack of secondary sexual development: The absence of functional ovaries leads to a lack of estrogen production, resulting in poor development of secondary sexual characteristics, such as breast development and pubic hair growth.</li><li>• Lack of secondary sexual development:</li><li>• Webbed neck: A short, wide neck with excess skin folds (webbing) is a common physical feature in Turner syndrome.</li><li>• Webbed neck:</li><li>• Widely spaced nipples (shield chest): This is another characteristic physical finding in Turner syndrome, resulting from the altered body proportions.</li><li>• Widely spaced nipples (shield chest):</li><li>• The karyotype associated with classic Turner syndrome is 45,X (also written as 45,XO), indicating the presence of only one X chromosome instead of the normal two in females. This monosomy of the X chromosome is responsible for the clinical features observed in Turner syndrome.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 47, XXX (Triple X syndrome): This karyotype is associated with an extra X chromosome in females but does not typically present with the features described in the question.</li><li>• Option A. 47, XXX (Triple X syndrome):</li><li>• Option B. 46, XX: This is the normal female karyotype and does not explain the clinical presentation of the patient.</li><li>• Option B. 46, XX:</li><li>• Option D. 47, XXY (Klinefelter syndrome): This karyotype is associated with an extra X chromosome in males and presents with different clinical features, such as tall stature, gynecomastia, and hypogonadism.</li><li>• Option D. 47, XXY (Klinefelter syndrome):</li><li>• Additional information:</li><li>• Additional information:</li><li>• Patients with Turner syndrome are at increased risk of various complications, such as:</li><li>• Congenital heart defects (e.g., coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid aortic valve) Metabolic syndrome (obesity, insulin resistance, dyslipidemia) Autoimmune disorders (e.g., Hashimoto's thyroiditis, celiac disease) Osteoporosis due to estrogen deficiency</li><li>• Congenital heart defects (e.g., coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid aortic valve)</li><li>• Metabolic syndrome (obesity, insulin resistance, dyslipidemia)</li><li>• Autoimmune disorders (e.g., Hashimoto's thyroiditis, celiac disease)</li><li>• Osteoporosis due to estrogen deficiency</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome, characterized by the 45,XO karyotype, should be suspected in a female patient presenting with delayed puberty, primary amenorrhea, lack of secondary sexual development, and characteristic physical features such as webbed neck and widely spaced nipples.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man comes to the OPD with complaints of sinusitis and breathing difficulty. He also gives a history of infertility for the past few years. On further examination, thoracic cavity organs were found to be on the opposite side. What will be the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kartagener syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kallmann syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kartagener syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kartagener syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kartagener syndrome is diagnosed based on the presence of chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, situs inversus, and infertility, all of which result from defective ciliary function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient came with fever, rash and eschar formation. On examination, mite bite was also present. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anthrax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scrub typhus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rocky Mountain spotted fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epidemic Typhus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Scrub typhus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-111649.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-105818.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Scrub typhus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The key points that support this diagnosis are:</li><li>• The key points that support this diagnosis are:</li><li>• The presence of eschar , which is a common finding in scrub typhus and anthrax. The mite bite , which is the biggest clue provided, as scrub typhus is transmitted by the bite of larval mites (chiggers). The explanation that among the rickettsial diseases mentioned in the options (scrub typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and epidemic typhus), only scrub typhus is transmitted by mites.</li><li>• The presence of eschar , which is a common finding in scrub typhus and anthrax.</li><li>• eschar</li><li>• The mite bite , which is the biggest clue provided, as scrub typhus is transmitted by the bite of larval mites (chiggers).</li><li>• mite bite</li><li>• The explanation that among the rickettsial diseases mentioned in the options (scrub typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and epidemic typhus), only scrub typhus is transmitted by mites.</li><li>• Scrub typhus is a rickettsial disease caused by the bacteria Orientia tsutsugamushi and transmitted by the bite of larval mites, commonly known as chiggers.</li><li>• Triad – Eschar; Regional lymphadenopathy and Maculopapular rash</li><li>• *Coxiella and Bartonella are now excluded from this family</li><li>• *Coxiella and Bartonella are now excluded from this family</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Anthrax: Anthrax is caused by the bacteria Bacillus anthracis and is not transmitted by mite bites. It is a zoonotic disease acquired through contact with infected animals or their products, inhalation of spores, or ingestion of contaminated food.</li><li>• Option A. Anthrax:</li><li>• Option C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever: This is another rickettsial disease, but it is transmitted by ticks, not mites. The presence of a mite bite in the given scenario rules out this option.</li><li>• Option C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever:</li><li>• Option D. Epidemic Typhus: Caused by Rickettsia prowazekii and transmitted by lice, epidemic typhus presents with a rash but does not typically include eschar formation, nor is it associated with mite bites.</li><li>• Option D. Epidemic Typhus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scrub typhus is a rickettsial disease caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi and transmitted by the bite of larval mites (chiggers). The presence of eschar, fever, rash, and a mite bite are key clinical features suggestive of this diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had a history of thorn prick while working in a rose garden and later observed linear spread proximally till his shoulder. What is the underlying cause for this clinical feature? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphangitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blaschkitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furuncle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lymphangitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-164843.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lymphangitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct answer is lymphangitis. The patient presents with a history of a thorn prick followed by a linear spread of lesions, which is indicative of sporotrichosis.</li><li>• Sporotrichosis, also known as \"rose gardener's disease,\" is caused by the dimorphic fungus Sporothrix schenckii. The infection typically occurs when the fungus is inoculated into the skin through a thorn prick. The characteristic clinical feature is a linear pattern of nodulo-ulcerative lesions that follow the lymphatic vessels, resulting in lymphangitis.</li><li>• nodulo-ulcerative lesions</li><li>• follow the lymphatic vessels,</li><li>• Asteroid bodies in sporotrichosis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Blaschkitis: This condition follows Blaschko's lines and is unrelated to thorn pricks or fungal infections.</li><li>• Option B. Blaschkitis:</li><li>• Option C. Abscess: An abscess is a localized collection of pus within tissues, usually caused by bacterial infection, and does not typically present with a linear pattern of spread.</li><li>• Option C. Abscess:</li><li>• Option D. Furuncle: A furuncle, or boil, is a painful infection of a hair follicle and surrounding tissue caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It does not present with a linear pattern of lesions.</li><li>• Option D. Furuncle:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sporotrichosis, also known as \"rose gardener's disease,\" is caused by Sporothrix schenckii. It presents with a linear pattern of nodulo-ulcerative lesions following the lymphatic vessels, leading to lymphangitis. This is typically seen after a thorn prick or similar injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female presented with wheezing and shortness of breath with use of accessory muscles. She complains of similar episodes in the past in early mornings. Spirometry findings are as follows: FEV1/FVC ratio &lt; 0.7 and FEV1 &lt; 80% of the predicted value in a female patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asthma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interstitial Lung Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Asthma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Asthma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles, which often worsen in the early mornings or at night. Spirometry findings typically show an obstructive pattern, with a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio (&lt; 0.7) and an FEV1 &lt; 80% of the predicted value. This pattern is indicative of obstructive lung disease, which is consistent with asthma.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Interstitial Lung Disease (ILD) : ILD typically presents as a restrictive lung disease, not obstructive. It shows a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio and reduced lung volumes.</li><li>• Option B. Interstitial Lung Disease (ILD)</li><li>• Option C. Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF) : IPF is a type of ILD and also presents with a restrictive pattern, not obstructive. It involves progressive fibrosis of the lung tissue.</li><li>• Option C. Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)</li><li>• Option D. Silicosis : Silicosis is another form of restrictive lung disease caused by inhalation of silica dust, leading to fibrosis and restrictive spirometry patterns.</li><li>• Option D. Silicosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asthma is an obstructive lung disease characterized by episodes of wheezing and shortness of breath, especially in the early mornings, with spirometry showing a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio and FEV1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The correct order of events of lactation in the puerperium are? (FMGE JANUARY 2024) Lactogenesis Mammogenesis Galactopoiesis Galactokinesis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4, 1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 1, 4, 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 1, 4, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2, 1, 4, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The process of lactation involves several stages, each with specific physiological changes. Understanding these stages helps in comprehending the sequence of events that occur from the preparation of the breast during pregnancy to the maintenance of milk production.</li><li>• 2. Mammogenesis : This is the first stage, involving the development and growth of the mammary glands in preparation for lactation. It occurs during pregnancy when the breast tissue proliferates and differentiates under the influence of hormones such as estrogen and progesterone.</li><li>• Mammogenesis</li><li>• 1. Lactogenesis : This stage refers to the initiation of milk production, which begins around the time of birth. Lactogenesis is divided into two phases:</li><li>• Lactogenesis</li><li>• Lactogenesis I: Occurs during pregnancy when the mammary gland is capable of producing some milk. Lactogenesis II: Occurs postpartum when copious milk secretion begins, typically around 2-3 days after delivery, driven by the sudden drop in progesterone and the increase in prolactin.</li><li>• Lactogenesis I: Occurs during pregnancy when the mammary gland is capable of producing some milk.</li><li>• Lactogenesis II: Occurs postpartum when copious milk secretion begins, typically around 2-3 days after delivery, driven by the sudden drop in progesterone and the increase in prolactin.</li><li>• 4. Galactokinesis : This stage involves the ejection or movement of milk from the alveoli to the nipple. It is facilitated by the let-down reflex, which is triggered by the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin causes the myoepithelial cells around the alveoli to contract, expelling the milk into the ducts and out through the nipple.</li><li>• Galactokinesis</li><li>• 3. Galactopoiesis : This final stage refers to the maintenance of milk production. It is sustained by the regular removal of milk from the breast, either through breastfeeding or pumping, which maintains prolactin levels and keeps the milk supply ongoing.</li><li>• Galactopoiesis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of events in lactation during the puerperium is: Mammogenesis (breast development), Lactogenesis (initiation of milk production), Galactokinesis (milk ejection), and Galactopoiesis (maintenance of milk production).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dorsal mesentery of esophagus forms which component of the diaphragm? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleuroperitoneal membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crura", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Septum transversum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "From medial to lateral part of diaphragm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Crura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Crura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The diaphragm is a muscular and tendinous structure that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. It develops from several embryonic structures, including the septum transversum, pleuroperitoneal membranes, dorsal mesentery of the esophagus, and body wall musculature.</li><li>• Developmental Components of the Diaphragm: Septum Transversum: This forms the central tendon of the diaphragm. Pleuroperitoneal Membranes: These contribute to the posterolateral portions of the diaphragm. Body Wall: Contributes to the peripheral muscular portions of the diaphragm. Dorsal Mesentery of the Esophagus: This forms the crura of the diaphragm. The crura are muscular structures that extend from the lumbar vertebrae to the central tendon of the diaphragm and provide support to the esophageal opening. Role of Crura: The crura of the diaphragm are essential for anchoring the diaphragm to the vertebral column and aiding in the function of the esophageal hiatus. They form from the right and left sides of the dorsal mesentery of the esophagus, which are critical for maintaining the anatomical integrity and function of the diaphragm.</li><li>• Developmental Components of the Diaphragm: Septum Transversum: This forms the central tendon of the diaphragm. Pleuroperitoneal Membranes: These contribute to the posterolateral portions of the diaphragm. Body Wall: Contributes to the peripheral muscular portions of the diaphragm. Dorsal Mesentery of the Esophagus: This forms the crura of the diaphragm. The crura are muscular structures that extend from the lumbar vertebrae to the central tendon of the diaphragm and provide support to the esophageal opening.</li><li>• Developmental Components of the Diaphragm:</li><li>• Septum Transversum: This forms the central tendon of the diaphragm. Pleuroperitoneal Membranes: These contribute to the posterolateral portions of the diaphragm. Body Wall: Contributes to the peripheral muscular portions of the diaphragm. Dorsal Mesentery of the Esophagus: This forms the crura of the diaphragm. The crura are muscular structures that extend from the lumbar vertebrae to the central tendon of the diaphragm and provide support to the esophageal opening.</li><li>• Septum Transversum: This forms the central tendon of the diaphragm.</li><li>• Pleuroperitoneal Membranes: These contribute to the posterolateral portions of the diaphragm.</li><li>• Body Wall: Contributes to the peripheral muscular portions of the diaphragm.</li><li>• Dorsal Mesentery of the Esophagus: This forms the crura of the diaphragm. The crura are muscular structures that extend from the lumbar vertebrae to the central tendon of the diaphragm and provide support to the esophageal opening.</li><li>• Role of Crura: The crura of the diaphragm are essential for anchoring the diaphragm to the vertebral column and aiding in the function of the esophageal hiatus. They form from the right and left sides of the dorsal mesentery of the esophagus, which are critical for maintaining the anatomical integrity and function of the diaphragm.</li><li>• Role of Crura:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pleuroperitoneal membrane: This is incorrect. The pleuroperitoneal membranes contribute to the posterolateral parts of the diaphragm but not to the crura.</li><li>• Option A. Pleuroperitoneal membrane:</li><li>• Option C. Septum transversum: This is incorrect. The septum transversum primarily forms the central tendon of the diaphragm.</li><li>• Option C. Septum transversum:</li><li>• Option D. From medial to lateral part of diaphragm: This option is not specific and does not accurately describe any particular component formed by the dorsal mesentery of the esophagus.</li><li>• Option D. From medial to lateral part of diaphragm:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The crura of the diaphragm develop from the dorsal mesentery of the esophagus and play a vital role in anchoring the diaphragm and forming the esophageal hiatus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nutritional deficiency is commonly associated with a chronic alcoholic presenting with a pruritic eczematous rash on the neck and dorsum of hands? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Niacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-162940.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chronic alcoholism often leads to poor dietary intake, resulting in various nutritional deficiencies.</li><li>• One of the most significant deficiencies in chronic alcoholics is niacin (vitamin B3). Niacin deficiency leads to a condition called pellagra, which is characterized by the \"3 Ds\": dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.</li><li>• The dermatitis in pellagra is specifically photodermatitis, meaning it occurs in areas exposed to sunlight, such as the neck and dorsum of the hands. The rash is pruritic and eczematous, commonly presenting as Casal's necklace around the neck and gauntlet sign on the hands.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Riboflavin: Deficiency in riboflavin (vitamin B2) typically leads to symptoms such as cheilosis, glossitis, and seborrheic dermatitis but does not cause the characteristic dermatitis seen in niacin deficiency.</li><li>• Option B. Riboflavin:</li><li>• Option C. Folic acid: Folic acid deficiency often presents with megaloblastic anemia and glossitis, not with the dermatological symptoms described in the question.</li><li>• Option C. Folic acid:</li><li>• Option D. Thiamine: Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency leads to conditions like beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, primarily affecting the cardiovascular and nervous systems, rather than causing the dermatological symptoms seen with niacin deficiency.</li><li>• Option D. Thiamine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency, commonly seen in chronic alcoholics, leads to pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. The dermatitis is photodermatitis, presenting with a pruritic eczematous rash on sun-exposed areas like the neck and dorsum of the hands. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adult female came with curdy white vaginal discharge. Microscopic examination showed gram-positive budding yeast and pseudohyphae. What can be the causative organism? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candida albicans", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichomoniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonorrhoea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Candida albicans", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121330.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Candida albicans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Candida albicans is a fungus that can cause vaginal candidiasis (yeast infection), characterized by a curdy white vaginal discharge. The presence of gram-positive budding yeast and pseudohyphae on microscopic examination is a distinctive feature of Candida albicans infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient has problems in doing heel to shin test and repeatedly misses, and he has tremors in his hands. What is the likely site of lesion?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cerebellum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caudate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Globus pallidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyramidal tract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cerebellum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cerebellum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The heel-to-shin test is a classic test for cerebellar function, and difficulty or inaccuracy in performing this test indicates cerebellar dysfunction.</li><li>• Additionally, the presence of tremors, particularly intention tremors, is characteristic of cerebellar lesions.</li><li>• Cerebellar dysfunction can also present with other signs such as dysdiadochokinesia (difficulty with rapid alternating movements), dysmetria (inability to judge distance or scale), nystagmus, and ataxia (uncoordinated movement).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Caudate: Lesions in the caudate nucleus are associated with chorea, characterized by involuntary, irregular, and unpredictable movements.</li><li>• Option B. Caudate:</li><li>• chorea,</li><li>• Option C. Globus pallidus: Lesions here typically result in dystonia and rigidity, not tremors or difficulty with the heel-to-shin test.</li><li>• Option C. Globus pallidus:</li><li>• dystonia</li><li>• Option D. Pyramidal tract: Lesions in the pyramidal tract lead to spasticity, increased muscle tone, and exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, not the symptoms described in this patient.</li><li>• Option D. Pyramidal tract:</li><li>• spasticity,</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cerebellar lesions are indicated by difficulties with coordination tests such as the heel-to-shin test, presence of intention tremors, and other signs of ataxia. Recognizing these features helps in localizing the lesion to the cerebellum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Coral red fluorescence on Wood's lamp seen in which of the following conditions? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Erythrasma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitiligo", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pityriasis versicolor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acanthosis nigricans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Erythrasma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-163145.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Erythrasma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct answer is erythrasma.</li><li>• Erythrasma is caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum and typically presents as hyperpigmented patches in skin folds, such as the axilla and toe web spaces. When examined under a Wood's lamp, which emits ultraviolet light at a wavelength of 365 nanometers , erythrasma exhibits a characteristic coral red fluorescence due to the porphyrins produced by the bacteria.</li><li>• 365 nanometers</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Vitiligo: Under a Wood's lamp, vitiligo shows a milky white fluorescence . This is due to the absence of melanin in the depigmented areas of the skin.</li><li>• Option B. Vitiligo:</li><li>• milky white fluorescence</li><li>• Option C. Pityriasis versicolor: Caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur, this condition shows a yellow fluorescence under a Wood's lamp.</li><li>• Option C. Pityriasis versicolor:</li><li>• yellow fluorescence</li><li>• Option D. Acanthosis nigricans: This condition does not exhibit any fluorescence under a Wood's lamp. It presents with hyperpigmentation and a velvety texture , particularly in skin folds.</li><li>• Option D. Acanthosis nigricans:</li><li>• velvety texture</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erythrasma, caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum, presents with coral red fluorescence under a Wood's lamp, distinguishing it from other dermatological conditions that may exhibit different types of fluorescence or none at all.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to triage, which of the following colors indicates the highest priority? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Red", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-112927.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Red</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the triage system, the red color indicates the highest priority. The triage categories and their corresponding colors are as follows:</li><li>• Red : Category 1, highest priority. Patients requiring immediate resuscitation or life-saving surgery within 0 to 6 hours.</li><li>• Red</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Yellow : Category 2, high priority. Possible resuscitation or possible surgery within 6 to 24 hours.</li><li>• Option B. Yellow</li><li>• Option C. Green : Category 3, low priority. Ambulatory patients with non-life-threatening injuries.</li><li>• Option C. Green</li><li>• Option D. Black : Least priority, includes dead and moribund patients.</li><li>• Option D. Black</li><li>• The red category, which is assigned to patients requiring immediate life-saving intervention, is the highest priority in the triage system.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Modified Radical Neck Dissection (MRND), which of the following structures is not preserved? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sternocleidomastoid muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Internal jugular vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spinal accessory nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Submandibular gland", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Submandibular gland", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Submandibular gland</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Modified Radical Neck Dissection, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, and spinal accessory nerve are typically preserved to reduce morbidity, while the submandibular gland is often removed due to its close association with lymphatic structures that are at risk for malignancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who has a pet dog, came with a complaint of hypochondrial pain. The radiological imaging showed cyst within the liver. What can be the causative organism? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echinococcus granulosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Entamoeba histolytica", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Taenia Solium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D. latum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Echinococcus granulosus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121140.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121227.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Echinococcus granulosus, also known as the dog tapeworm, can cause hydatid cyst disease in humans, with multilocular cysts commonly found in the liver. Owning a pet dog and ingesting food or water contaminated with dog feces containing the parasite's eggs are risk factors for acquiring this infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50 year old male presents with right-sided serous otitis media and history of cervical lymphadenopathy. The probable diagnosis is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Angiofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nasopharyngeal cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenoid hypertrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Otitis media with effusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nasopharyngeal cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Nasopharyngeal cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When an adult patient presents with serous otitis media and cervical lymphadenopathy, it is crucial to consider nasopharyngeal cancer as a possible diagnosis, especially in the context of risk factors such as age over 50 years and a history suggestive of malignancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents at 22 weeks for an MTP due to failure of contraception. Which of the following is correct? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It can be done with the opinion of 2 doctors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It cannot be done if there is a fetal Anomaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It requires the opinion of a medical board", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It cannot be done", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It cannot be done", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) It cannot be done</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MTP for failure of contraception is only allowed up to 20 weeks.</li><li>➤ MTP between 20-24 weeks is permitted for specific cases such as fetal anomalies, maternal health risks, and pregnancies due to sexual assault.</li><li>➤ Beyond 24 weeks, termination requires the approval of a medical board for severe fetal anomalies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following rules out transudative pleural effusion except? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High fibrin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low specific gravity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low cellular content", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High fibrin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-103627.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) High fibrin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Transudative pleural effusions are typically characterized by low protein, low specific gravity, and low cellular content. High fibrin content, on the other hand, is suggestive of an exudative effusion rather than a transudative one.</li><li>• Differentiating features:</li><li>• Differentiating features:</li><li>• Additional information</li><li>• Additional information</li><li>• Light's criteria : These are used to differentiate exudative pleural effusions from transudative effusions based on the chemical and cellular characteristics of the pleural fluid.</li><li>• Light's criteria</li><li>• Protein Ratio : If the ratio of the protein content in the pleural effusion to the serum protein is more than 0.5 (or 50%), the effusion is likely an exudate. LDH Ratio : If the lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level in the effusion is more than 60% (or 0.6) of the serum LDH, it indicates that the effusion is likely an exudate. LDH Upper Limit : If the LDH level in the effusion exceeds two-thirds of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH as defined by the laboratory, the effusion is likely an exudate.</li><li>• Protein Ratio : If the ratio of the protein content in the pleural effusion to the serum protein is more than 0.5 (or 50%), the effusion is likely an exudate.</li><li>• Protein Ratio</li><li>• LDH Ratio : If the lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level in the effusion is more than 60% (or 0.6) of the serum LDH, it indicates that the effusion is likely an exudate.</li><li>• LDH Ratio</li><li>• LDH Upper Limit : If the LDH level in the effusion exceeds two-thirds of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH as defined by the laboratory, the effusion is likely an exudate.</li><li>• LDH Upper Limit</li><li>• If, any one out of three criteria is positive, then its an exudate</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Low protein: This is a feature of transudative effusions.</li><li>• Option A. Low protein:</li><li>• Option C. Low specific gravity: This is also a characteristic of transudative effusions.</li><li>• Option C. Low specific gravity:</li><li>• Option D. Low cellular content: This is another feature seen in transudative effusions.</li><li>• Option D. Low cellular content:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High fibrin content in pleural fluid is indicative of an exudative effusion, which rules out the diagnosis of a transudative pleural effusion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cannon ball metastases on chest X-ray are seen in? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Choriocarcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complete mole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Invasive mole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Partial mole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Choriocarcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-152245.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Choriocarcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cannonball metastases refer to multiple, round, well-circumscribed nodules seen on a chest X-ray, typically representing metastatic deposits. These are characteristic of hematogenous spread to the lungs.</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma:</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma:</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma is a highly malignant trophoblastic tumor that often follows a molar pregnancy but can also arise after a normal pregnancy or abortion.</li><li>• It is known for its aggressive nature and tendency to metastasize early, particularly to the lungs, where it can cause cannonball metastases.</li><li>• Despite its aggressive nature, choriocarcinoma responds well to chemotherapy, and lung metastases are associated with a relatively good prognosis compared to other metastatic sites.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Complete mole: This refers to a hydatidiform mole, a type of gestational trophoblastic disease, which may precede choriocarcinoma but does not directly present with cannonball metastases.</li><li>• Option B. Complete mole:</li><li>• Option C. Invasive mole : This is a type of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia that invades the myometrium but typically does not present with cannonball metastases in the lungs.</li><li>• Option C. Invasive mole</li><li>• Option D. Partial mole : This is a type of molar pregnancy with less malignant potential than a complete mole and does not present with cannonball metastases.</li><li>• Option D. Partial mole</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cannonball metastases on a chest X-ray are a hallmark of choriocarcinoma, representing lung metastases that, despite indicating spread, are associated with a good prognosis due to the tumor's sensitivity to chemotherapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain radiating to the back. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Which of the following should be avoided in management of the given condition? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nil per oral to avoid pancreatic stimulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Administration of 5% dextrose", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parentral nutrition preferred for 2-3 days over the nil per oral (NPO) approach", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Early initiation of oral feedings", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Administration of 5% dextrose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Administration of 5% dextrose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of acute pancreatitis, avoid the administration of high glucose content solutions such as 5% dextrose, as they can exacerbate the condition, and instead focus on pain management, fluid resuscitation, and appropriate nutritional support.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structures marked in numbers. (FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-liver, 2-pancrease, 3-spleen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-spleen, 2-pancrease, 3-left kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-right kidney, 2-pancrease, 2-left kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-left kidney, 2-pancrease, 3-spleen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-liver, 2-pancrease, 3-spleen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-123751.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/5-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-liver, 2-pancrease, 3-spleen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the provided CT scan of the abdomen, three structures are marked -</li><li>• The first structure (marked as \"1\") is identified as the liver. This identification is based on its large size and position on the right side of the vertebral column. The liver is a prominent organ in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, adjacent to the anterior abdominal wall. The second structure (marked as \"2\") is the pancreas. Specifically, this is the head of the pancreas. The pancreas lies in the retroperitoneal space, with its head nestled in the curve of the duodenum and its tail extending towards the hilum of the spleen. The third structure (marked as \"3\") is the spleen. The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, near the stomach and under the left diaphragm. It is typically a crescent-shaped organ.</li><li>• The first structure (marked as \"1\") is identified as the liver. This identification is based on its large size and position on the right side of the vertebral column. The liver is a prominent organ in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, adjacent to the anterior abdominal wall.</li><li>• The second structure (marked as \"2\") is the pancreas. Specifically, this is the head of the pancreas. The pancreas lies in the retroperitoneal space, with its head nestled in the curve of the duodenum and its tail extending towards the hilum of the spleen.</li><li>• The third structure (marked as \"3\") is the spleen. The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, near the stomach and under the left diaphragm. It is typically a crescent-shaped organ.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the stages of wound healing in the correct sequence: (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proliferation, hemostasis, inflammation, remodeling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inflammation, remodeling, hemostasis, proliferation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodeling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Remodeling, proliferation, hemostasis, inflammation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodeling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodeling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of wound healing stages is hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling, reflecting the orderly process of wound repair from clot formation to tissue regeneration and maturation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Serology of IPV vaccine strains is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1, type 2, type 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 1, type 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 1, type 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Type 1, type 2, type 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Type 1, type 2, type 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) contains all three strains of the poliovirus: Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3. Although India switched from the trivalent Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) to the bivalent OPV (containing only Type 1 and Type 3) as part of the global switch program in April 2016.</li><li>• The IPV introduced in the national immunization schedule still contains all three poliovirus strains. It is a trivalent vaccine, containing Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3 strains.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) introduced in the national immunization schedule of India contains all three strains of the poliovirus: Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3, making it a trivalent vaccine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with hypertension, increased heart rate, and sweating. He sees red halos after hearing the radio. Which substance's abuse can cause this? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heroin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LSD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. LSD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) LSD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LSD, a hallucinogen, can cause reflex hallucinations, where a stimulus in one sensory modality (e.g., auditory) produces a hallucination in another modality (e.g., visual), along with sympathetic symptoms like hypertension and increased heart rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the given image, the tendon marked by the arrow is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flexor carpi radialis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flexor carpi ulnaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flexor digitorum superficialis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Palmaris longus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Flexor carpi radialis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-120821.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Flexor carpi radialis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the anterior compartment of the forearm, focusing on the tendons near the wrist. The arrow is pointing to a tendon that runs from the forearm to the wrist and to the palm. This tendon belongs to the flexor carpi radialis muscle. The flexor carpi radialis is one of the superficial flexor muscles of the forearm. It plays a crucial role in flexion and abduction of the wrist.</li><li>• Flexor Carpi Radialis: The flexor carpi radialis tendon is located just lateral to the palmaris longus tendon. It is prominent and easily palpable in many individuals.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Flexor carpi ulnaris : This is incorrect. The flexor carpi ulnaris tendon is located medial to the palmaris longus tendon and runs towards the pisiform bone.</li><li>• Option B. Flexor carpi ulnaris</li><li>• Option C. Flexor digitorum superficialis : This is incorrect. The flexor digitorum superficialis tendons are deeper and run to the fingers, responsible for flexion of the middle phalanges.</li><li>• Option C. Flexor digitorum superficialis</li><li>• Option D. Palmaris longus: This is incorrect. The palmaris longus tendon runs from the forearm to the palm and is more centrally located in the wrist. It is a thin tendon that is absent in about 14% of the population.</li><li>• Option D. Palmaris longus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The flexor carpi radialis is a superficial flexor muscle of the forearm with a prominent tendon that runs from the forearm to the base of the second and third metacarpals, playing a key role in wrist flexion and abduction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the method to prevent febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prophylactic paracetamol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leucodepleted blood", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Saline washed red cell transfusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Leucodepleted blood", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Leucodepleted blood</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTRs) are caused by antibodies in the recipient's plasma reacting with the donor's white blood cells (leukocytes) present in the transfused blood. The use of leucodepleted blood, which has been filtered to remove most of the leukocytes, significantly reduces the risk of FNHTRs by eliminating the trigger for the antibody reaction.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Prophylactic paracetamol may help in managing fever if an FNHTR occurs, but it does not prevent the reaction itself.</li><li>• Option A. Prophylactic paracetamol</li><li>• Option B. Intravenous steroids are not typically used for the prevention of FNHTRs. Steroids may be administered in cases of severe transfusion reactions, but they do not specifically target the underlying cause of FNHTRs.</li><li>• Option B. Intravenous steroids</li><li>• Option D. Saline-washed red cell transfusion is a method used to reduce the risk of allergic reactions due to the presence of plasma proteins, but it does not directly address the issue of FNHTRs caused by leukocyte antibodies.</li><li>• Option D. Saline-washed red cell transfusion</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The use of leucodepleted blood, which has been filtered to remove most of the donor's white blood cells, is the recommended method to prevent febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions caused by antibody reactions against the transfused leukocytes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male child presented with gum bleeding and bow legs. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with the described features? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ascorbic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tocopherol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calciferol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biotin deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ascorbic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ascorbic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gum bleeding and bow legs are seen with Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency.</li><li>➤ Gum bleeding and bow legs are seen with Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother comes to the hospital with her newborn baby. On examination, surfactants are not adequately found and collapse of alveoli was seen. What will be the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory distress syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Respiratory distress syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Respiratory distress syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a condition commonly seen in premature infants where the lungs are not fully developed, leading to a deficiency in surfactant. Surfactant is crucial for reducing surface tension within the alveoli, allowing them to remain open and facilitating proper gas exchange. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange and difficulty breathing, which is the hallmark of RDS. In this case, the mother's newborn shows signs of inadequate surfactant and alveolar collapse, making RDS the most probable diagnosis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bronchial asthma: This condition involves chronic inflammation of the airways, typically seen in older children and adults, not newborns. It presents with symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath but is not associated with surfactant deficiency or alveolar collapse.</li><li>• Option A. Bronchial asthma:</li><li>• Option C. Pneumonia: This is an infection of the lungs that can cause fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. While it can affect newborns, it does not involve surfactant deficiency or the collapse of alveoli.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Pneumonia:</li><li>• Option D. Pleural effusion: This condition involves the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space around the lungs. It can cause breathing difficulties but is not related to surfactant deficiency or alveolar collapse.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Pleural effusion:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Respiratory distress syndrome in newborns is primarily due to a lack of surfactant, leading to alveolar collapse and breathing difficulties.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition given in the image below: (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bulbar urethral injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Membra-urethral injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Penile stricture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prostate hyperplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bulbar urethral injury", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/14/picture44.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bulbar urethral injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A bulbar urethral injury through radiographic imaging shows contrast extravasation or interruption in the bulbar urethra, indicative of trauma to this specific area.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an endoscopy, a man is found to have the squamo-columnar junction located proximally than normal. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this finding? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Achalasia cardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sliding hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rolling hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paraesophageal hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sliding hernia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/14/picture42.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sliding hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sliding hernia is the condition most likely responsible for the proximal displacement of the squamo-columnar junction observed during endoscopy, indicating the upward movement of the stomach through the hiatal opening.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child came with a lesion in the right eye and the histopathological image showed Flexner Wintersteiner rosettes. What is the likely diagnosis? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ocular melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhabdomyosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic nerve glioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retinoblastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152809.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Retinoblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation of a lesion in the eye of a young child, along with the histopathological finding of Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes (small round blue tumor cells), strongly suggests the diagnosis of retinoblastoma.</li><li>• Retinoblastoma is a malignant tumor of the retina that primarily affects young children. It arises from immature retinal cells called retinoblasts. The presence of Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes is a characteristic histopathological feature of retinoblastoma. These rosettes are true rosettes, consisting of a ring of tumor cells surrounding a central lumen, resembling the primitive neuroepithelium.</li><li>• It is important to distinguish Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes from Homer Wright rosettes, which are pseudo-rosettes. Homer Wright rosettes are characterized by tumor cells arranged around a central neuropil (tangled cell processes) and are seen in various tumors of neuroectodermal origin, such as neuroblastoma and medulloblastoma.</li><li>• While retinoblastoma can show both true rosettes (Flexner-Wintersteiner) and pseudo-rosettes (Homer Wright), the presence of true rosettes is more specific for retinoblastoma in the context of an ocular tumor in a young child.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ocular melanoma: Ocular melanoma is a malignant tumor arising from melanocytes in the eye. It is more common in adults and does not typically show Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes on histopathology.</li><li>• Option B. Ocular melanoma:</li><li>• Option C. Rhabdomyosarcoma: Rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant tumor of skeletal muscle origin. While it can occur in the orbit, it does not show Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes on histopathology.</li><li>• Option C. Rhabdomyosarcoma:</li><li>• Option D. Optic nerve glioma: Optic nerve glioma is a benign tumor arising from glial cells of the optic nerve. It is more common in children with neurofibromatosis type 1 but does not typically show Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes on histopathology.</li><li>• Option D. Optic nerve glioma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes (true rosettes) on histopathology of an ocular lesion in a young child is highly suggestive of retinoblastoma. It is important to distinguish these true rosettes from Homer Wright pseudo-rosettes, which can be seen in various other neuroectodermal tumors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, particularly involving the skin and respiratory tract. The patient's parents report that he has had multiple abscesses and lymphadenitis. Dihydrorhodamine (DHR) test results show an abnormal pattern. What is the primary suspicion based on these findings? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic granulomatous disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Severe combined immunodeficiency disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sialyl Lewis X defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Integrin defect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chronic granulomatous disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chronic granulomatous disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation of recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, particularly involving the skin and respiratory tract, along with a history of multiple abscesses and lymphadenitis in a young child, strongly suggests a primary immunodeficiency disorder. The abnormal dihydrorhodamine (DHR) test result further supports the diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease (CGD).</li><li>• CGD is a rare inherited disorder characterized by defective oxygen-dependent killing of microorganisms by phagocytic cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages. This defect is caused by mutations in the genes encoding components of the NADPH oxidase enzyme complex , which is responsible for generating reactive oxygen species (ROS) necessary for microbial killing. The inability to produce sufficient ROS leads to recurrent infections, especially with catalase-positive organisms.</li><li>• genes encoding components of the NADPH oxidase enzyme complex</li><li>• The DHR test is a flow cytometry-based assay that measures the production of ROS by neutrophils after stimulation. An abnormal DHR test result, as seen in this patient, is consistent with the diagnosis of CGD.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is a group of disorders characterized by defects in both cellular and humoral immunity.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• X-linked SCID is an X-linked recessive immunodeficiency disorder characterized by chronic diarrhea, periodic respiratory infection, and acquired maternal T cell-mediated GVHD. Mutations in interleukin-2 receptor gamma (IL2RG) can result in X-SCID. While patients with SCID are also susceptible to recurrent infections, the presentation typically involves opportunistic infections and failure to thrive, which are not mentioned in this case.</li><li>• interleukin-2</li><li>• Option C. Sialyl Lewis X defect, also known as leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2 (LAD-2), is a rare disorder characterized by defective leukocyte rolling and adhesion due to a deficiency in the sialyl Lewis X ligand . While patients with LAD-2 may present with recurrent infections, the DHR test would not be abnormal in this condition.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• as leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2 (LAD-2),</li><li>• the sialyl Lewis X ligand</li><li>• Option D. Integrin defects, such as leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 (LAD-1), are characterized by defective leukocyte adhesion and migration due to mutations in the genes encoding integrins. Although patients with LAD-1 may present with recurrent infections, the DHR test would not be abnormal in this condition.</li><li>• Option D.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic granulomatous disease should be suspected in a child presenting with recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, particularly involving the skin and respiratory tract, along with a history of multiple abscesses and lymphadenitis, and an abnormal DHR test result.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rachitic rosary is seen with which deficiency? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture6_ODUPj6w.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rachitic rosary is a classic finding in rickets, a condition caused by Vitamin D deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the emergency room with a history of a road traffic accident. On examination, the patient is found to have shock and hypotension. Extended focused assessment with sonography for trauma (eFAST) is negative. X-ray is normal, and ECG shows no abnormalities. The SpO2 is 93%, and the blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg with a pulse rate of 80/min. What type shock is most likely present? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anaphylactic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemorrhagic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardiogenic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurogenic shock", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Neurogenic shock", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Neurogenic shock</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a trauma patient with hypotension, negative eFAST, and no evidence of hemorrhage or cardiac dysfunction, neurogenic shock should be considered, especially in the context of spinal cord injury or severe head injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male presented with vertigo, tinnitus and fluctuating hearing loss. The audiogram is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the given image? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BPPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meniere’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vestibular neuronitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Meniere’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-124328.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Meniere’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with vertigo, tinnitus, fluctuating hearing loss, and an audiogram showing low to mid frequency sensorineural hearing loss is Meniere’s disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of sanitation facilities should be provided for the refugees returning from war in a camp? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pit method", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dumping method", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trench latrine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aqua privy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Trench latrine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Trench latrine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When providing temporary sanitation facilities for refugees in camps, trench latrines (either shallow or deep) are the recommended option, as they are suitable for short-term use and can be easily set up in such situations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old lady presents to the OPD with resting tremors, bradykinesia, cogwheel rigidity and postural instability. After some time she died due to respiratory failure following pneumonia. Which of the following is expected to be seen in his brain biopsy? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lewy bodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Negri bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hirano body", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heinz bodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lewy bodies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152841.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152901.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152913.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152924.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152938.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lewy bodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation described is the characteristic of Parkinson's disease , a neurodegenerative disorder affecting the central nervous system. The cardinal features of Parkinson's disease mentioned in the question are:</li><li>• Parkinson's disease</li><li>• Resting tremors: Tremors that occur when the affected body part is at rest and disappear with voluntary movement. These are often described as \"pill-rolling\" tremors. Bradykinesia: Slowness of movement and difficulty initiating movements. Cogwheel rigidity: A type of rigidity characterized by jerky, ratchet-like resistance to passive movement of a joint, resembling the clicking of a cogwheel. Postural instability: Impaired balance and coordination, leading to an increased risk of falls.</li><li>• Resting tremors: Tremors that occur when the affected body part is at rest and disappear with voluntary movement. These are often described as \"pill-rolling\" tremors.</li><li>• Resting tremors:</li><li>• Bradykinesia: Slowness of movement and difficulty initiating movements.</li><li>• Bradykinesia:</li><li>• Cogwheel rigidity: A type of rigidity characterized by jerky, ratchet-like resistance to passive movement of a joint, resembling the clicking of a cogwheel.</li><li>• Cogwheel rigidity:</li><li>• Postural instability: Impaired balance and coordination, leading to an increased risk of falls.</li><li>• Postural instability:</li><li>• Parkinson's disease is caused by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta of the midbrain, leading to a deficiency of dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway. The hallmark histopathological finding in Parkinson's disease is the presence of Lewy bodies in the affected neurons.</li><li>• Lewy bodies are eosinophilic, round to elongated intracytoplasmic inclusions composed of aggregated proteins, primarily alpha-synuclein. They are considered the pathological hallmark of Parkinson's disease and other related disorders, collectively known as synucleinopathies.</li><li>• The patient's death due to respiratory failure following pneumonia is a common complication in advanced stages of Parkinson's disease, as the disease progression can lead to impaired swallowing and increased risk of aspiration pneumonia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Negri bodies: These are intracytoplasmic inclusions found in the neurons of animals and humans infected with rabies virus. They are not associated with Parkinson's disease.</li><li>• Option B. Negri bodies:</li><li>• rabies virus.</li><li>• Option C. Hirano bodies: These are eosinophilic, rod-shaped intracytoplasmic inclusions found in the neurons of patients with neurodegenerative disorders, particularly Alzheimer's disease . They are not specific to Parkinson's disease.</li><li>• Option C. Hirano bodies:</li><li>• Alzheimer's disease</li><li>• Option D. Heinz bodies: These are intracellular inclusions found in red blood cells of individuals with various hemolytic anemias, such as glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency . They are not related to Parkinson's disease or other neurodegenerative disorders.</li><li>• Option D. Heinz bodies:</li><li>• glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lewy bodies are the characteristic histopathological finding in the brain of patients with Parkinson's disease. Their presence, along with the clinical triad of resting tremors, bradykinesia, and rigidity, confirms the diagnosis of Parkinson's disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old male presents with swelling in the right femur for 6 months. He complaints of severe pain in the thigh which dramatically improves with intake of aspirin. The biopsy image from the lesion is given below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteoid osteoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteochondroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ewing’s sarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Osteoid osteoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-183929.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175845.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175857.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175910.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Osteoid osteoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The distinctive clinical presentation of relief with aspirin strongly points to an osteoid osteoma, especially when correlated with the biopsy findings suggestive of this benign condition.</li><li>➤ The distinctive clinical presentation of relief with aspirin strongly points to an osteoid osteoma, especially when correlated with the biopsy findings suggestive of this benign condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady with mitral stenosis who is bedridden, develops sudden onset shortness of breath. On examination, she has a swollen red limb with pain in the calf. What is the clinical diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cerebral embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paradoxical embolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pulmonary embolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pulmonary embolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient, who is bedridden with mitral stenosis, presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and a swollen, red limb with calf pain. These clinical features strongly suggest deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The sudden shortness of breath indicates that a thrombus from the DVT has likely embolized to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. This is a common and potentially life-threatening complication in bedridden patients.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary edema: This is characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs, typically secondary to heart failure, and does not present with a swollen, red limb or calf pain.</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary edema:</li><li>• Option C. Cerebral embolism: This would present with neurological deficits, not shortness of breath and a swollen, red limb.</li><li>• Option C. Cerebral embolism:</li><li>• Option D. Paradoxical embolism: This occurs when a thrombus passes from the venous to the arterial system through a cardiac shunt (e.g., patent foramen ovale). While this could be considered if there were signs of arterial embolism, the presentation here is more consistent with pulmonary embolism.</li><li>• Option D. Paradoxical embolism:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulmonary embolism should be suspected in bedridden patients presenting with sudden onset shortness of breath and clinical signs of deep vein thrombosis, such as a swollen, red, painful limb.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman has dizziness on lying down straight and this improves when she turns to one side. A possible explanation is? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Compression of the inferior vena cava", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Compression of the aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Compression of the superior vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Compression of the pulmonary vessels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Compression of the inferior vena cava", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Compression of the inferior vena cava</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The scenario described is characteristic of supine hypotensive syndrome , which occurs when a pregnant woman lies flat on her back, causing the gravid uterus to compress the inferior vena cava (IVC). This compression decreases venous return to the heart, leading to reduced cardiac output and subsequent hypotension and dizziness.</li><li>• supine hypotensive syndrome</li><li>• Symptoms of dizziness and hypotension improve when the woman turns to her side (Left tilt), relieving the compression on the IVC.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Compression of the aorta: While the aorta can also be compressed, the primary issue in supine hypotensive syndrome is the reduced venous return due to IVC compression.</li><li>• Option B. Compression of the aorta:</li><li>• Option C. Compression of the superior vena cava : This is less likely to be affected by the position of the uterus during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option C. Compression of the superior vena cava</li><li>• Option D. Compression of the pulmonary vessels : This is not typically related to positional changes during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option D. Compression of the pulmonary vessels</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Supine hypotensive syndrome is caused by the compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus when a pregnant woman lies flat on her back. This condition is relieved by turning to one side, which reduces the compression and improves venous return to the heart.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Delphian lymph nodes belong to which level in neck nodes? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Levels 3-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levels 1-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Level 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Level 6", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Level 6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Level 6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Delphian lymph node is categorized as Level 6 in the classification of neck lymph nodes, situated in the central compartment above the thyroid isthmus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common complication of ERCP? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenal perforation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cholangitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pancreatitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pancreatitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pancreatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-ERCP pancreatitis is the most common complication following ERCP, necessitating careful risk assessment and patient monitoring post-procedure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the most common cause of night blindness in pediatric age? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin C deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin A deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin E deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin A deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin A deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Night blindness, also known as nyctalopia, is the inability to see well in low light or darkness. The most common cause of night blindness in the pediatric age group is vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that is crucial for vision in low-light conditions.</li><li>• vitamin A deficiency.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Vitamin A deficiency : Leads to inadequate production of rhodopsin, resulting in night blindness. Common causes of vitamin A deficiency : Poor dietary intake, malabsorption disorders, or increased requirements during periods of rapid growth.</li><li>• Vitamin A deficiency : Leads to inadequate production of rhodopsin, resulting in night blindness.</li><li>• Vitamin A deficiency</li><li>• Common causes of vitamin A deficiency : Poor dietary intake, malabsorption disorders, or increased requirements during periods of rapid growth.</li><li>• Common causes of vitamin A deficiency</li><li>• Symptoms of Vitamin A Deficiency:</li><li>• Symptoms of Vitamin A Deficiency:</li><li>• Night blindness Xerophthalmia (dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea) Bitot's spots (foamy patches on the conjunctiva) Keratomalacia (softening of the cornea)</li><li>• Night blindness</li><li>• Xerophthalmia (dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea)</li><li>• Bitot's spots (foamy patches on the conjunctiva)</li><li>• Keratomalacia (softening of the cornea)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin C deficiency : Causes scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums and perifollicular hemorrhages, but not night blindness.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin C deficiency</li><li>• Option B. Congenital glaucoma : A rare condition that can affect vision but does not specifically cause night blindness.</li><li>• Option B. Congenital glaucoma</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin E deficiency : Can cause neurological problems and hemolytic anemia but is not typically associated with night blindness.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin E deficiency</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin A deficiency is the most common cause of night blindness in the pediatric age group, emphasizing the importance of adequate intake of vitamin A for maintaining healthy vision, especially in low-light conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the correct sequence of wound healing?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemostasis, Inflammation, Proliferation, remodeling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inflammation, Hemostasis, Proliferation, Remodeling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Remodeling, Inflammation, Hemostasis, Proliferation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inflammation, Hemostasis, Remodeling, Proliferation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hemostasis, Inflammation, Proliferation, remodeling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hemostasis, Inflammation, Proliferation, remodeling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct sequence of events in the wound healing process is hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling.</li><li>• 1. Hemostasis: This is the first step in wound healing, where bleeding is stopped by the formation of a blood clot. This involves vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and the activation of the coagulation cascade.</li><li>• 1. Hemostasis:</li><li>• 2. Inflammation: After hemostasis, the inflammatory phase begins, which involves the influx of inflammatory cells (neutrophils, macrophages) to the wound site. These cells remove debris, bacteria, and damaged tissue, setting the stage for the next phase.</li><li>• 2. Inflammation:</li><li>• 3. Proliferation: In this phase, new blood vessels (angiogenesis) are formed, and fibroblasts proliferate and produce collagen, forming granulation tissue. This granulation tissue fills the wound and provides a matrix for the migration and proliferation of epithelial cells, leading to re-epithelialization.</li><li>• 3. Proliferation:</li><li>• 4. Remodeling: This is the final phase, where the newly formed collagen fibers are reorganized and cross-linked, leading to increased tensile strength. During this phase, the wound contracts, and excess cells and blood vessels are removed through apoptosis.</li><li>• 4. Remodeling:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of events in wound healing is hemostasis (stopping bleeding), inflammation (influx of inflammatory cells), proliferation (formation of granulation tissue, angiogenesis, and re-epithelialization), and remodeling (reorganization and cross-linking of collagen fibers).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the \"ANMOL\" Program for auxiliary nurse midwives? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tablet-based software", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "TV-based software", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Digital weighing machine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Telephone-based software", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tablet-based software", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tablet-based software</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• \"ANMOL\" is an abbreviation that stands for \" ANM (Auxiliary Nurse Midwife) ON line.\" It is a tablet-based software or online monitoring tool (for RCH portal) that is specifically designed for use by auxiliary nurse midwives (ANMs).</li><li>• ANM</li><li>• ON</li><li>• The ANMOL program allows ANMs to register and track high-risk pregnancies, monitor children with low birth weight, and manage data related to their work at the sub-center level. It serves as a comprehensive monitoring and data management tool for ANMs, enabling them to efficiently carry out their responsibilities.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"ANMOL\" program is a tablet-based software or online monitoring tool specifically designed for auxiliary nurse midwives (ANMs) to register and track high-risk pregnancies, monitor children with low birth weight, and manage data at the sub-center level.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Scorbutic rosary is associated with which vitamin deficiency? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scorbutic rosary is a clinical sign of scurvy, a condition caused by Vitamin C deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old boy from Kerala presents with fever, headache, and drowsiness. His family reports that he has consumed palm fruit recently. Which virus is considered in the differential diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nipah", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebola", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nipah", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Nipah</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The presentation of fever, headache, and drowsiness in a boy from Kerala who has recently consumed palm fruit, a known vector for bat-related transmissions, suggests Nipah virus infection. Nipah virus is known for causing severe encephalitis and has been associated with outbreaks in Kerala, often linked to bat consumption of fruits and subsequent transmission to humans.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Dengue : Does not typically cause encephalitis, although severe dengue can lead to altered sensorium.</li><li>• Option A. Dengue</li><li>• Option C. Ebola : Not endemic in India and typically presents with hemorrhagic symptoms.</li><li>• Option C. Ebola</li><li>• Option D. Chikungunya : Causes fever and arthritis, not encephalitis.</li><li>• Option D. Chikungunya</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Nipah virus should be considered in cases of encephalitis, especially in regions like Kerala, where outbreaks linked to bat consumption of palm fruit have been reported.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which value is derived in ABG?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "pH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "pO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "pCO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bicarbonate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bicarbonate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bicarbonate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis, pH, pO2 (partial pressure of oxygen), and pCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) are measured directly by the ABG machine.</li><li>• ABG machine.</li><li>• Bicarbonate (HCO3-) is not directly measured but is derived using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation . The equation relates the pH, pCO2, and bicarbonate concentration, enabling the calculation of bicarbonate from the directly measured values of pH and pCO2.</li><li>• Henderson-Hasselbalch equation</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. pH : This is directly measured in ABG analysis using an electrode sensitive to hydrogen ions.</li><li>• Option A. pH</li><li>• Option B. pO2 : This is directly measured in ABG analysis using an oxygen-sensitive electrode.</li><li>• Option B. pO2</li><li>• Option C. pCO2 : This is directly measured in ABG analysis using a carbon dioxide-sensitive electrode.</li><li>• Option C. pCO2</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In arterial blood gas analysis, bicarbonate (HCO3-) is the value that is derived, not directly measured, using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-month pregnant female presented with Plasmodium vivax malaria. Which of the following is the appropriate treatment for this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chloroquine plus primaquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quinine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Artemisinin based combination therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Quinine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Quinine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Quinine is often used as a treatment for malaria during pregnancy, especially if other options are not available or suitable. However, it is usually more associated with the treatment of Plasmodium falciparum rather than Plasmodium vivax.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic smoker presents with weight gain and hyperpigmentation. High dose dexamethasone suppression test was done in a patient &amp; ACTH remained high before and after the test. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pituitary adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ectopic ACTH producing tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exogenous source", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenal adenoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ectopic ACTH producing tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ectopic ACTH producing tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient is a chronic smoker, which increases the risk of cancers such as small cell lung cancer, known to produce ectopic ACTH. The presentation of weight gain and hyperpigmentation are features of Cushing's syndrome. In ectopic ACTH production, the high-dose dexamethasone suppression test typically fails to suppress ACTH levels, as observed in this patient.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pituitary adenoma: In Cushing's disease caused by a pituitary adenoma, ACTH levels usually decrease with high-dose dexamethasone suppression.</li><li>• Option A. Pituitary adenoma:</li><li>• Option C. Exogenous source: Exogenous steroids do not cause hyperpigmentation and would suppress ACTH levels.</li><li>• Option C. Exogenous source:</li><li>• Option D. Adrenal adenoma: In adrenal adenoma, cortisol levels are high, which suppresses ACTH production, leading to low ACTH levels and no hyperpigmentation.</li><li>• Option D. Adrenal adenoma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ectopic ACTH production, often from small cell lung cancer, should be suspected in chronic smokers presenting with features of Cushing's syndrome and non-suppressible ACTH levels following high-dose dexamethasone suppression test. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In context of biliary atresia, what is the typical duration of jaundice observed in infants? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 Months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "48 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Persistent jaundice extending beyond two weeks of age in an infant can be indicative of biliary atresia and warrants prompt investigation and potential surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Xerophthalmia is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of bitot's spot is more than: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.01%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.05%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.8%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.8%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-112533.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 0.8%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• One of the criteria for considering xerophthalmia as a public health problem is if the prevalence of bitot's spots (a sign of vitamin A deficiency) is more than 0.5% in the population. The specifically asks about the prevalence of bitot's spots, and the option closest to 0.5% is 0.8%.</li><li>• more than 0.5%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community: (Preschool children 6 months- 6 years).</li><li>➤ Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community: (Preschool children 6 months- 6 years).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant female who is a known case of bronchial asthma presented to hospital with blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg. Which of the following is the preferred drug for this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral Labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nifedipine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nifedipine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker is effective in lowering blood pressure and is generally considered safe in pregnancy. It does not have the bronchoconstrictive effects associated with beta-blockers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Heme is derived from which of the following amino acids? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glutamate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Valine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glycine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glycine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Heme is derived from glycine, which is one of the simplest amino acids. Despite its simplicity, glycine is a precursor to several important biological compounds. In the heme biosynthesis pathway, glycine combines with succinyl-CoA to form δ-aminolevulinic acid, which is the first step in the synthesis of heme. Heme is a critical component of hemoglobin, myoglobin, and various cytochromes, playing a vital role in oxygen transport and cellular respiration.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Glutamine: Glutamine is involved in various metabolic processes, including the synthesis of nucleotides and amino sugars, but it does not contribute directly to heme biosynthesis.</li><li>• Option A. Glutamine:</li><li>• Option C. Glutamate: Glutamate is a key neurotransmitter and is involved in the synthesis of glutathione and other amino acids but not directly in heme formation.</li><li>• Option C. Glutamate:</li><li>• Option D. Valine: Valine is a branched-chain amino acid important in protein synthesis and energy metabolism but not in the biosynthesis of heme.</li><li>• Option D. Valine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Products of amino acids -</li><li>➤ Products of amino acids -</li><li>➤ Tryptophan – Niacin, serotonin, melatonin Tyrosine - Melanin, catecholamine, thyroxin Histidine – Histamine, Carnosine, Anserine Glycine- Creatine, Glutathione, Haem , Porphyrin, Glyoxylate, Choline, Betaine, serine, Sarcosine</li><li>➤ Tryptophan – Niacin, serotonin, melatonin</li><li>➤ Tyrosine - Melanin, catecholamine, thyroxin</li><li>➤ Histidine – Histamine, Carnosine, Anserine</li><li>➤ Glycine- Creatine, Glutathione, Haem , Porphyrin, Glyoxylate, Choline, Betaine, serine, Sarcosine</li><li>➤ Haem</li><li>➤ Glutathione – tripeptide → Glutamate, Cysteine &amp; Glycine</li><li>➤ Creatine- made from 3 AA → Arginine, Methionine &amp; Glycine</li><li>➤ Serine → Glycine, Selenocysteine, Phosphatidyl serine, Sphingosine (Serine + Palmitoyl CoA) Arginine - NO, Creatine, Urea &amp; Ornithine</li><li>➤ Serine → Glycine, Selenocysteine, Phosphatidyl serine, Sphingosine (Serine + Palmitoyl CoA)</li><li>➤ Arginine - NO, Creatine, Urea &amp; Ornithine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A morbidly obese patient underwent cholecystectomy and subsequently complained of pain in the legs after walking for some distance. Which investigation would be most appropriate for further evaluation? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duplex scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI angiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT angiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "USG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Duplex scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Duplex scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a morbidly obese patient presenting with leg pain consistent with DVT post-cholecystectomy, a duplex scan is the most appropriate initial investigation to evaluate for DVT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had features of resting tremors, bradykinesia, and postural instability. He became bedridden and died due to respiratory failure. Brain biopsy is likely to show which of the following? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lewy bodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hirano bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Guarnieri bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Negri bodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lewy bodies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-104402.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lewy bodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical features described (resting tremors, bradykinesia, and postural instability) are characteristic of Parkinson's disease.</li><li>• In Parkinson's disease, the brain biopsy is likely to show Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are intraneuronal, intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies made of aggregates of alpha-synuclein.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hirano bodies: Seen in Alzheimer's disease and other conditions like Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.</li><li>• Option B. Hirano bodies:</li><li>• Alzheimer's disease</li><li>• Option C. Guarnieri bodies: (Type B inclusion) Found in cells infected with poxvirus.</li><li>• Option C. Guarnieri bodies: (Type B inclusion)</li><li>• poxvirus.</li><li>• Option D. Negri bodies: Seen in the neurons of patients with rabies.</li><li>• Option D. Negri bodies:</li><li>• rabies.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Parkinson's disease, brain biopsies typically reveal Lewy bodies , which are intraneuronal, intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies made of alpha-synuclein.</li><li>➤ Lewy bodies</li><li>➤ intraneuronal, intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies</li><li>➤ alpha-synuclein.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with the following finding in the external auditory canal following trauma. The next step in management is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirate the clot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Identify the source of bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Keep the ear dry and give oral medications", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syringing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Keep the ear dry and give oral medications", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-125745.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Keep the ear dry and give oral medications</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After trauma to the external auditory canal with bloody discharge, it is important to keep the ear dry and initiate treatment with oral medications, such as analgesics and possibly antibiotics, to manage pain, prevent infection, and reduce inflammation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the IMNCI guidelines for the management of diarrhea, the color code for some dehydration is:(FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pink", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses (IMNCI) guidelines, diarrhea dehydration is classified into three categories:</li><li>• No dehydration – Green – Home management Some dehydration – Yellow – PHC based (MO) – 2 out of 4 criteria</li><li>• No dehydration – Green – Home management</li><li>• Some dehydration – Yellow – PHC based (MO) – 2 out of 4 criteria</li><li>• Four criteria:</li><li>• Four criteria:</li><li>• Restlessness Irritability Sunken eyes Skin pinch goes back slowly</li><li>• Restlessness</li><li>• Irritability</li><li>• Sunken eyes</li><li>• Skin pinch goes back slowly</li><li>• Severe dehydration – Pink - Is diagnosed based on the presence of two out of four criteria:</li><li>• Severe dehydration – Pink - Is diagnosed based on the presence of two out of four criteria:</li><li>• Lethargy Unconsciousness Sunken eyes Skin pinch goes back very slowly.</li><li>• Lethargy</li><li>• Unconsciousness</li><li>• Sunken eyes</li><li>• Skin pinch goes back very slowly.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the IMNCI guidelines for the management of diarrhea, the color code yellow represents \"some dehydration,\" which is diagnosed based on the presence of two out of four criteria: restlessness, irritability, sunken eyes, and skin pinch goes back slowly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument.( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "McPherson forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lim’s forceps", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Artery forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SR holding forceps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lim’s forceps", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-110140.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lim’s forceps</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lim’s forceps are specialized ophthalmic instruments used primarily for corneal suturing, featuring a platform-like tip to gently hold eye tissues during delicate procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the forensic examination of dry semen from undergarment of a rape victim. What specific test is employed to ascertain the presence of sperm? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Barberio test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acid phosphatase test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Papanicolaou smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Florence test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Barberio test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Barberio test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When examining dry semen stains, such as those found on the undergarment of a rape victim, the Barberio test is the specific test employed to ascertain the presence of sperm, as it can yield positive results even in dry stains.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Plasmodium species that commonly affects the brain:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malariae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ovale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Falciparum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Plasmodium falciparum is known for its ability to cause severe malaria, including cerebral malaria, which affects the brain. This species can lead to complications such as seizures, coma, and other neurological symptoms due to its ability to adhere to the endothelium of blood vessels in the brain, causing blockage of blood flow and resulting in cerebral symptoms.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Vivax : Generally causes milder forms of malaria and is less likely to cause cerebral involvement.</li><li>• Option A. Vivax</li><li>• Option C. Malaria : Known for chronic malaria but rarely causes cerebral symptoms.</li><li>• Option C. Malaria</li><li>• Option D. Ovale : Typically associated with milder forms of malaria and does not commonly cause cerebral complications.</li><li>• Option D. Ovale</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Plasmodium falciparum is the species most commonly associated with cerebral malaria, affecting the brain.</li><li>➤ Plasmodium falciparum is the species most commonly associated with cerebral malaria, affecting the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Iron absorption is decreased by the intake of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amla", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sprouts", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tea", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lemon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• There are several factors that can decrease iron absorption, including phytates (present in cereals and legumes), tannates (present in tea, coffee, and soft drinks), oxalates (present in milk and eggs), and certain medications like tetracycline.</li><li>• including phytates (present in cereals and legumes), tannates (present in tea, coffee, and soft drinks), oxalates (present in milk and eggs), and certain medications like tetracycline.</li><li>• The only facilitator of iron absorption is vitamin C or ascorbic acid.</li><li>• Among the given options, tea contains tannates, which are known to inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, the intake of tea decreases iron absorption.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Amla: This option is incorrect because amla is a rich source of vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Amla:</li><li>• Option B. Sprouts: This option is incorrect because sprouts are a good source of iron.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Sprouts:</li><li>• Option D. Lemon: This option is incorrect because lemon is a source of vitamin C, which facilitates iron absorption.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Lemon:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tea contains tannates, which are compounds that inhibit iron absorption. Consuming tea can decrease the absorption of iron from dietary sources.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "First line of treatment for glaucoma in adults is:( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PG analogues", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pilocarpine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PG analogues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PG analogues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first-line treatment for adult glaucoma is Prostaglandin Analogues, which are effective in lowering intraocular pressure with a convenient dosing schedule.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "External beam radiotherapy uses: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Co60", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Co59", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strontium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Co60", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Co60</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ EBRT uses Cobalt 60 as the radioisotope.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-month-old pregnant female presented with vivax malaria. She also had jaundice and confusion. What is the most appropriate management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Quinine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloroquine + Primaquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Artemisinin Combination Therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Quinine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Quinine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In the context of malaria treatment during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, safety of the medication is paramount.</li><li>• For pregnant women in their first trimester with severe malaria (as indicated by symptoms like jaundice and confusion), quinine is the treatment of choice. Quinine is effective against severe malaria and is safer for use in early pregnancy compared to other options.</li><li>• Primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential hemolytic effects on the fetus, and doxycycline is also contraindicated due to risks of teratogenicity and dental staining.</li><li>• Artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) are generally avoided in the first trimester due to insufficient safety data, despite being the preferred treatment in non-pregnant adults and in later stages of pregnancy.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Chloroquine + Primaquine : Primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. Chloroquine + Primaquine</li><li>• Option C. Doxycycline : Contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic effects.</li><li>• Option C. Doxycycline</li><li>• Option D. Artemisinin Combination Therapy : Not recommended in the first trimester due to insufficient safety data.</li><li>• Option D. Artemisinin Combination Therapy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Quinine is the preferred treatment for severe malaria in pregnant women during the first trimester due to its safety profile compared to other antimalarial medications.</li><li>➤ Quinine is the preferred treatment for severe malaria in pregnant women during the first trimester due to its safety profile compared to other antimalarial medications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with crushed limb after amputation developed crepitus. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cellulitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Necrotizing fasciitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folliculitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gas gangrene", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gas gangrene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-130113.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Gas gangrene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient had a crushed limb that required amputation. After the amputation, the patient developed crepitus, which refers to the presence of gas bubbles in the tissues. The development of crepitus after an injury or amputation suggests a gas-forming bacterial infection, specifically gas gangrene. Gas gangrene is caused by the bacteria Clostridium species, primarily Clostridium perfringens, which can contaminate wounds from soil or other environmental sources. Clostridium perfringens is a gas-forming bacteria that ferments sugars (such as glucose in the body) into acid and gas, leading to tissue necrosis and the formation of gas bubbles (crepitus) in the gangrenous tissue.</li><li>• The patient had a crushed limb that required amputation.</li><li>• After the amputation, the patient developed crepitus, which refers to the presence of gas bubbles in the tissues.</li><li>• The development of crepitus after an injury or amputation suggests a gas-forming bacterial infection, specifically gas gangrene.</li><li>• Gas gangrene is caused by the bacteria Clostridium species, primarily Clostridium perfringens, which can contaminate wounds from soil or other environmental sources.</li><li>• Clostridium perfringens is a gas-forming bacteria that ferments sugars (such as glucose in the body) into acid and gas, leading to tissue necrosis and the formation of gas bubbles (crepitus) in the gangrenous tissue.</li><li>• The presence of crepitus, along with the history of a crushed limb and amputation, strongly suggests gas gangrene as the diagnosis.</li><li>• Established agents:</li><li>• Established agents:</li><li>• C. perfringens C. novyi C. septicum</li><li>• C. perfringens</li><li>• C. novyi</li><li>• C. septicum</li><li>• Probable agents: C. histolyticum, C. sporogenes, C. fallax, C. bifermentans, C. sordellii, C. aerofoetidum, and C. tertium.</li><li>• Probable agents:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cellulitis: This is a bacterial skin infection characterized by redness, swelling, and warmth, but it does not typically involve the formation of gas bubbles.</li><li>• Option A. Cellulitis:</li><li>• Option B. Necrotizing fasciitis: This is a severe bacterial infection of the fascia (connective tissue) that can lead to tissue necrosis, but it is not specifically associated with the formation of gas bubbles.</li><li>• Option B. Necrotizing fasciitis:</li><li>• Option C. Folliculitis: This is an infection of the hair follicles, which is unlikely to occur after an amputation and does not involve gas formation.</li><li>• Option C. Folliculitis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gas gangrene is a potentially life-threatening infection caused by gas-forming Clostridium species, primarily Clostridium perfringens. It is characterized by the formation of gas bubbles (crepitus) in the necrotic and gangrenous tissues, typically occurring after traumatic injuries or surgical procedures that allow the contamination of wounds with soil or environmental sources.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mid-year population is the denominator in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CDR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "GFR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MMR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NMR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CDR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CDR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The mid-year population is used as the denominator to calculate the Crude Death Rate (CDR). The CDR is calculated as the total number of deaths divided by the mid-year population, multiplied by 1,000.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. GFR (General Fertility Rate) - This option is incorrect because. It is calculated as Annual number of live births per 1000 women of childbearing age (15–49 years) mid-year population</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. GFR (General Fertility Rate)</li><li>• Option C. MMR (Maternal Mortality Ratio) - This option is incorrect because the MMR is calculated as maternal deaths per 100,000 live births, not using the mid-year population as the denominator.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. MMR (Maternal Mortality Ratio)</li><li>• Option D. NMR (Neonatal Mortality Rate) - This option is incorrect because the NMR is calculated as neonatal deaths per 1,000 live births, not using the mid-year population as the denominator.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. NMR (Neonatal Mortality Rate)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The mid-year population is the denominator used in the calculation of the Crude Death Rate (CDR), which represents the total number of deaths per 1,000 population in a given year or period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presents with violaceous plane topped papules associated with pruritus over wrist and antecubital fossae for 2 months. The lesions have a characteristic shiny surface and are arranged in a linear pattern. What is the first line of treatment in this patient? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antifungals", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Topical steroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phototherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Topical steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Topical steroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct answer is topical steroids.</li><li>• The patient presents with classic signs of lichen planus, which includes violaceous (purple) plane-topped papules that are intensely pruritic (itchy). These lesions are commonly found on the flexor surfaces such as the wrists and antecubital fossae.</li><li>• Lichen planus is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves spontaneously within about 2 years. However, due to the extreme itching, symptomatic treatment is necessary.</li><li>• Topical steroids are the first-line treatment for localized lichen planus, providing relief from itching and inflammation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Antifungals: These are not used in the treatment of lichen planus, as it is not a fungal infection.</li><li>• Option A. Antifungals:</li><li>• Option B. Oral steroids: While oral steroids can be used in more extensive cases of lichen planus, they are not the first-line treatment for localized lesions.</li><li>• Option B. Oral steroids:</li><li>• Option D. Phototherapy: This can be used in extensive cases but is not the first-line treatment for localized lichen planus.</li><li>• Option D. Phototherapy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lichen planus, characterized by violaceous, pruritic, plane-topped papules with a shiny surface, is best treated initially with topical steroids when the condition is localized. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with white vaginal discharge. On preparing a vaginal smear, pseudo hyphae are seen. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trichomonas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physiological", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Candidiasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Candidiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of pseudo-hyphae on a vaginal smear with white discharge is diagnostic of candidiasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department following a suspected stroke. Upon assessment, it is noted that the patient is able to speak fluently, but the words uttered lack coherent meaning and lacks understanding. Which type of aphasia is most likely present in this patient? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wernicke's aphasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conduction aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anomic aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Broca's aphasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wernicke's aphasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by fluent speech that lacks coherent meaning. Patients with this condition can speak in long sentences with normal grammar, but their speech may include unnecessary or made-up words, making it difficult for others to understand.</li><li>• This condition results from a lesion in Wernicke's area, which is responsible for language comprehension. In this scenario, the patient's ability to speak fluently yet produce nonsensical speech indicates a disruption in language comprehension, hallmark features of Wernicke's aphasia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Conduction aphasia: This type of aphasia is caused by a lesion in the arcuate fasciculus , which connects Wernicke's and Broca's areas. Patients with conduction aphasia have good comprehension and fluent speech but struggle with repetition and may make phonemic errors.</li><li>• Option B. Conduction aphasia:</li><li>• arcuate fasciculus</li><li>• Option C. Anomic aphasia: Anomic aphasia is characterized by difficulty in finding the correct words, particularly nouns and verbs. Patients can understand speech and have fluent and grammatically correct speech but have trouble naming objects.</li><li>• Option C. Anomic aphasia:</li><li>• Option D. Broca's aphasia: This type of aphasia results from a lesion in Broca's area, leading to non-fluent , halting speech with good comprehension. Patients with Broca's aphasia have difficulty forming complete sentences and may produce short, broken phrases.</li><li>• Option D. Broca's aphasia:</li><li>• non-fluent</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wernicke's aphasia is identified by fluent but nonsensical speech due to impaired language comprehension.</li><li>➤ fluent but nonsensical speech</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient presents in a multi-specialty hospital with sudden onset chest pain since 1 hour with ECG showing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the best treatment? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alteplase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary Angioplasty", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dual Antiplatelet therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Primary Angioplasty", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Primary Angioplasty</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with symptoms and ECG findings indicative of an acute inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). The presence of ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF confirms the diagnosis. Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), also known as primary angioplasty, is the best treatment for STEMI if it can be performed promptly. PCI is preferred because it directly opens the blocked coronary artery, restoring blood flow more quickly and effectively than thrombolytic therapy.</li><li>• Note - If Primary PCI not possible or delayed due to some reasons then thrombolytic therapy (dual antiplatelet therapy) is used.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Alteplase: This is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve clots but is considered when PCI is not available or will be delayed.</li><li>• Option A. Alteplase:</li><li>• Option B. Streptokinase: Another thrombolytic agent, similar to alteplase, used when PCI is not an option.</li><li>• Option B. Streptokinase:</li><li>• Option D. Dual Antiplatelet therapy: This is an essential part of the initial management of STEMI, involving a combination of aspirin and a P2Y12 receptor inhibitor (like clopidogrel, ticagrelor, or prasugrel). However, it is not the definitive treatment compared to PCI.</li><li>• Option D. Dual Antiplatelet therapy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary angioplasty (PCI) is the best treatment for patients presenting with STEMI, especially when it can be performed within the recommended time frame, as it effectively restores blood flow to the affected myocardium. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of intracranial hemorrhage is most likely depicted in the given image? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subdural hematoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraparenchymal hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Subdural hematoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/14/picture48.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Subdural hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The crescent-shaped collection of blood on a CT scan that can cross suture lines but is limited by dural reflections is indicative of a subdural hematoma, a type of intracranial hemorrhage that occurs between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old hypertensive man comes to the hospital, on examination, BP was 150/90 mmHg, and was afebrile. On further evaluation, serum renin was found to be normal. He was diagnosed with Conn’s Syndrome. All are true about the Conn’s Syndrome except: (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low renin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metabolic acidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20175718.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20175015.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metabolic acidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Conn’s Syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is characterized by the excessive secretion of aldosterone. Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to water retention, hypervolemia, and subsequently, hypertension. Additionally, aldosterone promotes the secretion of potassium and hydrogen ions via the renal tubules.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conn’s Syndrome is characterized by excessive aldosterone secretion leading to metabolic alkalosis, hypertension, and low renin levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old lady develops sudden onset facial deviation with slurring of speech and inability to raise right arm. The symptoms spontaneously begin to reduce and has significant improvement over the next 48 hours. She has a mid-diastolic murmur on auscultation and irregular heart rhythm. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TIA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thrombo-embolic stroke", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardio-embolic stroke", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paradoxical embolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cardio-embolic stroke", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-092628.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cardio-embolic stroke</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient presents with sudden onset neurological deficits (facial deviation, slurred speech, and right arm weakness), which improved significantly over 48 hours. The presence of a mid-diastolic murmur suggests mitral stenosis, and the irregular heart rhythm indicates atrial fibrillation. These are strong risk factors for cardio-embolic stroke. Although the improvement suggests a transient ischemic attack (TIA), the symptoms lasted more than 24 hours, which aligns with the definition of a stroke rather than a TIA.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. TIA: By definition, a TIA's symptoms resolve within 24 hours. Since the symptoms persisted for more than 24 hours, this is not a TIA.</li><li>• Option A. TIA:</li><li>• within 24 hours.</li><li>• Option B. Thrombo-embolic stroke: While possible, the presence of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation makes cardio-embolic stroke more likely.</li><li>• Option B. Thrombo-embolic stroke:</li><li>• Option D. Paradoxical embolism: This occurs when a thrombus from the venous system passes through a right-to-left cardiac shunt (e.g., patent foramen ovale) into the arterial system. There is no mention of such a shunt or a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in this case.</li><li>• Option D. Paradoxical embolism:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardio-embolic stroke should be suspected in patients with sudden onset neurological deficits and risk factors such as mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation. Symptoms persisting for more than 24 hours distinguish stroke from TIA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vitamin deficiency causes conjunctival xerosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B9", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vitamin A deficiency leads to a condition called xerophthalmia, which causes conjunctival xerosis, also known as dry eye. Xerophthalmia can be classified into two types: primary and secondary.</li><li>• Primary xerophthalmia has five categories:</li><li>• X1A: Conjunctival xerosis (dry eye) X1B: Bitot's spots (a specific manifestation) X2: C orneal xerosis X3A: Corneal ulceration X3B: Keratomalacia</li><li>• X1A: Conjunctival xerosis (dry eye)</li><li>• X1A:</li><li>• X1B: Bitot's spots (a specific manifestation)</li><li>• X1B:</li><li>• X2: C orneal xerosis</li><li>• X2: C</li><li>• X3A: Corneal ulceration</li><li>• X3A:</li><li>• X3B: Keratomalacia</li><li>• X3B:</li><li>• Secondary manifestations of xerophthalmia include:</li><li>• XN : Night blindness XF: Xerophthalmic fundus XS: Xerophthalmic scarring</li><li>• XN : Night blindness</li><li>• XN</li><li>• XF: Xerophthalmic fundus</li><li>• XF:</li><li>• XS: Xerophthalmic scarring</li><li>• XS:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin B12 deficiency is associated with megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin B12</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency leads to pellagra, characterized by the \"4 D's\" (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and death). It does not directly cause conjunctival xerosis.</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin B3</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin B9 (folate) deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects in developing fetuses.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin B9</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin A deficiency causes xerophthalmia, which leads to conjunctival xerosis (dry eye) and other ocular manifestations, including Bitot's spots, corneal xerosis, corneal ulceration, and keratomalacia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition in the image shown below? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cephal hematoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caput succedaneum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sub gleal hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cephal hematoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture5_eZ8yfLs.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cephal hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A cephal hematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum, confined by the bone edges, and does not cross suture lines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Blood during autopsy is preserved in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NaF", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NaCl", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Formalin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectified spirit", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NaF", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) NaF (Sodium Fluoride)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In toxicological analysis, there are two types of preservatives:</li><li>• Preservatives for viscera - NaCl &amp; rectified spirits Preservatives for body fluids - For body fluids, such as blood, urine, or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the main preservative used is sodium fluoride (NaF). When preserving blood specifically, an anticoagulant like potassium oxalate is also used along with sodium fluoride. For urine, thymol is used in addition to sodium fluoride. However, the primary preservative for all body fluids remains sodium fluoride.</li><li>• Preservatives for viscera - NaCl &amp; rectified spirits</li><li>• Preservatives for body fluids - For body fluids, such as blood, urine, or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the main preservative used is sodium fluoride (NaF). When preserving blood specifically, an anticoagulant like potassium oxalate is also used along with sodium fluoride. For urine, thymol is used in addition to sodium fluoride. However, the primary preservative for all body fluids remains sodium fluoride.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. B. NaCl (Sodium Chloride ): Saturated sodium chloride solution, along with rectified spirit, is used as a preservative for viscera in toxicological analysis, not for body fluids like blood.</li><li>• Option. B. NaCl (Sodium Chloride</li><li>• Option. C. Formalin : Formalin is used for histopathology purposes, not for toxicological analysis.</li><li>• Option. C. Formalin</li><li>• Option. D. Rectified spirit : Rectified spirit, along with a saturated sodium chloride solution, is used as a preservative for viscera in toxicological analysis, not for body fluids like blood.</li><li>• Option. D. Rectified spirit</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Sodium fluoride (NaF) is the main preservative used for body fluids, including blood, during autopsies for toxicological analysis. For blood, an anticoagulant like potassium oxalate is also used in conjunction with sodium fluoride.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mentally challenged female requires consent for MTP. The consent can be given to her by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Husband/Partner", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Legal guardian", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herself", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Magistrate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Legal guardian", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-112525.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Legal guardian</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the case of a mentally challenged female requiring consent for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP), the consent must be given by her legal guardian.</li><li>• According to Indian law, consent from a guardian is required in two situations:</li><li>• If the person seeking MTP is below 18 years of age. If the person seeking MTP is mentally challenged.</li><li>• If the person seeking MTP is below 18 years of age.</li><li>• If the person seeking MTP is mentally challenged.</li><li>• In other cases, the consent of a guardian is not mandatory.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. A. Husband/Partner: While it is advisable to obtain consent from the husband or partner to avoid potential divorce proceedings, it is not a legal requirement for MTP.</li><li>• Option. A. Husband/Partner:</li><li>• Option. C. Herself: A mentally challenged female is not considered capable of giving informed consent for MTP.</li><li>• Option. C. Herself:</li><li>• Option. D. Magistrate: A magistrate's consent is not required for MTP in the case of a mentally challenged female.</li><li>• Option. D. Magistrate:</li><li>• Additional information:</li><li>• Additional information:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In the case of a mentally challenged female requiring consent for MTP, the consent must be provided by her legal guardian, as she is not considered capable of giving informed consent herself.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following are the phases of: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Demographic process", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Demographic dividend", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Demographic cycle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Human developmental index", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Demographic process", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/image-2.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Demographic process</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Demography is the scientific study of human populations, and demographic processes are the key factors that influence population dynamics. The five main demographic processes mentioned in the image are:</li><li>• Fertility : Related to childbirth and reproduction Mortality : Related to deaths and life expectancy Marriage : Formation and dissolution of marital unions Migration : Physical or geographical movement of people from one place to another Social mobility : Movement of individuals across social classes or socio-economic status</li><li>• Fertility : Related to childbirth and reproduction</li><li>• Fertility</li><li>• Mortality : Related to deaths and life expectancy</li><li>• Mortality</li><li>• Marriage : Formation and dissolution of marital unions</li><li>• Marriage</li><li>• Migration : Physical or geographical movement of people from one place to another</li><li>• Migration</li><li>• Social mobility : Movement of individuals across social classes or socio-economic status</li><li>• Social mobility</li><li>• These processes collectively determine the size, structure, and distribution of populations over time.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Demographic dividend : This refers to the economic growth potential resulting from a population's changing age structure, typically when the working-age population is larger than the non-working-age population. It is not directly related to the five processes listed.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Demographic dividend</li><li>• Option C. Demographic cycle: Also known as the demographic transition model, this describes the stages a population goes through as it transitions from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates. While related to demographic processes, the stages of the demographic cycle are not the same as the processes listed.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Demographic cycle:</li><li>• Option D. Human Development Index (HDI): This is a composite statistic developed by the United Nations to measure and rank countries' levels of social and economic development. It takes into account life expectancy, education, and per capita income. HDI is not directly related to the five demographic processes mentioned.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Human Development Index (HDI):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fertility, mortality, marriage, migration, and social mobility are the five main demographic processes that influence population dynamics and are studied in the field of demography.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Angular stomatitis and glossitis are associated with which vitamin deficiency? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyanocobalamin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Riboflavin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Riboflavin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Riboflavin (vitamin B2) deficiency is most characteristically associated with angular stomatitis , also known as cheilosis , which is inflammation of the corners of the mouth. Additionally, riboflavin deficiency can lead to atrophic glossitis , also referred to as geographic tongue. These oral manifestations are the hallmark signs of riboflavin deficiency.</li><li>• angular stomatitis</li><li>• cheilosis</li><li>• atrophic glossitis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency results in pellagra, which is characterized by the \"4 D's\": diarrhea, dermatitis (especially around the Casal's necklace), dementia, and death if left untreated. While pellagra can have significant consequences, it is not primarily associated with angular stomatitis and glossitis.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Niacin</li><li>• Option C. Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency can cause beriberi in populations consuming polished rice and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics. Beriberi affects the nervous and cardiovascular systems, while Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is characterized by neurological symptoms. However, thiamine deficiency is not directly linked to angular stomatitis and glossitis.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Thiamine</li><li>• Option D. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency is common in strict vegetarians and can lead to peripheral neuropathy, megaloblastic anemia, and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord as a severe complication. Pernicious anemia may also occur as a result of vitamin B12 deficiency. While these conditions are serious, they are not specifically associated with angular stomatitis and glossitis.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Cyanocobalamin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Angular stomatitis (cheilosis) and atrophic glossitis (geographic tongue) are the most characteristic oral manifestations of riboflavin (vitamin B2) deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What dose of iron and folic acid should an anemic pregnant woman in her 2nd trimester be given? (FMGE JANUARY 2024", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60 mg iron and 500 mcg folic acid twice a week", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60 mg iron and 500 mcg folic acid once a week", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "60 mg iron and 500 mcg folic acid daily", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "60 mg iron and 500 mcg folic acid once a month", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 60 mg iron and 500 mcg folic acid daily", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/image-3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-112451.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 60 mg iron and 500 mcg folic acid daily</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Under the Anemia Mukt Bharat program, which aims to reduce the prevalence of anemia in India by 3 percentage points every year, the \"6 by 6 by 6\" strategy is used. This strategy targets 6 beneficiaries, includes 6 interventions, and involves 6 institutional mechanisms.</li><li>• One of the interventions is iron and folic acid supplementation.</li><li>• Anemic pregnant women in their second trimester should be given 60 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid daily for 180 days, as per the guidelines of the Anemia Mukt Bharat program.</li><li>• For pregnant women, the recommended dose is 60 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid daily for 180 days during pregnancy. This is provided in the form of red-colored tablets. The same dose is also given to lactating mothers for 180 days post-delivery.</li><li>• 60 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid daily for 180 days</li><li>• If the woman does not respond to this dosage or is anemic, then other forms of iron supplementation, such as ferrous carboxy maltose and IV sucrose , may be considered.</li><li>• ferrous carboxy maltose and IV sucrose</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not included in MMR?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Death due to RTA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Death due to preeclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Death due to ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Death on 14th day post-partum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Death due to RTA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Death due to RTA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is calculated as the number of maternal deaths divided by the number of live births, multiplied by a factor of 100,000. Maternal death is defined as the death of a mother at any time during pregnancy, labour, delivery, or within 42 days after delivery, provided it is related to maternity or its complications.</li><li>• Deaths due to preeclampsia, ectopic pregnancy, and within 14 days post-partum are included in the calculation of MMR, as they are related to maternity or its complications.</li><li>• However, Deaths due to road traffic accidents (RTA) are not included in the MMR calculation, as they are not directly related to maternity or its complications.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Death due to preeclampsia - This option is correct because deaths due to preeclampsia, a pregnancy-related complication, are included in the MMR calculation.</li><li>• Option B. Death due to preeclampsia -</li><li>• Option C. Death due to ectopic pregnancy - This option is correct because deaths due to ectopic pregnancy, a pregnancy-related condition, are included in the MMR calculation.</li><li>• Option C. Death due to ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Option D. Death on 14th day post-partum - This option is correct because deaths within 42 days after delivery are included in the MMR calculation, which includes the 14th day post-partum.</li><li>• Option D. Death on 14th day post-partum</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) includes deaths related to maternity or its complications during pregnancy, labour, delivery, or within 42 days after delivery. Deaths due to causes unrelated to maternity, such as road traffic accidents, are not included in the MMR calculation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer had a lesion on his shoulder. Histopathological image of the lesion is shown below. Identify the diagnosis: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous Cell Carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basal Cell Carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verrucous carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Squamous Cell Carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152657.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Squamous Cell Carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of keratin pearls and intercellular bridges in a skin biopsy is highly suggestive of squamous cell carcinoma, particularly in a patient with a history of prolonged sun exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paracetamol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cefixime", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Captopril", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Captopril", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Captopril</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, and ACE inhibitors are known to be absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy. They can cause fetal toxicity, particularly in the second and third trimesters, leading to complications such as renal dysplasia, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, and even fetal death. Therefore, ACE inhibitors should be avoided in pregnant women.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Paracetamol : Generally considered safe for use during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option A. Paracetamol</li><li>• Option B. Cefixime : A cephalosporin antibiotic, also considered safe during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. Cefixime</li><li>• Option C. Azithromycin : An antibiotic that is commonly used and considered safe during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option C. Azithromycin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors, such as captopril, are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of fetal toxicity and complications.</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors, such as captopril, are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of fetal toxicity and complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which structure forms the lateral boundary of the Hasselbach’s triangle? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Femoral vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior epigastric vessels", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inguinal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectus abdominis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inferior epigastric vessels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Inferior epigastric vessels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The lateral boundary of the Hasselbalch triangle is formed by the inferior epigastric vessels.</li><li>• The Hasselbalch triangle is an important anatomical region related to the anterior abdominal wall and is relevant to the understanding of inguinal hernias.</li><li>• The Hasselbalch triangle's boundaries are formed by the inferior epigastric vessels laterally, the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament forming the base .</li><li>• inferior epigastric vessels laterally, the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament forming the base</li><li>• This triangle is discussed in the context of inguinal hernias, where a direct inguinal hernia occurs when the hernia protrudes through the Hasselbalch triangle, while an indirect inguinal hernia occurs outside of this triangle.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Femoral vessels: The femoral vessels are not mentioned as forming the lateral boundary of the Hasselbalch triangle.</li><li>• Option A. Femoral vessels:</li><li>• Option C. Inguinal ligament: The inguinal ligament forms the base of the Hasselbalch triangle, not the lateral boundary.</li><li>• Option C. Inguinal ligament:</li><li>• base</li><li>• Option D. Rectus abdominis: The rectus abdominis muscle forms the medial boundary of the Hasselbalch triangle, not the lateral boundary.</li><li>• Option D. Rectus abdominis:</li><li>• medial boundary</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lateral boundary of the Hasselbalch triangle, an important anatomical region related to inguinal hernias, is formed by the inferior epigastric vessels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic smoker presented with weight gain and hyperpigmentation of palms and soles. He was subsequently diagnosed to have lung cancer. Which of the following is responsible for hyperpigmentation? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemosiderin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuropeptide Y", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Melanin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient, a chronic smoker, presented with weight gain and hyperpigmentation of the palms and soles and was diagnosed with lung cancer. This clinical scenario suggests the presence of an ectopic ACTH-producing tumor, most commonly associated with small cell lung cancer.</li><li>• In such cases, the excessive ACTH produced by the tumor can lead to Cushing's syndrome.</li><li>• Additionally, ACTH has an intrinsic MSH (Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone) activity due to the shared precursor molecule, proopiomelanocortin (POMC). The MSH part within ACTH stimulates melanocytes, leading to increased melanin production and resulting in hyperpigmentation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hemosiderin : Hemosiderin is an iron-storage complex. It does not play a role in causing hyperpigmentation in this context.</li><li>• Option B. Hemosiderin</li><li>• Option C. Neuropeptide Y : Neuropeptide Y is involved in various physiological processes, including regulation of appetite and stress responses, but not in causing hyperpigmentation.</li><li>• Option C. Neuropeptide Y</li><li>• Option D. Melanin : While melanin is the pigment responsible for skin color, its production is stimulated by MSH. Thus, MSH is the direct cause of increased melanin and subsequent hyperpigmentation in this scenario.</li><li>• Option D. Melanin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of ectopic ACTH production, such as with small cell lung cancer, hyperpigmentation occurs due to the MSH activity of ACTH, which stimulates melanocytes to produce melanin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic patient with alcoholic liver disease was given some anti-amoebic drug. Later the patient presented with nausea, vomiting, flushing and hypotension. What is the likely diagnosis? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delirium tremens", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disulfiram like reaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Disulfiram like reaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Disulfiram like reaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A disulfiram-like reaction can occur when certain medications, such as some anti-amoebic drugs like metronidazole, inhibit acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to an accumulation of acetaldehyde when alcohol is consumed. This causes symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, and hypotension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with hemolytic anemia presents with index finger pain and chest pain. The patient has Hb of 5.6 gm/dl and an increase in unconjugated bilirubin in serum. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Microangiopathic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sickling crisis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Autoimmune hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sickling crisis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sickling crisis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with hemolytic anemia, evidenced by a low hemoglobin level of 5.6 gm/dl and an increase in unconjugated bilirubin, indicating hemolysis. The specific symptoms of index finger pain and chest pain are highly suggestive of a sickling crisis.</li><li>• a sickling crisis.</li><li>• In sickle cell disease, patients may experience episodes of severe pain, known as sickle cell crises or vaso-occlusive crises, due to the blockage of blood flow by sickled red blood cells. The index finger pain (dactylitis) and chest pain (acute chest syndrome) are classic manifestations of such crises. Acute chest syndrome is a severe complication of sickle cell disease that presents with chest pain, fever, and pulmonary infiltrates.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Microangiopathic anemia : This condition involves the destruction of red blood cells in small blood vessels but does not typically present with the specific symptoms of dactylitis and acute chest syndrome.</li><li>• Option A. Microangiopathic anemia</li><li>• Option C. Thalassemia : While thalassemia also causes hemolytic anemia, it does not usually present with dactylitis or acute chest syndrome.</li><li>• Option C. Thalassemia</li><li>• Option D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia : This condition involves the immune system attacking red blood cells but lacks the specific signs of sickle cell crisis, such as dactylitis and acute chest syndrome.</li><li>• Option D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with hemolytic anemia presenting with severe pain in the fingers (dactylitis) and chest pain (acute chest syndrome), sickle cell crisis is the most likely diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-year-old child with a history of GTCS presented with 4-5 episodes of seizures, and seizures are present for more than 45 minutes. What will be the most appropriate management for this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levetiracetam followed by valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbamazepine followed by lorazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Valproate followed by gabapentin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the management of status epilepticus (SE) , the first line of treatment involves benzodiazepines. Lorazepam is preferred due to its rapid onset and longer duration of action compared to other benzodiazepines like diazepam or midazolam.</li><li>• status epilepticus (SE)</li><li>• the first line of treatment involves benzodiazepines. Lorazepam</li><li>• First line treatment: Intravenous (IV) lorazepam (standard dose of 4 mg in adults; different doses for children). If seizures persist after the first dose of lorazepam, it can be repeated once. Second line treatment: If seizures continue after two doses of lorazepam, IV anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are administered. Options include IV phenytoin, fosphenytoin, levetiracetam, valproate, or lacosamide. If still persist, intubate the patient, continuous EEG monitoring and give IV General anaesthesia (IV midazolam or IV propofol infusion)</li><li>• First line treatment: Intravenous (IV) lorazepam (standard dose of 4 mg in adults; different doses for children).</li><li>• First line treatment:</li><li>• If seizures persist after the first dose of lorazepam, it can be repeated once.</li><li>• If seizures persist after the first dose of lorazepam,</li><li>• Second line treatment: If seizures continue after two doses of lorazepam, IV anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are administered. Options include IV phenytoin, fosphenytoin, levetiracetam, valproate, or lacosamide.</li><li>• Second line treatment:</li><li>• If still persist, intubate the patient, continuous EEG monitoring and give IV General anaesthesia (IV midazolam or IV propofol infusion)</li><li>• In this case, following lorazepam with levetiracetam is consistent with current guidelines.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Levetiracetam followed by valproate: Levetiracetam is a second-line treatment, not first-line.</li><li>• Option B. Levetiracetam followed by valproate:</li><li>• Option C. Carbamazepine followed by lorazepam: Carbamazepine is not typically used in the acute management of SE.</li><li>• Option C. Carbamazepine followed by lorazepam:</li><li>• Option D. Valproate followed by gabapentin: Valproate can be used as a second-line treatment, but gabapentin is not typically used for SE management.</li><li>• Option D. Valproate followed by gabapentin:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first line of management for status epilepticus is IV lorazepam, followed by IV antiepileptic drugs like levetiracetam if seizures persist.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-year-old child had fracture of humerus 2 years back. Now he’s having difficulty in hanging his school bag. There is also a presence of the shown deformity. What can be the most likely injury? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral condyle humerus fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Olecranon fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supracondylar humerus fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior dislocation of elbow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Supracondylar humerus fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-183916.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175718.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Supracondylar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gunstock deformity or cubitus varus is seen in children with history of supracondylar fracture humerus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Conjunctival xerosis is associated with which vitamin deficiency? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conjunctival xerosis is specifically associated with Vitamin A deficiency and is a significant indicator of this deficiency, affecting the epithelial tissues of the eye.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye, pain on eye movement and there was RAPD. This is due to the lesion of: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Visual cortex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Optic nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Optic nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presentation of sudden vision loss in one eye, pain on eye movement, and RAPD suggests a lesion in the optic nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came following an RTA in the hospital. He is able to understand his friend’s talks. He is trying to speak (non-fluent aphasia) something to his friend. Which part of the brain is most likely to be injured? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wernicke’s area", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Angular gyrus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Broca’s area", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arcuate fasciculus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Broca’s area", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Broca’s area</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Broca’s area is responsible for speech production and language processing. It is located in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere (usually the left hemisphere) of the brain. Injury to Broca’s area leads to Broca’s aphasia, also known as non-fluent aphasia. Individuals with this condition can understand spoken language but have difficulty in speaking, writing, or forming words properly.</li><li>• Broca’s area : Broca’s aphasia is characterized by difficulty in speech production. The patient may understand speech but will struggle to speak fluently, often speaking in short, broken sentences with considerable effort. This condition is also known as expressive aphasia.</li><li>• Broca’s area</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Wernicke’s area : This area is involved in the comprehension of spoken language. Damage to Wernicke’s area results in Wernicke’s aphasia (fluent aphasia), where the patient can speak fluently but the speech is often nonsensical and lacks meaning.</li><li>• Option A. Wernicke’s area</li><li>• Option B. Angular gyrus : This region is involved in various functions related to language, number processing, and spatial cognition but is not directly responsible for speech production or comprehension.</li><li>• Option B. Angular gyrus</li><li>• Option D. Arcuate fasciculus : This is a bundle of nerve fibers that connects Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area. Damage to this pathway can result in conduction aphasia, characterized by the ability to understand and produce speech but difficulty in repeating words or sentences.</li><li>• Option D. Arcuate fasciculus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Broca’s area is involved in speech production. Damage to this area results in non-fluent (expressive) aphasia, where the patient can understand speech but has difficulty speaking fluently.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following steps of milk production in the correct sequence: (FMGE JANUARY 2024) Galactopoiesis Lactogenesis Mammogenesis Lactation", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3, 2, 1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4, 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 4, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3, 2, 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 3, 2, 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct sequence of milk production involves several stages, starting from the development of the mammary glands to the actual ejection of milk. These stages are:</li><li>• 3. Mammogenesis : This is the development of the mammary glands , which begins at birth but continues significantly during puberty. The breast tissue matures and prepares for potential milk production.</li><li>• 3. Mammogenesis :</li><li>• development of the mammary glands</li><li>• 2. Lactogenesis : This stage refers to the initiation of milk synthesis . It involves hormonal changes that stimulate the mammary glands to start producing milk. Lactogenesis typically begins during the late stages of pregnancy and continues after childbirth.</li><li>• 2. Lactogenesis :</li><li>• initiation of milk synthesis</li><li>• 1. Galactopoiesis : This is the maintenance of milk production after lactogenesis has initiated. It involves the continued synthesis and secretion of milk, which is essential for sustaining milk supply during breastfeeding.</li><li>• 1. Galactopoiesis :</li><li>• maintenance of milk production</li><li>• 4. Lactation: This refers to the process of milk ejection and feeding the baby. It encompasses the baby's suckling, which stimulates further milk production and ejection through the let-down reflex.</li><li>• 4. Lactation:</li><li>• milk ejection</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of milk production involves mammogenesis, lactogenesis, galactopoiesis, and finally lactation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old hypertensive male patient was taking hydrochlorothiazide. He developed fatigue and hypokalemia. Which of the following drug can be added to prevent loss of potassium in this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amiloride", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Amiloride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Amiloride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic, works in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron by inhibiting sodium channels. This action reduces potassium excretion, helping to prevent hypokalemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of stridor occur in croup?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inspiratory stridor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biphasic stridor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expiratory stridor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No stridor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Biphasic stridor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Biphasic stridor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Croup typically presents with biphasic stridor, which occurs during both inspiration and expiration, reflecting the subglottic airway narrowing characteristic of the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The rate-limiting enzyme of HMP shunt is? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose-6-phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phosphofructokinase I", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glycogen phosphorylase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-151728.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rate Limiting Enzymes</li><li>➤ Rate Limiting Enzymes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 48-year-old smoker presents with yellow, copious, foul-smelling sputum that increases significantly in the morning after getting up and on changing posture. He has had this problem for a few years. What will be the first differential diagnosis? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bronchiectasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bronchiectasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The correct answer is bronchiectasis. The key features in this case include the presence of copious, foul-smelling sputum that increases significantly in the morning and with postural changes. These features are highly suggestive of bronchiectasis, a condition characterized by chronic dilation and infection of the bronchi. This leads to the production of large amounts of sputum, particularly after changes in posture due to the drainage of secretions from the dilated airways.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Asthma: Typically presents with wheezing, shortness of breath, and a dry or mildly productive cough. Asthma is diagnosed with spirometry, showing reversible airway obstruction.</li><li>• Option A. Asthma:</li><li>• Option B. Pneumonia: Usually presents acutely with fever, cough, and purulent sputum. It is less likely to cause symptoms that have persisted for years.</li><li>• Option B. Pneumonia:</li><li>• Option D. Lung cancer: May present with chronic cough and hemoptysis but is less likely to produce copious, foul-smelling sputum that increases with postural changes over several years.</li><li>• Option D. Lung cancer:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bronchiectasis should be considered in patients with chronic, copious, foul-smelling sputum that varies with posture, especially in the context of a history of smoking or recurrent respiratory infections. Recognizing these features can prompt appropriate diagnostic imaging, such as a CT scan showing characteristic tram-track or signet ring appearances.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ammonia is transported from the brain to the liver in the form of which of the following amino acids? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutamate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glutamine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glutamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Glutamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Ammonia is transported from the brain to the liver primarily in the form of glutamine.</li><li>• This is because glutamine can safely carry ammonia through the bloodstream to the liver, where the urea cycle converts it into urea for excretion.</li><li>• The liver's urea cycle is the primary site for detoxifying ammonia, a neurotoxic byproduct of amino acid metabolism.</li><li>• Glutamine plays a crucial role in this process by acting as a carrier molecule that neutralizes ammonia, thus preventing its accumulation and potential toxicity in the brain.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Glutamate: While glutamate is involved in ammonia metabolism, it is not the primary transporter of ammonia from the brain to the liver. Instead, glutamate is often converted to glutamine for this purpose.</li><li>• Option A. Glutamate:</li><li>• Option B. Alanine: Alanine transports ammonia primarily from muscle tissues to the liver. It is part of the glucose-alanine cycle, which helps in the conversion of pyruvate to glucose in the liver.</li><li>• Option B. Alanine:</li><li>• muscle tissues</li><li>• Option C. Glycine: Glycine does not play a significant role in ammonia transport from the brain to the liver.</li><li>• Option C. Glycine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glutamine is the primary amino acid responsible for transporting ammonia from the brain to the liver.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male presents with seizures. On further evaluation, there was also a history suggestive of manic and depressive episodes. Which of the following drugs should be prescribed? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pregabalin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valproate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levodopa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Valproate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Valproate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Valproate is effective for treating both seizure disorders and bipolar disorder, making it the drug of choice for patients with comorbid conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with complaints of fatigue, lethargy, pallor, and right index finger pain. Biochemical analysis showed raised indirect bilirubin. What can be the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autoimmune hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PNH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sickle cell anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sickle cell anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The combination of symptoms, including fatigue, lethargy, pallor (suggesting anemia), right index finger pain, and elevated indirect bilirubin levels (indicating jaundice), strongly points toward sickle cell anemia as the underlying diagnosis.</li><li>• Sickle cell anemia is a hemolytic anemia characterized by the production of abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells, which can lead to vaso-occlusive crises and ischemic damage.</li><li>• The presence of right index finger pain is a crucial clue, as it may be a manifestation of dactylitis or hand-foot syndrome, which is commonly seen in sickle cell anemia patients. This condition arises due to the involvement of small blood vessels in the hands and feet, leading to inflammation and severe pain.</li><li>• Additionally, the hemolysis (breakdown of red blood cells) associated with sickle cell anemia results in anemia and elevated indirect bilirubin levels, causing jaundice.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Thalassemia: While thalassemia is also a type of hemolytic anemia, it does not typically present with the characteristic hand-foot syndrome or dactylitis seen in sickle cell anemia.</li><li>• Option B. Thalassemia:</li><li>• Option C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: This condition involves the destruction of red blood cells by the body's own immune system. It does not typically cause the specific symptom of index finger pain.</li><li>• Option C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia:</li><li>• Option D. PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria): PNH is a rare acquired disorder characterized by the destruction of red blood cells, but it does not typically present with the combination of symptoms seen in this case, particularly the right index finger pain.</li><li>• Option D. PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient presenting with anemia, jaundice, and specific finger pain (dactylitis or hand-foot syndrome), sickle cell anemia should be strongly considered as the underlying diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neonate is diagnosed with gastroschisis. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this condition? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgical wall repair", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Slowly putting it inside", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgical excision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Surgical wall repair", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Surgical wall repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most appropriate management for a neonate with gastroschisis is immediate surgical repair to return the intestines to the abdominal cavity and close the defect in the abdominal wall.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which bones are cut during external DCR?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ethmoid, sphenoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethmoid, lacrimal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maxillary, lacrimal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nasal, lacrimal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Maxillary, lacrimal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Maxillary, lacrimal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During an external Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR), the maxillary and lacrimal bones are cut to establish a new tear drainage pathway from the lacrimal sac into the nasal cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient presented after a motor vehicle accident to the emergency. On examination, the right lower limb was longer than the left, abducted and externally rotated. What can be the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Femoral nerve injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femoral neck fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior hip dislocation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior hip dislocation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anterior hip dislocation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-174544.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-174558.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-174859.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175111.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Anterior hip dislocation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The limb appears lengthened and in FABER (flexion, abduction, external rotation) deformity in anterior dislocation of the hip following a motor vehicle accident. Thus, in the given scenario, the patient has anterior dislocation of the hip.</li><li>➤ The limb appears lengthened and in FABER (flexion, abduction, external rotation) deformity in anterior dislocation of the hip following a motor vehicle accident.</li><li>➤ Thus, in the given scenario, the patient has anterior dislocation of the hip.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic presented with pruritic eczematous rash on the neck and dorsum of hands. What is the likely nutritional deficiency?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin B3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin B3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Chronic alcoholics are prone to multiple nutrient deficiencies due to malnourishment and malnutrition. The given history is compatible with a disease called Pellagra, which is due to Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency. Pellagra is characterized by the \"3 D's\": Diarrhea, Dermatitis, and Dementia, and it can also lead to death, sometimes referred to as the \"4 D's.\"</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Vitamin B1 : Causes Wernicke's encephalopathy, peripheral neuropathy, and heart failure but does not match the described skin condition.</li><li>• Option B. Vitamin B1</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D : Associated with rickets and osteomalacia, not pruritic eczematous rash.</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin C : Causes scurvy with gum bleeding and other symptoms, not the described dermatitis.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin C</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Pellagra, characterized by the \"3 D's\" (Diarrhea, Dermatitis, Dementia), is caused by Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency and is commonly seen in chronic alcoholics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Who will give permission for MTP for a woman who is mentally unsound? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Self", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Partner", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Legal guardian", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Legal guardian", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Legal guardian</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For a woman who is mentally unsound, the permission for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) cannot be given by herself due to her compromised mental state. The legal requirement is that the consent must come from her legal guardian. A legal guardian is an individual who has been legally appointed to care for and make decisions on behalf of the mentally unsound person. This guardian may be a parent or another individual assigned by the court, but the key requirement is that the guardian must have legal authority to make such decisions.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Self: A mentally unsound woman is not legally capable of giving consent for MTP due to her compromised mental state.</li><li>• Option A. Self:</li><li>• Option B. Partner: While a partner may be involved in the decision-making process, they do not have the legal authority to give permission for MTP unless they are also the legal guardian.</li><li>• Option B. Partner:</li><li>• Option C. Parent: Although a parent might be a legal guardian, simply being a parent does not automatically grant the authority. The person must be legally recognized as the guardian.</li><li>• Option C. Parent:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The legal guardian must give permission for MTP for a woman who is mentally unsound, ensuring that the decision is made in the best interest of the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient's blood sample was taken in a grey top vacutainer. Which of the following is added for the correct estimate of blood glucose? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sodium citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium fluoride", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sodium fluoride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sodium fluoride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For accurate measurement of blood glucose levels in diabetic patients, the blood sample is collected in a grey top vacutainer containing sodium fluoride. Sodium fluoride acts as a glycolysis inhibitor, preventing the breakdown of glucose by red blood cells. This ensures that the glucose levels in the sample remain stable until the analysis is performed, providing an accurate representation of the patient's blood glucose concentration.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Sodium citrate is used as an anticoagulant and is present in blue top vacutainers, which are typically used for coagulation studies and not for glucose estimation.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• blue top</li><li>• Option C. EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is an anticoagulant used in lavender top vacutainers , which are commonly used for complete blood count (CBC) and other hematological tests, but not for glucose estimation.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• lavender top vacutainers</li><li>• Option D. Heparin is an anticoagulant found in green top vacutainers , which are used for various biochemical tests, but not specifically for glucose estimation in diabetic patients.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• green top vacutainers</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sodium fluoride, present in grey top vacutainers, inhibits glycolysis and prevents the breakdown of glucose, ensuring an accurate measurement of blood glucose levels in diabetic patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seat belt injury, which of the following organs is most commonly affected? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver and spleen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancreas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hollow viscus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hollow viscus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hollow viscus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In seat belt injuries, hollow viscus organs, particularly the small intestine and colon, are most commonly affected due to their susceptibility to compression forces, emphasizing the importance of thorough evaluation for intra-abdominal injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old patient is brought to the ER following a suspected stroke. The patient is unable to speak fluently, though he understands the given instructions. Which category of aphasia is most likely present in the patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Broca's aphasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wernicke's aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conduction aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Global aphasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Broca's aphasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/1_hJkyQEo.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Broca's aphasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient in the question exhibits symptoms consistent with Broca's aphasia, also known as motor aphasia. In Broca's aphasia, the patient has difficulty with speech production and articulation but maintains relatively intact language comprehension. This is evident from the fact that the patient understands the given instructions but is unable to speak fluently.</li><li>• Broca's area, located in the frontal lobe (Brodmann areas 44 and 45), is responsible for speech production and articulation. Damage to this area, often caused by a stroke, results in Broca's aphasia. Patients with Broca's aphasia struggle with fluent speech but can typically understand language, as the Wernicke's area remains unaffected.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Wernicke's aphasia : This is a form of sensory aphasia where patients have difficulty understanding language but can produce fluent, albeit meaningless, speech. Wernicke’s area is located at the Posterior part of area no 22. This is associated with hearing loss.</li><li>• Option B. Wernicke's aphasia</li><li>• Option C. Conduction aphasia : In this type of aphasia, the patient can understand and produce language, but there is a disconnect between the Wernicke's area and the Broca's area (Brodmann areas 39 and 40). This results in difficulty repeating words or phrases, which is not mentioned in the patient's case.</li><li>• Option C. Conduction aphasia</li><li>• Option D. Global aphasia : This is a severe form of aphasia involving both Broca's and Wernicke's areas, leading to impairments in both language production and comprehension. The patient in the question does not exhibit signs of impaired comprehension, making this option incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Global aphasia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Broca's aphasia, or motor aphasia, is characterized by difficulty in speech production and articulation while language comprehension remains relatively intact. It is caused by damage to Broca's area (Brodmann areas 44 and 45) in the frontal lobe, often due to a stroke.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12 weeks pregnant lady visited the doctor. On ultrasound, it was found she has a low-lying placenta. What is the next best step? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Repeat ultrasound at 32 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Repeat ultrasound at 39 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Elective LSCS at 39 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allow for a normal delivery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Repeat ultrasound at 32 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Repeat ultrasound at 32 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• At 12 weeks gestation, the presence of a low-lying placenta is often not a cause for immediate concern because the placenta typically \"migrates\" upward as the pregnancy progresses. This migration is due to the expansion of the uterus, which effectively moves the placenta away from the cervix. Therefore, the recommended management is to repeat an ultrasound between 28 to 32 weeks to reassess the position of the placenta. By this time, the majority of placentas that were initially low-lying will have moved to a safer position, allowing for a more accurate determination of whether there will be any complications related to placenta previa.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The next best step for a pregnant woman found to have a low-lying placenta at 12 weeks is to repeat the ultrasound at around 32 weeks to reassess the placenta's position and determine appropriate management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented in the ER with hypotension. On auscultation, dullness of heart sound and dilated neck veins was diagnosed, along with cardiac tamponade. Which of the following JVP findings is typically associated with cardiac tamponade? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prominent x descent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cannon a wave", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Absent y descent", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Absent a wave", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Absent y descent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Absent y descent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In cardiac tamponade, there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which impairs the filling of the heart chambers, particularly during diastole. This results in the characteristic absence of the y descent in the jugular venous pressure (JVP) waveform.</li><li>• The y descent normally represents the rapid filling phase of the right atrium and right ventricle.</li><li>• In cardiac tamponade, this filling is restricted, leading to a blunted or absent y descent.</li><li>• Mnemonic \"No ThankYou\" → No/ Absence of the Y descent in cardiac T amponade.</li><li>• No/ Absence</li><li>• Y</li><li>• T</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Prominent x descent: This is typically seen in conditions with increased atrial relaxation and tricuspid regurgitation, but not in cardiac tamponade.</li><li>• Option A. Prominent x descent:</li><li>• Option B. Cannon a wave: This is associated with conditions involving atrioventricular dissociation, such as complete heart block, where atrial contractions occur against a closed tricuspid valve.</li><li>• Option B. Cannon a wave:</li><li>• Option D. Absent a wave: The a wave is absent in atrial fibrillation, where there is no coordinated atrial contraction.</li><li>• Option D. Absent a wave:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cardiac tamponade, the characteristic JVP finding is the absence of the y descent.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old HIV-positive patient presents with persistent headaches, confusion, and a gradual onset of fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, revealing an elevated opening pressure and a cerebrospinal fluid analysis, showing a positive India Ink stain. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Viral encephalitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcus neoformans", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculous meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cryptococcus neoformans", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121105_RWjSGJX.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cryptococcus neoformans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The key points that support the diagnosis of Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis are:</li><li>• The patient is HIV-positive, indicating an immunocompromised state.</li><li>• The presentation of persistent headache, confusion, and gradual onset of fever is consistent with meningitis.</li><li>• The lumbar puncture reveals an elevated opening pressure, which is seen in meningitis.</li><li>• The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows a positive India Ink stain, which is a negative stain used to detect capsulated organisms like Cryptococcus neoformans.</li><li>• Cryptococcus neoformans is an opportunistic fungus that commonly causes chronic meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV.</li><li>• Indian Ink Preparation showing Cryptococcus</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other</li><li>• Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bacterial meningitis: While the symptoms and elevated CSF pressure are consistent with bacterial meningitis, the positive India Ink stain indicates the presence of a fungal organism rather than bacteria.</li><li>• Option A. Bacterial meningitis:</li><li>• Option B. Viral encephalitis: The symptoms and elevated CSF pressure are not typically seen in viral encephalitis, which primarily affects the brain parenchyma rather than the meninges. Additionally, the positive India Ink stain is not consistent with a viral etiology.</li><li>• Option B. Viral encephalitis:</li><li>• Option D. Tuberculous meningitis: Although tuberculous meningitis is a chronic form of meningitis, it is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a bacterium, and would not result in a positive India Ink stain, which is specific for detecting Cryptococcus neoformans.</li><li>• Option D. Tuberculous meningitis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cryptococcus neoformans is an opportunistic fungus that can cause meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV.</li><li>➤ A positive India Ink stain on CSF analysis, along with elevated opening pressure and compatible clinical symptoms, strongly suggests Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A G2P1L1 with a previous cesarean section now presents at term. Which of the following is most favorable for a vaginal birth? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Previous upper segment cesarean", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Previous lower segment cesarean", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Previous J-shaped cesarean", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Previous T-shaped cesarean", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Previous lower segment cesarean", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Previous lower segment cesarean</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The type of uterine incision from a previous cesarean section significantly impacts the safety and likelihood of a successful vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC).</li><li>• The lower segment cesarean section (LSCS) involves a transverse incision made in the lower, thinner part of the uterus. This type of incision is most favorable for a vaginal birth due to its lower risk of uterine rupture during labor, which is around 0.2%.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Incision Types and Associated Risks:</li><li>• Option A. Previous upper segment cesarean: This is also known as a classical cesarean section, where the incision is made vertically in the thicker, upper part of the uterus. The risk of uterine rupture with this type of incision is significantly higher, ranging from 4-9%.</li><li>• Option A. Previous upper segment cesarean:</li><li>• Option C. Previous J-shaped cesarean: This incision extends from the lower segment into the upper segment, increasing the risk of rupture to 4-9%.</li><li>• Option C. Previous J-shaped cesarean:</li><li>• Option D. Previous T-shaped cesarean: This incision combines a lower segment transverse incision with a vertical extension into the upper segment, also associated with a 4-9% risk of rupture.</li><li>• Option D. Previous T-shaped cesarean:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The most favorable incision for a vaginal birth after a previous cesarean section is the lower segment transverse incision due to its lower risk of uterine rupture during labor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Congenital biliary atresia should be suspected when jaundice is present beyond? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2 Weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital biliary atresia should be suspected when jaundice is present beyond 2 weeks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged woman with BMI 32, was on atypical antipsychotic drugs. She presented with a complaint of weight gain. Which of the following drugs is least commonly associated with weight gain? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Risperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quetiapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ziprasidone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlorpromazine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ziprasidone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ziprasidone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Among antipsychotic medications, ziprasidone is least commonly associated with weight gain, making it a better option for patients concerned about this side effect.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the preferred drug for treatment of post-menopausal breast cancer? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Raloxifene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tamoxifen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anastrozole", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Anastrozole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Anastrozole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor and is drug of choice for treatment of breast cancer (which is estrogen receptor positive) in post-menopausal females.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An audiogram of a 30-year-old female patient is given below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meniere's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Noise-induced hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Presbycusis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Otosclerosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-124307.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Otosclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The audiometric profile of Otosclerosis: this typically presents as a conductive hearing loss with an air-bone gap on an audiogram, most often diagnosed in young adults, particularly females.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following factors can decrease iron absorption? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tea", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sprouts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastric acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tea, particularly due to its tannin content, is known to decrease iron absorption. The other options, Vitamin C and gastric acid, typically aid in iron absorption, while sprouts, although containing phytates, have reduced phytate levels due to the sprouting process and are not the primary dietary concern for iron absorption inhibition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old male presented with complaints of recurrent bleeding. On examination, following was seen on the CECT. All are false except: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Outgrown the blood supply", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tumor vessel lack contractility", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bleeding is from the adjacent invading vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lacks capsule", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tumor vessel lack contractility", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-124755.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tumor vessel lack contractility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tumor vessels are known to lack contractility, which contributes to the risk of bleeding associated with tumors, as they cannot constrict effectively to stop blood flow when damaged.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most radiosensitive phase of a cell cycle? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "S", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "G2M", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "M", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. G2M", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-113700_bZscd6n.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-113747_Kkl1BM5.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) G2M</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old obese female presented with Schizophrenia. Which of the following antipsychotic drug causes least weight gain? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlorpromazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clozapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Olanzapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ziprasidone", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ziprasidone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Ziprasidone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ziprasidone is an atypical antipsychotic associated with a lower risk of weight gain. It is considered more weight-neutral compared to other atypical antipsychotics like clozapine and olanzapine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the presented spirometry image, what term corresponds to the point labelled as 'F'? (FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Forced vital capacity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Expiratory reserve volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total lung capacity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inspiratory capacity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Forced vital capacity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/4-physiology-fmge-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Forced vital capacity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The spirometry diagram illustrates various lung volumes and capacities –</li><li>• The spirometry diagram illustrates various lung volumes and capacities –</li><li>• The point labelled 'F' corresponds to the forced vital capacity (FVC), which is the maximum amount of air a person can forcibly exhale from their lungs after taking the deepest breath possible. It includes the tidal volume (TV), inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV).</li><li>• In this context:</li><li>• In this context:</li><li>• Tidal Volume (TV): The amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing (A). Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): The additional air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation (B). Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV): The additional air that can be exhaled after a normal exhalation (C). Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): The total volume of air that can be exhaled forcefully after taking a deep breath (TV + IRV + ERV) (F).</li><li>• Tidal Volume (TV): The amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing (A).</li><li>• Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): The additional air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation (B).</li><li>• Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV): The additional air that can be exhaled after a normal exhalation (C).</li><li>• Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): The total volume of air that can be exhaled forcefully after taking a deep breath (TV + IRV + ERV) (F).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Expiratory reserve volume: This is the additional volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after normal exhalation, represented by 'C' in the diagram.</li><li>• Option B. Expiratory reserve volume:</li><li>• Option C. Total lung capacity: This is the total volume of air in the lungs after a maximum inhalation, including the residual volume. It is not represented by 'F'.</li><li>• Option C. Total lung capacity:</li><li>• Option D. Inspiratory capacity: This is the total volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation, represented by 'D' in the diagram.</li><li>• Option D. Inspiratory capacity:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spirometry diagram</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to emergency with severe breathlessness. CXR is taken and shown below. What is the diagnosis? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Consolidation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Collapse", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pleural effusion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-112146.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pleural effusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The chest X-ray (CXR) of the patient shows a whiteout on one side with a significant tracheal shift to the opposite side. These findings are indicative of a massive pleural effusion.</li><li>• Pleural effusion : This condition results in the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, leading to lung compression and a shift of the mediastinum, including the trachea, away from the affected side. The presence of a large whiteout on the X-ray, along with the tracheal deviation to the opposite side, strongly suggests pleural effusion.</li><li>• Pleural effusion</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pneumothorax : This condition would typically present with a hyperlucent (dark) area on the X-ray without lung markings, rather than a whiteout. It also generally causes a tracheal shift towards the opposite side, but the appearance on the X-ray would be different.</li><li>• Option A. Pneumothorax</li><li>• Option B. Consolidation : This condition involves filling of the alveoli with fluid or other material, leading to a whiteout appearance on the X-ray. However, it does not usually cause a significant tracheal shift.</li><li>• Option B. Consolidation</li><li>• Option C. Collapse : This condition, also known as atelectasis, would cause a shift of the trachea towards the affected side. It can present with a whiteout on the X-ray, but the tracheal deviation would be opposite to that seen in pleural effusion.</li><li>• Option C. Collapse</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A massive pleural effusion is characterized by a whiteout on the chest X-ray with a significant tracheal shift to the opposite side.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was given 0.5% bupivacaine for supraclavicular brachial plexus block. In a matter of few seconds the patient suddenly developed hypotension and arrhythmias. Which of the following is the correct 1 st line treatment of this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Invasive ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intra lipid infusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Soda Bicarbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CPCR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intra lipid infusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Intra lipid infusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's symptoms of hypotension and arrhythmias after the administration of 0.5% bupivacaine suggest local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST), which can occur if the local anesthetic enters the systemic circulation in significant amounts. Intravenous lipid emulsion (ILE) therapy is considered the first-line treatment for LAST. It works by creating a \"lipid sink\" that helps to sequester the lipophilic local anesthetic away from target organs, particularly the heart and brain.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Invasive Ventilation: This is provided if the patient is not able to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation on their own. It is supportive care and does not directly counteract the toxicity of the local anesthetic.</li><li>• Option A. Invasive Ventilation:</li><li>• Option C. Soda Bicarbonate (Sodium Bicarbonate): This can be used to treat metabolic acidosis, which may occur secondary to hypoxia or cardiac arrest. While it can help in the supportive management of LAST, it is not the first line for the toxicity itself.</li><li>• Option C. Soda Bicarbonate (Sodium Bicarbonate):</li><li>• Option D. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPCR): This is initiated in the case of cardiac arrest. While it's a crucial component of resuscitation, it's not a first-line treatment for the toxicity unless the patient has progressed to cardiac arrest.</li><li>• Option D. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPCR):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first-line treatment for local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) is intravenous lipid emulsion therapy, which helps to reduce the systemic toxicity of lipophilic local anesthetic agents such as bupivacaine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lactating mother is eating only vegetables. Which nutrient deficiency will be seen in her newborn?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin B12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin B12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• While vitamin D is another nutrient that lacks plant sources, it can be synthesized in the skin through exposure to sunlight. Therefore, a deficiency in vitamin D is less likely in this case compared to vitamin B12.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) is available in various plant-based sources, such as leafy green vegetables, legumes, and whole grains. Therefore, a deficiency in vitamin B2 is less likely in this scenario.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Vitamin B2</li><li>• Option B. Vitamin A can be obtained from plant sources in the form of provitamin A carotenoids, which are found in yellow, orange, and green leafy vegetables. As the mother is consuming vegetables, a vitamin A deficiency is less likely.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Vitamin A</li><li>• Option D. Iron is present in several plant-based sources, including legumes, whole grains, and leafy green vegetables. While the bioavailability of non-heme iron from plant sources is lower than heme iron from animal sources, a deficiency is less likely if the mother consumes a varied vegetable-based diet.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Iron</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 is a nutrient that is not found in plant sources, making it a potential deficiency concern for individuals following a strict vegetarian or vegan diet, including lactating mothers and their newborns.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If the RNA sequence is CAAGGU, what is the sequence of the template strand? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CAAGGT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GTTCCA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ACCTTG", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "TGGAAC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ACCTTG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ACCTTG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given RNA sequence is CAAGGU. To determine the template strand sequence -</li><li>• The given RNA sequence is CAAGGU. To determine the template strand sequence -</li><li>• Direction of RNA Sequence: The RNA sequence is provided without directions, but typically the sequence is read from 5' to 3'. Thus, the sequence is 5'-CAAGGU-3'. Non-Template Strand (Coding Strand) of DNA: The non-template strand of DNA has the same sequence as the RNA transcript except for the replacement of uracil (U) with thymine (T). Therefore, the non-template strand would be 5'-CAAGGT-3'. Template Strand of DNA: The template strand of DNA is complementary to the non-template strand. Complementarity means adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G). Therefore, the template strand, read in the 3' to 5' direction, would be: C pairs with G A pairs with T A pairs with T G pairs with C G pairs with C U (in RNA) pairs with A (in DNA, U replaced by T in RNA, so G pairs with C)</li><li>• Direction of RNA Sequence: The RNA sequence is provided without directions, but typically the sequence is read from 5' to 3'. Thus, the sequence is 5'-CAAGGU-3'.</li><li>• Direction of RNA Sequence:</li><li>• Non-Template Strand (Coding Strand) of DNA: The non-template strand of DNA has the same sequence as the RNA transcript except for the replacement of uracil (U) with thymine (T). Therefore, the non-template strand would be 5'-CAAGGT-3'.</li><li>• Non-Template Strand (Coding Strand) of DNA:</li><li>• Template Strand of DNA: The template strand of DNA is complementary to the non-template strand. Complementarity means adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G). Therefore, the template strand, read in the 3' to 5' direction, would be: C pairs with G A pairs with T A pairs with T G pairs with C G pairs with C U (in RNA) pairs with A (in DNA, U replaced by T in RNA, so G pairs with C)</li><li>• Template Strand of DNA:</li><li>• C pairs with G A pairs with T A pairs with T G pairs with C G pairs with C U (in RNA) pairs with A (in DNA, U replaced by T in RNA, so G pairs with C)</li><li>• C pairs with G</li><li>• A pairs with T</li><li>• A pairs with T</li><li>• G pairs with C</li><li>• G pairs with C</li><li>• U (in RNA) pairs with A (in DNA, U replaced by T in RNA, so G pairs with C)</li><li>• Therefore, the template strand is 3'-GTTAAC-5'. When we reverse the direction to match the 5' to 3' orientation given in the options, the sequence is ACCTTG.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. CAAGGT: This option is the sequence of the non-template (coding) strand of DNA, not the template strand.</li><li>• Option A. CAAGGT:</li><li>• Option B. GTTCCA: This option is not complementary to the RNA sequence.</li><li>• Option B. GTTCCA:</li><li>• Option D. TGGAAC: This option is incorrect as it does not match the complementary base pairing rules for the given RNA sequence.</li><li>• Option D. TGGAAC:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The template strand of DNA is complementary to the RNA sequence and the non-template strand, with the RNA sequence transcribed from the 5' to 3' direction of the non-template strand.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male came with a history of progressive dysphagia, initially to solid foods and now to liquids too. He has also experienced significant weight loss over the past few months. Which of the following is the investigation of choice for diagnosing the underlying cause of his symptoms? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Upper GI Endoscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endoscopic ultrasound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CECT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barium swallow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Upper GI Endoscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Upper GI Endoscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Upper GI endoscopy is the first-line diagnostic tool for evaluating a patient with progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss, as it allows for direct visualization and biopsy to establish a definitive diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the lesion in the chest x-ray?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Septic emboli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cannonball metastases", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cannonball metastases", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-130936.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cannonball metastases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The chest x-ray shows multiple round, well-defined nodules distributed throughout the lung fields. These nodules are characteristic of cannonball metastases, which are metastatic lesions typically arising from primary cancers such as renal cell carcinoma, choriocarcinoma, or other malignancies that spread hematogenously to the lungs.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Septic emboli : These typically present with multiple small nodules with a predilection for the lung periphery and often cavitate.</li><li>• Option A. Septic emboli</li><li>• Option C. Tuberculosis : Commonly presents with apical lesions, cavitary lesions, or a miliary pattern, not with multiple well-defined round nodules.</li><li>• Option C. Tuberculosis</li><li>• Option D. Lung abscess : Appears as a localized area of consolidation with a possible air-fluid level indicating cavitation.</li><li>• Option D. Lung abscess</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Cannonball metastases present as multiple round, well-defined nodules scattered throughout the lung fields on chest x-ray, indicative of metastatic spread.</li><li>➤ Cannonball metastases present as multiple round, well-defined nodules scattered throughout the lung fields on chest x-ray, indicative of metastatic spread.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had wheezing and shortness of breath. His PFT revealed FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;0.7 and FEV1 &lt;80% predicted value. What is the likely diagnosis in this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interstitial lung disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asthma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumoconiosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Asthma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-171635.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Asthma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The key findings in this case are wheezing, shortness of breath, and pulmonary function test (PFT) results indicating an obstructive lung pattern (FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;0.7 and FEV1 &lt;80% predicted value). These findings strongly suggest that the patient is suffering from asthma.</li><li>• Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways characterized by bronchial hyperresponsiveness, airway obstruction, and symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, coughing, and chest tightness. The PFT results showing a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio and reduced FEV1 are consistent with the obstructive airway pattern seen in asthma.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Interstitial lung disease: This group of disorders primarily affects the interstitium (the tissue between the air sacs) and is not typically associated with wheezing or an obstructive pattern on PFT.</li><li>• Option A. Interstitial lung disease:</li><li>• Option C. Pneumoconiosis : This refers to lung diseases caused by the inhalation of mineral dust or fibers, such as coal worker's pneumoconiosis or asbestosis. While it can cause respiratory symptoms, it is not typically associated with wheezing or an obstructive pattern on PFT.</li><li>• Option C. Pneumoconiosis</li><li>• Option D. Bronchiectasis: This condition is characterized by irreversible dilation and destruction of the bronchi, leading to chronic cough and copious sputum production. While it can cause shortness of breath, wheezing is not a common symptom, and the PFT pattern may vary.</li><li>• Option D. Bronchiectasis:</li><li>• E ducational Objective:</li><li>• ducational Objective:</li><li>• In a patient presenting with wheezing, shortness of breath, and PFT results indicating an obstructive pattern (FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;0.7 and FEV1 &lt;80% predicted value), asthma should be strongly considered as the likely diagnosis.</li><li>• Obstructive Vs Restrictive Lung disorders:</li><li>• Obstructive Vs Restrictive Lung disorders:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common cause of blindness in children is:( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Refractory error", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin A deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin A deficiency is the most common cause of preventable blindness in children in developing countries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For the conjoint tendon, all are true except: (FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Formed by the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis aponeurosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Forms the posterior wall of inguinal canal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Protects the superficial inguinal ring to maintain integrity of inguinal canal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Runs parallel to the inguinal ligament", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Runs parallel to the inguinal ligament", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Runs parallel to the inguinal ligament</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The conjoint tendon does not run parallel to the inguinal ligament. Instead, it runs obliquely and inserts into the pubic crest and pectineal line, thereby reinforcing the posterior wall of the inguinal canal but not parallel to the inguinal ligament.</li><li>• The conjoint tendon, also known as the falx inguinalis, is a critical structure in the anatomy of the inguinal region. It is formed by the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This structure plays an essential role in maintaining the integrity of the inguinal canal and preventing hernias.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Formed by the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis aponeurosis: This statement is true. The conjoint tendon is indeed formed by the fusion of the internal oblique aponeurosis and the transversus abdominis aponeurosis.</li><li>• Option A. Formed by the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis aponeurosis:</li><li>• Option B. Forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal: This statement is also true. The conjoint tendon contributes significantly to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, providing support and reinforcing this area.</li><li>• Option B. Forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal:</li><li>• Option C. Protects the superficial inguinal ring to maintain integrity of inguinal canal: This statement is true. The conjoint tendon helps protect the superficial inguinal ring by forming a shutter-like mechanism that reduces the risk of inguinal hernias by maintaining the canal's integrity.</li><li>• Option C. Protects the superficial inguinal ring to maintain integrity of inguinal canal:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The conjoint tendon is formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis aponeuroses and plays a crucial role in reinforcing the posterior wall of the inguinal canal and protecting the superficial inguinal ring. It does not run parallel to the inguinal ligament.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child who is eagerly drinking water and skin pinch goes back slowly. Which category does the child belong according to IMNCI? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pink", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the IMNCI color coding system:</li><li>➤ Green indicates no dehydration. Yellow indicates some dehydration. Pink indicates severe dehydration.</li><li>➤ Green indicates no dehydration.</li><li>➤ Yellow indicates some dehydration.</li><li>➤ Pink indicates severe dehydration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bowing of legs with bleeding gums is seen in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bowing of legs can be mistakenly attributed to vitamin D deficiency, which typically causes rickets in children.</li><li>• However, the presence of bleeding gums points specifically to vitamin C deficiency.</li><li>• Vitamin C is crucial for collagen synthesis and other structural aspects of bone formation. This deficiency, known as scurvy, involves various skeletal changes including defective osteoid matrix formation and osteolysis, beyond just the commonly noted bleeding gums. The combined symptoms of bowing of legs and bleeding gums can indeed suggest a scenario where vitamin C deficiency plays a contributory role alongside other deficiencies like vitamin D.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Vitamin A: Incorrect because Vitamin A deficiency primarily affects vision and epithelial tissues, not typically associated with bleeding gums or significant skeletal changes like bowing of legs.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Vitamin A:</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin E: Incorrect as Vitamin E deficiency generally leads to neurological problems and muscle weakness, not directly linked with bleeding gums or bone deformities.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Vitamin E:</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin K: Incorrect because while Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting, its deficiency is not typically associated with bowing of legs; it would rather lead to bleeding issues without the skeletal deformities noted here.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Vitamin K:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin C deficiency can cause bleeding gums and is associated with significant bone structure changes, leading to conditions like scurvy that may present with skeletal deformities such as bowing of legs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely ECG changes noted with the use of new anti-tubercular drug bedaquiline: (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "QT prolongation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in PR interval", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ST segment elevation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "QRS widening", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. QT prolongation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) QT prolongation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ QT prolongation is a well-documented ECG change associated with the use of bedaquiline. It is one of the notable side effects of this drug.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a community of 100000 population, 105 children were born in a year, out of which 5 were still births and 2 died within 6 months after birth and another 2 died within next 6 months. The IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "40", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "90", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "120", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "150", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 40", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 40</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is calculated by dividing the total number of infant deaths (deaths within the first year of life) by the total number of live births, and multiplying the result by 1,000.</li><li>• In this case, the given information is:</li><li>• Total births in a year = 105 Stillbirths = 5 Infant deaths within the first 6 months = 2 Infant deaths within the next 6 months = 2</li><li>• Total births in a year = 105</li><li>• Stillbirths = 5</li><li>• Infant deaths within the first 6 months = 2</li><li>• Infant deaths within the next 6 months = 2</li><li>• To calculate the IMR:</li><li>• 1. Calculate the number of live births:</li><li>• Total live births = Total births - Stillbirths</li><li>• Total live births = 105 - 5 = 100</li><li>• 2. Calculate the total number of infant deaths:</li><li>• Total infant deaths = Infant deaths within the first 6 months + Infant deaths within the next 6 months</li><li>• Total infant deaths = 2 + 2 = 4</li><li>• 3. Calculate the IMR using the formula:</li><li>• IMR = (Total infant deaths / Total live births) × 1,000</li><li>• IMR = (4 / 100) × 1,000</li><li>• IMR = 40</li><li>• Therefore, the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) for this community is 40 per 1,000 live births.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is a crucial indicator that represents the number of infant deaths (deaths within the first year of life) per 1,000 live births in a given population or community.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glucose load for screening diabetes in pregnancy is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25 gm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50 gm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "75 gm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "100 gm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 75 gm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 75 gm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the majority of guidelines, including the WHO, IADPSG (International Association of Diabetes and Pregnancy Study Groups), and DIPSI (Diabetes in Pregnancy Study Group India) guidelines, a 75 gm glucose load is used for screening diabetes in pregnancy.</li><li>• Note - The ACOG (American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists) guidelines follow a two-step process where the first step involves a 50 gm glucose load for screening, and if positive, a 100 gm glucose load for confirmation.</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 25 gm: Not used in any standard screening protocol.</li><li>• Option A. 25 gm:</li><li>• Option B. 50 gm: Used in the initial step of the ACOG two-step screening process, but not the most common single-step screening load.</li><li>• Option B. 50 gm:</li><li>• Option D. 100 gm: Used in the second step of the ACOG two-step screening process, not for initial screening.</li><li>• Option D. 100 gm:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For screening diabetes in pregnancy, the 75 gm glucose load is widely used according to various international guidelines, including WHO and IADPSG.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true about NF-1 EXCEPT: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic glioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CALM (Cafe Au Lait Macules)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lisch nodules", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Autosomal recessive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Autosomal recessive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1) is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by features such as café-au-lait macules, Lisch nodules, and optic gliomas. It is important to remember that it is not autosomal recessive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the antihypertensive of choice in a 28-week preeclamptic woman with asthma? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Telmisartan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nifedipine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nifedipine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In managing preeclampsia, labetalol is often the first-line antihypertensive due to its efficacy and safety profile in pregnancy. However, labetalol is both an alpha and beta-blocker, and its use can exacerbate asthma by causing bronchoconstriction. Therefore, it is contraindicated in asthmatic patients.</li><li>• Nifedipine: This is a calcium channel blocker that is safe and effective in pregnancy. It does not have the bronchoconstrictive effects of labetalol, making it the antihypertensive of choice for a preeclamptic woman with asthma.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Oral labetalol and Option B. IV labetalol: Both forms are contraindicated in patients with asthma due to the risk of bronchoconstriction.</li><li>• Option A. Oral labetalol and Option B. IV labetalol:</li><li>• Option D. Telmisartan: This angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) is contraindicated in pregnancy because it can cause fetal renal hypoperfusion and oligohydramnios, among other teratogenic effects.</li><li>• Option D. Telmisartan:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nifedipine is the antihypertensive of choice in a preeclamptic woman with asthma due to its safety profile and lack of broncho constrictive effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Edges of a Basal Cell Carcinoma are? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rolled out beaded", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sloping", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Punched out", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Undermined", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rolled out beaded", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-165156.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-165223.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rolled out beaded</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct answer is rolled out beaded.</li><li>• Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is the most common type of skin cancer, typically occurring in areas with high sun exposure. It often presents initially as a pearly white, translucent nodule with surface telangiectasias. As BCC is locally invasive, it can grow and lead to the formation of an ulcer. The characteristic edges of this ulcer are described as rolled out and beaded.</li><li>• Pearly white, translucent nodule with surface telangiectasias</li><li>• Ulcer with rolled out and beaded edges</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sloping: Sloping edges are typically seen in healing ulcers.</li><li>• Option B. Sloping:</li><li>• Option C. Punched out: Punched out edges are characteristic of trophic ulcers.</li><li>• Option C. Punched out:</li><li>• Option D. Undermined: Undermined edges are seen in tubercular ulcers and chancroid.</li><li>• Option D. Undermined:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The edges of a basal cell carcinoma ulcer are characteristically described as rolled out and beaded, distinguishing it from other types of ulcers which have sloping, punched out, or undermined edges. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient having hypertension, is on thiazides and is complaining of fatigue and hypokalemia. Which of the following drug can prevent potassium loss?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amiloride", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Indapamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amiloride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Amiloride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, indapamide, chlorthalidone, and metolazone, are known for causing potassium wasting, which can result in hypokalemia and associated symptoms like fatigue. To counteract this effect, potassium-sparing diuretics can be used.</li><li>• Amiloride is an epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) inhibitor, which is a type of potassium-sparing diuretic. It helps prevent potassium loss by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the distal tubules of the kidneys, thereby reducing potassium excretion.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Furosemide : This is a loop diuretic, which also causes potassium wasting and is not suitable for preventing potassium loss.</li><li>• Option A. Furosemide</li><li>• Option C. Acetazolamide : This is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic, which is not typically used for potassium conservation and can also cause electrolyte imbalances.</li><li>• Option C. Acetazolamide</li><li>• Option D. Indapamide : This is another thiazide-like diuretic, which also causes potassium wasting and does not prevent potassium loss.</li><li>• Option D. Indapamide</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can be used to prevent potassium loss in patients on thiazide diuretics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has diabetes with fasting level of 140 gm/dl and PP level of 200 gm/dl. The target HbA1c to be maintained is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt; 6.0", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt; 6.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&lt; 7.0", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "&lt; 7.5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. < 7.0", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) &lt; 7.0</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with an established diagnosis of diabetes, the target HbA1c level to be maintained is less than 7.0% to achieve optimal glycemic control and reduce the risk of diabetic complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman with a known history of thalassemia undergoes blood transfusion. Following the transfusion, she developed symptoms of anxiety, hypotension, and fever. What is the next appropriate step in the management of this patient? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop the blood transfusion and push normal saline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Continue the blood transfusion and perform an ECG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Investigate for clerical errors in the blood transfusion process", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administer corticosteroids and monitor vital signs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stop the blood transfusion and push normal saline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stop the blood transfusion and push normal saline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the event of suspected transfusion reactions, characterized by symptoms like anxiety, hypotension, and fever, the immediate action should be to stop the blood transfusion and push normal saline to prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old male presents with features of massive splenomegaly. On examination, his TLC was more than 85,000/mm³ with immature cells and a shift to the left with the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome. The mutation associated with the Philadelphia chromosome is? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Translocation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deletion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Translocation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Translocation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome, which results from a balanced reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 . Specifically, the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9 is translocated to the BCR gene on chromosome 22, resulting in the BCR-ABL fusion gene . This fusion gene encodes a protein with constitutively active tyrosine kinase activity, which leads to uncontrolled cell proliferation.</li><li>• balanced reciprocal translocation</li><li>• chromosomes 9 and 22</li><li>• BCR-ABL fusion gene</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Inversion : This involves a segment of a chromosome being reversed end to end. It is not associated with the formation of the Philadelphia chromosome.</li><li>• Option B. Inversion</li><li>• Option C. Deletion : This refers to the loss of a chromosome segment. It is not related to the Philadelphia chromosome.</li><li>• Option C. Deletion</li><li>• Option D. Insertion : This involves the addition of one or more nucleotide base pairs into a DNA sequence. It is not the mechanism behind the Philadelphia chromosome.</li><li>• Option D. Insertion</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ The Philadelphia chromosome is the result of a balanced reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, forming the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which is a hallmark of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).</li><li>➤ hallmark of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27y primigravida has just delivered. When removing the placenta, uterine inversion is noted. What is the next immediate step? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shift to OT immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Remove the placenta and reposition the uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reposition the uterus with the placenta attached", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "O'Sullivan's hydrostatic maneuver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Reposition the uterus with the placenta attached", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-130800.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-112957.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Reposition the uterus with the placenta attached</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Uterine inversion is a rare but serious obstetric emergency that occurs when the uterus turns inside out after delivery. Immediate management is crucial to prevent severe hemorrhage and shock. The next immediate step in the management of uterine inversion is to manually reposition the uterus with the placenta still attached. This is done to quickly restore the uterus to its normal position and reduce the risk of continued bleeding and shock.</li><li>• After manually repositioning the uterus, the healthcare provider should maintain the position by keeping a fist inside the uterus and administering uterotonic agents such as oxytocin to promote uterine contractions, which help to keep the uterus in place and reduce bleeding. The placenta should only be removed after the uterus has been repositioned successfully.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Shift to OT immediately: While surgical intervention may be required if manual repositioning fails, the initial step is to manually reposition the uterus.</li><li>• Option A. Shift to OT immediately:</li><li>• Option B. Remove the placenta and reposition the uterus: Removing the placenta before repositioning the uterus can lead to increased bleeding and is not recommended.</li><li>• Option B. Remove the placenta and reposition the uterus:</li><li>• Option D. O'Sullivan's hydrostatic maneuver: This maneuver involves using fluid pressure to reposition the uterus and is used if manual repositioning fails. It is not the immediate next step.</li><li>• Option D. O'Sullivan's hydrostatic maneuver:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The immediate step in managing uterine inversion is to manually reposition the uterus with the placenta still attached, followed by administration of uterotonic agents to maintain the uterus in its correct position.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 48 year old male smoker presented with cough and foul smelling sputum which increased on change in posture. He had similar episodes multiple times in last few years. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carcinoma of the lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bronchiectasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bronchiectasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The key features presented in this case are a 48-year-old male smoker with chronic cough, foul-smelling sputum, and an increase in sputum production upon changing posture. Additionally, the patient has experienced similar episodes multiple times over the past few years. These clinical manifestations strongly suggest a diagnosis of bronchiectasis.</li><li>• Bronchiectasis is a chronic condition characterized by permanent dilation and destruction of the bronchi (airways) due to recurrent inflammation or infection. It leads to impaired clearance of secretions, resulting in the accumulation of thick, foul-smelling sputum within the dilated airways. The sputum production often increases upon postural changes, as described in this case, due to the pooling of secretions within the dilated bronchial segments.</li><li>• Bronchiectasis is a chronic condition characterized by permanent dilation and destruction of the bronchi (airways) due to recurrent inflammation or infection.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Asthma: While asthma can present with cough and wheezing, it is not typically associated with foul-smelling sputum or a significant change in sputum production upon postural changes.</li><li>• Option A. Asthma:</li><li>• Option B. Carcinoma of the lung: Lung cancer can cause cough and sputum production, but the sputum is usually not described as foul-smelling. Additionally, the recurrent nature of the episodes over several years is less consistent with lung cancer.</li><li>• Option B. Carcinoma of the lung:</li><li>• Option D. Lung abscess: A lung abscess can also present with cough and foul-smelling sputum, but it is typically an acute condition and is less likely to have recurrent episodes over several years without appropriate treatment.</li><li>• Option D. Lung abscess:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with a history of chronic cough, foul-smelling sputum production that increases with postural changes, and recurrent episodes over several years, bronchiectasis should be strongly considered as the likely diagnosis, especially in the presence of risk factors such as smoking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image. (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibroadenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Breast carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metastasis to breast from another primary site", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fibroadenoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-110208.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fibroadenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Fibroadenoma appearance on USG is as a ‘Halo’ sign.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug of choice for acute rheumatic fever is? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aspirin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aspirin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspirin is an anti-inflammatory drug and is commonly used in the treatment of acute rheumatic fever, particularly for its anti-inflammatory effects in managing arthritis and carditis associated with rheumatic fever.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In POP Q staging, the reference point taken is? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior fornix", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ischial spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior fornix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hymen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/2-8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-125032.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POP-Q) system is a standardized method for assessing and quantifying the severity of pelvic organ prolapse. The reference point in POP-Q staging is the hymen. All measurements in the POP-Q system are taken relative to the hymen, which serves as a fixed anatomical landmark.</li><li>• The POP-Q system involves six specific points and three measurements:</li><li>• Points:</li><li>• Points:</li><li>• Aa: A point on the anterior vaginal wall, 3 cm proximal to the hymen.</li><li>• Ba: The most distal position of any part of the anterior vaginal wall.</li><li>• C: The cervix or the vaginal cuff after hysterectomy.</li><li>• Ap: A point on the posterior vaginal wall, 3 cm proximal to the hymen.</li><li>• Bp: The most distal position of any part of the posterior vaginal wall.</li><li>• D: The posterior fornix or the deepest part of the vaginal vault.</li><li>• Measurements:</li><li>• Measurements:</li><li>• GH (Genital Hiatus): Distance from the external urethral meatus to the posterior hymen.</li><li>• PB (Perineal Body): Distance from the posterior hymen to the mid-anal opening.</li><li>• TVL (Total Vaginal Length): Distance from the hymen to the posterior fornix or vaginal apex.</li><li>• Other 3 Options: Not used as a reference point in POP-Q staging.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• In the POP-Q system, the hymen is used as the reference point for all measurements and staging of pelvic organ prolapse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chorionic villous sampling is done at 12 weeks in a woman whose blood group is B negative. Her husband's blood group is A positive. What is the dose of Anti D given? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "100", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "150", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "300", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 50", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-125324.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 50</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the case of Rh incompatibility, where the mother is Rh-negative (B negative) and the father is Rh-positive (A positive), there is a risk of fetal-maternal hemorrhage (FMH) during invasive procedures like chorionic villous sampling (CVS). This can lead to the mixing of fetal and maternal blood, potentially causing the mother to form antibodies against the Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. To prevent this alloimmunization, an Anti-D immunoglobulin injection is administered.</li><li>• The standard practice is to give Anti-D immunoglobulin during any inciting event (e.g., CVS, amniocentesis, abdominal trauma, abruption, placenta previa) and at delivery. Additionally, it is given prophylactically at 28 weeks of gestation to all Rh-negative women.</li><li>• The dosage of Anti-D depends on the gestational age:</li><li>• Less than 12 weeks: 50 micrograms intramuscularly.</li><li>• More than 12 weeks: 300 micrograms intramuscularly.</li><li>• Since the CVS was performed at 12 weeks, the appropriate dose of Anti-D is 50 micrograms.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• For Rh-negative women undergoing an inciting event like chorionic villous sampling at less than 12 weeks gestation, the dose of Anti-D given is 50 micrograms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Treatment of this condition in a pregnant female would be? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Podophyllin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Imiquimod", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgical excision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cryotherapy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-164520.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cryotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The condition shown in the image is condyloma acuminatum, also known as genital warts, caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV).</li><li>• In pregnant females, the treatment options are limited due to potential teratogenic effects of certain medications. Cryotherapy is considered safe and effective for treating genital warts during pregnancy. If cryotherapy is not an option, trichloroacetic acid can also be used safely.</li><li>• If the women is not Pregnant then Podophyllin can be given</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Podophyllin: This medication is teratogenic and should be avoided in pregnant women.</li><li>• Option A. Podophyllin:</li><li>• Option B. Imiquimod: Safety studies on the use of imiquimod during pregnancy are lacking, so it is also avoided in pregnant females.</li><li>• Option B. Imiquimod:</li><li>• Option D. Surgical excision: This is generally reserved for very large genital warts, such as Buschke-Löwenstein tumors, and is not the first-line treatment for typical cases of condyloma acuminatum in pregnant females.</li><li>• Option D. Surgical excision:</li><li>• Buschke-Löwenstein tumors,</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pregnant females with condyloma acuminatum, cryotherapy is the preferred treatment due to its safety profile, while teratogenic treatments like podophyllin and those with uncertain safety like imiquimod should be avoided.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Preferred sample for testing random blood sugar is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Venous", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arterial", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Capillary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arteriole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Venous", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Venous</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The preferred sample for testing random blood sugar is a venous sample. Venous blood glucose measurements are considered accurate and reliable for diagnostic purposes. This method is used in clinical settings to ensure consistent and precise glucose level readings. Venous samples are obtained by drawing blood from a vein, typically using a standard venipuncture technique.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Arterial : Arterial blood samples are primarily used for blood gas analysis rather than for routine glucose testing. Arterial sampling is more invasive and not typically used for random blood sugar testing.</li><li>• Option B. Arterial</li><li>• Option C. Capillary : Capillary blood samples are commonly used in self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG) using finger-prick devices. While convenient for personal use, they are less accurate compared to venous samples and are not typically used in clinical settings for diagnostic purposes.</li><li>• Option C. Capillary</li><li>• Option D. Arteriole : Arteriole samples are not used for glucose testing. This is a dummy choice, as obtaining blood from arterioles is not a standard practice for measuring blood glucose levels.</li><li>• Option D. Arteriole</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred sample for testing random blood sugar in a clinical setting is a venous blood sample due to its accuracy and reliability.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Treatment of the male partner is needed in which of the following conditions? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes genitalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichomoniasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Trichomoniasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-161426.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Trichomoniasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct answer is trichomoniasis. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. When a female is infected with trichomoniasis, she typically presents with symptoms such as green frothy vaginal discharge .</li><li>• green frothy vaginal discharge</li><li>• Treatment of the female alone is insufficient because if her male partner is not treated, he can reinfect her. This creates a cycle where the infection is passed back and forth between partners. Therefore, treating both partners is essential to break this cycle and prevent reinfection.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bacterial vaginosis: This condition is not considered a sexually transmitted disease but is due to an imbalance in the vaginal microflora. Treatment of the male partner is not required.</li><li>• Option A. Bacterial vaginosis:</li><li>• Option B. Herpes genitalis: This is caused by the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2), which produces grouped vesicles over the genitalia. The virus resides in the sacral ganglia and can reactivate under certain conditions, such as immunosuppression. The best advice for couples during active lesions is abstinence from sexual intercourse, but partner treatment is not typically necessary.</li><li>• Option B. Herpes genitalis:</li><li>• reactivate</li><li>• Option C. Candidiasis: This is also not considered a sexually transmitted disease. It results from an overgrowth of Candida species, commonly due to altered vaginal flora. Treatment of the male partner is not required.</li><li>• Option C. Candidiasis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment of the male partner is essential in cases of trichomoniasis to prevent reinfection and break the cycle of transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can result in acute liver failure? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Organophosphate poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morphine poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Belladona poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amanita phalloides toxicity", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Amanita phalloides toxicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Amanita phalloides toxicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amanita phalloides (death cap mushroom) is a well-known cause of acute liver failure due to its potent hepatotoxic amatoxins, making it a critical toxicological emergency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following manifestations is typically associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 syndrome? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parathyroid hyperplasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancreatic carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medullary carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Parathyroid hyperplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Parathyroid hyperplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parathyroid hyperplasia is a hallmark of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 syndrome, often leading to primary hyperparathyroidism, and distinguish it from other conditions associated with MEN2.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was started on haloperidol for the treatment of schizophrenia. He develops torticollis, muscle spasm, and trismus. What is the next best step in the management? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease the dose of haloperidol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shift from haloperidol to clozapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shift from haloperidol to fluphenazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give benzhexol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Give benzhexol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Give benzhexol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute dystonia, an early side effect of antipsychotic treatment, is managed by administering an intramuscular anticholinergic medication such as benzhexol (trihexyphenidyl) or benztropine to quickly relieve muscle spasms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother brought her 3-year-old child with cataract for second opinion. The child appears orthotropic and fine. What will be the management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Convergence of eye muscle exercises", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reassurance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cataract surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pilocarpine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cataract surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cataract surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a 3-year-old child presenting with cataract, the management typically involves cataract surgery to prevent amblyopia and ensure normal visual development, unless the cataract is not significantly affecting vision.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the edges of the lesion given in the following image: (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Everted", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rolled out and beaded", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sloping", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Punched out", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rolled out and beaded", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/14/picture47.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rolled out and beaded</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When identifying skin lesions, rolled out and beaded edges are characteristic of basal cell carcinoma, a common type of skin cancer often seen in sun-exposed areas of the skin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After a severe penetrating head trauma, what is the risk of subsequent epilepsy? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "75%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "45%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Always Present", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No epilepsy risk", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 45%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 45%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, the risk of developing subsequent epilepsy after severe penetrating head trauma is approximately 45%. This statistic highlights the significant risk associated with severe brain injuries, particularly those involving penetration, which can lead to long-term neurological complications such as epilepsy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The risk of developing epilepsy after severe penetrating head trauma is approximately 45%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Graft rejection is seen maximum with which organ? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lungs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intestine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kidney", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lungs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lungs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Among solid organ transplants, lungs have the highest risk of rejection, followed by the heart, kidneys, and liver. This is due to the lungs' constant exposure to the external environment and their rich supply of blood and lymphatic vessels, which increases the likelihood of the recipient's immune system encountering and reacting to foreign antigens from the transplanted lung tissue.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Heart has the second-highest risk of rejection after lungs.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Option C. Intestine transplantation was not mentioned in the question stem or the explanation.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Option D. Kidney has a lower risk of rejection compared to lungs and heart.</li><li>• Option D.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sequence of organ rejection risk from highest to lowest is:</li><li>➤ Lungs (maximum chances of rejection) Heart Kidneys Liver</li><li>➤ Lungs (maximum chances of rejection)</li><li>➤ Heart</li><li>➤ Kidneys</li><li>➤ Liver</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presented to the OPD within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse. Which contraception is advised? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IUCD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Misoprostol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LNG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "OCP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IUCD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IUCD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the case of a female presenting within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse, the most effective emergency contraceptive (interceptive) method advised is the intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD).</li><li>• The IUCD is the recommended method of choice for emergency contraception with the highest efficacy and least failure rate when used within 5 days of unprotected intercourse.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Misoprostol: This option is incorrect because misoprostol is not an emergency contraceptive method.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Misoprostol:</li><li>• Option C. LNG: Levonorgestrel (LNG) is a widely accepted method of emergency contraception and is recommended as a first-line option. However, its effectiveness is optimal only within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse, with significantly reduced efficacy beyond this timeframe. And an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) remains the most effective alternative, providing protection for up to 5 days post-intercourse.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. LNG:</li><li>• Option D. OCP: This option is incorrect. While combined oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are an option, they are not the recommended method of choice when the female presents within 5 days of unprotected intercourse.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. OCP:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recommended emergency contraceptive method currently in use are –</li><li>➤ OCPs (Yuzpe and Lancee Method) – (pills with 30 mcg oestrogen) - 4 pills immediately followed by 4 pills 12 hours later. This method can be used till 72hrs of intercourse. Mini Pills (POP): Progesterone only Pill (POP) 0.75 mg – Pill has to be ‘used within 72 hours of intercourse (LNG oral tablet (0.75 mg): 1st tablet within 72 hours of intercourse and 2nd tablet after 12 hours of first dose) IUCD (most effective; highest efficacy &amp; least failure) – can be used till 5 days RU486 (mifepristone) – within 72 hours High dose of estrogen – to be continuously used for 5 days</li><li>➤ OCPs (Yuzpe and Lancee Method) – (pills with 30 mcg oestrogen) - 4 pills immediately followed by 4 pills 12 hours later. This method can be used till 72hrs of intercourse.</li><li>➤ Mini Pills (POP): Progesterone only Pill (POP) 0.75 mg – Pill has to be ‘used within 72 hours of intercourse (LNG oral tablet (0.75 mg): 1st tablet within 72 hours of intercourse and 2nd tablet after 12 hours of first dose)</li><li>➤ IUCD (most effective; highest efficacy &amp; least failure) – can be used till 5 days</li><li>➤ IUCD (most effective; highest efficacy &amp; least failure) – can be used till 5 days</li><li>➤ RU486 (mifepristone) – within 72 hours</li><li>➤ High dose of estrogen – to be continuously used for 5 days</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In screening for diabetes in pregnancy, the dose of oral glucose load given is? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50g", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "75g", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "100g", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "150g", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 75g", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 75g</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For screening and diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM), the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is commonly used. The standard protocol involves a 75-gram oral glucose load.</li><li>• Protocol for 75-gram OGTT:</li><li>• International Guidelines: According to the International Association of Diabetes in Pregnancy Study Groups (IADPSG):</li><li>• International Guidelines: According to the International Association of Diabetes in Pregnancy Study Groups (IADPSG):</li><li>• The test is performed after an overnight fast. A fasting blood sample is taken. The woman is then given a 75-gram oral glucose load. Blood samples are taken at 1 hour and 2 hours after the glucose load. Diagnostic thresholds: Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL</li><li>• The test is performed after an overnight fast.</li><li>• A fasting blood sample is taken.</li><li>• The woman is then given a 75-gram oral glucose load.</li><li>• Blood samples are taken at 1 hour and 2 hours after the glucose load.</li><li>• Diagnostic thresholds: Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL</li><li>• 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL</li><li>• 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL</li><li>• A diagnosis of GDM is made if any one of these values is met or exceeded.</li><li>• DIPSI Criteria (India):</li><li>• DIPSI Criteria (India):</li><li>• This method can be used irrespective of the prandial state (whether the woman is fasting or not).</li><li>• A 75-gram oral glucose load is given. A blood sample is taken 2 hours later. A 2-hour plasma glucose value ≥ 140 mg/dL indicates GDM.</li><li>• A 75-gram oral glucose load is given.</li><li>• A blood sample is taken 2 hours later.</li><li>• A 2-hour plasma glucose value ≥ 140 mg/dL indicates GDM.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 50g : Used in the 50-gram glucose challenge test, which is a preliminary screening test, but not diagnostic.</li><li>• Option A. 50g</li><li>• Option C. 100g : Used in the 3-hour OGTT, which is less commonly used now compared to the 75-gram test.</li><li>• Option C. 100g</li><li>• Option D. 150g : Not used for GDM screening or diagnosis.</li><li>• Option D. 150g</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The current standard for screening and diagnosing gestational diabetes mellitus is the 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with infective endocarditis. Examination showed gram-positive cocci in chains. What is the likely etiological agent? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus viridans", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enterococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Streptococcus viridans", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121516.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121541.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-144541.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-144703.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-144721.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-121621.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Streptococcus viridans, an alpha-hemolytic streptococcus found in the normal oral flora, is a common cause of infective endocarditis, particularly in patients with underlying heart valve abnormalities or prosthetic heart valves. Its characteristic microscopic appearance of gram-positive cocci arranged in chains is a key diagnostic feature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which toxin can cause acute liver failure and hematuria? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Morphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Belladona", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amanita phylloides", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Amanita phylloides", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-112919.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-112939.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Amanita phylloides</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Amanita phylloides, also known as the \"death cap\" mushroom, contains toxins that can cause both acute liver failure and hematuria. The mushroom contains amatoxins, which are responsible for the severe liver damage, and can also affect the kidneys, leading to renal damage and hematuria. This combination of liver and kidney damage is a characteristic feature of Amanita phylloides poisoning.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option. A. Morphine: Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression and constipation, but it is not typically associated with acute liver failure and hematuria.</li><li>• Option. A. Morphine:</li><li>• Option. B. Ketamine: Ketamine is an anesthetic that can cause dissociative effects and hallucinations, but it is not known to cause acute liver failure and hematuria.</li><li>• Option. B. Ketamine:</li><li>• Option. C. Belladonna: Atropa Belladonna, also known as deadly nightshade, contains anticholinergic compounds that can cause symptoms such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and tachycardia. However, it is not associated with acute liver failure and hematuria.</li><li>• Option. C. Belladonna:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Amanita phylloides, or the \"death cap\" mushroom, is a toxin that can cause both acute liver failure and hematuria due to the presence of amatoxins. This combination of liver and kidney damage is a characteristic feature of Amanita phylloides poisoning</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following deficiency causes xerophthalmia and follicular hyperkeratosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biotin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-150514.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-150535.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-151204.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vitamin A deficiency is well known to cause a range of clinical manifestations, primarily affecting the eyes and skin. Key signs and symptoms include:</li><li>• Vitamin A deficiency is well known to cause a range of clinical manifestations, primarily affecting the eyes and skin. Key signs and symptoms include:</li><li>• Xerophthalmia : This condition includes dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea, which can progress to keratomalacia and lead to blindness if untreated.</li><li>• Xerophthalmia : This condition includes dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea, which can progress to keratomalacia and lead to blindness if untreated.</li><li>• Xerophthalmia</li><li>• Follicular hyperkeratosis : This is characterized by excessive keratin deposits in hair follicles, leading to rough, bumpy skin.</li><li>• Follicular hyperkeratosis : This is characterized by excessive keratin deposits in hair follicles, leading to rough, bumpy skin.</li><li>• Follicular hyperkeratosis</li><li>• Vitamin A is crucial for maintaining healthy vision, immune function, and skin integrity. Its deficiency can result in:</li><li>• Vitamin A is crucial for maintaining healthy vision, immune function, and skin integrity. Its deficiency can result in:</li><li>• Night blindness Immunosuppression : Leading to increased susceptibility to infections. Skin ulceration and corneal ulceration Atrophy of urinary and respiratory tract epithelium , increasing the risk of infections in these areas.</li><li>• Night blindness</li><li>• Night blindness</li><li>• Immunosuppression : Leading to increased susceptibility to infections.</li><li>• Immunosuppression</li><li>• Skin ulceration and corneal ulceration</li><li>• Skin ulceration and corneal ulceration</li><li>• Atrophy of urinary and respiratory tract epithelium , increasing the risk of infections in these areas.</li><li>• Atrophy of urinary and respiratory tract epithelium</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Niacin : Deficiency causes pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.</li><li>• Option B. Niacin</li><li>• Option C. Biotin : Deficiency can cause dermatitis, alopecia, and neurological symptoms.</li><li>• Option C. Biotin</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin B6 : Deficiency can cause anemia, dermatitis, and neurological symptoms.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin B6</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mention the type of joint present at the marked area: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ellipsoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condylar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Saddle", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Saddle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-120416.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Saddle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the hand, with the arrow pointing to the first carpometacarpal joint, which is the joint between the carpal bone (trapezium) and the first metacarpal bone (base of the thumb). This joint is a classical example of a saddle joint.</li><li>• In a saddle joint, one bone has a concave and convex surface that articulates with the complementary convex and concave surface of the other bone, resembling a saddle shape. The joint is surrounded by a capsule and filled with synovial fluid.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ellipsoid: An ellipsoid joint has an oval-shaped articular surface that fits into an elliptical cavity, allowing for biaxial movement. This type of joint is not present at the marked area.</li><li>• Option A. Ellipsoid:</li><li>• Option B. Condylar: A condylar joint has an oval projection of one bone fitting into an elliptical cavity of another bone, allowing for biaxial movement. This type of joint is not present at the marked area.</li><li>• Option B. Condylar:</li><li>• Option C. Plane: A plane joint has two flat or slightly curved articular surfaces that allow for gliding or sliding movements. This type of joint is not present at the marked area.</li><li>• Option C. Plane:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first carpometacarpal joint at the base of the thumb is a saddle joint, allowing a wide range of thumb movements.</li><li>➤ Saddle Joint – Mnemonic – PICS</li><li>➤ – PICS</li><li>➤ Concavo-convex surface in each bone</li><li>➤ P – Patellofemoral joint</li><li>➤ P</li><li>➤ I – incudomalleolar joint</li><li>➤ I</li><li>➤ C – Carpometacarpal joint</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ S – Sternoclavicular joint</li><li>➤ S</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the hemorrhage shown in the given image. (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intraparenchymal hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subdural hemorrhage", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Subdural hemorrhage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-110218.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Subdural hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subdural hemorrhages, typically appear as crescent-shaped hyperdense areas on CT scans and in particular, require timely intervention to manage increased intracranial pressure and prevent permanent damage or death. They can present with symptoms ranging from mild headaches to severe neurological deficits, depending on the extent of the bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The marked structure develops from: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1st pharyngeal arch", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2nd pharyngeal arch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3rd pharyngeal arch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neuroectoderm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1st pharyngeal arch", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-125243.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/02_DoUwKdU.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1st pharyngeal arch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The marked structure in the image is identified as the malleus.</li><li>• The first pharyngeal arch, also known as the mandibular arch, is responsible for the formation of several structures in the head and neck region.</li><li>• Malleus and Incus Formation: The 1st pharyngeal arch is crucial in forming the malleus and incus, two of the three auditory ossicles in the middle ear. The cartilage component of this arch, known as Meckel's cartilage, gives rise to these ossicles. Other Structures from the 1st Pharyngeal Arch: Apart from the malleus and incus, the 1st pharyngeal arch also contributes to the formation of the maxilla, mandible, sphenomandibular ligament, and parts of the middle ear, including the anterior malleolar ligament.</li><li>• Malleus and Incus Formation: The 1st pharyngeal arch is crucial in forming the malleus and incus, two of the three auditory ossicles in the middle ear. The cartilage component of this arch, known as Meckel's cartilage, gives rise to these ossicles.</li><li>• Other Structures from the 1st Pharyngeal Arch: Apart from the malleus and incus, the 1st pharyngeal arch also contributes to the formation of the maxilla, mandible, sphenomandibular ligament, and parts of the middle ear, including the anterior malleolar ligament.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. 2nd pharyngeal arch: This is incorrect. The 2nd pharyngeal arch (hyoid arch) primarily forms the stapes (another auditory ossicle), styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, and parts of the hyoid bone.</li><li>• Option B. 2nd pharyngeal arch:</li><li>• Option C. 3rd pharyngeal arch: This is incorrect. The 3rd pharyngeal arch contributes to the formation of the greater horn and lower part of the hyoid bone.</li><li>• Option C. 3rd pharyngeal arch:</li><li>• Option D. neuroectoderm : This is incorrect in the context of the malleus. While neural crest cells, derived from neuroectoderm, play a significant role in the development of many craniofacial structures, the malleus specifically develops from the 1st pharyngeal arch.</li><li>• Option D. neuroectoderm</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1st arch cartilage: Meckle’s cartilage → 5 ‘M’</li><li>➤ 1st arch cartilage: Meckle’s cartilage → 5 ‘M’</li><li>➤ 1. Malleus &amp; Incus</li><li>➤ 2. Malleolar (Anterior) ligament</li><li>➤ 3. Spheno-Mandibular ligament</li><li>➤ 4. Mandible</li><li>➤ 5. Maxilla</li><li>➤ 2nd arch cartilage: Reichert cartilage → 5 ‘S’</li><li>➤ 2nd arch cartilage: Reichert cartilage → 5 ‘S’</li><li>➤ 1. Stapes (except footplate &amp; Otic capsule)</li><li>➤ 2. Styloid process</li><li>➤ 3. Stylohyoid ligament</li><li>➤ 4. Smaller cornu of hyoid</li><li>➤ 5. Superior ½ of body of the hyoid</li><li>➤ 3rd arch cartilage:</li><li>➤ 3rd arch cartilage:</li><li>➤ 1. Greater cornu of hyoid</li><li>➤ 2. Inferior ½ of hyoid</li><li>➤ 4th &amp; 6th arch cartilage:</li><li>➤ 4th &amp; 6th arch cartilage:</li><li>➤ - Laryngeal cartilage</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient feels that someone is inserting some thoughts in his mind. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nihilistic delusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Delusion of influence", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Othello syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delusion of reference", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Delusion of influence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Delusion of influence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A delusion of influence involves the belief that an external force is controlling one's thoughts, feelings, or actions. This phenomenon is also known as thought insertion or passivity phenomenon.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old diabetic patient had undergone surgery for cataract. 6 weeks post-operatively, the patient came with inflammation, decreased vision. On further examination, honeycomb appearance of retina is seen. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CSR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystoid macular edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinal detachment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetic retinopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cystoid macular edema", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cystoid macular edema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a diabetic patient presenting with postoperative inflammation and decreased vision featuring a honeycomb appearance of the retina, the likely diagnosis is cystoid macular edema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What significant error did the intern make while creating a banner on measures to prevent the spread of non-communicable diseases, as assigned by a group of doctors? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ban smoking in public areas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restrictions on alcohol selling/consumption", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shift from PUFA to trans-fat", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decrease additive salt on food", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Shift from PUFA to trans-fat", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Shift from PUFA to trans-fat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The significant error made by the intern was recommending a shift from polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) to trans-fats, as trans-fats are known to increase the risk of non-communicable diseases, contrary to the goal of preventing their spread.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old came with complaints of swollen and bleeding gums, fatigue, bone pains. On further examination, petechie are seen. What is the best possible diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The symptoms of swollen and bleeding gums, fatigue, bone pains, and petechiae in a child are characteristic of scurvy, which is caused by Vitamin C deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to MTP Act, MTP at 22 weeks of gestation due to contraceptive failure requires opinion from:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 doctors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 doctor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical board", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannot be done", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cannot be done", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-112616.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cannot be done</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act in India, MTP at 22 weeks of gestation due to contraceptive failure cannot be legally performed. The MTP Act allows termination of pregnancy due to contraceptive failure only up to 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• For pregnancies between 20 and 24 weeks, MTP is permitted only in certain aggravated conditions, such as:</li><li>• Rape Minors Disabled women Congenital anomalies Widowhood</li><li>• Rape</li><li>• Minors</li><li>• Disabled women</li><li>• Congenital anomalies</li><li>• Widowhood</li><li>• Contraceptive failure is not included in the list of aggravated conditions for which MTP is allowed between 20 and 24 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option. A. 2 doctors: This would be the requirement for MTP between 20 and 24 weeks of gestation in the case of aggravated conditions, but not for contraceptive failure.</li><li>• Option. A. 2 doctors:</li><li>• Option. B. 1 doctor: This is the requirement for MTP up to 20 weeks of gestation, but not for the given scenario of 22 weeks due to contraceptive failure.</li><li>• Option. B. 1 doctor:</li><li>• Option. C. Medical board: A medical board's opinion is required for MTP beyond 24 weeks of gestation, and only in cases of congenital anomalies.</li><li>• Option. C. Medical board:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anenecephaly occurs due to inability of the neural tube to fuse in which week of gestation? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 rd week", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 th week", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 th week", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "8 th week", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4 th week", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture1_NOa6EzS.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 4th week</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Ananecephaly occurs due to inability of the neural tube to fuse in 4 th week of gestation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common organ that injures in air blast-shock wave is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lungs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bones", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skeletal muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lungs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lungs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In an air blast or shock wave, the most common organs injured are the tympanic membrane (eardrums), lungs, and gastrointestinal tract (GIT), in that order. Since the tympanic membrane is not included in the given answer options, the correct answer among the available choices is the lungs, which are the second most commonly affected organ in an air blast.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. A. Kidney: Although the kidneys can be injured in an air blast, they are not the most common organ affected.</li><li>• Option. A. Kidney:</li><li>• Option. C. Bones: While fractures can occur due to the impact of an air blast, bones are not the most frequently injured structures compared to the lungs.</li><li>• Option. C. Bones:</li><li>• Option. D. Skeletal muscle : Skeletal muscle injuries can happen in an air blast, but they are not the most common type of injury.</li><li>• Option. D. Skeletal muscle</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In an air blast or shock wave, the lungs are the most common organ injured among the given options, following the tympanic membrane. In contrast, the gastrointestinal tract is the most frequently affected organ in underwater blast injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with suspected tuberculosis underwent CBNAAT testing and is started on HRZE. CBNAAT is helpful for which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MTB + Rifampicin resistance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "MTB + Isoniazid resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MTB + Ethambutol and Rifampicin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MTB + Rifampicin resistance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) MTB + Rifampicin resistance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Cartridge-based nucleic acid amplification test (CBNAAT) is a rapid molecular test for the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB) and resistance to rifampicin (RIF).</li><li>• It is highly effective for diagnosing tuberculosis and determining rifampicin resistance by detecting mutations in the rpoB gene , which is associated with rifampicin resistance. This allows for quick initiation of appropriate therapy, especially important in cases of drug-resistant TB</li><li>• rpoB gene</li><li>• MTB Detection : CBNAAT can confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Rifampicin Resistance : By identifying rpoB gene mutations, CBNAAT can detect rifampicin resistance, which is a critical factor in managing and treating TB.</li><li>• MTB Detection : CBNAAT can confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.</li><li>• MTB Detection</li><li>• Rifampicin Resistance : By identifying rpoB gene mutations, CBNAAT can detect rifampicin resistance, which is a critical factor in managing and treating TB.</li><li>• Rifampicin Resistance</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB) : While CBNAAT detects MTB, it also provides crucial information about rifampicin resistance, making option B more accurate.</li><li>• Option A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB)</li><li>• Option C. MTB + Isoniazid resistance : CBNAAT does not detect isoniazid resistance directly.</li><li>• Option C. MTB + Isoniazid resistance</li><li>• Option D. MTB + Ethambutol and Rifampicin : CBNAAT does not provide information about ethambutol resistance.</li><li>• Option D. MTB + Ethambutol and Rifampicin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ CBNAAT is a rapid and effective test for detecting Mycobacterium tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance by identifying mutations in the rpoB gene.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structures marked. (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1- liver, 2- pancreas, 3- spleen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1- spleen, 2- pancreas, 3- left kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1- right kidney, 2- pancreas, 3- left kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1- liver 2-spleen 3-pancreas", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1- liver 2-spleen 3-pancreas", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-110230.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-110305.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1- liver 2-spleen 3-pancreas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Option D: 1- liver, 2- spleen, 3- pancreas : Correct based on organ anatomy and typical CT appearance.</li><li>• Option D: 1- liver, 2- spleen, 3- pancreas</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Accurate identification of abdominal organs on imaging studies like CT scans is essential for diagnosing diseases, planning surgeries, and tracking treatment progress.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old patient with long-standing type 2 diabetes came to the OPD with complaints of fatigue and frequent urination. His FBS = 144 mg/dl &amp; PPBS = 210 mg/dl. What is the target HbA1c for adequate control of diabetes? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt; 6.0", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt; 6.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&lt; 7.0", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "&lt; 7.5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. < 7.0", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) &lt; 7.0</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The universal target HbA1c for adequate control of diabetes is generally less than 7%. This target helps in reducing the risk of diabetic complications. However, it is important to consider individual patient factors when setting targets.</li><li>• In very old and frail patients, a less stringent target of less than 8% may be appropriate to avoid the risks of hypoglycemia and other complications. Since the options do not include 8%, the standard target of less than 7% is selected.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The target HbA1c for most patients with diabetes to ensure adequate control is less than 7%, though this may vary based on individual patient circumstances.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What adverse effect is NOT seen with amiodarone?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gynaecomastia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gynaecomastia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gynaecomastia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication with a wide range of potential adverse effects. It is known to cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism due to its high iodine content.</li><li>• Hypothyroidism occurs through the Wolff-Chaikoff effect, while hyperthyroidism occurs via the Jod-Basedow phenomenon. Additionally, amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, which can manifest as pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis.</li><li>• Gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue, is not typically associated with amiodarone use. This condition is more commonly linked to medications that influence estrogen or androgen levels, which amiodarone does not significantly affect.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Hypothyroidism : Can occur due to the Wolff-Chaikoff effect.</li><li>• Option A. Hypothyroidism</li><li>• Option B. Hyperthyroidism : Can occur due to the Jod-Basedow phenomenon.</li><li>• Option B. Hyperthyroidism</li><li>• Option D. Pulmonary fibrosis : Known adverse effect of amiodarone, particularly with long-term use.</li><li>• Option D. Pulmonary fibrosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Amiodarone can cause both hypo- and hyperthyroidism as well as pulmonary fibrosis, but it does not cause gynaecomastia.</li><li>➤ Amiodarone can cause both hypo- and hyperthyroidism as well as pulmonary fibrosis, but it does not cause gynaecomastia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was given 0.5% bupivacaine for brachial plexus block. After some time, the patient developed hypotension and cardiovascular collapse. What is the best treatment for this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amidoarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dobutamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20% intralipid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 20% intralipid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 20% Intralipid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intralipid therapy is the recommended treatment for severe local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST), which can occur with medications like bupivacaine. It acts by trapping lipophilic drugs like bupivacaine in an intravascular lipid emulsion, reducing their toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a combination of Casal's necklace, cheilosis, and stomatitis. Upon further examination, it is discovered that the individual has a diet deficient in a specific nutrient. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely responsible for this clinical presentation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin C deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Niacin deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-150349.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-150411.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-150444.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Niacin deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's symptoms—Casal's necklace, cheilosis, and stomatitis—are characteristic of niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency. Niacin deficiency leads to a condition known as pellagra, which is classically described by the \"three Ds\": dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Casal's necklace, a photosensitive dermatitis appearing as a necklace-like distribution around the neck, is a hallmark of pellagra.</li><li>• Casal's Necklace : A distinctive hyperpigmented rash in a necklace-like distribution due to sun exposure.</li><li>• Casal's Necklace : A distinctive hyperpigmented rash in a necklace-like distribution due to sun exposure.</li><li>• Casal's Necklace</li><li>• Cheilosis : Cracking and inflammation at the corners of the mouth, common in various B vitamin deficiencies.</li><li>• Cheilosis : Cracking and inflammation at the corners of the mouth, common in various B vitamin deficiencies.</li><li>• Cheilosis</li><li>• Stomatitis : Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the mouth, also associated with B vitamin deficiencies.</li><li>• Stomatitis : Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the mouth, also associated with B vitamin deficiencies.</li><li>• Stomatitis</li><li>• Niacin can be synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan, making it an atypical vitamin. A deficiency in dietary tryptophan can also lead to niacin deficiency.</li><li>• Images - photosensitive dermatitis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin B12 deficiency : Typically presents with megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms, not the specific skin findings described here.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin B12 deficiency</li><li>• Option B. Riboflavin deficiency : Can cause cheilosis and stomatitis, but not Casal's necklace.</li><li>• Option B. Riboflavin deficiency</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin C deficiency : Presents with symptoms of scurvy, such as bleeding gums and perifollicular hemorrhages, not the symptoms described here.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin C deficiency</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Niacin deficiency (pellagra) presents with characteristic symptoms including Casal's necklace, cheilosis, and stomatitis. Treatment involves supplementation with niacin (vitamin B3).</li><li>➤ Note – Glossitis and cheilosis – occurs in B2, B3 and B6 deficiencies 60 mg of Tryptophan is used to synthesize 1 mg of Niacin</li><li>➤ Note – Glossitis and cheilosis – occurs in B2, B3 and B6 deficiencies 60 mg of Tryptophan is used to synthesize 1 mg of Niacin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Amsel criteria is used for? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cervicitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichomoniasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bacterial vaginosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bacterial vaginosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Amsel's criteria are used to diagnose bacterial vaginosis (BV). The diagnosis requires at least three out of the following four criteria to be present:</li><li>• Homogeneous, thin, white discharge that smoothly coats the vaginal walls. Clue cells on microscopy: Vaginal epithelial cells that appear stippled with bacteria. Positive whiff test: A fishy odor is released when a solution of 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH) is added to a sample of the vaginal discharge. Vaginal pH &gt; 4.5: An elevated pH is indicative of BV.</li><li>• Homogeneous, thin, white discharge that smoothly coats the vaginal walls.</li><li>• Clue cells on microscopy: Vaginal epithelial cells that appear stippled with bacteria.</li><li>• Positive whiff test: A fishy odor is released when a solution of 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH) is added to a sample of the vaginal discharge.</li><li>• Vaginal pH &gt; 4.5: An elevated pH is indicative of BV.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Candidiasis: Diagnosed primarily by clinical presentation and microscopic identification of yeast cells or pseudo hyphae.</li><li>• Option B. Candidiasis:</li><li>• Option C. Cervicitis: Diagnosed based on clinical findings and specific laboratory tests for pathogens like Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.</li><li>• Option C. Cervicitis:</li><li>• Option D. Trichomoniasis: Diagnosed by identifying the flagellated protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis on a wet mount microscopy or by specific antigen tests.</li><li>• Option D. Trichomoniasis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amsel criteria are specifically used to diagnose bacterial vaginosis, requiring the presence of at least three out of four specific clinical and laboratory findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lactating mother who follows a strict vegetarian diet presents with fatigue, weakness, and numbness in her extremities. Upon examination, her blood work reveals a decreased total iron binding capacity. Which of the following deficiencies can cause this clinical picture? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zinc deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Folate deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency should be considered in individuals with a strict vegetarian diet presenting with symptoms of megaloblastic anemia (fatigue, weakness) and progressive peripheral neuropathy (numbness in extremities).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which part of the placenta is attached to the maternal side? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decidua parietalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decidua basalis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decidua capsularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chorionic plate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decidua basalis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Decidua basalis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The decidua is the modified endometrium of the uterus that forms in preparation for and during pregnancy. It plays a crucial role in the implantation and support of the developing fetus.</li><li>• Decidua Basalis: This is the part of the decidua that lies directly beneath the implanted embryo and forms the maternal part of the placenta. It is the region where the trophoblasts invade to establish the placental attachment to the maternal endometrium. It supports the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus.</li><li>• Decidua Basalis:</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Decidua Parietalis: This is the part of the decidua that lines the remainder of the uterine cavity that is not involved in the implantation site. It is essentially the peripheral part of the endometrium.</li><li>• Option A. Decidua Parietalis:</li><li>• Option C. Decidua Capsularis: This part of the decidua surrounds the embryo and eventually fuses with the decidua parietalis as the embryo grows, obliterating the uterine cavity.</li><li>• Option C. Decidua Capsularis:</li><li>• Option D. Chorionic Plate: This is the fetal side of the placenta, consisting of the chorionic villi and other fetal tissues. It is not part of the maternal endometrium.</li><li>• Option D. Chorionic Plate:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The decidua basalis is the part of the decidua that attaches to the maternal side of the placenta, facilitating the exchange of nutrients and waste between the mother and the fetus. The decidua has three distinct regions based on their location and function in relation to the implanted embryo.</li><li>• The decidua basalis is the part of the decidua that attaches to the maternal side of the placenta, facilitating the exchange of nutrients and waste between the mother and the fetus.</li><li>• The decidua has three distinct regions based on their location and function in relation to the implanted embryo.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Voltage-gated calcium channel present on T-tubule is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ryanodine receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dihydropyridine receptor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "SERCA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nicotinic receptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dihydropyridine receptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dihydropyridine receptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The T-tubules, or transverse tubules, are invaginations of the sarcolemma (muscle cell membrane) that play a crucial role in transmitting action potentials from the sarcolemma to the interior of the muscle fiber.</li><li>• sarcolemma (muscle cell membrane)</li><li>• The voltage-gated calcium channels present on the T-tubules are known as dihydropyridine receptors (DHPR). These receptors are critical for the excitation-contraction coupling in muscle cells.</li><li>• dihydropyridine receptors (DHPR).</li><li>• Dihydropyridine receptor : These receptors are voltage-gated calcium channels located on the T-tubules. When an action potential travels down the T-tubule, it activates the DHPR, which in turn mechanically activates the ryanodine receptor (RYR) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to the release of calcium ions into the cytoplasm and triggering muscle contraction.</li><li>• Dihydropyridine receptor</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ryanodine receptor : This receptor is also involved in calcium release but is located on the sarcoplasmic reticulum, not on the T-tubules. It is mechanically coupled to the DHPR in skeletal muscle.</li><li>• Option A. Ryanodine receptor</li><li>• Option C. SERCA : The Sarcoplasmic/Endoplasmic Reticulum Calcium ATPase (SERCA) pump is responsible for pumping calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, but it is not located on the T-tubules.</li><li>• Option C. SERCA</li><li>• Option D. Nicotinic receptor : These are ligand-gated cation channels located at the neuromuscular junction on the sarcolemma, not on the T-tubules. They are responsible for initiating the action potential in response to acetylcholine but are not involved in calcium transport in the T-tubules.</li><li>• Option D. Nicotinic receptor</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The voltage-gated calcium channel present on the T-tubules is the dihydropyridine receptor (DHPR), which plays a crucial role in the excitation-contraction coupling in muscle cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn presents with respiratory distress. Chest X ray reveals air bubbles in the left hemithorax. What is your best possible diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital sequestration of lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture9_QRAuQ6g.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of air bubbles in the left hemithorax on chest X-ray is a characteristic finding for CDH</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which muscle is attached to the marked bony structure? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iliopsoas", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gluteus maximus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gluteus medius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sartorius", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iliopsoas", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-121020.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-121118.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-121212.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iliopsoas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The radiograph shows a lateral view of the pelvis and proximal femur. The marked bony structure is the lesser trochanter of the femur. The iliopsoas muscle, consisting of the iliacus and psoas major muscles, attaches to the lesser trochanter.</li><li>• The iliopsoas crosses the hip joint anteriorly, causing flexion. The iliacus originates from the iliac fossa, while the psoas major originates from the lumbar vertebrae. These two muscles fuse together and insert near the lesser trochanter of the femur, forming the floor of the femoral triangle.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Gluteus maximus : The gluteus maximus muscle inserts on the gluteal tuberosity of the femur, not the lesser trochanter.</li><li>• Option B. Gluteus maximus</li><li>• Option C. Gluteus medius : The gluteus medius muscle inserts on the greater trochanter of the femur, not the lesser trochanter.</li><li>• Option C. Gluteus medius</li><li>• Option D. Sartorius : The sartorius muscle forms the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle but does not attach directly to the lesser trochanter. It inserts on the medial surface of the proximal tibia.</li><li>• Option D. Sartorius :</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The iliopsoas muscle, consisting of the iliacus and psoas major, inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur. It is an important hip flexor muscle.</li><li>➤ Femoral Triangle:</li><li>➤ Femoral Triangle:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In primary accidental hypothermia, what is the usual rate of rewarming with passive external rewarming?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5-1°C per hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.5-1°C per 2 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.5-2°C per hour", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.5-2°C per 4 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.5-2°C per hour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 0.5-2°C per hour</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Primary accidental hypothermia refers to an unintentional drop in core body temperature due to environmental exposure. The management of hypothermia includes rewarming strategies, which can be classified into passive and active rewarming.</li><li>• Passive External Rewarming : This method involves insulating the patient by covering them with blankets and ensuring that the head is also covered. It relies on the patient's own heat production to gradually increase body temperature.</li><li>• Passive External Rewarming</li><li>• According to standard medical guidelines and Harrison's principles, passive external rewarming can increase the core body temperature by approximately 0.5 to 2°C per hour.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ In cases of primary accidental hypothermia, passive external rewarming can raise the core body temperature by 0.5 to 2°C per hour.</li><li>➤ Additional Information –</li><li>➤ Additional Information –</li><li>➤ Hypothermia based on core body temperature and corresponding treatment methods:</li><li>➤ Mild Hypothermia : Core Body Temperature : Less than 35 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Passive external rewarming is the treatment of choice. Moderate Hypothermia : Core Body Temperature : Less than 32 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Requires both passive and active rewarming methods. Passive rewarming involves external methods, while active rewarming can be either external or internal. Severe Hypothermia Core Body Temperature : Less than 28 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Requires both passive and active rewarming methods. Passive rewarming involves external methods, while active rewarming can be either external or internal.</li><li>➤ Mild Hypothermia : Core Body Temperature : Less than 35 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Passive external rewarming is the treatment of choice.</li><li>➤ Mild Hypothermia</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature : Less than 35 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Passive external rewarming is the treatment of choice.</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature : Less than 35 degrees Celsius.</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature</li><li>➤ Treatment : Passive external rewarming is the treatment of choice.</li><li>➤ Treatment</li><li>➤ Moderate Hypothermia : Core Body Temperature : Less than 32 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Requires both passive and active rewarming methods. Passive rewarming involves external methods, while active rewarming can be either external or internal.</li><li>➤ Moderate Hypothermia</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature : Less than 32 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Requires both passive and active rewarming methods. Passive rewarming involves external methods, while active rewarming can be either external or internal.</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature : Less than 32 degrees Celsius.</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature</li><li>➤ Treatment : Requires both passive and active rewarming methods. Passive rewarming involves external methods, while active rewarming can be either external or internal.</li><li>➤ Treatment</li><li>➤ Severe Hypothermia Core Body Temperature : Less than 28 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Requires both passive and active rewarming methods. Passive rewarming involves external methods, while active rewarming can be either external or internal.</li><li>➤ Severe Hypothermia</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature : Less than 28 degrees Celsius. Treatment : Requires both passive and active rewarming methods. Passive rewarming involves external methods, while active rewarming can be either external or internal.</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature : Less than 28 degrees Celsius.</li><li>➤ Core Body Temperature</li><li>➤ Treatment : Requires both passive and active rewarming methods. Passive rewarming involves external methods, while active rewarming can be either external or internal.</li><li>➤ Treatment</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complains of difficulty breathing and fatigue. On examination, distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds were found. X-ray is shown below. Identify the condition.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Constrictive pericarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atrial myxoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cardiac tamponade", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-110321.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cardiac tamponade</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Cardiac tamponade is a life-threatening emergency which looks like ‘ water bottle heat’ on x-ray and that requires immediate intervention, typically pericardiocentesis, to relieve the pressure on the heart. Any patient presenting with the classic triad of tamponade and signs consistent on imaging should be managed with urgent care to stabilize the condition and prevent cardiac arrest.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 53-year-old male presented with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following anti-diabetic drug acts by causing glucosuria? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acarbose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glipizide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Empagliflozin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sitagliptin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Empagliflozin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Empagliflozin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Empagliflozin is an SGLT2 (Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter-2) inhibitor, works by blocking glucose reabsorption in the kidney, leading to increased glucose excretion in the urine, i.e., glucosuria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An old man has recurrent fainting episodes. His ECG shows P-waves at 75/min, QRS complexes are at 35 bpm. The clinical diagnosis is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Electrical alternans", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "First degree AV block", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stokes-Adams Syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Stokes-Adams Syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Stokes-Adams Syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stokes-Adams Syndrome involves recurrent fainting episodes due to sudden changes in cardiac output, typically from AV block-related bradycardia. Recognizing the discrepancy between atrial and ventricular rates is crucial for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is a contraindication to the use of BiPAP ? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "OSA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unconscious patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "High CO 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low oxygen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Unconscious patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Unconscious patient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• BiPAP, or Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure, is a non-invasive ventilation method that provides two levels of pressure: higher inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) and lower expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP). It is commonly used in various respiratory conditions but has contraindications. An unconscious patient may not be able to protect their airway, which increases the risk of aspiration. Such patients are typically not candidates for non-invasive ventilation like BiPAP.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. OSA (Obstructive Sleep Apnea): BiPAP can be used as a treatment for OSA to prevent airway collapse during sleep.</li><li>• Option A. OSA (Obstructive Sleep Apnea):</li><li>• Option C. High CO2 (Hypercapnia): BiPAP is often used for hypercapnic respiratory failure because it can help blow off excess CO2.</li><li>• Option C. High CO2 (Hypercapnia):</li><li>• Option D. Low Oxygen (Hypoxemia): While BiPAP can help improve oxygenation by increasing the alveolar ventilation, it may not be sufficient in cases of severe hypoxemia where invasive ventilation might be necessary.</li><li>• Option D. Low Oxygen (Hypoxemia):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BiPAP is contraindicated in unconscious patients due to the increased risk of aspiration and inability to protect their airway.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HMG CoA reductase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "7- alpha hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "carnitine acyltransferase I", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "carnitine acyltransferase II", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HMG CoA reductase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HMG CoA reductase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• HMG CoA reductase (3-hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA reductase) is the rate-limiting enzyme in the cholesterol synthesis pathway. It catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a critical step in the production of cholesterol. This enzyme is a major target for statins, a class of drugs used to lower cholesterol levels.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. 7-alpha hydroxylase: This enzyme is involved in bile acid synthesis from cholesterol, not in cholesterol synthesis.</li><li>• Option B. 7-alpha hydroxylase:</li><li>• Option C. Carnitine acyltransferase I: This enzyme is involved in the transport of fatty acids into mitochondria for beta-oxidation, not in cholesterol synthesis.</li><li>• Option C. Carnitine acyltransferase I:</li><li>• Option D. Carnitine acyltransferase II: This enzyme is also involved in fatty acid metabolism, specifically in the mitochondrial matrix, not in cholesterol synthesis.</li><li>• Option D. Carnitine acyltransferase II:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HMG CoA reductase is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, making it a critical target for cholesterol-lowering therapies.</li><li>➤ Note – Rate limiting enzyme of ketone bodies synthesis - HMG CoA Synthase</li><li>➤ Note –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 43-year-old patient with a history of mitral valve replacement on anticoagulation with warfarin is about to undergo hernioplasty for inguinal hernia. What is the target INR prior to surgery? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5-0.8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1.5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.5-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2-3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1.5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1.5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Prior to any major surgery, including abdominal surgeries like hernioplasty, it is crucial to manage the patient's anticoagulation status to minimize the risk of excessive bleeding.</li><li>• For patients on warfarin, the target INR should be brought to less than 1.5 before the surgery.</li><li>• This can be achieved by stopping warfarin and administering vitamin K if necessary.</li><li>• If the INR remains above 1.5 on the day of surgery, fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may be administered to rapidly lower the INR. This approach balances the need to prevent excessive bleeding during surgery while managing the risk of thromboembolic complications.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. 0.5-0.8 : This range is too low for general surgical preparation and would indicate a significant reversal of anticoagulation, which is not typically required.</li><li>• Option A. 0.5-0.8</li><li>• Option C. 1.5-2 : While this range might be acceptable for some minor procedures, major surgeries generally require an INR of less than 1.5 to ensure safety.</li><li>• Option C. 1.5-2</li><li>• Option D. 2-3 : This range is appropriate for therapeutic anticoagulation but is too high for surgical procedures due to the increased risk of bleeding.</li><li>• Option D. 2-3</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ For patients on warfarin undergoing major surgery, the target INR should be less than 1.5 to minimize bleeding risk.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following infections do both partners need to be treated? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichomoniasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genital TB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Trichomoniasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Trichomoniasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. In cases of trichomoniasis, it is essential to treat both the infected individual and their sexual partner(s) to prevent reinfection and to control the spread of the infection.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bacterial vaginosis (BV): Although BV is associated with an increased risk of acquiring STIs, it is not classified as an STI itself. Therefore, routine treatment of sexual partners is not recommended.</li><li>• Option A. Bacterial vaginosis (BV):</li><li>• Option B. Candidiasis : This is typically caused by an overgrowth of Candida species, commonly Candida albicans, and is not considered an STI. Treating the sexual partner is not usually necessary unless the partner has symptoms of candidiasis.</li><li>• Option B. Candidiasis</li><li>• Option D. Genital TB : This is primarily spread through hematogenous (blood) or lymphatic routes rather than sexual transmission. Partners are not treated unless they are also diagnosed with genital tuberculosis.</li><li>• Option D. Genital TB</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For trichomoniasis, both partners need to be treated to prevent reinfection and control the spread of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common complication of ERCP is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cholangitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duodenal Perforation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pancreatitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pancreatitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pancreatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The most common complication of Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is pancreatitis. The incidence of post-ERCP pancreatitis is approximately 5-10%, although may vary slightly with ranges from 3.5% to 9.5%. Despite this relatively high incidence, the majority of these cases are mild and can be managed conservatively. Severe acute pancreatitis occurs in less than 1% of cases following ERCP.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Cholangitis : Although a potential complication, it is less common than pancreatitis following ERCP.</li><li>• Option A. Cholangitis</li><li>• Option B. Duodenal Perforation : This is a rare but serious complication.</li><li>• Option B. Duodenal Perforation</li><li>• Option C. Bleeding : Another potential complication, but less common compared to pancreatitis.</li><li>• Option C. Bleeding</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Pancreatitis is the most common complication following Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), occurring in approximately 5-10% of cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In arterial blood gas analysis which one of the following is derived or calculated? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "pH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "pCO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "pO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bicarbonate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bicarbonate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bicarbonate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis, we measure specific parameters directly from the arterial blood sample. The directly measured values include:</li><li>• pH : The measure of hydrogen ion concentration, indicating the acidity or alkalinity of the blood. pCO2 : The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood, indicating how well CO2 is being eliminated from the body. pO2 : The partial pressure of oxygen in the blood, indicating how well oxygen is being absorbed from the lungs.</li><li>• pH : The measure of hydrogen ion concentration, indicating the acidity or alkalinity of the blood.</li><li>• pH</li><li>• pCO2 : The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood, indicating how well CO2 is being eliminated from the body.</li><li>• pCO2</li><li>• pO2 : The partial pressure of oxygen in the blood, indicating how well oxygen is being absorbed from the lungs.</li><li>• pO2</li><li>• Bicarbonate (HCO3-) , however, is not directly measured in ABG analysis. Instead, it is derived from the measured values using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation or calculated from the blood gas analyzer. Along with bicarbonate, base excess or base deficit values are also derived to assess the metabolic component of the acid-base balance.</li><li>• Bicarbonate (HCO3-)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. pH : This is a measured value that indicates the hydrogen ion concentration in the blood.</li><li>• Option A. pH</li><li>• Option B. pCO2 : This is a measured value representing the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood.</li><li>• Option B. pCO2</li><li>• Option C. pO2 : This is a measured value representing the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.</li><li>• Option C. pO2</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In arterial blood gas analysis, bicarbonate is a derived or calculated value, whereas pH, pCO2, and pO2 are directly measured parameters.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV patient presents with fever and neck stiffness. Lumbar puncture was done and CSF examination shows lymphocytosis, normal glucose, increased protein and positive India ink staining. What is likely causative organism? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cryptococcus neoformans", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumocystis jirovecii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cryptococcus neoformans", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cryptococcus neoformans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The correct answer is Cryptococcus neoformans. The patient presents with signs of meningitis (fever, neck stiffness) and has a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) profile showing lymphocytosis, normal glucose, increased protein, and positive India ink staining.</li><li>• Cryptococcal meningitis is a common opportunistic infection in HIV patients and is diagnosed by the presence of encapsulated yeast cells seen on India ink staining.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pneumocystis jirovecii: This organism typically causes pneumonia rather than meningitis.</li><li>• Option B. Pneumocystis jirovecii:</li><li>• Option C. Tuberculosis: Tuberculous meningitis usually presents with low glucose levels in the CSF, which is not the case here.</li><li>• Option C. Tuberculosis:</li><li>• Option D. Pneumococcus: Pneumococcal meningitis typically presents with a neutrophilic CSF rather than lymphocytic CSF.</li><li>• Option D. Pneumococcus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cryptococcus neoformans is a common cause of meningitis in HIV patients, characterized by lymphocytic CSF, normal glucose, increased protein, and positive India ink staining, which reveals encapsulated yeast cells. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old patient has fever with severe shortness of breath and red currant jelly sputum. On examination, he has altered sensorium with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min. Lab investigations show serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL. CXR is done and shows multi-lobar infiltrates. What is correct regarding the management? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "OPD management", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IPD management", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ICU management (oral drugs)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ICU management (IV drugs)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. ICU management (IV drugs)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) ICU management (IV drugs)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient presents with severe symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia, including fever, severe shortness of breath, red currant jelly sputum, altered sensorium, a high respiratory rate, and multi-lobar infiltrates on the chest X-ray.</li><li>• The CURB-65 score and IDSA/ATS guidelines for severe community-acquired pneumonia suggest that patients with severe symptoms, especially those meeting major criteria or multiple minor criteria, require intensive care unit (ICU) management.</li><li>• CURB-65 Criteria (score 0-5)</li><li>• CURB-65 Criteria (score 0-5)</li><li>• Confusion Uremia (BUN &gt; 19 mg/dL or Urea &gt;40 mg/dL) Respiratory rate ≥ 30/min Blood pressure (systolic &lt; 90 mmHg or diastolic ≤ 60 mmHg) Age ≥ 65 years</li><li>• Confusion</li><li>• Uremia (BUN &gt; 19 mg/dL or Urea &gt;40 mg/dL)</li><li>• Respiratory rate ≥ 30/min</li><li>• Blood pressure (systolic &lt; 90 mmHg or diastolic ≤ 60 mmHg)</li><li>• Age ≥ 65 years</li><li>• The patient scores high on these criteria due to confusion, high respiratory rate, and multi-lobar infiltrates.</li><li>• IDSA/ATS Criteria for Severe CAP</li><li>• IDSA/ATS Criteria for Severe CAP</li><li>• Minor Criteria</li><li>• Minor Criteria</li><li>• Respiratory rate ≥ 30 breaths/min PaO2/FiO2 ratio ≤ 250 Multi-lobar infiltrates Confusion/disorientation Uremia (BUN level ≥ 20 mg/dL) Leukopenia (WBC count &lt; 4000 cells/mm3) Thrombocytopenia (platelet count &lt; 100,000 cells/mm3) Hypothermia (core temperature &lt; 36°C) Hypotension requiring aggressive fluid resuscitation</li><li>• Respiratory rate ≥ 30 breaths/min</li><li>• PaO2/FiO2 ratio ≤ 250</li><li>• Multi-lobar infiltrates</li><li>• Confusion/disorientation</li><li>• Uremia (BUN level ≥ 20 mg/dL)</li><li>• Leukopenia (WBC count &lt; 4000 cells/mm3)</li><li>• Thrombocytopenia (platelet count &lt; 100,000 cells/mm3)</li><li>• Hypothermia (core temperature &lt; 36°C)</li><li>• Hypotension requiring aggressive fluid resuscitation</li><li>• Major Criteria</li><li>• Major Criteria</li><li>• Septic shock requiring vasopressors Respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation</li><li>• Septic shock requiring vasopressors</li><li>• Respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation</li><li>• The patient meets several minor criteria, indicating severe CAP requiring ICU admission and intravenous antibiotics.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. OPD management: Not appropriate for severe symptoms and high CURB-65 score.</li><li>• Option A. OPD management:</li><li>• Option B. IPD management: While necessary, ICU care is more appropriate.</li><li>• Option B. IPD management:</li><li>• Option C. ICU management (oral drugs): IV drugs are required for severe cases in the ICU.</li><li>• Option C. ICU management (oral drugs):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with severe community-acquired pneumonia, especially those with altered sensorium, high respiratory rate, and multi-lobar infiltrates, should be managed in the ICU with intravenous antibiotics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with meningitis. His protein level was elevated and glucose level was normal. CSF examination showed lymphocytosis. What is the likely etiology? (FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "H. influenzae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria meningitidis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-124022_pUtafTr.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with meningitis, the presence of lymphocytosis (elevated lymphocytes) in the CSF, along with an elevated protein level and normal glucose level, strongly suggests tuberculous meningitis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "MEN 1 syndrome is associated with:(FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parotid tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatocellular cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parathyroid tumor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Parathyroid tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/06/screenshot-2024-06-06-123612.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Parathyroid tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In MEN 1 syndrome, the classic endocrine gland tumors involved are parathyroid tumors (leading to hyperparathyroidism), pituitary adenomas, and pancreatic islet cell tumors (such as gastrinomas and insulinomas). Remembering the \"3 P\" association (parathyroid, pituitary, and pancreas) can help recall the key features of this syndrome.</li><li>➤ Familial Syndrome associated with Pheochromocytoma and Extra-adrenal Paragangliomas:</li><li>➤ Familial Syndrome associated with Pheochromocytoma and Extra-adrenal Paragangliomas:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is not true according to case-control study? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Effect to cause design", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Used to study Rare Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Odds ratio can be calculated", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cause to effect design", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cause to effect design", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-113946.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cause to effect design</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A case-control study is a retrospective study that looks backward in time, starting with the outcome (disease) and then investigating potential exposures or risk factors that may have contributed to the disease. It is an effect-to-cause study design. Case-control studies are particularly useful for studying rare diseases, as they allow researchers to identify a sufficient number of cases without requiring a large cohort.</li><li>• Due to the retrospective nature of the study, incidence rates cannot be calculated directly. Instead, the strength of the association between exposure and outcome is measured using the odds ratio, which is calculated using the formula –</li><li>• 2 × 2 table</li><li>• 2 × 2 table</li><li>• Odds Ratio (Cross Product Ratio) = ad/bc</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. \"Effect to cause design\" is a true statement about case-control studies, as they start with the disease (effect) and work backwards to identify potential causes (exposures).</li><li>• Option A. \"Effect to cause design\"</li><li>• Option B. \"Used to study Rare Disease\" is also a true statement. Case-control studies are well-suited for investigating rare diseases because they allow researchers to identify a sufficient number of cases without requiring a large cohort, which would be impractical and costly.</li><li>• Option B. \"Used to study Rare Disease\"</li><li>• Option C. \"Odds ratio can be calculated\" is correct. In case-control studies, the incidence rate cannot be directly calculated, so the strength of the association between exposure and outcome is measured using the odds ratio.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. \"Odds ratio can be calculated\"</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Case-control studies are retrospective, effect-to-cause study designs that are particularly useful for investigating rare diseases and calculating odds ratios to measure the strength of association between exposures and outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "MEN 1 syndrome is associated with:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parathyroid adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parotid tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Parathyroid adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Parathyroid adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1) syndrome, also known as Wermer's syndrome, is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. It is characterized by tumors in three primary endocrine glands, known as the \" three Ps\":</li><li>• three Ps\":</li><li>• Parathyroid adenoma: Leading to primary hyperparathyroidism. Pituitary adenoma: Most commonly prolactinomas. Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors: Which can include gastrinomas, insulinomas, and non-functioning pancreatic tumors.</li><li>• Parathyroid adenoma: Leading to primary hyperparathyroidism.</li><li>• Parathyroid adenoma:</li><li>• Pituitary adenoma: Most commonly prolactinomas.</li><li>• Pituitary adenoma:</li><li>• Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors: Which can include gastrinomas, insulinomas, and non-functioning pancreatic tumors.</li><li>• Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Parotid tumor and Option C. Renal cell carcinoma: Not associated with MEN 1 syndrome.</li><li>• Option B. Parotid tumor and Option C. Renal cell carcinoma:</li><li>• Option D. Pheochromocytoma: Associated with MEN 2A and MEN 2B syndromes, but not MEN 1.</li><li>• Option D. Pheochromocytoma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MEN 1 syndrome, also known as Wermer's syndrome, is associated with tumors in the parathyroid glands, pituitary gland, and pancreatic islet cells, with parathyroid adenoma being a common manifestation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old man presents with dysphagia for solid foods more than liquid for the last 3 months and has severe cachexia. What will be the best investigation to establish the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Upper GI Endoscopy with Biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Manometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium swallow", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CECT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Upper GI Endoscopy with Biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Upper GI Endoscopy with Biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with dysphagia predominantly for solids, especially with associated severe cachexia, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is the best investigation to establish the diagnosis, often indicating esophageal cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Casal's necklace is seen with which vitamin deficiency? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyanocobalamin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Niacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-112941.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Casal's necklace is a characteristic dermatitis seen in niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency, which leads to a condition called pellagra. Niacin can be synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan, with 60 mg of tryptophan converting to 1 mg of niacin daily. Tryptophan deficiency is common in maize-based diets, but the actual reason for pellagra in maize eaters is not tryptophan deficiency itself, but rather an excess of leucine, which prevents the conversion of tryptophan to niacin. Leucine is therefore known as the pellagrogenic amino acid of India.</li><li>• Pellagra is characterized by the \"4 D's\": diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and death. The dermatitis associated with pellagra often occurs around the neck or on the extremities of the body, particularly on areas of skin that are directly exposed to sunlight. When this dermatitis occurs around the neck, it may lead to the formation of Casal's necklace.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency is not associated with Casal's necklace. Instead, it can lead to beriberi in polished rice eaters and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Thiamine</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin C deficiency is not related to Casal's necklace. It can cause scurvy, which is characterized by symptoms such as bleeding gums, easy bruising, and poor wound healing.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Vitamin C</li><li>• Option D. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency is not linked to Casal's necklace. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, megaloblastic anemia, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, and pernicious anemia, especially in strict vegetarians.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Cyanocobalamin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Casal's necklace is a characteristic dermatitis seen around the neck in niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency, which leads to a condition called pellagra.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman has ptosis and limb weakness that worsens in the evening. She was diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. What is the first-line drug used?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyridostigmine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prednisolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclosporine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasma exchange", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pyridostigmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pyridostigmine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The symptoms are characteristic of myasthenia gravis, a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles. The hallmark of this condition is fluctuating muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest.</li><li>• fluctuating muscle weakness</li><li>• The primary mechanism involves antibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, impairing communication between nerves and muscles.</li><li>• The first-line treatment for myasthenia gravis is pyridostigmine , an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Pyridostigmine works by increasing the amount of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, thereby enhancing communication between nerves and muscles, which helps to improve muscle strength.</li><li>• pyridostigmine</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Prednisolone: This is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and modulate the immune system. While it can be used in myasthenia gravis, it is not the first-line treatment. It is typically considered when patients do not adequately respond to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.</li><li>• Option B. Prednisolone:</li><li>• Option C. Cyclosporine: An immunosuppressant that can be used in myasthenia gravis, particularly in patients who are not responsive to corticosteroids or those who have significant side effects from steroids. It is not a first-line treatment due to its side effect profile</li><li>• Option C. Cyclosporine:</li><li>• Option D. Plasma exchange: This is a procedure used in severe cases of myasthenia gravis or during myasthenic crisis. It rapidly reduces the level of circulating antibodies by removing them from the blood. This is not used as a first-line treatment but rather as an acute intervention.</li><li>• Option D. Plasma exchange:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first-line treatment for myasthenia gravis is pyridostigmine, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that improves muscle strength by increasing acetylcholine availability at the neuromuscular junction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Angular cheilitis, stomatitis, and glossitis are associated with which vitamin deficiency? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin B2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Angular cheilitis, stomatitis, and glossitis are associated with Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange in order the disaster management cycle.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Impact → response → rehabilitation → mitigation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rehabilitation → response → impact → mitigation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Response → disaster → rehabilitation → mitigation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Impact → mitigation → response → rehabilitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Impact → response → rehabilitation → mitigation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Impact → response → rehabilitation → mitigation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct chronological order of the disaster management cycle is as follows:</li><li>• 5 stages -</li><li>• 5 stages -</li><li>• Impact: This is the initial stage when a disaster strikes an area, such as an earthquake, flood, or tsunami. Response : In this stage, search and rescue operations, first aid, and medical relief efforts are launched. Rehabilitation : This stage focuses on addressing water, sanitation, food supply, vector control, and other essential services. Mitigation : Efforts are made to prevent hazards or risks from turning into disasters, minimizing potential damage. Preparedness: This stage involves planning and preparation for an anticipated disaster, such as a tsunami or earthquake season.</li><li>• Impact: This is the initial stage when a disaster strikes an area, such as an earthquake, flood, or tsunami.</li><li>• Impact:</li><li>• Response : In this stage, search and rescue operations, first aid, and medical relief efforts are launched.</li><li>• Response</li><li>• Rehabilitation : This stage focuses on addressing water, sanitation, food supply, vector control, and other essential services.</li><li>• Rehabilitation</li><li>• Mitigation : Efforts are made to prevent hazards or risks from turning into disasters, minimizing potential damage.</li><li>• Mitigation</li><li>• Preparedness: This stage involves planning and preparation for an anticipated disaster, such as a tsunami or earthquake season.</li><li>• Preparedness:</li><li>• The answer to this is choice A, which correctly arranges the stages as impact, response, rehabilitation, and mitigation.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct order of the disaster management cycle is impact, response, rehabilitation, mitigation, and preparedness, representing the chronological sequence of actions taken during and after a disaster.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following type of cataract is seen in ocular blunt trauma?( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toxic cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rosette cataract", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nuclear cataract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rosette cataract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-103938.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rosette cataract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Rosette cataract is commonly seen in ocular blunt trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the muscle forming the marked boundary: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extensor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abductor pollicis longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abductor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extensor pollicis longus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Extensor pollicis longus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-120533.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-185817.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Extensor pollicis longus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the anatomical snuff box, a triangular depression at the base of the thumb. The anatomical snuff box has specific boundaries, and the arrow is pointing to the posterior (posteromedial) boundary. The muscle forming the posterior boundary of the anatomical snuff box is the extensor pollicis longus.</li><li>• The mnemonic \"aage longus peechhe longus beech mein brevis\" helps remember the boundaries:</li><li>• The mnemonic \"aage longus peechhe longus beech mein brevis\" helps remember the boundaries:</li><li>• Anterior (anterolateral) boundary: Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis Posterior (posteromedial) boundary: Extensor pollicis longus Between the two boundaries: Extensor pollicis brevis</li><li>• Anterior (anterolateral) boundary: Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis</li><li>• Anterior (anterolateral) boundary:</li><li>• Posterior (posteromedial) boundary: Extensor pollicis longus</li><li>• Posterior (posteromedial) boundary:</li><li>• Between the two boundaries: Extensor pollicis brevis</li><li>• Between the two boundaries:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Extensor pollicis brevis: This muscle forms part of the anterior boundary and the floor of the anatomical snuff box, not the posterior boundary.</li><li>• Option A. Extensor pollicis brevis:</li><li>• Option B. Abductor pollicis longus: This muscle forms part of the anterior boundary of the anatomical snuff box, not the posterior boundary.</li><li>• Option B. Abductor pollicis longus:</li><li>• Option C. Abductor pollicis brevis : This muscle is not related to the boundaries of the anatomical snuff box. It is a muscle of the thenar eminence, responsible for abduction of the thumb.</li><li>• Option C. Abductor pollicis brevis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The extensor pollicis longus forms the posterior boundary of the anatomical snuff box.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When does stranger anxiety appear in a child? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6-7 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "8-10 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "15 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 6-7 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 6-7 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Stranger anxiety typically emerges by 6-7 months of age.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer came after snake bite on right foot. There were 2 fang marks with pain, swelling, and bleeding at the site of snake bite and the patient's vitals are stable. What will be the first step of management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polyvalent ASV", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pressure immobilization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Venom suction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "See the snake brought by the relatives", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Polyvalent ASV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Polyvalent ASV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Based on the presence of two fang marks, pain, swelling, and bleeding at the site of the snake bite on the farmer's right foot, it is most likely a viper snake bite , which is poisonous. The patient's vitals are stable, but the signs of envenomation are present. In all cases of envenomation, the main life-treating measure is administering antisnake venom (ASV). Polyvalent ASV 5000 units should be given as the first step in management whenever poisonous features, such as bleeding, are present.</li><li>• viper snake bite</li><li>• In all cases of envenomation, the main life-treating measure is administering antisnake venom</li><li>• 5000 units</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. B. Pressure immobilization : Immobilization is done for all snake bites, but, the Pressure immobilization is done for neurotoxic snakes but not for vasculotoxic snakes like vipers. Applying pressure in vasculotoxic snake bites can lead to local toxic effects and potentially result in limb amputation.</li><li>• Option. B. Pressure immobilization</li><li>• Option. C. Venom suction : Venom suction is never an option in the management of snake bites.</li><li>• Option. C. Venom suction</li><li>• Option. D. See the snake brought by the relatives : Looking at the snake brought by relatives is rarely of practical use and is more of a theoretical consideration. It should not be the first step in managing a snake bite with signs of envenomation.</li><li>• Option. D. See the snake brought by the relatives</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ In cases of snake bites with signs of envenomation, such as pain, swelling, and bleeding, administering polyvalent ASV should be the first step in management, regardless of the type of snake involved.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While administering epidural anesthesia, which structure is not punctured before injecting the drug? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supraspinous ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interspinous ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ligamentum flavum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arachnoid mater", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Arachnoid mater", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-122229_4E7x0KL.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/2_AO79XIl.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Arachnoid mater</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• During epidural anesthesia, the anesthetic agent is injected into the epidural space, which lies outside the dura mater. The needle passes through several layers of tissue but does not puncture the dura mater, arachnoid mater, or enter the subarachnoid space.</li><li>• The layers that are punctured during epidural anesthesia, in order, are:</li><li>• Skin Superficial fascia Supraspinous ligament Interspinous ligament Ligamentum flavum</li><li>• Skin</li><li>• Superficial fascia</li><li>• Supraspinous ligament</li><li>• Interspinous ligament</li><li>• Ligamentum flavum</li><li>• After passing through the ligamentum flavum, the needle enters the epidural space, where the anesthetic agent is deposited.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Supraspinous ligament : This ligament is punctured during epidural anesthesia.</li><li>• Option A. Supraspinous ligament</li><li>• Option B. Interspinous ligament : This ligament is also punctured during the procedure.</li><li>• Option B. Interspinous ligament</li><li>• Option C. Ligamentum flavum : The needle passes through the ligamentum flavum to reach the epidural space.</li><li>• Option C. Ligamentum flavum :</li><li>• Note : that this procedure differs from a lumbar puncture, where the needle passes through the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and enters the subarachnoid space (represented by the mnemonic \"DAS\": Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Subarachnoid space).</li><li>• Note</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During epidural anesthesia, the arachnoid mater is not punctured. The anesthetic agent is injected into the epidural space, which lies outside the dura mater, after passing through the skin, superficial fascia, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, and ligamentum flavum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During delivery of a 24 y primigravida, the head comes out, but the shoulders fail to deliver. McRoberts maneuver is immediately done but the shoulders still fail to deliver. What is the next best step? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delivery of the posterior shoulder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Internal rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supra-pubic pressure", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zavanelli maneuver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Supra-pubic pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Supra-pubic pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In cases of shoulder dystocia, where the baby's shoulders fail to deliver after the head, specific maneuvers are performed in a stepwise manner. The McRoberts maneuver, which involves hyperflexion and abduction of the mother's thighs onto her abdomen, is the first step and is successful in resolving many cases by reducing the angle of the pelvis.</li><li>• If the McRoberts maneuver is unsuccessful, the next step is to apply supra-pubic pressure. This involves an assistant applying pressure just above the pubic bone to help dislodge the anterior shoulder from behind the pubic symphysis. This maneuver is often performed simultaneously with the McRoberts maneuver but is listed next in the shoulder dystocia drill.</li><li>• HELPER mnemonic from Baxley and Gobbo, 2004, is a guideline for managing obstetric emergencies:</li><li>• H : Call for Help E : Evaluate for Episiotomy L : Legs (The McRoberts manoeuvre) P : Suprapubic Pressure E : Enter manoeuvres (internal rotation) R : Remove the posterior arm R : Roll the patient (Gaskin maneuver)</li><li>• H : Call for Help</li><li>• H</li><li>• E : Evaluate for Episiotomy</li><li>• E</li><li>• L : Legs (The McRoberts manoeuvre)</li><li>• L</li><li>• P : Suprapubic Pressure</li><li>• P</li><li>• E : Enter manoeuvres (internal rotation)</li><li>• E</li><li>• R : Remove the posterior arm</li><li>• R</li><li>• R : Roll the patient (Gaskin maneuver)</li><li>• R</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Delivery of the posterior shoulder: This is a subsequent step if supra-pubic pressure and internal rotation maneuver fail.</li><li>• Option A. Delivery of the posterior shoulder:</li><li>• Option B. Internal rotation: This includes maneuver like the Woods corkscrew or Rubin maneuver and is considered after supra-pubic pressure fails.</li><li>• Option B. Internal rotation:</li><li>• Option D. Zavanelli maneuver: This is a last-resort measure where the baby's head is pushed back into the birth canal for an emergency cesarean section.</li><li>• Option D. Zavanelli maneuver:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• If the McRoberts maneuver fails to resolve shoulder dystocia, the next step is to apply supra-pubic pressure to help dislodge the anterior shoulder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a given population, total births in a year are 4050. There are 50 stillbirths. 50 neonates die within the first 7 days of life, whereas the number of deaths within 8-28 days of life is 150. What is the neonatal mortality rate in the population? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "49.4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "62.5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 50", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 50</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The neonatal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the total number of neonatal deaths (deaths within 0-28 days of life) by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1,000.</li><li>• Given:</li><li>• Given:</li><li>• Total births in a year = 4050 Stillbirths = 50 Neonatal deaths within the first 7 days (early neonatal period) = 50 Neonatal deaths within 8-28 days (late neonatal period) = 150</li><li>• Total births in a year = 4050</li><li>• Stillbirths = 50</li><li>• Neonatal deaths within the first 7 days (early neonatal period) = 50</li><li>• Neonatal deaths within 8-28 days (late neonatal period) = 150</li><li>• Step 1: Calculate the number of live births.</li><li>• Step 1:</li><li>• Number of live births = Total births - Stillbirths</li><li>• Number of live births = 4050 - 50 = 4000</li><li>• Step 2: Calculate the total number of neonatal deaths.</li><li>• Step 2:</li><li>• Total neonatal deaths = Neonatal deaths within the first 7 days + Neonatal deaths within 8-28 days</li><li>• Total neonatal deaths = 50 + 150 = 200</li><li>• Step 3: Calculate the neonatal mortality rate using the formula:</li><li>• Step 3:</li><li>• Neonatal mortality rate = (Total neonatal deaths / Total live births) × 1000</li><li>• Neonatal mortality rate = (200 / 4000) × 1000</li><li>• Neonatal mortality rate = 50 per 1,000 live births</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The neonatal mortality rate is a crucial indicator that represents the number of neonatal deaths (deaths within 0-28 days of life) per 1,000 live births in a given population. It encompasses both early neonatal deaths (within the first 7 days) and late neonatal deaths (8-28 days).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A vegan lady came with features of anemia. She is likely to have deficiency of: ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin B12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vegans, who follow a diet that excludes all animal products, are at a higher risk of developing vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12, also known as cobalamin, is primarily found in animal-derived foods such as meat, dairy products, and eggs. Since vegans do not consume these foods, they are prone to developing vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to anemia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin D deficiency is not specifically related to a vegan diet. While vegans may need to supplement vitamin D from non-animal sources, the question does not provide enough information to suggest that this is the likely deficiency.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin D</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin A deficiency is also not directly related to a vegan diet. Vegans can obtain sufficient vitamin A from plant-based sources such as leafy green vegetables, carrots, and sweet potatoes.</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin A</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin C deficiency is unlikely in a vegan diet, as many fruits and vegetables are rich sources of vitamin C.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin C</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vegans are at a higher risk of developing vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to anemia, as vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal-derived foods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bilirubin is measured as mg/dl in which scale? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ordinal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nominal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Discrete", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continuous", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Continuous", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Continuous</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bilirubin is measured in milligrams per decilitre (mg/dl), which is a continuous scale. Continuous quantitative data, where multiple values can exist between any two given values, is measured on a continuous or metric scale.</li><li>• Such as bilirubin levels of 4 mg/dl, 4.1 mg/dl, 4.25 mg/dl, 6 mg/dl, 7 mg/dl, 10 mg/dl, and 11.4 mg/dl, illustrate the continuous nature of the measurement, with numerous possible values between any two points.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ordinal: T his option is incorrect because ordinal scales represent ordered categories or ranks. This is discrete data</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Ordinal: T</li><li>• Option B. Nominal: This option is incorrect because nominal scales represent categories or names without any inherent order or quantitative value. This is discrete data</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Nominal:</li><li>• Option C. Discrete: This option is incorrect because discrete scales involve counting or whole numbers, whereas bilirubin measurements can have fractional or decimal values.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Discrete:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bilirubin is measured in milligrams per decilitre (mg/dl), which falls under the continuous scale, as it allows for numerous possible values between any two given points, reflecting the precise quantitative nature of the measurement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following solid organ transplants have the highest chance of GVHD (graft versus host disease)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intestine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heart", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intestine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Intestine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Graft versus host disease (GVHD) is most commonly associated with hematopoietic stem cell transplantation, particularly allogeneic transplants. However, GVHD can also occur following solid organ transplants.</li><li>• allogeneic transplants.</li><li>• GVHD occurs when donor immune cells attack the recipient's tissues.</li><li>• The intestine has the highest risk of GVHD among solid organ transplants due to the presence of abundant lymphoid tissue, including Peyer's patches, which contain many donor lymphocytes capable of attacking the recipient’s body.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Kidney : While kidney transplants can result in immune complications, the risk of GVHD is significantly lower compared to intestinal transplants.</li><li>• Option A. Kidney</li><li>• Option B. Liver : The liver has a moderate risk of GVHD but not as high as the intestine.</li><li>• Option B. Liver</li><li>• Option D. Heart : The heart has a lower risk of GVHD compared to the intestine.</li><li>• Option D. Heart</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ The intestine is the solid organ transplant with the highest risk of graft versus host disease due to the presence of lymphoid tissue containing donor lymphocytes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A multiparous woman from a low socio-economic status whose husband is a truck driver is to be screened for cervical cancer. What is the best way? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CA125", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TVS (Transvaginal Sonography)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pap smear", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pap smear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pap smear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cervical cancer screening is crucial for early detection and prevention. The Pap smear (Papanicolaou test) is the standard screening test for cervical cancer, particularly in resource-limited settings. It involves collecting cells from the cervix to detect precancerous or cancerous changes.</li><li>• Why Pap Smear?</li><li>• Accessibility: It is widely available and can be performed in low-resource settings. Cost-effective: It is a cost-effective method for cervical cancer screening. Proven efficacy: It has been proven to significantly reduce the incidence and mortality of cervical cancer through early detection and treatment of precancerous lesions.</li><li>• Accessibility: It is widely available and can be performed in low-resource settings.</li><li>• Cost-effective: It is a cost-effective method for cervical cancer screening.</li><li>• Proven efficacy: It has been proven to significantly reduce the incidence and mortality of cervical cancer through early detection and treatment of precancerous lesions.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. CA125 : This is a biomarker used in the screening and monitoring of ovarian cancer, not cervical cancer.</li><li>• Option A. CA125</li><li>• Option B. Laparoscopy : This is a surgical procedure used for diagnosis and treatment but not for routine screening.</li><li>• Option B. Laparoscopy</li><li>• Option C. TVS (Transvaginal Sonography): Primarily used for evaluating the uterus and ovaries, not suitable for cervical cancer screening.</li><li>• Option C. TVS (Transvaginal Sonography):</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The Pap smear is the best and most widely recommended screening test for cervical cancer, especially in low socio-economic and resource-limited settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient develops severe migratory joint pain after an attack of acute rheumatic fever. How will you manage this patient? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aspirin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aspirin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The correct answer is Aspirin. Acute rheumatic fever commonly presents with migratory polyarthritis , which is characterized by severe joint pain that moves from one joint to another.</li><li>• migratory polyarthritis</li><li>• The treatment of choice for this arthritis is nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), with aspirin being the most effective and commonly used. Aspirin helps to reduce inflammation and pain associated with the arthritis of acute rheumatic fever.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Furosemide: This is a diuretic and is not used for the management of arthritis in acute rheumatic fever. It may be used in cases of heart failure associated with rheumatic carditis.</li><li>• Option A. Furosemide:</li><li>• Option B. Digoxin: This is a cardiac glycoside used in heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It is not used for managing arthritis in acute rheumatic fever.</li><li>• Option B. Digoxin:</li><li>• Option D. Amiodarone: This is an antiarrhythmic medication and has no role in the management of arthritis in acute rheumatic fever.</li><li>• Option D. Amiodarone:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary treatment for severe migratory joint pain (arthritis) in acute rheumatic fever is the use of NSAIDs, with aspirin being the drug of choice due to its effectiveness in reducing inflammation and pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following anomaly occurs due to (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Failure of closure of neural tube at week 3 intra-uterine life", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Failure of closure of neural tube at week 4 intra-uterine life", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Failure of closure of cranial neuropore at week 4 intra-uterine life", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Failure of closure of caudal neuropore at week 4 intra-uterine life", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Failure of closure of cranial neuropore at week 4 intra-uterine life", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-125825.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Failure of closure of cranial neuropore at week 4 intra-uterine life</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts a condition known as anencephaly, a severe neural tube defect characterized by the absence of a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp. This condition arises due to the failure of the cranial (anterior) neuropore to close during embryonic development.</li><li>• Neural Tube Development: The neural tube forms from the neural plate, which folds to create the neural groove and eventually closes to form the neural tube. This process begins around the third week of intrauterine life and continues into the fourth week. Closure of Neuropores: The neural tube has two openings, the cranial (anterior) and caudal (posterior) neuropores. The cranial neuropore normally closes by the 25th day of gestation (around the 4th week), while the caudal neuropore closes by the 28th day (also around the 4th week). Anencephaly: When the cranial neuropore fails to close, the result is anencephaly. This defect prevents the proper formation of the forebrain, resulting in the absence of major portions of the brain and skull.</li><li>• Neural Tube Development: The neural tube forms from the neural plate, which folds to create the neural groove and eventually closes to form the neural tube. This process begins around the third week of intrauterine life and continues into the fourth week.</li><li>• Closure of Neuropores: The neural tube has two openings, the cranial (anterior) and caudal (posterior) neuropores. The cranial neuropore normally closes by the 25th day of gestation (around the 4th week), while the caudal neuropore closes by the 28th day (also around the 4th week).</li><li>• Anencephaly: When the cranial neuropore fails to close, the result is anencephaly. This defect prevents the proper formation of the forebrain, resulting in the absence of major portions of the brain and skull.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Failure of closure of neural tube at week 3 intra-uterine life: This is incorrect because the neural tube begins to close around the third week, but the critical closure of the cranial neuropore occurs in the fourth week.</li><li>• Option A. Failure of closure of neural tube at week 3 intra-uterine life:</li><li>• Option B. Failure of closure of neural tube at week 4 intra-uterine life : This is partially correct but not specific. The specific failure involved in anencephaly is the closure of the cranial neuropore, not just any part of the neural tube.</li><li>• Option B. Failure of closure of neural tube at week 4 intra-uterine life</li><li>• Option D. Failure of closure of caudal neuropore at week 4 intra-uterine life: This is incorrect as it refers to the closure of the caudal neuropore, which would lead to defects like spina bifida, not anencephaly.</li><li>• Option D. Failure of closure of caudal neuropore at week 4 intra-uterine life:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anencephaly results from the failure of the cranial (anterior) neuropore to close by the 25th day of gestation, which occurs around the 4th week of intrauterine life.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had an RTA that caused crush injury. Within 3 days of the injury and post-amputation, crepitus was present and the wound was reddish brown. Identify the diagnosis: (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gas gangrene", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Necrotizing fasciitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cellulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gas gangrene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gas gangrene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gas gangrene, characterized by rapid tissue destruction, gas production, and a reddish-brown appearance of the wound, should be promptly recognized and managed due to its potential for rapid progression and systemic complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 80-year-old woman complains of leakage of urine on straining and coughing. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stress urinary incontinence", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urge urinary incontinence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mixed urinary incontinence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Overflow incontinence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stress urinary incontinence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stress urinary incontinence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Stress urinary incontinence (SUI) occurs when there is involuntary leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as straining, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. This condition is often due to weakness of the pelvic floor muscles and the urethral sphincter, which fail to properly support the bladder and urethra.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Urge urinary incontinence : This type of incontinence is characterized by a sudden and intense urge to urinate, followed by involuntary leakage of urine. It is commonly associated with an overactive bladder.</li><li>• Option B. Urge urinary incontinence</li><li>• Option C. Mixed urinary incontinence : This occurs when a person experiences symptoms of both stress and urge urinary incontinence.</li><li>• Option C. Mixed urinary incontinence</li><li>• Option D. Overflow incontinence : This type occurs when the bladder fails to empty completely, leading to leakage of small amounts of urine. It is often associated with bladder outlet obstruction or neurological conditions affecting bladder function.</li><li>• Option D. Overflow incontinence</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stress urinary incontinence is diagnosed when an individual experiences leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as straining or coughing, due to weakened pelvic floor muscles and urethral sphincter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old female came with early satiety, massive splenomegaly, petechiae, and bleeding gums. Her hemoglobin was 8 gm/dl and TLC was 85,000/mm3. Which of the following is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ALL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "AML", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CML", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CLL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CML", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152749.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CML</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) should be strongly suspected in a patient presenting with massive splenomegaly , early satiety, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and a markedly elevated total leukocyte count with myeloid predominance .</li><li>➤ massive splenomegaly</li><li>➤ early satiety, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and a markedly elevated total leukocyte count with myeloid predominance</li><li>➤ The presence of the Philadelphia chromosome, resulting from the reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, is the hallmark genetic abnormality in CML.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The condition shown in the picture below is associated with which chromosomal abnormality? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "45X0", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "47XXY", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "46X0", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "48XY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 45X0", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture8_MKxcmMx.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 45XO</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome (45X0) presents with short stature, webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, and delayed puberty. Recognizing these phenotypic patterns is crucial for diagnosing and managing patients with developmental and reproductive disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After how many seconds of chest compressions and bag and mask ventilation, should we start the adrenaline? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60 seconds", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "80 seconds", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "120 seconds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 60 seconds", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 60 seconds</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adrenaline should be administered when the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute after 60 seconds of bag and mask ventilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient at risk of re-feeding syndrome, which of the following electrolyte imbalances is typically not associated with this condition? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypophosphatemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyperkalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients at risk of re-feeding syndrome, electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, and hypophosphatemia are commonly observed, while hyperkalemia is typically not associated with this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person with history of RTA admitted in hospital. He is able to understand what his friend is talking but he is unable to speak. Which part of the brain is most likely to be injured in this case? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wernicke's area", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Broca's area", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Angular gyrus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arcuate fasciculus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Broca's area", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Broca's area</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In the scenario described, the patient is able to understand spoken language but is unable to speak, indicating that comprehension is intact while fluency is impaired. This condition is characteristic of Broca's aphasia , which results from damage to Broca's area in the frontal lobe of the brain.</li><li>• Broca's aphasia</li><li>• Broca's area is responsible for speech production and language processing. Damage to this area leads to non-fluent aphasia, where the patient struggles to form words and sentences despite understanding spoken language. This condition is often seen in individuals who have experienced a stroke or traumatic brain injury.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Wernicke's area : Damage to Wernicke's area results in Wernicke's aphasia, characterized by fluent but nonsensical speech and impaired comprehension. The patient would not understand spoken language.</li><li>• Option A. Wernicke's area</li><li>• Option C. Angular gyrus : Damage to the angular gyrus typically results in Gerstmann syndrome, characterized by a tetrad of symptoms: acalculia (difficulty with calculations), agraphia (difficulty writing), right-left confusion, and finger agnosia.</li><li>• Option C. Angular gyrus</li><li>• Option D. Arcuate fasciculus : Damage to the arcuate fasciculus causes conduction aphasia, where the patient has intact comprehension and fluency but cannot repeat words or phrases.</li><li>• Option D. Arcuate fasciculus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives:</li><li>➤ Broca's area damage results in Broca's aphasia, characterized by impaired speech production with intact comprehension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which injury is not a part of ‘terrible triad of elbow’? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elbow dislocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fracture of coronoid process", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fracture of radial head", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fracture of olecranon", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fracture of olecranon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175400.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fracture of olecranon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fracture of olecranon is not a part of the terrible triad injury of the elbow. In the terrible triad injury, the radial head and coronoid process are fractured, along with dislocation of the elbow joint.</li><li>➤ Fracture of olecranon is not a part of the terrible triad injury of the elbow.</li><li>➤ In the terrible triad injury, the radial head and coronoid process are fractured, along with dislocation of the elbow joint.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following electrolyte abnormalities are seen in Refeeding Syndrome except: ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypophosphatemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyperkalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Refeeding syndrome occurs when nutrients are reintroduced to a severely malnourished patient, leading to metabolic and electrolyte disturbances. The reintroduction of carbohydrates causes an insulin surge, which drives electrolytes into cells, resulting in the following abnormalities:</li><li>• Hypokalemia : Potassium is driven into cells, lowering serum levels. Hypophosphatemia : Phosphate is used up in the production of ATP, lowering serum levels. Hypocalcemia : Increased cellular uptake of calcium can lower serum levels.</li><li>• Hypokalemia : Potassium is driven into cells, lowering serum levels.</li><li>• Hypokalemia</li><li>• Hypophosphatemia : Phosphate is used up in the production of ATP, lowering serum levels.</li><li>• Hypophosphatemia</li><li>• Hypocalcemia : Increased cellular uptake of calcium can lower serum levels.</li><li>• Hypocalcemia</li><li>• These hypoelectrolyte states are critical to monitor as they can lead to severe complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and respiratory failure.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hypokalemia : This is not seen in refeeding syndrome. Instead, refeeding syndrome typically results in hypokalemia due to the intracellular shift of potassium.</li><li>• Option A. Hypokalemia</li><li>• Option C. Hypocalcemia : Seen due to the cellular uptake of calcium.</li><li>• Option C. Hypocalcemia</li><li>• Option D. Hypophosphatemia : A hallmark of refeeding syndrome, driven by increased cellular utilization.</li><li>• Option D. Hypophosphatemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Refeeding syndrome is characterized by multiple hypoelectrolyte abnormalities, including hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypocalcemia, but not hyperkalemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of Schizophrenia was started on antipsychotic drug haloperidol. Few hours later, he presented with torticollis and muscular dystonia. What is the next best step for the management of this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase dose of haloperidol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Change haloperidol to clozapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give fluphenzine instead of haloperidol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give benztropine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Give benztropine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Give benztropine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) caused by antipsychotic medications. It can be an appropriate choice to alleviate the torticollis and muscular dystonia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Optic nerve glioma is seen in:( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NF-1 (Neurofibromatosis Type 1)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberous sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sturge-Weber syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Von Hippel-Lindau disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NF-1 (Neurofibromatosis Type 1)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-110052.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) NF-1 (Neurofibromatosis Type 1)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Optic nerve glioma, is a type of brain tumor that affects the optic nerve, is commonly associated with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF-1) and not typically seen in Tuberous Sclerosis, Sturge-Weber syndrome, or Von Hippel-Lindau disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rukmani is attending a Village Nutrition and Sanitation Programme. How frequently is it conducted? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Every Day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Every week", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Every 14 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Every Month", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Every Month", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Every month</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Programme, which Rukmani is attending, is conducted once every month by the Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Committee.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23y woman who is using the combined oral contraceptive pill misses 2 pills in the 3rd week of the pack. What is the next best step? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reassure and continue the packet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Take 2 pills the same day and continue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continue pills and take extra precaution for 1 week", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start a new packet immediately", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Take 2 pills the same day and continue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-122802.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Take 2 pills the same day and continue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the missed pill guidelines are –</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Reassure and continue the packet: Simply continuing the packet without taking the missed pills would increase the risk of pregnancy.</li><li>• Option A. Reassure and continue the packet:</li><li>• Option C. Continue pills and take extra precaution for 1 week: This option is more applicable for missing three or more pills, where additional precautions and possibly emergency contraception might be necessary.</li><li>• Option C. Continue pills and take extra precaution for 1 week:</li><li>• Option D. Start a new packet immediately: This approach is necessary only when three or more pills are missed in the third week, to avoid a pill-free interval and ensure continued contraceptive protection.</li><li>• Option D. Start a new packet immediately:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ If one or two combined oral contraceptive pills are missed in the third week, the woman should take the last missed pill as soon as possible, then continue the pack as scheduled, taking two pills in one day if necessary. This minimizes the risk of pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with a history of mastectomy, 10 years ago. She had edema and bluish discolouration of the skin over the right upper limb. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Angioedema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venous thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Angiosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphangiosarcoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lymphangiosarcoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-170030.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lymphangiosarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The scenario describes a patient with a history of mastectomy 10 years ago who presents with edema and bluish discoloration of the skin over the right upper limb. This clinical presentation is suggestive of lymphangiosarcoma, a rare malignant transformation of lymphatic vessels that can occur as a complication of mastectomy. The impaired lymphatic drainage following mastectomy leads to chronic lymphedema, which predisposes the affected limb to develop lymphangiosarcoma, also known as Stewart-Treves syndrome.</li><li>• develop lymphangiosarcoma, also known as Stewart-Treves syndrome.</li><li>• Unfortunately, lymphangiosarcoma carries a poor prognosis, with many patients surviving only 18 to 24 months after diagnosis.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Angioedema is a type of edema caused by increased vascular permeability, usually due to an allergic reaction or hereditary factors. It is not typically associated with a history of mastectomy.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Option B. Venous thrombosis can cause edema and skin discoloration but is not specifically linked to a history of mastectomy and would not explain the long interval (10 years) between the surgery and the onset of symptoms.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Option C. Angiosarcoma is a malignant tumor arising from blood vessels.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Lymphangiosarcoma (Stewart-Treves syndrome) is a rare but serious complication of mastectomy, characterized by edema and skin discoloration of the affected limb due to malignant transformation of lymphatic vessels in the setting of chronic lymphedema. It carries a poor prognosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following agents has blood:gas partition coefficient similar to nitrous oxide? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desflurane", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sevoflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Halothane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Desflurane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Desflurane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Desflurane has a blood-gas partition coefficient most similar to that of nitrous oxide, indicative of its relatively low solubility in blood and, consequently, its rapid onset and recovery profile among the volatile anesthetics listed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image shows which X-ray view?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Water’s view", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caldwell view", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Towne’s view", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schuller’s view", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Towne’s view", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-144027.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Towne’s view</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Towne’s view X-ray is used to visualize the occipital bone, posterior fossa, foramen magnum, and mastoid process by positioning the patient with the head tilted upward and the X-ray beam angled approximately 30 degrees to the orbitomeatal line.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child’s father brought him for checkup. On examination, there was white pupillary reflex. USG findings shows intraocular mass with calcification in the eye. There is a family history of enucleation. What is the diagnosis?( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exudative retinal detachment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pediatric tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinopathy of prematurity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Retinoblastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Retinoblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Retinoblastoma should be considered in a young child with a white pupillary reflex and intraocular mass with calcification, especially in the presence of a family history of enucleation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has muffled heart sounds with low BP and elevated JVP. What is the likely JVP finding? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Absent a wave", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Absent y descent", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prominent y descent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Absent x descent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Absent y descent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Absent y descent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cardiac tamponade, the JVP waveform shows a prominent x descent with an absent or blunted y descent. This is due to the restricted filling of the right heart chambers caused by the pericardial fluid, leading to characteristic clinical signs such as muffled heart sounds, hypotension, and elevated JVP</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman, 10 years after mastectomy, notices gradual swelling and heaviness in her right upper limb without pain. On examination, no skin changes or infection are noted. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphangiosarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thoracic outlet syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic venous insufficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Recurrent breast cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lymphangiosarcoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lymphangiosarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cause of unilateral limb swelling in a patient with a history of mastectomy, is most commonly due to lymphedema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old farmer presents with an ulcer on his neck, and a biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) with negative lymph nodes. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wide local excision with radiation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wide local excision with frozen border", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin grafting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Wide local excision with radiation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Wide local excision with radiation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most appropriate management strategy for squamous cell carcinoma of the neck with negative lymph nodes is wide local excision to remove the tumor completely, often followed by radiotherapy to address any potential microscopic residual disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following adverse effect is least likely to be associated with the use of amiodarone? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gynecomastia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gynecomastia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/20/screenshot-2024-07-20-134153.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gynecomastia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gynecomastia is typically associated with drugs that affect hormonal balance. Drugs causing gynecomastia includes:</li><li>➤ Drugs causing gynecomastia includes:</li><li>➤ DI: DI goxin</li><li>➤ DI: DI</li><li>➤ S: S pironolactone</li><li>➤ S: S</li><li>➤ C: C imetidine</li><li>➤ C: C</li><li>➤ O: O estrogens</li><li>➤ O: O</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition given in the image, which developed after 3 days of catheterization. (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fournier gangrene", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gas gangrene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wet gangrene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scrotal hematoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fournier gangrene", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/14/picture46.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fournier gangrene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fournier gangrene is a urological emergency that involves necrotizing fasciitis of the external genitalia and requires prompt surgical debridement along with broad-spectrum antibiotics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following middle ear structure is a derivative of neural crest cells?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stapes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foot plate of stapes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Foot plate of stapes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Foot plate of stapes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The footplate of the stapes in the middle ear is the structure derived from neural crest cells, distinguishing it from the other ossicles (malleus and incus), which are derived from the first and second pharyngeal arches and not from neural crest cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a painless expanding annular plaque with scarring at the center present on the buttocks. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lupus vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tinea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lupus vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/12/image_xaSci6A.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lupus vulgaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct answer is lupus vulgaris. Lupus vulgaris is the most common form of cutaneous tuberculosis. It typically presents as a painless, expanding annular plaque with scarring at the center. The lesion often advances at one edge while showing atrophy or scarring at the center or the other edge. This characteristic appearance helps in distinguishing it from other conditions.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tinea: Tinea typically presents as an annular plaque with central clearing, not central scarring.</li><li>• Option B. Tinea:</li><li>• Option C. Psoriasis: Psoriasis usually presents with well-demarcated, erythematous plaques covered with silvery-white scales. It does not present with the annular configuration and central scarring described in the question.</li><li>• Option C. Psoriasis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lupus vulgaris, the most common form of cutaneous tuberculosis, presents as a painless, expanding annular plaque with central scarring. This characteristic appearance is crucial for distinguishing it from other dermatological conditions such as tinea and psoriasis. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following condition is seen in: (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Miliary TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Consolidation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung metastasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lung metastasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/14/picture45.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lung metastasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The chest X-ray findings of multiple well-circumscribed nodules throughout the lung fields are indicative of lung metastasis, representing the spread of cancer from another part of the body to the lungs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Apoptotic bodies comprise of: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytoplasm + nuclear fragment + organelle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cytoplasm + organelle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Organelle + nuclear fragment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only organelle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cytoplasm + nuclear fragment + organelle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152551.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152608.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-152632.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cytoplasm + nuclear fragment + organelle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Apoptotic bodies, formed during the process of apoptosis, comprise cytoplasm, nuclear fragments, and organelles of the dying cell.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bleeding gums are seen in which vitamin deficiency? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rickets", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteogenesis imperfecta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hartnup disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Scurvy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture4_F4o0nod.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Scurvy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bleeding gums are a classic symptom of scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nutrient deficiency is cause of night blindness? ( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Night blindness is commonly associated with vitamin A deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Iron absorption is decreased by which of the following? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amla", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lemon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sprouts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factors that increase iron absorption –</li><li>➤ Factors that increase iron absorption –</li><li>➤ Vit. C Cysteine aa Acidic pH (Hcl) (these all helps in Fe 3+ to Fe 2+ conversion)</li><li>➤ Vit. C</li><li>➤ Cysteine aa</li><li>➤ Acidic pH (Hcl) (these all helps in Fe 3+ to Fe 2+ conversion)</li><li>➤ Factors that decrease iron absorption –</li><li>➤ Factors that decrease iron absorption –</li><li>➤ Phytates, Phosphates, oxalates Tannates (tea)</li><li>➤ Phytates, Phosphates, oxalates</li><li>➤ Tannates (tea)</li><li>➤ Foods rich in Iron are:</li><li>➤ Foods rich in Iron are:</li><li>➤ Red Meat, Liver and other organ meats, Turkey Seafood, Tuna fish Dark green leafy vegetables - such as spinach, kale and broccoli Dried fruits e.g. Dried Apricots Nuts and seeds spc. Pumpkin Seeds Sprouts Legumes - such as mixed beans, baked beans, lentils and chickpeas Tofu, Quinoa, Dark chocolate</li><li>➤ Red Meat, Liver and other organ meats, Turkey</li><li>➤ Seafood, Tuna fish</li><li>➤ Dark green leafy vegetables - such as spinach, kale and broccoli</li><li>➤ Dried fruits e.g. Dried Apricots</li><li>➤ Nuts and seeds spc. Pumpkin Seeds</li><li>➤ Sprouts</li><li>➤ Legumes - such as mixed beans, baked beans, lentils and chickpeas</li><li>➤ Tofu, Quinoa, Dark chocolate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida presented to the labor room at 38 weeks. At 1 pm she is 5 cm dilated. After 4 hours she is 6 cm dilated. What is the next best step? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wait for 4 hours and reexamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LSCS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ARM + oxytocin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Forceps delivery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ARM + oxytocin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ARM + oxytocin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient is experiencing protracted labor, as indicated by a slow progression in cervical dilation (only 1 cm increase in 4 hours). In active labor, the cervix is expected to dilate at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. Here, the cervix dilated from 5 cm to 6 cm in 4 hours, indicating a slow or protracted dilation phase.</li><li>• slow or protracted dilation phase.</li><li>• Management of Protracted Labor:</li><li>• Assessment: Evaluate the cause of slow labor, which could be due to issues with powers (uterine contractions), the passage (pelvis), or the passenger (fetal position or presentation).</li><li>• powers (uterine contractions), the passage (pelvis), or the passenger (fetal position or presentation).</li><li>• Augmentation of Labor:</li><li>• Augmentation of Labor:</li><li>• 1 st step: ARM (Artificial Rupture of Membranes): This can help enhance uterine contractions and allow assessment of the amniotic fluid for the presence of meconium, which could indicate fetal distress. 2 nd step: Oxytocin: If contractions remain inadequate after ARM, oxytocin can be administered to strengthen uterine contractions and accelerate labor progress.</li><li>• 1 st step: ARM (Artificial Rupture of Membranes): This can help enhance uterine contractions and allow assessment of the amniotic fluid for the presence of meconium, which could indicate fetal distress.</li><li>• 2 nd step: Oxytocin: If contractions remain inadequate after ARM, oxytocin can be administered to strengthen uterine contractions and accelerate labor progress.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Wait for 4 hours and reexamine: This is not recommended as it allows prolonged labor to continue without intervention, increasing the risk of complications.</li><li>• Option A. Wait for 4 hours and reexamine:</li><li>• Option B. LSCS (Lower Segment Cesarean Section): While a cesarean section may be necessary if augmentation fails or if there are other indications, it is not the immediate next step without attempting augmentation.</li><li>• Option B. LSCS (Lower Segment Cesarean Section):</li><li>• Option D. Forceps delivery: Forceps can only be applied when the cervix is fully dilated (10 cm), not at 6 cm.</li><li>• Option D. Forceps delivery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a primigravida with protracted labor (slow cervical dilation), the next best step is to perform artificial rupture of membranes (ARM) and administer oxytocin to augment labor and promote adequate uterine contractions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with repeated infections from the lesion shown in the image. The correct statement in relation to the image is: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Derived from first cleft", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Derived from pouch of 1 st and 2 nd arches", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Derived from 1 st and 2 nd arches", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Derived from 3 rd and 4 th arches", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Derived from 1 st and 2 nd arches", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/19/screenshot-2024-02-19-125038.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Derived from 1stand 2ndarches</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Preauricular sinuses or cysts are congenital lesions derived from the first and second branchial arches and are associated with the external ear, often presenting with recurrent infections</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the stages of demographic cycle with same birth rate but variable death rate? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage 1 + stage 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage 2 + stage 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage 3 + stage 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage 4 + stage 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stage 1 + stage 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/image-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stage 1 + stage 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The demographic transition model consists of five stages, each characterized by different levels of crude birth rates (CBR) and crude death rates (CDR). In stages 1 and 2, the birth rate remains high, while the death rate varies.</li><li>• Stage 1 (High Stationary): In this stage, both the CBR (green line) and CDR (red line) are very high, resulting in a relatively stable population size.</li><li>• Stage 1 (High Stationary):</li><li>• Stage 2 (Early Expanding): The CBR remains high, but the CDR starts declining due to improvements in medical facilities, more hospitals, and more doctors. This leads to population growth.</li><li>• Stage 2 (Early Expanding):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• In stage 3 (Late Expanding ), the CBR starts declining for the first time due to the introduction of family planning programs, while the CDR continues to decrease. India is currently in this stage.</li><li>• stage 3 (Late Expanding</li><li>• In stage 4 (Low Stationary ), both the CBR and CDR are low, resulting in a stable population. This combination does not represent stages with the same birth rate but variable death rate.</li><li>• stage 4 (Low Stationary</li><li>• In stage 5 (Declining) , the CBR falls below the CDR, leading to population reduction. This combination does not represent stages with the same birth rate but variable death rate.</li><li>• stage 5 (Declining)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In stages 1 and 2 of the demographic transition model, the crude birth rate remains high, while the crude death rate is high in stage 1 but starts declining in stage 2, making these the stages with the same birth rate but variable death rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a solid organ transplantation, which organ is associated with a higher incidence of rejection? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lungs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intestine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heart", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lungs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lungs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lung transplantation is associated with a higher incidence of rejection compared to other solid organ transplants due to the lungs' constant exposure to environmental antigens, emphasizing the need for vigilant monitoring and immunosuppressive therapy in lung transplant recipients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents with a history of decreased fetal movements and respiratory distress in her newborn. On examination, the neonate appears cyanotic with increased work of breathing. Auscultation reveals bowel sounds in the left hemithorax. Chest x-ray showed multiple air fluid levels. Which of the following congenital anomalies is most likely responsible for these findings? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tetralogy of Fallot", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transposition of great vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tracheoesophageal fistula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital diaphragmatic hernia is most likely responsible for the clinical findings of cyanosis, respiratory distress, and bowel sounds in the chest of a newborn, along with air-fluid levels on chest X-ray.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure pointed in the anatomical snuffbox. (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abductor pollicis longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extensor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "External pollicis longus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cephalic vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. External pollicis longus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-19%20114346.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-19%20114610.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175159.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-175232.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Extensor pollicis longus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The marked muscle tendon the given image is of the extensor pollicis longus in the anatomical snuffbox. It forms the medial boundary of the snuffbox and functions to extend the thumb.</li><li>➤ The marked muscle tendon the given image is of the extensor pollicis longus in the anatomical snuffbox.</li><li>➤ It forms the medial boundary of the snuffbox and functions to extend the thumb.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the lesion seen in a patient with chronic smoking history and weight loss. (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cannon ball appearance", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Septic emboli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cannon ball appearance", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-110155.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cannon ball appearance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ In patients with a significant history of smoking and systemic symptoms like weight loss, the appearance of multiple rounded opacities on chest X-ray should prompt consideration of metastatic disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is true regarding normal semen parameters? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Motility &gt;32%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sperm count &gt; 20 million", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Morphology &lt; 8%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sperm concentration &lt; 40 million/ml", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Motility >32%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-123823.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Motility &gt;32%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the recent guidelines on normal semen parameters, progressive motility should be more than 32%. This is an important indicator of sperm health and fertility potential. The motility of sperm refers to their ability to move efficiently, which is crucial for natural conception as the sperm must travel through the female reproductive tract to fertilize the egg.</li><li>• progressive motility should be more than 32%.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• The other parameters provided in the options are either outdated or incorrect according to the latest guidelines:</li><li>• Option B. Sperm count &gt; 20 million: The current guideline indicates that the sperm count should be more than 16 million per milliliter, not 20 million.</li><li>• Option B. Sperm count &gt; 20 million:</li><li>• Option C. Morphology &lt; 8%: The normal morphology (shape and structure) of sperm should be more than 4%, not less than 8%. This means that at least 4% of the sperm should have a normal shape.</li><li>• Option C. Morphology &lt; 8%:</li><li>• Option D. Sperm concentration &lt; 40 million/ml: The correct parameter is that sperm concentration should be more than 16 million per milliliter, making this option incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Sperm concentration &lt; 40 million/ml:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The correct parameter for normal semen analysis regarding motility is that progressive motility should be more than 32%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which anti-TB drug causes red colour vision defects or optic neuropathy?( FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethambutol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "INH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ethambutol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ethambutol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethambutol, an anti-TB drug, can cause optic neuropathy and red color vision defects, necessitating regular eye exams for patients on this medication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The maternal part of the placenta is called as? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decidua parietalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decidua capsularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decidua basalis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decidua spongiosum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decidua basalis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/1-5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decidua basalis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The decidua basalis is the specific part of the decidua (the endometrium of the pregnant uterus) that directly interacts with the chorion frondosum (the fetal part of the placenta) to form the maternal part of the placenta.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Decidua parietalis: The remaining part of the decidua lining the uterine cavity that is not involved in the formation of the placenta.</li><li>• Option A. Decidua parietalis:</li><li>• Option B. Decidua capsularis: The part of the decidua that covers the embryo and the gestational sac, like a capsule.</li><li>• Option B. Decidua capsularis:</li><li>• Option D. Decidua spongiosum: This term is not typically used to describe parts of the decidua in the context of placentation.</li><li>• Option D. Decidua spongiosum:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decidua basalis: Forms the maternal part of the placenta. Decidua capsularis: Encloses the rest of the gestational sac. Decidua parietalis: Lines the remainder of the uterus.</li><li>➤ Decidua basalis: Forms the maternal part of the placenta.</li><li>➤ Decidua capsularis: Encloses the rest of the gestational sac.</li><li>➤ Decidua parietalis: Lines the remainder of the uterus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient arrives at the emergency department following severe maxillofacial trauma sustained in a road traffic accident. The airway is compromised, and immediate intervention is required. What is the most appropriate immediate management? (FMGE JAN 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tracheostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cricothyroidotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bag mask ventilation with jaw thrust", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cricothyroidotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cricothyroidotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of severe maxillofacial trauma with compromised airway, cricothyroidotomy is the most appropriate immediate management to establish an emergency airway when orotracheal intubation is not feasible or contraindicated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the recommended treatment protocol for plasmodium vivax infection in pregnant females in the 1st trimester with complaints of headache and fever?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ART combined therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chloroquine + Primaquine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chloroquine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/screenshot-2024-05-20-113555.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chloroquine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For plasmodium vivax infection in pregnant females, especially in the first trimester, the recommended treatment is chloroquine.</li><li>• For vivax and ovale malaria, the treatment of choice is chloroquine along with primaquine. However, in pregnancy primaquine is contraindicated.</li><li>• For vivax and ovale malaria, the treatment of choice is chloroquine along with primaquine.</li><li>• However, in pregnancy primaquine is contraindicated.</li><li>• Since the specifically asks about the treatment protocol for a pregnant female in the first trimester with vivax malaria, the appropriate treatment would be chloroquine alone, without primaquine.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. ART combined therapy - This option is incorrect because artemisinin-based combination therapy (ART) is the treatment of choice for falciparum and malariae malaria, not vivax malaria in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. ART combined therapy</li><li>• Option B. Quinine - This option is incorrect because quinine is not the recommended treatment for vivax malaria in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Quinine -</li><li>• Option D. Chloroquine + Primaquine - This option is incorrect because primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Chloroquine + Primaquine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment Protocol</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle is: (FMGE Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "M", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "S", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. G2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) G2 phase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle is the G2-&gt; M (G2&gt;M) phase . During this phase cells are particularly vulnerable to radiation because any damage caused during this phase can lead to immediate catastrophic errors in cell division, leading to cell death.</li><li>➤ G2-&gt; M (G2&gt;M) phase</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Death sentence can be given by: (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Session court judge", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Additional session court", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chief judicial magistrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Both A and B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A. Session court judge and B. Additional session court</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the Indian judicial system, both the Session Court and the Additional Session Court have the authority to pass a death sentence. However, any death sentence given by these courts must be confirmed by the High Court before it can be carried out. The Supreme Court and High Court can also issue death sentences directly.</li><li>• It is important to note that the Assistant Sessions Court Judge and the Additional Sessions Court Judge are not the same. An Assistant Sessions Court Judge is a junior position and does not have the power to issue a death sentence.</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Option. C. Chief judicial magistrate: The Chief Judicial Magistrate does not have the authority to pass a death sentence.</li><li>• Option. C. Chief judicial magistrate:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In India, death sentences can be issued by the Session Court, Additional Session Court, High Court, and Supreme Court. However, any death sentence passed by the Session Court or Additional Session Court must be confirmed by the High Court before it can be executed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infertile patient came with a history of sinus inversus, sinusitis, and pulmonary infection. Which syndrome is likely to occur? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kartagener syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kallaman syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Samter syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kartagener syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-172718.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kartagener syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The triad of situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis is characteristic of Kartagener syndrome, which is a subtype of primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD) resulting from dysfunctional cilia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant female in first trimester developed deep vein thrombosis. She requires anticoagulation. Which of the following will be the preferred drug in this patient? (Fmge Jan 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clopidogrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Betrixaban", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enoxaparin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Enoxaparin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Enoxaparin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred choice for anticoagulation in pregnancy because they do not cross the placenta and thus have a lower risk of fetal harm. Enoxaparin is effective in the treatment and prevention of DVT and is considered safe for use in pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The gold standard investigation for diagnosing endometriosis is? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transvaginal ultrasound", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laparoscopy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Laparoscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Laparoscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laparoscopy is the gold standard investigation for diagnosing endometriosis because it allows direct visualization and biopsy of endometriotic lesions, providing a definitive diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is correct regarding gestational trophoblastic disease? (FMGE JANUARY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complete mole is triploid, partial mole is diploid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GTDs include complete mole, partial mole, invasive mole, choriocarcinoma and placental site trophoblastic tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multi-agent chemotherapy is indicated in low-risk choriocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung metastases indicate a high-risk tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. GTDs include complete mole, partial mole, invasive mole, choriocarcinoma and placental site trophoblastic tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) GTDs include complete mole, partial mole, invasive mole, choriocarcinoma, and placental site trophoblastic tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• GTDs include complete mole, partial mole, invasive mole, choriocarcinoma, and placental site trophoblastic tumor : This is correct. Gestational trophoblastic diseases (GTDs) encompass a range of disorders originating from the trophoblastic tissue, including complete mole, partial mole, invasive mole, choriocarcinoma, and placental site trophoblastic tumor.</li><li>• GTDs include complete mole, partial mole, invasive mole, choriocarcinoma, and placental site trophoblastic tumor</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Complete mole is triploid, partial mole is diploid: This statement is incorrect. A complete mole is diploid (46XX or 46XY), typically arising from fertilization of an egg with no genetic material by one or two sperm. A partial mole is usually triploid (69XXX, 69XXY, or 69XYY), resulting from fertilization of a normal egg by two sperm or by one sperm that duplicates its chromosomes.</li><li>• Option A. Complete mole is triploid, partial mole is diploid:</li><li>• Option C. Multi-agent chemotherapy is indicated in low-risk choriocarcinoma : This statement is incorrect. Low-risk choriocarcinoma is typically treated with single-agent chemotherapy, such as methotrexate. Multi-agent chemotherapy is reserved for high-risk cases.</li><li>• Option C. Multi-agent chemotherapy is indicated in low-risk choriocarcinoma</li><li>• Option D. Lung metastases indicate a high-risk tumor : This statement is incorrect. While lung metastases indicate metastasis, in the context of gestational trophoblastic disease, they often respond well to treatment and are considered low risk when the disease is confined to the lungs and shows good prognosis with methotrexate treatment.</li><li>• Option D. Lung metastases indicate a high-risk tumor</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gestational trophoblastic diseases include a variety of trophoblastic tumors and conditions, and the treatment and prognosis vary depending on the specific type and risk factors associated with each condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 407 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
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(FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ministry of Health and Family Welfare", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ministry of Home Affairs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ministry of Home Affairs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ministry of Home Affairs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ministry of Home Affairs serves as the nodal ministry for disaster management in India, with the district being the nodal center for implementation. NDMA functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs with the Prime Minister as its chairperson.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image of the mascot ‘Sapna’ shown below and identify what does she represent in the national health program: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NLEP, leprosy has a vaccine available", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NLEP, Leprosy has been eliminated", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NLEP, Leprosy is curable, reduce stigma, spread awareness", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "NLEP, leprosy can’t affect children", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. NLEP, Leprosy is curable, reduce stigma, spread awareness", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Ehn5Gf2.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) NLEP, Leprosy is curable, reduce stigma, spread awareness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sapna is the mascot of NLEP who represents successful treatment of leprosy and aims to reduce stigma while spreading awareness about curability of the disease through multi-drug therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Best indicator for chronic malnutrition in children is: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight for age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight for height", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Height for age", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Head circumference", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Height for age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Height for age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Height for age is the best indicator of chronic malnutrition in children, with low values indicating stunting, while weight for height indicates acute malnutrition (wasting) and weight for age indicates acute on chronic malnutrition (underweight).</li><li>➤ chronic malnutrition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a community, a new disease led to 60 cases occurring in a year. There were 12 deaths in the given year due to the same disease. Calculate the case fatality rate for this new disease. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "60%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 20%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_KbCzmU0.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_kvKRlno.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 20%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ It is a proportion (not a rate) that indicates the percentage of cases of a disease that result in death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to OPD with history suggestive of tuberculosis. Culture media used commonly in India is: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loeffler medium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LJ medium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thayer martin medium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Macconkey agar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. LJ medium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_DC84crD.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) LJ medium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LJ (Lowenstein Jensen) medium is the traditional and commonly used culture media for tuberculosis diagnosis in India, along with newer automated liquid culture systems under NTEP.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a normal distribution for weights of a class of college students, Mean value is 82 kg. The calculated SD is 1.5 kg. Calculate the range of weight for 95% students covering 2 SD. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "80.5 - 83.5 kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "79 - 85 kg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "80.5 - 86.5 kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "82 - 88 kg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 79 - 85 kg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 79 – 85 kg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a normal distribution:</li><li>➤ Mean ± 1SD includes 68% of values Mean ± 2SD includes 95% of values Mean ± 3SD includes 99.7% of values</li><li>➤ Mean ± 1SD includes 68% of values</li><li>➤ Mean ± 2SD includes 95% of values</li><li>➤ Mean ± 3SD includes 99.7% of values</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a class trip there were 75 camper school students, of which 50 had been immunized for Measles previously. During the trip, a child developed Measles. Subsequently, upon returning home, 12 more children developed Measles. Calculate the Secondary attack rate for Measles. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "33%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "66%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 50%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_ZGfCsCx.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_AU6uEy3.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 50%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary Attack Rate (SAR) is the number of cases occurring within the incubation period following exposure to a primary case, expressed as a percentage of the total number of exposed susceptible persons. The primary case should be excluded from both numerator and denominator.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For ASHA worker in an urban area, what is the recommended population norm? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "700-1000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1000-1500", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1000-2500", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2000-2500", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1000-2500", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_WoLVX9w.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_lwWTbIc.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1000-2500</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Population norm for USHA (Urban Social Health Activist) worker under NUHM is 1 per 1000-2500 population.</li><li>➤ 1 per 1000-2500 population.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A total of 2000 patients were assessed for HIV. 200 were diagnosed positive. A new ELISA screening test was tested on the same group. It showed 260 as positive, out of which only 130 had the disease. What is the specificity of the test? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "65%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "80%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "93%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 93%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_SAlzyTA.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_3Ir9vB9.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 93%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Specificity is the ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease (true negatives) and is calculated as True Negatives/(True Negatives + False Positives) × 100.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Particle diameter size most commonly responsible for causation of Pneumoconioses in industries is? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5-3 micron", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt;5 micron", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5-10 micron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;10 micron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.5-3 micron", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 0.5-3 micron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dust particles of size 0.5-3 micron are most dangerous for causing pneumoconiosis as they can reach and damage alveoli.</li><li>➤ 0.5-3 micron</li><li>➤ PNEUMOCONIOSES</li><li>➤ PNEUMOCONIOSES</li><li>➤ D/t occupational exposure to dust &lt; 0.5 µ → Always in Brownian motion [Moves in &amp; out] 0.5 - 3µ → Most dangerous particle size 3- 5µ → Trapped by mid respiratory tract 5- 10µ → Trapped by upper resp. tract 10µ → Fall on machine</li><li>➤ D/t occupational exposure to dust</li><li>➤ &lt; 0.5 µ → Always in Brownian motion [Moves in &amp; out]</li><li>➤ 0.5 - 3µ → Most dangerous particle size 3- 5µ → Trapped by mid respiratory tract 5- 10µ → Trapped by upper resp. tract 10µ → Fall on machine</li><li>➤ 0.5 - 3µ → Most dangerous particle size</li><li>➤ 3- 5µ → Trapped by mid respiratory tract 5- 10µ → Trapped by upper resp. tract 10µ → Fall on machine</li><li>➤ 3- 5µ → Trapped by mid respiratory tract</li><li>➤ 5- 10µ → Trapped by upper resp. tract</li><li>➤ 10µ → Fall on machine</li><li>➤ - Common Pneumoconiosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Influenza", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Varicella", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TDaP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Varicella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_X2KmTvx.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_99vK8ud.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Varicella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Live attenuated vaccines (like Varicella, MMR, Yellow fever) are contraindicated during pregnancy, while killed/inactivated vaccines and toxoids are safe and often recommended during pregnancy.</li><li>➤ CONTRAINDICATIONS, AEFI</li><li>➤ Contraindications</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify A and B in the image given: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-Culex, B-Aedes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-Anopheles, B-Culex", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-Culex, B-Anopheles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-Aedes, B-Culex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-Anopheles, B-Culex", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_A0j9rW3.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_5RSINgF.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A-Anopheles, B-Culex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "National Deworming Day is observed on:(FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 January and 10 February", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 February and 10 August", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 February and 1 August", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 March and 1 April", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 10 February and 10 August", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 10 February and 10 August</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Deworming Day is observed on 10th February with a repeat round after 6 months on 10th August , using albendazole for deworming .</li><li>➤ 10th February</li><li>➤ after 6 months on 10th August</li><li>➤ albendazole for deworming</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the deficiency of the nutrient as given in the image of a child: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zinc deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin A deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Copper deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zinc deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_wVxurfa.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Zinc deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Characteristic skin manifestations of acrodermatitis enteropathica as a sign of zinc deficiency, which includes eczematous lesions accompanied by systemic symptoms like diarrhea and brittle nails.</li><li>➤ acrodermatitis enteropathica</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a study based in Delhi from 2012-2022, doctors followed up 100 people who did exercise on a daily basis for a year. Later, they checked who all had developed coronary heart disease among them. This is a type of: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Case control study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prospective study", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cross sectional study", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ecological study", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prospective study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_dqWvmmv.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prospective study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A study that starts with exposure, follows subjects over time, and measures outcomes later is a prospective/cohort study.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the f-IPV dose schedule under the National Immunization Schedule of India? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "At birth, 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks, 16-24 months, 5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "At birth, 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 weeks, 14 weeks, 9 months", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 6 weeks, 14 weeks, 9 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_GjgAjI5.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 6 weeks, 14 weeks, 9 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fractional IPV (f-IPV) schedule in India's National Immunization Schedule consists of three doses at 6 weeks, 14 weeks, and 9 months.</li><li>➤ 6 weeks, 14 weeks, and 9 months.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tourist group was headed by a tour guide. They were seen many times in an area. Which kind of group dynamics does this represent? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crowd", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Band", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herd", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mob", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Herd", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_UhK2M8K.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Herd</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Management of an HIV-positive patient with multiple punctured wound bites caused by a dog is: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only wound management", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rabies vaccine + Wound management", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rabies vaccine + Immunoglobulin + Wound management", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immunoglobulin + Wound management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rabies vaccine + Immunoglobulin + Wound management", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_V2Wp4qC.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rabies vaccine + Immunoglobulin + Wound management</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Class III rabies exposure (multiple punctured wounds) requires complete post-exposure prophylaxis including:</li><li>➤ Local wound management Rabies vaccine Rabies immunoglobulin regardless of patient's immune status.</li><li>➤ Local wound management</li><li>➤ Local wound management</li><li>➤ Rabies vaccine</li><li>➤ Rabies vaccine</li><li>➤ Rabies immunoglobulin regardless of patient's immune status.</li><li>➤ Rabies immunoglobulin regardless of patient's immune status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child has Measles. He presents to OPD at PHC with red congestion of eyes, fever, and coryza. On examination, he has got Bitot spots. Management protocol for this child will be: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Symptomatic treatment + Treat Vit-A deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isolation + Symptomatic treatment + Treat Vit-A deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give MR vaccine + Treat Vit-A deficiency + Treat Vit-A deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give aspirin for fever + Treat Vit-A deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Isolation + Symptomatic treatment + Treat Vit-A deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Isolation + Symptomatic treatment + Treat Vit-A deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management of measles with concurrent Vitamin A deficiency are:</li><li>➤ Isolation Symptomatic treatment Vitamin A supplementation</li><li>➤ Isolation</li><li>➤ Isolation</li><li>➤ Symptomatic treatment</li><li>➤ Symptomatic treatment</li><li>➤ Vitamin A supplementation</li><li>➤ Vitamin A supplementation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Study the management technique given in the diagram. Identify the technique and find out the critical path. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Network analysis and machinery installed", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Equipment ordered and staff training", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Work sampling and machinery installed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Work sampling and staff training", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Network analysis and machinery installed", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_eyVjeQG.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_wXKhRvw.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Network analysis and machinery installed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Network analysis consists of two components:</li><li>➤ PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) - Shows sequence of activities</li><li>➤ PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) - Shows sequence of activities</li><li>➤ PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)</li><li>➤ CPM (Critical Path Method) - Identifies the longest duration path in the network</li><li>➤ CPM (Critical Path Method)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person’s father had colon cancer. He was having bloody stool. So, he just came for the check-up. Before, he had not undergone any screening. He was recommended to do colonoscopy screening. Screening is which level of prevention? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primordial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tertiary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Secondary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_1yyzE43.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Secondary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Screening tests are part of secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of diseases before they progress to more severe stages.</li><li>➤ Levels of Prevention of Disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image regarding health care system levels in the country. Correct arrangement about the levels of health care is: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medical colleges and hospitals are primary level, CHC is secondary level, Subcentre and PHC are tertiary level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subcentre and PHC are primary level, CHC is secondary level, Medical colleges and hospitals are tertiary level", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CHC is primary level, Subcentre and PHC are secondary level, Medical colleges and hospitals are tertiary level", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CHC is primary level, Medical colleges and hospitals are secondary level, Subcentre and PHC are tertiary level", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subcentre and PHC are primary level, CHC is secondary level, Medical colleges and hospitals are tertiary level", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_03rDpmz.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_IWaL2l1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_axzgEld.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Subcentre and PHC are primary level, CHC is secondary level, Medical colleges and hospitals are tertiary level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The three-tier healthcare delivery system in India consists of:</li><li>➤ Primary level: Sub-centers and PHCs (First contact point) Secondary level: CHCs (First referral level) Tertiary level: Medical colleges and hospitals (Second referral level)</li><li>➤ Primary level: Sub-centers and PHCs (First contact point)</li><li>➤ Primary level:</li><li>➤ Secondary level: CHCs (First referral level)</li><li>➤ Secondary level:</li><li>➤ Tertiary level: Medical colleges and hospitals (Second referral level)</li><li>➤ Tertiary level:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "International health agency - DANIDA is supporting which health program of India? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blindness", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vector-borne diseases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blindness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Blindness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The DANIDA (Danish International Development Agency) provides support specifically to India's National Program for Control of Blindness and Visual Impairment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group organized a mass gathering on handwashing awareness. Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Awareness – Interest – Adoption – Evaluation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Awareness – Interest – Evaluation – Trial – Adoption", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interest – Trial – Awareness – Adoption – Evaluation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interest – Awareness – Trial – Adoption – Evaluation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Awareness – Interest – Evaluation – Trial – Adoption", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Awareness – Interest – Evaluation – Trial – Adoption</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for behavior change adoption in health education:</li><li>➤ Awareness → Interest → Evaluation → Trial → Adoption (AITA)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "It is being planned to put posters in the whole city for health promotion. Which type of health education approach is this? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Individual based", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Group based", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mass based", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "One to one", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mass based", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_RdKfQdc.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mass based</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Posters are a mass-based health education approach used for reaching large populations simultaneously with health messages.</li><li>➤ Approaches For Health Communication</li><li>➤ Approaches For Health Communication</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X got married to Ms. Y in 1999. They had overall two children - Ms. M in 2002 and Ms. N in 2009. Mr. X’s father was a bank employee who moved in, post-retirement in 2008, with them along with his wife. Which stage of the family cycle do they belong to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complete contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complete extension", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dissolution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Complete extension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_eDQNpp5.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Complete extension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Complete extension stage of family cycle starts after last childbirth and continues until first child leaves home.</li><li>➤ Family system in INDIA</li><li>➤ Family system in INDIA</li><li>➤ Family cycle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under Integrated Disease Surveillance Program, which of the following diseases are covered under Sentinel surveillance? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TB and URI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malaria and Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cholera and Typhoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HIV and HBV", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HIV and HBV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_QZlJaas.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) HIV and HBV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Under IDSP, sentinel surveillance specifically covers HIV, HBV, HCV, and environmental factors like air and water quality.</li><li>➤ Integrated diseases surveillance project (IDSP)</li><li>➤ Encompasses</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following guidelines are true for the client post-vasectomy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Barrier methods for 4 months and then Semen analysis to confirm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barrier methods for 3 months and then Semen analysis to confirm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barrier methods for 4 months with no need to come back", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barrier methods for 3 months with no need to come back", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Barrier methods for 3 months and then Semen analysis to confirm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_NhFan1c.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_6zkga78.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Barrier methods for 3 months and then Semen analysis to confirm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-vasectomy guidelines require:</li><li>➤ Use of barrier methods for 3 months Mandatory semen analysis after 3 months to confirm success of sterilization</li><li>➤ Use of barrier methods for 3 months</li><li>➤ Mandatory semen analysis after 3 months to confirm success of sterilization</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Combined OCPs are least protective for? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PID", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrial Ca", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovarian Ca", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breast Ca", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Breast Ca", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_frWyBiQ.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_x6s6ZP4.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Breast Ca</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While combined oral contraceptive pills provide protection against several gynecological conditions (PID, endometrial cancer, ovarian cancer), they do not provide significant protection against breast cancer.</li><li>➤ gynecological conditions (PID, endometrial cancer, ovarian cancer),</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a food adulteration disease? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aflatoxicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lathyrism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluorosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epidemic dropsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fluorosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_bcUoncj.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fluorosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Fluorosis is a natural disease caused by excessive fluoride intake through drinking water and is not a food adulteration disease, unlike aflatoxicosis, lathyrism , and epidemic dropsy which are caused by deliberate food contamination or adulteration.</li><li>➤ excessive fluoride intake</li><li>➤ aflatoxicosis, lathyrism</li><li>➤ epidemic dropsy</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration Disease</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration Disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-Year-old child is being screened for malnutrition at a health Centre with a MAC of 105 mm. What is his nutritional status? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal nutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mild malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moderate malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe malnutrition", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Severe malnutrition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_ewgGIpe.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Severe malnutrition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) &lt; 115 mm is one of the diagnostic criteria for severe acute malnutrition (SAM) in children.</li><li>➤ (MUAC) &lt; 115 mm</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct reason for why f-IPV is preferred over OPV? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IPV is more efficacious in combating epidemics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IPV is more cost-effective", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IPV is simpler to administer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only OPV is associated with paralysis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Only OPV is associated with paralysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Only OPV is associated with paralysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key advantage of IPV over OPV is its safety profile, specifically the absence of risk of vaccine-associated paralytic polio (VAPP) and vaccine-derived poliovirus (VDPV).</li><li>➤ absence of risk of vaccine-associated paralytic polio (VAPP) and vaccine-derived poliovirus (VDPV).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After cataract surgery, a patient developed vision problems. OCT finding is shown below. This is associated with which syndrome? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central Serous Retinopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Elschnig Pearls", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Irvine-Gass syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posner-Schlossman syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Irvine-Gass syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20124314.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20124357.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20124437.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20124450.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Irvine-Gass syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Irvine-Gass syndrome, is a well-known complication in which cystoid macular edema (CME occurs 4 to 6 weeks after cataract surgery . It is characterized by the development of cystoid spaces in the macula, which appear as hyporeflective spaces on Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) .</li><li>• cystoid macular edema (CME</li><li>• 4 to 6 weeks after cataract surgery</li><li>• Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)</li><li>• This syndrome is commonly associated with:</li><li>• Post-cataract surgery patients , particularly those with pre-existing conditions like diabetes or uveitis or glaucoma patients on PG analogues. Inflammatory mediators such as prostaglandins and cytokines are released post-surgery, leading to increased vascular permeability and leakage of fluid into the macular layers. Fluorescein angiography (FFA) typically shows a petalloid pattern of hyperfluorescence due to leakage from perifoveal capillaries.</li><li>• Post-cataract surgery patients , particularly those with pre-existing conditions like diabetes or uveitis or glaucoma patients on PG analogues.</li><li>• Post-cataract surgery patients</li><li>• diabetes or uveitis</li><li>• or</li><li>• glaucoma patients on PG analogues.</li><li>• Inflammatory mediators such as prostaglandins and cytokines are released post-surgery, leading to increased vascular permeability and leakage of fluid into the macular layers.</li><li>• prostaglandins and cytokines</li><li>• Fluorescein angiography (FFA) typically shows a petalloid pattern of hyperfluorescence due to leakage from perifoveal capillaries.</li><li>• petalloid pattern of hyperfluorescence</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR):</li><li>• Option A. Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR):</li><li>• CSR is characterized by serous detachment of the neurosensory retina at the macula due to increased choroidal permeability. OCT shows serous elevation of the retina without cystic spaces, unlike the cystoid spaces in CME. FFA typically shows an inkblot or smokestack pattern .</li><li>• CSR is characterized by serous detachment of the neurosensory retina at the macula due to increased choroidal permeability.</li><li>• serous detachment of the neurosensory retina</li><li>• OCT shows serous elevation of the retina without cystic spaces, unlike the cystoid spaces in CME.</li><li>• serous elevation of the retina</li><li>• FFA typically shows an inkblot or smokestack pattern .</li><li>• an inkblot or smokestack pattern</li><li>• Option B. Elschnig Pearls:</li><li>• Option B. Elschnig Pearls:</li><li>• These are seen in cases of posterior capsular opacification (PCO) , which can occur months to years after cataract surgery . This condition is seen on the posterior capsule of the lens bag and not on Retina Patients complain of gradual, painless vision deterioration , unlike the acute onset of CME.</li><li>• These are seen in cases of posterior capsular opacification (PCO) , which can occur months to years after cataract surgery .</li><li>• posterior capsular opacification (PCO)</li><li>• months to years after cataract surgery</li><li>• This condition is seen on the posterior capsule of the lens bag and not on Retina</li><li>• This condition is seen on the posterior capsule of the lens bag and not on Retina</li><li>• Patients complain of gradual, painless vision deterioration , unlike the acute onset of CME.</li><li>• gradual, painless vision deterioration</li><li>• Option D. Posner-Schlossman Syndrome:</li><li>• Option D. Posner-Schlossman Syndrome:</li><li>• Also known as glaucomatocyclitic crisis , it is an inflammatory condition that presents with elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) and mild anterior uveitis . It does not cause cystoid macular edema (CME) or changes seen in Irvine-Gass syndrome.</li><li>• Also known as glaucomatocyclitic crisis , it is an inflammatory condition that presents with elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) and mild anterior uveitis .</li><li>• glaucomatocyclitic crisis</li><li>• elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) and mild anterior uveitis</li><li>• It does not cause cystoid macular edema (CME) or changes seen in Irvine-Gass syndrome.</li><li>• cystoid macular edema (CME)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Irvine-Gass syndrome (cystoid macular edema) is a complication of cataract surgery that presents 4 to 6 weeks postoperatively. It is best diagnosed using OCT and treated with NSAIDs or steroids.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Presence of different refractive powers (-2D in right eye and +1D in left eye) in a 6-year-old child with normal visual acuity and retinal findings on fundus examination, is suggestive of: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anisometropia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mixed Astigmatism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypermetropia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anisometropia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anisometropia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Anisometropia refers to a significant difference in refractive power between the two eyes. In this case:</li><li>• Anisometropia</li><li>• The right eye has myopia (-2D) . The left eye has hypermetropia (+1D) . This meets the criteria for anisometropia , which is defined as a difference of at least 2.5 diopters between the two eyes. A difference in refractive errors between both eyes leads to different image sizes (anisokonia). If untreated, the brain may suppress the image from one eye, potentially leading to anisometropic amblyopia . It can be corrected using glasses, contact lenses, or refractive surgery if needed.</li><li>• The right eye has myopia (-2D) .</li><li>• myopia (-2D)</li><li>• The left eye has hypermetropia (+1D) .</li><li>• hypermetropia (+1D)</li><li>• This meets the criteria for anisometropia , which is defined as a difference of at least 2.5 diopters between the two eyes.</li><li>• anisometropia</li><li>• 2.5 diopters</li><li>• A difference in refractive errors between both eyes leads to different image sizes (anisokonia).</li><li>• If untreated, the brain may suppress the image from one eye, potentially leading to anisometropic amblyopia .</li><li>• anisometropic amblyopia</li><li>• It can be corrected using glasses, contact lenses, or refractive surgery if needed.</li><li>• glasses, contact lenses, or refractive surgery</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Mixed Astigmatism:</li><li>• Option B. Mixed Astigmatism:</li><li>• In mixed astigmatism, both myopia and hypermetropia occur within the same eye , affecting different meridians. This patient has different refractive errors in each eye , not within the same eye.</li><li>• In mixed astigmatism, both myopia and hypermetropia occur within the same eye , affecting different meridians.</li><li>• both myopia and hypermetropia occur within the same eye</li><li>• This patient has different refractive errors in each eye , not within the same eye.</li><li>• each eye</li><li>• Option C. Myopia:</li><li>• Option C. Myopia:</li><li>• Myopia (near-sightedness) occurs when light focuses in front of the retina , causing blurred distance vision. Since the left eye is hypermetropic , this case is not pure myopia .</li><li>• Myopia (near-sightedness) occurs when light focuses in front of the retina , causing blurred distance vision.</li><li>• in front of the retina</li><li>• Since the left eye is hypermetropic , this case is not pure myopia .</li><li>• left eye is hypermetropic</li><li>• not pure myopia</li><li>• Option D. Hypermetropia:</li><li>• Option D. Hypermetropia:</li><li>• Hypermetropia (far-sightedness) occurs when light focuses behind the retina , making near vision more difficult. Since the right eye is myopic , the child does not have bilateral hypermetropia .</li><li>• Hypermetropia (far-sightedness) occurs when light focuses behind the retina , making near vision more difficult.</li><li>• behind the retina</li><li>• Since the right eye is myopic , the child does not have bilateral hypermetropia .</li><li>• right eye is myopic</li><li>• does not have bilateral hypermetropia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anisometropia is a condition where the two eyes have significantly different refractive errors, which can lead to amblyopia if untreated. Early correction with spectacles or contact lenses is essential to prevent visual impairment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following findings is not associated with Pancoast tumor? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exophthalmos", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anhidrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Miosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Exophthalmos", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20124751.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Exophthalmos</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pancoast tumor (superior sulcus tumor) is a lung tumor at the apex that affects the sympathetic pathway leading to Horner's syndrome. The classic triad of Horner's syndrome includes ptosis (due to paralysis of Müller's muscle), miosis (due to paralysis of dilator pupillae), and anhidrosis (due to involvement of sweat glands). Patients exhibit apparent enophthalmos (not exophthalmos) due to the narrowing of the palpebral aperture from ptosis, making the eye appear sunken.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ptosis : Is a classic finding in Pancoast tumor due to involvement of sympathetic supply to Müller's muscle, causing 2mm of ptosis.</li><li>• Option B. Ptosis</li><li>• Option C. Anhidrosis : Is a characteristic finding due to involvement of sympathetic supply to sweat glands on the affected side.</li><li>• Option C. Anhidrosis</li><li>• Option D. Miosis : Is present due to unopposed parasympathetic action on the pupil following sympathetic denervation of the dilator pupillae.</li><li>• Option D. Miosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pancoast tumor can invade the sympathetic chain, causing Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis). However, it does NOT cause exophthalmos, which is more commonly seen in conditions like thyroid eye disease or orbital tumors</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The mother of a 5-month-old child complains that the child’s upper eyelid moves up and down during breastfeeding. This disappears when the baby is not being fed. What can be the likely cause? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3rd cranial nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lagophthalmos", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marcus Gunn jaw-winking syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Marcus Gunn jaw-winking syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20124811.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Marcus Gunn jaw-winking syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Marcus Gunn jaw-winking syndrome is characterized by an abnormal connection between the 3rd and 5th cranial nerve nuclei. The levator palpebrae superioris (normally supplied by CN III) receives aberrant innervation from the pterygoid muscles (supplied by CN V). This results in synkinetic movement of the upper eyelid during jaw movements like sucking, chewing, or speaking. Treatment involves complete disinsertion of the levator muscle (to prevent the synkinetic movements) followed by frontalis sling surgery (for correction of Ptosis).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 3rd cranial nerve palsy : Results in complete ptosis without any movement. There is no correlation with jaw movements.</li><li>• Option A. 3rd cranial nerve palsy</li><li>• Option B. Lagophthalmos : Refers to inability to close the eyes completely, typically seen in facial nerve palsy. Does not involve synkinetic movements with jaw activity.</li><li>• Option B. Lagophthalmos</li><li>• Option D. Myasthenia gravis : An autoimmune disorder affecting acetylcholine receptors. Shows progressive ptosis throughout the day without correlation to jaw movements. Responds to ice pack test and edrophonium (Tensilon) test.</li><li>• Option D. Myasthenia gravis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marcus Gunn jaw-winking syndrome as a congenital synkinetic movement of the upper eyelid during jaw activity due to misdirection between CN III and CN V.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cover-uncover test can be used in all conditions EXCEPT: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Latent nystagmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Latent squint", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Manifest squint", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Visual acuity &amp; Amblyopia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Visual acuity & Amblyopia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20124902.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Visual acuity &amp; Amblyopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The cover-uncover test is a clinical examination technique used to detect and assess strabismus (ocular misalignment). It is particularly useful for both manifest squint (tropia) and latent squint (phoria), as well as latent nystagmus. However, it has no role in assessing visual acuity or diagnosing amblyopia.</li><li>• In the cover-uncover test, when examining a patient with tropia (manifest squint), first a cover test is performed where the normal eye is covered to observe if the squinting eye takes up fixation. Then, in the cover-uncover test, the cover is removed to observe the movement of the previously covered eye (secondary deviation).</li><li>• For phoria (latent squint), the cover-uncover test is used to break fusion and reveal the hidden misalignment. When one eye is covered, fusion is disrupted, and upon uncovering, the eye movement can be observed as the eyes attempt to regain fusion.</li><li>• In latent nystagmus, covering one eye can induce or intensify nystagmus, which can be observed when the cover is removed.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Latent nystagmus : Incorrect. The cover-uncover test is useful for diagnosing latent nystagmus. When one eye is covered in patients with latent nystagmus, the uncovered eye may exhibit nystagmus (eye dancing movement) that was not visible when both eyes were open. The test helps reveal this hidden nystagmus.</li><li>• Option A. Latent nystagmus</li><li>• Option B. Latent squint : Incorrect. The cover-uncover test is specifically designed to detect latent squint (phoria). In phoria, both eyes appear straight when open, but when fusion is disrupted by covering one eye, the hidden misalignment is revealed. Upon uncovering, the eye movement that occurs to regain fusion can be observed.</li><li>• Option B. Latent squint</li><li>• Option C. Manifest squint : Incorrect. For manifest squint (tropia), the cover test is initially performed by covering the normal eye to observe if the squinting eye takes up fixation. Then, the cover-uncover test is used to assess the secondary deviation as the cover is removed from the normal eye. This helps differentiate between different types of tropias.</li><li>• Option C. Manifest squint</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cover-uncover test is a clinical examination technique used to detect and assess strabismus (ocular misalignment) including manifest squint (tropia), latent squint (phoria), and latent nystagmus, but it has no role in assessing visual acuity or diagnosing amblyopia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve is responsible for eliciting the corneal reflex during the corneal wisp test? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oculomotor nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abducens nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trigeminal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20124950.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Trigeminal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The corneal reflex (also known as the blink reflex) is a protective mechanism that causes involuntary blinking when the cornea is touched. This reflex involves both sensory and motor components. During a corneal wisp test, a cotton wisp or similar object is brought in from the side (to avoid eliciting a visual reflex) and gently touches the cornea.</li><li>• The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) serves as the afferent (sensory) pathway for this reflex. Specifically, the ophthalmic division (V1) of the trigeminal nerve carries the sensory information from the cornea when it is stimulated. The sensory information is then processed, and an efferent (motor) response is generated via the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), which innervates the orbicularis oculi muscle, resulting in the blink.</li><li>• The corneal sensitivity can be tested more precisely using an instrument called an aesthesiometer, which measures the minimal stimulus required to elicit the blink reflex. Corneal sensation is characteristically decreased in viral corneal ulcers, making this test diagnostically valuable.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Oculomotor nerve : Incorrect. The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) is responsible for most eye movements by controlling four of the six extraocular muscles (superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior oblique). It also innervates the levator palpebrae superioris muscle (responsible for eyelid elevation) and carries parasympathetic fibers that control pupillary constriction and lens accommodation. It has no role in corneal sensation or the blink reflex pathway.</li><li>• Option A. Oculomotor nerve</li><li>• Option C. Abducens nerve : Incorrect. The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for abduction of the eye (moving the eye outward, away from the nose). It has no sensory function and does not participate in the corneal reflex pathway.</li><li>• Option C. Abducens nerve</li><li>• Option D. Facial nerve : Incorrect, but partially involved in the reflex arc. While the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is involved in the corneal reflex, it serves as the efferent (motor) pathway, not the afferent pathway. The facial nerve innervates the orbicularis oculi muscle, which causes the eyelid to close during blinking. The question specifically asks about the nerve responsible for \"eliciting\" the reflex, which refers to the sensory component (trigeminal nerve), not the motor response.</li><li>• Option D. Facial nerve</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corneal reflex is mediated by the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) as the afferent (sensory) pathway and the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) as the efferent (motor) pathway.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient, a flying foreign body injured his eye. This led to heterochromia iridis. Ocular findings showed iris pigmentation. Which substance is responsible for the deposition in his eye? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glass", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wood", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aluminum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iron", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20125041.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20125114.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Heterochromia iridis refers to a difference in color between the two irises or different parts of the same iris. In this case, the heterochromia is acquired due to an intraocular foreign body injury. The pigmentation of the iris associated with a metallic foreign body is characteristic of siderosis bulbi, which is caused by iron deposition.</li><li>• Siderosis bulbi occurs when an iron-containing foreign body remains in the eye for a prolonged period. The iron gradually dissolves and deposits throughout the ocular tissues, including the corneal endothelium, iris, lens, and retina. This deposition gives the affected iris a darker, rusty-brown appearance compared to the normal eye, resulting in heterochromia.</li><li>• The most common scenario for such injuries is a \"chisel and hammer\" accident, where a person is striking metal with a hammer, causing metal fragments to fly off at high velocity and penetrate the eye. If the patient does not seek immediate medical attention, the retained intraocular foreign body can lead to progressive damage through iron toxicity.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Glass : Incorrect. Glass is relatively inert when retained within the eye and does not cause significant tissue reaction or pigmentation changes. It doesn't dissolve to release substances that would cause heterochromia iridis. While glass foreign bodies should be removed if possible, they don't cause the characteristic pigmentation changes seen with iron.</li><li>• Option B. Glass</li><li>• Option C. Wood : Incorrect. Wood foreign bodies typically cause severe inflammatory reactions and potential infections rather than pigmentation changes. Wood is organic and tends to harbor microorganisms, leading to endophthalmitis or orbital cellulitis. It would not cause the heterochromia iridis.</li><li>• Option C. Wood</li><li>• Option D. Aluminum : Incorrect. While aluminum is a metal, it is relatively inert compared to iron and copper. Aluminum foreign bodies do not typically cause the extensive pigmentation seen in siderosis bulbi. They can cause a local inflammatory reaction but do not dissolve and distribute throughout the eye to cause widespread tissue staining and heterochromia.</li><li>• Option D. Aluminum</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron-containing intraocular foreign bodies cause siderosis bulbi, a condition characterized by iron deposition throughout ocular tissues, resulting in heterochromia iridis and potential damage to various eye structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person experiences proptosis when he bends down. This can be due to: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbital varices", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbital cellulitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroid eye disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cavernous sinus thrombosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Orbital varices", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20125208.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Orbital varices</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Proptosis (forward protrusion of the eyeball) that occurs or worsens when a person bends down and resolves when standing upright is a characteristic presentation of orbital varices. Orbital varices are venous malformations consisting of dilated, thin-walled vessels that distend when venous pressure increases, such as during Valsalva maneuver or when the head is in a dependent position (bending down).</li><li>• When the patient bends forward, gravity and increased venous pressure cause the varicose veins to fill with blood and expand, pushing the eyeball forward and resulting in temporary proptosis. When the patient returns to an upright position, the venous pressure normalizes, the varices deflate, and the proptosis resolves.</li><li>• This positional or intermittent nature of the proptosis is a key diagnostic feature of orbital varices, distinguishing it from other causes of proptosis that present with constant or fixed protrusion of the eyeball.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Orbital cellulitis : Incorrect. Orbital cellulitis is an acute infection of the orbital tissues posterior to the orbital septum. It presents with sudden onset of painful proptosis, restricted ocular motility, conjunctival chemosis, and often systemic symptoms like fever. The proptosis in orbital cellulitis is fixed and does not vary with position or Valsalva maneuver. It is typically accompanied by signs of inflammation such as redness, warmth, and tenderness of the eyelids.</li><li>• Option B. Orbital cellulitis</li><li>• Option C. Thyroid eye disease : Incorrect. Thyroid eye disease (TED) is the most common cause of proptosis in adults. It is an autoimmune inflammatory disorder associated with dysfunction of the thyroid gland. The proptosis in TED is persistent and bilateral (though often asymmetric), rather than positional or intermittent. It is characterized by lid retraction, restricted extraocular movements, and exposure keratopathy. The proptosis in TED does not vary with position changes or Valsalva maneuver.</li><li>• Option C. Thyroid eye disease</li><li>• Option D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis: Incorrect. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition caused by infection or thrombosis of the cavernous sinus. It typically presents with bilateral proptosis, severe headache, fever, and ophthalmoplegia due to involvement of cranial nerves III, IV, VI, and V1 that pass through the cavernous sinus. The proptosis is fixed and progressive rather than positional or intermittent, and it is accompanied by other signs of inflammation and cranial nerve dysfunction.</li><li>• Option D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orbital varices cause position-dependent proptosis that worsens when bending forward or during Valsalva maneuver due to increased venous pressure causing distension of the abnormal vessels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct regarding Indirect Ophthalmoscopy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Erect and real image is formed", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Need to keep condenser close to patient’s eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "15x magnification is provided", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3-5x magnification is provided", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3-5x magnification is provided", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20125255.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20125401.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 3-5x magnification is provided</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Indirect ophthalmoscopy is a technique used to examine the fundus of the eye from a distance, typically at arm's length. It provides a stereoscopic (three-dimensional) view of the retina with a wide field of view, allowing visualization up to the ora serrata (peripheral retina). One of its key characteristics is the lower magnification compared to direct ophthalmoscopy.</li><li>• Indirect ophthalmoscopy provides approximately 3-5x magnification of the fundus. This lower magnification is a trade-off for the wider field of view that it offers. The 20 diopter lens is most commonly used for indirect ophthalmoscopy, and the examination is typically performed with the patient in a lying position.</li><li>• The indirect ophthalmoscope consists of a head-mounted light source and a handheld condensing lens (usually 20D). This setup creates an inverted and reverted real image between the observer and the condensing lens, providing binocular vision and excellent stereopsis, which helps in detecting elevations and depressions in the retina.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Erect and real image is formed : Incorrect. In indirect ophthalmoscopy, an inverted and real image is formed. This is in contrast to direct ophthalmoscopy, which produces an erect and virtual image. The inverted nature of the image in indirect ophthalmoscopy requires the examiner to mentally reorient the image for proper interpretation.</li><li>• Option A. Erect and real image is formed</li><li>• Option B. Need to keep condenser close to patient's eye : Incorrect. In indirect ophthalmoscopy, the examiner stays at a distance (around arm's length) from the patient, and the condensing lens is held approximately 1-2 inches in front of the patient's eye. This is in contrast to direct ophthalmoscopy, where the examiner needs to be close to the patient's eye (approximately 2-3 cm).</li><li>• Option B. Need to keep condenser close to patient's eye</li><li>• Option C. 15x magnification is provided : Incorrect. Direct ophthalmoscopy provides approximately 15x magnification, not indirect ophthalmoscopy. The higher magnification in direct ophthalmoscopy allows for detailed examination of small structures but limits the field of view compared to indirect ophthalmoscopy.</li><li>• Option C. 15x magnification is provided</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Indirect ophthalmoscopy provides a wide field of view with lower magnification (3-5x) compared to direct ophthalmoscopy, forming an inverted and real image that allows examination of the peripheral retina up to the ora serrata with good stereopsis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with right-sided defect in both eyes with central sparing. What can be the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic tract lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic chiasma lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heteronymous hemianopia with central sparing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/DR%20GAURAV%201.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with a right-sided visual field defect in both eyes with central (macular) sparing. This pattern is characteristic of a homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, which is caused by a lesion in the posterior cerebral artery (PCA) territory affecting the occipital cortex.</li><li>• Homonymous means \"same-sided,\" referring to the fact that the same side of the visual field is affected in both eyes (in this case, the right side). The term hemianopia indicates that approximately half of the visual field is lost. The macular sparing (preservation of central vision) occurs because the macular representation in the occipital cortex often has dual blood supply from both the posterior and middle cerebral arteries, making it less vulnerable to a single vascular insult.</li><li>• This visual field defect is typically caused by a left occipital lobe lesion, as visual pathways cross at the optic chiasm, resulting in contralateral field defects. The most common cause is a posterior cerebral artery (PCA) occlusion or embolism affecting the occipital lobe.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Optic tract lesion : Incorrect. Optic tract lesions also produce homonymous hemianopia, but they typically do not spare the macula. Additionally, optic tract lesions often cause incongruous defects (slightly different patterns in each eye) and may be associated with relative afferent pupillary defect. The defects from optic tract lesions tend to be less symmetric between the two eyes compared to occipital cortex lesions.</li><li>• Option B. Optic tract lesion</li><li>• Option C. Optic chiasma lesion : Incorrect. Lesions at the optic chiasm typically produce bitemporal hemianopia (loss of the temporal visual fields in both eyes) due to compression of the crossing nasal retinal fibers. This pattern is described as a heteronymous hemianopia, not a homonymous one. Common causes include pituitary adenomas, craniopharyngiomas, or meningiomas. Chiasmal lesions do not produce the right-sided defect in both eyes.</li><li>• Option C. Optic chiasma lesion</li><li>• Option D. Heteronymous hemianopia with central sparing : Incorrect. Heteronymous hemianopia refers to visual field defects on opposite sides in the two eyes (e.g., right temporal and left nasal, which is bitemporal hemianopia; or right nasal and left temporal, which is binasal hemianopia). This pattern is typically seen with lesions affecting the optic chiasm or the immediate pre- or post-chiasmal pathways.</li><li>• Option D. Heteronymous hemianopia with central sparing</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing is characterized by loss of the same half of the visual field in both eyes with preservation of central vision, typically resulting from an occipital lobe lesion in the territory of the posterior cerebral artery (contralateral to the field defect).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child presented with epiphora. Probing revealed a soft block at 7 mm. This can be treated by: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extranasal DCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endoscopic DCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conjunctival DCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dacryocystectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Conjunctival DCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20181324.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Conjunctival DCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Epiphora refers to the overflow of tears onto the face due to inadequate drainage. In this case, probing revealed a blockage at the 7 mm mark of the lacrimal drainage system.</li><li>• The lacrimal drainage system begins at the punctum and continues through the canaliculus, which has a 2 mm vertical segment followed by an 8 mm horizontal segment. The canaliculi then join to form a common canaliculus before entering the lacrimal sac. The total distance from the punctum to the lacrimal sac is approximately 10 mm.</li><li>• Since the block is at 7 mm, it is located within the horizontal portion of the canaliculus, before reaching the lacrimal sac. When the obstruction is in the canaliculus itself, neither external DCR nor endoscopic DCR would be effective because these procedures address nasolacrimal duct obstruction, not canalicular obstruction.</li><li>• Conjunctival DCR (also known as conjunctivodacryocystorhinostomy or CDCR) is the appropriate procedure, as it bypasses the obstructed canalicular system entirely by creating a new passage directly from the conjunctival sac to the nasal cavity. This is typically done using a Jones tube, which is a glass or silicone tube that connects the medial canthus to the middle meatus of the nose.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Extranasal DCR : Incorrect. External dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) is a procedure that creates a new pathway between the lacrimal sac and the nasal cavity by removing the bone between them. It is indicated when the obstruction is in the nasolacrimal duct, not in the canaliculus. Since the block in this case is at 7 mm (within the canaliculus), an external DCR would not address the site of obstruction.</li><li>• Option A. Extranasal DCR</li><li>• Option B. Endoscopic DCR : Incorrect. Endoscopic DCR, like external DCR, creates a passage between the lacrimal sac and nasal cavity, but it is performed using an endoscope through the nasal cavity without an external incision. It is also used for nasolacrimal duct obstructions, not canalicular obstructions. Since the block in this case is in the canaliculus, endoscopic DCR would not be effective.</li><li>• Option B. Endoscopic DCR</li><li>• Option D. Dacryocystectomy : Incorrect. Dacryocystectomy involves the surgical removal of the lacrimal sac. It is typically performed in cases of chronic dacryocystitis with an atonic (non-functioning) lacrimal sac or in certain lacrimal sac tumors. This procedure completely eliminates the tear drainage system without providing an alternative drainage pathway, resulting in permanent epiphora. It is not appropriate for a canalicular obstruction in a young child were preserving or creating a functional drainage system is the goal.</li><li>• Option D. Dacryocystectomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Canalicular obstructions (as evidenced by a block at 7 mm from the punctum) are treated with conjunctival DCR (CDCR) using a Jones tube, which bypasses the obstructed lacrimal drainage system by creating a direct connection between the conjunctival sac and the nasal cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the side effect of PG analogue Latanoprost? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbital cellulitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Keratitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyperemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyperemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prostaglandin (PG) analogues are commonly used first-line medications for glaucoma treatment. The most characteristic side effect of these medications is hyperemia, which is redness or inflammation of the conjunctiva. This occurs because prostaglandin analogues are inflammatory mediators that can cause local vascular changes and conjunctival irritation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Orbital cellulitis : Incorrect. PG analogues do not cause orbital cellulitis, which is an infection of the orbital tissues.</li><li>• Option A. Orbital cellulitis</li><li>• Option C. Uveitis : Incorrect. While PG analogues are contraindicated in patients with existing uveitis (as they might worsen the condition), they do not directly cause uveitis by themselves. They are, in fact, very rarely associated with uveitis as a side effect.</li><li>• Option C. Uveitis</li><li>• Option D. Keratitis : Incorrect. Similar to uveitis, PG analogues are contraindicated in patients with existing keratitis, but they do not directly cause keratitis. Patients with pre-existing keratitis might find their condition worsened, but the medication itself does not induce keratitis.</li><li>• Option D. Keratitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue used for glaucoma, commonly causes conjunctival hyperemia, iris pigmentation changes, and eyelash growth. Hyperemia is the most frequently reported side effect.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Till how many hours, eye donation is viable? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 hrs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 hrs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 hrs", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "8 hrs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6 hrs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 6 hrs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In tropical countries, eye donation is viable for 6 hours from the time of death. During this critical time window, the cornea can be harvested for transplantation.</li><li>• Keep the entire eyeball or corneal-scleral button covered Short-term preservation: Moist chamber storage (up to 48 hours). Medium-term preservation: McCarey-Kaufman (MK) medium or Optisol-GS (up to 7-14 days). Long-term preservation: Organ culture or cryopreservation</li><li>• Keep the entire eyeball or corneal-scleral button covered</li><li>• Short-term preservation: Moist chamber storage (up to 48 hours).</li><li>• Short-term preservation:</li><li>• Medium-term preservation: McCarey-Kaufman (MK) medium or Optisol-GS (up to 7-14 days).</li><li>• Medium-term preservation:</li><li>• Long-term preservation: Organ culture or cryopreservation</li><li>• Long-term preservation:</li><li>• Storage :</li><li>• Storage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eye donation is viable for 6 hours after death, and proper preservation techniques are crucial to maintain corneal tissue quality.</li><li>➤ Time duration: In a tropical country – 4-6 hrs Colder countries – 12-24 hrs Depends on the health of the donor cornea Entire eyeball is retrieved and kept in a moist chamber for transportation to the eye bank In the eye bank-corneoscleral button is cut and preserved Most common organ transplant, no blood grouping matching or HLA matching is required</li><li>➤ Time duration: In a tropical country – 4-6 hrs Colder countries – 12-24 hrs</li><li>➤ In a tropical country – 4-6 hrs Colder countries – 12-24 hrs</li><li>➤ In a tropical country – 4-6 hrs</li><li>➤ Colder countries – 12-24 hrs</li><li>➤ Depends on the health of the donor cornea</li><li>➤ Entire eyeball is retrieved and kept in a moist chamber for transportation to the eye bank</li><li>➤ In the eye bank-corneoscleral button is cut and preserved</li><li>➤ Most common organ transplant, no blood grouping matching or HLA matching is required</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An unvaccinated 4-year-old child presents with rashes, fever, and Bitot spot. This can be managed appropriately by: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isolation and Vitamin A supplementation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Supportive care only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles vaccine and Vitamin A supplementation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles vaccine only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Isolation and Vitamin A supplementation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Isolation and Vitamin A supplementation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• When a child presents with measles (characterized by rashes, fever, and Bitot spots), the management involves two critical components:</li><li>• Isolation: Measles is highly contagious, so the child must be isolated to prevent spread to other individuals, especially those who are unvaccinated or immunocompromised. Vitamin A Supplementation: Vitamin A is crucial in managing measles because: It reduces the severity of the disease Decreases complications Helps reduce mortality, especially in children with vitamin A deficiency Supports immune system function during the infection</li><li>• Isolation: Measles is highly contagious, so the child must be isolated to prevent spread to other individuals, especially those who are unvaccinated or immunocompromised.</li><li>• Vitamin A Supplementation: Vitamin A is crucial in managing measles because: It reduces the severity of the disease Decreases complications Helps reduce mortality, especially in children with vitamin A deficiency Supports immune system function during the infection</li><li>• It reduces the severity of the disease Decreases complications Helps reduce mortality, especially in children with vitamin A deficiency Supports immune system function during the infection</li><li>• It reduces the severity of the disease</li><li>• Decreases complications</li><li>• Helps reduce mortality, especially in children with vitamin A deficiency</li><li>• Supports immune system function during the infection</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Supportive care only: Incorrect. While supportive care is important, it is insufficient. Vitamin A supplementation is a critical intervention in measles management.</li><li>• Option B. Supportive care only:</li><li>• Option C. Measles vaccine and Vitamin A supplementation: Incorrect. Once a child has active measles, vaccination is no longer beneficial. The vaccine is preventive, not a treatment for ongoing infection.</li><li>• Option C. Measles vaccine and Vitamin A supplementation:</li><li>• Option D. Measles vaccine only: Incorrect. A child with active measles cannot be vaccinated during the acute phase of the illness. Vaccination is ineffective and potentially harmful at this stage.</li><li>• Option D. Measles vaccine only:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In active measles infection, isolation and Vitamin A supplementation are the key management strategies, with Vitamin A playing a crucial role in reducing disease severity and complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Eyelid crusting and gritty sensation between the lids is associated with: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dry eye syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meibomian gland dysfunction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic blepharitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chronic blepharitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20182902.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chronic blepharitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chronic blepharitis is a persistent inflammation of the eyelids characterized by:</li><li>• Eyelid crusting (dried secretions along the eyelid margins) Gritty sensation between the eyelids Chronic discharge Inflammation of the lid margins</li><li>• Eyelid crusting (dried secretions along the eyelid margins)</li><li>• Gritty sensation between the eyelids</li><li>• Chronic discharge</li><li>• Inflammation of the lid margins</li><li>• The typical management includes:</li><li>• Oral doxycycline (100 mg twice daily) Topical antibiotics Lid hygiene: Cleaning lids with mild detergents (e.g., Johnson's baby shampoo) Using hypochlorous solution Frequent lid cleaning to remove crusts and debris</li><li>• Oral doxycycline (100 mg twice daily)</li><li>• Topical antibiotics</li><li>• Lid hygiene: Cleaning lids with mild detergents (e.g., Johnson's baby shampoo) Using hypochlorous solution Frequent lid cleaning to remove crusts and debris</li><li>• Cleaning lids with mild detergents (e.g., Johnson's baby shampoo) Using hypochlorous solution Frequent lid cleaning to remove crusts and debris</li><li>• Cleaning lids with mild detergents (e.g., Johnson's baby shampoo)</li><li>• Using hypochlorous solution</li><li>• Frequent lid cleaning to remove crusts and debris</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Conjunctivitis : Incorrect. While conjunctivitis can cause eye discomfort, it typically presents with more pronounced redness, discharge, and does not specifically cause eyelid crusting.</li><li>• Option A. Conjunctivitis</li><li>• Option B. Dry eye syndrome : Incorrect. Dry eye syndrome causes discomfort and a gritty sensation, but does not typically result in significant eyelid crusting.</li><li>• Option B. Dry eye syndrome</li><li>• Option C. Meibomian gland dysfunction : Partially related, but not the most comprehensive answer. While meibomian gland dysfunction can contribute to blepharitis, chronic blepharitis encompasses a broader inflammatory condition of the eyelids.</li><li>• Option C. Meibomian gland dysfunction</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic blepharitis is characterized by persistent eyelid inflammation, manifesting as crusting and a gritty sensation, requiring comprehensive management including oral antibiotics, topical treatments, and rigorous lid hygiene.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate Amplitude in case of near vision of 20 cm and far point of infinity. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 5D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 5D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• To calculate the amplitude of accommodation, we use the formula:</li><li>• Amplitude = 1/Near Point (in meters)</li><li>• Calculation steps:</li><li>• Convert 20 cm to meters: 20 cm = 0.2 meters Apply the formula: 1/0.2 = 5 diopters</li><li>• Convert 20 cm to meters: 20 cm = 0.2 meters</li><li>• Apply the formula: 1/0.2 = 5 diopters</li><li>• When the far point is at infinity (no refractive error), the amplitude is simply calculated by taking the inverse of the near point distance in meters.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The amplitude of accommodation using the formula: 1/Near Point (in meters), with the far point at infinity resulting in a direct inverse calculation of the near point distance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient suffered a blunt trauma to the eye 6 months ago. He now complains of blurred vision. On examination, the following finding is seen. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iridodialysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vossius ring", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cycloiriditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ankyloblepharon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iridodialysis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20130257.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20130327.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/BJk0GkW.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20130412.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20130423.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iridodialysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Iridodialysis is a specific type of traumatic eye injury characterized by:</li><li>• Separation of the iris from its root (ciliary body attachment) Typically caused by blunt trauma Results in a D-shaped pupil Occurs due to direct mechanical force disrupting the iris attachment</li><li>• Separation of the iris from its root (ciliary body attachment)</li><li>• Typically caused by blunt trauma</li><li>• Results in a D-shaped pupil</li><li>• Occurs due to direct mechanical force disrupting the iris attachment</li><li>• Other potential traumatic eye findings include:</li><li>• Sphincter tear Hyphema (blood in anterior chamber) Traumatic cataract Vossius ring (iron deposition on anterior lens capsule)</li><li>• Sphincter tear</li><li>• Hyphema (blood in anterior chamber)</li><li>• Traumatic cataract</li><li>• Vossius ring (iron deposition on anterior lens capsule)</li><li>• Retinal or zonular dialysis</li><li>• Retinal or zonular dialysis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Vossius ring : Incorrect. While a Vossius ring is a traumatic finding (pigment deposition on anterior lens capsule), it does not explain the D-shaped pupil or significant structural change described in the question.</li><li>• Option B. Vossius ring</li><li>• Option C. Cycloiriditis : Incorrect. This refers to inflammation of the ciliary body and iris, which is not specifically associated with blunt trauma or a D-shaped pupil.</li><li>• Option C. Cycloiriditis</li><li>• Option D. Ankyloblepharon : Incorrect. This is an adhesion of the upper and lower eyelids, which is not related to the described traumatic finding or D-shaped pupil.</li><li>• Option D. Ankyloblepharon</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iridodialysis is a specific traumatic eye injury characterized by separation of the iris from its root, typically resulting from blunt force trauma and presenting with a distinctive D-shaped pupil.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which metabolic product is responsible for causing cataract in a patient with a long-standing history of diabetes? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Galactitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fructose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sorbitol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sorbitol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sorbitol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In patients with long-standing diabetes, excess glucose metabolism leads to cataract formation through the sorbitol pathway:</li><li>• Excess glucose is converted to sorbitol by the enzyme aldose reductase Normally, sorbitol would be further metabolized to fructose, but in diabetes: The lens lacks sufficient sorbitol dehydrogenase enzyme Sorbitol accumulates inside the lens Causes osmotic stress and water accumulation Leads to membrane damage and cataract formation</li><li>• Excess glucose is converted to sorbitol by the enzyme aldose reductase</li><li>• Normally, sorbitol would be further metabolized to fructose, but in diabetes: The lens lacks sufficient sorbitol dehydrogenase enzyme Sorbitol accumulates inside the lens Causes osmotic stress and water accumulation Leads to membrane damage and cataract formation</li><li>• The lens lacks sufficient sorbitol dehydrogenase enzyme Sorbitol accumulates inside the lens Causes osmotic stress and water accumulation Leads to membrane damage and cataract formation</li><li>• The lens lacks sufficient sorbitol dehydrogenase enzyme</li><li>• Sorbitol accumulates inside the lens</li><li>• Causes osmotic stress and water accumulation</li><li>• Leads to membrane damage and cataract formation</li><li>• The mechanism involves:</li><li>• Accumulation of sorbitol Increased osmotic pressure Fluid collection in lens Structural damage to lens proteins</li><li>• Accumulation of sorbitol</li><li>• Increased osmotic pressure</li><li>• Fluid collection in lens</li><li>• Structural damage to lens proteins</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Galactitol : Incorrect. While similar to sorbitol, galactitol is not the primary metabolic product causing diabetic cataracts.</li><li>• Option A. Galactitol</li><li>• Option B. Fructose : Incorrect. Fructose is a potential end product of sorbitol metabolism, not the primary cause of diabetic cataract formation.</li><li>• Option B. Fructose</li><li>• Option D. Mannitol : Incorrect. Mannitol is a sugar alcohol used as a diuretic, not involved in the diabetic cataract formation process.</li><li>• Option D. Mannitol</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diabetes, sorbitol accumulation in the lens due to insufficient enzyme activity leads to osmotic stress and cataract formation through the aldose reductase pathway.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a history of trauma and the following radiological image. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbital Lateral Wall Fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbital Medial Wall Fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blow Out Fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Orbital Cellulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Blow Out Fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20130534.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Blow Out Fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A blow out fracture is characterized by:</li><li>• Tear drop sign on radiological imaging Fracture of the orbital floor Herniation of contents into the maxillary sinus Typically results from blunt trauma</li><li>• Tear drop sign on radiological imaging</li><li>• Fracture of the orbital floor</li><li>• Herniation of contents into the maxillary sinus</li><li>• Typically results from blunt trauma</li><li>• Clinical findings include:</li><li>• Restriction of upward gaze Diplopia in up gaze Decreased sensation in infraorbital cheek area Potential enophthalmos (sunken eye)</li><li>• Restriction of upward gaze</li><li>• Diplopia in up gaze</li><li>• Decreased sensation in infraorbital cheek area</li><li>• Potential enophthalmos (sunken eye)</li><li>• Diagnostic confirmation is done through:</li><li>• Forced duction test (FDT) to differentiate restrictive from paralytic pathology</li><li>• Forced duction test (FDT) to differentiate restrictive from paralytic pathology</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Orbital Lateral Wall Fracture : Incorrect. Does not match the characteristic tear drop sign of floor fracture.</li><li>• Option A. Orbital Lateral Wall Fracture</li><li>• Option B. Orbital Medial Wall Fracture : Incorrect. Location does not correspond to the radiological findings.</li><li>• Option B. Orbital Medial Wall Fracture :</li><li>• Option D. Orbital Cellulitis : Incorrect. This is an inflammatory condition, not a traumatic fracture.</li><li>• Option D. Orbital Cellulitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize the radiological tear drop sign as a key indicator of an orbital floor blow out fracture following blunt trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Cataract, and Salt &amp; Pepper Retinopathy. This is suggestive of which intrauterine infection? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toxoplasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Varicella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rubella", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rubella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20130610.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rubella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Congenital Rubella Syndrome is characterized by the classic triad:</li><li>• C: Cataract (nuclear pearly or lamellar) H: Heart disease (Patent Ductus Arteriosus) D: Deafness</li><li>• C: Cataract (nuclear pearly or lamellar)</li><li>• Cataract</li><li>• H: Heart disease (Patent Ductus Arteriosus)</li><li>• D: Deafness</li><li>• Additional specific findings include:</li><li>• Salt and pepper retinopathy Micro-ophthalmia Potential glaucoma Characteristic nuclear pearly cataract</li><li>• Salt and pepper retinopathy</li><li>• Salt and pepper retinopathy</li><li>• Micro-ophthalmia</li><li>• Potential glaucoma</li><li>• Characteristic nuclear pearly cataract</li><li>• The syndrome results from maternal rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly in the first trimester.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Toxoplasma : Incorrect. While it can cause congenital infections, it does not match the specific triad described.</li><li>• Option A. Toxoplasma</li><li>• Toxoplasma triad: Intracranial calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus</li><li>• Toxoplasma triad: Intracranial calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus</li><li>• Option B. Varicella : Incorrect. Does not cause the described constellation of symptoms.</li><li>• Option B. Varicella</li><li>• Option D. Cytomegalovirus : Incorrect. While it can cause congenital infections, the specific triad is not consistent with CMV.</li><li>• Option D. Cytomegalovirus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classic CHD (Cataract, Heart disease, Deafness) triad of Congenital Rubella Syndrome, with salt and pepper retinopathy as a characteristic finding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks of gestation is undergoing routine obstetric evaluation. She has a history of Rh incompatibility, and recent laboratory results show the presence of elevated maternal anti-D antibody titers. The obstetrician is concerned about possible fetal anemia. Which of the following methods is most commonly used to assess fetal anemia in this situation? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cord blood sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chorionic villus sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peak systolic velocity in the fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Umbilical artery Doppler", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Peak systolic velocity in the fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Peak systolic velocity in the fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Fetal anemia in Rh-incompatible pregnancies is primarily assessed using Doppler ultrasound of the fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA) . The peak systolic velocity (PSV) of the MCA increases in response to anemia due to a brain-sparing effect , where blood flow is redistributed to essential organs like the brain.</li><li>• Doppler ultrasound of the fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA)</li><li>• brain-sparing effect</li><li>• When maternal anti-D titers are elevated , the fetus is monitored using MCA Doppler ultrasonography . If the MCA-PSV is &gt;1.5 multiples of the median (MoM) for gestational age, this suggests moderate-to-severe fetal anemia . If significant anemia is suspected, cordocentesis (cord blood sampling) may be performed for direct measurement of fetal hemoglobin levels and possible intrauterine transfusion .</li><li>• When maternal anti-D titers are elevated , the fetus is monitored using MCA Doppler ultrasonography .</li><li>• anti-D titers are elevated</li><li>• MCA Doppler ultrasonography</li><li>• If the MCA-PSV is &gt;1.5 multiples of the median (MoM) for gestational age, this suggests moderate-to-severe fetal anemia .</li><li>• MCA-PSV is &gt;1.5 multiples of the median (MoM)</li><li>• moderate-to-severe fetal anemia</li><li>• If significant anemia is suspected, cordocentesis (cord blood sampling) may be performed for direct measurement of fetal hemoglobin levels and possible intrauterine transfusion .</li><li>• cordocentesis (cord blood sampling)</li><li>• intrauterine transfusion</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cord blood sampling (Cordocentesis):</li><li>• Option A. Cord blood sampling (Cordocentesis):</li><li>• This is the gold standard for diagnosing fetal anemia but is an invasive procedure associated with risks like preterm labor and fetal loss. It is only performed when MCA Doppler findings suggest severe anemia .</li><li>• This is the gold standard for diagnosing fetal anemia but is an invasive procedure associated with risks like preterm labor and fetal loss. It is only performed when MCA Doppler findings suggest severe anemia .</li><li>• gold standard</li><li>• invasive</li><li>• MCA Doppler findings suggest severe anemia</li><li>• Option B. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS):</li><li>• Option B. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS):</li><li>• This is used primarily for chromosomal and genetic analysis in the first trimester . It has no role in detecting fetal anemia .</li><li>• This is used primarily for chromosomal and genetic analysis in the first trimester .</li><li>• chromosomal and genetic analysis</li><li>• first trimester</li><li>• It has no role in detecting fetal anemia .</li><li>• no role in detecting fetal anemia</li><li>• Option D. Umbilical artery Doppler:</li><li>• Option D. Umbilical artery Doppler:</li><li>• This is used in cases of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) to assess placental insufficiency . It is not useful for detecting fetal anemia .</li><li>• This is used in cases of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) to assess placental insufficiency .</li><li>• intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)</li><li>• placental insufficiency</li><li>• It is not useful for detecting fetal anemia .</li><li>• not useful for detecting fetal anemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The peak systolic velocity of the fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA-PSV) is the most commonly used non-invasive method to assess fetal anemia in cases of Rh incompatibility . A value greater than 1.5 MoM indicates moderate-to-severe anemia , warranting further invasive testing like cordocentesis .</li><li>➤ peak systolic velocity of the fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA-PSV)</li><li>➤ non-invasive</li><li>➤ fetal anemia</li><li>➤ Rh incompatibility</li><li>➤ 1.5 MoM</li><li>➤ moderate-to-severe anemia</li><li>➤ cordocentesis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer treated with radiation therapy presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath and a non-productive cough for the past 3 weeks. A chest X-ray reveals a hazy opacification over the left lung field. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infective pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiation pneumonitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung metastasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radiation pneumonitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20162247.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Radiation pneumonitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Radiation pneumonitis is the most likely diagnosis. This condition typically develops 3-12 weeks after radiation therapy. The features supporting this diagnosis are:</li><li>• History of radiation therapy for breast cancer Progressive shortness of breath and non-productive cough Chest X-ray showing hazy opacification in the left lung field (corresponding to the radiation field near the breast) Timing of symptoms (3 weeks post-radiation): If left untreated, radiation pneumonitis can progress to radiation-induced fibrosis after several years.</li><li>• History of radiation therapy for breast cancer</li><li>• Progressive shortness of breath and non-productive cough</li><li>• Chest X-ray showing hazy opacification in the left lung field (corresponding to the radiation field near the breast)</li><li>• Timing of symptoms (3 weeks post-radiation): If left untreated, radiation pneumonitis can progress to radiation-induced fibrosis after several years.</li><li>• Early (Acute) Radiation Pneumonitis:</li><li>• Early (Acute) Radiation Pneumonitis:</li><li>• Occurs 3-12 weeks post-radiation therapy Caused by direct radiation damage to lung tissue leading to inflammation Symptoms include: Progressive dyspnea Non-productive cough Sometimes low-grade fever Radiological findings: Hazy opacification confined to the radiation port Often shows a straight edge corresponding to radiation field May show ground-glass appearance</li><li>• Occurs 3-12 weeks post-radiation therapy</li><li>• Caused by direct radiation damage to lung tissue leading to inflammation</li><li>• Symptoms include: Progressive dyspnea Non-productive cough Sometimes low-grade fever</li><li>• Progressive dyspnea Non-productive cough Sometimes low-grade fever</li><li>• Progressive dyspnea</li><li>• Non-productive cough</li><li>• Sometimes low-grade fever</li><li>• Radiological findings: Hazy opacification confined to the radiation port Often shows a straight edge corresponding to radiation field May show ground-glass appearance</li><li>• Hazy opacification confined to the radiation port Often shows a straight edge corresponding to radiation field May show ground-glass appearance</li><li>• Hazy opacification confined to the radiation port</li><li>• Often shows a straight edge corresponding to radiation field</li><li>• May show ground-glass appearance</li><li>• Late (Chronic) Radiation Pneumonitis:</li><li>• Late (Chronic) Radiation Pneumonitis:</li><li>• Develops 6-12 months after radiation Can progress to radiation fibrosis Shows permanent scarring and volume loss in affected area</li><li>• Develops 6-12 months after radiation</li><li>• Can progress to radiation fibrosis</li><li>• Shows permanent scarring and volume loss in affected area</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pulmonary embolism:</li><li>• Option A. Pulmonary embolism:</li><li>• More acute onset of sudden dyspnea , often with pleuritic chest pain and possibly hemoptysis . Usually diagnosed via CT pulmonary angiography rather than chest X-ray.</li><li>• More acute onset of sudden dyspnea , often with pleuritic chest pain and possibly hemoptysis .</li><li>• acute onset</li><li>• sudden dyspnea</li><li>• hemoptysis</li><li>• Usually diagnosed via CT pulmonary angiography rather than chest X-ray.</li><li>• CT pulmonary angiography</li><li>• Option B. Infective pneumonia:</li><li>• Option B. Infective pneumonia:</li><li>• Presents with productive cough, fever, leukocytosis . Chest X-ray may show lobar consolidation , rather than hazy opacification .</li><li>• Presents with productive cough, fever, leukocytosis .</li><li>• productive cough, fever, leukocytosis</li><li>• Chest X-ray may show lobar consolidation , rather than hazy opacification .</li><li>• lobar consolidation</li><li>• hazy opacification</li><li>• Option D. Lung metastasis:</li><li>• Option D. Lung metastasis:</li><li>• Typically presents as multiple nodular lesions on chest imaging. Less likely to cause progressive dyspnea and non-productive cough alone.</li><li>• Typically presents as multiple nodular lesions on chest imaging.</li><li>• multiple nodular lesions</li><li>• Less likely to cause progressive dyspnea and non-productive cough alone.</li><li>• dyspnea and non-productive cough</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radiation pneumonitis is a delayed inflammatory reaction to radiation therapy, presenting with progressive dyspnea, non-productive cough, and localized hazy opacification on imaging. Diagnosis is clinical and radiologic, and treatment involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.</li><li>➤ delayed inflammatory reaction</li><li>➤ progressive dyspnea, non-productive cough, and localized hazy opacification</li><li>➤ corticosteroids</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents with progressive dysphagia that is more pronounced for liquids than solids. He reports occasional regurgitation of undigested food and has significant weight loss over the past few months. A barium swallow study is performed. Which radiological sign is most likely to be observed? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corkscrew esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apple-core lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rat-tail sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "String sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rat-tail sign", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20162308.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rat-tail sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation strongly suggests achalasia cardia, a primary motility disorder of the esophagus.</li><li>• Dysphagia more pronounced for liquids than solids (characteristic of achalasia) The pattern is explained by the pathophysiology: liquids lack the mass and gravity effect to push through the non-relaxing lower esophageal sphincter, while solids can generate more pressure to pass through Regurgitation of undigested food Weight loss due to feeding difficulties The bird beak sign, showing a smooth, symmetrical tapering of the distal esophagus, is the classic radiological finding in achalasia on barium swallow. The rat tail sign, often used for carcinoma esophagus has also been described for achalasia.</li><li>• Dysphagia more pronounced for liquids than solids (characteristic of achalasia)</li><li>• The pattern is explained by the pathophysiology: liquids lack the mass and gravity effect to push through the non-relaxing lower esophageal sphincter, while solids can generate more pressure to pass through</li><li>• Regurgitation of undigested food</li><li>• Weight loss due to feeding difficulties</li><li>• The bird beak sign, showing a smooth, symmetrical tapering of the distal esophagus, is the classic radiological finding in achalasia on barium swallow.</li><li>• The rat tail sign, often used for carcinoma esophagus has also been described for achalasia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Corkscrew esophagus : This appearance is seen in diffuse esophageal spasm, a different motility disorder with intermittent dysphagia.</li><li>• Option A. Corkscrew esophagus</li><li>• Option B. Apple-core lesion: This is typically seen in colonic carcinoma, appearing as a symmetric narrowing with overhanging edges. It's not associated with esophageal disorders.</li><li>• Option B. Apple-core lesion:</li><li>• Option C. String sign: This is typically seen in CHPS in the pylorus and TB and Chron’s disease in the ileum and represents narrowing.</li><li>• Option C. String sign:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In achalasia, dysphagia is characteristically worse for liquids than solids due to the underlying motility disorder affecting lower esophageal sphincter relaxation, with bird beak sign and rat tail sign being the characteristic radiological finding on barium swallow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The imaging shows a detailed cross-sectional view of the esophageal wall and surrounding structures. What is the primary use of this imaging modality? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Identifying the cause of dysphagia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staging of esophageal cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assessing cardiac and aortic pathology", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Evaluation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Staging of esophageal cancer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20162319.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Staging of esophageal cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) is primarily used for staging esophageal cancer, particularly for T (tumor) and N (nodal) staging. Its high-resolution imaging capabilities allow detailed visualization of the esophageal wall layers and surrounding lymph nodes. However, for M (metastasis) staging, PET-CT remains the investigation of choice, as is true for most cancers.</li><li>• Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) is primarily used for staging esophageal cancer, particularly for T (tumor) and N (nodal) staging. Its high-resolution imaging capabilities allow detailed visualization of the esophageal wall layers and surrounding lymph nodes. However, for M (metastasis) staging, PET-CT remains the investigation of choice, as is true for most cancers.</li><li>• Additional uses of EUS include:</li><li>• Assessment of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors, particularly gastrinomas in the duodenum Evaluation of biliary microlithiasis.</li><li>• Assessment of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors, particularly gastrinomas in the duodenum</li><li>• Evaluation of biliary microlithiasis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Identifying the cause of dysphagia: While EUS can visualize esophageal structures, it's not the primary tool for diagnosing causes of dysphagia. Standard endoscopy and barium studies are more commonly used for this purpose.</li><li>• Option A. Identifying the cause of</li><li>• dysphagia:</li><li>• Option C. Assessing cardiac and aortic pathology: This is done using transesophageal echocardiography (TEE), which is a different procedure where the ultrasound probe faces anteriorly to examine the heart, rather than examining the esophageal wall itself.</li><li>• Option C. Assessing cardiac and aortic pathology:</li><li>• Option D. Evaluation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) : 24-hour pH monitoring is the standard test for GERD evaluation. EUS is not routinely used for this purpose.</li><li>• Option D. Evaluation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endoscopic ultrasound is the investigation of choice for T and N staging of esophageal cancer, while PET-CT is used for M staging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the X-ray shown below: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pulmonary edema", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20162335.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pulmonary edema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pulmonary edema is characterized by the bat-wing appearance on chest X-ray, which consists of bilateral perihilar opacities with a central distribution . This pattern is due to fluid accumulation in the lung interstitium and alveoli, commonly seen in cardiogenic pulmonary edema .</li><li>• bat-wing appearance</li><li>• bilateral perihilar opacities with a central distribution</li><li>• cardiogenic pulmonary edema</li><li>• Typical X-ray findings of pulmonary edema include:</li><li>• Typical X-ray findings of pulmonary edema include:</li><li>• Bilateral perihilar opacities (bat-wing distribution) Kerley B lines (horizontal lines indicating interstitial edema) Cardiomegaly (if due to heart failure) Pleural effusions in severe cases</li><li>• Bilateral perihilar opacities (bat-wing distribution)</li><li>• Bilateral perihilar opacities (bat-wing distribution)</li><li>• Kerley B lines (horizontal lines indicating interstitial edema)</li><li>• Kerley B lines</li><li>• Cardiomegaly (if due to heart failure)</li><li>• Cardiomegaly</li><li>• Pleural effusions in severe cases</li><li>• Pleural effusions</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pleural Effusion: Characterized by blunting of the costophrenic angles and a meniscus sign due to fluid accumulation in the pleural space.</li><li>• Option A. Pleural Effusion:</li><li>• blunting of the costophrenic angles and a meniscus sign</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary Fibrosis: Shows reticular opacities in the lower lung zones, often with honeycombing and volume loss. It does not have a central perihilar distribution.</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary Fibrosis:</li><li>• reticular opacities</li><li>• Option D. Hydrothorax: Similar to pleural effusion, hydrothorax refers to fluid accumulation in the pleural space , seen as homogeneous opacity with a fluid level</li><li>• Option D. Hydrothorax:</li><li>• fluid accumulation in the pleural space</li><li>• homogeneous opacity with a fluid level</li><li>• </li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulmonary edema presents with a bat-wing appearance on chest X-ray, characterized by bilateral perihilar opacities, Kerley B lines, and signs of interstitial fluid accumulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old man presents with severe abdominal distension, pain, and absolute constipation for the past two days. Physical examination reveals a distended, tympanic abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Small bowel volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sigmoid volvulus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caecal volvulus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sigmoid volvulus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20162348.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20162400.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20162411.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20162506.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sigmoid volvulus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The case presents classical features of sigmoid volvulus, which is confirmed by the radiological findings showing:</li><li>• Classic \"coffee bean\" sign - two dilated bowel loops without haustra Common in elderly patients Presents with severe abdominal distension and constipation The diagnosis is supported by typical patient demographics (elderly) and clinical presentation (constipation, distension). Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type of colonic volvulus, particularly in older patients with chronic constipation.</li><li>• Classic \"coffee bean\" sign - two dilated bowel loops without haustra</li><li>• Common in elderly patients</li><li>• Presents with severe abdominal distension and constipation The diagnosis is supported by typical patient demographics (elderly) and clinical presentation (constipation, distension). Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type of colonic volvulus, particularly in older patients with chronic constipation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Small bowel volvulus : Shows different radiological pattern with \"step ladder\" appearance of dilated small bowel loops. Small bowel shows complete mucosal folds (valvulae connivence’s), unlike the pattern seen here.</li><li>• Option A. Small bowel volvulus</li><li>• Option B. Intestinal obstruction : While present here, this is a general term. The specific type (sigmoid volvulus) can be identified by the characteristic radiological appearance. Small bowel obstruction shows complete mucosal folds, while large bowel obstruction shows haustra.</li><li>• Option B. Intestinal obstruction</li><li>• Option D. Caecal volvulus : Shows a single dilated loop with haustral pattern forming a \"C\" sign, unlike the double-loop \"coffee bean\" appearance seen in sigmoid volvulus. Cecal volvulus is less common than sigmoid volvulus.</li><li>• Option D. Caecal volvulus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sigmoid volvulus presents with the characteristic \"coffee bean\" sign on X-ray (two dilated loops without haustra) and typically occurs in elderly patients with chronic constipation.</li><li>➤ Sigmoid Volvulus vs Cecal Volvulus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old male, previously diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder, has become aggressive with his neighbors, is speaking rapidly, and is sleeping very little. He also exhibits hyperactive behavior after discontinuing his prescribed medication. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bipolar disorder (manic episode)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Substance-induced mood disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bipolar disorder (manic episode)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_HBvFl1Y.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bipolar disorder (manic episode)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The classic presentation of a manic episode: rapid speech, decreased need for sleep, hyperactivity, and aggressive behavior, especially in context of medication discontinuation in a previously diagnosed psychiatric patient.</li><li>➤ Symptoms of Mania</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of seeing snakes crawling and an inability to recognize his own family members. He reports his last alcohol intake was 48 hours ago. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alcohol-induced psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Delirium tremens", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcoholic hallucinosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Delirium tremens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_wAy4Vn6.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Delirium tremens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delirium Tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal syndrome presenting 48-72 hours after last alcohol intake, characterized by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female reports episodes of binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting. Which of the following acid-base disturbances is she most likely to have? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metabolic alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_69bRkjB.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Metabolic alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bulimia Nervosa</li><li>➤ Bulimia Nervosa</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A doctor asks a patient about her age. The patient responds: \"You know, doctor, I’m from a village. We were married at a very young age—at 12—with my husband, who is just 5 years older than me. Then, I had two kids when I was around 18 or something. Now, I look like their older sister. I’m just 32, doctor. \"What is the thought disorder most likely displayed by the patient? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Circumstantiality", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tangentiality", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Derailment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flight of ideas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Circumstantiality", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Hl0zjvh.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Circumstantiality</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thought Disorders</li><li>➤ Thought Disorders</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What kind of symptoms does the term affective flattening imply? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Positive symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Negative symptoms", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Affect symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cognitive symptoms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Negative symptoms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_2dAIiAY.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Negative symptoms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady presents to the hospital after having a fight with her husband. She reports that she is unable to speak. However, all neurological and physical examinations are normal, and she does not seem concerned about her health status. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "La belle indifférence", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malingering", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Somatic symptom disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Generalised Anxiety Disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. La belle indifférence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_HKkltDg.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) La belle indifférence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ La belle indifférence is a characteristic feature of conversion disorder, and is marked by paradoxical lack of concern about serious symptoms, typically occurring after psychological stressors.</li><li>➤ Comparison of Somatic and Related Disorders</li><li>➤ Comparison of Somatic and Related Disorders</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman diagnosed with schizophrenia had been compliant with her prescribed olanzapine for several months. However, she discontinued the treatment. Which of the following is the most likely reason for her discontinuation? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight gain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tardive dyskinesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute dystonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Akathisia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Weight gain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Weight gain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Weight gain is a significant side effect of olanzapine (second highest among atypical antipsychotics after clozapine) and is often a major reason for treatment non-compliance, especially in young patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for hypertension in pregnancy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methyldopa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enalapril", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Enalapril", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165047.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Enalapril</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Enalapril and other ACE inhibitors (drugs ending in -pril), ARBs (drugs ending in -sartan) are contraindicated in pregnancy as they can cause severe fetal abnormalities. The safe antihypertensive drugs in pregnancy can be remembered by the mnemonic</li><li>• \"BETTER MOTHER CARE During Hypertensive Pregnancy \":</li><li>• \"BETTER MOTHER CARE During Hypertensive Pregnancy</li><li>• B (Beta blockers) - Labetalol (DOC) M (Methyldopa) C (Clonidine) D (Dihydropyridine CCBs like nifedipine) HY (Hydralazine) P (Prazosin)</li><li>• B (Beta blockers) - Labetalol (DOC)</li><li>• B (Beta blockers) - Labetalol (DOC)</li><li>• M (Methyldopa)</li><li>• M (Methyldopa)</li><li>• C (Clonidine)</li><li>• C (Clonidine)</li><li>• D (Dihydropyridine CCBs like nifedipine)</li><li>• D (Dihydropyridine CCBs like nifedipine)</li><li>• HY (Hydralazine)</li><li>• HY (Hydralazine)</li><li>• P (Prazosin)</li><li>• P (Prazosin)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Nifedipine: Calcium channel blockers are safe in pregnancy and help control blood pressure effectively</li><li>• Option A. Nifedipine:</li><li>• Option B. Labetalol: Beta blocker is drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy</li><li>• Option B. Labetalol:</li><li>• Option C. Methyldopa: Safe centrally acting antihypertensive that has been used extensively in pregnancy</li><li>• Option C. Methyldopa:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated in all trimesters of pregnancy due to risk of fetal abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Adverse effect of bleomycin on which system can be worsened by radiation therapy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nerves", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastric", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pulmonary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165101.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165113.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165125.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pulmonary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bleomycin is metabolized by bleomycin hydrolase enzyme which is deficient in lungs and skin. This makes these two organs most susceptible to bleomycin toxicity.</li><li>• In lungs, bleomycin causes pulmonary fibrosis. When combined with radiation therapy, pulmonary fibrosis can be significantly worsened as radiation itself can cause lung damage and fibrosis. This makes pulmonary toxicity a major concern when using bleomycin with radiation therapy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Skin: While skin is also susceptible to bleomycin toxicity due to deficiency of bleomycin hydrolase (causing flagellated pigmentation), radiation therapy does not specifically worsen the cutaneous side effects.</li><li>• Option A. Skin:</li><li>• Option B. Nerves: Bleomycin does not have significant neurotoxicity as its main adverse effects. Radiation therapy does not interact with bleomycin to cause neurological problems.</li><li>• Option B. Nerves:</li><li>• Option D. Gastric: Bleomycin does not have significant gastrointestinal toxicity as a major side effect. Radiation therapy does not specifically worsen any gastrointestinal effects of bleomycin.</li><li>• Option D. Gastric:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bleomycin is Metabolized by bleomycin hydrolase which is Deficient at</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following antidiabetic drugs is preferred in a patient with heart and kidney disease? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biguanides", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GLP-1 analogs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SGLT-2 inhibitors", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sulfonylurea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. SGLT-2 inhibitors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165138.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) SGLT-2 inhibitors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SGLT-2 inhibitors (drugs ending in -gliflozin like canagliflozin, empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) are the preferred choice because:</li><li>• They work by inhibiting SGLT-2 in proximal tubules, preventing reabsorption of both glucose and sodium They reduce mortality in patients with congestive heart failure They slow the progression of diabetic kidney disease Their mechanism of promoting glucose and sodium excretion provides cardiovascular and renal benefits beyond glycemic control</li><li>• They work by inhibiting SGLT-2 in proximal tubules, preventing reabsorption of both glucose and sodium</li><li>• They reduce mortality in patients with congestive heart failure</li><li>• They slow the progression of diabetic kidney disease</li><li>• Their mechanism of promoting glucose and sodium excretion provides cardiovascular and renal benefits beyond glycemic control</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Biguanides (Incorrect)</li><li>• Option A. Biguanides (Incorrect)</li><li>• While effective for diabetes, metformin (Biguanides) has limitations in patients with significant kidney disease Must be used cautiously or avoided in patients with renal impairment due to risk of lactic acidosis Does not provide direct cardiovascular benefits like SGLT-2 inhibitors</li><li>• While effective for diabetes, metformin (Biguanides) has limitations in patients with significant kidney disease</li><li>• Must be used cautiously or avoided in patients with renal impairment due to risk of lactic acidosis</li><li>• Does not provide direct cardiovascular benefits like SGLT-2 inhibitors</li><li>• Option B. GLP-1 analogs (Incorrect)</li><li>• Option B. GLP-1 analogs (Incorrect)</li><li>• While they have some cardiovascular benefits, they don't have the same level of evidence for combined cardiac and renal protection as SGLT-2 inhibitors</li><li>• While they have some cardiovascular benefits, they don't have the same level of evidence for combined cardiac and renal protection as SGLT-2 inhibitors</li><li>• Option D. Sulfonylureas (Incorrect)</li><li>• Option D. Sulfonylureas (Incorrect)</li><li>• Associated with risk of hypoglycemia No proven cardiovascular benefits May need dose adjustment in kidney disease Can cause fluid retention which may worsen heart failure</li><li>• Associated with risk of hypoglycemia</li><li>• No proven cardiovascular benefits</li><li>• May need dose adjustment in kidney disease</li><li>• Can cause fluid retention which may worsen heart failure</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SGLT-2 inhibitors are the preferred antidiabetic agents in patients with coexisting heart and kidney disease due to their proven benefits in reducing cardiovascular mortality and slowing the progression of diabetic kidney disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of N-acetylcysteine in paracetamol toxicity? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It replenishes glutathione levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzyme responsible for NAPQI formation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It acts as a direct antioxidant to neutralize NAPQI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It enhances renal clearance of NAPQI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It replenishes glutathione levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165208.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It replenishes glutathione levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• N-acetylcysteine works by replenishing glutathione levels in paracetamol toxicity. Paracetamol is metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes to form NAPQI (N-acetyl-para-benzoquinoneimine), which is a toxic metabolite.</li><li>• Normally, glutathione in the liver neutralizes NAPQI. However, toxicity occurs in three scenarios:</li><li>• High doses of paracetamol leading to excessive NAPQI formation Chronic alcoholism causing increased CYP enzyme activity Liver disease reducing glutathione production</li><li>• High doses of paracetamol leading to excessive NAPQI formation</li><li>• Chronic alcoholism causing increased CYP enzyme activity</li><li>• Liver disease reducing glutathione production</li><li>• N-acetylcysteine is converted to glutathione, which then binds and neutralizes NAPQI. For maximum effectiveness, N-acetylcysteine should be administered within 8 hours of paracetamol ingestion.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. It inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzyme responsible for NAPQI formation: Incorrect - N-acetylcysteine does not inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes. It works by replenishing glutathione which neutralizes NAPQI after its formation.</li><li>• Option B. It inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzyme responsible for NAPQI formation: Incorrect -</li><li>• Option C. It acts as a direct antioxidant to neutralize NAPQI: Incorrect - N-acetylcysteine does not directly neutralize NAPQI. It is first converted to glutathione, which then neutralizes NAPQI.</li><li>• Option C. It acts as a direct antioxidant to neutralize NAPQI: Incorrect -</li><li>• Option D. It enhances renal clearance of NAPQI: Incorrect - N-acetylcysteine does not enhance renal clearance of NAPQI. Its mechanism involves glutathione replenishment.</li><li>• Option D. It enhances renal clearance of NAPQI: Incorrect -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for paracetamol toxicity and works by replenishing glutathione levels, which helps neutralize the toxic metabolite NAPQI.</li><li>➤ Antidotes</li><li>➤ Antidotes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person went for a trip on hills and developed difficulty breathing. He was given a diuretic which is considered as the drug of choice for this condition. What is the site of action of this drug? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCT", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thick ascending loop", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Collecting duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PCT", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image%20(1).jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165250.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PCT (Proximal Convoluted Tubule)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical scenario describes acute mountain sickness, characterized by breathing difficulty at high altitudes due to hypoxia. The drug of choice for both prevention and treatment of mountain sickness is acetazolamide. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that acts primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). It inhibits the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the PCT, causing mild metabolic acidosis which stimulates breathing and helps acclimatization to high altitude.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Thick ascending loop - Loop diuretics like furosemide act here, not acetazolamide</li><li>• Option B. Thick ascending loop -</li><li>• Option C. DCT (Distal Convoluted Tubule) - Thiazide diuretics act here, not carbonic anhydrase inhibitors</li><li>• Option C. DCT (Distal Convoluted Tubule) -</li><li>• Option D. Collecting duct - Potassium-sparing diuretics and aldosterone antagonists act here, not carbonic anhydrase inhibitors</li><li>• Option D. Collecting duct -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for mountain sickness and acts in the proximal convoluted tubule.</li><li>➤ Diuretics Classification Table</li><li>➤ Diuretics Classification Table</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements about anticancer drugs is correct? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cisplatin is more neurotoxic than carboplatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cisplatin is more nephrotoxic than carboplatin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cisplatin causes more bone marrow suppression than carboplatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carboplatin causes more vomiting than cisplatin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cisplatin is more nephrotoxic than carboplatin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165311.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cisplatin is more nephrotoxic than carboplatin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cisplatin has three major adverse effects remembered with three C's :</li><li>• C's</li><li>• C of ears – Ototoxicity (Irreversible) C of kidney - Nephrotoxicity (most prominent) C of smiling face - Maximum nausea and vomiting Cisplatin is known to be more nephrotoxic than carboplatin. Slow intravenous infusion is given Saline loading should be done Amifostine can be used (which can also prevent radiation-induced xerostomia)</li><li>• C of ears – Ototoxicity (Irreversible)</li><li>• C</li><li>• C of kidney - Nephrotoxicity (most prominent)</li><li>• C</li><li>• C of smiling face - Maximum nausea and vomiting Cisplatin is known to be more nephrotoxic than carboplatin.</li><li>• C</li><li>• Slow intravenous infusion is given</li><li>• Saline loading should be done</li><li>• Amifostine can be used (which can also prevent radiation-induced xerostomia)</li><li>• To prevent nephrotoxicity:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cisplatin is more neurotoxic than carboplatin: Incorrect as carboplatin causes more neurotoxicity than cisplatin</li><li>• Option A. Cisplatin is more neurotoxic than carboplatin:</li><li>• Option C. Cisplatin causes more bone marrow suppression than carboplatin: Incorrect as cisplatin is one of the bone marrow-sparing anticancer drugs</li><li>• Option C. Cisplatin causes more bone marrow suppression than carboplatin:</li><li>• Option D. Carboplatin causes more vomiting than cisplatin: Incorrect as cisplatin is the most emetogenic anticancer drug, causing maximum nausea and vomiting compared to other platinum compounds</li><li>• Option D. Carboplatin causes more vomiting than cisplatin:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cisplatin has more nephrotoxicity compared to carboplatin, requiring preventive measures like slow IV infusion, saline loading and Amifostine.</li><li>➤ Rescue Therapy</li><li>➤ Rescue Therapy</li><li>➤ To teat advese effects pf amto-cancer drugs</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was started on ATT and ART together, Symptoms worsened after 2 months. What can be the cause? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immune reconstitution syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Drug-drug interaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti-tubercular drug resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti- HIV drug resistance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Immune reconstitution syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Immune reconstitution syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In patients with both TB and HIV, ATT should be started first. After the patient starts tolerating ATT (approximately 2 weeks), ART should be initiated. This approach is important because if ART is started, it improves immunity which can lead to increased inflammatory response against TB antigens present in various organs. This excessive inflammatory response is called Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Drug-drug interaction: While interactions can occur between ATT and ART drugs (especially between rifampicin and protease inhibitors), this would manifest differently and not typically cause worsening of symptoms after 2 months of therapy.</li><li>• Option B. Drug-drug interaction:</li><li>• Option C. Anti-tubercular drug resistance: Anti-tubercular Drug resistance would present as failure to improve rather than initial improvement followed by worsening. Additionally, drug resistance typically develops over a longer period.</li><li>• Option C. Anti-tubercular drug resistance:</li><li>• Option D. Anti-HIV drug resistance: HIV drug resistance typically presents with virological failure rather than worsening of TB symptoms. Additionally, 2 months is too early for HIV drug resistance to develop.</li><li>• Option D. Anti-HIV drug resistance:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with both TB and HIV, worsening of symptoms after starting ART is most likely due to IRIS (Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome), which occurs due to improved immunity leading to increased inflammatory response against TB antigens.</li><li>➤ HIV with TB</li><li>➤ HIV with TB</li><li>➤ Start ATT first After 2 weeks, start ART</li><li>➤ Start ATT first</li><li>➤ After 2 weeks, start ART</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best antibiotic choice for a patient with otitis media who is allergic to penicillins? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amikacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meropenem", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Azithromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Azithromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For patients with penicillin allergy, azithromycin is the best choice because:</li><li>• For patients with penicillin allergy, azithromycin is the best choice because:</li><li>• It doesn't belong to β-lactam family, so no cross-allergenicity Can be administered orally unlike amikacin which needs injection Effective against gram-positive bacteria which commonly cause otitis media</li><li>• It doesn't belong to β-lactam family, so no cross-allergenicity</li><li>• Can be administered orally unlike amikacin which needs injection</li><li>• Effective against gram-positive bacteria which commonly cause otitis media</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ceftriaxone: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Ceftriaxone: Incorrect</li><li>• It's a cephalosporin which belongs to β-lactam family Contraindicated in patients with penicillin allergy due to cross-allergenicity</li><li>• It's a cephalosporin which belongs to β-lactam family</li><li>• Contraindicated in patients with penicillin allergy due to cross-allergenicity</li><li>• Option C. Amikacin: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Amikacin: Incorrect</li><li>• Although amikacin is safe in penicillin-allergic patients, it is primarily effective against gram-negative bacteria, while otitis media is commonly caused by gram-positive organisms.</li><li>• Although amikacin is safe in penicillin-allergic patients, it is primarily effective against gram-negative bacteria, while otitis media is commonly caused by gram-positive organisms.</li><li>• Option D. Meropenem: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Meropenem: Incorrect</li><li>• It's a carbapenem which belongs to β-lactam family Contraindicated in penicillin allergy due to cross-allergenicity</li><li>• It's a carbapenem which belongs to β-lactam family</li><li>• Contraindicated in penicillin allergy due to cross-allergenicity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In penicillin-allergic patients, β-lactam antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) are contraindicated due to cross-allergenicity. Azithromycin is a safe and effective alternative.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following intravenous administration of noradrenaline, a decrease in heart rate is observed. What is the physiological mechanism responsible for this effect? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Baroreceptor activation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Activation of beta-1 receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibition of baroreceptors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Baroreceptor activation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165327.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Baroreceptor activation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• When noradrenaline is administered intravenously, it primarily stimulates alpha-1 receptors in blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction. This vasoconstriction leads to an increase in diastolic blood pressure and mean arterial pressure. Our body has compensatory mechanisms to maintain homeostasis. When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors located in the blood vessels (particularly in the carotid sinus and aortic arch) detect this change.</li><li>• These baroreceptors sense the elevated blood pressure and become activated. Once activated, they send signals to the central nervous system, specifically stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The parasympathetic activation results in the release of acetylcholine, which acts on the heart to slow the heart rate (bradycardia). This is a reflex mechanism known as the baroreceptor reflex or baroreflex.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors: This is incorrect because. While noradrenaline does stimulate alpha-1 receptors (causing vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure), the direct effect of alpha-1 stimulation does not cause a decrease in heart rate. Alpha-1 receptors are primarily located on blood vessels, not on the heart. The decrease in heart rate is an indirect effect mediated through the baroreceptor reflex.</li><li>• Option B. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors:</li><li>• Option C. Activation of beta-1 receptors: This is incorrect because. Activation of beta-1 receptors would increase heart rate (tachycardia), not decrease it. Beta-1 receptors are present in the heart, and their stimulation leads to positive chronotropic (increased heart rate) and inotropic (increased contractility) effects. While noradrenaline does have some beta-1 agonist activity, the reflex bradycardia from baroreceptor activation usually overrides this direct effect.</li><li>• Option C. Activation of beta-1 receptors:</li><li>• Option D. Inhibition of baroreceptors: This is incorrect because. Noradrenaline causes activation, not inhibition, of baroreceptors. When baroreceptors are inhibited, they would fail to detect the increase in blood pressure, which would cause a failure of the compensatory mechanism that decreases heart rate.</li><li>• Option D. Inhibition of baroreceptors:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IV administration of noradrenaline causes reflex bradycardia through baroreceptor activation, which is a physiological compensatory mechanism in response to the drug-induced increase in blood pressure.</li><li>➤ Effect of IV administration of NA on heart rate</li><li>➤ Effect of IV administration of NA on heart rate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An epileptic patient presents with gum hypertrophy and bleeding. Which antiepileptic drug is the likely cause? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbamazepine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ethosuximide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phenytoin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Phenytoin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Phenytoin is known to cause gum hypertrophy (gingival hyperplasia) and bleeding as adverse effects. The adverse effects of phenytoin can be remembered using the mnemonic</li><li>• \"HOT MALIKA\":</li><li>• \"HOT MALIKA\":</li><li>• H : Hirsutism and Hypertrophy of gums</li><li>• H</li><li>• O : Osteomalacia</li><li>• O</li><li>• T : Teratogenicity (fetal hydantoin syndrome)</li><li>• T</li><li>• M : Megaloblastic anemia (due to folate deficiency)</li><li>• M</li><li>• A : Arrhythmias (in overdose)</li><li>• A</li><li>• L : Lymph node enlargement (lymphadenopathy)</li><li>• L</li><li>• I : Inhibition of insulin secretion (can lead to hyperglycemia)</li><li>• I</li><li>• K : Vitamin K deficiency (can result in bleeding)</li><li>• K</li><li>• A : Ataxia, nystagmus, vertigo (cerebellar side effects in overdose)</li><li>• A</li><li>• The gum hypertrophy is a direct effect of phenytoin on gingival tissue, while the bleeding is due to vitamin K deficiency caused by phenytoin.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Valproate:</li><li>• Option B. Valproate:</li><li>• Valproate's adverse effects include</li><li>• V - Vomiting</li><li>• V</li><li>• A - Alopecia/Curling of hair</li><li>• A</li><li>• L - Liver disease (hepatotoxicity: in young children has high incidence)</li><li>• L</li><li>• P - Pancreatitis, ↑ risk of PCOD (gender Specific S/E)</li><li>• P</li><li>• R - Rash, allergy</li><li>• R</li><li>• O - Obesity</li><li>• O</li><li>• A - Ataxia (in overdose)</li><li>• A</li><li>• TE - Teratogenicity (most teratogenic Antiepileptic drug)</li><li>• TE</li><li>• Therefore, if administered during pregnancy, a high dose of folic acid (4000μg/day) should be supplemented to prevent neural tube defects.</li><li>• Therefore, if administered during pregnancy, a high dose of folic acid (4000μg/day) should be supplemented to prevent neural tube defects.</li><li>• Option C. Carbamazepine:</li><li>• Option C. Carbamazepine:</li><li>• Carbamazepine's adverse effects can be remembered as \"4 A's\":</li><li>• Carbamazepine's adverse effects can be remembered as \"4 A's\":</li><li>• Auto -induction (increases metabolism of itself and other drugs) Aplastic anemia (bone marrow suppression) ADH release (which can cause SIADH and dilutional hyponatremia) Ataxia /nystagmus/vertigo (in overdose)</li><li>• Auto -induction (increases metabolism of itself and other drugs)</li><li>• Auto</li><li>• Aplastic anemia (bone marrow suppression)</li><li>• Aplastic</li><li>• ADH release (which can cause SIADH and dilutional hyponatremia)</li><li>• ADH</li><li>• Ataxia /nystagmus/vertigo (in overdose)</li><li>• Ataxia</li><li>• It does not cause gum hypertrophy or vitamin K deficiency leading to bleeding.</li><li>• It does not cause gum hypertrophy or vitamin K deficiency leading to bleeding.</li><li>• Option D. Ethosuximide: Ethosuximide primarily affects T-type calcium channels and is used mainly for absence seizures. Its adverse effects are relatively mild compared to other antiepileptics and do not include gum hypertrophy or bleeding. The main side effects are gastrointestinal disturbances and CNS effects.</li><li>• Option D. Ethosuximide:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phenytoin causes gum hypertrophy (gingival hyperplasia) and vitamin K deficiency leading to bleeding as characteristic adverse effects, which can be remembered using the mnemonic</li><li>➤ \"HOT MALIKA.\"</li><li>➤ \"HOT MALIKA.\"</li><li>➤ Adverse Effects</li><li>➤ Adverse Effects</li><li>➤ H - H irsutism, Hypertrophy of gums</li><li>➤ H - H</li><li>➤ O-O steomalacia</li><li>➤ O-O</li><li>➤ T- T eratogenicity [Fetal Hydantoin syndrome]</li><li>➤ T- T</li><li>➤ M - M egaloblastic Anemia [↓ Folate]</li><li>➤ M - M</li><li>➤ A- A rrhythmia [Only in overdose]</li><li>➤ A- A</li><li>➤ L- L ymph node enlargement</li><li>➤ L- L</li><li>➤ I - ↓I nsulin (avoided in DM)</li><li>➤ I - ↓I</li><li>➤ K -↓ Vitamin K</li><li>➤ K</li><li>➤ K</li><li>➤ A - A taxias, vertigo [cerebellar symptoms] only at high dose]</li><li>➤ A - A</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Resistance to which of the following antitubercular drugs occurs due to mutation in kat G? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyrazinamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Isoniazid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Isoniazid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Isoniazid (INH) is a prodrug which activated by catalase peroxidase (formed by Kat G) enzyme of mycobacteria. It acts by inhibiting the formation of mycolic acid. Mutation in Kat G or inh A can result in resistance. When there is a mutation in the katG gene, the catalase-peroxidase enzyme is either not produced or is produced in a dysfunctional form. As a result, isoniazid cannot be activated and can’t inhibit the formation of mycolic acid. This leads to resistance to isoniazid. The katG gene mutation is one of the most common mechanisms of isoniazid resistance in M. tuberculosis.</li><li>• Isoniazid (INH) is a prodrug which activated by catalase peroxidase (formed by Kat G) enzyme of mycobacteria. It acts by inhibiting the formation of mycolic acid.</li><li>• Mutation in Kat G or inh A can result in resistance.</li><li>• When there is a mutation in the katG gene, the catalase-peroxidase enzyme is either not produced or is produced in a dysfunctional form. As a result, isoniazid cannot be activated and can’t inhibit the formation of mycolic acid. This leads to resistance to isoniazid.</li><li>• The katG gene mutation is one of the most common mechanisms of isoniazid resistance in M. tuberculosis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Rifampicin: Incorrect. Rifampicin resistance is primarily associated with mutations in the rpo B gene, which encodes the β-subunit of RNA polymerase. Rifampicin acts by binding to this β-subunit, inhibiting transcription. When mutations occur in the rpoB gene, rifampicin cannot bind effectively, leading to resistance.</li><li>• Option B. Rifampicin: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Levofloxacin: Incorrect. Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that targets DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV in bacteria. Resistance to levofloxacin typically occurs due to mutations in gyr A or gyr B genes, which encode DNA gyrase.</li><li>• Option C. Levofloxacin: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Pyrazinamide: Incorrect. Pyrazinamide resistance is mainly associated with mutations in the pncA gene, which encodes pyrazinamidase. This enzyme converts pyrazinamide to its active form, pyrazinoic acid. Mutations in pncA result in reduced pyrazinamidase activity, leading to pyrazinamide resistance.</li><li>• Option D. Pyrazinamide: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Resistance to isoniazid occurs due to mutations in the katG gene, which encodes the catalase-peroxidase enzyme required for isoniazid activation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The mechanism of action of botulinum toxin is? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Block postsynaptic receptors of acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibit reuptake of acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Block release of acetylcholine from presynaptic terminal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibit acetylcholinesterase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Block release of acetylcholine from presynaptic terminal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165345.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Block release of acetylcholine from presynaptic terminal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Botulinum toxin works by inhibiting the exocytosis of acetylcholine from presynaptic nerve terminals. In normal neurotransmission, acetylcholine is stored in vesicles in the presynaptic neuron and released when an action potential arrives.</li><li>• Botulinum toxin prevents the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft, effectively blocking neuromuscular transmission and causing flaccid paralysis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Block postsynaptic receptors of acetylcholine: Incorrect. Botulinum toxin doesn't affect postsynaptic receptors. Drugs that block postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors include anticholinergic agents like atropine (for muscarinic receptors) or agents like curare (for nicotinic receptors).</li><li>• Option A. Block postsynaptic receptors of acetylcholine: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Inhibit reuptake of acetylcholine: Incorrect. Unlike noradrenaline or serotonin, acetylcholine's action is not terminated by reuptake into the presynaptic neuron. Instead, it is hydrolyzed by acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft.</li><li>• Option B. Inhibit reuptake of acetylcholine: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Inhibit acetylcholinesterase: Incorrect. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (like physostigmine, neostigmine, or pyridostigmine) increase acetylcholine levels by preventing its breakdown, resulting in enhanced cholinergic transmission. This mechanism is opposite to botulinum toxin's effect, which decreases cholinergic transmission.</li><li>• Option D. Inhibit acetylcholinesterase: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acetyl choline [Ach]</li><li>➤ Acetyl choline [Ach]</li><li>➤ →Rate limiting step is: Uptake of choline</li><li>➤ ↓Parasympathetic activity</li><li>➤ 1. Hemicholinium</li><li>➤ 2. Vesamicol</li><li>➤ 3. Botulinum toxin</li><li>➤ Ach Esterase Inhibitor→↑Parasympathetic activity</li><li>➤ 4. Physostigmine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not the correct dose in the treatment of multibacillary leprosy in adults? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clofazimine 300 mg monthly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clofazimine 50 mg daily", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dapsone 100 mg daily", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rifampicin 450 mg weekly", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rifampicin 450 mg weekly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165400.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rifampicin 450 mg weekly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct treatment regimen for multibacillary leprosy in adults consists of three drugs: rifampicin, clofazimine, and dapsone. The standard WHO recommended regimen includes</li><li>• Rifampicin 600 mg given once monthly under supervision. This is combined with clofazimine 300 mg once monthly (supervised) and clofazimine 50 mg daily (unsupervised) along with dapsone 100 mg daily (unsupervised). The treatment for multibacillary leprosy is continued for 12 months.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leprosy</li><li>➤ Leprosy</li><li>➤ Above regimen is given for</li><li>➤ Above regimen is given for</li><li>➤ 12 months in multi-bacillary leprosy 6 months in pauci-bacillary leprosy</li><li>➤ 12 months in multi-bacillary leprosy</li><li>➤ 6 months in pauci-bacillary leprosy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with schizophrenia was on olanzapine therapy for a few months. It was effective in controlling the symptoms, but the patient stopped taking this drug. What can be the most likely reason? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tardive dyskinesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight gain", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Agranulocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Muscular dystonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Weight gain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Weight gain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug used in the treatment of schizophrenia. While it is effective in controlling both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, it is associated with several adverse effects. The most common reason patients discontinue olanzapine therapy is weight gain. Olanzapine, along with clozapine, has the highest risk of causing metabolic side effects collectively known as lipodystrophy syndrome. This syndrome includes hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance, and significant weight gain.</li><li>• Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug used in the treatment of schizophrenia. While it is effective in controlling both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, it is associated with several adverse effects.</li><li>• The most common reason patients discontinue olanzapine therapy is weight gain.</li><li>• Olanzapine, along with clozapine, has the highest risk of causing metabolic side effects collectively known as lipodystrophy syndrome. This syndrome includes hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance, and significant weight gain.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Tardive dyskinesia: This is incorrect. Because tardive dyskinesia is more commonly associated with typical (first-generation) antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol rather than atypical antipsychotics like olanzapine. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower risk of causing extrapyramidal symptoms including tardive dyskinesia.</li><li>• Option A. Tardive dyskinesia: This is incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Agranulocytosis: This is incorrect. Because agranulocytosis is a characteristic adverse effect of clozapine, not olanzapine. Clozapine requires regular monitoring of white blood cell counts due to this potentially fatal side effect.</li><li>• Option C. Agranulocytosis: This is incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Muscular dystonia: This is incorrect. Because muscular dystonia is an extrapyramidal symptom more commonly associated with typical antipsychotic drugs. Atypical antipsychotics like olanzapine have a much lower risk of causing extrapyramidal symptoms compared to typical antipsychotics.</li><li>• Option D. Muscular dystonia: This is incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Side effects of Atypical anti- Psychotics:</li><li>➤ Side effects of Atypical anti- Psychotics:</li><li>➤ Side effects</li><li>➤ Side effects</li><li>➤ Cause lipodystrophy syndrome characterized by ↑Glucose ↑Lipids Weight gain Insulin Resistance Risk is highest with clozapine and olanzapine</li><li>➤ Cause lipodystrophy syndrome characterized by ↑Glucose ↑Lipids Weight gain Insulin Resistance</li><li>➤ ↑Glucose ↑Lipids Weight gain Insulin Resistance</li><li>➤ ↑Glucose</li><li>➤ ↑Lipids</li><li>➤ Weight gain</li><li>➤ Insulin Resistance</li><li>➤ Risk is highest with clozapine and olanzapine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug of choice for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis is? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liposomal Amphotericin B plus 5-FC", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5-Flucytosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Terbinafine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Liposomal Amphotericin B plus 5-FC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165414.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Untitled-1%2007-03-2025-01.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Liposomal Amphotericin B plus 5-FC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The drug of choice for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis is liposomal amphotericin B plus 5-flucytosine (5-FC). This combination is used during the initial induction phase of treatment.</li><li>• Liposomal amphotericin B is a polyene antifungal that binds to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, creating pores that lead to cell death.</li><li>• 5-flucytosine is an antimetabolite that inhibits DNA and protein synthesis in fungal cells. The combination therapy provides synergistic effects against Cryptococcus, especially in the central nervous system infections like meningitis.</li><li>• Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis typically follows a three-phase approach:</li><li>• Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis typically follows a three-phase approach:</li><li>• Induction phase - liposomal amphotericin B plus 5-flucytosine Consolidation phase - fluconazole Maintenance phase- fluconazole</li><li>• Induction phase - liposomal amphotericin B plus 5-flucytosine</li><li>• Induction phase -</li><li>• Consolidation phase - fluconazole</li><li>• Consolidation phase -</li><li>• Maintenance phase- fluconazole</li><li>• Maintenance phase-</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Fluconazole: Fluconazole is used in the maintenance &amp; Consolidation phase of cryptococcal meningitis treatment, not as the primary drug of choice for acute infection. It's less effective than amphotericin B for the initial treatment of cryptococcal meningitis.</li><li>• Option A. Fluconazole:</li><li>• Option C. 5-Flucytosine: While 5-flucytosine is an important component of the treatment regimen for cryptococcal meningitis, it is not used as monotherapy. It has limited efficacy when used alone and is primarily used in combination with amphotericin B to enhance fungicidal activity.</li><li>• Option C. 5-Flucytosine:</li><li>• Option D. Terbinafine: Terbinafine is an allylamine antifungal that inhibits squalene epoxidase, interfering with ergosterol synthesis. It is primarily used for dermatophyte infections (tinea infections of skin, hair, and nails).</li><li>• Option D. Terbinafine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drug of choice for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis is the combination of liposomal amphotericin B plus 5-flucytosine for induction therapy, followed by fluconazole for maintenance &amp; Consolidation therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was administered succinylcholine and halothane before surgery. The patient developed sudden rigidity. Core temperature was elevated to 104°F, and there was an elevation in EtCO2 as well. Which of the following is the most suitable medication to treat this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sodium bicarbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dantrolene", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dantrolene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dantrolene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical scenario described is characteristic of malignant hyperthermia, a rare but life-threatening condition that can be triggered by volatile anaesthetic agents (like halothane) and depolarizing muscle relaxants (like succinylcholine).</li><li>• The classic clinical features include muscle rigidity, rapidly increasing body temperature, elevated end-tidal CO2 (due to increased metabolism) and if left untreated, can progress to rhabdomyolysis, acidosis, hyperkalemia and eventually death.</li><li>• Dantrolene is the specific antidote and drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia. It acts by inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle, thereby reducing the hypermetabolic state and muscle contraction.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Sodium bicarbonate: While acidosis may develop during malignant hyperthermia and sodium bicarbonate might be used as a supportive measure to correct metabolic acidosis. Dantrolene specifically targets the calcium dysregulation that is central to malignant hyperthermia.</li><li>• Option A. Sodium bicarbonate:</li><li>• Option C. Lorazepam: This is a benzodiazepine used primarily for seizures, anxiety, and sedation. It has no role in the management of malignant hyperthermia and would not address the hypermetabolic crisis.</li><li>• Option C. Lorazepam:</li><li>• Option D. Mannitol: This is an osmotic diuretic that might be used as a supportive measure in malignant hyperthermia to prevent or treat renal failure from myoglobinuria (resulting from muscle breakdown). However, like sodium bicarbonate, it is not the specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia.</li><li>• Option D. Mannitol:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malignant hyperthermia as a potential complication of succinylcholine and halothane administration, Dantrolene is the specific antidote and drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Indomethacin should not be given with ACE inhibitors because: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyponatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperuricemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It may cause severe hypotension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hyperkalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Aldosterone normally promotes potassium excretion in the distal tubule. When ACE inhibitors block this pathway, aldosterone levels decrease, resulting in reduced potassium excretion and a tendency toward hyperkalemia.</li><li>• NSAIDs like indomethacin further increase this risk through several mechanisms:</li><li>• NSAIDs like indomethacin further increase this risk through several mechanisms:</li><li>• They reduce renal blood flow by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis They decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR) They impair renin release They directly interfere with potassium excretion</li><li>• They reduce renal blood flow by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis</li><li>• They decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)</li><li>• They impair renin release</li><li>• They directly interfere with potassium excretion</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hyponatremia: While ACE inhibitors can occasionally cause hyponatremia by increasing water retention through ADH mechanisms, this is not significantly worsened by the addition of NSAIDs. The primary concern when combining these drug classes is hyperkalemia.</li><li>• Option B. Hyponatremia:</li><li>• Option C. Hyperuricemia: Although both ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs can independently affect uric acid levels (NSAIDs can increase uric acid levels by decreasing its excretion), hyperuricemia is not the primary concern when combining these medications. The risk of hyperkalemia is more significant and potentially more dangerous.</li><li>• Option C. Hyperuricemia:</li><li>• Option D. It may cause severe hypotension: While both ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs can affect blood pressure, their combined effect typically results in a reduction of the antihypertensive efficacy of ACE inhibitors rather than severe hypotension. NSAIDs tend to increase blood pressure by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis, which opposes the blood pressure-lowering effects of ACE inhibitors.</li><li>• Option D. It may cause severe hypotension:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NSAIDs like indomethacin should not be given with ACE inhibitors due to increased risk of hyperkalemia, as both drug classes can interfere with potassium excretion through different mechanisms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has throbbing unilateral headache and photophobia, which is treated by sumatriptan. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Migraine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tension headache", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cluster headache", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Frontal headache", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Migraine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Migraine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Migraine is characterized by unilateral, pulsatile headache often associated with photophobia (sensitivity to light), phonophobia (sensitivity to sound), nausea, and vomiting. Symptoms of \"throbbing unilateral headache with photophobia\" are classic presentation of migraine.</li><li>• Sumatriptan is a 5-HT1B/1D receptor agonist are the drug of choice for acute severe migraine attacks. They work by:</li><li>• Causing vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the brain Inhibiting the release of inflammatory neuropeptides, particularly Calcitonin Gene-Related Peptide (CGRP)</li><li>• Causing vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the brain</li><li>• Inhibiting the release of inflammatory neuropeptides, particularly Calcitonin Gene-Related Peptide (CGRP)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tension headache: Incorrect because. Tension headaches typically present as bilateral, non-pulsatile, \"band-like\" pain around the head. They are usually not associated with photophobia and are not typically treated with triptans like sumatriptan. First-line treatments for tension headaches are NSAIDs.</li><li>• Option B. Tension headache: Incorrect because.</li><li>• Option C. Cluster headache: Incorrect because. Cluster headaches, while unilateral, are extremely severe and often described as \"boring\" or \"stabbing\" rather than throbbing. They are typically associated with ipsilateral autonomic symptoms like lacrimation, nasal congestion, or rhinorrhoea. While triptans can be used for cluster headaches, first-line treatments usually include high-flow oxygen therapy.</li><li>• Option C. Cluster headache: Incorrect because.</li><li>• Option D. Frontal headache: Incorrect because. \"Frontal headache\" refers to pain localized to the frontal region of the head and can be a symptom of various conditions including sinusitis, tension headache, or migraine.</li><li>• Option D. Frontal headache: Incorrect because.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment of acute attack:</li><li>➤ Treatment of acute attack:</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for mild to moderate headache – NSAIDs (Paracetamol, diclofenac) Drug of choice for Acute severe attack – Triptans Other drug for Acute severe migraine – Ergotamine</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for mild to moderate headache – NSAIDs (Paracetamol, diclofenac)</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for Acute severe attack – Triptans</li><li>➤ Other drug for Acute severe migraine – Ergotamine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tissue sample shows significant cellular damage. Which of the following changes is most indicative of irreversible cell injury in the sample? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cellular swelling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bleb formation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amorphous density of mitochondria", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytoplasmic vacuolation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Amorphous density of mitochondria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Amorphous density of mitochondria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of amorphous densities in mitochondria is a morphological feature that indicates irreversible cell injury, distinguishing it from changes that can be seen in both reversible and irreversible injury such as cellular swelling, bleb formation, and cytoplasmic vacuolation.</li><li>➤ cellular swelling, bleb formation, and cytoplasmic vacuolation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a bleeding disorder is suspected of having von Willebrand disease. What does vWF primarily bind to in the process of platelet adhesion? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gp IIb", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prothrombin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gp Ib/IX", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ADP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gp Ib/IX", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/WhatsApp%20Image%202025-03-13%20at%204.03.16%20PM.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gp Ib/IX</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Von Willebrand factor (vWF) binds to glycoprotein Ib/IX (GpIb/IX) on platelets during the initial adhesion process, which is essential for normal hemostasis. Deficiency or dysfunction of VWF results in von Willebrand disease, characterized by mucocutaneous bleeding due to impaired platelet adhesion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which family member is responsible for transmission of the disease in mitochondrial inheritance? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grandfather (maternal)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grandfather (paternal)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Father", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mother", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mother", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-06%20160437.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_djp3mIf.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mother</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial inheritance follows a maternal transmission pattern in which only mothers can pass mitochondrial DNA mutations to their children. This occurs because all mitochondria in humans are inherited from the mother's egg cell, while paternal mitochondria are eliminated during fertilization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with intellectual disability, short stature, hypotonia, obesity, small hands and feet, and hypogonadism. He has been diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. Which of the following chromosomes is affected in this patient? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chromosome 11", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chromosome 12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chromosome 15", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chromosome 17", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chromosome 15", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chromosome 15</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 15, specifically the absence of paternally expressed genes in the 15q11-q13 region.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male infant presents with recurrent infections. Laboratory examination shows reduced B-cells and low levels of different antibodies. There is a normal reaction to environmental antigens on the skin. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DiGeorge syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Selective IgA deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bruton's agammaglobulinemia is an X-linked recessive disorder characterized by absent B cells, low or absent immunoglobulins of all classes, and normal T-cell function , resulting in recurrent bacterial infections in male infants.</li><li>➤ X-linked recessive disorder</li><li>➤ absent B cells, low or absent immunoglobulins of all classes, and normal T-cell function</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient presents with intermittent right upper quadrant pain and episodes of jaundice. Ultrasound shows multiple pigmented gallstones in the gallbladder. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin levels. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows abnormal hemoglobin patterns. The patient has a history of beta-thalassemia minor. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with the formation of pigmented gallstones? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta-thalassemia minor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemoglobin D (HbD) Punjab", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "G6PD deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Beta-thalassemia minor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Beta-thalassemia minor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta-thalassemia minor (trait) is typically asymptomatic and not associated with significant hemolysis or pigmented gallstone formation, in contrast to other hemoglobinopathies like sickle cell disease that cause chronic hemolysis and increased bilirubin production .</li><li>➤ sickle cell disease that cause chronic hemolysis and increased bilirubin production</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tumor marker analysis shows elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in a patient. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with increased AFP? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seminoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatic adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatocellular carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchogenic carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hepatocellular carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hepatocellular carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatocellular carcinoma is the most common malignancy associated with significantly elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels, making AFP an important diagnostic and monitoring marker for this cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old man presents with an ulcerative lesion near the medial canthus of his eye, featuring pearly margins. Microscopic examination reveals a palisading arrangement of cells, along with keratin pearls. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keratoacanthoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melanocytic melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Basal cell carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Basal cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basal cell carcinoma presenting as an ulcerative lesion with pearly margins (rodent ulcer) is characteristic, especially in the periocular region, with microscopic findings of peripheral palisading arrangement of basaloid cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient presents with rapidly growing lymph nodes around the jaw. His biopsy confirms the diagnosis of Burkitt's lymphoma. Which gene mutation is most commonly implicated in this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rb", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "p53", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C-myc", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "K RAS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C-myc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) C-myc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Burkitt's lymphoma is characterized by translocation of the C-myc proto-oncogene , most commonly t(8;14), resulting in overexpression of C-myc and rapid cellular proliferation.</li><li>➤ C-myc proto-oncogene</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the earliest time when triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC) staining can detect changes after a myocardial infarction? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2-3 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "6-12 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12-24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "After 24 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2-3 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2-3 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triphenyl Tetrazolium Chloride (TTC) staining can detect myocardial infarction changes as early as 2-3 hours post-infarction by identifying areas where LDH enzyme has leaked from damaged cardiac cells.</li><li>➤ Triphenyl Tetrazolium Chloride (TTC)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, visual disturbances, and features of increased intracranial tension. CT imaging reveals a well-circumscribed brain lesion, and its biopsy shows psammoma bodies. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Schwannoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medulloblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ependymoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meningioma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Meningioma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_aTcz5X1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_d7l7Oa5.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Wth8iBM.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Meningioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meningiomas are characterized by the presence of psammoma bodies (concentric calcifications) on histopathological examination and typically present as well-circumscribed lesions causing symptoms of increased intracranial pressure.</li><li>➤ psammoma bodies</li><li>➤ (concentric calcifications)</li><li>➤ well-circumscribed</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A thyroid biopsy shows follicular cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm and extracellular amyloid depositions. In which of the following thyroid conditions is this finding commonly seen? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medullary carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hurthle cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Papillary carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaplastic carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Medullary carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_c0zTwF6.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_QybofSo.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_W1Eu9rW.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Medullary carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Medullary Thyroid Cancer</li><li>➤ Medullary Thyroid Cancer</li><li>➤ Only thyroid cancer that arises from parafollicular cells known as 'C cells. Gene association: RET Gene mutation. Tumor markers: Calcitonin and Carcinoembryonic Antigen; CEA in calcitonin negative cancer Acal: Amyloid (Congo red positive) Histology: Polygonal cells with/without Amyloid deposition. Electon microscopy: Neurosecretory granules.</li><li>➤ Only thyroid cancer that arises from parafollicular cells known as 'C cells.</li><li>➤ Gene association: RET Gene mutation.</li><li>➤ Tumor markers: Calcitonin and Carcinoembryonic Antigen; CEA in calcitonin negative cancer</li><li>➤ Antigen; CEA in calcitonin negative cancer</li><li>➤ Antigen; CEA in calcitonin negative cancer</li><li>➤ Acal: Amyloid (Congo red positive)</li><li>➤ Histology: Polygonal cells with/without Amyloid deposition.</li><li>➤ Electon microscopy: Neurosecretory granules.</li><li>➤ Clinical features: due to secretion of ACTH (Cushing syndrome) and VIP (Diarrhoea)</li><li>➤ Variants → Sporadic (Unilateral solitary mass) OR Familial (Bilateral &amp; Multicentric)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old female presents with a 3 cm breast mass. The mass was excised, and microscopic examination reveals abundant extracellular mucin surrounding tumor cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lobular carcinoma of the breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucinous carcinoma of the breast", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medullary carcinoma of the breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phyllodes tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucinous carcinoma of the breast", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_qsmI7zw.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mucinous carcinoma of the breast</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucinous carcinoma of the breast is characterized histologically by clusters of tumor cells floating in abundant extracellular mucin pools, giving it a distinctive appearance and generally conferring a better prognosis than other invasive breast carcinomas.</li><li>➤ clusters of tumor cells floating in abundant extracellular mucin pools,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old man presents with fever and fatigue 3 weeks after undergoing mitral valve replacement surgery. Blood cultures are positive for a gram-positive cocci that produces a biofilm. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism of his condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcus epidermidis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Staphylococcus epidermidis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Staphylococcus epidermidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staphylococcus epidermidis is a coagulase-negative staphylococcus that commonly causes prosthetic valve endocarditis due to its ability to form biofilms on foreign materials, typically presenting weeks after valve replacement surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient with dysphagia more for liquids in comparison to solids is likely to have which of the following finding in her barium swallow? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Irregular filling defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rat tail appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Smooth tapering of lower end", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corkscrew appearance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Smooth tapering of lower end", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Smooth tapering of lower end</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The radiological hallmark of achalasia cardia: smooth tapering of the lower esophageal end (bird beak appearance) due to loss of inhibitory neurons.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A long-standing smoker has shortness of breath, and spirometry shows FEV₁ 60% with FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;0.6. Which of the following is the likely cause of the findings in this patient? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interstitial lung disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "COPD", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchogenic carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. COPD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) COPD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;0.7 indicates obstructive lung disease. COPD is the most common obstructive lung disease in smokers, while conditions like silicosis and interstitial lung disease present with restrictive patterns (normal or increased FEV₁/FVC ratio).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with electrical burns and stable vital signs, red-coloured urine is observed with increased levels of creatinine kinase. Which of the following is a likely finding in the patient’s examination? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red blood cells in urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased creatinine levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased hemoglobin levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased bilirubin levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increased creatinine levels", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_7XBxWF9.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Increased creatinine levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Electrical burns can cause myoglobinuria and acute kidney injury, leading to increased creatinine levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 18-year-old patient with anasarca is found to have proteinuria of 4.5 g/day, increased cholesterol levels, and hypoalbuminemia. Which of the following is a recommended treatment for this individual? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravenous albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prednisolone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prednisolone and cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prednisolone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prednisolone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prednisolone is the first-line immunosuppressive treatment for nephrotic syndrome, particularly in younger patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of Pancoast tumor? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anhidrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Miosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exophthalmos", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ptosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Exophthalmos", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Exophthalmos</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pancoast tumor causes Horner's syndrome, which includes miosis, anhidrosis, ptosis, and enophthalmos (MAPE). Exophthalmos is not a feature of Pancoast tumor</li><li>➤ miosis, anhidrosis, ptosis, and enophthalmos (MAPE).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of epiphysis marked in the given image: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pressure epiphysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Traction epiphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aberrant epiphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atavistic epiphysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pressure epiphysis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_qaThK5y.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_KZqXhIs.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pressure epiphysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person presents to the clinic with normal eye closure and intact facial wrinkles but paralysis of the lower half of the face on the right side. Which structure is most likely involved in this case? ((FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left CN 7 Infranuclear lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right CN 7 Supranuclear lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left CN 7 Supranuclear lesion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right CN 7 Infranuclear lesion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Left CN 7 Supranuclear lesion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_PMRHkfz.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) left CN 7 supranuclear lesion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Supranuclear lesions: Preserve forehead wrinkles and eye closure but affect contralateral lower face Infranuclear lesions: Cause complete ipsilateral facial paralysis affecting both upper and lower face</li><li>➤ Supranuclear lesions: Preserve forehead wrinkles and eye closure but affect contralateral lower face</li><li>➤ Supranuclear lesions:</li><li>➤ Infranuclear lesions: Cause complete ipsilateral facial paralysis affecting both upper and lower face</li><li>➤ Infranuclear lesions:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Child presents with asymmetric crying face and inability to close the left eye as shown in the image. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facial nerve palsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oculomotor nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orbicularis oculi palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erb’s palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Facial nerve palsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-01%20124211.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-01%20125235.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-01%20125319.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Facial nerve palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bell’s palsy - Loss of Wrinkling, Wide palpebral fissure, Whistling loss, loss of nasolabial fold and drooling of saliva</li><li>➤ Bell’s palsy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person presents with clawing of the 4th and 5th fingers, accompanied by sensory loss at the tips of the same fingers. Which nerve is most commonly affected in this case? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior Interosseous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ulnar nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_86KNibU.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ulnar nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ulnar nerve injury leads to ulnar claw hand , which involves hyperextension at the MCP joints and flexion at the IP joints of the 4th and 5th fingers , along with sensory loss in the medial one and a half fingers . The median nerve affects the lateral three and a half fingers, and the radial nerve controls wrist and finger extension.</li><li>➤ ulnar claw hand</li><li>➤ hyperextension at the MCP joints and flexion at the IP joints of the 4th and 5th fingers</li><li>➤ sensory loss in the medial one and a half fingers</li><li>➤ median nerve</li><li>➤ radial nerve</li><li>➤ Ulnar Claw hand - Ulnar nerve damage</li><li>➤ Ulnar Claw hand</li><li>➤ Complete Claw hand - injury of both Ulnar and Median nerve.</li><li>➤ Complete Claw hand</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with complains of numbness, tingling, and paresthesia in the lateral three and a half fingers, along with numbness at the base of the thumb. Which nerve is most commonly affected in this case? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior Interosseous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Median nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_QwhejBy.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Median nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The median nerve provides sensory innervation to the lateral three and a half fingers on the palmar side and the base of the thumb . Compression of the median nerve at the wrist (e.g., carpal tunnel syndrome ) leads to numbness, tingling, and paresthesia in the affected digits without dorsal hand involvement.</li><li>➤ median nerve</li><li>➤ sensory innervation</li><li>➤ lateral three and a half fingers</li><li>➤ base of the thumb</li><li>➤ median nerve at the wrist</li><li>➤ carpal tunnel syndrome</li><li>➤ numbness, tingling, and paresthesia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is undergoing breast surgery, during which several structures are retracted, as shown in the image. Identify the marked muscle given in the image: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subscapularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Teres major", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Latissimus dorsi", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serratus anterior", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Serratus anterior", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_RCNRJx3.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_tjA73WR.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Serratus anterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The serratus anterior is a critical muscle encountered in breast surgeries due to its position along the lateral thoracic wall and proximity to the axilla.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A carpenter complains of swelling around knee as shown in the given image. What is most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Housemaid Knee", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clergyman Knee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oedema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Housemaid Knee", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_HFlY3b8.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_LrCM9JC.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Housemaid knee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prepatellar bursitis, or \"Housemaid's knee,\" results from repetitive trauma or prolonged kneeling. It presents as localized swelling over the prepatellar area and is a common occupational hazard for individuals who frequently kneel, such as carpenters.</li><li>➤ \"Housemaid's knee,\"</li><li>➤ prepatellar area</li><li>➤ carpenters.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with post-auricular numbness and a thickened cord-like structure in the cervical region. Identify the most likely structure involved: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "External jugular vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical lymph nodes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superficial thrombophlebitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Greater auricular nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Greater auricular nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_46UIQUS.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-01%20131208.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Greater auricular nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The greater auricular nerve (C2, C3) provides sensory innervation to the skin over the parotid region, auricle, and angle of the mandible . Lesions or compression of this nerve can lead to post-auricular numbness and symptoms along its anatomical path.</li><li>➤ greater auricular nerve</li><li>➤ parotid region, auricle, and angle of the mandible</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the level of the lymph nodes marked in the image? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Level III", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Level I", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Level IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Level II", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Level III", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_OrzxkCu.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_r6udTDp.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Level III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Level III nodes are located around the middle third of the internal jugular vein and sternocleidomastoid muscle.</li><li>➤ Level III nodes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure in the given image. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior Constrictor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Capsule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Buccopharyngeal Fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pharyngobasilar Fascia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pharyngobasilar Fascia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_UKcYSSY.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_iUsoQcl.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pharyngobasilar Fascia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fig: Relations of tonsil. Tonsil is related laterally to its capsule (1), loose areolar tissue containing paraton- sillar vein (2), superior constrictor muscle (3), styloglossus (4), glossopharyngeal nerve (5), facial artery (6), medial pterygoid muscle (7), angle of mandible (8) and sub- mandibular salivary gland (9), pharyngobasilar fascia (10), buccopharyngeal fascia (11).</li><li>➤ Fig:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient experienced difficulty maintaining balance immediately after a roller coaster ride. Which of the following is most likely involved in the normal balance mechanism? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rubrospinal tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vestibulospinal tract", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corticospinal tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reticulospinal tract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vestibulospinal tract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_prWUaAT.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vestibulospinal tract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The vestibulospinal tract is primarily responsible for maintaining balance and posture by integrating vestibular system input and facilitating extensor muscle activity to stabilize the body during motion and positional changes. It plays a crucial role in postural adjustments following vestibular disturbances, such as those experienced after rapid or erratic motion, like a roller coaster ride.</li><li>➤ maintaining balance and posture</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the pointed structure shown in the image. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right Hepatic artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left Hepatic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Common Hepatic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystic artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right Hepatic artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_P9De98N.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_BsZLu6n.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Right Hepatic artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Right Hepatic artery is a branch of the proper hepatic artery that supplies the right lobe of the liver. It is an important anatomical structure in hepatobiliary surgery, as it gives rise to the cystic artery within Calot's triangle.</li><li>➤ Right Hepatic artery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked by the arrow in the image. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vesicouterine pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morrison's pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pouch of Douglas", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supravesical fossa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pouch of Douglas", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_V7XLv9d.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_QuCbgjw.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pouch of Douglas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Pouch of Douglas is the rectouterine pouch, the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity in females, where pathological fluid collections are often found during clinical evaluation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has an urge to urinate but he is not able to do. He has history of a fall astride injury. On examination blood is seen at meatus. Which of the following injury is most common? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bulbar urethra rupture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Membranous urethra rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extraperitoneal urethra rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraperitoneal urethra rupture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bulbar urethra rupture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bulbar urethra rupture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bulbar urethral rupture is the most common site of urethral injury in straddle injuries, presenting with blood at the urethral meatus, perineal hematoma, and urinary retention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure shown in the image: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastocyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zygote", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastrula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blastocyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_hXsKzsF.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blastocyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The blastocyst is a key structure in early human development that forms around day 5 post-fertilization and is essential for implantation. It consists of a trophoblast and an inner cell mass, which give rise to the placenta and embryo, respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the congenital abnormality shown in the image? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myelomeningocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spina bifida occulta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anencephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Open Neural Tube Defect", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Open Neural Tube Defect", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_5YTpWcq.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_r0FFcM1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_tsL2kiO.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_EcKccxx.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Open Neural Tube Defect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Open Neural Tube Defects (ONTDs) result from incomplete closure of the neural tube during early development. They can manifest in various forms, including myelomeningocele and anencephaly, depending on the site of the defect. Adequate maternal folate supplementation is critical for reducing the risk of ONTDs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cell shown in the image. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basket cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stellate cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Purkinje cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Golgi cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Purkinje cell", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_FFMstGH.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_H1lBZPt.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Purkinje cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Purkinje cells are large, flask-shaped neurons located in the Purkinje layer of the cerebellum. They play a critical role in motor coordination by integrating multiple inputs and sending inhibitory signals to the cerebellar nuclei.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of cartilage shown in the image. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elastic cartilage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyaline cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrocartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Articular cartilage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Elastic cartilage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_KEkR8VL.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_tjrp7YK.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Elastic cartilage is identified by the presence of elastic fibers within its matrix, which provides flexibility and strength. It is found in the pinna of the ear, epiglottis, and Eustachian tube.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure shown in the image.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymph Node", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Palatine tonsil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thymus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spleen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thymus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_3CawDVU.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_w3gvIud.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thymus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child present with congenital defect in diaphragm which is located on posterior/postero-lateral aspect of chest. What is your diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Morgagni hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bochdalek hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hiatal hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eventration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bochdalek hernia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_bWyHDoV.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_PAMhpEK.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bochdalek hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bochdalek hernia is the most common type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia, characterized by a posterior or posterolateral defect in the diaphragm, usually on the left side . It results from the failure of the pleuroperitoneal membrane to close and leads to pulmonary hypoplasia due to the herniation of abdominal organs into the thoracic cavity.</li><li>➤ posterior or posterolateral defect</li><li>➤ left side</li><li>➤ pulmonary hypoplasia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient, eye blinking occurs when a doctor touches the eye with a piece of cotton. Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying sensation? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "II CN", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "III CN", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "V CN", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "VII CN", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. V CN", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_njVxXtd.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) V CN (Trigeminal Nerve)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The trigeminal nerve (CN V) carries sensory information from the face and eye region, while the facial nerve (CN VII) provides motor innervation for facial expressions including blinking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness and weakness. She reports a history of binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting for weight control. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals the following: (FMGE JAN 2025) pH: 7.50 PaCO₂: 48 mmHg HCO₃: 33 mmol/L What is the most likely acid-base disturbance in this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metabolic alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metabolic alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This patient has metabolic alkalosis due to:</li><li>• Elevated pH (&gt; 7.45), indicating alkalemia. Elevated HCO₃ (&gt; 26 mEq/L), indicating metabolic alkalosis. Clinical history of vomiting, which leads to the loss of chloride (via gastric acid - Hcl), resulting in hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. Binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting suggests that the patient may suffer from bulimia nervosa , a psychiatric illness. Compensatory increase in PaCO₂ (normal: 35-45 mmHg), as per expected compensation using the Modified Winter's formula for Metabolic Alkalosis : Expected PaCO₂ = 0.7 × HCO₃ + 20 (or) 0.9 × HCO₃ + 16 In this case, let us use the second one: 0.9 × 33 + 16 = 45.7 mmHg (± 2) So the expected range would be 44-48 mm Hg. The patient’s PaCO₂ of 48 mmHg falls within the expected range.</li><li>• Elevated pH (&gt; 7.45), indicating alkalemia.</li><li>• pH</li><li>• Elevated HCO₃ (&gt; 26 mEq/L), indicating metabolic alkalosis.</li><li>• HCO₃</li><li>• Clinical history of vomiting, which leads to the loss of chloride (via gastric acid - Hcl), resulting in hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.</li><li>• Binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting suggests that the patient may suffer from bulimia nervosa , a psychiatric illness.</li><li>• bulimia nervosa</li><li>• Compensatory increase in PaCO₂ (normal: 35-45 mmHg), as per expected compensation using the Modified Winter's formula for Metabolic Alkalosis : Expected PaCO₂ = 0.7 × HCO₃ + 20 (or) 0.9 × HCO₃ + 16 In this case, let us use the second one: 0.9 × 33 + 16 = 45.7 mmHg (± 2) So the expected range would be 44-48 mm Hg. The patient’s PaCO₂ of 48 mmHg falls within the expected range.</li><li>• PaCO₂</li><li>• Modified Winter's formula for Metabolic Alkalosis</li><li>• Expected PaCO₂ = 0.7 × HCO₃ + 20 (or) 0.9 × HCO₃ + 16 In this case, let us use the second one: 0.9 × 33 + 16 = 45.7 mmHg (± 2) So the expected range would be 44-48 mm Hg. The patient’s PaCO₂ of 48 mmHg falls within the expected range.</li><li>• Expected PaCO₂ = 0.7 × HCO₃ + 20 (or) 0.9 × HCO₃ + 16</li><li>• 0.7 × HCO₃ + 20</li><li>• 0.9 × HCO₃ + 16</li><li>• In this case, let us use the second one: 0.9 × 33 + 16 = 45.7 mmHg (± 2) So the expected range would be 44-48 mm Hg.</li><li>• 0.9 × 33 + 16 = 45.7 mmHg (± 2)</li><li>• So the expected range would be 44-48 mm Hg.</li><li>• The patient’s PaCO₂ of 48 mmHg falls within the expected range.</li><li>• PaCO₂ of 48 mmHg falls within the expected range.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Metabolic acidosis : Incorrect, as this would present with low pH (&lt;7.4) and low HCO₃ (&lt;24)</li><li>• Option A. Metabolic acidosis</li><li>• low pH</li><li>• low HCO₃ (&lt;24)</li><li>• Option C. Respiratory acidosis : Incorrect, as the patient’s pH is 7.5 (alkalotic) and in acidosis pH would generally be low (&lt; 7.4)</li><li>• Option C. Respiratory acidosis</li><li>• Option D. Respiratory alkalosis : Incorrect, as this would present with low PaCO₂ (&lt; 40) and high pH (&gt;7.4)</li><li>• Option D. Respiratory alkalosis</li><li>• low PaCO₂</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic vomiting results in loss of chloride (in the vomitus), resulting in hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic Alkalosis is usually characterized by elevated pH and HCO₃ , with appropriate respiratory compensation ( elevated PaCO₂ - due to hypoventilation ).</li><li>➤ Chronic vomiting</li><li>➤ elevated pH and HCO₃</li><li>➤ elevated PaCO₂ - due to hypoventilation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely underlying condition associated with the Graham Steell murmur? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular septal defect (VSD)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitral Stenosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pulmonary regurgitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pulmonary regurgitation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Graham Steell murmur is a characteristic early diastolic murmur caused by pulmonary regurgitation in the setting of pulmonary hypertension . It occurs when increased pulmonary artery pressure causes dilation of the pulmonary valve ring , leading to incompetence and regurgitation. The murmur is best heard in the left second or third intercostal space and is characterized as an early diastolic, high-pitched, blowing murmur that decreases in intensity during inspiration.</li><li>• early diastolic murmur</li><li>• pulmonary regurgitation</li><li>• pulmonary hypertension</li><li>• increased pulmonary artery pressure</li><li>• pulmonary valve ring</li><li>• best heard in the left second or third intercostal space</li><li>• early diastolic, high-pitched, blowing murmur</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) : Produces a pansystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border . A small VSD producing a loud murmur is called Maladie de Roger , not Graham Steell murmur .</li><li>• Option B. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)</li><li>• pansystolic murmur</li><li>• left lower sternal border</li><li>• Maladie de Roger</li><li>• Graham Steell murmur</li><li>• Option C. Pulmonary stenosis: Produces an ejection systolic murmur best heard in the pulmonary area (left upper sternal border) . It does not produce a diastolic murmur , which is characteristic of Graham Steell murmur .</li><li>• Option C. Pulmonary stenosis:</li><li>• ejection systolic murmur</li><li>• pulmonary area (left upper sternal border)</li><li>• does not produce a diastolic murmur</li><li>• Graham Steell murmur</li><li>• Option D. Mitral stenosis: Produces a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex , with presystolic accentuation . It is associated with rheumatic heart disease and does not cause an early diastolic murmur characteristic of Graham Steell.</li><li>• Option D. Mitral stenosis:</li><li>• mid-diastolic murmur</li><li>• apex</li><li>• presystolic accentuation</li><li>• rheumatic heart disease</li><li>• does not cause an early diastolic murmur</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Graham Steell murmur is a high-pitched early diastolic murmur caused by pulmonary regurgitation in the setting of pulmonary hypertension .</li><li>➤ high-pitched early diastolic murmur</li><li>➤ pulmonary regurgitation</li><li>➤ pulmonary hypertension</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman presents with breathlessness. She is a known case of rheumatic heart disease. On examination, the apical impulse is hyperdynamic, and a \"pistol shot\" sound is heard over the femoral artery. The pulse is collapsing and water hammer-like. Auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur and an early diastolic murmur. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aortic regurgitation + Mitral regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitral stenosis + Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitral stenosis + Aortic regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitral regurgitation + Aortic stenosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aortic regurgitation + Mitral regurgitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Aortic regurgitation + Mitral regurgitation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical features suggest a combined valvular lesion with predominant aortic regurgitation (AR) and mitral regurgitation (MR) :</li><li>• combined valvular lesion</li><li>• aortic regurgitation (AR) and mitral regurgitation (MR)</li><li>• Pistol shot sounds (also called Traube’s sign or pistol shot femorals ) Collapsing/water hammer pulse ( Watson’s water hammer pulse ) Early diastolic murmur – Characteristic of AR Pansystolic murmur – Characteristic of MR Hyperdynamic apex – Seen in volume overload conditions like AR and MR History of rheumatic heart disease , which commonly affects the mitral and aortic valves</li><li>• Pistol shot sounds (also called Traube’s sign or pistol shot femorals )</li><li>• Pistol shot sounds</li><li>• Traube’s sign</li><li>• pistol shot femorals</li><li>• Collapsing/water hammer pulse ( Watson’s water hammer pulse )</li><li>• Collapsing/water hammer pulse</li><li>• Watson’s water hammer pulse</li><li>• Early diastolic murmur – Characteristic of AR</li><li>• Early diastolic murmur</li><li>• AR</li><li>• Pansystolic murmur – Characteristic of MR</li><li>• Pansystolic murmur</li><li>• MR</li><li>• Hyperdynamic apex – Seen in volume overload conditions like AR and MR</li><li>• Hyperdynamic apex</li><li>• volume overload conditions</li><li>• History of rheumatic heart disease , which commonly affects the mitral and aortic valves</li><li>• History of rheumatic heart disease</li><li>• commonly affects the mitral and aortic valves</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Mitral stenosis + Mitral regurgitation: Incorrect because:</li><li>• Option B. Mitral stenosis + Mitral regurgitation:</li><li>• MS produces a mid-diastolic murmur, not early diastolic MS does not cause collapsing pulse or pistol shot sounds MS typically causes a tapping apex, not hyperdynamic</li><li>• MS produces a mid-diastolic murmur, not early diastolic</li><li>• MS does not cause collapsing pulse or pistol shot sounds</li><li>• MS typically causes a tapping apex, not hyperdynamic</li><li>• Option C. Mitral stenosis + Aortic regurgitation : Incorrect because:</li><li>• Option C. Mitral stenosis + Aortic regurgitation</li><li>• No mid-diastolic murmur of MS described Pansystolic murmur indicates MR, not MS</li><li>• No mid-diastolic murmur of MS described</li><li>• Pansystolic murmur indicates MR, not MS</li><li>• Option D. Mitral regurgitation + Aortic stenosis : Incorrect because:</li><li>• Option D. Mitral regurgitation + Aortic stenosis</li><li>• AS produces an ejection systolic murmur, not early diastolic AS does not cause collapsing pulse or pistol shot sounds AS typically causes a sustained apex beat, not hyperdynamic</li><li>• AS produces an ejection systolic murmur, not early diastolic</li><li>• AS does not cause collapsing pulse or pistol shot sounds</li><li>• AS typically causes a sustained apex beat, not hyperdynamic</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The characteristic clinical features of combined aortic regurgitation and mitral regurgitation include:</li><li>➤ combined aortic regurgitation and mitral regurgitation</li><li>➤ Early diastolic murmur (AR) Pansystolic murmur (MR) Pistol shot sounds and water hammer pulse (AR) Hyperdynamic apex (volume overload)</li><li>➤ Early diastolic murmur (AR)</li><li>➤ Early diastolic murmur (AR)</li><li>➤ Pansystolic murmur (MR)</li><li>➤ Pansystolic murmur (MR)</li><li>➤ Pistol shot sounds and water hammer pulse (AR)</li><li>➤ Pistol shot sounds and water hammer pulse (AR)</li><li>➤ Hyperdynamic apex (volume overload)</li><li>➤ Hyperdynamic apex (volume overload)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with palpitations and giddiness. Her blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. ECG shows absent P waves and an irregularly irregular RR interval. What is the next step in management? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Verapamil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardioversion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cardioversion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cardioversion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is a case of atrial fibrillation (AF) with hemodynamic instability . The diagnosis is supported by:</li><li>• atrial fibrillation (AF) with hemodynamic instability</li><li>• ECG findings of absent P waves and an irregularly irregular RR interval – Classic for AF Low blood pressure (80/60 mmHg) – Indicates hemodynamic compromise Symptoms of palpitations and giddiness – Suggest compromised cardiac output</li><li>• ECG findings of absent P waves and an irregularly irregular RR interval – Classic for AF</li><li>• ECG findings</li><li>• irregularly irregular RR interval</li><li>• AF</li><li>• Low blood pressure (80/60 mmHg) – Indicates hemodynamic compromise</li><li>• Low blood pressure (80/60 mmHg)</li><li>• hemodynamic compromise</li><li>• Symptoms of palpitations and giddiness – Suggest compromised cardiac output</li><li>• Symptoms of palpitations and giddiness</li><li>• In any tachyarrhythmia with hemodynamic instability ( systolic BP &lt; 90 mmHg ), immediate synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice , regardless of the specific arrhythmia. This is because unstable blood pressure indicates that the patient is in shock and requires immediate rhythm restoration.</li><li>• tachyarrhythmia with hemodynamic instability</li><li>• systolic BP &lt; 90 mmHg</li><li>• immediate synchronized cardioversion</li><li>• treatment of choice</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Adenosine: Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Adenosine:</li><li>• Used primarily for PSVT (Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia) Not effective in atrial fibrillation (in fact C/I !!)</li><li>• Used primarily for PSVT (Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia)</li><li>• Not effective in atrial fibrillation (in fact C/I !!)</li><li>• Option B. Verapamil: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Verapamil:</li><li>• Useful in rate control for stable AF Contraindicated in hypotensive patients as it can worsen hypotension Reserved for hemodynamically stable patients</li><li>• Useful in rate control for stable AF</li><li>• Contraindicated in hypotensive patients as it can worsen hypotension</li><li>• Contraindicated in hypotensive patients</li><li>• Reserved for hemodynamically stable patients</li><li>• Option C. Amiodarone: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Amiodarone:</li><li>• Effective for AF, but has a delayed onset of action Not appropriate when immediate rhythm restoration is needed due to instability Better suited for maintenance therapy or rhythm control in stable patients</li><li>• Effective for AF, but has a delayed onset of action</li><li>• Not appropriate when immediate rhythm restoration is needed due to instability</li><li>• Better suited for maintenance therapy or rhythm control in stable patients</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In tachyarrhythmia with hemodynamic instability ( systolic BP &lt; 90 mmHg ), immediate synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice, regardless of the specific arrhythmia type.</li><li>➤ tachyarrhythmia with hemodynamic instability</li><li>➤ systolic BP &lt; 90 mmHg</li><li>➤ immediate synchronized cardioversion</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding first-degree AV block? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gradual prolongation of PR interval followed by a non-conducted P wave", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prolonged PR interval, and each P wave is followed by a QRS complex", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Presence of atrioventricular dissociation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal PR interval followed by a non-conducted P wave", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prolonged PR interval, and each P wave is followed by a QRS complex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_dVGBeYB.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prolonged PR interval, and each P wave is followed by a QRS complex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• First-degree AV block is characterized by prolongation of the PR interval ( &gt;0.2 seconds or &gt;200 milliseconds ) with each P wave being followed by a QRS complex . This represents a delay in conduction through the AV node , but every atrial impulse still successfully conducts to the ventricles . On ECG , this appears as more than five small boxes between the P wave and QRS complex .</li><li>• AV block</li><li>• prolongation of the PR interval</li><li>• &gt;0.2 seconds or &gt;200 milliseconds</li><li>• each P wave being followed by a QRS complex</li><li>• AV node</li><li>• every atrial impulse still successfully conducts to the ventricles</li><li>• ECG</li><li>• more than five small boxes</li><li>• P wave and QRS complex</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Gradual prolongation of PR interval followed by a non-conducted P wave: Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Gradual prolongation of PR interval followed by a non-conducted P wave:</li><li>• Describes Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) second-degree AV block , where PR lengthens progressively until a P wave fails to conduct</li><li>• Describes Mobitz</li><li>• type I (Wenckebach) second-degree AV block , where PR lengthens progressively until a P wave fails to conduct</li><li>• type I (Wenckebach) second-degree AV block</li><li>• PR lengthens progressively until a P wave fails to conduct</li><li>• Option C. Presence of atrioventricular dissociation: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Presence of atrioventricular dissociation:</li><li>• Seen in third-degree (complete) heart block , where the atria and ventricles beat independently P waves and QRS complexes have no relation to each other</li><li>• Seen in third-degree (complete) heart block , where the atria and ventricles beat independently</li><li>• Seen in third-degree (complete) heart block</li><li>• atria and ventricles beat independently</li><li>• P waves and QRS complexes have no relation to each other</li><li>• Option D. Normal PR interval followed by a non-conducted P wave: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Normal PR interval followed by a non-conducted P wave:</li><li>• Describes Mobitz type II second-degree AV block, where PR remains constant but occasional P waves fail to conduct</li><li>• Describes Mobitz type II second-degree AV block, where PR remains constant but occasional P waves fail to conduct</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ First-degree AV block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval (&gt;0.2 seconds) with 1:1 conduction , where each P wave is followed by a QRS complex .</li><li>➤ First-degree AV block</li><li>➤ prolonged PR interval (&gt;0.2 seconds)</li><li>➤ 1:1 conduction</li><li>➤ each P wave is followed by a QRS complex</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the jugular venous pressure (JVP) waveform, the a-wave corresponds to: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atrial contraction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Passive atrial filling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tricuspid valve closure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Atrial contraction", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_R4OsTx5.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Atrial contraction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The a-wave in the jugular venous pressure (JVP) waveform corresponds to atrial contraction . When the right atrium contracts , it causes an increase in pressure , which is transmitted backward into the jugular veins , creating the a-wave . This wave appears just before the carotid pulse and the first heart sound (S1) .</li><li>• a-wave</li><li>• jugular venous pressure (JVP) waveform</li><li>• atrial contraction</li><li>• right atrium contracts</li><li>• increase in pressure</li><li>• jugular veins</li><li>• a-wave</li><li>• appears just before the carotid pulse and the first heart sound (S1)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ventricular contraction: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Ventricular contraction:</li><li>• Ventricular contraction corresponds to the c-wave in the JVP waveform, caused by bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric ventricular contraction</li><li>• Ventricular contraction corresponds to the c-wave in the JVP waveform, caused by bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric ventricular contraction</li><li>• Ventricular contraction corresponds to the c-wave</li><li>• bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric ventricular contraction</li><li>• Option C. Passive atrial filling: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Passive atrial filling:</li><li>• Corresponds to the v-wave in the JVP waveform Occurs during ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed and blood continues to flow into the right atrium from the venae cavae</li><li>• Corresponds to the v-wave in the JVP waveform</li><li>• Corresponds to the v-wave</li><li>• Occurs during ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed and blood continues to flow into the right atrium from the venae cavae</li><li>• Occurs during ventricular systole</li><li>• tricuspid valve is closed</li><li>• flow into the right atrium from the venae cavae</li><li>• Option D. Tricuspid valve closure: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Tricuspid valve closure:</li><li>• Associated with the c-wave , not a distinct wave of its own</li><li>• Associated with the c-wave , not a distinct wave of its own</li><li>• Associated with the c-wave</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The a-wave in the JVP waveform corresponds to atrial contraction and is a key marker of normal atrial function .</li><li>➤ a-wave in the JVP waveform</li><li>➤ atrial contraction</li><li>➤ key marker of normal atrial function</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presents with persistent hypertension. Laboratory evaluation shows elevated aldosterone levels with suppressed renin activity. Which of the following findings is not seen? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium loss", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Muscle cramps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sodium loss", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sodium loss</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Primary hyperaldosteronism presents with hypertension and elevated aldosterone levels with suppressed renin activity . Key features:</li><li>• Primary hyperaldosteronism</li><li>• hypertension and elevated aldosterone levels</li><li>• suppressed renin activity</li><li>• Increased sodium reabsorption → Sodium retention (NOT loss) Increased potassium excretion → Hypokalemia Metabolic alkalosis → Due to increased hydrogen ion excretion Muscle cramps → Due to hypokalemia and electrolyte imbalance</li><li>• Increased sodium reabsorption → Sodium retention (NOT loss)</li><li>• Increased sodium reabsorption</li><li>• Sodium retention (NOT loss)</li><li>• Increased potassium excretion → Hypokalemia</li><li>• Increased potassium excretion</li><li>• Hypokalemia</li><li>• Metabolic alkalosis → Due to increased hydrogen ion excretion</li><li>• Metabolic alkalosis</li><li>• Due to increased hydrogen ion excretion</li><li>• Muscle cramps → Due to hypokalemia and electrolyte imbalance</li><li>• Muscle cramps</li><li>• Due to hypokalemia and electrolyte imbalance</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hypokalemia: Incorrect, as it is a classic finding in primary hyperaldosteronism due to increased urinary potassium excretion</li><li>• Option A. Hypokalemia:</li><li>• classic finding</li><li>• primary hyperaldosteronism</li><li>• increased urinary potassium excretion</li><li>• Option C. Metabolic alkalosis: Incorrect, as it occurs due to hydrogen ion loss and potassium depletion</li><li>• Option C. Metabolic alkalosis:</li><li>• hydrogen ion loss and potassium depletion</li><li>• Option D. Muscle cramps: Incorrect, as they are commonly seen in primary hyperaldosteronism , primarily due to hypokalemia</li><li>• Option D. Muscle cramps:</li><li>• commonly seen in primary hyperaldosteronism</li><li>• hypokalemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary hyperaldosteronism causes sodium retention (not sodium loss) and presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and muscle cramps .</li><li>➤ Primary hyperaldosteronism causes sodium retention (not sodium loss)</li><li>➤ hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and muscle cramps</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male smoker presents with a history of progressive dyspnea and chronic cough. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) reveal the following: (FMGE JAN 2025) Decreased FEV₁ Decreased FEV₁/FVC ratio (&lt;70%) Minimal improvement in FEV₁ after bronchodilator therapy What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interstitial lung disease (ILD)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This case presents a classic presentation of COPD with the following diagnostic features:</li><li>• classic presentation of COPD</li><li>• History of smoking (major risk factor) Progressive dyspnea and chronic cough (typical symptoms) PFT findings: Decreased FEV₁ and FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70% (diagnostic of obstructive airway disease) Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response ( distinguishing it from asthma, which shows significant bronchodilator response )</li><li>• History of smoking (major risk factor)</li><li>• History of smoking</li><li>• Progressive dyspnea and chronic cough (typical symptoms)</li><li>• Progressive dyspnea and chronic cough</li><li>• PFT findings: Decreased FEV₁ and FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70% (diagnostic of obstructive airway disease) Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response ( distinguishing it from asthma, which shows significant bronchodilator response )</li><li>• PFT findings:</li><li>• Decreased FEV₁ and FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70% (diagnostic of obstructive airway disease) Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response ( distinguishing it from asthma, which shows significant bronchodilator response )</li><li>• Decreased FEV₁ and FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70% (diagnostic of obstructive airway disease)</li><li>• Decreased FEV₁ and FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70%</li><li>• Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response ( distinguishing it from asthma, which shows significant bronchodilator response )</li><li>• Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response</li><li>• distinguishing it from asthma, which shows significant bronchodilator response</li><li>• According to the GOLD criteria , a post-bronchodilator FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70% confirms COPD in patients with appropriate symptoms and risk factors.</li><li>• GOLD criteria</li><li>• post-bronchodilator FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70% confirms COPD</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary fibrosis: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary fibrosis:</li><li>• Shows a restrictive pattern on PFTs with FEV₁/FVC &gt;70% and reduced total lung capacity (TLC)</li><li>• Shows a restrictive pattern on PFTs with FEV₁/FVC &gt;70% and reduced total lung capacity (TLC)</li><li>• restrictive pattern on PFTs</li><li>• FEV₁/FVC &gt;70%</li><li>• reduced total lung capacity (TLC)</li><li>• Option C. Interstitial lung disease (ILD): Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Interstitial lung disease (ILD):</li><li>• ILD also shows a restrictive pattern , not obstruction Would present with decreased lung volumes and preserved FEV₁/FVC ratio</li><li>• ILD also shows a restrictive pattern , not obstruction</li><li>• restrictive pattern</li><li>• obstruction</li><li>• Would present with decreased lung volumes and preserved FEV₁/FVC ratio</li><li>• decreased lung volumes and preserved FEV₁/FVC ratio</li><li>• Option D. Asthma: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Asthma:</li><li>• Asthma can show decreased FEV₁ and FEV₁/FVC ratio , but it typically demonstrates significant bronchodilator reversibility (&gt;12% and &gt;200 mL improvement in FEV₁) , which is not seen in this case</li><li>• Asthma can show decreased FEV₁ and FEV₁/FVC ratio , but it typically demonstrates significant bronchodilator reversibility (&gt;12% and &gt;200 mL improvement in FEV₁) , which is not seen in this case</li><li>• decreased FEV₁ and FEV₁/FVC ratio</li><li>• significant bronchodilator reversibility (&gt;12% and &gt;200 mL improvement in FEV₁)</li><li>• not seen in this case</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ COPD is diagnosed by a post-bronchodilator FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70% , minimal bronchodilator response, and risk factors such as smoking .</li><li>➤ post-bronchodilator FEV₁/FVC ratio &lt;70%</li><li>➤ risk factors such as smoking</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the X-ray shown below. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pulmonary edema", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_HJbVSzM.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_pcODZlz.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pulmonary edema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The chest X-ray demonstrates the classic \"bat wing\" appearance characteristic of pulmonary edema . This pattern shows:</li><li>• chest X-ray</li><li>• classic \"bat wing\" appearance</li><li>• pulmonary edema</li><li>• Bilateral hilar infiltrates with a perihilar distribution Butterfly or bat-wing-shaped opacity Edema fluid accumulation in the interstitial and alveolar spaces due to: Increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation (e.g., left heart failure) Increased capillary permeability</li><li>• Bilateral hilar infiltrates with a perihilar distribution</li><li>• Bilateral hilar infiltrates with a perihilar distribution</li><li>• Butterfly or bat-wing-shaped opacity</li><li>• Butterfly or bat-wing-shaped opacity</li><li>• Edema fluid accumulation in the interstitial and alveolar spaces due to: Increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation (e.g., left heart failure) Increased capillary permeability</li><li>• Edema fluid accumulation in the interstitial and alveolar spaces</li><li>• Increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation (e.g., left heart failure) Increased capillary permeability</li><li>• Increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation (e.g., left heart failure)</li><li>• Increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation (e.g., left heart failure)</li><li>• Increased capillary permeability</li><li>• Increased capillary permeability</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pleural effusion: Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Pleural effusion:</li><li>• Typically shows blunting of the costophrenic angles with a meniscus sign The pattern seen here is more central and perihilar , rather than at the lung bases</li><li>• Typically shows blunting of the costophrenic angles with a meniscus sign</li><li>• blunting of the costophrenic angles with a meniscus sign</li><li>• The pattern seen here is more central and perihilar , rather than at the lung bases</li><li>• more central and perihilar</li><li>• lung bases</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary fibrosis: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary fibrosis:</li><li>• Pulmonary fibrosis shows reticular opacities, honeycombing, and traction bronchiectasis The pattern is usually peripheral and basal , not central and perihilar</li><li>• Pulmonary fibrosis shows reticular opacities, honeycombing, and traction bronchiectasis</li><li>• reticular opacities, honeycombing, and traction bronchiectasis</li><li>• The pattern is usually peripheral and basal , not central and perihilar</li><li>• peripheral and basal</li><li>• central and perihilar</li><li>• Option D. Hydrothorax: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Hydrothorax:</li><li>• A pleural effusion containing transudative fluid Would show a meniscus sign and blunting of costophrenic angles , rather than a central bat-wing distribution</li><li>• A pleural effusion containing transudative fluid</li><li>• pleural effusion containing transudative fluid</li><li>• Would show a meniscus sign and blunting of costophrenic angles , rather than a central bat-wing distribution</li><li>• meniscus sign and blunting of costophrenic angles</li><li>• central bat-wing distribution</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize the classic \"bat wing\" or \"butterfly\" pattern on chest X-ray as characteristic of pulmonary edema , which presents as bilateral perihilar infiltrates with a central distribution .</li><li>➤ classic \"bat wing\" or \"butterfly\" pattern on chest X-ray</li><li>➤ pulmonary edema</li><li>➤ bilateral perihilar infiltrates with a central distribution</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent migraines characterized by throbbing unilateral headaches, nausea, and photophobia. She has not responded to over-the-counter analgesics. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for acute treatment? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sumatriptan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amitriptyline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verapamil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sumatriptan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sumatriptan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sumatriptan is the most appropriate choice for acute migraine treatment . It belongs to the triptan class ( 5-HT₁B/1D receptor agonists ) and:</li><li>• Sumatriptan</li><li>• most appropriate choice</li><li>• acute migraine treatment</li><li>• triptan</li><li>• 5-HT₁B/1D receptor agonists</li><li>• Works through vasoconstriction and blocking pain pathways Most effective when taken early in a migraine attack</li><li>• Works through vasoconstriction and blocking pain pathways</li><li>• Works through vasoconstriction</li><li>• blocking pain pathways</li><li>• Most effective when taken early in a migraine attack</li><li>• Most effective when taken early in a migraine attack</li><li>• The patient presents with classic migraine symptoms ( unilateral throbbing headache, nausea, photophobia ) and has failed over-the-counter medications , making triptans the next step in management .</li><li>• classic migraine symptoms</li><li>• unilateral throbbing headache, nausea, photophobia</li><li>• over-the-counter medications</li><li>• triptans the next step in management</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Propranolol: Incorrect. Beta-blocker used for migraine prophylaxis rather than acute treatment</li><li>• Option A. Propranolol:</li><li>• Beta-blocker used for migraine prophylaxis</li><li>• Option C. Amitriptyline: Incorrect. Tricyclic antidepressant used for migraine prevention , not acute attacks</li><li>• Option C. Amitriptyline:</li><li>• Tricyclic antidepressant used for migraine prevention</li><li>• Option D. Verapamil: Incorrect. Calcium channel blocker used for cluster headache prophylaxis , not migraines</li><li>• Option D. Verapamil:</li><li>• Calcium channel blocker used for cluster headache prophylaxis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triptans (e.g., sumatriptan) are first-line medications for acute treatment of moderate-to-severe migraines that have not responded to over-the-counter analgesics .</li><li>➤ Triptans (e.g., sumatriptan) are first-line medications</li><li>➤ acute treatment of moderate-to-severe migraines</li><li>➤ not responded to over-the-counter analgesics</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following antidiabetic drugs is preferred in a patient with heart and kidney disease? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biguanides", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GLP-1 receptor agonists", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SGLT-2 inhibitors", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sulfonylureas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. SGLT-2 inhibitors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) SGLT-2 inhibitors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SGLT-2 inhibitors (e.g., dapagliflozin, empagliflozin, canagliflozin ) are the preferred first-line agents in diabetic patients with heart and kidney disease because they:</li><li>• SGLT-2 inhibitors</li><li>• dapagliflozin, empagliflozin, canagliflozin</li><li>• preferred first-line agents</li><li>• heart and kidney disease</li><li>• Reduce major adverse cardiovascular events Decrease heart failure hospitalizations Slow progression of diabetic kidney disease Reduce proteinuria and lower blood pressure Provide cardio-protection independent of glucose control</li><li>• Reduce major adverse cardiovascular events</li><li>• Reduce major adverse cardiovascular events</li><li>• Decrease heart failure hospitalizations</li><li>• Decrease heart failure hospitalizations</li><li>• Slow progression of diabetic kidney disease</li><li>• Slow progression of diabetic kidney disease</li><li>• Reduce proteinuria and lower blood pressure</li><li>• Reduce proteinuria and lower blood pressure</li><li>• Provide cardio-protection independent of glucose control</li><li>• Provide cardio-protection independent of glucose control</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Biguanides (Metformin): While first-line for type 2 diabetes , it does not provide cardiovascular benefits and requires caution in kidney disease due to the risk of lactic acidosis</li><li>• Option A. Biguanides (Metformin):</li><li>• first-line for type 2 diabetes</li><li>• cardiovascular benefits</li><li>• caution in kidney disease</li><li>• lactic acidosis</li><li>• Option B. GLP-1 receptor agonists: While cardioprotective , they do not provide as strong heart failure or renal benefits as SGLT-2 inhibitors</li><li>• Option B. GLP-1 receptor agonists:</li><li>• cardioprotective</li><li>• do not provide as strong heart failure or renal benefits</li><li>• SGLT-2 inhibitors</li><li>• Option D. Sulfonylureas: Not preferred because:</li><li>• Option D. Sulfonylureas:</li><li>• High risk of hypoglycemia , especially in renal disease No proven cardiovascular benefits Possible increased cardiovascular risk with certain sulfonylureas</li><li>• High risk of hypoglycemia , especially in renal disease</li><li>• High risk of hypoglycemia</li><li>• No proven cardiovascular benefits</li><li>• Possible increased cardiovascular risk with certain sulfonylureas</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SGLT-2 inhibitors are the preferred antidiabetic agents in patients with heart failure and chronic kidney disease (CKD) due to their proven cardiovascular and renal benefits .</li><li>➤ SGLT-2 inhibitors are the preferred antidiabetic agents</li><li>➤ heart failure and chronic kidney disease (CKD)</li><li>➤ proven cardiovascular and renal benefits</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with palpitations, dizziness, and mild shortness of breath. Her ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia with a regular rhythm, consistent with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Her blood pressure is stable. What is the first-line drug of choice for treating this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verapamil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adenosine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adenosine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In a hemodynamically stable patient with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) , adenosine is the first-line pharmacological treatment after attempting vagal maneuvers .</li><li>• hemodynamically stable</li><li>• supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)</li><li>• adenosine</li><li>• first-line pharmacological treatment</li><li>• vagal maneuvers</li><li>• Adenosine is preferred because:</li><li>• Extremely short half-life (8-10 seconds) Effectively terminates most forms of SVT by blocking AV nodal conduction Administered as a rapid IV push (6 mg initial dose, followed by 12 mg if needed)</li><li>• Extremely short half-life (8-10 seconds)</li><li>• Extremely short half-life (8-10 seconds)</li><li>• Effectively terminates most forms of SVT by blocking AV nodal conduction</li><li>• Effectively terminates most forms of SVT</li><li>• blocking AV nodal conduction</li><li>• Administered as a rapid IV push (6 mg initial dose, followed by 12 mg if needed)</li><li>• Administered as a rapid IV push (6 mg initial dose, followed by 12 mg if needed)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Amiodarone: Not first-line therapy for acute SVT. More commonly used for ventricular arrhythmias or refractory SVT</li><li>• Option B. Amiodarone:</li><li>• ventricular arrhythmias or refractory SVT</li><li>• Option C. Metoprolol: Effective for rate control in AF , but not the first choice for acute SVT termination</li><li>• Option C. Metoprolol:</li><li>• AF</li><li>• not the first choice for acute SVT termination</li><li>• Option D. Verapamil: Used for SVT treatment , but not first-line due to risk of hypotension and bradycardia</li><li>• Option D. Verapamil:</li><li>• SVT treatment</li><li>• not first-line</li><li>• risk of hypotension and bradycardia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenosine is the first-line treatment for hemodynamically stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) , administered as a rapid IV push following vagal maneuvers.</li><li>➤ Adenosine is the first-line treatment</li><li>➤ hemodynamically stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)</li><li>➤ rapid IV push</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with progressive weakness that started in his lower limbs and is now ascending to involve his upper limbs. Examination reveals absent reflexes in the affected limbs and no significant sensory deficits. He had an upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transverse myelitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple sclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The diagnosis of GBS is supported by the classic triad of symptoms known as the \"three A's\" :</li><li>• GBS</li><li>• triad of symptoms</li><li>• \"three A's\"</li><li>• Acute onset Ascending paralysis (starting in the lower limbs and progressing upwards) Areflexia (absent reflexes)</li><li>• Acute onset</li><li>• Acute onset</li><li>• Ascending paralysis (starting in the lower limbs and progressing upwards)</li><li>• Ascending paralysis</li><li>• Areflexia (absent reflexes)</li><li>• Areflexia</li><li>• Additional supporting features include:</li><li>• Recent upper respiratory tract infection ( often Mycoplasma pneumoniae ) Symmetrical weakness Relative preservation of sensory function Post-infectious immune-mediated process</li><li>• Recent upper respiratory tract infection ( often Mycoplasma pneumoniae )</li><li>• Recent upper respiratory tract infection</li><li>• often Mycoplasma pneumoniae</li><li>• Symmetrical weakness</li><li>• Symmetrical weakness</li><li>• Relative preservation of sensory function</li><li>• Relative preservation of sensory function</li><li>• Post-infectious immune-mediated process</li><li>• Post-infectious immune-mediated process</li><li>• (If the patient had a history of diarrhea , the most likely pathogen would be Campylobacter jejuni .)</li><li>• diarrhea</li><li>• Campylobacter jejuni</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Transverse myelitis: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Transverse myelitis:</li><li>• Usually has bladder/bowel involvement Reflexes may be increased below the lesion , not absent</li><li>• Usually has bladder/bowel involvement</li><li>• bladder/bowel involvement</li><li>• Reflexes may be increased below the lesion , not absent</li><li>• increased below the lesion</li><li>• Option C. Myasthenia gravis: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Myasthenia gravis:</li><li>• Causes descending weakness , often affecting ocular and bulbar muscles first Normal reflexes and fluctuating weakness with fatigue</li><li>• Causes descending weakness , often affecting ocular and bulbar muscles first</li><li>• descending weakness</li><li>• ocular and bulbar muscles</li><li>• Normal reflexes and fluctuating weakness with fatigue</li><li>• Normal reflexes</li><li>• fluctuating weakness with fatigue</li><li>• Option D. Multiple sclerosis: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Multiple sclerosis:</li><li>• Presents with upper motor neuron signs (hyperreflexia, Babinski sign) Often associated with optic neuritis and sensory symptoms</li><li>• Presents with upper motor neuron signs (hyperreflexia, Babinski sign)</li><li>• upper motor neuron signs</li><li>• Often associated with optic neuritis and sensory symptoms</li><li>• optic neuritis and sensory symptoms</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) should be suspected in a patient with acute, ascending areflexic paralysis, particularly following a recent infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man presents with drooping of the corner of his mouth and weakness in the lower half of the right side of his face. He can raise his eyebrows and close his eyes on both sides. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supranuclear facial palsy on the left side", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infranuclear facial palsy on the right side", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supranuclear facial palsy on the right side", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infranuclear facial palsy on the left side", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Supranuclear facial palsy on the left side", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Supranuclear facial palsy on the left side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is a case of supranuclear (upper motor neuron) facial palsy affecting the right side of the face , which means the lesion is on the left side of the brain due to crossed innervation .</li><li>• supranuclear (upper motor neuron) facial palsy</li><li>• right side of the face</li><li>• left</li><li>• crossed innervation</li><li>• Key features supporting this diagnosis:</li><li>• Only the lower half of the face is affected ( sparing of the upper face ) Ability to raise eyebrows and close eyes bilaterally ( preserved upper facial function ) Right-sided facial weakness indicates a left-sided lesion</li><li>• Only the lower half of the face is affected ( sparing of the upper face )</li><li>• Only the lower half of the face is affected</li><li>• sparing of the upper face</li><li>• Ability to raise eyebrows and close eyes bilaterally ( preserved upper facial function )</li><li>• Ability to raise eyebrows and close eyes bilaterally</li><li>• preserved upper facial function</li><li>• Right-sided facial weakness indicates a left-sided lesion</li><li>• Right-sided facial weakness</li><li>• left-sided lesion</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Infranuclear facial palsy on the right side: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Infranuclear facial palsy on the right side:</li><li>• Lower motor neuron (LMN) lesions affect the entire half of the face Patients cannot raise their eyebrows or close their eyes on the affected side</li><li>• Lower motor neuron (LMN) lesions affect the entire half of the face</li><li>• Lower motor neuron (LMN) lesions affect the entire half of the face</li><li>• Patients cannot raise their eyebrows or close their eyes on the affected side</li><li>• cannot raise their eyebrows or close their eyes</li><li>• Option C. Supranuclear facial palsy on the right side: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Supranuclear facial palsy on the right side:</li><li>• Would cause left-sided lower facial weakness, not right-sided</li><li>• Would cause left-sided lower facial weakness, not right-sided</li><li>• Would cause left-sided lower facial weakness, not right-sided</li><li>• Option D. Infranuclear facial palsy on the left side: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Infranuclear facial palsy on the left side:</li><li>• Would cause left-sided full facial weakness</li><li>• Would cause left-sided full facial weakness</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Supranuclear (UMN) facial palsy affects the lower face on the opposite side of the lesion, while LMN facial palsy affects the entire ipsilateral face.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the key mechanism leading to tissue damage in patients with prolonged diabetes? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sorbitol accumulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperglycemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulin resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased insulin secretion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyperglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyperglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyperglycemia is the fundamental mechanism causing tissue damage in prolonged diabetes, leading to various microvascular complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with difficulty switching between movements and exhibits uncontrollable hand movements during a neurological examination. What is the most likely term used to describe this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Resting tremor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metamorphosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diadochokinesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intention tremor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Diadochokinesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Diadochokinesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Diadochokinesis refers to the ability to perform rapid alternating movements (e.g., pronation-supination of hands or tapping fingers). Difficulty switching between movements is termed dysdiadochokinesis , which is a clinical sign of cerebellar dysfunction . It is commonly seen in:</li><li>• Diadochokinesis</li><li>• perform rapid alternating movements</li><li>• dysdiadochokinesis</li><li>• clinical sign of cerebellar dysfunction</li><li>• Cerebellar ataxia Multiple sclerosis Stroke affecting the cerebellum</li><li>• Cerebellar ataxia</li><li>• Cerebellar ataxia</li><li>• Multiple sclerosis</li><li>• Multiple sclerosis</li><li>• Stroke affecting the cerebellum</li><li>• Stroke affecting the cerebellum</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Resting tremor: Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Resting tremor:</li><li>• Occurs at rest and improves with voluntary movement Characteristic of Parkinson’s disease (\"pill-rolling\" tremor)</li><li>• Occurs at rest and improves with voluntary movement</li><li>• Occurs at rest and improves with voluntary movement</li><li>• Characteristic of Parkinson’s disease (\"pill-rolling\" tremor)</li><li>• Characteristic of Parkinson’s disease</li><li>• Option B. Metamorphosis: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Metamorphosis:</li><li>• Not a neurological term related to movement disorders</li><li>• Not a neurological term related to movement disorders</li><li>• Not a neurological term related to movement disorders</li><li>• Option D. Intention tremor: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Intention tremor:</li><li>• A slow, coarse tremor that worsens as the limb approaches a target (seen in cerebellar lesions) Does not specifically describe difficulty switching between movements</li><li>• A slow, coarse tremor that worsens as the limb approaches a target (seen in cerebellar lesions)</li><li>• A slow, coarse tremor that worsens as the limb approaches a target</li><li>• Does not specifically describe difficulty switching between movements</li><li>• Does not specifically describe difficulty switching between movements</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements and is a key sign of cerebellar dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman presents with muscle cramps, tingling around her mouth, and a history of hypocalcemia. During the physical examination, tapping on the facial nerve just anterior to the ear elicits twitching of the facial muscles. What is this finding called? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trousseau’s sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chvostek’s sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Babinski sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Homan’s sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chvostek’s sign", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chvostek’s sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chvostek’s sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia , where tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear causes ipsilateral facial muscle twitching . This sign indicates neuromuscular irritability due to hypocalcemia.</li><li>• Chvostek’s sign</li><li>• hypocalcemia</li><li>• tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear causes ipsilateral facial muscle twitching</li><li>• neuromuscular irritability</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Trousseau’s sign: Also seen in hypocalcemia, but involves carpopedal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for 3 minutes</li><li>• Option A. Trousseau’s sign:</li><li>• carpopedal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for 3 minutes</li><li>• Option C. Babinski sign: Indicates upper motor neuron lesions , not related to calcium homeostasis</li><li>• Option C. Babinski sign:</li><li>• upper motor neuron lesions</li><li>• Option D. Homan’s sign: Associated with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) , not calcium metabolism</li><li>• Option D. Homan’s sign:</li><li>• Associated with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chvostek’s sign is facial muscle twitching elicited by tapping the facial nerve in hypocalcemia, representing neuromuscular irritability.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is on metformin therapy (500 mg BD). Their recent HbA1c is 7.6%, and their last blood glucose reading was 169 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next step in management? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Discontinue metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase the dose of metformin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Add a second oral hypoglycemic agent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Initiate insulin therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increase the dose of metformin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Increase the dose of metformin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient’s HbA1c of 7.6% is above the target of &lt;7% , indicating suboptimal glycemic control .</li><li>• HbA1c of 7.6% is above the target of &lt;7%</li><li>• suboptimal glycemic control</li><li>• Metformin is the first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes The current dose ( 500 mg BD ) is below the maximum effective dose Metformin can be increased up to 2000 mg/day (1000 mg BD) before adding another agent</li><li>• Metformin is the first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes</li><li>• Metformin is the first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes</li><li>• The current dose ( 500 mg BD ) is below the maximum effective dose</li><li>• 500 mg BD</li><li>• maximum effective dose</li><li>• Metformin can be increased up to 2000 mg/day (1000 mg BD) before adding another agent</li><li>• Metformin can be increased up to 2000 mg/day (1000 mg BD) before adding another agent</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Discontinue metformin: Incorrect, as it is the first-line treatment for diabetes</li><li>• Option A. Discontinue metformin:</li><li>• first-line treatment for diabetes</li><li>• Option C. Add a second agent: Not necessary until maximizing metformin dose</li><li>• Option C. Add a second agent:</li><li>• maximizing metformin dose</li><li>• Option D. Initiate insulin therapy: Reserved for severely uncontrolled diabetes (HbA1c &gt;9% or symptomatic hyperglycemia)</li><li>• Option D. Initiate insulin therapy:</li><li>• severely uncontrolled diabetes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Optimization of metformin dosage (up to 2000 mg/day) should be attempted before adding additional diabetes medications when glycemic control is suboptimal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations over the past two months. Laboratory tests reveal decreased TSH and elevated T3 and T4 levels. She is started on iodine-131 therapy. What is the most common long-term side effect of this treatment? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperthyroidism relapse", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid storm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiation-induced thyroiditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypothyroidism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypothyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• I-131 (radioactive iodine) therapy is commonly used for hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease) . The most common long-term side effect is hypothyroidism , due to:</li><li>• I-131 (radioactive iodine) therapy</li><li>• hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease)</li><li>• common long-term side effect is hypothyroidism</li><li>• Destruction of thyroid tissue Permanent reduction in thyroid hormone production</li><li>• Destruction of thyroid tissue</li><li>• Destruction of thyroid tissue</li><li>• Permanent reduction in thyroid hormone production</li><li>• Permanent reduction in thyroid hormone production</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hyperthyroidism relapse: Rare, as radioactive iodine typically leads to permanent thyroid destruction</li><li>• Option A. Hyperthyroidism relapse:</li><li>• radioactive iodine typically leads to permanent thyroid destruction</li><li>• Option B. Thyroid storm: Acute complication, not a long-term effect</li><li>• Option B. Thyroid storm:</li><li>• not a long-term effect</li><li>• Option D. Radiation-induced thyroiditis: Can occur but is a transient complication</li><li>• Option D. Radiation-induced thyroiditis:</li><li>• a transient complication</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypothyroidism is the most common long-term side effect of radioactive iodine (I-131) therapy, requiring lifelong thyroid hormone replacement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of smoking presents with a cough and hemoptysis. A chest X-ray is done and it is shown below. Which of the following findings is least likely to be associated with this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Horner syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brachial plexopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior vena cava syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exophthalmos", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Exophthalmos", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_3P9dJkp.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The X-ray findings suggest a Pancoast tumor (superior sulcus tumor) , which can invade adjacent structures, causing:</li><li>• Pancoast tumor (superior sulcus tumor)</li><li>• Brachial plexopathy (compression of lower brachial plexus) Horner’s syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) due to sympathetic chain involvement Superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava</li><li>• Brachial plexopathy (compression of lower brachial plexus)</li><li>• Brachial plexopathy</li><li>• Horner’s syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) due to sympathetic chain involvement</li><li>• Horner’s syndrome</li><li>• sympathetic chain involvement</li><li>• Superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava</li><li>• Superior vena cava syndrome</li><li>• compression of the superior vena cava</li><li>• Exophthalmos is more commonly associated with Graves’ disease and is not a feature of Pancoast tumors .</li><li>• Exophthalmos is more commonly associated with Graves’ disease</li><li>• not a feature of Pancoast tumors</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Horner syndrome: Incorrect because this is a common finding in Pancoast tumor due to involvement of the sympathetic chain</li><li>• Option A. Horner syndrome:</li><li>• Option B. Brachial plexopathy: Incorrect because this is commonly seen due to compression of the lower part of the brachial plexus by the tumor</li><li>• Option B. Brachial plexopathy:</li><li>• Option C. Superior vena cava syndrome: Incorrect because SVC syndrome can occur in Pancoast tumors due to compression or invasion of the superior vena cava</li><li>• Option C. Superior vena cava syndrome:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pancoast tumors present with Horner’s syndrome, brachial plexopathy, and superior vena cava syndrome, but exophthalmos is not part of the presentation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B infection is being evaluated for infectivity status. Which of the following markers indicates high infectivity? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti-HBc", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-HBs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HBeAg", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBsAg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HBeAg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HBeAg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• HBeAg (Hepatitis B e antigen) is a marker of viral replication and infectivity in chronic hepatitis B infection. Its presence indicates:</li><li>• HBeAg (Hepatitis B e antigen)</li><li>• viral replication and infectivity</li><li>• High levels of viral replication Higher risk of transmission Greater infectivity Usually associated with higher HBV DNA levels Important prognostic marker for complications like cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma</li><li>• High levels of viral replication</li><li>• High levels of viral replication</li><li>• Higher risk of transmission</li><li>• Higher risk of transmission</li><li>• Greater infectivity</li><li>• Greater infectivity</li><li>• Usually associated with higher HBV DNA levels</li><li>• Usually associated with higher HBV DNA levels</li><li>• Important prognostic marker for complications like cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma</li><li>• Important prognostic marker for complications like cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Anti-HBc: Indicates current or past HBV infection , but not infectivity</li><li>• Option A. Anti-HBc:</li><li>• current or past HBV infection</li><li>• not infectivity</li><li>• Option B. Anti-HBs: Indicates immunity (through vaccination or recovery), not infectivity</li><li>• Option B. Anti-HBs:</li><li>• immunity</li><li>• not infectivity</li><li>• Option D. HBsAg: Indicates infection , but does not differentiate between high and low infectivity</li><li>• Option D. HBsAg:</li><li>• infection</li><li>• does not differentiate between high and low infectivity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HBeAg is a key marker of high viral replication and infectivity in chronic hepatitis B infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old man with chronic hepatitis B presents with right upper quadrant pain, weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable liver edge. His laboratory results show elevated liver enzymes and significantly raised AFP levels. Imaging reveals a hypoechoic liver lesion with arterial enhancement and early washout. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatocellular carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cholangiocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Focal nodular hyperplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatic adenoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hepatocellular carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation strongly suggests HCC , supported by:</li><li>• HCC</li><li>• Risk factor : Chronic hepatitis B Clinical symptoms : RUQ pain, weight loss, jaundice, hepatomegaly Lab findings : Elevated liver enzymes and significantly raised alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) Imaging : Hypoechoic lesion with arterial enhancement and early washout , classic for HCC</li><li>• Risk factor : Chronic hepatitis B</li><li>• Risk factor</li><li>• Clinical symptoms : RUQ pain, weight loss, jaundice, hepatomegaly</li><li>• Clinical symptoms</li><li>• Lab findings : Elevated liver enzymes and significantly raised alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)</li><li>• Lab findings</li><li>• alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)</li><li>• Imaging : Hypoechoic lesion with arterial enhancement and early washout , classic for HCC</li><li>• Imaging</li><li>• arterial enhancement and early washout</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Cholangiocarcinoma: More commonly associated with PSC, liver flukes, or biliary disease</li><li>• Option B. Cholangiocarcinoma:</li><li>• PSC, liver flukes, or biliary disease</li><li>• Option C. Focal nodular hyperplasia: Usually incidental, benign, seen in young women</li><li>• Option C. Focal nodular hyperplasia:</li><li>• incidental, benign, seen in young women</li><li>• Option D. Hepatic adenoma: More common in young women on OCPs , lacks early washout</li><li>• Option D. Hepatic adenoma:</li><li>• More common in young women on OCPs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatocellular carcinoma presents with characteristic imaging (arterial enhancement with early washout) in a patient with chronic hepatitis B.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 64-year-old male presents to the emergency department with chest pain radiating to the left arm and shoulder for the past 20 minutes. The ECG demonstrates ST-segment depression, and troponin levels are positive. What is the next best step in the patient’s management? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give aspirin and discharge the patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give aspirin + clopidogrel", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start thrombolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perform a stress test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Give aspirin + clopidogrel", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) , characterized by:</li><li>• Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI)</li><li>• Chest pain radiating to the arm ST-segment depression on ECG Positive troponins</li><li>• Chest pain radiating to the arm</li><li>• Chest pain radiating to the arm</li><li>• ST-segment depression on ECG</li><li>• ST-segment depression on ECG</li><li>• Positive troponins</li><li>• Positive troponins</li><li>• Initial management follows the MONA-B protocol , and dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + clopidogrel) is the first step .</li><li>• management follows the MONA-B protocol</li><li>• dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + clopidogrel) is the first step</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Aspirin alone and discharge: Incorrect, as NSTEMI requires hospital admission and further evaluation</li><li>• Option A. Aspirin alone and discharge:</li><li>• NSTEMI requires hospital admission and further evaluation</li><li>• Option C. Thrombolysis: Contraindicated in NSTEMI (only indicated for STEMI )</li><li>• Option C. Thrombolysis:</li><li>• NSTEMI</li><li>• STEMI</li><li>• Option D. Stress test: Contraindicated in acute coronary syndrome</li><li>• Option D. Stress test:</li><li>• acute coronary syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NSTEMI management includes dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + clopidogrel), and thrombolysis is contraindicated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient reports a gradual increase in breathlessness over the past few months. On physical examination, a prominent left parasternal heave is noted, along with hepatomegaly. Auscultation reveals a loud systolic murmur. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonic stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary arterial hypertension", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pulmonary arterial hypertension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The key findings strongly suggest pulmonary hypertension (PAH) :</li><li>• pulmonary hypertension (PAH)</li><li>• Gradual onset of dyspnea Left parasternal heave ( right ventricular hypertrophy ) Hepatomegaly ( right heart failure ) Loud systolic murmur ( functional tricuspid regurgitation )</li><li>• Gradual onset of dyspnea</li><li>• Gradual onset of dyspnea</li><li>• Left parasternal heave ( right ventricular hypertrophy )</li><li>• Left parasternal heave</li><li>• right ventricular hypertrophy</li><li>• Hepatomegaly ( right heart failure )</li><li>• Hepatomegaly</li><li>• right heart failure</li><li>• Loud systolic murmur ( functional tricuspid regurgitation )</li><li>• Loud systolic murmur</li><li>• functional tricuspid regurgitation</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pulmonary regurgitation: Produces an early diastolic murmur , not systolic</li><li>• Option A. Pulmonary regurgitation:</li><li>• early diastolic murmur</li><li>• systolic</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary embolism: Usually acute onset , not gradual progression</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary embolism:</li><li>• acute onset</li><li>• gradual progression</li><li>• Option C. Pulmonic stenosis: Produces an ejection systolic murmur , but lacks right heart failure features</li><li>• Option C. Pulmonic stenosis:</li><li>• ejection systolic murmur</li><li>• right heart failure features</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A triad of chronic dyspnea, left parasternal heave, and hepatomegaly is highly suggestive of pulmonary arterial hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with an intense headache, repeated vomiting, and neck stiffness. Lumbar puncture yields turbid cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Microscopic analysis shows 90% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, a CSF glucose of 40 mg/dL (serum glucose: 120 mg/dL), and a protein concentration of 200 mg/dL. What is the most suitable treatment approach for this patient? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HRZE (Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ceftriaxone plus acyclovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone plus vancomycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cefotaxime plus ampicillin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ceftriaxone plus vancomycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ceftriaxone plus vancomycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation and CSF findings strongly suggest bacterial meningitis , characterized by:</li><li>• clinical presentation and CSF findings</li><li>• bacterial meningitis</li><li>• Headache, vomiting, neck stiffness (classic triad) Turbid CSF with neutrophilic pleocytosis (90% PMNs) Low CSF glucose (&lt;50% of serum glucose) Elevated protein (&gt;45 mg/dL)</li><li>• Headache, vomiting, neck stiffness (classic triad)</li><li>• Headache, vomiting, neck stiffness</li><li>• Turbid CSF with neutrophilic pleocytosis (90% PMNs)</li><li>• Turbid CSF with neutrophilic pleocytosis (90% PMNs)</li><li>• Low CSF glucose (&lt;50% of serum glucose)</li><li>• Low CSF glucose (&lt;50% of serum glucose)</li><li>• Elevated protein (&gt;45 mg/dL)</li><li>• Elevated protein (&gt;45 mg/dL)</li><li>• Empirical treatment for adult bacterial meningitis:</li><li>• Empirical treatment for adult bacterial meningitis:</li><li>• Ceftriaxone – Covers Neisseria meningitidis and most pneumococci Vancomycin – Added to cover resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae</li><li>• Ceftriaxone – Covers Neisseria meningitidis and most pneumococci</li><li>• Ceftriaxone</li><li>• Neisseria meningitidis and most pneumococci</li><li>• Vancomycin – Added to cover resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae</li><li>• Vancomycin</li><li>• cover resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. HRZE (anti-TB therapy): Used for tuberculous meningitis , which presents with chronic symptoms and lymphocytic pleocytosis</li><li>• Option A. HRZE (anti-TB therapy):</li><li>• tuberculous meningitis</li><li>• chronic symptoms and lymphocytic pleocytosis</li><li>• Option B. Ceftriaxone + acyclovir: Used for HSV encephalitis , which shows lymphocytic pleocytosis and temporal lobe involvement</li><li>• Option B. Ceftriaxone + acyclovir:</li><li>• HSV encephalitis</li><li>• lymphocytic pleocytosis and temporal lobe involvement</li><li>• Option D. Cefotaxime + ampicillin : Used in neonatal, elderly, or immunocompromised patients (for Listeria monocytogenes )</li><li>• Option D. Cefotaxime + ampicillin</li><li>• neonatal, elderly, or immunocompromised patients</li><li>• Listeria monocytogenes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bacterial meningitis treatment involves empiric ceftriaxone + vancomycin to cover resistant pneumococci and meningococci.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old electrical worker is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a high-voltage electric shock at work. He reports muscle pain, weakness, and dark-colored urine since the incident. Physical examination reveals tender, swollen muscles in the upper limbs. What is the most likely substance found in his urine? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RBCs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myoglobin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Creatine kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bilirubin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Myoglobin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_DmfYsp7.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This patient presents with rhabdomyolysis following a high-voltage electrical injury , characterized by:</li><li>• rhabdomyolysis</li><li>• electrical injury</li><li>• Muscle pain, weakness, and dark-colored urine (myoglobinuria) Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels Tender, swollen muscles</li><li>• Muscle pain, weakness, and dark-colored urine (myoglobinuria)</li><li>• Muscle pain, weakness, and dark-colored urine (myoglobinuria)</li><li>• Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels</li><li>• Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels</li><li>• Tender, swollen muscles</li><li>• Tender, swollen muscles</li><li>• Myoglobin is released into circulation from damaged muscle cells and subsequently filtered by the kidneys, leading to myoglobinuria , which can cause acute kidney injury (AKI) due to tubular toxicity and obstruction.</li><li>• Myoglobin</li><li>• damaged muscle cells</li><li>• myoglobinuria</li><li>• acute kidney injury (AKI)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. RBCs: Would indicate hematuria , which is not the main feature of rhabdomyolysis</li><li>• Option A. RBCs:</li><li>• hematuria</li><li>• Option C. Creatine kinase : Although CK levels are elevated , CK is not excreted in urine</li><li>• Option C. Creatine kinase</li><li>• elevated</li><li>• CK is not excreted in urine</li><li>• Option D. Bilirubin: Suggests liver dysfunction or hemolysis , not muscle breakdown</li><li>• Option D. Bilirubin:</li><li>• liver dysfunction or hemolysis</li><li>• muscle breakdown</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In rhabdomyolysis, myoglobin is released from damaged muscles, leading to myoglobinuria and a risk of acute kidney injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient diagnosed with mitral stenosis is being evaluated. Which clinical finding best indicates the severity of the condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muffled heart sounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loud S1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "S3 gallop", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Time interval between S2 and the opening snap", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Time interval between S2 and the opening snap", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Time interval between S2 and the opening snap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The S2-OS (second heart sound to opening snap) interval is the best indicator of mitral stenosis severity :</li><li>• S2-OS (second heart sound to opening snap) interval</li><li>• best indicator of mitral stenosis severity</li><li>• Mild MS: S2-OS interval is longer (~100 ms or more) Severe MS: S2-OS interval is short (~60 ms or less), indicating higher left atrial pressure</li><li>• Mild MS: S2-OS interval is longer (~100 ms or more)</li><li>• Mild MS:</li><li>• S2-OS interval is longer</li><li>• Severe MS: S2-OS interval is short (~60 ms or less), indicating higher left atrial pressure</li><li>• Severe MS:</li><li>• S2-OS interval is short</li><li>• higher left atrial pressure</li><li>• The earlier the opening snap occurs, the more severe the stenosis.</li><li>• The earlier the opening snap occurs, the more severe the stenosis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Muffled heart sounds : Seen in pericardial effusion, cardiac tamponade , not mitral stenosis</li><li>• Option A. Muffled heart sounds</li><li>• pericardial effusion, cardiac tamponade</li><li>• Option B. Loud S1: Common in MS, but may become soft in severe cases due to valve calcification</li><li>• Option B. Loud S1:</li><li>• may become soft in severe cases due to valve calcification</li><li>• Option C. S3 gallop: Associated with heart failure, mitral regurgitation , not mitral stenosis</li><li>• Option C. S3 gallop:</li><li>• heart failure, mitral regurgitation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The S2-OS interval is the best clinical indicator of mitral stenosis severity, as a shorter interval reflects higher left atrial pressure and more severe disease progression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 19-year-old patient presents with generalized edema (anasarca). Laboratory tests reveal proteinuria of 4.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia. What is the recommended treatment for this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Steroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Steroids and cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This patient has nephrotic syndrome , characterized by:</li><li>• nephrotic syndrome</li><li>• Proteinuria &gt;3.5 g/day Hypoalbuminemia Generalized edema (anasarca) Hyperlipidemia</li><li>• Proteinuria &gt;3.5 g/day</li><li>• Proteinuria &gt;3.5 g/day</li><li>• Hypoalbuminemia</li><li>• Hypoalbuminemia</li><li>• Generalized edema (anasarca)</li><li>• Generalized edema (anasarca)</li><li>• Hyperlipidemia</li><li>• Hyperlipidemia</li><li>• In young adults and children , one of the most common causes is Minimal Change Disease (MCD) , which is highly responsive to corticosteroids .</li><li>• young adults and children</li><li>• most common causes</li><li>• Minimal Change Disease (MCD)</li><li>• highly responsive to corticosteroids</li><li>• First-line therapy:</li><li>• First-line therapy:</li><li>• High-dose steroids (prednisone 1 mg/kg/day) for 4–8 weeks 80-90% remission rate</li><li>• High-dose steroids (prednisone 1 mg/kg/day) for 4–8 weeks</li><li>• High-dose steroids (prednisone 1 mg/kg/day) for 4–8 weeks</li><li>• 80-90% remission rate</li><li>• 80-90% remission rate</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. IV albumin: Provides temporary relief but does not treat the underlying disease</li><li>• Option A. IV albumin:</li><li>• temporary relief</li><li>• does not treat the underlying disease</li><li>• Option B. Cyclophosphamide: Reserved for steroid-resistant or frequently relapsing nephrotic syndrome</li><li>• Option B. Cyclophosphamide:</li><li>• steroid-resistant or frequently relapsing nephrotic syndrome</li><li>• Option D. Steroids and cyclophosphamide : Combination therapy is not needed initially. Can be used for immune mediated disorders like lupus nehritis as a part of induction therapy.</li><li>• Option D. Steroids and cyclophosphamide</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nephrotic syndrome in children (and some times in young adults) is most commonly due to Minimal Change Disease and is highly responsive to corticosteroids.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a recent diagnosis of pneumonia presents with pleural effusion. Pleural fluid analysis is performed. Which of the following findings is not consistent with a diagnosis of exudative parapneumonic effusion? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleural fluid LDH more than 2/3 of ULN serum LDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pleural fluid protein-to-serum protein ratio more than 0.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleural fluid pH greater than 7.4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pleural fluid LDH more than 0.6 of serum LDH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pleural fluid pH greater than 7.4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pleural fluid pH greater than 7.4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Parapneumonic effusions are exudative pleural effusions associated with pneumonia, lung abscess, or bronchiectasis .</li><li>• Parapneumonic effusions</li><li>• exudative pleural effusions</li><li>• pneumonia, lung abscess, or bronchiectasis</li><li>• Light’s criteria define exudates as having at least one of the following :</li><li>• Light’s criteria define exudates</li><li>• one of the following</li><li>• Pleural fluid LDH &gt;2/3 of upper normal serum LDH Pleural fluid protein-to-serum protein ratio &gt;0.5 Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio &gt;0.6</li><li>• Pleural fluid LDH &gt;2/3 of upper normal serum LDH</li><li>• Pleural fluid LDH &gt;2/3 of upper normal serum LDH</li><li>• Pleural fluid protein-to-serum protein ratio &gt;0.5</li><li>• Pleural fluid protein-to-serum protein ratio &gt;0.5</li><li>• Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio &gt;0.6</li><li>• Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio &gt;0.6</li><li>• Pleural fluid pH is typically &lt;7.2 in complicated parapneumonic effusions and empyema .</li><li>• Pleural fluid pH is typically &lt;7.2 in complicated parapneumonic effusions and empyema</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Options A, B, and D – Correctly describe exudative effusions</li><li>• Options A, B, and D</li><li>• exudative effusions</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Exudative parapneumonic effusions meet at least one of Light’s criteria, and pH is usually &lt;7.4.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient diagnosed with both TB and AIDS is started on antiretroviral therapy (ART). Shortly after, he experiences a worsening of symptoms, including fever and malaise. What is the most likely cause of this clinical deterioration? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drug interaction between anti-tuberculosis (ATT) drugs and ART", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Resistance to Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Development of extrapulmonary TB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• IRIS occurs after initiating ART in HIV patients with an underlying opportunistic infection (e.g., TB).</li><li>• IRIS occurs after initiating ART in HIV patients with an underlying opportunistic infection (e.g., TB).</li><li>• Pathophysiology: Before ART: Severe immunosuppression limits the immune response against TB After ART initiation: Rapid immune restoration triggers an exaggerated inflammatory response against pre-existing but previously unrecognized TB Result: Clinical worsening with fever, lymphadenopathy, worsening respiratory symptoms</li><li>• Pathophysiology: Before ART: Severe immunosuppression limits the immune response against TB After ART initiation: Rapid immune restoration triggers an exaggerated inflammatory response against pre-existing but previously unrecognized TB Result: Clinical worsening with fever, lymphadenopathy, worsening respiratory symptoms</li><li>• Pathophysiology:</li><li>• Before ART: Severe immunosuppression limits the immune response against TB After ART initiation: Rapid immune restoration triggers an exaggerated inflammatory response against pre-existing but previously unrecognized TB Result: Clinical worsening with fever, lymphadenopathy, worsening respiratory symptoms</li><li>• Before ART: Severe immunosuppression limits the immune response against TB</li><li>• Before ART:</li><li>• After ART initiation: Rapid immune restoration triggers an exaggerated inflammatory response against pre-existing but previously unrecognized TB</li><li>• After ART initiation:</li><li>• exaggerated inflammatory response</li><li>• Result: Clinical worsening with fever, lymphadenopathy, worsening respiratory symptoms</li><li>• Result:</li><li>• Types of IRIS:</li><li>• Types of IRIS:</li><li>• Paradoxical IRIS: Worsening of TB symptoms despite adequate treatment Unmasking IRIS: New onset TB symptoms after ART initiation</li><li>• Paradoxical IRIS: Worsening of TB symptoms despite adequate treatment</li><li>• Paradoxical IRIS:</li><li>• despite adequate treatment</li><li>• Unmasking IRIS: New onset TB symptoms after ART initiation</li><li>• Unmasking IRIS:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Drug interaction between ATT and ART : Rifampin reduces ART drug levels , but this does not cause fever and malaise</li><li>• Option A. Drug interaction between ATT and ART</li><li>• reduces ART drug levels</li><li>• not cause fever and malaise</li><li>• Option B. Resistance to MTB: Would cause persistent infection , not acute worsening</li><li>• Option B. Resistance to MTB:</li><li>• persistent infection</li><li>• Option D. Development of extrapulmonary TB: IRIS can exacerbate existing TB , but it is not a new TB infection</li><li>• Option D. Development of extrapulmonary TB:</li><li>• exacerbate existing TB</li><li>• not a new TB infection</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) occurs after ART initiation, leading to an exaggerated inflammatory response against pre-existing infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with decompensated liver cirrhosis presents with difficulty breathing due to significant ascites accumulation. Which of the following statements regarding the evaluation and cause of ascites is incorrect? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ascites occurs due to secondary hyperaldosteronism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Simultaneous measurement of serum and ascitic fluid albumin levels is necessary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is typically less than 1.1 g/dL in cirrhosis-related ascites", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is typically greater than 1.1 g/dL in cirrhosis-related ascites", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is typically less than 1.1 g/dL in cirrhosis-related ascites", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is typically less than 1.1 g/dL in cirrhosis-related ascites</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ascites in cirrhosis is caused by portal hypertension , which increases hydrostatic pressure , leading to fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity .</li><li>• cirrhosis</li><li>• portal hypertension</li><li>• increases hydrostatic pressure</li><li>• peritoneal cavity</li><li>• SAAG classification:</li><li>• SAAG classification:</li><li>• SAAG &gt; 1.1 g/dL → Portal hypertension-related ascites (e.g., cirrhosis, heart failure, Budd-Chiari syndrome) SAAG &lt; 1.1 g/dL → Non-portal hypertension causes (e.g., malignancy, tuberculosis, pancreatitis)</li><li>• SAAG &gt; 1.1 g/dL → Portal hypertension-related ascites (e.g., cirrhosis, heart failure, Budd-Chiari syndrome)</li><li>• SAAG &gt; 1.1 g/dL</li><li>• Portal hypertension-related ascites</li><li>• SAAG &lt; 1.1 g/dL → Non-portal hypertension causes (e.g., malignancy, tuberculosis, pancreatitis)</li><li>• SAAG &lt; 1.1 g/dL</li><li>• Non-portal hypertension causes</li><li>• Since cirrhosis-related ascites results from increased portal pressure , SAAG is typically &gt;1.1 g/dL .</li><li>• cirrhosis-related ascites results from increased portal pressure</li><li>• typically &gt;1.1 g/dL</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ascites occurs due to secondary hyperaldosteronism: Correct; cirrhosis leads to RAAS activation , causing sodium and water retention</li><li>• Option A. Ascites occurs due to secondary hyperaldosteronism:</li><li>• RAAS activation</li><li>• Option B. Simultaneous measurement of serum and ascitic fluid albumin levels is necessary: Correct; SAAG is calculated using these values</li><li>• Option B. Simultaneous measurement of serum and ascitic fluid albumin levels is necessary:</li><li>• Option D. SAAG is typically &gt;1.1 g/dL in cirrhosis-related ascites: Correct, as it reflects portal hypertension</li><li>• Option D. SAAG is typically &gt;1.1 g/dL in cirrhosis-related ascites:</li><li>• portal hypertension</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The SAAG value helps differentiate portal hypertension-related ascites (&gt;1.1 g/dL) from non-portal hypertension causes (&lt;1.1 g/dL).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the given X-ray image, what is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sub acute intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paralytic ileus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hollow viscus perforation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hollow viscus perforation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20131231.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20131242.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hollow viscus perforation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The X-ray shows free air under both domes of diaphragm, which is pathognomonic of hollow viscus perforation. This occurs when there is a breach in the wall of a hollow organ (like stomach or intestine) leading to escape of air into the peritoneal cavity. The free air rises and collects under the diaphragm, visible as a dark area on chest X-ray when the patient is erect X-ray.</li><li>• The common causes include:</li><li>• The common causes include:</li><li>• Peptic ulcer perforation (most common) Traumatic bowel injury Typhoid ileal perforation Appendicular perforation</li><li>• Peptic ulcer perforation (most common)</li><li>• Traumatic bowel injury</li><li>• Typhoid ileal perforation</li><li>• Appendicular perforation</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Sub-acute intestinal obstruction : Incorrect because X-ray would show dilated bowel loops with multiple air-fluid levels, not free air under the diaphragm</li><li>• Option A. Sub-acute intestinal obstruction</li><li>• Option B. Paralytic ileus : Incorrect as X-ray would show dilated bowel loops with air throughout, no free air under diaphragm</li><li>• Option B. Paralytic ileus</li><li>• Option C. Pleural effusion : Incorrect as X-ray would show homogeneous opacity in pleural space with obliteration of costophrenic angles, not free air under diaphragm</li><li>• Option C. Pleural effusion</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hollow viscus perforation is diagnosed radiologically by the presence of free air under the diaphragm, typically seen in an erect chest X-ray or CT scan of the abdomen. It is a surgical emergency requiring immediate laparotomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman presents with progressive dysphagia, which is more pronounced for liquids than solids. A barium swallow study is performed. Which characteristic radiological finding is most likely to be observed? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rat tail deformity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Smooth filling defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Irregular filling defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corkscrew esophagus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rat tail deformity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20131300.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rat tail deformity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation strongly suggests achalasia cardia:</li><li>• Young patient (25 years) Dysphagia to both liquids and solids, with liquids being affected more In achalasia, barium swallow characteristically shows a \"bird beak\" or \"rat tail\" appearance due to smooth tapering at the gastroesophageal junction with proximal dilation of esophagus This appearance is due to failure of LES relaxation with preserved peristalsis in body of esophagus, which is the hallmark of achalasia</li><li>• Young patient (25 years)</li><li>• Dysphagia to both liquids and solids, with liquids being affected more</li><li>• In achalasia, barium swallow characteristically shows a \"bird beak\" or \"rat tail\" appearance due to smooth tapering at the gastroesophageal junction with proximal dilation of esophagus</li><li>• This appearance is due to failure of LES relaxation with preserved peristalsis in body of esophagus, which is the hallmark of achalasia</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Smooth filling defect : Incorrect as this suggests a benign mass/tumor</li><li>• Option B. Smooth filling defect</li><li>• Option C. Irregular filling defect : Incorrect as this suggests malignant mass causing infiltration of the esophageal wall</li><li>• Option C. Irregular filling defect</li><li>• Option D. Corkscrew esophagus : Incorrect as this is seen in diffuse esophageal spasm where the primary symptom is chest pain rather than dysphagia</li><li>• Option D. Corkscrew esophagus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rat tail/bird beak appearance on barium swallow is characteristic of achalasia cardia, which presents with dysphagia to liquids more than solids.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complains of epigastric pain radiating to back after alcohol binge for the last 48 hours. What is the next step? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum amylase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "USG abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CECT abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "X -ray abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Serum amylase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Serum amylase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical scenario describes a classic presentation of acute pancreatitis. The patient has epigastric pain radiating to the back following an alcohol binge. Alcohol is the second most common cause of acute pancreatitis after gallstones. The first step in diagnosing acute pancreatitis is to check pancreatic enzyme levels in the blood.</li><li>• Serum amylase rises early (within 4-6 hours) after the onset of acute pancreatitis and is part of the initial workup. Though serum lipase is more specific and remains elevated longer (12-24 hours), amylase is still widely used as the first investigation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. USG abdomen : While ultrasound is useful to evaluate for gallstones as a cause of pancreatitis, it's not the first investigation in suspected acute pancreatitis. USG is typically performed after confirming the diagnosis with pancreatic enzymes.</li><li>• Option B. USG abdomen</li><li>• Option C. CECT abdomen: CT scan is not indicated initially and should be performed only after 72 hours of symptom onset if the diagnosis is uncertain or to assess for complications.</li><li>• Option C. CECT abdomen:</li><li>• Option D. X-ray abdomen : X-ray has limited utility in diagnosing acute pancreatitis. It may show some non-specific findings like \"sentinel loop sign, colon cut-off sign, renal halo sign, gasless abdomen.</li><li>• Option D. X-ray abdomen</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial investigation of choice in acute pancreatitis is serum amylase or lipase . CECT abdomen is reserved for severe cases or complications after 48-72 hours .</li><li>➤ initial investigation of choice</li><li>➤ acute pancreatitis</li><li>➤ serum amylase or lipase</li><li>➤ CECT abdomen</li><li>➤ severe cases or complications</li><li>➤ 48-72 hours</li><li>➤ 1 st investigation:</li><li>➤ 1 st investigation:</li><li>➤ 1. Pancreatic enzymes are elevated in blood</li><li>➤ Serum amylase (nonspecific)→rises early (4-6 hours of attack) Serum lipase → rises 12-24 hours later (sensitive and specific, test of choice)</li><li>➤ Serum amylase (nonspecific)→rises early (4-6 hours of attack)</li><li>➤ Serum lipase → rises 12-24 hours later (sensitive and specific, test of choice)</li><li>➤ 2. Imaging → no need for diagnosis, only when unsure of dx, rule out etiology like gall stone Imaging modality of choice → CECT abdomen (done after 72 hours of symptoms)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which anatomical structure is marked in the given image? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right hepatic artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatic duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Right hepatic artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20155957.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Right hepatic artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows Calot's triangle anatomy where:</li><li>• Right hepatic artery is a branch of common hepatic artery It gives off the cystic artery which supplies the gallbladder The artery marked in the image is entering the liver, making it the right hepatic artery Mistaking the right hepatic artery for the cystic artery during surgery can lead to catastrophic haemorrhage or liver ischemia.</li><li>• Right hepatic artery is a branch of common hepatic artery</li><li>• It gives off the cystic artery which supplies the gallbladder</li><li>• The artery marked in the image is entering the liver, making it the right hepatic artery</li><li>• Mistaking the right hepatic artery for the cystic artery during surgery can lead to catastrophic haemorrhage or liver ischemia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cystic artery : Incorrect as cystic artery is a branch of right hepatic artery that supplies the gallbladder, not the vessel marked which is entering liver</li><li>• Option A. Cystic artery</li><li>• Option B. Cystic duct : Incorrect as cystic duct drains gallbladder and joins common hepatic duct to form common bile duct</li><li>• Option B. Cystic duct</li><li>• Option D. Hepatic duct : Incorrect as hepatic ducts are biliary drainage channels, not arteries</li><li>• Option D. Hepatic duct</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The right hepatic artery is a key structure in hepatobiliary surgery, running within Calot’s Triangle and supplying the right lobe of the liver. Identifying it correctly during cholecystectomy is crucial to avoid vascular injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the device shown in the given image. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Veress needle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quincke needle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jamshidi needle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspiration needle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Veress needle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20131414.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Veress needle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a Veress needle which has distinctive features:</li><li>• Used for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopic surgery using closed technique Has a blunt tip that advances and spring-loaded sharp outer cannula When resistance is overcome, blunt tip springs forward preventing injury to intraabdominal organs Usually inserted in left hypochondrium (Palmer's point) or periumbilical Characteristic \"pop\" sound heard when it enters peritoneal cavity Can be confirmed by saline drop test</li><li>• Used for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopic surgery using closed technique</li><li>• Has a blunt tip that advances and spring-loaded sharp outer cannula</li><li>• When resistance is overcome, blunt tip springs forward preventing injury to intraabdominal organs</li><li>• Usually inserted in left hypochondrium (Palmer's point) or periumbilical</li><li>• Characteristic \"pop\" sound heard when it enters peritoneal cavity</li><li>• Can be confirmed by saline drop test</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Quincke needle : Incorrect as this is a spinal needle with sharp bevel used for diagnostic/therapeutic lumbar puncture</li><li>• Option B. Quincke needle</li><li>• Option C. Jamshidi needle : Incorrect as this is a bone marrow biopsy needle</li><li>• Option C. Jamshidi needle</li><li>• Option D. Aspiration needle : Incorrect as this is for aspiration of fluid collections</li><li>• Option D. Aspiration needle</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Veress needle is used for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopic surgery using closed technique and has a characteristic spring-loaded mechanism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Patient after head trauma is opening eyes to verbal commands, localizing pain and is confused. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "14", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20131440.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Glasgow Coma Scale calculation:</li><li>• Eye Opening (E): Opening to verbal commands = 3 points</li><li>• Eye Opening (E):</li><li>• Motor Response (M): Localizing pain = 5 points</li><li>• Motor Response (M):</li><li>• Verbal Response (V): Confused = 4 points</li><li>• Verbal Response (V):</li><li>• Total GCS = E(3) + M(5) + V(4) = 12 points</li><li>• Total GCS</li><li>• 12 points</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male bartender, following a fight was brought to the emergency with respiratory distress. On clinical evaluation, the breath sounds were absent with increased resonance on right side, and tracheal deviation on the left side was noted. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Traumatic Pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Collapse of lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Consolidation of lung", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Traumatic Pneumothorax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20131456.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Traumatic Pneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical features point to traumatic pneumothorax:</li><li>• History of trauma (fight) Respiratory distress Absent breath sounds on one side (indicates collapsed lung) Tracheal deviation to opposite side</li><li>• History of trauma (fight)</li><li>• Respiratory distress</li><li>• Absent breath sounds on one side (indicates collapsed lung)</li><li>• Tracheal deviation to opposite side</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Collapse of lung : Incorrect as collapse is a consequence of pneumothorax, not the primary diagnosis. Additionally, isolated collapse without pneumothorax doesn't cause increased resonance</li><li>• Option B. Collapse of lung</li><li>• Option C. Pleural effusion : Incorrect as pleural effusion develops gradually, gives dull percussion note and doesn't typically cause tracheal deviation unless massive</li><li>• Option C. Pleural effusion</li><li>• Option D. Consolidation of lung : Incorrect as consolidation shows increased vocal resonance, bronchial breathing and doesn't cause tracheal deviation</li><li>• Option D. Consolidation of lung</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Traumatic pneumothorax presents with respiratory distress, absent breath sounds on affected side and possible tracheal deviation after trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the given image, calculate the total percentage of body surface area affected. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10-20%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20-30%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "40-50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "60%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 20-30%", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132115.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132159.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 20-30%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• To calculate burn surface area in this scenario:</li><li>• To calculate burn surface area in this scenario:</li><li>• Image shows only anterior burns (no posterior burns mentioned) Total anterior surface = 50% of body surface area</li><li>• Image shows only anterior burns (no posterior burns mentioned)</li><li>• Total anterior surface = 50% of body surface area</li><li>• Areas involved:</li><li>• Areas involved:</li><li>• Half of face and neck (~1%) Partial chest and abdomen (~13-14%) Parts of upper limb (~4-5%) Parts of thigh (~4-5%)</li><li>• Half of face and neck (~1%)</li><li>• Partial chest and abdomen (~13-14%)</li><li>• Parts of upper limb (~4-5%)</li><li>• Parts of thigh (~4-5%)</li><li>• Approximate calculation:</li><li>• Approximate calculation:</li><li>• About half of anterior surface is burned Half of 50% = ~25% Therefore, the total burn area falls in 20-30% range</li><li>• About half of anterior surface is burned</li><li>• Half of 50% = ~25%</li><li>• Therefore, the total burn area falls in 20-30% range</li><li>• While Lund and Browder charts are more accurate for children, this approximation method gives similar results.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 10-20% : Incorrect as burns involve significant anterior surface area</li><li>• Option A. 10-20%</li><li>• Option C. 40-50% : Incorrect as only anterior burns are present, not circumferential</li><li>• Option C. 40-50%</li><li>• Option D. 60%: Incorrect as this would indicate extensive circumferential burns</li><li>• Option D. 60%:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Burn surface area is calculated using the Rule of Nines for adults or the Lund and Browder Chart for children. In the given case, the estimated burn area was 20-30%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the outpatient department (OPD) with dilated, tortuous veins in the leg. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laser ablation can be used for treatment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clinical stage is C6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sclerotherapy is the first-line treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Compression stockings are curative", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Laser ablation can be used for treatment", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132211.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Laser ablation can be used for treatment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Endovenous laser ablation (EVLA) is an effective minimally invasive treatment for varicose veins</li><li>• EVLA works by using laser energy to cause thermal damage to vein wall It has high success rate and faster recovery compared to traditional surgery It is currently the treatment of choice for great saphenous vein varicosities Done under local tumescent anesthesia as daycare procedure</li><li>• EVLA works by using laser energy to cause thermal damage to vein wall</li><li>• It has high success rate and faster recovery compared to traditional surgery</li><li>• It is currently the treatment of choice for great saphenous vein varicosities</li><li>• Done under local tumescent anesthesia as daycare procedure</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Clinical stage is C6 : Incorrect as C6 indicates active venous ulcer. This patient only shows varicose veins which is C2 in CEAP classification (C2S if symptomatic, C2A if asymptomatic)</li><li>• Option B. Clinical stage is C6</li><li>• Option C. Sclerotherapy is the first-line treatment : Incorrect as sclerotherapy is primarily used for small reticular veins and telangiectasias, not for large varicose veins</li><li>• Option C. Sclerotherapy is the first-line treatment</li><li>• Option D. Compression stockings are curative: Incorrect as compression stockings only provide symptomatic relief and don't cure varicose veins. They help manage symptoms but disease continues to progress</li><li>• Option D. Compression stockings are curative:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endovenous Laser Ablation (EVLA) is an effective, first-line treatment for symptomatic varicose veins. Compression stockings provide symptom relief but are not curative.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct labelling of the ulcer in the given image. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Edge", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Floor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Base", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Margin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Edge", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132229.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132243.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132257.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Edge</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Edge of an ulcer is the junction between floor and surrounding skin, and its characteristics provide important diagnostic clues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman few months after delivery complains of bloody discharge from the nipple. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duct ectasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ductal papilloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galactocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mondors disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ductal papilloma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ductal papilloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In a young lactating woman with bloody nipple discharge:</li><li>• Ductal papilloma is the most common cause of bloody nipple discharge in young women It is a benign tumor arising from a single duct</li><li>• Ductal papilloma is the most common cause of bloody nipple discharge in young women</li><li>• It is a benign tumor arising from a single duct</li><li>• Characteristics include:</li><li>• Characteristics include:</li><li>• Spontaneous discharge Usually from single duct May be serous or bloody More common in young women Diagnosed by ductoscopy Treated by microdochectomy via tennis racket incision</li><li>• Spontaneous discharge</li><li>• Usually from single duct</li><li>• May be serous or bloody</li><li>• More common in young women</li><li>• Diagnosed by ductoscopy</li><li>• Treated by microdochectomy via tennis racket incision</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Duct ectasia : Incorrect as it typically causes greenish discharge and is associated with smoking</li><li>• Option A. Duct ectasia</li><li>• Option C. Galactocele : Incorrect as it presents as a swelling that may have milky discharge during lactation</li><li>• Option C. Galactocele</li><li>• Option D. Mondors disease : Incorrect as it is thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of breast/chest wall presenting as a cord-like tender structure, not nipple discharge</li><li>• Option D. Mondors disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ductal papilloma is the most common cause of bloody nipple discharge in young women, characterized by spontaneous discharge from a single duct.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the modality shown in the image? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IVU", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retrograde pyelogram", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ureteric stent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nephrostomy tube", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Retrograde pyelogram", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132319.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132336.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132346.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Retrograde pyelogram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Retrograde Pyelogram (RGP) is a contrast study performed via cystoscopy, allowing visualization of one-sided ureters and renal pelvis. It is used to diagnose ureteric strictures, stones, and tumors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Spread of prostate cancer to lumbar vertebra occurs via? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arterial", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Venous", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphatic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Venous", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132412.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Venous</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prostate cancer spreads to lumbar vertebrae through:</li><li>• Bateson's venous plexus (vertebral venous plexus) This is a valveless system allowing bidirectional flow Connects prostatic venous plexus to vertebral veins Most common cancer in men with bone metastasis Typically produces osteoblastic lesions in bones</li><li>• Bateson's venous plexus (vertebral venous plexus)</li><li>• This is a valveless system allowing bidirectional flow</li><li>• Connects prostatic venous plexus to vertebral veins</li><li>• Most common cancer in men with bone metastasis</li><li>• Typically produces osteoblastic lesions in bones</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Direct : Incorrect as prostate is anatomically distant from lumbar vertebrae making direct spread impossible</li><li>• Option A. Direct</li><li>• Option B. Arterial : Incorrect as prostatic venous plexus connection to vertebrae via Bateson's plexus is the established pathway</li><li>• Option B. Arterial</li><li>• Option D. Lymphatic : Incorrect as lymphatic spread of prostate cancer is typically to pelvic and para-aortic nodes, not directly to vertebrae</li><li>• Option D. Lymphatic</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prostate cancer spreads to lumbar vertebrae through Bateson's venous plexus, making it the most common cancer in men with bone metastasis.</li><li>➤ Spread of CA Prostate</li><li>➤ Spread of CA Prostate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-week-old infant presents with vomiting and constipation. On examination, a palpable abdominal mass is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intussusception", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CHPS (Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hirschsprung's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CHPS (Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132427.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132448.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132504.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132545.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CHPS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Clinical features strongly suggest CHPS:</li><li>• CHPS is caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter , leading to gastric outlet obstruction . It typically presents in males , around 4-8 weeks of age . Electrolyte abnormality : Hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis due to loss of gastric acid and dehydration . Best initial test : Ultrasound abdomen → Shows a thickened pyloric muscle (&gt; 4mm thick, &gt; 16mm long). Treatment : Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy (surgical incision of the hypertrophied pyloric muscle).</li><li>• CHPS is caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter , leading to gastric outlet obstruction .</li><li>• hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter</li><li>• gastric outlet obstruction</li><li>• It typically presents in males , around 4-8 weeks of age .</li><li>• males</li><li>• 4-8 weeks of age</li><li>• Electrolyte abnormality : Hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis due to loss of gastric acid and dehydration .</li><li>• Electrolyte abnormality</li><li>• Hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis</li><li>• loss of gastric acid and dehydration</li><li>• Best initial test : Ultrasound abdomen → Shows a thickened pyloric muscle (&gt; 4mm thick, &gt; 16mm long).</li><li>• Best initial test</li><li>• Ultrasound abdomen</li><li>• thickened pyloric muscle</li><li>• Treatment : Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy (surgical incision of the hypertrophied pyloric muscle).</li><li>• Treatment</li><li>• Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Duodenal atresia : Incorrect as it presents at birth with bilious vomiting and double-bubble sign on X-ray</li><li>• Option A. Duodenal atresia</li><li>• Option B. Intussusception : Incorrect as it occurs in infants 6-18 months of age and presents with red currant jelly stools</li><li>• Option B. Intussusception</li><li>• Option D. Hirschsprung's disease : Incorrect as it presents at birth with failure to pass meconium within 48 hours and has delayed passage of stools</li><li>• Option D. Hirschsprung's disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CHPS classically presents at 4-8 weeks of age with non-bilious projectile vomiting and palpable olive-shaped mass in epigastrium.</li><li>➤ Infantile Pyloric Stenosis (IHPS)</li><li>➤ Infantile Pyloric Stenosis (IHPS)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of hematochezia undergoes a procedure using the device shown in the image. Identify the device. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pile banding kit", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stapler for hemorrhoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemorrhoidectomy kit", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fistula surgery kit", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pile banding kit", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132604.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132628.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pile banding kit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows Barron's band ligator:</li><li>• The image shows Barron's band ligator:</li><li>• Used for rubber band ligation of internal hemorrhoids Has bands loaded that are deployed around hemorrhoid base Causes strangulation of hemorrhoid tissue Most commonly used for grade II hemorrhoids Done as outpatient procedure</li><li>• Used for rubber band ligation of internal hemorrhoids</li><li>• Has bands loaded that are deployed around hemorrhoid base</li><li>• Causes strangulation of hemorrhoid tissue</li><li>• Most commonly used for grade II hemorrhoids</li><li>• Done as outpatient procedure</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Stapler for hemorrhoids: Incorrect as a stapler is a circular device used for stapled hemorrhoidopexy (PPH procedure)</li><li>• Option B. Stapler for hemorrhoids:</li><li>• Option C. Hemorrhoidectomy kit: Incorrect as this would include surgical instruments for excision</li><li>• Option C. Hemorrhoidectomy kit:</li><li>• Option D. Fistula surgery kit: Incorrect as this would include instruments for fistula surgery like probes, curettes and scissors</li><li>• Option D. Fistula surgery kit:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Pile Banding Kit is used in rubber band ligation for treating Grade II and III hemorrhoids. It applies a rubber band at the base of the hemorrhoid, leading to necrosis and sloughing. Haemorrhoids Grading and Treatment</li><li>➤ Haemorrhoids Grading and Treatment</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient came with diffuse, severely contaminated perforation peritonitis due to hollow viscus. He underwent laparotomy for it. On day 7 post-op, he developed signs of wound infection and subsequently, the wound showed dehiscence with exposure of underlying tissues as shown below. His vital signs are stable with no evidence of intra-abdominal sepsis. What is the appropriate management? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suturing of wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vacuum assisted closure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal saline soaked gauze", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vacuum assisted closure", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132706.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vacuum assisted closure (VAC)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient underwent laparotomy for perforation peritonitis and developed wound infection followed by wound dehiscence on postoperative day 7 . Given that:</li><li>• laparotomy for perforation peritonitis</li><li>• wound infection</li><li>• wound dehiscence</li><li>• postoperative day 7</li><li>• The wound is open with exposed underlying tissues. Vital signs are stable. No evidence of intra-abdominal sepsis.</li><li>• The wound is open with exposed underlying tissues.</li><li>• The wound is open with exposed underlying tissues.</li><li>• Vital signs are stable.</li><li>• Vital signs are stable.</li><li>• No evidence of intra-abdominal sepsis.</li><li>• No evidence of intra-abdominal sepsis.</li><li>• This suggests a \"burst abdomen\" or post-op wound dehiscence , which is best managed using Vacuum-Assisted Closure (VAC therapy) .</li><li>• \"burst abdomen\" or post-op wound dehiscence</li><li>• Vacuum-Assisted Closure (VAC therapy)</li><li>• Promotes granulation tissue formation and wound healing. Reduces bacterial load and infection risk. Decreases edema and maintains a moist environment. Prepares the wound for secondary closure or grafting if necessary.</li><li>• Promotes granulation tissue formation and wound healing.</li><li>• Promotes granulation tissue formation and wound healing.</li><li>• Reduces bacterial load and infection risk.</li><li>• Reduces bacterial load and infection risk.</li><li>• Decreases edema and maintains a moist environment.</li><li>• Decreases edema and maintains a moist environment.</li><li>• Prepares the wound for secondary closure or grafting if necessary.</li><li>• Prepares the wound for secondary closure or grafting if necessary.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Suturing of Wound → Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Suturing of Wound</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• Primary closure is not recommended because the wound is infected and dehiscent . Attempting suturing would increase the risk of abscess formation and wound breakdown.</li><li>• Primary closure is not recommended because the wound is infected and dehiscent .</li><li>• Primary closure is not recommended</li><li>• infected and dehiscent</li><li>• Attempting suturing would increase the risk of abscess formation and wound breakdown.</li><li>• Attempting suturing</li><li>• increase the risk of abscess formation</li><li>• Option C. Normal Saline-Soaked Gauze → Partially Correct but Not Ideal</li><li>• Option C. Normal Saline-Soaked Gauze</li><li>• Partially Correct but Not Ideal</li><li>• Saline dressings can be used but do not actively promote wound healing as well as VAC therapy . More suitable for minor dehiscence, not large wounds with exposed tissue.</li><li>• Saline dressings can be used but do not actively promote wound healing as well as VAC therapy .</li><li>• Saline dressings</li><li>• actively promote wound healing</li><li>• VAC therapy</li><li>• More suitable for minor dehiscence, not large wounds with exposed tissue.</li><li>• More suitable for minor dehiscence, not large wounds with exposed tissue.</li><li>• Option D. None of the Above → Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. None of the Above</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• The patient requires wound management to prevent secondary infections and facilitate healing .</li><li>• The patient requires wound management to prevent secondary infections and facilitate healing .</li><li>• patient requires wound management</li><li>• prevent secondary infections and facilitate healing</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vacuum-Assisted Closure (VAC) therapy is the best treatment for wound dehiscence after laparotomy, as it promotes granulation tissue formation, reduces infection risk, and optimizes healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During laparoscopic surgery, which vessels are most prone to injury while inserting trocars? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abdominal aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior epigastric artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior epigastric artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both B and C", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Both B and C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Both B and C (Inferior Epigastric Artery &amp; Superior Epigastric Artery)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• During laparoscopic surgery , trocars are inserted through the abdominal wall , and the most commonly injured vessels are epigastric arteries , specifically:</li><li>• laparoscopic surgery</li><li>• abdominal wall</li><li>• most commonly injured vessels</li><li>• epigastric arteries</li><li>• Inferior Epigastric Artery (IEA) → Runs posterior to the rectus abdominis , arising from the external iliac artery . It is commonly injured during trocar placement at the lateral ports (midclavicular line or lateral to rectus muscle) . Superior Epigastric Artery (SEA) → Arises from the internal thoracic artery , supplying the upper abdominal wall . It is less commonly injured but still at risk in upper trocar insertions near the midline .</li><li>• Inferior Epigastric Artery (IEA) → Runs posterior to the rectus abdominis , arising from the external iliac artery . It is commonly injured during trocar placement at the lateral ports (midclavicular line or lateral to rectus muscle) .</li><li>• Inferior Epigastric Artery (IEA)</li><li>• posterior to the rectus abdominis</li><li>• external iliac artery</li><li>• trocar placement at the lateral ports (midclavicular line or lateral to rectus muscle)</li><li>• Superior Epigastric Artery (SEA) → Arises from the internal thoracic artery , supplying the upper abdominal wall . It is less commonly injured but still at risk in upper trocar insertions near the midline .</li><li>• Superior Epigastric Artery (SEA)</li><li>• internal thoracic artery</li><li>• upper abdominal wall</li><li>• upper trocar insertions near the midline</li><li>• Risk factors</li><li>• Risk factors</li><li>• Inferior epigastric artery (IEA) runs lateral to the rectus muscle. Most laparoscopic trocars are placed in the periumbilical region and lateral ports, near IEA’s path. Injury to these vessels can lead to significant bleeding or hematoma formation, especially retroperitoneal hematoma.</li><li>• Inferior epigastric artery (IEA) runs lateral to the rectus muscle.</li><li>• Most laparoscopic trocars are placed in the periumbilical region and lateral ports, near IEA’s path.</li><li>• Injury to these vessels can lead to significant bleeding or hematoma formation, especially retroperitoneal hematoma.</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Option A. Abdominal Aorta → Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Abdominal Aorta</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• The aorta is a retroperitoneal structure , located deep in the abdomen . It is not commonly injured during standard trocar placement unless there is misplacement of a Veress needle or excessive force .</li><li>• The aorta is a retroperitoneal structure , located deep in the abdomen .</li><li>• aorta is a retroperitoneal structure</li><li>• deep in the abdomen</li><li>• It is not commonly injured during standard trocar placement unless there is misplacement of a Veress needle or excessive force .</li><li>• not commonly injured during standard trocar placement</li><li>• misplacement of a Veress needle or excessive force</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inferior and Superior Epigastric Arteries are the most commonly injured vessels during laparoscopic trocar insertion. Using transillumination and proper trocar placement can prevent vascular injury.</li><li>➤ Management of Epigastric Artery Injury:</li><li>➤ Management of Epigastric Artery Injury:</li><li>➤ Preventive Measure : Use transillumination to identify epigastric vessels before inserting trocars. Place lateral trocars either lateral or medial to epigastric artery path. If Injury Occurs: Immediate control using electrocautery or direct pressure.</li><li>➤ Preventive Measure : Use transillumination to identify epigastric vessels before inserting trocars. Place lateral trocars either lateral or medial to epigastric artery path.</li><li>➤ Preventive Measure</li><li>➤ Use transillumination to identify epigastric vessels before inserting trocars. Place lateral trocars either lateral or medial to epigastric artery path.</li><li>➤ Use transillumination to identify epigastric vessels before inserting trocars.</li><li>➤ Place lateral trocars either lateral or medial to epigastric artery path.</li><li>➤ If Injury Occurs: Immediate control using electrocautery or direct pressure.</li><li>➤ If Injury Occurs:</li><li>➤ Immediate control using electrocautery or direct pressure.</li><li>➤ Immediate control using electrocautery or direct pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old boy was brought to the ER with complaints of melena. The child had intermittent pain in the right iliac region. On surgical exploration, the following was found. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meckel’s diverticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obstructed bowel loops", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Appendicitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Appendicular mucocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Meckel’s diverticulum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132740.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Meckel’s diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Meckel’s Diverticulum:</li><li>• Meckel’s Diverticulum:</li><li>• Congenital anomaly resulting from incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct . Rule of 2’s: Found in 2% of the population . 2 feet from the ileocecal valve . 2 inches long . 2 types of ectopic mucosa (gastric &amp; pancreatic). 2:1 male predominance . Complications: Bleeding (painless hematochezia/melena) due to acid secretion from ectopic gastric mucosa , leading to ulceration. Intestinal obstruction (due to volvulus or intussusception). Diverticulitis , mimicking appendicitis.</li><li>• Congenital anomaly resulting from incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct .</li><li>• Congenital anomaly</li><li>• incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct</li><li>• Rule of 2’s: Found in 2% of the population . 2 feet from the ileocecal valve . 2 inches long . 2 types of ectopic mucosa (gastric &amp; pancreatic). 2:1 male predominance .</li><li>• Rule of 2’s:</li><li>• Found in 2% of the population . 2 feet from the ileocecal valve . 2 inches long . 2 types of ectopic mucosa (gastric &amp; pancreatic). 2:1 male predominance .</li><li>• Found in 2% of the population .</li><li>• 2% of the population</li><li>• 2 feet from the ileocecal valve .</li><li>• 2 feet from the ileocecal valve</li><li>• 2 inches long .</li><li>• 2 inches long</li><li>• 2 types of ectopic mucosa (gastric &amp; pancreatic).</li><li>• 2 types of ectopic mucosa</li><li>• 2:1 male predominance .</li><li>• 2:1 male predominance</li><li>• Complications: Bleeding (painless hematochezia/melena) due to acid secretion from ectopic gastric mucosa , leading to ulceration. Intestinal obstruction (due to volvulus or intussusception). Diverticulitis , mimicking appendicitis.</li><li>• Complications:</li><li>• Bleeding (painless hematochezia/melena) due to acid secretion from ectopic gastric mucosa , leading to ulceration. Intestinal obstruction (due to volvulus or intussusception). Diverticulitis , mimicking appendicitis.</li><li>• Bleeding (painless hematochezia/melena) due to acid secretion from ectopic gastric mucosa , leading to ulceration.</li><li>• Bleeding (painless hematochezia/melena)</li><li>• acid secretion from ectopic gastric mucosa</li><li>• Intestinal obstruction (due to volvulus or intussusception).</li><li>• Intestinal obstruction</li><li>• Diverticulitis , mimicking appendicitis.</li><li>• Diverticulitis , mimicking appendicitis.</li><li>• Diverticulitis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Obstructed Bowel Loops → Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Obstructed Bowel Loops</li><li>• Would present with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension, and absent bowel sounds . No mention of melena or ectopic gastric tissue .</li><li>• Would present with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension, and absent bowel sounds .</li><li>• bilious vomiting, abdominal distension, and absent bowel sounds</li><li>• No mention of melena or ectopic gastric tissue .</li><li>• melena or ectopic gastric tissue</li><li>• Option C. Appendicitis → Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Appendicitis</li><li>• While pain is in the right iliac fossa , melena is not a feature of appendicitis . Would present with fever, localized tenderness, rebound tenderness, and leukocytosis .</li><li>• While pain is in the right iliac fossa , melena is not a feature of appendicitis .</li><li>• right iliac fossa</li><li>• melena is not a feature of appendicitis</li><li>• Would present with fever, localized tenderness, rebound tenderness, and leukocytosis .</li><li>• fever, localized tenderness, rebound tenderness, and leukocytosis</li><li>• Option D. Appendicular Mucocele → Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Appendicular Mucocele</li><li>• A mucocele is a mucus-filled dilatation of the appendix , usually seen in adults . Presents as a mass in the right iliac fossa , but not with melena .</li><li>• A mucocele is a mucus-filled dilatation of the appendix , usually seen in adults .</li><li>• mucocele</li><li>• mucus-filled dilatation of the appendix</li><li>• adults</li><li>• Presents as a mass in the right iliac fossa , but not with melena .</li><li>• mass in the right iliac fossa</li><li>• not with melena</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ It presents with painless lower gastrointestinal bleeding due to ectopic gastric mucosa, mimicking appendicitis. Diagnosis is confirmed by Meckel’s scan, and treatment is surgical resection in symptomatic cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old patient presented with painless right scrotal swelling for 2 months. The left testis was normal. There were enlarged para-aortic nodes. USG showed right testicular mass. What will be the management? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biopsy of scrotal mass", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High inguinal orchiectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scrotal orchiectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biopsy of lymph node", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High inguinal orchiectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) High inguinal orchiectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• This is a classic presentation of testicular tumor (likely seminoma) with para-aortic lymph node metastasis. High inguinal orchiectomy is the standard initial management. The procedure involves removing the entire testis with spermatic cord through an inguinal incision. This approach is crucial because:</li><li>• It allows control of lymphatic and vascular supply at the deep inguinal ring Prevents tumor spillage and local spread Avoids breaching the scrotum which could lead to tumor seeding Helps maintain proper oncological principles</li><li>• It allows control of lymphatic and vascular supply at the deep inguinal ring</li><li>• Prevents tumor spillage and local spread</li><li>• Avoids breaching the scrotum which could lead to tumor seeding</li><li>• Helps maintain proper oncological principles</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Biopsy of scrotal mass - Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Biopsy of scrotal mass</li><li>• Biopsy or FNAC is contraindicated in testicular tumors as it may cause tumor spillage and upstaging Can lead to scrotal violation and altered lymphatic drainage</li><li>• Biopsy or FNAC is contraindicated in testicular tumors as it may cause tumor spillage and upstaging</li><li>• Can lead to scrotal violation and altered lymphatic drainage</li><li>• Option C. Scrotal orchiectomy - Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Scrotal orchiectomy</li><li>• Associated with high risk of local recurrence Breaches scrotal skin which can lead to tumor seeding Changes the lymphatic drainage pattern Can cause upstaging of the tumor</li><li>• Associated with high risk of local recurrence</li><li>• Breaches scrotal skin which can lead to tumor seeding</li><li>• Changes the lymphatic drainage pattern</li><li>• Can cause upstaging of the tumor</li><li>• Option D. Biopsy of lymph node - Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Biopsy of lymph node</li><li>• Not needed at initial diagnosis Primary management is always removal of the testicular mass Para-aortic nodes are consistent with the natural lymphatic spread pattern Further staging can be done after orchiectomy</li><li>• Not needed at initial diagnosis</li><li>• Primary management is always removal of the testicular mass</li><li>• Para-aortic nodes are consistent with the natural lymphatic spread pattern</li><li>• Further staging can be done after orchiectomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High inguinal orchiectomy is the standard initial management for testicular tumors. Scrotal violation must be avoided to prevent tumor spillage and upstaging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient complains of multiple clots in his urine. Which catheter should be used in this patient which can facilitate irrigation and clot removal from the urinary bladder? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "22 French Foley’s 4 lumen catheter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "22 French Foley’s 3 lumen catheter", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "22 French Foley’s 2 lumen catheter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "22 French Foley’s 1 lumen catheter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 22 French Foley’s 3 lumen catheter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 22 French Foley's 3 lumen catheter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A triple lumen catheter is ideal for managing clots in bladder as it has:</li><li>• First channel for urine drainage Second channel for balloon inflation Third channel specifically for continuous irrigation 22 French size is appropriate for adequate drainage of clots Commonly used after procedures like TURP where post-operative clots are expected Allows simultaneous irrigation and drainage</li><li>• First channel for urine drainage</li><li>• Second channel for balloon inflation</li><li>• Third channel specifically for continuous irrigation</li><li>• 22 French size is appropriate for adequate drainage of clots</li><li>• Commonly used after procedures like TURP where post-operative clots are expected</li><li>• Allows simultaneous irrigation and drainage</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 22 French Foley's 4 lumen catheter - Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. 22 French Foley's 4 lumen catheter</li><li>• Does not exist in clinical practice No requirement for fourth lumen</li><li>• Does not exist in clinical practice</li><li>• No requirement for fourth lumen</li><li>• Option C. 22 French Foley's 2 lumen catheter - Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. 22 French Foley's 2 lumen catheter</li><li>• Has only drainage and balloon inflation channels No separate channel for irrigation Cannot perform continuous irrigation effectively</li><li>• Has only drainage and balloon inflation channels</li><li>• No separate channel for irrigation</li><li>• Cannot perform continuous irrigation effectively</li><li>• Option D. 22 French Foley's 1 lumen catheter - Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. 22 French Foley's 1 lumen catheter</li><li>• Cannot be self-retaining as no balloon inflation channel No irrigation capability Inadequate for managing clots Not practical for this clinical scenario</li><li>• Cannot be self-retaining as no balloon inflation channel</li><li>• No irrigation capability</li><li>• Inadequate for managing clots</li><li>• Not practical for this clinical scenario</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A three-way Foley's catheter (22Fr) is the appropriate choice for managing bladder clots as it allows simultaneous drainage and irrigation through separate channels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents six months after an abdominal hysterectomy with a swelling at the scar site. Initially reducible, the swelling has now become irreducible and tender. The rest of the abdomen is normal on palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paralytic ileus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perforation peritonitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bowel strangulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascites", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bowel strangulation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20132819.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bowel strangulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is a case of strangulated incisional hernia because:</li><li>• History of previous surgery (hysterectomy) leading to incisional hernia Initially reducible swelling suggests hernia Progression to irreducibility with tenderness indicates strangulation Strangulation occurs when blood supply to herniated bowel is compromised Requires urgent surgical intervention to prevent bowel gangrene</li><li>• History of previous surgery (hysterectomy) leading to incisional hernia</li><li>• Initially reducible swelling suggests hernia</li><li>• Progression to irreducibility with tenderness indicates strangulation</li><li>• Strangulation occurs when blood supply to herniated bowel is compromised</li><li>• Requires urgent surgical intervention to prevent bowel gangrene</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Paralytic ileus : Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Paralytic ileus</li><li>• Presents with generalized abdominal distention, not localized swelling No history of recent surgery or precipitating factors Usually associated with absent bowel sounds Does not present as reducible turning irreducible swelling</li><li>• Presents with generalized abdominal distention, not localized swelling</li><li>• No history of recent surgery or precipitating factors</li><li>• Usually associated with absent bowel sounds</li><li>• Does not present as reducible turning irreducible swelling</li><li>• Option B. Perforation peritonitis : Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Perforation peritonitis</li><li>• Presents with generalized abdominal pain and distention Associated with severe systemic symptoms Shows signs of peritonitis all over abdomen Not localized to surgical scar</li><li>• Presents with generalized abdominal pain and distention</li><li>• Associated with severe systemic symptoms</li><li>• Shows signs of peritonitis all over abdomen</li><li>• Not localized to surgical scar</li><li>• Option D. Ascites : Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Ascites</li><li>• Causes generalized abdominal distention Fluid collects in dependent areas Shows shifting dullness Not localized to surgical scar</li><li>• Causes generalized abdominal distention</li><li>• Fluid collects in dependent areas</li><li>• Shows shifting dullness</li><li>• Not localized to surgical scar</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A previously reducible hernia becoming irreducible with tenderness indicates strangulation, which is a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old male presents with severe nodulocystic acne involving the face and back, as shown in the image. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isotretinoin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prednisolone / Steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Topical tretinoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Isotretinoin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_gIxSjYX.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Isotretinoin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oral isotretinoin is the drug of choice for grade 4 (nodulocystic) acne vulgaris.</li><li>➤ Oral isotretinoin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer develops diffuse hair loss following the treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anagen effluvium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Telogen effluvium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichotillomania", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alopecia areata", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anagen effluvium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_QksoW3x.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_nBkrY6H.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_3JwpLk9.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_BtshPw8.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anagen effluvium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chemotherapy-induced hair loss is due to anagen effluvium , where rapidly dividing hair follicle cells are damaged. Hair loss starts within weeks of chemotherapy initiation and is diffuse and non-scarring . Hair typically regrows within a few months after stopping chemotherapy.</li><li>➤ Chemotherapy-induced hair loss is due to anagen effluvium , where rapidly dividing hair follicle cells are damaged.</li><li>➤ anagen effluvium</li><li>➤ Hair loss starts within weeks of chemotherapy initiation and is diffuse and non-scarring .</li><li>➤ Hair loss starts within weeks of chemotherapy initiation</li><li>➤ diffuse and non-scarring</li><li>➤ Hair typically regrows within a few months after stopping chemotherapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which test would you perform to assess the underlying cause of this patient? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grattage test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nikolsky test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asboe Hansen test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patch test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Grattage test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20122134_pKiS7wA.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20122201.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20122237.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-28%20122306.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Grattage test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Grattage test , demonstrating candle wax scaling , bulkeley membrane , and pinpoint bleeding ( Auspitz sign ), is the diagnostic test for psoriasis.</li><li>➤ Grattage test</li><li>➤ candle wax scaling</li><li>➤ bulkeley membrane</li><li>➤ pinpoint</li><li>➤ Auspitz sign</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infant with a history of multiple episodes of diarrhea presents with an erythematous, scaly rash, as shown in the image. Which nutritional deficiency is responsible for this condition, and which supplementation should be administered to reverse the clinical features? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zinc", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Zinc", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_FH4sv2w.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_LymQq2U.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_4NpwYJ6.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_nztxLbl.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Zinc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acrodermatitis enteropathica presents with the triad of periorificial dermatitis, diarrhea, and alopecia due to zinc deficiency , requiring lifelong zinc supplementation .</li><li>➤ Acrodermatitis enteropathica</li><li>➤ periorificial dermatitis, diarrhea, and alopecia</li><li>➤ zinc deficiency</li><li>➤ lifelong zinc supplementation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-week-old baby presented with an erythematous lesion which was blanching and increasing in size as shown in the image below. What is the next best step in the management of this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Co2 laser", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wide local excision with skin grafting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Observe", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Injection triamcinolone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Observe", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_EuMxCe9.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_AAXJG9E.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Observe</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infantile hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that undergo spontaneous involution . Observation is the best initial management for uncomplicated cases. Propranolol is the first-line treatment for high-risk or complicated hemangiomas.</li><li>➤ Infantile hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that undergo spontaneous involution .</li><li>➤ benign vascular tumors</li><li>➤ spontaneous involution</li><li>➤ Observation is the best initial management for uncomplicated cases.</li><li>➤ Observation is the best initial management</li><li>➤ Propranolol is the first-line treatment for high-risk or complicated hemangiomas.</li><li>➤ Propranolol</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with erythema and soreness on the glans penis and pigmentation over chin. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lichen sclerosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condyloma acuminata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fournier's gangrene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peyronies disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lichen sclerosus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_vEF8GkC.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_vgcUYLZ.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_STSEIWD.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Zc7bpwU.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_jfqKcGe.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lichen sclerosus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lichen sclerosus presents with genital erythema and soreness , progressing to atrophic white plaques , and can be associated with extragenital manifestations like facial pigmentation.</li><li>➤ Lichen sclerosus</li><li>➤ genital erythema and soreness</li><li>➤ white plaques</li><li>➤ facial pigmentation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient got prick by rose thorn and after that there are linear lesions noted along the lymphatics. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chromoblastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tinea corporis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycetoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sporotrichosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Wg9mPxx.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_JZax3jW.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_NbsDvoP.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_1oCIhqN.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_v5kCJ9O.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sporotrichosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sporotrichosis should be suspected in patients with a history of rose thorn injury and linear nodular lesions along lymphatics. It is treated with itraconazole.</li><li>➤ Sporotrichosis</li><li>➤ rose thorn injury</li><li>➤ linear nodular lesions</li><li>➤ lymphatics.</li><li>➤ itraconazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female having a new sexual partner / boyfriend presented with painful ulcer on the vulva and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neisseria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Granuloma inguinale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphogranuloma venereum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chancroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_zwLPedm.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_pXBQopx.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_uRc6lnh.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_qV8FdNx.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chancroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi , presenting as painful genital ulcers with inguinal lymphadenopathy . It is treated with Azithromycin or Ceftriaxone.</li><li>➤ Chancroid</li><li>➤ Haemophilus ducreyi</li><li>➤ painful genital ulcers</li><li>➤ inguinal lymphadenopathy</li><li>➤ Azithromycin or Ceftriaxone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man presents with an ulcerative lesion near the medial canthus of his eye, featuring pearly margins. Microscopic examination reveals a palisading arrangement of cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keratoacanthoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melanocytic melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Basal cell carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_eRZwtPt.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_3JulAUN.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_474zy6O.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_1v67ObW.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_mYAkPeJ.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_dJ0VOtf.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_SpZukCx.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_LGStjxT.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_uEyrNGD.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Basal cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basal cell carcinoma typically presents with pearly margins and palisading arrangement of cells on histology, commonly occurring above the line joining angle of mouth and ear lobe. It is a locally invasive tumor that rarely metastasizes.</li><li>➤ Basal cell carcinoma</li><li>➤ pearly margins</li><li>➤ palisading</li><li>➤ locally invasive tumor</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the inappropriate drug dosage of leprosy medications in adults among the following options? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clofazimine 300 mg once a month", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clofazimine 50 mg daily", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rifampicin 450 mg weekly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dapsone 100 mg daily", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rifampicin 450 mg weekly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_9OaPgRW.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_DnNn2kM.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_fRcVzaE.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rifampicin 450 mg weekly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In adult leprosy treatment, rifampicin is given as 600mg once monthly (supervised dose ), not 450mg weekly.</li><li>➤ adult leprosy</li><li>➤ rifampicin</li><li>➤ 600mg once monthly (supervised dose</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and is diagnosed with endometrial hyperplasia without atypia based on an endometrial biopsy. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "COCPs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levonorgestrel Intrauterine System (LNG-IUS)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Danazol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mifepristone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Levonorgestrel Intrauterine System (LNG-IUS)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_wDSmNDG.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_DZF99dY.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Levonorgestrel Intrauterine System (LNG-IUS)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Remember that LNG-IUS is the preferred treatment for endometrial hyperplasia without atypia due to its local progesterone delivery, which causes endometrial atrophy. This condition has a lower risk of malignancy (~1%) compared to hyperplasia with atypia, which requires hysterectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 21-year-old woman presents to the outpatient department (OPD) with a history of 2 months of amenorrhea. A urine pregnancy test is positive. On speculum examination, the following finding is observed. Identify the sign seen? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osiander sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hegar sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chadwick’s sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Placental sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chadwick’s sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_M2KBItq.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_b7wiISk.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chadwick’s sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of cervix and vagina) as one of the early visible signs of pregnancy during speculum examination, distinguishing it from other early pregnancy signs like Hegar's and Osiander's signs.</li><li>➤ Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of cervix and vagina)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old primigravida presents at 8 weeks of pregnancy. During the examination, a specific clinical sign is observed. What is the name of the sign being elicited? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hegar sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Palmer sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal ballotment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "External ballotment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hegar sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_2g5Cndg.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20180105.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hegar sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hegar's sign as the softening of the lower uterine segment at the isthmus level during early pregnancy, allowing approximation of examining fingers during bimanual examination, and distinguishing it from other pregnancy signs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this laparoscopic image? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tubal endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Genital tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrosalpinx", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chocolate cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Genital tuberculosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_IMGBn2P.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Genital tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \" kissing fallopian tube sign\" along with caseous nodules on laparoscopy is diagnostic of genital tuberculosis. Fallopian tubes are the most common organs affected in genital TB</li><li>➤ The \" kissing fallopian tube sign\" along with caseous nodules on laparoscopy is diagnostic of genital tuberculosis.</li><li>➤ kissing fallopian tube sign\"</li><li>➤ Fallopian tubes are the most common organs affected in genital TB</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The earliest sign of pregnancy on Trans Vaginal Scan is: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gestational sac", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yolk sac", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fetal pole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac activity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gestational sac", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gestational sac</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The chronological order of appearance of early pregnancy structures on TVS:</li><li>➤ Gestational sac: 5 weeks Yolk sac: 5.5 weeks Fetal pole with cardiac activity: 6 weeks On trans-abdominal scan; these structures appear 1 week later</li><li>➤ Gestational sac: 5 weeks</li><li>➤ Yolk sac: 5.5 weeks</li><li>➤ Fetal pole with cardiac activity: 6 weeks</li><li>➤ On trans-abdominal scan; these structures appear 1 week later</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vaccine is not safe in pregnancy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varicella", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Influenza", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Td", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Varicella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_whKDjvd.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Varicella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ All live vaccines except yellow fever are contra-indicated due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection and teratogenicity</li><li>➤ except yellow fever</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old woman with a BMI of 27 presents with increased facial hair (hirsutism), acne, and irregular/delayed periods. An ultrasound is performed, showing characteristic findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCOS", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian Cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal Ovary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PCOS", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_FrjyAsq.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_cRNpjGy.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_KgqDSV5.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PCOS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \" string of pearls \" appearance on ultrasound, characterized by multiple peripheral follicles in the ovary, is a diagnostic imaging feature of PCOS Rotterdam criteria is the criteria for diagnosing PCOS wherein at least 2 out of 3 of the following should be there: Oligoovulation (Delayed periods) Hyperandrogenism (clinical or biochemical) Polycystic morphology of ovaries on ultrasound (string of pearls)</li><li>➤ The \" string of pearls \" appearance on ultrasound, characterized by multiple peripheral follicles in the ovary, is a diagnostic imaging feature of PCOS</li><li>➤ string of pearls</li><li>➤ Rotterdam criteria is the criteria for diagnosing PCOS wherein at least 2 out of 3 of the following should be there: Oligoovulation (Delayed periods) Hyperandrogenism (clinical or biochemical) Polycystic morphology of ovaries on ultrasound (string of pearls)</li><li>➤ Oligoovulation (Delayed periods) Hyperandrogenism (clinical or biochemical) Polycystic morphology of ovaries on ultrasound (string of pearls)</li><li>➤ Oligoovulation (Delayed periods)</li><li>➤ Hyperandrogenism (clinical or biochemical)</li><li>➤ Polycystic morphology of ovaries on ultrasound (string of pearls)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman presents with irregular periods, acne, and excessive hair growth (hirsutism). What is the initial treatment of choice? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Combined OCPs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clomiphene citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lifestyle measures", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lifestyle measures", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lifestyle measures</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lifestyle modifications (diet and exercise) are the first-line treatment for PCOS, to be tried for 6 months before considering pharmacological options.</li><li>➤ (diet and exercise)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A gynecologist is examining the placenta and notices that the side she is holding has the umbilical cord and vessels. This side is the: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fetal side", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal side", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decidual surface", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basal surface", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fetal side", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_LDH7Ryw.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fetal side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fetal side of the placenta can be identified by:</li><li>➤ Presence of umbilical cord insertion Visible branching blood vessels (chorionic vessels) Smooth, shiny surface due to amniotic membrane covering</li><li>➤ Presence of umbilical cord insertion</li><li>➤ Visible branching blood vessels (chorionic vessels)</li><li>➤ Smooth, shiny surface due to amniotic membrane covering</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with delayed periods and vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound reveals retained products of conception, and a suction evacuation is performed. The extracted tissue is sent for histopathology, which reports a karyotype of 46XX and is p57kip2 negative. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complete mole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Partial mole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Invasive mole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Choriocarcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Complete mole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Complete mole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ complete molar pregnancy is characterized by:</li><li>➤ Diploid karyotype (46XX) Negative p57kip2 staining Complete absence of maternal genetic material</li><li>➤ Diploid karyotype (46XX)</li><li>➤ Diploid karyotype (46XX)</li><li>➤ Negative p57kip2 staining</li><li>➤ Negative p57kip2 staining</li><li>➤ Complete absence of maternal genetic material</li><li>➤ Complete absence of maternal genetic material</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A few hours following forceps delivery, patient complained of pain in perineum. On examination, she had hypotension, tachycardia and the episiotomy site had a large bluish swelling. Which of the following should not be done? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Repair in ward", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood transfusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inform senior", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shift to OT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Repair in ward", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Repair in ward</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A vulval hematoma presenting after delivery requires immediate resuscitation and surgical evacuation in the operation theater, never repair in the ward, due to:</li><li>➤ immediate resuscitation and surgical evacuation in the operation theater,</li><li>➤ Need for proper anesthesia Potential for significant blood loss Presence of dead space requiring proper surgical obliteration Risk of shock</li><li>➤ Need for proper anesthesia</li><li>➤ Need for proper anesthesia</li><li>➤ Potential for significant blood loss</li><li>➤ Potential for significant blood loss</li><li>➤ Presence of dead space requiring proper surgical obliteration</li><li>➤ Presence of dead space requiring proper surgical obliteration</li><li>➤ Risk of shock</li><li>➤ Risk of shock</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where is use of this instrument contra-indicated? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cesarean section", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "After coming head of breech", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obstructed labor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipito posterior", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Obstructed labor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Ss7sJMp.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Obstructed labor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obstructed labor is an absolute contraindication for instrumental delivery (both forceps and vacuum) and is a direct indication for cesarean section.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cancers is not protective by use of combined oral contraceptives? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Breast cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrial cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colorectal cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ovarian cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Breast cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Breast cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ OCPs provide protection against three types of cancers (CEO - Colorectal, Endometrial, and Ovarian) but increase the risk of breast cancer and potentially cervical cancer.</li><li>➤ (CEO - Colorectal, Endometrial, and Ovarian)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is contra-indicated in pregnancy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha-methyl dopa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enalapril", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Enalapril", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Enalapril</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated during pregnancy as they cause fetal renal hypoplasia/agenesis leading to oligohydramnios.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Shoulder dystocia is defined as delay in delivery of shoulders after delivery of head by? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15 sec", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "30 sec", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "45 sec", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "60 sec", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 60 sec", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 60 sec</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shoulder dystocia has two definitions:</li><li>➤ Technical: Delay in shoulder delivery &gt;60 seconds after head deliver y Practical: Need for additional maneuvers beyond gentle traction to deliver shoulders after head delivery Turtle Sign: Seen in Shoulder dystocia</li><li>➤ Technical: Delay in shoulder delivery &gt;60 seconds after head deliver y</li><li>➤ &gt;60 seconds after head deliver</li><li>➤ Practical: Need for additional maneuvers beyond gentle traction to deliver shoulders after head delivery</li><li>➤ Turtle Sign: Seen in Shoulder dystocia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Home based urine pregnancy tests detect which hormone? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta hCG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "FSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Beta hCG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Beta hCG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Home pregnancy tests specifically detect the beta subunit of hCG in urine for pregnancy diagnosis.</li><li>➤ beta subunit of hCG in urine for pregnancy diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the procedure shown in the image: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometrial ablation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intra uterine balloon tamponade", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cervical ripening", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parachute pack", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intra uterine balloon tamponade", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_3BwCkx1.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Intra uterine balloon tamponade</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Appearance and understand the use of intrauterine balloon tamponade as a mechanical method for managing postpartum hemorrhage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old primigravida is in labor, and her cardiotocogram (CTG) is shown. What does this CTG indicate? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Early decelerations", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Variable decelerations", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Late decelerations", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal CTG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Early decelerations", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_dQ1ZTTE.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_PnXsN08.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_FN5Y0qi.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_5zkbryO.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Early decelerations</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Early decelerations are characterized by symmetrical drops in fetal heart rate with the nadir coinciding with the peak of uterine contractions, caused by head compression during labor, and are considered physiological</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an abnormal cardiovascular system examination finding during pregnancy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Soft systolic murmur", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diastolic murmur", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "S3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loud S1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Diastolic murmur", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Diastolic murmur</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While systolic murmurs, S3, and loud S1 are normal cardiovascular examination findings in pregnancy, any diastolic murmur is always pathological and requires evaluation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old G2 presents with delayed menstrual cycles, mild abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding. A urine pregnancy test is positive. What are the ultrasound features suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thin endometrium with no adnexal mass", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Empty uterus with adnexal mass and fluid in pelvis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intra uterine gestational sac", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thick endometrium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Empty uterus with adnexal mass and fluid in pelvis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Z2A7c7r.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Empty uterus with adnexal mass and fluid in pelvis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classic ultrasound findings in ectopic pregnancy are:</li><li>➤ The classic ultrasound findings in ectopic pregnancy are:</li><li>➤ 1. Empty uterine cavity</li><li>➤ 2. Adnexal mass (Bagel sign/ Blob sign)</li><li>➤ 3. Gestational sac with yolk sav/ fetal pole in the adnexa</li><li>➤ 4. Ring of fire on Doppler</li><li>➤ 5. Free fluid in the pelvis (representing blood from abortion or rupture)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of a difficult prolonged labor where she says the baby was stuck for a long time; followed by cesarean section presents watery vaginal discharge on the 7th post operative day. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vesico –vaginal fistula", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrorrhoea gravidarum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urinary retention", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectovaginal fistula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vesico –vaginal fistula", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vesico-vaginal fistula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vesico-vaginal fistula is a known complication of prolonged obstructed labor This presents as continuous watery discharge from the vagina between the 7 th -10 th day post delivery. Prevention involves prolonged catheterization (2-3 weeks) in cases of obstructed labor to allow continuous bladder drainage and proper bladder healing.</li><li>➤ Vesico-vaginal fistula is a known complication of prolonged obstructed labor</li><li>➤ This presents as continuous watery discharge from the vagina between the 7 th -10 th day post delivery.</li><li>➤ Prevention involves prolonged catheterization (2-3 weeks) in cases of obstructed labor to allow continuous bladder drainage and proper bladder healing.</li><li>➤ prolonged catheterization (2-3 weeks) in cases of obstructed labor to allow continuous bladder drainage and proper bladder healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In management of cervical cancer, which therapy is given along with radiotherapy? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immunotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Platinum based chemotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hormone therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Targeted therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Platinum based chemotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Platinum based chemotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Remember that platinum-based chemotherapy (cisplatin) is used as a radiosensitizer along with radiotherapy in the management of cervical cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which type of hysterectomy, is the risk of ureteric injury the least? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laparotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Robotic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vaginal", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vaginal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vaginal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Risk of ureteric injury in increasing order is:</li><li>➤ Vaginal hysterectomy (least risk) Abdominal hysterectomy Laparoscopic hysterectomy Radical hysterectomy (highest)</li><li>➤ Vaginal hysterectomy (least risk)</li><li>➤ Vaginal hysterectomy (least risk)</li><li>➤ Abdominal hysterectomy</li><li>➤ Laparoscopic hysterectomy</li><li>➤ Radical hysterectomy (highest)</li><li>➤ Radical hysterectomy (highest)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following vasectomy, the man is advised to use additional contraception till when? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 month", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Following vasectomy, additional contraception must be used for 3 months until azoospermia is confirmed by semen analysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which hormone is responsible for this? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "TSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Growth hormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "FSH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oxytocin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_O9syDSm.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oxytocin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxytocin is the key hormone responsible for the milk ejection reflex during breastfeeding, triggered by infant suckling.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical intern is observing an ultrasound for a patient with Rh isoimmunization. Which parameter is used to determine fetal anemia? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Raised PSV on MCA Doppler", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduced PSV on MCA Doppler", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Raised PSV on umbilical artery Doppler", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reduced PSV on umbilical artery Doppler", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Raised PSV on MCA Doppler", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Raised PSV on MCA Doppler</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Increased Peak Systolic Velocity (PSV) in the Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA) Doppler is the key non-invasive indicator of fetal anemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the stage of the embryo: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastocyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oocyte", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zygote", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blastocyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-27%20093042.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blastocyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To identify the characteristic features of a blastocyst:</li><li>➤ Fluid-filled cavity (blastocoel) Inner cell mass (embryoblast) Outer trophoblast layer This stage occurs around day 5-6 post-fertilization and is ready for implantation</li><li>➤ Fluid-filled cavity (blastocoel)</li><li>➤ Fluid-filled cavity (blastocoel)</li><li>➤ Inner cell mass (embryoblast)</li><li>➤ Inner cell mass (embryoblast)</li><li>➤ Outer trophoblast layer</li><li>➤ Outer trophoblast layer</li><li>➤ This stage occurs around day 5-6 post-fertilization and is ready for implantation</li><li>➤ This stage occurs around day 5-6 post-fertilization and is ready for implantation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother with gestational diabetes gave birth. The newborn has jitteriness, poor feeding and crying episodes. Which is likely to be seen in the fetus? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neonatal sepsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VSD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypoglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypoglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infants of diabetic mothers are at risk of developing hypoglycemia in the immediate postnatal period due to persistent hyperinsulinemia after birth, manifesting as jitteriness, poor feeding, and crying episodes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female presents with persistent nasal congestion, foul-smelling greenish-black nasal crusts, and anosmia. Examination reveals a dry nasal cavity with crust formation. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rhinoscleroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrophic rhinitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertrophic rhinitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allergic rhinitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atrophic rhinitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20171330_JDF1JmV.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Category33_Page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Atrophic rhinitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation strongly suggests atrophic rhinitis.</li><li>• The presence of foul-smelling greenish-black discharge (due to Klebsiella ozaenae infection) Anosmia (due to atrophy of nerve elements) Crusting in nasal cavity (due to transformation of normal ciliated columnar epithelium to abnormal stratified squamous epithelium) Female patient (consistent with demographics as atrophic rhinitis commonly affects females) The disease process involves atrophy of nasal mucosa, leading to loss of defense mechanisms (cilia and mucous glands), resulting in secondary infections and crust formation.</li><li>• The presence of foul-smelling greenish-black discharge (due to Klebsiella ozaenae infection)</li><li>• Anosmia (due to atrophy of nerve elements)</li><li>• Crusting in nasal cavity (due to transformation of normal ciliated columnar epithelium to abnormal stratified squamous epithelium)</li><li>• Female patient (consistent with demographics as atrophic rhinitis commonly affects females)</li><li>• The disease process involves atrophy of nasal mucosa, leading to loss of defense mechanisms (cilia and mucous glands), resulting in secondary infections and crust formation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Rhinoscleroma</li><li>• Option A. Rhinoscleroma</li><li>• While the first stage can mimic atrophic rhinitis, it typically doesn't present with anosmia Characterized by painless nodules giving woody feel (\"woody nose\" or \"hebra nose\") Caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis</li><li>• While the first stage can mimic atrophic rhinitis, it typically doesn't present with anosmia</li><li>• Characterized by painless nodules giving woody feel (\"woody nose\" or \"hebra nose\")</li><li>• Caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis</li><li>• Option C. Hypertrophic rhinitis</li><li>• Option C. Hypertrophic rhinitis</li><li>• Presents with bilateral inferior turbinate hypertrophy Shows mulberry appearance of turbinates No crusting or anosmia</li><li>• Presents with bilateral inferior turbinate hypertrophy</li><li>• Shows mulberry appearance of turbinates</li><li>• No crusting or anosmia</li><li>• Option D. Allergic rhinitis</li><li>• Option D. Allergic rhinitis</li><li>• Presents with sneezing, itching, and watery discharge IgE-mediated type 1 hypersensitivity reaction No foul smell or crusting Typically shows pale, boggy mucosa</li><li>• Presents with sneezing, itching, and watery discharge</li><li>• IgE-mediated type 1 hypersensitivity reaction</li><li>• No foul smell or crusting</li><li>• Typically shows pale, boggy mucosa</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atrophic Rhinitis (Ozaenae)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following sign is seen in (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tear drop sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20171429.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20171443.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20171459.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Category33_Page_2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the Holman-Miller sign (or antral sign), which is pathognomonic of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (JNA). This sign is characterized by:</li><li>• Forward bowing/anterior displacement of the posterior wall of maxillary sinus Occurs due to tumor extension from sphenopalatine foramen into pterygopalatine fossa The tumor exerts pressure from behind, pushing the posterior maxillary wall forward This finding is visible on CT scan and is a key diagnostic feature of JNA</li><li>• Forward bowing/anterior displacement of the posterior wall of maxillary sinus</li><li>• Occurs due to tumor extension from sphenopalatine foramen into pterygopalatine fossa</li><li>• The tumor exerts pressure from behind, pushing the posterior maxillary wall forward</li><li>• This finding is visible on CT scan and is a key diagnostic feature of JNA</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma</li><li>• Option B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma</li><li>• Shows Trotter's triad (palatal palsy, ipsilateral neuralgia, conductive hearing loss) No characteristic anterior bowing of posterior maxillary wall Most commonly arises from fossa of Rosenmuller</li><li>• Shows Trotter's triad (palatal palsy, ipsilateral neuralgia, conductive hearing loss)</li><li>• No characteristic anterior bowing of posterior maxillary wall</li><li>• Most commonly arises from fossa of Rosenmuller</li><li>• Option C. Tear drop sign</li><li>• Option C. Tear drop sign</li><li>• Also called hanging drop sign Seen in orbital floor fractures (blow-out fractures) Not related to maxillary wall displacement</li><li>• Also called hanging drop sign</li><li>• Seen in orbital floor fractures (blow-out fractures)</li><li>• Not related to maxillary wall displacement</li><li>• Option D. Rhinosporidiosis</li><li>• Option D. Rhinosporidiosis</li><li>• Shows strawberry-like lesions in nasal cavity Presents with epistaxis No characteristic changes in maxillary sinus wall</li><li>• Shows strawberry-like lesions in nasal cavity</li><li>• Presents with epistaxis</li><li>• No characteristic changes in maxillary sinus wall</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the sign shown below: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Double target sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tear drop sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta 2 transferrin sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Handkerchief sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Double target sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20171714.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20171729.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Category33_Page_3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Double target sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the double target sign (also called target sign, halo sign, or double ring sign) which is seen in CSF rhinorrhoea. It is characterized by:</li><li>• A central red spot (blood) Surrounded by a peripheral halo (CSF) This pattern appears when CSF mixed with blood drips onto filter paper or cloth Commonly seen in traumatic CSF rhinorrhoea where blood is mixed with cerebrospinal fluid</li><li>• A central red spot (blood)</li><li>• Surrounded by a peripheral halo (CSF)</li><li>• This pattern appears when CSF mixed with blood drips onto filter paper or cloth</li><li>• Commonly seen in traumatic CSF rhinorrhoea where blood is mixed with cerebrospinal fluid</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tear drop sign</li><li>• Option B. Tear drop sign</li><li>• Also called hanging drop sign Radiological finding seen in blow-out fractures of orbit Not related to CSF rhinorrhea</li><li>• Also called hanging drop sign</li><li>• Radiological finding seen in blow-out fractures of orbit</li><li>• Not related to CSF rhinorrhea</li><li>• Option C. Beta 2 transferrin sign</li><li>• Option C. Beta 2 transferrin sign</li><li>• This is not a visual sign but a laboratory test Used to confirm the presence of CSF in nasal discharge Tests for beta 2 transferrin which is specific to CSF</li><li>• This is not a visual sign but a laboratory test</li><li>• Used to confirm the presence of CSF in nasal discharge</li><li>• Tests for beta 2 transferrin which is specific to CSF</li><li>• Option D. Handkerchief sign</li><li>• Option D. Handkerchief sign</li><li>• Test where nasal discharge is placed on handkerchief CSF doesn't stiffen the handkerchief while mucus does Used to differentiate CSF from nasal mucus</li><li>• Test where nasal discharge is placed on handkerchief</li><li>• CSF doesn't stiffen the handkerchief while mucus does</li><li>• Used to differentiate CSF from nasal mucus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CSF Rhinorrhea</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Type of tympanoplasty shown in image Below: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Type 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20171951.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Category33_Page_4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Type 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows Type 4 tympanoplasty (Wullstein classification) where:</li><li>• The graft is placed directly on the stapes footplate All ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes suprastructure) are absent Only the footplate remains Also called cavum minor tympanoplasty</li><li>• The graft is placed directly on the stapes footplate</li><li>• All ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes suprastructure) are absent</li><li>• Only the footplate remains</li><li>• Also called cavum minor tympanoplasty</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Type 1</li><li>• Option A. Type 1</li><li>• Simple myringoplasty with intact ossicular chain Graft placed on handle of malleus All ossicles are present and functional</li><li>• Simple myringoplasty with intact ossicular chain</li><li>• Graft placed on handle of malleus</li><li>• All ossicles are present and functional</li><li>• Option B. Type 2</li><li>• Option B. Type 2</li><li>• Graft placed on incus or remnant of malleus Partial ossicular defect Malleus absent but incus present</li><li>• Graft placed on incus or remnant of malleus</li><li>• Partial ossicular defect</li><li>• Malleus absent but incus present</li><li>• Option C. Type 3</li><li>• Option C. Type 3</li><li>• Also called columella tympanoplasty Graft placed on stapes head Malleus and incus absent but stapes suprastructure present</li><li>• Also called columella tympanoplasty</li><li>• Graft placed on stapes head</li><li>• Malleus and incus absent but stapes suprastructure present</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize Type 4 tympanoplasty as the procedure where the tympanic membrane graft is placed directly on the stapes footplate when all ossicles are absent except the footplate.</li><li>➤ Tympanoplasty –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 49-year-old woman from Nagaland presents with right-sided hearing loss and tinnitus. On examination, there is a dull tympanic membrane, and lymph nodes in the posterior triangle of the neck are palpable. She is from a region endemic for nasopharyngeal carcinoma. What is the most appropriate management for this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radical neck dissection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grommet insertion with steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiotherapy (RT)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radiotherapy (RT)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Category33_Page_5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Radiotherapy (RT)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Radiotherapy is the most appropriate management because:</li><li>• The presentation suggests nasopharyngeal carcinoma with: Unilateral hearing loss due to serous otitis media (dull tympanic membrane) Painless cervical lymphadenopathy Patient from endemic region (Nagaland) Nasopharyngeal carcinomas are highly radiosensitive tumors This is the first-line treatment for nasopharyngeal carcinoma Radiotherapy provides better outcomes compared to surgery due to: Difficult surgical access to nasopharynx High risk of complications with surgery Rich lymphatic drainage of the area</li><li>• The presentation suggests nasopharyngeal carcinoma with: Unilateral hearing loss due to serous otitis media (dull tympanic membrane) Painless cervical lymphadenopathy Patient from endemic region (Nagaland)</li><li>• Unilateral hearing loss due to serous otitis media (dull tympanic membrane) Painless cervical lymphadenopathy Patient from endemic region (Nagaland)</li><li>• Unilateral hearing loss due to serous otitis media (dull tympanic membrane)</li><li>• Painless cervical lymphadenopathy</li><li>• Patient from endemic region (Nagaland)</li><li>• Nasopharyngeal carcinomas are highly radiosensitive tumors</li><li>• This is the first-line treatment for nasopharyngeal carcinoma</li><li>• Radiotherapy provides better outcomes compared to surgery due to: Difficult surgical access to nasopharynx High risk of complications with surgery Rich lymphatic drainage of the area</li><li>• Difficult surgical access to nasopharynx High risk of complications with surgery Rich lymphatic drainage of the area</li><li>• Difficult surgical access to nasopharynx</li><li>• High risk of complications with surgery</li><li>• Rich lymphatic drainage of the area</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Radical neck dissection</li><li>• Option A. Radical neck dissection</li><li>• Only addresses lymph node metastases Doesn't treat the primary tumor Not first-line treatment without prior radiotherapy</li><li>• Only addresses lymph node metastases</li><li>• Doesn't treat the primary tumor</li><li>• Not first-line treatment without prior radiotherapy</li><li>• Option B. Grommet insertion with steroids</li><li>• Option B. Grommet insertion with steroids</li><li>• Only treats the secondary middle ear effusion Doesn't address the underlying malignancy Can be considered as supportive treatment for hearing loss</li><li>• Only treats the secondary middle ear effusion</li><li>• Doesn't address the underlying malignancy</li><li>• Can be considered as supportive treatment for hearing loss</li><li>• Option D. Wait and watch</li><li>• Option D. Wait and watch</li><li>• Inappropriate for suspected malignancy Delays definitive treatment Can lead to disease progression</li><li>• Inappropriate for suspected malignancy</li><li>• Delays definitive treatment</li><li>• Can lead to disease progression</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radiotherapy is the primary treatment modality for nasopharyngeal carcinoma due to the tumor's high radiosensitivity and anatomical considerations.</li><li>➤ Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma</li><li>➤ Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pure tone audiometry (PTA) result shows an air-bone gap with normal bone conduction thresholds. What is the most likely type of hearing loss? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conductive hearing loss (CHL)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mixed hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal hearing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Conductive hearing loss (CHL)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172112.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172140.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Conductive hearing loss (CHL)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The PTA findings indicate conductive hearing loss because:</li><li>• Bone conduction is normal (within 25 dB threshold). Air conduction is affected (elevated threshold). There is a gap between air and bone conduction curves. This pattern indicates that sound transmission through the external/middle ear is impaired while inner ear function is normal. The presence of air-bone gap with normal bone conduction is pathognomonic of conductive hearing loss.</li><li>• Bone conduction is normal (within 25 dB threshold).</li><li>• Air conduction is affected (elevated threshold).</li><li>• There is a gap between air and bone conduction curves.</li><li>• This pattern indicates that sound transmission through the external/middle ear is impaired while inner ear function is normal.</li><li>• The presence of air-bone gap with normal bone conduction is pathognomonic of conductive hearing loss.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)</li><li>• Option B. Sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)</li><li>• Both air and bone conduction would be affected No significant air-bone gap Curves would be close to each other in affected range</li><li>• Both air and bone conduction would be affected</li><li>• No significant air-bone gap</li><li>• Curves would be close to each other in affected range</li><li>• Option C. Mixed hearing loss</li><li>• Option C. Mixed hearing loss</li><li>• Both air and bone conduction would be affected Air-bone gap present but bone conduction also abnormal Both curves would be in affected range with a gap between them</li><li>• Both air and bone conduction would be affected</li><li>• Air-bone gap present but bone conduction also abnormal</li><li>• Both curves would be in affected range with a gap between them</li><li>• Option D. Normal hearing</li><li>• Option D. Normal hearing</li><li>• Both air and bone conduction would be within normal range (≤25 dB) No air-bone gap Both curves would be close together in normal range</li><li>• Both air and bone conduction would be within normal range (≤25 dB)</li><li>• No air-bone gap</li><li>• Both curves would be close together in normal range</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Air-bone gap with normal bone conduction thresholds on pure tone audiometry is diagnostic of conductive hearing loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presents with hearing difficulty. On examination, the Rinne test is positive in the right ear and negative in the left ear. Weber's test shows lateralization to the right. Bone conduction is reduced in the left ear and normal in the right ear. What is the most likely interpretation of these findings? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conductive hearing loss in the left ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conductive hearing loss in the right ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The findings indicate severe unilateral sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear because:</li><li>• Left ear shows Rinne negative test (false negative) Weber lateralizes to right (better hearing) ear Reduced bone conduction in left ear confirms inner ear pathology This pattern occurs in severe unilateral SNHL where: Sound during bone conduction testing crosses to the normal ear (cross hearing) Creates false impression of bone conduction better than air conduction True pathology revealed by Weber test lateralizing away from affected ear Reduced bone conduction confirms SNHL</li><li>• Left ear shows Rinne negative test (false negative)</li><li>• Weber lateralizes to right (better hearing) ear</li><li>• Reduced bone conduction in left ear confirms inner ear pathology</li><li>• This pattern occurs in severe unilateral SNHL where: Sound during bone conduction testing crosses to the normal ear (cross hearing) Creates false impression of bone conduction better than air conduction True pathology revealed by Weber test lateralizing away from affected ear Reduced bone conduction confirms SNHL</li><li>• Sound during bone conduction testing crosses to the normal ear (cross hearing) Creates false impression of bone conduction better than air conduction True pathology revealed by Weber test lateralizing away from affected ear Reduced bone conduction confirms SNHL</li><li>• Sound during bone conduction testing crosses to the normal ear (cross hearing)</li><li>• Creates false impression of bone conduction better than air conduction</li><li>• True pathology revealed by Weber test lateralizing away from affected ear</li><li>• Reduced bone conduction confirms SNHL</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Conductive hearing loss in the left ear</li><li>• Option A. Conductive hearing loss in the left ear</li><li>• Would show true Rinne negative Weber would lateralize to affected (left) ear Bone conduction would be normal</li><li>• Would show true Rinne negative</li><li>• Weber would lateralize to affected (left) ear</li><li>• Bone conduction would be normal</li><li>• Option B. Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear</li><li>• Option B. Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear</li><li>• Rinne would be positive in right ear (correct) Weber would lateralize to left (unaffected) ear Bone conduction would be reduced in right ear</li><li>• Rinne would be positive in right ear (correct)</li><li>• Weber would lateralize to left (unaffected) ear</li><li>• Bone conduction would be reduced in right ear</li><li>• Option C. Conductive hearing loss in the right ear</li><li>• Option C. Conductive hearing loss in the right ear</li><li>• Rinne would be negative in right ear Weber would lateralize to right ear Bone conduction would be normal</li><li>• Rinne would be negative in right ear</li><li>• Weber would lateralize to right ear</li><li>• Bone conduction would be normal</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A negative Rinne test with reduced bone conduction and Weber’s test lateralizing to the opposite ear suggests sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) in the affected ear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child with a past history of intubation presents to the OPD with shortness of breath that began during play, approximately 2 months after the intubation. A radiograph of the chest is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Croup", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute epiglottitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laryngomalacia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Croup", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172226.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172249.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172305.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Croup</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presentation suggests croup (acute laryngotracheobronchitis) because:</li><li>• X-ray shows characteristic \"steeple sign\" (subglottic narrowing) Age group is typical (6 months to 3 years) History of recent intubation could predispose to viral infection Clinical features match with croup: Gradual onset of respiratory distress Inspiratory stridor Usually caused by parainfluenza virus types I &amp; II Submucosal edema causes narrowing in subglottic region</li><li>• X-ray shows characteristic \"steeple sign\" (subglottic narrowing)</li><li>• Age group is typical (6 months to 3 years)</li><li>• History of recent intubation could predispose to viral infection</li><li>• Clinical features match with croup: Gradual onset of respiratory distress Inspiratory stridor Usually caused by parainfluenza virus types I &amp; II Submucosal edema causes narrowing in subglottic region</li><li>• Clinical features match with croup:</li><li>• Gradual onset of respiratory distress Inspiratory stridor Usually caused by parainfluenza virus types I &amp; II Submucosal edema causes narrowing in subglottic region</li><li>• Gradual onset of respiratory distress</li><li>• Inspiratory stridor</li><li>• Usually caused by parainfluenza virus types I &amp; II</li><li>• Submucosal edema causes narrowing in subglottic region</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Acute epiglottitis</li><li>• Option B. Acute epiglottitis</li><li>• Shows \"thumb sign\" on lateral neck X-ray More severe, rapid onset Typically caused by H. influenzae Child prefers sitting position (tripod sign)</li><li>• Shows \"thumb sign\" on lateral neck X-ray</li><li>• More severe, rapid onset</li><li>• Typically caused by H. influenzae</li><li>• Child prefers sitting position (tripod sign)</li><li>• Option C. Laryngomalacia</li><li>• Option C. Laryngomalacia</li><li>• Most common congenital anomaly of larynx Shows omega-shaped epiglottis on laryngoscopy Symptoms improve in prone position Present from birth</li><li>• Most common congenital anomaly of larynx</li><li>• Shows omega-shaped epiglottis on laryngoscopy</li><li>• Symptoms improve in prone position</li><li>• Present from birth</li><li>• Option D. Bronchitis</li><li>• Option D. Bronchitis</li><li>• Lower airway inflammation No characteristic \"steeple sign\" Different radiological findings Usually presents with cough as primary symptom</li><li>• Lower airway inflammation</li><li>• No characteristic \"steeple sign\"</li><li>• Different radiological findings</li><li>• Usually presents with cough as primary symptom</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ \"steeple sign\" on chest/neck X-ray as characteristic of croup, representing subglottic narrowing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) presents to the OPD with seizures, headache, vomiting, and photophobia. On further evaluation, homonymous hemianopia and episodes of epilepsy were observed. A CT scan of the brain was performed What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Temporal abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subdural abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extradural abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Temporal abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172317.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Temporal abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presentation indicates temporal lobe abscess because:</li><li>• Clear space-occupying lesion in temporal lobe visible on CT Classic symptoms of temporal lobe involvement: Seizures indicating brain parenchymal involvement Homonymous hemianopia due to temporal lobe compression Increased intracranial pressure symptoms (headache, vomiting, photophobia) Common complication of CSOM due to: Direct extension through tegmen tympani Temporal lobe is most common site for brain abscess in CSOM</li><li>• Clear space-occupying lesion in temporal lobe visible on CT</li><li>• Classic symptoms of temporal lobe involvement: Seizures indicating brain parenchymal involvement Homonymous hemianopia due to temporal lobe compression Increased intracranial pressure symptoms (headache, vomiting, photophobia)</li><li>• Seizures indicating brain parenchymal involvement Homonymous hemianopia due to temporal lobe compression Increased intracranial pressure symptoms (headache, vomiting, photophobia)</li><li>• Seizures indicating brain parenchymal involvement</li><li>• Homonymous hemianopia due to temporal lobe compression</li><li>• Increased intracranial pressure symptoms (headache, vomiting, photophobia)</li><li>• Common complication of CSOM due to: Direct extension through tegmen tympani Temporal lobe is most common site for brain abscess in CSOM</li><li>• Direct extension through tegmen tympani Temporal lobe is most common site for brain abscess in CSOM</li><li>• Direct extension through tegmen tympani</li><li>• Temporal lobe is most common site for brain abscess in CSOM</li><li>• Temporal lobe is most common site for brain abscess in CSOM</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Meningitis</li><li>• Option B. Meningitis</li><li>• Most common intracranial complication of CSOM No discrete abscess formation on imaging Shows meningeal enhancement Different clinical features (neck rigidity, Kernig's sign)</li><li>• Most common intracranial complication of CSOM</li><li>• No discrete abscess formation on imaging</li><li>• Shows meningeal enhancement</li><li>• Different clinical features (neck rigidity, Kernig's sign)</li><li>• Option C. Subdural abscess</li><li>• Option C. Subdural abscess</li><li>• Collection between dura and arachnoid Different imaging appearance No discrete parenchymal involvement Different clinical presentation</li><li>• Collection between dura and arachnoid</li><li>• Different imaging appearance</li><li>• No discrete parenchymal involvement</li><li>• Different clinical presentation</li><li>• Option D. Extradural abscess</li><li>• Option D. Extradural abscess</li><li>• Collection outside dura but intracranial Different imaging appearance Less severe neurological symptoms No parenchymal involvement</li><li>• Collection outside dura but intracranial</li><li>• Different imaging appearance</li><li>• Less severe neurological symptoms</li><li>• No parenchymal involvement</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Temporal lobe abscess is a serious complication of CSOM, presenting with seizures and characteristic CT findings of a space-occupying lesion in the temporal lobe.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image shown below? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maxillary sinusitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontal sinusitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethmoidal sinusitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphenoidal sinusitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Maxillary sinusitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172330.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Maxillary sinusitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The CT image shows maxillary sinusitis because:</li><li>• Clear hypodense thickening in the maxillary sinus Involvement of maxillary sinus with mucosal thickening/opacification Anatomical landmarks visible: Orbit above Maxillary sinus below Ethmoid cells medially Cribriform plate superiorly Disease appears to be spreading into nasal cavity, suggesting possible antrochoanal polyp</li><li>• Clear hypodense thickening in the maxillary sinus</li><li>• Involvement of maxillary sinus with mucosal thickening/opacification</li><li>• Anatomical landmarks visible: Orbit above Maxillary sinus below Ethmoid cells medially Cribriform plate superiorly</li><li>• Orbit above Maxillary sinus below Ethmoid cells medially Cribriform plate superiorly</li><li>• Orbit above</li><li>• Maxillary sinus below</li><li>• Ethmoid cells medially</li><li>• Cribriform plate superiorly</li><li>• Disease appears to be spreading into nasal cavity, suggesting possible antrochoanal polyp</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Frontal sinusitis</li><li>• Option B. Frontal sinusitis</li><li>• Frontal sinuses not clearly visible in this cut Would be located superior to orbits Different radiological appearance</li><li>• Frontal sinuses not clearly visible in this cut</li><li>• Would be located superior to orbits</li><li>• Different radiological appearance</li><li>• Option C. Ethmoidal sinusitis</li><li>• Option C. Ethmoidal sinusitis</li><li>• Though ethmoid cells are visible medially No significant pathology in ethmoid region Would show opacification of ethmoid air cells</li><li>• Though ethmoid cells are visible medially</li><li>• No significant pathology in ethmoid region</li><li>• Would show opacification of ethmoid air cells</li><li>• Option D. Sphenoidal sinusitis</li><li>• Option D. Sphenoidal sinusitis</li><li>• Sphenoid sinus not visible in this cut Would be seen at nasopharyngeal level Located most posteriorly among all sinuses</li><li>• Sphenoid sinus not visible in this cut</li><li>• Would be seen at nasopharyngeal level</li><li>• Located most posteriorly among all sinuses</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Most common in adults because ostium locates higher than floor level and drainage is against the gravity. Pain over upper jaw present.</li><li>➤ Most common in adults because ostium locates higher than floor level and drainage is against the gravity.</li><li>➤ Pain over upper jaw present.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Buccopharyngeal fascia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pharyngobasilar fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alar fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prevertebral fascia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Buccopharyngeal fascia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172348.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172438.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Buccopharyngeal fascia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The marked structure is buccopharyngeal fascia based on its anatomical position:</li><li>• Located behind the muscular layer of pharynx Forms outer covering of pharyngeal muscles Lies anterior to retropharyngeal space Follows the arrangement of pharyngeal wall layers from inside out: Pharyngobasilar fascia (innermost) Muscular layer (longitudinal and circular) Buccopharyngeal fascia Retropharyngeal space Alar fascia Alar space Prevertebral fascia Prevertebral space Vertebra</li><li>• Located behind the muscular layer of pharynx</li><li>• Forms outer covering of pharyngeal muscles</li><li>• Lies anterior to retropharyngeal space</li><li>• Follows the arrangement of pharyngeal wall layers from inside out: Pharyngobasilar fascia (innermost) Muscular layer (longitudinal and circular) Buccopharyngeal fascia Retropharyngeal space Alar fascia Alar space Prevertebral fascia Prevertebral space Vertebra</li><li>• Pharyngobasilar fascia (innermost) Muscular layer (longitudinal and circular) Buccopharyngeal fascia Retropharyngeal space Alar fascia Alar space Prevertebral fascia Prevertebral space Vertebra</li><li>• Pharyngobasilar fascia (innermost)</li><li>• Muscular layer (longitudinal and circular)</li><li>• Buccopharyngeal fascia</li><li>• Retropharyngeal space</li><li>• Alar fascia</li><li>• Alar space</li><li>• Prevertebral fascia</li><li>• Prevertebral space</li><li>• Vertebra</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pharyngobasilar fascia</li><li>• Option B. Pharyngobasilar fascia</li><li>• Forms innermost layer lining pharyngeal cavity Located beneath mucosa Forms tonsillar capsule posteriorly</li><li>• Forms innermost layer lining pharyngeal cavity</li><li>• Located beneath mucosa</li><li>• Forms tonsillar capsule posteriorly</li><li>• Option C. Alar fascia</li><li>• Option C. Alar fascia</li><li>• Located posterior to retropharyngeal space Forms anterior boundary of danger space Extends to T4 vertebral level</li><li>• Located posterior to retropharyngeal space</li><li>• Forms anterior boundary of danger space</li><li>• Extends to T4 vertebral level</li><li>• Option D. Prevertebral fascia</li><li>• Option D. Prevertebral fascia</li><li>• Located most posteriorly before vertebral column Forms posterior boundary of danger space Extends to coccyx</li><li>• Located most posteriorly before vertebral column</li><li>• Forms posterior boundary of danger space</li><li>• Extends to coccyx</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child presents with respiratory distress after a history of eating peanuts. Clinical examination reveals an audible thud during breathing. What is the most likely location of the foreign body? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Larynx", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trachea", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oesophagus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Trachea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Trachea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The foreign body is most likely in the trachea because:</li><li>• Presence of audible thud during breathing is pathognomonic of tracheal foreign body Foreign body in trachea moves up and down with respiration causing the thud sound Peanuts are common aspirated foreign bodies in children Acute presentation with respiratory distress after eating suggests aspiration History of eating peanuts followed by immediate symptoms suggests aspiration pathway rather than ingestion</li><li>• Presence of audible thud during breathing is pathognomonic of tracheal foreign body</li><li>• Foreign body in trachea moves up and down with respiration causing the thud sound</li><li>• Peanuts are common aspirated foreign bodies in children</li><li>• Acute presentation with respiratory distress after eating suggests aspiration</li><li>• History of eating peanuts followed by immediate symptoms suggests aspiration pathway rather than ingestion</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Larynx</li><li>• Option A. Larynx</li><li>• Would cause immediate severe respiratory distress Stridor would be prominent Voice changes would be present Less likely to cause thud sound</li><li>• Would cause immediate severe respiratory distress</li><li>• Stridor would be prominent</li><li>• Voice changes would be present</li><li>• Less likely to cause thud sound</li><li>• Option B. Bronchus</li><li>• Option B. Bronchus</li><li>• More common final location but doesn't cause thud sound Usually right main bronchus due to anatomical orientation Would cause unilateral wheeze or decreased breath sounds No up and down movement to cause thud</li><li>• More common final location but doesn't cause thud sound</li><li>• Usually right main bronchus due to anatomical orientation</li><li>• Would cause unilateral wheeze or decreased breath sounds</li><li>• No up and down movement to cause thud</li><li>• Option D. Oesophagus</li><li>• Option D. Oesophagus</li><li>• Would cause dysphagia rather than respiratory distress No audible thud during breathing Drooling and inability to swallow would be prominent Different management approach required</li><li>• Would cause dysphagia rather than respiratory distress</li><li>• No audible thud during breathing</li><li>• Drooling and inability to swallow would be prominent</li><li>• Different management approach required</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Foreign bodies in the trachea cause biphasic stridor and audible thuds due to partial airway obstruction. Immediate intervention with bronchoscopy is required to prevent asphyxiation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child presents with respiratory distress, coughing, and an inability to speak after eating. What is the next best step in management? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchoscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heimlich maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blind finger sweep", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endotracheal intubation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bronchoscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bronchoscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bronchoscopy is the best next step because:</li><li>• Child has already presented to the hospital with respiratory distress Rigid bronchoscopy is both diagnostic and therapeutic Allows direct visualization of the foreign body Enables safe removal under controlled conditions Most appropriate for hospital setting where proper equipment and expertise are available Prevents complications from blind maneuvers</li><li>• Child has already presented to the hospital with respiratory distress</li><li>• Rigid bronchoscopy is both diagnostic and therapeutic</li><li>• Allows direct visualization of the foreign body</li><li>• Enables safe removal under controlled conditions</li><li>• Most appropriate for hospital setting where proper equipment and expertise are available</li><li>• Prevents complications from blind maneuvers</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Heimlich maneuver</li><li>• Option B. Heimlich maneuver</li><li>• More appropriate for immediate first aid in community setting Better suited for adults than children Risk of complications in young children Not the best choice once patient is in hospital</li><li>• More appropriate for immediate first aid in community setting</li><li>• Better suited for adults than children</li><li>• Risk of complications in young children</li><li>• Not the best choice once patient is in hospital</li><li>• Option C. Blind finger sweep</li><li>• Option C. Blind finger sweep</li><li>• Contraindicated in children Risk of pushing foreign body further down Can cause trauma to oropharynx May worsen the situation</li><li>• Contraindicated in children</li><li>• Risk of pushing foreign body further down</li><li>• Can cause trauma to oropharynx</li><li>• May worsen the situation</li><li>• Option D. Endotracheal intubation</li><li>• Option D. Endotracheal intubation</li><li>• Risk of pushing foreign body further down Doesn't address removal of foreign body May complicate the situation Not appropriate without first visualizing foreign body</li><li>• Risk of pushing foreign body further down</li><li>• Doesn't address removal of foreign body</li><li>• May complicate the situation</li><li>• Not appropriate without first visualizing foreign body</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize that rigid bronchoscopy is the definitive management for foreign body aspiration in a hospital setting as it allows both diagnosis and therapeutic removal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following sign: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tear drop sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steeple sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thumb sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sail sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tear drop sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/111.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172755.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20172818.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tear drop sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the tear drop sign (also called hanging drop sign) because:</li><li>• Shows herniation of orbital contents into maxillary sinus Appears as a tear-shaped shadow on imaging Characteristic finding in orbital floor fractures (blow-out fractures) Occurs due to disruption of orbital floor allowing downward displacement of orbital contents Important radiological sign in trauma cases</li><li>• Shows herniation of orbital contents into maxillary sinus</li><li>• Appears as a tear-shaped shadow on imaging</li><li>• Characteristic finding in orbital floor fractures (blow-out fractures)</li><li>• Occurs due to disruption of orbital floor allowing downward displacement of orbital contents</li><li>• Important radiological sign in trauma cases</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Steeple sign</li><li>• Option B. Steeple sign</li><li>• Seen in croup Shows subglottic narrowing on AP view Appears as narrowing of upper airway Different radiological appearance</li><li>• Seen in croup</li><li>• Shows subglottic narrowing on AP view</li><li>• Appears as narrowing of upper airway</li><li>• Different radiological appearance</li><li>• Option C. Thumb sign</li><li>• Option C. Thumb sign</li><li>• Seen in acute epiglottitis Shows swollen epiglottis on lateral neck X-ray Appears as thumb-like shadow Different anatomical location</li><li>• Seen in acute epiglottitis</li><li>• Shows swollen epiglottis on lateral neck X-ray</li><li>• Appears as thumb-like shadow</li><li>• Different anatomical location</li><li>• Option D. Sail sign</li><li>• Option D. Sail sign</li><li>• Not a commonly used radiological sign in ENT Different appearance and location Not related to orbital or sinus pathology</li><li>• Not a commonly used radiological sign in ENT</li><li>• Different appearance and location</li><li>• Not related to orbital or sinus pathology</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize the tear drop sign (hanging drop sign) as characteristic radiological finding in orbital floor fractures showing herniation of orbital contents into maxillary sinus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male undergoing hernia surgery was administered succinylcholine. After administration of anesthesia, he developed muscle rigidity, elevated temperature, and increased etCO2 levels. What is the appropriate treatment for this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Midazolam", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dantrolene sodium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dantrolene sodium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dantrolene sodium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dantrolene sodium is the specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia, a condition triggered by succinylcholine and inhalational anesthetics characterized by muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and increased etCO2.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to the latest AHA guidelines, what is the sixth link added to the \"Chain of Survival\" in CPR? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Early CPR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post-cardiac arrest care", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post MI care", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Recovery", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Recovery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_n5CFeeT.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Recovery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The American Heart Association (AHA) has updated the Chain of Survival to include a sixth link: Recovery. This emphasizes the importance of post-cardiac arrest rehabilitation, psychological support, and long-term follow-up.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following medications should be adjusted or stopped before the procedure? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase the dose of aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stop Enalapril", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stop Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stop Aspirin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stop Enalapril", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Stop Enalapril</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Before surgery, ACE inhibitors like Enalapril should be stopped due to the risk of refractory hypotension, while beta-blockers can be continued, and aspirin should be managed based on its dosage.</li><li>➤ Hypertensive patients on Antihypertensives</li><li>➤ Hypertensive patients on Antihypertensives</li><li>➤ ACE Inhibitors - Omitted on day of surgery. Angiotensin receptor blockers - Omitted on day of surgery. Diuretics - Continued on the day of surgery. Beta Blockers - Continue on the day of surgery. Calcium channel blockers - Continue on the day of surgery. Centrally acting alpha-2 agonists - Continue on the day of surgery.</li><li>➤ ACE Inhibitors - Omitted on day of surgery.</li><li>➤ Angiotensin receptor blockers - Omitted on day of surgery.</li><li>➤ Diuretics - Continued on the day of surgery.</li><li>➤ Beta Blockers - Continue on the day of surgery.</li><li>➤ Calcium channel blockers - Continue on the day of surgery.</li><li>➤ Centrally acting alpha-2 agonists - Continue on the day of surgery.</li><li>➤ ANTICOAGULANTS</li><li>➤ ANTICOAGULANTS</li><li>➤ Aspirin continued on day of surgery Clopidogrel - stopped 7 days prior to surgery Warfarin- stopped 5 days prior to surgery Heparin - stopped 4 hours prior to surgery LMWH-stopped 12 hours prior to surgery Ticlopidine - stopped 14 days prior to surgery BRIDGING DRUG - heparin.</li><li>➤ Aspirin continued on day of surgery</li><li>➤ Clopidogrel - stopped 7 days prior to surgery</li><li>➤ Warfarin- stopped 5 days prior to surgery</li><li>➤ Heparin - stopped 4 hours prior to surgery</li><li>➤ LMWH-stopped 12 hours prior to surgery</li><li>➤ Ticlopidine - stopped 14 days prior to surgery</li><li>➤ BRIDGING DRUG - heparin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was intubated, and during auscultation, breath sounds were heard on the left side, but absent on the right side. What could be the most likely cause? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endobronchial intubation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophageal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endobronchial intubation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_vHVkbe6.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endobronchial intubation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endobronchial intubation occurs when the ETT is advanced too far into one bronchus, leading to ventilation of only one lung and collapse of the other. Proper technique, including auscultation and chest X-ray confirmation, is necessary to ensure correct ETT placement.</li><li>➤ X RAY OF Endobronchial intubation</li><li>➤ X RAY OF Endobronchial intubation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic with red, scaly rashes around the mouth and anus, a history of chronic diarrhoea, poor wound healing, and growth delay. Based on these symptoms, which of the following is the most likely deficiency responsible for this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Selenium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zinc", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cobalt", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Zinc", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_mxxUjy1.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Zinc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zinc deficiency should be suspected in pediatric patients presenting with perianal, perioral, and perivaginal rash, along with diarrhea and growth retardation. The condition, acrodermatitis enteropathica, requires zinc supplementation for treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child came with complaints of fast breathing and distress. The image is shown below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Croup", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute epiglottitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchiolitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Croup", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_fPPHAuN.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Croup</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) should be suspected in a child with barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and respiratory distress. The steeple sign on X-ray confirms the diagnosis. Management includes corticosteroids (dexamethasone) and nebulized epinephrine for severe cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child is being screened for malnutrition at a health center. According to WHO criteria, what mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) measurement indicates severe acute malnutrition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt; 11.5 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt; 12.5 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt; 12.5 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 13.5 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. < 11.5 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) &lt; 11.5 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) &lt; 11.5 cm is one of the diagnostic criteria for severe acute malnutrition in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child presents with disproportionate short stature with increased upper segment: lower segment ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Achondroplasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alagille syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TB spine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Achondroplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Achondroplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Achondroplasia presents with an increased upper segment:lower segment ratio due to short limbs with a relatively preserved trunk length. The condition is caused by an FGFR3 gene mutation and is the most common form of disproportionate short stature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by their parents due to bowing of the legs. On examination, the child has widening of the wrists and frontal bossing. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rickets", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rickets", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_6MR5sdX.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rickets</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rickets should be suspected in children with bowing of the legs, delayed fontanelle closure, and widened wrists. It is caused by vitamin D deficiency, leading to defective bone mineralization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child came with complaints of fast breathing of RR 48 per minute with no chest in drawing. What is your diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Very severe pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pneumonia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pneumonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A respiratory rate of 48/min in a 2-year-old without chest indrawing is classified as pneumonia. IMNCI guidelines recommend oral amoxicillin for five days as the first-line treatment for non-severe pneumonia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following features is not part of the classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chorioretinitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intracranial calcifications", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrocephalus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatosplenomegaly", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hepatosplenomegaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hepatosplenomegaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital toxoplasmosis classically presents with the triad of chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, and hydrocephalus. Additional findings such as hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and seizures may occur but are not part of the classic triad.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which anthropometric parameter indicates chronic malnutrition in a child according to WHO growth standards? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight for height", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Height for age", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weight for age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BMI for age", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Height for age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Height for age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic malnutrition is best measured by height-for-age, as it indicates long-term nutritional deficiencies leading to stunting. In contrast, weight-for-height reflects acute malnutrition (wasting), and weight-for-age is a mixed indicator.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby presents with the clinical features shown in the image, including characteristic perioral and perianal rash along with a history of diarrhea, delayed wound healing. Which of the following is the most likely deficiency responsible for this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zinc deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Niacin deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Selenium deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Magnesium deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zinc deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_CYRifgd.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Zinc deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Remember the characteristic clinical presentation of zinc deficiency using the mnemonic \"HIDE\" - Healing (delayed), Immunity (decreased), Dermatitis (periorificial), and Enteropathy (diarrhea). The periorificial distribution of dermatitis is pathognomonic for zinc deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient present with gum bleeding, petechiae, poor wound healing, and other related symptoms. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is most likely responsible for this presentation? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classic triad of scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency): gum bleeding, poor wound healing, and petechiae/easy bruising. Understand that these symptoms occur due to impaired collagen synthesis and compromised blood vessel integrity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following enzymes is dependent on Vitamin C for its activity? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lysyl dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lysyl oxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydroxypropyl kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prolyl hydroxylase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Prolyl hydroxylase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Prolyl hydroxylase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin C is an essential cofactor for prolyl hydroxylase, which is crucial for collagen synthesis and stability. Deficiency of vitamin C leads to defective collagen formation resulting in scurvy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male presented with black deposit in the vertebrae visible on X-Ray LS spine and also over knee joint and sclera which shows ochronosis. Which enzyme deficiency has caused this condition? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Homogentisic acid oxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tyrosine transaminase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PHPP dioxygenase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Homogentisic acid oxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Homogentisic acid oxidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alkaptonuria is caused by homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency and presents with ochronosis ( black deposits in connective tissues ) and darkening of urine on standing.</li><li>➤ black deposits in connective tissues</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of strenuous exercise skipped a meal and later consumed alcohol at a party. Alcohol inhibits which of the following biochemical processes, potentially leading to hypoglycemia: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gluconeogenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycogenolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hexose Monophosphate (HMP) Shunt", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketone Body Formation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gluconeogenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_MN24K9k.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_6lJQuDx.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_jtdhKZG.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_P2GlViI.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gluconeogenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol consumption inhibits gluconeogenesis by creating a high NADH/NAD+ ratio, which depletes gluconeogenic substrates (pyruvate and oxaloacetate), potentially leading to hypoglycemia, especially when glycogen stores are depleted.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following amino acids primarily acts as a buffer in blood due to its ability to accept and donate protons at physiological pH? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histidine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arginine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tryptophan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tyrosine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Histidine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Histidine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Histidine is the best amino acid buffer in blood because of its imidazole ring , which has a pKa close to physiological pH (~7).</li><li>➤ Histidine is the best amino acid buffer in blood</li><li>➤ imidazole ring</li><li>➤ The imidazole group allows histidine to act as a proton donor or acceptor, making it an ideal buffer.</li><li>➤ The imidazole group allows histidine to act as a proton donor or acceptor, making it an ideal buffer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is accumulated in joint in the mucopolysaccharidosis associated with Natowicz disease? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermatan sulfate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heparan sulfate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Keratan sulfate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyaluronic acid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hyaluronic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hyaluronic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Natowicz disease (MPS type IX) is characterized by hyaluronidase deficiency leading to accumulation of hyaluronic acid in joints, causing joint pain and short stature.</li><li>➤ (MPS type IX)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During starvation, which of the following hormones is primarily produced to maintain blood glucose levels? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucagon", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Somatostatin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glucagon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_2Hp9kny.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glucagon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucagon is the principal hormone responsible for maintaining blood glucose levels during starvation through activation of glycogenolysis , gluconeogenesis, and lipolysis . Its levels increase while insulin levels decrease during starvation.</li><li>➤ activation of glycogenolysis</li><li>➤ gluconeogenesis, and lipolysis</li><li>➤ Hormonal Regulation During Starvation</li><li>➤ Hormonal Regulation During Starvation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The development of cataracts in patients with Diabetes Mellitus is primarily due to the accumulation of which of the following substances in the lens? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sorbitol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dulcitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galactitol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sorbitol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_AEMDrP6.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sorbitol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diabetic cataract ( snowflake cataract ) occurs due to sorbitol accumulation via the polyol pathway, whereas galactosemia leads to oil drop cataract due to galactitol/dulcitol accumulation.</li><li>➤ snowflake cataract</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child presents with obesity and developmental delay. It is caused by paternal deletion and imprinted maternal allele. Which chromosome is involved? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "21", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "11", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "15", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 15", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 15</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prader-Willi Syndrome involves chromosome 15, specifically:</li><li>➤ Maternal allele is imprinted (naturally inhibited) Paternal allele deletion Results in both copies being non-functional</li><li>➤ Maternal allele is imprinted (naturally inhibited)</li><li>➤ Paternal allele deletion</li><li>➤ Results in both copies being non-functional</li><li>➤ For remembering deletion pattern:</li><li>➤ For remembering deletion pattern:</li><li>➤ \"PAPA deleted in PWS\"</li><li>➤ \"PAPA deleted in PWS\"</li><li>➤ Paternal deletion in Prader-Willi Syndrome</li><li>➤ \"Mothers are Angels\"</li><li>➤ \"Mothers are Angels\"</li><li>➤ Angelman syndrome = Maternal deletion</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the marker of apoptosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphatidylserine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphatidylethanolamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phosphatidylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphingomyelin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phosphatidylserine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Phosphatidylserine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phosphatidylserine externalization is a specific marker of apoptosis and its role in recognition of apoptotic cells by phagocytes.</li><li>➤ phagocytes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which enzyme is responsible for removal of Triglycerides from chylomicron? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lipoprotein lipase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hormone sensitive lipase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LCAT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lipoprotein lipase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lipoprotein lipase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lipoprotein lipase is the key enzyme responsible for hydrolyzing triglycerides from circulating chylomicrons and VLDL at the endothelial surface, facilitating fatty acid uptake by tissues.</li><li>➤ chylomicrons and VLDL</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What enzyme analysis will be done in a patient before starting anti-malarial drugs who had a family history of hemolytic anemia? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G6PD analysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyruvate kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hexokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enolase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. G6PD analysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_A3EAixD.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_xVUWvKt.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) G6PD analysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ G6PD analysis must be done before starting antimalarial therapy in patients with family history of hemolytic anemia, as G6PD deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder where antimalarial drugs can trigger severe hemolysis due to oxidative stress.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old electrical worker is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a high-voltage electric shock at work. He reports muscle pain, weakness, and dark-colored urine since the incident. Physical examination reveals tender, swollen muscles in the upper limbs. Laboratory tests show significantly elevated creatine kinase levels. What is the most likely substance found in his urine? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myoglobin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased RBCs in urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased creatine kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased bilirubin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myoglobin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_rmIJu1I.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rhabdomyolysis caused by muscle injury (such as electrical shock) leads to myoglobinuria, which causes dark-colored urine along with elevated serum creatine kinase levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is excreted in the urine of patients with Pentosuria? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L xylulose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "D ribose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "D ribulose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D lactose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. L xylulose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) L xylulose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Biochemical Features of Pentosuria</li><li>➤ Biochemical Features of Pentosuria</li><li>➤ Enzyme Deficiency: Xylitol dehydrogenase Affected Pathway: Uronic acid pathway Accumulated Compound: L-xylulose Excretion in Urine: L-xylulose (leading to pentosuria) Reducing Sugar in Urine: Benedict’s test positive Clinical Symptoms: None (benign condition) Mode of Inheritance: Autosomal recessive (more common in Ashkenazi Jewish populations</li><li>➤ Enzyme Deficiency: Xylitol dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ Enzyme Deficiency:</li><li>➤ Affected Pathway: Uronic acid pathway</li><li>➤ Affected Pathway:</li><li>➤ Accumulated Compound: L-xylulose</li><li>➤ Accumulated Compound:</li><li>➤ Excretion in Urine: L-xylulose (leading to pentosuria)</li><li>➤ Excretion in Urine:</li><li>➤ Reducing Sugar in Urine: Benedict’s test positive</li><li>➤ Reducing Sugar in Urine:</li><li>➤ Clinical Symptoms: None (benign condition)</li><li>➤ Clinical Symptoms:</li><li>➤ None</li><li>➤ Mode of Inheritance: Autosomal recessive (more common in Ashkenazi Jewish populations</li><li>➤ Mode of Inheritance:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following best describes the regulation of enzyme activity through phosphorylation or dephosphorylation? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Competitive inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Repression", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Allosteric inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Covalent modification", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Covalent modification", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Axdrj9n.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Covalent modification</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phosphorylation/dephosphorylation represents a covalent modification mechanism for regulating enzyme activity through the addition or removal of phosphate groups.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Acetyl CoA in prolonged starvation mostly will be used for: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ketogenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-essential Fatty Acid synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cholesterol synthesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ketogenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ketogenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During prolonged starvation, acetyl CoA is primarily directed toward ketone body synthesis to provide alternative fuel for vital organs, rather than being used for anabolic processes like fatty acid or cholesterol synthesis.</li><li>➤ Fates of Acetyl-CoA</li><li>➤ Fates of Acetyl-CoA</li><li>➤ In Starvation:</li><li>➤ In Starvation:</li><li>➤ TCA Cycle Ketone Body Synthesis Activation of Gluconeogenesis</li><li>➤ TCA Cycle</li><li>➤ Ketone Body Synthesis</li><li>➤ Activation of Gluconeogenesis</li><li>➤ In Fed State:</li><li>➤ In Fed State:</li><li>➤ Fatty Acid/TG (Triglyceride) Synthesis Cholesterol Synthesis TCA Cycle</li><li>➤ Fatty Acid/TG (Triglyceride) Synthesis</li><li>➤ Cholesterol Synthesis</li><li>➤ TCA Cycle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness and weakness. She reports a history of binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting for weight control. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals the following: pH -7.50; Pco2 –48mmHg; HCO3-30meq/l? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic Alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic Acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory Alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory Acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metabolic Alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20173537.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metabolic Alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• pH is 7.5 (elevated above normal 7.35-7.45) indicating alkalosis PCO2 is 48 mmHg (elevated above normal 35-45 mmHg) indicating respiratory compensation HCO3 is 30 meq/L (elevated above normal 22-26 meq/L)</li><li>• pH is 7.5 (elevated above normal 7.35-7.45) indicating alkalosis</li><li>• PCO2 is 48 mmHg (elevated above normal 35-45 mmHg) indicating respiratory compensation</li><li>• HCO3 is 30 meq/L (elevated above normal 22-26 meq/L)</li><li>• This represents a primary metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation. The elevated HCO3 is the primary disorder causing the alkalosis. The elevated PCO2 represents appropriate respiratory compensation (hypoventilation) attempting to normalize the pH by retaining CO2.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Metabolic Acidosis: Incorrect because metabolic acidosis presents with low pH (&lt;7.35) and low HCO3, which is opposite to the values given.</li><li>• Option B. Metabolic Acidosis: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Respiratory Alkalosis:Incorrect because respiratory alkalosis presents with high pH but low PCO2, whereas here PCO2 is elevated.</li><li>• Option C. Respiratory Alkalosis:Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Respiratory Acidosis:Incorrect because respiratory acidosis presents with low pH and high PCO2. While PCO2 is high here, the pH is alkalotic rather than acidotic.</li><li>• Option D. Respiratory Acidosis:Incorrect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In arterial blood gas interpretation, metabolic alkalosis is characterized by:</li><li>➤ Elevated pH (&gt;7.45) Elevated HCO3 (&gt;26 meq/L) Compensatory elevation in PCO2 through hypoventilation</li><li>➤ Elevated pH (&gt;7.45)</li><li>➤ Elevated HCO3 (&gt;26 meq/L)</li><li>➤ Compensatory elevation in PCO2 through hypoventilation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person is exercising via performing different muscle movement, which of the following is correct regarding the muscle zone? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "M-line decreases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "M-line &amp; I band decreases", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Band A decreases", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Band I decreases", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Band I decreases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20173655.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Band I decreases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• During muscle contraction, the I band decreases in size due to increased overlapping between actin and myosin filaments. \"When the muscle is going to start contracting, the overlapping between the actin and myosin is going to increase. And because of that, the I band (only actin) is going to decrease because more actin will be overlapped by the myosin.\"</li><li>• I band decreases in size due to increased overlapping between actin and myosin filaments.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. M-line decreases – Incorrect: The M line is the midline between two adjacent Z lines. \"M line will never change\" during muscle contraction. It remains constant as it's a structural component.</li><li>• Option A. M-line decreases – Incorrect:</li><li>• Option B. M-line &amp; I band decreases - Incorrect : While I band does decrease, M line remains constant during contraction. Therefore, this combination is incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. M-line &amp; I band decreases</li><li>• - Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Band A decreases – Incorrect: A band represents the complete myosin filament length. \"A band is a complete myosin that is nothing but whether it is overlapped by the actin or non-overlap does not matter. It will stay as it is.\" The A band length remains constant during contraction.</li><li>• Option C. Band A decreases – Incorrect:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During muscle contraction, while the M line and A band remain constant in length, the I band (containing only actin filaments) decreases in size due to increased actin-myosin overlap.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following leads to shift toward red curve in the given graph? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Less 2,3 BPG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypocarbia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypothermia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acidosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20173718.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20173842.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20135646.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (OHDC) shows the relationship between PO2 and hemoglobin saturation . The red curve in the image represents a right shift. Acidosis causes a right shift of the curve, known as the Bohr effect. When blood pH decreases (acidosis), the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen decreases, causing more oxygen to be released to the tissues. This is physiologically beneficial as tissues in acidotic conditions often need more oxygen.</li><li>• PO2 and hemoglobin saturation</li><li>• Bohr effect.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Less 2,3 BPG: Incorrect Less 2,3-BPG causes a left shift of the curve, not right</li><li>• Option B. Less 2,3 BPG: Incorrect</li><li>• When 2,3-BPG levels decrease, hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen increases This means oxygen binds more tightly to hemoglobin and less is released to tissues</li><li>• When 2,3-BPG levels decrease, hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen increases</li><li>• This means oxygen binds more tightly to hemoglobin and less is released to tissues</li><li>• Option C. Hypocarbia: Incorrect Hypocarbia means decreased CO2 levels</li><li>• Option C. Hypocarbia: Incorrect</li><li>• This leads to alkalosis which causes a left shift Results in increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen</li><li>• This leads to alkalosis which causes a left shift</li><li>• Results in increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen</li><li>• Option D. Hypothermia: Incorrect Lower temperature causes a left shift of the curve</li><li>• Option D. Hypothermia: Incorrect</li><li>• Increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen Reduces oxygen delivery to tissues</li><li>• Increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen</li><li>• Reduces oxygen delivery to tissues</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acidosis causes a right shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (Bohr effect), while alkalosis, hypothermia, and decreased 2,3-BPG cause left shifts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cell marked as X in the given image: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Purkinje cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basket cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Granule cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Golgi cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Purkinje cells", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20173915.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20173945.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Purkinje cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a histological section of the cerebellar cortex. The cells marked with X show characteristic features of Purkinje cells:</li><li>• They are the largest neurons in the cerebellar cortex Located in the Purkinje layer (between the molecular and granular layers) Organized in a single row Have distinctive large cell bodies and extensive dendritic trees They are the only output cells from the cerebellar cortex</li><li>• They are the largest neurons in the cerebellar cortex</li><li>• Located in the Purkinje layer (between the molecular and granular layers)</li><li>• Organized in a single row</li><li>• Have distinctive large cell bodies and extensive dendritic trees</li><li>• They are the only output cells from the cerebellar cortex</li><li>• Purkinje cells are the only cells that give output from the cerebellum, making them functionally unique and essential for cerebellar function.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Basket cells: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Basket cells: Incorrect</li><li>• Because basket cells are smaller interneurons found in the molecular layer They make connections with Purkinje cell bodies They have a characteristic \"basket-like\" axonal arborization</li><li>• Because basket cells are smaller interneurons found in the molecular layer</li><li>• smaller interneurons found in the molecular layer</li><li>• They make connections with Purkinje cell bodies</li><li>• They have a characteristic \"basket-like\" axonal arborization</li><li>• \"basket-like\"</li><li>• Option C. Granule cells: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Granule cells: Incorrect</li><li>• Because granule cells are the smallest and most numerous neurons in the cerebellum They are located in the granular layer (seen as the dense purple layer in the image) They have small round cell bodies</li><li>• Because granule cells are the smallest and most numerous neurons in the cerebellum</li><li>• smallest and most numerous neurons</li><li>• They are located in the granular layer (seen as the dense purple layer in the image)</li><li>• granular layer</li><li>• They have small round cell bodies</li><li>• Option D. Golgi cells: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Golgi cells: Incorrect</li><li>• Because Golgi cells are interneurons present in the granular layer They are involved in local circuit processing They do not have the characteristic large cell body and location seen in the image</li><li>• Because Golgi cells are interneurons present in the granular layer</li><li>• Golgi cells are interneurons present in the granular layer</li><li>• They are involved in local circuit processing</li><li>• They do not have the characteristic large cell body and location seen in the image</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Purkinje cells are the largest neurons in the cerebellar cortex, arranged in a single layer between molecular and granular layers, and serve as the sole output neurons of the cerebellar cortex.</li><li>➤ largest neurons</li><li>➤ cerebellar cortex,</li><li>➤ molecular and granular layers,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct regarding Mechanism of botulinum toxin: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibit Acetylcholine Release from presynaptic terminal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibit Acetylcholine reuptake", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Block post synaptic Acetylcholine receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibit Acetylcholine esterase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibit Acetylcholine Release from presynaptic terminal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20140711.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inhibit Acetylcholine Release from presynaptic terminal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Botulinum toxin works by inhibiting acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals. It specifically acts by:</li><li>• Inhibiting Synaptobrevin, which is part of the SNARE protein complex SNARE proteins are essential for neurotransmitter exocytosis This inhibition prevents acetylcholine release into the synaptic cleft Results in flaccid paralysis due to lack of neurotransmitter release Clinically used in treating conditions like achalasia cardia, spasms, and contractures</li><li>• Inhibiting Synaptobrevin, which is part of the SNARE protein complex</li><li>• Synaptobrevin, which is part of the SNARE protein complex</li><li>• SNARE proteins are essential for neurotransmitter exocytosis</li><li>• neurotransmitter exocytosis</li><li>• This inhibition prevents acetylcholine release into the synaptic cleft</li><li>• Results in flaccid paralysis due to lack of neurotransmitter release</li><li>• Clinically used in treating conditions like achalasia cardia, spasms, and contractures</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Inhibit Acetylcholine reuptake: Incorrect because botulinum toxin doesn't affect reuptake mechanisms. It acts specifically on the release mechanism.</li><li>• Option B. Inhibit Acetylcholine reuptake: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Block post synaptic Acetylcholine receptor: Incorrect. This is the mechanism of action for myasthenia gravis where antibodies target post-synaptic acetylcholine receptors. Botulinum toxin acts presynaptically.</li><li>• Option C. Block post synaptic Acetylcholine receptor: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Inhibit Acetylcholine esterase: Incorrect. This is the mechanism of action of drugs like neostigmine and pyridostigmine used in treating myasthenia gravis. They prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.</li><li>• Option D. Inhibit Acetylcholine esterase: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Botulinum toxin functions by inhibiting acetylcholine release through its action on SNARE proteins (specifically synaptobrevin ) at the presynaptic terminal.</li><li>➤ SNARE proteins (specifically synaptobrevin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In JVP ‘a ‘wave represents which one of the following? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right atrial contraction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right atrial relaxation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tricuspid valve bulging into Right atria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right atrial filling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right atrial contraction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/1_GvzdOSw.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Right atrial contraction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The a-wave in the jugular venous pressure waveform corresponds to atrial contraction . When the right atrium contracts , it causes an increase in pressure that is transmitted backward into the jugular veins, creating the a-wave . This wave appears just before the carotid pulse and first heart sound (S1). The a-wave is one of the most easily visible waves in the JVP examination and is particularly important because its presence confirms that the patient is in sinus rhythm, as it indicates normal atrial contraction.</li><li>• atrial contraction</li><li>• right atrium contracts</li><li>• a-wave</li><li>• carotid pulse and first heart sound (S1).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Right atrial relaxation: Incorrect. Right atrial relaxation is represented by the 'x' descent in JVP, not the 'a' wave.</li><li>• Option B. Right atrial relaxation: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Tricuspid valve bulging into Right atria: Incorrect. This is represented by the 'c' wave in JVP, which occurs when the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium during early ventricular systole.</li><li>• Option C. Tricuspid valve bulging into Right atria: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Right atrial filling: Incorrect . Right atrial filling is represented by the 'v' wave in JVP, which occurs during venous return when the tricuspid valve is closed.</li><li>• Option D. Right atrial filling: Incorrect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ a-wave in the jugular venous pressure waveform corresponds to atrial contraction and understand its clinical significance in assessing cardiac rhythm and right heart function.</li><li>➤ a-wave in the jugular venous pressure waveform corresponds to atrial contraction</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is related to the release of bicarbonate in exchange of Chloride in the RBC? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bohr’s effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Haldane effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloride shift", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chloride shift", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20141605.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chloride shift</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chloride shift (also known as Hamburger phenomenon ) occurs when RBCs move towards the tissue. As RBCs enter venous blood, CO2 diffuses into them and combines with H2O to form H2CO3 under the influence of carbonic anhydrase. H2CO3 dissociates into H+ and HCO3-. The bicarbonate ion is then exchanged for chloride through an exchanger protein . When chloride enters the RBC, water follows due to osmosis, causing the RBCs to swell. This increases the hematocrit in venous blood compared to arterial blood.</li><li>• Hamburger phenomenon</li><li>• chloride through an exchanger protein</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bohr's effect: Incorrect. Because Bohr's effect refers to the right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve due to increased CO2, decreased pH, or increased temperature, leading to enhanced oxygen unloading in tissues.</li><li>• Option A. Bohr's effect: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Haldane effect: Incorrect. Because Haldane effect describes the enhanced unloading of CO2 in the lungs due to increased oxygenation of hemoglobin. It represents the left shift of the curve in lungs.</li><li>• Option B. Haldane effect: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. None of the above: Incorrect. Because chloride shift is the correct phenomenon describing the exchange of bicarbonate and chloride in RBCs.</li><li>• Option D. None of the above: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chloride shift (Hamburger phenomenon) involves the exchange of bicarbonate ions for chloride ions across the RBC membrane during tissue gas exchange, leading to increased RBC volume in venous blood.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient after giving a Noradrenaline injection heart rate started to decrease, what is the reason for it: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stimulation of alpha 2 receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stimulation of Baroreceptor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stimulation of beta 1 receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibition of Baroreceptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stimulation of Baroreceptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Stimulation of Baroreceptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• When noradrenaline (a sympathetic agent) is administered, it activates the sympathetic system leading to an increase in blood pressure. This increased blood pressure activates baroreceptors, triggering a reflex response. Since noradrenaline has already bound to its receptors and cannot decrease blood pressure directly, the body activates the cardio inhibitory center (CIC) to inhibit the SA node . This inhibition leads to bradycardia, known as reflex bradycardia. This is a compensatory mechanism to help maintain blood pressure homeostasis.</li><li>• baroreceptors,</li><li>• cardio inhibitory center (CIC)</li><li>• SA node</li><li>• homeostasis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Stimulation of alpha 2 receptors: Incorrect because heart does not have alpha 2 receptors. Alpha receptors are primarily involved in vasoconstriction.</li><li>• Option A. Stimulation of alpha 2 receptors: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Stimulation of beta 1 receptors: Incorrect because beta 1 receptor stimulation would cause an increase in heart rate (tachycardia), not a decrease.</li><li>• Option C. Stimulation of beta 1 receptors: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Inhibition of Baroreceptor: Incorrect because inhibition of baroreceptors would lead to tachycardia, not bradycardia. Baroreceptor inhibition removes the \"brake\" on heart rate.</li><li>• Option D. Inhibition of Baroreceptor: Incorrect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Baroreceptor stimulation due to increased blood pressure can cause reflex bradycardia as a compensatory mechanism, even when using sympathetic agents like noradrenaline.</li><li>➤ reflex bradycardia as a compensatory mechanism,</li><li>➤ noradrenaline.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Presence of ADH, Maximum osmolarity of tubular fluid will be in which of the following site of nephron? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cortical CD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medullary CD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Medullary CD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/4444.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Medullary CD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• ADH increases water permeability in the collecting ducts by inserting aquaporin channels. When ADH is present, as we move from the cortex towards the deep medulla, osmolarity keeps increasing. Though ADH acts on both cortical and medullary collecting ducts, the maximum change in osmolarity occurs in the medullary region due to the countercurrent multiplication system maintaining high osmolarity in the medullary interstitium.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. PCT: Incorrect because PCT mainly handles obligatory water reabsorption (60-70%) through osmosis, not regulated by ADH.</li><li>• Option A. PCT: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Cortical CD: Incorrect because although ADH acts here, the osmotic gradient in the cortex is much lower than in the medulla.</li><li>• Option B. Cortical CD: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. DCT: Incorrect because DCT has minimal water reabsorption (1-3%) without ADH and is not a major site for ADH action.</li><li>• Option C. DCT: Incorrect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While ADH acts on both cortical and medullary collecting ducts, the maximum osmolarity of tubular fluid is achieved in the medullary collecting duct due to the high osmotic gradient maintained by the countercurrent multiplication system in the medulla.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which hormone is involved in the given scenario shown in the image? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cortisol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thyroxin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oxytocin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20144629.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oxytocin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows breastfeeding, which involves the milk ejection/letdown reflex mediated by oxytocin. This is a positive feedback mechanism where suckling stimulates the release of oxytocin. milk letdown reflex is one of the classic examples of positive feedback mechanisms in the body (along with other \"HCLAMP\" mechanisms - Hodgkin's cycle, Clotting cascade, LH surge, Activation of digestive enzymes, Milk letdown, and Parturition reflex).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Adrenaline: Incorrect because adrenaline is a stress hormone released from adrenal medulla. It has no direct role in milk ejection/breastfeeding.</li><li>• Option B. Adrenaline: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Cortisol: Incorrect because cortisol is a glucocorticoid involved in stress response and metabolism. While it may be present during breastfeeding, it is not the primary hormone responsible for milk ejection.</li><li>• Option C. Cortisol: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Thyroxin: Incorrect because thyroxine is involved in metabolism and growth. While it plays a supportive role in lactation by maintaining metabolic rate, it is not directly responsible for milk ejection during breastfeeding.</li><li>• Option D. Thyroxin: Incorrect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxytocin is the key hormone responsible for milk ejection/letdown reflex during breastfeeding through a positive feedback mechanism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dehydration usually affects an infant’s more than adults. Which of the following is a true statement in this scenario related to infants / Newborn? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ECF more than ICF", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ICF more than ECF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total body water is more than adults", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ECF equals ICF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ECF more than ICF", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20164627.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ECF more than ICF</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In newborns/infants, the ECF is greater than ICF, which makes them more susceptible to dehydration.</li><li>• ECF is greater than ICF in newborns At 3-4 months of age, ICF equals ECF (50:50) After 3-4 months, ICF gradually increases while ECF decreases This higher ECF makes infants more vulnerable to fluid losses and dehydration</li><li>• ECF is greater than ICF in newborns</li><li>• At 3-4 months of age, ICF equals ECF (50:50)</li><li>• After 3-4 months, ICF gradually increases while ECF decreases</li><li>• This higher ECF makes infants more vulnerable to fluid losses and dehydration</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. ICF more than ECF: Incorrect. Because in newborns, ECF is higher than ICF. ICF becomes greater than ECF only after 3-4 months of age.</li><li>• Option B. ICF more than ECF: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Total body water is more than adults: Incorrect. Because while newborns have a higher percentage of total body water (75%) compared to adults (60%), the absolute amount of water is less in newborns due to their smaller body size.</li><li>• Option C. Total body water is more than adults: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. ECF equals ICF: Incorrect. Because ECF equals ICF only at around 3-4 months of age, not in newborns.</li><li>• Option D. ECF equals ICF: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In newborns, extracellular fluid (ECF) volume is greater than intracellular fluid (ICF) volume, which makes them more susceptible to dehydration compared to adults.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "FSH is inhibited by: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Testosterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20151824.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inhibin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• FSH is inhibited by inhibin . This is a direct feedback mechanism where:</li><li>• FSH</li><li>• inhibin</li><li>• Inhibin is produced by the gonads (Sertoli cells in males and granulosa cells in females) It specifically inhibits FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary This creates a negative feedback loop that helps regulate FSH levels</li><li>• Inhibin is produced by the gonads (Sertoli cells in males and granulosa cells in females)</li><li>• It specifically inhibits FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary</li><li>• This creates a negative feedback loop that helps regulate FSH levels</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Estrogen Incorrect because estrogen is stimulated by FSH, not the other way around. FSH stimulates estrogen production from ovarian follicles.</li><li>• Option B. Estrogen Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Progesterone Incorrect because progesterone doesn't directly inhibit FSH. While progesterone can affect the hypothalamic-pituitary axis, it's not the primary inhibitor of FSH.</li><li>• Option C. Progesterone Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Testosterone Incorrect because testosterone doesn't directly inhibit FSH. While testosterone can affect the hypothalamic-pituitary axis through negative feedback, it's not the primary inhibitor of FSH.</li><li>• Option D. Testosterone Incorrect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhibin is the primary and specific inhibitor of FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary gland.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with the respiratory difficulty and had a history of Chronic smoking. His pulmonary function testing showed decrease FEV1 %. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "COPD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary Fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interstitial lung disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. COPD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20152030.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20152052.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) COPD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This case presents a classic presentation of COPD with several key diagnostic features:</li><li>• History of smoking (major risk factor) Progressive dyspnea and chronic cough (typical symptoms) PFT findings showing: Decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% (diagnostic criteria for airflow obstruction/Obstructive disease) Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response(distinguishes from asthma very good improvement in FEV1) . According to GOLD criteria , post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation and COPD diagnosis in patients with appropriate symptoms and risk factors.</li><li>• History of smoking (major risk factor)</li><li>• Progressive dyspnea and chronic cough (typical symptoms)</li><li>• Progressive dyspnea and chronic cough</li><li>• PFT findings showing: Decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% (diagnostic criteria for airflow obstruction/Obstructive disease) Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response(distinguishes from asthma very good improvement in FEV1) . According to GOLD criteria , post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation and COPD diagnosis in patients with appropriate symptoms and risk factors.</li><li>• Decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% (diagnostic criteria for airflow obstruction/Obstructive disease) Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response(distinguishes from asthma very good improvement in FEV1) . According to GOLD criteria , post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation and COPD diagnosis in patients with appropriate symptoms and risk factors.</li><li>• Decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% (diagnostic criteria for airflow obstruction/Obstructive disease)</li><li>• Decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70%</li><li>• Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator response(distinguishes from asthma very good improvement in FEV1) .</li><li>• Fixed obstruction with minimal bronchodilator</li><li>• response(distinguishes from asthma very good improvement in FEV1) .</li><li>• According to GOLD criteria , post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation and COPD diagnosis in patients with appropriate symptoms and risk factors.</li><li>• GOLD criteria</li><li>• FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% confirms</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary fibrosis: Incorrect because pulmonary fibrosis shows a restrictive pattern on PFTs with FEV1/FVC ratio &gt;70% and reduced total lung capacity, not an obstructive pattern as seen here.</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary fibrosis: Incorrect</li><li>• a restrictive pattern</li><li>• FEV1/FVC ratio &gt;70%</li><li>• Option C. Interstitial lung disease (ILD): Incorrect because like pulmonary fibrosis, ILD demonstrates a restrictive pattern on PFTs , not obstruction. ILD would show decreased lung volumes with preserved FEV1/FVC ratio .</li><li>• Option C. Interstitial lung disease (ILD): Incorrect</li><li>• restrictive pattern on PFTs</li><li>• .</li><li>• Option D. Asthma: Incorrect because although asthma can show decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio, it typically demonstrates significant bronchodilator reversibility (&gt;12% and &gt;200mL improvement in FEV1), which is not seen in this case.</li><li>• Option D. Asthma: Incorrect</li><li>• bronchodilator reversibility (&gt;12% and &gt;200mL improvement in FEV1),</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diagnostic criteria for COPD: post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio &lt;70% with minimal bronchodilator response in a patient with risk factors and appropriate symptoms.</li><li>➤ minimal bronchodilator response</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Test results of a hypertensive patient shows Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, alkalosis. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conn’s syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Addison’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetes insipidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cushing's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Conn’s syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20152416.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) is characterized by autonomous aldosterone secretion causing:</li><li>• Hypernatremia due to increased Na+ reabsorption Hypokalemia due to increased K+ excretion Metabolic alkalosis due to increased H+ secretion and HCO3- reabsorption Hypertension due to Na+ and water retention</li><li>• Hypernatremia due to increased Na+ reabsorption</li><li>• Hypokalemia due to increased K+ excretion</li><li>• Metabolic alkalosis due to increased H+ secretion and HCO3- reabsorption</li><li>• Hypertension due to Na+ and water retention</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Addison's disease - Incorrect because:</li><li>• Option B. Addison's disease - Incorrect because:</li><li>• Characterized by aldosterone deficiency leading to hyponatremia, hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis Presents with hypotension, not hypertension</li><li>• Characterized by aldosterone deficiency leading to hyponatremia, hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis</li><li>• Presents with hypotension, not hypertension</li><li>• Option C. Diabetes Insipidus - Incorrect because:</li><li>• Option C. Diabetes Insipidus - Incorrect because:</li><li>• Primarily affects water balance causing hypernatremia but without significant effects on K+ or acid-base balance No direct effect on blood pressure</li><li>• Primarily affects water balance causing hypernatremia but without significant effects on K+ or acid-base balance</li><li>• No direct effect on blood pressure</li><li>• Option D. Cushing's disease - Incorrect because:</li><li>• Option D. Cushing's disease - Incorrect because:</li><li>• While it can cause hypertension, the primary abnormalities are related to excess cortisol Does not typically cause significant electrolyte disturbances like hypokalemia</li><li>• While it can cause hypertension, the primary abnormalities are related to excess cortisol</li><li>• Does not typically cause significant electrolyte disturbances like hypokalemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome) presents with the triad of:</li><li>➤ Hypernatremia Hypokalemia Metabolic alkalosis Along with hypertension due to mineralocorticoid excess.</li><li>➤ Hypernatremia</li><li>➤ Hypokalemia</li><li>➤ Metabolic alkalosis Along with hypertension due to mineralocorticoid excess.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient experienced difficulty switching from one movement to another, along with uncontrollable hand movements. Identify the abnormality: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysdiadochokinesia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intentional tremor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metamorphosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Resting tremor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dysdiadochokinesia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20153243.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dysdiadochokinesia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Dysdiadochokinesia refers to the inability to perform rapid alternating movements smoothly and refers to cerebellar dysfunction. From the clinical presentation described - difficulty switching movements and uncontrollable hand movements - this is a classic case of dysdiadochokinesia.</li><li>• difficulty switching movements and uncontrollable hand movements</li><li>• Di : two Docho: alternate Kinesis: movement</li><li>• Di : two</li><li>• Di</li><li>• Docho: alternate</li><li>• Docho:</li><li>• Kinesis: movement</li><li>• Kinesis:</li><li>• This is one of the key signs of cerebellar disease, specifically affecting the coordination of voluntary movements.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Intentional tremor: This occurs when a patient is performing a purposeful action and gets worse as they approach the target.</li><li>• Option B. Intentional tremor:</li><li>• Option C. Metamorphosis: This is seen in lesions of the amygdala or temporal lobe and refers to an uncontrollable urge to respond to every stimulus. It's not related to movement disorders.</li><li>• Option C. Metamorphosis:</li><li>• Option D. Resting tremor: This is primarily seen in Parkinson's disease and occurs when the affected body part is at rest.</li><li>• Option D. Resting tremor:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dysdiadochokinesia is a cerebellar sign characterized by inability to perform rapid alternating movements smoothly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A renal biopsy of a patient is shown below. Identify the cells marked in the given histological image: (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Macula densa", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "JG cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lacis cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Podocytes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Macula densa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20153450.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Macula densa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• \"These which are marked with the green color they are nothing but inside the tubule which must be the end part of the ascending membrane group of Henle or the beginning of DCT. It is none other than macula densa cells , which act as key sensors in the nephron, sensing sodium (Na⁺) and chloride (Cl⁻) levels. Macula densa cells are columnar epithelial cells that act as chemosensors for Na+ and Cl-</li><li>• macula densa cells</li><li>• They are part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) They are located in the distal tubule where it contacts the afferent arteriole They play a crucial role in tubuloglomerular feedback</li><li>• They are part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)</li><li>• They are located in the distal tubule where it contacts the afferent arteriole</li><li>• They play a crucial role in tubuloglomerular feedback</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. JG cells: Incorrect because JG cells are modified smooth muscle cells located in the wall of the afferent arteriole .</li><li>• Option B. JG cells: Incorrect because</li><li>• modified smooth muscle cells</li><li>• afferent arteriole</li><li>• Option C. Lacis cells: Incorrect because Lacis cells (also called extraglomerular mesangial cells ) are located between the afferent and efferent arterioles and have a supportive function.</li><li>• Option C. Lacis cells: Incorrect because</li><li>• extraglomerular mesangial cells</li><li>• located between the afferent and efferent arterioles</li><li>• Option D. Podocytes: Incorrect because Podocytes are specialized epithelial cells that form the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule and play a role in filtration barrier formation .</li><li>• Option D. Podocytes: Incorrect because</li><li>• specialized epithelial cells</li><li>• visceral layer of Bowman's capsule</li><li>• filtration barrier formation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Macula densa cells are specialized columnar epithelial cells located in the distal tubule , forming part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) . They function as chemosensors , detecting sodium (Na⁺) and chloride (Cl⁻) levels and regulating tubuloglomerular feedback to maintain glomerular filtration rate (GFR).</li><li>➤ specialized columnar epithelial cells</li><li>➤ distal tubule</li><li>➤ juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)</li><li>➤ chemosensors</li><li>➤ sodium (Na⁺) and chloride (Cl⁻) levels</li><li>➤ tubuloglomerular feedback</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A factory worker is exposed to phosphine gas during a pesticide fumigation process. He develops nausea, vomiting, dyspnea, and hypotension. Phosphine gas primarily causes which type of hypoxia? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anaemic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypoxic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Histotoxic", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stagnant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Histotoxic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-26%20162554.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Histotoxic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Phosphine gas causes histotoxic hypoxia by inhibiting cytochrome oxidase activity in the tissues. This leads to:</li><li>• Decreased oxygen uptake by the tissues Reduced mitochondrial function Inability of cells to utilize available oxygen Normal oxygen content in blood but tissues cannot use it Results in cellular hypoxia despite adequate oxygen delivery</li><li>• Decreased oxygen uptake by the tissues</li><li>• Reduced mitochondrial function</li><li>• Inability of cells to utilize available oxygen</li><li>• Normal oxygen content in blood but tissues cannot use it</li><li>• Results in cellular hypoxia despite adequate oxygen delivery</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Anaemic Hypoxia: Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Anaemic Hypoxia: Incorrect</li><li>• Occurs due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood Normal alveolar oxygen but reduced hemoglobin or abnormal hemoglobin Examples: Anemia, CO poisoning, methemoglobinemia Not relevant here as phosphine doesn't affect hemoglobin</li><li>• Occurs due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood</li><li>• Normal alveolar oxygen but reduced hemoglobin or abnormal hemoglobin</li><li>• Examples: Anemia, CO poisoning, methemoglobinemia</li><li>• Not relevant here as phosphine doesn't affect hemoglobin</li><li>• Option B. Hypoxic Hypoxia: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Hypoxic Hypoxia: Incorrect</li><li>• Results from low atmospheric partial pressure of oxygen Reduced oxygen gradient towards alveoli and pulmonary capillaries Examples: High altitude, diffusion disorders, fibrosis Phosphine doesn't affect atmospheric or alveolar oxygen levels</li><li>• Results from low atmospheric partial pressure of oxygen</li><li>• Reduced oxygen gradient towards alveoli and pulmonary capillaries</li><li>• Examples: High altitude, diffusion disorders, fibrosis</li><li>• Phosphine doesn't affect atmospheric or alveolar oxygen levels</li><li>• Option D. Stagnant Hypoxia: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Stagnant Hypoxia: Incorrect</li><li>• Due to reduced blood flow/circulation Normal atmospheric oxygen, alveoli, and hemoglobin Occurs in circulatory failure Phosphine primarily affects cellular oxygen utilization, not circulation</li><li>• Due to reduced blood flow/circulation</li><li>• Normal atmospheric oxygen, alveoli, and hemoglobin</li><li>• Occurs in circulatory failure</li><li>• Phosphine primarily affects cellular oxygen utilization, not circulation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phosphine gas causes histotoxic hypoxia by inhibiting cytochrome oxidase in the mitochondria, preventing cellular oxygen utilization despite normal oxygen delivery to tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with linear nodular lesions extending along the lymphatic drainage after sustaining a rose thorn injury. Examination reveals a chain of linear subcutaneous granulomas. What is the most likely causative organism? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chromoblastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sporothrix schenkii", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nocardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blastomyces", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sporothrix schenkii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_irVpWmz.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sporothrix schenckii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sporotrichosis, caused by Sporothrix schenckii , is a subcutaneous fungal infection commonly acquired through traumatic inoculation , such as a rose thorn prick . It presents as lymphocutaneous nodular lesions that spread along lymphatics in a linear pattern . Diagnosis is confirmed by culture on Sabouraud’s agar , and treatment is typically oral itraconazole for mild cases or amphotericin B for severe infections.</li><li>➤ Sporothrix schenckii</li><li>➤ subcutaneous fungal infection</li><li>➤ traumatic inoculation</li><li>➤ rose thorn prick</li><li>➤ lymphocutaneous nodular lesions</li><li>➤ linear pattern</li><li>➤ culture on Sabouraud’s agar</li><li>➤ oral itraconazole</li><li>➤ amphotericin B</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with persistent weight loss, night sweats, and productive cough for the past two months. Which medium is most appropriate for isolating the causative organism? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loeffler serum slope (LSS)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MacConkey agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tinsdale medium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_gh15C7T.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium is the standard culture medium for isolating Mycobacterium tuberculosis from clinical specimens, as it provides the necessary enriched environment and selective conditions for optimal growth of this slow-growing organism.</li><li>➤ CULTURE CHARACTERISTICS OF MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS</li><li>➤ CULTURE CHARACTERISTICS OF MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 67-year-old female with a history of diabetes mellitus underwent a prosthetic valve replacement surgery 4 weeks ago. She now presents with fever, fatigue, and a new murmur on examination. Blood cultures reveal the causative organism. Which is the most likely causative agent? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staph epidermidis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus viridans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Staph epidermidis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Staph epidermidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common causative organism in early prosthetic valve endocarditis (occurring within one year of valve replacement) and is also the overall most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A student consumed fried rice and presented shortly after with nausea and vomiting. What is the most likely causative organism? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacillus cereus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria species", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clostridium species", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bacillus cereus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bacillus cereus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Bacillus cereus food poisoning presenting with rapid onset nausea and vomiting (1-4 hours) after consuming fried rice is a classic presentation that must be recognized for proper diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A firefighter with a history of smoke inhalation presents with fever, cough, and signs of lung consolidation. Sputum culture reveals colonies with a green pigment and fluorescence under UV light. Which organism is most likely? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klebsiella pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_ohZ1eXO.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pseudomonas aeruginosa's characteristic laboratory features: green pigment (pyocyanin) production and fluorescence under UV light, particularly in the context of respiratory infections following airway damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-month-old infant presents with a history of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), sensorineural hearing loss. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital rubella", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital toxoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congenital herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital rubella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital rubella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital rubella syndrome is characterized by the triad of</li><li>➤ Patent ductus arteriosus (cardiac defect) Sensorineural hearing loss (auditory defect) Cataract/salt and pepper retinopathy (ocular defect)</li><li>➤ Patent ductus arteriosus (cardiac defect)</li><li>➤ Patent ductus arteriosus (cardiac defect)</li><li>➤ Sensorineural hearing loss (auditory defect)</li><li>➤ Sensorineural hearing loss (auditory defect)</li><li>➤ Cataract/salt and pepper retinopathy (ocular defect)</li><li>➤ Cataract/salt and pepper retinopathy (ocular defect)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old sexually active female presents with painful genital ulcers on her vulva and bilateral painful inguinal lymphadenopathy. The ulcers have irregular edges and a soft base. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genital herpes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chancroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chancroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chancroid presents with painful genital ulcers having irregular edges and soft base, accompanied by painful bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old male presents to follow-up after being treated for typhoid fever. His Laboratory findings reveal a Widal test with O antigen titer &gt;1:20, H antigen titer &gt;1:320, HA titer &gt;1:20, and BH titer &gt;1:20. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Past infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Recovery", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Recovery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Recovery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In enteric fever recovery phase, O antigen titers fall while H antigen titers remain elevated before gradually declining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-week-old infant presents with seizures, hydrocephalus, and bilateral cataracts. The mother reports a febrile illness during the first trimester of pregnancy. Imaging reveals intracranial calcifications. What is the most likely causative organism? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytomegalovirus (CMV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toxoplasma gondii", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes simplex virus (HSV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Toxoplasma gondii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Toxoplasma gondii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis: hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis/cataracts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient presents with recurrent upper respiratory tract infections (URTI). Laboratory evaluation reveals low immunoglobulin levels, with IgG antibodies absent. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bruton's agammaglobulinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bruton's agammaglobulinemia as an X-linked condition characterized by absent B cells, agammaglobulinemia, and recurrent infections in male patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old patient with HIV and a CD4 count of 50 cells/µL presents with severe headache, altered mental status, and impaired consciousness. CSF examination using India ink preparation reveals encapsulated yeast cells. Which organism is most likely responsible? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candida albicans", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histoplasma capsulatum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcus neoformans", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candida tropicalis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cryptococcus neoformans", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cryptococcus neoformans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cryptococcus neoformans as the cause of meningitis in HIV patients with low CD4 counts, diagnosed by India ink preparation showing encapsulated yeasts in CSF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old man presents with a two-week history of headache, fever, and neck stiffness. His cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows increased opening pressure and positive India ink staining for encapsulated yeast. What is the recommended treatment? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amphotericin B (AMB)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amphotericin B (AMB) + Flucytosine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fluconazole + Amphotericin B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Amphotericin B (AMB) + Flucytosine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Amphotericin B (AMB) + Flucytosine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recommended first-line treatment for cryptococcal meningitis is combination therapy with Amphotericin B and Flucytosine.</li><li>➤ Amphotericin B and Flucytosine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents with blurred vision, dry mouth, and progressive muscle weakness after consuming improperly canned food. The symptoms are attributed to a neurotoxin. What is the mechanism of action of Clostridium botulinum toxin? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibits acetylcholine receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibits GABA release", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increases EF-2 activity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Botulinum toxin causes flaccid paralysis by blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presents with fever, muscle pain, and jaundice after working in flooded fields. Laboratory tests reveal a positive microscopic agglutination test. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycobacterium infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacillus infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leptospirosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Leptospirosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Leptospirosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Microscopic agglutination test (MAT) is the gold standard diagnostic test for leptospirosis, which typically occurs after exposure to contaminated water or soil.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old forest ranger presents with sudden onset high fever, severe headache, and a characteristic rash that began on his trunk and spread to his extremities suspecting typhus (rickettsial) infection, a Weil-Felix test is performed using Proteus antigens. What type of antigen is used in this test? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoantigen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superantigen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heterophile antigen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sequestered antigen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Heterophile antigen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Heterophile antigen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Heterophile antigens are antigens from different species that share epitopes, allowing cross-reactivity in diagnostic tests like the Weil-Felix test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B infection is being evaluated for infectivity status. Which of the following markers indicates high infectivity? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "anti-HBs and anti-HBc", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "anti-HBs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HBsAg and HBeAg", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG anti-HBc", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HBsAg and HBeAg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HBsAg and HBeAg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of HBsAg and HBeAg together indicates high infectivity in hepatitis B infection, with HBeAg being a specific marker for viral replication and increased transmission risk.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old healthcare worker presents with fatigue, low-grade fever, and mild right upper quadrant discomfort for the past 2 weeks. He reports a needlestick injury 3 months ago while drawing blood from a patient with unknown hepatitis status. Physical examination reveals mild icterus and tender hepatomegaly. Laboratory investigations show elevated ALT and AST levels. Serological testing shows the presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc. What does the presence of IgM anti-HBc indicate? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supercarrier", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IgM anti-HBc is the key serological marker for diagnosing acute hepatitis B infection, especially when accompanied by HBsAg and elevated liver enzymes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with painful vesicular lesions on her lips. A Tzanck smear from the lesions shows multinucleated giant cells. What is the most likely causative agent? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes simplex virus (HSV)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cytomegalovirus (CMV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Human papillomavirus (HPV)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HSV infection is characterized by painful vesicular lesions and the presence of multinucleated giant cells on Tzanck smear, which is a key diagnostic feature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A guy gets beaten up by 4-5 people and comes to the hospital with serious injuries. He decides to give a dying declaration. Which of the following is true for a dying declaration in India? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oath not taken", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only magistrate can record", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Presence of defense lawyer required", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leading questions are asked", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oath not taken", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135503.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oath not taken</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A dying declaration is the statement made by a person on their deathbed regarding the cause of their death or the circumstances leading to it. In India, it holds significant evidentiary value in a court of law. The aspects of a dying declaration include:</li><li>• dying declaration</li><li>• Oath is not taken: Unlike a court deposition where witnesses take an oath before testifying, a dying declaration does not require an oath. This is because the fundamental assumption is that a dying person is unlikely to lie. Anyone can record it: Although a magistrate is preferred, if the victim is in a critical condition and a magistrate is unavailable, a doctor, police officer, or any responsible person can record the statement. No cross-examination: Unlike a dying deposition , a dying declaration is a direct statement of the victim and is not subjected to cross-examination. Leading questions are not allowed: The person recording the dying declaration should only document what the victim states, without suggesting or influencing their answers.</li><li>• Oath is not taken: Unlike a court deposition where witnesses take an oath before testifying, a dying declaration does not require an oath. This is because the fundamental assumption is that a dying person is unlikely to lie.</li><li>• Oath is not taken:</li><li>• Anyone can record it: Although a magistrate is preferred, if the victim is in a critical condition and a magistrate is unavailable, a doctor, police officer, or any responsible person can record the statement.</li><li>• Anyone can record it:</li><li>• magistrate</li><li>• doctor, police officer, or any responsible person</li><li>• No cross-examination: Unlike a dying deposition , a dying declaration is a direct statement of the victim and is not subjected to cross-examination.</li><li>• No cross-examination:</li><li>• dying deposition</li><li>• Leading questions are not allowed: The person recording the dying declaration should only document what the victim states, without suggesting or influencing their answers.</li><li>• Leading questions are not allowed:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Only a magistrate can record: Incorrect While a magistrate is preferred , anyone, including a doctor or police officer , can record a dying declaration if necessary</li><li>• Option B. Only a magistrate can record: Incorrect</li><li>• preferred</li><li>• doctor or police officer</li><li>• Option C. Presence of a defense lawyer is required: Incorrect Unlike a formal dying deposition , where legal procedures like cross-examination apply, a dying declaration does not require the presence of a defense lawyer</li><li>• Option C. Presence of a defense lawyer is required: Incorrect</li><li>• dying deposition</li><li>• dying declaration does not require the presence of a defense lawyer</li><li>• </li><li>• Option D. Leading questions are asked: Incorrect Leading questions (which suggest an answer) are not allowed while recording a dying declaration. The statement must be made voluntarily and without external influence</li><li>• Option D. Leading questions are asked: Incorrect</li><li>• are not allowed</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female died due to unnatural causes within 7 years of marriage with an allegation of dowry. The inquest will be done under which section? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "196 BNSS and 176 CrPC", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "194 BNSS and 174 CrPC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "196 BNS and 176 IPC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "194 BNS and 174 IPC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 196 BNSS and 176 CrPC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135524.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 196 BNSS and 176 CrPC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A dowry death refers to the death of a woman within 7 years of marriage under unnatural circumstances , and where there is an allegation of dowry related harassment . In such cases, a Magistrate inquest is mandatory instead of a regular police inquest. It is conducted under 196 BNSS (Previously 176 CrPC)</li><li>• dowry death</li><li>• 7 years of marriage</li><li>• unnatural circumstances</li><li>• allegation of dowry related harassment</li><li>• Magistrate inquest is mandatory</li><li>• 196 BNSS (Previously 176 CrPC)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. 194 BNSS and 174 CrPC : Incorrect. These section deal with Police inquest, which is not applicable in dowry deaths .</li><li>• Option B. 194 BNSS and 174 CrPC : Incorrect. These section deal with Police inquest, which</li><li>• dowry deaths</li><li>• Option C. 196 BNS and 176 IPC: Incorrect. BNS (Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita) deals with substantive criminal law (formerly IPC), whereas inquests fall under BNSS (earlier CrPC) . Hence, this option is incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. 196 BNS and 176 IPC: Incorrect. BNS (Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita)</li><li>• BNSS (earlier CrPC)</li><li>• Option D. 194 BNS and 174 IPC: Incorrect. BNS (Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita) deals with substantive criminal law (formerly IPC), whereas inquests fall under BNSS (earlier CrPC) . Hence, this option is incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. 194 BNS and 174 IPC: Incorrect. BNS (Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita)</li><li>• BNSS (earlier CrPC)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A dowry death (unnatural death within 7 years of marriage with a dowry allegation ) requires a Magistrate inquest under 196 BNSS (earlier 176 CrPC) , rather than a police inquest.</li><li>➤ dowry death</li><li>➤ 7 years of marriage</li><li>➤ dowry allegation</li><li>➤ Magistrate inquest</li><li>➤ 196 BNSS (earlier 176 CrPC)</li><li>➤ Types of inquest are as follows:</li><li>➤ Types of inquest are as follows:</li><li>➤ 1) Police Inquest: Conducted under 194 BNSS. This is the most common inquest in India, and the minimum rank of a police officer to conduct it is Head Constable.</li><li>➤ Police Inquest:</li><li>➤ 2) Magistrate Inquest: Conducted under 196 BNSS. It is carried out in specific circumstances, such as:</li><li>➤ Magistrate Inquest:</li><li>➤ Dowry deaths ( death within seven years of marriage and related to dowry). Exhumation (digging out buried bodies, performed by an Executive Magistrate). Deaths in Judicial Custody (e.g. police custody, jail, rehabilitation homes, etc.). Any other situation where a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest)</li><li>➤ Dowry deaths ( death within seven years of marriage and related to dowry).</li><li>➤ Dowry deaths (</li><li>➤ Exhumation (digging out buried bodies, performed by an Executive Magistrate).</li><li>➤ Exhumation</li><li>➤ Deaths in Judicial Custody (e.g. police custody, jail, rehabilitation homes, etc.).</li><li>➤ Deaths in Judicial Custody</li><li>➤ Any other situation where a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest)</li><li>➤ Any other situation where a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest)</li><li>➤ Any other</li><li>➤ 3) Coroner's Inquest: Not conducted in India, but in the UK, it is done by judicial officers.</li><li>➤ Coroner's Inquest:</li><li>➤ 4) Medical Examiner System: Not present in India but used in the USA, where doctors conduct the inquest, considered the most comprehensive method.</li><li>➤ Medical Examiner System:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which condition both police and magistrate can do the inquest, but magistrate inquest will be preferred? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Family is not satisfied with police", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Death in police custody", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dowry death", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Death by firing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Family is not satisfied with police", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Family is not satisfied with police</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An inquest is a legal investigation into the cause of death. In India, inquests are generally conducted under BNSS (formerly CrPC) . Two types of inquests exist:</li><li>• inquest</li><li>• BNSS (formerly CrPC)</li><li>• Two types of inquests</li><li>• Police Inquest (194 BNSS, earlier 174 CrPC): Conducted by the police officer (minimum rank: Head Constable). Most commonly used in cases of unnatural death (e.g., accidents, suicides, homicides). Magistrate Inquest (196 BNSS, earlier 176 CrPC): Conducted by an Executive or Judicial Magistrate . Mandatory in special cases such as: Dowry Deaths Custodial Deaths Exhumation (digging out a buried body) However, apart from above, in any case where usually the inquest is done by police, if a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest) , the magistrate can do additional inquest</li><li>• Police Inquest (194 BNSS, earlier 174 CrPC): Conducted by the police officer (minimum rank: Head Constable). Most commonly used in cases of unnatural death (e.g., accidents, suicides, homicides).</li><li>• Police Inquest (194 BNSS, earlier 174 CrPC):</li><li>• Conducted by the police officer (minimum rank: Head Constable). Most commonly used in cases of unnatural death (e.g., accidents, suicides, homicides).</li><li>• Conducted by the police officer (minimum rank: Head Constable).</li><li>• police officer</li><li>• Most commonly used in cases of unnatural death (e.g., accidents, suicides, homicides).</li><li>• unnatural death</li><li>• Magistrate Inquest (196 BNSS, earlier 176 CrPC): Conducted by an Executive or Judicial Magistrate . Mandatory in special cases such as: Dowry Deaths Custodial Deaths Exhumation (digging out a buried body) However, apart from above, in any case where usually the inquest is done by police, if a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest) , the magistrate can do additional inquest</li><li>• Magistrate Inquest (196 BNSS, earlier 176 CrPC):</li><li>• Conducted by an Executive or Judicial Magistrate . Mandatory in special cases such as: Dowry Deaths Custodial Deaths Exhumation (digging out a buried body) However, apart from above, in any case where usually the inquest is done by police, if a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest) , the magistrate can do additional inquest</li><li>• Conducted by an Executive or Judicial Magistrate .</li><li>• Executive or Judicial Magistrate</li><li>• Mandatory in special cases such as: Dowry Deaths Custodial Deaths Exhumation (digging out a buried body) However, apart from above, in any case where usually the inquest is done by police, if a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest) , the magistrate can do additional inquest</li><li>• Mandatory in special cases</li><li>• Dowry Deaths Custodial Deaths Exhumation (digging out a buried body) However, apart from above, in any case where usually the inquest is done by police, if a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest) , the magistrate can do additional inquest</li><li>• Dowry Deaths</li><li>• Dowry Deaths</li><li>• Custodial Deaths</li><li>• Custodial Deaths</li><li>• Exhumation (digging out a buried body)</li><li>• Exhumation (digging out a buried body)</li><li>• However, apart from above, in any case where usually the inquest is done by police, if a magistrate believes the police inquest was insufficient (e.g. family requests a magistrate-led inquest) , the magistrate can do additional inquest</li><li>• , the magistrate can do additional inquest</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Death in police custody: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Death in police custody: Incorrect</li><li>• Only a Magistrate inquest is allowed (196 BNSS, earlier 176 CrPC). Police cannot conduct an inquest in custodial deaths </li><li>• Only a Magistrate inquest is allowed (196 BNSS, earlier 176 CrPC).</li><li>• Only a Magistrate inquest is allowed</li><li>• Police cannot conduct an inquest in custodial deaths </li><li>• Police cannot conduct an inquest in custodial deaths</li><li>• cannot</li><li>• custodial deaths</li><li>• </li><li>• Option C. Dowry death: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Dowry death: Incorrect</li><li>• Only a Magistrate inquest is allowed (196 BNSS, earlier 176 CrPC). Dowry deaths must be investigated by a Magistrate , not the police</li><li>• Only a Magistrate inquest is allowed (196 BNSS, earlier 176 CrPC).</li><li>• Only a Magistrate inquest is allowed</li><li>• Dowry deaths must be investigated by a Magistrate , not the police</li><li>• must</li><li>• Magistrate</li><li>• Option D. Death by firing: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Death by firing: Incorrect</li><li>• Only a Police inquest is done (194 BNSS, earlier 174 CrPC) . A Magistrate inquest is not mandatory in cases of death by firing</li><li>• Only a Police inquest is done (194 BNSS, earlier 174 CrPC) .</li><li>• Only a Police inquest is done (194 BNSS, earlier 174 CrPC)</li><li>• A Magistrate inquest is not mandatory in cases of death by firing</li><li>• Magistrate inquest is not mandatory</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ If the family is not satisfied with a police inquest , they can appeal for a Magistrate inquest , which will be preferred to ensure justice . However, custodial deaths and dowry deaths require mandatory Magistrate inquests , while deaths by firing are handled by police inquests </li><li>➤ family is not satisfied</li><li>➤ police inquest</li><li>➤ Magistrate inquest</li><li>➤ preferred to ensure justice</li><li>➤ custodial deaths and dowry deaths</li><li>➤ mandatory Magistrate inquests</li><li>➤ deaths by firing</li><li>➤ police inquests</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Leading questions can be allowed in? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct Examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cross Examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Re-Direct Examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Any time", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cross Examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cross Examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Leading questions (questions whose answers can be given in yes/no format) are specifically allowed in:</li><li>• Cross examination Dying deposition For example: \"Has Ram killed Shyam?\" is a leading question, while \"Who killed Shyam?\" is not This restriction helps ensure unbiased testimony during direct examination and re-examination</li><li>• Cross examination</li><li>• Dying deposition For example: \"Has Ram killed Shyam?\" is a leading question, while \"Who killed Shyam?\" is not This restriction helps ensure unbiased testimony during direct examination and re-examination</li><li>• For example:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Direct Examination: Incorrect. Leading questions are not allowed in direct examination unless a witness becomes hostile</li><li>• Option A. Direct Examination: Incorrect.</li><li>• not allowed</li><li>• a witness becomes hostile</li><li>• </li><li>• Option C. Re-Direct Examination: Incorrect. Leading questions are not permitted unless required to clarify contradictions arising from cross-examination</li><li>• Option C. Re-Direct Examination: Incorrect.</li><li>• are not permitted</li><li>• clarify contradictions</li><li>• Option D. Any Time: Incorrect. Leading questions are not allowed freely in all legal proceedings. They are only allowed in cross-examination and dying depositions </li><li>• Option D. Any Time: Incorrect.</li><li>• not allowed freely</li><li>• only allowed in cross-examination</li><li>• dying depositions</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leading questions</li><li>➤ Leading questions</li><li>➤ Ans can be given in Yes/ No E.g., Has Suresh killed Madan? – is a leading question Who killed Madan? - It is not a leading question</li><li>➤ Leading Questions</li><li>➤ Leading Questions</li><li>➤ When leading conditions can be asked</li><li>➤ When leading conditions can be asked</li><li>➤ Dying deposition Cross examination As an exception in Examination in chief if witness turns hostile</li><li>➤ Dying deposition</li><li>➤ Cross examination</li><li>➤ As an exception in Examination in chief if witness turns hostile</li><li>➤ When leading questions cannot be asked</li><li>➤ When leading questions cannot be asked</li><li>➤ Dying declaration Examination in chief Re – examination</li><li>➤ Dying declaration</li><li>➤ Examination in chief</li><li>➤ Re – examination</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady died under unnatural death within 3 years of marriage. Who will do the inquest? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Magistrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Police", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Advocate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coroner", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Magistrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135524_L2JcrOS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Magistrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Magistrate inquest is mandatory in cases of dowry death, which is defined as:</li><li>• Death of a woman within 7 years of marriage Death is unnatural Death has association with dowry allegations This comes under Section 196 BNSS (previously 176 CrPC) and is one of the three specific conditions requiring magistrate inquest along with custodial deaths and exhumation.</li><li>• Death of a woman within 7 years of marriage</li><li>• Death is unnatural</li><li>• Death has association with dowry allegations This comes under Section 196 BNSS (previously 176 CrPC) and is one of the three specific conditions requiring magistrate inquest along with custodial deaths and exhumation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Police: Incorrect Police inquest (194 BNSS) is not permitted in dowry death cases due to their sensitive nature and to ensure impartial investigation.</li><li>• Option B. Police:</li><li>• Option C. Advocate : Incorrect Advocates are not authorized to conduct inquests. They may represent parties in legal proceedings but cannot conduct death investigations.</li><li>• Option C. Advocate</li><li>• Option D. Coroner: Incorrect Coroner system is not practiced in India. It was previously followed in some cities like Mumbai but has been abolished. Coroner system is currently practiced in countries like UK and USA.</li><li>• Option D. Coroner:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A forensic doctor is facing criminal charges for malpractice in a district criminal court and is also summoned to provide expert testimony in a district civil court for which he will be provided compensation. What is the correct statement in this scenario? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Attend Criminal Court", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Attend Civil Court", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Attend the summon which was received earlier", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Don't attend any court, inform both the courts and wait for second summon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Attend Criminal Court", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Attend Criminal Court</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• When receiving summons from multiple courts, the priority is determined by the following factors:</li><li>• Court Rank : Higher courts take precedence over lower courts. Case Type : Criminal cases are prioritized over civil cases. The ranking of the court is more significant than the type of case. For instance, if one summons is from a higher court for a civil case and another is from a lower court for a criminal case, the higher court should be attended. Timeliness : If both court rank and case type are the same, the court whose summons was received first should be attended.</li><li>• Court Rank : Higher courts take precedence over lower courts.</li><li>• Court Rank</li><li>• Case Type : Criminal cases are prioritized over civil cases. The ranking of the court is more significant than the type of case. For instance, if one summons is from a higher court for a civil case and another is from a lower court for a criminal case, the higher court should be attended.</li><li>• Case Type</li><li>• Timeliness : If both court rank and case type are the same, the court whose summons was received first should be attended.</li><li>• Timeliness</li><li>• In this case:</li><li>• Both courts are of same rank (district court) One case is criminal and other is civil Criminal cases take precedence over civil cases even if compensation is offered</li><li>• Both courts are of same rank (district court)</li><li>• One case is criminal and other is civil</li><li>• Criminal cases take precedence over civil cases even if compensation is offered</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Attend Civil Court: Incorrect. Even though compensation is offered, civil court attendance does not take precedence over criminal court when summons are received simultaneously.</li><li>• Option B. Attend Civil Court:</li><li>• Option C. Attend the summon which was received earlier: Incorrect. While timing of summons receipt is a criterion, it only applies when both courts are of same rank and type. Criminal cases take precedence regardless of when summons was received.</li><li>• Option C. Attend the summon which was received earlier:</li><li>• Option D. Don't attend any court, inform both the courts and wait for second summon: Incorrect. Ignoring court summons and waiting for second summons is not appropriate. One must attend according to the priority.</li><li>• Option D. Don't attend any court, inform both the courts and wait for second summon:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Order of Court Ranking (Highest to Lowest):</li><li>➤ Order of Court Ranking (Highest to Lowest):</li><li>➤ Supreme Court &amp; High Court Sessions Court / District Court / Additional Sessions Judge / Additional District Judge Assistant Sessions Judge Chief Judicial Magistrate (CJM) / Chief Metropolitan Magistrate (CMM) 1st Class Judicial Magistrate (JM) / Metropolitan Magistrate (MM) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate (JM)</li><li>➤ Supreme Court &amp; High Court</li><li>➤ Sessions Court / District Court / Additional Sessions Judge / Additional District Judge</li><li>➤ Assistant Sessions Judge</li><li>➤ Chief Judicial Magistrate (CJM) / Chief Metropolitan Magistrate (CMM)</li><li>➤ 1st Class Judicial Magistrate (JM) / Metropolitan Magistrate (MM)</li><li>➤ 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate (JM)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy fell while playing and suffered an abrasion injury on his knees. The dark brown scab will be seen in how many days? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Day -1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2-3 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4-7 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;7 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4-7 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135610.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 4-7 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Abrasions heal in a predictable manner , forming a scab due to drying of blood, serum, and tissue fluids . The color of the scab changes over time , providing a reliable estimate of injury duration:</li><li>• predictable manner</li><li>• scab</li><li>• drying of blood, serum, and tissue fluids</li><li>• color of the scab changes over time</li><li>• Timeline of Scab Formation in Abrasions</li><li>• Timeline of Scab Formation in Abrasions</li><li>• Day 1 (Fresh wound) → Bright red due to oozing blood &amp; lymph . 12-24 hours → Reddish scab begins to form. 2-3 days → Reddish-brown scab develops. 4-7 days → Dark brown to black scab appears as the wound dries &gt;7 days → Scab begins to peel off , leaving a depigmented area that gradually fades.</li><li>• Day 1 (Fresh wound) → Bright red due to oozing blood &amp; lymph .</li><li>• Day 1 (Fresh wound)</li><li>• Bright red</li><li>• oozing blood &amp; lymph</li><li>• 12-24 hours → Reddish scab begins to form.</li><li>• 12-24 hours</li><li>• Reddish scab</li><li>• 2-3 days → Reddish-brown scab develops.</li><li>• 2-3 days</li><li>• Reddish-brown scab</li><li>• 4-7 days → Dark brown to black scab appears as the wound dries</li><li>• 4-7 days</li><li>• Dark brown to black scab</li><li>• &gt;7 days → Scab begins to peel off , leaving a depigmented area that gradually fades.</li><li>• &gt;7 days</li><li>• Scab begins to peel off</li><li>• depigmented area</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Day 1: Incorrect. Fresh abrasion will appear bright red with oozing blood and lymph , not a dark brown scab.</li><li>• Option A. Day 1:</li><li>• bright red</li><li>• oozing blood and lymph</li><li>• Option B. 2-3 days: Incorrect. Scab forms but is reddish-brown , not dark brown.</li><li>• Option B. 2-3 days:</li><li>• reddish-brown</li><li>• Option D. &gt;7 days: Incorrect. By &gt;7 days , the scab starts falling off , revealing new epithelium underneath.</li><li>• Option D. &gt;7 days:</li><li>• &gt;7 days</li><li>• scab starts falling off</li><li>• new epithelium</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Age of Abrasion</li><li>➤ Age of Abrasion</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Two friends were working together at a construction site. A hammer fell from one friend's hand and hit the other friend’s head. The X-ray revealed a fracture. What type of fracture is this? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Linear Fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depressed Fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gutter Fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ping Pong Fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Depressed Fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135629.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135702.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Depressed Fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A depressed fracture occurs when a heavy object with a small surface area (such as a hammer) strikes the skull, causing the bone to get pushed inward .</li><li>• depressed fracture</li><li>• heavy object with a small surface area (such as a hammer)</li><li>• bone to get pushed inward</li><li>• Characteristics of a Depressed Fracture:</li><li>• Characteristics of a Depressed Fracture:</li><li>• Caused by blunt force trauma with a small, focused impact area (e.g., hammer, stone, rod). Bone fragments get displaced inwards , compressing brain tissue. Visible on X-ray or CT scan as a concave depression in the skull bone .</li><li>• Caused by blunt force trauma with a small, focused impact area (e.g., hammer, stone, rod).</li><li>• blunt force trauma with a small, focused impact area</li><li>• Bone fragments get displaced inwards , compressing brain tissue.</li><li>• displaced inwards</li><li>• Visible on X-ray or CT scan as a concave depression in the skull bone .</li><li>• X-ray or CT scan</li><li>• concave depression in the skull bone</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Linear Fracture: Incorrect</li><li>• Option A. Linear Fracture: Incorrect</li><li>• Appears as a thin line without bone displacement . Caused by broad-surface impact (e.g., falls, RTA). Most common type of skull fracture but not caused by a hammer</li><li>• Appears as a thin line without bone displacement .</li><li>• thin line without bone displacement</li><li>• Caused by broad-surface impact (e.g., falls, RTA).</li><li>• broad-surface impact</li><li>• Most common type of skull fracture but not caused by a hammer</li><li>• Most common type of skull fracture but not caused by a hammer</li><li>• common</li><li>• not caused by a hammer</li><li>• Option C. Gutter Fracture: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Gutter Fracture: Incorrect</li><li>• Occurs when a bullet or projectile grazes the skull , forming a trough-like depression. Not caused by a falling hammer </li><li>• Occurs when a bullet or projectile grazes the skull , forming a trough-like depression.</li><li>• bullet or projectile grazes the skull</li><li>• trough-like</li><li>• Not caused by a falling hammer </li><li>• Not caused by a falling hammer</li><li>• falling hammer</li><li>• </li><li>• Option D. Ping Pong Fracture: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Ping Pong Fracture: Incorrect</li><li>• Seen in infants due to the soft, elastic nature of their skulls. Skull buckles inward without breaking (resembles a ping pong ball dent ). Not seen in adults or due to a hammer injury </li><li>• Seen in infants due to the soft, elastic nature of their skulls.</li><li>• Seen in infants</li><li>• Skull buckles inward without breaking (resembles a ping pong ball dent ).</li><li>• buckles inward</li><li>• ping pong ball dent</li><li>• Not seen in adults or due to a hammer injury </li><li>• Not seen in adults or due to a hammer injury</li><li>• or due to a hammer injury</li><li>• </li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of Skull Fractures</li><li>➤ Types of Skull Fractures</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A cephalic index of 82 belongs to which racial group? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Negroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mongoloid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caucasian", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chinese", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mongoloid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135723.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mongoloid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cephalic Index (CI) Formula:</li><li>• Cephalic Index (CI) Formula:</li><li>• Cephalic index = (Maximum breadth of skull/Maximum length of skull) × 100</li><li>• Cephalic index =</li><li>• Classification based on cephalic index:</li><li>• Classification based on cephalic index:</li><li>• Dolichocephalic (70-75): Found in Aryans, Negroes, Aborigines (ANA) Mesaticephalic (75-80): Found in Europeans (Caucasians), Indians, Chinese Brachycephalic (80-85): Found in Mongoloids</li><li>• Dolichocephalic (70-75): Found in Aryans, Negroes, Aborigines (ANA)</li><li>• Dolichocephalic (70-75):</li><li>• Mesaticephalic (75-80): Found in Europeans (Caucasians), Indians, Chinese</li><li>• Mesaticephalic (75-80):</li><li>• Brachycephalic (80-85): Found in Mongoloids</li><li>• Brachycephalic (80-85):</li><li>• A cephalic index of 82 falls in the brachycephalic range, which is characteristic of Mongoloid populations</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Negroid: Incorrect. Negroid skulls are Dolichocephalic (CI 70- 75) , meaning they have a long, narrow skull</li><li>• Option A. Negroid:</li><li>• Negroid skulls are Dolichocephalic (CI 70- 75)</li><li>• long, narrow skull</li><li>• </li><li>• Option C. Caucasian: Incorrect. Caucasian skulls are Mesaticephalic (CI: 75-80) , meaning they have a medium-sized skull</li><li>• Option C. Caucasian:</li><li>• Caucasian skulls are Mesaticephalic (CI: 75-80)</li><li>• medium-sized skull</li><li>• </li><li>• Option D. Chinese: Incorrect. Chinese skulls are Mesaticephalic (CI: 75-80) , meaning they have a medium-sized skull</li><li>• Option D. Chinese:</li><li>• Chinese skulls are Mesaticephalic (CI: 75-80)</li><li>• medium-sized skull</li><li>• </li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dead body was found with Rigor Mortis all over the body, including hands and feet. The body was cold to touch, and post-mortem lividity was fixed and present all over the dependent areas. What is the estimated time since death? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-2 hrs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4-6 hrs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6-12 hrs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12-24 hrs", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 12-24 hrs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135753.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135807.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 12-24 hrs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Post-mortem interval (PMI) ,</li><li>• Post-mortem interval (PMI)</li><li>• 1. Rigor Mortis (Post-Mortem Stiffening)</li><li>• 1. Rigor Mortis (Post-Mortem Stiffening)</li><li>• Begins : 2 hours after death (first appears in Myocardium, then upper eyelids) Developing Stage : 2 hrs- 12 hours after death (extends from upper parts of body to lower parts, with last in hands and feet). Developed Stage: 12-24 hours after death (Remains fully developed in whole body) Passing stage : 24-36 hours (it passes way in the same order as it developed, that is top to bottom)</li><li>• Begins : 2 hours after death (first appears in Myocardium, then upper eyelids)</li><li>• Begins</li><li>• 2 hours after death</li><li>• eyelids)</li><li>• Developing Stage : 2 hrs- 12 hours after death (extends from upper parts of body to lower parts, with last in hands and feet).</li><li>• Developing Stage</li><li>• 2 hrs- 12 hours</li><li>• Developed Stage: 12-24 hours after death (Remains fully developed in whole body)</li><li>• Developed Stage: 12-24 hours</li><li>• Passing stage : 24-36 hours (it passes way in the same order as it developed, that is top to bottom)</li><li>• Passing stage</li><li>• 24-36 hours</li><li>• 2. Post-Mortem Lividity (Livor Mortis)</li><li>• 2. Post-Mortem Lividity (Livor Mortis)</li><li>• Begins : 1 hours after death . Fully develops : 6 hours after death . Gets fixed : Between 8-12 hours after death (it no longer shifts if the body is moved).</li><li>• Begins : 1 hours after death .</li><li>• Begins</li><li>• 1 hours after death</li><li>• Fully develops : 6 hours after death .</li><li>• Fully develops</li><li>• 6 hours after death</li><li>• Gets fixed : Between 8-12 hours after death (it no longer shifts if the body is moved).</li><li>• Gets fixed</li><li>• Between 8-12 hours</li><li>• 3. Algor Mortis (Cooling of the Body)</li><li>• 3. Algor Mortis (Cooling of the Body)</li><li>• Starts : 1 hours after death. Fully cold to touch : 20 hours after death .</li><li>• Starts : 1 hours after death.</li><li>• Starts</li><li>• Fully cold to touch : 20 hours after death .</li><li>• Fully cold to touch</li><li>• 20 hours after death</li><li>• In this case:</li><li>• In this case:</li><li>• Rigor Mortis is present all over the body, including hands and feet → At least 12 hours have passed . Post-Mortem Lividity is fixed → At least 8 hours have passed . Body is cold to touch → Since temperature is not given, so this information does not help much in getting time since death</li><li>• Rigor Mortis is present all over the body, including hands and feet → At least 12 hours have passed .</li><li>• Rigor Mortis is present all over the body, including hands and feet</li><li>• At least 12 hours have passed</li><li>• Post-Mortem Lividity is fixed → At least 8 hours have passed .</li><li>• Post-Mortem Lividity is fixed</li><li>• At least 8 hours have passed</li><li>• Body is cold to touch → Since temperature is not given, so this information does not help much in getting time since death</li><li>• Body is cold to touch</li><li>• Based on these findings, the minimum time since death is 12 hours. So it can be more than 12 hours but not less. Hence most appropriate answer is 12-24 hours</li><li>• time since death is 12</li><li>• 12-24 hours</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 1-2 hrs: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option A. 1-2 hrs: Incorrect.</li><li>• Rigor mortis does not develop fully within 1-2 hours ; it takes at least 6-12 hours to be fully established.</li><li>• Rigor mortis does not develop fully within 1-2 hours ; it takes at least 6-12 hours to be fully established.</li><li>• Rigor mortis does not develop fully within 1-2 hours</li><li>• 6-12 hours</li><li>• Option B. 4-6 hrs: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. 4-6 hrs: Incorrect.</li><li>• Rigor mortis would only be developing , not fully spread to hands and feet. Post-mortem lividity would not yet be fixed .</li><li>• Rigor mortis would only be developing , not fully spread to hands and feet.</li><li>• Rigor mortis would only be developing</li><li>• Post-mortem lividity would not yet be fixed .</li><li>• Post-mortem lividity would not yet be fixed</li><li>• Option C. 6-12 hrs: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. 6-12 hrs: Incorrect.</li><li>• Rigor Mortis would still be in the developing stage .</li><li>• Rigor Mortis would still be in the developing stage .</li><li>• Rigor Mortis would still be in the developing stage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sequence of Rigor Mortis (Nysten’s Rule)</li><li>➤ Sequence of Rigor Mortis (Nysten’s Rule)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Corneal transplant is allowed until how much time after death? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 hours", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 6 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 6 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• While most organs can be transplanted, only while body is still on ventilator, and blood circulation is maintained, in case of cornea, the transplantation is possible even if a person is died at home because cornea is avascular (lacks blood supply) It Can be done up to 6 hours after death in India In western countries, can be extended up to 12 hours Time limit is shorter in India due to tropical climate causing faster decomposition Other organs require continuous blood supply and must be harvested while patient is on ventilator</li><li>• While most organs can be transplanted, only while body is still on ventilator, and blood circulation is maintained, in case of cornea, the transplantation is possible even if a person is died at home because cornea is avascular (lacks blood supply)</li><li>• It Can be done up to 6 hours after death in India</li><li>• In western countries, can be extended up to 12 hours</li><li>• Time limit is shorter in India due to tropical climate causing faster decomposition</li><li>• Other organs require continuous blood supply and must be harvested while patient is on ventilator</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 1 hour: Incorrect. Corneas do not deteriorate this quickly and can be used for transplantation for several hours post-mortem.</li><li>• Option A. 1 hour: Incorrect.</li><li>• do not deteriorate this quickly</li><li>• Option B. 2 hours: Incorrect. The minimum accepted timeframe is up to 6 hours , not just 2 hours.</li><li>• Option B. 2 hours: Incorrect.</li><li>• minimum accepted timeframe is up to 6 hours</li><li>• Option C. 4 hours: Incorrect. Though corneal tissue remains viable for more than 4 hours , the standard practice extends the limit up to 6 hours in India.</li><li>• Option C. 4 hours: Incorrect.</li><li>• more than 4 hours</li><li>• up to 6 hours</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A corneal transplant can be performed within 6 hours after death because the cornea is avascular and does not deteriorate as rapidly as other organs</li><li>➤ corneal transplant</li><li>➤ within 6 hours after death</li><li>➤ cornea is avascular</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person was stabbed in the thigh by a knife, with a wound measuring 1×3×5 cm. What kind of wound is this? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Penetration", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perforation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incision", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Puncture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Penetration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Penetration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A wound is classified based on depth, entry and exit points, and the type of weapon used .</li><li>• depth, entry and exit points, and the type of weapon used</li><li>• In this stab wound:</li><li>• In this stab wound:</li><li>• Depth (5 cm) &gt; length (3 cm) &gt; width (1 cm) Penetrates deep into tissue No exit wound mentioned Penetrating: Extends deep into cavity/tissue without exit Perforating: Has both entry and exit wounds Puncture: Only involves superficial tissues</li><li>• Depth (5 cm) &gt; length (3 cm) &gt; width (1 cm)</li><li>• Depth (5 cm) &gt; length (3 cm) &gt; width (1 cm)</li><li>• Penetrates deep into tissue</li><li>• Penetrates deep into tissue</li><li>• No exit wound mentioned</li><li>• No exit wound mentioned</li><li>• Penetrating: Extends deep into cavity/tissue without exit</li><li>• Penetrating: Extends deep into cavity/tissue without exit</li><li>• Perforating: Has both entry and exit wounds</li><li>• Perforating: Has both entry and exit wounds</li><li>• Puncture: Only involves superficial tissues</li><li>• Puncture: Only involves superficial tissues</li><li>• Types of stab wounds based on depth:</li><li>• Types of stab wounds based on depth:</li><li>• This case shows penetrating wound as it's deep (5 cm) but doesn't exit the body</li><li>• This case shows penetrating wound as it's deep (5 cm) but doesn't exit the body</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Perforating Wound: Incorrect</li><li>• Option B. Perforating Wound: Incorrect</li><li>• Involves both entry and exit wounds . Example: A stab wound passing through the body and weapon coming out from other side. Here, no exit wound is mentioned , ruling out this option.</li><li>• Involves both entry and exit wounds .</li><li>• both entry and exit wounds</li><li>• Example: A stab wound passing through the body and weapon coming out from other side.</li><li>• Here, no exit wound is mentioned , ruling out this option.</li><li>• no exit wound is mentioned</li><li>• Option C. Incision: Incorrect</li><li>• Option C. Incision: Incorrect</li><li>• Length is greater than depth (e.g., surgical cuts, knife slashes). Here, depth (5 cm) is greater than length (1 cm) , ruling out an incision.</li><li>• Length is greater than depth (e.g., surgical cuts, knife slashes).</li><li>• Length is greater than depth</li><li>• Here, depth (5 cm) is greater than length (1 cm) , ruling out an incision.</li><li>• depth (5 cm) is greater than length (1 cm)</li><li>• Option D. Puncture Wound: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Puncture Wound: Incorrect</li><li>• Shallow depth , usually involving only the superficial layers . Seen in nail, or small pointed object injuries . Here, the depth is significantly deep (5 cm) , making it penetrating, not puncture .</li><li>• Shallow depth , usually involving only the superficial layers .</li><li>• Shallow depth</li><li>• superficial layers</li><li>• Seen in nail, or small pointed object injuries .</li><li>• nail, or small pointed object injuries</li><li>• Here, the depth is significantly deep (5 cm) , making it penetrating, not puncture .</li><li>• significantly deep (5 cm)</li><li>• penetrating, not puncture</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A penetrating wound is defined as a deep wound where depth &gt; length , caused by sharp-pointed objects (e.g., knife, dagger, spear) . A perforating wound would require both an entry and exit wound , which is not present here </li><li>➤ penetrating wound</li><li>➤ deep wound where depth &gt; length</li><li>➤ sharp-pointed objects (e.g., knife, dagger, spear)</li><li>➤ perforating wound</li><li>➤ entry and exit wound</li><li>➤ not present here</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-year-old baby was brought to the hospital with burn injuries on the right side of the body, including the upper limb, chest, abdomen, and leg, mostly on the front. What is the estimated burn percentage? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15-25%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "25-35%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;50%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 15-25%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135826.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 15-25%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• To calculate the burn percentage in infants , the Lund &amp; Browder chart is used.</li><li>• burn percentage in infants</li><li>• Lund &amp; Browder chart</li><li>• In children surface area of Head is more, and Lower limbs less as compared to adults: Head is “18% - Age”; Each lower limb is “14% + (0.5 X Age)” Above rule applicable till about 9 years of age (because after that almost similar to adults, so rule of 9 can be used) Other Body Parts (Trunks, Upper limbs): same proportion of body in child as that of Adults So in a 1 year child: Head: 18%- 1= 17% (Front 8.5% + Back 8.5%) Each Lower limb: 14% + 0.5 (1)= 14.5% (Front 7.25% + Back 7.25%) Chest: 18% (Front 9% + Back 9%): Same As Adults Abdomen: 18% (Front 9% + Back 9%): Same As Adults Each Upper limb: 9% (Front 4.5% + Back 4.5%): Same As Adults Perinium: 1%: Same As Adults</li><li>• In children surface area of Head is more, and Lower limbs less as compared to adults: Head is “18% - Age”; Each lower limb is “14% + (0.5 X Age)”</li><li>• Head is “18% - Age”; Each lower limb is “14% + (0.5 X Age)”</li><li>• Head is “18% - Age”;</li><li>• Each lower limb is “14% + (0.5 X Age)”</li><li>• Above rule applicable till about 9 years of age (because after that almost similar to adults, so rule of 9 can be used)</li><li>• Other Body Parts (Trunks, Upper limbs): same proportion of body in child as that of Adults</li><li>• So in a 1 year child: Head: 18%- 1= 17% (Front 8.5% + Back 8.5%) Each Lower limb: 14% + 0.5 (1)= 14.5% (Front 7.25% + Back 7.25%) Chest: 18% (Front 9% + Back 9%): Same As Adults Abdomen: 18% (Front 9% + Back 9%): Same As Adults Each Upper limb: 9% (Front 4.5% + Back 4.5%): Same As Adults Perinium: 1%: Same As Adults</li><li>• Head: 18%- 1= 17% (Front 8.5% + Back 8.5%) Each Lower limb: 14% + 0.5 (1)= 14.5% (Front 7.25% + Back 7.25%) Chest: 18% (Front 9% + Back 9%): Same As Adults Abdomen: 18% (Front 9% + Back 9%): Same As Adults Each Upper limb: 9% (Front 4.5% + Back 4.5%): Same As Adults Perinium: 1%: Same As Adults</li><li>• Head: 18%- 1= 17% (Front 8.5% + Back 8.5%)</li><li>• Each Lower limb: 14% + 0.5 (1)= 14.5% (Front 7.25% + Back 7.25%)</li><li>• Chest: 18% (Front 9% + Back 9%): Same As Adults</li><li>• Abdomen: 18% (Front 9% + Back 9%): Same As Adults</li><li>• Each Upper limb: 9% (Front 4.5% + Back 4.5%): Same As Adults</li><li>• Perinium: 1%: Same As Adults</li><li>• Perinium: 1%: Same As Adults</li><li>• Calculating Burn Area for the Right Side (Front Only) for a 1 year child</li><li>• Calculating Burn Area for the Right Side (Front Only) for a 1 year child</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 5-10% : Incorrect. The actual burn area is 17% , so this estimate is too low.</li><li>• Option A. 5-10% : Incorrect.</li><li>• actual burn area is 17%</li><li>• Option C. 25-35% : Incorrect. The actual burn area is 17% , so this estimate is high.</li><li>• Option C. 25-35% : Incorrect.</li><li>• actual burn area is 17%</li><li>• Option D. &gt;50% : Incorrect. This would require extensive burns covering most of the body , which is not observed in this case.</li><li>• Option D. &gt;50% : Incorrect.</li><li>• extensive burns covering most of the body</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In infants , the burn percentage is calculated differently than in adults, using the Lund &amp; Browder chart . In this case, burns affecting the only right side of body and only on front on upper limb, chest, abdomen, and leg contribute to 15-25% total body surface area (TBSA) </li><li>➤ infants</li><li>➤ burn percentage is calculated differently</li><li>➤ Lund &amp; Browder chart</li><li>➤ right side of body and only on front on upper limb, chest, abdomen, and leg</li><li>➤ 15-25% total body surface area (TBSA)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After a myocardial infarction (MI), staining was done using Triphenyl Tetrazolium Chloride (TTC) Most myocardial tissue got stained in brick red color, while some tissue remained pale. What is the minimum survival time required post MI for this color change to appear? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2-3 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "6-12 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 24 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2-3 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2-3 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The Triphenyl Tetrazolium Chloride (TTC) test is used to detect early myocardial infarction (MI) by staining viable cardiac tissue.</li><li>• The minimum survival time required Post MI is generally around 12 hours for any gross changes in the heart to be visible. The minimum survival time required Post MI is generally around 6 hours for any microscopic changes in the heart to be visible.</li><li>• The minimum survival time required Post MI is generally around 12 hours for any gross changes in the heart to be visible.</li><li>• The minimum survival time required Post MI is generally around 6 hours for any microscopic changes in the heart to be visible.</li><li>• However, with the use of TTC staining , gross changes in the heart can be observed as early as 2-3 hours post-MI.</li><li>• with the use of TTC staining</li><li>• In normal tissue , mitochondrial enzymes such as dehydrogenases are present, which reduce TTC, resulting in a brick-red color. In infarcted tissue , the infarcted area remains pale due to the absence of these mitochondrial enzymes, which are affected by the lack of blood supply. Complete mitochondrial enzyme death typically requires at least 2-3 hours of survival time, post-MI.</li><li>• In normal tissue , mitochondrial enzymes such as dehydrogenases are present, which reduce TTC, resulting in a brick-red color.</li><li>• normal tissue</li><li>• In infarcted tissue , the infarcted area remains pale due to the absence of these mitochondrial enzymes, which are affected by the lack of blood supply.</li><li>• infarcted tissue</li><li>• Complete mitochondrial enzyme death typically requires at least 2-3 hours of survival time, post-MI.</li><li>• Complete mitochondrial enzyme death</li><li>• Other Option :</li><li>• Other Option</li><li>• Option A. 1 hour: Incorrect. The TTC reaction typically requires at least 2-3 hours of survival time after MI for a clear distinction between infarcted and normal tissue to be visible.</li><li>• Option A. 1 hour: Incorrect.</li><li>• at least 2-3 hours</li><li>• Option C. 6-12 hours: Incorrect. While TTC can detect MI after 2-3 hours, the question specifically asks about the minimum time , not a broader window.</li><li>• Option C. 6-12 hours: Incorrect.</li><li>• minimum time</li><li>• Option D. &gt; 24 hours: Incorrect. The TTC test can detect MI much earlier than 24 hours. The question is asking about the minimum time needed for the color change to appear.</li><li>• Option D. &gt; 24 hours: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The TTC test is used to detect early MI. A brick-red color appears in viable myocardium, while the infarcted area remains pale after 2-3 hours post-MI.</li><li>➤ brick-red color</li><li>➤ 2-3 hours</li><li>➤ Note that some sources suggest a minimum survival time of 4 hours for TTC positivity instead of 2-3 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic presents with hallucinations, seeing snakes, tremors, disorientation and inability to recognize his own family members, after cessation of alcohol for 2 days due to festive season. Diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delirium Tremens", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wernicke's Encephalopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Korsakoff psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcoholic Hallucinosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Delirium Tremens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-25%20135924.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Delirium Tremens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The case presents classic features of delirium tremens:</li><li>• Occurs after alcohol cessation in chronic alcoholics Onset typically 2-3 days after stopping alcohol Symptoms include: Visual hallucinations Tremors Disorientation Confusion and inability to recognize family It's a withdrawal symptom of alcohol</li><li>• Occurs after alcohol cessation in chronic alcoholics</li><li>• Onset typically 2-3 days after stopping alcohol</li><li>• Symptoms include: Visual hallucinations Tremors Disorientation Confusion and inability to recognize family</li><li>• Visual hallucinations Tremors Disorientation Confusion and inability to recognize family</li><li>• Visual hallucinations</li><li>• Tremors</li><li>• Disorientation</li><li>• Confusion and inability to recognize family</li><li>• It's a withdrawal symptom of alcohol</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Wernicke's Encephalopathy Incorrect: Wernicke's encephalopathy is not a withdrawal symptom but results from thiamine deficiency, characterized by:</li><li>• Option B. Wernicke's Encephalopathy</li><li>• Global confusion Ophthalmoplegia Ataxia (\"GOA\" triad)</li><li>• Global confusion</li><li>• Ophthalmoplegia</li><li>• Ataxia (\"GOA\" triad)</li><li>• Option C. Korsakoff psychosis Incorrect: Korsakoff psychosis presents with:</li><li>• Option C. Korsakoff psychosis</li><li>• Amnesia Confabulation No visual hallucinations</li><li>• Amnesia</li><li>• Confabulation</li><li>• No visual hallucinations</li><li>• Option D. Alcoholic Hallucinosis Incorrect: Alcoholic hallucinosis presents with:</li><li>• Option D. Alcoholic Hallucinosis</li><li>• Only auditory hallucinations Noother symptoms occur as mentioned in the question</li><li>• Only auditory hallucinations</li><li>• Noother symptoms occur as mentioned in the question</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Symptoms After Cessation of Alcohol Intake</li><li>➤ Symptoms After Cessation of Alcohol Intake</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male patient, aged 20, presents with increasing localized pain that developed gradually over time. Imaging via X-ray revealed sunray appearance. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ewing sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gout", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chondrosarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Osteosarcoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131249.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131331.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131347.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131402.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Osteosarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Osteosarcoma is the most common primary bone cancer, and it often presents in adolescents and young adults (like this 20-year-old patient). A \"sunray appearance\" on X-ray is a classic sign of osteosarcoma, where bony spicules radiate outward from the tumor.</li><li>➤ Osteosarcoma is the most common primary bone cancer, and it often presents in adolescents and young adults (like this 20-year-old patient).</li><li>➤ A \"sunray appearance\" on X-ray is a classic sign of osteosarcoma, where bony spicules radiate outward from the tumor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve is most likely affected, based on the hand posture shown in the image? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Musculocutaneous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ulnar nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131420.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ulnar nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows Claw hand deformity wherein the MCP joint of the fingers is hyperextended while the IP joint is flexed in the 4 th and 5 th digits. This occurs due to weakness of the intrinsic muscles of the hand which are supplied by the ulnar nerve. Thus, ulnar nerve palsies lead to claw hand deformity.</li><li>➤ The given image shows Claw hand deformity wherein the MCP joint of the fingers is hyperextended while the IP joint is flexed in the 4 th and 5 th digits.</li><li>➤ This occurs due to weakness of the intrinsic muscles of the hand which are supplied by the ulnar nerve.</li><li>➤ Thus, ulnar nerve palsies lead to claw hand deformity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument shown in the image. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thomas splint", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Volkmann splint", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bohler Braun splint", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cramer wire", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bohler Braun splint", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131451.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131526.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131542.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131553.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bohler Braun splint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the Bohler-Braun splint which is used in the immobilization of the lower limb fractures. The splint consists of a system of pulleys to provide traction and allow for fracture healing.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the Bohler-Braun splint which is used in the immobilization of the lower limb fractures.</li><li>➤ The splint consists of a system of pulleys to provide traction and allow for fracture healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked area in the image shown below. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pressure epiphysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atavistic epiphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Traction epiphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aberrant epiphysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pressure epiphysis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/WhatsApp%20Image%202025-03-05%20at%2010.37.56_cF5kyp4.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pressure epiphysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the ankle joint. The joints are formed by the pressure epiphysis regions which are weight bearing areas. Thus, the ankle joint is an example of pressure epiphysis.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the ankle joint.</li><li>➤ The joints are formed by the pressure epiphysis regions which are weight bearing areas.</li><li>➤ Thus, the ankle joint is an example of pressure epiphysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image shown below in a patient who presented with a history of fall. (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior shoulder dislocation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior shoulder dislocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intrathoracic dislocation of shoulder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subglenoid dislocation of shoulder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior shoulder dislocation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131633.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131654.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131707.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anterior shoulder dislocation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the anterior dislocation of the shoulder. In the given X-ray, the humerus head is down and out i.e., it lies beneath the glenoid cavity and the arm is abducted. In the posterior dislocation, on x-ray, the humeral head is up and in i.e., lying above the glenoid with the arm adducted.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the anterior dislocation of the shoulder.</li><li>➤ In the given X-ray, the humerus head is down and out i.e., it lies beneath the glenoid cavity and the arm is abducted.</li><li>➤ In the posterior dislocation, on x-ray, the humeral head is up and in i.e., lying above the glenoid with the arm adducted.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old female labourer complains of soft, fluctuating swelling in front of the knee, directly over the patella. She reports discomfort and difficulty while moving her knee. MRI results confirm the findings. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subdermal abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Housemaid's knee", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gout", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Housemaid's knee", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131723.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131740.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131847.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131917.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20131931.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Housemaid’s knee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows an inflammation anterior to the patella. This is seen in prepatellar bursitis, also called housemaid’s knee.</li><li>➤ The given image shows an inflammation anterior to the patella.</li><li>➤ This is seen in prepatellar bursitis, also called housemaid’s knee.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child was brought with bow legs and on x-ray of wrist, following were the findings. The child also had low serum calcium and low serum phosphate values. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JAN 2025)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rickets", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypophosphatemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rickets", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20132036.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20132056.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20132116.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rickets</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image of the child’s hands and wrists shows cupping and splaying of the radius and the ulna. The patient presents with bow legs, and decreased levels of serum calcium and phosphate. These are common findings of rickets caused by defective bone mineralization or nutritional deficiency of vitamin D in children.</li><li>➤ The given image of the child’s hands and wrists shows cupping and splaying of the radius and the ulna.</li><li>➤ The patient presents with bow legs, and decreased levels of serum calcium and phosphate.</li><li>➤ These are common findings of rickets caused by defective bone mineralization or nutritional deficiency of vitamin D in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 323 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge July 2023 2023 07 30 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 300 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A patient on psychiatric medication developed a sudden hypertensive episode after consuming wine. Which of the following drugs is the person most likely taking? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MAO inhibitors", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amitriptyline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluoxetine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trazodone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MAO inhibitors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) MAO inhibitors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MAO inhibitors can cause hypertensive crises when patients consume foods high in tyramine, such as cheese and wine, due to the inhibition of tyramine breakdown, leading to its accumulation and subsequent hypertensive episodes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Farmer with traumatic ulcer in eye and septate hyphae seen. Causative organism is ? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillus.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudomonas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aspergillus.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-153132.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-153228.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aspergillus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Farmers often suffer from injuries involving organic matter. The presence of a traumatic ulcer in the eye coupled with the identification of septate hyphae points toward a fungal infection.</li><li>• Between Mucor and Aspergillus, the distinguishing factor is the type of hyphae. Aspergillus forms septate hyphae, meaning the hyphae have regular, cross-wall divisions. In contrast, Mucor forms aseptate (or coenocytic) hyphae, which lack these septa.</li><li>• Characteristic of Hyphae -</li><li>• Characteristic of Hyphae -</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mucor: Although Mucor is a fungus that can cause infections, it forms aseptate hyphae. This characteristic helps differentiate it from Aspergillus in cases of fungal eye infections.</li><li>• Option A. Mucor:</li><li>• Option C. Streptococcus pyogenes: This bacterium can cause various infections, including those in the eye, but it does not form hyphae. Thus, it cannot be the causative organism in this scenario.</li><li>• Option C. Streptococcus pyogenes:</li><li>• Option D. Pseudomonas: This is another bacterium that can cause eye infections, particularly in the context of contact lens wearers, but like Streptococcus pyogenes, it does not form hyphae.</li><li>• Option D. Pseudomonas:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of septate hyphae in an eye infection suggests Aspergillus as the causative organism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2 years old child present to OPD at PHC with complaints of cough and coryza. On examination, fever and conjunctivitis are present. Mother told that the rash started behind ear pinna then came over the trunk. Most likely diagnosis is", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Measles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Measles is characterized by symptoms like cough, coryza, fever, and conjunctivitis. The crucial diagnostic clue is the rash starting from behind the ear ( retroauricular origin ) and spreading to the trunk. This progression, coupled with the presence of Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molar before the rash appears, confirms measles.</li><li>• retroauricular origin</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Dengue: Typically presents with high fever and severe headache, pain behind the eyes, muscle and joint pains; rash is not primarily retroauricular.</li><li>• Option A. Dengue:</li><li>• Option B. Chikungunya: Presents with fever and severe joint pain but lacks the characteristic early symptoms and rash pattern of measles.</li><li>• Option B. Chikungunya:</li><li>• Option D. Rubella: While it can cause rash and fever, the rash usually starts on the face and spreads downward, and it lacks the specific Koplik spots associated with measles.</li><li>• Option D. Rubella:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles should be suspected in children presenting with cough, coryza, fever, conjunctivitis, and a characteristic rash starting from behind the ear, spreading to the trunk, alongside the presence of Koplik spots.</li><li>➤ Koplik spots.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under the guidelines used in India, the dose of Vitamin A for 1-3 years old is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50,000 IU", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 Lac IU", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 Lac IU", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 Lac IU", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 Lac IU", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2 Lac IU</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the immunization schedule and the older Vitamin A prophylaxis program in India, the recommended dose for children up to 1 year of age is 1 lakh international units (IU). For infants below 6 months of age, a dose of 50,000 IU is administered.</li><li>• Once a child crosses the age of 1 year, the dose increases to 2 lakh IU. This dosage is applicable for toddlers, adolescents, and adults, and is used for both prophylaxis and treatment of Vitamin A deficiency.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. 50,000 IU: This dose is recommended for infants below 6 months of age.</li><li>• Option A. 50,000 IU: This dose is recommended for infants below 6 months of age.</li><li>• Option A. 50,000 IU:</li><li>• Option B. 1 Lac IU: This dose is given to children up to 1 year of age.</li><li>• Option B. 1 Lac IU: This dose is given to children up to 1 year of age.</li><li>• Option B. 1 Lac IU:</li><li>• Option D. 3 Lac IU: Not recommended under the guidelines of Vitamin A prophylaxis program.</li><li>• Option D. 3 Lac IU: Not recommended under the guidelines of Vitamin A prophylaxis program.</li><li>• Option D. 3 Lac IU:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For children aged 1-3 years, the recommended dose of Vitamin A under Indian guidelines is 2 lakh international units (IU).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hypokalemia is seen in all of the following conditions, except? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal tubular acidosis 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal tubular acidosis 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renal tubular acidosis 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ureterosigmoidostomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Renal tubular acidosis 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Renal tubular acidosis 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Renal tubular acidosis type 4 is the exception among conditions causing hypokalemia, as it leads to hyperkalemia due to aldosterone deficiency or resistance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old male presented with nasal obstruction, cheek swelling, and blood-tinged nasal discharge. His CT scan is given. What could be the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maxillary Sinus Carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orbital Floor Fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinocerebral Mucormycosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Maxillary Sinus Carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115540.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115550.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115602.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Maxillary Sinus Carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with symptoms including nasal obstruction, cheek swelling, and blood-tinged nasal discharge. The CT scan shows a mass involving the maxillary sinus. These clinical features are highly suggestive of maxillary sinus carcinoma. This condition often presents with such symptoms due to the tumor mass causing obstruction and local invasion.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma: This condition typically occurs in adolescent males and arises from the nasopharynx, not the maxillary sinus. It is characterized by severe epistaxis and nasal obstruction, but the patient's age and the location of the mass make this diagnosis unlikely.</li><li>• Option A. Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma:</li><li>• Option C. Orbital Floor Fracture: Orbital floor fractures are best seen in coronal CT views and typically result from trauma. They present with symptoms such as diplopia, enophthalmos, and infraorbital anesthesia, but not with nasal obstruction and cheek swelling without trauma history.</li><li>• Option C. Orbital Floor Fracture:</li><li>• Option D. Rhinocerebral Mucormycosis: This condition is seen in immunocompromised patients, such as those with uncontrolled diabetes. It involves rapid tissue destruction, including the eyes and palate, leading to black necrotic tissue. The presentation of the patient does not fit this severe and aggressive infection.</li><li>• Option D. Rhinocerebral Mucormycosis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Maxillary sinus carcinoma presents with nasal obstruction, cheek swelling, and blood-tinged nasal discharge. Diagnosis is often confirmed through imaging, showing a mass in the maxillary sinus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has a field defect where he cannot see the left side from the left eye and the left side from the right eye, that is from both the eyes the patient is not able to look towards the left, with preserved central vision. What is the field defect? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Quadrantanopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Homonymous hemianopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bitemporal hemianopia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-104040.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing is a type of visual field defect where the patient cannot see the same side of the visual field in both eyes, but central vision is preserved.</li><li>• This condition typically indicates a lesion in the occipital lobe, specifically on the side opposite to the visual field loss. In this case, the patient cannot see the left side from both eyes, which means the lesion is in the right occipital lobe. The occipital lobe processes visual information, and a lesion here can result in loss of vision in the corresponding visual field of both eyes.</li><li>• occipital lobe,</li><li>• Macular sparing occurs because the macular region of the occipital cortex has a dual blood supply from both the middle cerebral artery and the posterior cerebral artery, providing some redundancy that preserves central vision even when other parts of the occipital lobe are damaged.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Quadrantanopia : This refers to the loss of vision in one quadrant (one-fourth) of the visual field. It is not consistent with the described field defect involving half of the visual field.</li><li>• Option A. Quadrantanopia</li><li>• Option C. Homonymous hemianopia : This is the loss of the same half of the visual field in both eyes without the specification of macular sparing. The inclusion of macular sparing helps to localize the lesion more specifically to the occipital lobe.</li><li>• Option C. Homonymous hemianopia</li><li>• Option D. Bitemporal hemianopia : This is the loss of the outer (temporal) visual fields in both eyes, typically due to a lesion at the optic chiasm. It does not fit the description where the same side of the visual field is lost in both eyes.</li><li>• Option D. Bitemporal hemianopia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing indicates a lesion in the occipital lobe on the side opposite to the visual field.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Not included in STEPS approach for Non-communicable diseases is (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood sugar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood grouping", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blood lipids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Blood grouping", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Blood grouping</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The WHO STEPS approach for non-communicable disease (NCD) risk factor &amp; STROKE surveillance involves three steps: behavioral measurements, physical measurements, and biochemical measurements. These steps focus on key indicators related to NCDs and stroke surveillance.</li><li>• non-communicable disease (NCD) risk factor &amp; STROKE surveillance</li><li>• The specific indicators include:</li><li>• The specific indicators include:</li><li>• Step 1: Behavioral measurements – (for both core &amp; expanded indicators) Tobacco use, alcohol consumption, diet, exercise, history of raised blood pressure, and diabetes mellitus. Step 2: Physical measurements - Core indicators include height, weight, waist circumference, and blood pressure; expanded indicators include hip circumference and heart rate. Step 3: Biochemical measurements - Core indicators include blood glucose and blood lipids; expanded indicators include triglycerides and serum cholesterol levels.</li><li>• Step 1: Behavioral measurements – (for both core &amp; expanded indicators) Tobacco use, alcohol consumption, diet, exercise, history of raised blood pressure, and diabetes mellitus.</li><li>• Step 1: Behavioral measurements</li><li>• Step 2: Physical measurements - Core indicators include height, weight, waist circumference, and blood pressure; expanded indicators include hip circumference and heart rate.</li><li>• Step 2: Physical measurements</li><li>• Step 3: Biochemical measurements - Core indicators include blood glucose and blood lipids; expanded indicators include triglycerides and serum cholesterol levels.</li><li>• Step 3: Biochemical measurements</li><li>• Blood grouping is not a part of the STEPS approach as it does not relate to the risk factors or measurements for NCDs.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Blood sugar: Included as a core biochemical measurement (blood glucose).</li><li>• Option A. Blood sugar:</li><li>• Option B. Blood pressure: Included as a core physical measurement.</li><li>• Option B. Blood pressure:</li><li>• Option D. Blood lipids: Included as a core biochemical measurement.</li><li>• Option D. Blood lipids:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The WHO STEPS approach for NCD risk factor surveillance includes behavioral, physical, and biochemical measurements, but blood grouping is not included in these indicators.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vibrio cholerae binds with which receptors in the intestine? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GM1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "GM2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GM3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GM4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GM1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GM1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, a disease characterized by severe watery diarrhea, often referred to as \"rice water stools.\" The pathogenesis of cholera involves the cholera toxin, which plays a critical role in the disease process.</li><li>• Upon ingestion of contaminated food or water, Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin in the intestinal lumen. The cholera toxin (2 subunits – A &amp; B) does not enter the intestinal cells directly; instead, it binds to the GM1 ganglioside receptor on the surface of the intestinal epithelial cells. This binding facilitates the entry of the toxin into the cells.</li><li>• Once inside the cell, the cholera toxin activates the enzyme adenylate cyclase, leading to an increase in cyclic AMP (cAMP) levels. Elevated cAMP levels cause the inhibition of sodium absorption and an increase in chloride and water secretion into the intestinal lumen. This results in the characteristic watery diarrhea of cholera.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. GM2: This ganglioside receptor is not involved in the binding of cholera toxin.</li><li>• Option B. GM2:</li><li>• Option C. GM3: This ganglioside receptor is not involved in the binding of cholera toxin.</li><li>• Option C. GM3:</li><li>• Option D. GM4: This ganglioside receptor is not involved in the binding of cholera toxin.</li><li>• Option D. GM4:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cholera toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae binds to the GM1 ganglioside receptor on the intestinal epithelial cells, leading to an increase in cyclic AMP and resulting in watery diarrhea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "No of live births per 1000 women in reproductive age group is? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total fertility rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "General fertility rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Age specific fertility rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gross reproduction rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. General fertility rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) General fertility rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The general fertility rate is defined as the total number of live births in a community in a year divided by the total number of women in the reproductive age group (usually 15-49 years) per 1,000.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Total fertility rate (TFR): Incorrect. TFR refers to the total number of children born to a woman in her entire reproductive lifespan.</li><li>• Option A. Total fertility rate (TFR):</li><li>• Option C. Age specific fertility rate (ASFR): Incorrect. Age-specific fertility rate is the fertility rate calculated for a given age interval, usually 5 years, per 1,000 mid-year population.</li><li>• Option C. Age specific fertility rate (ASFR):</li><li>• Option D. Gross reproduction rate: Incorrect. Gross reproduction rate (GRR) is the total number of girl children born to a woman in her entire reproductive lifespan at current ASFRs.</li><li>• Option D. Gross reproduction rate:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The general fertility rate is the number of live births per 1,000 women in the reproductive age group (usually 15-49 years) in a given year.</li><li>➤ Note - Net reproduction rate (NRR): Expected number of daughters, per newborn prospective mother, who may or may not survive to and through the ages of childbearing.</li><li>➤ Note -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man presents to OPD at PHC with gum bleeding. This may be due to deficiency of (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vitamin C deficiency leads to a condition known as scurvy.</li><li>• Scurvy is characterized by impaired collagen synthesis, resulting in symptoms such as delayed wound healing, gum bleeding, and in severe cases, bone fractures. Collagen is essential for maintaining the integrity of connective tissues, and its deficiency directly affects the strength and healing capacity of tissues.</li><li>• delayed wound healing, gum bleeding, and in severe cases, bone fractures.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin A: Deficiency typically leads to night blindness and xerophthalmia, not gum bleeding.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin A:</li><li>• Option B. Vitamin B12: Deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms but does not cause gum bleeding.</li><li>• Option B. Vitamin B12:</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin E: Deficiency is rare and mainly results in neurological problems and hemolytic anemia, not gum bleeding.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin E:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by symptoms such as delayed wound healing, gum bleeding, and potential bone fractures.</li><li>➤ Note - James Lind gave the concept that Citrus fruits can prevent/cure Scurvy (Later found to be due to deficiency of Vitamin-C/Ascorbic Acid).</li><li>➤ Note - James Lind gave the concept that Citrus fruits can prevent/cure Scurvy (Later found to be due to deficiency of Vitamin-C/Ascorbic Acid).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32 weeks pregnant woman is at risk of GDM. She would have likely had a screening test during which time of pregnancy? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "24-28 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "First visit", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "32 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "34 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 24-28 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is typically diagnosed during pregnancy and is due to the hormonal changes associated with pregnancy. These hormonal changes, particularly the placental hormones, cause increased insulin resistance, which generally becomes apparent after 24 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• The optimal time to screen for GDM is between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.</li><li>• between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.</li><li>• This period is chosen because it is when the effects of placental hormones on glucose metabolism become significant enough to detect any abnormalities in glucose tolerance.</li><li>• Screening Methods:</li><li>• Screening Methods:</li><li>• IADPSG Criteria (International Association of Diabetes and Pregnancy Study Groups) : A 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is performed. Blood glucose levels are checked fasting, at 1 hour, and at 2 hours after glucose intake. Diagnostic criteria: Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL Any one of these values being abnormal is diagnostic of GDM. DIPSI Criteria (Diabetes in Pregnancy Study Group India) : The patient does not need to be fasting. A 75-gram glucose load is given, and blood glucose is checked after 2 hours. A value ≥ 140 mg/dL is diagnostic of GDM.</li><li>• IADPSG Criteria (International Association of Diabetes and Pregnancy Study Groups) : A 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is performed. Blood glucose levels are checked fasting, at 1 hour, and at 2 hours after glucose intake. Diagnostic criteria: Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL Any one of these values being abnormal is diagnostic of GDM.</li><li>• IADPSG Criteria (International Association of Diabetes and Pregnancy Study Groups)</li><li>• A 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is performed. Blood glucose levels are checked fasting, at 1 hour, and at 2 hours after glucose intake. Diagnostic criteria: Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL Any one of these values being abnormal is diagnostic of GDM.</li><li>• A 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is performed.</li><li>• Blood glucose levels are checked fasting, at 1 hour, and at 2 hours after glucose intake.</li><li>• Diagnostic criteria: Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting glucose ≥ 92 mg/dL</li><li>• 1-hour glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL</li><li>• 2-hour glucose ≥ 153 mg/dL</li><li>• Any one of these values being abnormal is diagnostic of GDM.</li><li>• DIPSI Criteria (Diabetes in Pregnancy Study Group India) : The patient does not need to be fasting. A 75-gram glucose load is given, and blood glucose is checked after 2 hours. A value ≥ 140 mg/dL is diagnostic of GDM.</li><li>• DIPSI Criteria (Diabetes in Pregnancy Study Group India)</li><li>• The patient does not need to be fasting. A 75-gram glucose load is given, and blood glucose is checked after 2 hours. A value ≥ 140 mg/dL is diagnostic of GDM.</li><li>• The patient does not need to be fasting.</li><li>• A 75-gram glucose load is given, and blood glucose is checked after 2 hours.</li><li>• A value ≥ 140 mg/dL is diagnostic of GDM.</li><li>• Note - First visit is the time to screen for pre-existing diabetes or overt diabetes in women who may not know they are diabetic. It is not the typical time for GDM screening, which occurs later in pregnancy.</li><li>• Note - First visit</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The appropriate time to screen for gestational diabetes mellitus is between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy, as this is when the impact of placental hormones on glucose metabolism is most apparent.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with case of diarrhea after eating sea food/ oyster, showing Kanagawa phenomenon. What is the causative organism? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vibrio cholera", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vibrio parahemolyticus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vibrio vulnificus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vibrio parahemolyticus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-155018.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-194657.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-155246.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vibrio parahemolyticus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vibrio parahemolyticus causes Food-borne gastroenteritis</li><li>• MC presentation Following uncooked sea food (e.g. Oyster and shellfish) intake. Watery diarrhea (MC), dysentery, abdominal cramps. Extraintestinal manifestations → wound infection, otitis and sepsis.</li><li>• MC presentation</li><li>• Following uncooked sea food (e.g. Oyster and shellfish) intake.</li><li>• Watery diarrhea (MC), dysentery, abdominal cramps.</li><li>• Extraintestinal manifestations → wound infection, otitis and sepsis.</li><li>• Bipolar staining – safety pin appearance is seen in 5 bacteria’s –</li><li>• Bipolar staining – safety pin appearance is seen in 5 bacteria’s –</li><li>• Mnemonic</li><li>• Mnemonic</li><li>• Note - Kanagawa phenomenon</li><li>• Note - Kanagawa phenomenon</li><li>• V. parahaemolyticus produce Beta hemolysis on special blood agar medium → called the Wagatsuma agar Wagatsuma agar → High-salt (7%) blood agar (defibrinated human or rabbit blood) medium containing d-mannitol as the carbohydrate source. Hemolysis observed on Wagatsuma agar medium, referred to as the Kanagawa phenomenon (KP).</li><li>• V. parahaemolyticus produce Beta hemolysis on special blood agar medium → called the Wagatsuma agar</li><li>• Wagatsuma agar → High-salt (7%) blood agar (defibrinated human or rabbit blood) medium containing d-mannitol as the carbohydrate source.</li><li>• Hemolysis observed on Wagatsuma agar medium, referred to as the Kanagawa phenomenon (KP).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vibrio cholera: Causes cholera, characterized by severe watery diarrhea but not typically associated with the Kanagawa phenomenon.</li><li>• Option A. Vibrio cholera:</li><li>• Option C. E. coli: Can cause gastroenteritis but is not associated with the Kanagawa phenomenon.</li><li>• Option C. E. coli:</li><li>• Option D. Vibrio vulnificus: Can cause severe infections from seafood consumption but is not typically associated with the Kanagawa phenomenon.</li><li>• Option D. Vibrio vulnificus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vibrio parahemolyticus is the causative organism of gastroenteritis following the consumption of uncooked seafood, identified by the Kanagawa phenomenon. The most common symptoms are watery diarrhea, dysentery, and abdominal cramps.</li><li>➤ Additional Information -</li><li>➤ Additional Information -</li><li>➤ Classification based on Salt Requirement</li><li>➤ 1. Nonhalophilic vibrios:</li><li>➤ Can grow without salt but 1% salt is optimum for their growth. Cannot grow at higher salt concentrations. Examples → V. cholerae and V. mimicus</li><li>➤ Can grow without salt but 1% salt is optimum for their growth.</li><li>➤ Cannot grow at higher salt concentrations.</li><li>➤ Examples → V. cholerae and V. mimicus</li><li>➤ 2. Halophilic vibrios:</li><li>➤ Cannot grow in the absence of salt. Can tolerate and grow at higher salt concentration of up to 7–10%. Examples → V. parahaemolyticus, V. alginolyticus and V. vulnificus.</li><li>➤ Cannot grow in the absence of salt.</li><li>➤ Can tolerate and grow at higher salt concentration of up to 7–10%. Examples → V. parahaemolyticus, V. alginolyticus and V. vulnificus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with amenorrhea and a history of frequent abortions. FSH is 7. hCG is &lt; 5. What is the cause of amenorrhea? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pituitary disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenal disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Uterine disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A normal hormonal profile with amenorrhea and a history of frequent abortions suggests a uterine disorder, such as Asherman syndrome, where intrauterine adhesions disrupt the normal menstrual cycle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are features of pseudohallucinations, except? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "They occur without stimulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "They are perceived in the objective space", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "They are vivid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "They are not under the control of the patient", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. They are perceived in the objective space", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) They are perceived in the objective space</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• True Hallucinations are characterized by the following features:</li><li>• True Hallucinations</li><li>• Perception happens without any real object or stimulus triggering it. They are as vivid and detailed, similar to real perceptions. For example, if a person is experiencing a visual hallucination, the image they see can appear very clear and detailed to them, almost indistinguishable from reality. Hallucination are perceived in the outer and objective space (external environment). They are not under the control of the patient. This means the patient cannot start or stop these perceptions at will; they occur spontaneously.</li><li>• Perception happens without any real object or stimulus triggering it.</li><li>• They are as vivid and detailed, similar to real perceptions. For example, if a person is experiencing a visual hallucination, the image they see can appear very clear and detailed to them, almost indistinguishable from reality.</li><li>• Hallucination are perceived in the outer and objective space (external environment).</li><li>• They are not under the control of the patient. This means the patient cannot start or stop these perceptions at will; they occur spontaneously.</li><li>• Importantly , Pseudohallucinations are perceived in the inner and subjective space , not the outer and objective space. These are perceived as coming from the inner from his/her mind.</li><li>• , Pseudohallucinations</li><li>• the inner and subjective space</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. They occur without stimulus: This is correct for pseudohallucinations as they happen without any external trigger.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• They occur without stimulus:</li><li>• Option C. They are vivid: This is also correct for pseudohallucinations. Despite not being real, the perceptions can be very detailed and clear.</li><li>• Option C. They are vivid:</li><li>• Option D. They are not under the control of the patient: This is another correct feature of pseudohallucinations. Patients cannot control when these perceptions occur.</li><li>• Option D. They are not under the control of the patient:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pseudohallucinations are vivid perceptions without stimulus, occurring in the inner and subjective space, and are not under the control of the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "5 Fluoro-Uracil causes thymineless cell death after getting converted to a product. Here the inhibition is of which enzyme: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Purine nucleoside phosphorylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thymidylate synthase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PRPP synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenosine deaminase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thymidylate synthase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-180643.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thymidylate synthase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5-Florouracil (5-FU) is a chemotherapeutic agent that is converted into various active metabolites inside the cell. One of its major active metabolites, 2-deoxy 5-fluoro uridylic acid (FdUMP), inhibits thymidylate synthase. Thymidylate synthase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the synthesis of thymidine, a nucleotide required for DNA replication.</li><li>➤ Inhibition of thymidylate synthase leads to a decrease in the production of thymidine, which is essential for DNA synthesis. Thymineless cell death occurs when there is a deficiency of thymidine, affecting DNA replication and leading to cell death.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 711</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 711</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A teenage patient came with pain and a palpable lump in Right iliac fossa. Blood investigation shows increased TLC. What is the management? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laparoscopy Appendectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oschner Sherren regime", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alvarado regime", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Open Appendectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oschner Sherren regime", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Oschner Sherren regime</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Oschner Sherren regime is the conservative management approach for an appendicular phlegmon, involving NPO status, IV antibiotics, and fluids, followed by interval appendectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not constrained by time? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Objective", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Target", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Goal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Principle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Goal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Goal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A goal is the ultimate desired state that a health program aims to achieve. It is not constrained by time, meaning that a goal does not have a specific timeline associated with it. Additionally, a goal is not necessarily attainable , as it represents the ultimate desired outcome.</li><li>• the ultimate desired state</li><li>• not have a specific timeline</li><li>• not necessarily attainable</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Objective: An objective is a specific, planned activity in a health program. Objectives are designed to help achieve the goal and are usually associated with a timeline .</li><li>• Option A. Objective:</li><li>• specific, planned activity</li><li>• timeline</li><li>• Option B. Target: A target is the degree of achievement of objectives and is always associated with a timeline.</li><li>• Option B. Target:</li><li>• degree of achievement</li><li>• timeline.</li><li>• Option D. Principle: The principles are generally guidelines or fundamental truths and do not specify timelines.</li><li>• Option D. Principle:</li><li>• guidelines or fundamental truths</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the context of health programs, a goal is the ultimate desired state and is not constrained by time or resources. It represents an \" all or none\" phenomenon and may not always be attainable.</li><li>➤ all or none\" phenomenon</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman presents to a hospital with symptoms including persistent sadness, loss of interest in activities, difficulty sleeping, and poor appetite that have been ongoing for several months. After being diagnosed with major depressive disorder (MDD) by a psychiatrist, which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluoxetine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lithium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Buspirone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fluoxetine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluoxetine, an SSRI, is the most appropriate initial treatment for major depressive disorder due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile in improving mood, sleep, and appetite.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presented with the complaint of pain over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh after normal vaginal delivery. Which nerve is injured in this condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral cutaneous nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obturator nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gluteal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lateral cutaneous nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-31457-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture3_S0lRE4k.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lateral cutaneous nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, descending behind the inguinal ligament and running along the lateral part of the thigh, is the nerve likely injured in this clinical scenario.</li><li>• The key clue is the patient's complaint of pain over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh following normal vaginal delivery. Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh can lead to a condition called meralgia paresthetica , characterized by pain along the lateral aspect of the thigh. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh originates from the L2 and L3 nerve roots of the lumbar plexus.</li><li>• meralgia paresthetica</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Femoral nerve: Although the femoral nerve also has the same root values (L2, L3, L4) as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, it is formed by the posterior divisions of these nerves. The femoral nerve primarily supplies the hip joint, not the skin over the anterolateral thigh.</li><li>• Option A. Femoral nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Obturator nerve: The obturator nerve is formed by the anterior divisions of the L2, L3, and L4 nerves. It mainly supplies the knee joint, and its referred pain is felt at the site of the femoral nerve. It is not responsible for the pain in the anterolateral thigh.</li><li>• Option C. Obturator nerve:</li><li>• Option D. Gluteal nerve: The gluteal nerve is not related to the lumbar plexus or the anterolateral thigh region. It is not the nerve injured in this condition.</li><li>• Option D. Gluteal nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, originating from the L2 and L3 nerve roots, can be compressed, leading to meralgia paresthetica, which presents with burning pain, numbness &amp; tingling over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh.</li><li>➤ Additional Information –</li><li>➤ Additional Information –</li><li>➤ Lumbar Plexus –</li><li>➤ Lumbar Plexus –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dead body is recovered from a river. The body has signs of antemortem drowning and also has multiple wounds as shown below. What can be the cause of these wounds? (FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Self-inflicted", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Active self-defense wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Postmortem artifact", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Passive self-defense wound", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Self-inflicted", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161402.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-163653.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Self-inflicted</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows multiple superficial, parallel incised wounds on the forearm, which are characteristic of hesitation marks. Hesitation marks are typically seen in cases of suicide attempts where the individual makes multiple superficial cuts while hesitating to make a final, deeper cut.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Active self-defense wound: Incorrect because active self-defense wounds are found on the front of the hands and forearms and usually involve a struggle, not multiple, superficial, parallel cuts.</li><li>• Option B. Active self-defense wound:</li><li>• Option C. Postmortem artifact: Incorrect because postmortem artifacts do not present as multiple, organized, parallel incised wounds.</li><li>• Option C. Postmortem artifact:</li><li>• Option D. Passive self-defense wound: Incorrect because passive self-defense wounds are found on the back of the hands and forearms and are typically blunt force injuries, not superficial cuts.</li><li>• Option D. Passive self-defense wound:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key points to understand about the different types of wounds:</li><li>➤ Key points to understand about the different types of wounds:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Antidote for Benzodiazepine poisoning?(FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physostigmine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Flumazenil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-163727.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Flumazenil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Benzodiazepine poisoning is characterized by symptoms such as drowsiness, confusion, dizziness, blurred vision, weakness, slurred speech, lack of coordination, difficulty breathing, and in severe cases, coma. The antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning is Flumazenil. It acts by competitively inhibiting the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor. When administered intravenously, it rapidly reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Naloxone: Incorrect because naloxone is the antidote for opioid poisoning.</li><li>• Option B. Naloxone:</li><li>• Option C. Atropine: Incorrect as atropine is used for anticholinergic poisoning and organophosphate poisoning.</li><li>• Option C. Atropine:</li><li>• Option D. Physostigmine: Incorrect because physostigmine is used for anticholinergic toxicity.</li><li>• Option D. Physostigmine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key points to understand about benzodiazepine poisoning and its antidote:</li><li>➤ Key points to understand about benzodiazepine poisoning and its antidote:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the amount of milk given to term baby in first 24 hours after delivery? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20ml/kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40ml/kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "60ml/kg", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "80ml/kg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 60ml/kg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 60ml/kg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appropriate amount of milk or fluid to be given to a term baby in the first 24 hours after delivery is 60 ml per kg of body weight.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was brought to OPD with cola colored urine, his mother gives history of odynophagia, dysphagia, fever, and membrane over tonsils as given in image. Which among the following is likely cause? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Faucial diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vincent angina", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcal Tonsillitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral Candidiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Streptococcal Tonsillitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115631.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115646.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115658.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115709.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Streptococcal Tonsillitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Streptococcal tonsillitis is characterized by a tenacious exudate that forms a membrane over the tonsils. The image shows a thick, white exudate covering the tonsils, which is typical for streptococcal tonsillitis. This condition can present with symptoms such as fever, odynophagia (painful swallowing), dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), and cola-colored urine (a sign of possible post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Faucial diphtheria: Presents with a thick, grayish membrane that bleeds when removed. It is typically accompanied by significant cervical lymphadenopathy and neck swelling, which is not described in the case.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Faucial diphtheria:</li><li>• Option B . Vincent angina: Also known as acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, is associated with ulcerations and necrotic areas rather than forming a thick membrane over the tonsils. The description and image do not match this presentation.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Vincent angina:</li><li>• Option D . Oral Candidiasis: Generally presents with widespread white plaques that can be scraped off, revealing red, inflamed tissue underneath. The membrane shown in the image is more localized to the tonsils, which is more characteristic of streptococcal tonsillitis.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Oral Candidiasis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Streptococcal tonsillitis can present with a thick, white exudate covering the tonsils, accompanied by fever, painful swallowing, and potential complications such as post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, indicated by cola-colored urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of HIV with low CD4 count presents with the following finding. Which of the following is used in the treatment of choice? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acyclovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valacyclovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tenofovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ganciclovir", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ganciclovir", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-103542.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-103649_v7KpVOF.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ganciclovir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a case of retinitis, a common ocular manifestation in HIV patients with low CD4 counts.</li><li>• Retinitis can be caused by various pathogens, but in the context of HIV with a low CD4 count, Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis is a significant concern. This condition is typically seen when the CD4 count falls below 100 cells/mm³. CMV retinitis presents with retinal necrosis and can progress rapidly, leading to blindness if not treated promptly.</li><li>• Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis</li><li>• CD4 count falls below 100 cells/mm³.</li><li>• The treatment of choice for CMV retinitis is Ganciclovir, which can be administered intravitreally to deliver the drug directly to the affected site in the eye. Ganciclovir inhibits viral replication by targeting viral DNA polymerase, making it effective against CMV.</li><li>• intravitreally</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Acyclovir : This antiviral is used primarily for Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infections.</li><li>• Option A. Acyclovir</li><li>• Option B. Valacyclovir : This is a prodrug of acyclovir and is also used for HSV and VZV infections.</li><li>• Option B. Valacyclovir</li><li>• Option C. Tenofovir : This antiviral is used in the treatment of HIV and Hepatitis B virus (HBV) infections.</li><li>• Option C. Tenofovir</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ganciclovir is the treatment of choice for CMV retinitis in HIV patients with low CD4 counts, administered intravitreally to manage the infection effectively and prevent blindness.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Ocular manifestation of HIV –</li><li>➤ Ocular manifestation of HIV –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old man presents to the OPD with bilateral swelling of lower limbs. On examination, there is elevated JVP, hepatomegaly, and ascites. What is your provisional diagnosis? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac failure", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brain injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatic failure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cardiac failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cardiac failure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiac failure (congestive heart failure) often presents with elevated JVP, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and ascites, distinguishing it from other conditions like hepatic or renal failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient reports a painless mass that has been gradually increasing in size. An X-ray has been performed. What is the diagnosis?(FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteochondroma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple Myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ewings Sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Osteochondroma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-094115.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Osteochondroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Osteochondroma is a benign condition that typically presents as a painless, slowly growing mass near the growth plates of long bones. It's identified on X-rays by its distinct protrusion with a cartilaginous cap.</li><li>➤ Osteochondroma is a benign condition that typically presents as a painless, slowly growing mass near the growth plates of long bones. It's identified on X-rays by its distinct protrusion with a cartilaginous cap.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For MTP to be done between 20-24 weeks, what is required?(FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Consent of husband and two doctors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Consent of husband and one doctor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Consent of mother and two doctors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Consent of two doctors", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Consent of two doctors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-164559.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Consent of two doctors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act stipulates different requirements based on the gestational age of the pregnancy. For an MTP to be performed between 20-24 weeks, the consent of two doctors is required. This ensures that the procedure is considered carefully and is justified based on the health conditions of the mother or fetus.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "MC direct cause of Maternal mortality is? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post partum haemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obstructed labor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sepsis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Post partum haemorrhage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Post partum haemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-partum hemorrhage is the most common direct cause and anemia is the MC indirect cause of the maternal mortality in India, and PPH is also the overall leading cause of maternal deaths in the country.</li><li>➤ India MMR (SRS 2023) – 97 per 1 lakh live births</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When is suction and evacuation done? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "18 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 12 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 12 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Suction and evacuation, also known as dilation and evacuation (D&amp;E), is a common surgical method for medical termination of pregnancy. This procedure is typically performed up to 12 weeks of gestation (esp. for 9-12 weeks).</li><li>• The process involves:</li><li>• Dilation of the cervix : This can be achieved mechanically using instruments like Hegar's dilators or medically with misoprostol. Evacuation of uterine contents : This is done using a suction machine, which can be either a manual vacuum aspirator (MVA) or an electric vacuum aspirator (EVA). In some cases, ovum forceps may also be used to assist in the evacuation.</li><li>• Dilation of the cervix : This can be achieved mechanically using instruments like Hegar's dilators or medically with misoprostol.</li><li>• Dilation of the cervix</li><li>• Evacuation of uterine contents : This is done using a suction machine, which can be either a manual vacuum aspirator (MVA) or an electric vacuum aspirator (EVA). In some cases, ovum forceps may also be used to assist in the evacuation.</li><li>• Evacuation of uterine contents</li><li>• Medical methods of termination are usually preferred between 5 to 9 weeks of gestation. After 9 weeks, surgical methods like suction and evacuation become more effective and are the preferred option.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. 15 weeks : Beyond the recommended period for suction and evacuation; other methods may be considered.</li><li>• Option B. 15 weeks</li><li>• Option C. 6 weeks : Medical methods are often preferred at this early stage, though suction and evacuation can be performed.</li><li>• Option C. 6 weeks</li><li>• Option D. 18 weeks : Typically, more advanced surgical methods or induction of labor would be considered for termination at this stage.</li><li>• Option D. 18 weeks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Suction and evacuation is best performed up to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the preferred surgical method for early medical termination of pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old female with a history of chronic stable angina is seen in the outpatient department. She is already taking aspirin and statins, but continues to experience occasional chest pain during exertion. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice for prophylactic treatment of her angina? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sublingual nitroglycerine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous nitroglycerine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral nitroglycerine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intratracheal nitroglycerine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oral nitroglycerine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Oral nitroglycerine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oral nitroglycerine, a long-acting nitrate preparation, is the most appropriate choice for the prophylactic treatment of chronic stable angina to prevent angina episodes during exertion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old girl lately having poor scholastic performance. She complains of hearing loss for which she was brought to the clinic by her parents. She breathes with her mouth and has a low tone voice. The X-ray has been performed. On audiometry, 30dB of Bilateral CHL is diagnosed. What could be the best treatment for her? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bone anchored hearing aid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myringotomy with grommet insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115526.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The girl presents with symptoms of adenoid hypertrophy, including mouth breathing, low tone voice, and poor scholastic performance.</li><li>• The lateral view X-ray shows soft tissue opacification in the nasopharynx, indicative of adenoid hypertrophy.</li><li>• The audiometry results show bilateral conductive hearing loss (CHL) at 30dB, likely due to eustachian tube blockage and serous otitis media caused by the enlarged adenoids.</li><li>• The best treatment for this condition is adenoidectomy to remove the hypertrophied adenoids and grommet insertion to drain the middle ear fluid and alleviate the conductive hearing loss.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy: While adenoidectomy addresses the root cause, myringotomy without grommet insertion may not adequately resolve the middle ear fluid and could lead to recurrent effusions.</li><li>• Option A. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy:</li><li>• Option B. Bone anchored hearing aid: This option is typically used for specific types of hearing loss and is not the first-line treatment for conductive hearing loss caused by adenoid hypertrophy and associated otitis media.</li><li>• Option B. Bone anchored hearing aid:</li><li>• Option C. Myringotomy with grommet insertion: This addresses the middle ear effusion but does not treat the underlying cause of the adenoid hypertrophy, which would likely result in recurrent issues.</li><li>• Option C. Myringotomy with grommet insertion:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of adenoidectomy and grommet insertion effectively addresses both the cause (adenoid hypertrophy) and the symptom (middle ear effusion), providing a comprehensive treatment for bilateral conductive hearing loss in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Transport of glucose on contraluminal side of intestinal cell is: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GLUT-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "SGLT-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GLUT-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GLUT-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GLUT-2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/21/picture13_SQj66OB.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GLUT-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GLUT-2 is a glucose transporter, which is primarily found on the basolateral (contra luminal) side of intestinal cells and is involved in the transport of glucose out of the enterocytes into the bloodstream.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 187</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 187</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a recent MI underwent coronary angiography, which revealed a block in the anterior interventricular artery. The infarction is likely to be present in which of the following regions of the heart? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior part of interventricular septum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior wall of the left ventricle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral part of the heart", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inferior surface of the right ventricle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anterior wall of the left ventricle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anterior wall of the left ventricle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient with recent myocardial infarction (MI), who underwent coronary angiography, revealed a block in the anterior interventricular artery (also known as the left anterior descending artery or LAD).</li><li>• The LAD is a branch of the left coronary artery and is commonly referred to as the \"widow's artery\" due to its high incidence of involvement in angina and MI. The LAD runs along the anterior side of the heart and supplies the apex of the ventricle. The left coronary artery is the main artery supplying the left ventricle. Therefore, a block in the LAD would most likely result in an infarction in the anterior wall of the left ventricle.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Posterior part of interventricular septum: Incorrect. The posterior part of the interventricular septum is primarily supplied by the posterior descending artery (PDA), which is usually a branch of the right coronary artery (RCA) or sometimes the left circumflex artery (LCX).</li><li>• Option A. Posterior part of interventricular septum:</li><li>• Option C. Lateral part of the heart: Incorrect. The lateral part of the heart is mainly supplied by the left circumflex artery (LCX), another branch of the left coronary artery.</li><li>• Option C. Lateral part of the heart:</li><li>• Option D. Inferior surface of the right ventricle: Incorrect. The inferior surface of the right ventricle is supplied by the right coronary artery (RCA) and its branches, such as the marginal branch and the posterior descending artery (PDA).</li><li>• Option D. Inferior surface of the right ventricle:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anterior interventricular artery (LAD) supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle, and a block in this artery can lead to an infarction in this region of the heart.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old male with chronic alcohol use was admitted with complaints of unsteady gait, difficulty in seeing, and appears confused. Which vitamin is he deficient in? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vit B1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vit B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vit C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vit B3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vit B1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vit B1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wernicke's encephalopathy, characterized by the triad of global confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia (mnemonic GOA), is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1 (thiamine) and commonly occurs in individuals with chronic alcohol use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Oil droplet cataract is seen in? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myotonic dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Galactosemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wilson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Galactosemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-110032.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-110128_G2V5fLK.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-110144.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-110154.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Galactosemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Oil droplet cataract is characteristically seen in galactosemia. This type of cataract presents as a central oil droplet appearance in the lens, which is a distinctive finding in patients with this metabolic disorder. Galactosemia is a genetic condition that affects the body's ability to process the sugar galactose properly, leading to its accumulation in various tissues, including the lens of the eye, resulting in the oil droplet appearance.</li><li>• central oil droplet</li><li>• appearance</li><li>• In galactosemia, early detection and dietary management can help prevent or reduce the severity of cataracts and other complications. The mnemonic to remember this association is that \"oil\" and \"gallons\" both start with \"gal,\" linking oil droplet cataract to galactosemia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Myotonic dystrophy : The cataract seen in myotonic dystrophy is typically a Christmas tree cataract , characterized by multi-colored, glittering, needle-shaped crystals within the lens.</li><li>• Option A. Myotonic dystrophy</li><li>• Christmas tree cataract</li><li>• Option C. Wilson's disease : This condition is associated with a sunflower cataract, where deposits of copper cause a characteristic sunburst pattern in the lens.</li><li>• Option C. Wilson's disease</li><li>• sunflower cataract,</li><li>• Option D. Diabetes mellitus : Diabetic patients are more likely to develop snowflake cataracts , which are characterized by flake-like opacities within the lens.</li><li>• Option D. Diabetes mellitus</li><li>• snowflake cataracts</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oil droplet cataract is a distinctive feature seen in patients with galactosemia, a genetic disorder that impairs the metabolism of galactose, leading to characteristic changes in the lens of the eye.</li><li>➤ Oil droplet cataract</li><li>➤ galactosemia,</li><li>➤ Note – Oil droplet reflex on retinoscopy seen in - Keratoconus</li><li>➤ Note – Oil droplet reflex on retinoscopy seen in - Keratoconus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female 29 years old is on a Combined OCP regimen for contraception. All of the following cancers may be seen in her except (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Breast cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovarian cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ovarian cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ovarian cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs) have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. OCPs are protective against benign breast diseases, benign &amp; malignant ovarian diseases but have been associated with an increased risk of breast cancer and cervical cancer . Thus, ovarian cancer is the correct answer, as it is the exception.</li><li>• protective against benign breast diseases, benign &amp; malignant ovarian diseases</li><li>• increased risk of breast cancer and cervical cancer</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Breast cancer: Combined OCPs may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer.</li><li>• Option A. Breast cancer:</li><li>• Option B. Cervical cancer: There is evidence that long-term use of combined OCPs can increase the risk of cervical cancer.</li><li>• Option B. Cervical cancer:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills reduce the risk of ovarian cancer while potentially increasing the risk of breast and cervical cancers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a cystic swelling on the floor of the mouth, which appears bluish-red and transilluminates positively. What is the likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ranula", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sublingual growth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sublingual cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ranula", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ranula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A ranula presents as a bluish-red, cystic swelling on the floor of the mouth that transilluminates positively, due to the accumulation of mucous from an obstructed salivary gland.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the sign and the tendon ruptured in the image given below: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proximal biceps tendon rupture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Distal biceps tendon rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Triceps tendon rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Proximal biceps tendon rupture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/117.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/118.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/119.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Proximal biceps tendon rupture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The deformity shown in the given image in the question is seen in proximal biceps tendon rupture and is called Popeye deformity.</li><li>➤ The deformity shown in the given image in the question is seen in proximal biceps tendon rupture and is called Popeye deformity.</li><li>➤ Popeye deformity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl presented with a history of nasal obstruction for the last 2 months. A CT scan was done, and the following findings are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoid hypertrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antrochoanal polyp", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Antrochoanal polyp", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115619.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Antrochoanal polyp</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An antrochoanal polyp originates from the maxillary sinus and extends through the choana into the nasopharynx, causing nasal obstruction. The presence of a gap between the tumor and the posterior pharyngeal wall on imaging, known as the \"dot sign,\" supports this diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 48-year-old woman presents to the dermatology clinic with a persistent skin rash. Initially, she had an itchy, ring-shaped rash that partially resolved with a topical ointment. However, within a week of discontinuing the treatment, the itching returned and the rash spread. She denies any new products or environmental exposures. Physical examination reveals poorly demarcated, erythematous plaques with slight scaling scattered over her face, as shown in the image below. There are no vesicles, pustules, or signs of systemic illness. What is the most likely diagnosis?(FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tinea corporis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tinea cruris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tinea incognito", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tinea capitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tinea incognito", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-145746.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tinea incognito</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tinea incognito is a fungal infection that has been altered by the inappropriate use of topical corticosteroids. This condition often presents with atypical features compared to a classic dermatophyte infection. The history of initial improvement with a topical ointment (likely a corticosteroid) followed by a return and worsening of symptoms after discontinuation is characteristic of tinea incognito. The poorly demarcated erythematous plaques with slight scaling observed on physical examination support this diagnosis. The use of corticosteroids suppresses the inflammation and itching temporarily but allows the fungal infection to proliferate more aggressively once the treatment is stopped.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Tinea corporis : This typically presents with well-demarcated, annular, scaly plaques with central clearing and an active border, which is not the case here.</li><li>• Option A. Tinea corporis</li><li>• Option B. Tinea cruris : Usually affects the groin area and is also characterized by well-demarcated borders and central clearing, which is not consistent with the facial distribution and poorly demarcated lesions observed here.</li><li>• Option B. Tinea cruris</li><li>• Option D. Tinea capitis : This affects the scalp and hair, presenting with scaly patches, hair loss, and sometimes black dots. The facial distribution and presentation described do not match tinea capitis.</li><li>• Option D. Tinea capitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tinea incognito should be suspected when a dermatophyte infection worsens after the use of topical steroids, leading to atypical presentation and distribution of the lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the karyotype associated with this finding? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "47, XY (+21)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "45, XO", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "47, XY (+18)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "47, XY (+13)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 47, XY (+21)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-115858.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 47, XY (+21)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is the most common non-preventable cause of intellectual disability and is associated with characteristic physical findings such as a single palmar crease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Acute Hepatitis B is characterized by? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HBsAg + IgM anti-HBc", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgG anti-HBc", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "anti-HBs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBeAg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HBsAg + IgM anti-HBc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-41101-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-165209.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HBsAg + IgM anti-HBc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Acute Hepatitis B is diagnosed based on specific serological markers. The presence of Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and IgM antibodies to Hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates an acute infection. Here’s a detailed explanation:</li><li>• HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen): This antigen is present on the surface of the Hepatitis B virus and indicates an active infection. It is one of the first markers to appear in the blood following infection. IgM anti-HBc (IgM antibodies to Hepatitis B core antigen): The presence of IgM anti-HBc indicates a recent infection, as IgM is produced early in the immune response. This marker is crucial in differentiating acute from chronic infection.</li><li>• HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen): This antigen is present on the surface of the Hepatitis B virus and indicates an active infection. It is one of the first markers to appear in the blood following infection.</li><li>• HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen):</li><li>• IgM anti-HBc (IgM antibodies to Hepatitis B core antigen): The presence of IgM anti-HBc indicates a recent infection, as IgM is produced early in the immune response. This marker is crucial in differentiating acute from chronic infection.</li><li>• IgM anti-HBc (IgM antibodies to Hepatitis B core antigen):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. IgG anti-HBc: The presence of IgG anti-HBc indicates a past or chronic infection. It is not specific for acute infection.</li><li>• Option B. IgG anti-HBc:</li><li>• Option C. anti-HBs: The presence of anti-HBs antibodies indicates recovery and immunity from Hepatitis B infection, either due to past infection or vaccination.</li><li>• Option C. anti-HBs:</li><li>• Option D. HBeAg: This antigen indicates active viral replication and high infectivity but does not differentiate between acute and chronic infection.</li><li>• Option D. HBeAg:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute Hepatitis B is characterized by the presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc, which indicate an active and recent infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per WHO categorization of bioterrorism agents, Anthrax belongs to (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Category A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Category B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Category C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Category D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Category A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-122625.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Category A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anthrax is the MC used bioterrorism agent Small pox is the most dangerous bioterrorism agent Botulism most lethal toxin wise bioterrorism agent</li><li>➤ Anthrax is the MC used bioterrorism agent</li><li>➤ Small pox is the most dangerous bioterrorism agent</li><li>➤ Botulism most lethal toxin wise bioterrorism agent</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy with ASOM underwent treatment for the same. Now he presents with subsidence of pain but persistence of deafness. On examination of TM, the following findings are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ototoxicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secretory otitis media", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adhesive otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tympanosclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Secretory otitis media", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114119.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114133.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114201.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Secretory otitis media</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The boy has undergone treatment for Acute Suppurative Otitis Media (ASOM) and now presents with subsidence of pain but persistence of deafness. The otoscopic examination reveals air-fluid levels behind an intact tympanic membrane, indicative of fluid in the middle ear. This condition is known as secretory otitis media (also called otitis media with effusion), where the middle ear is filled with sterile fluid, leading to conductive hearing loss.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ototoxicity: Ototoxicity refers to damage to the inner ear structures, particularly the hair cells, due to exposure to certain ototoxic drugs (e.g., aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, cisplatin). This results in sensorineural hearing loss and is not characterized by air-fluid levels in the middle ear.</li><li>• Option A. Ototoxicity:</li><li>• Option C. Adhesive otitis media: Adhesive otitis media is characterized by the retraction of the tympanic membrane, which adheres to the medial wall of the middle ear. This condition results from chronic eustachian tube dysfunction and does not typically present with air-fluid levels as seen in secretory otitis media.</li><li>• Option C. Adhesive otitis media:</li><li>• Option D. Tympanosclerosis: Tympanosclerosis involves the formation of calcium plaques within the fibrous layer of the tympanic membrane or middle ear due to recurrent infections. This leads to stiffening of the tympanic membrane and conductive hearing loss. The otoscopic findings show calcific deposits, not fluid levels.</li><li>• Option D. Tympanosclerosis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secretory otitis media is characterized by the presence of sterile fluid in the middle ear, resulting in conductive hearing loss, and is often seen following the treatment of ASOM.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the OPD with a history of burn wound on the lower limb. His wound is given in the picture. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Marjolin's Ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venous Ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arterial Ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infected burn wound", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Marjolin's Ulcer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-144306.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Marjolin's Ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marjolin's ulcer is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that occurs in chronic wounds, including long-standing burn wounds.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this instrument: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leech Wilkinson cannula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Verres needle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trocar and cannula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Verres needle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-172935.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-173035.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-173046.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-194253.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Verres needle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The instrument shown in the image is a Verres needle, which is commonly used in laparoscopic surgeries to create pneumoperitoneum. Pneumoperitoneum is the introduction of gas, typically carbon dioxide, into the peritoneal cavity. This step is crucial as it provides the necessary space for the surgeon to visualize and operate within the abdomen.</li><li>• The Verres needle is inserted into the abdominal cavity, and once its correct placement is confirmed, carbon dioxide is introduced through the needle to inflate the peritoneal cavity.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Leech Wilkinson cannula : This is not typically used for creating pneumoperitoneum.</li><li>• Option A. Leech Wilkinson cannula</li><li>• Option C. Laparoscope : This is an instrument used for visual inspection of the abdominal cavity but is introduced after pneumoperitoneum is established.</li><li>• Option C. Laparoscope</li><li>• Option D. Trocar and cannula : These are used for the insertion of various instruments into the abdomen during laparoscopic surgery, but the creation of pneumoperitoneum is done first using the Verres needle.</li><li>• Option D. Trocar and cannula</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Verres needle is essential for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopic surgeries, allowing for the necessary space for safe and effective surgical procedures within the abdominal cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old HIV-positive male arrives at the hospital complaining of blurred vision and floaters in his left eye. Fundus examination reveals a pizza pie appearance and cotton wool spots, leading to a diagnosis of cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's condition? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cotrimoxazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ganciclovir", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tenofovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acyclovir", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ganciclovir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ganciclovir is the most appropriate treatment for cytomegalovirus retinitis in HIV-positive patients, as it effectively inhibits CMV replication and helps preserve vision.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-day old child presents with bilious vomiting with double bubble sign on X-ray. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infantile pyloric stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jejunal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ileal atresia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Duodenal atresia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-43417-pm-1.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Duodenal atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Duodenal atresia is diagnosed in neonates presenting with bilious vomiting and a double bubble sign on X-ray, indicating obstruction between the stomach and the proximal duodenum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis for a 34-year-old experiencing headaches, palpitations, and episodic hypertension?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adrenal adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Migraine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Temporal arteritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pheochromocytoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pheochromocytoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classic triad of headaches, palpitations, and episodic hypertension is strongly suggestive of pheochromocytoma, a condition characterized by the excessive release of catecholamines (e.g., norepinephrine) from a tumor, typically originating in the adrenal gland.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient developed involuntary purposeless movements and was found to have atrophy of the caudate nucleus on investigation. Which of the following is the trinucleotide repeats would be seen in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GAA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CTG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CAG", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CGG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CAG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CAG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Huntington’s disease is associated with CAG trinucleotide repeat expansions in the HTT gene, leading to chorea and caudate nucleus atrophy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which deformity is shown in this image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cubitus varus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cubitus valgus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gunstock deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cubitus valgus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-27%20155302.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture5_QGzAsm0.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cubitus valgus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts an outward deviation of the forearm, which is known as cubitus valgus. In a normal carrying angle, there is a slight outward angulation at the elbow joint, which is more prominent in females. However, in cubitus valgus, the forearm deviates excessively outward, beyond the normal range. This condition is generally associated with ulnar nerve injury.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cubitus varus: Cubitus varus is the opposite of cubitus valgus, where the forearm deviates inward. This condition is also known as gunstock deformity and is often seen in supracondylar fractures of the humerus, where median nerve injury may also be present.</li><li>• Option A. Cubitus varus:</li><li>• Option C. Gunstock deformity: Gunstock deformity is another term for cubitus varus, where the forearm deviates inward, resembling the shape of a gunstock. This is not the deformity shown in the given image.</li><li>• Option C. Gunstock deformity:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cubitus valgus is an outward deviation of the forearm at the elbow joint, beyond the normal carrying angle, and is generally associated with ulnar nerve injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with dermatitis and loss of appetite. He also gives a frequent history of diarrhoea. On examination, alopecia also seen and patient has observed that he has delayed wound healing. This patient is most likely to have deficiency of: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zinc", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zinc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/21/picture10_1YJKWfV.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Zinc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The symptoms described, including dermatitis, loss of appetite, diarrhea, alopecia, and delayed wound healing, are consistent with a disease known as Acrodermatitis Enteropathica due to zinc deficiency. Zinc is an essential trace element that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including immune function, wound healing, and maintenance of skin and hair. Symptoms of this disease are:</li><li>➤ Simultaneous diarrhoea + dermatitis Inflammation around nose, mouth, anus, cheeks, elbow etc. It also occurs in some infants after weaning from breast milk as breast milk has picolinic acid (piconilic acid increases Zn absorption from intestine)</li><li>➤ Simultaneous diarrhoea + dermatitis</li><li>➤ Inflammation around nose, mouth, anus, cheeks, elbow etc.</li><li>➤ It also occurs in some infants after weaning from breast milk as breast milk has picolinic acid (piconilic acid increases Zn absorption from intestine)</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of Medical biochemistry 3rd edition Page no. 414</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of Medical biochemistry 3rd edition Page no. 414</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male, diagnosed with thalassemia, is experiencing iron overload due to repeated blood transfusions over the years. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate for managing his chronic iron overload? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desferrioxamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deferiprone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Deferiprone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Deferiprone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deferiprone is an effective oral iron chelator used to manage chronic iron overload in thalassemia patients, making it a convenient and appropriate choice for reducing excess iron levels resulting from repeated blood transfusions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person presents in ENT OPD having nasal blockage with crusts, foul-smelling discharge, and hyposmia. On examination, nose is hard, and biopsy reveals following histopathological findings. What is the likely cause of his condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rhinosporidium seeberi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klebsiella ozaenae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Autoimmunity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115738.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115751.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115806.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation of nasal blockage, crusts, foul-smelling discharge, and hyposmia, along with the finding of a hard nose and the specific histopathological findings in the biopsy (such as Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies), are indicative of rhinoscleroma caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis. Rhinoscleroma is a chronic granulomatous condition that leads to the hardening of the nasal tissues.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Rhinosporidium seeberi: This condition would show sporangia containing endospores on histopathology, which is not seen in this case.</li><li>• Option A. Rhinosporidium seeberi:</li><li>• Option B. Klebsiella ozaenae: Typically causes atrophic rhinitis characterized by foul-smelling discharge and crusting, but it does not cause a hard nose or the specific histopathological findings seen here.</li><li>• Option B. Klebsiella ozaenae:</li><li>• Option D. Autoimmunity: Autoimmune conditions can cause nasal symptoms but are not characterized by the specific histopathological findings of Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies.</li><li>• Option D. Autoimmunity:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rhinoscleroma, caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis, presents with a hard nose, nasal blockage, crusting, foul-smelling discharge, and specific histopathological findings such as Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with thyroid malignancy, serum calcitonin was found to be elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Follicular thyroid carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Papillary thyroid carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medullary thyroid carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaplastic carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Medullary thyroid carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Medullary thyroid carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Medullary thyroid carcinoma is the thyroid cancer associated with elevated serum calcitonin levels, distinguishing it from other types of thyroid malignancies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve seems to be damaged in the given picture? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Axillary nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Musculocutaneous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Radial nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/75.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/68_0A5MgnI.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/69_VseFAAx.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/70_aMLX3kU.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/71_mvpePC7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/72_jjwMp0n.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/79.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Radial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radial nerve injury is associated with wrist drop i.e., loss of wrist, thumb and fingers of the affected hand, as shown in the image in the question.</li><li>➤ Radial nerve injury is associated with wrist drop i.e., loss of wrist, thumb and fingers of the affected hand, as shown in the image in the question.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which hormone is increased in the condition shown in the image? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "hCG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "LH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. hCG", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-170405.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) hCG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts the classic \"snowstorm\" appearance seen on ultrasound, which is characteristic of a molar pregnancy , specifically a complete mole . In a complete molar pregnancy, there is abnormal trophoblastic proliferation and hydropic degeneration of chorionic villi, leading to the absence of fetal tissue and the characteristic ultrasound appearance.</li><li>• \"snowstorm\" appearance</li><li>• molar pregnancy</li><li>• complete mole</li><li>• The key hormone that is markedly elevated in molar pregnancy is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) . This hormone is produced in excessive amounts due to the trophoblastic proliferation. The extremely high levels of hCG are responsible for many of the symptoms and complications associated with molar pregnancies, such as hyperemesis gravidarum, early-onset preeclampsia, and ovarian theca-lutein cysts.</li><li>• human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. LH (Luteinizing Hormone) : This hormone is involved in the regulation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation but is not specifically elevated in molar pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. LH (Luteinizing Hormone)</li><li>• Option C. Estrogen : Levels of estrogen can be altered in pregnancy and other conditions but are not specifically elevated in molar pregnancy.</li><li>• Option C. Estrogen</li><li>• Option D. Progesterone : This hormone supports pregnancy, but its levels are not specifically elevated due to molar pregnancy.</li><li>• Option D. Progesterone</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hormone significantly elevated in molar pregnancy, as indicated by the ultrasound image showing a \"snowstorm\" appearance, is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adult presented with pallor, fatigue and reduced work capacity. His investigations revealed low RBC count, low hemoglobin, MCV 70fL and MCH24pg. which of the following is the following is the likely diagnosis in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folate deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anemia of chronic disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anemia due to renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Iron deficiency anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161745.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Iron deficiency anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most preferred site for the needle insertion into the thoracic cavity for the pleural fluid removal? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lower border of the upper rib", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Upper border of the lower rib", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lower border of the lower rib", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Middle of the intercostal space", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Upper border of the lower rib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture14_hnJ0Ih4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Upper border of the lower rib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most preferred site for needle insertion during a thoracentesis (removal of pleural fluid) is along the upper border of the lower rib within the intercostal space. This is because the neurovascular bundle (vein, artery, and nerve) runs along the lower border of each rib within the costal groove. Inserting the needle at the upper border of the lower rib minimizes the risk of damaging these vital structures.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Lower border of the upper rib: Inserting the needle here would increase the risk of injuring the neurovascular bundle within the costal groove of the upper rib.</li><li>• Option A. Lower border of the upper rib:</li><li>• Option C. Lower border of the lower rib: This would also pose a high risk of damaging the neurovascular bundle.</li><li>• Option C. Lower border of the lower rib:</li><li>• Option D. Middle of the intercostal space: Inserting the needle here does not provide a safe margin away from the neurovascular structures and could still lead to injury.</li><li>• Option D. Middle of the intercostal space:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For thoracentesis, always insert the needle at the upper border of the lower rib in the intercostal space to avoid damaging the neurovascular bundle located in the costal groove of the upper rib.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All the following side effects of lithium, likely to occur after 1 year of treatment except- (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tardive Dyskinesia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tremors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tardive Dyskinesia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tardive Dyskinesia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While tremors, hypothyroidism, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus are potential side effects of lithium that may occur after a year of treatment, tardive dyskinesia is typically associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child presents with the following lesions that started 2 days after he developed a fever. On examination, there are generalized vesicular eruptions over the trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Smallpox", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chickenpox", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Monkeypox", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shingles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chickenpox", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-160525.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chickenpox</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The description and image provided indicate a diagnosis of chickenpox (varicella). Key features include:</li><li>• chickenpox</li><li>• Generalized vesicular eruptions over the trunk. The lesions appear as \"dew drops on a rose petal,\" which is characteristic of chickenpox. Chickenpox lesions are typically in various stages of development (macules, papules, vesicles, and crusts) at the same time.</li><li>• Generalized vesicular eruptions over the trunk.</li><li>• Generalized vesicular eruptions</li><li>• The lesions appear as \"dew drops on a rose petal,\" which is characteristic of chickenpox.</li><li>• Chickenpox lesions are typically in various stages of development (macules, papules, vesicles, and crusts) at the same time.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Smallpox: Presents with a more uniform appearance of lesions and typically starts on the face and extremities.</li><li>• Option A. Smallpox:</li><li>• Option C. Monkeypox: Presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, and a rash that is similar to smallpox but usually more severe.</li><li>• Option C. Monkeypox:</li><li>• Option D. Shingles: Generally presents in a dermatomal distribution and occurs in older individuals or those with a history of varicella.</li><li>• Option D. Shingles:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chickenpox is characterized by generalized vesicular eruptions that look like \"dew drops on a rose petal\" and appear in various stages simultaneously.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bacillus anthracis is which category of bioweapon? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Category A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Category B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Category C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Category D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Category A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-52655-pm-1.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-52655-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-163136.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Category A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bacillus anthracis is classified as a Category A bioweapon due to its high potential for causing significant public health impact through easy dissemination and high mortality rates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient with celiac disease is recommended a gluten-free diet. Which among the following can she consume?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wheat", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barley", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oats", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rice", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rice", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rice</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Celiac disease requires a strict gluten-free diet to avoid triggering symptoms. Gluten is found in certain grains, specifically:</li><li>• Mnemonic - BROW</li><li>• Mnemonic - BROW</li><li>• Barley Rye Oats (unless specifically labeled gluten-free due to potential cross-contamination) Wheat</li><li>• Barley</li><li>• Barley</li><li>• Rye</li><li>• Rye</li><li>• Oats (unless specifically labeled gluten-free due to potential cross-contamination)</li><li>• Oats</li><li>• Wheat</li><li>• Wheat</li><li>• Rice is naturally gluten-free and safe for consumption by individuals with celiac disease.</li><li>• Rice</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Wheat: Contains gluten and must be avoided.</li><li>• Option A. Wheat:</li><li>• Option B. Barley: Contains gluten and must be avoided.</li><li>• Option B. Barley:</li><li>• Option C. Oats: Often contaminated with gluten unless specifically labeled gluten-free and should be avoided unless confirmed to be safe.</li><li>• Option C. Oats:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Individuals with celiac disease should avoid wheat, barley, rye, and oats unless specifically labelled gluten-free, while rice is a safe option.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What percentage of increase in FEV1 represents the minimum change required to demonstrate the reversibility of obstruction after administration of bronchodilators in bronchial asthma?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt; 12%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt; 20%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt; 10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 18%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. > 12%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) &gt; 12%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• To diagnose bronchial asthma, it is essential to demonstrate the reversibility of airway obstruction. This is typically assessed by measuring the increase in FEV1 (Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second) after the administration of a bronchodilator .</li><li>• reversibility of airway obstruction.</li><li>• increase in FEV1</li><li>• after the administration of a bronchodilator</li><li>• The criteria for significant reversibility in FEV1 are:</li><li>• An increase in FEV1 of more than 12% from the baseline. An absolute increase in FEV1 of more than 200 ml.</li><li>• An increase in FEV1 of more than 12% from the baseline.</li><li>• more than 12%</li><li>• An absolute increase in FEV1 of more than 200 ml.</li><li>• more than 200 ml.</li><li>• These criteria confirm that the obstruction is reversible, which is a hallmark of asthma.</li><li>• Note - Criterion is used for assessing peak flow rate (PFR) variability is &gt; 20% .</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• &gt; 20%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A minimum increase of more than 12% in FEV1 after bronchodilator administration is required to demonstrate the reversibility of airway obstruction in bronchial asthma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following will you NOT do induction of labor? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oligohydramnios", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Central Placenta Previa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PROM", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Central Placenta Previa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Central Placenta Previa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Induction of labor involves starting labor artificially in a patient who is not already in labor, usually to expedite delivery due to various maternal or fetal indications such as fetal growth restriction, post-term pregnancy, oligohydramnios, or preeclampsia. The goal of induction is to achieve vaginal delivery.</li><li>• achieve vaginal delivery.</li><li>• However, induction is contraindicated in situations where vaginal delivery is not possible or safe, as in central placenta previa, where the placenta completely covers the cervical os. Attempting vaginal delivery in this situation can lead to severe hemorrhage as contractions begin. Therefore, a cesarean section is indicated for central placenta previa to avoid the risk of bleeding and ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Oligohydramnios : Induction is indicated to avoid complications from low amniotic fluid.</li><li>• Option A. Oligohydramnios</li><li>• Option C. Hypertension : Induction is recommended at 37 weeks for mild preeclampsia and at 34 weeks for severe preeclampsia to prevent maternal and fetal complications.</li><li>• Option C. Hypertension</li><li>• Option D. PROM : Induction is required if labor does not start spontaneously to prevent infection.</li><li>• Option D. PROM</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Induction of labor is contraindicated in central placenta previa due to the risk of severe hemorrhage, necessitating a cesarean section for safe delivery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with Celiac disease can be given: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sooji", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rice", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oat", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Broken wheat/daliya", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rice", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rice</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac patients must avoid gluten-containing grains like barley, rye, oats, and wheat (BROW). Rice is a safe and gluten-free option for these patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented to your clinic with complaints of severe respiratory distress, chin swelling, and difficulty in opening mouth. He gives a history of dental infection a week ago. Examination findings given below. What is the next step in management? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Early intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "External Incision and Drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibiotics and Peroral Incision and Drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tracheostomy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tracheostomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115724.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tracheostomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The child presents with severe respiratory distress and swelling suggestive of Ludwig's angina, a severe cellulitis of the submandibular space. This condition can rapidly compromise the airway by pushing the anterior respiratory wall posteriorly, leading to obstruction. Given the severity of the respiratory distress, securing the airway is the priority, and tracheostomy is the recommended emergency procedure to ensure an adequate airway.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Early intubation: While securing the airway is critical, intubation can be challenging and potentially hazardous in the presence of significant submandibular swelling.</li><li>• Option A. Early intubation:</li><li>• Option B. External Incision and Drainage: This may be necessary after securing the airway but is not the immediate step in severe respiratory distress.</li><li>• Option B. External Incision and Drainage:</li><li>• Option C. Antibiotics and Peroral Incision and Drainage: Antibiotics are essential, but in the acute setting of airway compromise, they do not provide immediate relief.</li><li>• Option C. Antibiotics and Peroral Incision and Drainage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of severe respiratory distress due to Ludwig's angina, a tracheostomy is the immediate step to secure the airway and prevent obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle aged lady presented with difficulty in swallowing food and gritty sensation in the eyes. She is also having autoantibodies in her blood sample. What is the likely diagnosis in her? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SLE", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systemic sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sjogren syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mixed connective tissue disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sjogren syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sjogren syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sjogren syndrome is characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth due to autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands, often accompanied by specific autoantibodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diarrhea, falling leaf motility, 4 pairs of flagella, tennis racket shape are seen in? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Giardia lamblia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Listeria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichomonas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Balantidium coli", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Giardia lamblia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-163245.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-163344.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-163509.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture2.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Giardia lamblia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes gastrointestinal illness, typically presenting with diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and malabsorption. The characteristic \"falling leaf\" motility and the presence of four pairs of flagella (eight flagella in total) are key diagnostic features.</li><li>• The characteristic \"falling leaf\" motility and the presence of four pairs of flagella (eight flagella in total) are key diagnostic features.</li><li>• Giardia lamblia exists in two forms:</li><li>• Trophozoite: The active, motile form. It has a distinctive shape often described as a tennis racket, teardrop, or monkey face. The trophozoite has two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and two parabasal bodies. Cyst: The infective form. It is oval-shaped with a thick wall, containing four nuclei when mature. The cyst form is responsible for transmission through contaminated water or food.</li><li>• Trophozoite: The active, motile form. It has a distinctive shape often described as a tennis racket, teardrop, or monkey face. The trophozoite has two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and two parabasal bodies.</li><li>• Trophozoite:</li><li>• Cyst: The infective form. It is oval-shaped with a thick wall, containing four nuclei when mature. The cyst form is responsible for transmission through contaminated water or food.</li><li>• Cyst:</li><li>• The images provided show the trophozoite of Giardia lamblia with its characteristic features, including the flagella and the distinctive shape.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Listeria: Listeria is a bacterium, not a protozoan. It does not exhibit the described features of falling leaf motility or multiple flagella.</li><li>• Option B. Listeria:</li><li>• Option C. Trichomonas: Trichomonas is a flagellated protozoan but does not have the same morphological characteristics as Giardia lamblia. It typically affects the urogenital tract rather than causing diarrhea.</li><li>• Option C. Trichomonas:</li><li>• Option D. Balantidium coli: This is a ciliated protozoan that causes dysentery, not typically associated with the described motility or flagella characteristics of Giardia.</li><li>• Option D. Balantidium coli:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Giardia lamblia is identified by its unique \"falling leaf\" motility, presence of four pairs of flagella, and its characteristic tennis racket or teardrop shape in its trophozoite form. It is a common cause of diarrhea and gastrointestinal discomfort.</li><li>➤ Additional Information:</li><li>➤ Additional Information:</li><li>➤ Classification:</li><li>➤ Classification:</li><li>➤ Life cycle</li><li>➤ Life cycle</li><li>➤ Malabsorption syndrome</li><li>➤ Malabsorption syndrome</li><li>➤ Abdominal pain , Nausea and vomiting Malabsorption of fat (steatorrhea) → leads to foul smelling profuse frothy diarrhea Malabsorption of Disaccharidase (lactose, xylose) → leading to lactose intolerance Malabsorption of vitamin A, B12 and iron Protein loosing enteropathy.</li><li>➤ Abdominal pain , Nausea and vomiting</li><li>➤ Malabsorption of fat (steatorrhea) → leads to foul smelling profuse frothy diarrhea</li><li>➤ Malabsorption of Disaccharidase (lactose, xylose) → leading to lactose intolerance</li><li>➤ Malabsorption of vitamin A, B12 and iron</li><li>➤ Protein loosing enteropathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Graph of cooling of the body? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sigmoid shaped", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inverted sigmoid shaped", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parabola", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "S shaped", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sigmoid shaped", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sigmoid shaped</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The graph of cooling of the body is best described as sigmoid shaped, indicating the initial slow cooling followed by a steady decrease and stabilization of temperature. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Primary effusion lymphoma is caused by which of the following viruses? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HHV 8", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "EBV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HHV 8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HHV 8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HHV 8 causes Castleman disease, Kaposi sarcoma and primary effusion lymphoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old presents with chronic dacryocystitis. What should be the treatment of choice? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lacrimal sac massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syringing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dacryocystorhinostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Probing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dacryocystorhinostomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dacryocystorhinostomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) is the treatment of choice for chronic dacryocystitis in adults , involving the creation of a new drainage pathway between the lacrimal sac and the middle meatus of the nasal cavity to bypass the blocked nasolacrimal duct.</li><li>➤ adults</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with vertical diplopia while walking downstairs. To correct that, he tilts the head on one shoulder. Which nerve palsy is suspected?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3rd CN palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4th CN palsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "6th CN palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "7th CN palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4th CN palsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-115707.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 4th CN palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presenting with vertical diplopia while walking downstairs and tilting the head on one shoulder to correct the vision suggests a 4th cranial nerve (CN) palsy. The 4th cranial nerve, also known as the trochlear nerve, innervates the superior oblique muscle.</li><li>• superior oblique muscle.</li><li>• The primary actions of the superior oblique muscle include intorsion, depression, and abduction of the eye.</li><li>• intorsion,</li><li>• When there is a palsy of the 4th cranial nerve, the affected eye may have difficulty performing these movements, leading to vertical diplopia. Patients often adopt a compensatory head tilt to align the eyes properly and alleviate the double vision. The head tilt is typically towards the shoulder opposite the affected eye, compensating for the muscle's inability to properly intort and depress the eye.</li><li>• compensatory head tilt to align the eyes</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 3rd CN palsy : This palsy typically presents with ptosis (drooping eyelid) and an eye that is deviated down and out. Patients often lift their chin to see beneath the drooping lid, not to correct vertical diplopia.</li><li>• Option A. 3rd CN palsy</li><li>• Option C. 6th CN palsy : The 6th cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle, responsible for abduction of the eye. A palsy here would result in horizontal diplopia, not vertical diplopia, and the patient might turn their head to compensate, not tilt it.</li><li>• Option C. 6th CN palsy</li><li>• Option D. 7th CN palsy : This nerve controls facial muscles, and its palsy leads to facial muscle weakness or paralysis, not issues related to eye movement or diplopia.</li><li>• Option D. 7th CN palsy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 4th cranial nerve palsy (trochlear nerve palsy) leads to vertical diplopia, which patients often compensate for by tilting their head to the opposite shoulder to align the eyes and improve vision.</li><li>➤ Mnemonic – SO4 LR6 and rest all by cranial nerve 3</li><li>➤ Mnemonic – SO4 LR6 and rest all by cranial nerve 3</li><li>➤ Superior oblique by 4 th CN; Lateral rectus by 6 th CN and Rest all muscle by 3 rd CN</li><li>➤ Superior oblique by 4 th CN; Lateral rectus by 6 th CN and Rest all muscle by 3 rd CN</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is correct about triage? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red: ambulatory", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow: urgent care needed", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Black: minor injuries", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Green: immediate life threatening", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Yellow: urgent care needed", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-113927.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Yellow: urgent care needed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Yellow in triage signifies that urgent care is needed, such as for open fractures or degloving injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented to the clinic with complaints of malnutrition and dehydration without shock. What should be the treatment of choice for this patient? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NS (Normal Saline)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RL in 5% Dextrose (Ringer's Lactate in 5% Dextrose)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DNS (Dextrose Normal Saline)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ORS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a child with severe acute malnutrition (SAM) and dehydration without shock, the fluid of choice is ORS.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which congenital deformity is shown in the image? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anencephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anencephaly, craniorachischisis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meningomyelocele, anencephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spina bifida occulta, anencephaly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anencephaly, craniorachischisis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture15_kFEZ9Yf.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture171.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anencephaly, craniorachischisis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a congenital deformity characterized by the absence of the cranial vault (anencephaly) and the exposure of the entire spinal cord due to the non-fusion of the neural tube (craniorachischisis).</li><li>• Anencephaly is a severe congenital condition where a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp is absent. This occurs due to the failure of the anterior neuropore to close during embryonic development. Craniorachischisis involves the failure of closure of both the anterior and posterior neuropores, leading to the exposure of the brain and spinal cord. The entire neural tube remains open, resulting in severe defects.</li><li>• Anencephaly is a severe congenital condition where a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp is absent. This occurs due to the failure of the anterior neuropore to close during embryonic development.</li><li>• Anencephaly</li><li>• Craniorachischisis involves the failure of closure of both the anterior and posterior neuropores, leading to the exposure of the brain and spinal cord. The entire neural tube remains open, resulting in severe defects.</li><li>• Craniorachischisis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Anencephaly: This option only accounts for the absence of the cranial vault but does not include the exposed spinal cord.</li><li>• Option A. Anencephaly:</li><li>• Option C. Meningomyelocele, anencephaly: Meningomyelocele refers to a form of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges protrude through a defect in the spine. While the image does show an exposed spinal cord, it is not a localized defect as seen in meningomyelocele.</li><li>• Option C. Meningomyelocele, anencephaly:</li><li>• Option D. Spina bifida occulta, anencephaly: Spina bifida occulta is a mild form of spina bifida where the vertebral arches fail to fuse but without protrusion of the spinal contents. The image shows a more severe defect.</li><li>• Option D. Spina bifida occulta, anencephaly:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anencephaly with craniorachischisis involves the non-closure of the neural tube, resulting in the absence of the cranial vault and exposure of the spinal cord along its entire length.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following subtype of thyroid cancer is having calcitonin positivity? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Papillary cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medullary cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anaplastic cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Follicular cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Medullary cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161533.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Medullary cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient developed sudden hypertensive episode after taking wine. He is suffering from a psychiatric illness and is on medications for the same. Which is the drug he is likely to be using? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SSRIs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MAOIs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "SNRIs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TCAs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MAOIs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) MAOIs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) can cause a \"cheese reaction\" or hypertensive crisis when combined with tyramine-rich foods like wine, cheese, and pizzas due to the inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzymes and the accumulation of tyramine.</li><li>➤ tyramine-rich foods like wine, cheese, and pizzas</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the treatment of choice for a 6-year-old male who presents with a midline neck swelling that moves upward with the protrusion of the tongue?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sistrunk operation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemithyroidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total thyroidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subtotal thyroidectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sistrunk operation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sistrunk operation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Sistrunk operation is the treatment of choice for a thyroglossal duct cyst, involving the removal of the cyst, the central portion of the hyoid bone, and the tract to the base of the tongue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which type of cataract surgery is suturing with 10-0 nylon performed? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phacoemulsification", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "FLACS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Manual small incision cataract surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extra capsular cataract surgery", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Extra capsular cataract surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-111350.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Extra capsular cataract surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In extra capsular cataract extraction (ECCE), a larger incision (approximately 10 to 12 millimeters) is made at the limbus to remove the lens nucleus in one piece. Due to the size of this incision, suturing is necessary to close the wound properly. The suturing is typically performed using 10-0 nylon monofilament. This method can involve interrupted sutures or continuous suturing to ensure the wound is securely closed and to promote proper healing.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Phacoemulsification : This technique involves making a much smaller incision (around 3 millimeters or less) through which the lens is emulsified and aspirated. Suturing is generally not required because the small incision is self-sealing.</li><li>• Option A. Phacoemulsification</li><li>• Suturing is generally not required</li><li>• Option B. FLACS (Femtosecond Laser-Assisted Cataract Surgery) : This advanced technique uses a femtosecond laser to create precise incisions and to perform capsulotomy and lens fragmentation. Similar to phacoemulsification, the incisions made are small and typically do not require suturing.</li><li>• Option B. FLACS (Femtosecond Laser-Assisted Cataract Surgery)</li><li>• Option C. Manual small incision cataract surgery (SICS) : In SICS, the incision size is between 6 to 8 millimeters. Depending on the quality of the incision and tunnel, suturing may or may not be required. Good surgical technique can often avoid the need for suturing.</li><li>• Option C. Manual small incision cataract surgery (SICS)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Extra capsular cataract extraction (ECCE) requires suturing with 10-0 nylon due to the larger incision size necessary for removing the lens nucleus in one piece.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has had his molar teeth extracted, following which he developed loss of general sensation in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Which of the following nerves is likely to be injured? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypoglossal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior alveolar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lingual nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lingual nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lingual nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The innervation of the tongue is divided into three parts: anterior two-thirds, posterior one-third, and posterior most part.</li><li>• The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is derived from the first pharyngeal arch, innervated by the mandibular nerve (a branch of the trigeminal nerve ). The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve, supplies general sensation (pain, temperature, and touch) to this part of the tongue. However, taste sensation in the anterior two-thirds is carried by the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII).</li><li>• ). The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve, supplies general sensation (pain, temperature, and touch) to this part of the tongue.</li><li>• The posterior one-third of the tongue is derived from the third pharyngeal arch and is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which carries both general and taste sensation.</li><li>• The posterior most part of the tongue is derived from the fourth pharyngeal arch and is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X), which carries both general and taste sensation.</li><li>• Tongue development:</li><li>• Tongue development:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Glossopharyngeal nerve: Incorrect. The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the posterior one-third of the tongue, not the anterior two-thirds.</li><li>• Option A. Glossopharyngeal nerve:</li><li>• Option B. Hypoglossal nerve: Incorrect. The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to the tongue muscles and does not carry sensory fibers.</li><li>• Option B. Hypoglossal nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Inferior alveolar nerve: Incorrect. The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of the mandibular nerve that supplies the lower teeth, gingiva, and lower lip, but not the tongue.</li><li>• Option C. Inferior alveolar nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve (trigeminal nerve), supplies general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the drug used for refraction in a child with squint? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1% Atropine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tropicamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Homatropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyclopentolate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1% Atropine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1% Atropine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 1% Atropine is the preferred drug for refraction in a child (&lt;7 yr children) with squint, particularly because it is the strongest cycloplegic agent available.</li><li>• Children often have strong accommodation, which can interfere with accurate refraction, especially in cases of accommodative esotropia. Using a potent cycloplegic like 1% atropine helps to fully relax the accommodation, allowing for precise measurement of refractive errors.</li><li>• Atropine 1% is typically preferred in ointment form due to its longer duration of action and ease of application. The ointment can be applied to the eyelashes or lower lid, ensuring widespread coverage over the entire eye surface. This is especially useful for children under the age of 7 who require thorough cycloplegia for accurate refraction.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tropicamide : This is a short-acting cycloplegic used primarily in adults. It is not strong enough to overcome the strong accommodation seen in children.</li><li>• Option B. Tropicamide</li><li>• Option C. Homatropine : Although it has cycloplegic properties, it is less potent than atropine and not the first choice for children with squint.</li><li>• Option C. Homatropine</li><li>• Option D. Cyclopentolate : This is another cycloplegic agent used in children, but it is less potent than atropine. It can be used if atropine is not available or in specific cases where a slightly less strong cycloplegic is sufficient.</li><li>• Option D. Cyclopentolate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1% Atropine is the drug of choice for refraction in children with squint due to its strong cycloplegic effect, ensuring accurate measurement of refractive errors by fully relaxing accommodation.</li><li>➤ Mnemonic – ACHT - Order of Potency -</li><li>➤ Mnemonic – ACHT</li><li>➤ A tropine strongest potency C yclopentolate H omatropine T ropicamide</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ H</li><li>➤ T</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thyroid hormones play a crucial role in metabolism, growth, and development. They exert their effects through specific receptor types in target cells. Through which type of receptor does thyroid hormone primarily act? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytoplasmic receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tyrosine kinase receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nuclear receptors", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "G-protein coupled receptors (GPCR)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nuclear receptors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Nuclear receptors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thyroid hormones primarily exert their effects through nuclear receptors, influencing gene transcription and various physiological processes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with weight loss and malabsorption on eating specific food materials. She has been diagnosed with gluten sensitive enteropathy. Which of the following can be the safest food given to her? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maida", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Semolina", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oat cookies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rice", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rice", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rice</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The patients of gluten sensitive enteropathy should not be given the gluten rich cereals like BROW (Barley, Rye, Oat and Wheat) cereals or their derivatives like maida, sooji/semolina (as these are wheat products). So, the safest food for such patients would be rice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes to the ER with a headache, describing it as the worst headache of his life. Initial NCCT shows SAH. What is the next step?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT Angiography", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lumbar puncture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRI brain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "V-P shunt", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CT Angiography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CT Angiography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The description of the \"worst headache of his life\" is highly suggestive of a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). When an initial non-contrast CT (NCCT) confirms SAH, the next step is to identify the source of bleeding, which is most commonly an aneurysm.</li><li>• CT Angiography is the preferred next step to localize the aneurysm and plan further management.</li><li>• CT Angiography</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Lumbar puncture: Indicated if the initial CT scan is negative and there is still suspicion of SAH, to check for xanthochromia.</li><li>• Option B. Lumbar puncture:</li><li>• Option C. MRI brain: Not the initial choice for acute SAH diagnosis or aneurysm localization.</li><li>• Option C. MRI brain:</li><li>• Option D. V-P shunt: Used for hydrocephalus management, not for immediate SAH diagnosis and management.</li><li>• Option D. V-P shunt:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with confirmed subarachnoid hemorrhage on CT, the next step is CT Angiography to identify and localize the source of bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of bilious vomiting. Below is an X-ray image of the abdomen: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jejunal Atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Volvulus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Duodenal atresia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-094046.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Duodenal atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"double bubble\" sign on an abdominal X-ray in a neonate with bilious vomiting is highly suggestive of duodenal atresia. This condition requires surgical intervention, and timely diagnosis is crucial to manage potential complications and outcomes effectively.</li><li>➤ The \"double bubble\" sign on an abdominal X-ray in a neonate with bilious vomiting is highly suggestive of duodenal atresia. This condition requires surgical intervention, and timely diagnosis is crucial to manage potential complications and outcomes effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Chronic alcoholic patient presented with confusion, Wernicke's aphasia and unstable gate. Patient has deficiency of: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vit B1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vit C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vit D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vit B3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vit B1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vit B1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The symptoms described, including confusion, Wernicke's aphasia, and an unstable gait, are indicative of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which is often associated with thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Chronic alcoholism can lead to poor nutritional intake and impaired absorption of essential nutrients, including thiamine. Thiamine is essential for the metabolism of glucose, and its deficiency can result in neurological symptoms.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 542</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 542</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old male patient presents with profuse spontaneous nasal bleeding in ENT emergency. On physical examination: Patient seems pale having Hb: 9 gm/dl. On CECT: a mass is seen which pushes septum to the contralateral side &amp; anterior bowing of maxillary antrum is seen. All of the given statements are true regarding this mass except? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Most commonly seen in adolescent male", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Can spread to orbit", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Best treated by radiation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Can spread intracranially", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Best treated by radiation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/untitled-5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Best treated by radiation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The patient’s symptoms and examination findings, including profuse spontaneous nasal bleeding, pallor, and a mass pushing the septum to the contralateral side with anterior bowing of the maxillary antrum (Colman-Miller sign), are indicative of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (JNA). This condition is most commonly seen in adolescent males, can spread to the orbit and intracranially, but it is not best treated by radiation. The primary treatment for JNA is surgical resection, not radiation therapy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Most commonly seen in adolescent male: This is correct. JNA predominantly affects adolescent males.</li><li>• Option A. Most commonly seen in adolescent male:</li><li>• Option B. Can spread to orbit: This is correct. JNA can extend into the orbit due to its aggressive nature.</li><li>• Option B. Can spread to orbit:</li><li>• Option D. Can spread intracranially: This is correct. JNA can invade the cranial cavity, leading to significant complications.</li><li>• Option D. Can spread intracranially:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (JNA) is a condition that is most commonly seen in adolescent males and primarily treated with surgical resection, not radiation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At the 5th postnatal day, a woman presents with sadness, irritability, restlessness, and reduced sleep. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Postpartum blues", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postpartum depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Postpartum anxiety", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Postpartum psychosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Postpartum blues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Postpartum blues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Postpartum blues, also known as \"baby blues,\" typically occur within the first few days after delivery and can last up to two weeks. It is characterized by mood swings, sadness, irritability, restlessness, and difficulty sleeping. These symptoms are usually mild and self-limiting, resolving on their own with support and reassurance.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Postpartum depression : This condition occurs after the first two weeks post-delivery and can persist for months. It includes more severe symptoms such as persistent sadness, lack of interest in the baby, feelings of hopelessness, and possibly suicidal thoughts.</li><li>• Option B. Postpartum depression</li><li>• more severe symptoms</li><li>• Option C. Postpartum anxiety : This condition involves excessive worry, anxiety, and often includes physical symptoms like palpitations or hyperventilation . It can occur at any time during the postpartum period.</li><li>• Option C. Postpartum anxiety</li><li>• palpitations or hyperventilation</li><li>• Option D. Postpartum psychosis : This is a rare but severe condition that usually occurs within the first few weeks after delivery. It involves symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, severe agitation, and risk of harm to the mother or baby.</li><li>• Option D. Postpartum psychosis</li><li>• severe condition</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postpartum blues are common in the first few days after delivery and are characterized by sadness, irritability, restlessness, and reduced sleep. The condition is generally mild and self-limiting, resolving with support and care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs undergoes Hofmann’s degradation? FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cisatracurium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mivacurium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancuronium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vecuronium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cisatracurium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cisatracurium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cisatracurium undergoes Hofmann elimination, which is a temperature and pH-dependent process that does not require enzymatic activity for metabolism. This makes it particularly useful for patients with certain types of organ dysfunction.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Mivacurium: It is a short-acting neuromuscular blocking agent that is primarily broken down by plasma cholinesterase and does not significantly undergo Hofmann elimination.</li><li>• Option B. Mivacurium:</li><li>• Option C. Pancuronium: This is a long-acting neuromuscular blocking agent that is primarily metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys, and it does not undergo Hofmann elimination.</li><li>• Option C. Pancuronium:</li><li>• Option D. Vecuronium: Like pancuronium, it is also metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys and does not undergo Hofmann degradation.</li><li>• Option D. Vecuronium:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cisatracurium is unique among the non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents for undergoing Hofmann elimination, a process that allows safe use in patients with hepatic and renal insufficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV positive female, who is not on antiretroviral therapy, has delivered a baby. What should be the initial treatment for the newborn? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nevirapine + Zidovudine for 6 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nevirapine for 6 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nevirapine + Zidovudine for 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zidovudine for 6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nevirapine + Zidovudine for 6 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For newborns born to HIV positive mothers not on antiretroviral therapy, the recommended initial treatment is Nevirapine and Zidovudine for 6 weeks to effectively reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient presents with difficulty in breathing and dizziness. He has been undergoing treatment for lung cancer. On examination, breath sounds were reduced over the left inferior-scapular region. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Constrictive pericarditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cardiac tamponade", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cardiac tamponade</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lung cancer can lead to cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening condition characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, impairing the heart's function and causing symptoms such as difficulty breathing and dizziness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is correct regarding the STEP (Safety, Tolerability, Efficacy, and Price) criteria concerning drugs? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is related to the volume of distribution of the drug.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is related to the P-drug concept.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is related to the metabolism of the drug in the blood.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is related to clinical trials of the drug.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is related to the P-drug concept.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It is related to the P-drug concept.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The STEP criteria (Safety, Tolerability, Efficacy, and Price) are integral to the P-drug concept, guiding healthcare professionals in selecting the most appropriate medication for their patients based on a comprehensive evaluation of these factors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old male patient presents in ENT OPD with complaints of hearing trouble from the left side of the ear for the last 2 months. The doctor performs pure tone audiometry shown below. Interpret the audiogram? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left sided conductive deafness", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left side sensorineural deafness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right sided conductive deafness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right sided sensorineural deafness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Left sided conductive deafness", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/untitled-7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Left sided conductive deafness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The pure tone audiometry (PTA) shows results for the left ear, indicated by the blue color. The audiogram demonstrates a significant air-bone gap, which is characteristic of conductive hearing loss. In conductive hearing loss, the air conduction thresholds are worse (higher dB levels) than the bone conduction thresholds, but the bone conduction remains within normal limits. This wide air-bone gap confirms the diagnosis of left-sided conductive deafness.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Left side sensorineural deafness: Sensorineural hearing loss would present with both air and bone conduction thresholds being equally impaired, without a significant air-bone gap. This is not the case here.</li><li>• Option B. Left side sensorineural deafness:</li><li>• Option C. Right sided conductive deafness: The audiogram is for the left ear (indicated by blue color), not the right ear. Hence, this option is incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Right sided conductive deafness:</li><li>• Option D. Right sided sensorineural deafness: Similarly, this option is incorrect as the audiogram provided is for the left ear, and it shows conductive, not sensorineural, hearing loss.</li><li>• Option D. Right sided sensorineural deafness:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conductive hearing loss is indicated by a significant air-bone gap on pure tone audiometry, with air conduction thresholds being worse than bone conduction thresholds, as seen in this left-sided case</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a class of 25 students, the student with the highest weight (= 39 kg) was wrongly recorded as 93 kg. What will happen to central tendency now? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mean will decrease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median will increase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both mean as well as the median will increase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mean will increase but median will remain same", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mean will increase but median will remain same", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mean will increase but median will remain same</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Errors in extreme values (highest or lowest) affect the mean but do not affect the median. In this case, the mean increases while the median remains unchanged.</li><li>➤ Note - Measures of Central Tendency –</li><li>➤ Note - Measures of Central Tendency –</li><li>➤ 1. Mean (Average): Is obtained as sum of all values divided by the no. of values.</li><li>➤ Mean = S x/n</li><li>➤ 2. Median: Middle-most value in a distribution arranged in an ascending or descending order of values.</li><li>➤ Median = ((n + 1)/2)th value in ascending order</li><li>➤ 3. Mode: Most frequent or most commonly occurring value in a distribution</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a hypopigmented lesion on his back. On examination, there is a complete loss of fine touch and temperature sensation over the lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leprosy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cutaneous tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pityriasis alba", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pityriasis versicolor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leprosy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-150532.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-150542.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-150551.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-150602.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Leprosy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leprosy should be suspected in patients with hypopigmented or erythematous skin lesions accompanied by a loss of sensation, particularly fine touch and temperature. This sensory loss is due to peripheral nerve involvement, which is a characteristic feature of leprosy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "GLUT2 is a glucose transporter that plays a significant role in maintaining glucose homeostasis. It is predominantly expressed in specific tissues, where it facilitates the bidirectional transport of glucose. In which of the following tissues is GLUT2 predominantly expressed? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skeletal muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adipose tissue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kidneys", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kidneys", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Kidneys</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GLUT2 is primarily expressed in the kidneys, liver, pancreatic β-cells, and small intestine, facilitating bidirectional glucose transport.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old patient presented with acute onset left-sided hemiparesis. The symptoms started 3 hours ago. On examination, BP is 200/100 mm Hg. CT head is shown below. Which of the following should not be done in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood pressure control", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immediate thrombolysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clotting factor administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Edema management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Immediate thrombolysis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-145400.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Immediate thrombolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient has presented with acute onset left-sided hemiparesis, and the CT scan shows evidence of intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH), indicating a hemorrhagic stroke. In the case of hemorrhagic stroke, immediate thrombolysis is contraindicated as it can worsen the bleeding. Thrombolytic agents, such as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), are used to dissolve clots in ischemic strokes but can be harmful in hemorrhagic strokes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Blood pressure control: Managing high blood pressure is crucial in patients with hemorrhagic stroke to prevent further bleeding.</li><li>• Option A. Blood pressure control:</li><li>• Option C. Clotting factor administration: In cases of hemorrhagic stroke, administering clotting factors or other agents to help control bleeding may be necessary.</li><li>• Option C. Clotting factor administration:</li><li>• Option D. Edema management: Managing cerebral edema is essential to reduce intracranial pressure and prevent further complications in hemorrhagic stroke patients.</li><li>• Option D. Edema management:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediate thrombolysis should never be administered in patients with hemorrhagic stroke, as it can exacerbate the bleeding and worsen the patient's condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the site for needle insertion in emergency thoracocentesis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Upper border of lower rib", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lower border of lower rib", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lower border of upper rib", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Middle of intercostal space", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Upper border of lower rib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Upper border of lower rib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For thoracocentesis, always insert the needle along the upper border of the lower rib to avoid damaging the intercostal vessels and nerves located at the lower border of the upper rib.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per Nutrition Guidelines of India, a 55 kg woman needs how many grams of proteins? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "45 grams", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "54 grams", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "64 grams", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "34 grams", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 45 grams", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-120537.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 45 grams</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the nutrition guidelines of India, the protein requirement for adults is based on body weight.</li><li>• The recommended daily protein intake is 0.83 grams per kilogram of body weight. For an adult reference Indian woman weighing 55 kg, this translates to approximately 45 grams of protein per day (0.83 grams/kg/day x 55 kg = 45.65 grams/day, rounded to 45 grams).</li><li>• Additional Information –</li><li>• Additional Information –</li><li>• The recommended daily energy intake: [NEW GUIDELINES 2021-22]</li><li>• The recommended daily energy intake: [NEW GUIDELINES 2021-22]</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A 55 kg woman requires approximately 45 grams of protein per day according to the nutrition guidelines of India.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person consumed 2 bottles of alcohol purchased from a local shop and presented to the emergency department with blurring of vision, nausea, confusion, and hypotension. What should be given for the treatment? (FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethyl alcohol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ethyl alcohol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-164426.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ethyl alcohol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Blurring of vision, along with other symptoms such as nausea, confusion, and hypotension, suggests methyl alcohol (methanol) poisoning. Methyl alcohol is toxic because its metabolism produces formic acid, which is particularly harmful to the eyes and can cause blindness.</li><li>• Key points to understand about methyl alcohol poisoning and its treatment:</li><li>• Key points to understand about methyl alcohol poisoning and its treatment:</li><li>• Methyl Alcohol (Methanol) Poisoning: Methanol is often used to adulterate ethyl alcohol (ethanol) in locally produced alcoholic beverages because it is cheaper and has similar initial effects. Methanol metabolism produces formic acid, which is toxic, particularly to the eyes, causing symptoms like blurring of vision. Treatment of Methanol Poisoning: Ethyl Alcohol (Ethanol): Ethanol is used as an antidote for methanol poisoning because it competes with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase, the enzyme responsible for metabolizing both alcohols. By competing for this enzyme, ethanol prevents the formation of toxic metabolites from methanol. Fomepizole (4-Methylpyrazole): Another antidote that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents the formation of toxic metabolites. Sodium Bicarbonate: Used to correct metabolic acidosis. Dialysis: Used in severe cases to remove methanol and formic acid from the blood.</li><li>• Methyl Alcohol (Methanol) Poisoning: Methanol is often used to adulterate ethyl alcohol (ethanol) in locally produced alcoholic beverages because it is cheaper and has similar initial effects. Methanol metabolism produces formic acid, which is toxic, particularly to the eyes, causing symptoms like blurring of vision.</li><li>• Methyl Alcohol (Methanol) Poisoning:</li><li>• Methanol is often used to adulterate ethyl alcohol (ethanol) in locally produced alcoholic beverages because it is cheaper and has similar initial effects. Methanol metabolism produces formic acid, which is toxic, particularly to the eyes, causing symptoms like blurring of vision.</li><li>• Methanol is often used to adulterate ethyl alcohol (ethanol) in locally produced alcoholic beverages because it is cheaper and has similar initial effects.</li><li>• adulterate</li><li>• Methanol metabolism produces formic acid, which is toxic, particularly to the eyes, causing symptoms like blurring of vision.</li><li>• Treatment of Methanol Poisoning: Ethyl Alcohol (Ethanol): Ethanol is used as an antidote for methanol poisoning because it competes with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase, the enzyme responsible for metabolizing both alcohols. By competing for this enzyme, ethanol prevents the formation of toxic metabolites from methanol. Fomepizole (4-Methylpyrazole): Another antidote that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents the formation of toxic metabolites. Sodium Bicarbonate: Used to correct metabolic acidosis. Dialysis: Used in severe cases to remove methanol and formic acid from the blood.</li><li>• Treatment of Methanol Poisoning:</li><li>• Ethyl Alcohol (Ethanol): Ethanol is used as an antidote for methanol poisoning because it competes with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase, the enzyme responsible for metabolizing both alcohols. By competing for this enzyme, ethanol prevents the formation of toxic metabolites from methanol. Fomepizole (4-Methylpyrazole): Another antidote that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents the formation of toxic metabolites. Sodium Bicarbonate: Used to correct metabolic acidosis. Dialysis: Used in severe cases to remove methanol and formic acid from the blood.</li><li>• Ethyl Alcohol (Ethanol): Ethanol is used as an antidote for methanol poisoning because it competes with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase, the enzyme responsible for metabolizing both alcohols. By competing for this enzyme, ethanol prevents the formation of toxic metabolites from methanol.</li><li>• Ethyl Alcohol (Ethanol):</li><li>• Fomepizole (4-Methylpyrazole): Another antidote that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents the formation of toxic metabolites.</li><li>• Fomepizole (4-Methylpyrazole):</li><li>• Sodium Bicarbonate: Used to correct metabolic acidosis.</li><li>• Sodium Bicarbonate:</li><li>• Dialysis: Used in severe cases to remove methanol and formic acid from the blood.</li><li>• Dialysis:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Flumazenil: Incorrect because flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning.</li><li>• Option A. Flumazenil:</li><li>• Option C. Atropine: Incorrect as atropine is used for organophosphate and other cholinergic poisonings.</li><li>• Option C. Atropine:</li><li>• Option D. Naloxone: Incorrect because naloxone is the antidote for opioid poisoning.</li><li>• Option D. Naloxone:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blurring of vision, nausea, confusion, and hypotension in the context of alcohol consumption from a local shop strongly suggest methanol poisoning. The appropriate treatment is ethyl alcohol, which competes with methanol for metabolism and prevents the formation of toxic metabolites.</li><li>➤ Table for Treatment of Methanol and Ethylene Glycol Poisoning</li><li>➤ Table for Treatment of Methanol and Ethylene Glycol Poisoning</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male presents with a fever. He is an intravenous drug user. On examination, a temperature of 38.5°C, and some spots can be noted over the fundus. CBC showed a leukocyte count of 20,000/cu mm. Blood has been sent for culture. Infective Endocarditis is suspected. How many minor Duke's Criteria are satisfied for the diagnosis? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Duke's Criteria for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis include both major and minor criteria. In this case, the minor criteria that are satisfied include:</li><li>• Fever &gt; 38°C: The patient has a fever of 38.5°C. Predisposing heart condition or intravenous drug use: The patient is an intravenous drug user. Immunologic phenomena: The presence of spots over the fundus suggests Roth spots, which are a form of immunologic phenomenon.</li><li>• Fever &gt; 38°C: The patient has a fever of 38.5°C.</li><li>• Fever &gt; 38°C:</li><li>• Predisposing heart condition or intravenous drug use: The patient is an intravenous drug user.</li><li>• Predisposing heart condition or intravenous drug use:</li><li>• Immunologic phenomena: The presence of spots over the fundus suggests Roth spots, which are a form of immunologic phenomenon.</li><li>• Immunologic phenomena:</li><li>• The other minor criteria –</li><li>• Vascular phenomena Blood culture is positive, but not meeting major criteria.</li><li>• Vascular phenomena</li><li>• Blood culture is positive, but not meeting major criteria.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 1: Only fever would be counted.</li><li>• Option A. 1:</li><li>• Option B. 2: Fever and IV drug use would be counted.</li><li>• Option B. 2:</li><li>• Option D. 4: This would require additional minor criteria that are not mentioned in the question.</li><li>• Option D. 4:</li><li>• Additional Information -</li><li>• Additional Information -</li><li>• Duke’s Major criteria for IE –</li><li>• Duke’s Major criteria for IE –</li><li>• Blood culture persistently positive for typical microorganism ( ≥3 blood culture) from different puncture sides and gap between first and last culture should be atleast 1 hour: for diagnosis 2 out of 3 culture should be positive and for the same organism. Except Q fever -Coxiella Brunetti only single culture is enough. Imaging – Positive Echocardiogram – For IE specifically Transesophageal Echo – will show vegetation near the valves</li><li>• Blood culture persistently positive for typical microorganism ( ≥3 blood culture) from different puncture sides and gap between first and last culture should be atleast 1 hour: for diagnosis 2 out of 3 culture should be positive and for the same organism. Except Q fever -Coxiella Brunetti only single culture is enough.</li><li>• Imaging – Positive Echocardiogram – For IE specifically Transesophageal Echo – will show vegetation near the valves</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In this case, three minor Duke's criteria are satisfied for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis: fever &gt; 38°C, intravenous drug use, and immunologic phenomena (Roth spots).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is NOT used as an emergency contraceptive? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulipristal acetate 30 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LNG 0.75 mg 2 tablets in 24h", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Combined OCPs 2 tablets; repeated after 12 h", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LNG 1.5 mg single tablet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. LNG 0.75 mg 2 tablets in 24h", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) LNG 0.75 mg 2 tablets in 24h</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• LNG 0.75 mg 2 tablets in 24h : This regimen is an older method that involves taking two doses of 0.75 mg levonorgestrel 12 hours apart, but it is less commonly used now compared to the single-dose 1.5 mg tablet. The preferred and current practice is the single 1.5 mg tablet.</li><li>• LNG 0.75 mg 2 tablets in 24h</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ulipristal acetate 30 mg : This is a highly effective hormonal emergency contraceptive that can be used within 120 hours (5 days) after unprotected intercourse. It is widely used in many countries.</li><li>• Option A. Ulipristal acetate 30 mg</li><li>• Option C. Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs) : This regimen involves taking two high-dose OCPs (containing 50 mcg of estrogen) initially and repeating the dose after 12 hours. Although effective, it often causes nausea and vomiting, making it less preferred today. (Yuzpe regimen)</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs)</li><li>• Option D. LNG (Levonorgestrel) 1.5 mg single tablet : This is commonly available and should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is highly effective when used promptly and is available under various brand names like I-Pill or E-Pill. (95-97% effective)</li><li>• Option D. LNG (Levonorgestrel) 1.5 mg single tablet</li><li>• Note – The overall most effective emergency contraceptive is – IUCD – used with in 5 days of unprotected Intercourse</li><li>• Note – The overall most effective emergency contraceptive is – IUCD – used with in 5 days of unprotected Intercourse</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred emergency contraceptive methods are Ulipristal acetate 30 mg and LNG 1.5 mg single tablet.</li><li>➤ LNG 1.5 mg single tablet.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under the sustainable development goal given by United Nations target for reduction of MMR by the year 2030 is (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "80/lac LB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60/lac LB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "70/lac LB", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "90/lac LB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 70/lac LB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 70/lac LB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The United Nations' Sustainable Development Goal target 3.1 aims to reduce the global Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to below 70 maternal deaths per 1 lakh (100,000) live births by the year 2030.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient working in an iron factory presents with visual disturbance and is found to have iron deposits in the eye. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this ocular finding? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chalcosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Siderosis bulbi", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kayser-Fleischer ring", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retinitis pigmentosa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Siderosis bulbi", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-103259.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Siderosis bulbi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Siderosis bulbi is caused by iron deposits in the eye, commonly seen in patients with a history of iron foreign body exposure, leading to significant ocular changes and potential blindness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct treatment protocol for pulmonary tuberculosis in children? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4HRZE + 2HR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2HRZE + 4 HRE", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2HRZE + 4 HR + corticosteroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 HRZE + 2 HRE", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2HRZE + 4 HRE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2HRZE + 4 HRE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct treatment protocol for pulmonary tuberculosis in children involves 2 months of HRZE followed by 4 months of HRE, aligning with WHO guidelines for pediatric TB treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following factors is not included in ABCD2 scoring? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "History of stroke", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. History of stroke", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) History of stroke</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The ABCD2 score is used to assess the risk of developing a subsequent stroke following a transient ischemic attack (TIA).</li><li>• The components of the ABCD2 score include:</li><li>• A (Age): Age 60 years or older scores 1 point. B (Blood Pressure): Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher, or diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher scores 1 point. C (Clinical Features): Unilateral weakness scores 2 points; speech disturbance without weakness scores 1 point. D (Diabetes): Presence of diabetes scores 1 point. D (Duration of Symptoms): Symptoms lasting 60 minutes or longer score 2 points; symptoms lasting 10-59 minutes score 1 point.</li><li>• A (Age): Age 60 years or older scores 1 point.</li><li>• A (Age):</li><li>• B (Blood Pressure): Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher, or diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher scores 1 point.</li><li>• B (Blood Pressure):</li><li>• C (Clinical Features): Unilateral weakness scores 2 points; speech disturbance without weakness scores 1 point.</li><li>• C (Clinical Features):</li><li>• D (Diabetes): Presence of diabetes scores 1 point.</li><li>• D (Diabetes):</li><li>• D (Duration of Symptoms): Symptoms lasting 60 minutes or longer score 2 points; symptoms lasting 10-59 minutes score 1 point.</li><li>• D (Duration of Symptoms):</li><li>• History of stroke is not included in the ABCD2 scoring system. Instead, it is a component of other scoring systems, such as the CHADS2 or CHA2DS2-VASc scores, which are used to assess the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation and to guide anticoagulation therapy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Age: Age 60 years or older is a factor in the ABCD2 score and scores 1 point.</li><li>• Option A. Age:</li><li>• Option B. Hypertension: Elevated blood pressure is included in the ABCD2 score and scores 1 point.</li><li>• Option B. Hypertension:</li><li>• Option C. Diabetes mellitus: The presence of diabetes is included in the ABCD2 score and scores 1 point.</li><li>• Option C. Diabetes mellitus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ABCD2 score includes age, blood pressure, clinical features, duration of symptoms, and diabetes. History of stroke is not included in this scoring system but is part of other risk assessment tools like CHADS2 and CHA2DS2-VASc</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dead body is brought for postmortem examination with stellate shaped gunshot wound and muzzle imprint. What can be the distance? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Close range", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contact shot", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intermediate Range", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distant Range", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Contact shot", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161157.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161254.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161350.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Contact shot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of a stellate shaped wound with a muzzle imprint indicates a contact shot. This is a crucial finding in forensic examinations to determine the distance of the firearm at the time of discharge.</li><li>➤ Key points to understand about gunshot wounds and range of fire:</li><li>➤ Key points to understand about gunshot wounds and range of fire:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following forms the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral margin of adductor longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medial margin of adductor longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral margin of sartorius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medial margin of sartorius", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Medial margin of sartorius", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/01.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Medial margin of sartorius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The femoral triangle is a triangular muscular depression located in the upper part of the thigh. Its boundaries are formed by the inguinal ligament (base), the medial margin of the sartorius muscle (lateral boundary), and the medial border of the adductor longus muscle (medial boundary). The apex of the triangle is formed by the intersection of the sartorius and adductor longus muscles.</li><li>• The sartorius muscle, the longest muscle in the body, originates from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and forms the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle with its medial margin. The adductor longus muscle, originating from the pubic tubercle area, forms the medial boundary of the triangle.</li><li>• The floor of the femoral triangle is formed by the adductor longus, pectineus, psoas major tendon, and iliacus muscle (Mnemonic \"APPI\"). The roof of the triangle is formed by the skin, superficial fascia, and deep fascia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Lateral margin of adductor longus: Incorrect. The adductor longus muscle forms the medial boundary of the femoral triangle, not the lateral boundary.</li><li>• Option A. Lateral margin of adductor longus:</li><li>• Option B. Medial margin of adductor longus: Incorrect. The medial margin of the adductor longus muscle forms the medial boundary of the femoral triangle, not the lateral boundary.</li><li>• Option B. Medial margin of adductor longus:</li><li>• Option C. Lateral margin of sartorius: Incorrect. The sartorius muscle forms the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle, but it is the medial margin of the sartorius that specifically forms this boundary.</li><li>• Option C. Lateral margin of sartorius:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The medial margin of the sartorius muscle forms the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle, while the medial border of the adductor longus muscle forms the medial boundary.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient sustained an injury to the head and now presents with blood collected around his eyes. Attachment of which of the following structures leads to this condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superficial fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loose areolar layer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Periosteum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pericranium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Loose areolar layer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-150223.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-150348.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Loose areolar layer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The condition, where blood collects around the eyes following a head injury, is known as \" raccoon eyes\" or \"black eyes\".</li><li>• raccoon eyes\" or \"black eyes\".</li><li>• Layers of the scalp -</li><li>• Layers of the scalp -</li><li>• The scalp consists of five layers, which can be remembered using the mnemonic \"SCALP\":</li><li>• mnemonic \"SCALP\":</li><li>• Skin Connective tissue (superficial fascia) Aponeurotic layer (epicranial aponeurosis) Loose areolar layer Periosteum (pericranium)</li><li>• Skin</li><li>• Connective tissue (superficial fascia)</li><li>• Aponeurotic layer (epicranial aponeurosis)</li><li>• Loose areolar layer</li><li>• Periosteum (pericranium)</li><li>• Among these layers, the loose areolar layer (4th layer) is the key to understanding the development of raccoon eyes. This layer lacks bony attachments anteriorly and is continuous with the eyelids. When a head injury occurs, the emissary veins or other vessels in this layer may rupture, causing blood to accumulate. Since the loose areolar layer is continuous with the eyelids, the blood can easily spread and collect around the eyes, resulting in the characteristic black eye appearance.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Superficial fascia: Incorrect. Although the superficial fascia is one of the layers of the scalp, it is not the layer responsible for the continuity with the eyelids and the development of raccoon eyes.</li><li>• Option A. Superficial fascia:</li><li>• Option C. Periosteum: Incorrect. The periosteum, also known as the pericranium, is the innermost layer of the scalp, firmly attached to the underlying bone. It does not have continuity with the eyelids and is not the cause of raccoon eyes.</li><li>• Option C. Periosteum:</li><li>• Option D. Pericranium: Incorrect. The pericranium is another name for the periosteum, the innermost layer of the scalp. It is not responsible for the development of raccoon eyes.</li><li>• Option D. Pericranium:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The loose areolar layer of the scalp, which lacks bony attachments anteriorly and is continuous with the eyelids, is responsible for the development of raccoon eyes following a head injury due to the accumulation and spread of blood from ruptured vessels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which condition is pupillary light reaction absent and accommodation reaction present? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurosyphilis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Horner’s syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Papilledema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic neuritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neurosyphilis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-113043.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Neurosyphilis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The condition described is characteristic of the Argyll Robertson pupil, which is associated with neurosyphilis. In this condition, the pupillary light reflex is absent, meaning the pupils do not constrict in response to light. However, the accommodation reflex, which involves pupil constriction when focusing on a near object, is preserved. This phenomenon is often summarized by the -</li><li>• Argyll Robertson pupil,</li><li>• neurosyphilis.</li><li>• Mnemonic \"ARP and PRA\" (Accommodation Reflex Present and Pupillary Reflex Absent).</li><li>• Mnemonic \"ARP and PRA\" (Accommodation Reflex Present and Pupillary Reflex Absent).</li><li>• The underlying mechanism involves damage to the interneurons in the pretectal area of the midbrain, which affects the light reflex pathway while sparing the accommodation pathway.</li><li>• The Near triad , consisting of accommodation, convergence, and miosis, remains intact in neurosyphilis, explaining why accommodation is preserved.</li><li>• Near triad</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Horner’s syndrome : This condition is characterized by ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis due to a disruption in the sympathetic pathways. The pupillary light reaction is not typically absent.</li><li>• Option B. Horner’s syndrome</li><li>• ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis</li><li>• Option C. Papilledema : This condition involves swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure. The pupillary light reaction is usually normal in papilledema.</li><li>• Option C. Papilledema</li><li>• swelling of the optic disc</li><li>• Option D. Optic neuritis : This inflammation of the optic nerve often leads to a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) or Marcus Gunn pupil, where the affected eye shows a reduced direct response to light. However, the accommodation reaction is not selectively preserved as described.</li><li>• Option D. Optic neuritis</li><li>• relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) or Marcus Gunn pupil,</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Argyll Robertson pupil, associated with neurosyphilis, presents with absent pupillary light reaction and preserved accommodation reaction, highlighting a distinctive neuro-ophthalmologic sign of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with curved lowered spine, shortened arms and legs, poor muscle tone and delayed milestones. His upper arms are affected more than the lower legs. Which of the following is the inheritance of the disease? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "XLD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "XLR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. AD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) AD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Achondroplasia has autosomal dominant inheritance, requiring only one copy of the mutated FGFR3 gene to cause the disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male presents with complaints of sudden, involuntary, and uncontrollable dance-like movements. He also complains of facing difficulty with his memory. His wife says he has gotten very emotional recently. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parkinson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Huntington's chorea", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Friedreich's ataxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alzheimer's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Huntington's chorea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Huntington's chorea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Huntington's disease is characterized by a triad of hyperkinetic movements (chorea), cognitive decline (dementia), and psychiatric symptoms, fitting the patient's presentation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Deficiency of which of the following nutrients can lead to delayed wound healing? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Magnesium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zinc", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manganese", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Zinc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Zinc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zinc is required for functioning of matrix metalloproteases and so, required for proper wound healing. Any deficiency of zinc can lead to delayed wound healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the next step in management for a patient with head trauma whose CT brain scan reveals an epidural hematoma (EDH) with mass effect?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "An immediate craniotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Observe", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventriculo-peritoneal shunt", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. An immediate craniotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) An immediate craniotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with head trauma and an epidural hematoma (EDH) causing mass effect (significant compression) on a CT brain scan, the next step in management is an immediate craniotomy (surgical evacuation of the hematoma) to decompress the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer is spraying an odourless chemical in the fields, which is an Inhibitor of Complex III of ETC. Identify the compound: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carboxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotenone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyanide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antimycin A", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Antimycin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Antimycin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhibitors of ETC:</li><li>➤ Inhibitors of ETC:</li><li>➤ Complex I- Rotenone, Phenobarbitone, Amobarbital</li><li>➤ Complex II- Malonate (3C), Carboxin</li><li>➤ Complex III- Phenformin, Antimycin A, BAL</li><li>➤ Complex IV- CN, CO, Sodium azide, H2S</li><li>➤ Pesticides used in agricultural fields:</li><li>➤ Pesticides used in agricultural fields:</li><li>➤ Rotenone is also an insecticide, pesticide and a herbicide Carboxin is a fungicide that is commonly used in agricultural practices Antimycin – used in agriculture to control certain pests that affect crops Cyanide</li><li>➤ Rotenone is also an insecticide, pesticide and a herbicide</li><li>➤ insecticide, pesticide and a herbicide</li><li>➤ Carboxin is a fungicide that is commonly used in agricultural practices</li><li>➤ Antimycin – used in agriculture to control certain pests that affect crops</li><li>➤ Cyanide</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 127</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 127</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old chronic alcoholic male presents with altered sensorium and unsteady gait. Vitamin deficiency most likely to be seen in this case would be (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin B1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin B1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency in chronic alcoholics can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, presenting with neurological symptoms such as altered sensorium and unsteady gait.</li><li>➤ Note - Vit. B1 deficiency also leads to Beri Beri in polished rice eaters</li><li>➤ Note - Vit. B1 deficiency also leads to Beri Beri in polished rice eaters</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly male patient who is a known case of COPD, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus visits the OPD to review his medications. Which of the following criteria should be followed by the physician during the review?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duke's criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Light criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beer's criteria", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jones criteria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Beer's criteria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Beer's criteria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Beer's criteria is a guideline used by physicians to help improve the safety of prescribing medications for older adults. It is specifically designed to avoid potentially inappropriate medications that can cause adverse drug reactions and interactions in the elderly individuals.</li><li>• avoid potentially inappropriate medications that can cause adverse drug reactions</li><li>• elderly</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Duke's criteria: Used for diagnosing infective endocarditis.</li><li>• Option A. Duke's criteria:</li><li>• Option B. Light criteria: Used for diagnosing exudative pleural effusions.</li><li>• Option B. Light criteria:</li><li>• Option D. Jones criteria: Used for diagnosing acute rheumatic fever.</li><li>• Option D. Jones criteria:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beer's criteria should be used by physicians to review and manage medications in elderly patients to minimize the risk of adverse effects and drug interactions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with seizures. His CT head reveals multiple parenchymal cysts. Which of the following is not a part of immediate management in the next 24 hours? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antiparasitic drugs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antiepileptics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-edema treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Antiparasitic drugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Antiparasitic drugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Antiparasitic drugs , such as albendazole or praziquantel , are not part of the immediate management. Starting antiparasitic treatment without adequate anti-inflammatory coverage (steroids) can worsen the patient's condition by increasing inflammation due to the destruction of the cysts.</li><li>• Antiparasitic drugs</li><li>• albendazole or praziquantel</li><li>• Antiparasitic therapy ( albendazole or praziquantel or both ) can be initiated later, typically along with steroids, to mitigate this risk.</li><li>• albendazole or praziquantel or both</li><li>• Doses –</li><li>• Albendazole – 15 mg/Kg/day (Max. of 1200 mg/day) Praziquantel – 50-100 mg/kg/day in 3 divided doses</li><li>• Albendazole – 15 mg/Kg/day (Max. of 1200 mg/day)</li><li>• Praziquantel – 50-100 mg/kg/day in 3 divided doses</li><li>• Note – Severe disease or &gt;2 cyst – Combination of both drug in doses of 15 mg/kg/day Albendazole + 50mg/kg/day Praziquantel</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• In a case of neurocysticercosis, the immediate management of a patient presenting with seizures and multiple parenchymal cysts on CT includes:</li><li>• Option B. Steroids: To reduce inflammation and surrounding edema caused by the cysts.</li><li>• Option B. Steroids:</li><li>• Option C. Antiepileptics: To control seizures, which are the most common presentation of neurocysticercosis.</li><li>• Option C. Antiepileptics:</li><li>• Option D. Anti-edema treatment: To manage any cerebral edema and prevent further complications.</li><li>• Option D. Anti-edema treatment:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the immediate management of neurocysticercosis presenting with seizures, antiepileptics, steroids, and anti-edema treatment are essential, while antiparasitic drugs can be started later.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is used for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folinic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fomepizole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Flumazenil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Flumazenil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flumazenil is used for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose due to its action as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA-A receptor, effectively reversing sedative effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A construction worker sustained a head injury from a hammer falling on his head. The CT scan image is shown as below. What is the diagnosis ?(FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidural Hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Concussion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depressed skull fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subarachnoid Hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Depressed skull fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-094201.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Depressed skull fracture</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child as shown below presented to the ENT department with the following finding. She gives complaint of recurrent bony fractures along with reduced hearing. On further investigation, Tympanometry showed the following finding. What would you name this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Waardenburg syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Van der Hoeve syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Usher's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pendred syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Van der Hoeve syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-123309.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-113956.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114007.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Van der Hoeve syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The child presents with recurrent bony fractures and reduced hearing, which are indicative of osteogenesis imperfecta (imperfectly developed bones).</li><li>• The tympanometry shows an AS type of curve, suggesting otosclerosis.</li><li>• Additionally, the child has a blue sclera, which is a characteristic feature of osteogenesis imperfecta.</li><li>• This combination of symptoms — osteogenesis imperfecta, blue sclera, and otosclerosis — forms a triad known as Van der Hoeve syndrome.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Waardenburg syndrome: Waardenburg syndrome is characterized by congenital sensorineural hearing loss and pigmentary abnormalities such as a white forelock of hair (piebaldism).</li><li>• Option A. Waardenburg syndrome:</li><li>• Option C. Usher's syndrome: Usher's syndrome is associated with retinitis pigmentosa and congenital sensorineural hearing loss.</li><li>• Option C. Usher's syndrome:</li><li>• Retinitis pigmentosa</li><li>• Option D. Pendred syndrome: Pendred syndrome includes congenital sensorineural hearing loss and goiter.</li><li>• Option D. Pendred syndrome:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Van der Hoeve syndrome is characterized by the triad of osteogenesis imperfecta, blue sclera, and otosclerosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per the latest biomedical waste management guidelines in India, the following combination is incorrect? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow bag – Deep burial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow bag – Incineration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red bag – Autoclaving", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue container – Incineration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Blue container – Incineration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Blue container – Incineration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blue containers for biomedical waste should not be incinerated but treated and then recycled as per the guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Triage is categorization of victims of Disaster. Correct match for the categories of Triage is: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red – Least priority", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Black – Minor injuries, Immediate priority", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow – Stable, Need observation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Green – Life threatening", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Yellow – Stable, Need observation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Yellow – Stable, Need observation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Triage is the process of sorting and categorizing victims based on the likelihood of survival and the urgency of their need for medical treatment.</li><li>• Triage categorizes victims to prioritize treatment based on the urgency and likelihood of survival, with yellow indicating stable patients who need observation but can wait for treatment.</li><li>• Yellow is the Minimal Category</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Red – Least priority: This is incorrect as red indicates the highest priority, requiring immediate intervention (Emergency category).</li><li>• Option A. Red – Least priority:</li><li>• Option B. Black – Minor injuries, Immediate priority: This is incorrect as black represents deceased or moribund patients, not those with minor injuries.</li><li>• Option B. Black – Minor injuries, Immediate priority:</li><li>• Option D. Green – Life threatening: This is incorrect as green indicates minor injuries that are not life-threatening and can wait for treatment.</li><li>• Option D. Green – Life threatening:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After a disaster, victims are categorized into four primary colors:</li><li>➤ After a disaster, victims are categorized into four primary colors:</li><li>➤ Red: This category includes patients who require immediate resuscitation or life/limb-saving surgery within 0-6 hours to prevent death. Yellow: These patients may require resuscitation or life/limb-saving surgery, but their treatment can be delayed up to 6-24 hours without immediate risk to life. Green: These patients have minor, non-life-threatening injuries such as small fractures, abrasions, bruises, or lacerations. They are ambulatory and can wait for medical care. Black: This category includes deceased or moribund patients who are beyond the possibility of resuscitation.</li><li>➤ Red: This category includes patients who require immediate resuscitation or life/limb-saving surgery within 0-6 hours to prevent death.</li><li>➤ Red:</li><li>➤ immediate</li><li>➤ resuscitation or life/limb-saving surgery</li><li>➤ within 0-6 hours</li><li>➤ Yellow: These patients may require resuscitation or life/limb-saving surgery, but their treatment can be delayed up to 6-24 hours without immediate risk to life.</li><li>➤ Yellow:</li><li>➤ 6-24 hours</li><li>➤ Green: These patients have minor, non-life-threatening injuries such as small fractures, abrasions, bruises, or lacerations. They are ambulatory and can wait for medical care.</li><li>➤ Green:</li><li>➤ minor, non-life-threatening injuries</li><li>➤ ambulatory</li><li>➤ Black: This category includes deceased or moribund patients who are beyond the possibility of resuscitation.</li><li>➤ Black:</li><li>➤ deceased or moribund patients</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Aspartate forms which of the following intermediate of TCA cycle: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alpha-Keto Glutarate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxaloacetate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glutamate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oxaloacetate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/21/picture12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Oxaloacetate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspartate an amino acid can be converted to oxaloacetate, an intermediate of the cycle. The conversion of aspartate to oxaloacetate is catalyzed by the enzyme aspartate transaminase.</li><li>➤ Therefore, aspartate forms glutamate as an intermediate in the TCA cycle.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 160</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 160</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the yoke muscles for levodepression? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "R LR and LMR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "R SR and LIR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "R SO and LIR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "R IO and LSO", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. R SO and LIR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-120651.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-120824.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) R SO and LIR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The yoke muscles responsible for levodepression (movement of the eyes to the left and downward) are the right superior oblique and the left inferior rectus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Enzyme deficient in homocystinuria is: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystathionine beta synthase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homocysteine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methionine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cystathionine beta synthase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cystathionine beta synthase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand the enzymatic basis of homocystinuria, recognizing that the deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase leads to the accumulation of homocysteine and methionine, contributing to the clinical manifestations of the disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument shown in the photograph: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frazier's straight suction tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nasal Hopkin's endoscope", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atomizer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tilley antral trochar and canula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nasal Hopkin's endoscope", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115242.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115257.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115308.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115334.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Nasal Hopkin's endoscope</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The instrument shown in the photograph is a Nasal Hopkin's endoscope. This endoscope is commonly used in ENT endoscopic procedures to provide a clear and magnified view of the nasal and sinus passages. It consists of a rigid rod lens system that allows visualization of the internal structures during diagnostic and surgical procedures.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Frazier's straight suction tube: Frazier's straight suction tube is a different instrument used for suction during surgeries, particularly in nasal surgeries.</li><li>• Option A. Frazier's straight suction tube:</li><li>• Option C. Atomizer: An atomizer is a device used to convert liquid medication into a fine mist for nasal application.</li><li>• Option C. Atomizer:</li><li>• Option D. Tilley antral trochar and canula: The Tilley antral trochar and canula are used for procedures such as antral lavage or drainage of the maxillary sinus, particularly in Caldwell-Luc surgeries.</li><li>• Option D. Tilley antral trochar and canula:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Nasal Hopkin's endoscope is a critical tool in ENT endoscopic procedures, providing detailed visualization of nasal and sinus structures for both diagnostic and surgical purposes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 75 year old diabetic patient presents with acute right flank pain, chills, and rigors. The following investigation has been conducted. What is the presumptive diagnosis? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cholecystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal Calculi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Papillary Necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emphysematous Cholecystitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Emphysematous Cholecystitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-094100.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Emphysematous Cholecystitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Emphysematous cholecystitis is most commonly seen in diabetic patients and shows presence of gas around the gallbladder area on the X-ray, indicated by the dark patches resembling air pockets.</li><li>➤ Emphysematous cholecystitis is most commonly seen in diabetic patients and shows presence of gas around the gallbladder area on the X-ray, indicated by the dark patches resembling air pockets.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dye factory worker with a history of benzidine exposure undergoes cystoscopy. What is the appropriate management? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV BCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystoscopy with removal of tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "TURP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radical cystectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cystoscopy with removal of tumor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-43416-pm-2.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cystoscopy with removal of tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial management of a bladder tumor seen on cystoscopy is to perform a cystoscopic removal (TURBT) to both resect the tumor and obtain a biopsy for staging and grading.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-month-old baby was brought to the ENT OPD with complaints of abnormal noise during breathing, the severity of which increases during crying. On examination, inspiratory stridors are heard and on laryngoscopy, the following finding is seen. The diagnosis would be? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laryngomalacia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital laryngeal web", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital subglottic stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congenital bilateral choanal atresia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Laryngomalacia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115407.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115421.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115435.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115447.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Laryngomalacia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The baby presents with abnormal noise during breathing that worsens with crying, and inspiratory stridor, indicating an upper airway issue. The laryngoscopy image shows an omega-shaped epiglottis, which is characteristic of laryngomalacia. Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of stridor in infants and results from the collapse of the supraglottic structures during inspiration.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Congenital laryngeal web: A congenital laryngeal web would present with a hoarse cry and respiratory distress due to the fusion of the vocal cords. The airway would be significantly compromised, as shown below.</li><li>• Option B. Congenital laryngeal web:</li><li>• Option C. Congenital subglottic stenosis: Subglottic stenosis would show a narrowed subglottic area below the vocal cords, which is not consistent with the omega-shaped epiglottis seen in the image.</li><li>• Option C. Congenital subglottic stenosis:</li><li>• Option D. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia: Choanal atresia involves the blockage of the nasal passages and presents with difficulty breathing, particularly while feeding, but does not typically present with the findings of an omega-shaped epiglottis or inspiratory stridor.</li><li>• Option D. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laryngomalacia is characterized by inspiratory stridor that worsens with crying and is identified by the presence of an omega-shaped epiglottis on laryngoscopy. It is the most common cause of stridor in infants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old man presented with back pain for the past 3 months. On examination, he has pallor, and gamma globulins are elevated. LFT is normal. X-ray spine shows multiple lytic lesions. Which of the following cells are involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasma cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histiocytes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Plasma cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Plasma cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's presentation is consistent with multiple myeloma , a plasma cell neoplasm. Key diagnostic features include:</li><li>• multiple myeloma</li><li>• Back pain: Common in multiple myeloma due to bone involvement. Pallor: Indicates anemia, a common finding in multiple myeloma. Elevated gamma globulins: Suggests a monoclonal protein spike (M spike) on serum protein electrophoresis. Multiple lytic lesions on X-ray: Classic radiographic finding in multiple myeloma due to bone destruction.</li><li>• Back pain: Common in multiple myeloma due to bone involvement.</li><li>• Back pain:</li><li>• Pallor: Indicates anemia, a common finding in multiple myeloma.</li><li>• Pallor:</li><li>• Elevated gamma globulins: Suggests a monoclonal protein spike (M spike) on serum protein electrophoresis.</li><li>• Elevated gamma globulins:</li><li>• Multiple lytic lesions on X-ray: Classic radiographic finding in multiple myeloma due to bone destruction.</li><li>• Multiple lytic lesions on X-ray:</li><li>• In multiple myeloma, malignant clonal plasma cells proliferate in the bone marrow, leading to the production of abnormal monoclonal immunoglobulins, bone destruction, and marrow infiltration.</li><li>• plasma cells</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A, B &amp; D: Not primarily involved in multiple myeloma.</li><li>• Option A, B &amp; D:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm characterized by anemia, elevated gamma globulins, and lytic bone lesions, with plasma cells being the key pathological cells involved.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to the OPD with the following presentation as shown in the image. Physical examination shows high riding medially rotated scapula, shaped like an equilateral triangle. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sprengel’s deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Separated shoulder deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Torticollis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klippel-Feil deformity", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Klippel-Feil deformity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/102.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/103.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/104.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/105.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/127.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Klippel-Feil deformity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High riding medially rotated scapula, shaped like an equilateral triangle is seen in Klippel-Feil syndrome. This occurs due to congenital fusion of one or more cervical vertebrae in the craniocervical junction and/or subaxial cervical spine.</li><li>➤ High riding medially rotated scapula, shaped like an equilateral triangle is seen in Klippel-Feil syndrome. This occurs due to congenital fusion of one or more cervical vertebrae in the craniocervical junction and/or subaxial cervical spine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under which health program, the School Health was combined in the year 2018? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anemia Mukt Bharat program", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ayushman Bharat program", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Swachh Bharat Mission", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Poshan Abhiyan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ayushman Bharat program", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ayushman Bharat program</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In 2018, the School Health program was integrated under the Ayushman Bharat program. This integration involved the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Human Resource Development. Here, School teachers to be made the Health &amp; Wellness ambassadors</li><li>• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Human Resource Development.</li><li>• Health &amp; Wellness ambassadors</li><li>• The program focuses on various health initiatives for school children are –</li><li>• The program focuses on various health initiatives for school children are –</li><li>• Iron and folic acid supplementation, Deworming with albendazole tablets , Distribution of sanitary napkins to adolescent girls, Age-appropriate vaccination, Maintenance of electronic health records , and Teaching first aid . Additionally, the program is part of the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karikram (RBSK ), targeting the screening of 30 disorders in children.</li><li>• Iron and folic acid supplementation,</li><li>• Iron and folic acid supplementation,</li><li>• Deworming with albendazole tablets ,</li><li>• Deworming with albendazole tablets</li><li>• Distribution of sanitary napkins to adolescent girls,</li><li>• sanitary napkins</li><li>• Age-appropriate vaccination,</li><li>• Age-appropriate vaccination,</li><li>• Maintenance of electronic health records , and</li><li>• electronic health records</li><li>• Teaching first aid .</li><li>• Teaching first aid</li><li>• Additionally, the program is part of the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karikram (RBSK ), targeting the screening of 30 disorders in children.</li><li>• Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karikram (RBSK</li><li>• 30 disorders</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Anemia Mukt Bharat program : This program aims to reduce anemia across the population, particularly among women and children, but it is not the program under which the School Health program was integrated in 2018.</li><li>• Option A. Anemia Mukt Bharat program</li><li>• Option C. Swachh Bharat Mission : This initiative focuses on cleanliness and sanitation across India but is not related to the School Health program integration.</li><li>• Option C. Swachh Bharat Mission</li><li>• Option D. Poshan Abhiyan : This mission targets improving nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers but does not encompass the School Health program's integration.</li><li>• Option D. Poshan Abhiyan</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In 2018, the School Health program was integrated into the Ayushman Bharat program, involving health and wellness initiatives for school children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following layers is absent in the esophagus? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Submucosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Muscularis externa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serosa", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Serosa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-145845.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-145956.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The esophagus is a tubular structure located in the thoracic cavity, connecting the pharynx to the stomach. Unlike most of the gastrointestinal tract, the esophagus lacks a serosa layer. The serosa is a thin membrane derived from the peritoneum, which is a structure found in the abdominal cavity. Since the esophagus is primarily located in the thoracic cavity, it does not have a serosa layer covering its external surface.</li><li>• However, it is important to note that the short, intra-abdominal portion of the esophagus (just before it connects to the stomach) is covered by a serosa layer derived from the peritoneum. This portion is an exception to the general rule that the esophagus lacks a serosa.</li><li>• The esophageal wall is composed of the following layers from the lumen outwards:</li><li>• The esophageal wall is composed of the following layers from the lumen outwards:</li><li>• Mucosa: The innermost layer, consisting of epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae. Submucosa: A layer of connective tissue containing blood vessels, lymphatics, and esophageal glands. Muscularis externa (or muscularis propria): Consists of an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle. Adventitia: The outermost layer of the esophagus, composed of loose connective tissue. This layer is not called serosa because it is not derived from the peritoneum.</li><li>• Mucosa: The innermost layer, consisting of epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae.</li><li>• Mucosa:</li><li>• Submucosa: A layer of connective tissue containing blood vessels, lymphatics, and esophageal glands.</li><li>• Submucosa:</li><li>• Muscularis externa (or muscularis propria): Consists of an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle.</li><li>• Muscularis externa (or muscularis propria):</li><li>• Adventitia: The outermost layer of the esophagus, composed of loose connective tissue. This layer is not called serosa because it is not derived from the peritoneum.</li><li>• Adventitia:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mucosa: Incorrect. The mucosa is present in the esophagus and forms the innermost layer.</li><li>• Option A. Mucosa:</li><li>• Option B. Submucosa: Incorrect. The submucosa is present in the esophagus and lies between the mucosa and muscularis externa.</li><li>• Option B. Submucosa:</li><li>• Option C. Muscularis externa: Incorrect. The muscularis externa is present in the esophagus and consists of two layers of smooth muscle.</li><li>• Option C. Muscularis externa:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The esophagus lacks a serosa layer because it is primarily located in the thoracic cavity, except for the short intra-abdominal portion just before it connects to the stomach.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image and make the diagnosis (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichobezoar", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Splenic rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancreatic necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polycystic kidney", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trichobezoar", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-134622.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trichobezoar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A trichobezoar is a ball of hair that accumulates in the gastrointestinal tract due to the compulsive eating of hair (trichophagia) in patients with trichotillomania, and can cause acute abdominal pain due to obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dead body of a baby is brought for autopsy which is alleged to be a case of spontaneous abortion. On autopsy, ossification center of Talus is seen. What is the minimum gestational age of baby? (FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "7 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "9 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 7 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-163941.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 7 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The appearance of the ossification center in the talus occurs at around 7 months of gestation.</li><li>• Key points to remember related to gestational age of 7 th month:</li><li>• Key points to remember related to gestational age of 7 th month:</li><li>• Ossification centre - Talus, S2, and S3: Appear at 7 months of intrauterine age. Age of Viability: 7 months of gestation, the child can have a separate existence from the mother.</li><li>• Ossification centre - Talus, S2, and S3: Appear at 7 months of intrauterine age.</li><li>• Talus, S2, and S3:</li><li>• Age of Viability: 7 months of gestation, the child can have a separate existence from the mother.</li><li>• Age of Viability:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ossification Centers and Gestational Age</li><li>➤ Ossification Centers and Gestational Age</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient experiences bradycardia, hypotension, and apnea following the administration of intravenous irritants during a medical procedure. These symptoms are suggestive of a specific reflex response. Which one of the following reflexes is most likely being represented in this scenario? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bezold-Jarisch reflex", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bainbridge reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cushing’s reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Valsalva maneuver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bezold-Jarisch reflex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bezold-Jarisch reflex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bezold-Jarisch reflex is characterized by bradycardia, hypotension, and apnea in response to certain chemical stimuli or intravenous irritants due to increased vagal activity and decreased sympathetic tone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "HIV positive woman, not on any treatment, delivers a baby. Initial treatment for the newborn will include:(FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nevirapine X 6 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nevirapine X 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nevirapine + Zidovudine X 6 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nevirapine + Zidovudine X 6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nevirapine + Zidovudine X 6 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nevirapine + Zidovudine X 6 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Low-risk infants:</li><li>• Low-risk infants:</li><li>• Infants born to mothers with suppressed viral load (&lt;1000 copies/ml) done any time after 32 weeks of pregnancy up to delivery</li><li>• Infants born to mothers with suppressed viral load (&lt;1000 copies/ml) done any time after 32 weeks of pregnancy up to delivery</li><li>• ARV Prophylaxis Options:</li><li>• Syrup Nevirapine (NVP) or Syrup Zidovudine# (in situations where NVP will not be effective): Infant born to a mother with confirmed HIV-2 or HIV-1 and HIV-2 combined infections Infant born to a mother who had received single dose of NVP during earlier pregnancy or delivery Infant born to a mother who is on PI-based ART regimen due to treatment failure</li><li>• Syrup Nevirapine (NVP) or</li><li>• Syrup Zidovudine# (in situations where NVP will not be effective): Infant born to a mother with confirmed HIV-2 or HIV-1 and HIV-2 combined infections Infant born to a mother who had received single dose of NVP during earlier pregnancy or delivery Infant born to a mother who is on PI-based ART regimen due to treatment failure</li><li>• Infant born to a mother with confirmed HIV-2 or HIV-1 and HIV-2 combined infections Infant born to a mother who had received single dose of NVP during earlier pregnancy or delivery Infant born to a mother who is on PI-based ART regimen due to treatment failure</li><li>• Infant born to a mother with confirmed HIV-2 or HIV-1 and HIV-2 combined infections</li><li>• Infant born to a mother who had received single dose of NVP during earlier pregnancy or delivery</li><li>• Infant born to a mother who is on PI-based ART regimen due to treatment failure</li><li>• Duration of ARV prophylaxis:</li><li>• From birth till 6 weeks of age</li><li>• From birth till 6 weeks of age</li><li>• High-risk infants</li><li>• High-risk infants</li><li>• Infants born to HIV-positive mother not on ART Maternal viral load not done after 32 weeks of pregnancy till delivery Maternal viral load not suppressed between 32 weeks of pregnancy till delivery Mother newly identified HIV positive within 6 weeks of delivery</li><li>• Infants born to HIV-positive mother not on ART</li><li>• Maternal viral load not done after 32 weeks of pregnancy till delivery</li><li>• Maternal viral load not suppressed between 32 weeks of pregnancy till delivery</li><li>• Mother newly identified HIV positive within 6 weeks of delivery</li><li>• Options for dual prophylaxis:</li><li>• Syrup NVP + Syrup Zidovudine</li><li>• Syrup NVP + Syrup Zidovudine</li><li>• Duration of Dual ARV Prophylaxis:</li><li>• In case of Exclusive Replacement Feeding (ERF): From birth till 6 weeks of age In case of Exclusive Breastfeeding (EBF): From birth till 12 weeks of age</li><li>• In case of Exclusive Replacement Feeding (ERF): From birth till 6 weeks of age</li><li>• In case of Exclusive Breastfeeding (EBF): From birth till 12 weeks of age</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For newborns of untreated HIV-positive mothers, initial treatment includes Syrup NVP + Syrup Zidovudine 6 weeks (12 weeks in cases of exclusive breast feeding) to reduce the risk of mother-to-child HIV transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the hormones A &amp; B giving negative feedback on Hypothalamus – pituitary axis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibin and Testosterone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estrogen and Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cortisol and Aldosterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibin and Testosterone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/whatsapp-image-2024-01-03-at-160050.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Inhibin and Testosterone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhibin and Testosterone are the hormones produced by Sertoli and Leydig cells, respectively, that provide negative feedback on the hypothalamus-pituitary axis in the male reproductive system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a direct cause of maternal death? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pre-eclampsia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Embolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pre-eclampsia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pre-eclampsia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Maternal deaths can be classified into direct and indirect causes. Direct causes are those that result from complications of pregnancy, labor, or the postpartum period, whereas indirect causes are conditions that are exacerbated by pregnancy.</li><li>• Pre-eclampsia : This is a direct cause of maternal death. Pre-eclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can lead to severe complications such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, stroke, and organ failure, all of which can directly result in maternal mortality.</li><li>• Pre-eclampsia</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Anemia : This is considered an indirect cause of maternal death. While severe anemia can exacerbate complications during pregnancy and childbirth, it is not a direct cause but increases the risk of infections, hemorrhage, and other complications.</li><li>• Option A. Anemia</li><li>• indirect cause</li><li>• Option B. Heart disease : This is also an indirect cause of maternal death. Pre-existing heart disease can worsen during pregnancy due to the increased cardiovascular demands, but it is not a complication arising directly from pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. Heart disease</li><li>• indirect cause</li><li>• Option C. Embolism : Pulmonary embolism is considered an indirect cause of maternal death when it occurs due to pregnancy-related factors like deep vein thrombosis.</li><li>• Option C. Embolism</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pre-eclampsia is a direct cause of maternal death, directly associated with complications arising from pregnancy, labor, or the postpartum period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following samples is considered the best for detecting lead poisoning? (FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Saliva", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blood", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Blood</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lead poisoning primarily affects the synthesis of heme by inhibiting three crucial enzymes: Aminolevulinic acid dehydratase (ALAD), Coproporphyrinogen oxidase, and Ferrochelatase . This inhibition leads to the accumulation of their immediate precursors: aminolevulinic acid, coproporphyrinogen, and protoporphyrin.</li><li>• Aminolevulinic acid dehydratase (ALAD), Coproporphyrinogen oxidase, and Ferrochelatase</li><li>• Due to this, lead poisoning can present with various symptoms, including anemia, punctate basophilia (bluish granules in RBCs), and elevated levels of these precursors. The most reliable diagnostic measure for lead poisoning is the blood lead level (&gt; 70 μg/dl), which correlates best with adverse clinical symptoms and the toxicity profile of lead.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hair : While lead can be detected in hair, it does not correlate as well with the severity of poisoning or clinical symptoms as blood levels do.</li><li>• Option A. Hair</li><li>• Option C. Saliva : Saliva is not a standard sample for lead detection and does not provide reliable results.</li><li>• Option C. Saliva</li><li>• Option D. Urine : Though urine can show lead excretion, it is not as reliable as blood levels for correlating with toxicity and clinical manifestations.</li><li>• Option D. Urine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood lead levels are the most reliable and best indicator for detecting lead poisoning, correlating well with clinical symptoms and toxicity.</li><li>➤ Laboratory diagnosis of Lead Poisoning –</li><li>➤ Laboratory diagnosis of Lead Poisoning –</li><li>➤ Porphyrinuria due to coproporphyrin III. Blood lead level &gt; 70–100 μg/dl. Protoporphyrin &gt; 35 μg/dl. Urine lead level &gt; 0.15–0.3 mg/l.</li><li>➤ Porphyrinuria due to coproporphyrin III.</li><li>➤ Blood lead level &gt; 70–100 μg/dl.</li><li>➤ Protoporphyrin &gt; 35 μg/dl.</li><li>➤ Urine lead level &gt; 0.15–0.3 mg/l.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female weighing 40 kg has a serum sodium level of 120 mEq/L. Calculate the sodium deficit for a desired sodium concentration of 140 mEq/L:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "400 mEq", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "300 mEq", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "200 mEq", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100 mEq", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 400 mEq", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 400 mEq</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The sodium deficit can be calculated using the formula:</li><li>• Sodium Deficit=Total Body Water×(Desired Sodium−Actual Sodium)</li><li>• For females, the Total Body Water (TBW) is 50% of body weight</li><li>• TBW=0.5×Body Weight</li><li>• Here, the body weight is 40 kg:</li><li>• TBW=0.5×40 kg=20 LTBW=0.5×40 kg=20 L</li><li>• The desired sodium concentration is 140 mEq/L and the actual sodium concentration is 120</li><li>• mEq/L:</li><li>• Sodium Deficit=20 L×(140 mEq/L−120 mEq/L) =400 mEq</li><li>• Therefore, the sodium deficit is 400 mEq.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives</li><li>➤ The sodium deficit for a female weighing 40 kg with a serum sodium level of 120 mEq/L, aiming for a desired sodium concentration of 140 mEq/L, is 400 mEq.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not recommended as an emergency contraceptive method? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Combined oral contraceptives: 2 tablets within 24 hours and 2 tablets beyond 72 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulipristal 30 mg single tablet", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg single tablet", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intrauterine contraceptive device insertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Combined oral contraceptives: 2 tablets within 24 hours and 2 tablets beyond 72 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Combined oral contraceptives: 2 tablets within 24 hours and 2 tablets beyond 72 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Emergency contraception with combined oral contraceptives is not effective if used beyond 72 hours after unprotected intercourse, whereas other methods like ulipristal, levonorgestrel, and IUD insertion are recommended and effective within their respective time frames.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Key feature of depression? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suicidal ideations", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low mood", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of interest in pleasurable activity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loss of Appetite", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Low mood", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Low mood</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Low mood, or sadness of mood, is the key defining feature of depression, as depression is primarily a mood disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with symptoms indicative of an acute ischemic stroke. It is decided to administer recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA), with a total dose of 80 mg. How much should be given as the initial bolus dose? (FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "8 mg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "40 mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 8 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 8 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When administering rtPA for acute ischemic stroke, the initial bolus dose should be 10% of the total dose. For an 80 mg total dose, the initial bolus is 8 mg, followed by an infusion of the remaining dose over 60 minutes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "MTP after 24 weeks is done for? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fetal anomaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Minor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rape", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contraceptive failure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fetal anomaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-164027_mqrKT4F.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fetal anomaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MTP beyond 24 weeks is allowed only for substantial fetal anomalies, as determined by a medical board, to ensure the safety and well-being of the mother and to address severe fetal conditions.</li><li>➤ Indication for MTP -</li><li>➤ Indication for MTP -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the management for a patient with a road traffic accident who presents with hemothorax, evidenced by 1800 ml of blood loss via a chest tube in 1 hour? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thoracotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urgent thoracocentesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drain for next 6 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thoracotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thoracotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with hemothorax and significant ongoing blood loss via a chest tube, immediate thoracotomy is indicated to control the source of bleeding and stabilize the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While assessing children's nutritional status in a school, you come across a child with low height for age. What is this known as? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Underweight", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wasting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Overweight", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stunting", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Stunting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Stunting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Low height for age is referred to as stunting. Stunting is an indicator of chronic malnutrition, where the child's growth has been inhibited over a prolonged period.</li><li>• Note – Stunting is also known as Dwarfism</li><li>• Note</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Underweight : Low weight for age is known as underweight. It can indicate acute on chronic malnutrition.</li><li>• Option A. Underweight</li><li>• Low weight for age</li><li>• Option B. Wasting : Low weight for height is referred to as wasting. This indicates acute malnutrition, where there has been a significant recent weight loss. Wasting is also known as Emaciation .</li><li>• Option B. Wasting</li><li>• Low weight for height</li><li>• Emaciation</li><li>• Option C. Overweight : This indicates excess weight relative to height.</li><li>• Option C. Overweight</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Low height for age is known as stunting and indicates chronic malnutrition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What dye is used in staining the anterior capsule of the lens? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluorescein green", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trypan blue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brilliant blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rose Bengal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trypan blue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-112451.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Trypan blue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trypan blue dye is used for staining the anterior capsule of the lens during cataract surgery to aid in the creation of a continuous curvilinear capsulorhexis.</li><li>➤ Various Dyes used in Opthalmology -</li><li>➤ -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of bacterial vaginosis? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tinidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clindamycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Erythromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Erythromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erythromycin is not typically used for bacterial vaginosis, whereas metronidazole, tinidazole, and clindamycin are effective treatments for this condition due to their efficacy against anaerobic bacteria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The drug used in chemoradiation in cervical cancer: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Actinomycin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cisplatin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cisplatin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cisplatin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cisplatin is the preferred drug used in chemoradiation for cervical cancer because it acts as a radiosensitizer, enhancing the effectiveness of radiation therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with nasal obstruction after being hit on the face from the front. On examination, a boggy swelling of the septum is seen on both sides (see picture below), which is fluctuant on palpation with a swab or blunt probe. He should be managed by?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incision &amp; Drainage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nasal packing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nasal decongestants", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Incision & Drainage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115230.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Incision &amp; Drainage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with nasal obstruction and a boggy, fluctuant swelling of the septum on both sides after trauma, which indicates a septal hematoma. A septal hematoma is a collection of blood within the septal tissues and requires immediate drainage to prevent complications such as infection, abscess formation, or septal cartilage necrosis. The definitive treatment is incision and drainage to evacuate the collected blood.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Nasal packing: Nasal packing is not the treatment of choice for a septal hematoma. It is typically used for controlling nasal bleeding (epistaxis).</li><li>• Option B. Nasal packing:</li><li>• Option C. Antibiotics: While antibiotics may be used to prevent secondary infection, they do not address the primary issue of the hematoma and are not the definitive treatment.</li><li>• Option C. Antibiotics:</li><li>• Option D. Nasal decongestants: Nasal decongestants are used to reduce nasal mucosal swelling and congestion but are not effective in treating a septal hematoma.</li><li>• Option D. Nasal decongestants:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A septal hematoma, characterized by a boggy, fluctuant swelling of the septum after nasal trauma, should be treated with immediate incision and drainage to prevent complications and ensure proper healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is showing stubbornness and frugality. According to psychosexual stages of development, the fixation is in which stage? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phallic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genital", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to Freud's psychosexual stages of development, which is no longer widely accepted, fixation at the anal stage is thought to cause personality traits such as stubbornness, frugality, obsession with cleanliness, perfection, punctuality, and adherence to rules. Anal fixation is also believed to potentially lead to obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) based on this theory.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A maid in the house presented in the clinic with complaint of pain &amp; swelling at the knee. Which bursa is involved in this condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture7_7pP8YJl.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture8_YeVAwxe.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture9_cATgTRH.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The maid's complaint of pain and swelling at the knee is indicative of bursitis. In this specific case, the bursa involved is the prepatellar bursa, labelled as B in the image.</li><li>• The prepatellar bursa is located in front of the patella (kneecap). The term \"housemaid's knee\" is commonly used to describe prepatellar bursitis, which is inflammation of the prepatellar bursa. This condition is typically caused by repetitive kneeling, which is common in individuals who perform frequent cleaning or other activities that require prolonged kneeling.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. A: This indicates the suprapatellar bursa, located above the patella. It is not typically associated with \"housemaid's knee.\"</li><li>• Option A. A:</li><li>• Option C. C: This indicates the subcutaneous infrapatellar bursa, located below the patella, which is associated with \"clergyman's knee\" due to repeated kneeling in a kneeling position.</li><li>• Option C. C:</li><li>• Option D. D: This indicates the deep infrapatellar bursa, also located below the patella, but deeper and not typically involved in \"housemaid's knee.\"</li><li>• Option D. D:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The prepatellar bursa, located in front of the patella, is the bursa involved in \"housemaid's knee\" (prepatellar bursitis).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Name the material which is used for Lichtenstein mesh repair:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polyglycolic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polypropylene", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polyacrylamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polygalactin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Polypropylene", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-43416-pm-5.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Polypropylene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Polypropylene mesh is the material of choice for Lichtenstein mesh repair due to its non-absorbable nature, providing long-term reinforcement for hernia repairs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of particles does a linear accelerator use? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neutron", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proton", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X rays", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gamma Rays", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. X rays", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) X rays</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Linear accelerators are crucial in modern oncology, allowing high precision in targeting tumors while sparing healthy tissue, using high-energy X rays derived from accelerated electrons.</li><li>➤ Linear accelerators are crucial in modern oncology, allowing high precision in targeting tumors while sparing healthy tissue, using high-energy X rays derived from accelerated electrons.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following area gets damaged in Housemaid’s knee? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suprapatellar bursa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prepatellar bursa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infrapatellar bursa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pes Anserine bursa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prepatellar bursa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/94.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/96.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/97.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/98.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/100.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/101.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prepatellar bursa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Housemaid’s knee is caused by the inflammation in the prepatellar bursa. It causes pain in the front of the knee. Inflammation in other bursa of the knee causes pain above, below or anteromedial to the knee.</li><li>➤ Housemaid’s knee is caused by the inflammation in the prepatellar bursa. It causes pain in the front of the knee.</li><li>➤ Inflammation in other bursa of the knee causes pain above, below or anteromedial to the knee.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Skull of a dead person was found during investigation. Police asked the relatives to bring the photo of deceased. Which of the following method can be used for identification of dead body? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cephalic Index", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dactylography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superimposition", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "DNA fingerprinting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Superimposition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Superimposition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In forensic investigations, when a skull is found and relatives are asked to bring a photo of the deceased, the technique used for identification is superimposition.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cephalic Index: Incorrect because it only helps determine racial or ethnic group, not individual identification.</li><li>• Option A. Cephalic Index:</li><li>• Option B. Dactylography: Incorrect as fingerprint analysis requires fingerprints, which are not available with just a skull.</li><li>• Option B. Dactylography:</li><li>• Option D. DNA fingerprinting: Incorrect because the question specifies the use of a photo, which is not used in DNA analysis.</li><li>• Option D. DNA fingerprinting:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Superimposition is the method used for identification when a skull is found and a photograph of the deceased is available. It involves overlapping the skull photo with the photo of the person to establish identity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neonate on breast feeding develops jaundice. Urine Benedict’s test is positive. The enzyme deficiency is_________: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Galactokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Galactose-1-P Uridyl Transferase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lactose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aldolase B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Galactose-1-P Uridyl Transferase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-180345.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Galactose-1-P Uridyl Transferase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The neonate's symptoms, including jaundice and a positive Benedict's test for reducing sugars in the urine, are indicative of galactosemia. In galactosemia, there is a deficiency of the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase, which is involved in the conversion of galactose-1-phosphate to glucose-1-phosphate. Gal-1-P accumulates causes product inhibition of galactokinase resulting in galactose accumulation which comes out in urine giving positive Benedict’s test.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 198</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 198</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy will have ____ permanent and ____ temporary teeth?(FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4, 20", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8, 16", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "8, 12", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 20, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-160935.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 20, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mixed dentition is a period when both temporary (primary) and permanent teeth are present in the oral cavity. This phase typically occurs between the ages of 6 to 11 years.</li><li>• Key points to remember about mixed dentition:</li><li>• Key points to remember about mixed dentition:</li><li>• 1. Age Range: The mixed dentition period spans from 6 to 11 years.</li><li>• 1. Age Range:</li><li>• 2. Total Number of Teeth: During mixed dentition, the total number of teeth (temporary plus permanent) is consistently 24.</li><li>• 2. Total Number of Teeth:</li><li>• 3. Calculation of Permanent Teeth: The number of permanent teeth can be calculated using the formula:</li><li>• 3. Calculation of Permanent Teeth:</li><li>• Permanent Teeth=(Age−5)×4</li><li>• For a 10-year-old child:</li><li>• Permanent Teeth=(10−5)×4=20</li><li>• Hence, the number of permanent teeth is 20.</li><li>• 4. Calculation of Temporary Teeth: The number of temporary teeth can be determined by subtracting the number of permanent teeth from the total number of teeth:</li><li>• 4. Calculation of Temporary Teeth:</li><li>• Temporary Teeth=24−Permanent Teeth</li><li>• Therefore:</li><li>• Temporary Teeth=24−20=4</li><li>• Thus, a 10-year-old boy will have 20 permanent teeth and 4 temporary teeth.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During the mixed dentition period (6-11 years), a 10-year-old typically has 20 permanent teeth and 4 temporary teeth. Use the formula (Age−5)×4 to determine the number of permanent teeth.</li><li>➤ Number if teeth with age -</li><li>➤ Number if teeth with age -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 39-year-old patient presents to the OPD with the complaint of pain over his ear. He also complains of difficulty in eating food and the inability to close his eyes completely. On examination, there is a swelling below his ear. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be involved in this condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Great auricular nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vagus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Facial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Facial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's symptoms, including ear pain, difficulty eating, and inability to close the eye completely, strongly suggest a case of facial palsy or Bell's palsy. Bell's palsy is a condition characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, typically affecting one side of the face. The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression, and its dysfunction leads to the presented symptoms.</li><li>• The presence of a swelling below the ear further supports the involvement of the facial nerve. The parotid gland, located in this region, is closely associated with the facial nerve, which divides into five terminal branches within the gland. Damage or inflammation of the parotid gland can lead to compression or involvement of the facial nerve, resulting in facial palsy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Great auricular nerve: Incorrect. While the great auricular nerve provides sensory innervation over the angle of the mandible and the area around the ear (shaving area), it is not directly responsible for the motor functions affected in this case. If the patient had ear pain or loss of sensation in the shaving area without the Bell's palsy features, the great auricular nerve could have been considered.</li><li>• Option A. Great auricular nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Vagus nerve: Incorrect. The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) does not directly control the facial muscles or cause the symptoms described here.</li><li>• Option C. Vagus nerve:</li><li>• Option D. Auriculotemporal nerve: Incorrect. The auriculotemporal nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve, supplies sensory innervation to the auricle and temporal region but does not control the facial muscles or cause the symptoms of facial palsy. If the patient had symptoms like increased sweating, redness, or blood supply in this area, it could have suggested an auriculotemporal nerve syndrome (Frey's syndrome).</li><li>• Option D. Auriculotemporal nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression, and its dysfunction can lead to facial palsy or Bell's palsy, characterized by weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, difficulty eating, and inability to close the eye completely.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has microcytic hypochromic anemia and was observed to have delayed wound healing after a minor surgery. He gives history of gum bleeding also. He is most likely to have deficiency of: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cobalt", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Selenium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is crucial for collagen synthesis, a vital component of skin and vascular tissues. Deficiency leads to scurvy, which manifests with symptoms like gum bleeding, poor wound healing, and anemia. The anemia is typically normocytic but can be microcytic due to associated blood loss and iron deficiency.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 548</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 548</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a pansystolic murmur and features of carditis. Echocardiography showed mitral regurgitation. Which of the following is the most common manifestation of this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chorea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythema marginatum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subcutaneous nodules", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Arthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation suggests acute rheumatic fever (ARF) , which often presents with carditis as one of the major manifestations. In ARF, the most common manifestation is arthritis , which is typically a migratory polyarthritis affecting large joints such as the knees, ankles, elbows, and wrists. This arthritis responds well to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).</li><li>• suggests acute rheumatic fever (ARF)</li><li>• arthritis</li><li>• migratory</li><li>• polyarthritis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Chorea: This is also a manifestation of ARF but is less common than arthritis.</li><li>• Option B. Chorea:</li><li>• Option C. Erythema marginatum: This is a characteristic rash seen in ARF but is less common than arthritis.</li><li>• Option C. Erythema marginatum:</li><li>• Option D. Subcutaneous nodules: These are also seen in ARF but are much less common than arthritis.</li><li>• Option D. Subcutaneous nodules:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In acute rheumatic fever, arthritis is the most common manifestation, typically presenting as migratory polyarthritis that responds well to NSAIDs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents five days after delivery with sadness of mood, irritability, restlessness and reduced sleep. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Post partum blues", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postpartum depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post partum psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post partum anxiety", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Post partum blues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Post partum blues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of postpartum blues, postpartum depression, or postpartum psychosis is based on the severity and nature of the symptoms, not the onset of symptoms. Postpartum blues presents with some depressive symptoms, postpartum depression with severe depressive symptoms, and postpartum psychosis with psychotic symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ottawa Charter includes all except: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Advocate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enable", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Potentiate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mediate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Potentiate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Potentiate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion includes the strategies of advocate, enable, and mediate, but does not include potentiate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis of the below image? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polycystic kidney disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Horse Shoe Kidney", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fused Ectopic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Horse Shoe Kidney", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-094034.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Horse Shoe Kidney</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Horseshoe kidney is a congenital disorder where the kidneys are connected at the lower ends and lie across the midline. It’s often asymptomatic but can be associated with complications like urinary tract infections or stones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is brought to the OPD with complaints of speaking nonsensical and made-up words. However, his speech is easy and fluent. His family claims his speech was fine until a few hours back. Which type of aphasia does the patient most likely have? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensory aphasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Motor aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anomic aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conduction aphasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sensory aphasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sensory aphasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's symptoms suggest that he is experiencing a type of aphasia where comprehension is impaired, but speech remains fluent. This is characteristic of sensory aphasia (also known as receptive aphasia or fluent aphasia ).</li><li>• sensory aphasia</li><li>• receptive aphasia or fluent aphasia</li><li>• Sensory aphasia (Wernicke's aphasia): Patients with Wernicke's aphasia can speak fluently but their speech often lacks meaning and they have significant difficulty understanding spoken language. They may produce nonsensical and made-up words. This type of aphasia is typically due to a lesion in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus (Wernicke's area).</li><li>• Sensory aphasia (Wernicke's aphasia): Patients with Wernicke's aphasia can speak fluently but their speech often lacks meaning and they have significant difficulty understanding spoken language. They may produce nonsensical and made-up words. This type of aphasia is typically due to a lesion in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus (Wernicke's area).</li><li>• Sensory aphasia (Wernicke's aphasia):</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Motor aphasia (Broca's aphasia): This is a non-fluent aphasia where patients have good comprehension but struggle to produce speech. Speech is typically halting and effortful, and patients may be able to produce only short phrases. This is not consistent with the fluent speech described in the case.</li><li>• Option B. Motor aphasia (Broca's aphasia):</li><li>• good comprehension</li><li>• Option C. Anomic aphasia: Patients with anomic aphasia primarily have difficulty naming objects but otherwise have intact comprehension and fluency . This does not align with the patient’s production of nonsensical words.</li><li>• Option C. Anomic aphasia:</li><li>• have intact comprehension and fluency</li><li>• Option D. Conduction aphasia: This type is characterized by good comprehension and fluent speech , but patients have significant difficulty with repetition. The primary issue in conduction aphasia is the disconnection between comprehension and speech production areas, typically due to damage to the arcuate fasciculus . This does not fully explain the nonsensical speech observed in the patient.</li><li>• Option D. Conduction aphasia:</li><li>• good comprehension and fluent speech</li><li>• arcuate fasciculus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives</li><li>➤ Sensory aphasia, also known as Wernicke's aphasia, is characterized by fluent but nonsensical speech and impaired comprehension, fitting the described symptoms in this patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had fever, cough and hilar lymph node enlargement. He also had hypercalcemia and has been diagnosed with sarcoidosis. Which of the following is the likely finding in his lung biopsy? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caseating granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non caseating granuloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neutrophilic infiltration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibrinoid necrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Non caseating granuloma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Non caseating granuloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hallmark histological finding in sarcoidosis is the presence of non-caseating granulomas in affected tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "From which structure do the alae of the nose develop? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frontonasal process", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medial nasal process", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral nasal process", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bucconasal membrane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lateral nasal process", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lateral nasal process</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The development of the face involves five processes: the frontonasal process, medial nasal processes, lateral nasal processes, maxillary processes, and mandibular processes.</li><li>• The central part of the face, including the dorsum and tip of the nose, philtrum, and columella, develops from the midline frontonasal process. As the nasal pits develop, they give rise to the medial and lateral nasal processes on each side.</li><li>• The alae of the nose, which are the lateral flaring parts of the nostrils, develop from the lateral nasal processes.</li><li>• The maxillary processes give rise to the maxillae, while the mandibular processes form the mandible.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Frontonasal process: Incorrect. The frontonasal process gives rise to the central part of the face, including the dorsum and tip of the nose, philtrum, and columella, but not the alae.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Frontonasal process:</li><li>• Option B. Medial nasal process: Incorrect. The medial nasal processes contribute to the formation of the median part of the nose, but not the alae.</li><li>• Option B. Medial nasal process:</li><li>• Option D. Bucconasal membrane: Incorrect. The bucconasal membrane is not one of the five processes involved in facial development and does not give rise to the alae of the nose.</li><li>• Option D. Bucconasal membrane:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The alae of the nose develop from the lateral nasal processes during facial development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Treatment of benzodiazepine overdose? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fomepizole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Naltrexone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Flumazenil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Flumazenil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, acting as a competitive antagonist at the GABA-A receptor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient presents with nausea, vomiting, edema and ascites. He had severely deranged liver function tests and a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma was diagnosed. Which of the following is important in the pathogenesis of this condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Benzene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aflatoxin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vinyl chloride", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aflatoxin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161854.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aflatoxin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pencil shaped macroconidia are seen in? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichophyton", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microsporum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epidermophyton", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clostridium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trichophyton", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-171313.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-162846.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-153843.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trichophyton</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pencil-shaped macroconidia are a distinguishing feature of the fungus Trichophyton. Trichophyton is one of the three genera of dermatophytes, which also include Microsporum and Epidermophyton.</li><li>• Dermatophytes cause infections known as dermatophytosis or ringworm, which affect keratinized tissues such as the skin, hair, and nails.</li><li>• Dermatophytosis can be classified into three species:</li><li>• Trichophyton: Involves skin, hair, and nails. The macroconidia are pencil-shaped, and the microconidia are round to piriform (pear-shaped). In the case of Trichophyton, the macroconidia are elongated and resemble pencils. This characteristic helps in differentiating it from other dermatophytes. Microsporum: Primarily involves skin and hair. The macroconidia are spindle-shaped and spiny, while microconidia are usually absent. Epidermophyton: Involves skin and nails. The macroconidia are club-shaped, and microconidia are absent.</li><li>• Trichophyton: Involves skin, hair, and nails. The macroconidia are pencil-shaped, and the microconidia are round to piriform (pear-shaped). In the case of Trichophyton, the macroconidia are elongated and resemble pencils. This characteristic helps in differentiating it from other dermatophytes.</li><li>• Trichophyton:</li><li>• Microsporum: Primarily involves skin and hair. The macroconidia are spindle-shaped and spiny, while microconidia are usually absent.</li><li>• Microsporum:</li><li>• Epidermophyton: Involves skin and nails. The macroconidia are club-shaped, and microconidia are absent.</li><li>• Epidermophyton:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Microsporum: The macroconidia of Microsporum are spindle-shaped and spiny, not pencil-shaped. This genus primarily affects skin and hair.</li><li>• Option B. Microsporum:</li><li>• Option C. Epidermophyton: The macroconidia of Epidermophyton are club-shaped, not pencil-shaped. This genus affects skin and nails.</li><li>• Option C. Epidermophyton:</li><li>• Option D. Clostridium: This is a genus of bacteria, not fungi, and it does not produce macroconidia. Clostridium species are known for producing spores, not conidia.</li><li>• Option D. Clostridium:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pencil-shaped macroconidia are characteristic of Trichophyton, a genus of dermatophytes that affects skin, hair, and nails.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is NOT a hyper-estrogenic condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low BMI", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tamoxifen use", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nulliparous", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ovarian cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Low BMI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Low BMI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hyper-estrogenic conditions are characterized by elevated levels of estrogen. Such conditions can arise due to various factors, including hormonal imbalances, medications, and specific medical conditions.</li><li>• Low BMI : This is not typically associated with high estrogen levels. In fact, individuals with low BMI may have lower estrogen levels due to decreased adipose tissue, which is a source of estrogen production.</li><li>• Low BMI</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tamoxifen use : Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily in the treatment of breast cancer. It can act as an estrogen agonist in certain tissues, potentially leading to increased estrogenic effects.</li><li>• Option B. Tamoxifen use</li><li>• Option C. Nulliparous : Nulliparous women (those who have never given birth) may have higher lifetime exposure to estrogen due to the absence of pregnancy and lactation periods, which would otherwise lower estrogen exposure.</li><li>• Option C. Nulliparous</li><li>• Option D. Ovarian cancer : Certain types of ovarian cancer can lead to increased estrogen production, contributing to a hyper-estrogenic state.</li><li>• Option D. Ovarian cancer</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Low BMI is not associated with hyper-estrogenic conditions.</li><li>➤ High estrogen levels are more likely to be seen in conditions such as Tamoxifen use, nulliparity, and certain types of ovarian cancer.</li><li>➤ High estrogen is a risk factors for fibroids, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial carcinoma and endometriosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the mode of inheritance shown by the pedigree analysis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "AD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "XLR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "XLD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. AR", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/autosomalrecessivepedigreepattern.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) AR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An autosomal recessive inheritance pattern is characterized by the presence of affected individuals with unaffected parents, indicating that the parents are carriers and the disease manifests when two recessive alleles are inherited.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An anticancer drug, 5-Fluorouracil, causes thymineless death of cells. Which type of enzyme inhibition is responsible for this mechanism of action of 5-Fluorouracil? (FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Competitive", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non-competitive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Allosteric", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Irreversible", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Competitive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Competitive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5-Fluorouracil causes thymineless death of cancer cells through competitive inhibition of thymidylate synthase, blocking thymidine synthesis necessary for DNA replication in rapidly dividing cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man is working in an industry without wearing a helmet. A heavy hammer falls on his head due to slipping from the head of his colleague working on the top floor. The X-ray is shown below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Depressed Fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Linear Fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fracture of the base of the skull", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sutural Fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Depressed Fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-164204.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-164333.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Depressed Fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A heavy object with a small striking surface, such as a hammer, typically causes a depressed fracture in the skull. </li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A recently married couple visit the antenatal clinic on getting the news that the lady is expecting. On investigation both the husband and wife were detected to be suffering from beta thalassemia trait. Which of the following is the chance of their baby suffering from thalassemia major? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "75%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "25%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 25%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 25%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When both parents are carriers of the beta thalassemia trait, there is a 25% chance that their child will inherit thalassemia major.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient present with complaints of sudden and irresistible urges to take an action, this is characteristic of which symptom? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Impulse", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hallucination", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudohalluciantions", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Impulse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Impulse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An impulse is characterized by a sudden and irresistible urge to perform an action.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Immediately following the delivery, the uterus will correspond to how many weeks of gestational age? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "16 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "18 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "24 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 20 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 20 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Immediately after delivery, the uterus contracts and shrinks in size, positioning itself just below the umbilicus. This position is equivalent to the uterus at around 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• The uterus's rapid involution postpartum helps in controlling bleeding and facilitating the return to its non-pregnant state.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediately after delivery, the uterus corresponds to the size and position of a 20-week gestation, lying just below the umbilicus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of bedaquiline, a new drug used in the treatment of multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB)? (FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibition of ATP synthesis by mycobacteria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis in mycobacteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhibition of RNA polymerase in mycobacteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibition of protein synthesis in mycobacteria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibition of ATP synthesis by mycobacteria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inhibition of ATP synthesis by mycobacteria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline treats multidrug-resistant tuberculosis by inhibiting ATP synthase in mycobacteria, thereby disrupting the production of ATP and hindering the bacteria's growth and survival.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the most common intraocular malignancy in adults? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Choroidal melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uveal melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Choroidal metastasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Choroidal metastasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Choroidal metastasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most common intraocular malignancy in adults is choroidal metastasis.</li><li>• Metastatic tumors to the eye, particularly to the choroid, are more common than primary intraocular malignancies. These metastases usually originate from primary cancers in other parts of the body, such as the breast or lung. The choroid is a vascular layer of the eye that provides a conducive environment for metastatic cells to thrive.</li><li>• The most common primary intraocular malignancy is choroidal melanoma. Choroidal melanoma is the most common primary intraocular cancer in adults, but overall, metastases are more prevalent.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Retinoblastoma : This is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in children , not adults.</li><li>• Option A. Retinoblastoma</li><li>• most common</li><li>• children</li><li>• Option B. Choroidal melanoma : While this is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults , it is less common than metastatic tumors overall.</li><li>• Option B. Choroidal melanoma</li><li>• most common primary intraocular malignancy</li><li>• adults</li><li>• Option C. Uveal melanoma : This term encompasses melanomas of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris.</li><li>• Option C. Uveal melanoma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Most common intraocular malignancy in adults - Choroidal melanoma Most common primary intraorbital malignancy in adults -Capillary Hemangioma. Most common primary intraocular malignancy in children – Retinoblastoma Most common intraorbital malignancy in children – Rhabdomyosarcoma</li><li>➤ Most common intraocular malignancy in adults - Choroidal melanoma</li><li>➤ intraocular</li><li>➤ adults -</li><li>➤ Most common primary intraorbital malignancy in adults -Capillary Hemangioma.</li><li>➤ intraorbital</li><li>➤ adults</li><li>➤ Most common primary intraocular malignancy in children – Retinoblastoma</li><li>➤ primary intraocular</li><li>➤ children</li><li>➤ Most common intraorbital malignancy in children – Rhabdomyosarcoma</li><li>➤ intraorbital</li><li>➤ in children</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neonate presents with post feed vomiting and hypoglycemia in the first week of life. Urine was positive for reducing substances but there was no glucose and urine also gave positive reaction with Benedict’s reagent. The neonate also had reversible oil drop cataract. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Classical Galactosemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Essential fructosuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galactokinase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uridine diphosphate-glucose 4-epimerase deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Classical Galactosemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Classical Galactosemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize the clinical features and diagnostic findings associated with classical galactosemia, including post-feed vomiting, hypoglycemia, positive reducing substances in urine, positive reaction with Benedict’s reagent, and the development of reversible oil drop cataracts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the plant (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nerium Odorum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cerebra Thevetia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aconite", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerbera odollam", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cerebra Thevetia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-160947.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161047.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161101.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161111.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161123.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161134.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-161144.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cerebra Thevetia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cerebra Thevetia (Yellow Oleander): This plant is identified by its yellow, bell-shaped flowers. It is also known as a cardiotoxic plant. The yellow oleander typically has these distinct flowers and should be recognized for its toxic properties.</li><li>• Cerebra Thevetia (Yellow Oleander):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Nerium Odorum (White Oleander): White in color and not bell-shaped flower. It is also cardiotoxic.</li><li>• Option A. Nerium Odorum (White Oleander):</li><li>• Option C. Aconite: Also known as monk's hood, Aconite has hood-like flowers. It is characterized by a hood-like upper part and two-lipped lower part.</li><li>• Option C. Aconite:</li><li>• Option D. Cerbera odollam: Also known as the \"suicide tree\", it produces white flowers, mango like fruit and this is also cardiotoxic.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Cerbera odollam:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cerebra Thevetia (yellow oleander) - Yellow, bell-shaped flowers, a cardiotoxic plant.</li><li>➤ Nerium Odorum (White Oleander) - White and flowers are not bell-shaped, also cardiotoxic</li><li>➤ Note – Other Important flowers</li><li>➤ Note – Other Important flowers</li><li>➤ Trumpet shape flower – Datura</li><li>➤ Digitalis Purpura flowers – arranged in elongated clusters, flower is tubular &amp; pendant. Inside of the flower is heavily spotted</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the maneuver in image below. (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mattox maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pringle's maneuver", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cattell-Braash maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liver hanging maneuver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pringle's maneuver", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-143732.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-143944.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pringle's maneuver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts a surgical procedure known as Pringle's maneuver, which involves inserting a finger from the greater sac to the lesser sac through the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow). The epiploic foramen is the communication between the greater and lesser sacs, and its boundaries are of great importance.</li><li>• During hepatobiliary surgery, there is a risk of rupturing the vein, artery, and duct (VAD) located along the free margin of the lesser omentum. To prevent leakage from these structures, the surgeon can either clamp them along the free margin or insert a finger behind the lesser omentum and place the thumb above it, compressing the VAD between the finger and thumb. This surgical procedure is known as Pringle's maneuver.</li><li>• The maneuver involves inserting the finger in front of the stomach (greater sac) and passing it behind the stomach (lesser sac) through the epiploic foramen.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mattox maneuver: Incorrect. The Mattox maneuver is a surgical technique used to control bleeding from the inferior vena cava or hepatic veins during liver trauma. It involves a thoracoabdominal approach and manual compression of the bleeding site.</li><li>• Option A. Mattox maneuver:</li><li>• Option C. Cattell-Braash maneuver: Incorrect. The Cattell-Braash maneuver is a surgical technique used to expose the retroperitoneal structures, such as the aorta, inferior vena cava, and kidneys, by mobilizing the colon and small bowel to the right side of the abdomen.</li><li>• Option C. Cattell-Braash maneuver:</li><li>• Option D. Liver hanging maneuver: Incorrect. The liver hanging maneuver is a technique used during liver resection to facilitate the transection of the liver parenchyma. It involves passing a tape or a catheter between the liver and the inferior vena cava to provide traction and guidance during the resection.</li><li>• Option D. Liver hanging maneuver:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pringle's maneuver is a surgical procedure used to control bleeding during hepatobiliary surgery by compressing the vein, artery, and duct (VAD) along the free margin of the lesser omentum through the epiploic foramen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient presents with dysphagia to solids, weight loss and regurgitation. What is the possible diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulsion diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Achalasia Cardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ca Esophagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "GERD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ca Esophagus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ca Esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In an elderly smoker presenting with dysphagia to solids, weight loss, and regurgitation, Ca esophagus should be considered as the probable diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of epidemic.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Single exposure, point source epidemic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple exposure, point source epidemic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propagated epidemic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Common intermittent source epidemic", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Common intermittent source epidemic", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-125643.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-125740.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-125818.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-125837.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Common intermittent source epidemic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The graph shows cases occurring at irregular intervals with gaps between them, indicating that people are exposed intermittently to the source of infection. This pattern is characteristic of a common intermittent source epidemic , where exposures occur sporadically, leading to multiple peaks over time.</li><li>• common intermittent source epidemic</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Options A. Single exposure, point source epidemic: Characterized by a sudden rise and fall in the number of cases within a single incubation period, showing a single peak.</li><li>• Options A. Single exposure, point source epidemic:</li><li>• Options B. Multiple exposure, point source epidemic: Shows multiple peaks due to repeated exposures, but the rise and fall are not as sudden and are marked by secondary waves.</li><li>• Options B. Multiple exposure, point source epidemic:</li><li>• Options C. Propagated epidemic: Involves person-to-person transmission, typically showing a slow rise, a plateau, and a slow fall in the number of cases over time.</li><li>• Options C. Propagated epidemic:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A common intermittent source epidemic is marked by cases appearing at irregular intervals, reflecting intermittent exposures to the source of infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old bedridden patient develops acute onset dyspnea and chest pain. A CT pulmonary angiography was done. Which screening test will be useful to determine the etiology of this patient's condition? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MR Angiogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Echocardiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "D-dimer measurement", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coagulogram", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. D-dimer measurement", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) D-dimer measurement</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In a bedridden patient presenting with acute onset dyspnea and chest pain, one of the primary differential diagnoses is pulmonary embolism (PE). The patient has already undergone CT pulmonary angiography, which is a gold standard for diagnosing PE.</li><li>• However, for initial screening, D-dimer measurement is very useful:</li><li>• D-dimer measurement</li><li>• D-dimer: This test has a high negative predictive value and high sensitivity. It is a good screening test because if the D-dimer level is negative/ normal, it effectively rules out venous thromboembolism (VTE) such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and PE. Elevated D-dimer levels indicate that further diagnostic imaging, such as CT pulmonary angiography or compression ultrasound, is needed to confirm the presence of VTE, given its poor specificity.</li><li>• D-dimer: This test has a high negative predictive value and high sensitivity. It is a good screening test because if the D-dimer level is negative/ normal, it effectively rules out venous thromboembolism (VTE) such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and PE.</li><li>• D-dimer:</li><li>• Elevated D-dimer levels indicate that further diagnostic imaging, such as CT pulmonary angiography or compression ultrasound, is needed to confirm the presence of VTE, given its poor specificity.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. MR Angiogram: This is an imaging modality that can be used for vascular imaging but is not typically used as a screening test for PE.</li><li>• Option A. MR Angiogram:</li><li>• Option B. Echocardiography: This is useful for assessing heart function and diagnosing conditions like heart failure or valvular disease but is not a primary screening test for PE.</li><li>• Option B. Echocardiography:</li><li>• Option D. Coagulogram: This test assesses blood coagulation status but is not specifically used for screening for PE.</li><li>• Option D. Coagulogram:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives</li><li>➤ D-dimer measurement is an effective screening test for ruling out pulmonary embolism in patients presenting with symptoms suggestive of VTE.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient died and relatives said he had a tattoo, but it was not visible on autopsy. Which is the best location to check for the evidence of tattoo?(FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spleen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymph node", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lymph node", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-163836.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lymph node</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• When a tattoo is not visible on autopsy, it may be due to fading or complete disappearance. In such cases, the best way to check for evidence of the tattoo is to look for the tattoo ink in the nearby lymph nodes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Spleen: Incorrect because the spleen is not typically involved in draining tattoo ink.</li><li>• Option A. Spleen:</li><li>• Option B. Artery: Incorrect as arteries do not play a role in the transport or storage of tattoo ink.</li><li>• Option B. Artery:</li><li>• Option D. Liver: Incorrect because the liver is not a primary site for tattoo ink deposition.</li><li>• Option D. Liver:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a tattoo is not visible on autopsy, checking the nearby lymph nodes for the presence of tattoo ink is the best approach to find evidence of the tattoo.</li><li>➤ Key points to understand about checking for evidence of tattoos:</li><li>➤ Key points to understand about checking for evidence of tattoos:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-year-old female complains of recurrent episodes of discomfort, pain, and a sensation of pressure behind her left eye. She has intermittent proptosis that is reducible. Her symptoms and signs are accentuated when she bends forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbital hemangioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbital varices", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orbital metastasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Orbital dermoid cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Orbital varices", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Orbital varices</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Orbital varices are dilated venous channels in the orbit that can cause intermittent proptosis, which becomes more pronounced with maneuvers that increase venous pressure such as bending forward, straining, or performing a Valsalva maneuver. This intermittent and reducible nature of the proptosis is a key feature distinguishing orbital varices from other conditions.</li><li>• Additional Information –</li><li>• Additional Information –</li><li>• Three types of vascular malformations of the orbit:</li><li>• Three types of vascular malformations of the orbit:</li><li>• Type 1 Vascular Malformation (Lymphangioma of the Orbit): This is characterized by no flow and is specifically referred to as lymphangioma of the orbit.</li><li>• Type 1 Vascular Malformation (Lymphangioma of the Orbit):</li><li>• Type 2 Vascular Malformation (Orbital Varices): These are identified by having venous flow. Orbital varices typically result in intermittent proptosis, which is particularly exacerbated when the patient is straining, such as during violent coughing, Valsalva maneuvers, or bending forward.</li><li>• Type 2 Vascular Malformation (Orbital Varices):</li><li>• Type 3 Vascular Malformation (Arterial or Arteriovenous Flow): This type involves arterial or arteriovenous flow, with orbital arteriovenous (AV) malformations being a classic example.</li><li>• Type 3 Vascular Malformation (Arterial or Arteriovenous Flow):</li><li>• Among these, orbital varices (Type 2) are unique, as they cause intermittent proptosis exacerbated by specific physical maneuvers.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Orbital hemangioma: This is the most common benign tumor of the orbit in adults but does not typically cause intermittent proptosis.</li><li>• Option A. Orbital hemangioma:</li><li>• Option C. Orbital metastasis: Can cause proptosis but typically presents with persistent proptosis and often with associated signs like eyelid ecchymosis.</li><li>• Option C. Orbital metastasis:</li><li>• Option D. Orbital dermoid cyst: Can cause proptosis, but it is usually not intermittent and reducible as described in this case.</li><li>• Option D. Orbital dermoid cyst:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives</li><li>➤ Intermittent and reducible proptosis, accentuated by straining or bending forward, is characteristic of orbital varices.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diarrhoea by cholera toxin involves which receptors: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GM1 ganglioside receptor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "GD-1b ganglioside receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GM2 ganglioside receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GM3 ganglioside receptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GM1 ganglioside receptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/21/picture11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GM1 ganglioside receptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cholera toxin, produced by Vibrio cholerae, causes diarrhea by binding to the GM1 ganglioside receptor on the surface of intestinal epithelial cells. The binding of cholera toxin to GM1 facilitates its entry into the cells, where it exerts its toxic effects by activating adenylate cyclase and increasing intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP). Elevated cAMP levels lead to the secretion of chloride ions and water into the intestinal lumen, resulting in watery diarrhea characteristic of cholera.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 212</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 212</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At what time during intrauterine life does the talus ossification center appear? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "7 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "9 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the 42nd edition of Gray's Anatomy, the correct answer is 6 months.</li><li>• The talus is the uppermost bone of the foot, articulating with the tibia and fibula above and the calcaneus below. The head of the talus articulates with the navicular bone, which is a boat-shaped bone important for the passage of the dorsalis pedis artery. The navicular bone articulates with the three cuneiforms (medial, intermediate, and lateral) and the first three metatarsals. These bones, along with the medial half of the calcaneus, participate in the medial longitudinal arch of the foot.</li><li>• The 4th and 5th metatarsals, the cuboid bone, and the lateral half of the calcaneus contribute to the lateral longitudinal arch. It is important to note that the phalanges do not participate in the arches of the foot, as demonstrated by the case of New Zealand cricketer Martin Guptill, who had some of his toes amputated without affecting his running and jumping abilities.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary Ossification centers already present when an infant is born includes -</li><li>➤ Secondary Ossification centers already present when an infant is born includes -</li><li>➤ Distal femur and Proximal tibia - 7 weeks Humerus - 8 weeks Calcaneus - 3-4 th months. Talus – 6 th months Cuboid – 9 th months</li><li>➤ Distal femur and Proximal tibia - 7 weeks</li><li>➤ Humerus - 8 weeks</li><li>➤ Calcaneus - 3-4 th months.</li><li>➤ Talus – 6 th months</li><li>➤ Talus – 6 th months</li><li>➤ Cuboid – 9 th months</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person purchased two bottles of alcohol from a local liquor store and subsequently developed symptoms of drowsiness, blurred vision, and ataxia. What is the appropriate antidote for treatment? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ethyl alcohol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ethyl alcohol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) is used as an antidote in methanol poisoning because it competes with methanol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, thus preventing the formation of toxic metabolites.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old girl presents to the ENT OPD with a complaint of nasal obstruction for the past two months. Her mother also reports foul-smelling discharge from the nose. On nasal endoscopy, the obstruction caused by crust formation is noted. She denies any bad smell. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rhinitis Medicamentosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atrophic Rhinitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinoscleroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Atrophic Rhinitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115819.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115842.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/whatsapp-image-2024-06-21-at-193808.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Atrophic Rhinitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Atrophic rhinitis is characterized by chronic nasal obstruction, crust formation, and foul-smelling discharge. The patient’s denial of the bad smell indicates anosmia, which is common in atrophic rhinitis. This condition typically leads to the formation of crusts within the nasal cavity, causing obstruction and a foul odor noticed by others but not by the patient due to their reduced sense of smell.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Rhinitis Medicamentosa: This condition results from prolonged use of nasal decongestant drops (e.g., oxymetazoline or xylometazoline), leading to rebound nasal congestion, not crust formation or foul-smelling discharge.</li><li>• Option A. Rhinitis Medicamentosa:</li><li>• Option B. Rhinosporidiosis: Caused by Rhinosporidium seeberi, it presents with polypoid masses in the nasal cavity but not with crust formation and foul-smelling discharge.</li><li>• Option B. Rhinosporidiosis:</li><li>• Option D. Rhinoscleroma : Caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis, it presents with a hard, woody nose and specific histopathological findings, not just crust formation and foul-smelling discharge.</li><li>• Option D. Rhinoscleroma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atrophic rhinitis presents with chronic nasal obstruction, crust formation, and foul-smelling discharge, often accompanied by anosmia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old with lower backache had low hemoglobin, increased creatinine and multiple osteolytic lesions on radiograph. His serum electrophoresis revealed normal albumin but disproportionately high globulin. What is the likely diagnosis in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prostate cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Potts spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Multiple myeloma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161816.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Multiple myeloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Multiple myeloma is characterized by anemia, renal dysfunction, osteolytic bone lesions, and a high globulin level due to monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of deposition is typically observed in patients with dialysis-related amyloidosis? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amyloid beta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta 1 macroglobulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta 2 microglobulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transthyretin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Beta 2 microglobulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Beta 2 microglobulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Dialysis-related amyloidosis (DRA) occurs in patients who have been on long-term hemodialysis.</li><li>• The primary protein responsible for amyloid deposits in DRA is beta 2 microglobulin . This protein tends to accumulate in patients undergoing chronic hemodialysis because it is not efficiently removed by dialysis filters.</li><li>• beta 2 microglobulin</li><li>• The deposition of beta 2 microglobulin can lead to various musculoskeletal complications, including:</li><li>• Arthritis: Particularly common in the shoulder joint, referred to as \"shoulder arthropathy.\" Tenosynovitis: Inflammation of the tendon sheath. Carpal tunnel syndrome: Compression of the median nerve in the wrist, leading to pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand.</li><li>• Arthritis: Particularly common in the shoulder joint, referred to as \"shoulder arthropathy.\"</li><li>• Arthritis:</li><li>• Tenosynovitis: Inflammation of the tendon sheath.</li><li>• Tenosynovitis:</li><li>• Carpal tunnel syndrome: Compression of the median nerve in the wrist, leading to pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand.</li><li>• Carpal tunnel syndrome:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Amyloid beta: This type of amyloid is primarily associated with Alzheimer's disease and is not related to dialysis.</li><li>• Option A. Amyloid beta:</li><li>• Option B. Beta 1 macroglobulin: This is not related to dialysis-related amyloidosis.</li><li>• Option B. Beta 1 macroglobulin:</li><li>• Option D. Transthyretin: This protein can cause amyloidosis but is associated with other forms, such as senile systemic amyloidosis (wild-type transthyretin) and familial transthyretin amyloidosis (mutated transthyretin), which typically affect the heart and nervous system rather than causing musculoskeletal issues.</li><li>• Option D. Transthyretin:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives</li><li>➤ Dialysis-related amyloidosis is primarily caused by the accumulation of beta 2 microglobulin, leading to musculoskeletal complications such as arthritis, tenosynovitis, and carpal tunnel syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A team of climbers is being briefed about the physiological changes that occur in the body at high altitudes. Which of the following is NOT a typical physiological response seen in individuals at high altitudes? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polycythemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in Hemoglobin (Hb) concentration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in myoglobin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoventilation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypoventilation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypoventilation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ At high altitudes, physiological responses include polycythemia, increased hemoglobin concentration, and increased myoglobin, but not hypoventilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presenting with headaches, hypertension, and elevated metanephrines should undergo which diagnostic investigation? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sestamibi scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MIBG scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PET scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT Abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MIBG scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) MIBG scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Diagnostic investigation of choice for pheochromocytoma is MIBG scan.</li><li>➤ Diagnostic investigation of choice for pheochromocytoma is MIBG scan.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child presented to ENT OPD with severe dysphagia of recent onset and muffled voice. On examination, a cherry red swollen epiglottis was seen behind the tongue. On X-ray, the following finding is seen. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute laryngotracheobronchitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute epiglottitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute laryngitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syphilis larynx", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute epiglottitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115501.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acute epiglottitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The child presents with severe dysphagia, a muffled voice, and a cherry red swollen epiglottis, which are classic signs of acute epiglottitis. The X-ray shows the characteristic \"thumb sign,\" indicating a swollen epiglottis. Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention. The child will typically sit in the tripod position to help keep the airway open.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis: Also known as croup, this condition typically presents with a barking cough and stridor. The X-ray shows the \"steeple sign,\" which is not seen here.</li><li>• Option A. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis:</li><li>• Option C. Acute laryngitis: Acute laryngitis involves inflammation of the vocal cords, leading to hoarseness, but does not typically cause severe dysphagia or a swollen epiglottis.</li><li>• Option C. Acute laryngitis:</li><li>• Option D. Syphilis larynx: Syphilis affecting the larynx is rare and presents with different symptoms, such as hoarseness or a sore throat, rather than an acute swollen epiglottis.</li><li>• Option D. Syphilis larynx:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute epiglottitis presents with severe dysphagia, muffled voice, and a cherry red swollen epiglottis. The \"thumb sign\" on X-ray is a characteristic finding, and immediate medical intervention is necessary.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Neonatal meningitis is caused by? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus agalactiae", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Group A streptococci", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria meningitides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "H. influenzae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Streptococcus agalactiae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-163728.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-164651.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Streptococcus agalactiae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Neonatal meningitis, which occurs in newborns up to 28 days old, can be caused by various pathogens. The most common cause of neonatal meningitis is Streptococcus agalactiae, also known as Group B Streptococcus (GBS). This bacterium is a leading cause of both neonatal sepsis and meningitis.</li><li>• Streptococcus agalactiae is a Group B beta-hemolytic streptococcus and is known for its positive CAMP test and Hippurate hydrolysis test. These tests help in the identification and confirmation of the bacteria.</li><li>• its positive CAMP test and Hippurate hydrolysis test.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Group A streptococci: Although Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes) can cause various infections, it is not the primary cause of neonatal meningitis.</li><li>• Option B. Group A streptococci:</li><li>• Option C. Neisseria meningitidis: This bacterium is a common cause of meningitis in older children and young adults but is not the primary pathogen in neonatal meningitis.</li><li>• Option C. Neisseria meningitidis:</li><li>• Option D. H. influenzae: Haemophilus influenzae can cause meningitis in children, particularly those aged 2 months to 3 years, but it is not the most common cause in neonates.</li><li>• Option D. H. influenzae:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common cause of neonatal meningitis is Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus).</li><li>➤ MC Causes of Acute Pyogenic (bacterial) Meningitis</li><li>➤ MC Causes of Acute Pyogenic (bacterial) Meningitis</li><li>➤ Neonates: Group B streptococcus (Str. agalactiae) 2 months to 3 years: Pneumococci &gt; Meningococci &gt; H. influenzae 3 years to 20 years: Meningococci &gt; 20 years: Pneumococci</li><li>➤ Neonates: Group B streptococcus (Str. agalactiae)</li><li>➤ Neonates: Group B streptococcus (Str. agalactiae)</li><li>➤ 2 months to 3 years: Pneumococci &gt; Meningococci &gt; H. influenzae</li><li>➤ 2 months to 3 years: Pneumococci &gt; Meningococci &gt; H. influenzae</li><li>➤ 3 years to 20 years: Meningococci</li><li>➤ 3 years to 20 years: Meningococci</li><li>➤ &gt; 20 years: Pneumococci</li><li>➤ &gt; 20 years: Pneumococci</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female patient presents in the ENT OPD with complaints of pain and discharge from the ear. Examination reveals the following findings. What is the best line of treatment? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clotrimoxazole ear drops", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ciprofloxacin ear drops", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clotrimazole ear drops", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wax softening ear drops", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Clotrimazole ear drops", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-101840.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-101901.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Clotrimazole ear drops</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with pain and discharge from the ear, and the examination shows black-headed filamentous growths on the otoendoscopic picture. This indicates a fungal infection, specifically otomycosis caused by Aspergillus niger. The best treatment for otomycosis is an antifungal agent.</li><li>• otomycosis caused by Aspergillus niger.</li><li>• Clotrimazole an antifungal and is typically used to treat otomycosis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Clotrimoxazole ear drops : Not an antifungal drug.</li><li>• Option A. Clotrimoxazole ear drops</li><li>• Option B. Ciprofloxacin ear drops: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic and is used to treat bacterial infections. It does not have antifungal properties.</li><li>• Option B. Ciprofloxacin ear drops:</li><li>• Option D. Wax softening ear drops: Wax softening ear drops contain ingredients like paradichlorobenzene, chlorbutol, and turpentine oil, which are used to soften ear wax. This treatment is irrelevant in the context of a fungal infection.</li><li>• Option D. Wax softening ear drops:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Otomycosis, a fungal infection of the ear, caused by Aspergillus niger, should be treated with antifungal agents like Clotrimazole ear drops.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with prosthetic valve implantation, presented after six months with features of endocarditis. What could be the cause? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "S. epidermidis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudomonas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "S. saprophyticus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. S. epidermidis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-154427.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) S. epidermidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart, the endocardium, which often involves the heart valves. Prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE) can be categorized into early-onset and late-onset based on the time of onset after surgery. Early-onset PVE occurs within one year of valve implantation, while late-onset occurs after one year.</li><li>• Staphylococcus epidermidis is a coagulase-negative staphylococcus and is a common cause of early-onset PVE due to its ability to form biofilms on prosthetic materials. Biofilms protect the bacteria from the host immune system and antibiotic treatment, making infections difficult to eradicate.</li><li>• Given that the patient developed endocarditis six months after prosthetic valve implantation, it falls under early-onset PVE. Therefore, the most likely causative organism is Staphylococcus epidermidis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pseudomonas: While Pseudomonas can cause healthcare-associated infections, it is not a common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis.</li><li>• Option B. Pseudomonas:</li><li>• Option C. Staphylococcus aureus: This organism is a common cause of both native and prosthetic valve endocarditis, particularly in intravenous drug users and hospital-acquired cases. However, for early-onset PVE, Staphylococcus epidermidis is more typical.</li><li>• Option C. Staphylococcus aureus:</li><li>• Option D. S. saprophyticus: This organism is commonly associated with urinary tract infections and is not a typical cause of endocarditis.</li><li>• Option D. S. saprophyticus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classification to diagnose causative organism of Endocarditis -</li><li>➤ Classification to diagnose causative organism of Endocarditis -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the condition shown in the image below? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shaft of humerus fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rupture of triceps tendon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rupture of biceps tendon", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supracondylar fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rupture of biceps tendon", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture18.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rupture of biceps tendon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a patient with a prominent bulge in the upper arm area, which is a classic sign of a proximal biceps tendon rupture. In a normal situation, the biceps muscle appears smooth and uniform. However, when the proximal biceps tendon ruptures, the biceps muscle belly becomes more prominent, creating a characteristic bulge.</li><li>• This bulging appearance of the biceps muscle is known as the \"Popeye sign\" due to its resemblance to the exaggerated muscular appearance of the famous cartoon character Popeye the Sailor Man. In the American cartoon, Popeye would gain superhuman strength in his arms after eating spinach, which was portrayed as a rich source of iron.</li><li>• \"Popeye sign\"</li><li>• Tendon ruptures are relatively common, with the four most frequently affected tendons being:</li><li>• Tendon ruptures are relatively common, with the four most frequently affected tendons being:</li><li>• Quadriceps tendon (Q) Achilles tendon (A) Rotator cuff tendons, particularly the supraspinatus (R) Biceps tendon (B)</li><li>• Quadriceps tendon (Q)</li><li>• Achilles tendon (A)</li><li>• Rotator cuff tendons, particularly the supraspinatus (R)</li><li>• Biceps tendon (B)</li><li>• These four tendons can be remembered using the mnemonic \"QARB\".</li><li>• mnemonic \"QARB\".</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Shaft of humerus fracture: Incorrect. A fracture of the humeral shaft would not cause the characteristic bulging appearance of the biceps muscle as seen in the image.</li><li>• Option A. Shaft of humerus fracture:</li><li>• Option B. Rupture of triceps tendon: Incorrect. A triceps tendon rupture would cause weakness in elbow extension and a defect near the olecranon process, not a bulge in the biceps region.</li><li>• Option B. Rupture of triceps tendon:</li><li>• Option D. Supracondylar fracture: Incorrect. A supracondylar fracture is a fracture of the distal humerus, above the elbow joint. It would not cause the biceps muscle to bulge in the manner shown in the image.</li><li>• Option D. Supracondylar</li><li>• fracture:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Popeye sign\" is a classic clinical sign of a proximal biceps tendon rupture, characterized by a prominent bulge in the biceps muscle belly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of joint pain and stiffness, primarily in her hands and feet. She mentions that the pain is worse in the morning and improves with activity. On examination, there is noticeable swelling of the distal interphalangeal joints. She also has silvery, scaly plaques on her elbows and knees. Her family history is positive for psoriasis. There is no history of gastrointestinal symptoms or eye inflammation. What is the most likely diagnosis?(FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rheumatoid Arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gout", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoriatic Arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ankylosing Spondylitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Psoriatic Arthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-145707.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Psoriatic Arthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Psoriatic arthritis (PsA) is characterized by joint pain and stiffness, which is often worse in the morning and improves with activity, indicating the presence of morning stiffness. The involvement of distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints is particularly notable in PsA and is a distinguishing feature. The presence of silvery, scaly plaques on the skin, especially on the extensor surfaces like elbows and knees, aligns with the diagnosis of psoriasis, a common comorbidity in PsA. Additionally, a positive family history for psoriasis strongly supports this diagnosis.</li><li>• The swelling observed in the DIP joints can be specifically referred to as dactylitis, which is a hallmark of PsA. This form of arthritis is also known as seronegative arthritis, meaning it is negative for rheumatoid factor, distinguishing it from rheumatoid arthritis. PsA is an erosive arthritis that can lead to joint damage if not properly managed.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Rheumatoid Arthritis : Typically involves the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints rather than the DIP joints. It is usually seropositive, meaning it often tests positive for rheumatoid factor. The skin lesions described are not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.</li><li>• Option A. Rheumatoid Arthritis</li><li>• Option B. Gout : Usually presents with acute onset of severe pain, redness, and swelling, often in the first metatarsophalangeal joint (big toe). It does not typically involve silvery, scaly plaques or have a family history of psoriasis.</li><li>• Option B. Gout</li><li>• Option D. Ankylosing Spondylitis : Primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints rather than the peripheral joints like the DIP joints. It also does not present with psoriasis or skin plaques as described.</li><li>• Option D. Ankylosing Spondylitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psoriatic arthritis often presents with joint pain and stiffness, particularly in the distal interphalangeal joints, along with characteristic silvery, scaly skin plaques and a family history of psoriasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-emetic drugs can result in extrapyramidal adverse effects? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Domperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ondansetron", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metoclopramide", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Promethazine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Metoclopramide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Metoclopramide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metoclopramide can result in extrapyramidal adverse effects due to its dopamine receptor antagonist activity in the brain, leading to symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the device used in surgery: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidural catheter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Verees needle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optical trocar", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spinal needle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Verees needle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-144819.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-144833.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-144845.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-144900_m4OOhmG.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Verees needle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Verees needle is a specialized instrument used to safely establish pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopic surgeries by introducing CO2 into the peritoneal cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the hospital and administered parenteral penicillin. This was followed by development of haemolytic anemia in the patient. Which of the following is the explanation for the pathogenesis of the condition of the patient? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161442.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Outlet forceps is known as? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wrigley forceps", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Piper forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Das forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kielland forceps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wrigley forceps", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-173935.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-173944.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-173954.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-174001.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wrigley forceps</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wrigley forceps, also known as outlet forceps, are used during the final stage of labor when the fetal head is at or near the perineum, specifically at +3 station, to assist in delivery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the preferred diagnostic investigation for a patient presenting with this finding? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plethysmography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duplex", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Duplex", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-094148.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Duplex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Duplex ultrasound is highly effective for diagnosing conditions affecting the blood vessels, like venous insufficiency, because it can directly visualize both the anatomy of the blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.</li><li>➤ Duplex ultrasound is highly effective for diagnosing conditions affecting the blood vessels, like venous insufficiency, because it can directly visualize both the anatomy of the blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The serosa is an important tissue layer that forms part of the wall of several parts of the gastrointestinal tract. In which of the following parts of the GI tract is the serosa layer absent? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stomach", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Small intestine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Large intestine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Esophagus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The esophagus is unique in the GI tract as it lacks a serosa layer and instead has an adventitia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adolescent fell on an outstretched hand. For management, the doctor ties a cast as shown in the given image. Which fracture did the patient suffer from? (FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colle’s fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scaphoid fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Smith’s fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galaezzi’s fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Scaphoid fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/80.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/screenshot-2024-01-04-151756.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/81.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/82.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/83.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/screenshot-2024-01-04-184447_aoVcBHp.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/86.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/87.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Scaphoid fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the treatment of undisplaced and stable scaphoid fractures, a glass-holding cast is applied.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25 yr G2P1 presents with heavy bleeding at 32 weeks. On examination, there is hypotension. The abdomen is tender and fetal parts not palpable. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abruptio placenta", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Show", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rupture uterus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Abruptio placenta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Abruptio placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the case of a 25-year-old G2P1 woman presenting with heavy bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, several key clinical features point towards a diagnosis of abruptio placenta.</li><li>• Abruptio placenta, or placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall prematurely, leading to significant bleeding.</li><li>• The critical signs here are:</li><li>• Hypotension : This indicates significant blood loss, which can be seen in both placenta previa and placental abruption. Tender abdomen : The tenderness of the abdomen is a hallmark of placental abruption due to the irritation and inflammation caused by the bleeding and the detached placenta. Fetal parts not palpable : This is due to the tense and tender uterus, which is characteristic of placental abruption.</li><li>• Hypotension : This indicates significant blood loss, which can be seen in both placenta previa and placental abruption.</li><li>• Hypotension</li><li>• Tender abdomen : The tenderness of the abdomen is a hallmark of placental abruption due to the irritation and inflammation caused by the bleeding and the detached placenta.</li><li>• Tender abdomen</li><li>• Fetal parts not palpable : This is due to the tense and tender uterus, which is characteristic of placental abruption.</li><li>• Fetal parts not palpable</li><li>• Abruptio placenta - Immediate management (delivery) is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.</li><li>• In contrast, placenta previa typically presents with painless bleeding, and the uterus is usually relaxed and non-tender. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervical os, which can lead to painless bleeding without the tenderness seen in placental abruption.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Placenta previa : Usually presents with painless bleeding and a relaxed, non-tender uterus.</li><li>• Option A. Placenta previa</li><li>• Option C. Show : Refers to the passage of a small amount of blood or mucus plug as labor begins, which does not cause significant bleeding or abdominal tenderness.</li><li>• Option C. Show</li><li>• Option D. Rupture uterus : While it can cause significant bleeding and abdominal tenderness, it is less common and typically associated with a history of uterine surgery or trauma.</li><li>• Option D. Rupture uterus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bleeding in Pregnancy after 28 weeks à is due to APH</li><li>➤ 2 MC causes are of APH are – Placenta Previa (Painless bleeding, nontender uterus) and Abruptio placenta (Painful bleeding, tense &amp; tender uterus)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady with history of smoking presents with nipple discharge. She is diagnosed with duct ectasia. What is the procedure to be done? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Microdochectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hadfield procedure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Simple mastectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wide local excision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hadfield procedure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hadfield procedure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hadfield procedure is used to excise multiple affected ducts in patients with duct ectasia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What hormones are secreted by the Leydig cells and the Sertoli cells respectively? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DHA and testosterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Testosterone and AMH", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Testosterone and DHA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibin and testosterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Testosterone and AMH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Testosterone and AMH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leydig cells secrete testosterone Sertoli cells secrete Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) and Inhibin</li><li>➤ Leydig cells secrete testosterone</li><li>➤ Sertoli cells secrete Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) and Inhibin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the adjacent graph phase Ib represents which one of the following property? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elasticity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasticity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contractility", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Plasticity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/whatsapp-image-2024-01-03-at-185014.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Plasticity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phase Ib in the bladder pressure-volume graph represents the property of plasticity, where the bladder accommodates increasing urine volume with minimal increase in intravesical pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the investigation of choice in varicose vein? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duplex scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plethysmography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Duplex scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Duplex scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The duplex scan is the investigation of choice for varicose veins, providing detailed information on venous blood flow and identifying sites of venous incompetence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented in the pediatric OPD with fever for past 5 days along with cough, coryza, conjunctivitis. The mother also complained of a non itchy rash that appeared just a day back starting from behind the ears involving the face and spreading to the trunk also involving palms and soles. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Measles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles is characterized by the \"3 C's\" (cough, coryza, conjunctivitis) and a non-itchy rash that spreads from behind the ears to the rest of the body, including the palms and soles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman comes to an antenatal clinic at PHC and gives a history of Diabetes in her mother. Diabetic screening is carried out for this pregnant woman at", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "14-18 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "18-24 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24-28 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "32-36 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 24-28 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 24-28 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Diabetic screening in pregnant women, especially those with a family history of diabetes, is typically performed between 24 to 28 weeks of gestation. This period is chosen because it is when insulin resistance usually begins to increase due to hormonal changes in pregnancy. The screening is done using the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to confirm gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diabetic screening for pregnant women is best performed between 24-28 weeks of gestation using the oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose gestational diabetes mellitus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Doctor comes to the court to present his postmortem report. What kind of witness is the Doctor?(FMGE 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Expert witness", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hostile witness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Common Witness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hearsay witness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Expert witness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-164635.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Expert witness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Expert witness is a person who has been trained or skilled in technical or scientific subject. He can volunteer a statement, if he feels that justice is likely to be miscarried owing to the court having failed to elicit an important point.</li><li>• Expert witness</li><li>• In this case, a doctor presenting a postmortem report is providing technical opinion based on medical expertise, making them an expert witness. An expert witness is typically required to give opinions on their area of expertise, and in this scenario, the doctor's analysis and interpretation of the postmortem findings classify them as such.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hostile witness : This refers to a witness who deliberately does not tell the truth or speaks lies in court. This can apply to both common and expert witnesses.</li><li>• Option B. Hostile witness</li><li>• deliberately</li><li>• or speaks lies</li><li>• Option C. Common witness : This refers to a witness providing factual information without any specialized knowledge or opinions. In this scenario, since the doctor is giving an opinion based on medical expertise, they are not a common witness.</li><li>• Option C. Common witness</li><li>• Option D. Hearsay witness : This is someone who reports what they have been told by another person rather than what they personally observed. Hearsay witnesses are generally not considered reliable in court.</li><li>• Option D. Hearsay witness</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A doctor presenting a postmortem report in court is classified as an expert witness due to their specialized medical knowledge and ability to provide technical opinions. </li><li>➤ Note – Doctor is both common and Expert witness</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which condition is Grey Turner's sign, characterized by bruising on the abdominal wall, typically observed?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Portal hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pancreatitis with hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cancer stomach", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pancreatic cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pancreatitis with hemorrhage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-43416-pm-1.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pancreatitis with hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Grey Turner's sign, characterized by bruising on the abdominal wall (flank area), is a clinical manifestation typically observed in cases of hemorrhagic pancreatitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male presents to the emergency department with chest discomfort and dyspnea. A diagnosis of cardiac tamponade is considered. Which of the following changes in jugular venous pressure (JVP) is most indicative of cardiac tamponade? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Y descent is blunted/absent", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prominent X descent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Large a waves", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Steep Y descent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Y descent is blunted/absent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Y descent is blunted/absent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cardiac tamponade, the Y descent on the jugular venous pressure waveform is blunted or absent due to restricted right ventricular filling during diastole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the expected MCV in CBC based on the PS image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt; 80 fL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt; 60 fL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "80-100 fL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 100 fL", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. > 100 fL", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-162316.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) &gt; 100 fL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The peripheral smear (PS) image shows hypersegmented neutrophils and macro-ovalocytes , which are characteristic of megaloblastic anemia, typically due to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. In megaloblastic anemia, the red blood cells are larger than normal, leading to an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV).</li><li>• hypersegmented neutrophils and macro-ovalocytes</li><li>• vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.</li><li>• Hypersegmented neutrophils are defined as neutrophils with 5 or more lobes, or at least one neutrophil with 6 or more lobes. Macro-ovalocytes are larger-than-normal red blood cells with an oval shape, which are indicative of a megaloblastic process.</li><li>• The expected MCV in such cases is typically more than 100 fL, indicating macrocytic anemia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. &lt; 80 fL: This would indicate microcytic anemia.</li><li>• Option A. &lt; 80 fL:</li><li>• Option B. &lt; 60 fL: This would indicate severe microcytic anemia.</li><li>• Option B. &lt; 60 fL:</li><li>• Option C. 80-100 fL: This is the normal range for MCV.</li><li>• Option C. 80-100 fL:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In megaloblastic anemia, characterized by the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils and macro-ovalocytes, the MCV is typically greater than 100 fL, indicating macrocytic anemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs undergoes Hoffman’s degradation? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cis-atracurium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mivacurium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancuronium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vecuronium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cis-atracurium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cis-atracurium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cis-atracurium undergoes Hoffman’s degradation, a process independent of renal and hepatic function, making it suitable for use in patients with renal or hepatic impairment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person came to the OPD with a history of fall on the outstretched hand and now has an injury at the anatomical snuff box. Which bone is most commonly fractured at this site? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lunate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scaphoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trapezium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pisiform", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Scaphoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Scaphoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The scaphoid bone, which forms the floor of the anatomical snuff box, is the most common carpal bone to be fractured.</li><li>• The scaphoid bone is the second most common bone to suffer avascular necrosis after the head of the femur. When a person falls on an outstretched hand, the force is transmitted through the wrist, making the scaphoid bone vulnerable to fracture. The anatomical snuff box is an important anatomical landmark with five different clinical points related to it.</li><li>• To test for a scaphoid fracture, the \"glass holding position\" can be used, where the thumb adopts a specific position that stresses the scaphoid bone.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Lunate : Although the lunate is a carpal bone, it is not the most commonly fractured bone at the anatomical snuff box site.</li><li>• Option A. Lunate</li><li>• Option C. Trapezium: The trapezium is one of the bones that can be palpated in the anatomical snuff box (\"then try to catch her, she means trapezium\"), but it is not the most commonly fractured bone in this scenario.</li><li>• Option C. Trapezium:</li><li>• Option D. Pisiform: The pisiform is a small carpal bone located on the ulnar side of the wrist, not in the anatomical snuff box, and is not commonly fractured in a fall on an outstretched hand.</li><li>• Option D. Pisiform:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The scaphoid bone, which forms the floor of the anatomical snuff box, is the most common carpal bone to be fractured when a person falls on an outstretched hand.</li><li>➤ Note –</li><li>➤ Note –</li><li>➤ MC bone getting avascular necrosis – head of the femur 2 nd most common bone getting avascular necrosis – Scaphoid MC carpal bone getting fractured - scaphoid</li><li>➤ MC bone getting avascular necrosis – head of the femur</li><li>➤ 2 nd most common bone getting avascular necrosis – Scaphoid</li><li>➤ MC carpal bone getting fractured - scaphoid</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient was brought to the emergency room with complaints of headache, vomiting, and blurring of vision after he consumed some locally produced spirit. Which of the following is used for the treatment of his condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fomepizole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fomepizole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fomepizole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fomepizole is the preferred treatment for methanol poisoning, as it inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing the formation of toxic metabolites.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following autoantibody isotypes is involved in the pathogenesis of Acute Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (AIDP)? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgG", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgM", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgE", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IgG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IgG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Acute Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (AIDP) is the most common form of Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS). The pathogenesis of AIDP involves autoimmune mechanisms where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves. This autoimmune response primarily involves the production of IgG antibodies against gangliosides present on the nerve membranes.</li><li>• IgG antibodies</li><li>• IgG antibodies are significant in the diagnosis and monitoring of Guillain-Barré Syndrome, and tests for ganglioside antibodies (such as anti-GM1 IgG) are commonly ordered in clinical settings to support the diagnosis.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. IgA: IgA is primarily involved in mucosal immunity and is not a key player in the pathogenesis of AIDP.</li><li>• Option A. IgA:</li><li>• Option C. IgM: Although IgM antibodies are involved in initial immune responses, they are not primarily associated with AIDP pathogenesis.</li><li>• Option C. IgM:</li><li>• Option D. IgE: IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with the autoimmune processes seen in AIDP.</li><li>• Option D. IgE:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives</li><li>➤ IgG antibodies are involved in the pathogenesis of Acute Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (AIDP), which is the most common form of Guillain-Barré Syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During climbing the staircase, a person suddenly fell &amp; a sharp object hit on his neck. After the injury, the patient is unable to shrug/elevate the shoulder &amp; he is having difficulty in turning his head. What structure is most likely to be damaged? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Long thoracic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spinal accessory nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sternocleidomastoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deltoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Spinal accessory nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Spinal accessory nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The spinal accessory nerve (11th cranial nerve) innervates both the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. The trapezius muscle is responsible for the elevation or shrugging of the shoulder, while the sternocleidomastoid muscle is responsible for turning the head. Injury to the spinal accessory nerve results in an inability to perform these actions, which matches the patient's symptoms of being unable to shrug/elevate the shoulder and having difficulty turning the head. Therefore, the most likely structure damaged in this case is the spinal accessory nerve.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Long thoracic nerve: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle, which is responsible for the protraction and upward rotation of the scapula. Damage to this nerve causes winging of the scapula, not an inability to shrug the shoulder or turn the head.</li><li>• Option A. Long thoracic nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Sternocleidomastoid: While the sternocleidomastoid muscle is indeed involved in turning the head, its dysfunction alone would not explain the inability to shrug the shoulder. The issue lies with the nerve that innervates both the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.</li><li>• Option C. Sternocleidomastoid:</li><li>• Option D. Deltoid: This muscle is innervated by the axillary nerve and is responsible for shoulder abduction. Damage to the deltoid or axillary nerve would cause difficulty in shoulder abduction, not in shrugging the shoulder or turning the head.</li><li>• Option D. Deltoid:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The spinal accessory nerve (11th cranial nerve) is responsible for innervating the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, which are essential for shrugging the shoulder and turning the head, respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old male patient presented with complaints of paranasal sinus pain and bloody nasal discharge for the past few days. He also has a previous history of hemoptysis and hematuria. Imaging revealed multiple, bilateral, nodular cavitary infiltrates. Which of the following antibodies would be positive in this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "c-ANCA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ANA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti-histone antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-Jo 1 antibodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. c-ANCA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) c-ANCA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's presentation suggests granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), formerly known as Wegener's granulomatosis . GPA triad typically involves:</li><li>• granulomatosis with polyangiitis</li><li>• Wegener's granulomatosis</li><li>• ENT involvement: Sinus pain and bloody nasal discharge (sinusitis). Pulmonary involvement: Hemoptysis and cavitating nodules on imaging. Renal involvement: Hematuria and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.</li><li>• ENT involvement: Sinus pain and bloody nasal discharge (sinusitis).</li><li>• ENT involvement:</li><li>• Pulmonary involvement: Hemoptysis and cavitating nodules on imaging.</li><li>• Pulmonary involvement:</li><li>• Renal involvement: Hematuria and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.</li><li>• Renal involvement:</li><li>• The characteristic antibody associated with GPA is c-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies), which targets proteinase 3.</li><li>• c-ANCA</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. ANA (Antinuclear Antibodies): Typically associated with systemic lupus erythematosus and other autoimmune diseases.</li><li>• Option B. ANA (Antinuclear Antibodies):</li><li>• Option C. Anti-histone antibodies: Associated with drug-induced lupus erythematosus.</li><li>• Option C. Anti-histone antibodies:</li><li>• Option D. Anti-Jo 1 antibodies: Associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis.</li><li>• Option D. Anti-Jo 1 antibodies:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is associated with c-ANCA (anti-proteinase 3 antibodies), presenting with ENT, pulmonary, and renal involvement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the initial management for a patient who presents with diarrhea within 15 minutes of meals, after having undergone a Bilroth II gastrectomy? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Small frequent meals, increase protein content", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reverse Bilroth II to Bilroth I/Roux-en-Y", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Symptomatic Rx", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Small frequent meals, increase protein content", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-144325.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Small frequent meals, increase protein content</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial management of dumping syndrome after a Bilroth II gastrectomy is dietary modification, specifically small frequent meals with increased protein content and avoiding high glycemic index foods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man complains of difficulty in standing up from a sitting position and scissoring gait was observed in him. Which nerve is damaged in this condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior gluteal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior gluteal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obturator nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Obturator nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-23-175611.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/the-anterior-division-of-the-obturator-nerve-medial-thigh.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Obturator nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Involvement of obturator nerve may lead to spam of adductor muscles, causing a scissoring gait and difficulty rising from a sitting position due to the impaired function of the adductor muscles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Indian health care system, PHC are divided into Type A and Type B PHCs. Number of deliveries in Type A PHC: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Less than 20", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "More than or equal to 20", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Less than 30", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "More than or equal to 30", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Less than 20", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Less than 20</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the Indian health care system, Type A PHCs are those that handle less than 20 deliveries per month, while Type B PHCs manage 20 or more deliveries per month.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female, who did not disclose her pre-existing history of asthma, presented to a hospital for the treatment of gout. She was given aspirin, after which an acute asthma attack was precipitated. What is the likely cause of bronchoconstriction in this patient? (FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blockade of COX pathway", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PG mediated bronchoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Augmentation of LOX pathway", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Release of histamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Augmentation of LOX pathway", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Augmentation of LOX pathway</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspirin-induced bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma is primarily due to the augmentation of the LOX pathway, leading to increased production of leukotrienes, which are potent bronchoconstrictors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What TNM stage is appropriate for a woman with a breast lump and peau d'orange appearance affecting more than two-thirds of the breast?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T4a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T4b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T4c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T4d", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. T4d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) T4d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peau d'orange affecting more than one-third of the breast skin is classified as T4d, indicating inflammatory breast carcinoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this condition. (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Condyloma acuminata", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes genitalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Condyloma lata", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemorrhoids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Condyloma acuminata", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/whatsapp-image-2024-05-29-at-151201.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-150405.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-150416.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-150429.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-150439.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Condyloma acuminata</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows anogenital warts, which are characteristic of condyloma acuminata. These warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and present as rough-surfaced papules and plaques in the anogenital region. The warts can vary in size and shape and are typically painless but can cause discomfort due to their location.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Herpes genitalis : This condition presents as grouped vesicles on an erythematous base. These vesicles can rupture to form polycyclic erosions.</li><li>• Option B. Herpes genitalis</li><li>• Option C. Condyloma lata : Associated with secondary syphilis, condyloma lata manifests as broad-based, moist, eroded, flat papules and plaques in the genital area.</li><li>• Option C. Condyloma lata</li><li>• Option D. Hemorrhoids : These are swollen and inflamed veins in the rectum and anus, presenting as bluish swollen lumps that can cause pain and bleeding. The image does not depict the typical appearance of hemorrhoids.</li><li>• Option D. Hemorrhoids</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Condyloma acuminata presents as rough-surfaced papules and plaques in the anogenital area, characteristic of anogenital warts caused by HPV. Recognizing the appearance of these lesions is crucial for diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male with an acute ischemic stroke is undergoing thrombolysis with IV alteplase. He currently weighs 80 kg. What is the appropriate dose of alteplase to be given to this patient? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "12 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "8 mg", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "10 mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 8 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 8 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient weighing 80 kg, the appropriate initial bolus dose of alteplase for acute ischemic stroke is 8 mg, followed by the remainder of the dose given as an infusion over 1 hour.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per the new guidelines of MTP Act, Medical termination of pregnancy can be done after 24 weeks for?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rape", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contraceptive failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foetus malformation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insanity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Foetus malformation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Foetus malformation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the new guidelines of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, as amended in 2021, medical termination of pregnancy is permitted in India up to 24 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Beyond 24 weeks , MTP is permissible in cases where there are documented substantial fetal anomalies or malformations . In such cases, the opinion of the state medical board is required to proceed with the termination.</li><li>• Beyond 24 weeks</li><li>• substantial fetal anomalies or malformations</li><li>• state medical board</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Rape: This option is incorrect because, while rape or sexual assault is one of the indications for MTP up to 24 weeks, it is not a specific indication for MTP beyond 24 weeks.</li><li>• Option A. Rape:</li><li>• Option B. Contraceptive failure: This option is incorrect because contraceptive failure is a social indication for MTP up to 24 weeks, but it is not a specific indication for MTP beyond 24 weeks.</li><li>• Option B. Contraceptive failure:</li><li>• Option D. Insanity: This option is incorrect as it is not mentioned as an indication for MTP beyond 24 weeks.</li><li>• Option D. Insanity:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ As per the new guidelines of the MTP Act in India, medical termination of pregnancy can be performed beyond 24 weeks of gestation only in cases of documented substantial fetal anomalies or malformations, and the opinion of the state medical board is required.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the classification: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mallampati score", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aldrete score", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ramsay score", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Z score", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mallampati score", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-151454.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mallampati score</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shown is the Mallampati classification. It classifies the ease of visualization of the oral structures (uvula, soft palate, and tonsillar pillars) when a patient opens their mouth and protrudes their tongue. This classification helps predict the difficulty of endotracheal intubation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Aldrete score: This scoring system is used to assess the recovery of a patient post-surgery, focusing on activity, respiration, circulation, consciousness, and oxygen saturation.</li><li>• Option B. Aldrete score:</li><li>• Option C. Ramsay score: The Ramsay Score is a scale for assessing the level of sedation in patients, particularly in a critical care setting.</li><li>• Option C. Ramsay score:</li><li>• Option D. Z score: The Z score is a statistical measurement that describes a value's relationship to the mean of a group of values.</li><li>• Option D. Z score:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Mallampati classification is utilized to assess the potential difficulty of endotracheal intubation by examining the visibility of anatomical structures in the oral cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child presented with hearing loss. On examination, a white pearly mass is seen behind an intact TM as shown below. There is no history of TM perforation or surgery. What will be the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital cholesteatoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary cholesteatoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary cholesteatoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tubotympanic CSOM", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital cholesteatoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114442.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital cholesteatoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presence of a white pearly mass behind an intact tympanic membrane in a young child with no history of tympanic membrane perforation or surgery strongly suggests congenital cholesteatoma. Congenital cholesteatoma occurs due to the presence of residual epithelial cells trapped within the middle ear during embryogenesis, which later proliferate. This condition is typically seen in the anterosuperior quadrant of the tympanic membrane.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Primary cholesteatoma: Primary cholesteatoma usually involves a retraction pocket and is associated with a history of eustachian tube dysfunction. It is not typically seen with an intact tympanic membrane without a history of perforation or retraction.</li><li>• Option B. Primary cholesteatoma:</li><li>• Option C. Secondary cholesteatoma: Secondary cholesteatoma arises due to chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) with tympanic membrane perforation or from a previous surgical procedure. It does not present with an intact tympanic membrane.</li><li>• Option C. Secondary cholesteatoma:</li><li>• Option D. Tubotympanic CSOM: Tubotympanic chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) is associated with a central perforation of the tympanic membrane and chronic discharge. It is not consistent with an intact tympanic membrane and a white pearly mass.</li><li>• Option D. Tubotympanic CSOM:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital cholesteatoma is characterized by a white pearly mass behind an intact tympanic membrane in the absence of any history of perforation or surgery. It is typically found in the anterosuperior quadrant of the middle ear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle aged patient had low grade fever and cough with breathlessness. She underwent a lung biopsy which showed presence of asteroid bodies. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis in her? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SLE", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systemic sclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sarcoidosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161138.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161406.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161418.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sarcoidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of asteroid bodies in a lung biopsy, combined with symptoms like low-grade fever, cough, and breathlessness, strongly suggests a diagnosis of sarcoidosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a RTA (road traffic accident), a person suffered from injury to the bulbar urethra. What can be the location of the collection of the urine due to this injury?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deep perineal pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peritoneal cavity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior abdominal wall", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ischiorectal fossa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anterior abdominal wall", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture13_NaaKLMK.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Injury to the bulbar urethra, such as from a road traffic accident, can lead to the collection of urine in the anterior abdominal wall. The bulbar urethra is part of the spongy urethra and is located in the perineal region. When this part of the urethra ruptures, urine extravasates into the surrounding tissues.</li><li>• The typical path of urine extravasation due to a bulbar urethral injury includes:</li><li>• The typical path of urine extravasation due to a bulbar urethral injury includes:</li><li>• Perineum: Initially, urine accumulates around the scrotum and the perineum. Superficial perineal pouch: Urine then spreads into the superficial perineal pouch. Anterior abdominal wall: From the superficial perineal pouch, urine can extend into the anterior abdominal wall, following the fascial planes.</li><li>• Perineum: Initially, urine accumulates around the scrotum and the perineum.</li><li>• Superficial perineal pouch: Urine then spreads into the superficial perineal pouch.</li><li>• Anterior abdominal wall: From the superficial perineal pouch, urine can extend into the anterior abdominal wall, following the fascial planes.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Deep perineal pouch: Rupture of the membranous urethra would lead to urine collection in the deep perineal pouch, not typically the case with bulbar urethral injury.</li><li>• Option A. Deep perineal pouch:</li><li>• Option B. Peritoneal cavity: Urine does not usually enter the peritoneal cavity from a bulbar urethral injury.</li><li>• Option B. Peritoneal cavity:</li><li>• Option D. Ischiorectal fossa: This area is more likely affected in cases involving deep perineal infections or abscesses rather than bulbar urethral injuries.</li><li>• Option D. Ischiorectal fossa:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of bulbar urethral injury, urine typically accumulates in the perineum and can extend into the anterior abdominal wall but not into the deep perineal pouch or the peritoneal cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Type 2 lepra reaction is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type II", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type III", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Type III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Type III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Type 2 lepra reaction (also known as erythema nodosum leprosum, ENL) is mediated by a Type III hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction:</li><li>• Immune complexes (antigen-antibody complexes) deposit in tissues, leading to complement activation and inflammation. This reaction occurs in lepromatous leprosy due to a sudden increase in circulating Mycobacterium leprae antigens that form immune complexes with antibodies. The immune complexes cause tissue damage, resulting in tender erythematous nodules, fever, and systemic inflammation. Key Features of Type III Hypersensitivity: Immune complex-mediated (IgG or IgM antibodies bind to soluble antigens). Complement activation and neutrophilic inflammation. Examples: Type 2 lepra reaction, serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.</li><li>• Immune complexes (antigen-antibody complexes) deposit in tissues, leading to complement activation and inflammation.</li><li>• This reaction occurs in lepromatous leprosy due to a sudden increase in circulating Mycobacterium leprae antigens that form immune complexes with antibodies.</li><li>• The immune complexes cause tissue damage, resulting in tender erythematous nodules, fever, and systemic inflammation.</li><li>• Key Features of Type III Hypersensitivity:</li><li>• Immune complex-mediated (IgG or IgM antibodies bind to soluble antigens).</li><li>• Complement activation and neutrophilic inflammation.</li><li>• Examples: Type 2 lepra reaction, serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A) Type I Hypersensitivity:</li><li>• Option A) Type I Hypersensitivity:</li><li>• Mediated by IgE antibodies, causing mast cell degranulation. Seen in allergic reactions, anaphylaxis, and atopic conditions (e.g., urticaria, asthma).</li><li>• Mediated by IgE antibodies, causing mast cell degranulation.</li><li>• Seen in allergic reactions, anaphylaxis, and atopic conditions (e.g., urticaria, asthma).</li><li>• Option B) Type II Hypersensitivity:</li><li>• Option B) Type II Hypersensitivity:</li><li>• Involves cytotoxic antibodies (IgG or IgM) binding to cell-bound antigens, leading to cell destruction via complement or ADCC (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity). Examples: Hemolytic anemia, Goodpasture syndrome, Rh incompatibility.</li><li>• Involves cytotoxic antibodies (IgG or IgM) binding to cell-bound antigens, leading to cell destruction via complement or ADCC (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity).</li><li>• Examples: Hemolytic anemia, Goodpasture syndrome, Rh incompatibility.</li><li>• Option D) Type IV Hypersensitivity:</li><li>• Option D) Type IV Hypersensitivity:</li><li>• Cell-mediated immunity involving T-lymphocytes and macrophages. Delayed onset (48-72 hours) and seen in tuberculin skin tests, contact dermatitis, and granuloma formation. Type I lepra reaction (reversal reaction) is an example of Type IV hypersensitivity.</li><li>• Cell-mediated immunity involving T-lymphocytes and macrophages.</li><li>• Delayed onset (48-72 hours) and seen in tuberculin skin tests, contact dermatitis, and granuloma formation.</li><li>• Type I lepra reaction (reversal reaction) is an example of Type IV hypersensitivity.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type 2 lepra reaction (erythema nodosum leprosum) is a Type III hypersensitivity reaction caused by immune complex deposition. It presents with tender nodules, fever, and systemic inflammation and is commonly associated with lepromatous leprosy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient presents with hoarseness of voice with a history of significant weight loss. On laryngoscopy, ulceroproliferative growth involving the left vocal fold is seen, as shown below. The vocal cord is fixed. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radical radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total Laryngectomy with Neck Dissection", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Concurrent chemoradiation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Total Laryngectomy with Neck Dissection", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115352.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Total Laryngectomy with Neck Dissection.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation (hoarseness of voice, weight loss) and the laryngoscopic findings (ulceroproliferative growth with fixed vocal cord) suggest advanced glottic carcinoma. The fixed vocal cord indicates at least T3 stage, as it suggests tumor infiltration into the paraglottic space or fixation due to deeper invasion. Weight loss in an elderly patient further supports an advanced stage malignancy.</li><li>• This is the preferred treatment for T3 or T4 laryngeal cancers, especially when the vocal cords are fixed, and there is a high likelihood of regional spread. If the patient has significant lymph node involvement or is symptomatic (e.g., weight loss), a neck dissection is warranted along with total laryngectomy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Radical Radiotherapy: Radical radiotherapy is usually preferred for early-stage laryngeal cancers (T1 or T2) with mobile vocal cords. It is less effective for advanced stages (T3 or T4) due to higher chances of recurrence.</li><li>• Option A. Radical Radiotherapy:</li><li>• Option C. Chemotherapy: Chemotherapy alone is not the primary treatment for advanced laryngeal carcinoma unless the patient is unsuitable for surgery or radiation. It is primarily used for palliative care or in cases with distant metastasis.</li><li>• Option C. Chemotherapy:</li><li>• Option D. Concurrent Chemoradiation: Concurrent chemoradiation is a consideration for organ preservation in advanced laryngeal cancers. However, for patients with a fixed vocal cord and significant weight loss, total laryngectomy provides better local control and survival outcomes.</li><li>• Option D. Concurrent Chemoradiation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For advanced glottic carcinoma with vocal cord fixation (T3/T4) and evidence of regional spread, the best treatment option is Total Laryngectomy with Neck Dissection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child was brought to the hospital by their parents with symptoms of squint and diminished vision. For conducting refraction testing on this child, which of the following drugs would be most suitable? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1% Atropine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.5% Loteprednol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1% Tropicamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.5% Timolol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1% Atropine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1% Atropine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1% Atropine is the most effective cycloplegic agent for refraction testing in children, providing reliable and accurate measurement of refractive error by paralyzing the ciliary muscle and preventing accommodation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When is the quadruple marker test done? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 – 10 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "11 – 14 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "16 – 20 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "24 – 28 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 16 – 20 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The quadruple marker test is a prenatal screening test performed during the second trimester of pregnancy , typically between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation .</li><li>• prenatal screening test</li><li>• second trimester of pregnancy</li><li>• between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation</li><li>• This test is used to assess the risk of certain genetic disorders, including Down syndrome (trisomy 21) , trisomy 18, and neural tube defects.</li><li>• Down syndrome (trisomy 21)</li><li>• The quadruple marker test measures four specific substances in the mother's blood:</li><li>• Unconjugated estriol (uE3) Free beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (free beta-HCG) Inhibin A Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)</li><li>• Unconjugated estriol (uE3)</li><li>• Unconjugated estriol (uE3)</li><li>• Free beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (free beta-HCG)</li><li>• Free beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (free beta-HCG)</li><li>• Inhibin A</li><li>• Inhibin A</li><li>• Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)</li><li>• Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)</li><li>• These markers provide information about the likelihood of certain fetal abnormalities.</li><li>• Note - In the case of Down syndrome, free beta-HCG and inhibin A levels tend to be elevated, while unconjugated estriol and alpha-fetoprotein levels are typically decreased.</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The quadruple marker test is conducted between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation to screen for genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fluid of choice for elective surgery is preferably: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colloid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crystalloid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "FFP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Crystalloid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Crystalloid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred fluid for elective surgery is crystalloid due to its efficacy in volume expansion, safety, and cost-effectiveness compared to blood, colloid, or FFP.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cranial nerves does not carry parasympathetic fibers? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trochlear", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Facial", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oculomotor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glossopharyngeal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trochlear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-142606.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trochlear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Among the cranial nerves, only the oculomotor (CN III), facial (CN VII), glossopharyngeal (CN IX), and vagus (CN X) nerves carry parasympathetic fibers. These nerves are responsible for parasympathetic activity in the head, neck, and face area. The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is not involved in parasympathetic innervation.</li><li>• The parasympathetic ganglia associated with these cranial nerves are:</li><li>• The parasympathetic ganglia associated with these cranial nerves are:</li><li>• Oculomotor (CN III): Ciliary ganglion, related to the eye Facial (CN VII): Pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglia, causing secretion from nasal, palatine, and submandibular glands Glossopharyngeal (CN IX): Otic ganglion Vagus (CN X): Responsible for secretion from the gastrointestinal tract (GIT)</li><li>• Oculomotor (CN III): Ciliary ganglion, related to the eye</li><li>• Oculomotor (CN III):</li><li>• Facial (CN VII): Pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglia, causing secretion from nasal, palatine, and submandibular glands</li><li>• Facial (CN VII):</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal (CN IX): Otic ganglion</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal (CN IX):</li><li>• Vagus (CN X): Responsible for secretion from the gastrointestinal tract (GIT)</li><li>• Vagus (CN X):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Facial: The facial nerve (CN VII) carries parasympathetic fibers and is associated with the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglia.</li><li>• Option B. Facial:</li><li>• Option C. Oculomotor: The oculomotor nerve (CN III) carries parasympathetic fibers and is associated with the ciliary ganglion.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Oculomotor:</li><li>• Option D. Glossopharyngeal: The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) carries parasympathetic fibers and is associated with the otic ganglion.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Glossopharyngeal:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers are CN III, CN VII, CN IX, and CN X (3, 7, 9, 10). These nerves are responsible for parasympathetic activity and secretion in the head, neck, and face area, as well as the gastrointestinal tract.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per the Ayushman Bharat program, the following is not an inclusion: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insurance cover of Rs 5 Lacs per family per year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Health and wellness centres", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insurance cover of Rs 10 Lacs per family per year", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meant for BPL families", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Insurance cover of Rs 10 Lacs per family per year", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Insurance cover of Rs 10 Lacs per family per year</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Ayushman Bharat program has two main components:</li><li>• The Ayushman Bharat program has two main components:</li><li>• Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) - Create a network of health, wellness infrastructure delivering comprehensive primary healthcare services Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). PM-JAY provides an insurance cover of Rs 5 Lacs per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization. This program is targeted towards the below poverty line (BPL) population, aiming to cover around 10.74 crore families.</li><li>• Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) - Create a network of health, wellness infrastructure delivering comprehensive primary healthcare services</li><li>• Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). PM-JAY provides an insurance cover of Rs 5 Lacs per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization. This program is targeted towards the below poverty line (BPL) population, aiming to cover around 10.74 crore families.</li><li>• Rs 5 Lacs per family per year</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Insurance cover of Rs 5 Lacs per family per year: This is included under PM-JAY.</li><li>• Option A. Insurance cover of Rs 5 Lacs per family per year:</li><li>• Option B. Health and wellness centres: These are established to provide comprehensive primary healthcare services.</li><li>• Option B. Health and wellness centres:</li><li>• Option C. Meant for BPL families: The program targets families below the poverty line, aiming to benefit around 50 crore individuals.</li><li>• Option C. Meant for BPL families:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ayushman Bharat program includes an insurance cover of Rs 5 Lacs per family per year, health and wellness centres, and is meant for BPL families. An insurance cover of Rs 10 Lacs per family per year is not included.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the nature of amyloid in a patient undergoing hemodialysis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "AA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ACal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A Beta 2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A Beta 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-161511.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the technique shown in the image: (FMGE JULY 2023", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cattel’s technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mattox technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pringle technique", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kocherization", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pringle technique", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-43417-pm.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pringle technique</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Pringle maneuver involves clamping the hepatic artery and portal vein to control liver bleeding during surgery, by reducing the inflow of blood to the liver.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mid arm circumference for severe acute malnutrition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12.5 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "12 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "11.5 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "11 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 11.5 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 11.5 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severe acute malnutrition is defined as</li><li>➤ Weight for height &lt;-3 standard deviation Mid upper arm circumference &lt;11.5cm Bilateral pedal edema</li><li>➤ Weight for height &lt;-3 standard deviation</li><li>➤ Mid upper arm circumference &lt;11.5cm</li><li>➤ Bilateral pedal edema</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given the image showing significant limb swelling, which body system is likely affected?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphatics", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lymphatics", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-43416-pm.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lymphatics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Significant limb swelling with a characteristic \"tree trunk\" appearance in the calf region, along with swelling of the foot and squaring of the toes, is a classic presentation of lymphedema, suggesting involvement of the lymphatic system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under the Urban health care system of India, the following health centre is not included: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PHC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CHC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "District hospital", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sub-centre", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. District hospital", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) District hospital</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• District hospitals, however, are not a part of the urban healthcare system's primary or secondary level facilities, hence they are not included.</li><li>• Urban Health care system of India</li><li>• Urban Health care system of India</li><li>• There is a provision for creating urban health and wellness centres , which cater to a population of 15,000 to 20,000. These centres are akin to primary health centres (PHCs) in rural areas. Additionally, Urban Primary Health Centres (UPHC), previously known as Urban Health Centres , serve a population of 50,000 . Urban polyclinics are created for a population of 2.5 to 3 lakh . At the secondary level, Urban Community Health Centres (UCHC) are established for a population of 2.5 lakh in non-metro cities and 5 lakh in metro cities .</li><li>• There is a provision for creating urban health and wellness centres , which cater to a population of 15,000 to 20,000.</li><li>• urban health and wellness centres</li><li>• population of 15,000 to 20,000.</li><li>• These centres are akin to primary health centres (PHCs) in rural areas. Additionally, Urban Primary Health Centres (UPHC), previously known as Urban Health Centres , serve a population of 50,000 .</li><li>• Urban Health Centres</li><li>• 50,000</li><li>• Urban polyclinics are created for a population of 2.5 to 3 lakh .</li><li>• Urban polyclinics</li><li>• population of 2.5 to 3 lakh</li><li>• At the secondary level, Urban Community Health Centres (UCHC) are established for a population of 2.5 lakh in non-metro cities and 5 lakh in metro cities .</li><li>• Urban Community Health Centres (UCHC)</li><li>• population of 2.5 lakh in non-metro cities and 5 lakh in metro cities</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ District hospitals are not included in the urban healthcare system of India; instead, urban health facilities include Urban Health and Wellness Centres, Urban Primary Health Centres (UPHC), Urban Polyclinics, and Urban Community Health Centres (UCHC).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Visual blurring in papilledema is called as? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amaurosis fugax", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blindness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malingering", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corectopia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amaurosis fugax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Amaurosis fugax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Amaurosis fugax refers to transient episodes of visual blurring or vision loss.</li><li>• transient episodes of visual blurring or vision loss.</li><li>• It is often seen in conditions where there is temporary reduction in blood flow to the eye, such as in papilledema. Papilledema is the swelling of the optic nerve head (optic disc) due to increased intracranial pressure. This swelling can cause transient visual disturbances, which are described as amaurosis fugax.</li><li>• papilledema.</li><li>• In papilledema, the optic nerve head becomes swollen due to stasis of axoplasmic flow, often because of compression or increased pressure on the optic nerve. Despite this swelling, optic nerve function remains normal initially, meaning that central vision, color vision, and pupil reactions are typically preserved. The transient visual blurring episodes (amaurosis fugax) are a key symptom.</li><li>• central vision, color vision, and pupil reactions are typically preserved.</li><li>• Note - Finding in visual field charting (Papilledema)– enlargement of physiological blind spot</li><li>• Note - Finding in visual field charting (Papilledema)– enlargement of physiological blind spot</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Blindness : This refers to complete loss of vision, which is not the case in papilledema where vision disturbances are transient.</li><li>• Option B. Blindness</li><li>• Option C. Malingering : This term refers to the intentional feigning of illness or symptoms for secondary gain, and is not related to the visual disturbances seen in papilledema.</li><li>• Option C. Malingering</li><li>• Option D. Corectopia : This is a condition where the pupil is displaced from its normal central position. It is unrelated to the transient visual blurring seen in papilledema.</li><li>• Option D. Corectopia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amaurosis fugax refers to transient episodes of visual blurring seen in conditions like papilledema, which is characterized by swelling of the optic nerve head due to increased intracranial pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient presenting with recurrent chalazion, which cancer is suspected? (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sebaceous cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kaposi’s sarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sebaceous cell carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sebaceous cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sebaceous cell carcinoma is a malignancy of the sebaceous glands, which can present as recurrent chalazion.</li><li>• Chalazion is an inflammation of the meibomian glands , which are modified sebaceous glands located in the eyelids.</li><li>• meibomian glands</li><li>• While chalazion is typically a benign condition, its recurrence, particularly in elderly patients, can be indicative of underlying sebaceous cell carcinoma.</li><li>• This carcinoma is notorious for masquerading as benign eyelid lesions, thus a history of recurrent chalazion warrants further investigation to rule out this malignancy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Squamous cell carcinoma : This is the second most common type of eyelid cancer, but it does not typically present as recurrent chalazion. It more often presents as a chronic, non-healing ulcerative lesion.</li><li>• Option B. Squamous cell carcinoma</li><li>• second most common</li><li>• Option C. Basal cell carcinoma : This is the most common eyelid cancer but usually presents as a pearly nodule with telangiectasia rather than as recurrent chalazion.</li><li>• Option C. Basal cell carcinoma</li><li>• most common eyelid cancer</li><li>• Option D. Kaposi’s sarcoma : This vascular tumor is associated with immunocompromised states such as HIV/AIDS. It typically presents as red or purple macules, plaques, or nodules, not as recurrent chalazion.</li><li>• Option D. Kaposi’s sarcoma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recurrent chalazion should raise suspicion for sebaceous cell carcinoma, especially in elderly patients, as this malignancy can mimic benign eyelid lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient with depression, which medicine is appropriate? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoxetine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lithium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Imipramine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fluoxetine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fluoxetine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluoxetine, an SSRI, is the first-line treatment for depression due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this maneuver: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pinard maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lovset maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ritgen maneuver", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mauriceau maneuver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ritgen maneuver", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-170927.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-171034.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-171127.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-171224_XOiolpr.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ritgen maneuver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts the Ritgen maneuver, which is performed during the second stage of labor to control the delivery of the fetal head. This maneuver involves controlled extension of the head to minimize perineal trauma. The pressure is applied on the fetal chin through the perineum while simultaneously controlling the speed of delivery of the head with the other hand.</li><li>• controlled extension of the head</li><li>• This helps in a gradual delivery of the head, reducing the risk of severe perineal tears.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pinard maneuver : This maneuver is used during breech delivery to assist in delivering the legs by hooking them at the popliteal fossa.</li><li>• Option A. Pinard maneuver</li><li>• Option B. Lovset maneuver : This is also used in breech delivery, specifically to help deliver the arms that are positioned over the head (nuchal arms).</li><li>• Option B. Lovset maneuver</li><li>• Option D. Mauriceau maneuver : This is used for delivering the after-coming head in a breech presentation, involving the application of pressure on the maxilla and supporting the body of the baby to facilitate head delivery.</li><li>• Option D. Mauriceau maneuver</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ritgen maneuver involves controlled extension of the fetal head during delivery to minimize perineal trauma and ensure a smooth birth process.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient presents with wounds that aren’t healing properly, diarrhea, alopecia, and dermatitis. This could be due to which nutrient deficiency? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zinc", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Magnesium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Zinc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Zinc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Zinc deficiency, also known as Acrodermatitis Enteropathica , is characterized by symptoms such as impaired wound healing, diarrhea, alopecia, and dermatitis.</li><li>• Acrodermatitis Enteropathica</li><li>• Zinc is crucial for immune function, protein synthesis, wound healing, DNA synthesis, and cell division. A deficiency in zinc disrupts these biological processes, leading to the symptoms mentioned.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin C: Deficiency leads to scurvy, which presents with symptoms like bleeding gums, weakness, and bruising, not primarily with the symptoms listed in the question.</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin C:</li><li>• Option C. Niacin: Deficiency results in pellagra, characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and eventually death, but does not typically include alopecia as a primary symptom.</li><li>• Option C. Niacin:</li><li>• Option D. Magnesium: Deficiency can cause neurological and muscular symptoms, such as tremors and muscle spasms, which are not mentioned in the question.</li><li>• Option D. Magnesium:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zinc deficiency should be considered in patients presenting with a combination of diarrhea, impaired wound healing, alopecia, and dermatitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On retinal examination of a hypertensive patient, multiple flame-shaped hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and disc edema were seen. Which grade of hypertensive retinopathy will it be classified as? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grade 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grade 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grade 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grade 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Grade 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-120255.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-120309.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Grade 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Keith-Wagener-Barker Classification:</li><li>➤ Keith-Wagener-Barker Classification:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "6 x 6 x 6 Strategy under Anemia Mukt Bharat does not include: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 Beneficiaries", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 Interventions", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 Ministries", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 Institutional mechanisms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6 Ministries", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/screenshot-2024-05-30-151704.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 6 Ministries</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Anemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) program aims to reduce the prevalence of anemia by 3 percentage points per year from 2018 to 2022. The program is implemented using the 6 x 6 x 6 strategy, which includes:</li><li>• The strategy does not include 6 Ministries as one of its components.</li><li>• 6 Ministries</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 6 Beneficiaries: Children below 5 years, children aged 5-9 years, adolescents aged 10-19 years, women of reproductive age (20-49 years), pregnant women, and lactating women.</li><li>• Option A. 6 Beneficiaries:</li><li>• Option B. 6 Interventions: This includes iron and folic acid supplementation, deworming, intensified year-round behavior change communication (BCC), testing and treatment of anemia using digital methods and point of care treatment, mandatory provision of iron and folic acid fortified foods in government-funded health programs, and addressing non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.</li><li>• Option B. 6 Interventions:</li><li>• Option D. 6 Institutional mechanisms: These are designed to support the implementation of the program effectively.</li><li>• Option D. 6 Institutional mechanisms:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The 6 x 6 x 6 strategy under Anemia Mukt Bharat includes 6 beneficiaries, 6 interventions, and 6 institutional mechanisms, but not 6 ministries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented to the clinic with complaints of recurrent infection. Physical examination shows height for age &lt; -2 SD. What is the appropriate term for the above mentioned condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stunting", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wasting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe acute malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kwashiorkor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stunting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stunting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand the different indicators of malnutrition, specifically recognizing that height for age &lt; -2 SD is a sign of stunting, which reflects chronic malnutrition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not the correct statement about papillary thyroid cancer? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "History of radiation exposure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Affects in early third decade", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tests reveals elevated serum calcitonin levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Most patients have a good prognosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tests reveals elevated serum calcitonin levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tests reveals elevated serum calcitonin levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Papillary thyroid cancer is not associated with elevated serum calcitonin levels; this is a characteristic feature of medullary thyroid cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with foul-smelling ear discharge. On further exploration, a small perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane as shown below. Most appropriate management would be: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV antibiotics and follow up after a month", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tympanoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tympanomastoid exploration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tympanomastoid exploration", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/untitled-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tympanomastoid exploration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Attico-antral CSOM, characterized by foul-smelling discharge and attic perforation, requires tympanomastoid exploration for definitive management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the Rule of halves phenomenon (See image below), Mark what is represented by innermost circle (black color)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No of hypertensives", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "No of those symptomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "No of those seeking treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No of those getting adequate treatment", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. No of those getting adequate treatment", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/30/psm.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) No of those getting adequate treatment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The rule of halves is a phenomenon applicable to hypertension, which states that as blood pressure increases with age, roughly 50% of the adult population will have hypertension at any given point in time.</li><li>• The image shows concentric circles representing different subsets of the population with hypertension. the innermost black circle represents the number of people who are getting adequate treatment for their hypertension. This is 50% of the subset who seek treatment, which is itself 50% of those who are symptomatic, who are in turn 50% of the total number of people with hypertension.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. No of hypertensives: This option is incorrect because the number of hypertensives is represented by the yellow circle, which is the second outermost circle, not the innermost black circle.</li><li>• Option A. No of hypertensives:</li><li>• Option B. No of those symptomatic: This option is incorrect because the number of those symptomatic is represented by the green circle, which is the third outermost circle, not the innermost black circle.</li><li>• Option B. No of those symptomatic:</li><li>• Option C. No of those seeking treatment: This option is incorrect because the number of those seeking treatment is represented by the red circle, which is the second innermost circle, not the innermost black circle.</li><li>• Option C. No of those seeking treatment:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the rule of halves phenomenon for hypertension, the innermost circle represents the number of people who are getting adequate treatment, which is only 50% of the subset who seek treatment, highlighting the need for improved hypertension management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person is preparing for a trip to Ladakh. Which of the following drugs should be used to prevent the onset of mountain sickness? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sumatriptan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Promethazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scopolamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acetazolamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acetazolamide is used to prevent mountain sickness because it induces metabolic acidosis, which stimulates increased breathing and oxygenation, aiding acclimatization to high altitudes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child has presented with a birth defect as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Craniorachischisis with anencephaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anencephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spina bifida", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anencephaly with meningocoele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Craniorachischisis with anencephaly", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-115720.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-115731.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-115753.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Craniorachischisis with anencephaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Craniorachischisis is a severe neural tube defect involving both the brain and spinal cord, with the worst prognosis among neural tube defects. Spina bifida occulta, in contrast, has the best prognosis among these conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who had kidney stones removed presents with flank pain 4-5 years postoperatively and a foreign body is observed on imaging. What is the appropriate management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endoscopy with removal of foreign body", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laparotomy and Cystoscopic removal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retrograde urethrogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leave the foreign body inside", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endoscopy with removal of foreign body", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-43416-pm-3.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Endoscopy with removal of foreign body</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endoscopy is the appropriate procedure for the removal of a retained ureteric stent, which can cause complications if left inside the body for too long.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is being evaluated for urinary incontinence following a hysterectomy. In the 3-swab test, the middle swab is stained with dye. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uretero-vaginal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vesico-vaginal fistula", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Utero-vaginal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urethro-vaginal fistula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vesico-vaginal fistula", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-170136.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vesico-vaginal fistula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The 3-swab test is used to diagnose the presence and location of a fistula between the urinary tract and the genital tract following a hysterectomy.</li><li>• 3-swab Test:</li><li>• 3-swab Test:</li><li>• Three dry swabs are placed in the vagina: Swab 1: Upper vagina Swab 2: Middle vagina Swab 3: Lower vagina Methylene blue dye is then injected into the bladder through a urinary catheter. After waiting for 5-10 minutes, the swabs are removed and examined for staining and wetness: If the upper swab is wet but not stained with dye, it suggests a uretero-vaginal fistula since urine from the ureter is leaking into the vagina without dye. If the middle swab is wet and stained with blue dye, it indicates a vesico-vaginal fistula because the dye from the bladder is leaking directly into the vagina through the fistula. If the lower swab is stained and wet, it indicates a urethro-vaginal fistula .</li><li>• Three dry swabs are placed in the vagina: Swab 1: Upper vagina Swab 2: Middle vagina Swab 3: Lower vagina</li><li>• Three dry swabs</li><li>• Swab 1: Upper vagina Swab 2: Middle vagina Swab 3: Lower vagina</li><li>• Swab 1: Upper vagina</li><li>• Swab 2: Middle vagina</li><li>• Swab 3: Lower vagina</li><li>• Methylene blue dye is then injected into the bladder through a urinary catheter.</li><li>• Methylene blue dye</li><li>• After waiting for 5-10 minutes, the swabs are removed and examined for staining and wetness: If the upper swab is wet but not stained with dye, it suggests a uretero-vaginal fistula since urine from the ureter is leaking into the vagina without dye. If the middle swab is wet and stained with blue dye, it indicates a vesico-vaginal fistula because the dye from the bladder is leaking directly into the vagina through the fistula. If the lower swab is stained and wet, it indicates a urethro-vaginal fistula .</li><li>• If the upper swab is wet but not stained with dye, it suggests a uretero-vaginal fistula since urine from the ureter is leaking into the vagina without dye. If the middle swab is wet and stained with blue dye, it indicates a vesico-vaginal fistula because the dye from the bladder is leaking directly into the vagina through the fistula. If the lower swab is stained and wet, it indicates a urethro-vaginal fistula .</li><li>• If the upper swab is wet but not stained with dye, it suggests a uretero-vaginal fistula since urine from the ureter is leaking into the vagina without dye.</li><li>• upper swab</li><li>• uretero-vaginal fistula</li><li>• If the middle swab is wet and stained with blue dye, it indicates a vesico-vaginal fistula because the dye from the bladder is leaking directly into the vagina through the fistula.</li><li>• middle swab</li><li>• vesico-vaginal fistula</li><li>• If the lower swab is stained and wet, it indicates a urethro-vaginal fistula .</li><li>• lower swab</li><li>• urethro-vaginal fistula</li><li>• In this case, the middle swab being stained with dye indicates that the fistula is between the bladder (vesica) and the vagina, confirming a vesico-vaginal fistula.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Uretero-vaginal fistula : The upper swab would be wet but not stained with dye.</li><li>• Option A. Uretero-vaginal fistula</li><li>• Option C. Utero-vaginal fistula : This is not relevant post-hysterectomy as the uterus has been removed.</li><li>• Option C. Utero-vaginal fistula</li><li>• Option D. Urethro-vaginal fistula : The lower swab would be stained and wet.</li><li>• Option D. Urethro-vaginal fistula</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A positive 3-swab test with the middle swab stained with dye indicates a vesico-vaginal fistula, which is a common complication following a hysterectomy where the bladder and vagina are abnormally connected.</li><li>➤ Note – the best IOC in this case is – CT Urography</li><li>➤ Note</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 74-year-old male presents to the hospital with urinary hesitancy and retention of urine. An ultrasound reveals an enlarged prostate and a residual urine volume of 130 ml. Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of this patient? (FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 alpha-reductase inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium channel blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ACE inhibitors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aldosterone antagonist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors are used to treat urinary symptoms associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by reducing the size of the prostate and relieving urinary hesitancy and retention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient presents with an extremely painful blister characterized by a woody surface. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gas gangrene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cellulitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Necrotizing fasciitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "DVT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Necrotizing fasciitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/whatsapp-image-2024-06-22-at-43416-pm-4.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Necrotizing fasciitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe infection that affects the fascia and subcutaneous tissues, leading to extreme pain, blistering, and a woody surface, and requires prompt medical attention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old patient presented in ENT OPD with hoarseness of voice following a quarrel in public. On laryngoscopy, the following picture is seen. Management of this patient is? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MLS removal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Voice rest &amp; Speech therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MLS removal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-03-115513.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) MLS removal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The laryngoscopic image shows a unilateral large mass at the junction of the anterior one-third and posterior two-thirds of the vocal cord, which is consistent with a vocal polyp. Vocal polyps typically result from vocal abuse or trauma and can cause hoarseness of voice. The definitive management of a vocal polyp is Microsuspension Laryngoscopy (MLS) removal, which involves surgically excising the polyp to restore normal voice function.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Radiotherapy: Radiotherapy is not indicated for benign lesions such as vocal polyps. It is used primarily for malignant conditions.</li><li>• Option B. Radiotherapy:</li><li>• Option C. Cryotherapy: Cryotherapy is not a standard treatment for vocal polyps. It is more commonly used for other types of lesions.</li><li>• Option C. Cryotherapy:</li><li>• Option D. Voice rest &amp; Speech therapy: Voice rest and speech therapy are generally recommended for vocal nodules, which are smaller and often bilateral. While these therapies can help in reducing strain on the vocal cords, they are not the primary treatment for vocal polyps, which require surgical removal.</li><li>• Option D. Voice rest &amp; Speech therapy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The management of a vocal polyp, which presents as a unilateral mass on the vocal cord, is surgical removal via Microsuspension Laryngoscopy (MLS). Voice rest and speech therapy are more suitable for smaller, bilateral vocal nodules.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female patient presents with complaints of dryness in the mouth and eyes. She also has dysphagia. On examination, dental caries and enlarged cervical lymph nodes are noted. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mixed connective tissue disorders", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wegener's granulomatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sjogren syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sjogren syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sjogren syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sjogren syndrome is characterized by dry mouth, dry eyes, dysphagia, dental caries, and lymphadenopathy, due to autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female presents with daytime sleepiness, impaired concentration, and impaired memory. On exam, her BMI is 43, BP is 170/100 mm Hg. Her daytime ABG analysis shows HCO3 - 33 mEq/L, PaCO2 - 53 mmHg, and PaO2 - 70 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obstructive sleep apnea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Narcolepsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obesity hypoventilation syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central sleep apnea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Obesity hypoventilation syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient has obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS), which is characterized by the following criteria:</li><li>• A BMI of 30 or more, indicating obesity. Hypercarbia or hypercapnia, defined as PaCO2 &gt; 45 mm Hg. The awake ABG must be taken (daytime ABG). No other causes (central or peripheral neuromuscular) should be present to explain the hypercapnia.</li><li>• A BMI of 30 or more, indicating obesity.</li><li>• Hypercarbia or hypercapnia, defined as PaCO2 &gt; 45 mm Hg.</li><li>• The awake ABG must be taken (daytime ABG).</li><li>• No other causes (central or peripheral neuromuscular) should be present to explain the hypercapnia.</li><li>• The patient's symptoms and test results align with OHS. OHS patients typically present with symptoms like daytime sleepiness, impaired concentration, and impaired memory, which are noted in this patient.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Obstructive sleep apnea: This condition typically causes issues during sleep, not in the daytime. It is characterized by repeated episodes of partial or complete upper airway obstruction during sleep.</li><li>• Option A. Obstructive sleep apnea:</li><li>• Option B. Narcolepsy: This is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden sleep attacks, but it does not align with the patient’s clinical picture, which includes specific ABG results and severe obesity.</li><li>• Option B. Narcolepsy:</li><li>• Option D. Central sleep apnea: Like obstructive sleep apnea, central sleep apnea occurs during sleep and involves periods of non-breathing. It does not match the daytime ABG findings of this patient.</li><li>• Option D. Central sleep apnea:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obesity hypoventilation syndrome is diagnosed based on a BMI of 30 or more, daytime hypercapnia (PaCO2 &gt; 45 mm Hg), and the absence of other causes for hypercapnia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A fetus diagnosed with neural tube defect at 21 weeks. The parents want an MTP at 21 weeks. What opinions are required? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Opinion of 1 doctor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Opinion of 2 doctors", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Husband’s permission with 1 doctor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Permission of medical board", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Opinion of 2 doctors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, which was amended in 2021, significant changes were made to the requirements for performing an MTP in India.</li><li>• Under the old act, MTP was allowed up to 20 weeks, with the opinion of one registered medical practitioner (RMP) required up to 12 weeks, and the opinion of two RMPs required from 12 to 20 weeks.</li><li>• The 2021 amendment extended the permissible period for MTP to 24 weeks. The new guidelines specify that:</li><li>• Up to 20 weeks, the opinion of one RMP or gynecologist is required. From 20 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two gynecologists is required. For pregnancies beyond 24 weeks, MTP can be performed only if there is a substantial fetal anomaly , which must be determined by a medical board. This board typically consists of specialists such as a radiologist, a gynecologist, a pediatrician, and other relevant subspecialists based on the nature of the anomaly.</li><li>• Up to 20 weeks, the opinion of one RMP or gynecologist is required.</li><li>• one RMP</li><li>• or gynecologist</li><li>• From 20 to 24 weeks, the opinion of two gynecologists is required.</li><li>• two gynecologists</li><li>• For pregnancies beyond 24 weeks, MTP can be performed only if there is a substantial fetal anomaly , which must be determined by a medical board. This board typically consists of specialists such as a radiologist, a gynecologist, a pediatrician, and other relevant subspecialists based on the nature of the anomaly.</li><li>• a substantial</li><li>• fetal anomaly</li><li>• medical board.</li><li>• In this scenario, since the fetus is diagnosed with a neural tube defect at 21 weeks and the parents request an MTP, the opinion of two doctors is required.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Opinion of 1 doctor : This is required only up to 20 weeks of pregnancy, not beyond.</li><li>• Option A. Opinion of 1 doctor</li><li>• Option C. Husband’s permission with 1 doctor : The husband’s permission is not a requirement under the MTP Act.</li><li>• Option C. Husband’s permission with 1 doctor</li><li>• Option D. Permission of medical board : This is required for performing MTP after 24 weeks if there is a substantial fetal anomaly.</li><li>• Option D. Permission of medical board</li><li>• Educational objective</li><li>• Educational objective</li><li>• For an MTP between 20 to 24 weeks of pregnancy, the opinion of two gynecologists is required as per the 2021 amendment to the MTP Act in India.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is least useful in the management of a patient with Thalamic Dejerine syndrome?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amitriptyline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gabapentin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbamazepine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ibuprofen", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ibuprofen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ibuprofen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Thalamic Dejerine syndrome, also known as Dejerine-Roussy syndrome, is characterized by chronic, intense pain on the contralateral side of the body following a thalamic stroke. The pain is often resistant to typical analgesics and requires specific management with medications that target neuropathic pain.</li><li>• Medications useful in managing Thalamic Dejerine syndrome include:</li><li>• Amitriptyline: A tricyclic antidepressant effective in treating neuropathic pain. Gabapentin: An anticonvulsant used to manage neuropathic pain. Carbamazepine: An anticonvulsant also used for neuropathic pain management.</li><li>• Amitriptyline: A tricyclic antidepressant effective in treating neuropathic pain.</li><li>• Amitriptyline:</li><li>• Gabapentin: An anticonvulsant used to manage neuropathic pain.</li><li>• Gabapentin:</li><li>• Carbamazepine: An anticonvulsant also used for neuropathic pain management.</li><li>• Carbamazepine:</li><li>• Ibuprofen , a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is not effective for neuropathic pain and therefore is the least useful in managing Thalamic Dejerine syndrome.</li><li>• Ibuprofen</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A, B &amp; C are effective for neuropathic pain.</li><li>• Option A, B &amp; C</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ibuprofen is least useful for managing Thalamic Dejerine syndrome, which requires medications that target neuropathic pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young child had an episode of sore throat followed hematuria after 20 days. Which of the following is the implicated organism for this condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staphylococccus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proteus mirabilis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are exclusive features of irreversible injury except: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cell membrane damage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cell shrinkage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nuclear condensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Densities in mitochondria", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Densities in mitochondria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Densities in mitochondria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Irreversible cell injury is characterized by features such as cell membrane damage, cell shrinkage, and nuclear condensation, while mitochondrial densities can be seen in both reversible and irreversible injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the air cell marked with red arrow in the CT scan of the nose and paranasal sinus: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bulla Ethmoidalis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Agger Nasi Cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Haller Cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Onodi Cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bulla Ethmoidalis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114320.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114333.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114353.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114406.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114417.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bulla Ethmoidalis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bulla Ethmoidalis is the largest and most constant air cell in the anterior ethmoid sinus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under MTP Act guidelines, to terminate Meningomyelocele fetus at 21 weeks POG (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Take mother's consent and 1 Doctor's opinion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Take Husband's consent and 1 Doctor's opinion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Take mother's consent and 2 Doctors' opinion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Take Husband's consent and 2 Doctors' opinion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Take mother's consent and 2 Doctors' opinion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Take mother's consent and 2 Doctors' opinion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the MTP Act guidelines in India, terminating a fetus with meningomyelocele at 21 weeks of gestation requires the mother's consent and the opinion of two doctors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which clinical test will be positive in a patient who comes with a neglected traumatic dislocation of the hip? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thomas test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Telescopy test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "McMurray test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lasegue test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Telescopy test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/113.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/114.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/115.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/116.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Telescopy test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Telescopy test is positive in cases of old, neglected, and traumatic hip dislocations.</li><li>➤ Telescopy test is positive in cases of old, neglected, and traumatic hip dislocations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has a painless, palpable bony mass near the metaphysis of a long bone. X-ray done is shown below. What seems to be the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoid osteoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteochondroma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Osteochondroma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/112.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/107.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/108.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/110.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/111.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Osteochondroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A painless, palpable bony mass near the metaphysis of a long bone is seen in osteochondroma which is a developmental malformation and not a true neoplasm. It originates from the periosteum as small cartilaginous nodule. Most of these lesions cause no symptoms and are incidental findings.</li><li>➤ A painless, palpable bony mass near the metaphysis of a long bone is seen in osteochondroma which is a developmental malformation and not a true neoplasm.</li><li>➤ It originates from the periosteum as small cartilaginous nodule.</li><li>➤ Most of these lesions cause no symptoms and are incidental findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male is complaining of pain, and the image shows a lesion in the diaphysis. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteochondroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteoid Osteoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "GCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unicameral Bone cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Osteoid Osteoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/11/screenshot-2024-05-11-094135.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Osteoid osteoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ When encountering a patient with localized bone pain and a small radiolucent lesion in the cortex of the bone, consider osteoid osteoma in the differential diagnosis. Early and accurate diagnosis can lead to effective treatment, primarily with NSAIDs or surgical excision, providing significant symptom relief.</li><li>➤ When encountering a patient with localized bone pain and a small radiolucent lesion in the cortex of the bone, consider osteoid osteoma in the differential diagnosis. Early and accurate diagnosis can lead to effective treatment, primarily with NSAIDs or surgical excision, providing significant symptom relief.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following adverse effects is least likely to be seen after one year of using lithium therapy ? (FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tremors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetes insipidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tardive dyskinesia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tardive dyskinesia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tardive dyskinesia is least likely to be seen with lithium therapy; it is more commonly associated with long-term use of antipsychotic drugs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents with bradycardia and hypertension. On examination, the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is found to be less than 8. What is the next step in management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urgent CT head", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intubate and ventilation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thrombolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Saline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intubate and ventilation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Intubate and ventilation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with a GCS score less than 8, the immediate step is to intubate and ventilate to secure the airway and manage raised intracranial pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the deformity shown in the image: (FMGE JANUARY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gun stock deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cubitus valgus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coxa vara", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coxa valga", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cubitus valgus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/88.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/89.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/90_yAW6LVo.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/92.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/93.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cubitus valgus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The deformity shown in the image given in the question is called cubitus valgus which is the increase in the carrying angle. It is caused most commonly by non union of fracture around the elbow.</li><li>➤ The deformity shown in the image given in the question is called cubitus valgus which is the increase in the carrying angle. It is caused most commonly by non union of fracture around the elbow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Capgras syndrome is commonly seen in which type of dementia? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alzheimers disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dementia with lewy body", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vascular dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Frontotemporal dementia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dementia with lewy body", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dementia with lewy body</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Capgras syndrome, a delusion of misidentification where a patient believes a familiar person has been replaced by an identical impostor, is most commonly seen in dementia with Lewy bodies, followed by Alzheimer's disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presented with complaints of unilateral nasal obstruction and discharge along with the following CT scan. On suction cleaning, there is thick mucin that contains eosinophils, Charcot-Leyden crystals. What would be the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fungal Ball", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Allergic fungal sinusitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic rhinosinusitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fulminant fungal sinusitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Allergic fungal sinusitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115159.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Allergic fungal sinusitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with unilateral nasal obstruction and discharge. The presence of thick mucin containing eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden crystals, as well as the CT findings, are indicative of allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS). AFS is characterized by the accumulation of eosinophils and allergic mucin in the sinuses, often resulting in hyperdensities on CT scans.</li><li>• Treatment is always surgical exploration (removal of fungal mass)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Fungal Ball: A fungal ball, or mycetoma, typically involves a single sinus (commonly the maxillary sinus) and appears as a mass of fungal elements without significant allergic mucin or eosinophils. It does not usually present with eosinophils or Charcot-Leyden crystals in the discharge.</li><li>• Option A. Fungal Ball:</li><li>• Option C. Chronic rhinosinusitis: Chronic rhinosinusitis involves prolonged inflammation of the sinuses but does not specifically present with the eosinophilic mucin and Charcot-Leyden crystals seen in AFS. The CT findings in chronic rhinosinusitis do not typically show the hyperdensities seen in AFS.</li><li>• Option C. Chronic rhinosinusitis:</li><li>• Option D. Fulminant fungal sinusitis: Fulminant fungal sinusitis is a rapidly progressive infection seen in immunocompromised patients and involves extensive bony destruction and tissue invasion. The CT scan would show significant bone destruction and possibly extension into adjacent structures, which is not evident in this case.</li><li>• Option D. Fulminant fungal sinusitis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Allergic fungal sinusitis is characterized by unilateral nasal obstruction, thick mucin containing eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden crystals, and hyperdensities on CT scans, without extensive bony destruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presented with a lesion as shown in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Seborrhoeic keratosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Melanoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-145831.JPG"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-145932.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Melanoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The lesion shown in the image exhibits characteristics commonly associated with melanoma, which include:</li><li>• Color variability: The lesion displays various shades of color, indicating the uneven distribution of melanin, which is a hallmark of melanoma. Asymmetry: If the lesion is divided into four quadrants, the halves do not match, suggesting asymmetry, another key feature of melanoma. Irregular borders: The borders of the lesion are not smooth or regular but rather irregular and jagged. Diameter: The lesion is likely greater than 6 millimeters in diameter. Evolution: There are changes in the lesion's appearance over time, including alterations in color, shape, and surface.</li><li>• Color variability: The lesion displays various shades of color, indicating the uneven distribution of melanin, which is a hallmark of melanoma.</li><li>• Color variability:</li><li>• Asymmetry: If the lesion is divided into four quadrants, the halves do not match, suggesting asymmetry, another key feature of melanoma.</li><li>• Asymmetry:</li><li>• Irregular borders: The borders of the lesion are not smooth or regular but rather irregular and jagged.</li><li>• Irregular borders:</li><li>• Diameter: The lesion is likely greater than 6 millimeters in diameter.</li><li>• Diameter:</li><li>• Evolution: There are changes in the lesion's appearance over time, including alterations in color, shape, and surface.</li><li>• Evolution:</li><li>• These features correspond to the \"ABCDE\" criteria used to identify potential melanomas:</li><li>• A symmetry B order irregularity C olor variation D iameter greater than 6 mm E volution over time</li><li>• A symmetry</li><li>• A</li><li>• B order irregularity</li><li>• B</li><li>• C olor variation</li><li>• C</li><li>• D iameter greater than 6 mm</li><li>• D</li><li>• E volution over time</li><li>• E</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Squamous cell carcinoma : Typically presents as a papulosquamous lesion rather than a pigmented one. It appears as a scaly, red, crusted nodule or plaque, often on sun-exposed areas.</li><li>• Option A. Squamous cell carcinoma</li><li>• Option C. Basal cell carcinoma : Usually manifests as a translucent nodule, surface telangiectasias and extensive local growth. Basal cell carcinoma lesions often have a rolled border and can ulcerate, forming what is known as a \"rodent ulcer.\" They do not generally present with significant pigmentation or the described irregularities.</li><li>• Option C. Basal cell carcinoma</li><li>• Option D. Seborrhoeic keratosis : Appears as a benign, well-demarcated, pigmented lesion with a \"stuck-on\" appearance. It typically has a uniform color and texture and lacks the irregular borders, asymmetry, and color variation seen in melanoma.</li><li>• Option D. Seborrhoeic keratosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Melanoma should be suspected in lesions that show asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, diameter greater than 6 mm, and evolution over time. The \"ABCDE\" criteria are essential in identifying potential melanomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The green line corresponds to which vertebral level?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "L5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "T12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. L5", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture11_9l9IiUH.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/picture12_yCRDHTr.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) L5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The green line shown in the image corresponds to the trans-tubercular plane, which passes through the L5 vertebral level. The abdominal planes are used as anatomical landmarks to describe the location of structures and features within the abdomen. The important horizontal planes include:</li><li>• Transpyloric plane: Passes through the lower border of L1 vertebra. Subcostal plane: Passes through the upper border of L3 vertebra. Transtubercular plane: Passes through the upper border of L5 vertebra, as seen in the image.</li><li>• Transpyloric plane: Passes through the lower border of L1 vertebra.</li><li>• Transpyloric plane:</li><li>• Subcostal plane: Passes through the upper border of L3 vertebra.</li><li>• Subcostal plane:</li><li>• Transtubercular plane: Passes through the upper border of L5 vertebra, as seen in the image.</li><li>• Transtubercular plane:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. L1: This corresponds to the transpyloric plane, which is higher up in the abdomen.</li><li>• Option A. L1:</li><li>• Option B. L3: This corresponds to the subcostal plane, located midway between the transpyloric and transtubercular planes.</li><li>• Option B. L3:</li><li>• Option D. T12: This vertebral level is not associated with the horizontal planes typically used in abdominal anatomy and is located in the thoracic region.</li><li>• Option D. T12:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The transtubercular plane passes through the L5 vertebral level, and it is a key anatomical landmark in the lower abdomen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old brought to the emergency department with complaints of mild bloody rhinorrhea. On examination, he was awake and oriented. Drainage has soiled his shirt, and the appearance of which is given below. This is seen in case of: (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Traumatic CSF Rhinorrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spontaneous CSF Rhinorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meningocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tumors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Traumatic CSF Rhinorrhea", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-115214.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Traumatic CSF Rhinorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with mild bloody rhinorrhea, and the drainage has created a characteristic \"halo sign\" or \"double ring sign\" on his shirt. This sign indicates the presence of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) mixed with blood. The halo sign is seen when CSF forms a clear ring around a central bloody spot on absorbent material. This finding is indicative of traumatic CSF rhinorrhea, where trauma causes a breach in the meninges, allowing CSF to leak and mix with nasal secretions or blood.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Spontaneous CSF Rhinorrhea: Spontaneous CSF rhinorrhea typically involves clear CSF leakage without blood. The absence of blood would not produce the halo sign as described.</li><li>• Option B. Spontaneous CSF Rhinorrhea:</li><li>• Option C. Meningocele: Meningocele involves herniation of the meninges through a defect in the skull or spinal column but does not typically cause nasal CSF leakage mixed with blood. It usually presents as a mass or bulge.</li><li>• Option C. Meningocele:</li><li>• Option D. Tumors: Tumors might cause nasal discharge, but the presence of a halo sign specifically points to a CSF leak, which is more characteristic of traumatic causes rather than tumors.</li><li>• Option D. Tumors:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The halo sign or double ring sign on absorbent material is indicative of traumatic CSF rhinorrhea, where CSF leaks and mixes with blood, creating a central red spot surrounded by a clear or yellowish ring.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old female presented with cervical cancer and was started on cisplatin therapy. Which of the following is likely to be an adverse effect of cisplatin? (Fmge July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peripheral neuropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nephrotoxicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatotoxicity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nephrotoxicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nephrotoxicity is a major adverse effect of cisplatin, requiring careful monitoring and preventive measures during therapy to protect renal function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old girl presents to OPD at PHC for her general health check-up. Parents told the medical officer that currently she isn’t enrolled in any school. Which program is going to benefit the girl? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mid-day meal program", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ICDS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "RBSK", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NSSK", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ICDS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ICDS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) program, established in 1975, focuses on improving the health, nutrition, and education of young children, adolescent girls, and women.</li><li>• For a 10-year-old girl not enrolled in any school, the ICDS program, which operates through Anganwadi centers, is most suitable. The Anganwadi center provides health check-ups, nutritional supplementation, immunizations, and counseling services appropriate for her age.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mid day meal program: This program is available only in schools and thus does not benefit a girl not enrolled in any school.</li><li>• Option A. Mid day meal program:</li><li>• Option C. RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram): Focuses on health screening and early intervention for children enrolled in schools and Anganwadi centers but is not the most direct benefit for a non-school-going girl.</li><li>• Option C. RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram):</li><li>• Option D. NSSK (Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram): Targets the care of newborns and is irrelevant for a 10-year-old.</li><li>• Option D. NSSK (Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ICDS program provides comprehensive health and nutritional benefits for children up to 6 years and adolescent girls up to 18 years through Anganwadi centers, making it the ideal choice for a 10-year-old girl not enrolled in school.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient came to the emergency department with 32 weeks of pregnancy with pedal edema and BP of 140/90 mmHg. Urine dipstick was 2+. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Preeclampsia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abruption", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PPH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gestational Hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Preeclampsia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Preeclampsia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with symptoms that align with the diagnosis of preeclampsia, which is characterized by the following criteria:</li><li>• Elevated blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg) after 20 weeks of gestation. Proteinuria (≥1+ on dipstick or 300 mg/24 hours).</li><li>• Elevated blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg) after 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• after 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Proteinuria (≥1+ on dipstick or 300 mg/24 hours).</li><li>• In this case, the patient has a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and a urine dipstick showing 2+ proteinuria, which fits the criteria for preeclampsia. The presence of pedal edema further supports this diagnosis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Abruption : This typically presents with painful vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness. While preeclampsia can be a risk factor for abruption, the absence of vaginal bleeding in this case makes abruption less likely.</li><li>• Option B. Abruption</li><li>• Option C. PPH (Postpartum Hemorrhage) : This occurs after delivery and is characterized by significant bleeding post-delivery, which is not relevant in this antepartum scenario.</li><li>• Option C. PPH (Postpartum Hemorrhage)</li><li>• Option D. Gestational Hypertension : This is characterized by elevated blood pressure without proteinuria or other signs of preeclampsia. The presence of proteinuria in this patient rules out gestational hypertension.</li><li>• Option D. Gestational Hypertension</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Preeclampsia is diagnosed in pregnant patients presenting with hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. This condition requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male child presented with easy bruisability leading to detailed investigations which revealed normal PT, prolonged APTT and normal bleeding time. Which of the following cannot be cause of his condition? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factor 8 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor 9 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factor 11 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Von willebrand disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Von willebrand disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Von willebrand disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Isolated increased APTT can be caused by clotting factor deficiency of the intrinsic pathway like hemophilia A/B/C. von Willebrand disease is associated with increased bleeding time and increased APTT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child presents with brown-colored urine, flank pain, and fatigue for the last 3 days. He has 2+ proteinuria with &gt;20 red cells/HPF and dysmorphic red blood cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urinary tract infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bladder calculi", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Minimal change disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation of a 10-year-old child with brown-colored urine, flank pain, fatigue, significant proteinuria, and dysmorphic red blood cells suggests a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis. Among the given options, the most likely diagnosis is Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) . Key points supporting this diagnosis include:</li><li>• Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)</li><li>• Brown-colored urine (tea or cola colored): Indicates hematuria. Flank pain and fatigue: Common symptoms associated with glomerulonephritis. Proteinuria and dysmorphic red blood cells: Indicate glomerular origin of hematuria, typical in glomerulonephritis.</li><li>• Brown-colored urine (tea or cola colored): Indicates hematuria.</li><li>• Brown-colored urine (tea or cola colored):</li><li>• Flank pain and fatigue: Common symptoms associated with glomerulonephritis.</li><li>• Flank pain and fatigue:</li><li>• Proteinuria and dysmorphic red blood cells: Indicate glomerular origin of hematuria, typical in glomerulonephritis.</li><li>• Proteinuria and dysmorphic red blood cells:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Urinary tract infection: Usually presents with isomorphic red blood cell s rather than dysmorphic red blood cells and would typically be associated with symptoms of urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria.</li><li>• Option B. Urinary tract infection:</li><li>• isomorphic red blood cell</li><li>• Option C. Bladder calculi: Can cause hematuria but typically produces isomorphic red blood cells , not dysmorphic ones.</li><li>• Option C. Bladder calculi:</li><li>• isomorphic red blood cells</li><li>• Option D. Minimal change disease: Usually presents with nephrotic syndrome , characterized by heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and frothy urine, rather than hematuria and dysmorphic red blood cells.</li><li>• Option D. Minimal change disease:</li><li>• nephrotic syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a common cause of glomerulonephritis in children, presenting with hematuria, proteinuria, and dysmorphic red blood cells following a streptococcal infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Increased firing of which of the following is responsible for the occurrence of scissoring gait? ( FMGE July 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior gluteal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior gluteal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obturator nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Obturator nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Obturator nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Scissoring gait is characterized by the crossing of the legs while walking, which resembles the closing of a pair of scissors. This gait abnormality is primarily due to increased tone and overactivity of the adductor muscles of the thighs, which are responsible for bringing the legs together.</li><li>• The adductor muscles are innervated by the obturator nerve . Increased firing or hyperactivity of the obturator nerve leads to excessive contraction of the adductor muscles, resulting in the scissoring motion seen in this gait disorder.</li><li>• adductor muscles</li><li>• obturator nerve</li><li>• Treatment options for scissoring gait may include interventions such as obturator nerve cryoneurolysis, where the obturator nerve is intentionally damaged to reduce muscle spasticity and improve gait.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Femoral nerve: This nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the thigh, including the quadriceps muscles, which are involved in knee extension, not adduction.</li><li>• Option A. Femoral nerve:</li><li>• Option B. Superior gluteal nerve: This nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae muscles, which are involved in hip abduction and stabilization, not adduction.</li><li>• Option B. Superior gluteal nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Inferior gluteal nerve: This nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscle, which is primarily responsible for hip extension and lateral rotation, not adduction.</li><li>• Option C. Inferior gluteal nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objectives</li><li>➤ Scissoring gait is caused by increased firing of the obturator nerve, leading to overactivity of the adductor muscles of the thighs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old pregnant patient presented with complaints of worsening of hearing since the onset of pregnancy. On PTA the following graph was obtained. Which of the following statements regarding the disease is true? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ad Type of tympanogram is obtained", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Notch at 2000Hz is indicative of Noise Induced hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Associated Ménière's disease is not a contraindication for stapes surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Air travelling is a contraindication for surgery", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Air travelling is a contraindication for surgery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/untitled-2.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Air travelling is a contraindication for surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient, being pregnant and experiencing worsening hearing loss, suggests otosclerosis. The provided PTA (Pure Tone Audiogram) shows a significant air-bone gap on the right side, indicating conductive hearing loss, which is consistent with otosclerosis.</li><li>• Definitely, air travel is contraindicated for patients post-stapedectomy for at least three months. The variations in middle ear pressure during ascent and descent can lead to displacement or dislocation of the prosthetic piston used in the surgery, making this statement true.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ad Type of tympanogram is obtained: In otosclerosis, an As type of tympanogram (indicating reduced compliance of the middle ear system) is typically obtained, not Ad. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.</li><li>• Option A. Ad Type of tympanogram is obtained:</li><li>• Option B. Notch at 2000Hz is indicative of Noise Induced hearing loss: A notch at 2000Hz on bone conduction is known as Carhart's notch, which is indicative of otosclerosis, not noise-induced hearing loss. Noise-induced hearing loss typically presents a notch at 4000Hz. Hence, this statement is incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Notch at 2000Hz is indicative of Noise Induced hearing loss:</li><li>• Option C. Associated Ménière's disease is not a contraindication for stapes surgery: Ménière's disease is indeed a contraindication for stapes surgery. The presence of Ménière's disease can lead to complications such as irritation of the saccule during the surgery, causing vertigo and giddiness. Thus, this statement is false.</li><li>• Option C. Associated Ménière's disease is not a contraindication for stapes surgery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Air travel is contraindicated for at least three months post-stapedectomy due to the risk of pressure-induced displacement or dislocation of the surgical prosthesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old male presents to the ER with a two-day history of worsening ear pain and drainage. He was evaluated in the clinic 5 days ago and diagnosed with acute right otitis media. He was placed on amoxicillin and he initially appeared to improve until two days ago when his ear pain recurred and this is now accompanied by ear drainage, redness behind his right ear, and a prominent right pinna which is pointing down and out as shown below. The most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otitis externa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Otitis media with effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute Mastoiditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coalescent Mastoiditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute Mastoiditis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-114428.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute Mastoiditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute mastoiditis, a complication of acute otitis media, can present with post-auricular redness, abscess, and displacement of the pinna, requiring prompt diagnosis and treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following International Health agencies is aiding in building toilets in India? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red Cross", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "FORD Foundation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CARE", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "USAID", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. FORD Foundation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) FORD Foundation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Ford Foundation has been active in India for several decades, supporting various initiatives aimed at alleviating poverty and promoting social justice. While the foundation's primary focus areas include public administration, urban planning, food security, women's empowerment, and inclusive education, it has also supported community-led initiatives that contribute to improved sanitation and public health. For instance, the foundation has partnered with local organizations to enhance living conditions in rural areas, which encompasses efforts to improve sanitation facilities</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Red Cross: The Red Cross primarily focuses on disaster relief, emergency assistance, and health services but is not specifically known for aiding in the construction of toilets in India.</li><li>• Option A. Red Cross:</li><li>• Option C. CARE: CARE has supported the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) program in India but is not known for its involvement in building toilets.</li><li>• Option C. CARE:</li><li>• Option D. USAID: The United States Agency for International Development (USAID) has been involved in various development projects in India, including health and sanitation initiatives. However, in the context of direct involvement in building toilets, the Ford Foundation's contributions are more prominently documented.</li><li>• Option D. USAID:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ International Organization supporting specific programs -</li><li>➤ SIDA – TB DANIDA – Blindness UNICEF – GOBI FFF campaign, applied nutrition program USAID – Technical Cooperation mission; supported SBM (Swatch Bharat Mission) Rockefeller foundation – hookworm problem control &amp; elimination; borehole latrines and establishment of AIIHPH (All India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health) Colombo plan – Establishment of cobalt therapy unit (with the help of Canada) and AIIMS, New Delhi was established with financial assistant from New Zealand FORD foundation – supporting sanitation initiatives in India, including the construction of toilets, to improve public health and living conditions. Also helped in establishment of NIHFW (National Institute of Health and Family Welfare) and RHTC (Rural Health and Training Centres) CARE Foundation – Supported ICDS Program</li><li>➤ SIDA – TB</li><li>➤ DANIDA – Blindness</li><li>➤ UNICEF – GOBI FFF campaign, applied nutrition program</li><li>➤ USAID – Technical Cooperation mission; supported SBM (Swatch Bharat Mission)</li><li>➤ Rockefeller foundation – hookworm problem control &amp; elimination; borehole latrines and establishment of AIIHPH (All India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health)</li><li>➤ Colombo plan – Establishment of cobalt therapy unit (with the help of Canada) and AIIMS, New Delhi was established with financial assistant from New Zealand</li><li>➤ FORD foundation – supporting sanitation initiatives in India, including the construction of toilets, to improve public health and living conditions. Also helped in establishment of NIHFW (National Institute of Health and Family Welfare) and RHTC (Rural Health and Training Centres)</li><li>➤ CARE Foundation – Supported ICDS Program</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female presented with flank pain, smoky urine and edema. Her urine examination revealed the presence of 20 RBCs/HPF with dysmorphic red cells. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nephrolithiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Minimal change disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Presence of dysmorphic red cells and smoky urine is suggestive of glomerulonephritis. Out of the given options, post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is the most important condition associated with glomerulonephritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 310 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge July 2024 2024 07 06 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 300 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Ebola virus comes under which Biosafety level category as given by WHO? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ebola virus is classified under Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) by WHO, indicating it is one of the most dangerous pathogens requiring the highest level of containment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of TB presents with hemoptysis. X-ray is shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchogenic cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergilloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lung abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchogenic cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aspergilloma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-102807.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aspergilloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspergilloma is a fungal infection that commonly occurs in pre-existing lung cavities from conditions such as tuberculosis. It presents as a cavity with a fungal ball inside and can cause hemoptysis, which may be severe.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vomiting in pregnancy is managed by? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Domperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased fluid intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Small frequent meals", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "MTP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Small frequent meals", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Small frequent meals</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Managing vomiting in pregnancy is best achieved by advising small, frequent meals to help stabilize blood sugar levels and reduce nausea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male presents to your clinic for a routine physical examination. You decide to assess his carotid artery pulse. At what level of the neck should you palpate to feel the common carotid artery pulse? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Angle of mandible", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cricoid cartilage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laryngeal prominence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Suprasternal notch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cricoid cartilage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cricoid cartilage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The common carotid artery pulse is palpated at the level of the cricoid cartilage, lateral to the trachea, and adjacent to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with strong upper limb pulses and weak lower limb pulses with chest x-ray showing rib notching. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transposition of great vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coarctation of Aorta", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetralogy of Fallot", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ebstein’s anomaly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coarctation of Aorta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coarctation of Aorta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coarctation of the aorta is identified by the presence of strong upper limb pulses, weak lower limb pulses, and rib notching on a chest x-ray, which is caused by collateral circulation developing around the narrowed section of the aorta.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old patient presented with fever, headache, vomiting, and neck stiffness. Lumbar puncture was performed, and the reports are as follows: (FMGE JULY 2024) Opening pressure – elevated Appearance – cloudy Cell count – 80 (70% PMNs) Sugar – 35 mg/dL Protein – 200 mg/dL What is the likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute Bacterial Meningitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Viral Meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TB Meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fungal Meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute Bacterial Meningitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acute Bacterial Meningitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute bacterial meningitis is characterized by elevated opening pressure, cloudy CSF, a high cell count with neutrophilic predominance, low glucose, and elevated protein levels in the CSF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a fetal cause of polyhydramnios? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrops fetalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal agenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Open spina bifida", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Renal agenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/19/screenshot-2024-10-19-101601.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Renal agenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male presents with complaints of painful urination, joint pain, and redness in both eyes for the past two weeks. He mentions a recent episode of diarrhoea but denies any sexual activity. Physical examination reveals inflammation of the knees and conjunctivitis. Laboratory testing reveals a positive HLA-B27 antigen. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gout", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reiter syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Reiter syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Reiter syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reiter syndrome (reactive arthritis) is associated with HLA-B27 and presents with the triad of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. It commonly follows infections, particularly gastrointestinal or genitourinary, and treatment includes addressing the underlying infection and managing inflammation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with acute onset of double vision, difficulty walking, and confusion. Given a history of alcohol abuse, what is the most appropriate initial treatment? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravenous thiamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous fluids with dextrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous lorazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intravenous vitamin B12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intravenous thiamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Intravenous thiamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wernicke's encephalopathy, characterized by the triad of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion, should be treated immediately with intravenous thiamine to prevent serious neurological damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient after RTA (Road Traffic Accident) presented with hypovolemic shock. What is the reason for decreased cardiac output in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased afterload", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased preload", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "High systemic vascular resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased contractility", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decreased preload", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Decreased preload</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In hypovolemic shock, the primary cause of decreased cardiac output is decreased preload due to significant loss of blood volume.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the hormone secreted by the zone of adrenal cortex shown by the arrow: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucocorticoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mineralocorticoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Androgens", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Androgens", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-125758.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Androgens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adrenal Cortex</li><li>➤ Adrenal Cortex</li><li>➤ Zona glomerulosa secretes Mineralocorticoids Zona fasciculata secretes Glucocorticoid Zona reticularis secretes Androgens</li><li>➤ Zona glomerulosa secretes Mineralocorticoids</li><li>➤ Zona fasciculata secretes Glucocorticoid</li><li>➤ Zona reticularis secretes Androgens</li><li>➤ Adrenal Gland</li><li>➤ Adrenal Gland</li><li>➤ Adrenal medulla secretes Epinephrine and Norepinephrine</li><li>➤ Adrenal medulla secretes Epinephrine and Norepinephrine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient experiences chest pain radiating to the arm. Which nerve can be responsible for the radiating pain? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intercostobrachial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Musculocutaneous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial cutaneous nerve of arm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intercostobrachial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Intercostobrachial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The intercostobrachial nerve, originating from T2, is responsible for the sensation in the upper medial arm and can be involved in referred pain from the chest, such as during a myocardial infarction. This nerve is key in understanding the dermatome distribution related to cardiac pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV patient presents with breathlessness and cough. His recent CD4 count was less than 200 and the patient’s chest X-ray is shown. BAL was done and reports are pending. What is the likely diagnosis and treatment? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumocystis jiroveci; Cotrimoxazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucor; Amphotericin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspergillus; Voriconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candida; Fluconazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pneumocystis jiroveci; Cotrimoxazole", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-103031.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pneumocystis jiroveci; Cotrimoxazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In an HIV patient with a CD4 count less than 200, presenting with breathlessness and bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray, the likely diagnosis is Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP), and the treatment of choice is cotrimoxazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with painful corneal erosions, photophobia, and thickening of the palms and soles (palmoplantar keratosis). Laboratory investigations reveal a defect in tyrosine metabolism. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 Tyrosinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2 Tyrosinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 3 Tyrosinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alkaptonuria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 2 Tyrosinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type 2 Tyrosinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type 2 Tyrosinemia is characterized by painful corneal erosions , photophobia , and palmoplantar keratosis , resulting from a deficiency in Tyrosine transaminase .</li><li>➤ painful corneal erosions</li><li>➤ photophobia</li><li>➤ palmoplantar keratosis</li><li>➤ Tyrosine transaminase</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with dry skin, rough hair, macroglossia, and umbilical hernia. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cretinism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prader-Willi syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Edward syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galactosemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cretinism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cretinism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cretinism, or congenital hypothyroidism, should be considered in infants presenting with dry skin, rough hair, macroglossia, and umbilical hernia. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent long-term developmental delays.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ventouse is contra-indicated in? ( FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased bearing down efforts by the mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Preterm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical Dilatation of 8 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Preterm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Preterm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Absolute Contraindication of Ventouse:</li><li>➤ Absolute Contraindication of Ventouse:</li><li>➤ Preterm Face presentation After coming head of the breech IUD</li><li>➤ Preterm</li><li>➤ Face presentation</li><li>➤ After coming head of the breech</li><li>➤ IUD</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is Gaisböck syndrome? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Relative polycythemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Absolute polycythemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe internal bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myeloproliferative disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Relative polycythemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Relative polycythemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gaisböck syndrome is a form of relative polycythemia caused by a reduction in plasma volume, often due to dehydration, leading to an apparent increase in red blood cell concentration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During excision of ranula along with sublingual gland, which structure is most likely to be injured? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lingual nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mylohyoid muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Submental artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sublingual artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lingual nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lingual nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During the excision of a ranula and the sublingual gland, the lingual nerve is the structure most likely to be injured due to its anatomical position relative to the sublingual gland. This nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and its injury can result in significant sensory deficits.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old lady presented to OPD with a complaint of pain and redness in her breast with fever. On clinical examination, a 5 x 4 cm area of redness was noted in the breast with ipsilateral axillary lymph node enlargement. What should be the preferred management in this lady? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mammography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incision and drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hot compresses and conservative treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antibiotics and breast support", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Antibiotics and breast support", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Antibiotics and breast support</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary treatment for mastitis includes antibiotics to address the infection and breast support to alleviate discomfort. Recognize the symptoms of mastitis and differentiate it from a breast abscess, which requires a different management approach.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 17-year-old boy presents with growth on talus as seen on foot x-ray. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enchondroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteomyelitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteochondroma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Osteochondroma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110005.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110019.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110033.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Osteochondroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given x-ray image shows growth in the talus which is characteristic of osteochondroma of the talus bone. Osteochondroma is a benign bone tumor presenting as a palpable growth with a cartilaginous cap, most often found in young adults, and visible on x-ray as a bony projection.</li><li>➤ The given x-ray image shows growth in the talus which is characteristic of osteochondroma of the talus bone.</li><li>➤ Osteochondroma is a benign bone tumor presenting as a palpable growth with a cartilaginous cap, most often found in young adults, and visible on x-ray as a bony projection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is analyzing an RNA sample with the sequence CAAGGU. Based on this RNA sequence, what would be the corresponding template sequence in the original DNA strand from which the RNA was transcribed? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TGGAAC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CAAGGT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ACCTTG", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "GTTCCA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ACCTTG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ACCTTG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During transcription, the RNA sequence is complementary to the DNA template. In RNA, adenine pairs with uracil, while cytosine pairs with guanine. The transcription process creates an RNA strand that is the reverse complement of the DNA template strand.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a standard normal distribution, what percentage of data values fall within one standard deviation of the mean? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "68%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "95%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "97%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "99%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 68%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-144249.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 68%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a standard normal distribution, 68% of the data values fall within one standard deviation of the mean.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For newborn hearing screening purpose, which test is most commonly used? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "OAE", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "BERA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Impedance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. OAE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) OAE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE) testing is the standard and most commonly used initial screening method for detecting hearing loss in newborns due to its simplicity, quick results, and effectiveness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had a history of TIA and was admitted. 48 hours later he developed severe respiratory difficulty and fever. What is the probable cause? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ARDS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hospital Acquired Pneumonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Community Acquired Pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspiration Pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hospital Acquired Pneumonia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hospital Acquired Pneumonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumonia developing 48 hours or more after hospital admission is classified as hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after showing symptoms of a stroke. He is able to understand questions and follow commands but struggles to speak or form words properly. He makes sounds and gestures as if trying to speak, but his words lack fluency. Based on this clinical presentation, which type of aphasia is most likely? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wernicke's aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Broca's aphasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Global aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conduction aphasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Broca's aphasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/15/screenshot-2024-10-15-145514.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Broca's aphasia is characterized by difficulty in speech production while comprehension remains intact. It is caused by damage to Broca's area in the left frontal lobe, often due to a stroke. Patients are aware of their speech difficulties, which differentiates it from Wernicke's aphasia where comprehension is impaired.</li><li>➤ Broca's aphasia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ITP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gestational thrombocytopenia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HELLP syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malaria in pregnancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gestational thrombocytopenia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gestational thrombocytopenia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gestational thrombocytopenia is the most common cause of mild thrombocytopenia during pregnancy and is usually not associated with adverse outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "18-year-old girl presents with bilateral ptosis and difficulty in chewing and combing. Her problems tend to worsen with activity. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myasthenia Gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lambert Eaton Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myotonic dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guillain Barre syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myasthenia Gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Myasthenia Gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest, with ptosis and difficulty in tasks requiring sustained muscle effort being common symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following hormone increases during periods of stress, starvation, and deep sleep? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ACTH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cortisol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prolactin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GH (Growth Hormone)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Growth Hormone (GH) increases during periods of stress, starvation, and deep sleep, especially during the NREM stage 3 of sleep.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are initial management options of CSF rhinorrhea except: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bed rest", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steroids followed by FESS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HRCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antibiotics and Acetazolamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Steroids followed by FESS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial management of CSF rhinorrhea includes conservative measures such as bed rest, use of acetazolamide, and antibiotics to prevent infection. Diagnostic imaging like HRCT can help identify the defect. Steroids followed by FESS is not appropriate for the initial management of CSF rhinorrhea as it is unrelated to addressing the CSF leak.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complained of ear discharge, retro-orbital pain, and visual disturbances. What is the diagnosis: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Petrositis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral sinus thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Labyrinthitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mastoiditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Petrositis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Petrositis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gradenigo's syndrome (Petrositis) presents with the triad of ear discharge, retro-orbital pain, and sixth nerve palsy causing visual disturbances. This is due to the spread of chronic ear infection to the petrous apex of the temporal bone, affecting adjacent cranial nerves.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman who got IUCD inserted at a PHC, now presents with bleeding. What should be done by the MO? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reassurance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Remove IUCD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibiotics and IV fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron supplement and observation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Iron supplement and observation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Iron supplement and observation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron supplementation and observation are crucial in managing post-IUCD insertion bleeding to prevent anemia. If bleeding persists, further action, such as removing the IUCD, may be necessary.</li><li>➤ Iron supplementation and observation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old male presents with headache, confusion, visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. On examination, blood pressure is 220/110 mmHg. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for managing his condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral Nifedipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral Nicardipine capsules", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV Nitroglycerine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV Labetalol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IV Labetalol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) IV Labetalol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DOC for Hypertensive emergencies:</li><li>➤ DOC for Hypertensive emergencies:</li><li>➤ Encephalopathy - Nicardipine or IV Labetalol Intracranial Hemorrhage - Nicardipine or Labetalol Acute Coronary Syndrome – IV Nitroglycerin Pulmonary Edema - Intravenous Nitroglycerin / Sodium Nitroprusside Aortic Dissection – Nicardipine in combination with Esmolol or Labetalol In Pregnancy - Labetalol</li><li>➤ Encephalopathy - Nicardipine or IV Labetalol</li><li>➤ Encephalopathy - Nicardipine or IV Labetalol</li><li>➤ Encephalopathy</li><li>➤ Intracranial Hemorrhage - Nicardipine or Labetalol</li><li>➤ Intracranial Hemorrhage - Nicardipine or Labetalol</li><li>➤ Intracranial Hemorrhage</li><li>➤ Acute Coronary Syndrome – IV Nitroglycerin</li><li>➤ Acute Coronary Syndrome – IV Nitroglycerin</li><li>➤ Acute Coronary Syndrome</li><li>➤ Pulmonary Edema - Intravenous Nitroglycerin / Sodium Nitroprusside</li><li>➤ Pulmonary Edema - Intravenous Nitroglycerin / Sodium Nitroprusside</li><li>➤ Pulmonary Edema</li><li>➤ Aortic Dissection – Nicardipine in combination with Esmolol or Labetalol</li><li>➤ Aortic Dissection – Nicardipine in combination with Esmolol or Labetalol</li><li>➤ Aortic Dissection</li><li>➤ In Pregnancy - Labetalol</li><li>➤ In Pregnancy - Labetalol</li><li>➤ In Pregnancy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman complains of ptosis and diplopia that worsens with activity and improves with rest. What is the most sensitive investigation? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EMG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT scan chest", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acetylcholinesterase test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nerve conduction velocity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. EMG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) EMG (Electromyography)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most sensitive investigation for diagnosing myasthenia gravis is electromyography (EMG), particularly single fiber EMG, which detects abnormalities in neuromuscular transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Acute sudden painful diminution of vision with vertically oval pupil is caused by: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CSR/Macular degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic neuritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Angle closure glaucoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Angle closure glaucoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-105538.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Angle closure glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden, painful vision loss, and a mid-dilated, vertically oval, sluggishly reacting pupil. Recognizing these signs is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent permanent vision loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What blood group should be given to a patient with Bombay blood group? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "O positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oh", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "O negative", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oh", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/5_62287365066771709312.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bombay blood group (Oh phenotype) is extremely rare, and individuals with this blood type can only receive blood from another Bombay blood group donor due to the absence of the H antigen and the presence of anti-H antibodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person who at the time of commission of the offense was of unsound mind, is exempt if he didn't know the nature of the act or its consequences. This rule is known as: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "McNaughton rule", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Durham's rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Currens rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Irresistible impulse test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. McNaughton rule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) McNaughton rule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In India, the McNaughton rule is used to determine criminal responsibility for individuals with mental illness. According to this rule, a person is exempt from criminal responsibility if they were unable to understand the nature of their act or know that it was wrong due to their mental condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A study was done in 3 districts to measure the mean blood pressure. Health workers visited each house of the 3 districts. Identify the epidemiological study design. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Case control study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cross sectional study", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ecological study", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cross sectional study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cross sectional study.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A cross-sectional study collects data from a population at one point in time, often used to determine the prevalence of a condition like hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Honorable Supreme Court of India has banned one of the following, which is infamous among doctors for sexual assault cases: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Foley's catheter insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colposcopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PV speculum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Two finger test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Two finger test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Two finger test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The two-finger test, previously used to assess whether a woman was \"habituated to sex,\" has been banned by the Supreme Court of India due to its irrelevance, discriminatory nature, and potential to cause additional trauma to sexual assault victims.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the pattern of inheritance with the pedigree chart provided in the image? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autosomal dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X-linked recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitochondrial inheritance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mitochondrial inheritance", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-175200.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mitochondrial inheritance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial inheritance is characterized by the transmission of a trait from an affected mother to all of her offspring, while affected males do not pass the trait to their children. This unique pattern is due to the inheritance of mitochondrial DNA, which is maternally inherited.</li><li>➤ Example of Maternal/ mitochondrial inheritance diseases: Leber's Optic Neuropathy , MELAS Syndrome (Mitochondrial Encephalopathy, Lactic Acidosis, and Stroke-like manifestation).</li><li>➤ Leber's Optic Neuropathy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient presents with fatigue and tiredness. He had low Hb and reticulocyte count. BM reveals a decrease in erythroid precursors. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Megaloblastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pernicious anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pure red cell aplasia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pure red cell aplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/whatsapp-image-2024-08-30-at-55242-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pure red cell aplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pure red cell aplasia is characterized by a specific decrease in erythroid precursors in the bone marrow, leading to anemia with normal WBC and platelet counts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was brought to ENT OPD with complaints of mouth breathing and snoring from a long duration. He also asks to increase the volume of TV while watching. What is the best treatment for this child’s condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenoidectomy and grommet", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Adenoidectomy and grommet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Adenoidectomy and grommet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of chronic adenoid hypertrophy causing mouth breathing, snoring, and conductive hearing loss, the best treatment involves adenoidectomy along with the insertion of a grommet to ensure proper drainage of middle ear fluid and restore normal hearing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Banana sign and lemon sign are seen in? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NTD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anencephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Down syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NTD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) NTD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Banana sign and lemon sign are ultrasound findings seen in neural tube defects (NTD), particularly in cases of spina bifida.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A vegetable vendor with no criminal background, after 1 week is found dead with advanced decomposition. What would you do to recognize the body? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "General recognition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DNA profiling", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dental records", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Finger prints", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. DNA profiling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) DNA profiling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of advanced decomposition, DNA profiling is the most reliable method for identifying a body, as it can still be obtained from bones and other tissues even after significant decomposition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Local anesthesia used in cataract surgery is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bupivacaine 0.5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lignocaine 2%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prilocaine 0.5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ropivacaine 0.05%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lignocaine 2%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lignocaine 2%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lignocaine 2% is the standard local anesthetic used in cataract surgery due to its rapid onset and appropriate duration of action. However, it's important to note that topical anesthesia using proparacaine 0.5% is becoming increasingly common in modern cataract surgery techniques.</li><li>➤ proparacaine 0.5% is becoming increasingly common in modern cataract surgery techniques.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Marker for ectopic pregnancy is? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta hCG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estradiol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Estriol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Beta hCG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Beta hCG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta hCG is the primary marker used to diagnose and manage ectopic pregnancies, providing essential information about pregnancy location and viability.</li><li>➤ Beta hCG</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During endoscopy, the endoscope has reached 25 cm from the incisor teeth. The endoscope has reached till: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left bronchus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Main bronchus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right bronchus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arch of aorta", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Arch of aorta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100523.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Arch of aorta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ At 25 cm from the incisor teeth during an endoscopy, the endoscope has reached the level of the arch of aorta. This is a crucial anatomical landmark and is typically located at the T4 vertebra level</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old hypertensive patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) presents with an acute attack of migraine. Which of the following medications should not be given? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ibuprofen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sumatriptan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verapamil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sumatriptan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sumatriptan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sumatriptan, a vasoconstrictor, should not be given to patients with a history of coronary artery disease or myocardial infarction due to the risk of triggering serious cardiovascular events.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A log dose-response curve (DRC) was plotted with isoprenaline alone and with isoprenaline in the presence of propranolol, as shown below. The graph shows that propranolol is a: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Partial agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Competitive antagonist", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-competitive antagonist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Competitive antagonist", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/whatsapp-image-2024-07-08-at-095616.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Competitive antagonist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propranolol is a competitive antagonist of isoprenaline, causing a parallel rightward shift in the dose-response curve without affecting the maximal response .</li><li>➤ .</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Multiple Lisch nodules are a feature of which of the following conditions? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurofibromatosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberous sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neurofibromatosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-095030.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-095109.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-112536.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-095258.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Neurofibromatosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lisch nodules are pigmented iris hamartomas specific to Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) and are an important diagnostic feature of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old patient presents with chest pain and an ECG was taken. What will be the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior MI", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior MI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral MI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior MI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior MI", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-101033.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anterior MI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anterior MI is characterized by ST elevations in leads V1 to V4, with possible involvement of V5 and AVL, and reciprocal ST depressions in leads II, III, and aVF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the use of Mallampati classification?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endotracheal intubation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "To evaluate the risk of surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "To evaluate the pros and cons of surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "To evaluate the fitness of the patient", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endotracheal intubation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Endotracheal intubation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Mallampati classification is used to assess the difficulty of airway assessment, particularly for endotracheal intubation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman presented with hearing loss. On PTA, the amount of hearing loss was 56dB: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ossicular fixation with intact tympanic membrane", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ossicular fixation without intact tympanic membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erosion with intact tympanic membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erosion without intact tympanic membrane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ossicular fixation with intact tympanic membrane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ossicular fixation with intact tympanic membrane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Otosclerosis often presents as progressive conductive hearing loss with an intact tympanic membrane, and the hearing loss can worsen during pregnancy. The classic finding is ossicular fixation, particularly of the stapes bone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diphtheria toxin MOA is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acting on 60s Ribosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increasing cAMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreasing cGMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ADP ribosylation of EF2 Inhibiting protein synthesis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. ADP ribosylation of EF2 Inhibiting protein synthesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-175810.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MOA</li><li>➤ MOA</li><li>➤ The four toxins that inhibit protein synthesis by modifying EF-2: D iphtheria toxin, P seudomonas toxin, S higa toxin, and S higa-like toxin. ( Mnemonic: Delhi Public Secondary School /DPSS )</li><li>➤ D</li><li>➤ P</li><li>➤ S</li><li>➤ S</li><li>➤ Mnemonic:</li><li>➤ Delhi Public Secondary School /DPSS</li><li>➤ The four toxin act by increasing cAMP: Bacillus anthracis, Vibrio cholerae, Bordetella pertussis, and enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC). ( Mnemonic: Be Very Efficient Boy/BVEB )</li><li>➤ Mnemonic: Be Very Efficient Boy/BVEB</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the Information Communication Technology based Surveillance system for TB patients under National TB Elimination Program? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DOTS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DOTS-99", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nikshay", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nischay", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nikshay", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nikshay</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nikshay is the ICT-based surveillance system used for TB patients under the National TB Elimination Program in India. It enables real-time data collection and monitoring of TB cases across the country.</li><li>➤ Nikshay</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old man with dyslipidemia has persistently elevated triglyceride levels (600 mg/dL) despite treatment with rosuvastatin. What will be the next step? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ezetimibe", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gemfibrozil", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cholestyramine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gemfibrozil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gemfibrozil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with triglyceride levels above 500 mg/dL, fibrates such as gemfibrozil are the preferred treatment to reduce the risk of pancreatitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with fever for 5 days and you are suspecting enteric fever. What is the best way to diagnose? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood Cultures", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urine cultures", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Widal test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stool cultures", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blood Cultures", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blood Cultures</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Enteric fever, commonly known as typhoid fever, is typically caused by the bacteria Salmonella typhi or Salmonella paratyphi. The best diagnostic method depends on the stage of the disease.</li><li>• For a patient presenting with fever for 5 days (in the first week of illness), blood cultures are the most reliable diagnostic method. During the first week, the bacteria are most likely to be present in the bloodstream, making blood cultures highly effective for identifying the pathogen.</li><li>• blood cultures</li><li>• Key points:</li><li>• Key points:</li><li>• Blood cultures: The best diagnostic method for enteric fever during the first week of illness, as the bacteria are present in the blood. Bone marrow cultures: While they have the highest sensitivity at any stage of the disease, they are more invasive and less commonly performed compared to blood cultures.</li><li>• Blood cultures: The best diagnostic method for enteric fever during the first week of illness, as the bacteria are present in the blood.</li><li>• Blood cultures:</li><li>• Bone marrow cultures: While they have the highest sensitivity at any stage of the disease, they are more invasive and less commonly performed compared to blood cultures.</li><li>• Bone marrow cultures:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Urine cultures: These are not typically useful in the early stages of enteric fever and are more relevant in the later stages of the disease.</li><li>• Option B. Urine cultures:</li><li>• Option C. Widal test: This serological test detects antibodies against Salmonella antigens, but it is less specific and sensitive, especially in the early stages. It also has a higher rate of false positives and is not recommended as the primary diagnostic tool in the first week.</li><li>• Option C. Widal test:</li><li>• Option D. Stool cultures: These can be useful later in the disease when the bacteria are shed in the stool, but they are not the best diagnostic method during the first week.</li><li>• Option D. Stool cultures:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For diagnosing enteric fever in the first week of illness, blood cultures are the most effective and reliable method.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following psychological coping strategies is not considered a defense mechanism? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rationalization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Displacement", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Regression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Replacement", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Replacement", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Replacement</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ \"Replacement\" is not classified as a defense mechanism, whereas rationalization, displacement, and regression are recognized defense mechanisms used to protect oneself from anxiety or unacceptable impulses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the compression to ventilation ratio in an adult cardiac arrest patient in the presence of more than one rescuer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15:2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "30:2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "15:1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30:1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 30:2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For adult CPR, regardless of the number of rescuers, the compression to ventilation ratio should always be 30:2 to ensure effective circulation and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.</li><li>➤ Additionally, For children with one rescuer, the ratio is 30 compressions to 2 ventilations (30:2) ; with two rescuers, the ratio is 15 compressions to 2 ventilations (15:2) . For neonates , the ratio is 3 compressions to 1 ventilation (3:1) .</li><li>➤ For children</li><li>➤ 30 compressions to 2 ventilations (30:2)</li><li>➤ 15 compressions to 2 ventilations (15:2)</li><li>➤ For neonates</li><li>➤ 3 compressions to 1 ventilation (3:1)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Recommended minimum per capita space for a factory worker as per The Factory Act 1948 is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 cu feet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "300 cu feet", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "400 cu feet", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "500 cu feet", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 500 cu feet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 500 cu feet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended spaces:</li><li>➤ Recommended spaces:</li><li>➤ Floor space per person in a house: minimum 70 – 90 sq. ft. Floor area per student in a class: &gt; 10 sq. ft. Space per worker in a factory (The Factory Act, 1948): &gt;500 cu. ft.t</li><li>➤ Floor space per person in a house: minimum 70 – 90 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor area per student in a class: &gt; 10 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Space per worker in a factory (The Factory Act, 1948): &gt;500 cu. ft.t</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Outbreak of diarrhea. Rice water stool in nature. Pathogen exhibited darting motility. What is the organism? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Salmonella typhi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vibrio cholerae", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shigella dysenteriae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vibrio cholerae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-180303.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-180423.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-180455.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-180504.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-180524.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vibrio cholerae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of motility:</li><li>➤ Types of motility:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior cardiac vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Great cardiac vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Middle cardiac vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small cardiac vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Great cardiac vein", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-101319.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The great cardiac vein runs along the anterior interventricular sulcus with the anterior interventricular artery and is crucial for draining blood from the anterior aspects of the heart.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anterior ethmoidal sinus drains into: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inferior meatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle meatus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior meatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nasal cavity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Middle meatus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Middle meatus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anterior ethmoidal sinus, along with the maxillary and frontal sinuses, drains into the middle meatus of the nasal cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Name the hormone secreted by the marked cell: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcitonin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prolactin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thyroxine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calcitonin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100815.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Calcitonin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The parafollicular cells (C cells) in the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin, a hormone that helps regulate calcium levels in the blood.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug is the most common used in day care surgery/TIVA?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sodium thiopentone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propofol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Halothane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Propofol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Propofol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propofol is the drug of choice for day care surgeries and total intravenous anesthesia (TIVA) due to its rapid onset, quick metabolism, and minimal postoperative side effects, including anti-emetic and anti-pruritic effects</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rickets occurs due to deficiency of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vitamin D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110046.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110058.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vitamin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rickets is primarily caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D, which leads to characteristic bone deformities such as cupping, splaying, and flaring of the metaphyseal ends.</li><li>➤ Rickets is primarily caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D, which leads to characteristic bone deformities such as cupping, splaying, and flaring of the metaphyseal ends.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to the tracking phenomenon of blood pressure in the population, it is observed that if BP of a person is tracked from childhood to adulthood, then: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lower BP in childhood will have high BP in adulthood", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Higher BP in childhood will have low BP in adulthood", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lower BP in childhood will have normal BP in adulthood", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lower BP in childhood will have low BP in adulthood", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lower BP in childhood will have low BP in adulthood", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-153131.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lower BP in childhood will have low BP in adulthood</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The tracking phenomenon suggests that individuals with lower BP in childhood are likely to maintain lower BP into adulthood .</li><li>➤ tracking phenomenon</li><li>➤ lower BP in childhood</li><li>➤ lower BP into adulthood</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following IV anesthetics acts on an NMDA receptor?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propofol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiopentone sodium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Midazolam", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ketamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ketamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ketamine is unique among IV anesthetics for its action as an NMDA receptor antagonist, leading to its characteristic dissociative anesthesia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male patient with a documented 20-year history of alcohol abuse, consuming approximately 500 ml of alcohol daily, presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of disorientation, sensation of insects crawling on the skin, and severe agitation. Given this clinical presentation, what is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute alcohol intoxication", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal delirium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcohol-induced persisting dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alcohol withdrawal delirium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delirium tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that presents with disorientation, hallucinations, and agitation, typically occurring 48-72 hours after the last drink</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, Targets for MMR and U5MR to be achieved by 2030 are: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 MMR, 50 U5MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100 MMR, 30 U5MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "70 MMR, 25 U5MR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "100 MMR, 12 U5MR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 70 MMR, 25 U5MR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 70 MMR, 25 U5MR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals aim to reduce the maternal mortality ratio to below 70 per 100,000 live births and the under-5 mortality rate to 25 per 1,000 live births by 2030.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following component is absent in the smooth muscle? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Actin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tropomyosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Troponin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Troponin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Troponin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Troponin is absent in smooth muscle; instead, calcium binds to calmodulin to facilitate muscle contraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where does the maximum water absorption occur within the renal tubules? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCT", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "DCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loop of Henle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Collecting duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PCT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PCT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is the site of maximum water absorption within the renal tubules, reabsorbing about 60-65% of the filtered water.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Location of Bartholin cyst at the vaginal orifice is at? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial 1/3 rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral 1/3 rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior 1/3 rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior 1/3rd", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Posterior 1/3rd", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Bartholin cyst is located at the posterior one-third of the vaginal orifice, at the margin of the labia minora and the vaginal introitus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the mid parental height of a male patient with father height 183 cm and mother height 175 cm? ( FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "185.5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "189.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "192.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "195.5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 185.5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-181950.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 185.5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To calculate the mid-parental height for a male child, use the formula:</li><li>➤ (Father’s height+Mother’s height)/2+6.5 cm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lienorenal ligament", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastrosplenic ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lesser omentum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Greater omentum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lienorenal ligament", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/00000_cleanup.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lienorenal ligament is a peritoneal structure connecting the spleen to the kidney and contains the splenic artery. This ligament is essential for surgeons to identify, especially during procedures involving the spleen or splenic artery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "This condition is treated by supplementation of which of the following? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nicotinamide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nicotinamide", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-102657.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nicotinamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia, is treated with niacin or nicotinamide supplementation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby who can ride a tricycle, can walk alternate steps on stairs, he cannot do hopping. What is the age of the baby? ( FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2.5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3.5 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4.5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5.5 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3.5 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A child who can ride a tricycle and walk up stairs with alternate feet but cannot hop is typically around 3.5 years old.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of injury shown in the following image. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type II", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type III", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type II", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-113001.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20105951.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type II</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the Type II Salter-Harris physeal injury in children. A Type II Salter-Harris fracture involves both the growth plate and a part of the metaphysis and is the most common type of growth plate fracture.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the Type II Salter-Harris physeal injury in children.</li><li>➤ A Type II Salter-Harris fracture involves both the growth plate and a part of the metaphysis and is the most common type of growth plate fracture.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old P1L1 with irregular bleeding for 1.5 months. What is the next best investigation to do? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "UPT", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "TVS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pap smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "USG abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. UPT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) UPT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In a 28-year-old woman with irregular bleeding for 1.5 months, the first step is to rule out pregnancy. The initial investigation in this scenario should be a urine pregnancy test (UPT). This is crucial because pregnancy-related complications such as threatened abortion, incomplete abortion, or ectopic pregnancy can present with irregular bleeding. Identifying or excluding pregnancy is the most immediate concern and guides subsequent management.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. TVS (Transvaginal Ultrasound): This is a valuable tool for assessing pelvic pathology and uterine abnormalities, but it is typically done after confirming the UPT results.</li><li>• Option B. TVS (Transvaginal Ultrasound):</li><li>• Option C. Pap smear: This test is used for cervical cancer screening and is not the immediate next step in evaluating irregular bleeding when pregnancy needs to be ruled out first.</li><li>• Option C. Pap smear:</li><li>• Option D. USG abdomen: While an abdominal ultrasound can provide useful information, it is less sensitive than a transvaginal ultrasound for early pregnancy detection and pelvic pathology assessment.</li><li>• Option D. USG abdomen:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a reproductive-age woman with irregular bleeding, the first investigation should be a urine pregnancy test (UPT) to rule out pregnancy-related causes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old boy presents with fever, headaches, myalgia, and drowsiness. Over the next few days, he develops dizziness and altered consciousness. His mother mentions that he consumed palm fruit during a recent trip to Kerala and has felt unwell since then. Based on his symptoms and travel history, which of the following viruses should be considered in your differential diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dengue virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nipah virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebola virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chikungunya virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nipah virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nipah virus is transmitted through contact with fruit bats or contaminated palm sap, particularly in areas like Kerala, India. It can cause severe encephalitis, and a travel history to endemic regions should prompt suspicion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following plasma protein will decrease in acute inflammation? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CRP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepcidin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ferritin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Albumin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Negative acute-phase reactants – Albumin, Transferrin, Transthyretin</li><li>➤ Positive acute-phase reactants - CRP, hepcidin, and ferritin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The type of cataract associated with blunt trauma is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sunflower cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Snowflake cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rosette cataract", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Christmas tree cataract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rosette cataract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-105252.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-105256.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/WhatsApp%20Image%202025-01-17%20at%2010.58.15.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-105301.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-105307.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rosette cataract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rosette cataract is the type of cataract that develops following blunt trauma to the eye, characterized by its distinctive flower-like pattern.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient with bronchial asthma is currently on inhaler therapy with ipratropium and formoterol. Despite the medication, his symptoms are not improving due to his incoordination of hand and inhaler usage. What should be the next step in management? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monitor plasma levels of ipratropium and formoterol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Use nebulizer of formoterol and ipratropium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Use dry powder inhaler of formoterol and ipratropium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Use budesonide along with formoterol and ipratropium inhaler", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Use nebulizer of formoterol and ipratropium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Use nebulizer of formoterol and ipratropium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with bronchial asthma who struggle with the coordination required for using an inhaler, transitioning to a nebulizer is an effective strategy to ensure proper medication delivery and symptom control.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with chronic diarrhea develops dermatitis herpetiformis. The physician altered his diet which improved his symptoms. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Whipple disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Celiac disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crohn disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lactose intolerance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Celiac disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac disease should be suspected in patients presenting with chronic diarrhea and dermatitis herpetiformis, particularly when symptoms improve following a gluten-free diet.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common cancer found among the female population in India is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral and lip cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Breast cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Breast cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Breast cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breast cancer is the most common cancer among the female population in India, leading in incidence, prevalence, and mortality rates. Followed by cervico-uterine cancer, ovarian cancer, lip and oral cavity cancer, and colorectal cancer, respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-week-old child was brought to the emergency with recurrent episodes of non-bilious vomiting. He was dehydrated. What should be corrected before performing surgical treatment in this baby? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyponatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypernatremia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypokalemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-161902.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS) is often associated with hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. Correction of hypokalemia is essential before surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-day-old neonate presents with a defect in the abdominal wall to the right of the umbilicus, with protruding intestines exposed directly to the air. Which of the following is the best management approach for this condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wait and observe", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary closure", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "NG tube decompression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Primary closure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary surgical closure is the definitive management for neonates with gastroschisis to protect the exposed intestines from infection and damage. This may be achieved immediately or by gradual reduction using a sterile silo.</li><li>➤ Primary surgical closure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to the OPD with complaints of recurrent lesions on lips as shown in the image below, which is associated with fever. What is the characteristic feature seen in Tzanck smear? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Henderson Patterson bodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multinucleated giant cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acanthocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Owl eye appearance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Multinucleated giant cells", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-093832.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-093859.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-093920.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-093945.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094011.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Multinucleated giant cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of multinucleated giant cells on a Tzanck smear is the characteristic diagnostic feature for Herpes labialis (HSV-1) .</li><li>➤ multinucleated giant cells</li><li>➤ Herpes labialis (HSV-1)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is earliest to rise in myocardial infarction? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Troponin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ischemia modified albumin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "LDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CK MB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ischemia modified albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ischemia modified albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the event of a myocardial infarction, certain biomarkers are released into the bloodstream as a result of cardiac muscle injury.</li><li>• Among the three early markers of myocardial injury , three are particularly significant: myoglobin, heart-type fatty acid binding protein (HFABP), and ischemia modified albumin (IMA). Of these three, ischemia modified albumin is the earliest to rise and also the earliest to fall in response to myocardial ischemia. This rapid change makes it a valuable early diagnostic marker for detecting myocardial infarction.</li><li>• three early markers of myocardial injury</li><li>• myoglobin, heart-type fatty acid binding protein (HFABP), and ischemia modified albumin (IMA).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Troponin: Troponins are highly specific markers for myocardial injury and are considered the gold standard for diagnosing myocardial infarction. However, they do not rise as early as ischemia modified albumin. Typically, troponin levels start to rise 4-6 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction.</li><li>• Option A. Troponin:</li><li>• Option C. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase): LDH is an enzyme found in almost all body tissues and is not specific to cardiac tissue. It is a later marker of myocardial infarction, usually rising within 24-48 hours after the onset of symptoms.</li><li>• Option C. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase):</li><li>• Option D. CK MB (Creatine Kinase-MB): CK-MB is a specific isoenzyme found in heart muscle and is used as a marker for myocardial infarction. However, it does not rise as early as ischemia modified albumin. CK-MB levels typically start to increase 3-6 hours after myocardial infarction.</li><li>• Option D. CK MB (Creatine Kinase-MB):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ischemia modified albumin is the earliest biomarker to rise in the event of a myocardial infarction, making it a crucial early indicator for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person had a fall on an outstretched hand. He presented with pain and swelling at the base of the thumb. Which structure is most likely to be injured? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lunate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pisiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scaphoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trapezium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Scaphoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Scaphoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The scaphoid bone is the most common carpal bone injured in falls on an outstretched hand, especially when the patient presents with pain and swelling at the base of the thumb.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following an accident, a patient presented with an inability to flex the MCP joint and extend the IP joint of his hand. Which nerve is damaged here? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior interosseous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Musculocutaneous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ulnar nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ulnar nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ulnar nerve is responsible for innervating the third and fourth lumbricals, which are essential for flexing the MCP joints and extending the IP joints. Damage to this nerve can lead to the characteristic \"claw hand\" deformity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old female who had a lumbar puncture continues to have a headache. Which of the following is not recommended? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low volume blood patch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase caffeine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluid restriction", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stool softeners", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fluid restriction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fluid restriction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of post-dural puncture headache, fluid restriction is not recommended. Instead, measures such as epidural blood patches, increased caffeine intake, and stool softeners are utilized to manage symptoms and promote recovery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Morbidity of a disease is increasing. Identify the correct statement. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incidence will decrease &amp; prevalence will increase.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incidence will increase &amp; prevalence will decrease.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incidence &amp; prevalence of a disease are not related to it.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incidence will increase &amp; prevalence will increase because the prevalence is related to incidence.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Incidence will increase & prevalence will increase because the prevalence is related to incidence.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Incidence will increase &amp; prevalence will increase because the prevalence is related to incidence.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When the morbidity of a disease increases, both the incidence and prevalence of the disease are likely to increase, as they are interrelated. Prevalence depends on the incidence rate and the duration of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Instilling a particular idea in people’s mind and not affecting their thought process is a type of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Health Awareness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Health Propaganda", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Health Education", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Health Promotion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Health Propaganda", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-151941.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Health Propaganda</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Health Education versus Propaganda/Publicity</li><li>➤ Health Education versus Propaganda/Publicity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anterior fontanelle closes at which age? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12-24 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0-3 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10-12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3-6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 12-24 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100636.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anterior fontanelle typically closes between 12 to 24 months of age, making this a key point for assessing normal infant development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person died suddenly whose family is abroad. A preservative was used to preserve his viscera. Which of the following poisoning is seen in it? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aconite", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thymol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aconite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aconite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aconite is a potent cardiac poison known for causing sudden death due to its severe impact on cardiac function</li><li>➤ Cardiac poisons : Mnemonic - DHONAQ</li><li>➤ Cardiac poisons</li><li>➤ Mnemonic - DHONAQ</li><li>➤ D igitalis, H ydrogen cyanide, O leander, N icotine, A conite, and Q uinine.</li><li>➤ D</li><li>➤ H</li><li>➤ O</li><li>➤ N</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ Q</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Post-translational modification common to collagen, hemoglobin, and immunoglobulin? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Splicing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gene editing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subunit aggregation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydroxylation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Subunit aggregation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Subunit aggregation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subunit aggregation is a post-translational modification common to collagen, hemoglobin, and immunoglobulin, where multiple protein subunits assemble to form a functional protein complex.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mechanism of action of inhibin? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibits FSH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increases FSH secretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased estradiol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibits estradiol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibits FSH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inhibits FSH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhibin's primary mechanism of action is to inhibit the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the anterior pituitary gland, providing negative feedback to regulate the menstrual cycle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Methotrexate acts by inhibiting: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thymidylate synthetase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DNA polymerase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RNA Polymerase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dihydrofolate reductase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dihydrofolate reductase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/whatsapp-image-2024-08-30-at-95817-am.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Dihydrofolate reductase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methotrexate acts by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase, thereby preventing the synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins by depleting tetrahydrofolate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the operative procedure shown in the image? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary closure of perforation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Resection and anastomosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ileostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Resection alone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Resection and anastomosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-162633.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Resection and anastomosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In surgical procedures involving the bowel, when two bowel ends are being sutured together, the procedure is referred to as resection and anastomosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Puerperal pyrexia is defined as: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Temp &gt; 100.4°F occurring 48h after delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temp &gt; 100.4°F occurring 24h after delivery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Temp &gt; 100.4°F occurring 12h after delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Temp &gt; 100.4°F occurring 6h after delivery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Temp > 100.4°F occurring 24h after delivery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Puerperal pyrexia is defined as a temperature greater than 100.4°F occurring 24 hours after delivery, indicating postpartum infection or other complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the provided X-ray, what is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophageal perforation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SBO", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hollow viscus perforation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Volvulus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hollow viscus perforation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/19/screenshot-2024-10-19-105456.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hollow viscus perforation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of air under the right diaphragm on an erect chest X-ray is a strong indicator of a hollow viscus perforation and is considered a surgical emergency</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following comes under ASA grade 1?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Healthy patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mild disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moderate disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Morbid patient", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Healthy patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ASA grade 1 refers to a normal, healthy patient with no comorbidities or systemic diseases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to antenatal care, the recommended ideal number of ANC visits should be: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12-14", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;15", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 12-14", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 12-14</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ideal number of antenatal care visits recommended for a normal pregnancy is 12-14 to ensure optimal monitoring and care.</li><li>➤ ideal number</li><li>➤ normal pregnancy</li><li>➤ 12-14</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended to be done till what age of the child? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "18 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "24 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for the first 6 months of life to ensure the best possible health outcomes for the child.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cherry red spot without organomegaly is seen in which of the following disorders? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tay-Sachs disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fabry's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gaucher's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Von Gierke disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tay-Sachs disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-103228.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-103353.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tay-Sachs disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tay-Sachs disease is characterized by the presence of a cherry red spot in the retina without organomegaly.</li><li>➤ Niemann-Pick disease - characterized by the presence of a cherry red spot in the retina with splenomegaly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient presented with low-grade fever and cough. Chest X-ray is shown. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Miliary TB", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lung Cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspergilloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ARDS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Miliary TB", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-102659.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Miliary TB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Miliary tuberculosis should be suspected in patients with low-grade fever, cough, and a chest X-ray showing multiple small nodules throughout the lung fields, especially in regions with high tuberculosis prevalence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best test for long-term control of diabetes? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HbA1C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycated Albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine sugar", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fasting blood sugar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HbA1C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HbA1C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HbA1C is the best test for evaluating long-term control of diabetes, providing an average of blood glucose levels over the past 2 to 3 months.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with red, tender, pulsatile swelling in the inguinal region. Which of the following is more appropriately done in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First Angiography to confirm the diagnosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "First antibiotics and observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incision and drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgical Excision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. First Angiography to confirm the diagnosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-163701.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a pulsatile swelling in the inguinal region, indicative of a vascular abnormality, angiography is essential to confirm the diagnosis before deciding on the appropriate intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common site of nasopharyngeal carcinoma: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/whatsapp-image-2024-08-27-at-43918-pm.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common site for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is the fossa of Rosenmüller, located posterior to the torus tubarius in the nasopharynx.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient following a road traffic accident was brought to the emergency by the family members. His CT scan was done which showed the following image. Which of the following can be given to this patient in this situation? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alteplase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retiplase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin K", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-164736.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin K</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the event of a traumatic intracranial hemorrhage, such as a subdural hematoma, Vitamin K is administered to promote blood clotting and reduce further bleeding, especially if the patient is on anticoagulant therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient suffered burns following which the surgical procedure was done as shown in the image. Which of the following best describes the likely procedure done? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Full thickness skin graft", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiersch skin graft", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biological mesh", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Artificial membrane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thiersch skin graft", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-165147.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A meshed appearance on a graft used for burn treatment indicates a Thiersch skin graft (split-thickness skin graft), which is designed to cover a larger area and facilitate exudate drainage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old teacher presents with a 6-month history of progressive hoarseness of voice and vocal fatigue. She reports that her symptoms worsen after prolonged speaking. The fiberoptic laryngoscopy image is given below. She has no history of smoking or alcohol use. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vocal polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vocal cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vocal nodule", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reinke's edema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vocal nodule", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/15/screenshot-2024-10-15-145401.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vocal nodules are bilateral, benign growths on the vocal cords due to chronic voice overuse or misuse, commonly seen in individuals who rely heavily on their voice, such as teachers and singers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient diagnosed with absence seizures is being treated with ethosuximide. What is the mechanism of action of ethosuximide? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibit sodium channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GABA transaminase inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhibit arabinosyl transferase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibit T-type calcium channels", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Inhibit T-type calcium channels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Inhibit T-type calcium channels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethosuximide controls absence seizures by specifically inhibiting T-type calcium channels, reducing the abnormal firing patterns in the thalamus that cause these seizures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A concerned mother reports that her adolescent daughter has developed unusual eating behaviors over the past few months. The daughter consumes multiple burgers in a single sitting and has observed her vomiting after the meals on multiple occasions. The daughter's BMI is calculated at 27. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anorexia nervosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bulimia nervosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pica", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Binge eating disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bulimia nervosa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging, often seen in individuals with a normal or above-average BMI.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman purchased a food item from a shopkeeper who was subsequently arrested for food adulteration. Meanwhile, the woman develops visual disturbances and cardiac failure. The underlying toxin is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BOAA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sanguinarine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ergot toxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aflatoxin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sanguinarine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-134039.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sanguinarine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration diseases:</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration diseases:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man who is a chronic alcoholic was presented with complaints of confusion, tingling sensation. His history revealed polished rice is his main diet. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phrynoderma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beriberi", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eczema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Beriberi", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Beriberi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic alcoholism and a diet primarily consisting of polished rice can lead to thiamine deficiency, resulting in Beriberi, which can manifest as either dry (neurological symptoms) or wet (cardiac symptoms) Beriberi.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The process of converting unconjugated to conjugated foreign substance is known as? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucuronidation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycosylation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxidation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glucuronidation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glucuronidation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucuronidation is a phase II metabolic process where an unconjugated foreign substance is converted into a conjugated form, making it more water-soluble and easier for the body to excrete.</li><li>➤ Note –</li><li>➤ Note –</li><li>➤ Foreign substance are detoxified in liver by -</li><li>➤ Phase I – Oxidation reaction – Hydroxylation</li><li>➤ Phase II – Conjugation – Glucouronide, Glutathione and Sulfation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old nulligravida presents with uterine prolapse. There is no cystocele or rectocele. What is the treatment of choice? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leforte colpocleisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fothergill surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shirodkar surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abdominal sling surgery", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Abdominal sling surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Abdominal sling surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a young nulligravida with uterine prolapse and no cystocele or rectocele, abdominal sling surgery (hysteropexy) is the treatment of choice to preserve fertility and provide effective prolapse correction.</li><li>➤ abdominal sling surgery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with infection of the cavernous sinus with involvement of the nerve related on its medial side. To confirm the involvement of the abducent nerve, the patient is asked to look towards: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior side", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior side", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial side", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral side", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lateral side", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lateral side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The abducent nerve (Cranial Nerve VI) controls the lateral rectus muscle, which moves the eye laterally. Damage to this nerve results in the inability to move the eye outward, leading to a medial squint (esotropia).</li><li>➤ Mnemonic – EOM3 SO4 LR6 (all extraocular muscle are supplied by 3 rd CN except Superior oblique which is supplied by 4 th CN and lateral rectus muscle which is supplied by 6 th cranial nerve)</li><li>➤ Mnemonic</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vitamin A deficiency is characteristic of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stocker's line", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pinguecula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pterygium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bitot spots", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bitot spots", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-105827.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/WhatsApp%20Image%202025-01-20%20at%2012.59.42.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-105908.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-105916.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bitot spots</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bitot spots are a characteristic sign of vitamin A deficiency, appearing as dry, foamy patches on the conjunctiva and representing stage X1B of xerophthalmia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thalamus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lentiform nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caudate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Internal capsule", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Internal capsule", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100505.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The internal capsule is a key white matter structure that lies between the thalamus and the lentiform nucleus, transmitting important motor and sensory pathways to the cerebral cortex.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ga-68 PSMA scan is useful for the diagnosis of which condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prostate cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lung cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colon cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prostate cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prostate cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ga-68 PSMA scan is specifically designed for the diagnosis and management of prostate cancer, as it targets the Prostate-Specific Membrane Antigen expressed on prostate cancer cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer had a thorn prick 3 weeks ago and presents with difficulty in opening jaw and muscle cramps. He is also having breathlessness. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strychnine poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tetanus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tetanus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of tetanus should be considered in a patient with a history of a wound or injury followed by symptoms such as trismus, muscle cramps, and breathlessness, particularly if the onset of symptoms is delayed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used for the detection of monkeypox? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Western blot", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemagglutination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most effective and standard method for the detection of monkeypox is PCR, which detects the DNA of the orthopoxvirus in clinical specimens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Laryngismus stridulus is due to deficiency of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laryngismus stridulus, characterized by sudden respiratory obstruction and stridor, is associated with rickets caused by Vitamin D deficiency. Recognizing the link between Vitamin D deficiency and laryngismus stridulus is important for diagnosis and treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic patient presents with lower back pain and fever. She has elevated amylase levels and has experienced similar episodes in the past as well. Which type of necrosis is likely to be present? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coagulative necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caseous necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fat necrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibrinoid necrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fat necrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fat necrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fat necrosis is a hallmark of pancreatitis, particularly in the context of chronic alcohol use. It is caused by the action of pancreatic enzymes on surrounding fat tissue, leading to saponification and calcium deposition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with symptoms of depressed mood, anhedonia, insomnia, and feelings of hopelessness. The patient has a history of a similar episode with full recovery approximately five years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Major Depressive Disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Recurrent Depressive Disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dysthymia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyclothymia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Recurrent Depressive Disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Recurrent Depressive Disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recurrent Depressive Disorder is diagnosed when a patient experiences two or more major depressive episodes, separated by periods of remission</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 19-month-old child presents with a white reflex in the eye (leukocoria). Ultrasonography reveals an intraocular mass with calcifications. The child's father underwent enucleation for a similar condition. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxocara infestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurofibroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Retinoblastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/15/screenshot-2024-10-15-145648.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Retinoblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Retinoblastoma presents in children with leukocoria and intraocular calcifications, often with a family history of similar ocular conditions. Early diagnosis and intervention are crucial for better outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lagophthalmos is caused by defect in: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3rd cranial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4th cranial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6th cranial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "7th cranial nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 7th cranial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-173121.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-173127.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 7th cranial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lagophthalmos is caused by a defect in the 7th cranial nerve (facial nerve), which innervates the orbicularis oculi muscle responsible for eyelid closure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The marked structure secretes which hormone? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Androgen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucocorticoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mineralocorticoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adrenaline", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-01-11%20120556.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100855.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100911.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The adrenal medulla, the innermost part of the adrenal gland, is responsible for secreting adrenaline, a hormone essential for the body's acute stress response.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In case of a prior history of neural tube defects, women in the preconception period should be advised to take: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Folic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Folic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For women with a prior history of neural tube defects, folic acid supplementation at a dose of 4 milligrams per day should be started at least 3 months before conception as a form of primary prevention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "CFTR gene mutation is associated with which channels? ( FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sodium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloride", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Potassium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chloride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The CFTR gene mutation causes a defect in chloride channels, leading to elevated sweat chloride levels, which is a key diagnostic feature of Cystic Fibrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The 1 st sign to be seen in Mg toxicity in a patient receiving MgSO 4 for eclampsia is? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac arrhythmias", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of DTRs (Deep Tendon Reflexes)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory depression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Loss of DTRs (Deep Tendon Reflexes)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Loss of DTRs (Deep Tendon Reflexes)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Detailed Explanation:</li><li>• Magnesium Sulfate in Eclampsia : MgSO 4 is used to prevent seizures in patients with eclampsia. While effective, it has a narrow therapeutic range, making monitoring for toxicity essential. Monitoring Signs : Loss of DTRs : This is the earliest sign of magnesium toxicity. Clinicians regularly check for the presence of deep tendon reflexes to ensure they are intact. Respiratory Depression : Following the loss of DTRs, respiratory depression can occur if magnesium levels continue to rise. Cardiac Arrest : In severe cases, unchecked magnesium toxicity can lead to cardiac arrest.</li><li>• Magnesium Sulfate in Eclampsia : MgSO 4 is used to prevent seizures in patients with eclampsia. While effective, it has a narrow therapeutic range, making monitoring for toxicity essential.</li><li>• Magnesium Sulfate in Eclampsia</li><li>• Monitoring Signs : Loss of DTRs : This is the earliest sign of magnesium toxicity. Clinicians regularly check for the presence of deep tendon reflexes to ensure they are intact. Respiratory Depression : Following the loss of DTRs, respiratory depression can occur if magnesium levels continue to rise. Cardiac Arrest : In severe cases, unchecked magnesium toxicity can lead to cardiac arrest.</li><li>• Monitoring Signs</li><li>• Loss of DTRs : This is the earliest sign of magnesium toxicity. Clinicians regularly check for the presence of deep tendon reflexes to ensure they are intact. Respiratory Depression : Following the loss of DTRs, respiratory depression can occur if magnesium levels continue to rise. Cardiac Arrest : In severe cases, unchecked magnesium toxicity can lead to cardiac arrest.</li><li>• Loss of DTRs : This is the earliest sign of magnesium toxicity. Clinicians regularly check for the presence of deep tendon reflexes to ensure they are intact.</li><li>• Loss of DTRs</li><li>• Respiratory Depression : Following the loss of DTRs, respiratory depression can occur if magnesium levels continue to rise.</li><li>• Respiratory Depression</li><li>• Cardiac Arrest : In severe cases, unchecked magnesium toxicity can lead to cardiac arrest.</li><li>• Cardiac Arrest</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cardiac arrhythmias : While significant, this is a later sign of magnesium toxicity and typically occurs after respiratory depression.</li><li>• Option A. Cardiac arrhythmias</li><li>• Option B. Hypotonia : This can be a symptom of magnesium toxicity but is not the first sign observed.</li><li>• Option B. Hypotonia</li><li>• Option D. Respiratory depression : This follows the loss of deep tendon reflexes and is a critical sign of advancing magnesium toxicity.</li><li>• Option D. Respiratory depression</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Loss of Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTRs) is the first clinical sign of magnesium toxicity in patients receiving MgSO 4 for eclampsia. Continuous monitoring of DTRs is crucial to detect early toxicity and prevent severe complications.</li><li>➤ Loss of Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTRs)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Accidental death occurred in a man 3 days after the accident. During the postmortem examination, bleeding was observed in the head that was not washed away by water. This can be due to: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidural bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subarachnoid bleeding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "SDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraparenchymal bleeding", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subarachnoid bleeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-151627.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Subarachnoid bleeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is identified by the persistence of bleeding in the head that is not washed away by water during an autopsy, due to its protection by the arachnoid mater</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given instrument: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wire Speculum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lid Clamp", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lid Retractor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cat's Paw Retractor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wire Speculum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-110409.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-110444.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-110453.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-110457.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wire Speculum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A wire speculum is a key instrument in ophthalmic surgery, used to keep the eyelids open and provide access to the eye during various procedures. Its characteristic wire-like structure with loops at the ends distinguishes it from other lid manipulation instruments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Correctly match the sites of cardiac valve auscultation from the given image: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A = pulmonary, B = aortic, C = tricuspid, D = mitral", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A = aortic, B = pulmonary, C = tricuspid, D = mitral", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A = tricuspid, B = aortic, C = pulmonary, D = mitral", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A = aortic, B = tricuspid, C = pulmonary, D = mitral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A = aortic, B = pulmonary, C = tricuspid, D = mitral", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-101335.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/whatsapp-image-2024-08-31-at-120658-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A = aortic, B = pulmonary, C = tricuspid, D = mitral</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The auscultation points for the heart valves are specific to each valve: Aortic (right second intercostal space), Pulmonary (left second intercostal space), Tricuspid (left fourth/fifth intercostal space), and Mitral (apex of the heart). Correct identification of these points is crucial for accurate cardiac examination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following procedure is done for the treatment of Pilonidal sinus as shown? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Axial flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotation flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Advancement flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transposition flap", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Transposition flap", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-164507.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Limberg flap, used in the treatment of pilonidal sinus, is a type of transposition flap where tissue from the adjacent side is cut, rotated, and used to close the defect created by the excision of the pilonidal sinus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The type of synovial joint at the 1st carpo-metacarpal joint is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ball and socket joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ellipsoid joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hinge joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Saddle joint", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Saddle joint", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The 1st carpo-metacarpal joint is a saddle joint, enabling the thumb's unique range of motion and playing a crucial role in hand dexterity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient came with fever and chills. Peripheral smear shown in the image. Choose the pathogen: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasmodium falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasmodium vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasmodium ovale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasmodium malariae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Plasmodium falciparum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-175437.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-175552.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Plasmodium falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plasmodium falciparum can be distinguished by the presence of multiple rings in a single RBC and the characteristic headphone-like accolé form.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anticancer drug that can result in hand and foot syndrome is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bleomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paclitaxel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Capecitabine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Capecitabine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Capecitabine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Capecitabine &amp; 5FU can cause hand-foot syndrome, which is an important side effect to monitor in patients receiving this treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old female presented with anemia. What is the most common cause? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anemia of chronic disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aplastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myelodysplastic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iron deficiency anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iron deficiency anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron deficiency anemia is the most common cause of anemia, especially in elderly patients, and requires thorough evaluation to rule out serious underlying conditions such as gastrointestinal malignancies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the surgical procedure for patent ductus arteriosus, which structure in close relation to it can be damaged? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left recurrent laryngeal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vagus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right recurrent laryngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phrenic nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/whatsapp-image-2024-08-31-at-100108-am_iKK7DXv.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Left recurrent laryngeal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is at significant risk of injury during surgical procedures for patent ductus arteriosus due to its close anatomical relationship with the ductus arteriosus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the earliest marker for myocardial infarction? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CK-MB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lactate dehydrogenase 1 (LDH 1)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardiac Troponin I", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ischemia modified albumin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ischemia modified albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ischemia modified albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ischemia modified albumin (IMA) is an early biomarker for myocardial infarction, detectable shortly after ischemia begins, and is particularly valuable for its ability to rule out MI when levels are normal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct regarding the patient who presented with the following as shown in the image. Earlier the abdominal mass was reducible, but now it has become irreducible? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mass as shown should be removed", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mass should be reduced by a surgical procedure and mesh repair should be done", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mass should be reduced and anatomical repair by suturing the abdominal wall defect should be done", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mass should be reduced, mesh repair done and the redundant skin should be excised", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mass should be reduced, mesh repair done and the redundant skin should be excised", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-164133.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mass should be reduced, mesh repair done and the redundant skin should be excised</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For an irreducible umbilical or para-umbilical hernia, the recommended treatment includes hernia reduction, mesh repair, and excision of redundant or unhealthy skin to ensure a durable and effective repair.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which channel opens when action potential begins? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cl- influx", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Na+ influx", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "K+ efflux", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ca2+ influx", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Na+ influx", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Na+ influx</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initiation of an action potential in a neuron is marked by the opening of voltage-gated sodium (Na+) channels, leading to Na+ influx and membrane depolarization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old woman presents to her physician complaining of itching and discomfort in her vaginal area for the past week. She reports thick, curdy white discharge but denies any foul smell. She has been on antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. A wet mount preparation using KOH shows gram-positive budding yeast and pseudohyphae. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichomonas vaginalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Candida albicans", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gardnerella vaginalis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Candida albicans", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Candida albicans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vulvovaginal candidiasis caused by Candida albicans presents with curdy white discharge, itching, and burning. Microscopy shows gram-positive budding yeast and pseudohyphae. The pH remains &lt;4.5, distinguishing it from other vaginal infections like bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Normal commensal conjunctival flora are: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staph. aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staph. epidermidis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "H. influenzae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Strep. pneumoniae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Staph. epidermidis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Staph. epidermidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common normal commensal flora of the conjunctiva. It's crucial to manage this normal flora during eye surgeries to prevent postoperative endophthalmitis. The use of povidone-iodine in the immediate pre-operative period is considered the best practice for preventing endophthalmitis by reducing the population of normal commensal flora on the ocular surface.</li><li>➤ The use of povidone-iodine in the immediate pre-operative period is considered the best practice</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following eye sign is given in the image? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tache noire", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kevorkian sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corneal changes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitreous humour changes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tache noire", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-163242.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-163318.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tache noire</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tache noire is a postmortem change characterized by a triangular brownish discoloration on the sclera due to drying and deposition of bacteria and dust, typically occurring within a few hours after death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Oxygen sensitive channels in peripheral chemoreceptors are for which of the following ion? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "K+", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Na+", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HCO 3 -", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cl-", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. K+", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) K+</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary ion involved in oxygen sensing in peripheral chemoreceptors is potassium (K+). The closure of oxygen-sensitive potassium channels during hypoxia is a crucial step in the signaling pathway that regulates respiratory response to low oxygen levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the contraceptive device shown in the photograph: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Copper T 380 A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mirena", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lippes Loop", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levonorgestrel IUD (LNG-IUD)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lippes Loop", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-161156.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-161355.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-161452.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lippes Loop</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Lippes Loop is an older, non-medicated, inert IUD that was once widely used but has been largely replaced by more effective copper and hormone-releasing IUDs in modern contraceptive practice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "PET scan is based on: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fat metabolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxygen uptake", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucose metabolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Protein metabolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Glucose metabolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Glucose metabolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PET scans are based on glucose metabolism , utilizing 18F-FDG to detect areas of high metabolic activity, particularly in cancer cells.</li><li>➤ glucose metabolism</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Composition of lactulose: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose + Galactose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose + Fructose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galactose + Fructose", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fructose + Ribulose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Galactose + Fructose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Galactose + Fructose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose Trehalose = Glucose + Glucose Maltose = Glucose + Glucose Lactose = Glucose + Galactose Lactulose = Galactose + Fructose</li><li>➤ Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose</li><li>➤ Trehalose = Glucose + Glucose</li><li>➤ Maltose = Glucose + Glucose</li><li>➤ Lactose = Glucose + Galactose</li><li>➤ Lactulose = Galactose + Fructose</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a given population, total births were 4050 including 50 stillbirths in a given year. 50 neonates die within the first 7 days of life, and an additional 150 die within 8-28 days of life. What is the Neonatal mortality rate in the population? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "62.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "49.38", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 50", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-151526.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-151534.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 50</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR) is calculated as the number of neonatal deaths per 1000 live births.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding increase in GFR? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase resistance of afferent arteriole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease resistance of efferent arteriole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase Bowman capsule hydrostatic pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase renal perfusion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increase renal perfusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increase renal perfusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Increasing renal perfusion is the most effective way to increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis in a smoker patient who presented as shown in the given image and the next investigation required in the management of this patient? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Erythroplakia and Biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erythroplakia and observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leukoplakia and Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leukoplakia and observation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Erythroplakia and Biopsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-170145.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Erythroplakia and Biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erythroplakia presents as a red, velvety patch in the oral mucosa and has a high risk of malignant transformation. The appropriate next step in management is to perform a biopsy to determine the presence of dysplasia or carcinoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presents with sensory disturbances, including a lack of awareness of joint position (conscious proprioception). Which of the following pathways is responsible for carrying conscious proprioceptive information? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dorsal column fibers", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior spinothalamic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral spinothalamic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vestibular tract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dorsal column fibers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/17/screenshot-2024-10-17-151200.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conscious proprioception is carried by the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway, which conveys fine touch, vibration, and proprioception from the body to the brain.</li><li>➤ dorsal column-medial lemniscus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which trisomy is suggested by karyotyping results showing chromosomal defects? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Edward syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Patau syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Down syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Edward syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/5_62287365066771709315.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Edward syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Edward syndrome is caused by Trisomy 18, where the karyotype reveals an extra chromosome 18. This distinguishes it from other chromosomal disorders such as Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) and Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient present with Cotton wool skull. Most likely diagnosis is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Langerhans cell histiocyotsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paget's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Paget's disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110143.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110158.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/4444666_Page_1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/4444666_Page_2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Paget's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"cotton wool\" appearance of the skull on radiographs is a classic sign of Paget's disease. This pattern results from the chaotic bone remodelling process characteristic of this condition.</li><li>➤ The \"cotton wool\" appearance of the skull on radiographs is a classic sign of Paget's disease.</li><li>➤ This pattern results from the chaotic bone remodelling process characteristic of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "65-year-old lady with a history of COPD and cor pulmonale presents with breathlessness and frequent exacerbations. Which of the following will improve survival in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nebulization with budesonide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Long-term O2 therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumococcal vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Positive Pressure Ventilation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Long-term O2 therapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Long-term O2 therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is one of the few interventions that improve survival in patients with COPD, especially those with severe hypoxemia and complications like cor pulmonale.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old boy presents with pinpoint bruises around his hair follicles and refuses to move his legs due to pain. He also has tender, raised nodules along his rib cage, as shown in the image. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute osteomyelitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteogenesis imperfecta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rickets", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Scurvy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/17/screenshot-2024-10-17-153816.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Scurvy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scurvy, due to vitamin C deficiency, presents with perifollicular hemorrhages, painful limb movements, and tender nodules (scorbutic rosary). Diagnosis is clinical, supported by dietary history, and treated with vitamin C supplementation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The primary lymphoid organ is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymph node", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spleen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thymus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Thymus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-101232.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Thymus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ responsible for the maturation of T cells. It plays a critical role in the development of the immune system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Epithelial lining of trachea is made of which type of cells? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ciliated columnar cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non-ciliated cuboidal cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudostratified ciliated columnar cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Simple columnar cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-101256.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The trachea is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium, which plays a critical role in trapping and moving particles out of the respiratory system to keep the airways clear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which structure develops from the 6th pharyngeal arch artery on the left side? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arch of aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ductus arteriosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subclavian artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Common carotid artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ductus arteriosus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/whatsapp-image-2024-08-31-at-100108-am.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ductus arteriosus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ductus arteriosus, a critical structure in fetal circulation, develops from the distal part of the 6th pharyngeal arch artery on the left side.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a nuclear family, the oldest person is 67 years old, his wife is 59 years old. They have a son who is 30 years old, and the son’s wife is 27 years old. They also have a grandchild who is 5 years old. Calculate the dependency ratio for the family: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "66%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "75%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 66%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-171109.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-154309.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 66%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The dependency ratio is calculated as the number of dependents (below 15 years and above 65 years) divided by the number of working-age individuals (15-65 years), multiplied by 100.</li><li>➤ Dependency ratio measures the ‘need for society to provide for its’ younger and older groups’</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pneumoconiosis associated with exposure to cotton dust is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Byssinosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-151102.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Byssinosis.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ List of Pneumoconiosis:</li><li>➤ List of Pneumoconiosis:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a drowning case, primary relaxation is seen in all muscles except one group of muscles. What is this condition known as? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rigor mortis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cadaveric spasm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pugilistic attitude", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Washerwoman hand", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cadaveric spasm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cadaveric spasm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cadaveric spasm occurs immediately after death without a phase of relaxation and is typically seen in the muscles of the hands, often indicating a struggle before death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adult male presented to the OPD with a swelling in the scrotum which was painful. The patient was having fever as well. The swelling was in relation to the tunica vaginalis and fluid collection was present. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varicocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Torsion testis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydrocele", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Painful scrotal swelling with fever and fluid collection in an adult male, particularly in relation to the tunica vaginalis, suggests a diagnosis of secondary hydrocele due to epididymo-orchitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is responsible for balance and equilibrium? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Organ of Corti", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cochlea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vestibule", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Semicircular canal", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Semicircular canal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The semicircular canals are critical for detecting angular movements and maintaining balance and equilibrium in conjunction with the vestibule, which detects linear movements and head position relative to gravity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with a fall on an outstretched hand. On X-ray, a fracture of the base of the 1st metacarpal bone was seen. This type of fracture is also known as: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bennett's fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monteggia fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colle’s fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Smith’s fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bennett's fracture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-101403.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bennett's fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the first metacarpal bone, commonly caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. It is important to recognize this fracture due to its involvement with the CMC joint and potential for dislocation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presents with pedal edema, abdominal distension, and distended neck veins. Chest X-ray is shown below. Which of the following will be seen? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulsus bisferians", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SBP fall from 80 mm Hg to 60 mm Hg during inspiration", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kussmaul breathing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fine crepitations", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. SBP fall from 80 mm Hg to 60 mm Hg during inspiration", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-101359.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) SBP fall from 80 mm Hg to 60 mm Hg during inspiration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiac tamponade is characterized by pulsus paradoxus, which is a significant drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration, often exceeding 10 mm Hg</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct about a patient who presented in the OPD with a swelling as shown in the image? The swelling is reducible. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incision and drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduce the swelling and do the observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Do a surgical procedure and reduce the swelling with mesh repair", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Observation alone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Do a surgical procedure and reduce the swelling with mesh repair", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-164247.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Do a surgical procedure and reduce the swelling with mesh repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For reducible hernias, the appropriate treatment is surgical repair with mesh reinforcement to prevent recurrence and avoid complications. Observation alone is not sufficient, and procedures such as incision and drainage are not applicable.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Who conducts inquest in police custodial death? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Higher police official", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Judicial magistrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical examiner", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coroner", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Judicial magistrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Judicial magistrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In India, the inquest for a police custodial death is conducted by a judicial magistrate, ensuring an impartial investigation into the circumstances surrounding the death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young woman wants to take the post-coital pill. Which one should be given? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LNG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Norethisterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Estrogen + Progesterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LNG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) LNG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred emergency contraceptive pill is Levonorgestrel (LNG), to be taken as a single dose within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The recommended free/residual chlorine level in the water after chlorination of a well is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5 ppm after 1 hour", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.8 ppm after 1 hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.5 ppm after 2 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.8 ppm after 2 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.5 ppm after 1 hour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Minimum Chlorine Levels : Drinking Water : The minimum free residual chlorine level should be 0.5 milligrams per liter (mg/L) or parts per million (ppm). Swimming Pools : A minimum of 1 ppm of chlorine is required after a 1-hour contact period to ensure safety and cleanliness. Killing Cyclopes : To effectively kill cyclopes in water, the chlorine concentration needs to be at least 2 ppm. Chloroscope device is used to measure chlorine levels in water, ensuring to meet the health and safety standards. Orthotolidine Test is utilized for measuring the chlorine content in water, confirming whether the necessary disinfection levels are being maintained. Horrock’s Apparatus is used to estimate the chlorine demand of water, which helps determine how much bleaching powder should be added to achieve effective disinfection. The main disinfecting agent in chlorine treatments is hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which is effective in neutralizing pathogens and ensuring water safety.</li><li>➤ Minimum Chlorine Levels : Drinking Water : The minimum free residual chlorine level should be 0.5 milligrams per liter (mg/L) or parts per million (ppm). Swimming Pools : A minimum of 1 ppm of chlorine is required after a 1-hour contact period to ensure safety and cleanliness. Killing Cyclopes : To effectively kill cyclopes in water, the chlorine concentration needs to be at least 2 ppm.</li><li>➤ Minimum Chlorine Levels</li><li>➤ Drinking Water : The minimum free residual chlorine level should be 0.5 milligrams per liter (mg/L) or parts per million (ppm). Swimming Pools : A minimum of 1 ppm of chlorine is required after a 1-hour contact period to ensure safety and cleanliness. Killing Cyclopes : To effectively kill cyclopes in water, the chlorine concentration needs to be at least 2 ppm.</li><li>➤ Drinking Water : The minimum free residual chlorine level should be 0.5 milligrams per liter (mg/L) or parts per million (ppm).</li><li>➤ Drinking Water</li><li>➤ Swimming Pools : A minimum of 1 ppm of chlorine is required after a 1-hour contact period to ensure safety and cleanliness.</li><li>➤ Swimming Pools</li><li>➤ Killing Cyclopes : To effectively kill cyclopes in water, the chlorine concentration needs to be at least 2 ppm.</li><li>➤ Killing Cyclopes</li><li>➤ Chloroscope device is used to measure chlorine levels in water, ensuring to meet the health and safety standards.</li><li>➤ Chloroscope</li><li>➤ Orthotolidine Test is utilized for measuring the chlorine content in water, confirming whether the necessary disinfection levels are being maintained.</li><li>➤ Orthotolidine Test</li><li>➤ Horrock’s Apparatus is used to estimate the chlorine demand of water, which helps determine how much bleaching powder should be added to achieve effective disinfection.</li><li>➤ Horrock’s Apparatus</li><li>➤ The main disinfecting agent in chlorine treatments is hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which is effective in neutralizing pathogens and ensuring water safety.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which staging is related to JNA? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TNM", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ann Arbor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radkowski", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dukes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radkowski", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Radkowski staging system is specifically used for staging Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (JNA), assessing its extent and guiding treatment options.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of ulcer. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arterial ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venous ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trophic ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetic ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Trophic ulcer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-165649.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Trophic ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trophic (neuropathic) ulcers typically occur in weight-bearing areas, such as the soles of the feet, and are surrounded by callosities. They are primarily seen in patients with peripheral neuropathy, where lack of sensation leads to repeated trauma and ulceration. Recognizing this type of ulcer is crucial for appropriate management and prevention of further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Innervation of lateral rectus is by which nerve? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CN III", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CN IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CN VI", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CN VII", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CN VI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CN VI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lateral rectus muscle is innervated by the sixth cranial nerve (CN VI), also known as the abducens nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with bloody diarrhea. Flask-shaped ulcers seen. Infection due to ingestion of quadrinucleate cysts. What is the appropriate treatment? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albendazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mebendazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Metronidazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-180705.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-180713.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient presenting with bloody diarrhea and flask-shaped ulcers caused by Entamoeba histolytica, the appropriate treatment is Metronidazole. This medication is effective against the invasive trophozoite stage of the parasite.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the neoadjuvant therapy used for GIST? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prednisolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Imatinib", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Indomethacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Imatinib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Imatinib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Imatinib is the preferred neoadjuvant therapy for GISTs with KIT or certain PDGFRA mutations to reduce tumor size before surgery. It is not effective for all GISTs, particularly those with specific mutations such as PDGFRA D842V or \"wild-type\" GISTs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tissues is most radiosensitive? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Testis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Testis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Testis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The testis is highly radiosensitive due to the high rate of cell division in germ cells, making it more susceptible to radiation compared to other tissues listed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The heart of the 'Activated sludge process' method is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary sedimentation tank", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aeration tank", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anaerobic digestion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary sedimentation tank", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aeration tank", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aeration tank</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The aeration tank is the central component of the Activated Sludge Process, where aerobic bacteria break down organic pollutants in wastewater.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, joint pain, and palpable purpura. His urine analysis shows RBC casts without any significant findings. The likely diagnosis is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Behcet disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Granulomatosis with polyangiitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgA vasculitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IgA vasculitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IgA vasculitis, previously known as Henoch-Schönlein purpura, is characterized by abdominal pain, joint pain, palpable purpura, and renal involvement with RBC casts. It is an IgA-mediated small vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the skin, joints, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Tandem radiotherapy is used in? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Choriocarcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cervical cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/29/screenshot-2024-08-29-184528.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cervical cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tandem radiotherapy (intracavitary brachytherapy) is primarily used in the treatment of cervical cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify what is depicted in the abdominal X-Ray? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ERCP and Bile duct", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ERCP and Pancreatic duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Percutaneous transhepatic balloon catheter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subcutaneous catheter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ERCP and Bile duct", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-163215.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The vertical orientation of a stent on an abdominal X-ray is indicative of its placement in the bile duct, particularly in procedures involving ERCP.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Benzathine penicillin is given for the treatment of rheumatic fever. This is which level of prevention? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primordial level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary level", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary level", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tertiary level", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Secondary level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Secondary level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary prevention involves the treatment of existing conditions, such as rheumatic fever , to prevent further complications.</li><li>➤ Secondary prevention</li><li>➤ rheumatic fever</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young boy came to Derma OPD with complaints of severe itching at night. On examination, burrows are seen over intertriginous areas, axillae, umbilicus, and between digits. The disease is transmitted by? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Louse", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tick", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mite", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094514.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094542.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scabies is caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis , which burrows into the skin, causing intense itching, particularly at night, and burrows in characteristic areas such as the axillae, umbilicus, and between the digits.</li><li>➤ Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child with muscle wasting and skinny appearance. Which of the following condition best fit the diagnosis? ( FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marasmus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stunting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Marasmus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Marasmus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marasmus is characterized by severe wasting of muscle and subcutaneous fat, leading to a very thin, emaciated appearance in affected children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The formula UV/P represents which one of the following renal functions? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Filtration Fraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tubular secretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tubular reabsorption", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clearance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Clearance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Clearance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The formula UV/P is used to calculate the clearance of a substance by the kidneys, which reflects how efficiently the kidneys are filtering the blood.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old pregnant woman with a history of chronic sun exposure presented with bilateral brownish pigmentation over the face as shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Melasma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Suntan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nevus of OTA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Melasma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094200.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094311.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094406.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094426.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Melasma, especially in pregnant women, presents as bilateral, symmetrical brownish patches on the face, often linked to sun exposure and hormonal changes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a cohort study done in a community, out of those 100 vaccinated for malaria, only 6 developed the disease. At the same time, out of those 100 non-vaccinated, a total of 12 developed the disease. Find the relative risk in the study: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1.0", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannot be calculated", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 0.5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a cohort study, the relative risk is calculated by comparing the incidence of the outcome in the exposed group to the incidence in the non-exposed group.</li><li>➤ A relative risk less than 1 indicates a protective effect of the exposure, as seen in this example where vaccination reduced the risk of malaria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A case of accidental burn injuries in a female patient aged 35 years involving right upper limb, entire right lower limb, entire front and back of abdomen. Which of the following is the percentage of burn injuries according to the rule of nine? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "45%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "60%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "28%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "70%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 45%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-163043.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 45%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The total body surface area (TBSA) involved is usually worked out by the Wallace Rule of Nines wherein each upper limb is 9% of TBSA, 9% each for the front and back of lower limb, 9% for the front and back of chest, 9% for the front and back of abdomen, the head and neck 9% and 1% for the perineum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents with blurring of vision, photophobia, and a sensation of mild discomfort in his right eye. On slit-lamp examination, there are aqueous flares, numerous stellate keratic precipitates, and mild iris atrophy. His left eye appears normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iridocyclitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intermediate uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxoplasma uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior uveitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iridocyclitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iridocyclitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fuchs' heterochromic iridocyclitis presents with unilateral blurring of vision, aqueous flares, and stellate keratic precipitates . It is a chronic, non-granulomatous anterior uveitis. Long-term monitoring is necessary due to the risk of complications such as glaucoma and cataract formation.</li><li>➤ unilateral blurring of vision, aqueous flares, and stellate keratic precipitates</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old woman presents with eye pain, redness, and a sensation of a foreign body in her left eye. She reports wearing contact lenses regularly and admits to not cleaning them as frequently as recommended. Microscopic examination of a corneal scraping reveals a polygonal cyst, as shown in the image. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acanthamoeba", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Naegleria fowleri", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Entamoeba histolytica", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Balamuthia mandrillaris", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acanthamoeba", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/15/screenshot-2024-10-15-145435.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acanthamoeba</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acanthamoeba keratitis is a serious corneal infection primarily seen in contact lens users. Diagnosis is made by detecting polygonal or star-shaped cysts in corneal scrapings. Proper lens hygiene is crucial in preventing this vision-threatening condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following substances is used for sample collection in a tube for blood alcohol concentration measurement? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heparin + EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium fluoride + Potassium dichromate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sodium citrate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sodium fluoride + Potassium dichromate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sodium fluoride + Potassium dichromate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sodium fluoride and potassium dichromate are the substances used in the tube for blood alcohol concentration measurement. Potassium dichromate reacts with ethanol in the blood sample, facilitating the detection and quantification of alcohol concentration</li><li>➤ Sodium fluoride and potassium dichromate are the substances used in the tube for blood alcohol concentration measurement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calcium binds to which one of the following proteins in smooth muscle contraction? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calmodulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Actin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tropomyosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Troponin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Calmodulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Calmodulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In smooth muscle cells, calcium binds to calmodulin to initiate muscle contraction, unlike in skeletal muscle where calcium binds to troponin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which physiological response is most likely to occur in a person exposed to high temperature while exercising vigorously to maintain internal body temperature? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sweating and vasodilation in skin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shivering and vasoconstriction in skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased production of heat by liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased heart rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sweating and vasodilation in skin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sweating and vasodilation in skin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During vigorous exercise in high temperatures, the body primarily responds by increasing sweating and vasodilation to dissipate heat and maintain a stable internal body temperature</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a tumor marker of carcinoid tumor? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-HIAA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcitonin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Catecholamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dopamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 5-HIAA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clinically, patients with carcinoid syndrome may present with a range of symptoms including hepatomegaly, bronchospasm that mimics asthma, episodes of vasoconstriction affecting blood vessels, increased intestinal motility manifesting as diarrhea, and distinctive flushing of the skin. The co-occurrence of symptoms like diarrhea, asthma-like respiratory issues, and hepatomegaly should immediately suggest the possibility of carcinoid syndrome.</li><li>➤ An increase in the levels of 5-HIAA in blood and urine is a significant indicator (primary tumor marker) of carcinoid syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the likely diagnosis in a patient with fever and lymph node enlargement whose tissue biopsy image is provided here? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hodgkin lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondaries", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tuberculosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/5_62287365066771709313.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Langhans giant cells, with their horseshoe-shaped nuclei, are a characteristic finding in granulomas associated with tuberculosis, making this the most likely diagnosis in a patient with fever and lymphadenopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What concentration of fluoride is typically associated with causing crippling fluorosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt; 1.5 mg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt; 3 mg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt; 6 mg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 10 mg/L", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. > 10 mg/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ‘Fluorine is a double edged sword’: Inadequate intake is associated with ‘dental caries’ whereas excess intake with ‘dental and skeletal fluorosis’</li><li>➤ Crippling fluorosis occurs when fluoride levels in drinking water exceed 10 mg/L, leading to severe and disabling conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Presence of different refractive powers (+5D in one eye and +1D in the other eye) in a 10-year-old boy is suggestive of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amblyopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anisometropic amblyopia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malingering", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Refractive errors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anisometropic amblyopia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/29/6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anisometropic amblyopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A difference in refractive power between the two eyes of more than 2.5 diopters can lead to anisometropic amblyopia, especially if untreated during the critical period of visual development (up to about 7 years of age)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The corrected refractory error is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypermetropia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Presbyopia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Astigmatism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Presbyopia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-110104.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Presbyopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Presbyopia is unique among refractive conditions as its correction (typically with reading glasses) results in clear near vision without altering distance vision, effectively achieving a \"corrected\" state for both near and far vision</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following primitive reflexes is expected to persist throughout life? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palmar grasp reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Moro reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parachute reflex", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rooting reflex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Parachute reflex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Parachute reflex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The parachute reflex is a protective reflex that persists throughout life, developing around 7–8 months of age. In contrast, reflexes like the palmar grasp, Moro, and rooting reflexes are typically present at birth and disappear within the first few months of life.</li><li>➤ parachute reflex</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How muscle spindle able to detect the length while muscle is contracting? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nuclear bag fibers", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nuclear chain fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Golgi tendon organ", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Other muscle receptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nuclear bag fibers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nuclear bag fibers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nuclear bag fibers in the muscle spindle are responsible for detecting the rate of change in muscle length during muscle contraction, making them essential for proprioception and motor control.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which contrast is used in PET scan? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iohexol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gadolinium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "FDG", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. FDG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) FDG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The contrast agent used in PET scans is 18F-FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose) , which highlights areas of increased glucose metabolism, such as cancer cells.</li><li>➤ 18F-FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A surgical procedure is performed on the great saphenous vein located 2.5 cm anterior to the medial malleolus. Which nerve should be prevented from damage during the ligature? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sural nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tibial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deep peroneal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Saphenous nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Saphenous nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100658.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The saphenous nerve accompanies the great saphenous vein near the medial malleolus and is at risk of injury during surgical procedures in this region.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Oil drop cataract is seen in which condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Galactosemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gaucher's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tay-Sachs disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Galactosemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-105717.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oil drop cataracts are a hallmark feature of galactosemia, an inherited disorder affecting galactose metabolism, and they can present as congenital or developmental cataracts in pediatric patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure being palpated in the image: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plantar artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior tibial artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior tibial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dorsalis pedis artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior tibial artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100454.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Posterior tibial artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The posterior tibial artery can be palpated just behind the medial malleolus, and this is a key location for assessing the arterial blood supply to the foot.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A district in Madhya Pradesh has CBR 19/1000 LB and CDR is 6/1000 LB. Find the annual growth rate of the district. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.6%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "13%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.3%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "6%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1.3%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The annual growth rate of a population is calculated by subtracting the Crude Death Rate (CDR) from the Crude Birth Rate (CBR) and then expressing this difference as a percentage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-day-old infant presents with abdominal distension and repeated vomiting. The parents report that the baby has not passed meconium, and he appears uncomfortable during feeding, often regurgitating milk. Physical examination reveals a significantly distended abdomen, and an abdominal X-ray shows a dilated colon. A rectal suction biopsy reveals hypertrophied nerve bundles with an absence of ganglion cells. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hirschsprung's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wilkie syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Functional constipation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hirschsprung's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hirschsprung's disease is a congenital cause of bowel obstruction due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon. It presents with failure to pass meconium in neonates and abdominal distension. Diagnosis is confirmed through a rectal biopsy showing aganglionosis, and surgical treatment is necessary to relieve the obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly woman with a history of hospitalization for leg cellulitis was prescribed clindamycin. Two days after discharge, she developed severe watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever (38.8°C), and leukocytosis (WBC count 18,000/mm³). Stool tests are pending. What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this presentation? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Norovirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clostridium difficile", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotavirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Clostridium difficile", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Clostridium difficile</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clostridium difficile is the leading cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea, particularly following the use of clindamycin, cephalosporins, and fluoroquinolones. Testing involves detecting toxins in the stool, and treatment typically includes oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin .</li><li>➤ Clostridium difficile is the leading cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea, particularly following the use of clindamycin, cephalosporins, and fluoroquinolones.</li><li>➤ Clostridium difficile</li><li>➤ Testing involves detecting toxins in the stool, and treatment typically includes oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin .</li><li>➤ oral vancomycin</li><li>➤ fidaxomicin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "14-year-old boy with recurrent profuse epistaxis and reddish mass in the nasal cavity: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NPC (Nasopharyngeal carcinoma)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "JNA (Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inverted papilloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. JNA (Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) JNA (Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (JNA) should be suspected in adolescent males who present with recurrent, profuse epistaxis and a reddish mass in the nasal cavity. This condition is characteristic of this age and gender group and requires specific clinical suspicion for accurate diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to OPD with dilated tortuous veins in the leg. He had a history of trauma 10 years back in the same limb. On examination, the dilated tortuous vein showed pulsatility. Most likely diagnosis in this patient will be? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varicose vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aneurysm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemangioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AV fistula", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. AV fistula", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) AV fistula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A history of trauma with the presence of dilated tortuous veins showing pulsatility strongly indicates an arteriovenous fistula due to the transmission of arterial pulsation to the veins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old female, on treatment for diabetes for the last 10 years, has experienced three episodes of candidal vulvovaginitis in the last two months. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Canagliflozin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glipizide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pioglitazone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Canagliflozin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Canagliflozin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with a history of recurrent candidal infections, SGLT2 inhibitors, such as canagliflozin, should be avoided due to their association with increased risk of genital fungal infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient following a road traffic accident presented with subcutaneous emphysema, respiratory distress, and hypotension. On auscultation, there was no air entry on the right side and a hyper-resonant note was felt on percussion. X-ray is shown. What will be your immediate management? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Needle thoracostomy in the 5th intercostal space", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urgent tracheostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT scan of the chest", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Needle thoracostomy in the 5th intercostal space", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-102422.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Needle thoracostomy in the 5th intercostal space</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The immediate management for tension pneumothorax is needle thoracostomy in the 5th intercostal space in the mid-axillary line, followed by the insertion of a chest drain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old patient undergoing treatment for tuberculosis reports experiencing a decrease in visual acuity and color blindness. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is most likely to cause visual problems? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethambutol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyrazinamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ethambutol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethambutol is an antitubercular drug that can cause optic neuritis, leading to a decrease in visual acuity and red-green color blindness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female presents with complaints of abdominal pain. Further workup showed elevated PTH levels and renal calculi. Which investigation should be done next? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tc-99m sestamibi scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radioactive iodine uptake test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dexa scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "USG thyroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tc-99m sestamibi scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tc-99m sestamibi scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with elevated PTH levels and clinical features suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism, such as renal calculi, the Tc-99m sestamibi scan is the preferred investigation to localize a parathyroid adenoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During delivery of a 30y G2P1L1 with previous LSCS, the head was delivered but the shoulders got stuck. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CPD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shoulder dystocia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Occipito posterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transverse lie", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Shoulder dystocia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shoulder dystocia is diagnosed when the shoulders fail to deliver within a minute after the head or require specific maneuvers for delivery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gastric lavage is contraindicated in which of the following? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strychnine poisoning", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ingestion of paraldehyde", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ingestion of hydrocarbons", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron tablet ingestion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Strychnine poisoning", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Strychnine poisoning</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gastric lavage is contraindicated in cases of strychnine poisoning due to the high risk of inducing further convulsions and seizures, which can exacerbate the patient's condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When should early cord clamping be done? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Non vigorous baby", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rh negative mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Preterm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pre-eclampsia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Non vigorous baby", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Non vigorous baby</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Early cord clamping is indicated for non-vigorous babies who require immediate resuscitation efforts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the typical Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) value in a healthy adult? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "125 ml/min", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "200 ml/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "100 ml/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "150 ml/min", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 125 ml/min", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 125 ml/min</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The typical Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) value in a healthy adult is approximately 125 ml/min, reflecting normal kidney function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Curtain falling sign is indicative of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinal detachment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macular degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic atrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute anterior uveitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retinal detachment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/29/whatsapp-image-2024-08-29-at-12915-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Retinal detachment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 3 types of RD: Rhegmatogenous, Tractional and Exudative Retinal Detachment</li><li>➤ 3 types of RD:</li><li>➤ 1. Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment :</li><li>➤ Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment</li><li>➤ Most common form, occurring when a tear or hole in the retina allows fluid to enter and accumulate under the retina, separating it from the underlying tissues. Classical symptoms include visual flashes and floaters, which are due to the movement of the detached retina. A \"curtain falling\" sign, where a section of the visual field appears to be shaded, is characteristic of this type.</li><li>➤ Most common form, occurring when a tear or hole in the retina allows fluid to enter and accumulate under the retina, separating it from the underlying tissues.</li><li>➤ Classical symptoms include visual flashes and floaters, which are due to the movement of the detached retina.</li><li>➤ A \"curtain falling\" sign, where a section of the visual field appears to be shaded, is characteristic of this type.</li><li>➤ A \"curtain falling\" sign, where a section of the visual field appears to be shaded, is characteristic of this type.</li><li>➤ 2. Tractional Retinal Detachment :</li><li>➤ Tractional Retinal Detachment</li><li>➤ Occurs when fibrous or fibrovascular tissue, often resulting from proliferative diabetic retinopathy or other conditions, exerts traction on the retina, pulling it away from its underlying support tissue.</li><li>➤ Occurs when fibrous or fibrovascular tissue, often resulting from proliferative diabetic retinopathy or other conditions, exerts traction on the retina, pulling it away from its underlying support tissue.</li><li>➤ 3. Exudative Retinal Detachment :</li><li>➤ Exudative Retinal Detachment</li><li>➤ Also known as serous retinal detachment, this type occurs without tears or breaks in the retina. Fluid accumulates under the retina due to inflammation, injury, or vascular abnormalities causing leakage.</li><li>➤ Also known as serous retinal detachment, this type occurs without tears or breaks in the retina.</li><li>➤ Fluid accumulates under the retina due to inflammation, injury, or vascular abnormalities causing leakage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has come to the clinic. Identify the movement being examined in the given image: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flexion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abduction", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Abduction", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100552.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100608.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Abduction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Trendelenburg test assesses the function of the gluteus medius and minimus muscles, which are responsible for abduction of the thigh. A positive Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness or paralysis of these muscles, often due to damage to the superior gluteal nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following best describes the ABG findings: (FMGE JULY 2024) pH – 7.28, PaCO2 – 28 mm Hg, PaO2 – 98 mm Hg, Na – 140 mEq/L, K – 4.9 mEq/L, HCO3 – 14 mEq/L, Cl – 100 mEq/L.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metabolic acidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metabolic acidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metabolic acidosis is indicated by a low pH and low HCO3, with the same direction of changes in both parameters. A high anion gap indicates the presence of unmeasured anions, often seen in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis, and renal failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with multiple skin tumors presented to OPD, further workup revealed defective DNA repair due to double strand break. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Xeroderma pigmentosum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bloom syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cockayne’s syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lynch syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Xeroderma pigmentosum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094824.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Xeroderma pigmentosum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disorder characterized by a defect in nucleotide excision repair, leading to a high risk of developing multiple skin tumors due to the inability to repair DNA damage caused by UV light exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cord clamping in the 3rd stage of labor is done? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-3 mins", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5 mins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Once cord pulsations stop", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-3 mins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-3 mins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delayed cord clamping is recommended to be performed 1-3 minutes after birth to optimize neonatal health outcomes.</li><li>➤ Delayed cord clamping</li><li>➤ 1-3 minutes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple presents to the OPD with their 4-year-old child who has self-mutilating behavior and poor growth. Identify the condition and enzyme involved in it: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HGPRT deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homogentisic Acid Oxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenylalanine Hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Benzoyl Acidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HGPRT deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HGPRT deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome is caused by a complete deficiency of HGPRT, leading to self-mutilation, poor growth, hyperuricemia, and gout.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient has just undergone surgery and requires a drug to reverse the muscle relaxation induced during the procedure. Which of the following drugs is used for this purpose? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bethanechol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neostigmine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Edrophonium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neostigmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Neostigmine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reversal agents:</li><li>➤ Neostigmine is commonly used to reverse the effects of muscle relaxants after surgery. It works by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, and is combined with atropine to prevent cholinergic side effects. Sugammadex : Known as a Selective Relaxant Binding Agent (SRBA). Specifically used to reverse the effects of Rocuronium and Vecuronium. It is the fastest acting reversal agent and does not cause cholinergic side effects, eliminating the need for atropine.</li><li>➤ Neostigmine is commonly used to reverse the effects of muscle relaxants after surgery. It works by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, and is combined with atropine to prevent cholinergic side effects.</li><li>➤ Sugammadex : Known as a Selective Relaxant Binding Agent (SRBA). Specifically used to reverse the effects of Rocuronium and Vecuronium. It is the fastest acting reversal agent and does not cause cholinergic side effects, eliminating the need for atropine.</li><li>➤ Sugammadex</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions does NOT involve intracellular accumulation of cholesterol and cholesterol esters? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tendon xanthomas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abetalipoproteinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strawberry gallbladder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Niemann-Pick disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Abetalipoproteinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Abetalipoproteinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Abetalipoproteinemia is a condition where intracellular cholesterol does not accumulate, differentiating it from disorders like tendon xanthomas, strawberry gallbladder, and Niemann-Pick disease, which involve cholesterol buildup.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old female presents with cervical lymphadenopathy and fever. The biopsy has revealed granulomatous necrotizing inflammation. Which of the following is the likely finding with this presentation? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metastatic calcification with normal serum Ca²⁺ levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metastatic calcification with increased serum Ca²⁺ levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dystrophic calcification with normal serum Ca²⁺ levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dystrophic calcification with increased serum Ca²⁺ levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dystrophic calcification with normal serum Ca²⁺ levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dystrophic calcification with normal serum Ca²⁺ levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dystrophic calcification is a common finding in tissues undergoing necrosis, such as in caseating granulomas in tuberculosis, and it occurs with normal serum calcium levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per WHO, the definition of blindness is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt; 6/18", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt; 6/60", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&lt; 3/60", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "&lt; 1/60", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. < 3/60", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blindness, as defined by the WHO, is visual acuity of less than 3/60 in the better eye with the best possible correction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anemia Mukt Bharat program aims to reduce anemia through six targeted interventions. Correct regarding administration of Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) is? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IFA supplementation is administered only during pregnancy.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100-day course of IFA supplementation is sufficient.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supplementing IFA during the First trimester is adequate.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IFA is started from the second trimester of pregnancy onwards, continues during lactation till 6 months.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IFA is started from the second trimester of pregnancy onwards, continues during lactation till 6 months.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) IFA is started from the second trimester of pregnancy onwards, continues during lactation till 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) supplementation under the Anemia Mukt Bharat program should begin in the second trimester of pregnancy and continue through the first six months of lactation, with a recommended course of 180 days each during pregnancy and lactation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old PLHIV patient came with cough, fever, and pneumonia. Biopsy shown in the image. Choose the correct agent: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varicella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CMV", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "EBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HSV2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CMV", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-28-094011.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CMV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of \"owl eye\" inclusion bodies in both the nucleus and cytoplasm of cells in a biopsy is indicative of Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, particularly in immunocompromised patients such as those living with HIV.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the emergency with diffuse abdominal pain and abdominal wall rigidity. Exploratory laparotomy was done and the following was found. What would you do in the management of this patient? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Resection of the diseased segment and end-to-end anastomosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cleaning the edges of the ulcer and apply the Omental patch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Simple primary repair", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Purse string suture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Simple primary repair", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-163523.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Simple primary repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For small bowel perforations, particularly in the jejunum or ileum, the primary approach is often a simple primary repair. This involves directly suturing the perforation and is usually effective for managing small perforations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Middle radioulnar joint is a type of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Symphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Synostosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synchondrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syndesmosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Syndesmosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100801.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Syndesmosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The middle radioulnar joint is classified as a syndesmosis, which is a type of fibrous joint connected by a sheet of fibrous tissue, such as the interosseous membrane.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Paris green powder is used for killing of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anopheles larva", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malaria parasite", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mites", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adult mosquito", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anopheles larva", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anopheles larva</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antilarval measures: Paris green – 2% dust applied in dose of 1 kg per hectare; ‘stomach poison’ to larvae but harmless to humans, animals or fish</li><li>➤ Antiadult measures: DDT, pyrethrum, and malathion</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the preferred drug for total intravenous anaesthesia? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiopentone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propofol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Propofol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Propofol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propofol is the drug of choice for total intravenous anesthesia and day-care surgery due to its rapid onset and offset, and favorable side effect profile.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was brought to the OPD complaining of swelling in the neck region, which moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue. Which of the following is the correct treatment? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sistrunk procedure", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incision and drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Excision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sistrunk procedure", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-170550.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Sistrunk procedure is the definitive treatment for a thyroglossal duct cyst, involving the excision of the cyst, the entire thyroglossal tract, and part of the hyoid bone to ensure complete removal and prevent recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has undergone laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Identify the structure as marked? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystic artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right hepatic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatic duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cystic artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-25%20114509.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, it is crucial to identify the cystic artery and the cystic duct within Calot's triangle to prevent injury to the biliary structures and ensure a safe surgical procedure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient develops acute confusion and disorientation shortly after undergoing surgical intervention for a malignant tumor. Which of the following medications is typically the first-line treatment for this condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Olanzapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Risperidone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Haloperidol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Haloperidol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Haloperidol is the first-line treatment for delirium, especially when the patient exhibits significant agitation or psychotic symptoms following surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the investigation shown. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "USG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PET", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "X-ray", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. PET", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/29/screenshot-2024-08-29-181237.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) PET</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The investigation shown in the image is a PET scan (and PET-CT), which highlights areas of high metabolic activity, commonly used for detecting cancer.</li><li>➤ PET scan</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-month-old baby was presented with severe hepatomegaly, jaundice, and cataract in both eyes. The child appeared lethargic and hypotonic. Identify the enzyme involved? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Galactokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gal-1-phosphate uridyl transferase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatic Glucose 6 Phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fructokinase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gal-1-phosphate uridyl transferase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/30/screenshot-2024-08-30-111521.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/untitled-133.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gal-1-phosphate uridyl transferase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classic galactosemia is caused by a deficiency in Gal-1-phosphate uridyl transferase, leading to severe symptoms such as hepatomegaly, jaundice, cataracts, lethargy, and hypotonia, particularly in breastfed infants.</li><li>➤ breastfed infants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following method is shown in the surgical procedure to close the abdominal wound with the help of a mesh? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Onlay", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sublay", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inlay", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraperitoneal (Underlay)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Onlay", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-18%20124905.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Onlay</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The onlay method involves placing the mesh on top of the abdominal muscles and rectus sheath, commonly used in open ventral hernia repairs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the fluid requirement in a 3-days old baby with a birth weight of 1300 grams? ( FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "80-90 ml/kg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100-110 ml/kg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "120-130 ml/kg/day", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "130-150 ml/kg/day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 120-130 ml/kg/day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-181740.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a 3-day-old preterm baby weighing less than 1500 grams, the fluid requirement is 120-130 ml/kg/day. This ensures proper hydration and metabolic support during this critical period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male presents with progressive abdominal distension and episodes of vague abdominal discomfort over the past few months. On examination, there is evidence of increased abdominal girth with diffuse tenderness. Imaging studies reveal copious mucinous deposits throughout the peritoneal cavity consistent with pseudomyxoma peritonei. What is the most common primary source of this condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucinous cystadenoma of the ovary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Teratoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Appendiceal mucinous neoplasm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastric adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Appendiceal mucinous neoplasm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Appendiceal mucinous neoplasm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common cause of pseudomyxoma peritonei (PMP) is an appendiceal mucinous neoplasm . PMP is characterized by the accumulation of mucin-producing tumor cells within the peritoneal cavity, resulting in the formation of \"jelly belly.\"</li><li>➤ most common cause of pseudomyxoma peritonei (PMP)</li><li>➤ appendiceal mucinous neoplasm</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent surgery for indirect inguinal hernia with mesh repair. The most commonly damaged nerve in this surgery is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Genitofemoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ilio-inguinal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obturator nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ilio-inguinal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ilio-inguinal nerve is the most commonly damaged nerve during open surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair, especially when mesh is used.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The defined population norm for Urban-Primary health centre in our country is one such centre per: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 per 30,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 per 50,000", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 per 100,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 per 150,000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 per 50,000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1 per 50,000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The population norm for establishing an Urban Primary Health Centre (UPHC) in India is one center per 50,000 populations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man undergoes an upper gastrointestinal motility study due to unexplained abdominal pain and bloating that worsens during fasting. The motility recording, shown in the image below, displays distinct phases of activity. Which of the following types of gastrointestinal motility is most likely represented in this study? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peristalsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Segmentation and mixing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Migrating motor complex (MMC)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basal electric rhythm (BER)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Migrating motor complex (MMC)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/17/screenshot-2024-10-17-153536.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The migrating motor complex (MMC) is a fasting-related motility pattern that ensures the gastrointestinal tract is cleared between meals, preventing bacterial overgrowth and preparing the gut for digestion of the next meal.</li><li>➤ migrating motor complex (MMC)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be mediated by CRISPR CAS 9 technology? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DNA replication", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post-transcriptional modification", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DNA induction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DNA editing", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. DNA editing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) DNA editing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CRISPR-Cas9 technology is primarily used for precise DNA editing, enabling targeted modifications to the genetic code</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Correct about trial of labor in a previous LSCS (Lower Segment Cesarean Section) is? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Risk of uterine rupture is 4-9%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Emergency cesarean facility should be there", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Emergency cesarean facility should be there", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Emergency cesarean facility should be there</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct answer is emergency cesarean facility should be there . When considering a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC), it is crucial to ensure that the facility is equipped to handle an emergency cesarean section. This is because the risk of complications, including uterine rupture, can pose significant risks to both the mother and the fetus.</li><li>• emergency cesarean facility should be there</li><li>• Emergency cesarean facility : The availability of an emergency cesarean section facility is essential for any patient undergoing TOLAC. This ensures that if complications arise, such as uterine rupture, immediate surgical intervention can be provided to minimize risks.</li><li>• Emergency cesarean facility</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Option A. Risk of uterine rupture is 4-9% : This statement is incorrect for a lower segment cesarean section. The risk of uterine rupture in a TOLAC for a lower segment cesarean section is much lower, around 0.2%. The 4-9% risk applies to upper segment or classical cesarean sections.</li><li>• Option A. Risk of uterine rupture is 4-9%</li><li>• Additional Considerations for TOLAC:</li><li>• Additional Considerations for TOLAC:</li><li>• Interval between pregnancies : The inter-delivery interval should be more than 18 months to allow adequate healing of the uterine scar. Reason for previous cesarean : Conditions like cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) or other recurrent indications may reduce the likelihood of a successful TOLAC and increase the risk of complications. Monitoring : Continuous fetal monitoring during labor is recommended to detect any signs of fetal distress early.</li><li>• Interval between pregnancies : The inter-delivery interval should be more than 18 months to allow adequate healing of the uterine scar.</li><li>• Interval between pregnancies</li><li>• Reason for previous cesarean : Conditions like cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) or other recurrent indications may reduce the likelihood of a successful TOLAC and increase the risk of complications.</li><li>• Reason for previous cesarean</li><li>• Monitoring : Continuous fetal monitoring during labor is recommended to detect any signs of fetal distress early.</li><li>• Monitoring</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When attempting a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) , ensure that an emergency cesarean facility is available to handle any complications, particularly the risk of uterine rupture.</li><li>➤ trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)</li><li>➤ emergency cesarean facility</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia Tsutsugamushi? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Louse", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mites", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ticks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mites", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mites.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scrub typhus, caused by Rickettsia Tsutsugamushi, is transmitted by the trombiculid mite, making mites the vector responsible for this disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-month-old child is brought to the clinic for a routine developmental checkup. Upon examination, the child is able to sit unsupported and transfer toys from one hand to another. What is the earliest age at which this child could have first demonstrated the ability to transfer objects between hands? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "9 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transferring objects from one hand to another is a milestone typically achieved by 6 months of age. This is part of the fine motor skills development that also includes unidextrous reaching.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mechanism of action of rivaroxaban is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IIa inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xa inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin K antagonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antithrombin activation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Xa inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rivaroxaban is a direct, reversible inhibitor of Factor Xa, a key enzyme in the blood coagulation process, and is used as an anticoagulant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A G2P1 at 17 weeks presented to the OPD with a BP of 148/90 mmHg. Six hours later, her BP is 142/90 mmHg. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Preeclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gestational HTN", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic HTN", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic HTN with superimposed preeclampsia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chronic HTN", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypertension diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation in a pregnant woman is most likely chronic hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group per year is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TFR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GRR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NRR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GFR", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. GFR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) GFR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The General Fertility Rate (GFR) is the number of live births per 1,000 women of reproductive age (15-49 years) in a given year, making it a key measure of fertility in a population.</li><li>➤ Note –</li><li>➤ Note</li><li>➤ TFR is also known as completed family size. To achieve NRR 1, couple protection rate should be more than 60%, which is already achieved Best contraceptive advisable is vasectomy (sterilization). As per NFHS 5, TFR goal was 2.1, India have already achieved the replacement level (TFR 2)</li><li>➤ TFR is also known as completed family size.</li><li>➤ To achieve NRR 1, couple protection rate should be more than 60%, which is already achieved</li><li>➤ Best contraceptive advisable is vasectomy (sterilization).</li><li>➤ As per NFHS 5, TFR goal was 2.1, India have already achieved the replacement level (TFR 2)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A family died in a closed room which was full of smoke from woodfire. Which of the following is the finding seen on the body? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cherry red hypostasis due to CO", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyanosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blackish discoloration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brown colored pigmentation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cherry red hypostasis due to CO", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cherry red hypostasis due to CO</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The characteristic finding in cases of carbon monoxide poisoning is cherry red hypostasis, which helps differentiate it from other causes of death in fire-related incidents.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most important enzyme in acute inflammation during respiratory burst is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MPO", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NADPH oxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Defensin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Catalase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. NADPH oxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) NADPH oxidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NADPH oxidase is the most important enzyme in the process of respiratory burst during acute inflammation. It initiates the production of reactive oxygen species, which are crucial for the immune system's ability to kill pathogens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sludder’s neuralgia is due to compression of anterior ethmoidal nerve by septal spur in the region of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior turbinate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior turbinate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Middle turbinate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supreme turbinate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Middle turbinate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Middle turbinate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sludder’s neuralgia, or anterior ethmoidal neuralgia, is caused by the compression of the anterior ethmoidal nerve by a septal spur in the region of the middle turbinate. This condition results in facial pain and headache due to nerve irritation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady presented to OPD with complaint of pain in the breast. On clinical examination cracks in the nipple were present and fluctuation was positive. Most likely diagnosis in this lady will be? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Breast engorgement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute Mastitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atypical hyperplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Breast abscess", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a breastfeeding woman with breast pain, cracked nipples, and a positive fluctuation test, the most likely diagnosis is a breast abscess. This condition is a complication of mastitis and requires appropriate management to prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with a high fever, severe headache, confusion, and altered level of consciousness. He has a history of recent travel to a malaria-endemic region. On examination, he is found to have signs of jaundice, anemia, and significant dehydration. His blood pressure is low, and his pulse is rapid and weak. Laboratory tests reveal severe hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated liver enzymes. Additionally, his urine output has significantly decreased over the past 24 hours. Blood smears confirm the presence of Plasmodium falciparum. What is the first management step in this situation? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous artesunate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Artemisinin-based combination therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primaquine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intravenous artesunate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Intravenous artesunate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In severe malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, the first-line treatment is intravenous artesunate, which is effective in rapidly reducing parasitemia and improving patient outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Outlet forceps is applied at what station? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Head 1/5th palpable per abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0 station", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "+2 station", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Head on perineum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Head on perineum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/29/screenshot-2024-08-29-175601.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Head on perineum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Outlet forceps are applied when the fetal head is visible at the perineum, indicating it is at the outlet of the birth canal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old male presents with the following x-ray of knee. It is suggestive of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ewing’s Sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteochondroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteomyelitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Osteosarcoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20105802_1c5JyIx.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20105818_pdaWlC8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20105828.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Osteosarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Codman's triangle on an X-ray is a suggestive sign of osteosarcoma, a malignant bone tumor.</li><li>➤ Codman's triangle on an X-ray is a suggestive sign of osteosarcoma, a malignant bone tumor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a trinucleotide repeat disorder? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fragile X syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Huntington Chorea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Frontotemporal Dementia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myotonic dystrophy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Frontotemporal Dementia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Frontotemporal Dementia is not classified as a trinucleotide repeat disorder, distinguishing it from conditions like Fragile X syndrome, Huntington's disease, and Myotonic dystrophy, which are directly caused by trinucleotide repeat expansions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and weakness. On evaluation, CBC reveals low hemoglobin with increased reticulocyte count. Comment on the likely diagnosis. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aplastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anemia of chronic disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folate deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemolytic anemia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hemolytic anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hemolytic anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An increased reticulocyte count in the presence of low hemoglobin suggests an overactive bone marrow, often due to hemolytic anemia, where the body compensates for increased RBC destruction by ramping up RBC production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A gymnasium owner found that people drank ice tea while exercising in his gym. He further mentioned that the subsequent weight loss was solely due to ice tea. This is a type of: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct association", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indirect association", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spurious association", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "No association", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Spurious association", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A spurious association occurs when a relationship is wrongly inferred between two variables due to a confounding factor. In this case, the gym owner incorrectly attributed weight loss to ice tea consumption rather than the true cause, which is exercise.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following set of values suggest primary hypothyroidism? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low T4; Low TSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low T4; High TSH", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "High T4; High TSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High T4; Low TSH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Low T4; High TSH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Low T4; High TSH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary hypothyroidism is characterized by low T4 levels and high TSH levels due to the thyroid gland's failure to produce sufficient thyroid hormones and the pituitary gland's compensatory increase in TSH secretion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old male, following binge drinking and heavy meals, was brought to the emergency with sudden onset of severe left-sided chest pain radiating to the left shoulder. Pneumomediastinum was present. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mediastinal air leak", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophageal perforation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peptic ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Esophageal perforation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Esophageal perforation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Esophageal perforation (Boerhaave syndrome) can occur after episodes of forceful vomiting or retching, especially following binge drinking and heavy meals. It presents with severe chest pain and pneumomediastinum and requires prompt surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition shown. (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jejunal atresia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Small bowel obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CHPS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Jejunal atresia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/29/screenshot-2024-08-29-181654.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Jejunal atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"triple bubble\" sign is indicative of jejunal atresia, where three dilated segments are visible on the radiograph: the stomach, proximal duodenum, and distal duodenum. This sign is crucial for differentiating jejunal atresia from other types of intestinal obstructions like duodenal atresia or small bowel obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old patient happens to have pellagra-like eruptions on skin in spring season from the last 5 years with normal HIAA and high aminoaciduria. Indole levels in urine are normal. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carcinoid tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nutritional pellagra", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hartnup disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Essential fructosuria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hartnup disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hartnup disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pellagra or pellagra like symptoms can result from ( Differential Diagnosis ):</li><li>➤ Differential Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Niacin (B3) deficiency due to a diet high in maize, which is low in tryptophan. Vitamin B6 deficiency, since the enzyme kynureninase, which catalyzes a step in niacin synthesis from tryptophan, requires B6 as a cofactor. B6 deficiency also leads to increased synthesis of xanthurenic acid Carcinoid syndrome: can be differentiated with elevated HIAA level with pellagra like symptoms. Hartnup disease can present with pellagra-like symptoms due to defective absorption of tryptophan and other neutral amino acids, leading to high aminoaciduria and niacin deficiency.</li><li>➤ Niacin (B3) deficiency due to a diet high in maize, which is low in tryptophan.</li><li>➤ Vitamin B6 deficiency, since the enzyme kynureninase, which catalyzes a step in niacin synthesis from tryptophan, requires B6 as a cofactor. B6 deficiency also leads to increased synthesis of xanthurenic acid</li><li>➤ Carcinoid syndrome: can be differentiated with elevated HIAA level with pellagra like symptoms.</li><li>➤ Hartnup disease can present with pellagra-like symptoms due to defective absorption of tryptophan and other neutral amino acids, leading to high aminoaciduria and niacin deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which ganglia is affected due to the involvement of the nerve located at the marked area? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Submandibular ganglia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ciliary ganglia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pterygopalatine ganglia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Otic ganglia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pterygopalatine ganglia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-140551.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pterygopalatine ganglion is located in the pterygopalatine fossa and is involved in the parasympathetic innervation of the lacrimal, nasal, and palatine glands. This ganglion is specifically affected by involvement in the region marked in the skull image.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person fell from the train and injured his both legs a few years back. The amputation was done as shown in the image. What is the most likely reason for doing such an amputation? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is done as a life-saving measure", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is done so as to enable the patient to use adequate prosthesis for walking", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is done for emotional care and support", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is done for good functionality", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is done as a life-saving measure", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-165320.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is done as a life-saving measure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the context of severe limb trauma, such as a crush injury, amputation is primarily performed as a life-saving measure to prevent complications like crush syndrome and its associated risks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male presents with testicular mass. Gross image is provided. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seminoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Choriocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Teratoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Seminoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/5_62287365066771709316.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Seminoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Seminoma is the most likely diagnosis for a well-circumscribed, homogeneous testicular mass in a 35-year-old male. It is important to differentiate seminoma from other testicular tumors due to its relatively better prognosis and treatment response.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs has dual activity against both hepatitis B as well as HIV? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abacavir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tenofovir", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ritonavir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dolutegravir", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tenofovir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tenofovir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug with dual activity against both HIV and hepatitis B: (Mnemonic: LET)</li><li>➤ Drug with dual activity against both HIV and hepatitis B:</li><li>➤ (Mnemonic: LET)</li><li>➤ Lamivudine Emtricitabine Tenofovir</li><li>➤ Lamivudine</li><li>➤ Lamivudine</li><li>➤ Emtricitabine</li><li>➤ Emtricitabine</li><li>➤ Tenofovir</li><li>➤ Tenofovir</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 46-year-old male presents to the OPD with a history of lower back pain and painful urination. On workup, it reveals normocytic normochromic anemia with hypercalcemia. Serum protein electrophoresis was done that shows M Spike in gamma region. Which of the following should be used to confirm the diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver function test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bence Jones proteins in urine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "UACR (urine albumin-creatinine ratio) test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heat and acetic acid test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bence Jones proteins in urine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bence Jones proteins in urine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The detection of Bence Jones proteins in the urine is a key diagnostic test for confirming multiple myeloma, especially when the clinical presentation includes back pain, anemia, hypercalcemia, and an M spike on serum protein electrophoresis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was admitted with complaints of tachycardia, arrhythmias. On examination, multiple scratch marks were present over the body. Probable drug of abuse in above patient is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Datura", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cocaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cocaine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cocaine abuse can be identified by symptoms of tachycardia, arrhythmias, and the presence of scratch marks due to tactile hallucinations (cocaine bugs).</li><li>➤ “Cocaine is the drug of abuse”</li><li>➤ “Cocaine is the drug of abuse”</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Case fatality rate of the disease rabies is: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "90%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 100%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Case fatality rate (CFR) is used to measure the virulence of organism or killing power of a disease. CFR for COVID-19 and Chickenpox is about 1%. Measles has a CFR of 3%. Rabies has the highest CFR at nearly 100%, with no cure available once symptoms appear.</li><li>➤ Case fatality rate (CFR) is used to measure the virulence of organism or killing power of a disease.</li><li>➤ CFR for COVID-19 and Chickenpox is about 1%.</li><li>➤ Measles has a CFR of 3%.</li><li>➤ Rabies has the highest CFR at nearly 100%, with no cure available once symptoms appear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man with diabetes was on medication and forgot to take his meals before going to the gym. During his workout, he collapsed, and his blood sugar level was found to be 50 mg/dL. Which of the following oral antidiabetic drugs can result in hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glimepiride", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acarbose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dapagliflozin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glimepiride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glimepiride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Group of drugs that tend to produce hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy:</li><li>➤ Insulin Secretagogues: Sulfonylureas, such as glimepiride, can cause hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy due to their mechanism of increasing insulin release from the pancreas.</li><li>➤ Insulin</li><li>➤ Secretagogues: Sulfonylureas, such as glimepiride, can cause hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy due to their mechanism of increasing insulin release from the pancreas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is correct regarding the secondary messenger? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "They act on extracellular receptors only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It transmits impulses from cytoplasm to nuclear receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mediate intracellular hormone response", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Act both on intracellular and extracellular receptors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mediate intracellular hormone response", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mediate intracellular hormone response</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary messengers mediate intracellular hormone responses by transmitting signals from cell surface receptors to target molecules within the cell, leading to a specific cellular response.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Post-partum IUCD insertion can be inserted till? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 mins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "24h", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "48h", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "7 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 48h", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 48h</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postpartum IUCD can be inserted within 48 hours of delivery or after six weeks postpartum . The period between 48 hours and six weeks is contraindicated for IUCD insertion.</li><li>➤ within 48 hours of delivery or after six weeks postpartum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Name the joint formed between the epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syndesmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Synchondrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synarthrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Symphysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Synchondrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Synchondrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The joint formed between the epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone during development is a synchondrosis, which is a primary cartilaginous joint composed of hyaline cartilage that eventually ossifies as growth completes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Splenectomy is contraindicated in which of the following conditions? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Splenic rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thrombocytopenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hairy cell leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone marrow failure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bone marrow failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bone marrow failure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Splenectomy is contraindicated in bone marrow failure, as the underlying issue resides in the bone marrow's inability to produce blood cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers along with painful inguinal buboes. He had a history of multiple sexual partners. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LGV (Lymphogranuloma Venereum)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes genitalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chancre", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chancroid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094045.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-094132.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chancroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chancroid should be suspected in a patient with painful genital ulcers and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes), especially in the absence of a history of recurrence and when syphilis and LGV have been ruled out based on the clinical presentation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old female has appreciable shortening in her right leg. She is diagnosed with TB Hip. Her presentation will come under which stage? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage II", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage III", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Stage III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110113.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20110126.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Stage III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stage III of TB hip is characterized by late or advanced arthritis with appreciable shortening of the leg (&gt; 1 cm).</li><li>➤ Stage III of TB hip is characterized by late or advanced arthritis with appreciable shortening of the leg (&gt; 1 cm).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with a sore throat/upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) started developing skin lesions after treatment with Amoxiclav as shown in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pustular psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Guttate psoriasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythrodermic psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inverse psoriasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Guttate psoriasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-093559.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-093631.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-093700.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-093807.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Guttate psoriasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Guttate psoriasis is often precipitated by a streptococcal throat infection and presents with multiple, small, droplet-like erythematous papules primarily over the trunk.</li><li>➤ Guttate psoriasis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The chronic alcoholic patient had a history of strenuous exercise but forgot to take his meal, later had alcohol in a party, and presented with hypoglycemia. Which of the following processes is inhibited by alcohol? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycogenolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HMP shunt", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gluconeogenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketone bodies synthesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gluconeogenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gluconeogenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol metabolism produces excess NADH, which inhibits gluconeogenesis by depleting pyruvate and oxaloacetate, leading to hypoglycemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Zellweger syndrome is due to which of the following? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peroxisomes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nucleosomes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lysosomes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ribosomes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Peroxisomes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Peroxisomes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zellweger syndrome is caused by a defect in peroxisomes, leading to the accumulation of very long-chain fatty acids and branched-chain fatty acids, which are not properly metabolized due to the lack of functional peroxisomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which menstrual cycle length is abnormal? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt;28 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt;30 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt;35 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;38 days", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. >38 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the latest FIGO (International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics) classification, the normal menstrual cycle length ranges from 24 to 38 days. A cycle length exceeding 38 days is considered abnormal and is classified as infrequent or delayed menstruation. Previously, the normal range was considered 21 to 35 days, but this has been updated to reflect a broader range of normal cycle lengths.</li><li>• normal menstrual cycle length ranges from 24 to 38 days.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Menstrual cycle abnormalities are categorized based on the frequency of the cycles:</li><li>➤ Frequent cycles: Less than 24 days Normal cycles: 24 to 38 days Infrequent cycles: More than 38 days</li><li>➤ Frequent cycles: Less than 24 days</li><li>➤ Frequent cycles:</li><li>➤ Normal cycles: 24 to 38 days</li><li>➤ Normal cycles:</li><li>➤ Infrequent cycles: More than 38 days</li><li>➤ Infrequent cycles:</li><li>➤ Understanding these classifications helps in diagnosing and managing menstrual disorders effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 85-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with severe ear pain and discharge from his right ear. On examination, there is granulation tissue in the external auditory canal, and the patient is found to have facial nerve weakness. His HbA1c is 10%, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa is isolated from ear discharge cultures. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant otitis externa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eczematous otitis externa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Malignant otitis externa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Malignant otitis externa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malignant otitis externa is a severe infection of the external ear, typically caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in elderly diabetics. It presents with severe otalgia, purulent discharge, and facial nerve involvement, requiring aggressive treatment with antibiotics and close monitoring.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What will be the symptoms of a fracture at the marked area? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoacusis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Visual loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anosmia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anosmia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-100720.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Anosmia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A fracture of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone can lead to anosmia due to damage to the olfactory nerves. This area is crucial for the sense of smell.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old man presents with fever, significant weight loss, and abdominal swelling over the past two months. On physical examination, he has marked hepatosplenomegaly and pallor. He recently returned from a rural region in India. Based on his symptoms and history, visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely reservoir for the Leishmania parasite in this patient? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pig", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dog", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fox", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Human", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Human</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In India, humans are the main reservoir for kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) , a protozoal disease transmitted by sandflies. The disease is characterized by fever, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, and weight loss, and the diagnosis is confirmed by identifying Leishmania amastigotes in tissue samples. Treatment involves the use of amphotericin B as the first-line drug.</li><li>➤ humans</li><li>➤ kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis)</li><li>➤ amphotericin B</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presents with fever, fatigue, and a new heart murmur. He has a history of poor dental hygiene and recently underwent a dental procedure. Blood cultures reveal gram-positive cocci arranged in chains, as shown in the image below. What is the most likely etiological agent responsible for his condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus viridans", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Streptococcus viridans", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/17/screenshot-2024-10-17-150847.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Streptococcus viridans is a common cause of subacute infective endocarditis, particularly in individuals with poor dental hygiene or following dental procedures. Gram-positive cocci arranged in chains on microscopy is a key finding, and early diagnosis with blood cultures and antibiotic treatment is essential for patient outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following hormone is released from zona fasciculata? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mineralocorticoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucocorticoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Androgen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glucocorticoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glucocorticoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is responsible for producing glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person fell in the dark while climbing stairs and sustained an injury to the posterior triangle of the neck from an iron nail. Afterwards, he experienced difficulty in raising his shoulder and was unable to shrug. Which structure is most likely to be damaged? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Long thoracic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deltoid muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Accessory nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sternocleidomastoid muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Accessory nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Accessory nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The accessory nerve is crucial for the function of the trapezius muscle, which enables the shrugging of the shoulder. An injury to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sudden loss of vision without fundal glow without history of trauma is caused by: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute congestive glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitreous hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic atrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute anterior uveitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitreous hemorrhage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/28/screenshot-2024-08-28-105337.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitreous hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sudden loss of vision combined with absence of fundal glow, without a history of trauma, is highly characteristic of vitreous hemorrhage. This condition requires prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause, which could include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, Eales disease, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO), or other vascular abnormalities of the retina</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male was on metronidazole therapy for a bacterial infection. He attended a party and consumed alcohol. Shortly after, he developed symptoms including intense facial flushing, severe nausea, vomiting, headache, dizziness, palpitations, and hypotension. What is the likely cause? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metronidazole overdose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methanol poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drug interaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcohol withdrawal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Drug interaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Drug interaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Disulfiram-like reaction by \"CGMP\" (mnemonic)</li><li>➤ \"CGMP\" (mnemonic)</li><li>➤ C – Cefoperazone</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ Cefoperazone</li><li>➤ G – Griseofulvin</li><li>➤ G</li><li>➤ Griseofulvin</li><li>➤ M – Metronidazole</li><li>➤ M</li><li>➤ Metronidazole</li><li>➤ P – Procarbazine</li><li>➤ P</li><li>➤ Procarbazine</li><li>➤ Additionally, sometimes can be caused by Isoniazid and chlorpropamide.</li><li>➤ Isoniazid and chlorpropamide.</li><li>➤ This reaction typically includes symptoms such as flushing, headache, nausea, vomiting, and palpitations when alcohol is consumed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "MTP for failure of contraception can be done till: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "24 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No upper limit", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 20 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 20 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the MTP Amendment Act of 2021, MTP for failure of contraception can be performed up to 20 weeks with the opinion of one doctor.</li><li>➤ 20 weeks</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Corticospinal tract crosses the midline at: (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lower medulla", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pons", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Middle medulla", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Midbrain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lower medulla", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lower medulla</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corticospinal tract crosses the midline at the lower medulla in a process known as pyramidal decussation, which is essential for the control of voluntary movements by the opposite side of the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Wasting in a child is assessed by which of the following measures of anthropometry? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight-for-age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight-for-height", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Height-for-age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Height-for-weight", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Weight-for-height", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Weight-for-height</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wasting in a child is assessed using the weight-for-height measure, indicating acute malnutrition</li><li>➤ Wasting</li><li>➤ weight-for-height</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions is associated with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia? ( FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dubin-Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotor syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biliary atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gilbert syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gilbert syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gilbert syndrome is a common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to reduced activity of the enzyme responsible for bilirubin conjugation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following incisions is used for Appendicectomy? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kocher's incision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morris incision", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grid iron incision", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pfannensteil incision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Grid iron incision", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Grid iron incision</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The grid iron (McArthur) incision is the standard incision used for appendectomy, made at the McBurney point and characterized by a muscle-splitting approach.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An individual experiences intense fear and anxiety when confronted with tall structures and the prospect of looking down from great heights. Which term best describes this condition? (FMGE JULY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nomophobia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acrophobia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Claustrophobia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Agoraphobia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acrophobia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acrophobia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acrophobia is the term used to describe the fear of heights, a common phobia that can cause significant distress and avoidance behavior in individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 310 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 273</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge June 2021 2021 06 18 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 273</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 273 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Small or medium sized, sterile vegetations found in either or both sides heart valve commonly associated with SLE patients is characteristic of which of the following disease? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatic heart disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infective endocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Libmann Sachs endocarditis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Libmann Sachs endocarditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Libmann Sachs endocarditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Libmann Sachs endocarditis is associated with SLE and characterized by sterile vegetations on either or both sides of heart valves.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old boy had abdominal discomfort on the left side and he went to his physician. His father had a similar condition during his teenage years and later developed some GI malignancy. He then underwent a colonoscopy which is shown alongside. What do you infer about his condition? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Familial adenomatous polyposis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cancer colon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulcerative colitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lynch syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Familial adenomatous polyposis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-324.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-123615.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Familial adenomatous polyposis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by the presence of hundreds to thousands of colonic polyps and a high risk of colorectal cancer, caused by mutations in the APC gene.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following peaks marked in the image below is responsible for ovulation? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/4_Qjxs6d9.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The label marked 2 represents the LH surge, which is responsible for ovulation. Menstrual cycle phases: Follicular phase (days 1-14): Theca and granulosa cells have increased levels of LH and FSH receptors. The uterus grows more frequently when estradiol levels rise. Estradiol's negative feedback impact on the anterior pituitary reduces the levels of FSH and LH. Low amounts of progesterone are present. Ovulation (day 14): Regardless of cycle length, ovulation occurs 14 days before menses. The release of FSH and LH is positively influenced by a spike in estradiol production at the conclusion of the follicular period (LH surge). The spike in LH brought on by estrogen triggers ovulation. The volume of cervical mucus rises, and it becomes less viscous and more sperm penetrable. Luteal phase (days 15-28): There is a high amount of progesterone. The corpus luteum begins to produce progesterone. To receive a fertilized egg, the endometrium's vascularity and secretory activity increase. If fertilization is unsuccessful, the corpus luteum regresses at the conclusion of the luteal phase. Estradiol and progesterone levels consequently drop sharply. Menses (days 0-4): When estradiol and progesterone are abruptly stopped, the endometrium sloughs off.</li><li>• The label marked 2 represents the LH surge, which is responsible for ovulation.</li><li>• The label marked 2 represents the LH surge, which is responsible for ovulation.</li><li>• Menstrual cycle phases: Follicular phase (days 1-14): Theca and granulosa cells have increased levels of LH and FSH receptors. The uterus grows more frequently when estradiol levels rise. Estradiol's negative feedback impact on the anterior pituitary reduces the levels of FSH and LH. Low amounts of progesterone are present. Ovulation (day 14): Regardless of cycle length, ovulation occurs 14 days before menses. The release of FSH and LH is positively influenced by a spike in estradiol production at the conclusion of the follicular period (LH surge). The spike in LH brought on by estrogen triggers ovulation. The volume of cervical mucus rises, and it becomes less viscous and more sperm penetrable. Luteal phase (days 15-28): There is a high amount of progesterone. The corpus luteum begins to produce progesterone. To receive a fertilized egg, the endometrium's vascularity and secretory activity increase. If fertilization is unsuccessful, the corpus luteum regresses at the conclusion of the luteal phase. Estradiol and progesterone levels consequently drop sharply. Menses (days 0-4): When estradiol and progesterone are abruptly stopped, the endometrium sloughs off.</li><li>• Menstrual cycle phases:</li><li>• Follicular phase (days 1-14): Theca and granulosa cells have increased levels of LH and FSH receptors. The uterus grows more frequently when estradiol levels rise. Estradiol's negative feedback impact on the anterior pituitary reduces the levels of FSH and LH. Low amounts of progesterone are present. Ovulation (day 14): Regardless of cycle length, ovulation occurs 14 days before menses. The release of FSH and LH is positively influenced by a spike in estradiol production at the conclusion of the follicular period (LH surge). The spike in LH brought on by estrogen triggers ovulation. The volume of cervical mucus rises, and it becomes less viscous and more sperm penetrable. Luteal phase (days 15-28): There is a high amount of progesterone. The corpus luteum begins to produce progesterone. To receive a fertilized egg, the endometrium's vascularity and secretory activity increase. If fertilization is unsuccessful, the corpus luteum regresses at the conclusion of the luteal phase. Estradiol and progesterone levels consequently drop sharply. Menses (days 0-4): When estradiol and progesterone are abruptly stopped, the endometrium sloughs off.</li><li>• Follicular phase (days 1-14): Theca and granulosa cells have increased levels of LH and FSH receptors. The uterus grows more frequently when estradiol levels rise. Estradiol's negative feedback impact on the anterior pituitary reduces the levels of FSH and LH. Low amounts of progesterone are present.</li><li>• Follicular phase (days 1-14):</li><li>• Ovulation (day 14): Regardless of cycle length, ovulation occurs 14 days before menses. The release of FSH and LH is positively influenced by a spike in estradiol production at the conclusion of the follicular period (LH surge). The spike in LH brought on by estrogen triggers ovulation. The volume of cervical mucus rises, and it becomes less viscous and more sperm penetrable.</li><li>• Ovulation (day 14):</li><li>• Luteal phase (days 15-28): There is a high amount of progesterone. The corpus luteum begins to produce progesterone. To receive a fertilized egg, the endometrium's vascularity and secretory activity increase. If fertilization is unsuccessful, the corpus luteum regresses at the conclusion of the luteal phase. Estradiol and progesterone levels consequently drop sharply.</li><li>• Luteal phase (days 15-28):</li><li>• Menses (days 0-4): When estradiol and progesterone are abruptly stopped, the endometrium sloughs off.</li><li>• Menses (days 0-4):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 1 : Represents the increase in FSH at the beginning of the follicular phase.</li><li>• Option A. 1</li><li>• Option C. 3 : Represents the peak of estrogen which leads to the LH surge but is not directly responsible for ovulation.</li><li>• Option C. 3</li><li>• Option D. 4 : Represents the peak of progesterone during the luteal phase, which occurs after ovulation.</li><li>• Option D. 4</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The LH surge is responsible for triggering ovulation in the menstrual cycle.</li><li>➤ The LH surge is responsible for triggering ovulation in the menstrual cycle.</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 68</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 68</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child is brought to you with complaints of 18 episodes of loose stools in the last 24 hours and vomiting twice in the last 4 hours. The child is irritable but drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravenous fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral rehydration therapy with ORS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plain water add libitum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oral rehydration therapy with ORS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture174.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Oral rehydration therapy with ORS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oral rehydration therapy with ORS is the optimal treatment for a child with some dehydration who is able to drink, providing necessary fluids and electrolytes to manage dehydration effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First hand to hand transfer appears, then palmar reflex disappears", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "First Palmar reflex disappears, then hand to hand transfer appears", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both Palmar reflex and hand to hand transfer appears at the same time", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both disappear at the same time", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. First Palmar reflex disappears, then hand to hand transfer appears", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) First Palmar reflex disappears, then hand to hand transfer appears</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Palmar reflex disappears before the ability to transfer objects from one hand to the other appears in an infant's developmental timeline.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old female, known case of xerophthalmia, presents with the following ocular manifestation. What is the likely clinical finding?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bitot’s spots", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pterygium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phlycterular conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Membranous conjunctivitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bitot’s spots", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture15.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-103326.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bitot's spot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Bitot's spots are a specific manifestation of Vitamin A deficiency and present as triangular, silvery-white, foamy patches on the bulbar conjunctiva. This condition is associated with xerophthalmia, which includes conjunctival dryness, corneal ulcers, and keratomalacia. The treatment focuses on addressing the underlying Vitamin A deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite and abdominal pain. She has a history of Crohn’s disease, for which she is on infliximab, but she reports that this did not feel like an acute exacerbation of her disease. On physical examination, abdomen is tender. An abdominal radiograph is done as below. She is started on intravenous fluids, given anti-emetics, and put on bowel rest. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Distal obstruction in the small intestine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proximal obstruction in the large intestine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudo obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paralytic ileus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Distal obstruction in the small intestine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/21.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Distal obstruction in the small intestine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Small bowel vs large bowel obstruction</li><li>➤ Small bowel vs large bowel obstruction</li><li>➤ Rule of 3-6-9:</li><li>➤ Rule of 3-6-9:</li><li>➤ The bowel is said to be dilated if the respective diameter is more than -</li><li>➤ Small Intestine: 3 cm</li><li>➤ Large Intestine: 6 cm</li><li>➤ Caecum: 9 cm</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Killian's dehiscence is seen between: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palatopharyngeus and Cricopharyngeus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyropharyngeus and Palatopharyngeus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cricopharyngeus and Thyropharyngeus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Palatopharyngeus and Salpingopharyngeus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cricopharyngeus and Thyropharyngeus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-45.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cricopharyngeus and Thyropharyngeus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Killian's dehiscence , refers to a potential weak area or gap in the pharyngeal musculature. It is located between the cricopharyngeus muscle (also called the upper esophageal sphincter) and the thyropharyngeus muscle (part of the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx).</li><li>➤ Killian's dehiscence</li><li>➤ cricopharyngeus muscle</li><li>➤ thyropharyngeus muscle</li><li>➤ Zenker's diverticulum is a pouch-like herniation of the mucosal lining of the pharynx through Killian's dehiscence. It occurs in the posterior wall of the hypopharynx, just above the upper esophageal sphincter (cricopharyngeus muscle).</li><li>➤ Zenker's diverticulum</li><li>➤ The cricopharyngeus muscle, located above Killian's dehiscence, plays a role in preventing air from entering the esophagus during breathing and preventing reflux of gastric contents into the pharynx.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old auxiliary nurse midwife, attending a community health camp, is interested in cervical cancer screening and seeks advice on the most cost-effective method. Given the setting, which screening method is recommended? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pap smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "VIA – Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colposcopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. VIA – Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. VIA – Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For community health settings, especially where resources are limited, VIA (Visual Inspection with Acetic Acid) offers a practical and economical approach to cervical cancer screening, allowing for immediate results and facilitating early intervention if necessary.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to the given graphs on occupation of people and risk of developing fever, which group has highest risk of developing fever? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Industrial Workers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "White collar jobs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Farmers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Housewives", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. White collar jobs", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/picture7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. White collar jobs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Component bar diagram shows the various parts of a single piece of data. They are also known as sub-diagrams. A bar graph is a particular type of data visualization that uses rectangular bars with each bar’s length proportional to the value it represents. Similar data distributions are also represented by pie charts whereas component bar diagrams are rectangular, pie charts are circular.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old mother was diagnosed with mild depression, she has a 3 months old child. Which among the following should be preferred? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cognitive behaviour therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cognitive therapy + antidepressant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antidepressant alone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electroconvulsive therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cognitive behaviour therapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cognitive behavioral therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of mild depression, especially in postpartum mothers, non-pharmacological treatments such as cognitive behavior therapy are often the preferred first-line approach. For mild depression, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) and SSRIs both are often the preferred first-line treatment options.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 392.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old patient presented with a one-year history of low-grade fever, anorexia and weight loss. A barium meal follow through is done and, following images were seen. What is the possible diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ileocecal tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cancer colon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diverticulosis of colon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ileocecal tuberculosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/23.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ileocecal tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ileocecal tuberculosis often presents with radiological signs like the \"goose neck deformity\" due to a pulled-up cecum and obtuse ileocecal angle, along with clinical symptoms such as low-grade fever, anorexia, and weight loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most radiosensitive tissue in our body? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Muscles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bone marrow", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nervous tissue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bone marrow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/18/screenshot-2024-05-18-101450.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Bone marrow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who was involved in a road traffic accident 6 hours ago was brought to the emergency services with altered sensorium. His Glasgow coma score was 12. CT scan of the brain was done which showed the following. He is most likely suffering from? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subdural hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extradural hematoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intracerebral hematoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Extradural hematoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/4_vzPubdw.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Extradural hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Extradural hematoma is characterized by a biconvex (lenticular) opacity on CT scan, typically due to rupture of the middle meningeal artery following trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the sinus marked in the image? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frontal sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyriform sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethmoid sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maxillary sinus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Maxillary sinus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture2_XEtSzF6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102097_AOYLFbK.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Maxillary sinus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, 493</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a discussion on the role of global agencies in advancing public health, a question arose about which international entity leads in financial support for reproductive health initiatives. Which organization is primarily recognized for its substantial contributions to population and reproductive health worldwide? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "UNDP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UNICEF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UNFPA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "UNESCO", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. UNFPA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-125013.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. UNFPA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ UNFPA is the key global organization committed to funding initiatives that support population and reproductive health, playing a vital role in promoting sustainable health improvements for communities around the world.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with the pain in right hypochondrium. Blood investigation shows AST-22 IU/l and ALT-27 IU/ L, serum direct bilirubin levels -6mg% and ALP- 400 mg % What should be the next investigation in this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "USG abdomen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CECT abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E markers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HIDA scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. USG abdomen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) USG abdomen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients presenting with pain in the right hypochondrium and biochemical evidence suggestive of obstructive jaundice, an abdominal ultrasound (USG) is the preferred initial investigation to identify the cause of obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Supravital staining is used for? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red blood cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Platelets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reticulocytes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "White blood cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Reticulocytes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-318.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Reticulocytes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Supravital staining is specifically used to identify reticulocytes by staining their reticular material (RNA), which appears gray-blue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A training seminar on biomedical waste management is held by the chief nursing officer, Ms Isha, at a District Hospital for new healthcare staff. While demonstrating with various colored bags, she questioned the attendees about the specific bag intended for incineration. What color bag is used for incineration according to the guidelines? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "White", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/category_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When stained with Congo red and visualized under the polarizing microscope, which of the following substance would show apple green birefringence? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lipids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amyloid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Collagen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amyloid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-314.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-120736.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Amyloid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amyloid exhibits apple-green birefringence when stained with Congo red and visualized under polarized microscopic light.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which drug is preferred in premature neonates for closure of PDA? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ibuprofen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indomethacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mefenamic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paracetamol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ibuprofen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ibuprofen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ibuprofen is the preferred drug for the closure of PDA in premature neonates due to its effectiveness and safety profile. Recognizing the appropriate pharmacological treatment for PDA is crucial in neonatal care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child 5 years old was presented to a pediatrician by his parents with the history of frequent attacks of convulsions and unconsciousness. They also complained about his poor intake of food, weight loss, poor learning ability, fatigue and burnt sugar odour from urine. Plasma concentration of leucine is higher than 1000 micromol/L. What is the correct statement? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deficiency of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deficiency of branched chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deficiency of oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deficiency of oxaloacetate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Deficiency of branched chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture64.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Deficiency of branched chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Burnt sugar like odor is a characteristic feature of Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) which occurs due to the inherited deficiency of branched Chain Keto-acid dehydrogenase resulting in defect in oxidative decarboxylation and catabolism of branched chain amino acid -Valine/Isoleucine/leucine. As a result, these amino acids are raised in blood and also gets excreted in urine.</li><li>➤ Burnt sugar like odor is a characteristic feature of Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)</li><li>➤ Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Diagnosis</li><li>➤ Ferric chloride test: Detects Phenylpyruvate and Branched chain amino acid in urine. DNPH (Dinitro Phenyl Hydrazine) test: Detects α –Keto acids in urine (yellow color). Confirmatory test: Detection of BCAA or BCKA in urine/blood by HPLC.</li><li>➤ Ferric chloride test: Detects Phenylpyruvate and Branched chain amino acid in urine.</li><li>➤ DNPH (Dinitro Phenyl Hydrazine) test: Detects α –Keto acids in urine (yellow color).</li><li>➤ Confirmatory test: Detection of BCAA or BCKA in urine/blood by HPLC.</li><li>➤ Clinical Features of MSUD</li><li>➤ Clinical Features of MSUD</li><li>➤ Burnt sugar like odor (because of increased isoleucine) Mental retardation (because of increased leucine) Ketosis (due to increases BCKA) If not treated then coma and Death can occur (high mortality rate) Vomiting, feeding problems Abnormal muscle tone</li><li>➤ Burnt sugar like odor (because of increased isoleucine)</li><li>➤ Mental retardation (because of increased leucine)</li><li>➤ Ketosis (due to increases BCKA)</li><li>➤ If not treated then coma and Death can occur (high mortality rate)</li><li>➤ Vomiting, feeding problems</li><li>➤ Abnormal muscle tone</li><li>➤ Treatment</li><li>➤ Treatment</li><li>➤ Diet is given which is restricted in branched chain amino acids, but some amount given to allow normal growth. Supplementation of Vitamin B1 can be helpful in some patients.</li><li>➤ Diet is given which is restricted in branched chain amino acids, but some amount given to allow normal growth.</li><li>➤ Supplementation of Vitamin B1 can be helpful in some patients.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper 30th/e pg. 309</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper 30th/e pg. 309</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are paired cartilages, except? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arytenoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cuneiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corniculate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thyroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Thyroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The larynx has 3 unpaired and 3 paired cartilages:</li><li>➤ Unpaired:</li><li>➤ Unpaired:</li><li>➤ Thyroid Cricoid Epiglottis</li><li>➤ Thyroid</li><li>➤ Cricoid</li><li>➤ Epiglottis</li><li>➤ Paired:</li><li>➤ Paired:</li><li>➤ Arytenoid Corniculate Cuneiform</li><li>➤ Arytenoid</li><li>➤ Corniculate</li><li>➤ Cuneiform</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A new born presents with congenital anomaly of cleft lip. Which is the embryological development defect? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Non-fusion of palatine shelves", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non fusion of medial nasal process &amp; maxillary process", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non fusion of lateral nasal process &amp; maxillary process", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Separation of nasal septum &amp; vomer from palatine process", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Non fusion of medial nasal process & maxillary process", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Non fusion of medial nasal process &amp; maxillary process</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The embryological defect responsible for a cleft lip is the non-fusion of the medial nasal process and the maxillary process. Most common surgery for treatment of unilateral cleft lip is Millard Rotation Advancement Surgery.</li><li>➤ Cleft Palate: it occurs due to the non-fusion of maxillary processes in the center.</li><li>➤ Defect and their Repair Timeline</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patients receiving which of the following anti-microbial drugs are least likely to develop seizures? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta lactam compounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quinolones", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Macrolides", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Macrolides", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Macrolides</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When considering the risk of seizures associated with antimicrobial therapy, macrolides represent the safest option among those listed. They are particularly useful in scenarios where a low risk of neurotoxicity is a critical factor in drug selection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 49-year-old COPD patient admitted in ICU is on oxygen therapy with simple Hudson mask with 2 liters of oxygen. His pCO 2 on blood gas analysis was 64mmHg. What is the next step? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase the FiO 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease the FiO 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start BiPAP", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intubate immediately", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Start BiPAP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-151033.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Start BiPAP</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady has been diagnosed with breast cancer. Her biopsy report revealing the presence of tumor cells with signet ring appearance, mucin deposition and “Indian file pattern” is most likely suggestive of? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Invasive lobular carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Invasive ductal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medullary cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucinous carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Invasive lobular carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-334.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Invasive lobular carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Invasive lobular carcinoma is identified by dyscohesive, infiltrating tumor cells arranged in an Indian file pattern, with signet-ring cells containing mucin, and is associated with CDH1 gene mutations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male died due to starvation. What is the most expected finding in the body of this patient during autopsy? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enlarged heart", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enlarged stomach", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distended gall bladder", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Expanded lungs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Distended gall bladder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Distended gall bladder</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman presented to the medicine OPD with complaints of muscle weakness and blurring of vision following exertion more towards the evening. On examination, the patient had ptosis. The symptoms improved after edrophonium test. The person is likely suffering from? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lambert Eaton syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Guillain-Barre syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Myasthenia gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis presents with fluctuating muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest, and is characterized by ocular symptoms such as ptosis. The diagnosis is supported by improvement of symptoms with the edrophonium test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a newborn baby born with an empty scrotum, testis was found to be laying close to the peritoneum. Which of the following techniques helps the testis to reach the scrotum? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GnRH Analogues", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Testosterone supplementation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cold compression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manually bring testis down to the bottom of scrotum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GnRH Analogues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GnRH Analogues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of undescended testis, spontaneous descent is monitored for the first few months. If it does not occur, GnRH analogues can be used to facilitate descent before considering surgical intervention (orchidopexy).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs are used in the closure of PDA? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Magnesium Sulfate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alprostadil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indomethacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Misoprostol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Indomethacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Indomethacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Indomethacin is effectively used for the closure of patent ductus arteriosus in newborns, leveraging its ability to reduce prostaglandin levels, thereby promoting the natural closure of the ductus arteriosus that typically occurs after birth. This intervention is crucial in preventing complications associated with an open PDA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Barium enema image demonstrates: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meckel’s diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diverticulosis of colon", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sigmoid volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colon cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Diverticulosis of colon", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/12.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Diverticulosis of colon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diverticulosis of the colon presents with a characteristic saw-tooth appearance on barium enema, most commonly affecting the sigmoid colon.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient presents with headache and black nasal discharge, post COVID infection. What is the condition she is suffering from? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coccidiosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mucormycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mucormycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis is a serious fungal infection that can occur in individuals with weakened immunity, presenting with symptoms such as headache and black nasal discharge. It requires prompt treatment to prevent fatal outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue. She had pallor on physical examination. Lab values are given below: (FMGE JUNE 2021) Hb: 9.8 g/dL MCV: 106 fL Platelets: 1,80,000/mm³ WBC count: 7800/mm³ Serum methylmalonyl CoA levels: Normal Which of the following should be administered as a therapy for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vit B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vit C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Folic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Folic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Folate deficiency is indicated by macrocytic anemia with normal methylmalonyl CoA levels and the absence of neurological symptoms. The appropriate treatment is folic acid supplementation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man was brought to the emergency department after he fell into a manhole and injured his perineum. He was unable to pass urine and blood was seen at the tip of the urethra. A diagnosis of bulbar urethral injury was made. Where do you least expect the urine to get collected in this case? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perineum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior abdominal wall", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial portion of thigh", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Root of scrotum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Medial portion of thigh", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-171751.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Medial portion of thigh</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rupture of the penile urethra causes extravasation of blood into the superficial perineal pouch, scrotum, penis, and then up to the lower anterior abdominal wall. The superficial perineal pouch is a compartment of the perineum enclosed by the membranous layer of the perineal fascia that surrounds the scrotum or labia and penis or clitoris. The membranous layer of perineal fascia is continuous anteriorly over the pubic symphysis and pubic bones. It is later joined to the membranous layer of the anterior abdominal wall. As a result, the fluid that accumulates in the perineal pouch spreads to the lower anterior abdomen. The abdominal fascia is attached to the deep fascia of the thigh in the lower lateral abdominal wall, inferior to the inguinal ligament. As a result of trauma to the penile urethra, urine does not extravasate into the anterior thigh. The superficial perineal pouch is closed posteriorly by attaching the membranous layer of superficial fascia to the posterior margin of the urogenital diaphragm. As a result, there is usually no extravasation into the deep perineal pouch or the ischiorectal fossa.</li><li>➤ Rupture of the penile urethra causes extravasation of blood into the superficial perineal pouch, scrotum, penis, and then up to the lower anterior abdominal wall.</li><li>➤ superficial perineal pouch, scrotum, penis, and then up to the lower anterior abdominal wall.</li><li>➤ The superficial perineal pouch is a compartment of the perineum enclosed by the membranous layer of the perineal fascia that surrounds the scrotum or labia and penis or clitoris.</li><li>➤ The membranous layer of perineal fascia is continuous anteriorly over the pubic symphysis and pubic bones. It is later joined to the membranous layer of the anterior abdominal wall. As a result, the fluid that accumulates in the perineal pouch spreads to the lower anterior abdomen.</li><li>➤ The abdominal fascia is attached to the deep fascia of the thigh in the lower lateral abdominal wall, inferior to the inguinal ligament. As a result of trauma to the penile urethra, urine does not extravasate into the anterior thigh.</li><li>➤ The superficial perineal pouch is closed posteriorly by attaching the membranous layer of superficial fascia to the posterior margin of the urogenital diaphragm. As a result, there is usually no extravasation into the deep perineal pouch or the ischiorectal fossa.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn child presents with respiratory distress and gurgling sounds in chest on auscultation. The chest Xray is given below. Identify the condition? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tracheoesophageal fistula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/11.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) presents with respiratory distress and bowel sounds in the chest due to abdominal organs herniating into the thoracic cavity, which can be confirmed by a chest X-ray showing bowel loops in the chest.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man had just returned from Assam when he developed fever, chills and rigors and altered sensorium. The peripheral smear demonstrated the presence of Plasmodium falciparum. What is the treatment of choice for this patient? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous Artesunate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Artemether", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intravenous Artesunate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Intravenous Artesunate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For severe P. falciparum malaria, especially when complicated by signs of cerebral involvement, intravenous artesunate is the recommended first-line treatment due to its rapid action, effectiveness, and better safety profile compared to alternatives like quinine and artemether. Transition to oral antimalarial therapy is necessary once the patient is stable and able to tolerate oral medications.</li><li>➤ P. falciparum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Anjali, an epidemiologist in a small district of Jharkhand, is concerned about a sudden surge in the number of malaria cases, especially in children. To establish if there's a recent increase in the transmission of the malarial parasite in the community, she intends to use a specific metric. Which of the following indices would Dr. Anjali most likely employ to determine the recent transmission of malaria in her community? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Annual Parasite incidence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infant parasite rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spleen rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Slide positivity rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Infant parasite rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/picture2_U9eIFR3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Infant parasite rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Infant Parasite Rate (IPR) is the most sensitive index for detecting recent malaria transmission in young children, making it an essential tool for epidemiologists monitoring malaria outbreaks in areas with fluctuating transmission levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the normal delivery of a primigravida with polyhydramnios, the intern prematurely removes the placenta, leading to profuse bleeding. Examination reveals an intact placenta, and that the uterus is partly outside the introitus. The patient is in hemorrhagic shock, so initial resuscitative measures are taken. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amniotic fluid embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postpartum hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine inversion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterine rupture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Uterine inversion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Uterine inversion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Uterine inversion: This uncommon cause of postpartum collapse has an abrupt onset and happens right after birth. Uterine inversion causes neurogenic shock due to stretch of the uterosacral ligaments Immediate replacement of the inverted uterus needs to be done The most frequent third-stage management error is delivering a placenta that hasn't yet been detached (Crede's method).</li><li>• Uterine inversion: This uncommon cause of postpartum collapse has an abrupt onset and happens right after birth.</li><li>• Uterine inversion causes neurogenic shock due to stretch of the uterosacral ligaments</li><li>• Immediate replacement of the inverted uterus needs to be done</li><li>• The most frequent third-stage management error is delivering a placenta that hasn't yet been detached (Crede's method).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Amniotic fluid embolism : Amniotic fluid enters maternal circulation through a break in the membranes or placenta. Thromboplastin rich fluid containing debris are deposited in vessels trigger coagulation ultimately leading to DIC.</li><li>• Option A. Amniotic fluid embolism</li><li>• Option B. Postpartum hemorrhage : It may be atonic, traumatic, due to retained products or due to coagulopathy. There is presence of vaginal bleeding on examination, in atonic pph uterus is flabby whereas in traumatic PPH uterus may be contracted.</li><li>• Option B. Postpartum hemorrhage</li><li>• Option D. Uterine rupture : Characterized by shock (Hypotension and tachycardia), sudden cessation of contractions, sharp abdominal pain, fresh vaginal bleeding, fetal parts palpable easily, Fetal heart rate is usually absent, Uterus felt separately/ loss of normal uterine contour, hematuria and on P/V: loss of station</li><li>• Option D. Uterine rupture</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uterine inversion occurs when the uterus turns inside out, often due to premature removal of the placenta, and presents with the uterus partly outside the introitus and hemorrhagic shock. Immediate replacement of the uterus is crucial.</li><li>➤ Uterine inversion occurs when the uterus turns inside out, often due to premature removal of the placenta, and presents with the uterus partly outside the introitus and hemorrhagic shock. Immediate replacement of the uterus is crucial.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 403, Williams textbook of Obstetrics Page 487</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 403, Williams textbook of Obstetrics Page 487</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the following options, which is the most common treatment for recurrent Pterygium of eye? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conjunctival autograft", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta-radiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bare sclera technique", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Conjunctival autograft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Conjunctival autograft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recurrent pterygium is best treated with conjunctival autograft due to its lower recurrence rates and effectiveness. Adjunctive treatments can further enhance outcomes. Observation and bare sclera technique are less effective in preventing recurrence. Understanding the nature of pterygium is crucial for selecting the appropriate treatment approach.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT considered a traditional principle of Primary Health Care? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Appropriate technologies", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Community participation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inter sectoral coordination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Universal health coverage", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Universal health coverage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Universal health coverage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The principles of Primary Health care are:</li><li>➤ Equitable Distribution Community Participation Intersectoral Coordination Appropriate Technology</li><li>➤ Equitable Distribution</li><li>➤ Community Participation</li><li>➤ Intersectoral Coordination</li><li>➤ Appropriate Technology</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Primary health care concept</li><li>➤ Primary health care concept</li><li>➤ Background: One year after the World Health Assembly stated its “Health for All” goal, WHO came up with the concept of primary health care at Alma-Ata Conference, USSR, in 1978 Broad principles: Social equity, National coverage, Selfreliance and Inter-sectoral coordination Aim: To put the people’s health in the people’s hand Definition: Essential health care based on practical, scientifically sound and socially acceptable methods and technology made universally accessible to individuals and families in the community through their full participation and at a cost that the community and the country can afford to maintain at every stage of their development in the spirit of self-reliance and self-determination Hallmarks of Primary health care: 4 A’s Affordability Acceptability Accessibility Availability 8 essential ELEMENTS /components of Primary Health Care (as outlined by the ‘Alma-Ata Declaration, 1978’): E: Essential drugs L: Locally endemic diseases prevention and control E: Education concerning health problems and their control M: Maternal and child health care including family planning E: EPI (Immunization) against Vaccine Preventable Diseases N: Nutrition and promoting proper food supply T: Treatment of common diseases and injuries S: Safe water supply and sanitation</li><li>➤ Background: One year after the World Health Assembly stated its “Health for All” goal, WHO came up with the concept of primary health care at Alma-Ata Conference, USSR, in 1978</li><li>➤ Broad principles: Social equity, National coverage, Selfreliance and Inter-sectoral coordination</li><li>➤ Aim: To put the people’s health in the people’s hand</li><li>➤ Definition: Essential health care based on practical, scientifically sound and socially acceptable methods and technology made universally accessible to individuals and families in the community through their full participation and at a cost that the community and the country can afford to maintain at every stage of their development in the spirit of self-reliance and self-determination</li><li>➤ Hallmarks of Primary health care: 4 A’s Affordability Acceptability Accessibility Availability</li><li>➤ Hallmarks</li><li>➤ Affordability Acceptability Accessibility Availability</li><li>➤ Affordability</li><li>➤ Acceptability</li><li>➤ Accessibility</li><li>➤ Availability</li><li>➤ 8 essential ELEMENTS /components of Primary Health Care (as outlined by the ‘Alma-Ata Declaration, 1978’): E: Essential drugs L: Locally endemic diseases prevention and control E: Education concerning health problems and their control M: Maternal and child health care including family planning E: EPI (Immunization) against Vaccine Preventable Diseases N: Nutrition and promoting proper food supply T: Treatment of common diseases and injuries S: Safe water supply and sanitation</li><li>➤ 8 essential ELEMENTS</li><li>➤ E: Essential drugs L: Locally endemic diseases prevention and control E: Education concerning health problems and their control M: Maternal and child health care including family planning E: EPI (Immunization) against Vaccine Preventable Diseases N: Nutrition and promoting proper food supply T: Treatment of common diseases and injuries S: Safe water supply and sanitation</li><li>➤ E: Essential drugs</li><li>➤ L: Locally endemic diseases prevention and control</li><li>➤ E: Education concerning health problems and their control</li><li>➤ M: Maternal and child health care including family planning</li><li>➤ E: EPI (Immunization) against Vaccine Preventable Diseases</li><li>➤ N: Nutrition and promoting proper food supply</li><li>➤ T: Treatment of common diseases and injuries</li><li>➤ S: Safe water supply and sanitation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following methods is used to sterilize a glass petri dish? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autoclaving at 121 degrees Celsius for 30 - 60 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hot air oven at 160 degrees Celsius for 120 minutes or less", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flash autoclaving at 134 degrees Celsius for 3 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hot air oven at 121 degrees Celsius for 30 - 60 minutes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hot air oven at 160 degrees Celsius for 120 minutes or less", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glass petri dishes are best sterilized using a hot air oven at 160 degrees Celsius for 120 minutes or less to ensure complete sterilization without causing any damage to the glassware.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the cause of lactational amenorrhea? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased GnRH secretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased prolactin secretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased prolactin secretion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increased prolactin secretion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increased prolactin secretion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Increased prolactin release is the cause of lactational amenorrhea. Prolactin is secreted in pulsatile bursts during lactation in response to sucking, and this suppresses GnRH, LH, and FSH, which results in lactational amenorrhea. If the woman remains amenorrheic, regular lactation with one feed at night can delay ovulation and conception for up to six months. (Lactational amenorrhoea method) After six months, nursing has little effect on ovulation, and conception is still possible despite amenorrhea and the potential need for additional contraceptives.</li><li>• Increased prolactin release is the cause of lactational amenorrhea.</li><li>• Prolactin is secreted in pulsatile bursts during lactation in response to sucking, and this suppresses GnRH, LH, and FSH, which results in lactational amenorrhea.</li><li>• If the woman remains amenorrheic, regular lactation with one feed at night can delay ovulation and conception for up to six months. (Lactational amenorrhoea method)</li><li>• After six months, nursing has little effect on ovulation, and conception is still possible despite amenorrhea and the potential need for additional contraceptives.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Increased progesterone : Progesterone in pregnancy is initially secreted by the corpus luteum up to 6 weeks, the placenta starts gradually taking over the function and completely takes over by 12 weeks.</li><li>• Option A. Increased progesterone</li><li>• Option B. Increased GnRH secretion : It is untrue as prolactin suppresses GnRH</li><li>• Option B. Increased GnRH secretion</li><li>• Option C. Decreased prolactin secretion : It is untrue as prolactin levels increase in pregnancy and are responsible for secretion of milk. Increased secretion is the cause of lactational amenorrhoea.</li><li>• Option C. Decreased prolactin secretion</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lactational amenorrhea is caused by increased prolactin secretion, which suppresses GnRH, LH, and FSH, thereby preventing ovulation.</li><li>➤ Lactational amenorrhea is caused by increased prolactin secretion, which suppresses GnRH, LH, and FSH, thereby preventing ovulation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page172</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page172</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Reflex responsible for tachycardia during right atrial distension is? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bezold- Jarisch reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bainbridge reflex", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cushing reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "J reflex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bainbridge reflex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Bainbridge reflex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Reflex responsible for tachycardia during right atrial distension is Bainbridge Reflex.</li><li>• Bainbridge reflex: Correct. The Bainbridge reflex is responsible for controlling heart rate in response to blood volume. Increased blood volume is detected by stretch receptors located in both sides of the atria at the venoatrial junctions, leading to tachycardia during right atrial distension.</li><li>• Bainbridge reflex: Correct.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bezold-Jarisch reflex: Incorrect. The Bezold-Jarisch reflex responds to noxious ventricular stimuli sensed by chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors within the left ventricular wall by inducing hypotension, bradycardia, and coronary artery dilatation.</li><li>• Option A. Bezold-Jarisch reflex: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Cushing reflex: Incorrect. The Cushing reflex is a response to acute elevations of intracranial pressure, causing hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respiration due to compromised blood supply to Rostral Ventro-Lateral Medulla (RVLM) neurons.</li><li>• Option C. Cushing reflex: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. J reflex: Incorrect. The J reflex is related to pulmonary conditions such as pulmonary edema and pneumonia. Stimulation of J-receptors causes apnea followed by rapid breathing, bradycardia, and hypotension, which is always pathological.</li><li>• Option D. J reflex: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bainbridge reflex controls heart rate in response to increased blood volume and leads to tachycardia during right atrial distension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given mosquito causes which disease? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "JE", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zika virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. JE", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-112804.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/category2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. JE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old alcoholic male presented with pain in epigastrium radiating to the back 4 weeks ago. He now presents with an epigastric lump. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amoebic liver abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pancreatic pseudocyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute cholecystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydatid cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pancreatic pseudocyst", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pancreatic pseudocyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pancreatic pseudocysts are a common complication of pancreatitis, often presenting as an epigastric lump in patients with a history of alcohol abuse and abdominal pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation with a prosthetic valve replacement for mitral stenosis is on warfarin therapy. Her INR is 3. What is the appropriate next step in management? (FMGE JUNE 2021) LMWH- Low molecular weight heparin", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop warfarin and start LMWH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stop warfarin and start heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continue warfarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stop warfarin, start LMWH and aspirin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stop warfarin and start LMWH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stop warfarin and start LMWH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation with a prosthetic valve, warfarin should be replaced with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) due to the risks associated with warfarin use near delivery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page:321, Williams Textbook of Obstetrics 26 th edition pg 2405</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page:321, Williams Textbook of Obstetrics 26 th edition pg 2405</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female has history of a spontaneous abortion. She has had amenorrhea since then. Her FSH now is 6 mlU/ml. Which of the following can be a cause for her amenorrhea? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sheehan's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Premature Ovarian failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PCOS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asherman Syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Asherman Syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Asherman Syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most likely reason for amenorrhoea is Asherman Syndrome In this scenario, normal FSH levels (4–25 IU/L) are found.</li><li>• The most likely reason for amenorrhoea is Asherman Syndrome</li><li>• In this scenario, normal FSH levels (4–25 IU/L) are found.</li><li>• (FSH levels are high in ovarian dysfunction and low in Sheehan's syndrome and PCOS)</li><li>• The endometrium's basal layer can get damaged after a spontaneous abortion. Scarring, fibrous deposition, and uterine synechiae are the results of this. These synechiae can cause hypomenorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility, or recurrent abortions, amongst other symptoms.</li><li>• The endometrium's basal layer can get damaged after a spontaneous abortion. Scarring, fibrous deposition, and uterine synechiae are the results of this.</li><li>• These synechiae can cause hypomenorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility, or recurrent abortions, amongst other symptoms.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Sheehan's syndrome : It is a type of pituitary necrosis which occurs as a result of post-partum haemorrhage and is associated with low levels of pituitary hormones. It may be accompanied by amenorrhoea, failure of lactation ,hypothyroidism.</li><li>• Option A. Sheehan's</li><li>• syndrome</li><li>• pituitary necrosis</li><li>• post-partum haemorrhage</li><li>• Option B. Premature Ovarian failure : Ovarian failure occurring before 40 years of age, characterized by FSH more than 40 mIU/ml</li><li>• Option B. Premature Ovarian failure</li><li>• Option C. PCOS : Characterized by the presence of 2 of the 3 criteria i.e. oligo/or anovulation, hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries on USG.</li><li>• Option C. PCOS</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asherman Syndrome is characterized by the formation of intrauterine adhesions following a procedure or spontaneous abortion, leading to normal FSH levels but symptoms such as hypomenorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility, or recurrent miscarriages.</li><li>➤ Asherman Syndrome is characterized by the formation of intrauterine adhesions following a procedure or spontaneous abortion, leading to normal FSH levels but symptoms such as hypomenorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility, or recurrent miscarriages.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page459</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page459</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is specifically found in gram-negative bacteria? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Capsule", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peptidoglycan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lipopolysaccharide", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flagella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lipopolysaccharide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lipopolysaccharides</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are specific to gram-negative bacteria and form a significant part of their outer membrane, playing a critical role in the bacteria's structural integrity and immune system interactions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structures is not pierced during epidural anesthesia? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dura", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ligamentum flavum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supraspinous ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interspinous ligament", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-196.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The arachnoid mater is not punctured during epidural anesthesia; penetration of this layer indicates a breach into the subarachnoid space, which is not the target for an epidural block.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following radioactive isotopes of iodine is used for treatment of thyroid cancer? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I-123", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I-131", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "I-127", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I-125", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. I-131", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. I-131</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the treatment of thyroid cancer, radioactive iodine (RAI) therapy is commonly used, and the specific isotope employed is Iodine-131 (I-131).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with history of trauma has a ruptured bulbar urethra. What is the location for accumulation of urine? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superficial perineal pouch", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep perineal pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Recto-uterine pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perivesical space", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Superficial perineal pouch", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Superficial perineal pouch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the event of a bulbar urethral rupture, urine typically accumulates in the superficial perineal pouch.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman has a breast malignancy as shown in image, it is not associated with lymph node metastasis, it is not mobile or attached to the rib, what is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phyllodes tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inflammatory breast cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leiomyosarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inflammatory breast cancer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/28.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Inflammatory breast cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peau d'orange is a classic sign of inflammatory breast cancer, characterized by rapid onset and poor prognosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following muscle is an abductor of the vocal cord? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral cricoarytenoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior cricoarytenoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroarytenoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vocalis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior cricoarytenoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-311_b0WUqTA.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-161015.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Posterior cricoarytenoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mukherjee is evaluating a 40-year-old worker at a healthcare camp for a groundnut processing factory in Hyderabad. The worker reports symptoms of food poisoning after eating stored groundnuts from the factory. Considering the work environment and his symptoms, which contaminant is most likely responsible for his illness? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sanguinarine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factory smoke", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta oxalyl amino alanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aflatoxins", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aflatoxins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-135339.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Aflatoxins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false about thoracolumbar fascia?(FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "They contain nociceptive nerve endings", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "In the lumbar region it is in 4 layers", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "In the thoracic region it is attached medially to the vertebrae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The anterior, posterior and middle layer join to form the aponeurotic origin of transversus abdominis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. In the lumbar region it is in 4 layers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-172304.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. In the lumbar region it is in 4 layers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the lumbar region, the fascia consists of 3 layers-anterior, middle and posterior. The thoracolumbar fascia is a complex arrangement of multiple fascial layers in the thoracolumbar region. This fascia encloses the paraspinal muscles, quadratus lumborum muscle, and the latissimus dorsi muscle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following defects is associated with the use of Lithium during pregnancy? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cleft palate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neural tube defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebstein’s anomaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phocomelia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ebstein’s anomaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ebstein’s anomaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Mood stabilizers, such as lithium, valproic acid, and carbamazepine, have potentially teratogenic effects. Lithium is associated with an increased risk of congenital heart defects, notably Ebstein's anomaly. Valproic acid can lead to neural tube defects, and carbamazepine has been linked to neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Valproate is the most teratogenic of all the mood stabilizers.</li><li>➤ Valproate is the most teratogenic of all the mood stabilizers.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 653</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is wrongly labelled here? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-Superior thoracic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B-Thoracoacromial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " C-Subscapular artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "D-Posterior circumflex artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C-Subscapular artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-43.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-44.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. C-Subscapular artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The subscapular artery is one of the larger branches of the axillary artery. It runs along the posterior wall of the axilla and supplies the subscapularis muscle and other structures in the axillary region. This artery also gives rise to the circumflex scapular artery, which provides blood to the scapula and surrounding muscles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following findings from a pleural fluid aspirate will suggest an exudative pleural effusion? (FMGE JUNE 2021) Normal values obtained from lab: Total S. Protein: 6-8 g/dL, S. LDH: 140-280 IU/L, S. glucose: 140-200 mg/dL", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleural fluid protein 4.5 gm% and LDH 200", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pleural fluid protein 4.5 gm% and glucose 30mg%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleural fluid LDH 90IU and glucose 60mg%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pleural fluid protein 3.5gm% and glucose 90 mg%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pleural fluid protein 4.5 gm% and LDH 200", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pleural fluid protein 4.5 gm% and LDH 200</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Exudative pleural effusions are identified using Light's criteria, focusing on the ratios of pleural fluid to serum protein and LDH levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old primigravida at 18 weeks of gestation presents for her antenatal check-up. Her random plasma glucose level was 243 mg/dL and thus she was asked to undergo further tests. The fasting blood glucose levels were 146mg/dL and HbA1c was 7.6%. Which among the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maturity onset Diabetes of the young", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Overt diabetes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gestational diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Overt diabetes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Overt diabetes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The following are the lab results that would be suggestive of overt diabetes in a mother: Fasting blood sugar at least 126 mg/dL A random blood sugar of at least 200 mg/dL HbA1c of at least 6.5% Pregnant women with overt diabetes are more likely to have fetuses with congenital abnormalities. Gestational diabetes mellitus is usually diagnosed between 24-28 weeks and is diagnosed by an oral glucose tolerance test.</li><li>• The following are the lab results that would be suggestive of overt diabetes in a mother: Fasting blood sugar at least 126 mg/dL A random blood sugar of at least 200 mg/dL HbA1c of at least 6.5%</li><li>• Fasting blood sugar at least 126 mg/dL A random blood sugar of at least 200 mg/dL HbA1c of at least 6.5%</li><li>• Fasting blood sugar at least 126 mg/dL</li><li>• A random blood sugar of at least 200 mg/dL</li><li>• HbA1c of at least 6.5%</li><li>• Pregnant women with overt diabetes are more likely to have fetuses with congenital abnormalities.</li><li>• Gestational diabetes mellitus is usually diagnosed between 24-28 weeks and is diagnosed by an oral glucose tolerance test.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Maturity onset Diabetes of the young (MODY) : MODY is a rare form of diabetes that is different from overt diabetes. It usually presents before the age of 25 and is due to a genetic mutation. The patient's age and lab results are more consistent with overt diabetes.</li><li>• Option A. Maturity onset Diabetes of the young (MODY)</li><li>• Option C. Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) : GDM is usually diagnosed between 24-28 weeks of gestation using an oral glucose tolerance test. The patient’s high fasting and random blood glucose levels and HbA1c indicate overt diabetes, not GDM.</li><li>• Option C. Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)</li><li>• Option D. Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA) : LADA is a form of type 1 diabetes that occurs in adults. It is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies and slower progression to insulin dependence. The patient's lab results are more indicative of overt diabetes.</li><li>• Option D. Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Overt diabetes in pregnancy is diagnosed with a fasting blood sugar of at least 126 mg/dL, a random blood sugar of at least 200 mg/dL, or an HbA1c of at least 6.5%.</li><li>➤ Overt diabetes in pregnancy is diagnosed with a fasting blood sugar of at least 126 mg/dL, a random blood sugar of at least 200 mg/dL, or an HbA1c of at least 6.5%.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Pg 327</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Pg 327</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with spoon shaped nails. What is the underlying cause of this condition? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Megaloblastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic renal disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic liver disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Iron deficiency anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Iron deficiency anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia) are indicative of iron deficiency anemia, the most common type of anemia due to insufficient iron for hemoglobin production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient is brought to the emergency in a comatose state. On examination, his serum glucose levels were found to be 500 mg/dL, arterial pH is 7.33, and increased plasma ketones levels. His serum potassium levels are normal. What should be added to saline for this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bicarbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10% dextrose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Insulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Insulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is essential to resolve hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. Fluids are crucial for rehydration, and potassium levels must be monitored and managed during treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions leads to wing beating tremors? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wilson's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Huntington's chorea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parkinsonism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sydenham's chorea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wilson's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wilson's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wing beating tremors are a hallmark of Wilson's disease, a disorder of copper metabolism. Recognizing this unique clinical sign is essential for diagnosing and managing the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the earliest symptom of alcohol withdrawal? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tremors", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hallucinations", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seizure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delirium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tremors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tremors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tremors are the earliest symptom of alcohol withdrawal, typically appearing 6-8 hours after the cessation of drinking, followed in sequence by hallucinations (12-24 hours), seizures (24-48 hours), and delirium tremens (48-72 hours).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 276.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following conditions, type B tympanogram is seen? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ossicular dislocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal ear", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serous otitis media", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102098.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020103.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Serous otitis media</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 27</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding in the given X-ray? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perforation peritonitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sigmoid volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Perforation peritonitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/10.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/pleural-effusion.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/image-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/image_MINV0aU.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Perforation peritonitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Free air under the diaphragm on an X-ray indicates pneumoperitoneum, which is a hallmark sign of perforation peritonitis and necessitates urgent medical evaluation and intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman who underwent dilatation and curettage for molar pregnancy 6 months ago presents with persistent symptoms of abdominal pain and distention. On further evaluation, the beta-hCG levels were persistently elevated and cannonball foci were found on the chest X-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovarian cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asherman's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (choriocarcinoma): This is the most likely diagnosis given the patient's history and presenting symptoms. Choriocarcinoma is a malignant form of gestational trophoblastic disease that can arise following a molar pregnancy. The persistent elevation of beta-hCG levels, abdominal pain, distention, and the presence of cannonball foci on the chest X-ray (indicative of lung metastases) are characteristic findings of choriocarcinoma.</li><li>• Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (choriocarcinoma): This is the most likely diagnosis given the patient's history and presenting symptoms. Choriocarcinoma is a malignant form of gestational trophoblastic disease that can arise following a molar pregnancy. The persistent elevation of beta-hCG levels, abdominal pain, distention, and the presence of cannonball foci on the chest X-ray (indicative of lung metastases) are characteristic findings of choriocarcinoma.</li><li>• Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (choriocarcinoma):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Endometriosis : Endometriosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, leading to pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. It does not typically cause elevated beta-hCG levels or cannonball lesions in the lungs, making this diagnosis less likely.</li><li>• Option B. Endometriosis</li><li>• Option C. Ovarian cyst : Ovarian cysts can cause abdominal pain and distention, but they do not typically cause persistent elevation of beta-hCG levels or lung metastases. This diagnosis does not fit the clinical picture described.</li><li>• Option C. Ovarian cyst</li><li>• Option D. Asherman's syndrome : Asherman's syndrome, characterized by intrauterine adhesions, usually results from trauma to the endometrial lining, such as after dilatation and curettage. It can lead to amenorrhea or menstrual irregularities but is not associated with elevated beta-hCG levels or lung metastases.</li><li>• Option D. Asherman's syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (choriocarcinoma) should be suspected in patients with a history of molar pregnancy who present with persistent elevated beta-hCG levels, abdominal symptoms, and lung metastases (cannonball lesions on chest X-ray).</li><li>➤ Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (choriocarcinoma) should be suspected in patients with a history of molar pregnancy who present with persistent elevated beta-hCG levels, abdominal symptoms, and lung metastases (cannonball lesions on chest X-ray).</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 363</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 363</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Raghav, the Chief Medical Officer at Apex Urban Hospital, is addressing issues related to patient wait times and the duration of consultations in the outpatient department. He wants to gather accurate data on how much time doctors spend with each patient to determine if adjustments in staffing or training are needed. Which management technique is most suitable for measuring the actual time doctors spend on patient consultations? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Model", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systemic Analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Network Analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Work Sampling", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Work Sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Work Sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Implementing Work Sampling will enable the hospital to precisely evaluate and adjust the time allocated for each patient consultation, enhancing efficiency and patient satisfaction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following combination of seizure and its medication is incorrect? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Generalized-Onset Tonic-Clonic: Lamotrigine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focal seizures: Levetiracetam", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Typical absence seizures: Topiramate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myoclonic: Valproic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Typical absence seizures: Topiramate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Typical absence seizures: Topiramate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Typical absence seizures should be treated with ethosuximide as the drug of choice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The first primary tooth to erupt is: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Upper central incisor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lower central incisor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper canine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lower canine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lower central incisor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lower central incisor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first primary tooth to erupt in infants is the lower central incisor, typically appearing around 6 months of age. The sequence of primary teeth eruption is an essential part of pediatric growth and development monitoring.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A worker in the wheat section of a food facility eats peanuts regularly and develops hepatic carcinoma after many years. Which of the following is implicated in the pathogenesis of his condition? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Industrial toxins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aflatoxin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phytotoxins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aniline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aflatoxin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aflatoxin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aflatoxins, produced by Aspergillus species on crops like peanuts, are potent mycotoxins that can lead to hepatic carcinoma after prolonged exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child has flexible fingers and can even touch the back of his hand with his wrist extended. The child also demonstrates the sign shown in the image below. On auscultation, a click is heard after S1, followed by a late systolic murmur. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marfan’s Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loeys-Dietz Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteogenesis Imperfecta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-165236.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome presents with hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints, and other features such as mitral valve prolapse and the ability to perform the Gorlin sign. Recognizing these clinical signs can aid in the diagnosis of this connective tissue disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A small town in Uttarakhand is revising its water treatment protocols to ensure safe drinking water. They aim to accurately measure both active and inactive forms of chlorine to maintain effective disinfection levels. For this purpose, they are advised to use a specific chemical test. Which test is used to measure both active and residual chlorine levels in water? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Free chlorine &amp; combined chlorine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Free chlorine / Residual chlorine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chlorine demand", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Combined chlorine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Free chlorine & combined chlorine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Free chlorine &amp; combined chlorine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Orthotoluidine test is used to measure both free chlorine and combined chlorine in water, offering a comprehensive analysis critical for effective water disinfection management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a discussion on demographic transitions and economic impacts, a scholar inquired about the term for a change in age composition that leads to an increase in the number of working-age individuals relative to dependents. What is this phenomenon called? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in dependency ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease in dependency ratio", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decrease in population", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decrease in dependency ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Decrease in dependency ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A decrease in the dependency ratio indicates a demographic shift towards a greater proportion of working-age individuals, which can significantly benefit the economy by increasing the labor force and reducing the relative number of dependents.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the site of maximum pain in acute appendicitis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "McBurney’s point", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flank", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right upper abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Umbilicus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. McBurney’s point", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/24.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) McBurney’s point</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The site of maximum tenderness in acute appendicitis is at McBurney’s point, which corresponds to the base of the appendix.</li><li>➤ MCBURNEY’S POINT CORRESPONDS TO THE BASE OF THE APPENDIX</li><li>➤ MCBURNEY’S POINT CORRESPONDS TO THE BASE OF THE APPENDIX</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most probable diagnosis for a 23-year-old man who experienced eye pain, photophobia, and redness for the past 2 days after injuring his eye by brushing it against leaves and thorns while gardening? (FMGE June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Simplex keratitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacterial keratitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fungal keratitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acanthamoeba keratitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fungal keratitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/optha.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fungal keratitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fungal keratitis is commonly associated with trauma from vegetative matter. Key clinical features include a dry corneal ulcer with feathery edges, satellite lesions, and a possible immune ring. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent severe complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A worker with a 30-year tenure in the sugarcane industry presents with symptoms of breathlessness and cough. Chest X-rays reveal mottling in the lungs. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bagasossis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bagasossis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-131319.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-131421.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Bagasossis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ List of Pneumoconioses:</li><li>➤ List of Pneumoconioses:</li><li>➤ Antigens involved in Pneumoconioses:</li><li>➤ Antigens involved in Pneumoconioses:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the abnormality in the following X-ray of a newborn with respiratory distress: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracheoesophageal Fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hiatal Hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/884.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture173_lUUse2I.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital diaphragmatic hernia is identified on X-ray by bowel gas shadows in the thorax, which indicates herniation of abdominal contents through a diaphragmatic defect.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition – Page No- 3855-3856</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition – Page No- 3855-3856</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A radiological assessment of a pregnant woman reveals an anteroposterior oval-shaped pelvic inlet. According to Caldwell and Molloy’s classification, this shape of pelvic inlet is commonly associated with: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Android pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthropoid pelvis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gynecoid pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Platypelloid pelvis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anthropoid pelvis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anthropoid pelvis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An anteroposterior oval-shaped pelvic inlet is associated with the anthropoid pelvis, which is commonly linked with occipito-posterior fetal positions during labor.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 403, Williams textbook of Obstetrics page 34</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 403, Williams textbook of Obstetrics page 34</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are seen in panic attacks except? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suicide attempt", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sudden anxiety", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Episodic anxiety", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Feeling of impending doom", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Suicide attempt", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Suicide attempt</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Panic attack is an acute attack of intense anxiety accompanied by “ feeling of impending doom ”. The symptoms during panic attack involve sudden onset of palpitations, chest pain, choking sensations, dizziness and derealization or depersonalization with fear of dying, losing control or going mad. Treatment includes both SSRIs and benzodiazepines with CBT.</li><li>➤ feeling of impending doom</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 402</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male passed his exam and went for a party where he had 10 beers. After this binge drinking episode, he presented with vomiting and upper Gl bleed. Most Likely cause is? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Boerhaave syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mallory Weiss tear", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duodenal ulcer perforation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tension pneumothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mallory Weiss tear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mallory Weiss tear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mallory-Weiss tear is associated with painless hematemesis following forceful vomiting, commonly linked to alcohol binge drinking. It involves a mucosal tear near the gastroesophageal junction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with history of pallor with fatigue, petechial bleeding and fever since last 7 days. On examination he was having enlargement of liver and spleen with sternal tenderness. Which of the following is the likely explanation for the symptoms in the child? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aplastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute myelogenous leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is characterized by rapid progression and the creation of immature blood cells, leading to symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, petechial bleeding, fever, hepatosplenomegaly, and sternal tenderness in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following nerves is responsible for ear pain after a tonsillectomy surgery? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vagus nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glossopharyngeal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Glossopharyngeal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial Nerve IX) is primarily responsible for ear pain following a tonsillectomy, a phenomenon known as referred otalgia. This nerve has a complex sensory innervation that includes the mucosa of the tonsils, part of the pharynx, and the middle ear through the tympanic branch (Jacobson's nerve).</li><li>➤ Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial Nerve IX)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 143</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "50-year-old woman presented to the medicine OPD with complaints of muscle weakness and blurring of vision following exertion more towards the evening. On examination, the patient had ptosis. The symptoms improved after edrophonium test. The person is likely suffering from? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lambert Eaton syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Guillain-Barré syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Myasthenia gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed by the presence of characteristic symptoms of muscle weakness that improves with anticholinesterase agents like edrophonium. This disorder requires careful management with medications that improve neuromuscular transmission and may also include immunosuppressants to control the underlying autoimmune process.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a discussion on cancer trends in India, the topic of the most common type of cancer among Indian males is brought up. Based on recent data, which type of cancer is most frequently diagnosed in this demographic? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lip and oral cavity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colorectal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liver carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lip and oral cavity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Lip and oral cavity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to reports by Globocon 2020, leading causes of cancer in males in India are:</li><li>➤ Lip, Oral cavity Lung Stomach Colorectal Esophagus</li><li>➤ Lip, Oral cavity</li><li>➤ Lip, Oral cavity</li><li>➤ Lung</li><li>➤ Stomach</li><li>➤ Colorectal</li><li>➤ Esophagus</li><li>➤ According to reports by Globocon 2020, leading causes of cancer in females in India are:</li><li>➤ Breast Cervix and uterus Ovary Lip, oral cavity Colorectal</li><li>➤ Breast</li><li>➤ Breast</li><li>➤ Cervix and uterus</li><li>➤ Ovary</li><li>➤ Lip, oral cavity</li><li>➤ Colorectal</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient with fever and malar rashes was found to have vegetations on either side of the heart valves. What can be the diagnosis of the patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infective endocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Libman-Sacks endocarditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rheumatic heart disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Libman-Sacks endocarditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Libman-Sacks endocarditis is characterized by sterile vegetations on either side of the heart valves and is commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Recognizing the association with SLE is crucial for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male has been working in the dye industry for 40 years. He develops some frequency and urgency with painless hematuria. What is the likely subtype of the condition present in him? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transitional cell cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Squamous cell cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small cell cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transitional cell cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Transitional cell cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transitional cell carcinoma is the most common type of bladder cancer, with risk factors including occupational exposure to chemicals, smoking, and certain medications. This type of cancer is characterized by painless hematuria and urinary frequency and urgency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male who is a professional trumpet blower presented with a swelling on the left side of the neck. On examination, there is a gurgling sound compressing the swelling. Xray of the neck is seen below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pharyngeal pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laryngocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tracheoesophageal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tonsillar cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Laryngocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture4_3460CxJ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020102.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020105.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Laryngocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with a history of activities involving high intra-laryngeal pressure, presenting with neck swelling and characteristic gurgling sounds upon compression, a laryngocele should be considered as a likely diagnosis, requiring appropriate imaging and potential surgical intervention for confirmation and treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old P2L2 presents to your office with foul smelling bloody discharge per vaginum. She has been diagnosed with Carcinoma of the cervix Stage III B as per FIGO classification. What is the primary treatment option for this case? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chemoradiation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radical Hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pelvic exenteration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radical Hysterectomy + Pelvic lymph node dissection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chemoradiation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-172546.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chemoradiation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Treatment of cervical cancer is either surgical or chemoradiation Chemoradiation can be given for all stages Surgery can be given till stage 2A From Stage 2B onwards, treatment of cervical cancer is only by chemoradiation</li><li>• Treatment of cervical cancer is either surgical or chemoradiation</li><li>• Chemoradiation can be given for all stages</li><li>• Surgery can be given till stage 2A</li><li>• From Stage 2B onwards, treatment of cervical cancer is only by chemoradiation</li><li>• Type 1: Simple extra fascial hysterectomy</li><li>• Type 2: Modified radical hysterectomy</li><li>• Type3: Radical Hysterectomy</li><li>• Type4: Extended Radical hysterectomy</li><li>• Type 5: Partial Exenteration</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ From Stage 2B onwards, the primary treatment of cervical cancer is chemoradiation.</li><li>➤ Ref: FIGO Revised Staging of Cervical Cancer, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th Edition, Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 367</li><li>➤ Ref: FIGO Revised Staging of Cervical Cancer, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th Edition, Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 367</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which treatment option is typically recommended for a 3-year-old child diagnosed with amblyopia in the right eye? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prescription glasses", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Patching of the right eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Patching of the left eye", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vision therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Patching of the left eye", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-103136.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-103213.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Patching of the left eye</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a 3-year-old child with amblyopia, the recommended treatment is patching the left (normal) eye to stimulate the right (amblyopic) eye. This method is highly effective in improving the function of the amblyopic eye by forcing it to be used more actively in visual tasks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image is of the most common cause of stridor in children. Identify it? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laryngomalacia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laryngeal papilloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic epiglottitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laryngocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Laryngomalacia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/873.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Laryngomalacia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of stridor in children and typically resolves on its own by the age of two. It is important to recognize the characteristic symptoms and management strategies for severe cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-week primigravida has mild labor pains for 20 hours and the cervix is persistently 1 cm dilated but non-effaced. What would be the appropriate management? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sedation and wait", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Augmentation with oxytocin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cesarean section", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amniotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sedation and wait", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sedation and wait</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The described clinical situation points to either a prolonged latent phase or false labor pain. The appropriate management is to sedate the patient and wait. By using therapeutic rest, in which the patient is sedated with morphine, one can also distinguish false labor from true labor. Augmentation by amniotomy or oxytocin is not recommended for prolonged latent phase unless there is an indication for quick delivery. A cesarean section is not indicated as prolonged latent phase is not known to have any significant effect on maternal or fetal outcomes.</li><li>• The described clinical situation points to either a prolonged latent phase or false labor pain.</li><li>• The appropriate management is to sedate the patient and wait.</li><li>• By using therapeutic rest, in which the patient is sedated with morphine, one can also distinguish false labor from true labor.</li><li>• Augmentation by amniotomy or oxytocin is not recommended for prolonged latent phase unless there is an indication for quick delivery.</li><li>• A cesarean section is not indicated as prolonged latent phase is not known to have any significant effect on maternal or fetal outcomes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Augmentation with oxytocin : Augmentation is not recommended for a prolonged latent phase unless there is an indication for quick delivery.</li><li>• Option B. Augmentation with oxytocin</li><li>• Option C. Cesarean section : Cesarean section is not indicated as a prolonged latent phase does not significantly affect maternal or fetal outcomes.</li><li>• Option C. Cesarean section</li><li>• Option D. Amniotomy : Amniotomy is not recommended for prolonged latent phase unless there is an indication for quick delivery.</li><li>• Option D. Amniotomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A latent phase of more than 20 hours in a primigravida and more than 14 hours in a multigravida is abnormal, but it does not significantly affect maternal-fetal outcomes. Proper management involves sedation and waiting.</li><li>➤ A latent phase of more than 20 hours in a primigravida and more than 14 hours in a multigravida is abnormal, but it does not significantly affect maternal-fetal outcomes. Proper management involves sedation and waiting.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of Obstetrics 24 th edition pg 446, D C. Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8th Edition pg 463</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of Obstetrics 24 th edition pg 446, D C. Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8th Edition pg 463</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old female presented to the hospital with history of recurrent pain in the right Hypochondrium for 1 week. She is a known case of hereditary spherocytosis. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydatid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute cholecystitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amoebic liver abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute cholecystitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/29.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute cholecystitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute cholecystitis often occurs in patients with hemolytic disorders, like hereditary spherocytosis, due to the formation of black pigment stones that block the cystic duct.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient after a head injury following a road traffic accident. Present with following symptom - He is extremely curious. He forgets everything, hyperorality and increased sex drive. Which of the following structures is most likely to be damaged in this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gray matter around aqueduct of Sylvius", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amygdala", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral nuclei of hypothalamus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior Cingulate gyri", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amygdala", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Amygdala</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The clinical scenario is suggestive of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which results from damage to the amygdala. This syndrome is characterized by hyperorality, hypersexuality, bulimia, visual agnosia, and amnesia. Hyperorality refers to a compulsive tendency to put objects in one's mouth or to explore objects with one's mouth. Hypersexuality refers to an increased interest in sexual behavior, and disinhibition refers to a loss of normal inhibitions or social boundaries. Visual agnosia is the inability to recognize objects, and docility refers to a lack of normal emotional responses.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Gray matter around the aqueduct of Sylvius: Incorrect. The gray matter around the aqueduct of Sylvius is known as the punishment center and is not related to the symptoms described.</li><li>• Option A. Gray matter around the aqueduct of Sylvius: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Lateral nuclei of the hypothalamus: Incorrect. The lateral nuclei of the hypothalamus are associated with the reward center and do not explain the symptoms of hyperorality, hypersexuality, and amnesia.</li><li>• Option C. Lateral nuclei of the hypothalamus: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Anterior Cingulate gyri: Incorrect. The anterior cingulate gyri are involved in functions related to emotion and cognition but are not specifically associated with the symptoms described in Kluver-Bucy syndrome.</li><li>• Option D. Anterior Cingulate gyri: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Damage to the amygdala can result in Kluver-Bucy syndrome, characterized by hyperorality, hypersexuality, amnesia, and other behavioral changes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy drink full bottle of iron syrup. What is the antidote of acute iron poisoning? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BAL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Desferrioxamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Desferrioxamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Desferrioxamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Desferrioxamine is the antidote of acute iron poisoning, given via IV route. Deferipirone is drug of choice for chronic iron poisoning.</li><li>➤ Desferrioxamine is the antidote of acute iron poisoning, given via IV route.</li><li>➤ Desferrioxamine is the antidote of acute iron poisoning, given via IV route.</li><li>➤ Deferipirone is drug of choice for chronic iron poisoning.</li><li>➤ Deferipirone is drug of choice for chronic iron poisoning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is this view called in which maxillary sinus is seen best? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Water's view", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Towne's view", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Law's view", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stenver's view", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Water's view", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102097.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Water’s view</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 493</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While using endotracheal tube what determines the resistance to airflow? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Material", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diameter", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Price", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Length", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Diameter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Diameter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While using endotracheal tube the diameter determines the resistance to airflow.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 358-359 (Doubtful)</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs</li><li>➤ 358-359 (Doubtful)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly diabetic female who was treated with steroids and remdesivir for COVID now presented with a black, foul-smelling discharge from the nose. On examination, blackish necrotic mass filling the nasal cavity and eroding the septum and hard palate. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foreign body", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucormycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mucormycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with diabetes or other forms of immunocompromise, especially those recently treated with steroids or other immunosuppressive agents, the presence of black necrotic tissue in the nasal cavity should prompt immediate consideration of mucormycosis. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt antifungal treatment and often surgical debridement to prevent fatal outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man has come with complaints of hair loss. Examination findings are given below. Swarm of bees appearance is seen on histopathology. The most likely diagnosis in this man is? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alopecia areata", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kerion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichotillomania", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Androgenic alopecia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Alopecia areata", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_25.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd39.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd40.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-135313.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_26.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd42.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Alopecia areata</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alopecia areata is a cause of non-scarring hair loss with round or oval patches and a characteristic \"swarm of bees\" appearance on histopathology, distinguishing it from other types of alopecia and scalp conditions.</li><li>➤ non-scarring</li><li>➤ round or oval patches</li><li>➤ \"swarm of bees\"</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rook’s textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 89 page no 89.9-17, 89.28-33</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.39</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.39</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 17-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea, but she gets abdominal pain every month. On examination, she has normal development of other secondary sexual characteristics, there is an abdominal lump present and on parting the labia a bluish bulge is noted. Considering the suspected diagnosis, what would be the appropriate management? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Excision of the septum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extensive dissection and vaginoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cruciate incision on the hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cruciate incision on the hymen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cruciate incision on the hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A cruciate incision over an imperforate hymen is the appropriate management for a 17-year-old female presenting with primary amenorrhea, cyclical abdominal pain, and a bulging bluish hymen.</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C. Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology Pg 450</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C. Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology Pg 450</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old female presented with a mass in the inguinal region which produces gurgling sound on reduction. The mass is reduced completely on pressing it through the deep inguinal ring. What could be the possible diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Indirect inguinal hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Direct inguinal hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femoral hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pantaloon hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Indirect inguinal hernia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/25.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Indirect inguinal hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An indirect inguinal hernia can be reduced completely by pressing the deep inguinal ring and often produces a gurgling sound if it contains small bowel.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "65-year-old man presents with complaints of low back pain. On further evaluation, he is found to have anemia and serum electrophoresis demonstrates an increased level of IgG kappa monoclonal protein. He has elevated serum calcium and creatinine levels. The x-ray of skull shows multiple punched out lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Burkitt’s lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic lymphocytic leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Multiple myeloma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Multiple myeloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple myeloma is characterized by the presence of IgG kappa monoclonal protein, hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and lytic bone lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer comes to skin OPD with the painful, swollen foot which has discharging sinuses and dark grains coming out of sinuses. Gram stain was negative. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous Cell Carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eumycetoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Actinomycetoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Eumycetoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd54.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-162845.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_36.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Eumycetoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eumycetoma is identified by the clinical presentation of a swollen extremity with draining sinuses and visible grains , typically occurring in individuals with a history of walking barefoot or in farmers, and distinguish it from Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Actinomycetoma, and Sporotrichosis.</li><li>➤ Eumycetoma</li><li>➤ swollen</li><li>➤ draining sinuses</li><li>➤ visible grains</li><li>➤ walking barefoot</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II - 9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.75</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II - 9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.75</li><li>↳ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s textbook of microbiology 10 th edition page no 604</li><li>↳ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s textbook of microbiology 10 th edition page no 604</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the hospital with complaints of lethargy, increased sleep, and weight gain. Investigations revealed low plasma TSH concentration, low T3, low T4. However, on the administration of TRH, the TSH levels increased. Which of the following conditions is likely in this patient (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperthyroidism due to disease in the pituitary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypothyroidism due to disease in the pituitary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothyroidism due to disease in the hypothalamus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperthyroidism due to disease in the hypothalamus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypothyroidism due to disease in the hypothalamus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypothyroidism due to disease in the hypothalamus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypothyroidism with low TSH, T3, and T4, and an increase in TSH levels after TRH administration, indicates hypothalamic dysfunction. This is due to a deficiency in TRH production from the hypothalamus, leading to secondary hypothyroidism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the main arterial supply of palatine tonsils? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tonsillar branch of the facial artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Descending palatine branch of maxillary artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Buccal branch of maxillary artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascending palatine branch of facial artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tonsillar branch of the facial artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020104.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Tonsillar branch of the facial artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Understanding the vascular anatomy of the palatine tonsils is crucial, especially in surgical settings where tonsillectomy might be performed. Recognizing the primary and secondary blood supplies can aid in effective management of potential complications such as bleeding. The tonsillar branch of the facial artery remains the most significant contributor to this vascular supply.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 291, 292</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male patient was brought to emergency in a delirious state. He is found to have tachycardia and arrythmia. There were scratch marks on the skin. Which of the following substance can cause these symptoms? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heroin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cocaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cocaine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cocaine intoxication can present with cardiovascular abnormalities like tachycardia, hypertension and arrhythmias, neuropsychiatric symptoms like delirium, and the sensation of \"formication\" (also known as cocaine bugs or magnun phenomenon ) which leads to scratching. It can also present with paranoid ideations, auditory hallucinations and visual illusions.</li><li>➤ cocaine bugs</li><li>➤ magnun phenomenon</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition, Page No 47.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female presents with fever and cough for 6 days. The CXR is shown. What is the likely diagnosis? ( FMGE June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right lower lobe consolidation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitral stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right middle lobe consolidation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right loculated effusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Right middle lobe consolidation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_172.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/18/screenshot-2024-05-18-095745.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Right middle lobe consolidation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Silhouette sign is to be applied here. Right middle lobe pathology causes the obscuration of right cardiac border . In addition, the lateral view shows the opacity overlying the heart. In case of lower lobe opacities, the opacity overlays the spine. The outline of a specific structure that is created at the boundary between two tissues with varying tissue densities is called a silhouette in a chest radiograph, for example, the cardiac silhouette between the heart and the lung. The silhouette sign is the blurring or obliteration of these typical silhouettes brought on by disease pathologies.</li><li>• Silhouette sign is to be applied here. Right middle lobe pathology causes the obscuration of right cardiac border . In addition, the lateral view shows the opacity overlying the heart. In case of lower lobe opacities, the opacity overlays the spine.</li><li>• Silhouette sign</li><li>• Right middle lobe pathology causes the obscuration of right cardiac border</li><li>• In case of lower lobe opacities, the opacity overlays the spine.</li><li>• The outline of a specific structure that is created at the boundary between two tissues with varying tissue densities is called a silhouette in a chest radiograph, for example, the cardiac silhouette between the heart and the lung.</li><li>• The silhouette sign is the blurring or obliteration of these typical silhouettes brought on by disease pathologies.</li><li>• The silhouette sign is the blurring or obliteration of these typical silhouettes</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Right Lower Lobe Consolidation: Would more typically obscure the right diaphragm or show a basal shadowing in the posterior-anterior view.</li><li>• Option A. Right Lower Lobe Consolidation:</li><li>• Option B. Mitral Stenosis : Would not directly affect lung parenchyma; might lead to pulmonary congestion seen as diffuse bilateral shadowing.</li><li>• Option B. Mitral Stenosis</li><li>• Option D. Right Loculated Effusion: Typically appears as a denser, more fluid-like shadowing at the lung bases or along the pleural lining, often with a meniscus.</li><li>• Option D. Right Loculated Effusion:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with intellectual disability was found to have hyperuricemia. Self-mutilation behavior was also noticed. Which of the following enzyme is deficient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha galactosidase-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucocerebrosidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HGPRT", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphingomyelinase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HGPRT", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture62.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture63.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HGPRT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HGPRT will convert the free bases hypoxanthine, or guanine, plus PRPP (5′-phosphoribosyl 1′-pyrophosphate) to the nucleotides IMP, or GMP, plus pyrophosphate in Salvage pathway. Complete deficiency of HGPRT leads to Lesch Nyhan syndrome with clinical features of increased uric acid levels and self-mutilation behavior due to neurotoxic nature of increased PRPP.</li><li>➤ HGPRT will convert the free bases hypoxanthine, or guanine, plus PRPP (5′-phosphoribosyl 1′-pyrophosphate) to the nucleotides IMP, or GMP, plus pyrophosphate in Salvage pathway.</li><li>➤ Complete deficiency of HGPRT leads to Lesch Nyhan syndrome with clinical features of increased uric acid levels and self-mutilation behavior due to neurotoxic nature of increased PRPP.</li><li>➤ self-mutilation behavior</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper 30th/e pg. 820</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper 30th/e pg. 820</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A stain is found on the clothes of a kidnapper. It is treated with picric acid and studied under a microscope which shows yellow color needle shaped crystals. What could the stain be? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sputum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Semen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CSF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Semen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111851_aS5aUBt.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-10-111909_ebyG9dK.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Semen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of yellow needle-shaped crystals when a stain is treated with picric acid and examined under a microscope indicates a seminal stain, identified using the Barberio test.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Tests for seminal stains</li><li>➤ Tests for seminal stains</li><li>➤ 1) Presumptive test for semina stains:</li><li>➤ 1) Presumptive test for semina stains:</li><li>➤ a) Fluorescence under UV light</li><li>➤ b) Microchemical tests: Florence test and Barberio's test</li><li>➤ Florence test</li><li>➤ Florence test</li><li>➤ Reagent: KI + I2 + H2O Component of semen detected: Coline (secreted from seminal vesicles) Shape of crystals: Dark Brown rhombic crystals of choline iodide (resemble hemin but larger than hemin crystals)</li><li>➤ Reagent: KI + I2 + H2O</li><li>➤ Component of semen detected: Coline (secreted from seminal vesicles)</li><li>➤ Shape of crystals: Dark Brown rhombic crystals of choline iodide (resemble hemin but larger than hemin crystals)</li><li>➤ 2) Confirmatory Tests for Semen</li><li>➤ 2) Confirmatory Tests for Semen</li><li>➤ Detection of complete sperm under the microscope (Best test) Acid phosphatase test (second best test): It is produced by prostate gland. Acid phosphatase enzyme is present in semen is much higher concentration than other body fluids Creatine phosphokinase test: It is a component of Spermatozoa. Prostate specific antigen</li><li>➤ Detection of complete sperm under the microscope (Best test)</li><li>➤ Detection of complete sperm</li><li>➤ Acid phosphatase test (second best test): It is produced by prostate gland. Acid phosphatase enzyme is present in semen is much higher concentration than other body fluids</li><li>➤ Acid phosphatase test (second best test):</li><li>➤ Creatine phosphokinase test: It is a component of Spermatozoa.</li><li>➤ Creatine phosphokinase test:</li><li>➤ Prostate specific antigen</li><li>➤ Prostate specific antigen</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Barium swallow image demonstrated below indicates: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Achalasia cardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zenker’s diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corkscrew esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cancer esophagus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Achalasia cardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/6.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Achalasia cardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Achalasia cardia presents with a characteristic \"bird-beak\" or \"rat-tail\" appearance on barium swallow due to the failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax, caused by the loss of inhibitory ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 19-year-old male presented with fever, a painful lump over his left cheek just below the ear, and difficulty in swallowing or talking. The patient also complained of mild testicular pain. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mumps", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mumps", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mumps</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mumps is characterized by parotitis and orchitis, especially in post-pubertal males. Recognizing these key symptoms can aid in the diagnosis of mumps.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of fever for the past 4 days and new onset of breathlessness was admitted to ICU as he was deteriorating. He was unresponsive to the incremental flow rate of oxygen and his oxygen saturation was progressively decreasing. He was intubated and a Chest X-ray was ordered, and the findings are shown in the image below. His PaO2/FiO2 was 204 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ARDS", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atelectasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heart Failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary Fibrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ARDS", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-175412.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ARDS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ARDS is diagnosed based on acute onset, bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and a PaO2/FiO2 ratio indicative of the severity of hypoxemia. Recognizing these criteria is crucial for timely and appropriate management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old gravida 1, para 0 at 25 weeks’ gestation, presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 2 days. BP-104/72mm Hg, PR-72bpm.There is generalized edema. Peripheral smear shows hemolysis. Lab values are given below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021) Leukocyte count: 10,500/mm3 Platelet count: 62000/mm3 Hematocrit: 26% AST: 90 IU/L", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HELLP Syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute fatty liver of pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obstetric cholestasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HELLP Syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HELLP syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HELLP syndrome is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, and can present with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, thrombocytopenia, low hematocrit, and elevated AST levels.</li><li>➤ HELLP syndrome is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, and can present with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, thrombocytopenia, low hematocrit, and elevated AST levels.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page258,336</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page258,336</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image given below is from a chronic smoker's oral examination. Identify the lesion given? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Erythroplakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leukoplakia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fordyce's granules", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Koplik's spots", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leukoplakia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture1_8x2Pg3l.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102099.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020100.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020101.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Leukoplakia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When conducting an oral examination, especially in patients with risk factors like smoking or alcohol consumption, it is crucial to differentiate between various types of lesions. Leukoplakia, due to its potential to transform into a malignancy, requires careful monitoring and possibly biopsy to assess the degree of dysplasia or early signs of cancerous changes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 253</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve is responsible for downwards and outwards displacement of pupil as shown below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trochlear nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oculomotor nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abducens nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oculomotor nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture16.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-103454.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Oculomotor nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oculomotor nerve (CN III) palsy results in the characteristic \"down and out\" position of the eye, along with ptosis and pupillary dilation. This occurs due to the unopposed action of the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles, which are innervated by CN VI and CN IV, respectively. Understanding the clinical presentation and causes of oculomotor nerve palsy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old diabetic presented with severe pain in ear and otorrhea not responding to antibiotics. On examination, granulation tissue is seen in EAC, facial nerve palsy was present. The likely diagnosis is? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant otitis externa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eczematous otitis externa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Malignant otitis externa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Malignant otitis externa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malignant otitis externa should be suspected in diabetic or immunocompromised patients presenting with severe ear pain, resistant otorrhea, and cranial nerve palsies. Immediate and aggressive treatment is crucial to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 55</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with vomiting to medicine OPD. He has a history of eating fried rice. What is the most likely organism causing this? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clostridium perfringens", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacillus cereus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bacillus anthracis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bacillus cereus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bacillus cereus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bacillus cereus is the most likely organism responsible for food poisoning characterized by vomiting after consuming fried rice. This organism produces toxins that can survive cooking and cause illness if the food is not properly stored.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of graphical representation shown. What is this specific type of graph called? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple bar diagram", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Component bar diagram", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Component bar diagram", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-27.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-131011.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-131048.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Component bar diagram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Component bar diagrams excel in displaying complex data in a clear, comparative format, ideal for analyzing detailed breakdowns such as nutritional intake across different demographics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A demographer is examining the population trends in various industrialized nations. He notes that in these countries, both birth and death rates are uniformly low, leading to very modest population growth. This scenario contrasts with earlier stages where these rates exhibited more pronounced shifts. What term is used to describe this stable demographic stage? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phase 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Phase 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-110208.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-110346.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Phase 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Demographic cycle</li><li>➤ Demographic cycle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician in a rural clinic is evaluating a 7-year-old boy who presents with several episodes of diarrhea. Although the diarrhea does not show the classic rice-water appearance typical of cholera, another symptom leads the doctor to suspect a Shigella infection instead. What symptom more likely indicates Shigella infection rather than cholera? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abdominal cramps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fever", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vomiting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tenesmus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fever is unusual in Cholera but usually is a symptom in Shigella infection.</li><li>➤ All other given options are found in Cholera except abdominal pain, which is seen in both.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hypertensive pregnant woman with abdominal pain, bleeding per vaginum, and loss of fetal movements. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abruptio placenta", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydramnios", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preterm labor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Abruptio placenta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Abruptio placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Points in favor of abruption Abdominal pain Pallor High BP Uterine height &gt; POG</li><li>• Points in favor of abruption Abdominal pain Pallor High BP Uterine height &gt; POG</li><li>• Abdominal pain Pallor High BP Uterine height &gt; POG</li><li>• Abdominal pain</li><li>• Pallor</li><li>• High BP</li><li>• Uterine height &gt; POG</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Placenta previa : In placenta previa, the bleeding is painless</li><li>• Option B. Placenta previa</li><li>• Option C. Hydramnios : In hydramnios, there won’t be vaginal bleeding</li><li>• Option C. Hydramnios</li><li>• Option D. Preterm labor : In preterm labor also there won’t be vaginal bleeding</li><li>• Option D. Preterm labor</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Abruptio placenta is characterized by abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and loss of fetal movements, often associated with hypertensive disorders in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Abruptio placenta is characterized by abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and loss of fetal movements, often associated with hypertensive disorders in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page 295-297</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page 295-297</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child was born at term with no congenital abnormalities. He is now 70% normal body weight. On examination, dependent edema on lower extermities and large distended abdomen is found. Which of the following nutritional problems is most likely present in the child? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor with protein malnutrition", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marasmus with energy deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kwashiorkor with energy deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marasmus with protein malnutrition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kwashiorkor with protein malnutrition", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture67.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-125021.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kwashiorkor with protein malnutrition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Two types of malnutrition disorders</li><li>➤ Two types of malnutrition disorders</li><li>➤ Ref: Dinesh Puri 3rd ed pg. 587</li><li>➤ Ref: Dinesh Puri 3rd ed pg. 587</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is the longest acting PDE-inhibitor? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sildenafil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vardenafil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tadalafil", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Avanafil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tadalafil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tadalafil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tadalafil is the longest-acting PDE5 inhibitor available, making it a preferred option for patients seeking longer duration of efficacy for managing erectile dysfunction, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Its longer action allows for less frequent dosing and can contribute to a better overall quality of life in patients requiring PDE5 inhibitors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old boy was found to have hypogonadism. On investigation, this child was found to have high levels of LH, FSH &amp; testosterone. Which of the following enzymes could be deficient in this child? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "21 alpha hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "11 beta hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5 alpha reductase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "17 hydroxylase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 5 alpha reductase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 5 alpha reductase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5 alpha reductase deficiency leads to impaired conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), resulting in undervirilization and ambiguous genitalia in males despite normal or elevated levels of testosterone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the name of procedure, whose image is given below? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pancreaticojejunostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Whipple’s procedure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radical pancreatectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duodenojejunostomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Whipple’s procedure", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/30.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Whipple’s procedure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) involves the removal of the head of the pancreas, duodenum, gallbladder, and bile duct, and is used to treat tumors and other disorders of these organs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with b/I sensorineural hearing loss was given hearing aids which have not been beneficial. Which of the following is the next treatment option for this child? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bone anchored hearing aid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tympanoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal hearing aid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cochlear implant", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cochlear implant", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cochlear implant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For children with significant sensorineural hearing loss who do not benefit from hearing aids, cochlear implants offer a viable alternative for auditory rehabilitation. They provide the ability to perceive sound by directly stimulating the auditory nerve, thereby bypassing the dysfunctional cochlear hair cells.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 138-140</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the probable diagnosis in this child with bull neck, nasal twang, nasal regurgitation with change in voice? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Torticollis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ludwig’s angina", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diphtheria", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/891.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture179.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Diphtheria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diphtheria is characterized by bull neck, sore throat, grey or white patches in the throat or nose, and can cause airway obstruction and heart failure if untreated. Vaccination with DTaP is crucial for prevention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old IV drug abuser presents with a 1-week history of malaise, fatigue, and rigors. His temperature on admission was 38.5°C. Examination revealed a pan-systolic murmur which was loudest at the left sternal edge. Three sets of blood cultures were taken. Which organism is most likely to be found in his blood culture? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus sanguis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterococcus faecium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coxiella burnetti", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Staphylococcus aureus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Staphylococcus aureus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely causative organism of infective endocarditis in IV drug users, characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms and the presence of a pan-systolic murmur, as well as positive blood cultures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the antibody shown in the image: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgM", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IgM", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/fmge-patho110.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/fmge-patho111.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IgM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IgM is the largest antibody and appears early in the immune response, often forming a pentameric structure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient presenting with hepatic jaundice, deranged liver function tests, and the clinical findings as shown in the given image, which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Huntington chorea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wilson’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leigh syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemochromatosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Wilson’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-320.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Wilson’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper accumulation in the body, leading to hepatic jaundice, neuropsychological symptoms, and the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings in the eyes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hormones that regulate serum calcium levels:(FMGE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcitonin, vitamin D, PTH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid, vitamin D, PTH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcitonin, vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D, PTH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Calcitonin, vitamin D, PTH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-130726.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Calcitonin, vitamin D, PTH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ca Homeostasis = Involves Calcitriol (vitamin D), PTH and calcitonin</li><li>➤ Ca Homeostasis = Involves Calcitriol (vitamin D), PTH and calcitonin</li><li>➤ Ref: Dinesh Puri 3rd ed pg. 639</li><li>➤ Ref: Dinesh Puri 3rd ed pg. 639</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has macrocytic anaemia and high homocysteine levels. His methyl malonyl CoA levels are normal. What is the diagnosis:(FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B6 Deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B9 Deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B12 Deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anemia of chronic disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B9 Deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-131741.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin B9 Deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper 30th ed; pg- 558</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper 30th ed; pg- 558</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Why hemoglobin cannot pass through the glomerulus in a normal physiological state? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a large molecule bounded with another protein", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It gets attracted to the positive charge of the glomerular filtration barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is a large molecule bounded with another protein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. It is a large molecule bounded with another protein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemoglobin cannot pass through the glomerulus in a normal physiological state because it is a large molecule contained within red blood cells and is negatively charged, which is repelled by the similarly charged glomerular filtration barrier.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person is working with 30-year history of working in cardboard manufacturing and develops breathlessness and mottling in lungs. It is likely to be associated with: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bagassosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-122843.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bagassosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Occupational exposures and related diseases:</li><li>➤ Occupational exposures and related diseases:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tall male teenager presented with gynecomastia. On examination, he has average cognition and absence of secondary male characteristics as deep voice, beard, and male distribution of pubic hair. His genetic analysis was performed and he had the presence of a barr body. What is the likely diagnosis of this condition? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klinefelter syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Swyer syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Down syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Klinefelter syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/picture8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Klinefelter syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an extra X chromosome (47, XXY), leading to physical, hormonal, and developmental differences, including gynecomastia and absence of secondary male characteristics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of undescended testis? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulsatile GnRH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non pulsatile GnRH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Testosterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-MIH therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pulsatile GnRH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pulsatile GnRH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For managing undescended testis, pulsatile GnRH offers a hormonal treatment option that leverages the body’s natural hormonal mechanisms for testicular descent, although its variable effectiveness means that surgical intervention remains the most reliable treatment method. Each case should be evaluated individually, considering both the potential benefits and limitations of hormonal therapy compared to surgical options.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient on treatment of myasthenia gravis present with increasing muscle weakness. Which of the following drugs is used to differentiate myasthenia gravis from cholinergic crisis? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pilocarpine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Edrophonium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyridostigmine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Edrophonium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-163229.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Edrophonium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Edrophonium test is crucial in differentiating between myasthenia gravis and cholinergic crisis, especially when patients present with increased muscle weakness. Improvement in symptoms after administration indicates inadequate acetylcholine effect typical of myasthenia gravis, while worsening suggests toxic effects from excessive medication typical of cholinergic crisis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ms. Lakshmi, a school principal in Rajasthan, seeks to integrate health services into her school's activities and consults with the local health official about oversight. Which level of rural health infrastructure is primarily responsible for managing school health programs? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sub center", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PHC", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CHC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sub district hospital", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PHC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. PHC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary Health Centers (PHCs) play a pivotal role in the rural healthcare infrastructure by directly overseeing and managing school health programs, ensuring that health services are effectively integrated into the educational environment for the well-being of students.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 21-year-old boy presented in agony with sudden onset of severe pain in the groin region, associated with redness and swelling of the scrotum. On examination the right testis looks higher than the left. Possible diagnosis in this boy is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Testicular torsion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strangulated inguinal hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute epididymo-orchitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Testicular torsion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Testicular torsion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Testicular torsion presents with sudden, severe groin or scrotal pain, swelling, redness, and an elevated testis, requiring urgent surgical intervention within six hours to prevent necrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-month-old child presented to ophthalmology department with increased tearing and a mucopurulent discharge from the right puncta. The mother seeks appropriate treatment for the condition. Which of the following management options would be most suitable? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syringing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Probing with syringing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sac massage with topical antibiotics", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dacryocystorhinostomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sac massage with topical antibiotics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-104132.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sac massage with topical antibiotics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment depends on the age of the child:</li><li>➤ Treatment depends on the age of the child:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Corticospinal tract which is one of the descending motor tracts which carries signal to the muscle crosses at? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Midbrain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pons", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper medulla", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lower medulla", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lower medulla", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/26/fmg-physio-103.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Lower medulla</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Descending motor tracts crosses over in lower medulla.</li><li>• Descending motor tracts are of 2 types Pyramidal and extrapyramidal tract cross at lower medulla.</li><li>• The corticospinal tract also known as pyramidal tract, is the major neuronal pathway providing voluntary motor function, which is important for the fine, skilled motor activity.</li><li>• Pathway - corticospinal tract starts at precentral gyrus i.e., motor cortex → Corona radiata → internal capsule→ pons → medulla oblongata</li><li>• Pathway</li><li>• 80% fibers decussate at medulla and descend towards spinal cord as lateral corticospinal tract.</li><li>• 20% remain uncrossed and they reach to the spinal cord and then they cross opposite side</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Midbrain: Incorrect. The midbrain is not the location where the corticospinal tract crosses.</li><li>• Option A. Midbrain: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Pons: Incorrect. The pons is not the location where the corticospinal tract crosses.</li><li>• Option B. Pons: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Upper medulla: Incorrect. The upper medulla is not the location where the corticospinal tract crosses.</li><li>• Option C. Upper medulla: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corticospinal tract, also known as the pyramidal tract, crosses at the lower medulla, providing voluntary motor function important for fine, skilled motor activity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female patient with a history of bee allergy came to the emergency room with complaints of swelling of face and dyspnea after a bee sting. Which of the following inflammatory mediators plays a major role? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bradykinin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Histamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prostaglandins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Histamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-120445.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Histamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Histamine is the primary inflammatory mediator involved in the allergic response to a bee sting, leading to symptoms such as swelling and dyspnea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the sundarbans region of West Bengal, a proactive strategy is employed to address the rising cases of malaria. A health worker visits each household every two weeks, asking residents about recent fevers and preparing slides for malaria testing if needed. This method ensures prompt detection and intervention. What type of epidemiological surveillance does this represent? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Active", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Passive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sentinel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Any of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Active", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Active</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malarial surveillance was done by MPW (Male) at Subcenter level (once every fortnight)</li><li>➤ Passive: Hospital reporting Most convenient way of sample Active surveillance - as the health worker is going in search for cases of fever house to house.</li><li>➤ Passive: Hospital reporting Most convenient way of sample</li><li>➤ Active surveillance - as the health worker is going in search for cases of fever house to house.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3 months old baby is brought to you for an eye examination due to a concern raised by the mother. She noticed that the baby's left upper eyelid exhibits repetitive movement described as going \"up and down\" specifically during breastfeeding. The paediatrician initially diagnosed the baby with left eye ptosis. However, upon your examination, you observe an interesting phenomenon as shown in the given image. What is this phenomenon called? (FMGE June 2021", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Symblepharon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blepharophimosis syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lagophthalmos", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marcus-Gunn jaw-winking", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Marcus-Gunn jaw-winking", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture11.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Marcus-Gunn jaw-winking</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marcus-Gunn jaw-winking syndrome is characterized by an involuntary upward movement of the eyelid in response to jaw movements. It is due to an abnormal neural connection and often presents with congenital ptosis. Recognizing this phenomenon is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old female patient presents to the OPD with complaints of shortness of breath and tiredness. On examination, there were engorged neck veins and JVP showed rapid x and y descent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Constrictive pericarditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dilated cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Restricted cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Constrictive pericarditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Constrictive pericarditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Constrictive pericarditis presents with prominent rapid x and y descents in the JVP waveform. Recognizing these features is crucial for diagnosis and differentiating it from other conditions like cardiac tamponade and dilated cardiomyopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient presents with complaints of chronic diarrhea, fatigue, and tiredness. On examination, his nail findings are shown below. Lab investigations show Hb as 8 g/dL. Which of the following is the best treatment? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron supplements", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Iron supplements", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-182117.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Iron supplements</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails) is a classic sign of iron deficiency anemia. The appropriate treatment for iron deficiency anemia is iron supplementation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Verma, an epidemiologist, is investigating the correlation between online food ordering and obesity through a case-control study. He is determining the appropriate groups for sampling to effectively study the potential link. Which groups should be included in the sample? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only people who order online food", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only obese people", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obese and non-obese people", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Online food eaters and homemade food eaters", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Obese and non-obese people", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Obese and non-obese people</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Including both obese and non-obese individuals in the study is crucial to effectively explore the relationship between online food ordering habits and obesity, ensuring a balanced perspective between affected and control groups.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following vitamins increases the absorption of iron from the stomach? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin D increases the absorption of Calcium. Vitamin B12 absorption is affected by presence of Castle’s intrinsic factor in the stomach. Vitamin A absorption is dependent on fat. Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins and requires fat for their absorption. Vitamin C is vital for increasing iron absorption from the diet by reducing iron to its more absorbable form and overcoming the inhibitory effects of certain dietary compounds.</li><li>➤ Vitamin D increases the absorption of Calcium.</li><li>➤ Vitamin D increases the absorption of Calcium.</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 absorption is affected by presence of Castle’s intrinsic factor in the stomach.</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 absorption is affected by presence of Castle’s intrinsic factor in the stomach.</li><li>➤ Vitamin A absorption is dependent on fat.</li><li>➤ Vitamin A absorption is dependent on fat.</li><li>➤ Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins and requires fat for their absorption.</li><li>➤ Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins and requires fat for their absorption.</li><li>➤ Vitamin C is vital for increasing iron absorption from the diet by reducing iron to its more absorbable form and overcoming the inhibitory effects of certain dietary compounds.</li><li>➤ Vitamin C is vital for increasing iron absorption from the diet by reducing iron to its more absorbable form and overcoming the inhibitory effects of certain dietary compounds.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Collagen derived from cartilage can be classified into? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 collagen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2 collagen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 10 collagen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 7 collagen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 2 collagen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-174251.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Type 2 collagen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common types of collagens and their locations in the human body:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following volatile anesthetic agents is cardio selective / most preferred in cardiac surgeries? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sevoflurane", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nitrous oxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Desflurane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sevoflurane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sevoflurane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sevoflurane is the most cardiovascular stable inhalational anesthetic agent, making it the preferred choice for cardiac surgeries. It has a rapid onset and offset, and it does not irritate the airways, which is beneficial for both induction and maintenance of anesthesia. Sevoflurane has a favorable cardiovascular profile, causing minimal myocardial depression and maintaining hemodynamic stability.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Enflurane:</li><li>• Option A. Enflurane:</li><li>• Enflurane is a halogenated ether used as a volatile inhalation anesthetic. It can decrease blood pressure but also has the potential to cause seizures and increase cerebral blood flow, which might not be suitable for some patients, especially with raised intracranial pressure. Enflurane is not the first choice for cardiac surgeries due to its potential for myocardial depression and arrhythmogenic properties.</li><li>• Enflurane is a halogenated ether used as a volatile inhalation anesthetic.</li><li>• It can decrease blood pressure but also has the potential to cause seizures and increase cerebral blood flow, which might not be suitable for some patients, especially with raised intracranial pressure.</li><li>• Enflurane is not the first choice for cardiac surgeries due to its potential for myocardial depression and arrhythmogenic properties.</li><li>• Option C. Nitrous oxide:</li><li>• Option C. Nitrous oxide:</li><li>• Commonly known as \"laughing gas\", nitrous oxide is an inhaled anesthetic with analgesic properties and is often used in combination with other agents. Nitrous oxide is not a primary anesthetic for major surgeries and is contraindicated in some situations, such as pneumothorax, due to its expansive properties. It is not specifically cardio selective.</li><li>• Commonly known as \"laughing gas\", nitrous oxide is an inhaled anesthetic with analgesic properties and is often used in combination with other agents.</li><li>• Nitrous oxide is not a primary anesthetic for major surgeries and is contraindicated in some situations, such as pneumothorax, due to its expansive properties.</li><li>• It is not specifically cardio selective.</li><li>• Option D. Desflurane:</li><li>• Option D. Desflurane:</li><li>• Desflurane is a volatile inhalation anesthetic similar to sevoflurane but with a much lower blood/gas solubility, resulting in rapid onset and offset of action. Desflurane can cause an increase in heart rate and blood pressure upon induction and thus might not be the first choice for patients with cardiac diseases.</li><li>• Desflurane is a volatile inhalation anesthetic similar to sevoflurane but with a much lower blood/gas solubility, resulting in rapid onset and offset of action.</li><li>• Desflurane can cause an increase in heart rate and blood pressure upon induction and thus might not be the first choice for patients with cardiac diseases.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sevoflurane is the most cardiovascular stable inhalational anesthetic agent and is preferred for cardiac surgeries due to its rapid onset and offset, minimal airway irritation, and favorable cardiovascular profile.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kavita, a rural gynecologist in Madhya Pradesh, is approached by a pregnant patient who was scratched by a stray dog, which the local villagers suspect to be rabid. Understanding the critical nature of the situation, especially during pregnancy, Dr. Kavita needs to decide the safest and most effective treatment to minimize any risk from rabies. What is the best course of action? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treat the wound locally", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give vaccine immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Local treatment of wound + immunoglobulin + vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Local treatment of wound+ vaccination", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Local treatment of wound+ vaccination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-115827.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-115847.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Local treatment of wound + vaccination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For scratches potentially contaminated by rabies, especially in pregnant women, the recommended treatment is thorough local cleaning of the wound and immediate vaccination. Pregnancy does not preclude the use of rabies vaccines, which are vital for preventing the development of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At a national public health forum focused on enhancing immunization surveys, an epidemiologist emphasizes the foundational steps for conducting effective research. He queries the group on the initial action to take for ensuring a systematic approach that captures a representative sample. What is this preliminary step? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conducting the survey", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complete cluster forms", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calculate total fertility rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Identify cluster", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Identify cluster", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Identify cluster</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In planning an immunization survey, the identification of clusters is a critical early step that sets the foundation for effective sampling and data collection, ultimately ensuring the survey’s success and the reliability of its findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The condition seen in this child could be due to which of the following? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kwashiorkor due to less calorie intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marasmus due to low protein and calorie intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marasmus with low calorie intake", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/889.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/09/whatsapp-image-2023-10-09-at-180740.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kwashiorkor due to less protein intake</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kwashiorkor is characterized by edema, an enlarged abdomen, and apathy due to severe protein deficiency, whereas Marasmus is characterized by severe wasting due to deficiencies in both protein and calories.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child was playing in the garden. On disturbing bee hives, he had several bee stings. After a few minutes, the child developed breathing difficulty and hypotension. What is the drug of choice for managing the child in this condition? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dobutamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Noradrenaline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isoprenaline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adrenaline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-140124.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Adrenaline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of anaphylaxis, especially in children, immediate administration of intramuscular adrenaline is critical. It addresses multiple facets of the allergic reaction by improving breathing, increasing blood pressure, and reducing tissue swelling. Recognizing the signs of anaphylaxis and administering adrenaline promptly can be life-saving.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most frequently fractured site in the orbit following trauma to the eye resulting from a punch during a physical altercation? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial wall", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral wall", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Roof", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Floor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Floor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Floor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orbital floor fractures are common following blunt trauma to the eye. Recognizing the clinical signs and using appropriate imaging are crucial for diagnosis and management. Surgical intervention may be necessary in severe cases. Preventive measures, like protective eyewear, are important to reduce the risk of such injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition as shown below in the X-ray radiograph of a neonate? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumomediastinum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchiolitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/876.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture173.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital diaphragmatic hernia is a condition where abdominal organs herniate into the chest cavity through a defect in the diaphragm, causing pulmonary hypoplasia and respiratory distress.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition – Page No- 3855-3856</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Nelson 21 st Edition – Page No- 3855-3856</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Painless lesions over the vulval area as shown below are suggestive of? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Genital herpes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condyloma acuminata", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Condyloma lata", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonococcal vulvovaginitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Condyloma acuminata", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd53.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_33.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_34.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Condyloma acuminata</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Condyloma acuminata is diagnosed by the characteristic appearance of painless, warty lesions on the genital area, distinguishing them from other causes of genital lesions such as Genital herpes, Condyloma lata, and Gonococcal vulvovaginitis.</li><li>➤ Condyloma acuminata</li><li>➤ painless, warty</li><li>➤ genital area,</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 25 Page no 25.56, 25.58</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 25 Page no 25.56, 25.58</li><li>↳ Williams Gynaecology 3 rd edition Page no70</li><li>↳ Williams Gynaecology 3 rd edition Page no70</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a community medicine rotation in a rural village in Uttar Pradesh, MBBS students participated in a health camp where a woman with complicated obstetric issues was identified. She needed specialized care not available at the primary care level of the camp. The students inquired about the first referral unit in the primary health care system where this woman should be taken for specialized care. What is the appropriate referral unit for such cases? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subcentre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary Health Centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Community Health Centre", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medical colleges", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Community Health Centre", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-124116.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Community Health Centre</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ First referral units in primary health care in India are community health centres</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the complication associated with IV bolus oxytocin? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperglycemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypotension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypotension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hypotension: The effects of oxytocin IV bolus include hypotension. Bolus IV injections of oxytocin cause hypotension especially when the patient is hypovolemic or has heart disease. Occasionally, oxytocin may produce anginal pain. Oxytocin is therefore given as diluted solutions at a set rate to avoid these complications.</li><li>• Hypotension: The effects of oxytocin IV bolus include hypotension. Bolus IV injections of oxytocin cause hypotension especially when the patient is hypovolemic or has heart disease. Occasionally, oxytocin may produce anginal pain. Oxytocin is therefore given as diluted solutions at a set rate to avoid these complications.</li><li>• Hypotension:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hypertension : Oxytocin does not typically cause hypertension; instead, it can lead to hypotension due to its vasodilatory effects when administered as an IV bolus.</li><li>• Option B. Hypertension</li><li>• Option C. Hyperglycemia : Hyperglycemia is not a known side effect of oxytocin administration. Oxytocin primarily affects uterine contractility and vasodilation.</li><li>• Option C. Hyperglycemia</li><li>• Option D. Hypoglycemia : Hypoglycemia is not associated with oxytocin administration. Oxytocin's side effects are more related to its effects on the uterus and cardiovascular system.</li><li>• Option D. Hypoglycemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IV bolus administration of oxytocin can cause hypotension, particularly in hypovolemic patients or those with heart disease, and should be given as diluted solutions at a controlled rate.</li><li>➤ IV bolus administration of oxytocin can cause hypotension, particularly in hypovolemic patients or those with heart disease, and should be given as diluted solutions at a controlled rate.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Pg 574</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Pg 574</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother complains of breast cramps during breastfeeding her child. Which hormone is responsible for this? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prolactin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oxytocin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Oxytocin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Oxytocin helps in milk ejection by causing myoepithelial contraction, which is responsible for the cramps during breastfeeding. Oxytocin activates the Milk Let Down Reflex—suckling by the baby triggers touch receptors on the mother's breast, which stimulate the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release oxytocin. Oxytocin causes the contraction of myoepithelial cells in the breast tissue, leading to the compression of lobules and the subsequent ejection of milk.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Progesterone: Incorrect. Progesterone is responsible for alveolar growth in the breast but does not play a role in causing cramps during breastfeeding.</li><li>• Option A. Progesterone: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Estrogen: Incorrect. Estrogen is responsible for ductal growth in the breast but does not cause cramps during breastfeeding.</li><li>• Option B. Estrogen: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Prolactin: Incorrect. Prolactin is responsible for milk production. It stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose, casein, and lipids, but does not cause cramps.</li><li>• Option C. Prolactin: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxytocin helps in milk ejection by myoepithelial contraction which is responsible for cramp during breastfeeding</li><li>➤ Function of oxytocin – milk ejection (Galactokinesis) Uterine contraction Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk. Function of prolactin – milk production Prolactin stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose (i.e., the carbohydrate of milk), casein (i.e., the protein of milk), and lipids. The prolactin receptors are down-regulated on mammary glandular tissue during periods of elevated progesterone levels (i.e., during pregnancy). Progesterone is responsible for alveolar growth Estrogen is responsible for ductal growth</li><li>➤ Function of oxytocin – milk ejection (Galactokinesis) Uterine contraction Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk.</li><li>➤ Uterine contraction Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk.</li><li>➤ Uterine contraction</li><li>➤ Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk.</li><li>➤ Function of prolactin – milk production Prolactin stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose (i.e., the carbohydrate of milk), casein (i.e., the protein of milk), and lipids. The prolactin receptors are down-regulated on mammary glandular tissue during periods of elevated progesterone levels (i.e., during pregnancy).</li><li>➤ Prolactin stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose (i.e., the carbohydrate of milk), casein (i.e., the protein of milk), and lipids. The prolactin receptors are down-regulated on mammary glandular tissue during periods of elevated progesterone levels (i.e., during pregnancy).</li><li>➤ Prolactin stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose (i.e., the carbohydrate of milk), casein (i.e., the protein of milk), and lipids.</li><li>➤ The prolactin receptors are down-regulated on mammary glandular tissue during periods of elevated progesterone levels (i.e., during pregnancy).</li><li>➤ Progesterone is responsible for alveolar growth</li><li>➤ Estrogen is responsible for ductal growth</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pulsus paradoxus is seen in: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coronary artery disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute severe asthma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right ventricular myocardial infarction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute severe asthma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acute severe asthma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulsus paradoxus is an important clinical sign primarily associated with acute severe asthma and cardiac tamponade. Recognizing these associations is crucial for diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following disorder, ATP 7A protein is deficient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wilson’s hepatolenticular degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Selenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Menke’s Kinky hair syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronze diabetes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Menke’s Kinky hair syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture65.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture66.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-123119.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Menke’s Kinky hair syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Disorders of Copper metabolism</li><li>➤ Disorders of Copper metabolism</li><li>➤ Note: ↓ ceruloplasmin (cp) is common between Menke and Wilson Disease</li><li>➤ Note: ↓ ceruloplasmin (cp) is common between Menke and Wilson Disease</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper 30th Ed., pg. 676</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper 30th Ed., pg. 676</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old female came with complains of neurological deficits. Examination reveals pallor. Her blood picture is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folate deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-316.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells and can cause neurological deficits and pallor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy presents with features of shock and cold clammy skin. The next step in management is: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV Normal saline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV Dextrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inj. Adrenaline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV Ringer lactate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IV Normal saline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/images-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IV Normal saline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first line of treatment for shock in children is intravenous fluids, with normal saline being commonly used initially to stabilize the patient. Up to three normal saline boluses of 20 ml/kg can be administered, monitoring for signs of fluid overload after each bolus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which enzyme is deficient in Lesch Nyhan syndrome? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xanthine oxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biotinidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspartate aminotransferase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is characterized by a deficiency in the enzyme hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase), leading to increased uric acid levels and a range of neurological and behavioral symptoms, including self-mutilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following laryngeal cartilages is least likely to be calcified? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thyroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cricoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arytenoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epiglottis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Epiglottis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Epiglottis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Option A. Thyroid Cartilage : The largest of the laryngeal cartilages, forming the Adam's apple. It is primarily composed of hyaline cartilage, which is known to calcify or even ossify with age. Calcification commonly begins around the age of 25 and can be extensive by the age of 65. This process can stiffen the cartilage, which may have implications for surgeries involving the neck. Option B. Cricoid Cartilage : A ring-shaped cartilage that encircles the trachea below the thyroid cartilage. Like the thyroid cartilage, it is made mostly of hyaline cartilage. Calcification of the cricoid cartilage also typically begins in early adulthood and can be quite advanced by elderly age, affecting the rigidity and structure of the laryngeal framework. Option C. Arytenoid Cartilages : These are paired cartilages located at the back of the larynx, which play a key role in vocal cord movement. Most of the arytenoid cartilage is hyaline but the tips near the corniculate cartilages are elastic. The hyaline portions of the arytenoids are prone to calcification as one ages, similar to the thyroid and cricoid cartilages, though it usually starts a bit later than the thyroid cartilage.</li><li>• Option A. Thyroid Cartilage : The largest of the laryngeal cartilages, forming the Adam's apple. It is primarily composed of hyaline cartilage, which is known to calcify or even ossify with age. Calcification commonly begins around the age of 25 and can be extensive by the age of 65. This process can stiffen the cartilage, which may have implications for surgeries involving the neck.</li><li>• Option A. Thyroid Cartilage</li><li>• A. Thyroid Cartilage</li><li>• Option B. Cricoid Cartilage : A ring-shaped cartilage that encircles the trachea below the thyroid cartilage. Like the thyroid cartilage, it is made mostly of hyaline cartilage. Calcification of the cricoid cartilage also typically begins in early adulthood and can be quite advanced by elderly age, affecting the rigidity and structure of the laryngeal framework.</li><li>• Option B. Cricoid Cartilage</li><li>• B. Cricoid Cartilage</li><li>• Option C. Arytenoid Cartilages : These are paired cartilages located at the back of the larynx, which play a key role in vocal cord movement. Most of the arytenoid cartilage is hyaline but the tips near the corniculate cartilages are elastic. The hyaline portions of the arytenoids are prone to calcification as one ages, similar to the thyroid and cricoid cartilages, though it usually starts a bit later than the thyroid cartilage.</li><li>• Option C. Arytenoid Cartilages</li><li>• C. Arytenoid Cartilages</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Thyroid, cricoid and most of the arytenoid cartilages are hyaline cartilages whereas epiglottis, corniculate, cuneiform and tip of arytenoid near the corniculate cartilage are elastic fibrocartilage.</li><li>➤ Hyaline cartilages can undergo ossification. it begins at the age of 25 years in thyroid, a little later in cricoid and arytenoids, and is complete by 65 years of age.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions shown below has a false positive Barr body? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Klinefelter's syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Turner's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Down's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Edward's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Klinefelter's syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Klinefelter’s syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Due to the additional X chromosome associated with Klinefelter syndrome (47XXY), the patient receives a false-positive Barr body test result. The inactive X chromosome, known as the Barr body, is located peripherally in the cell as a darkly pigmented nodule, is chromatin positive, and is best observed in the nuclei of epithelial cells. Male cells are referred to as chromatin negative because they lack a Barr body and only have one X chromosome. Given that the inactivated X chromosome is regarded as the Barr body, the total number of Barr bodies can be calculated using the formula (X-1).</li><li>• Due to the additional X chromosome associated with Klinefelter syndrome (47XXY), the patient receives a false-positive Barr body test result.</li><li>• The inactive X chromosome, known as the Barr body, is located peripherally in the cell as a darkly pigmented nodule, is chromatin positive, and is best observed in the nuclei of epithelial cells.</li><li>• Male cells are referred to as chromatin negative because they lack a Barr body and only have one X chromosome.</li><li>• Given that the inactivated X chromosome is regarded as the Barr body, the total number of Barr bodies can be calculated using the formula (X-1).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Turner's syndrome : karyotype 45 XO , No Barr body</li><li>• Option B. Turner's syndrome</li><li>• Option C. Down’s syndrome and Option D. Edward's syndrome are aneuploidies involving autosomes ( non-sex chromosomes ) downs is trisomy 21 and Edwards is trisomy 18.</li><li>• Option C. Down’s syndrome</li><li>• Option D. Edward's syndrome</li><li>• is trisomy 21</li><li>• trisomy 18.</li><li>• *In Triple X syndromes there will be two Barr bodies (two X chromosomes will get inactivated)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Klinefelter syndrome (47XXY) results in a false-positive Barr body test due to the presence of an additional X chromosome.</li><li>➤ Klinefelter syndrome (47XXY) results in a false-positive Barr body test due to the presence of an additional X chromosome.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition pg444</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition pg444</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a cause of the following finding shown in the image? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liver cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypo-estrogenic state", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypo-estrogenic state", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-181746.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypo-estrogenic state</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Palmar erythema is commonly associated with conditions that lead to increased estrogen levels, such as pregnancy, liver cirrhosis, and rheumatoid arthritis. Hypo-estrogenic states do not cause palmar erythema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Oligohydramnios is associated with which of the following? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal agenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neural tube defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophageal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Premature birth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Renal agenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Renal agenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Early onset oligohydramnios can be due to</li><li>• Renal anomalies like Bilateral renal agenesis Bilateral dysplastic kidneys Bilateral Autosomal recessive infantile polycystic kidney disease Preterm prelabor rupture of membranes PPROM) Drugs like ACE inhibitors or ARB as these cause fetal renal hypoplasia</li><li>• Renal anomalies like Bilateral renal agenesis Bilateral dysplastic kidneys Bilateral Autosomal recessive infantile polycystic kidney disease</li><li>• Bilateral renal agenesis Bilateral dysplastic kidneys Bilateral Autosomal recessive infantile polycystic kidney disease</li><li>• Bilateral renal agenesis</li><li>• Bilateral dysplastic kidneys</li><li>• Bilateral Autosomal recessive infantile polycystic kidney disease</li><li>• Preterm prelabor rupture of membranes PPROM)</li><li>• Drugs like ACE inhibitors or ARB as these cause fetal renal hypoplasia</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Neural tube defect : Open Neural tube defects will cause polyhydramnios</li><li>• Option B. Neural tube defect</li><li>• Option C. Esophageal atresia : Esophageal atresia will cause polyhydramnios</li><li>• Option C. Esophageal atresia</li><li>• Option D. Preterm birth : Preterm birth is seen more commonly in women who have polyhydramnios</li><li>• Option D. Preterm birth</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oligohydramnios is associated with renal anomalies such as bilateral renal agenesis, which leads to decreased fetal urine production and a significant reduction in amniotic fluid.</li><li>➤ Oligohydramnios is associated with renal anomalies such as bilateral renal agenesis, which leads to decreased fetal urine production and a significant reduction in amniotic fluid.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page 250,251</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page 250,251</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome is defined as failure to achieve remission after weeks when on a daily corticosteroid therapy regimen? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4-6", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10-12", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "8-10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 4-6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 4-6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SRNS is defined as the failure to achieve remission after 4-6 weeks of daily corticosteroid therapy. Recognizing and diagnosing SRNS is crucial for initiating alternative treatments and managing the condition effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lady developed painless beefy red genital ulcer with swelling in inguinal area. On biopsy, safety pin appearance was noted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Granuloma inguinale", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphogranuloma venereum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Granuloma inguinale", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd56.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd57.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_38.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Granuloma inguinale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Granuloma inguinale is the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with painless beefy red genital ulcers, supported by characteristic histopathology findings.</li><li>➤ Granuloma inguinale is the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with painless beefy red genital ulcers, supported by characteristic histopathology findings.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 30 Page no 30.25</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a discussion about the funding sources for India's National Tuberculosis Program, it's noted that one global organization, despite its wide influence, does not directly contribute financially to this program. Which organization is it? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Indian Government", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UNICEF", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Global Fund", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "World Bank", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. UNICEF", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-134345.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. UNICEF</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While UNICEF plays a crucial role in improving child health globally, it does not directly fund tuberculosis programs, focusing instead on primary health care and preventative measures that can indirectly benefit TB control efforts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Takayasu arteritis most commonly involves: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coronary arteries", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abdominal aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arch of aorta", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Arch of aorta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Arch of aorta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Takayasu arteritis most commonly involves the arch of the aorta and its branches, particularly the subclavian artery, leading to its nickname \"pulseless disease\" due to the characteristic absence of the radial pulse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Anita, an obstetrician in Bangalore, discusses a demographic statistic reflecting the average number of children a woman would bear during her reproductive years based on current fertility rates. What is this statistic called? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total fertility rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gross reproduction rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Net reproduction rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "General fertility rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Total fertility rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-113925.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Total fertility rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Total Fertility Rate is a key demographic figure that indicates the average number of children per woman, essential for understanding and addressing population dynamics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple presented in the outpatient department with infertility. The husband's semen analysis done was normal. The wife reported menorrhagia and a hysterosalpingogram showed distal dilatation of the tubes like a 'tobacco pouch appearance'. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tubal salpingitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tubal endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tubal polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tubal spasm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tubal salpingitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tubal salpingitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tubal salpingitis: The 'tobacco pouch appearance' seen on the hysterosalpingogram is characteristic of tubal salpingitis, particularly tubercular salpingitis. This appearance results from the dilation of the ampulla of the fallopian tube, leading to a retort-like shape. The tubes are typically filled with a transparent fluid. The fimbrial end of the tube is indrawn and closed, while the interstitial end remains open. Tubal salpingitis can cause infertility by damaging the fallopian tubes, preventing the sperm from reaching the egg or the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus.</li><li>• Tubal salpingitis: The 'tobacco pouch appearance' seen on the hysterosalpingogram is characteristic of tubal salpingitis, particularly tubercular salpingitis. This appearance results from the dilation of the ampulla of the fallopian tube, leading to a retort-like shape. The tubes are typically filled with a transparent fluid. The fimbrial end of the tube is indrawn and closed, while the interstitial end remains open. Tubal salpingitis can cause infertility by damaging the fallopian tubes, preventing the sperm from reaching the egg or the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus.</li><li>• Tubal salpingitis:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Tubal endometriosis : Tubal endometriosis involves the presence of endometrial tissue within the fallopian tubes. While it can lead to tubal damage and infertility, it does not typically present with a 'tobacco pouch appearance' on hysterosalpingogram. Instead, it may show tubal obstruction or hydrosalpinx.</li><li>• Option B. Tubal endometriosis</li><li>• Option C. Tubal polyp : Tubal polyps are benign growths within the fallopian tube that can cause obstruction and infertility. They do not cause the characteristic 'tobacco pouch appearance' on hysterosalpingogram. The presence of polyps is usually identified through imaging techniques or laparoscopy.</li><li>• Option C. Tubal polyp</li><li>• Option D. Tubal spasm : Tubal spasm can occur during hysterosalpingography due to irritation or anxiety and can temporarily mimic tubal obstruction. However, it does not lead to a 'tobacco pouch appearance' and is usually transient, resolving with the relaxation of the patient or administration of antispasmodic agents.</li><li>• Option D. Tubal spasm</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The 'tobacco pouch appearance' on hysterosalpingogram is characteristic of tubal salpingitis, specifically tubercular salpingitis, which is a common cause of tubal factor infertility.</li><li>➤ The 'tobacco pouch appearance' on hysterosalpingogram is characteristic of tubal salpingitis, specifically tubercular salpingitis, which is a common cause of tubal factor infertility.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 141</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 141</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In this image of basal ganglia, all of the following are correctly labelled except? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1- Caudate nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2-Globus pallidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3-Putamen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4-Internal Capsule", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4-Internal Capsule", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/whatsapp-image-2023-05-01-at-51127-pm4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-38_wrQqOP6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 4- Internal Capsule</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basal Ganglia -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding antigenic drift? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "There is a gradual sequential change in antigenic structure", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It doesn't account for the periodic epidemics of influenza", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The new antigens thus formed are totally unrelated to the previous antigens", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antigens to the predecessor viruses do not neutralize the new variants", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. There is a gradual sequential change in antigenic structure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-123607.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) There is a gradual sequential change in antigenic structure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antigenic drift involves gradual and sequential changes in the antigenic structure of viruses, particularly influenza, leading to periodic epidemics and partial evasion of immune responses from previous infections or vaccinations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cherry red color post mortem staining of body is attributed to what poisoning? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CO", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "H2S", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nitrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrogen cyanide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CO", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture11333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/screenshot-2023-10-28-152735.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CO</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the likely diagnosis in a lady with extremely low TSH and high T3 and T4? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subclinical hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subclinical hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Graves’ disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subclinical thyroiditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Graves’ disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-124908.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Graves’ Disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Graves’ disease is characterized by extremely low TSH and high T3 and T4 levels, indicating hyperthyroidism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A criminal can be charged in juvenile court if he is below ----- years of age? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "21", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "18", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "25", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "19", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 18", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 18</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ An individual below 18 years of age is considered a juvenile and can be charged in juvenile court for applicable cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Comment on the position of the pacemaker lead. (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right Ventricle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right Atrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left Atrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left Ventricle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right Ventricle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-092258.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Right Ventricle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pacemaker leads are most commonly positioned in the right ventricle for both temporary and permanent pacemakers. In dual chamber pacemakers, an additional lead is placed in the right atrium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has presented with blister on hand followed by axillary lymphadenopathy. What will you ask the patient with regard to history? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "History of exposure to rat", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "History of exposure to cat", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "History of similar complaint in family members", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "History of tick bite", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. History of exposure to cat", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) History of exposure to cat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a patient presents with a blister on the hand followed by axillary lymphadenopathy, it is important to ask about exposure to cats, as this history is highly suggestive of Cat Scratch Disease caused by Bartonella henselae.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old G3P2L2 woman with a past history of Caesarean section and a Dilatation and curettage, presents to the ER with hypotension, tachycardia, and severe abdominal pain. On examination, fetal parts are palpable in the abdomen and Fetal heart rate is weak. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amniotic fluid embolization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placental abruption", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine rupture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Local anesthesia anaphylaxis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Uterine rupture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Uterine rupture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uterine rupture in a woman with a history of Caesarean section or uterine surgery presents with hypotension, tachycardia, severe abdominal pain, palpable fetal parts in the abdomen, and weak or absent fetal heart rate.</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 496</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 496</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A post-menopausal woman presented with pain in her lower abdomen for the past 4 months. She was informed to have fibroids for a long time. The radiological investigation is shown below. What is the type of degeneration that occurred in this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fatty degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyaline degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcific degeneration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystic degeneration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Calcific degeneration", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/400.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Calcific degeneration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The X-ray shows calcified fibroids and is due to the calcific degeneration of fibroids. In postmenopausal women, subserous fibroid with tiny pedicle or myomas are the most typical symptoms of calcific or calcareous degeneration. Lime phosphates and carbonates are deposited in the vessels' outermost regions during calcareous degeneration. The best cases of calcareous myomas are those in elderly individuals who have had them for a long time. These resemble \"womb-stones\" in cemeteries. The most common degeneration seen in fibroids is hyaline The degeneration in fibroids seen in pregnancy is red degeneration</li><li>• The X-ray shows calcified fibroids and is due to the calcific degeneration of fibroids.</li><li>• In postmenopausal women, subserous fibroid with tiny pedicle or myomas are the most typical symptoms of calcific or calcareous degeneration.</li><li>• Lime phosphates and carbonates are deposited in the vessels' outermost regions during calcareous degeneration. The best cases of calcareous myomas are those in elderly individuals who have had them for a long time. These resemble \"womb-stones\" in cemeteries.</li><li>• The most common degeneration seen in fibroids is hyaline</li><li>• The degeneration in fibroids seen in pregnancy is red degeneration</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Fatty degeneration : fat globules deposited in muscle cells, usually at or after menopause.</li><li>• Option A. Fatty degeneration</li><li>• Option B. Hyaline degeneration : Hyaline Changes in muscle and fibrous tissues, feel becomes soft elastic.</li><li>• Option B. Hyaline degeneration</li><li>• Option D. Cystic degeneration : It occurs due to liquefaction of areas with hyaline change. may appear as hypoechoic or anechoiec areas on USG.</li><li>• Option D. Cystic degeneration</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Calcific degeneration of fibroids is characterized by the deposition of lime phosphates and carbonates, typically seen in elderly individuals with long-standing fibroids.</li><li>➤ Calcific degeneration of fibroids is characterized by the deposition of lime phosphates and carbonates, typically seen in elderly individuals with long-standing fibroids.</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of Gynaecology 6 th edition Page275</li><li>➤ Ref: Duttas textbook of Gynaecology 6 th edition Page275</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mutation in which gene is seen in Wilson disease? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ATP 7A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ATP 7B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ATP 7C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ATP 7D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ATP 7B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/887.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture177.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ATP 7B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Mutation in ATP7B gene is seen in Wilson disease.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 20 th Edition Page No- 1940.</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Nelson 20 th Edition Page No- 1940.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-depressant drugs act by inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and nor-adrenaline? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoxetine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venlafaxine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenelzine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nortriptyline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Venlafaxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Venlafaxine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Venlafaxine is an effective antidepressant for the treatment of major depressive disorders due to its dual action on serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibition, making it a valuable option for patients who do not respond adequately to SSRIs alone. This dual mechanism can provide more comprehensive management of depression symptoms compared to drugs that target a single neurotransmitter pathway.</li><li>➤ Serotonin Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRI) drugs are :</li><li>➤ drugs are</li><li>➤ Venlafaxine Duloxetine Milnacipran</li><li>➤ Venlafaxine</li><li>➤ Venlafaxine</li><li>➤ Duloxetine</li><li>➤ Duloxetine</li><li>➤ Milnacipran</li><li>➤ Milnacipran</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was given halothane for general anesthesia. He developed rigidity and hyperthermia. These symptoms are most likely due to which ion? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mg+", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "K+", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ca2+", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "H+", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ca2+", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ca2+</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A patient who was administered halothane, a volatile anesthetic, and subsequently developed muscle rigidity and hyperthermia is likely experiencing a reaction called Malignant Hyperthermia (MH).</li><li>• Malignant Hyperthermia (MH):</li><li>• Malignant Hyperthermia (MH):</li><li>• Definition: MH is a life-threatening pharmacogenetic disorder characterized by a hypermetabolic response to certain volatile anesthetics (like halothane) and neuromuscular blocking agents. Etiology: The primary defect in MH is associated with the Ryanodine receptor (RyR1), which is a calcium release channel in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscles. Some individuals possess a genetic mutation in the RyR1 gene that makes them susceptible to MH.</li><li>• Definition: MH is a life-threatening pharmacogenetic disorder characterized by a hypermetabolic response to certain volatile anesthetics (like halothane) and neuromuscular blocking agents.</li><li>• Definition:</li><li>• Etiology: The primary defect in MH is associated with the Ryanodine receptor (RyR1), which is a calcium release channel in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscles. Some individuals possess a genetic mutation in the RyR1 gene that makes them susceptible to MH.</li><li>• Etiology:</li><li>• Mechanism:</li><li>• Mechanism:</li><li>• In a normal muscle contraction, the L-type calcium (Ca2+) channel (or dihydropyridine receptor) in the T-tubules of the muscle fiber acts as a voltage sensor. When triggered, it indirectly causes the Ryanodine receptor to release calcium ions (Ca2+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm. In individuals with the MH mutation, certain volatile anesthetics like halothane can abnormally activate the mutated Ryanodine receptor. This results in a massive, uncontrolled release of Ca2+ into the cytoplasm of the muscle cells. The surge in intracellular Ca2+ concentration leads to sustained muscle contraction, increased metabolism, and heat production, manifesting clinically as muscle rigidity and hyperthermia.</li><li>• In a normal muscle contraction, the L-type calcium (Ca2+) channel (or dihydropyridine receptor) in the T-tubules of the muscle fiber acts as a voltage sensor. When triggered, it indirectly causes the Ryanodine receptor to release calcium ions (Ca2+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm.</li><li>• In individuals with the MH mutation, certain volatile anesthetics like halothane can abnormally activate the mutated Ryanodine receptor. This results in a massive, uncontrolled release of Ca2+ into the cytoplasm of the muscle cells.</li><li>• The surge in intracellular Ca2+ concentration leads to sustained muscle contraction, increased metabolism, and heat production, manifesting clinically as muscle rigidity and hyperthermia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mg+: Magnesium plays a role in muscle relaxation and nerve function, but it is not directly implicated in the pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia.</li><li>• Option A. Mg+:</li><li>• Option B. K+: Potassium is involved in maintaining cellular function and electrical stability but is not the primary ion causing the symptoms in MH.</li><li>• Option B. K+:</li><li>• Option D. H+: Hydrogen ions relate to acid-base balance, and while metabolic acidosis can occur secondary to MH, they are not the primary cause of muscle rigidity and hyperthermia.</li><li>• Option D. H+:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malignant Hyperthermia (MH) is primarily associated with an uncontrolled release of calcium ions (Ca2+) due to a defect in the Ryanodine receptor. This leads to sustained muscle contraction, increased metabolism, and hyperthermia. Recognizing MH and understanding its pathophysiology is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient from Uttar Pradesh underwent surgery under general anesthesia with Oxygen, nitrous oxide and Desflurane. Just after extubation, the patient develops desaturation and crepts. What could be the possible cause? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ARDS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Negative pressure pulmonary edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "No crepitations", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Negative pressure pulmonary edema", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Negative pressure pulmonary edema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Given the immediate onset of symptoms after extubation, the presentation of crepitations, and the clinical context, Negative Pressure Pulmonary Edema (NPPE) is the most plausible diagnosis in this scenario.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pleural Effusion: Pleural effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in the space between the layers of the pleura. While it can cause shortness of breath and decreased oxygen saturation, the immediate onset after extubation and use of general anesthesia make it a less likely cause in this specific scenario.</li><li>• Option A. Pleural Effusion:</li><li>• Option B. ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome): ARDS is a severe lung condition causing low oxygen levels in the blood due to widespread inflammation in the lungs. Although it can be a complication after surgery, the acute onset just after extubation makes ARDS less likely in this scenario.</li><li>• Option B. ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome):</li><li>• Option D. No Crepitations: The scenario clearly mentions the presence of crepitations, indicating the presence of fluid in the alveoli. Therefore, the option of no crepitations can be ruled out.</li><li>• Option D. No Crepitations:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Negative Pressure Pulmonary Edema (NPPE) can occur when a patient takes a forceful breath against a closed airway, such as in laryngospasm. This creates significant negative pressure in the chest, leading to fluid being pulled into the lungs from the bloodstream. The rapid onset of symptoms and the described clinical signs post-extubation make NPPE the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 2593</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 2593</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old lady presents with body pain, easy fatigability, and problems while standing. Neurological examination revealed loss of vibration sense and proprioception. Investigations revealed a Hb level of 7 g/dL. Which of the following should be administered for the patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vit B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vit C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vit B12", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vit D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vit B12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vit B12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency presents with macrocytic anemia and specific neurological symptoms such as loss of vibration sense and proprioception. The appropriate treatment is vitamin B12 supplementation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female presents with lacy lesions in oral cavity and genitals. Her proximal nail fold has extended into the nail bed. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pityriasis rubra pilaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pityriasis rosea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lichen planus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd43.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd22_MZVXCE2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd23_mKCYB5n.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd24_8RRPy2x.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/untitled-35.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd44.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd45.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd46.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd47.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fd49.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_27.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/20/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_262_page_28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lichen planus is diagnosed with the characteristic findings of lacy white lesions on mucosal surfaces and specific nail changes.</li><li>➤ Lichen planus</li><li>➤ lacy white lesions</li><li>➤ mucosal surfaces</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 37 page no 37.</li><li>↳ 1-5</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Salt pepper appearance of the fundus is seen in all of the following except? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Refsum's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture24.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Causes of pseudo-retinitis pigmentosa (salt and pepper fundus):</li><li>➤ Causes of pseudo-retinitis pigmentosa (salt and pepper fundus):</li><li>➤ Rubella Syphilis Refsum's disease Carriers of albinism Leber's congenital amaurosis</li><li>➤ Rubella</li><li>➤ Syphilis</li><li>➤ Refsum's disease</li><li>➤ Carriers of albinism</li><li>➤ Leber's congenital amaurosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A teenager presents with features of liver disease, tremor and poor incoordination, mask like facies, and psychiatric symptoms. Which of the following is implicated in the pathogenesis of this condition? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ATP 7A gene on chromosome 13", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ATP 7B gene on chromosome 13", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ATP 7C gene on chromosome 13", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ATP 7B gene on chromosome 12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ATP 7B gene on chromosome 13", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ATP 7B gene on chromosome 13</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key points about other genes:</li><li>➤ Key points about other genes:</li><li>➤ HNF1 -ALPHA - HEPATIC ADENOMA FIBRILLIN –MARFAN SYNDROME COL1A1 -OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA WILSON DISEASE -ATP 7B gene (Chromosome 13) MENKES DISEASE – ATP7A gene HEMOCHROMATOSIS- HFE gene (chromosome 6P ) ALPHA1-ANTITRYPSIN DEFICIENCY- SERPINA 1 gene (chromosome 14) CYSTIC FIBROSIS – CFTR gene (chromosome 7 )</li><li>➤ HNF1 -ALPHA - HEPATIC ADENOMA</li><li>➤ HNF1</li><li>➤ FIBRILLIN –MARFAN SYNDROME</li><li>➤ COL1A1 -OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA</li><li>➤ COL1A1</li><li>➤ WILSON DISEASE -ATP 7B gene (Chromosome 13)</li><li>➤ -ATP 7B</li><li>➤ 13)</li><li>➤ MENKES DISEASE – ATP7A gene</li><li>➤ – ATP7A</li><li>➤ HEMOCHROMATOSIS- HFE gene (chromosome 6P )</li><li>➤ 6P</li><li>➤ ALPHA1-ANTITRYPSIN DEFICIENCY- SERPINA 1 gene (chromosome 14)</li><li>➤ 14)</li><li>➤ CYSTIC FIBROSIS – CFTR gene (chromosome 7 )</li><li>➤ 7</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kapoor is assessing key reproductive health statistics to guide policy recommendations and queries about the optimal Total Fertility Rate (TFR) for maintaining population stability in India. What is the target TFR for India? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2.1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2.4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2.6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2.7", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2.1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 2.1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The target Total Fertility Rate (TFR) for India is 2.1, which is considered the replacement level fertility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with pain abdomen, diarrhea, and a stepladder pattern fever. He also complains of a headache and malaise. His symptoms were gradually worsening over the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the best diagnostic method? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Widal test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stool culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine culture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Widal test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/09/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102042.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Widal test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a case where a child is exposed to a contagious viral illness, there's a unique opportunity for a vaccine to confer immunity more quickly than the disease can develop. Which vaccine is known for this ability to induce rapid seroconversion post-exposure, outpacing the disease's incubation period? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flu", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Measles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Flu: I.P is 7 days: after vaccination the antibodies take more than 7 days to develop. Measles: I.P is 10-14 days: after exposure If we give vaccines antibodies will develop within 7 days Rubella: I.P is 14-21 days: whereas antibodies take 2-4 weeks time to develop.</li><li>➤ Flu: I.P is 7 days: after vaccination the antibodies take more than 7 days to develop.</li><li>➤ Measles: I.P is 10-14 days: after exposure If we give vaccines antibodies will develop within 7 days</li><li>➤ Rubella: I.P is 14-21 days: whereas antibodies take 2-4 weeks time to develop.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old girl presented with history of recurrent episodes of early morning lethargy and seizures. On examination, the child had doll like faces and hepatomegaly. Investigations revealed hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis and hyperlipidemia. Which enzyme is deficient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose 6 phosphatase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Muscle phosphorylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatic Phosphorylase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glucose 6 phosphatase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture182.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glucose 6 phosphatase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Von Gierke's disease (Glycogen Storage Disease Type I) is characterized by a deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase, leading to severe hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperlipidemia, and hepatomegaly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 64-year-old man presents with complaints of palpitations and syncope. He has a history of inferior-wall myocardial infarction a year ago. Holter study was done and his 24-hour ECG strip obtained is given below. What is the long-term treatment for this condition? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Permanent pacemaker", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atropine and isoproterenol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Permanent pacemaker", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-092218.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Permanent pacemaker</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mobitz type 2 AV block, especially when symptomatic and persistent beyond 48 hours post-myocardial infarction, requires the placement of a permanent pacemaker for long-term management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In India's dynamic public health landscape, various organizations contribute to health promotion and awareness. Which organization is primarily tasked with these initiatives? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central Health Education Bureau", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indian Council of medical Research", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central Bureau of Health Intelligence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "National Health Library", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Central Health Education Bureau", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Central Health Education Bureau</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Central Health Education Bureau is integral to driving health promotion and awareness strategies in India, ensuring that health information is accessible and impactful for the vast and varied population of the country.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother brought her 16-year-old daughter to the hospital with complaints of primary amenorrhea. On evaluation axillary and pubic hair were present and other secondary sexual characteristics normal. LH and FSH levels are normal, and USG showed absence of uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRKH syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Androgen insensitivity syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Swyer syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MRKH syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) MRKH syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MRKH syndrome is characterized by the absence of the uterus, cervix, upper vagina, and fallopian tubes, with normal ovarian function and secondary sexual characteristics.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition Pg 446</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition Pg 446</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions does not form a grey-white membrane over the tonsils? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcal tonsillitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ludwig's angina", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infectious mononucleosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ludwig's angina", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ludwig’s angina</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ludwig's angina, though a severe infection near the tonsils, does not create a membrane over the tonsils and is primarily known for its potential to cause significant swelling that may obstruct the airway.</li><li>➤ D/D for membrane over tonsil:</li><li>➤ D/D for membrane over tonsil:</li><li>➤ Membranous tonsillitis - Streptococcus &amp; other pyogenic organisms forming exudative membrane. Diphtheria - the membrane in diphtheria extends beyond the tonsils, on to the soft palate and is dirty grey in color. It is adherent and its removal leaves a bleeding surface. Infectious mononucleosis - Both tonsils are very much enlarged, congested and covered with membrane, posterior lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly Vincent's angina - Membrane, which usually forms over one tonsil, can be easily removed revealing an irregular ulcer on the tonsil Leukemia Candida Agranulocytosis - presents with ulcerative necrotic lesions not only on the tonsils but elsewhere in the oropharynx. Malignancy Aphthous ulcer Traumatic ulcer</li><li>➤ Membranous tonsillitis - Streptococcus &amp; other pyogenic organisms forming exudative membrane.</li><li>➤ Diphtheria - the membrane in diphtheria extends beyond the tonsils, on to the soft palate and is dirty grey in color. It is adherent and its removal leaves a bleeding surface.</li><li>➤ Infectious mononucleosis - Both tonsils are very much enlarged, congested and covered with membrane, posterior lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly</li><li>➤ Vincent's angina - Membrane, which usually forms over one tonsil, can be easily removed revealing an irregular ulcer on the tonsil</li><li>➤ Leukemia</li><li>➤ Candida</li><li>➤ Agranulocytosis - presents with ulcerative necrotic lesions not only on the tonsils but elsewhere in the oropharynx.</li><li>➤ Malignancy</li><li>➤ Aphthous ulcer</li><li>➤ Traumatic ulcer</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 293, 294, 297</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a global discussion about entities that spearhead initiatives for sustainable growth, which organization is primarily recognized for its significant role in advancing the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "WHO", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UNICEF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UNESCO", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "UNDP", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. UNDP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/3TQN2MTJsbWHkQv976PaaMRTXKMWB006Ym5A1FXilp8DFm6PcLIx8E33-ztDkCHxEwQjG46cSiriLNHRvq9hlR77Ca-DKJbVG1CxmOWHGKIQTShqAywRKMuEQI-9lh9SDnbKPNO57bL8Z3qbRYeDJco"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. UNDP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The UNDP is crucial in orchestrating global efforts towards sustainable development, providing leadership, funding, and support across a broad spectrum of SDG-related activities, ensuring comprehensive and inclusive progress.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy, upon disturbing a bee hive, received several stings. After a few minutes, he developed symptoms of shock, respiratory failure, and vascular collapse. This is an example of? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T cell-mediated cytotoxicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgE-mediated reaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgG-mediated reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgA-mediated hypersensitivity reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IgE-mediated reaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IgE-mediated reaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anaphylaxis, such as that triggered by bee stings, is an IgE-mediated reaction or Type I hypersensitivity. This reaction involves the rapid release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils, leading to symptoms like shock, respiratory failure, and vascular collapse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old chronic smoker is brought to the ER with severe respiratory distress. His vitals are unstable. His X-ray chest was done which showed the following. Possible diagnosis in this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tension pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydropneumothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tension pneumothorax", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/14.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tension pneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tension pneumothorax is characterized by severe respiratory distress, unstable vitals, and mediastinal shift on chest X-ray, requiring immediate medical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with generalized weakness. His Hb level was low and serum iron was low. Which of the following vitamins help in iron absorption? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture176.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by converting ferric iron to the more readily absorbed ferrous iron.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. Sharma, a farmer in Bihar, inquires about the Ayushman Bharat scheme at a local health center, interested particularly in the insurance benefits it provides. Dr. Verma, leading the center, outlines the yearly financial support available per family under the scheme. What is the annual insurance limit per family provided by Ayushman Bharat? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rs. 1 Lac/Family/Year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rs. 5 Lac/Family/Year", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rs. 3 Lac/Family/Year", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rs. 2 Lac/Family/Year", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rs. 5 Lac/Family/Year", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Rs. 5 Lac/Family/Year</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ayushman Bharat</li><li>➤ Ayushman Bharat</li><li>➤ Main Aim: To provide a service to create a healthy, capable and content new India Goals: Create a network of health, wellness infrastructure delivering comprehensive primary healthcare services Provide insurance cover to &gt; 40% population deprived of secondary &amp; tertiary care services Beneficiaries Criteria: Rural areas: Based on the deprivation categories (D1, D2, D3, D4, D5, D7) under the SECC database Urban areas: 11 occupational criteria RSBY beneficiaries in states where it is active Hospitalization Process: No charges/premium for hospitalisation expenses Include Pre- and Post-hospitalisation expenses ‘Ayushman Mitra’ in each hospital to assist patients Hospital Eligibility: All public hospitals Empanelled private health care facilities Empanelment criteria: Hospital with &gt; 10 beds</li><li>➤ Main Aim: To provide a service to create a healthy, capable and content new India</li><li>➤ Goals: Create a network of health, wellness infrastructure delivering comprehensive primary healthcare services Provide insurance cover to &gt; 40% population deprived of secondary &amp; tertiary care services</li><li>➤ Create a network of health, wellness infrastructure delivering comprehensive primary healthcare services Provide insurance cover to &gt; 40% population deprived of secondary &amp; tertiary care services</li><li>➤ Create a network of health, wellness infrastructure delivering comprehensive primary healthcare services</li><li>➤ Provide insurance cover to &gt; 40% population deprived of secondary &amp; tertiary care services</li><li>➤ Beneficiaries Criteria: Rural areas: Based on the deprivation categories (D1, D2, D3, D4, D5, D7) under the SECC database Urban areas: 11 occupational criteria RSBY beneficiaries in states where it is active</li><li>➤ Rural areas: Based on the deprivation categories (D1, D2, D3, D4, D5, D7) under the SECC database Urban areas: 11 occupational criteria RSBY beneficiaries in states where it is active</li><li>➤ Rural areas: Based on the deprivation categories (D1, D2, D3, D4, D5, D7) under the SECC database</li><li>➤ Urban areas: 11 occupational criteria</li><li>➤ RSBY beneficiaries in states where it is active</li><li>➤ Hospitalization Process: No charges/premium for hospitalisation expenses Include Pre- and Post-hospitalisation expenses ‘Ayushman Mitra’ in each hospital to assist patients</li><li>➤ No charges/premium for hospitalisation expenses Include Pre- and Post-hospitalisation expenses ‘Ayushman Mitra’ in each hospital to assist patients</li><li>➤ No charges/premium for hospitalisation expenses</li><li>➤ Include Pre- and Post-hospitalisation expenses</li><li>➤ ‘Ayushman Mitra’ in each hospital to assist patients</li><li>➤ Hospital Eligibility: All public hospitals Empanelled private health care facilities Empanelment criteria: Hospital with &gt; 10 beds</li><li>➤ All public hospitals Empanelled private health care facilities Empanelment criteria: Hospital with &gt; 10 beds</li><li>➤ All public hospitals</li><li>➤ Empanelled private health care facilities</li><li>➤ Empanelment criteria: Hospital with &gt; 10 beds</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the preferred treatment for delirium tremens? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methylcobalamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiamine alone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiamine + diazepam", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thiamine + diazepam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thiamine + diazepam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) typically presents 48-72 hours after the last drink and is characterized by disturbances of consciousness, disorientation to time, place, and person, hallucinations (especially visual), agitation, coarse tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. Risk factors include surgery, infections or other medical conditions. It is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Treatment includes intravenous lorazepam or diazepam with thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 282.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following biochemical parameters are correct in Vitamin D-dependent rickets? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/26/screenshot-2024-09-26-171650.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture1_h2UIvXB.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin D-dependent rickets presents with decreased or normal serum calcium, increased PTH levels, decreased serum phosphate, and increased serum alkaline phosphatase. This profile reflects the body's compensatory responses to impaired vitamin D metabolism and resultant hypocalcemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 51-year-old patient of Covid-19 requires oxygen therapy. What color of cylinders should be used to provide oxygen to this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Black body with white shoulder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blue body", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue body with white shoulder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grey", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Black body with white shoulder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-150614.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Black body with white shoulder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For providing oxygen therapy, the correct cylinder to use is the one with a black body and a white shoulder. This color coding is universally recognized to indicate an oxygen cylinder.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Blue body: Blue color is typically used for nitrous oxide cylinders.</li><li>• Option B. Blue body:</li><li>• Option C. Blue body with white shoulder: This color coding is used for Entonox, a mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen.</li><li>• Option C. Blue body with white shoulder:</li><li>• Option D. Grey: Grey is color coding for carbon dioxide cylinder.</li><li>• Option D. Grey:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The color coding for oxygen cylinders is a black body with a white shoulder. This ensures proper identification and safe administration of oxygen therapy in clinical settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an asymptomatic patient, on routine screening a small mass was detected in the rectum which looked like a suspected neoplasm. What is the next step in the management? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum CEA Levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sigmoidoscopy with lesion biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barium enema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sigmoidoscopy with lesion biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sigmoidoscopy with lesion biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first step in the management of a suspected rectal neoplasm detected on routine screening is to perform a sigmoidoscopy with a lesion biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child comes to casualty with history of unknown poisoning by some seed/drug. On examination patient has dilated pupils, dry mouth, delirium and decreased secretions with hallucination. What poisoning should the doctor suspect? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Datura", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Poppy seeds", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mushroom", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Datura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Datura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Datura poisoning is characterized by anticholinergic symptoms such as dilated pupils, dry mouth, delirium, decreased secretions, and hallucination, which match the symptoms described in the question.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What structural abnormality of the cornea is commonly observed in keratoconus? ( FMGE June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corneal thinning and steepening", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Corneal thickening and flattening", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corneal scarring and opacity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corneal vascularization and neovascularization", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Corneal thinning and steepening", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture20.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-104022.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Corneal thinning and steepening</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Keratoconus is a progressive eye disease characterized by corneal thinning and steepening, leading to a cone-shaped deformation. This results in distorted vision and irregular astigmatism, often presenting with symptoms like blurred vision, increased light sensitivity, and frequent changes in prescription glasses. Early detection and appropriate management, including options like corneal cross-linking, Intacs, and in severe cases, corneal transplant, are crucial to slow disease progression and preserve vision.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dopamine at low doses? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increases cardiac contractility", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Causes vasoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increases blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increases renal blood flow", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increases renal blood flow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-140428.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Increases renal blood flow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Effects of Dopamine at different doses:</li><li>➤ Effects of Dopamine at different doses:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms is not amenable to growth on standard artificial culture media? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycobacterium leprae", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mycobacterium leprae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mycobacterium leprae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mycobacterium leprae is unique among these bacteria in that it cannot be cultured using standard artificial media due to its specific growth requirements and extremely slow replication rate, necessitating the use of animal models for its study.</li><li>➤ Note – Microorganism not meeting the criteria of Koch’s postulates:- (No LPG)</li><li>➤ Note – Microorganism not meeting the criteria of Koch’s postulates:- (No LPG)</li><li>➤ M. Leprae T. Pallidum N. Gonorrhea</li><li>➤ M. Leprae</li><li>➤ M. Leprae</li><li>➤ T. Pallidum</li><li>➤ T. Pallidum</li><li>➤ N. Gonorrhea</li><li>➤ N. Gonorrhea</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old G2A1 at 18 weeks of gestation came with complaints of draining PV for the past 4 hours. On examination, membranes are ruptured, and uterine contractions present. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a short cervix &lt;25 mm and funneling of internal os &gt;1 cm. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical incompetence", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abruptio placenta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Traumatic injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cervical incompetence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cervical incompetence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cervical incompetence is characterized by a short cervix (&lt;25 mm) and funneling of the internal os (&gt;1 cm) on transvaginal ultrasound, often leading to painless mid-trimester abortions.</li><li>➤ Cervical incompetence is characterized by a short cervix (&lt;25 mm) and funneling of the internal os (&gt;1 cm) on transvaginal ultrasound, often leading to painless mid-trimester abortions.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 197-198</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition page 197-198</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-year-old girl was brought to the emergency room with fever since 2 days, along with dyspnea, drooling and inspiratory stridor. Lateral X-ray neck findings were as seen below. Which is the most common organism (in India) which causes this condition in children? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemophilus influenza B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Influenza virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RSV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hemophilus influenza B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/883.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hemophilus influenza B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of acute epiglottitis, especially in regions with variable vaccination coverage, Hemophilus influenza B (Hib) should be considered the most common causative organism. Recognizing the clinical presentation and radiographic findings, such as the thumb sign on a lateral neck X-ray, is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent airway obstruction and other complications.</li><li>➤ Ref - Most recent edition of O.P. Ghai.</li><li>➤ Ref - Most recent edition of O.P. Ghai.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In PCT, the concentration of all of the following decreases except? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amino acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloride", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bicarbonate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chloride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/26/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Chloride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Concentration of the chloride increases (Relatively High Due to Less Absorption).</li><li>• Sodium potassium and water (67%) Calcium (70%) Phosphate and HCO3 (80%) Glucose and amino acid (100%) Sodium carries glucose, amino acids, and bicarbonate. This leaves behind the solute, that has a higher concentration of the chloride, since Maximum reabsorption of chloride also occurs in PCT.</li><li>• Sodium potassium and water (67%)</li><li>• Calcium (70%)</li><li>• Phosphate and HCO3 (80%)</li><li>• Glucose and amino acid (100%)</li><li>• Sodium carries glucose, amino acids, and bicarbonate.</li><li>• This leaves behind the solute, that has a higher concentration of the chloride, since Maximum reabsorption of chloride also occurs in PCT.</li><li>• Absorption and secretion in PCT</li><li>• Absorption and secretion in PCT</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Amino acid: Incorrect. The concentration of amino acids decreases as they are 100% reabsorbed in the PCT.</li><li>• Option A. Amino acid: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Glucose: Incorrect. The concentration of glucose decreases as it is 100% reabsorbed in the PCT.</li><li>• Option B. Glucose: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Bicarbonate: Incorrect. The concentration of bicarbonate decreases as 80% of it is reabsorbed in the PCT.</li><li>• Option D. Bicarbonate: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), the concentration of chloride increases relative to other solutes due to its lower rate of absorption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Splashed tomato appearance is seen in which of the following condition?( FMGE June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Branched retinal vein occlusion (BRVO)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central retinal arterial occlusion (CRAD)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Branched retinal artery occlusion (BRAO)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-102917.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is characterized by a \"splashed tomato appearance\" on fundoscopy due to massive intraretinal hemorrhages, along with engorged retinal veins, cotton wool spots, and an edematous, hyperemic optic disc. Prompt recognition and treatment are crucial to manage the underlying cause and complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents with headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness for the last month. His eyes are in a down and out position. On examination, Kernig's and Brudzinski sign is positive. CSF reveals the predominance of mononuclear cells with low glucose and forms cobweb coagulum on standing. MRI shows basal exudates with meningeal enhancement. What is the therapy of choice for this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cefepime + Vancomycin + Ampicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liposomal amphotericin B + Flucytosine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tuberculosis meningitis presents with mononuclear cells, low glucose in the CSF, and characteristic imaging findings of basal exudates and meningeal enhancement. The treatment involves a combination of anti-tubercular drugs: isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following radio-isotope is used for detection of carcinoma thyroid? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I-123", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "I-125", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "I-127", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I-141", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. I-123", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) I-123</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iodine-123 (I-123) is the preferred radioisotope for the detection and diagnostic imaging of thyroid carcinoma due to its appropriate half-life and gamma emission properties.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male patient has a complaint of a painless testicular mass. His blood sample revealed non-elevated alpha fetoprotein levels. Which of the following is the most likely because of his testicular mass? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yolk sac tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Classical seminoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Teratoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Choriocarcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Classical seminoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-329.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Classical seminoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classical seminoma is the most common testicular tumor in adults, presenting as a painless mass with normal AFP levels and positive PLAP staining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presents with a warty cutaneous growth on his foot. Histopathological image of the growth is given below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycetoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chromoblastomycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phaeohyphomycosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chromoblastomycosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture20.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-122205.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-122246.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-122328.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chromoblastomycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chromoblastomycosis is characterized by chronic verrucous cutaneous lesions with histopathological features of sclerotic bodies or \"copper penny\" bodies, typically affecting individuals with occupational exposure to soil and organic matter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the name of the pathological classification used for CA stomach? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dukes classification", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Borrmann classification", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Johnson’s classification", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sievart’s classification", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Borrmann classification", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-102423.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Borrmann classification</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Borrmann classification is used to categorize gastric carcinomas based on their macroscopic appearance observed during endoscopy, which is crucial for diagnosis and treatment planning in stomach cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following sequences is shown in the image below?(FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T1 MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T2 MRI", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "STIR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SWI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. T2 MRI", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_RzFxB9I.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_KAl5X8x.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/18/screenshot-2024-05-18-100201.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. T2 MRI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The MRI shows CSF as hyperintense , hence this is a T2 weighted MRI image</li><li>• CSF as hyperintense</li><li>• T2 weighted MRI</li><li>• (WW2 - Water is white on T2)</li><li>• (WW2 - Water is white on T2)</li><li>• In T2 imaging, fluids such as CSF appear white, which is a key feature for identifying this type of sequence.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. A. T1-weighted MRI :</li><li>• Option. A. T1-weighted MRI</li><li>• Fluids like CSF are hypointense (dark). Fat appears hyperintense (bright). White matter appears brighter than gray matter.</li><li>• Fluids like CSF are hypointense (dark).</li><li>• Fat appears hyperintense (bright).</li><li>• White matter appears brighter than gray matter.</li><li>• Option. C. STIR (Short TI Inversion Recovery) :</li><li>• Option. C. STIR (Short TI Inversion Recovery)</li><li>• Fluids are still bright, but fat signals are suppressed.</li><li>• Fluids are still bright, but fat signals are suppressed.</li><li>• Option. D. SWI (Susceptibility Weighted Imaging) :</li><li>• Option. D. SWI (Susceptibility Weighted Imaging)</li><li>• Used to highlight blood, iron, and calcium deposits; fluids do not specifically appear hyperintense as they do in T2 sequences.</li><li>• Used to highlight blood, iron, and calcium deposits; fluids do not specifically appear hyperintense as they do in T2 sequences.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the structure marked in the image below? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Genioglossus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyoglossus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Styloglossus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Palatoglossus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Genioglossus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-01.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-310_WR29gEa.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Genioglossus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Genioglossus muscle is a critical component for tongue mobility, playing a significant role in tasks such as speaking, swallowing, and breathing by enabling the tongue to protrude and change shape effectively. Its adequate functioning is essential for normal oral and respiratory functions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a national vaccination campaign in Himachal Pradesh, a health worker inadvertently left two vaccine vials uncapped after the session: one containing Measles-Rubella (MR) and the other, Pentavalent vaccine. Concerned about potential contamination, the supervising health officer needs to decide which vial to discard based on their stability and safety guidelines. What is the appropriate action? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Discard MR, use pentavalent", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Discard Pentavalent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Discard both MR &amp; Pentavalent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MR can be used, discard Pentavalent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Discard MR, use pentavalent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Discard MR, use pentavalent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Open Vial Policy 2015</li><li>➤ Open Vial Policy 2015</li><li>➤ Applicable for Vaccines: OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B, TT, Liquid Pentavalent Not applicable for Vaccines: Measles, BCG, JE Opened vaccine vials can be used in subsequent session ‘UP TO 4 WEEKS’ Expiry date should not pass, VVM within usability limits, Cold chain maintenance Vaccine vial septum not submerged in water or contaminated, Aseptic technique used to withdraw doses Record date and time of each vial opening At end of session return all open vials to Cold chain: Reusable open vials: DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent Non-reusable open vials: Measles, BCG, JE (Destroy after 48 hours or Next session whichever earlier) If any AEFI reported: Store all vials in Cold chain till completion of investigation</li><li>➤ Applicable for Vaccines: OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B, TT, Liquid Pentavalent</li><li>➤ Not applicable for Vaccines: Measles, BCG, JE</li><li>➤ Opened vaccine vials can be used in subsequent session ‘UP TO 4 WEEKS’</li><li>➤ Expiry date should not pass, VVM within usability limits, Cold chain maintenance</li><li>➤ Vaccine vial septum not submerged in water or contaminated, Aseptic technique used to withdraw doses</li><li>➤ Record date and time of each vial opening</li><li>➤ At end of session return all open vials to Cold chain: Reusable open vials: DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent Non-reusable open vials: Measles, BCG, JE (Destroy after 48 hours or Next session whichever earlier) If any AEFI reported: Store all vials in Cold chain till completion of investigation</li><li>➤ Reusable open vials: DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent Non-reusable open vials: Measles, BCG, JE (Destroy after 48 hours or Next session whichever earlier) If any AEFI reported: Store all vials in Cold chain till completion of investigation</li><li>➤ Reusable open vials: DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent</li><li>➤ Non-reusable open vials: Measles, BCG, JE (Destroy after 48 hours or Next session whichever earlier)</li><li>➤ If any AEFI reported: Store all vials in Cold chain till completion of investigation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "2 open vials of pentavalent vaccine and one open vial of MMR vaccine is given back after an immunization session. What should be done with those vials? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both should be discarded", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pentavalent can be used and MMR must be discarded", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "MMR can be used and Pentavalent should be discarded", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both vials can be reused", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pentavalent can be used and MMR must be discarded", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pentavalent can be used and MMR must be discarded</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Open Vial Policy allows for the reuse of certain vaccines like the pentavalent vaccine if stored correctly, but vaccines such as MMR must be discarded after an immunization session.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute vision loss and painful eye movements in one eye. Upon examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is noted in the affected eye, while the optic disk appears normal. Visual field testing reveals a central scotoma in the same eye. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?( FMGE June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic nerve glioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic neuritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eale's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neuroretinitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Optic neuritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-102505.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Optic neuritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Optic neuritis is characterized by acute vision loss, painful eye movements, a relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma with a normal-appearing optic disc. It is strongly associated with demyelinating diseases such as multiple sclerosis.</li><li>➤ Causes of Central/ Centrocaecal scotoma</li><li>➤ Causes of Central/ Centrocaecal scotoma</li><li>➤ Optic neuritis Compressive lesion e.g., Pituitary adenoma Optic neuropathy due to</li><li>➤ Optic neuritis</li><li>➤ Compressive lesion e.g., Pituitary adenoma</li><li>➤ Optic neuropathy due to</li><li>➤ Poor nutrition Tobacco Alcohol Drug-induced optic neuropathy Toxin-induced optic neuropathy Hereditary optic atrophy Sarcoidosis Leukemia</li><li>➤ Poor nutrition</li><li>➤ Tobacco Alcohol</li><li>➤ Drug-induced optic neuropathy</li><li>➤ Toxin-induced optic neuropathy</li><li>➤ Hereditary optic atrophy</li><li>➤ Sarcoidosis</li><li>➤ Leukemia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following hormones regulate serum calcium levels? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcitonin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parathormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vit D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-121911.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. All the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• All of these hormones—Calcitonin, Parathormone (PTH), and Vitamin D—regulate serum calcium levels.</li><li>• Option A. Calcitonin: Calcitonin decreases serum calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. It also decreases serum phosphate (PO43-) levels.</li><li>• Option A. Calcitonin:</li><li>• Option B. Parathormone: Parathormone (PTH) increases serum calcium levels by stimulating bone resorption and decreases serum phosphate levels.</li><li>• Option B. Parathormone:</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D: Vitamin D increases serum calcium and phosphate levels by promoting bone calcification and enhancing intestinal absorption of calcium.</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presents with a swollen foot and multiple sinuses as shown in the below image. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycetoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nocardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mycetoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture19.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-121447.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-121520.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-121531.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mycetoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mycetoma, also known as \"Madura foot,\" is a chronic infectious disease causing progressive swelling, multiple sinuses, and deformity, predominantly affecting tropical and subtropical regions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presents to the emergency department with pinpoint pupil, diarrhea, sweating, excessive lacrimation, salivation and garlic odor. On examination there is bradycardia, BP is 80/60 mm Hg, pulse rate is 56/min and his plasma cholinesterase level was 52 U/mL. Which of the following is antidote for treatment of this patient? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flumazenil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "N-acetylcysteine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atropine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Atropine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For cases of organophosphate poisoning, Atropine is the primary antidote due to its ability to block the muscarinic effects of acetylcholine. Prompt administration and proper dosing are critical to reverse the life-threatening cholinergic symptoms effectively. Additionally, Pralidoxime may also be administered alongside Atropine to reactivate cholinesterase and further improve recovery in organophosphate poisoning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is an SNRI? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoxetine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venlafaxine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Escitalopram", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amitriptyline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Venlafaxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Venlafaxine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs) act by inhibiting reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, unlike SSRIs that primarily affect serotonin reuptake. Drugs in this category include venlafaxine, desvenlafaxine, duloxetine, milnacipram and levomilnacipram.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 632-635.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old immunized child presented with 'thumb sign' on X-Ray. Which organism is most commonly responsible? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "H. influenza", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parainfluenza virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Influenza virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Streptococcus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Streptococcus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute epiglottitis in immunized children is most commonly caused by Streptococcus species, with the 'thumb sign' on X-ray being a classic diagnostic feature. Immediate airway management is critical.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child presented with recurrent episodes of diarrhea and abdominal distension. On examination, he was found to have anemia, short stature and failure to thrive. An upper Gl endoscopy along with duodenal biopsy revealed villous atrophy. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intestinal lymphangiectasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Celiac Disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hirschsprung Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inflammatory bowel disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Celiac Disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/897.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Celiac disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac Disease is characterized by an immune response to gluten leading to villous atrophy, diagnosed through clinical findings, serologic testing, and biopsy, with the primary treatment being a strict gluten-free diet.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition, Chapter 387- Page No 8386.</li><li>➤ Ref - Nelson 21 st Edition, Chapter 387- Page No 8386.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child presented to emergency following sudden fall at school. His pH was 7.2, PaCO2 was 64, HCO3 was 26, pO2 was 44. The most likely diagnosis is: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salicylate poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory failure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Respiratory failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture178.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Respiratory failure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The findings of pH 7.2, elevated PaCO2, and low pO2 are indicative of respiratory acidosis, pointing towards a diagnosis of respiratory failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-year-old woman came to the hospital with a breast condition as shown in the picture below. What is the T- staging of the cancer? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T4a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T4b", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "T4c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T4d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. T4b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/26.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-110843.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) T4b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Peau d'orange appearance in breast cancer is indicative of T4b stage, which involves skin changes such as ulceration, satellite skin nodules, or edema including Peau d'orange.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man presents with distal leg weakness, reduced muscle stretch reflexes, with no complaints of tingling or numbness. On examination, there is atrophy of the muscles below the knee. The following clinical findings are seen and similar history is seen in elder brother. The most probable diagnosis is: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Refsum's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuropathy associated with Sjogren's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-164852.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is a hereditary neuropathy characterized by distal muscle weakness and atrophy, reduced reflexes, and a characteristic \"inverted champagne bottle\" appearance of the legs. It often has a familial occurrence and can present with minimal sensory symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the statements provided, which one is incorrect regarding the procedure performed using the instrument shown in the image?( FMGE June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A condensing lens is not required", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is used very close to the patient's eye as possible", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A real, inverted image is seen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Magnification is about 15 times", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A real, inverted image is seen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-103524.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-103617.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-103659.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A real, inverted image is seen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The direct ophthalmoscope produces a virtual erect image, not a real inverted image, with about 15 times magnification.</li><li>➤ Difference between Direct and Indirect Ophthalmoscope</li><li>➤ Difference between Direct and Indirect Ophthalmoscope</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is infected with a negative sense RNA virus which also contains neuraminidase receptors. What is the causative organism? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory syncytial virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Influenza virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parainfluenza virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Newcastle disease virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Influenza virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Influenza virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Influenza virus is a negative-sense RNA virus that contains neuraminidase receptors, which play a key role in the release of newly formed viral particles from infected cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following statements is false regarding the instrument/procedure? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is used for termination of pregnancy up to 12 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Can be done on an OP basis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The capacity of the syringe is 30 ml", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It creates a negative pressure of 660 mm Hg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The capacity of the syringe is 30 ml", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/1000.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The capacity of the syringe is 30 ml</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The instrument shown in the image is a Manual Vacuum Aspiration (MVA) syringe. The correct capacity of the MVA syringe is 60 ml, not 30 ml. This device is used for the termination of pregnancy up to 12 weeks or for early pregnancy failures. The procedure can be performed on an outpatient basis (OP basis) and is often used in low-resource settings. The MVA syringe creates a negative pressure of 660 mm Hg to aspirate the products of conception. This procedure is similar to other surgical methods but the complications may be less severe.</li><li>• The instrument shown in the image is a Manual Vacuum Aspiration (MVA) syringe.</li><li>• The correct capacity of the MVA syringe is 60 ml, not 30 ml.</li><li>• This device is used for the termination of pregnancy up to 12 weeks or for early pregnancy failures.</li><li>• The procedure can be performed on an outpatient basis (OP basis) and is often used in low-resource settings.</li><li>• The MVA syringe creates a negative pressure of 660 mm Hg to aspirate the products of conception.</li><li>• This procedure is similar to other surgical methods but the complications may be less severe.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. It is used for termination of pregnancy up to 12 weeks : The MVA syringe is indeed used for the termination of pregnancy up to 12 weeks, making this statement true.</li><li>• Option A. It is used for termination of pregnancy up to 12 weeks</li><li>• Option B. Can be done on an OP basis : The procedure can be performed on an outpatient basis, which is true.</li><li>• Option B. Can be done on an OP basis</li><li>• Option D. It creates a negative pressure of 660 mm Hg : The MVA syringe creates a negative pressure of 660 mm Hg, which is true.</li><li>• Option D. It creates a negative pressure of 660 mm Hg</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Manual Vacuum Aspiration (MVA) syringe used for termination of pregnancy has a capacity of 60 ml, not 30 ml, and creates a negative pressure of 6</li><li>➤ The Manual Vacuum Aspiration (MVA) syringe used for termination of pregnancy has a capacity of 60 ml, not 30 ml, and creates a negative pressure of 6</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition pg 646</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition pg 646</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neonate is brought to the clinic due to complaints of increased sensitivity to light (photophobia) and excessive tearing. Upon clinical examination, the tear passages appear normal, and the cornea is clear but larger than usual. The image of the eye reveals the presence of Haab's striae. What is the most likely diagnosis?( FMGE June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Buphthalmos", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Keratoconus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trachoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Keratoglobus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Buphthalmos", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/whatsapp-image-2024-07-03-at-53115-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Buphthalmos</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Buphthalmos is characterized by photophobia, excessive tearing, an enlarged cornea, and the presence of Haab's striae, which are indicative of congenital glaucoma. Early diagnosis and management are essential to prevent vision loss and other complications associated with increased intraocular pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with the following clinical findings in ophthalmology department. The consultant asked you the diagnosis while hinting to you that it was also known as ‘the warm weather conjunctivitis’. What will be your answer? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trachoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vernal keratoconjunctivitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phlyctenular conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Xerophthalmia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/picture9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-102739.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vernal keratoconjunctivitis (VKC) is characterized by seasonal occurrence in warm weather, cobblestone papillae on the upper tarsal conjunctiva, ropy discharge, and Horner-Trantas spots. It primarily affects boys around the age of 5 and involves both type 1 and type 4 hypersensitivity reactions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged lady presents with weight gain, constipation, hoarseness of voice and lethargy. On examination, she is found to be having anti TPO antibodies. What is the likely diagnosis in her? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Riedel’s thyroiditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Graves’ disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hashimoto thyroiditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "De quervain thyroiditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hashimoto thyroiditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-125300.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hashimoto thyroiditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the presence of anti TPO antibodies, leading to hypothyroidism with symptoms such as weight gain, constipation, hoarseness of voice, and lethargy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old college student presents with small depigmented lesions which have been there for over 2 years now as shown in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitiligo", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitiligo", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd50.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-124901.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-125022.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-125111.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-101616.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Vitiligo</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diagnose Vitiligo based on the presence of well-demarcated depigmented patches , differentiating it from other skin conditions like Melasma, Psoriasis, and Dermatitis herpetiformis which present with hyperpigmentation, scaly plaques, and vesicles, respectively.</li><li>➤ Vitiligo</li><li>➤ well-demarcated depigmented patches</li><li>➤ Melasma, Psoriasis, and Dermatitis herpetiformis</li><li>➤ hyperpigmentation, scaly plaques, and vesicles,</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Koebner or isomorphic phenomenon:</li><li>➤ Koebner or isomorphic phenomenon:</li><li>➤ It is the development of new lesions along the line of trauma in a previously normal skin. The new lesions have iso(same), morphic (morphology) as existing lesions.</li><li>➤ It is the development of new lesions along the line of trauma in a previously normal skin. The new lesions have iso(same), morphic (morphology) as existing lesions.</li><li>➤ new lesions along the line of trauma</li><li>➤ The image below shows vitiligo that exhibits the Koebner phenomenon:</li><li>➤ Strongest association of vitiligo is with Autoimmune thyroid disorders (hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism).</li><li>➤ Strongest association of vitiligo is with Autoimmune thyroid disorders</li><li>➤ Other disorders associated with vitiligo are:</li><li>➤ Other disorders associated with vitiligo are:</li><li>➤ • Pernicious anemia</li><li>➤ • Addison's disease</li><li>➤ • Diabetes type I</li><li>➤ • Myasthenia gravis</li><li>➤ • Alopecia areata</li><li>➤ • Uveitis</li><li>➤ • Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis</li><li>➤ • Autoimmune polyendocrine syndromes (types I and II)</li><li>➤ Poor prognostic factors for vitiligo:</li><li>➤ Poor prognostic factors for vitiligo:</li><li>➤ • Positive family history</li><li>➤ • Mucosal vitiligo</li><li>➤ • Lesions over bony prominences</li><li>➤ • Isomorphic Koebner's phenomenon</li><li>➤ • Non-segmental vitiligo</li><li>➤ Treatment options for vitiligo:</li><li>➤ Treatment options for vitiligo:</li><li>➤ 1. Topical agents:</li><li>➤ Topical agents:</li><li>➤ Topical corticosteroids Calcineurin inhibitors – tacrolimus Vitamin D Analogs – calcitriol</li><li>➤ Topical corticosteroids</li><li>➤ Calcineurin inhibitors – tacrolimus</li><li>➤ Vitamin D Analogs – calcitriol</li><li>➤ 2. Systemic agents:</li><li>➤ 2. Systemic agents:</li><li>➤ Corticosteroids Azathioprine</li><li>➤ Corticosteroids</li><li>➤ Azathioprine</li><li>➤ 3. Phototherapy:</li><li>➤ 3. Phototherapy:</li><li>➤ PUVA PUVASol – sunlight NBUVB - narrow band UV B radiation at 311nm Targeted phototherapy using excimer laser 308nm</li><li>➤ PUVA</li><li>➤ PUVASol – sunlight</li><li>➤ NBUVB - narrow band UV B radiation at 311nm</li><li>➤ Targeted phototherapy using excimer laser 308nm</li><li>➤ 4. Surgical treatment:</li><li>➤ 4. Surgical treatment:</li><li>➤ Ultrathin partial thickness skin grafting Non-cultured autologous melanocytic transfer Cultured autologous melanocytic transfer</li><li>➤ Ultrathin partial thickness skin grafting</li><li>➤ Non-cultured autologous melanocytic transfer</li><li>➤ Cultured autologous melanocytic transfer</li><li>➤ Indications for Surgical treatment in vitiligo:</li><li>➤ Indications for Surgical treatment in vitiligo:</li><li>➤ Patients with stable vitiligo (a period of disease inactivity ranging from six months to two years) Vitiligo patients who failed to respond to non-surgical treatment.</li><li>➤ Patients with stable vitiligo (a period of disease inactivity ranging from six months to two years)</li><li>➤ Vitiligo patients who failed to respond to non-surgical treatment.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 21.1-21.4, 70.4 and 70.5, 88.34</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-year-old patient presented in the emergency services after head trauma. On examination, he was able to open his eyes on painful stimuli, withdraws hand to pain and is shouting inappropriate words. What is the Glasgow coma score of this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E3MSV4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E1M3V3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "E2M4V3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "E2M3V2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. E2M4V3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-101422.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) E2M4V3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of E2M4V3 represents a moderate level of impairment and is important for assessing and monitoring patients with head trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with flaccid bullous lesions as shown in the image below involving the entire trunk and oral cavity. Acantholytic cells are seen on Tzanck smear. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pemphigus foliaceus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bullous pemphigoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pemphigus vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-172639.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pemphigus vulgaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris presents with flaccid bullae and erosions involving the skin and mucous membranes. The presence of acantholytic cells on Tzanck smear confirms the diagnosis. Recognizing these key features is crucial for differentiating it from other blistering disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is major surfactant producing cell in lungs? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 pneumocyte", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alveolar macrophage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Basal cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 2 pneumocyte", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Type 2 pneumocyte", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/05/untitled-215.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Type 2 pneumocyte</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Type 2 pneumocytes secrete surfactant in the lungs. These alveolar cells are responsible for producing and secreting pulmonary surfactant, a mixture of lipids and proteins that lines the inner surface of the alveoli. Surfactant reduces the surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli, preventing alveolar collapse during expiration. Without sufficient surfactant, conditions such as respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in premature infants and other lung diseases in adults can occur.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Type 1 pneumocyte: Incorrect. Type 1 pneumocytes are alveolar cells that line the alveolar surface and are primarily involved in gas exchange.</li><li>• Option A. Type 1 pneumocyte: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Alveolar macrophage: Incorrect. Alveolar macrophages are involved in local immunity within the lungs, not in surfactant production.</li><li>• Option B. Alveolar macrophage: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Basal cell: Incorrect. Basal cells act as stem cells, helping in cell differentiation, but they do not produce surfactant.</li><li>• Option C. Basal cell: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type 2 pneumocytes are the major surfactant-producing cells in the lungs, essential for reducing surface tension in the alveoli and preventing their collapse during expiration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly male developed the symptoms of dementia and was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Levels of which of the following neurotransmitters are reduced in this disease? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dopamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acetylcholine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acetylcholine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Acetylcholine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary neurotransmitter deficit in Alzheimer's disease is acetylcholine, which is crucial for memory formation and cognitive function. Understanding this helps in comprehending the rationale behind the use of cholinesterase inhibitors, a common class of drugs used in Alzheimer's treatment, which work by blocking the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby enhancing cholinergic transmission in the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs used in the emergency management of asthma does not act by bronchodilation? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Salbutamol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ipratropium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deriphylline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrocortisone", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hydrocortisone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hydrocortisone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the emergency management of asthma, while most treatments focus on bronchodilation to relieve symptoms, Hydrocortisone is used primarily for its anti-inflammatory properties. Understanding the different mechanisms of these drugs is crucial for optimizing acute asthma management and ensuring effective relief from an asthma attack.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with abdominal pain, vomiting and distension. An erect Abdominal X-ray as given in the image below. Identify the bowel which is obstructed?( FMGE 2021 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jejunum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ileum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transverse colon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Jejunum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_174.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/18/screenshot-2024-05-18-100001.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Jejunum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rule: 3-6-9</li><li>➤ Rule: 3-6-9</li><li>➤ 3 cm dilated bowel loops: Small bowel obstruction 6 cm dilated bowel loops: Large bowel obstruction 9 cm: Cecal obstruction</li><li>➤ 3 cm dilated bowel loops: Small bowel obstruction</li><li>➤ 3 cm</li><li>➤ Small bowel obstruction</li><li>➤ 6 cm dilated bowel loops: Large bowel obstruction</li><li>➤ 6 cm</li><li>➤ Large bowel obstruction</li><li>➤ 9 cm: Cecal obstruction</li><li>➤ 9 cm:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old patient presented with chronic projectile vomiting and weight loss. What is the expected metabolic abnormality to be seen here? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hyponatremia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hypernatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hypercalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic acidosis with hyponatremia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hyponatremia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hyponatremia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic vomiting leads to hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hyponatremia. The treatment involves replacing the lost electrolytes, particularly chloride, which is often achieved with normal saline.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug of choice for the treatment of digoxin induced ventricular arrhythmias is? (Fmge June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lidocaine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lidocaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Lidocaine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For ventricular arrhythmias caused by digoxin toxicity, Lidocaine is preferred due to its effective suppression of abnormal ventricular rhythms without adversely impacting AV nodal conduction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man who has worked for many years in the dye industry, dealing with aniline, visits the hospital with bladder issues. Considering his occupational exposure, what is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transitional cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Transitional cell carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Transitional cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aniline exposure is carcinogenic to bladder and most common cancer it can cause is Transitional cell carcinoma</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Carcinoma Bladder in Occupational Exposures</li><li>➤ Carcinoma Bladder in Occupational Exposures</li><li>➤ Cancer bladder was first noted in man in Aniline industry in 1895 Possible bladder carcinogens: Beta-napthylamines Benzidine Paraamino-diphenyl Auramine Magenta Certain drugs: Cyclophosphamide, Phenacetin Industries associated with cancer bladder Dye-stuffs and dyeing industry Rubber, gas and electric cable industry Most common symptom: Blood in the urine (haematuria) Most common type: Transitional Cell (urothelial cell) carcinoma (TCC) [90%] Immunotherapy in the form of ‘Intravesical (pharmacotherapeutic) BCG instillation’ is also used to treat and prevent the recurrence of superficial tumors</li><li>➤ Cancer bladder was first noted in man in Aniline industry in 1895</li><li>➤ Possible bladder carcinogens: Beta-napthylamines Benzidine Paraamino-diphenyl Auramine Magenta Certain drugs: Cyclophosphamide, Phenacetin</li><li>➤ Beta-napthylamines Benzidine Paraamino-diphenyl Auramine Magenta Certain drugs: Cyclophosphamide, Phenacetin</li><li>➤ Beta-napthylamines</li><li>➤ Benzidine</li><li>➤ Paraamino-diphenyl</li><li>➤ Auramine</li><li>➤ Magenta</li><li>➤ Certain drugs: Cyclophosphamide, Phenacetin</li><li>➤ Industries associated with cancer bladder Dye-stuffs and dyeing industry Rubber, gas and electric cable industry</li><li>➤ Dye-stuffs and dyeing industry Rubber, gas and electric cable industry</li><li>➤ Dye-stuffs and dyeing industry</li><li>➤ Rubber, gas and electric cable industry</li><li>➤ Most common symptom: Blood in the urine (haematuria)</li><li>➤ Most common type: Transitional Cell (urothelial cell) carcinoma (TCC) [90%]</li><li>➤ Immunotherapy in the form of ‘Intravesical (pharmacotherapeutic) BCG instillation’ is also used to treat and prevent the recurrence of superficial tumors</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the outpatient department, a child is presented with symptoms of fever, severe pain, and swelling of the left eye. The child had sustained a dog bite over the eye a few days ago. Upon examination, mild proptosis (forward displacement of the eye) is observed along with restricted ocular movements. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?( FMGE June 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbital cellulitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endophthalmitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Panophthalmitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preseptal cellulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Orbital cellulitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-102843.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Orbital cellulitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orbital cellulitis presents with fever, severe pain, eyelid swelling, proptosis, and restricted ocular movements. It commonly follows an infection or trauma and requires prompt medical intervention to prevent complications such as vision loss or intracranial spread.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with hypoglycemia was found to have burnt sugar urine odor. Which enzyme is deficient in this child? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Branched chain alpha keto acid dehydrogenase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homogentisic acid oxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucose 6 phosphatase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Branched chain alpha keto acid dehydrogenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture180.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) is identified by a burnt sugar odor in the urine and is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme branched chain alpha keto acid dehydrogenase. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent neurological damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman presents for an antenatal check-up and is currently on lithium for her bipolar disorder. This drug must be stopped, due to the risk of development of which of the following conditions in the fetus? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ebstein anomaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "VACTERAL defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coarctation of aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supravalvular aortic stenosis.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ebstein anomaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/872.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ebstein anomaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prenatal exposure to lithium can lead to Ebstein's anomaly, characterized by the downward displacement of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, resulting in significant cardiac defects and requiring prompt medical management at birth.</li><li>➤ Ref - OP Ghai 9 th Edition. Page No- 420-423.</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ OP Ghai 9 th Edition. Page No- 420-423.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The main cause of death in Judicial hanging is? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brain hypoxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cervical vertebral fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vagal inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cervical vertebral fracture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/93.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cervical vertebral fracture</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an infant, which of the following milestones is achieved the earliest? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immature pincer grasp", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mature pincer grasp", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radial palmar grasp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ulnar palmar grasp", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ulnar palmar grasp", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/26/screenshot-2024-09-26-170917.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ulnar palmar grasp</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ulnar palmar grasp is one of the earliest fine motor skills developed by infants, usually around 6 months of age, highlighting the progression of motor skills from gross to more refined movements.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old presented with vomiting and severe pain in epigastrium which is radiating to back. On examination a bluish discoloration is seen on the abdomen as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute cholecystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Strangulated paraumbilical hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute pancreatitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/16.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acute pancreatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cullen’s sign is a key indicator of retroperitoneal hemorrhage often associated with acute pancreatitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 59 years old chronic alcoholic presents to casualty history of sharp central abdominal pain and vomiting since 12 hours, which is aggravated by lying down. Pulse is 132/min, BP 118/82 mmHg, temperature is 38.3 degree Celsius. On examination he has mild jaundice. There is periumbilical and flank discoloration as shown in the image and minimum tenderness in epigastrium. What is the diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyelonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute viral hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perforated duodenal ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute pancreatitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-517.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Acute pancreatitis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the GCS of a patient with a head injury who opens her eyes in response to a loud voice, localizes pain, and is confused and disoriented? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E3M5V4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "E3M6V5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "E4M4V5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "E3M5V5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. E3M5V4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-132216.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) E3M5V4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The GCS is a useful tool for assessing the level of consciousness in head injury patients. Understanding and correctly applying the scoring criteria is crucial for accurate assessment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The arterial blood gas findings of a patient are pH = 7.27, pCO2 = 28, HCO3 = 13. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-164642.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ABG results indicate metabolic acidosis (low pH and HCO3) with respiratory compensation (low pCO2).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the deformity depicted in the image: (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Swan neck deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Boutonnière deformity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Z line deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trigger finger", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Boutonnière deformity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/28/screenshot-2024-09-28-092738.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Boutonnière deformity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Boutonnière deformity is characterized by flexion at the PIP joint and extension at the DIP joint, commonly seen in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and traumatic injuries to the extensor tendons.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause of consumptive coagulopathy in obstetrics? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intrauterine death", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amniotic fluid embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sepsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Placental abruption", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Placental abruption", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Placental abruption</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Placental abruption: In obstetrics, placental abruption is the most frequent factor in severe consumptive coagulopathy. It occurs due to the release of thromboplastin, which triggers the coagulation cascade, leading to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC is a pathological disturbance of hemostasis that results in widespread clotting and subsequent bleeding due to the consumption of clotting factors.</li><li>• Placental abruption: In obstetrics, placental abruption is the most frequent factor in severe consumptive coagulopathy. It occurs due to the release of thromboplastin, which triggers the coagulation cascade, leading to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC is a pathological disturbance of hemostasis that results in widespread clotting and subsequent bleeding due to the consumption of clotting factors.</li><li>• Placental abruption:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Intrauterine death (IUFD) : Intrauterine death can lead to consumptive coagulopathy, particularly if the fetal demise goes unrecognized for an extended period, resulting in the release of thromboplastic substances from the retained fetal tissues. However, it is not the most common cause compared to placental abruption.</li><li>• Option A. Intrauterine death (IUFD)</li><li>• Option B. Amniotic fluid embolism : Amniotic fluid embolism can cause DIC due to the entry of amniotic fluid into the maternal circulation, which contains thromboplastic material. While it is a severe and often fatal condition, it is less common than placental abruption as a cause of DIC.</li><li>• Option B. Amniotic fluid embolism</li><li>• Option C. Sepsis : Sepsis can lead to DIC due to the systemic inflammatory response and the release of pro-coagulant factors. However, in the context of obstetrics, sepsis is not as common a cause of DIC as placental abruption.</li><li>• Option C. Sepsis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placental abruption is the most common cause of consumptive coagulopathy (DIC) in obstetrics due to the release of thromboplastin from the abrupted placenta.</li><li>➤ Placental abruption is the most common cause of consumptive coagulopathy (DIC) in obstetrics due to the release of thromboplastin from the abrupted placenta.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page712</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Page712</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child admitted with iron overload. Which of the following is iron chelator used in the treatment? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desferrioxamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "BAL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Desferrioxamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/screenshot-2023-12-20-130038.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Desferrioxamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Dinesh Puri 3rd ed pg. 364</li><li>➤ Ref: Dinesh Puri 3rd ed pg. 364</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the gynecology OPD with complaints of foul-smelling frothy vaginal discharge and intense itching. On examination, the cervix appeared strawberry-like. Which of the following statements is false regarding the causative organism? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It exists in trophozoite form only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is an obligate parasite", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The gold standard for diagnosis is culture on CPLM or PEM", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The treatment of choice is metronidazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The gold standard for diagnosis is culture on CPLM or PEM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The gold standard for diagnosis is culture on CPLM or PEM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichomonas vaginalis exists only in the trophozoite form and is an obligate parasite. The gold standard for diagnosis is nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs). The treatment of choice is metronidazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following radioisotopes is used in a PET-CT scan?(FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gallium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "18F-FDG", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iodine 131", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tc 99", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 18F-FDG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_177.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 18F-FDG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 18F-FDG is the radiotracer of choice in PET-CT scanning to evaluate metabolic activity and is key in oncology for identifying and monitoring malignant cells due to their increased glucose uptake relative to normal cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rajan reviews the dental examination of a 50-year-old man from Andhra Pradesh, who exhibits distinct dental lesions. He uses this case to help students make a diagnosis by connecting the patient's regional background to the dental findings. What condition is most likely responsible for the observed dental lesions? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plumbism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lathyrism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Selenosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fluorosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/picture10.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Fluorosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dental Fluorosis is characterized by changes in dental enamel that occur due to excessive fluoride intake during tooth development. Recognizing the signs of fluorosis is important for diagnosing and preventing further fluoride exposure, especially in regions known for high fluoride levels in drinking water.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man, recently arrived from an international trip, presents with a mild fever at a medical screening facility. Given the need for accurate and timely identification of viral infections, especially in travelers from regions with known disease outbreaks, which diagnostic test is most appropriate for detecting viral RNA? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CBNAAT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dimer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Real time RT- PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CRP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Real time RT- PCR", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/19/fmge-psm-june-aug-2020-30.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Real time RT- PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In scenarios requiring the identification of viral infections in symptomatic individuals, especially in the context of potential exposure during international travel, Real-Time RT-PCR remains the gold standard due to its accuracy and rapid processing time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old patient with a high fever and a cough productive of rust-colored sputum presents to the clinic. A chest X-ray shows a lobar consolidation, and a sputum sample is taken for Gram staining and culture. The laboratory technician performs a Quellung reaction on the sputum sample, which comes back positive. Which organism is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhoeae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Streptococcus pneumoniae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/03/09/07.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Streptococcus pneumoniae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae does not commonly cause pneumonia and is not detected by the Quellung reaction.</li><li>• Option B:</li><li>• Neisseria gonorrhoeae</li><li>• not commonly cause pneumonia</li><li>• Option C: Streptococcus pyogenes can cause pharyngitis and other diseases but is not associated with the Quellung reaction, which is specific for encapsulated organisms like S. pneumoniae.</li><li>• Option C:</li><li>• Streptococcus pyogenes</li><li>• cause pharyngitis</li><li>• Option D: Staphylococcus aureus can cause pneumonia , typically after influenza, but is not detected using the Quellung reaction.</li><li>• Option D:</li><li>• Staphylococcus aureus</li><li>• cause pneumonia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Quellung reaction is used to detect the presence of the polysaccharide capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae , which is an important pathogen in community-acquired pneumonia with characteristic rust-colored sputum.</li><li>➤ Quellung reaction</li><li>➤ detect the presence of the polysaccharide capsule</li><li>➤ Streptococcus pneumoniae</li><li>➤ important pathogen</li><li>➤ community-acquired pneumonia</li><li>➤ rust-colored sputum.</li><li>➤ Ref: Apurba Sastry’s Essentials of Med. Microbiology 2/e p241</li><li>➤ Ref: Apurba Sastry’s Essentials of Med. Microbiology 2/e p241</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which virus is responsible for causing Orchitis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adeno virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polio virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mumps virus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mumps virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-503.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Mumps virus</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to hospital with road traffic accident. The patient has raised ICP without intracranial hematoma. Which of the following is the preferred drug for the management of this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mannitol ", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prednisone ", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycerol ", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mannitol ", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Mannitol</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was given halothane for general anesthesia. He developed rigidity, and hyperthermia. These symptoms are most likely due to which ion?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na+ ", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ca2+ ", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "K+ ", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CI-", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ca2+ ", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ca2+</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of COVID- 19 requires oxygen therapy. Which of the following cylinder should be used to provide oxygen to this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 283 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 243</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Fmge June 2022 2022 06 04 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 243</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 243 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Which phase of the menstrual cycle features vacuolation as a histological feature? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Secretory phase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proliferative phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Menstrual phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Secretory phase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Secretory phase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Secretory phase: Subnuclear vacuolation is a histological feature of the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. In this phase, the endometrial glands increase in size, become tortuous and corkscrew-shaped, and exhibit subnuclear vacuolation in the columnar epithelial cells. There is marked spiraling of blood vessels, and stromal cells become swollen and polyhedral. The endometrial thickness reaches 6-8 mm due to the changes brought about by progesterone.</li><li>• Secretory phase: Subnuclear vacuolation is a histological feature of the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. In this phase, the endometrial glands increase in size, become tortuous and corkscrew-shaped, and exhibit subnuclear vacuolation in the columnar epithelial cells. There is marked spiraling of blood vessels, and stromal cells become swollen and polyhedral. The endometrial thickness reaches 6-8 mm due to the changes brought about by progesterone.</li><li>• Secretory phase:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Proliferative phase: The proliferative phase extends from the 5th-6th day to the 14th day till ovulation. The epithelium becomes columnar, stromal cells become spindle-shaped, and glands become tubular and perpendicular to the surface. However, vacuolation is not a characteristic histological feature of this phase.</li><li>• Option B. Proliferative phase:</li><li>• Option C. Menstrual phase: The menstrual phase is characterized by the shedding of the endometrium due to the fall in estrogen and progesterone levels following the regression of the corpus luteum. It does not feature vacuolation as a histological characteristic.</li><li>• Option C. Menstrual phase:</li><li>• Endometrial cycle phases: Regenerative phase: Begins even before menstruation stops and is completed 2-3 days after the end of menses. Glands and stroma are regenerated from the remnants in the basal zone. Proliferative phase: Extends from the 5th-6th day to the 14th day till ovulation. The epithelium becomes columnar, and stromal cells become spindle-shaped. Glands become tubular and perpendicular to the surface. Secretory phase: Characterized by changes due to progesterone, including glandular enlargement, tortuosity, corkscrew shape, and subnuclear vacuolation. The stromal cells become swollen and polyhedral, and the endometrial thickness reaches 6-8 mm. Menstrual phase: Involves the shedding of the endometrium due to decreased estrogen and progesterone levels.</li><li>• Endometrial cycle phases: Regenerative phase: Begins even before menstruation stops and is completed 2-3 days after the end of menses. Glands and stroma are regenerated from the remnants in the basal zone. Proliferative phase: Extends from the 5th-6th day to the 14th day till ovulation. The epithelium becomes columnar, and stromal cells become spindle-shaped. Glands become tubular and perpendicular to the surface. Secretory phase: Characterized by changes due to progesterone, including glandular enlargement, tortuosity, corkscrew shape, and subnuclear vacuolation. The stromal cells become swollen and polyhedral, and the endometrial thickness reaches 6-8 mm. Menstrual phase: Involves the shedding of the endometrium due to decreased estrogen and progesterone levels.</li><li>• Endometrial cycle phases:</li><li>• Regenerative phase: Begins even before menstruation stops and is completed 2-3 days after the end of menses. Glands and stroma are regenerated from the remnants in the basal zone. Proliferative phase: Extends from the 5th-6th day to the 14th day till ovulation. The epithelium becomes columnar, and stromal cells become spindle-shaped. Glands become tubular and perpendicular to the surface. Secretory phase: Characterized by changes due to progesterone, including glandular enlargement, tortuosity, corkscrew shape, and subnuclear vacuolation. The stromal cells become swollen and polyhedral, and the endometrial thickness reaches 6-8 mm. Menstrual phase: Involves the shedding of the endometrium due to decreased estrogen and progesterone levels.</li><li>• Regenerative phase: Begins even before menstruation stops and is completed 2-3 days after the end of menses. Glands and stroma are regenerated from the remnants in the basal zone.</li><li>• Regenerative phase:</li><li>• Proliferative phase: Extends from the 5th-6th day to the 14th day till ovulation. The epithelium becomes columnar, and stromal cells become spindle-shaped. Glands become tubular and perpendicular to the surface.</li><li>• Proliferative phase:</li><li>• Secretory phase: Characterized by changes due to progesterone, including glandular enlargement, tortuosity, corkscrew shape, and subnuclear vacuolation. The stromal cells become swollen and polyhedral, and the endometrial thickness reaches 6-8 mm.</li><li>• Secretory phase:</li><li>• Menstrual phase: Involves the shedding of the endometrium due to decreased estrogen and progesterone levels.</li><li>• Menstrual phase:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subnuclear vacuolation is a histological feature of the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle.</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 91</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 91</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the pathology in the newborn baby as shown in the image? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meningocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital mega colon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Imperforate anus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyloric stenosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Imperforate anus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-530.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Imperforate anus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An invertogram performed 6-12 hours after birth is used to diagnose anorectal malformations in newborns by measuring the distance between a gas bubble in the rectum and a coin marker on the perineum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is taking Clindamycin for a long period of time presented with diarrhea. Which of the following is causative organism for this? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CI. Botulinum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CI. Tetani", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CI. Difficile", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CI. Perfringens", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CI. Difficile", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CI. Difficile</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clostridium difficile is the primary cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea, particularly with the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like clindamycin. Prompt recognition and appropriate treatment are essential to prevent severe complications such as pseudomembranous colitis.</li><li>➤ C. Difficile-Associated Diarrhea (CDAD):</li><li>➤ C. Difficile-Associated Diarrhea (CDAD):</li><li>➤ CDAD is a significant concern in patients using antibiotics like clindamycin. If not treated in a timely manner, CDAD can lead to pseudomembranous colitis. The treatment of choice (DOC) for C. difficile infection is fidaxomicin.</li><li>➤ CDAD is a significant concern in patients using antibiotics like clindamycin.</li><li>➤ If not treated in a timely manner, CDAD can lead to pseudomembranous colitis.</li><li>➤ The treatment of choice (DOC) for C. difficile infection is fidaxomicin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy brought to OPD, born from consanguineous couple, complains of change of colour of urine. Mother gives history that she noticed a dark colour on diapers when her baby was few months old. Which enzyme deficiency is present in the given patients? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homogentisic acid dioxygenase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tyrosine aminotransferase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyruvic acid dioxygenase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Homogentisic acid dioxygenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Homogentisic acid dioxygenase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dark color diaper of child indicates deficiency of enzyme Homogentisic acid dioxygenase which is required for catabolism of tyrosine metabolite homogentisic acid, a condition known as Alkaptonuria. The urine which contain this acid turns black on exposure to air due to oxidation of this acid.</li><li>➤ Over the years, homogentisic acid gets polymerized to form alkapton bodies which gets deposited in connective tissues causing bluish-black discoloration of skin.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 296</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 296</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When does secondary post-partum hemorrhage develop? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Within 6 hours of delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Within 24 hours of delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24 hours - 12 weeks after delivery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shortly after the delivery of placenta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 24 hours - 12 weeks after delivery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 24 hours - 12 weeks after delivery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Secondary postpartum hemorrhage occurs between 24 hours and 12 weeks after delivery . Primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) occurs within 24 hours of childbirth with the most common cause being atonic PPH. Causes of secondary PPH include: Retained placenta Endometritis Placental polyp Choriocarcinoma AV malformations</li><li>• Secondary postpartum hemorrhage occurs between 24 hours and 12 weeks after delivery .</li><li>• Secondary postpartum hemorrhage</li><li>• 24 hours and 12 weeks after delivery</li><li>• Primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) occurs within 24 hours of childbirth with the most common cause being atonic PPH.</li><li>• Primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)</li><li>• 24 hours of childbirth</li><li>• Causes of secondary PPH include: Retained placenta Endometritis Placental polyp Choriocarcinoma AV malformations</li><li>• Causes of secondary PPH include:</li><li>• Retained placenta Endometritis Placental polyp Choriocarcinoma AV malformations</li><li>• Retained placenta</li><li>• Endometritis</li><li>• Placental polyp</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma</li><li>• AV malformations</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Within 6 hours of delivery : This falls within the timeframe of primary PPH, not secondary.</li><li>• Option A. Within 6 hours of delivery</li><li>• Option B. Within 24 hours of delivery : This also describes the period for primary PPH.</li><li>• Option B. Within 24 hours of delivery</li><li>• Option D. Shortly after the delivery of placenta : This timing is also associated with primary PPH.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Shortly after the delivery of placenta</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary postpartum hemorrhage develops between 24 hours and 12 weeks after delivery.</li><li>➤ Secondary postpartum hemorrhage develops between 24 hours and 12 weeks after delivery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page 483, 484</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page 483, 484</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple from a rural village in Rajasthan is expecting their first child and seeks to start regular health check-ups for the expectant mother at a nearby government health facility. What is the appropriate first point of contact for seeking medical care in their community? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary Health centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Community Health Centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subcentre", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "District hospital", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Subcentre", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/picture7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Subcentre</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a couple in a rural village, a Subcentre is the most accessible and relevant first point of care, offering essential health services and initial check-ups for pregnant women, thus ensuring early and regular monitoring throughout pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child post-tonsillectomy comes to you with complaints of snoring, palpitations, mouth breathing and a slight decrease in hearing. On examination, you notice a high arched palate. His school performance is deteriorating as well. His mother is worried. What is the next line of management for this child? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myringoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conservative management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/nasopharyngeal-carcinoma_page_3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a health survey from a diverse district near Pune, the data shows a wide range of values due to different urban and rural populations. Which measure of central tendency is most appropriate for summarizing this data given its variability? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mean", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mode", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mean deviation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Median", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Median</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The median is the best measure of central tendency for datasets with a wide range of values or outliers, as it is unaffected by extremes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the best investigation for GERD? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Upper GI endoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CECT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The investigation of choice for diagnosing GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease) is 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Researchers are monitoring two groups to assess the health impacts of an environmental factor, one exposed to the factor and the other not. They aim to compare the disease rates between these groups. Which study design is best for calculating the 'Relative Risk' or 'Risk Ratio'? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Case control", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cohort", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cross sectional", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ecological", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cohort", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cohort</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Using a cohort study enables researchers to effectively determine the effects of environmental exposures on health by tracking and comparing disease incidence over time in different groups.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Levels of D5–hydroxy Indole Acetic Acid (5-HIAA) in urine are raised: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carcinoid syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hartnup’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PKU", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alkaptonuria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carcinoid syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Carcinoid syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Elevated urinary levels of 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic Acid (5-HIAA) are indicative of carcinoid syndrome, a condition resulting from serotonin-secreting neuroendocrine tumors, and are not associated with Hartnup’s disease, Phenylketonuria (PKU), or Alkaptonuria.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 310</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 310</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young boy with fatigue is found to have a haemoglobin of &lt;9 g/di. Peripheral smear showed sickle-shaped RBs. What is the next best step in managing this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Administer IV antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood transfusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administer desferrioxamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blood transfusion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture188.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture189.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Blood transfusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood transfusion is the appropriate immediate management for a patient with sickle cell anemia presenting with significant anemia and related symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person came to emergency with snake bite 10 hours ago. He has already been given 10 vials of antivenom at local hospital. Which of the following is the next step, if patient does not recover and signs of neuro paralysis prevails? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neostigmine + Atropine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV Hydrocortisone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-coagulation therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neostigmine + Atropine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Neostigmine + Atropine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of neuroparalysis following a snake bite from neurotoxic snakes such as cobras and kraits, if antivenom is insufficient, the administration of neostigmine (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) along with atropine (to counteract muscarinic side effects) is the appropriate next step.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which can cause condyloma acuminata? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HPV 1, 6", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HPV 16, 18", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HPV 31, 33", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HPV 6, 11", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HPV 6, 11", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-145732.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. HPV 6,11</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HPV types 6 and 11 are the primary causes of condyloma acuminata (genital warts) and can also cause laryngeal warts. High-risk HPV types like 16, 18, 31, and 33 are associated with cancer and not genital warts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best drug for treatment of tobacco addiction?(FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varenicline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Naltrexone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bupropion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Varenicline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Varenicline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Varenicline is an anti-smoking agent that works by reducing the craving and withdrawal symptoms associated with tobacco use. It is a partial agonist at alpha4 beta2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors . It is started a week before the quit date.</li><li>➤ partial agonist at alpha4 beta2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry, 14th edition, Page No 505.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best method for hair removal to avoid surgical site infection? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shaving with razor night before operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depilatory cream before operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hair clippers on table", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hair clippers on table", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hair clippers on table</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best method for hair removal to avoid surgical site infection is using hair clippers immediately before the surgical procedure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with severe dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia and infertility. A diagnosis of endometriosis was made, and she was posted for laparoscopy surgery. During the procedure, dense pelvic adhesions were seen with the bowel stuck to the fundus and cystic ovaries stuck to each other. What is the next step in managing this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LUNA for chronic pelvic pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gestrinone to decrease the LH surge", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystectomy and adhesiolysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy and oophorectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cystectomy and adhesiolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cystectomy and adhesiolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical scenario describes a case of endometriosis, characterized by severe dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and infertility. During the laparoscopic surgery, the presence of dense pelvic adhesions and cystic ovaries suggests advanced endometriosis. The optimal management for this condition involves:</li><li>• Cystectomy : Surgical removal of the cysts (endometriomas) from the ovaries. Adhesiolysis : Surgical removal of the adhesions to restore the normal anatomy and improve fertility.</li><li>• Cystectomy : Surgical removal of the cysts (endometriomas) from the ovaries.</li><li>• Cystectomy</li><li>• Adhesiolysis : Surgical removal of the adhesions to restore the normal anatomy and improve fertility.</li><li>• Adhesiolysis</li><li>• For patients with endometriosis, especially those desiring future fertility, surgical management to remove endometriomas and adhesions is the preferred approach. This can help alleviate pain and improve fertility outcomes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. LUNA for chronic pelvic pain (Laparoscopic Uterine Nerve Ablation) : This procedure involves cutting the nerves to the uterus to reduce chronic pelvic pain. However, it has not been found effective in treating chronic pain associated with endometriosis.</li><li>• Option A. LUNA for chronic pelvic pain (Laparoscopic Uterine Nerve Ablation)</li><li>• Option B. Gestrinone to decrease the LH surge : This medication has antiprogesterone, antiestrogenic, and androgenic properties. It may help in reducing symptoms by decreasing the LH surge but is not a definitive treatment for severe cases with extensive adhesions and endometriomas.</li><li>• Option B. Gestrinone to decrease the LH surge</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy and oophorectomy : This is a definitive treatment for endometriosis in women who do not desire future fertility. It involves the removal of the uterus and ovaries, thus eliminating the source of endometriosis. However, it is not suitable for a young woman desiring future fertility.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy and oophorectomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of severe endometriosis with dense pelvic adhesions and cystic ovaries, the preferred surgical management involves cystectomy and adhesiolysis to alleviate symptoms and improve fertility.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 243</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 243</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the best-recommended management in a case of vault prolapse with cystocele and rectocele? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior colporrhaphy only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A &amp; B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both A & B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Both A &amp; B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vault prolapse, which involves the descent of the vaginal vault (the apex of the vagina) often accompanied by cystocele (prolapse of the bladder into the vagina) and rectocele (prolapse of the rectum into the vagina), requires a comprehensive surgical approach to repair both the anterior and posterior vaginal walls.</li><li>• Anterior colporrhaphy involves the repair of the anterior vaginal wall to correct the cystocele. Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy involves the repair of the posterior vaginal wall and perineum to correct the rectocele.</li><li>• Anterior colporrhaphy involves the repair of the anterior vaginal wall to correct the cystocele.</li><li>• Anterior colporrhaphy</li><li>• Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy involves the repair of the posterior vaginal wall and perineum to correct the rectocele.</li><li>• Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy</li><li>• This dual approach effectively addresses both components of the prolapse, providing better anatomical and functional outcomes.</li><li>• Other treatment options for vault prolapse:</li><li>• Other treatment options for vault prolapse:</li><li>• Site-specific repairs : Involves both anterior and posterior colporrhaphy. Sacrospinous fixation : Suturing the vaginal vault to the sacrospinous ligament to provide support. Abdominal or laparoscopic sacro-colpopexy : Considered the gold standard for vault prolapse, this involves attaching the vaginal vault to the sacrum using a mesh. Colpocleisis (Le Fort repair) : A procedure that closes off the vaginal canal and is usually reserved for women who are no longer sexually active.</li><li>• Site-specific repairs : Involves both anterior and posterior colporrhaphy.</li><li>• Site-specific repairs</li><li>• Sacrospinous fixation : Suturing the vaginal vault to the sacrospinous ligament to provide support.</li><li>• Sacrospinous fixation</li><li>• Abdominal or laparoscopic sacro-colpopexy : Considered the gold standard for vault prolapse, this involves attaching the vaginal vault to the sacrum using a mesh.</li><li>• Abdominal or laparoscopic sacro-colpopexy</li><li>• Colpocleisis (Le Fort repair) : A procedure that closes off the vaginal canal and is usually reserved for women who are no longer sexually active.</li><li>• Colpocleisis (Le Fort repair)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Anterior colporrhaphy only : This would address the cystocele but not the rectocele.</li><li>• Option A. Anterior colporrhaphy only</li><li>• Option B. Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy only : This would address the rectocele but not the cystocele.</li><li>• Option B. Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy only</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy : While a hysterectomy removes the uterus, it does not address the prolapse of the vaginal vault, cystocele, or rectocele. Additional repairs are still necessary.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The management of vault prolapse with cystocele and rectocele typically involves both anterior colporrhaphy and posterior colpoperineorrhaphy to effectively repair both the anterior and posterior vaginal walls.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Page 211</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Page 211</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tourist aged 45 years with a travel history to India presents with complaints of abdominal pain and multiple episodes of watery diarrhea. He reports having food at a local restaurant the previous night. Which of the following antidiarrheal agents is used in this condition? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Octreotide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifaximin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mosapride", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bismuth subscitrate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rifaximin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Rifaximin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rifaximin is the preferred antidiarrheal agent for treating Traveler’s diarrhea due to its effectiveness against non-invasive strains of E. coli, commonly responsible for this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cotton swabs are discarded in which bin? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/09/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102043.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old female patient presents with a 3-day history of fever, headache, ataxia, nausea, and vomiting. On examination neck rigidity is present and there is hip and knee flexion on passive flexion of the neck. A lumbar puncture was done and CSF findings are as shown below. (FMGE JUNE 2022) Opening pressure – Increased, Colour- Cloudy white, WBCs – 7000 PMNs predominant, Glucose 15 mg/dL, CSF/serum glucose ratio - 0.2, Protein 70 mg/dL. What is the likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial meningitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tubercular meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Viral meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fungal meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bacterial meningitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bacterial meningitis is characterized by high neutrophil count, low glucose, and elevated protein in CSF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient suffering from Bronchial asthma comes to you in hospital. All of the following drugs are used in acute exacerbation; EXCEPT: (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nebulization by salbutamol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxygen therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV Magnesium sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leukotriene antagonist", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Leukotriene antagonist", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Leukotriene antagonist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leukotriene antagonists are not typically used in the acute management of asthma exacerbations but are instead used as long-term controller medications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old female patient with diabetes arrived at the clinic with a concerning issue - a black, malodorous discharge originating from her nose. Upon examination, it was discovered that the nasal cavity contained a dark necrotic mass, which had caused erosion of both the septum and hard palate. What could be the most likely diagnosis for this condition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foreign body", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucormycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mucormycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis should be considered a medical emergency in immunocompromised patients presenting with signs of rapid, invasive sinus infection. Early diagnosis and aggressive treatment are crucial to improve survival rates in affected individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition given in the image below: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vasa previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Placenta accreta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abruptio placenta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Placenta previa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/07/5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Placenta previa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image shows placenta previa.</li><li>• The grades of placenta previa are:</li><li>• Type I (Low-lying): A major part of the placenta is attached to the upper segment and only the lower margin encroaches onto the lower segment but not up to the internal os. Type II (Marginal): The placenta reaches the margin of the internal os but does not cover it. This can be anterior or posterior Type III (Incomplete or partial central: The placenta covers the internal os partially (covers the internal os when closed but does not entirely do so when fully dilated). Type IV (Central or total): The placenta completely covers the internal os even after it is fully dilated.</li><li>• Type I (Low-lying): A major part of the placenta is attached to the upper segment and only the lower margin encroaches onto the lower segment but not up to the internal os.</li><li>• Type II (Marginal): The placenta reaches the margin of the internal os but does not cover it. This can be anterior or posterior</li><li>• Type III (Incomplete or partial central: The placenta covers the internal os partially (covers the internal os when closed but does not entirely do so when fully dilated).</li><li>• Type IV (Central or total): The placenta completely covers the internal os even after it is fully dilated.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vasa previa : Blood vessels traversing through membranes overlying the internal os in front of the presenting part may be present in a velamentous placenta. Bleeding occurring due to rupture of membranes in such a case is of fetal origin.</li><li>• Option A. Vasa previa</li><li>• Option C. Placenta accreta : It is a form of adherent placenta where placenta is directly adherent to myometrium.</li><li>• Option C. Placenta accreta</li><li>• Option D. Abruptio placenta : It refers to premature separation of a normally situated placenta.</li><li>• Option D. Abruptio placenta</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is implanted in the lower segment of the uterus, partially or completely covering the cervix, which can lead to complications such as bleeding during pregnancy and delivery.</li><li>➤ Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is implanted in the lower segment of the uterus, partially or completely covering the cervix, which can lead to complications such as bleeding during pregnancy and delivery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition page 284</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition page 284</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following shows Koebner's phenomenon, except? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitiligo", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lichen Planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Herpes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-20-193429.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some rare causes of true Koebner phenomenon are:</li><li>➤ Some rare causes of true Koebner phenomenon are:</li><li>➤ Dariers disease, hailey hailey disease, EMF erythema multiforme, Kaposi’s sarcoma &amp; lichen nitidus.</li><li>➤ Reverse Koebner phenomenon or Renbeok phenomenon :</li><li>➤ Reverse Koebner phenomenon or Renbeok phenomenon</li><li>➤ Seen in psoriasis. The area of psoriasis clears &amp; heals following injury (trauma)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 19 th edition Page no 347</li><li>↳ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 19 th edition Page no 347</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent surgical resection for a pathology in the left lung. Pre-operatively the left lung collapsed. After the surgery the lung has expanded. What can be the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Left pneumothorax", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-124908.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Left pneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A pneumothorax is characterized by the presence of a distinct pleural line and absence of bronchovascular markings, indicating a collapsed lung.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which cell responsible for cellular graft rejection? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NK cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "B cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasma cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. T cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) T cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ T cells are primarily responsible for graft rejection, particularly acute rejection, through cell-mediated immune responses against the donor organ.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old female child is brought to the OPD with cramping abdominal pain. On examination, she is found to have rashes on the back of her legs, buttocks and the extensor surface of her forearms. Laboratory analysis reveals proteinuria and microscopic hematuria. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Henoch-Schoenlein purpura", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemolytic uremic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/picture2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Henoch-Schoenlein purpura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Henoch-Schoenlein purpura is a small vessel vasculitis characterized by the clinical triad of palpable purpura, abdominal pain, and arthritis, with potential renal involvement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following incisions is cosmetically preferred for appendectomy? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gridiron", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rutherford Morrison", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lanz", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "McBurney", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lanz", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lanz</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Lanz incision is cosmetically preferred for appendectomy due to its alignment along the skin crease, resulting in a less noticeable scar compared to other traditional incisions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presented with pain and redness of the left breast. She is lactating for the last 3 months. On examination, local temperature is raised and cracked nipple is noted. Ultrasound of breast was suggestive of significant liquid collection. What should be the next line of management? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple needle aspirations", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incision and drainage", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breast support", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Incision and drainage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Incision and drainage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary treatment for a breast abscess in a lactating woman is incision and drainage, along with the use of antibiotics to manage infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child, known to be underweight and experiencing difficulty seeing in low light, presents with significant dryness in the eyes. The child's diet is primarily carbohydrate-based with minimal intake of green vegetables and meat. What is the WHO grading for the child's ocular condition related to malnutrition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-142748.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-142806.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-16%20185830.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ WHO Grading of Vitamin A Deficiency:</li><li>➤ WHO Grading of Vitamin A Deficiency:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young couple is trying for child for past 2 years. After unsuccessful trials they went for respective examinations. The investigations for female came out to be absolutely normal but male shows presence of (1) gynecomastia, (2) scanty pubic hairs, (3) atrophied testes. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obesity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Downs syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klinefelter’s syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Edward syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Klinefelter’s syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Klinefelter’s syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome (47, XXY) and leads to features such as gynecomastia, scanty pubic hair, and atrophied testes, causing male hypogonadism and infertility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to ophthalmology clinic with pain in eye. On examination and investigations, it was found to be a case of open angle glaucoma. History of the person reveals that he is also suffering from Bronchial asthma. Which of the following anti glaucoma drug should be avoided in this patient? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Timolol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apraclonidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Latanoprost", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brimonidine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Timolol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Timolol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Timolol, a non-selective beta blocker, should be avoided in patients with bronchial asthma due to the risk of precipitating bronchospasm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old girl presents with a history of low-grade fever, weight loss, abdominal pain and amenorrhea for six months. On examination, a pelvic mass is felt on the left side and signs of ascites are positive. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Submucous fibroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian malignancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genital tuberculosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Genital tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Genital tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario is suggestive of genital tuberculosis. The following features support this diagnosis:</li><li>• Amenorrhea: Genital tuberculosis can affect the menstrual cycle, often leading to amenorrhea. Palpable abdominopelvic mass:B In genital tuberculosis, the mass is typically a tubo-ovarian mass that is adherent to the omentum and adjacent structures. Fever, weight loss, and abdominal pain: These are classic systemic symptoms of tuberculosis. Ascites: The presence of ascites can be associated with advanced cases of genital tuberculosis. Low-grade fever: The presence of a classic low-grade fever helps to differentiate genital tuberculosis from other conditions listed.</li><li>• Amenorrhea: Genital tuberculosis can affect the menstrual cycle, often leading to amenorrhea.</li><li>• Amenorrhea:</li><li>• Palpable abdominopelvic mass:B In genital tuberculosis, the mass is typically a tubo-ovarian mass that is adherent to the omentum and adjacent structures.</li><li>• Palpable abdominopelvic mass:B</li><li>• Fever, weight loss, and abdominal pain: These are classic systemic symptoms of tuberculosis.</li><li>• Fever, weight loss, and abdominal pain:</li><li>• Ascites: The presence of ascites can be associated with advanced cases of genital tuberculosis.</li><li>• Ascites:</li><li>• Low-grade fever: The presence of a classic low-grade fever helps to differentiate genital tuberculosis from other conditions listed.</li><li>• Low-grade fever:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Submucous fibroid: Submucous fibroids are benign tumors of the uterus that can cause abnormal uterine bleeding and pelvic pressure but are not typically associated with systemic symptoms like fever and weight loss.</li><li>• Option A. Submucous fibroid:</li><li>• Option B. Ovarian malignancy: Ovarian malignancy can present with a pelvic mass and ascites but is less likely to be associated with low-grade fever and the classic history of tuberculosis symptoms.</li><li>• Option B. Ovarian malignancy:</li><li>• Option C. Ectopic pregnancy: Ectopic pregnancy typically presents with acute abdominal pain and bleeding, not with chronic symptoms like weight loss and low-grade fever. Additionally, the presence of ascites is unusual in ectopic pregnancy.</li><li>• Option C. Ectopic pregnancy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Genital tuberculosis should be suspected in patients with a history of amenorrhea, systemic symptoms such as low-grade fever, weight loss, and abdominal pain, along with a palpable abdominopelvic mass and ascites.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Page 137</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Page 137</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person who is out for a morning walk sees a man who has collapsed on the road. He starts CPR and soon the ambulance arrives. What should be his next step? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hand over patient to advanced cardiac support and leave", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ask them to apply the paddles while he continues CPR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stop CPR and give water to the patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue 3 round of CPR and then use defibrillator", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ask them to apply the paddles while he continues CPR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-153054.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ask them to apply the paddles while he continues CPR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cardiac arrest situations, continuous chest compressions should be maintained until advanced cardiac support can take over. If a defibrillator is available, it should be used promptly to increase the chances of survival.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Grievous hurt is defined as severe body pain in which an individual is unable to follow ordinary pursuits for at least ------ : (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "14 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "18 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "26 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 20 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 20 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Grievous hurt is legally defined in several jurisdictions based on specific criteria, including the duration of incapacitation. One such criterion is severe body pain or injury that renders the individual unable to pursue ordinary pursuits for at least 20 days.</li><li>• Grievous Hurt (Defined in 320 IPC)</li><li>• Grievous Hurt (Defined in 320 IPC)</li><li>• Emasculation Permanent privation of sight of either eye Permanent privation of hearing of either ear. Privation of any member of joint Destruction or permanent impairment of power of any member or joint. Permanent disfiguration of head or face. Fracture or dislocation of bone or tooth. Any hurt which</li><li>• Emasculation</li><li>• Permanent privation of sight of either eye</li><li>• Permanent privation of hearing of either ear.</li><li>• Privation of any member of joint</li><li>• Destruction or permanent impairment of power of any member or joint.</li><li>• Permanent disfiguration of head or face.</li><li>• Fracture or dislocation of bone or tooth.</li><li>• Any hurt which</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 14 days: This is insufficient to meet the criteria of grievous hurt.</li><li>• Option A. 14 days:</li><li>• Option B. 18 days: This is shorter than the defined period.</li><li>• Option B. 18 days:</li><li>• Option D. 26 days: This exceeds the required duration and is not the legal benchmark.</li><li>• Option D. 26 days:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The legal definition of grievous hurt often hinges on the duration of incapacity, and understanding this is crucial for both legal and medical professionals in assessing and documenting injuries accurately.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old man on urine examination shows Bence jones proteins. On x-ray, multiple lytic lesions are seen. Which of the following is most expected in his urine? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kappa light chain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Theta light chain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alpha light chain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Beta light chain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kappa light chain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kappa light chain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Bence Jones proteins in the urine, specifically kappa light chains, is indicative of multiple myeloma, especially when associated with multiple lytic lesions on x-ray.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the false statement regarding the management of NSTEMI. (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin loading dose should be commenced immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Can add a P2Y12 inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitors are useful adjuncts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibrinolytic therapy is useful in acute coronary syndrome without ST elevation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fibrinolytic therapy is useful in acute coronary syndrome without ST elevation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibrinolytic therapy is not used for NSTEMI.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child was brought to the OPD for a regular check-up. His growth chart shows his BMI between 85th and 95th percentile. Which of the following categories would you place him in? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Severe acute malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Moderate wasting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Overweight", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obese", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Overweight", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture184.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Overweight</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A child with a BMI-for-age between 85th and 95th percentile (or &gt;2 SD and ≤3 SD) is classified as overweight.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the fistula labelled below: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vesico-cervical fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urethro-vaginal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uretero-vaginal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vesico-vaginal fistula", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vesico-vaginal fistula", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/07/6.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vesico-vaginal fistula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The fistula shown in the image is a vesico-vaginal fistula. It is a pathological connection between the bladder and the vagina. Vesico-vaginal fistulas typically present with continuous leakage of urine from the vagina. Causes can include obstetric trauma, surgical injury, radiation therapy, or malignancy. Diagnosis is usually confirmed through clinical examination, dye tests, cystoscopy, and imaging studies. Management often involves surgical repair.</li><li>• The fistula shown in the image is a vesico-vaginal fistula. It is a pathological connection between the bladder and the vagina.</li><li>• Vesico-vaginal fistulas typically present with continuous leakage of urine from the vagina.</li><li>• Causes can include obstetric trauma, surgical injury, radiation therapy, or malignancy.</li><li>• Diagnosis is usually confirmed through clinical examination, dye tests, cystoscopy, and imaging studies.</li><li>• Management often involves surgical repair.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vesico-cervical fistula: This is a fistula connecting the bladder and the cervix. It is less common and would present differently.</li><li>• Option A. Vesico-cervical fistula:</li><li>• Option B. Urethro-vaginal fistula: This is a fistula connecting the urethra and the vagina. It results in urine leakage that increases with physical activity or position changes.</li><li>• Option B. Urethro-vaginal fistula:</li><li>• Option C. Uretero-vaginal fistula: This is a fistula connecting the ureter and the vagina, often resulting in continuous leakage of urine due to the passage of urine directly from the ureter to the vagina.</li><li>• Option C. Uretero-vaginal fistula:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A vesico-vaginal fistula is a pathological connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to continuous leakage of urine from the vagina.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s text of Gynecology 6 th edition Page 417</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s text of Gynecology 6 th edition Page 417</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male patient presents with ptosis which reportedly worsens in the evening and improves in the morning. He also complains of excessive fatigability towards the end of the day which improves with rest. Placing an ice pack over his eyes significantly decreases the ptosis. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Huntington chorea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "External ophthalmoplegia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myasthenia gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with fluctuating muscle weakness, ptosis, and positive ice pack test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bitot’s spots are seen in deficiency of: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture5_Sd8Kn7A.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bitot’s spot occurs due to vitamin A deficiency. There is build-up of keratin located superficially in conjunctiva. This can be oval, triangular or irregular in shape. This is also associated with conjunctival xerosis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 393</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 393</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old urban health administrator is planning to set up a new Primary Health Centre (PHC) in an underserved urban area to cater to the healthcare needs of the local population. She is familiarizing herself with the human resource guidelines for urban PHCs. She understands that it is crucial to have the right number of staff for optimal functioning. Among the following staff requirements, she reviewed, which does NOT correctly represent the standard guidelines for staffing at an urban PHC? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 Lab technician", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 Pharmacist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 Doctors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 Staff nurses", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2 Staff nurses", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2 Staff nurses</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urban - Primary Health Centre is designed to consist: (IPHS 2022 Guidelines)</li><li>➤ Urban - Primary Health Centre is designed to consist: (IPHS 2022 Guidelines)</li><li>➤ 2 Doctors 1 Staff nurse 1 Pharmacist 1 Lab technician 1 Lady health visitor 5 ANM 1 Public Health Manager</li><li>➤ 2 Doctors</li><li>➤ 1 Staff nurse</li><li>➤ 1 Pharmacist</li><li>➤ 1 Lab technician</li><li>➤ 1 Lady health visitor</li><li>➤ 5 ANM</li><li>➤ 1 Public Health Manager</li><li>➤ U-PHC (Urban - Primary Health Centre):</li><li>➤ U-PHC (Urban - Primary Health Centre):</li><li>➤ 1 per 50,000 population (near or within a slum) OPD (consultation), basic lab diagnosis, drug/ contraceptive dispensing and delivery of RCH services, as well as preventive and promotive aspects of all diseases</li><li>➤ 1 per 50,000 population (near or within a slum)</li><li>➤ OPD (consultation), basic lab diagnosis, drug/ contraceptive dispensing and delivery of RCH services, as well as preventive and promotive aspects of all diseases</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old medical officer recently posted to a remote area to oversee the functioning of a Primary Health Centre (PHC) participates in workshops to familiarize herself with PHC mandates. Which of the following statements about PHCs is NOT accurate based on standard guidelines? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type A PHC conducts &lt; 20 deliveries per month", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Provides maternal and child health care, family planning and MTP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acts as a first referral unit", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "There is 1 PHC per 30000 population in plain areas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acts as a first referral unit", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-162616.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-162707.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Acts as a first referral unit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary Health Centres (PHCs) serve as the first point of contact in the healthcare system, but the first referral unit is the Community Health Centre (CHC).</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Levels of Primary Health Care System in India</li><li>➤ Levels of Primary Health Care System in India</li><li>➤ Primary Level of Health Care: Is ‘first level of contact between population and health care system’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Sub-centre Primary Health Centre Secondary Level of Health Care: Is ‘First referral level of health care’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Community Health Centre Tertiary Level of Health Care: Is ‘Second referral level of health care’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Medical Colleges and Hospitals</li><li>➤ Primary Level of Health Care: Is ‘first level of contact between population and health care system’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Sub-centre Primary Health Centre</li><li>➤ Is ‘first level of contact between population and health care system’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Sub-centre Primary Health Centre</li><li>➤ Is ‘first level of contact between population and health care system’ in India.</li><li>➤ Health services are delivered through: Sub-centre Primary Health Centre</li><li>➤ Sub-centre Primary Health Centre</li><li>➤ Sub-centre</li><li>➤ Primary Health Centre</li><li>➤ Secondary Level of Health Care: Is ‘First referral level of health care’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Community Health Centre</li><li>➤ Is ‘First referral level of health care’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Community Health Centre</li><li>➤ Is ‘First referral level of health care’ in India.</li><li>➤ Health services are delivered through: Community Health Centre</li><li>➤ Tertiary Level of Health Care: Is ‘Second referral level of health care’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Medical Colleges and Hospitals</li><li>➤ Is ‘Second referral level of health care’ in India. Health services are delivered through: Medical Colleges and Hospitals</li><li>➤ Is ‘Second referral level of health care’ in India.</li><li>➤ Health services are delivered through: Medical Colleges and Hospitals</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While taking history from a patient in the psychiatry OPD, the patient keeps on repeating the questions that have been asked by the examiner. What is the term used for this phenomenon? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echolalia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Echopraxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Perseveration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posturing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Echolalia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Echolalia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Echolalia refers to mimicking the examiner's speech often seen in autism spectrum disorder, Tourette's syndrome, and certain forms of schizophrenia, especially catatonic schizophrenia.</li><li>➤ catatonic</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Fish’s Clinical Psychopathology, 4th edition, Page No 93.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old woman consults the doctor for the presence of a skin lesion as shown in the image below. The lesions were initially small but have now spread to the entire limb and abdomen. Despite anticoagulation therapy, she has a history of long-standing diabetes and recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insulinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastrinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucagonoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "VIPoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Glucagonoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-142405.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucagonoma presents with necrolytic migratory erythema, diabetes, and recurrent DVT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the most common bilateral benign tumor of the ovary in the reproductive age group? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epithelial cell tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular cysts", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sex cord stromal tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Benign teratoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Benign teratoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Benign teratoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A benign teratoma (dermoid cyst) is the most common benign tumor of the ovary in the reproductive age group. It is also the: Most common germ cell tumor (overall) Bilateral in 10-15% cases Most common benign tumor of ovary diagnosed in pregnancy Most common tumor to undergo torsion. Rokitansky's protuberances are projections consistingof skin, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, teeth &amp; bones. Thyroid tissues seen on histopathological study within a dermoid is known as Struma Ovarii.</li><li>• A benign teratoma (dermoid cyst) is the most common benign tumor of the ovary in the reproductive age group.</li><li>• It is also the: Most common germ cell tumor (overall) Bilateral in 10-15% cases Most common benign tumor of ovary diagnosed in pregnancy Most common tumor to undergo torsion.</li><li>• Most common germ cell tumor (overall) Bilateral in 10-15% cases Most common benign tumor of ovary diagnosed in pregnancy Most common tumor to undergo torsion.</li><li>• Most common germ cell tumor (overall)</li><li>• Bilateral in 10-15% cases</li><li>• Most common benign tumor of ovary diagnosed in pregnancy</li><li>• Most common tumor to undergo torsion.</li><li>• Rokitansky's protuberances are projections consistingof skin, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, teeth &amp; bones.</li><li>• Thyroid tissues seen on histopathological study within a dermoid is known as Struma Ovarii.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Epithelial cell tumor : These are very common ovarian tumors and cells mimic different types of mullerian ductal epithelium, including serous cystadenoma (endosalpinx), mucinous cystadenoma (endocervical epithelium), Brenner tumour (transitional epithelium) and endometrioid (endometrium)</li><li>• Option A. Epithelial cell tumor</li><li>• Option B. Follicular cysts : These are the most common functional ovarian cysts. Rarely causes any symptoms or vague pain if size is large.</li><li>• Option B. Follicular cysts</li><li>• Option C. Sex cord stromal tumor : They produce hormones. They include granulosa cell tumour, theca cell tumour, androblastoma etc</li><li>• Option C. Sex cord stromal tumor</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A benign teratoma (dermoid cyst) is the most common bilateral benign tumor of the ovary in the reproductive age group.</li><li>➤ A benign teratoma (dermoid cyst) is the most common bilateral benign tumor of the ovary in the reproductive age group.</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology page 293</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology page 293</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug combination is preferred for medical termination of pregnancy? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lupiprostone + Mifepristone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mifepristone + Misoprostol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lubiprostone + Misoprostol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alprostadil + Misoprostol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mifepristone + Misoprostol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mifepristone + Misoprostol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of Mifepristone and Misoprostol is the preferred regimen for medical termination of pregnancy due to its high efficacy and safety in inducing uterine contractions and expelling the contents of the uterus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An already known case of diabetic patient came to the hospital with pigmentation of skin over the arms. He also found out to be suffering from micro nodular cirrhosis. On biopsy, iron deposits are seen. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemochromatosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcoholic hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute hepatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hemochromatosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/fmge-patho112.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-346_k0cBnZ6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hemochromatosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemochromatosis is characterized by excessive iron accumulation leading to skin pigmentation, cirrhosis, and diabetes, and is confirmed by identifying iron deposits using Prussian blue stain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common lung cancer in India? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenocarcinoma lungs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Small cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Large cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adenocarcinoma lungs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adenocarcinoma lungs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenocarcinoma is currently the most common type of lung cancer in India, often linked to non-smokers and peripheral lung origin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 75-year-old woman with complaints of mass per vaginum, as shown in the below image was posted for operative repair. During the pre-anesthetic check-up, she was found to be unfit for major surgery. Which of the following procedures is recommended for her? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abdominal wall Cervicopexy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shirodkar's sling procedure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Le Fort's repair", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Khanna's sling procedure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Le Fort's repair", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/410.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Le Fort's repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given scenario suggests uterine prolapse in an elderly woman found to be unfit for major surgery. Le Fort's repair is recommended in this case. It is a colpocleisis procedure that involves obliterating the vagina. Indications for Le Fort's repair include: Patients who do not wish to retain sexual function. Very elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse. Patients medically unfit for major surgeries. This procedure can be performed under regional anesthesia. During Le Fort's repair, vaginal flaps from the anterior and posterior vaginal walls are excised, and the raw areas are opposed in the midline with sutures, preventing the uterus from prolapsing. Before colpocleisis, a pap smear and endometrial biopsy are necessary, as once the vagina is obliterated, access to the cervix or endometrium will no longer be possible.</li><li>• The given scenario suggests uterine prolapse in an elderly woman found to be unfit for major surgery.</li><li>• Le Fort's repair is recommended in this case. It is a colpocleisis procedure that involves obliterating the vagina.</li><li>• Le Fort's repair</li><li>• Indications for Le Fort's repair include: Patients who do not wish to retain sexual function. Very elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse. Patients medically unfit for major surgeries.</li><li>• Indications</li><li>• Patients who do not wish to retain sexual function. Very elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse. Patients medically unfit for major surgeries.</li><li>• Patients who do not wish to retain sexual function.</li><li>• Very elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse.</li><li>• Patients medically unfit for major surgeries.</li><li>• This procedure can be performed under regional anesthesia.</li><li>• During Le Fort's repair, vaginal flaps from the anterior and posterior vaginal walls are excised, and the raw areas are opposed in the midline with sutures, preventing the uterus from prolapsing.</li><li>• Before colpocleisis, a pap smear and endometrial biopsy are necessary, as once the vagina is obliterated, access to the cervix or endometrium will no longer be possible.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Abdominal wall Cervicopexy : Purandare's sling used strips of rectus sheath and fixed them to the anterior surface of the uterus. This was later modified using a Mersilene tape fixed to the anterior uterine surface.</li><li>• Option A. Abdominal wall Cervicopexy</li><li>• Option B. Shirodkar's sling procedure : This procedure involves the fixation of tape to the posterior uterine surface, with the ends fixed to the sacrum. It is surgically complicated and increases the risk of sigmoid injury.</li><li>• Option B. Shirodkar's sling procedure</li><li>• Option D. Khanna's sling procedure : This procedure involves the fixation of the ends of the tape to the anterior superior iliac spines.</li><li>• Option D. Khanna's sling procedure</li><li>• Sling surgeries may be useful in patients with nulliparous prolapse or congenital uterine descent.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Le Fort's repair, a colpocleisis procedure, is recommended for very elderly menopausal patients with advanced uterine prolapse who are medically unfit for major surgeries.</li><li>➤ Ref: D C Dutta’s textbook of Gynaecology 3 rd edition pg 221</li><li>➤ Ref: D C Dutta’s textbook of Gynaecology 3 rd edition pg 221</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Granuloma inguinale is caused by? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T. pallidum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlamydia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes simplex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klebsiella granulomatis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Klebsiella granulomatis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-131316.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-1243.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Klebsiella granulomatis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Granuloma inguinale (donovanosis) is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis . It presents with painless ulcers and characteristic beefy red granulation tissue. Diagnosis may require special staining techniques to identify Donovan bodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rahul, a diligent hospital staff member in New Delhi, is responsible for ensuring the proper disposal of biomedical waste. Every day, he's faced with a myriad of items that need to be correctly sorted to maintain the hospital's adherence to waste management guidelines. Today, he encountered an array of items, and he had to determine which of these should be placed in the yellow bin, designated for specific biomedical wastes. Which of the following items should Rahul discard in the yellow bin? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gloves", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urine Bag", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sharps", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blood Bag", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Blood Bag", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/screenshot-2023-11-02-114110.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Blood bag</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which inhalational anaesthetic agent uses a special Vaporizer? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Desflurane", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sevoflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isoflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Halothane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Desflurane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Desflurane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Desflurane is an inhalational anesthetic agent that requires a special vaporizer due to its unique physical properties. Here’s why:</li><li>• Boiling Point and Vapor Pressure: Desflurane has a very low boiling point of 22.8°C (73°F), which means it is close to its boiling point at room temperature. This gives it a high vapor pressure, making it highly volatile. Control of Vaporization: Traditional vaporizers, which rely on the flow of carrier gas through a liquid anesthetic, are unsuitable for desflurane because of its high volatility. There is a risk of administering too high a concentration, leading to overdose. Special Vaporizer: The special vaporizer for desflurane, known as the \"Tec 6\" vaporizer, is electrically heated to maintain a constant temperature. This ensures consistent vaporization of the liquid desflurane into its vapor form, despite fluctuations in room temperature or operating room conditions.</li><li>• Boiling Point and Vapor Pressure: Desflurane has a very low boiling point of 22.8°C (73°F), which means it is close to its boiling point at room temperature. This gives it a high vapor pressure, making it highly volatile.</li><li>• Boiling Point and Vapor Pressure:</li><li>• Control of Vaporization: Traditional vaporizers, which rely on the flow of carrier gas through a liquid anesthetic, are unsuitable for desflurane because of its high volatility. There is a risk of administering too high a concentration, leading to overdose.</li><li>• Control of Vaporization:</li><li>• Special Vaporizer: The special vaporizer for desflurane, known as the \"Tec 6\" vaporizer, is electrically heated to maintain a constant temperature. This ensures consistent vaporization of the liquid desflurane into its vapor form, despite fluctuations in room temperature or operating room conditions.</li><li>• Special Vaporizer:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sevoflurane: Sevoflurane can be used with standard vaporizers and does not require a special vaporizer like desflurane.</li><li>• Option B. Sevoflurane:</li><li>• Option C. Isoflurane: Isoflurane is used with conventional vaporizers and does not necessitate a specialized vaporizer.</li><li>• Option C. Isoflurane:</li><li>• Option D. Halothane: Halothane is also used with standard vaporizers and does not require a unique vaporizer.</li><li>• Option D. Halothane:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Desflurane requires a special vaporizer, such as the Tec 6, due to its high volatility and low boiling point. This specialized equipment ensures safe and accurate administration of desflurane in clinical settings.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 588</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 588</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male patient presents with low back ache for 20 days. CE-MRI is shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyogenic spondylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pott's spine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pott's spine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_179.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_180.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_181.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_182.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Pott’s spine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pott's spine should be considered in patients presenting with back pain and MRI findings of disc destruction and epidural abscess, particularly in regions where tuberculosis is common.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vitamin deficiency leads to given clinical condition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiamin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Niacin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/20/picture4_iLvwAeF.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Symptoms of Niacin deficiency (pellagra): 3Ds</li><li>➤ Symptoms of Niacin deficiency (pellagra): 3Ds</li><li>➤ Dermatitis: In early stages, bright red erythema occurs in feet, ankles and face. Increased pigmentation around the neck is known as Casal’s necklace. Dementia Death</li><li>➤ Dermatitis: In early stages, bright red erythema occurs in feet, ankles and face. Increased pigmentation around the neck is known as Casal’s necklace.</li><li>➤ Casal’s necklace.</li><li>➤ Dementia</li><li>➤ Death</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 542</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 542</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old boy presented to the surgery OPD. On examination, his left scrotal sac is empty. On clinical examination the left testis was found in the superficial inguinal pouch. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cryptorchidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left undescended testis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left ectopic testis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retractile testis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Left ectopic testis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-532.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Left ectopic testis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ectopic testis refers to a testis that has deviated from the normal path of descent and is located in an abnormal position outside the inguinal canal and scrotum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady presented with foul smelling greyish white discharge and whiff test was positive. On examination following cells were seen as shown in image given below. Identify the causative organism and drug of choice? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candida, Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trichomonas, metronidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gardnerella vaginalis, metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonococci, Doxycycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gardnerella vaginalis, metronidazole", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture26.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gardnerella vaginalis, metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed by the presence of clue cells, a positive whiff test, homogeneous discharge, and elevated vaginal pH. The causative organism is Gardnerella vaginalis, and the treatment of choice is metronidazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not tested during blood transfusion? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV 1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hep B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hep C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hep A", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hep A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-111458.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-111430.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hep A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatitis A is not tested during blood transfusions as it spreads through the fecal-oral route and is not a bloodborne pathogen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man visited the clinic, reporting intermittent episodes of vertigo, a feeling of pressure and fullness in the ear, reduced hearing, and a low-tone roaring tinnitus. What potential clinical condition could be considered as a diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meniere's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Labyrinthitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syncope", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Meniere's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/meniere.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Meniere’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Meniere’s disease is a complex inner ear disorder that requires careful management to control symptoms and prevent progression. Treatment strategies focus on relieving the symptoms and, in severe cases, may involve surgical interventions to reduce the endolymphatic pressure or decompress the endolymphatic sac. Patients benefit from a multi-disciplinary approach involving audiologists, otolaryngologists, and sometimes neurologists.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In analyzing the demographic data of a nation as depicted in a population pyramid, which statement incorrectly reflects the implications of birth rates and life expectancy shown in the pyramid? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "More young population", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Developing countries", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Developed countries", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Developed countries", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/picture3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/screenshot-2023-11-03-115708_tqfu6eB.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Developed countries</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old individual with diabetes presented with intense ear pain and otorrhea that did not improve with antibiotics. During the examination, granulation tissue was observed in the external auditory canal (EAC), and the person also exhibited facial nerve palsy. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant otitis externa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eczematous otitis externa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Malignant otitis externa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Malignant otitis externa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malignant otitis externa is a critical condition requiring aggressive management due to its potential to cause widespread damage and severe complications, including cranial nerve involvement. Prompt and appropriate treatment is essential to prevent potentially life-threatening outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7th edition, Page No. 55</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 19-year-old woman with no comorbidities presented with numbness and paresthesia of the fingers along with the characteristic finding as shown in the image below. She has no other illnesses and she says these episodes occur when she is under excess stress or during cold temperatures. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary Raynaud's phenomenon", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary Raynaud's phenomenon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cold sores", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Primary Raynaud's phenomenon", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-144830.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary Raynaud's phenomenon presents with episodic vasospasm of the fingers without an underlying disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A known hypertensive patient is brought to the ER with palpitations and breathlessness. On examination, his BP was 220/140 with signs of encephalopathy. Which of the following is used as a 1st line drug? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phentolamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nicardipine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prazosin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nicardipine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nicardipine is the first-line drug for hypertensive emergencies with encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Patient comes with symptoms of lead poisoning. The antidote is? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Succimer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dimercaprol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dimercaprol + Calcium EDTA", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dimercaprol + Calcium EDTA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Dimercaprol + Calcium EDTA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of dimercaprol and calcium EDTA is the most effective treatment for severe lead poisoning because it addresses lead in both the brain and the rest of the body.</li><li>➤ Chelating agents for Lead poisoning:</li><li>➤ British Anti Lewisite (BAL, aka dimercaprol, dimercaptopropanol): available in IM route. CaNa2 EDTA available by IV route Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, aka succimer): available Orally Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid (DMPS, aka Dimerval): available Oral, IM and IV. Penicillamine available orally</li><li>➤ British Anti Lewisite (BAL, aka dimercaprol, dimercaptopropanol): available in IM route.</li><li>➤ British Anti Lewisite</li><li>➤ CaNa2 EDTA available by IV route</li><li>➤ Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, aka succimer): available Orally</li><li>➤ Dimercaptosuccinic acid</li><li>➤ Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid (DMPS, aka Dimerval): available Oral, IM and IV.</li><li>➤ Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid</li><li>➤ Penicillamine available orally</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a trial of a case in high court examination of a witness is being carried out by the opposing party lawyer. The lawyer is questioning the accused and is trying to prove that the evidence was biased, inaccurate, inconsistent. This procedure can be done by the lawyer during? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cross examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Physical examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Court room examination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cross examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cross examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RECORDING EVIDENCE IN COURT</li><li>➤ RECORDING EVIDENCE IN COURT</li><li>➤ Oath (except Person &lt;12yrs, oath not required)</li><li>➤ Oath (except Person &lt;12yrs, oath not required)</li><li>➤ Oath</li><li>➤ Religious- Religious book (Bhagavat Gita , Quran)</li><li>➤ Atheist – “I solemnly affirm whatever I say will be the truth”</li><li>➤ Examination in chief (Direct Examination)- By lawyer who summoned the witness (Mostly public prosecutor). Only facts stated, leading questions not allowed. Cross examination – By layer of opposite party (mostly the defence lawyer). Leading questions allowed. There is no time limit for cross examination. The lawyer tries to weaken the evidence of the witness by showing that his details are inaccurate, conflicting, contradictory and untrustworthy. Re-examination (Re-Direct Examination)– By lawyer who summoned witness. If something was missed in examination in chief, that is asked in re-examination. Leading questions not allowed. It helps to clear any doubts that may have arisen during Questions by judge / court questions – can be done any time</li><li>➤ Examination in chief (Direct Examination)- By lawyer who summoned the witness (Mostly public prosecutor). Only facts stated, leading questions not allowed.</li><li>➤ Examination in chief (Direct Examination)-</li><li>➤ Cross examination – By layer of opposite party (mostly the defence lawyer). Leading questions allowed. There is no time limit for cross examination. The lawyer tries to weaken the evidence of the witness by showing that his details are inaccurate, conflicting, contradictory and untrustworthy.</li><li>➤ Cross examination</li><li>➤ Re-examination (Re-Direct Examination)– By lawyer who summoned witness. If something was missed in examination in chief, that is asked in re-examination. Leading questions not allowed. It helps to clear any doubts that may have arisen during</li><li>➤ Re-examination</li><li>➤ Questions by judge / court questions – can be done any time</li><li>➤ Questions by judge / court questions</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with complaints of tingling sensation in hands and feet, generalised weakness, easy fatigability, pallor, and ataxia. Deficiency of which vitamin causes these symptoms? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia and neurological issues such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who was being given intercostal nerve block for rib fracture suddenly collapsed while the block was being performed. He Is diagnosed to have local anesthetic systemic toxicity. What is the treatment of this condition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20% intralipid emulsion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "15% intralipid emulsion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "35% intralipid emulsion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100% intralipid emulsion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 20% intralipid emulsion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 20% intralipid emulsion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST) is a severe and potentially fatal complication that can occur when local anesthetics are accidentally injected into the bloodstream or absorbed in excessive amounts. It can present with a range of symptoms including neurological signs (e.g., dizziness, tinnitus, seizures) and cardiovascular symptoms (e.g., arrhythmias, bradycardia, cardiovascular collapse).</li><li>• Treatment for LAST:</li><li>• Treatment for LAST:</li><li>• 20% intralipid emulsion : This is the recommended treatment for LAST. The administration of a 20% intralipid emulsion acts as a lipid sink, which helps to sequester the lipophilic local anesthetic, reducing its free plasma concentration and toxicity. Initial Bolus : 1.5 mL/kg over 1 minute Continuous Infusion : 0.25 mL/kg/min, which can be increased if there is no improvement in the patient's condition</li><li>• 20% intralipid emulsion : This is the recommended treatment for LAST. The administration of a 20% intralipid emulsion acts as a lipid sink, which helps to sequester the lipophilic local anesthetic, reducing its free plasma concentration and toxicity. Initial Bolus : 1.5 mL/kg over 1 minute Continuous Infusion : 0.25 mL/kg/min, which can be increased if there is no improvement in the patient's condition</li><li>• 20% intralipid emulsion</li><li>• Initial Bolus : 1.5 mL/kg over 1 minute Continuous Infusion : 0.25 mL/kg/min, which can be increased if there is no improvement in the patient's condition</li><li>• Initial Bolus : 1.5 mL/kg over 1 minute</li><li>• Initial Bolus</li><li>• Continuous Infusion : 0.25 mL/kg/min, which can be increased if there is no improvement in the patient's condition</li><li>• Continuous Infusion</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B, C &amp; D Other concentrations such as 15%, 35%, or 100% intralipid emulsion are not used for this specific purpose.</li><li>• Option B, C &amp; D</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first-line treatment for Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST) is the administration of a 20% intralipid emulsion, which acts by creating a lipid sink to reduce the free plasma concentration of the local anesthetic, thereby mitigating its toxic effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nulliparous lady with a BMI of 23, presents with hirsutism. Ultrasonography was done and an image of the same is shown below. What is the most probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polycystic ovarian syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tubal block", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple fibroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mesenteritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Polycystic ovarian syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/409.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Polycystic ovarian syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This ultrasound image shows polycystic morphology, often referred to as the \"necklace pattern,\" which is characteristic of Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS). PCOS is a common endocrine disorder in women of reproductive age and is diagnosed using the Rotterdam criteria, where at least 2 out of the following 3 criteria must be fulfilled:</li><li>• Ultrasound morphology of PCOS: This includes ovarian volume greater than 10 ml or the presence of 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries. Clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism: This can present as hirsutism, acne, or elevated levels of androgens in the blood. Oligo or anovulation: This refers to infrequent or absent ovulation, leading to irregular menstrual cycles.</li><li>• Ultrasound morphology of PCOS: This includes ovarian volume greater than 10 ml or the presence of 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries.</li><li>• Ultrasound morphology of PCOS:</li><li>• Clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism: This can present as hirsutism, acne, or elevated levels of androgens in the blood.</li><li>• Clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism:</li><li>• Oligo or anovulation: This refers to infrequent or absent ovulation, leading to irregular menstrual cycles.</li><li>• Oligo or anovulation:</li><li>• Given the patient's presentation with hirsutism and the ultrasound findings, PCOS is the most likely diagnosis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tubal block: Tubal block can be visualized by performing tests for tubal patency such as hysterosalpingography (HSG) or sono salpingography. It is typically associated with infertility but not with the ultrasound findings described here.</li><li>• Option B. Tubal block:</li><li>• Option C. Multiple fibroids: Fibroids appear on ultrasound as hypoechoic (dark) concentric areas within the uterine wall. They do not present with the \"necklace pattern\" seen in the image provided.</li><li>• Option C. Multiple fibroids:</li><li>• Option D. Mesenteritis: Mesenteritis is an inflammation of the mesentery, the tissue that attaches the intestines to the abdominal wall. It does not present with ovarian cysts or the ultrasound findings described here.</li><li>• Option D. Mesenteritis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) is diagnosed based on the Rotterdam criteria, where at least 2 out of the following 3 criteria must be present: polycystic ovarian morphology, clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism, and oligo or anovulation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Gynecology 3rd edition pg 387</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Gynecology 3rd edition pg 387</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old worker named John presents with swollen lymph nodes in his left armpit. He recently got bitten by fleas while working in a wheat godown. The affected area is red and tender. To investigate the cause, a smear from his axillary lymph node is examined. Which is the most suitable stain for this examination? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gram stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Giemsa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acid fast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Giemsa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Giemsa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For suspected cases of plague caused by Yersinia pestis, the Giemsa stain is the most suitable stain for identifying the characteristic bipolar staining of the organism in clinical specimens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young lady presented with abdominal pain. After necessary investigations, she was operated upon, and the material shown in the image was retrieved from her stomach. The patient should be advised to consult which of the following specialists to prevent the recurrence of such a condition?(FMGE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermatologist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiologist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psychiatrist", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurologist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Psychiatrist", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/picture1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Psychiatrist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichotillomania is a psychiatric disorder which involves recurrent pulling of one’s own hair leading to significant hair loss, accompanied by unsuccessful attempts to decrease or stop the behaviour.It can lead to complications like trichobezoars when associated with trichophagia.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 432.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and jaundice. Upon evaluation, an ultrasound of the abdomen was performed. Based on the image provided, which structure likely represents a choledochal cyst? Identify the choledochal cyst in the image below? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type III", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type V", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type III", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-529.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-134159.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Choledochal cysts are classified into several types based on the location and nature of the biliary dilation. Type III choledochal cysts, or choledochocele, involve cystic dilation of the intraduodenal portion of the common bile duct.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely diagnosis for a 12-year-old child who presents with lower abdominal pain, rashes over lower extremities, and pain in joints? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Henoch Schönlein purpura", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alport syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Takayasu arteritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Temporal arteritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Henoch Schönlein purpura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/whatsapp-image-2023-05-17-at-181103.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Henoch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a small vessel vasculitis in children characterized by lower extremity purpura, joint pain, abdominal pain, and renal involvement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3, in the peripheral tissue?(FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iodothyronine deiodinase I", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iodothyronine deiodinase II", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iodothyronine deiodinase III", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iodotyrosine deiodinase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iodothyronine deiodinase I", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Iodothyronine deiodinase I</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iodothyronine deiodinase I is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3 in peripheral tissues, playing a crucial role in activating thyroid hormones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What should be the treatment in a patient who presented in the emergency with respiratory distress, dilated neck veins and an Xray chest showing large amount of air on the left side along with mediastinal shift as shown? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wide bore needle insertion in intercostal space", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Open thoracotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pericardiocentesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wide bore needle insertion in intercostal space", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-526.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/18/15_d5Xikws.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wide bore needle insertion in intercostal space</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the case of a tension pneumothorax, immediate decompression with a wide bore needle in the appropriate intercostal space is essential to relieve pressure and stabilize the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old P1L1 woman is planning for her second child. She has been recently diagnosed with Grave's disease. Which of the following is the antithyroid drug to be used in early gestation? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propylthiouracil", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methimazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbimazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radioactive Iodine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Propylthiouracil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propylthiouracil is the preferred antithyroid drug during early gestation (first trimester).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a health visit at a local school, you come across a child exhibiting delayed speech development. An otoscopic examination of the ear reveals the appearance shown below. Additionally, audiometric tests indicate a hearing loss of 20 dB. What would be your diagnosis for the child? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute suppurative otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic suppurative otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glomus tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Serous otitis media", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201011.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201012.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201013.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201014.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Serous otitis media</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serous otitis media is a common cause of conductive hearing loss in children and can significantly impact speech development if untreated. It typically resolves spontaneously, but persistent cases require intervention to prevent long-term speech and language complications.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 69</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis based on the image given below? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bronchiectasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-132408.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bronchiectasis is diagnosed by the presence of dilated bronchi and characteristic imaging signs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man is brought to the emergency department after falling from a height with his hand outstretched. X-ray shows a clavicular fracture. Which part of the clavicle is most likely to be fractured? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Junction of medial 2/3rd and lateral 1/3rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Junction of medial 1/3rd and lateral 2/3rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Junction of middle 1/3rd and medial 1/3rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Middle third of the clavicle", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Middle third of the clavicle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-191000.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-191017.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/15/3-1_WZeYQqJ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Middle third of the clavicle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The middle third of the clavicle is most likely to be fractured. The clavicle is often fractured, commonly by indirect forces, as a result of a violent impact to the hand or shoulder. The break is usually at the junction of the lateral and intermediate thirds, where the curvature changes, for this is the weakest part of the bone</li><li>• The most common fracture of the clavicle (collarbone) is known as a midshaft clavicular fracture . It usually occurs at the junction of the lateral 2/5 th and medial 3/5 th where transition from antecurve to retrocurve occurs and the bone changes in cross-sectional shape from its flatter lateral part to an atubular medial part.</li><li>• midshaft clavicular fracture</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Junction of medial 2/3rd and lateral 1/3 rd : These fractures can result from various causes, including direct trauma to the clavicle, falls onto the shoulder or outstretched hand, and sports-related injuries..</li><li>• Option A. Junction of medial 2/3rd and lateral 1/3 rd :</li><li>• Option B. Junction of medial 1/3rd and lateral 2/3 rd : due to convexity of the medial 1/3 rd it is not very likely to get fractured.</li><li>• Option B. Junction of medial 1/3rd and lateral 2/3 rd :</li><li>• Option C. Junction of middle 1/3rd and medial 1/3 rd : due to convexity of the medial 1/3 rd it is not very likely to get fractured.</li><li>• Option C. Junction of middle 1/3rd and medial 1/3 rd :</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Allman classification/ Allman system, is a classification system used to categorize fractures of the clavicle (collarbone) based on their location. It was developed by Dr. Fred Allman in 1967 and is a simple way to describe clavicle fractures anatomically. The classification consists of three types:</li><li>➤ Type I : Middle Third Fracture</li><li>➤ Type I</li><li>➤ This type involves a fracture in the middle portion (shaft) of the clavicle. It is the most common type of clavicle fracture, accounting for the majority of cases. Type I fractures are often caused by direct trauma to the clavicle or a fall on the shoulder.</li><li>➤ Type II : Lateral Third Fracture</li><li>➤ Type II</li><li>➤ Type II fractures occur in the outer third (lateral third) of the clavicle, closer to the shoulder joint. These fractures are less common than Type I fractures and are often the result of direct impact to the shoulder or a fall on an outstretched arm.</li><li>➤ Type III : Medial Third Fracture</li><li>➤ Type III</li><li>➤ Type III fractures are located in the inner third (medial third) of the clavicle, closer to the sternum (breastbone). These fractures are the least common among the three types and can occur due to indirect forces transmitted to the clavicle, such as a blow to the chest or a fall on the back of the shoulder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can reduce the risk of endometrial cancer in a post-menopausal woman on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Combined oral contraceptive pills", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clonidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adding progesterone to estrogen", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Adding progesterone to estrogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Adding progesterone to Estrogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Adding progesterone to estrogen in HRT can reduce the risk of potential endometrial cancer. For women with a uterus, it is recommended to add progesterone to prevent endometrial hyperplasia which can occur with continued estrogen therapy. For women without a uterus just estrogen therapy is sufficient. Hormone therapy is only indicated for the treatment of osteoporosis, vasomotor symptoms, and vaginal atrophy.</li><li>• Adding progesterone to estrogen in HRT can reduce the risk of potential endometrial cancer.</li><li>• For women with a uterus, it is recommended to add progesterone to prevent endometrial hyperplasia which can occur with continued estrogen therapy.</li><li>• For women without a uterus just estrogen therapy is sufficient.</li><li>• Hormone therapy is only indicated for the treatment of osteoporosis, vasomotor symptoms, and vaginal atrophy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Combined oral contraceptive pills: These may be used for women with premature menopause or premature ovarian failure but are not specifically for reducing the risk of endometrial cancer in post-menopausal women on HRT.</li><li>• Option A. Combined oral contraceptive pills:</li><li>• Option B. Clonidine: It is an alpha-adrenergic agonist used to treat post-menopausal hot flushes when estrogen is contraindicated, such as with hypertension, but does not reduce the risk of endometrial cancer.</li><li>• Option B. Clonidine:</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin E: It may be useful in treating genitourinary symptoms but does not have a role in reducing the risk of endometrial cancer.</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin E:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adding progesterone to estrogen in hormone replacement therapy reduces the risk of endometrial cancer in post-menopausal women with an intact uterus.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Page: 62,63</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Page: 62,63</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is used to diagnose the condition given in the below image? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wood's lamp examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gram staining", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patch test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Wood's lamp examination", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd29.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/picture45.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-094112.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd32.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wood's lamp examination is used to diagnose skin conditions with hypopigmented patches and scaling , such as tinea versicolor , which fluoresce under the ultraviolet light with yellow colour.</li><li>➤ Wood's lamp</li><li>➤ hypopigmented</li><li>➤ scaling</li><li>➤ tinea versicolor</li><li>➤ fluoresce</li><li>➤ yellow</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following vitamins is breast milk deficient in? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vitamin K", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-151919.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vitamin K</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breast milk is deficient in Vitamin K, which is why newborns receive a Vitamin K injection at birth to prevent Hemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image shows the cross-section of the abdominal cavity. Identify the structure marked 'A'. (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Descending aorta", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascending aorta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Descending aorta", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/image-3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/image-4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Descending aorta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In the given image, the structure marked 'A' corresponds to the descending aorta.</li><li>• The descending aorta is a continuation of the aortic arch and begins at the level of the fourth thoracic vertebra (T4). It descends through the thoracic and abdominal cavities and eventually branches into smaller arteries to supply blood to various organs and tissues throughout the body.</li><li>• Other options :</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Option B) Superior vena cava: The superior vena cava is a major vein that returns deoxygenated blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium of the heart. It collects blood from the head, neck, upper limbs, and part of the chest. The superior vena cava plays a crucial role in returning blood to the heart for oxygenation.</li><li>• Option B) Superior vena cava:</li><li>• Option C) Inferior vena cava: The inferior vena cava is another significant vein that returns deoxygenated blood from the lower half of the body to the right atrium of the heart. It collects blood from the lower limbs, abdomen, and pelvis. Like the superior vena cava, the inferior vena cava is essential for venous return to the heart.</li><li>• Option C) Inferior vena cava:</li><li>• Option D) Ascending aorta: is the initial segment of the aorta that originates from the left ventricle of the heart. It carries oxygenated blood away from the heart and delivers it to the coronary arteries (for heart muscle oxygenation) and the rest of the body. The ascending aorta then curves to form the aortic arch, which gives rise to various branches, including the brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery, and left subclavian artery.</li><li>• Option D) Ascending aorta:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following scenarios would contribute the most to the demographic burden in a country? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased old age dependency ratio", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased old age dependency ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased young age dependency ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased young age dependency ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increased old age dependency ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Increased old age dependency ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An increased old age dependency ratio contributes significantly to the demographic burden in a country with a growing elderly population.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common side effect of Lamotrigine? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight gain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tremors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neutropenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin rash", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Skin rash", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Skin rash</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common side effect of lamotrigine is a mild skin rash, which occurs in up to 10% of patients. Although usually not serious, the rash can occasionally progress to severe reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis. Therefore, lamotrigine should be started at a low dose and increased gradually to minimize this risk.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used in the management of tumor lysis syndrome? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rasburicase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rituximab", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gemtuzumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alemtuzumab", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rasburicase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rasburicase is used in the management of tumor lysis syndrome due to its effectiveness in reducing uric acid levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly woman presented with symptoms of confusion, thirst, and abdominal pain. On exam, she had pallor and thoracic spine tenderness. Her labs showed the following findings: (FMGE JUNE 2022) Hb – 6.9 g/dL, WBC 4000/cm³ with normal DC, S.Ca 13, S.Cr 2.3 mg/dL, Total protein 9 g/dL, S. Albumin 2.4 g/dL. Urinalysis shows Bence-Jones proteins. An X-ray of her skull is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metastatic breast cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Milk-alkali syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Multiple myeloma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-132234.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple myeloma is characterized by hypercalcemia, renal failure, anemia, and bone lesions, along with the presence of Bence-Jones proteins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man presents with a sudden onset of severe headache, dizziness, breathlessness, and blurring of vision while trekking on a mountain at an altitude of 5000 meters. He is unable to climb any further. Which of the following indicates the development of high-altitude cerebral edema? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Desaturation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Altered mental status", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retinal hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Altered mental status", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Altered mental status is a key indicator of high-altitude cerebral edema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the following X-ray depict? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Emphysema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tension pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pleural effusion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_9WPvEV9.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pleural effusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given X-ray depicts left-sided pleural effusion . There is opacity of the left hemithorax with a meniscus sign/ Ellis S curve . Earliest sign on CXR: Blunting of CP angle Most sensitive Xray: I/L lateral decubitus Most sensitive Investigation: USG</li><li>• The given X-ray depicts left-sided pleural effusion .</li><li>• left-sided pleural effusion</li><li>• There is opacity of the left hemithorax with a meniscus sign/ Ellis S curve .</li><li>• meniscus sign/ Ellis S curve</li><li>• Earliest sign on CXR: Blunting of CP angle</li><li>• Blunting of CP angle</li><li>• Most sensitive Xray: I/L lateral decubitus</li><li>• I/L lateral decubitus</li><li>• Most sensitive Investigation: USG</li><li>• USG</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. A. Emphysema: Typically presents with hyperinflated lungs, flattened diaphragms, and decreased vascular markings on X-ray, not with opacity or a meniscus sign.</li><li>• Option. A. Emphysema:</li><li>• Option. B. Tension pneumothorax: Characterized by a collapsed lung with mediastinal shift to the opposite side and absence of lung markings, which is not seen in the provided X-ray.</li><li>• Option. B. Tension pneumothorax:</li><li>• Option. D. Bronchiectasis: Shows bronchial wall thickening and dilation, often with a \"tram-track\" appearance, which is not consistent with the X-ray findings of pleural effusion.</li><li>• Option. D. Bronchiectasis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pleural effusion is identified on an X-ray by the opacity of the hemithorax and the presence of a meniscus sign, with the most sensitive investigation being ultrasound (USG).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with bilious vomiting. What will be the most appropriate test to diagnose the condition in this baby? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Barium swallow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barium meal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium meal follow through", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CECT abdomen", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. CECT abdomen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-133609.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) CECT abdomen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For diagnosing bilious vomiting in a child, a CECT abdomen is the most appropriate test as it provides a comprehensive view of the entire abdominal region, helping to pinpoint the site of obstruction or other causes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the sign that is seen during 8 weeks of pregnancy resulting in a dusky blue color of the vagina: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palmer's sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chadwick's sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hegar's sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osiander's sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chadwick's sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/404.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-160245.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chadwick's sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This sign is known as Chadwick’s sign. This sign is bluish discoloration of anterior vaginal wall due to local vascular congestion. It is seen in the 8 th week period of gestation.</li><li>• This sign is known as Chadwick’s sign. This sign is bluish discoloration of anterior vaginal wall due to local vascular congestion. It is seen in the 8 th week period of gestation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Palmer's sign: Regular and rhythmic uterine contractions elicited on bimanual exam, seen between 4 – 8 weeks.</li><li>• Option A. Palmer's sign:</li><li>• Option C. Hegar's sign: On bimanual exam, the abdominal and vaginal fingers appose below the body of the uterus, seen between 6 – 10 weeks.</li><li>• Option C. Hegar's sign:</li><li>• Option D. Osiander's sign: Increased pulsation felt through the lateral fornices, seen between 6 – 8 weeks.</li><li>• Option D. Osiander's sign:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Named Pelvic signs</li><li>➤ Named Pelvic signs</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg168, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 74</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg168, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 74</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-year-old child came to the clinic. Her mother gave the history of repeated blood transfusion over the past. She is presently worried about her son as earlier he got good grades in class but now from past few months his grades are decreasing and he remains lethargic. His blood investigations show crescent shaped RBC. What should be the next step in management of this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood transfusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal saline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Observation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blood transfusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Blood transfusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child with sickle cell disease presenting with symptoms of severe anemia and crescent-shaped RBCs, blood transfusion is the appropriate next step to manage the condition and improve the child's overall well-being.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A substance abuser was found on the roadside with a low respiratory rate and with pinpoint pupils. Which of the following should be suspected in this drug abuser? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Morphine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Morphine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Morphine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression are strongly indicative of opioid poisoning, with morphine being a common opioid responsible for such symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "IUCD having the longest life span is: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Progestasert", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CuT 380 A", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mirena", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nova T", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CuT 380 A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CuT 380 A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• CuT 380 A has the longest life span. It is named CuT 380 A because the surface area of copper is 380 mm. Its higher surface area is responsible for its greater efficacy. CuT 380 A maybe replaced after 10 years</li><li>• CuT 380 A has the longest life span.</li><li>• It is named CuT 380 A because the surface area of copper is 380 mm.</li><li>• Its higher surface area is responsible for its greater efficacy.</li><li>• CuT 380 A maybe replaced after 10 years</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Progestasert : It is a progesterone (38 mg) containing IUD, which is no longer manufactured. It had a shorter lifespan.</li><li>• Option A. Progestasert</li><li>• Option C. Mirena : It is a LNG containing IUD (52 mg LNG released at the rate of 20 mg per day). It is replaced every 7 years.</li><li>• Option C. Mirena</li><li>• Option D. Nova T : It is similar to Copper containing IUD but additionally it has a silver core.</li><li>• Option D. Nova T</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The CuT 380 A intrauterine contraceptive device has the longest life span, which can be used for up to 10 years.</li><li>➤ The CuT 380 A intrauterine contraceptive device has the longest life span, which can be used for up to 10 years.</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th Edition page 480, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 109</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th Edition page 480, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 109</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Interpret the finding of the ECG given below. (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supraventricular tachycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Supraventricular tachycardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-132052.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Supraventricular tachycardia presents as a narrow complex tachycardia with regular rhythm and absence of visible P waves.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Absent P waves is a feature of which of the following? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focal atrial tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atrial fibrillation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Atrial fibrillation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The absence of P waves and an irregularly irregular rhythm on an ECG are characteristic of atrial fibrillation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 21-year-old woman is brought in a drowsy state from a PHC with complaints of fever, severe lower abdominal pain, and purulent vaginal discharge. Her friend revealed that she had had an unsafe abortion a week ago. On examination, her abdomen was distended, BP was 80/60 mmHg, PR was 140 bpm and RR was 36 /min. Which of the following is the most common causative agent of her present condition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clostridium perfringens", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clostridium sordelli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Escherichia coli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Escherichia coli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario is indicative of septic abortion with endotoxic shock syndrome. Septic abortion is a serious infection of the uterus that can occur after an abortion, particularly if the abortion was performed under non-sterile conditions.</li><li>• Escherichia coli (E. coli) is the most common organism responsible for septic abortion. It is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms. Its presence in the uterus can lead to severe infections, especially in cases of unsafe or incomplete abortions.</li><li>• Escherichia coli (E. coli) is the most common organism responsible for septic abortion. It is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms. Its presence in the uterus can lead to severe infections, especially in cases of unsafe or incomplete abortions.</li><li>• Escherichia coli (E. coli)</li><li>• Septic abortion is typically characterized by:</li><li>• A rise in temperature of at least 100.4°F (38°C) for 24 hours or more. Offensive or purulent vaginal discharge. Other evidence of pelvic infection such as lower abdominal pain and tenderness.</li><li>• A rise in temperature of at least 100.4°F (38°C) for 24 hours or more.</li><li>• Offensive or purulent vaginal discharge.</li><li>• Other evidence of pelvic infection such as lower abdominal pain and tenderness.</li><li>• The patient’s symptoms of fever, severe abdominal pain, purulent discharge, hypotension (BP 80/60 mmHg), tachycardia (PR 140 bpm), and increased respiratory rate (RR 36/min) are consistent with septic abortion and septic shock.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Streptococcus pyogenes : Although it can cause severe infections, it is not the most common organism responsible for septic abortions.</li><li>• Option A. Streptococcus pyogenes</li><li>• Option B. Clostridium perfringens : This bacterium can cause gas gangrene and other severe infections but is less commonly associated with septic abortion.</li><li>• Option B. Clostridium perfringens</li><li>• Option C. Clostridium sordelli : This organism can cause toxic shock syndrome associated with abortions, but it is not the most common cause of septic abortion.</li><li>• Option C. Clostridium sordelli</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ E. coli is the most common causative organism of septic abortion, characterized by fever, purulent vaginal discharge, and signs of systemic infection.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 194, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 194, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of psoriasis in the given picture? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Guttate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erythrodermic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pustular", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inverse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Guttate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd63.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Guttate Psoriasis is identified by its classic presentation of numerous small, drop-like papules , often appearing after a streptococcal infection, which is distinct from other psoriasis types that have different presentations and localizations.</li><li>➤ Guttate Psoriasis</li><li>➤ drop-like papules</li><li>➤ streptococcal</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 35.4, 35.15 &amp; 35.16</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 35.4, 35.15 &amp; 35.16</li><li>↳ Andrew’s diseases of skin clinical dermatology – 12 edition page no 188-189</li><li>↳ Andrew’s diseases of skin clinical dermatology – 12 edition page no 188-189</li><li>↳ Online resources - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482498/</li><li>↳ Online resources -</li><li>↳ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482498/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who has just recovered from COVID-19 infection visits your OPD with black discoloration material in nose and posterior part of buccal cavity. He also gives history of using high dose steroid therapy during his treatment of COVID-19. Which of the following is most suitable drug for his treatment? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amphotericin B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Itraconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Griseofulvin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amphotericin B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Amphotericin B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drug of choice for treating mucormycosis, especially in patients who have received high-dose steroid therapy following COVID-19, is Amphotericin B. Mucormycosis presents with black necrotic lesions, hence the name \"black fungus.\" Other effective drugs for mucormycosis include Posaconazole and Isavuconazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An orthopedic surgeon consults with a patient who recently lost both hands in an industrial accident, severely affecting his ability to perform daily tasks and work. Which term best categorizes the patient's condition given the profound impact on his life and role within society? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disability", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Impairment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Handicap", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Handicap", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Handicap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Handicap: A disadvantage for a given individual resulting from an impairment or disability that limits/ prevents fulfilment of a role considered normal for that individual. (Loss of job in this example)</li><li>➤ Handicap:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most frequently observed fungal infection in the maxillary sinus among the options listed below? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aspergillosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Aspergillosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspergillosis is the most prevalent fungal infection of the maxillary sinus among the choices provided. Recognizing the form of aspergillosis (non-invasive vs. invasive) is crucial for effective management, which can range from local care and antifungals to more aggressive surgical interventions depending on the case severity and patient's immune status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For what condition is the Bone Anchored Hearing Aid (BAHA) utilized? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensorineural hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acoustic neuroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital external auditory atresia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Otitis media", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Congenital external auditory atresia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201010.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Congenital external auditory atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BAHA is a valuable hearing solution for patients with congenital external auditory atresia or other conditions where traditional hearing aids are impractical. It provides an alternative auditory pathway by directly stimulating the cochlea via bone conduction, effectively bypassing problems in the outer or middle ear.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 136, 137</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the use of the instrument given below? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myomectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hysterosalpingography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conization of cervix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hysterosalpingography", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/asdfag-as_yHPfy0j.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hysterosalpingography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Leech-Wilkinson cannula is used for injecting dye during hysterosalpingography to investigate the shape and patency of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes.</li><li>➤ The Leech-Wilkinson cannula is used for injecting dye during hysterosalpingography to investigate the shape and patency of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 38</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 38</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following methods would be the most cost-effective for testing syphilis in a village with limited resources? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dark field", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immunofluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Simple microscopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dark field", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dark Field</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dark field microscopy is the most cost-effective method for diagnosing syphilis in resource-limited settings, allowing for direct visualization of Treponema pallidum spirochetes from lesion samples.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding is: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Senile endometrial atrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hormone replacement therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Senile endometrial atrophy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Senile endometrial atrophy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Senile endometrial atrophy is the most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding. It occurs due to the thinning and atrophy of the endometrial lining, which can lead to spontaneous bleeding. Other potential causes of post-menopausal bleeding include: Endometrial cancer Endometrial polyp Endometrial hyperplasia Exogenous estrogens from hormone replacement therapy or other sources. It is crucial to rule out malignancy in cases of post-menopausal bleeding by performing endometrial sampling. This procedure can also be done on an outpatient basis using a Pipelle (endometrial sampler).</li><li>• Senile endometrial atrophy is the most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding. It occurs due to the thinning and atrophy of the endometrial lining, which can lead to spontaneous bleeding.</li><li>• Senile endometrial atrophy</li><li>• Other potential causes of post-menopausal bleeding include: Endometrial cancer Endometrial polyp Endometrial hyperplasia Exogenous estrogens from hormone replacement therapy or other sources.</li><li>• Endometrial cancer Endometrial polyp Endometrial hyperplasia Exogenous estrogens from hormone replacement therapy or other sources.</li><li>• Endometrial cancer</li><li>• Endometrial cancer</li><li>• Endometrial polyp</li><li>• Endometrial polyp</li><li>• Endometrial hyperplasia</li><li>• Endometrial hyperplasia</li><li>• Exogenous estrogens from hormone replacement therapy or other sources.</li><li>• Exogenous estrogens</li><li>• It is crucial to rule out malignancy in cases of post-menopausal bleeding by performing endometrial sampling. This procedure can also be done on an outpatient basis using a Pipelle (endometrial sampler).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Cervical cancer : Although a significant concern, it is not the most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Cervical cancer</li><li>• Option C. Endometrial cancer : While an important cause, it is less common than senile endometrial atrophy.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Endometrial cancer</li><li>• Option D. Hormone replacement therapy : Can cause bleeding but is less common than senile endometrial atrophy.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Hormone replacement therapy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding is senile endometrial atrophy.</li><li>➤ The most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding is senile endometrial atrophy.</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology page 559</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology page 559</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with complaint of dysphagia cough, and greyish white membrane over the tonsils. Which of the following is causative organism? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clostridium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C. diphtheria", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. C. diphtheria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-150038.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) C. diphtheria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria, characterized by the formation of a greyish white pseudomembrane over the tonsils, which can bleed upon removal. This is due to the toxin produced by the bacteria, leading to necrosis and exudate formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the causative agent for acne fulminans? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bifidobacterium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propionibacterium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mobiluncus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Actinomyces", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Propionibacterium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd58.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-171018.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cutibacterium acnes (formerly k/a Propionibacterium acnes ) is the bacteria associated with the pathogenesis of acne , including severe forms such as acne fulminans.</li><li>➤ Cutibacterium acnes</li><li>➤ Propionibacterium acnes</li><li>➤ acne</li><li>➤ acne fulminans.</li><li>➤ Features of Acne Fulminans:</li><li>➤ Features of Acne Fulminans:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 90.50, 154.10</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with the complaint of dysphagia. Out of the following, which type of lung cancer is most likely to be found in this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Large cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Merkel cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Squamous cell carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is strongly linked to smoking and may present with hypercalcemia and cavitating lung lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most abundant plasma protein? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albumin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Globulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Creatinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bence jones protein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-104914_6szQx5Y.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein, crucial for maintaining osmotic pressure, transporting substances, and regulating pH.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic smoker starts having pain in the calf on walking a distance of 400 meters. Gradually he starts developing pain on walking a distance of as less as 200 meters only. Currently he even gets pain in his calf while lying down. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Venous claudication", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neurological claudication", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sciatica", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rest pain", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rest pain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rest pain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rest pain in the context of chronic smoking and intermittent claudication progression indicates Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease (PAD).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the fasting guidelines given to a patient posted for laparoscopic surgery? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NPO (nil per oral) 8 hours before surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NPO 48 hours before surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NPO 3 hours before surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No need for NPO in an elective Laparoscopic surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NPO (nil per oral) 8 hours before surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/26/screenshot-2024-06-26-121650.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Fasting before surgery is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration and related complications during anesthesia. The guidelines vary based on the type of food and drink consumed.</li><li>• Fasting Guidelines for Surgery:</li><li>• Fasting Guidelines for Surgery:</li><li>• Clear Fluids: 2 hours Light Solid Food: 6 hours Heavy Meal including fried or fatty foods: 8 hours</li><li>• Clear Fluids: 2 hours</li><li>• Clear Fluids:</li><li>• Light Solid Food: 6 hours</li><li>• Light Solid Food:</li><li>• Heavy Meal including fried or fatty foods: 8 hours</li><li>• Heavy Meal including fried or fatty foods:</li><li>• For Neonates:</li><li>• For Neonates:</li><li>• Breast Milk: 4 hours Formula Milk: 6 hours</li><li>• Breast Milk: 4 hours</li><li>• Breast Milk:</li><li>• Formula Milk: 6 hours</li><li>• Formula Milk:</li><li>• For a laparoscopic surgery, which is typically an elective procedure, it is recommended that the patient adheres to a fasting period of 8 hours for heavy meals. This ensures that the stomach is empty, thereby minimizing the risk of aspiration during the procedure.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. NPO 48 hours before surgery: This is excessively long and unnecessary.</li><li>• Option B. NPO 48 hours before surgery:</li><li>• Option C. NPO 3 hours before surgery: This is too short for solid foods and does not align with standard guidelines.</li><li>• Option C. NPO 3 hours before surgery:</li><li>• Option D. No need for NPO in an elective laparoscopic surgery: This is incorrect as fasting is essential for all types of surgeries requiring anesthesia to prevent aspiration.</li><li>• Option D. No need for NPO in an elective laparoscopic surgery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients scheduled for elective laparoscopic surgery should follow fasting guidelines to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. The standard recommendation is NPO (nil per oral) for 8 hours before surgery if they have had a heavy meal.</li><li>➤ Fasting guidelines for surgery:</li><li>➤ Fasting guidelines for surgery:</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 990</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 990</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has undergone cholecystectomy few days back and now the patient has presented with upper Abdominal pain. MRCP was done which showed leak of bile from the cystic duct stump. Pt is hemodynamically stable which of the following should be the next line of management? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CECT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ERCP and stenting", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exploratory laparotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conservative treatment with antibiotics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ERCP and stenting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ERCP and stenting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a hemodynamically stable patient with a bile leak post-cholecystectomy, as shown by MRCP, the next line of management is ERCP and stenting to bridge the leak and allow healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Raghav, a young infectious disease specialist, is posted at a busy ICTC clinic in New Delhi. An anxious 30-year-old man walks in after being diagnosed HIV positive. He recalls a close contact having TB a year ago and is worried about his own health. Remembering the NACO guidelines, Dr. Raghav decides to counsel the patient and screen him for TB before symptoms manifest. This proactive approach by Dr. Raghav falls under which category of prevention? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary, secondary", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tertiary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Primary, secondary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Primary, secondary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The integration of primary and secondary prevention methods offers a holistic approach to patient care, especially in managing health in patients with complex needs like those living with HIV. This strategy not only seeks to prevent the onset of new diseases (like TB) but also to manage potential health issues proactively before they develop into more serious conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant lady is diagnosed to have bipolar disorder. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient? (FMGE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lithium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lamotrigine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Risperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lithium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lithium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The teratogenic risks of mood stabilizers: Lithium is linked to cardiac malformations like Ebstein's anomaly; lamotrigine has a mild association with oral clefts; valproate is associated with neural tube defects and other congenital abnormalities ( most teratogenic mood stabiliser ); carbamazepine is linked to neural tube defects; and oxcarbazepine has similar risks as carbamazepine, though less defined.</li><li>➤ most teratogenic mood stabiliser</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry, 14th edition, Page No 690.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion, difficulty walking, and memory problems. His wife reports that he has been a heavy drinker for the past 20 years. On examination, he has a wide-based gait and horizontal nystagmus. Laboratory tests reveal macrocytic anemia. Which of the following is the most likely deficiency causing his symptoms? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thiamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Thiamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, resulting in Wernicke's encephalopathy. The classic triad of symptoms includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Early recognition and treatment with thiamine are crucial to prevent progression to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which grade is assigned to glioblastoma in the WHO tumor classification system? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grade 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grade 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grade 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grade 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Grade 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/picture4_bbsgCzm.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-113010.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Grade 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is classified as a Grade 4 tumor in the WHO tumor classification system, indicating its high malignancy and aggressive behavior.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which part of the fallopian tube is most commonly involved in genital tuberculosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infundibulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ampulla", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isthmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interstitium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ampulla", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ampulla</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ampulla is the most commonly involved part of the fallopian tube in genital tuberculosis, with a prevalence of 55%.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition page 207, Williams Gynecology 3rd edition pg 162</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition page 207, Williams Gynecology 3rd edition pg 162</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the affinity of carbon monoxide to hemoglobin in comparison to oxygen? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "210", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "150", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 210", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 210</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carbon monoxide has a significantly higher affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen, 210 times greater, leading to the formation of carboxyhemoglobin and potentially causing severe oxygen deprivation and poisoning symptoms like headache, dizziness, and even death in extreme cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most significant side-effect of tamoxifen? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cancer in the opposite breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial hyperplasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infertility", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Endometrial hyperplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Endometrial hyperplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most significant side effect of tamoxifen is endometrial hyperplasia, which is a risk factor for the development of endometrial cancer due to its estrogen agonistic action on the endometrium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Split skin graft is composed of? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only epidermis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidermis &amp; partial dermis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epidermis &amp; deep dermis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous fat", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epidermis & partial dermis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131239.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131317.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Epidermis &amp; partial dermis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A split-thickness skin graft includes both the epidermis and part of the dermis, commonly harvested from the thigh.</li><li>➤ Humby’s Knife (for harvesting partial thickness graft)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A health economist aims to compare the overall well-being and life expectancy between two countries. He uses a specific index which considers life expectancy, education, and per capita income. Which of the following measures has he most likely utilized for his comparison? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HDI", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HPI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DALY", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "QALY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HDI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-145307.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. HDI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The HDI is a vital tool for comparing holistic human development levels across countries, incorporating health, education, and income, thus providing a multidimensional view of societal progress.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old epidemiologist is tasked with visually representing the current outbreak of diarrhea in a district. She wants to showcase the trends and fluctuations of the cases over a period of time to the local health authorities. Which type of graphical representation would be the most appropriate for her to use in order to display these temporal trends effectively? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Line chart", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bar chart", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pie chart", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spot map", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Line chart", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/20/fmge-psm-jun-2022-01.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/20/fmge-psm-jun-2022-04.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/20/fmge-psm-jun-2022-03_JqYKbFZ.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/131.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Line chart</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For displaying temporal trends and fluctuations of disease cases over time, a line chart is the most effective and appropriate graphical representation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A laborer’s younger child is brought to the OPD with a swollen belly and dull face. He has been fed rice water (rice milk) in his diet mostly. On investigations, the child is found to have low serum protein and low albumin. What is the probable diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marasmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indian childhood cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kawasaki disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kwashiorkor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture185.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kwashiorkor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kwashiorkor is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by edema, a swollen belly, apathy, and specific skin and hair changes due to a deficiency of protein in the diet.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the average duration of lochia discharge in a puerperal woman? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-15 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10-20 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24-36 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "36-42 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 24-36 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 24-36 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The average duration of lochial discharge in a puerperal woman is about 24-36 days. Lochia is the vaginal discharge that occurs for the first few weeks during the puerperium, the period following childbirth when the mother's body, including hormone levels and uterus size, returns to a non-pregnant state. The discharge originates from the uterine body, cervix, and vagina and is a mix of blood, mucus, and uterine tissue.</li><li>• Lochia has a peculiar offensive fishy smell and an alkaline reaction that tends to become acidic towards the end of the discharge period. Depending on the color variation of the discharge, it is categorized as follows:</li><li>• Lochia rubra (red): Occurs during the first 1-4 days postpartum and is primarily composed of blood, making it bright red in color. Lochia serosa: Occurs from days 5-9 postpartum, with the color transitioning to yellowish, pink, or pale brownish due to the decreasing amount of blood and increasing mucus and leukocytes. Lochia alba (pale white): Occurs from days 10-15 postpartum and consists mainly of white blood cells, mucus, and epithelial cells, giving it a pale white appearance.</li><li>• Lochia rubra (red): Occurs during the first 1-4 days postpartum and is primarily composed of blood, making it bright red in color.</li><li>• Lochia rubra (red):</li><li>• Lochia serosa: Occurs from days 5-9 postpartum, with the color transitioning to yellowish, pink, or pale brownish due to the decreasing amount of blood and increasing mucus and leukocytes.</li><li>• Lochia serosa:</li><li>• Lochia alba (pale white): Occurs from days 10-15 postpartum and consists mainly of white blood cells, mucus, and epithelial cells, giving it a pale white appearance.</li><li>• Lochia alba (pale white):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 5-15 days : This duration is shorter than the average period of lochial discharge, which generally extends beyond 15 days.</li><li>• Option A. 5-15 days</li><li>• Option B. 10-20 days : This duration is also shorter than the typical 24-36 days for lochial discharge.</li><li>• Option B. 10-20 days</li><li>• Option D. 36-42 days : While some women may experience lochial discharge for this duration, it is longer than the average duration of 24-36 days.</li><li>• Option D. 36-42 days</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The average duration of lochia discharge in a puerperal woman is about 24-36 days.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page170</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page170</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is strongly associated with \"Mucormycosis\"? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diabetic ketoacidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumocystis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diabetic ketoacidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Diabetic ketoacidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a significant risk factor for mucormycosis due to the favorable conditions it creates for the growth of Mucorales fungi, highlighting the need for vigilance in managing patients with DKA to prevent this serious fungal infection.</li><li>➤ Other causes include:</li><li>➤ Covid-19 Excessive iron overload Chronic dialysis</li><li>➤ Covid-19</li><li>➤ Excessive iron overload</li><li>➤ Chronic dialysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism seen in the image below? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P. falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "P. vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "P. Knowlesi", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "P. Malariae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. P. falciparum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/picture24.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/22/screenshot-2024-06-22-132317.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) P. falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Artificial bruise and true bruise can be differentiated by which of the following appearance? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Presence of vesicles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Color changes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diffuse margins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Swelling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Presence of vesicles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-173558.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Presence of vesicles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old boy presents with a history of multiple episodes of jaundice. On examination, mild hepatosplenomegaly is noted, along with the presence of unconjugated bilirubin (UCB) normal LFT and scleral icterus. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Criggler Najar syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dubin Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rotor syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gilbert syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gilbert syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Gilbert syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gilbert syndrome is characterized by mild, recurrent jaundice due to elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin with normal liver function tests.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The normal placenta is: (FMGE JUNE 2022) Discoid Hemochorial Deciduate", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The human placenta is characterized by the following features:</li><li>• Discoid : The placenta has a disk-like shape, which is typical in humans. Hemochorial : This term indicates that the chorion (the outer fetal membrane) comes in direct contact with maternal blood. The majority of the placenta is derived from vessels. Deciduate : This means that the placenta is shed or expelled during parturition (childbirth).</li><li>• Discoid : The placenta has a disk-like shape, which is typical in humans.</li><li>• Discoid</li><li>• Hemochorial : This term indicates that the chorion (the outer fetal membrane) comes in direct contact with maternal blood. The majority of the placenta is derived from vessels.</li><li>• Hemochorial</li><li>• Deciduate : This means that the placenta is shed or expelled during parturition (childbirth).</li><li>• Deciduate</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Discoid : While it is true that the placenta is discoid, this option alone does not cover all characteristics of the normal placenta.</li><li>• Option A. Discoid</li><li>• Option B. Hemochorial : Although the placenta is hemochorial, this option alone is incomplete.</li><li>• Option B. Hemochorial</li><li>• Option C. Deciduate : The placenta is deciduate, but this option alone is insufficient.</li><li>• Option C. Deciduate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The human placenta is discoid in shape, hemochorial in nature, and deciduate, meaning it is shed at parturition.</li><li>➤ Ref: D C Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition Page 32</li><li>➤ Ref: D C Dutta’s textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition Page 32</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is a primipara is experiencing an aggravation of hearing impairment during her pregnancy. Rinne's test yields negative results in both ears, and Weber's test indicates lateralization to the right side. Upon otoscopy, the tympanic membranes appear normal. Audiometry reveals a dip in bone conduction at 2000 Hz. What treatment would be most suitable for this particular condition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sodium fluoride", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tympanoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stapedectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stapedotomy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Stapedotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Stapedotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with otosclerosis, especially during pregnancy, stapedotomy is the recommended treatment to address conductive hearing loss effectively. These surgical options are typically preferred over medical management with sodium fluoride due to better auditory outcomes and more definitive resolution of conductive hearing impairments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has undergone surgery as shown in the image below. After this surgery, the patient presents with pallor, dizziness and sweating whenever he has a large meal. What could this be? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reflux gastritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dumping syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post vagotomy diarrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Frey’s syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dumping syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-145231.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dumping syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dumping syndrome, a common complication following Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery, presents with pallor, dizziness, and sweating after a large meal due to rapid influx of fluid and hyperosmolar contents in the bowel.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "LD50 stands for? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dose at which 50% animal mortality is seen in an experiment, after exposure to the drug", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "50% reduction of infection in the given population of experimental animals", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dose of the drug that causes adverse effects in 50 individuals", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Range of concentrations at which the likelihood of efficacy is high and the probability of adverse effects is low", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dose at which 50% animal mortality is seen in an experiment, after exposure to the drug", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Dose at which 50% animal mortality is seen in an experiment, after exposure to the drug</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LD50 (median lethal dose) is the dose of the drug at which 50% of the experimental animals die, after exposure to the drug. Larger the LD50, the safer is the drug. ED50 is the dose required to produce the effect in 50% of the population. It is the marker of drug potency. Therapeutic Index or TI = LD50/ED50 Therapeutic index is the margin of safety for a drug.</li><li>➤ LD50 (median lethal dose) is the dose of the drug at which 50% of the experimental animals die, after exposure to the drug. Larger the LD50, the safer is the drug.</li><li>➤ LD50 (median lethal dose) is the dose of the drug at which 50% of the experimental animals die, after exposure to the drug. Larger the LD50, the safer is the drug.</li><li>➤ ED50 is the dose required to produce the effect in 50% of the population. It is the marker of drug potency.</li><li>➤ ED50 is the dose required to produce the effect in 50% of the population. It is the marker of drug potency.</li><li>➤ Therapeutic Index or TI = LD50/ED50</li><li>➤ Therapeutic Index or TI = LD50/ED50</li><li>➤ Therapeutic index is the margin of safety for a drug.</li><li>➤ Therapeutic index is the margin of safety for a drug.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of hypersensitivity reaction in myasthenia gravis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type 2 HSR examples</li><li>➤ Type 2 HSR examples</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis Blood transfusion reaction Good Pasteur syndrome Graves’ disease Insulin dependent DM, immune hemolytic anemia Rh disease of newborn Pemphigus vulgaris</li><li>➤ Myasthenia gravis</li><li>➤ Blood transfusion reaction</li><li>➤ Good Pasteur syndrome</li><li>➤ Graves’ disease</li><li>➤ Insulin dependent DM, immune hemolytic anemia</li><li>➤ Rh disease of newborn</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician discusses the measles vaccination schedule for a 7-month-old who received an early dose during an outbreak. The mother is unsure about the timing of the next dose. What is the recommended age for administering the next standard measles vaccine dose? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "9 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Booster at 9 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Booster at 1 ½ year", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "At preschool age", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 9 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 9 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Administering an early measles vaccine dose during an outbreak does not alter the standard immunization schedule. The next dose should still be given at 9 months to ensure effective and lasting immunity against measles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female with first trimester pregnancy comes to you in hospital with high level of T3 and T4. Which of the following drug is most appropriate to use? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carbimazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propylthiouracil", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Potassium iodine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Propylthiouracil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Propylthiouracil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-thyroid DOC in first trimester: PTU Anti-Thyroid DOC in 2 nd and 3rd trimester: Methimazole/ Carbimazole- they can lead to Aplasia cutis if used in the first trimester. Overall, if trimester is not mentioned in the question, then the antithyroid drug of choice in pregnancy is Propylthiouracil.</li><li>➤ Anti-thyroid DOC in first trimester: PTU</li><li>➤ Anti-Thyroid DOC in 2 nd and 3rd trimester: Methimazole/ Carbimazole- they can lead to Aplasia cutis if used in the first trimester.</li><li>➤ Overall, if trimester is not mentioned in the question, then the antithyroid drug of choice in pregnancy is Propylthiouracil.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old boy with black discoloration of eye, skin and ear pinna. The urine also turned black at room (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Para hydroxyl phenyl pyruvate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phenylalanine.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Homogentisic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenyl acetic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Homogentisic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Homogentisic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alkaptonuria is characterized by the accumulation of homogentisic acid, leading to dark urine and pigmentation of connective tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient suffered from an injury to right lower limb 3 days ago following which he was brought to hospital. The injury is as shown in the image. What would be the likely treatment in this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Debridement &amp; rotational advancement flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Debridement &amp; primary closure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Debridement &amp; hyperbaric oxygen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amputation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Debridement & hyperbaric oxygen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/07/picture2_uWwAkZx.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Debridement &amp; hyperbaric oxygen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For necrotizing fasciitis, the initial treatment should include extensive debridement and hyperbaric oxygen therapy to control the infection and promote healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the anatomical structure marked in the given image? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abductor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extensor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abductor pollicis longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extensor pollicis longus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Extensor pollicis longus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/image-5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/whatsapp-image-2023-09-26-at-185555.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-34.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Extensor pollicis longus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The extensor pollicis longus is key in extending the thumb and is located in the forearm, distinct from other thumb-related muscles which are primarily found in the hand itself.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old demographer describes the demographic transition of a European nation currently in the 5th stage of its demographic cycle. Which of the following statements best describes the country's demographic characteristics in this stage? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Birth rate is unchanged", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Death rate declines", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Birth rate &lt; Death rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Positive demographic gap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Birth rate < Death rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-145039.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Birth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Stage 5 of the demographic transition, the birth rate falls below the death rate, leading to a natural decrease in population.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man brings his father who became unconscious while working in a field in the hot sun at 42 degrees Celsius in May. On examination, there were no physical signs of dehydration. His serum electrolyte values were normal. The physician found that the body temperature was 106 F. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be seen in this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nausea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sweating", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Headache", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sweating", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In classic heat stroke, sweating is usually absent.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The dystrophic calcification is seen in? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atherosclerosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D intoxication", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypercalcemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atherosclerosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-102932.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Atherosclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dystrophic calcification occurs in damaged tissues with normal serum calcium levels and is commonly seen in conditions like atherosclerosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the pattern of inheritance in neural tube defects? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autosomal dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "X-linked dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multifactorial inheritance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Multifactorial inheritance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/1_4_WyYGPIH.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Multifactorial Inheritance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neural tube defects are inherited through a multifactorial pattern, involving multiple genes and environmental factors.</li><li>➤ Option A, B and C are not the most common type of inheritance of neural tube defects.</li><li>➤ Conditions with autosomal dominant inheritance are:</li><li>➤ Conditions with autosomal dominant inheritance are:</li><li>➤ AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT INHERITENCE</li><li>➤ AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT INHERITENCE</li><li>➤ D – D ystrophia Myotonica</li><li>➤ D – D</li><li>➤ O – O steogenesis Imperfecta</li><li>➤ O – O</li><li>➤ M – M arfan syndrome</li><li>➤ M – M</li><li>➤ I – I ntermittent porphyria</li><li>➤ I – I</li><li>➤ N – N oonan syndrtome</li><li>➤ N – N</li><li>➤ A – A chondroplasia</li><li>➤ A – A</li><li>➤ N – N eurofibromatosis</li><li>➤ N – N</li><li>➤ T – T uberous sclerosis / treacher collin syndrome</li><li>➤ T – T</li><li>➤ Ref: Nelson 21 st Edition Page No-4226.</li><li>➤ Ref: Nelson 21 st Edition Page No-4226.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "State the action of the muscle marked in the given image: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retraction of scapula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Protraction of scapula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abduction of shoulder joint", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adduction of shoulder joint", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Abduction of shoulder joint", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-48.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Abduction of shoulder joint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The muscle marked in the given image is supraspinatus and the action of the muscle is abduction of the shoulder joint. It steadies the head of the humerus during movements, and abducts the shoulder joint from 0-15°</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Retraction of scapula : The retraction of the scapula involves pulling the scapula (shoulder blade) toward the midline of the body. This action is primarily performed by the rhomboid muscles and the middle fibers of the trapezius muscle. The supraspinatus muscle is not involved in scapular retraction.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Retraction of scapula</li><li>• Option B. Protraction of scapula : Protraction is the opposite of retraction and involves moving the scapula away from the midline of the body. This movement is primarily performed by the serratus anterior muscle. The supraspinatus muscle is not responsible for scapular protraction.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Protraction of scapula</li><li>• Option D. Adduction of shoulder joint : Adduction is the opposite of abduction and involves bringing the arm back toward the midline of the body. Muscles responsible for shoulder adduction include the pectoralis major and the latissimus dorsi. The supraspinatus muscle does not perform shoulder adduction.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Adduction of shoulder joint</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary action of the supraspinatus muscle is the abduction of the shoulder joint especially during the initial phase of shoulder abduction</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "74-year-old man presents with history of significant weight loss, and loss of appetite. There is no associated cough or hemoptysis. Chest X-ray was done and is given below. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchogenic carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mesothelioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metastasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumoconiosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Metastasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_182-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Metastasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple round opacities on a chest X-ray in a patient with significant systemic symptoms such as weight loss should prompt consideration of metastatic disease. Further diagnostic investigations, including a CT scan of the chest and biopsy, are recommended to confirm the origin and nature of the nodules.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn is brought to the OPD with a large mass in the lower back. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meningocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myelomeningocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spina bifida occulta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Meningocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_182-2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_182-3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Meningocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meningocele is indicated by a T2 hyperintense mass on MRI showing fluid herniation from the spine and presents as a fluctuant midline mass with positive transillumination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female went for camping with her boyfriend. She had a bee sting which resulted in edema, redness on face and difficulty in breathing. What is the type of mechanism responsible for this type of reaction? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibody mediated", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immune complex mediated", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cell mediated", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgE mediated", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IgE mediated", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-103309.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) IgE mediated</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IgE-mediated reactions are responsible for type 1 hypersensitivity reactions, such as those triggered by bee stings, leading to symptoms like edema, redness, and difficulty breathing due to mast cell degranulation and histamine release.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Reinfection with which of the following virus can lead to more severe disease with complications? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dengue", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dengue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dengue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reinfection with Dengue virus can lead to more severe disease due to antibody-dependent enhancement, especially with Dengue virus serotype 2, leading to conditions such as Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever (DHF) and Dengue Shock Syndrome (DSS).</li><li>➤ Note -</li><li>➤ Serotype: 1, 2, 3, 4</li><li>➤ Most dangerous serotype: type 2</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-year-old child is presented with swelling on face and scrotum. Which of the following is causative agent? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polio virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mumps virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cox virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mumps virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mumps virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mumps virus is the causative agent of mumps, which presents with bilateral parotitis (swelling of the parotid glands), and can also cause orchitis (swelling of the testicles) in males. This combination of symptoms—facial swelling and scrotal swelling—is characteristic of mumps infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother complains of breast cramps during breastfeeding her child. Which hormone is responsible for this? (FMGE JUNE 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prolactin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oxytocin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Oxytocin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Oxytocin helps in milk ejection by causing myoepithelial contraction, which is responsible for the cramps during breastfeeding. Oxytocin activates the Milk Let Down Reflex—suckling by the baby triggers touch receptors on the mother's breast, which stimulate the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release oxytocin. Oxytocin causes the contraction of myoepithelial cells in the breast tissue, leading to the compression of lobules and the subsequent ejection of milk.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Progesterone: Incorrect. Progesterone is responsible for alveolar growth in the breast but does not play a role in causing cramps during breastfeeding.</li><li>• Option A. Progesterone: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Estrogen: Incorrect. Estrogen is responsible for ductal growth in the breast but does not cause cramps during breastfeeding.</li><li>• Option B. Estrogen: Incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. Prolactin: Incorrect. Prolactin is responsible for milk production. It stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose, casein, and lipids, but does not cause cramps.</li><li>• Option C. Prolactin: Incorrect.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxytocin helps in milk ejection by myoepithelial contraction which is responsible for cramp during breastfeeding</li><li>➤ Function of oxytocin – milk ejection (Galactokinesis) Uterine contraction Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk. Function of prolactin – milk production Prolactin stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose (i.e., the carbohydrate of milk), casein (i.e., the protein of milk), and lipids. The prolactin receptors are down-regulated on mammary glandular tissue during periods of elevated progesterone levels (i.e., during pregnancy). Progesterone is responsible for alveolar growth Estrogen is responsible for ductal growth</li><li>➤ Function of oxytocin – milk ejection (Galactokinesis) Uterine contraction Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk.</li><li>➤ Uterine contraction Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk.</li><li>➤ Uterine contraction</li><li>➤ Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk.</li><li>➤ Function of prolactin – milk production Prolactin stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose (i.e., the carbohydrate of milk), casein (i.e., the protein of milk), and lipids. The prolactin receptors are down-regulated on mammary glandular tissue during periods of elevated progesterone levels (i.e., during pregnancy).</li><li>➤ Prolactin stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose (i.e., the carbohydrate of milk), casein (i.e., the protein of milk), and lipids. The prolactin receptors are down-regulated on mammary glandular tissue during periods of elevated progesterone levels (i.e., during pregnancy).</li><li>➤ Prolactin stimulates the breast alveolar epithelial cells to synthesize milk components, including lactose (i.e., the carbohydrate of milk), casein (i.e., the protein of milk), and lipids.</li><li>➤ The prolactin receptors are down-regulated on mammary glandular tissue during periods of elevated progesterone levels (i.e., during pregnancy).</li><li>➤ Progesterone is responsible for alveolar growth</li><li>➤ Estrogen is responsible for ductal growth</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the drug of choice for Legionnaire's disease? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Azithromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-145458.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Azithromycin is the drug of choice for treating Legionnaire's disease.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ There are 4 atypical Organism – Legionella, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and Rickettsia :</li><li>➤ There are 4 atypical Organism – Legionella, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and</li><li>➤ Rickettsia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a complex surgical procedure in an operating theatre (OT) of a tertiary care hospital, a significant amount of blood is spilled onto the floor. To ensure proper disinfection of the spilled blood and mitigate risks associated with blood-borne pathogens, which compound should be used for effective cleaning? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenolic compound", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcoholic compound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quaternary ammonium compounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlorine compound", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chlorine compound", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Chlorine compound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For disinfecting blood spills, a 1% sodium hypochlorite solution is the most effective compound to ensure proper disinfection and safety.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male presented with a 1-week history of yellow skin and sclera but is otherwise asymptomatic. He gives a history of viral infection 10 days ago which resolved 2 days back. There is a history of a similar episode of icterus 2 years back when the patient had long hours of basketball practice. The current serum bilirubin is 2.4 mg/dL, unconjugated bilirubin is 2.1 mg/dL, and conjugated bilirubin is 0.3 mg/dL. Serum AST and ALT levels are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dubin-Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crigler-Najjar type 1 syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gilbert syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotor syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gilbert syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gilbert syndrome presents with mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, often triggered by stress, fasting, or illness, and normal liver enzyme levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under which legal doctrine does a situation where a patient dies solely due to a doctor's negligence, with no contributory factors from the patient's end, fall under? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patient negligence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Res ipsa loquitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Volenti non-fit injuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respondeat superior/ novus actus interveniens", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Res ipsa loquitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Res ipsa loquitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur is applied when a patient's injury or death is clearly due to the negligence of a healthcare provider, with no contributory negligence from the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A one-and-a-half year old child is brought to the hospital with a history of breathlessness, fever &lt;37 degrees, cough, and cold. On examination, the respiratory rate was 46/min, and there were no chest retractions. Which is the most appropriate management? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Administer IV antibiotics and observe", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Administer IV antibiotics and refer to higher centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administer oral antibiotics, warn of danger signs, and send home", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administer only home remedies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Administer oral antibiotics, warn of danger signs, and send home", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture187.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Administer oral antibiotics, warn of danger signs, and send home</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a child with pneumonia but without severe symptoms, the appropriate management includes administering oral antibiotics, advising on home care, and scheduling a follow-up to monitor progress.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child brought to hospital with complains of severe fatigue, lethargy, pallor and irritation. He is diagnosed with IDA. He is on oral iron supplements. After reviewing the child doctors are planning to start with IV iron supplementation. What is the next step? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TIBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ferritin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hb value", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hematocrit", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ferritin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ferritin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ferritin is the most sensitive and specific marker for diagnosing Iron Deficiency Anemia and should be measured before initiating IV iron supplementation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following Dural venous sinuses receives the great cerebral vein of Galen as its tributary? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/fmge-anat-412.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/whatsapp-image-2023-09-26-at-115430.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/image-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked below: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Midbrain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pons", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medulla Oblongata", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spinal cord", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pons", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/whatsapp-image-2023-05-01-at-51127-pm7.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/1-backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-2-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pons</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The structure marked in the MRI scan is the Pons.</li><li>• Located in the anterior portion of the brainstem, between the midbrain superiorly and the medulla oblongata inferiorly. The pons has a ventral surface that faces anteriorly and a dorsal surface that faces posteriorly.</li><li>• It participates in several vital functions including the regulation of breathing, communication between different parts of the brain, and sensations such as hearing, taste, and balance.</li><li>• It is divided into two main parts by the transverse fibers of the pontine nuclei:</li><li>• Basilar Part : The basilar part of the pons forms the ventral aspect of the structure and is slightly convex. It contains various important structures, including the basilar artery (a major blood vessel), the corticospinal tracts Tegmentum : The tegmentum is the dorsal part of the pons and is more rounded and swollen compared to the basilar part. It consists of various nuclei and structures involved in sensory processing, sleep regulation, and motor coordination.</li><li>• Basilar Part : The basilar part of the pons forms the ventral aspect of the structure and is slightly convex. It contains various important structures, including the basilar artery (a major blood vessel), the corticospinal tracts</li><li>• Basilar Part</li><li>• Tegmentum : The tegmentum is the dorsal part of the pons and is more rounded and swollen compared to the basilar part. It consists of various nuclei and structures involved in sensory processing, sleep regulation, and motor coordination.</li><li>• Tegmentum</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Midbrain: It traverses the hiatus in the tentorium cerebelli, and connects the pons and cerebellum with the forebrain. It is the shortest brain stem segment, not more than 2 cm in length, and most of it lies in the posterior cranial fossa.</li><li>• Option A. Midbrain:</li><li>• Option C. Medulla oblongata: It extends from just above the first pair of cervical spinal nerves to the lower border of the pons. The ventral surface of the medulla is separated from the basilar part of the occipital bone and apex of the dens by the meninges and occipito-axial ligaments. The ventral and dorsal surfaces of the medulla possess a longitudinal median fissure and sulcus, respectively, which are continuous with their spinal counterparts.</li><li>• Option C. Medulla oblongata:</li><li>• Option D. Spinal cord: It lies within the vertebral canal. It is continuous rostrally with the medulla oblongata, just below the level of the foramen magnum and it terminates caudally as the conus medullaris, which is continuous with the filum terminale and is anchored to the dorsum of the coccyx.</li><li>• Option D. Spinal cord:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Pons is a key structure in the brainstem that connects the midbrain to the medulla and plays critical roles in autonomic function and coordination of movements. It is also a pivotal area for cranial nerve nuclei and pathways related to facial and auditory sensations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old female presents to emergency following bleeding per vaginum, preceded by amenorrhea for 7 weeks. She's in hemodynamic shock with a positive serum beta hCG. On examination, a mass is palpable in the lower abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyelonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red generation of fibroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ruptured ectopic pregnancy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rupture ectopic pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The above clinical scenario suggests a case of ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Following are the features:</li><li>• Positive serum beta hCG: Indicates pregnancy. History of amenorrhea for 7 weeks: Clinical manifestations of ectopic pregnancy typically appear six to eight weeks after the last normal menstrual period. Unstable vitals (hemodynamic shock): Suggestive of hemoperitoneum, a serious complication often seen with ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Mass palpable in the lower abdomen: Could be due to the ectopic pregnancy or associated hemoperitoneum.</li><li>• Positive serum beta hCG: Indicates pregnancy.</li><li>• Positive serum beta hCG:</li><li>• History of amenorrhea for 7 weeks: Clinical manifestations of ectopic pregnancy typically appear six to eight weeks after the last normal menstrual period.</li><li>• History of amenorrhea for 7 weeks:</li><li>• Unstable vitals (hemodynamic shock): Suggestive of hemoperitoneum, a serious complication often seen with ruptured ectopic pregnancy.</li><li>• Unstable vitals (hemodynamic shock):</li><li>• Mass palpable in the lower abdomen: Could be due to the ectopic pregnancy or associated hemoperitoneum.</li><li>• Mass palpable in the lower abdomen:</li><li>• The classic triad of symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy are:</li><li>• Pain Bleeding Amenorrhea</li><li>• Pain</li><li>• Bleeding</li><li>• Amenorrhea</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pyelonephritis: While pyelonephritis can cause abdominal pain and fever, it does not typically present with amenorrhea or positive serum beta hCG.</li><li>• Option A. Pyelonephritis:</li><li>• Option B. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor: This may cause abdominal pain but does not account for the positive beta hCG or amenorrhea.</li><li>• Option B. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor:</li><li>• Option C. Red degeneration of fibroid: This often occurs during pregnancy and can cause abdominal pain, but it is not typically associated with bleeding per vaginum and positive serum beta hCG in this context.</li><li>• Option C. Red degeneration of fibroid:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classic triad of symptoms for ectopic pregnancy is pain, bleeding, and amenorrhea, with a positive beta hCG test and unstable vitals indicating a possible ruptured ectopic pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page 212</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page 212</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient gets a surgical removal of foreign body from stomach. The foreign body is shown in the below given image. Whom should this patient be referred to? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pediatrician", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psychiatrist", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardiologist", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermatologist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Psychiatrist", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-535.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Psychiatrist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After the surgical removal of a trichobezoar, patients should be referred to a psychiatrist to address underlying psychiatric conditions like trichotillomania and trichophagia to prevent recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the investigation of choice in a 55-year-old woman who presents with post-menopausal bleed? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pap smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrial biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fractional curettage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CA-125 estimation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endometrial biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endometrial biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The investigation of choice for a 55-year-old woman presenting with post-menopausal bleeding is an endometrial biopsy. Post-menopausal bleeding can be a symptom of endometrial cancer, hyperplasia, or other abnormalities of the endometrial lining. An endometrial biopsy allows for direct sampling and histopathological examination of the endometrial tissue, which can help identify the underlying cause of the bleeding.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pap smear : A Pap smear is primarily used for cervical cancer screening. It is not suitable for evaluating post-menopausal bleeding, as it does not provide information about the endometrium.</li><li>• Option A. Pap smear</li><li>• Option C. Fractional curettage : Fractional curettage involves scraping the endometrial lining and the cervical canal. It can be used if the endometrial biopsy is inconclusive or if there is a strong suspicion of cancer. However, it is more invasive compared to an endometrial biopsy.</li><li>• Option C. Fractional curettage</li><li>• Option D. CA-125 estimation : CA-125 is a tumor marker that may be elevated in ovarian cancer and other conditions. It is not specific or sensitive for diagnosing endometrial cancer and is not the first-line investigation for post-menopausal bleeding.</li><li>• Option D. CA-125 estimation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most appropriate investigation for evaluating post-menopausal bleeding is an endometrial biopsy, as it can detect abnormalities in the endometrial lining, including hyperplasia and cancer.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams gynecology 3rd edition pg 708</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams gynecology 3rd edition pg 708</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old boy is exhibiting symptoms of a low-grade fever, inspiratory stridor, and a barking cough that have persisted for the last 5 days. Upon examination, he displays a hoarse voice, a moderately inflamed pharynx, and a slightly elevated respiratory rate. The chest X-ray reveals subglottic narrowing, resembling a steeple shape. Among the listed treatment options, which one is NOT recommended for managing this condition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nebulized racemic epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parenteral cefotaxime", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Helium oxygen mixture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intramuscular dexamethasone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Parenteral cefotaxime", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-182557.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Parenteral cefotaxime</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male presented with painless cervical lymphadenopathy. During the examination, the right ear shows conductive hearing loss, and the tympanic membrane appears dull. Additionally, reduced mobility of the soft palate is noted. What could be the likely diagnosis for these findings? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenoid cystic cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quinsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/nasopharyngeal-carcinoma_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a serious condition requiring prompt diagnosis and comprehensive treatment, given its potential for significant morbidity due to local invasion and distant metastasis. The clinical findings provided are strongly indicative of this diagnosis and warrant further confirmatory diagnostics, such as imaging and biopsy, followed by an appropriate oncological treatment regimen.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 284,285</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The neural tube defects show which type of inheritance? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "XLR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "XLD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multifactorial", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Multifactorial", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/whatsapp-image-2023-10-18-at-113707-am.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Multifactorial</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neural tube defects have a multifactorial inheritance pattern, meaning they are influenced by a combination of genetic and environmental factors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with long history of CHF with maintained ejection fraction and no signs of hypervolemia comes to you with long QRS waves in ECG and cardiac wall hypertrophy. Which of the following drug is best to be started to prolong survival? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lisinopril", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lisinopril", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Lisinopril</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with chronic heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), an ACE inhibitor like Lisinopril is the best choice to start treatment as it helps in reducing afterload, improving ventricular remodeling, and potentially prolonging survival. Digoxin, furosemide, and nifedipine are not appropriate for this specific patient scenario.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with multiple asymptomatic scaly patches varying in color from white to tan to brown to pink. On potassium hydroxide wet mount spaghetti and meat ball appearance is seen. Which of the following is causative organism for this disease? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tinea corporis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malassezia furfur", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Malassezia furfur", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Malassezia furfur</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malassezia furfur is the causative organism for pityriasis (tinea) versicolor, characterized by asymptomatic, scaly patches of varying colors and a distinctive \"spaghetti and meatball\" appearance on KOH wet mount.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Tumbling motility is seen in: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vibrio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Listeria", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proteus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treponema pallidum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Listeria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Listeria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tumbling motility is a characteristic feature of Listeria monocytogenes, a gram-positive facultative anaerobic bacterium with peritrichous flagella. This distinctive movement can help in the identification of this pathogen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient aged 45 years presents with swelling in MCP joints and his serum uric acid levels were found to be elevated. His physician prescribed a drug which is considered as the first line agent in the management of this condition. What is the mechanism of this drug? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Xanthine oxidase inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibitor of neutrophil recruitment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uricosuric drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyrimidine antimetabolite", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Allopurinol, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, is the first-line agent for lowering urate levels in the management of gout.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ritodrine, which prevents premature labour, causes all of the following maternal complications, except: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tremors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary oedema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypoglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypoglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ritodrine is a beta-agonist used to prevent preterm labor by relaxing uterine muscles. It has several maternal side effects. Maternal hyperglycemia is a known complication of ritodrine because it stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Maternal side effects include: Headache, palpitations: Common side effects due to beta-agonist action. Tachycardia and hypotension: These cardiovascular effects are due to beta-agonist properties. Hyperglycemia: Caused by increased glucose production and decreased insulin sensitivity. Hypocalcemia: Resulting from increased calcium excretion. Hypomagnesemia: Due to increased renal excretion of magnesium. Pulmonary edema: A serious complication caused by fluid retention and increased capillary permeability. Neonatal side effects : Hypoglycemia : Occurs due to high insulin levels in response to maternal hyperglycemia. Intraventricular hemorrhage : Related to hemodynamic instability caused by tocolytic therapy. Fetal side effects : Tachycardia : Due to beta-agonist crossing the placenta. Heart failure : Resulting from sustained tachycardia and cardiac workload.</li><li>• Ritodrine is a beta-agonist used to prevent preterm labor by relaxing uterine muscles. It has several maternal side effects.</li><li>• Ritodrine</li><li>• Maternal hyperglycemia is a known complication of ritodrine because it stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.</li><li>• Maternal hyperglycemia</li><li>• Maternal side effects include: Headache, palpitations: Common side effects due to beta-agonist action. Tachycardia and hypotension: These cardiovascular effects are due to beta-agonist properties. Hyperglycemia: Caused by increased glucose production and decreased insulin sensitivity. Hypocalcemia: Resulting from increased calcium excretion. Hypomagnesemia: Due to increased renal excretion of magnesium. Pulmonary edema: A serious complication caused by fluid retention and increased capillary permeability.</li><li>• Headache, palpitations: Common side effects due to beta-agonist action. Tachycardia and hypotension: These cardiovascular effects are due to beta-agonist properties. Hyperglycemia: Caused by increased glucose production and decreased insulin sensitivity. Hypocalcemia: Resulting from increased calcium excretion. Hypomagnesemia: Due to increased renal excretion of magnesium. Pulmonary edema: A serious complication caused by fluid retention and increased capillary permeability.</li><li>• Headache, palpitations: Common side effects due to beta-agonist action.</li><li>• Headache, palpitations:</li><li>• Tachycardia and hypotension: These cardiovascular effects are due to beta-agonist properties.</li><li>• Tachycardia and hypotension:</li><li>• Hyperglycemia: Caused by increased glucose production and decreased insulin sensitivity.</li><li>• Hyperglycemia:</li><li>• Hypocalcemia: Resulting from increased calcium excretion.</li><li>• Hypocalcemia:</li><li>• Hypomagnesemia: Due to increased renal excretion of magnesium.</li><li>• Hypomagnesemia:</li><li>• Pulmonary edema: A serious complication caused by fluid retention and increased capillary permeability.</li><li>• Pulmonary edema:</li><li>• Neonatal side effects : Hypoglycemia : Occurs due to high insulin levels in response to maternal hyperglycemia. Intraventricular hemorrhage : Related to hemodynamic instability caused by tocolytic therapy.</li><li>• Neonatal side effects</li><li>• Hypoglycemia : Occurs due to high insulin levels in response to maternal hyperglycemia. Intraventricular hemorrhage : Related to hemodynamic instability caused by tocolytic therapy.</li><li>• Hypoglycemia : Occurs due to high insulin levels in response to maternal hyperglycemia.</li><li>• Hypoglycemia</li><li>• Intraventricular hemorrhage : Related to hemodynamic instability caused by tocolytic therapy.</li><li>• Intraventricular hemorrhage</li><li>• Fetal side effects : Tachycardia : Due to beta-agonist crossing the placenta. Heart failure : Resulting from sustained tachycardia and cardiac workload.</li><li>• Fetal side effects</li><li>• Tachycardia : Due to beta-agonist crossing the placenta. Heart failure : Resulting from sustained tachycardia and cardiac workload.</li><li>• Tachycardia : Due to beta-agonist crossing the placenta.</li><li>• Tachycardia</li><li>• Heart failure : Resulting from sustained tachycardia and cardiac workload.</li><li>• Heart failure</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Tremors : A common side effect of beta-agonists due to stimulation of beta-2 receptors in skeletal muscle.</li><li>• Option A. Tremors</li><li>• Option B. Tachycardia : A direct effect of beta-agonist therapy, increasing heart rate.</li><li>• Option B. Tachycardia</li><li>• Option D. Pulmonary oedema : A serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of ritodrine due to fluid retention and increased capillary permeability.</li><li>• Option D. Pulmonary oedema</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ritodrine, used to prevent preterm labor, causes maternal hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, and is associated with several side effects, including headache, palpitations, tachycardia, hypotension, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and pulmonary edema.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page 583</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page 583</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the pathology? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liver abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute cholecystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hollow viscus perforation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hollow viscus perforation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-145639.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hollow viscus perforation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of free air under the diaphragm on an erect chest X-ray is indicative of a hollow viscus perforation, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old male patient, an accident victim started developing difficulty in breathing. On examination, his BP was 80/40 mmHg and pulses were feeble. JVP was found to be elevated with an absent y descent, and heart sounds were muffled. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Constrictive pericarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiac tamponade", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute pericarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac failure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cardiac tamponade", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiac tamponade is diagnosed with Beck's triad and an absence of y descent in JVP, especially in trauma settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The patient exhibited surgical emphysema following an urgent tracheostomy. What is the probable cause behind this occurrence? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High tracheostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tear in posterior tracheal wall", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Block in tracheostomy tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary oedema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tear in posterior tracheal wall", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Tear in posterior tracheal wall</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Surgical emphysema following tracheostomy is a serious complication, often due to a tear in the posterior tracheal wall. This condition requires immediate attention to manage the airway, assess the extent of air spread, and prevent further complications. Effective management includes careful monitoring, possibly surgical repair of the tear, and measures to control the air leakage and its sequelae.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The vertebral level marked as 2 is in which abdominal plane? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "At junction of T12 &amp; L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Upper border of L2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper border of L3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lower border of L4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Upper border of L3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-49.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/1-backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-2-6_Rs3APIP.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Upper border of L3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The structure marked 2 in the given image is the subcostal plane. It is at the level of the upper border of the third lumbar vertebra (L3).</li><li>• From the diagram shown in question the structure marked are as follows:</li><li>• Mark 1 – The plane passing through the upper border of L2 vertebrae</li><li>• Mark 2 – The plane passing through the upper border of L3 vertebrae</li><li>• Mark 3 – The plane marked is intertubercular plane , at the level of L5 vertebrae</li><li>• Mark 4 – The plane passing through the Midclavicular point.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The subcostal plane, significant for dividing abdominal regions, is located at the upper border of the L3 vertebra.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pre-conceptional use of ____ leads to reduced incidence of neural tube defects: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Folic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Folic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Folic acid used in the pre-conceptional period significantly reduces the incidence of neural tube defects (NTDs) such as spina bifida, encephalocele, and anencephaly. Folic acid is the commonly used active form of vitamin B9. Folic acid deficiency is directly implicated in the occurrence of these defects. The recommended pre-conceptional dosage of folic acid is 0.4 mg/day (400 mcg/day) for low-risk women. For those at high risk of NTDs, the recommended dosage is 4 mg/day. High-risk factors for NTDs include: History of a previous baby with NTD Pre-gestational Diabetes Mellitus Folic acid deficiency Obesity Epilepsy or use of Antiepileptic Drugs (AED)</li><li>• Folic acid used in the pre-conceptional period significantly reduces the incidence of neural tube defects (NTDs) such as spina bifida, encephalocele, and anencephaly.</li><li>• Folic acid is the commonly used active form of vitamin B9.</li><li>• Folic acid deficiency is directly implicated in the occurrence of these defects.</li><li>• The recommended pre-conceptional dosage of folic acid is 0.4 mg/day (400 mcg/day) for low-risk women. For those at high risk of NTDs, the recommended dosage is 4 mg/day.</li><li>• High-risk factors for NTDs include: History of a previous baby with NTD Pre-gestational Diabetes Mellitus Folic acid deficiency Obesity Epilepsy or use of Antiepileptic Drugs (AED)</li><li>• History of a previous baby with NTD Pre-gestational Diabetes Mellitus Folic acid deficiency Obesity Epilepsy or use of Antiepileptic Drugs (AED)</li><li>• History of a previous baby with NTD</li><li>• Pre-gestational Diabetes Mellitus</li><li>• Folic acid deficiency</li><li>• Obesity</li><li>• Epilepsy or use of Antiepileptic Drugs (AED)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Iron : Iron supplementation needed in pregnancy is 60-100 mg per day. While important for preventing anemia, it does not specifically reduce the incidence of neural tube defects.</li><li>• Option B. Iron</li><li>• Option C. Calcium : Calcium supplementation needed in pregnancy is around 1000 mg per day, important for maternal and fetal bone health but not linked to reducing NTDs.</li><li>• Option C. Calcium</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin A : The recommended daily allowance of vitamin A in pregnancy is 6000 IU/day. However, excessive intake can be teratogenic and it is not specifically used for preventing NTDs.</li><li>• Option D. Vitamin A</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pre-conceptional folic acid supplementation at a dosage of 0.4 mg/day (400 mcg/day) is essential to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page 117</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Page 117</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female patient with history suggestive of liver disease. Hepatocytes showing ground glass appearance comment on the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotor syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemochromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hep A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hepatitis B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-350.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hepatitis B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of ground-glass hepatocytes is a histological hallmark of chronic Hepatitis B infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one is most common macrocytic anemia in India? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sideroblastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcohol related.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Alcohol related.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Alcohol related</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Chronic alcoholism</li><li>➤ Chronic alcoholism</li><li>➤ Vitamin b12 deficiency Folate deficiency Alcohol –toxic to marrow, abnormal erythropoiesis Megaloblastic anemia</li><li>➤ Vitamin b12 deficiency</li><li>➤ Folate deficiency</li><li>➤ Alcohol –toxic to marrow, abnormal erythropoiesis</li><li>➤ Megaloblastic anemia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The phenomenon shown in the given image is seen in which of the following disorders?(FMGE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obsessive compulsive disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Generalized anxiety disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adjustment disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Panic disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Obsessive compulsive disorder", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/21/fmge-psm-june-2020-08-20.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Obsessive compulsive disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ OCD is characterised by obsessions and compulsions. Life time prevalence is around 2-3 % and is more common among females. Most common presentation is obsessive contamination with compulsive washing followed by pathological doubt with repeated checking. Most common comorbidity is depression. First line treatment includes SSRIs and chlomipramine . Atypical antipsychotics are used as adjunctive treatment.</li><li>➤ 2-3 %</li><li>➤ Most common presentation is obsessive contamination with compulsive washing</li><li>➤ Most common comorbidity is depression. First line treatment includes SSRIs and chlomipramine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 421-422.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady presented with burns from the neck to the lower back. Preferred sequence of treatment in this Lady? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First debridement, resuscitation, then autograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "First debridement then reconstruction and then resuscitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "First resuscitation then reconstruction and then debridement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "First resuscitation, then debridement and then autograft + allograft", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. First resuscitation, then debridement and then autograft + allograft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) First resuscitation, then debridement and then autograft + allograft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of severe burns, the primary priority is resuscitation to prevent hypovolemic shock, followed by debridement, and then grafting the burned skin with autograft or allograft.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The arterial blood gas findings of a patient are pH = 7.12, pCO2 = 50, HCO3 = 28. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by low pH, high pCO2, and a compensatory increase in HCO3.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which perspective provides the clearest view of the frontal sinus? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caldwell's view", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Towne's view", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Law's view", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stenver's view", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Caldwell's view", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020106.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102097_TgH2S3S.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020107.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020108.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Caldwell’s view</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stenver’s view is done for cochlear implants.</li><li>➤ Stenver’s view is done for cochlear implants.</li><li>➤ Law’s view is used to assess mastoid air cells.</li><li>➤ Law’s view is used to assess mastoid air cells.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference – Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 493, 494</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male presented with slight dragging sensation in the scrotum. On examination a bag of worm feel was noted in the left side of scrotum. However, testes were normal. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left hydrocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inguinal hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epididymo-orchiditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left varicocele", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Left varicocele", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Left varicocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A varicocele is characterized by a \"bag of worms\" feel in the scrotum and is often found on the left side, causing a slight dragging sensation without affecting the testes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a tertiary care hospital, health professionals gather to observe WHO Day. An event features 4-8 experts seated in front of an audience. The Director starts with a welcome and introduction, then invites speakers to share their perspectives without a set order or structured presentation. Audience participation is encouraged at the end. How would you categorize this mode of interaction? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Panel discussion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Symposium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Workshop", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Seminar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Panel discussion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-163233.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Panel discussion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A panel discussion is characterized by unstructured, spontaneous interaction among experts in front of an audience, with opportunities for audience engagement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cervical dilation and delivery on uterine contraction is similar to which of the following mechanisms? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Milk ejection by oxytocin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Water retention by ADH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FSH secretion by anterior pituitary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Milk ejection by oxytocin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Milk ejection by oxytocin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Cervical dilation and delivery on uterine contraction is similar to the mechanism of Milk ejection by oxytocin. It helps in milk ejection by myoepithelial contraction, it also helps in Parturition. Both the times it works via positive feedback mechanism.</li><li>• When the foetal body part start to descend during delivery → cervical dilatation → stimulate Hypothalamus → stimulate posterior pituitary → causes the release of oxytocin → contraction of the uterus → further descent of the foetus → more cervical dilatation → more release of oxytocin.</li><li>• This cycle continues until delivery of a baby and placenta take place. This is known Parturition Reflex.</li><li>• Oxytocin activates Milk Let down Reflex – Suckling by baby triggers touch receptors of mother’s breast, which further stimulate hypothalamus and posterior pituitary to release Oxytocin. Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells of breast tissue, leads to compression of lobules followed by ejection of milk.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Water retention by ADH : This process involves antidiuretic hormone (ADH) affecting the kidneys to retain water, unrelated to muscle contractions or feedback mechanisms similar to those in labor or milk ejection.</li><li>• Option B. Water retention by ADH</li><li>• Option C. FSH secretion by anterior pituitary : Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles but does not involve feedback-driven contractions or similar physical processes as parturition or milk ejection.</li><li>• Option C. FSH secretion by anterior pituitary</li><li>• Option D. None of the above : Incorrect because the mechanism of milk ejection by oxytocin is indeed similar to that of cervical dilation and uterine contraction.</li><li>• Option D. None of the above</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Cervical dilation and uterine contractions during labor are similar to the mechanism of milk ejection, both mediated by oxytocin and driven by positive feedback loops, enhancing the respective processes until completion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the hormone present in the contraceptive shown in the image below: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nonoxynol 9", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Octoxynol 8", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Menfegol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levonorgestrel", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nonoxynol 9", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/401.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nonoxynol 9</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• It is a contraceptive device that contains Nonoxynol 9. It is called “Today”. It comes under barrier contraceptives It is a polyurethane sponge. It is disposable and contains 1 g of nonoxynol-9. It is 2 inches in diameter, 1.25 inches thick. It has loop for easy removal and is placed in vagina with concave side covering cervix. It is effective for 24 hours. Mechanism of action- acts as mechanical barrier. It prevents the entry of sperm and also contains a spermicidal agent. It can be used only once.</li><li>• It is a contraceptive device that contains Nonoxynol 9. It is called “Today”.</li><li>• It comes under barrier contraceptives</li><li>• It is a polyurethane sponge. It is disposable and contains 1 g of nonoxynol-9.</li><li>• It is 2 inches in diameter, 1.25 inches thick. It has loop for easy removal and is placed in vagina with concave side covering cervix. It is effective for 24 hours.</li><li>• Mechanism of action- acts as mechanical barrier. It prevents the entry of sperm and also contains a spermicidal agent. It can be used only once.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Octoxynol 8 and Option C. Menfegol are also spermicidal agents like Nonoxynol 9 . They have surfactant properties and mostly cause sperm immobilization. They are available as cream, jelly or foam tablet form to be inserted high up in the vagina.</li><li>• Option B. Octoxynol 8</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Menfegol</li><li>• Option D. Levonorgestrel: It has many contraceptive applications .</li><li>• Option D. Levonorgestrel:</li><li>• .</li><li>• LNG IUD (Mirena) contains 52 mg of LNG released at 20 mcg per day, replaced every 7 years. COCPS contain combination of LNG (0.15 mg) and EE (30 mcg). Norplant is an implant containing levonorgestrel. Emergency contraceptive pills contain LNG 0.75 mg two doses 12 hours apart or single dose 1.5 mg to be taken within 72 hours</li><li>• LNG IUD (Mirena) contains 52 mg of LNG released at 20 mcg per day, replaced every 7 years.</li><li>• COCPS contain combination of LNG (0.15 mg) and EE (30 mcg).</li><li>• Norplant is an implant containing levonorgestrel.</li><li>• Emergency contraceptive pills contain LNG 0.75 mg two doses 12 hours apart or single dose 1.5 mg to be taken within 72 hours</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Today\" sponge is a barrier contraceptive containing 1 g of Nonoxynol 9, a spermicidal agent.</li><li>➤ The \"Today\" sponge is a barrier contraceptive containing 1 g of Nonoxynol 9, a spermicidal agent.</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th Edition Page 478, 480,486,492, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 130</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th Edition Page 478, 480,486,492, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 130</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent a left submandibular gland excision during which the hypoglossal nerve was injured. Which of the following deficits would be seen in this case? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deviated tongue to the contralateral side", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deviated tongue to the same side", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inability to protrude tongue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loss of taste in posterior 1/3rd of the tongue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Deviated tongue to the same side", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/1-backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-2-3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Deviated tongue to the same side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• A hypoglossal nerve injury would damage all muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus resulting in deviation of the tongue to the same side. Since, the left hypoglossal nerve is injured in the above scenario, the tongue will deviate to the left side.</li><li>• A hypoglossal nerve injury would damage all muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus resulting in deviation of the tongue to the same side.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Deviated tongue to the contralateral side : This is not a typical presentation of hypoglossal nerve injury. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue on the same side of the injury. Therefore, if the hypoglossal nerve were injured on the left side, the tongue would typically deviate to the left side, not the contralateral side.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Deviated tongue to the contralateral side</li><li>• Option C. Inability to protrude tongue : While hypoglossal nerve injury can affect tongue protrusion, it typically doesn't lead to a complete inability to protrude the tongue. Instead, it results in weakness or difficulty in protruding the tongue, especially on the side of the injury.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Inability to protrude tongue</li><li>• Option D. Loss of taste in posterior 1/3rd of the tongue : Taste sensation in the posterior one-third (posterior portion) of the tongue is primarily mediated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX), not the hypoglossal nerve. Therefore, hypoglossal nerve injury is not associated with taste deficits in this region.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Loss of taste in posterior 1/3rd of the tongue</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Damage to the hypoglossal nerve will result in the tongue deviating towards the side of the damage due to paralysis or weakening of the tongue muscles on that side. Recognizing this clinical sign is crucial for diagnosing and assessing the extent of nerve damage in related facial surgeries or injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old male presented with a skin lesion over elbow as shown below. Biopsy shows the presence of multiple neutrophilic foci in the stratum corneum. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atopic dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pemphigus Foliaceous", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Psoriasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd64.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd65.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd66.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psoriasis is diagnosed by recognizing the characteristic clinical presentation of erythematous plaques with silvery scales and the histopathological finding of Munro micro abscesses.</li><li>➤ Psoriasis</li><li>➤ erythematous plaques</li><li>➤ silvery scales</li><li>➤ Munro micro abscesses.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 4.17-18, 35.6-7, 41.1, 41.21</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following radioactive isotopes is not used for brachytherapy?(FMGE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "lodine-125", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "lodine-131", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cesium-131", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Palladium-103", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. lodine-131", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_183.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Iodine-131</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brachytherapy implants:</li><li>➤ Brachytherapy implants:</li><li>➤ Permanent implants trick: “ GIPCY ”</li><li>➤ GIPCY</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause of seizures in a 2-year-old child? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trauma to the head", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Febrile seizures", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurological deficit", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Febrile seizures", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Febrile seizures</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Febrile seizures are the most common cause of seizures in children between 6 months and 5 years of age, particularly around the age of 2 years.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Long lasting results in CABG are obtained when graft is harvested from which blood vessel? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Long saphenous vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Internal mammary artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Poly tetra fluoroethyl", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastroepiploic artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Internal mammary artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Internal mammary artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The left internal mammary artery (LIMA) is the preferred graft for CABG due to its superior long-term patency rates and resistance to atherosclerosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions is characterized by a lacy or reticular rash on the extremities and \"slapped cheek\" appearance as shown in the image? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exanthem subitum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erythema infectiosum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hand foot mouth disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Erythema infectiosum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/untitled-1242.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Erythema infectiosum</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vitamin deficiency causes tingling sensation, pallor &amp; ataxia:( FMGE 2022 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folic Acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Folic Acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Folic Acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Folic acid (also known as folate) is a B-vitamin that is essential for many bodily functions, including DNA synthesis, cell division, and the production of red blood cells. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to a range of symptoms, including:</li><li>➤ Fatigue and weakness, Pale skin , Shortness of breath Headaches, Irritability Reduced appetite and weight loss Tongue swelling and inflammation Numbness or tingling in the hands and feet Difficulty concentrating or remembering things Depression or anxiety, Irritability Birth defects in babies born to women who are deficient during pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Fatigue and weakness, Pale skin , Shortness of breath</li><li>➤ Pale skin</li><li>➤ Headaches, Irritability</li><li>➤ Reduced appetite and weight loss</li><li>➤ Tongue swelling and inflammation</li><li>➤ Numbness or tingling in the hands and feet</li><li>➤ Numbness or tingling in the hands and feet</li><li>➤ Difficulty concentrating or remembering things</li><li>➤ Depression or anxiety, Irritability</li><li>➤ Birth defects in babies born to women who are deficient during pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 546</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 546</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman who underwent dilatation and curettage following a missed abortion now presents with amenorrhoea. Urine pregnancy test is negative Hysterosalpingography shows the findings seen in the image below. What is your diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sheehan syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asherman syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyometra", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Asherman syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/407.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Asherman syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The diagnosis is Asherman syndrome. The HSG film shows a moth-eaten appearance. The above clinical characteristics, history, and hysteroscopic findings are suggestive of Asherman syndrome. Asherman syndrome involves intra-uterine adhesions, which usually occur following a D &amp; C. Clinical Features: Hypomenorrhea, secondary amenorrhoea, and infertility. Diagnosis: HSG: Shows a moth-eaten appearance or honeycomb appearance. Hysteroscopy: Used for confirmation. Treatment: Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis is the standard treatment.</li><li>• The diagnosis is Asherman syndrome. The HSG film shows a moth-eaten appearance.</li><li>• The above clinical characteristics, history, and hysteroscopic findings are suggestive of Asherman syndrome.</li><li>• Asherman syndrome involves intra-uterine adhesions, which usually occur following a D &amp; C.</li><li>• Clinical Features: Hypomenorrhea, secondary amenorrhoea, and infertility.</li><li>• Diagnosis: HSG: Shows a moth-eaten appearance or honeycomb appearance. Hysteroscopy: Used for confirmation.</li><li>• HSG: Shows a moth-eaten appearance or honeycomb appearance. Hysteroscopy: Used for confirmation.</li><li>• HSG: Shows a moth-eaten appearance or honeycomb appearance.</li><li>• Hysteroscopy: Used for confirmation.</li><li>• Treatment: Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis is the standard treatment.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Sheehan syndrome: This is described as pituitary necrosis following blood loss or postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), resulting in amenorrhoea (low FSH, LH), hypothyroidism, hypoprolactinemia, etc.</li><li>• Option A. Sheehan syndrome:</li><li>• Option B. Endometriosis: This is the presence of ectopic endometrium outside the uterine cavity. It may also cause extensive pelvic adhesions.</li><li>• Option B. Endometriosis:</li><li>• Option D. Pyometra: This refers to the presence of a pus-filled uterine cavity.</li><li>• Option D. Pyometra:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asherman syndrome is characterized by intra-uterine adhesions, typically following dilatation and curettage (D&amp;C), presenting with hypomenorrhea, secondary amenorrhoea, and infertility. It is diagnosed via HSG and hysteroscopy and treated with hysteroscopic adhesiolysis.</li><li>➤ Asherman syndrome is characterized by intra-uterine adhesions, typically following dilatation and curettage (D&amp;C), presenting with hypomenorrhea, secondary amenorrhoea, and infertility. It is diagnosed via HSG and hysteroscopy and treated with hysteroscopic adhesiolysis.</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology Page 459</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology Page 459</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of injury shown in the picture below: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abrasion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incised wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lacerated wound", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stab wound", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lacerated wound", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/12/101.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lacerated wound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The image shows a lacerated wound, characterized by irregular and jagged edges, tissue bridging, less hemorrhage, and possibly embedded foreign particles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Upon examining the CT image provided, a patient with a prior history of trauma is exhibiting symptoms such as diplopia, epistaxis, and limited eye movements. Given this clinical presentation, what would be your diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Le- fort fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fracture maxilla", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fracture zygomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blow out fracture", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Blow out fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture7_qvVnu8M.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/nasopharyngeal-carcinoma_page_4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Blow out fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient presenting with diplopia, limited eye movements, and epistaxis following facial trauma, a blow out fracture should be strongly considered. Early diagnosis using CT imaging and appropriate surgical consultation are critical to manage the condition effectively to prevent long-term visual and sensory complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother complains that her child is reluctant when it comes to taking feeds appropriately. Her child, a 15-month-old boy has a length-for-age s-2 SD below the median. What is the most likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Severely wasting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moderately underweight", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Moderate stunting", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Moderate stunting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/11/2_2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Moderate stunting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A length-for-age that is 2 SD below the median in a child indicates moderate stunting, which is a sign of chronic malnutrition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is required for the transition of the cell from G1 to M phase? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased cyclin D and CDK4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased cyclin E and CDK2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased cyclin A and CDK2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased cyclin K and CDK1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increased cyclin D and CDK4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/picture11_rBoppqi.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increased cyclin D and CDK4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Increased levels of cyclin D and CDK4 are essential for the transition of the cell from the G1 phase to the M phase, facilitating DNA replication and cell division.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with unilateral breast cancer is started on tamoxifen. This will increase the risk of: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ovarian cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrial cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Breast cancer in the opposite breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endometrial cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endometrial cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer. While it acts as an anti-estrogen on breast tissue, it has a partial estrogen agonist effect on the endometrium. This effect increases the risk of endometrial cancer by 1-2%.</li><li>• Women on tamoxifen therapy are advised to undergo regular transvaginal ultrasounds (TVS) to monitor for endometrial thickening, which can be an early sign of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer.</li><li>• Risk factors for endometrial cancer include:</li><li>• Obesity Use of unopposed estrogen Tamoxifen use Prior family history or personal history of endometrial cancer Endometrial hyperplasia Uterine fibroids</li><li>• Obesity</li><li>• Use of unopposed estrogen</li><li>• Tamoxifen use</li><li>• Prior family history or personal history of endometrial cancer</li><li>• Endometrial hyperplasia</li><li>• Uterine fibroids</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ovarian cancer : Tamoxifen use does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer.</li><li>• Option A. Ovarian cancer</li><li>• Option C. Breast cancer in the opposite breast : Tamoxifen is actually used to reduce the risk of breast cancer recurrence and the development of new breast cancers.</li><li>• Option C. Breast cancer in the opposite breast</li><li>• Option D. Cervical cancer : Tamoxifen does not increase the risk of cervical cancer.</li><li>• Option D. Cervical cancer</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tamoxifen therapy in breast cancer patients increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Regular monitoring with transvaginal ultrasound is recommended to detect early signs of endometrial pathology.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Page 355</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Page 355</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Infer the extent of the thyroid gland from the given image? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B to D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A to C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A to D", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "C to D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A to D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/screenshot-2023-09-26-183313.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. A to D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The thyroid gland typically extends from the fifth cervical vertebra (C5) to the first thoracic vertebra (T1), covering the region from the base of the neck to the upper chest.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient aged 55 years with hyperglycemia and positive ketone bodies in urine comes to you in hospital with altered sensorium. Which of the following drug therapy is most suitable to start? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Potassium chloride", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulin and IV fluid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ringer lactate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Insulin and IV fluid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Insulin and IV fluid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management of DKA</li><li>➤ Management of DKA</li><li>➤ The mainstay of therapy in DKA is correction of dehydration by giving IV fluids and correction of hyperglycemia and acidosis by giving IV Regular Insulin. If there is development of hypokalemia during infusion of insulin , then Inj. Potassium Chloride can be given. Sometimes, Sodium Bicarbonate can be used to correct the acidosis (if pH &lt;7.1). It is also important to look for the underlying precipitating factor like infections, myocardial infarction etc.</li><li>➤ The mainstay of therapy in DKA is correction of dehydration by giving IV fluids and correction of hyperglycemia and acidosis by giving IV Regular Insulin.</li><li>➤ The mainstay of therapy in DKA is correction of dehydration by giving IV fluids and correction of hyperglycemia and acidosis by giving IV Regular Insulin.</li><li>➤ If there is development of hypokalemia during infusion of insulin , then Inj. Potassium Chloride can be given.</li><li>➤ If there is development of hypokalemia during infusion of insulin , then Inj. Potassium Chloride can be given.</li><li>➤ Sometimes, Sodium Bicarbonate can be used to correct the acidosis (if pH &lt;7.1).</li><li>➤ Sometimes, Sodium Bicarbonate can be used to correct the acidosis (if pH &lt;7.1).</li><li>➤ It is also important to look for the underlying precipitating factor like infections, myocardial infarction etc.</li><li>➤ It is also important to look for the underlying precipitating factor like infections, myocardial infarction etc.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following aids in supination and pronation of the forearm? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pivot joint", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Saddle joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ellipsoid joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ball and socket joint", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pivot joint", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-410.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pivot joint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Proximal and distal radioulnar joints are uniaxial pivot joints (synovial ) and are involved in pronation and supination movements of the forearm.</li><li>• Proximal and distal radioulnar joints are uniaxial pivot joints (synovial</li><li>• The forearm has two pivot joints: the proximal radioulnar joint and the distal radioulnar joint.</li><li>• The proximal radioulnar joint - located near the elbow and allows for rotation of the radius around the ulna. This joint is responsible for supination (rotating the palm up) and pronation (rotating the palm down) of the forearm. The joint consists of the head of the radius, which rotates within the annular ligament and the radial notch of the ulna. The distal radioulnar joint - located near the wrist and also allows for rotation of the radius around the ulna. This joint is responsible for rotation of the hand, and works in conjunction with the proximal radioulnar joint to allow for fine motor movements of the hand and wrist. The joint consists of the ulnar notch of the radius, which rotates within the ulnar head and the triangular fibrocartilage complex.</li><li>• The proximal radioulnar joint - located near the elbow and allows for rotation of the radius around the ulna. This joint is responsible for supination (rotating the palm up) and pronation (rotating the palm down) of the forearm. The joint consists of the head of the radius, which rotates within the annular ligament and the radial notch of the ulna.</li><li>• The proximal radioulnar joint -</li><li>• The distal radioulnar joint - located near the wrist and also allows for rotation of the radius around the ulna. This joint is responsible for rotation of the hand, and works in conjunction with the proximal radioulnar joint to allow for fine motor movements of the hand and wrist. The joint consists of the ulnar notch of the radius, which rotates within the ulnar head and the triangular fibrocartilage complex.</li><li>• The distal radioulnar joint -</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Saddle joint : Saddle joints, like the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, allow for a wide range of motion, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and opposition. However, they are not primarily responsible for supination and pronation of the forearm.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Saddle joint</li><li>• Option C. Ellipsoid joint (Condyloid joint) : Ellipsoid joints, such as the wrist joint (radiocarpal joint), allow for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction, but they are not the primary joints involved in forearm supination and pronation</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Ellipsoid joint (Condyloid joint)</li><li>• Option D. Ball and socket joint : Ball and socket joints, like the shoulder and hip joints, permit a wide range of motion, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, and circumduction. While they allow rotation, they are not the primary joints responsible for the specific rotational movements of forearm supination and pronation.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Ball and socket joint</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pivot joint (also known as the trochoid joint) is the type of joint found between the radius and ulna bones of the forearm. This joint allows for rotational movements, specifically supination and pronation of the forearm.</li><li>➤ Pivot joint</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is an ideal treatment for a 55-year-old with simple hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Simple hysterectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medroxy progesterone acetate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levonorgestrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Simple hysterectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Simple hysterectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Simple hysterectomy is the best treatment in the above clinical scenario. The best treatment for atypical hyperplasia in a post-menopausal woman is hysterectomy as the risk of malignancy is very high.</li><li>• Simple hysterectomy is the best treatment in the above clinical scenario.</li><li>• Simple hysterectomy</li><li>• The best treatment for atypical hyperplasia in a post-menopausal woman is hysterectomy as the risk of malignancy is very high.</li><li>• For Perimenopausal/Postmenopausal Women:</li><li>• For Perimenopausal/Postmenopausal Women:</li><li>• Hyperplasia with Atypia: Hysterectomy is recommended. Hyperplasia without Atypia: Progestins may be considered, but hysterectomy is best as the age-risk is high.</li><li>• Hyperplasia with Atypia: Hysterectomy is recommended.</li><li>• Hyperplasia with Atypia:</li><li>• Hyperplasia without Atypia: Progestins may be considered, but hysterectomy is best as the age-risk is high.</li><li>• Hyperplasia without Atypia:</li><li>• For Young Patients with Hyperplasia:</li><li>• For Young Patients with Hyperplasia:</li><li>• Continuous or cyclic progesterone therapy may be tried with endometrial sampling every 6 months.</li><li>• Continuous or cyclic progesterone therapy may be tried with endometrial sampling every 6 months.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate : While progestins can be used to treat endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, in postmenopausal women, especially with atypia, a hysterectomy is the preferred treatment.</li><li>• Option B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate</li><li>• Option C. Levonorgestrel : Levonorgestrel is used in intrauterine devices for contraception and in some cases of hyperplasia without atypia, but is not the ideal treatment for postmenopausal women with atypical hyperplasia.</li><li>• Option C. Levonorgestrel</li><li>• Option D. Radiotherapy : Radiotherapy is not a standard treatment for endometrial hyperplasia with atypia. It is generally reserved for certain cases of endometrial carcinoma.</li><li>• Option D. Radiotherapy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ideal treatment for endometrial hyperplasia with atypia in a post-menopausal woman is a hysterectomy due to the high risk of progression to malignancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 331, Williams gynecology 3 rd edition pg 706</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 331, Williams gynecology 3 rd edition pg 706</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gram positive alpha hemolytic cocci with catalase negative and optochin resistant causing endocarditis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus agalactiae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus epidermidis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus sanguis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Streptococcus sanguis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Streptococcus sanguis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Streptococcus sanguis, part of the Viridans group of streptococci, is a Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, and optochin-resistant bacterium that is a common cause of endocarditis, particularly in individuals with preexisting heart conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rh-ve mother had Rh+ve child. This Rh incompatibility is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anaphylactic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cytotoxic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immune complex mediated", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delayed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cytotoxic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cytotoxic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rh incompatibility, where an Rh-negative mother has an Rh-positive child, is an example of Type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reaction, where antibodies produced by the mother attack the fetal red blood cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following second messenger is mainly involved in the mechanism of gastric acid secretion? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "cGMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "cAMP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ССК-B receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IP3-DAG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. cAMP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. cAMP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ cAMP is the crucial second messenger in the mechanism of gastric acid secretion, primarily mediated through its enhancement by gastrin, which leads to increased acid production in the stomach.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Macrocytic anemia seen is in which of the following condition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sideroblastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anemia of chronic disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic liver disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chronic liver disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chronic liver disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Macrocytic anemia can occur in chronic liver disease due to changes in red blood cell morphology, along with other conditions like megaloblastic anemia and hypothyroidism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is most commonly seen after bariatric gastric bypass surgery? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deficiency of vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deficiency of calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Protein calorie malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Iron deficiency anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Iron deficiency anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron deficiency anemia is the most common deficiency observed after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 19-year-old woman with a history of type 1 DM is brought to the ER with confusion, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Investigations show blood glucose – 520 mg/dl and urine tests positive for ketone bodies. A diagnosis of DKA is made. Which of the following is the drug of choice for the management of hyperglycemia? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Regular insulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lente insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glyburide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "70/30 insulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Regular insulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Regular insulin is the preferred treatment for hyperglycemia in DKA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 49-year-old Indian male presents with splenomegaly and following CBC findings are as follows. TLC is 1,20,000/µL, myeloblasts, promyelocytes, metamyelocytes = 45% basophils = 2%. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AML", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CML", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ALL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CLL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CML", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CML</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is characterized by the presence of the BCR-ABL protein and an overproduction of myeloid cells, leading to symptoms such as splenomegaly and elevated white blood cell counts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman visits the infertility clinic with complaints of recurrent abortions. On investigations, she is found to have a septate uterus. Which of the following corrective procedures has the best obstetric outcome? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jones metroplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strassmann metroplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tompkins metroplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transcervical resection of septum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Transcervical resection of septum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Transcervical resection of septum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Septate uterus is the most common Mullerian anomaly. It is associated with infertility, abortions, preterm labor, fetal growth restriction (FGR), and malpresentations. Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum has the best obstetric outcome. Hysteroscopic resection prevents any laparotomy scar and is thus associated with better future obstetric outcomes.</li><li>• Septate uterus is the most common Mullerian anomaly.</li><li>• It is associated with infertility, abortions, preterm labor, fetal growth restriction (FGR), and malpresentations.</li><li>• Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum has the best obstetric outcome.</li><li>• Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum</li><li>• Hysteroscopic resection prevents any laparotomy scar and is thus associated with better future obstetric outcomes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Jones metroplasty : Jones &amp; Jones's metroplasty involves wedge-shaped fundal resection for a partial septate uterus.</li><li>• Option A. Jones metroplasty</li><li>• Option B. Strassmann metroplasty : This is the surgical unification of a bicornuate uterus by excision of the septum.</li><li>• Option B. Strassmann metroplasty</li><li>• Option C. Tompkins metroplasty : Modified Jones procedure where an incision is made on the posterior surface of the uterus over the septum.</li><li>• Option C. Tompkins metroplasty</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best corrective procedure for a septate uterus with recurrent abortions, which has the best obstetric outcome, is the transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum.</li><li>➤ The best corrective procedure for a septate uterus with recurrent abortions, which has the best obstetric outcome, is the transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 47</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg 47</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman complaints of inability to conceive, dysmenorrhea, and pelvic pain. She has a history of frequent pelvic inflammatory disease. Hysterosalpingogram shows an absence of peritoneal spillage on the right side. Identify the given clinical scenario: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tubal block", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asherman syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bilateral hydrosalpinx", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tubal block", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tubal block</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tubal block commonly occurs secondary to PID, genital tuberculosis, adhesions due to previous surgery, and salpingitis isthmica nodosa. The absence of peritoneal spillage on HSG indicates a tubal block, and the next best step is hysteroscopy-laparoscopy.</li><li>➤ Tubal block commonly occurs secondary to PID, genital tuberculosis, adhesions due to previous surgery, and salpingitis isthmica nodosa. The absence of peritoneal spillage on HSG indicates a tubal block, and the next best step is hysteroscopy-laparoscopy.</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology page247, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg441</li><li>➤ Ref: D.C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology page247, Williams textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg441</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Insulin stimulates the entry of glucose into cells by:(FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facilitated diffusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Permeability of glucose across cell membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reabsorption of glucose from renal tubules", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucose reabsorption from intestine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Facilitated diffusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Facilitated diffusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of glucose transporter -</li><li>➤ Types of glucose transporter -</li><li>➤ Secondary active transport – SGLT (sodium glucose link transport)</li><li>➤ Secondary active transport – SGLT</li><li>➤ E.g.,</li><li>➤ SGLT 1 PRESENT IN SMALL INTESTINE SGLT 2 Mainly PRESENT IN KIDNEY</li><li>➤ SGLT 1 PRESENT IN SMALL INTESTINE</li><li>➤ SGLT 2 Mainly PRESENT IN KIDNEY</li><li>➤ Facilitated diffusion - GLUT</li><li>➤ Facilitated diffusion</li><li>➤ GLUT</li><li>➤ E.g.,</li><li>➤ GLUT1 – RBC, BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER, placenta GLUT2 - Beta cells of pancreas GLUT3 - Brain, placenta, kidneys</li><li>➤ GLUT1 – RBC, BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER, placenta</li><li>➤ GLUT2 - Beta cells of pancreas</li><li>➤ GLUT3 - Brain, placenta, kidneys</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the probable diagnosis of the ECG given below? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypothermia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/27/screenshot-2024-09-27-144137.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypothermia is diagnosed with an ECG showing J waves and prolonged QT interval.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The highest incidence of ureteric injury is seen in? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vaginal hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wertheim's hysterectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abdominal hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emergency Cesarean section", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Wertheim's hysterectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Wertheim's hysterectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with Wertheim hysterectomy than other hysterectomies due to the radical nature of the procedure. But the most common cause of ureteric injury is still ABDOMINAL hysterectomy as this is the most commonly done type of hysterectomy Laparoscopic hysterectomies are also associated with a high incidence of ureteric injuries (After radical hysterectomyP Overall incidence of ureteric injury is 0.5 -1 percent of all pelvic operations.</li><li>• Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with Wertheim hysterectomy than other hysterectomies due to the radical nature of the procedure.</li><li>• But the most common cause of ureteric injury is still ABDOMINAL hysterectomy as this is the most commonly done type of hysterectomy</li><li>• Laparoscopic hysterectomies are also associated with a high incidence of ureteric injuries (After radical hysterectomyP</li><li>• Overall incidence of ureteric injury is 0.5 -1 percent of all pelvic operations.</li><li>• Wertheim’s hysterectomy : As mentioned is a radical surgery involving extensive dissection and hence the chance of injury is most likely.</li><li>• Wertheim’s hysterectomy</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option C. Abdominal hysterectomy : Ureteric injury may occur during complex cases with distortion of anatomy such cervical fibroids, broad ligament fibroids, endometriosis etc</li><li>• Option C. Abdominal hysterectomy</li><li>• Option A. Vaginal hysterectomy : Ureter may also be injured in a vaginal hysterectomy although rare.</li><li>• Option A. Vaginal hysterectomy</li><li>• Option D. Emergency Caesarean section : It is a rare complication (1 in 1000) and occur in cases while trying to control bleeding when there is a lateral extension.</li><li>• Option D. Emergency Caesarean section</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with Wertheim's hysterectomy due to its radical nature, involving extensive dissection around the ureters.</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 425</li><li>➤ Ref: D. C Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition page 425</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person was brought to emergency with history of snake bite 8 hours ago. The patient had low respiratory rate and bradycardia with drooping of eyelids noted. 10 vials of antivenom were administered. What is the next line of management? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give atropine + neostigmine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Check for blood coagulation profile", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV hydrocortisone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inj epinephrine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Give atropine + neostigmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Give atropine + neostigmine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of neurotoxic snake bites where symptoms like ptosis (drooping eyelids), bradycardia, and low respiratory rate are present, the administration of atropine and neostigmine is crucial in addition to the antivenom to counteract the effects on the neuromuscular junction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old pregnant female presents to dermatology OPD with the given condition. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic Lupus Erythematosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rosacea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chloasma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chloasma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd60.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/fd60_bdlFKhU.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/screenshot-2023-11-21-171732.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chloasma is a pigmentation disorder characterized by dark, irregular facial patches , which is commonly observed during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and sun exposure.</li><li>➤ Chloasma</li><li>➤ pigmentation disorder</li><li>➤ dark, irregular facial patches</li><li>➤ pregnancy</li><li>➤ hormonal</li><li>➤ sun</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 68.11, 75.19, 88.9, 88.10</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of joint shown in the given image? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Symphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syndesmosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synchondrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Synostosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Syndesmosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/image-7.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/whatsapp-image-2023-04-05-at-184032.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Syndesmosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The type of joint shown in the given image is syndesmosis. These joints have slightly more flexibility and are connected by longer connective tissue fibers.</li><li>• Example - Radioulnar joint of forearm or Tibiofibular syndesmosis in the lower leg.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Symphysis: they are connected by fibrocartilage and allow for limited movement. The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs in the spine are examples.</li><li>• Option A. Symphysis:</li><li>• Option C. Synchondrosis: These joints are connected by hyaline cartilage and are typically immovable. An example is the epiphyseal plate in growing bones, vertebrae.</li><li>• Option C. Synchondrosis:</li><li>• Option D. Synostosis: this term refers to the fusion of bones usually at cartlilaginous or fibro-osseous connections. It can be physiological or pathological.</li><li>• Option D. Synostosis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to our national immunization schedule, when should the first dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine ideally be administered to a neonate? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "At birth", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. At birth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-123039.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. At birth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine is administered at birth as part of the national immunization schedule. This early vaccination is crucial for preventing mother-to-child transmission of the Hepatitis B virus, which can occur during birth or shortly after. Administering the vaccine at birth significantly reduces the risk of the newborn contracting Hepatitis B, a critical intervention in areas with a high prevalence of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs does not reduce mortality in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ACE inhibitors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Digoxin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Digoxin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drugs which reduce mortality in patients with HFrEF are :</li><li>➤ The drugs which reduce mortality in patients with HFrEF are :</li><li>➤ Beta blockers ACE inhibitors Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists Angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI) Hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate</li><li>➤ Beta blockers</li><li>➤ Beta blockers</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors</li><li>➤ Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)</li><li>➤ Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)</li><li>➤ Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists</li><li>➤ Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists</li><li>➤ Angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI)</li><li>➤ Angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI)</li><li>➤ Hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate</li><li>➤ Hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 39-year-old man is presenting with the following clinical features: Hypercalcemia, features consistent with renal insufficiency, markedly decreased red blood cell (RBC) count on complete blood count (CBC), Multiple lytic lesions observed on x-ray. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grave’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal tubular acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Multiple myeloma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/untitled-342.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Multiple Myeloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple myeloma is characterized by hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and multiple lytic bone lesions, fulfilling the CRAB criteria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the context of health education and behaviour change, consider a situation where a local health department in a city decided to address the rising cases of communicable diseases. They identified inadequate hand hygiene as a significant contributing factor. To address this, they organized a mass gathering to promote hand wash awareness. During this event, they employed a systematic approach to ensure maximum impact. They started by making people aware of the importance of hand hygiene, followed by sparking interest through demonstrations and interactive sessions. Subsequently, they gauged the audience's understanding and openness to the idea, and finally, they encouraged and supported the adoption of these practices in their daily routine. Based on this description, which of the following sequences of events in the behaviour change process is most appropriate? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Awareness – interest – adoption – evaluation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Awareness- interest- evaluation- adoption", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Evaluation – adoption – awareness – interest", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adoption- awareness- interest – evaluation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Awareness- interest- evaluation- adoption", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Awareness-interest-evaluation-adoption</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5 stages are included in this process</li><li>➤ 5 stages are included in this process</li><li>➤ Awareness Interest Evaluation Trial Adoption</li><li>➤ Awareness</li><li>➤ Interest</li><li>➤ Evaluation</li><li>➤ Trial</li><li>➤ Adoption</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old patient is suffering from iron deficiency anemia. Which stain is used to confirm the iron stores? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alizarin red", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methylene blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prussian blue", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Von kossa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prussian blue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-104914.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/06/picture306.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Prussian blue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Prussian blue stain is used to confirm the presence of iron stores, particularly in cases of iron deficiency or overload.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor, weight loss, and heaviness in the left hypochondrium for the past 2 months. Abdominal palpation reveals splenomegaly. His hemogram and peripheral smear results are given below. (FMGE JUNE 2022) Hemogram: Hb – 10 gm/dL, WBC count – 1,65,000, Platelet count – 3 lakhs, PS: Metamyelocytes – 15%, Promyeloblasts – 30%, Myeloblasts – 45%. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic lymphocytic leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute myeloid leukemia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acute myeloid leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute myeloid leukemia is diagnosed when there is a high percentage of myeloblasts (&gt;20%) in the blood or bone marrow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The perversion that involves sexual gratification by inflicting pain on the partner is known as? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sadism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Masochism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Voyeurism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exhibitionism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sadism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sadism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Sadism is deriving sexual pleasure from inflicting pain, suffering, or humiliation on another person. It is more commonly seen in males.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 597.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient present with multiple episodes or bloody diarrhea. On investigation of blood sample Enterohemorrhagic strain of E. Coli was isolated. On which of the following media this organism can be cultured? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TCBS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Selenite F broth", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Robertson cooked meat media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sorbitol MacConkey agar", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sorbitol MacConkey agar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sorbitol MacConkey agar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sorbitol MacConkey agar is the preferred medium for the isolation and differentiation of Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) strains such as O157, which do not ferment sorbitol, resulting in colorless colonies on this medium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has swelling in metacarpophalangeal joints. Serum uric acid levels were raised. Doctor prescribed medicine for same. The medicine act by inhibiting which enzyme:(FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thymidylate synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xanthine oxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ADA (adenosine deaminase)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HGPRT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Xanthine oxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/31/screenshot-2024-05-31-094659.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Xanthine oxidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Increased uric acid occur due to deficiency of xanthine oxidase which converts xanthine to uric acid during the catabolism of purine in our body. In a patient presenting with joint swelling and hyperuricemia, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, such as allopurinol, is prescribed to reduce uric acid levels. This treatment approach is aimed at managing conditions like gout, where excess uric acid leads to crystal deposition in joints and tissues. Thymidylate synthase, ADA, and HGPRT are not related to the treatment of hyperuricemia or gout.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 334-335</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 334-335</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct regarding oxytocin? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is responsible for Galactokinesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It can be given by oral route", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is secreted by anterior pituitary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the following are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is responsible for Galactokinesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. It is responsible for Galactokinesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxytocin is critical for galactokinesis, or milk ejection, and is secreted by the posterior pituitary. It plays a vital role in both uterine contractions during parturition and the milk let-down reflex during lactation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old man from a rural area presents with acute diarrhea, knee swelling, and abdominal distension after his family began using mustard oil for cooking. Which condition is most likely causing these symptoms? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidemic dropsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endemic ascites", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aflatoxicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lathyrism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epidemic dropsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-143544.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Epidemic dropsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration Diseases</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration Diseases</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presented with sudden onset of dysphagia, dysarthria and gait ataxia. MRI revealed an acute infarct in the right dorsolateral medulla. What is the likely diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dejerine's anterior bulbar syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wallenberg syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Babinski-Nageotte syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weber syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Wallenberg syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/backup_of_backup_of_fmge-anat-33.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/fmge-anat-411.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Wallenberg syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wallenberg syndrome is caused by an infarct or lesion in the lateral part of the medulla, often due to occlusion or ischemia in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA).</li><li>➤ Common symptoms include dysphagia, dysarthria, hoarseness, facial pain and temperature sensory loss on the ipsilateral (same) side of the face, and contralateral (opposite) body pain and temperature sensory loss, along with gait ataxia.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Stroke Symptoms</li><li>➤ Stroke Symptoms</li><li>➤ Rule of 4’s</li><li>➤ Rule of 4’s</li><li>➤ 4 Cranial nerves originated above pons (2 in midbrain), 4 in pons, 4 in medulla 4 Midline cranial nerves (CN 3,4 6, 12) (divide equally into 12 except 1 and 2) 4 Midline structures that begin with M:</li><li>➤ 4 Cranial nerves originated above pons (2 in midbrain), 4 in pons, 4 in medulla</li><li>➤ 4 Midline cranial nerves (CN 3,4 6, 12) (divide equally into 12 except 1 and 2)</li><li>➤ 4 Midline structures that begin with M:</li><li>➤ 4 medial structures Motor pathway (aka corticospinal tract) Medial lemniscus Medial longitudinal fasciculus Medial cranial nerves (CN 3,4,6,12)</li><li>➤ 4 medial structures Motor pathway (aka corticospinal tract) Medial lemniscus Medial longitudinal fasciculus Medial cranial nerves (CN 3,4,6,12)</li><li>➤ Motor pathway (aka corticospinal tract) Medial lemniscus Medial longitudinal fasciculus Medial cranial nerves (CN 3,4,6,12)</li><li>➤ Motor pathway (aka corticospinal tract)</li><li>➤ Medial lemniscus</li><li>➤ Medial longitudinal fasciculus</li><li>➤ Medial cranial nerves (CN 3,4,6,12)</li><li>➤ 4. 4 structures to the side that begin with S:</li><li>➤ 4 side (lateral) structures</li><li>➤ 4 side (lateral) structures</li><li>➤ Spinocerebellar pathway (ipsilateral ataxia of arm and leg) Spinothalamic pathway Sensory portion of CN V Sympathetic pathway</li><li>➤ Spinocerebellar pathway (ipsilateral ataxia of arm and leg)</li><li>➤ Spinothalamic pathway</li><li>➤ Sensory portion of CN V</li><li>➤ Sympathetic pathway</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following change is not mediated by Estrogen? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical mucus secretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Menstruation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hair growth", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary sexual characteristics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hair growth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hair growth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Estrogen does not mediate hair growth; this is primarily influenced by androgenic hormones like testosterone. Estrogen's roles include regulating the menstrual cycle, supporting the development of female reproductive tissues, and maintaining secondary sexual characteristics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn had hypoplasia of the mandibles and zygomatic bones, malformed external ears, and slanted palpebral fissures. Abnormality in the development of which of the following pharyngeal arches will most likely lead to the given condition? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pharyngeal arch 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pharyngeal arch 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pharyngeal arch 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pharyngeal arch 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pharyngeal arch 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/whatsapp-image-2023-05-01-at-51127-pm6.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/16/fmge-anat-36_UZdqiZS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pharyngeal arch 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The term \"first arch syndrome\" refers to a group of congenital conditions and anomalies that are associated with developmental issues affecting structures derived from the first pharyngeal arch during embryonic development (due to the failure of the neural crest cells to migrate into the 1st pharyngeal arch).</li><li>• Treacher Collins Syndrome (mandibulofacial dysostosis) this condition involves underdevelopment of the cheekbones, lower jaw, and ears. Individuals with Treacher Collins syndrome may have facial deformities, hearing loss, and other craniofacial abnormalities.</li><li>• Treacher Collins Syndrome</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pharyngeal arch 2: The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the formation of the Reichert's cartilage, which gives rise to several structures in the ear and throat. Conditions such as anomalies of the stapes bone can lead to conductive hearing loss, facial weakness or paralysis, Brachial arch cyst and Goldenhar syndrome.</li><li>• Option B. Pharyngeal arch 2:</li><li>• Option C. Pharyngeal arch 3: anomalies related to third pharyngeal arch are: Branchio-oto-renal (BOR) Syndrome : This syndrome affects the development of structures derived from the first, second, and third pharyngeal arches. Common features include branchial arch anomalies (e.g., branchial cleft cysts), hearing loss, and kidney abnormalities.</li><li>• Option C. Pharyngeal arch 3:</li><li>• Branchio-oto-renal (BOR) Syndrome</li><li>• Velocardiofacial Syndrome (VCFS) : involves the deletion of a portion of chromosome 22. It is associated with a wide range of symptoms, including cardiac defects, cleft palate, characteristic facial features, and developmental issues related to the third and fourth pharyngeal arches.</li><li>• Velocardiofacial Syndrome (VCFS)</li><li>• DiGeorge Syndrome : DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a deletion in chromosome 22 and is characterized by congenital heart defects, immunodeficiency, and hypoparathyroidism. It can also involve craniofacial abnormalities related to the pharyngeal arches.</li><li>• DiGeorge Syndrome</li><li>• Option D. Pharyngeal arch 4: Anomalies related to the fourth pharyngeal arch are relatively rare compared to those associated with the first and second arches. It includes laryngeal and pharyngeal anomalies, cardiovascular anomalies and respiratory distress &amp; failure. It could me related to thyroid abscess and thyroiditis.</li><li>• Option D. Pharyngeal arch 4:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following would help in explaining the mechanism of action of atrial natriuretic peptide? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CAMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "cGMP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IP3-DAG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "JAK/STAT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. cGMP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. cGMP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The action of atrial natriuretic peptide is mediated through the second messenger cGMP, which promotes vasodilation and enhances sodium excretion in the kidneys, effectively reducing blood pressure and blood volume.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient found roadside in an unconscious state having pin point pupil, HR 54/min and BP 90/50 mmHg. His history reveals he is a drug addict. Which of the following drug he must have consumed? (Fmge June 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morphine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amphetamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Morphine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Morphine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Morphine and other opioids can cause a characteristic triad of symptoms in overdose: bradycardia, hypotension, and pinpoint pupils. These signs are critical for diagnosing opioid toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old lady presents with mobile breast lump which feels like a mouse in breast. What is the diagnosis? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phyllodes tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fibroadenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Invasive ductal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breast abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fibroadenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Fibroadenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibroadenomas are common, benign breast tumors in young women, characterized by a mobile, rubbery lump that can easily move under the skin, often described as feeling like a \"mouse\" in the breast.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following arteries is palpated in the image shown below? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior tibial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior tibial artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dorsalis pedis artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Popliteal artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior tibial artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/image-6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/17/backup_of_fmge-anat-22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Posterior tibial artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The posterior tibial artery is palpated just posterior to the medial malleolus and can be most readily felt by curling the fingers around the medial aspect of the ankle, pressing into the space between the medial malleolus and the Achilles tendon, above the calcaneum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old public health officer is deployed to a rural area where there is increasing concern regarding the consumption of Khesari dal by the local community for the past year. In a meeting with the local healthcare team, various preventive measures are discussed to counteract the potential outbreak of lathyrism associated with Khesari dal. Which of the following interventions is NOT recommended in this context? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toxin removal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crop ban", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DEC", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vit C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. DEC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. DEC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lathyrism</li><li>➤ Lathyrism</li><li>➤ Lathyrism is of two types: Neurolathyrism: in human beings Osteolathyrism (odoratism): In animals Neurolathyrism is caused by eating the pulse ‘khesari dal (lathyrus sativus)’. Diets containing over 30% of this dal consumed over a period of 2-6 months result in neurolathyrism Lathyrism affects 15-45 years of age Toxin : present in lathyrus seed is ‘beta oxalyl amino alanine (BOAA) It manifests as following stages: Latent stage No-stick stage One-stick stage Two-stick stage Crawler stage Interventions for prevention and control of lathyrism: Vitamin C prophylaxis Banning the crop Removal of toxin: steeping method and parboiling Education Genetic approach Socio-economic changes</li><li>➤ Lathyrism is of two types: Neurolathyrism: in human beings Osteolathyrism (odoratism): In animals</li><li>➤ Neurolathyrism: in human beings Osteolathyrism (odoratism): In animals</li><li>➤ Neurolathyrism: in human beings</li><li>➤ Osteolathyrism (odoratism): In animals</li><li>➤ Neurolathyrism is caused by eating the pulse ‘khesari dal (lathyrus sativus)’. Diets containing over 30% of this dal consumed over a period of 2-6 months result in neurolathyrism</li><li>➤ Lathyrism affects 15-45 years of age</li><li>➤ Toxin : present in lathyrus seed is ‘beta oxalyl amino alanine (BOAA)</li><li>➤ Toxin</li><li>➤ It manifests as following stages: Latent stage No-stick stage One-stick stage Two-stick stage Crawler stage</li><li>➤ It manifests as following stages:</li><li>➤ Latent stage No-stick stage One-stick stage Two-stick stage Crawler stage</li><li>➤ Latent stage</li><li>➤ No-stick stage</li><li>➤ One-stick stage</li><li>➤ Two-stick stage</li><li>➤ Crawler stage</li><li>➤ Interventions for prevention and control of lathyrism: Vitamin C prophylaxis Banning the crop Removal of toxin: steeping method and parboiling Education Genetic approach Socio-economic changes</li><li>➤ Interventions for prevention and control of lathyrism:</li><li>➤ Vitamin C prophylaxis Banning the crop Removal of toxin: steeping method and parboiling Education Genetic approach Socio-economic changes</li><li>➤ Vitamin C prophylaxis</li><li>➤ Banning the crop</li><li>➤ Removal of toxin: steeping method and parboiling</li><li>➤ Education</li><li>➤ Genetic approach</li><li>➤ Socio-economic changes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old public health researcher is analyzing maternal health data. She mentions a metric that represents the number of maternal deaths for every 100,000 live births in a specific year. Which term best describes this metric? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maternal Mortality Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal Mortality Ratio", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infant Mortality Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perinatal Mortality Rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Maternal Mortality Ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/screenshot-2023-11-03-110055.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Maternal Mortality Ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is a critical metric representing the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births in a specific year and is vital for assessing the quality of obstetric care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein? (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bence Jones protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Globulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrinogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Albumin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plasma protein levels can be indicators of health and disease. For example, a decrease in albumin can indicate liver disease or malnutrition, while an increase in specific globulins can be seen in various infections or immune disorders. Plasma protein measurement is a common laboratory test, often part of a liver function test or used in the diagnosis and monitoring of various diseases.</li><li>➤ Plasma protein levels can be indicators of health and disease. For example, a decrease in albumin can indicate liver disease or malnutrition, while an increase in specific globulins can be seen in various infections or immune disorders.</li><li>➤ Plasma protein measurement is a common laboratory test, often part of a liver function test or used in the diagnosis and monitoring of various diseases.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 637</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 637</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year child is having problems in urination from last 3 months. Contrast dye is introduced from urethra to visualize the fault. The radiological image is shown below. What could be the investigation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Micturating cystourethrogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retrograde urethrogram", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antegrade pyelography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retrograde pyelography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Retrograde urethrogram", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-531.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Retrograde urethrogram</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year pediatric patient with mild pneumonia and diarrhea was brought to the casualty in an unconscious state. An initial management of ABCDE is done, in which D stands for:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diarrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dehydration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disability", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Developmental delay", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Disability", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-524.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Disability</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following isotope is used in the treatment of prostate cancer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I 131", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I 125", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "I 123", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I 121", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. I 125", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. I 125</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is considered as having better prognosis in a lady presenting with breast lump in the lower outer quadrant of the breast with axillary node involvement diagnosed as invasive breast cancer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Over expression of her-2-neu gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High mitotic index", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Axillary lymph node involvement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucinous or colloid breast cancer", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mucinous or colloid breast cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/01/untitled-537.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Mucinous or colloid breast cancer</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "ETC complex IV is inhibited by: (FMGE JUNE 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antimycin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyanide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oligomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotenone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cyanide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/31/screenshot-2024-05-31-094120.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cyanide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhibitors of ETC</li><li>➤ Inhibitors of ETC</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 116</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 32nd edition Page no. 116</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby is coming for regular checkup in op. his growth chart shows that weight of baby is between 85 th –95 th percentiles. Child status is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obesity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Overweight", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BMI needed for interpretation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Overweight", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Overweight</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which Vaccine given to baby at birth?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BCG, IPV, Hep B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BCG, OPV, Hep B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "BCG, OPV, MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DPT, MR, Hep B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. BCG, OPV, Hep B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. BCG, OPV, Hep B</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 253 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet May 2021 2021 05 09 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "During the discharge of a COVID patient who was treated with steroids and remdesivir, which of the following will you inform him about? (INICET MAY 2021) Repeat RT-PCR after 7 days of discharge Watch for the persistence of Anosmia Watch for Headache and nasal discharge Monitor glucose levels Watch for Sinusitis-like symptoms", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 4 and 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4 and 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3, 4 and 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3, 4 and 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients recovering from COVID-19 should monitor for symptoms of headache and nasal discharge, glucose levels due to steroid use, and sinusitis-like symptoms which could indicate secondary infections like mucormycosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the correct sequence of cellular events of inflammation? (AIIMS MAY 2021) Rolling Cytokine mediated integrin activation Adhesion Migration", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 1, 4, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4, 1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4, 1, 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-153326_ZgbUP2k.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-103809.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of cellular events during inflammation involves rolling, cytokine-mediated integrin activation, adhesion, and migration.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg. 103-104</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg. 103-104</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Insulin inhibits which of the following lipase enzymes? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hormone sensitive lipase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lipoprotein lipase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acid lipase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alkaline lipase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hormone sensitive lipase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hormone sensitive lipase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Insulin is an anabolic hormone so activates anabolic enzymes and inhibits catabolic enzymes. Hormone sensitive lipase is a catabolic enzyme present in adipose tissue cells which causes release of fatty acids from stored TG during starvation. So, it is activated by catabolic enzyme Glucagon. Lipoprotein lipase on the other hand is an anabolic enzyme and release FA from TG of VLDL and chylomicrons in fed state. Understanding the regulatory role of insulin in lipase enzymes is essential for medical students. Insulin inhibits hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) to promote fat storage and activates lipoprotein lipase (LPL) to facilitate fatty acid uptake, which helps maintain energy homeostasis and lipid metabolism in the body.</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31 st e/p 240, 245</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31 st e/p 240, 245</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A stool sample is collected. The specimen is processed for examination and is labeled at different levels as A, B, C, and D. Identify the level at which parasitic ova will be seen when viewed under a microscope? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In the formal ether sedimentation technique, parasitic ova, cysts, and larvae will be concentrated in the sediment at the bottom of the tube, labeled as level D. This sediment is where parasitic elements are found and examined under a microscope.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis for a male patient in his early twenties who presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of abdominal pain and obstipation, and reports blunt injury to the abdomen 3 days prior? The provided X-ray image may provide clues to the diagnosis: (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hollow viscus perforation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hollow viscus perforation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/20/screenshot-2024-07-20-104903.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hollow viscus perforation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hollow viscus perforation can cause acute bacterial peritonitis, which is inflammation of the peritoneum that can be localized or generalized. Clinical features of peritonitis include abdominal pain that worsens with movement, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, tenderness, and guarding on palpation. Fever may also be present, and septic shock can occur in later stages. An erect abdominal radiograph that shows free gas under the diaphragm. Management of peritonitis involves general care of the patient in terms of nutritional support and pain relief. Laparotomy and surgical treatment of the cause is usually necessary.</li><li>➤ Hollow viscus perforation can cause acute bacterial peritonitis, which is inflammation of the peritoneum that can be localized or generalized.</li><li>➤ Clinical features of peritonitis include abdominal pain that worsens with movement, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, tenderness, and guarding on palpation. Fever may also be present, and septic shock can occur in later stages.</li><li>➤ An erect abdominal radiograph that shows free gas under the diaphragm.</li><li>➤ Management of peritonitis involves general care of the patient in terms of nutritional support and pain relief. Laparotomy and surgical treatment of the cause is usually necessary.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following weapons with the possible injuries caused by them: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20192213.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20192228.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mechanism of injury with the following weapons:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is seen in physiological jaundice? ( INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased indirect bilirubin, increased urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased indirect bilirubin, absent urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased direct bilirubin, increased urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased direct bilirubin, absent urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increased indirect bilirubin, increased urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-124435.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/24_pX9ChiD.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increased indirect bilirubin, increased urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Physiological jaundice is characterized by increased indirect bilirubin, increased urobilinogen, and the absence of bilirubin in the urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the pathology from the given flow-volume loop: (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fixed distal airway obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fixed central airway obstruction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Variable intrathoracic obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Variable extra thoracic obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fixed central airway obstruction", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-154508.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Fixed central airway obstruction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flattening of both inspiratory and expiratory limbs in a flow-volume loop indicates a fixed central airway obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-month-old boy was brought to the casualty with seizures. The pediatrician tries to do CSF sampling. What are the structures punctured by the pediatrician while piercing through the marked structure? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scalp, dura, arachnoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scalp, epicranium, endocranium and dura", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scalp, synchondral membrane, dura, arachnoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pericranium, dura, arachnoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Scalp, dura, arachnoid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-63_Z2kvTec.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Scalp, dura, arachnoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The arrow in the illustration, which displays a baby's skull, is pointing in the direction of the anterior fontanelle. Ventricular tapping is the term used to describe the process of removing CSF from the anterior fontanelle. The various structures pierced are the scalp, dura, and arachnoid.</li><li>• Fontanelle tap/ Percutaneous ventricular puncture:</li><li>• Fontanelle tap/ Percutaneous ventricular puncture:</li><li>• Infants who need urgent ventricular decompression and have an open anterior fontanelle and no access to a VP shunt undergo a fontanelle tap or percutaneous ventricular puncture. A butterfly needle is used to immediately puncture the infant's open fontanelle and enter the lateral ventricle in order to obtain CS samples, alleviate pressure, or insert a drain or catheter.</li><li>• Procedure: A 25-gauge butterfly needle is inserted through the anterolateral aspect of the anterior fontanelle (away from the midline, avoiding the superior sagittal sinus).</li><li>• When performing a fontanelle tap, the following layers are pierced:</li><li>• Scalp : This includes the skin and the underlying connective tissue of the scalp. Membranous fontanelle : The actual fontanelle is a soft spot on a baby's head where the bones of the skull have not yet fused together. It's a membranous gap between the cranial bones. Dura mater : The tough outermost membrane of the three layers of the meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord. Arachnoid mater : A thin, wispy layer that lies underneath the dura mater. Pia mater : The innermost layer of the meninges that's in direct contact with the brain's surface. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) : Once through the pia mater, the needle enters the subarachnoid space where the CSF is located.</li><li>• Scalp : This includes the skin and the underlying connective tissue of the scalp.</li><li>• Scalp</li><li>• Membranous fontanelle : The actual fontanelle is a soft spot on a baby's head where the bones of the skull have not yet fused together. It's a membranous gap between the cranial bones.</li><li>• Membranous fontanelle</li><li>• Dura mater : The tough outermost membrane of the three layers of the meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord.</li><li>• Dura mater</li><li>• Arachnoid mater : A thin, wispy layer that lies underneath the dura mater.</li><li>• Arachnoid mater</li><li>• Pia mater : The innermost layer of the meninges that's in direct contact with the brain's surface.</li><li>• Pia mater</li><li>• Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) : Once through the pia mater, the needle enters the subarachnoid space where the CSF is located.</li><li>• Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)</li><li>• Note: The fontanelle tap bypasses the bony skull, which is why it's an accessible route in neonates and infants for procedures that require access to the CSF. However, as the child grows, these fontanelles close, and the method is no longer viable.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fontanelle tap is a critical emergency procedure used in infants for CSF sampling or pressure relief from the ventricles, exploiting the unossified sections of the skull for direct access to the CSF. This procedure is unique to neonates and young infants where the fontanelle is present and typically involves piercing the scalp, dura, and arachnoid layers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following with the respective ages of fusion: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20200948.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20201005.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The age of fusion are:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of 45 year with history of ischemic stroke was started on clopidogrel, However, she had another attack of stroke after 6 months. Which of the following is likely to be responsible for the failure of clopidogrel in this patient? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Downregulation of CYP2C19", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Downregulation of CYP2D6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upregulation of CYP1A1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Downregulation of CYP2E1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Downregulation of CYP2C19", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-111759.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Downregulation of CYP2C19</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The failure of clopidogrel in preventing a second stroke in a patient may be due to the downregulation of CYP2C19. This enzyme is crucial for converting clopidogrel into its active form, and its reduced activity can lead to decreased antiplatelet effects and increased risk of thrombotic events.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism from the lifecycle shown in the image given below? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystoisospora", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptosporidium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasmodium knowlesi", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toxoplasma gondii", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Toxoplasma gondii", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-193.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-194.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Toxoplasma gondii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Toxoplasma gondii is an obligate intracellular parasite with a complex lifecycle involving cats as definitive hosts and various animals, including humans, as intermediate hosts. The lifecycle stages, including oocysts and tissue cysts, are crucial for transmission and infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following causes aplastic crisis in hereditary spherocytosis? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Poxvirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ebstein barr virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenovirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parvovirus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Parvovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Parvovirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19 is the causative agent for aplastic crisis in patients with hereditary spherocytosis. It infects erythroid progenitor cells, inhibiting erythropoiesis and leading to a significant decrease in reticulocytes, causing acute erythroblastopenia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient presented with a history of bilateral lower limb weakness which progressed to his upper limbs in a year. On examination, he had weakness in both lower limbs and wasting in the left upper limb. Babinski sign was positive and the deep tendon reflexes were absent. He has no sensory loss or any autonomic dysfunction. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ALS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "GBS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tropical spastic paraparesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ALS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ALS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ALS presents with both upper and lower motor neuron signs, progressive weakness, and no sensory or autonomic dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements accurately describe the operation and management of Mobile Medical Units (MMUs)? (INICET MAY 2021) MMUs are run by the government MMUs are run by external agencies with medical supplies given by the government. MMUs are run by the government and medical supplies are also given by the government. MMUs are run by external agencies and medical supplies are also given by the external agency.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Services and Resources of MMUs:</li><li>➤ Services and Resources of MMUs:</li><li>➤ MMUs offer a variety of services, including primary care for common diseases, reproductive and child health services, diagnostic screenings, and referrals to specialized care. They are equipped with facilities for basic diagnostic tests such as blood glucose monitoring, pregnancy testing, and sputum sample collection, among others. Human resources typically include a medical officer, a nurse, a lab technician, a pharmacist/administrative assistant, and a driver/support staff.</li><li>➤ MMUs offer a variety of services, including primary care for common diseases, reproductive and child health services, diagnostic screenings, and referrals to specialized care.</li><li>➤ They are equipped with facilities for basic diagnostic tests such as blood glucose monitoring, pregnancy testing, and sputum sample collection, among others.</li><li>➤ Human resources typically include a medical officer, a nurse, a lab technician, a pharmacist/administrative assistant, and a driver/support staff.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At the Urban Primary Health Centre (U-PHC), you are in charge of managing hypertension clinic services. You have 50 patients transferred from another healthcare unit for hypertension management; 40 of these patients are prescribed amlodipine (5mg, daily) and 10 are on lisinopril (10mg, daily) due to contraindications with amlodipine. Considering the need for continuous treatment and potential increases in patient numbers, calculate the number of tablets needed for the next month and determine the appropriate reorder factor. (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1000, rf= 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1200, rf=2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1600, rf= 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3000, rf= 2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3000, rf= 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 3000, rf=2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reorder Factor (rf): A reorder factor of 2 is commonly used for monthly resupply scenarios to account for unexpected increases in patient count or dosage adjustments, ensuring no interruption in patient care.</li><li>➤ Reorder Factor (rf): A reorder factor of 2 is commonly used for monthly resupply scenarios to account for unexpected increases in patient count or dosage adjustments, ensuring no interruption in patient care.</li><li>➤ Reorder Factor (rf):</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The drowned dead body of a young man found in the sea and was brought in for postmortem examination. Which of the following findings do you see in seawater drowning? ( INICET May 2021) Hypernatremia Hyponatremia Hyperkalemia Myocardial anoxia Hemodilution", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 and 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-162311.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-165509.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ DIFFERENCES BETWEEN FRESH WATER AND SALT WATER DROWNING</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following sensory receptors are responsible for tactile discrimination? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Merkel disc", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ruffini end organ", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pacinian corpuscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meissner's corpuscle", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Meissner's corpuscle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/inicet-physio-may-2021-01.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Meissner's corpuscle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meissner's corpuscles are specialized for discriminative touch, enabling precise location and detection of fine tactile stimuli. They are most abundant in areas where tactile acuity is high, such as the fingertips and lips</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a 45-year-old male patient from Bihar with a normo-anesthetic hypopigmented lesion and a history of prolonged fever in childhood, what is the probable clinical diagnosis, considering the absence of thickened nerves?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculoid leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lepromatous leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycosis fungoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Post kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture7_mspyV7j.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/untitled-13518.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-113245.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Post kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PKDL is a probable diagnosis in a patient with a history of prolonged fever in childhood presenting with normo-anesthetic hypopigmented lesions without any thickened nerves, especially from the Bihar region.</li><li>➤ PKDL</li><li>➤ prolonged fever</li><li>➤ childhood</li><li>➤ normo-anesthetic</li><li>➤ Bihar</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 33 page no 33.50-33.51, 140.10</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 33 page no 33.50-33.51, 140.10</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida in her 10th week of gestation presents with spotting. On examination, the uterus corresponds to 12 weeks. Transvaginal ultrasound was done and it is given below. What is your diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blighted ovum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Missed abortion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydatidiform mole", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hydatidiform mole", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_Y739Z2T.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hydatidiform mole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The typical ‘Snowstorm appearance’ on ultrasound is indicative of a hydatidiform mole. This appearance is characteristic of a complete molar pregnancy, where there is a proliferation of abnormal tissue instead of a viable embryo.</li><li>• Complete Mole: Ultrasound Finding: Snowstorm appearance with diffuse, heterogeneous echogenicity. Genetics: Diploid with only paternal genetic material. It can occur due to either: One sperm fertilizing an empty or inactivated ovum (androgenesis), leading to 46XX or 46XY. Two sperm fertilizing an empty ovum (dispermy), also leading to 46XX or 46XY. Clinical Management: Suction evacuation is the standard treatment. Partial Mole: Genetics: Triploid, with 69XXX or 69XXY, resulting from two sperm fertilizing one ovum. Clinical Appearance: Typically has a more complex presentation with an abnormal fetus.</li><li>• Complete Mole: Ultrasound Finding: Snowstorm appearance with diffuse, heterogeneous echogenicity. Genetics: Diploid with only paternal genetic material. It can occur due to either: One sperm fertilizing an empty or inactivated ovum (androgenesis), leading to 46XX or 46XY. Two sperm fertilizing an empty ovum (dispermy), also leading to 46XX or 46XY. Clinical Management: Suction evacuation is the standard treatment.</li><li>• Complete Mole:</li><li>• Ultrasound Finding: Snowstorm appearance with diffuse, heterogeneous echogenicity. Genetics: Diploid with only paternal genetic material. It can occur due to either: One sperm fertilizing an empty or inactivated ovum (androgenesis), leading to 46XX or 46XY. Two sperm fertilizing an empty ovum (dispermy), also leading to 46XX or 46XY. Clinical Management: Suction evacuation is the standard treatment.</li><li>• Ultrasound Finding: Snowstorm appearance with diffuse, heterogeneous echogenicity.</li><li>• Ultrasound Finding:</li><li>• Genetics: Diploid with only paternal genetic material. It can occur due to either: One sperm fertilizing an empty or inactivated ovum (androgenesis), leading to 46XX or 46XY. Two sperm fertilizing an empty ovum (dispermy), also leading to 46XX or 46XY.</li><li>• Genetics:</li><li>• One sperm fertilizing an empty or inactivated ovum (androgenesis), leading to 46XX or 46XY. Two sperm fertilizing an empty ovum (dispermy), also leading to 46XX or 46XY.</li><li>• One sperm fertilizing an empty or inactivated ovum (androgenesis), leading to 46XX or 46XY.</li><li>• Two sperm fertilizing an empty ovum (dispermy), also leading to 46XX or 46XY.</li><li>• Clinical Management: Suction evacuation is the standard treatment.</li><li>• Clinical Management:</li><li>• Partial Mole: Genetics: Triploid, with 69XXX or 69XXY, resulting from two sperm fertilizing one ovum. Clinical Appearance: Typically has a more complex presentation with an abnormal fetus.</li><li>• Partial Mole:</li><li>• Genetics: Triploid, with 69XXX or 69XXY, resulting from two sperm fertilizing one ovum. Clinical Appearance: Typically has a more complex presentation with an abnormal fetus.</li><li>• Genetics: Triploid, with 69XXX or 69XXY, resulting from two sperm fertilizing one ovum.</li><li>• Genetics:</li><li>• Clinical Appearance: Typically has a more complex presentation with an abnormal fetus.</li><li>• Clinical Appearance:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Blighted ovum: Also known as an anembryonic pregnancy, this occurs when a gestational sac forms but no embryo is visible. It does not present with the Snowstorm appearance and usually lacks the pronounced proliferation of tissue seen in a hydatidiform mole.</li><li>• Option A. Blighted ovum:</li><li>• Option B. Missed abortion: This involves the retention of an embryo or fetus with no detectable heartbeat or growth. The ultrasound findings typically show a non-viable fetus without the characteristic snowstorm pattern of a hydatidiform mole.</li><li>• Option B. Missed abortion:</li><li>• Option C. Ectopic pregnancy: This occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, often in the fallopian tubes. It would not present with the Snowstorm appearance but rather show a gestational sac or products of conception in an abnormal location.</li><li>• Option C. Ectopic pregnancy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The 'Snowstorm appearance' on transvaginal ultrasound is characteristic of a hydatidiform mole.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 225, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 225, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You're a clinician in a busy urban sexual health clinic, and it's been a hectic day with multiple patients presenting with sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The STI treatment kits are color-coded for efficient management, but the new nurse seems a bit overwhelmed with the options. You decide to guide her. Based on the clinical presentation, which color-coded STI kit would you suggest for the following symptoms? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-131619.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/screenshot-2023-10-27-171143.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The National Aids Control Organization (NACO has provided color-coded kits for the syndromic management of sexually transmitted diseases:</li><li>➤ The National Aids Control Organization (NACO has provided color-coded kits for the syndromic management of sexually transmitted diseases:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "By which cell of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia/Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma arises? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mature B cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mature T cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Progenitor T cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Naive B cells", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Naive B cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-170842.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-170929.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Naive B cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia/Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma arises from naive B cells or post-germinal center memory B cells, distinguishing it from other B-cell and T-cell malignancies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician is reviewing mortality trends among children aged between 1-4 years based on verbal autopsy reports from the years 2010-2013. She wants to educate parents on the primary causes of death to improve preventive measures in her community. From the list provided below, which sequence correctly represents the leading causes of death in a descending order for this age group? (INICET MAY 2021) Diarrhea Pneumonia Malaria Injuries", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2&gt;1&gt;3&gt;4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4&gt;1&gt;2&gt;3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1&gt;2&gt;4&gt;3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2&gt;1&gt; 4&gt;3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2>1> 4>3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2&gt;1&gt;4&gt;3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a developed country, leading causes of death are:</li><li>➤ Accident injury Congenital anomaly Neoplasms Influenza Pneumonia</li><li>➤ Accident injury</li><li>➤ Congenital anomaly</li><li>➤ Neoplasms</li><li>➤ Influenza</li><li>➤ Pneumonia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old lady presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of multiple gallstones with no evidence of wall thickening. The bile duct (BD) diameter is measured at 12 mm, and serum bilirubin levels are mildly elevated at 0.8. The patient's alkaline phosphatase levels are significantly elevated at 380, and the gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) levels are raised by 5 times. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRCP", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endoscopic ultrasound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laparoscopic cholecystectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MRCP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) MRCP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, given the patient's clinical presentation and laboratory findings suggesting the presence of common bile duct stones, an MRCP is the most appropriate initial step to visualize the biliary system and confirm the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida is in labour. Her per-vaginal examination revealed a posterior cervix with 5 cm cervical length, 1 cm dilatation, soft consistency, and head at -1 station. Calculate the modified Bishop score? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-226_ZlB06tA.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bishop Score</li><li>• Bishop Score</li><li>• This is a scoring system used to assess the favorability of the cervix to respond to induction of labor. A cervix that is soft in consistency, a little dilated, short in length, anteriorly placed and the station of the presenting low down will respond well to induction of labor. The Bishop score was replaced by the Modified Bishop score, wherein, the cervical effacement (in terms of percentage) was replaced by cervical length (in cm). The 5 components of the Modified Bishop score are: Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• This is a scoring system used to assess the favorability of the cervix to respond to induction of labor.</li><li>• A cervix that is soft in consistency, a little dilated, short in length, anteriorly placed and the station of the presenting low down will respond well to induction of labor.</li><li>• The Bishop score was replaced by the Modified Bishop score, wherein, the cervical effacement (in terms of percentage) was replaced by cervical length (in cm).</li><li>• The 5 components of the Modified Bishop score are: Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• Cervical Dilatation Cervical length Cervical consistency Cervical Position Station of the presenting part</li><li>• Cervical Dilatation</li><li>• Cervical length</li><li>• Cervical consistency</li><li>• Cervical Position</li><li>• Station of the presenting part</li><li>• Easy to remember Mnemonic</li><li>• Easy to remember Mnemonic</li><li>• B – Bishop</li><li>• I – Effacement</li><li>• S – Station of presenting part</li><li>• H – Hard/ soft (consistency)</li><li>• O – Os dilatation (cervical dilatation)</li><li>• P – Position of the cervix</li><li>• The scoring is as shown in the table. Each component is scored from 0 to 3 The highest score is 13 and the lowest is 0 A favourable score is &gt; 6. This means the patient will respond favorably to methods of induction of labor.</li><li>• The scoring is as shown in the table.</li><li>• Each component is scored from 0 to 3</li><li>• The highest score is 13 and the lowest is 0</li><li>• A favourable score is &gt; 6. This means the patient will respond favorably to methods of induction of labor.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Modified Bishop score is used to assess the cervix's favorability for induction, and a score of 5 in this context would be based on specific factors.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 600, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 600, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "RNAi acts through? ( INICET May 2021", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Knock out", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Knock down", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Knock in", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Knock up", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Knock down", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Knock down</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gene knock down is when function of the gene present is suppressed by inhibiting or degrading the target mRNA so that it cannot form its protein. This is also known as post transcriptional gene silencing or RNA interference (RNAi). This is mediated by micro RNA (miRNA) or small interfering RNA (siRNA) which are small 20-27 nucleotides long non-coding RNAs. miRNA based RNAi involves the uses of three enzymes DROSHA, PASHA and DICER.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Knock out: This involves removing or taking a gene out, resulting in a complete loss of gene function.</li><li>• Option A. Knock out:</li><li>• Option C. Knock in: This involves inserting a gene into a specific location within the genome.</li><li>• Option C. Knock in:</li><li>• Option D. Knock up: This term is not used in the context of gene manipulation.</li><li>• Option D. Knock up:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RNA interference (RNAi) acts through gene knock down by suppressing the function of a gene via degradation or inhibition of its target mRNA, preventing protein formation.</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31 st e/p 346-348</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31 st e/p 346-348</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the site of the lesion: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left occipital lobe", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right occipital lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left geniculate body", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Left occipital lobe", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture13_6zdy8Mg.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture135.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Left occipital lobe</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A lesion in the left occipital lobe is the most likely cause of the right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing shown in the visual field tests. This understanding is critical for accurately diagnosing the underlying condition, potentially a vascular event, and directing appropriate management and intervention strategies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Protein of HPV that inactivates Retinoblastoma?(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E7 with Rb", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "E6 with p-53", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "L2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. E7 with Rb", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The protein of HPV that inactivates the retinoblastoma protein is E7, forming a complex with Rb.</li><li>➤ High-risk human papilloma virus (HPV) encodes two oncoproteins, E6 and E7, which are vital to viral replication and contribute to the development of cervical cancer. HPV16 E7 can target over 20 cellular proteins, but is best known for inactivating the retinoblastoma (RB) tumor suppressor.</li><li>➤ Ref - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK448132/</li><li>➤ Ref - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK448132/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glycosylated Hb (Hb-A1c) is best detected by: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ion exchange", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Affinity chromatography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isoelectric focussing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electrophoresis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ion exchange", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ion exchange</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HPLC based methods are gold standards for measurement of Hb-A1c. These methods further include ion exchange and affinity chromatography-based methods of which Ion exchange method is considered as the best and widely used method followed by affinity chromatography and enzymatic and immunological methods.</li><li>➤ Ref- https://www.japi.org/v264/hba1c-result-does-it-depend-upon-the-testing-methods-</li><li>➤ Ref- https://www.japi.org/v264/hba1c-result-does-it-depend-upon-the-testing-methods-</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Block sodium channels", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Block potassium channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Block calcium channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Block chloride channels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Block sodium channels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Block sodium channels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Local anesthetics work by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, which prevents the influx of sodium ions into nerve cells, thereby inhibiting nerve depolarization and the propagation of action potentials.</li><li>➤ Local anesthetics work by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, which prevents the influx of sodium ions into nerve cells, thereby inhibiting nerve depolarization and the propagation of action potentials.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9th Ed. Pg 871</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9th Ed. Pg 871</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the dose of carbetocin used in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "150 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "200 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100 mcg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 100 mcg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 100 mcg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recommended dose of carbetocin for the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage is 100 mcg, administered either IM or IV.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An unfortunate incident occurred during a football match, where a young 20-year-old athlete tragically collapsed and was subsequently rushed to the hospital. Despite all efforts, the medical team could not save him, and he was pronounced deceased. The autopsy image provided gives us important information to investigate the cause of his untimely passing. What can be the most likely cause of death? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Valvular heart disease due to Rheumatic Heart Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Death due to Hypertrophied ventricle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sudden cardiac death due to atherosclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/21.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-190507.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmia is the most likely cause of death in young athlete with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, as indicated by the clinical scenario and autopsy findings.</li><li>➤ Sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmia</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1061</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1061</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with meningitis, and the CSF sample was subjected to gram staining and microscopy and appears as shown in the microscopic image given below. Which of the following features/tests will be characteristic of the organism? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxidase and catalase negative, does not ferment inulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ferments glucose and maltose but not inulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxidase and catalase positive and does not ferment maltose or glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Catalase negative, optochin sensitive", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Catalase negative, optochin sensitive", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-189.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-190.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Catalase negative, optochin sensitive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Streptococcus pneumoniae , a common cause of bacterial meningitis, is characterized by being catalase-negative, optochin-sensitive, and gram-positive lancet-shaped diplococci. These features help in its identification and differentiation from other bacterial pathogens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child was brought to OPD with proptosis of left eye. On investigation, it was found to be a Desmin positive tumour. What can be the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ewing's sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, a common pediatric soft tissue sarcoma, is typically Desmin-positive and can present with proptosis, particularly when it arises in the orbit.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 2435-2437</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 2435-2437</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Milk production in pregnancy is inhibited by? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low luteinizing hormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High estrogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human somatomammotropin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low thyroid-stimulating hormone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High estrogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) High estrogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High estrogen levels inhibit milk production during pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 173, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 173, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery? ( INICET May 2021) 1. Superior gluteal artery 2. Inferior gluteal artery 3. Superior vesical artery 4. Middle rectal artery 5. Inferior vesical artery 6. Vaginal artery", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4, 6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4, 5, 6", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4, 5, 6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-67_qetbHZx.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The internal iliac artery is the major artery of the pelvis. At the superior border of the greater sciatic foramen in the pelvis, it divides into anterior and posterior trunks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the cause of the lesion shown in the image below?(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lightning strike", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Electrocution", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marbling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trickling down of acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lightning strike", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-15.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Lightning strike</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Filigree burns or Lichtenberg flowers are pathognomonic for lightning strikes and appear as superficial, fern-like patterns on the skin that fade within 24-48 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old car racer is brought to the emergency department after a car accident on the race track. He is unconscious and is immediately put on mechanical ventilation. He opens his eyes on verbal command and moves all four limbs spontaneously. Calculate his GCS: (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eyes-2, Verbal-1, Motor-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eyes-2, Verbal-NT, Motor-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eyes-3, Verbal-1, Motor-6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-093312_PcmOyNK.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Eyes-3, Verbal-NT, Motor-6</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism shown in this image? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ascaris lumbricoides", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-290.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ascaris lumbricoides</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Ascaris lumbricoides is the largest nematode parasite in the human intestine, identifiable by its large size, cylindrical shape with tapered ends, and characteristic mouth with three finely toothed lips.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man developed generalized muscle spasm with arching of his back as shown in the image, a few days after sustaining a puncture wound to his leg. The toxin responsible for this type of abnormal posturing acts by which of the following mechanisms? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Presynaptic inhibition of GABA and glycine release", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Presynaptic inhibition of Ach receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Postsynaptic inhibition of GABA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cleavage of SNARE proteins, preventing Ach release", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Presynaptic inhibition of GABA and glycine release", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-48.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-49.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-50.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Presynaptic inhibition of GABA and glycine release</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tetanospasmin, the toxin responsible for tetanus, acts by inhibiting the presynaptic release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine, leading to unopposed muscle contraction and the characteristic symptoms of tetanus, such as muscle spasms and opisthotonos.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with fever and vesicular lesions on the upper limb and the lower limb. Neck stiffness was present. Similar lesions were present on the palms, soles, and oral cavity. CSF analysis revealed normal glucose levels and elevated lymphocytes and protein. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial meningitis with sepsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coxsackie viral meningitis and Hand Foot Mouth disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes simplex gingivostomatitis and meningoencephalitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculous meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coxsackie viral meningitis and Hand Foot Mouth disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/25.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coxsackie viral meningitis and Hand Foot Mouth disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coxsackie viral infection can cause Hand-foot-and-mouth disease with associated viral meningitis, characterized by vesicular lesions on the palms, soles, and oral cavity, along with normal glucose and elevated lymphocytes in CSF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An orthopedic surgeon plans to treat a Colle’s fracture. What are the steps involved in applying a cast for the same?(INICET MAY 2021) Palmar flexion Traction Ulnar deviation Application of plaster of Paris", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I, II, III, IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I, II, IV, III", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "II, I, III, IV", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "II, I, IV, III", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. II, I, III, IV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture24.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture25.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture26_gkgv4sP.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture27.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) II, I, III, IV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Steps of cast application in Colles fracture are:</li><li>➤ Steps of cast application in Colles fracture are:</li><li>➤ Traction</li><li>➤ ↓</li><li>➤ Palmar flexion</li><li>➤ ↓</li><li>➤ Ulnar deviation</li><li>➤ ↓</li><li>➤ Application of plaster of Paris</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old presented with fever and difficulty swallowing. He had swelling in the marked region and was advised to undergo surgery. Post-surgery the gauze continued to soak with blood. Which of the following vessels must have been injured? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tonsillar branch of facial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ascending pharyngeal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paratonsillar vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retromandibular vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Paratonsillar vein", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture11.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-65_b11A9FF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Paratonsillar vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the case described, the patient likely underwent surgery for a peritonsillar abscess (aka Quinsy), a complication arising from tonsillitis. This condition can lead to significant swelling in the throat and difficulty swallowing. Post-operative bleeding in such cases, especially the continuous type noted as soaking through gauze, is most commonly associated with venous sources rather than arterial.</li><li>• The given image is a cadaveric specimen with an arrow pointing to the tonsillar fossa. The paratonsillar / external palatine vein is the typical site of venous origin for post-tonsillectomy bleeding.</li><li>• The paratonsillar vein, which is closely associated with the tonsillar bed and provides significant venous drainage for the tonsil, is the likely source of this bleeding. Venous bleeding tends to be continuous and can be persistent if the vein is not adequately secured during surgery.</li><li>• Torrential hemorrhage can be due to injury to an aberrantly large or aberrantly placed tonsillar arterial branch of the facial artery.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Tonsillar branch of the facial artery : The tonsils receive blood supply primarily from the tonsillar branch of the facial artery. Injury to this artery during tonsillar surgery can cause bleeding, but the bleeding is usually brisk and bright red, and the artery would likely be cauterized or ligated during surgery to prevent such bleeding.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Tonsillar branch of the facial artery</li><li>• Option B . Ascending pharyngeal artery : It's a branch of the external carotid artery and supplies the pharynx, soft palate, and the tympanic cavity. While this artery does provide blood supply to the pharyngeal region, it's not as intimately associated with the tonsillar region as the tonsillar branch of the facial artery.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Ascending pharyngeal artery</li><li>• Option D . Retromandibular vein : The retromandibular vein is formed by the union of the superficial temporal vein and the maxillary vein in the parotid gland. It's located further away from the tonsillar region, and it's unlikely to be injured during procedures involving the tonsils.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Retromandibular vein</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood supply of the tonsils:</li><li>➤ Blood supply of the tonsils:</li><li>➤ Arterial supply:</li><li>➤ Arterial supply:</li><li>➤ The tonsillar branch of the facial artery is the main supply. Ascending palatine branch of the facial artery.</li><li>➤ The tonsillar branch of the facial artery is the main supply.</li><li>➤ Ascending palatine branch of the facial artery.</li><li>➤ Venous supply:</li><li>➤ Venous supply:</li><li>➤ Veins from the tonsils drain into paratonsillar vein which joins the common facial vein and pharyngeal venous plexus.</li><li>➤ Veins from the tonsils drain into paratonsillar vein which joins the common facial vein and pharyngeal venous plexus.</li><li>➤ Types of Hemorrhage seen during/post tonsillectomy:</li><li>➤ Types of Hemorrhage seen during/post tonsillectomy:</li><li>➤ 1. Primary hemorrhage:</li><li>➤ 1. Primary hemorrhage:</li><li>➤ Occurs during surgery due to injury to blood vessels. Can be controlled by pressure, ligation, or electrocoagulation of the bleeding vessels.</li><li>➤ Occurs during surgery due to injury to blood vessels.</li><li>➤ Can be controlled by pressure, ligation, or electrocoagulation of the bleeding vessels.</li><li>➤ 2. Reactionary hemorrhage:</li><li>➤ 2. Reactionary hemorrhage:</li><li>➤ It occurs within 24 hours of surgery. It may be due to dislodgement of the clot, slippage of ligature, or return of blood pressure to normal. It is managed by removal of clot and application of pressure or vasoconstrictor. If not controlled the patient is anesthetized and hemorrhage is managed by re-exploration.</li><li>➤ It occurs within 24 hours of surgery.</li><li>➤ It may be due to dislodgement of the clot, slippage of ligature, or return of blood pressure to normal.</li><li>➤ It is managed by removal of clot and application of pressure or vasoconstrictor.</li><li>➤ If not controlled the patient is anesthetized and hemorrhage is managed by re-exploration.</li><li>➤ 3. Secondary hemorrhage:</li><li>➤ 3. Secondary hemorrhage:</li><li>➤ It occurs between 24 hours to 10 days (most common between 5th to 8th postoperative days). It is due to sepsis and premature separation of the membrane. The patient is started on IV antibiotics and if not controlled, general anesthesia is given and the bleeding vessel is electrocoagulated or ligated.</li><li>➤ It occurs between 24 hours to 10 days (most common between 5th to 8th postoperative days).</li><li>➤ It is due to sepsis and premature separation of the membrane.</li><li>➤ The patient is started on IV antibiotics and if not controlled, general anesthesia is given and the bleeding vessel is electrocoagulated or ligated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to be emergency department with a radiograph showing posterior dislocation of hip. No associated fractures are seen. What is the next step in management?(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Open reduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Closed reduction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "NCCT pelvis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arthroplasty", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Closed reduction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture28.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture30.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The treatment of choice for posterior dislocations of hip is closed reduction/manipulation under general anesthesia in cases with no associated fractures.</li><li>➤ The treatment of choice for posterior dislocations of hip is closed reduction/manipulation under general anesthesia in cases with no associated fractures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the following options, which statement accurately represents the relationship between prevalence of a disease and characteristics of a diagnostic test? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "In a population with low prevalence of the disease, positive result with a highly sensitive test means true positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensitivity depends on prevalence of the disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positive predictive value depends on prevalence of disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Specificity depends on prevalence of the disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Positive predictive value depends on prevalence of disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Positive predictive value depends on prevalence of disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The positive predictive value (PPV) of a diagnostic test is significantly influenced by the prevalence of the disease within the population. PPV indicates the probability that individuals who test positive actually have the disease.</li><li>➤ The positive predictive value (PPV) of a diagnostic test is significantly influenced by the prevalence of the disease within the population.</li><li>➤ PPV indicates the probability that individuals who test positive actually have the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly woman presented with symptoms of confusion, thirst, and abdominal pain. On examination, she had pallor and thoracic spine tenderness. X-ray spine showed osteolytic lesions. Her lab investigations showed the following findings: Hb - 6.9g/dL, WBC 4000/cm3 with normal differential count, Serum calcium 13mg/dL, Creatinine 2.3mg/dL, Total protein 9g/dL, Albumin 2.4g/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metastatic breast cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Milk Alkali Syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Multiple myeloma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Multiple myeloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple myeloma is characterized by anemia, hypercalcemia, renal failure, and bone lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct 'organism-drug to which it is intrinsically resistant' pair: (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspergillus Niger - Voriconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillus fumigatus - Micafungin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candida albicans - Amphotericin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candida Krusei– Fluconazole", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Candida Krusei– Fluconazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Candida Krusei is intrinsically resistant to fluconazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is recommended by the WHO for the management of the second stage of labor? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mandatory episiotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Manual perineal support and warm compresses", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maintain head in deflexion and deliver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deliver in lithotomy position only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Manual perineal support and warm compresses", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Manual perineal support and warm compresses</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Manual perineal support and warm compresses are recommended by the WHO to reduce perineal trauma during the second stage of labor.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/337693/9789240017566-eng.pdf</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://iris.who.int/bitstream/handle/10665/337693/9789240017566-eng.pdf</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the duration of short-term memory? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3-6 Hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "12-18 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30-300 seconds", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3-4 seconds", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 30-300 seconds", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 30-300 seconds</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Short-term memory lasts for seconds to minutes, storing information temporarily before it is either forgotten or encoded into long-term memory.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Memories are frequently classified according to the type of information that is stored.</li><li>➤ 1. Declarative memory basically means memory of the various details of an integrated thought, such as memory of an important experience that includes –</li><li>➤ Memory of the surroundings, Memory of time relationships, Memory of causes of the experience, Memory of the meaning of the experience, and Memory of one’s deductions that were left in the person’s mind.</li><li>➤ Memory of the surroundings,</li><li>➤ Memory of time relationships,</li><li>➤ Memory of causes of the experience,</li><li>➤ Memory of the meaning of the experience, and</li><li>➤ Memory of one’s deductions that were left in the person’s mind.</li><li>➤ 2. Skill memory is frequently associated with motor activities of the person’s body, such as all the skills developed for hitting a tennis ball, including automatic memories to</li><li>➤ Sight the ball, Calculate the relationship and speed of the ball to the racquet, and Deduce rapidly the motions of the body, the arms, and the racquet required to hit the ball as desired.</li><li>➤ Sight the ball,</li><li>➤ Calculate the relationship and speed of the ball to the racquet, and</li><li>➤ Deduce rapidly the motions of the body, the arms, and the racquet required to hit the ball as desired.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the site of action of vancomycin as shown in the image below", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/2-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vancomycin acts at step 4 in the bacterial cell wall synthesis process by binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of peptidoglycan precursors, thereby inhibiting further elongation and cross-linking of the peptidoglycan.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The relaxation of the intestinal segment distal to the segment with the bolus of food during peristalsis is because of? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "VIP", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Substance P", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dopamine from adrenergic fibres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetylcholine from myenteric fibres", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. VIP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) VIP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The relaxation of the intestinal segment distal to the bolus of food during peristalsis is mediated by the release of Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP) from the enteric nervous system, which causes smooth muscle relaxation and facilitates the smooth movement of the bolus through the digestive tract.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the condition with the appropriate diagnostic test: (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A 1, B 2, C 3, D 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A 3, B 1, C 2, D 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A 2, B 3, C 1, D 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A 1, B 2, C 4, D 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A 1, B 2, C 3, D 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/20/screenshot-2024-07-20-094855.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A 1, B 2, C 3, D 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• A. Hirschsprung's disease : This is a congenital disorder in which nerve cells (ganglion cells) are absent from a segment of the bowel, usually the rectum or sigmoid colon, leading to a functional obstruction. Infants with Hirschsprung's typically have difficulty with bowel movements within the first days of life. The symptoms can include constipation, abdominal distension, and vomiting. It is diagnosed often in the neonatal period with a barium enema and confirmed with suction rectal biopsy showing the absence of ganglion cells.</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Hirschsprung's disease</li><li>• B. Posterior urethral valve (PUV) : PUV is a congenital malformation in male child where an abnormality of the posterior urethra prevents urine outflow. This can lead to urinary obstruction, distension of the bladder, and can subsequently cause damage to the kidneys. Common symptoms include weak urine stream, difficulty in urination, recurrent urinary tract infections, and failure to thrive. Diagnosis is usually made with a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG).</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Posterior urethral valve (PUV)</li><li>• C. Choledochal cyst : This is a congenital dilation of the bile ducts, often causing obstruction. Patients may present with the classic triad of abdominal pain, jaundice, and an abdominal mass, although not all these signs may be evident. Over time, choledochal cysts can lead to complications like cholangitis, pancreatitis, or even malignancy. Diagnosis is typically done with imaging like ultrasound or MRCP, and definitive treatment is surgical removal.</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Choledochal cyst</li><li>• D. Intussusception : This is a medical condition in which a part of the intestine telescopes into another section, leading to bowel obstruction. It is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children between the ages of 6 months and 3 years. Symptoms include sudden, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and \"currant jelly\" stools (due to mucus and blood). The diagnosis can often be made with an ultrasound or CT abdomen showing the characteristic \"target sign\" and is typically treated with high pressure enema, although some cases may require surgical intervention.</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Intussusception</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the probable diagnosis for a young man who has presented with painful lesions, as depicted in the image below? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes Zoster", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes Simplex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphangioma circumscriptum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Herpes Zoster", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture25222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/whatsapp-image-2023-11-21-at-164707.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture26333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Herpes Zoster</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ability to recognize Herpes Zoster by its characteristic painful, vesicular rash in a unilateral dermatomal distribution.</li><li>➤ Herpes Zoster</li><li>➤ painful, vesicular</li><li>➤ unilateral dermatomal</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page nos 4.13, 25.27-25.28, 109.36, 128.2,</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page nos 4.13, 25.27-25.28, 109.36, 128.2,</li><li>➤ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li><li>➤ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following mechanism in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is mainly responsible for the resorption of divalent ions? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary active", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary Active", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paracellular Transport", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transcellular Transport", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Paracellular Transport", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/inicet-physio-may-2021-03.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Paracellular Transport</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paracellular transport in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is the main mechanism responsible for the resorption of divalent ions such as calcium and magnesium, driven by the positive luminal charge and facilitated by the sodium-potassium ATPase pump and co-transporters.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The enzyme kinetics depicted in the Graph is suggestive of: (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allosteric Activation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cooperative Binding", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Michaelis Menten kinetics", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sigmoid Curve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Michaelis Menten kinetics", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/09/13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/09/14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Michaelis Menten kinetics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The graph shows a hyperbola which is suggestive of Michaels - Menten Kinetics of the enzyme.</li><li>• hyperbola which is suggestive of Michaels - Menten Kinetics of the enzyme.</li><li>• Here, Vmax represents the maximum rate achieved by the system , happening at saturating substrate concentration for a given enzyme concentration. When the value of the Michaelis constant Km is numerically equal to the substrate concentration, then the reaction rate is half of Vmax. Biochemical reactions involving a single substrate are often assumed to follow Michaelis–Menten kinetics.</li><li>• Vmax represents the maximum rate achieved by the system</li><li>• Biochemical reactions involving a single substrate are often assumed to follow Michaelis–Menten kinetics.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. Allosteric Activation: This typically results in a sigmoid (S-shaped) curve rather than a hyperbolic one, as allosteric enzymes exhibit cooperative binding.</li><li>• Option A. Allosteric Activation:</li><li>• Option B. Cooperative Binding: This is also characterized by a sigmoid curve, indicating that the binding of substrate to one active site affects the binding at other active sites.</li><li>• Option B. Cooperative Binding:</li><li>• Option D. Sigmoid Curve: This type of curve is associated with allosteric enzymes and cooperative binding, not with Michaelis-Menten kinetics.</li><li>• Option D. Sigmoid Curve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Michaelis-Menten kinetics is characterized by a hyperbolic curve where Vmax is the maximum rate achieved, and Km is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A skull was recovered from a forest. According to inquest papers, woman had gone missing after a fight with her boyfriend a month back. The skull was sent to the forensic research lab. Which of the following would identify it as a female skull? ( INICET May 2021) Large frontal and parietal eminence Heavy cheek bones Smooth glabella Square orbits Narrow mastoid", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4 and 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The last symptoms to develop in compartment syndrome is: (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pain on passive stretch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paralysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pallor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulselessness", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pulselessness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-21%20193108.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pulselessness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The last sign/symptom to appear in a compartment syndrome is pulselessness, as it signifies the most advanced stage of vascular compromise. While paralysis is also very late, the absence of a pulse is a definitive sign of severe, critical ischemia.</li><li>➤ The last sign/symptom to appear in a compartment syndrome is pulselessness, as it signifies the most advanced stage of vascular compromise.</li><li>➤ The last sign/symptom to appear in a compartment syndrome is pulselessness, as it signifies the most advanced stage of vascular compromise.</li><li>➤ While paralysis is also very late, the absence of a pulse is a definitive sign of severe, critical ischemia.</li><li>➤ While paralysis is also very late, the absence of a pulse is a definitive sign of severe, critical ischemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "RBC uses which of the following substances during fasting/starvation? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ketones", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amino acids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fatty Acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glucose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-105602_4CNXu8b.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glucose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RBCs always uses glucose whether it is fed state or fasting/starvation state because RBCs lack mitochondria. As ketone body utilization and fatty acid oxidation both take place in mitochondria so, RBCs cannot use fatty acids &amp; ketone bodies as energy source.</li><li>➤ Table: Substrates utilized for energy production</li><li>➤ Table: Substrates utilized for energy production</li><li>➤ Fetal heart and also in case of heart failure, main fuel is Glucose. Brain cannot use FA as FAs cannot cross blood brain barrier.</li><li>➤ Fetal heart and also in case of heart failure, main fuel is Glucose.</li><li>➤ Brain cannot use FA as FAs cannot cross blood brain barrier.</li><li>➤ Ref-Harper 31 st e/p 138-139</li><li>➤ Ref-Harper 31 st e/p 138-139</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "SAFE strategy for trachoma includes all except? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgery for trichiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Facial cleanliness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Evaluation of control program", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Evaluation of control program", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture103.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Evaluation of control program</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most probable diagnosis for a child who has asymptomatic lesions on the forearm and shaft of the penis, lesions on the shaft of penis are as shown below? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lichen nitidus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scrofuloderma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scabies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lichen nitidus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/untitled-13520.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture2288.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture2355.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture19222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture20555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lichen nitidus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lichen nitidus is a probable diagnosis in a child with asymptomatic lesions on the forearm and genitalia , especially when the lesions appear as tiny, flesh-colored bumps.</li><li>➤ Lichen nitidus</li><li>➤ child</li><li>➤ asymptomatic lesions</li><li>➤ forearm and genitalia</li><li>➤ tiny, flesh-colored</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 37 page no 37.3, 37.10, 37.11, 37.39</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 37 page no 37.3, 37.10, 37.11, 37.39</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition Page no 554</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition Page no 554</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange symptoms as in their order of appearance as seen in iron toxicity:(INICET MAY 2021) Pyloric stricture Asymptomatic phase Gastrointestinal bleeding Liver failure and hypoglycemia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 → 3 → 1 → 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 → 3 → 4 → 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 → 2 → 4 → 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 → 4 → 1 → 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3 → 2 → 4 → 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/13/screenshot-2023-10-13-112003.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3 → 2 → 4 → 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron toxicity progresses through distinct stages, starting with gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding, followed by an asymptomatic phase, then liver failure and hypoglycemia, and finally, bowel obstruction leading to pyloric stricture.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following modalities are used for the diagnosis of placenta accreta? (INICET MAY 2021) Ultrasonography MRI Angiography X-ray", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 2 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1 and 2 only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ultrasonography and MRI are key modalities used in the diagnosis of placenta accreta.</li><li>• Ultrasonography (1) : This is often the first imaging modality used to diagnose placenta accreta. It helps in visualizing the placental attachment and identifying abnormalities in placental implantation. Color Doppler ultrasonography is particularly useful to assess the blood flow and the vascularity of the placenta, which can indicate abnormal adherence. MRI (2) : MRI is used as a complementary imaging tool when ultrasonography results are inconclusive or to provide a more detailed view. It helps in evaluating the depth of placental invasion into the myometrium and can differentiate between placenta accreta, increta, and percreta. Angiography (3) : While angiography can provide information about blood vessels and may be used in some cases to evaluate blood flow abnormalities, it is not typically a primary diagnostic tool for placenta accreta. It may be used in specific scenarios or to plan surgical management, but it is not generally used for initial diagnosis. X-ray (4) : X-rays are not used in the diagnosis of placenta accreta due to their lack of sensitivity for soft tissue detail and the potential risk to the fetus. X-rays are not helpful in visualizing the placenta or its adherence to the uterine wall.</li><li>• Ultrasonography (1) : This is often the first imaging modality used to diagnose placenta accreta. It helps in visualizing the placental attachment and identifying abnormalities in placental implantation. Color Doppler ultrasonography is particularly useful to assess the blood flow and the vascularity of the placenta, which can indicate abnormal adherence.</li><li>• Ultrasonography (1)</li><li>• MRI (2) : MRI is used as a complementary imaging tool when ultrasonography results are inconclusive or to provide a more detailed view. It helps in evaluating the depth of placental invasion into the myometrium and can differentiate between placenta accreta, increta, and percreta.</li><li>• MRI (2)</li><li>• Angiography (3) : While angiography can provide information about blood vessels and may be used in some cases to evaluate blood flow abnormalities, it is not typically a primary diagnostic tool for placenta accreta. It may be used in specific scenarios or to plan surgical management, but it is not generally used for initial diagnosis.</li><li>• Angiography (3)</li><li>• X-ray (4) : X-rays are not used in the diagnosis of placenta accreta due to their lack of sensitivity for soft tissue detail and the potential risk to the fetus. X-rays are not helpful in visualizing the placenta or its adherence to the uterine wall.</li><li>• X-ray (4)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A : Incorrect because it includes Angiography, which is not commonly used for the initial diagnosis of placenta accreta.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Option C : Incorrect because it includes Angiography, which is not a primary diagnostic tool for placenta accreta, and it excludes Ultrasonography, which is crucial for diagnosis.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Option D : Incorrect because X-ray is not used for diagnosing placenta accreta and does not contribute to the diagnosis.</li><li>• Option D</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ultrasonography and MRI are the primary modalities used for diagnosing placenta accreta.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1982, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1982, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of marked chromosome in the given karyotype? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acrocentric", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metacentric", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Submetacentric", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Telocentric", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acrocentric", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/09/15.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-125703.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acrocentric</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The marked chromosome is chromosome 13 and the type is acrocentric.</li><li>• Each chromatid has a long arm “q” and a short arm “p” which are separated by a centromere.</li><li>• Each chromatid has a long arm “q” and a short arm “p”</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Metacentric: Metacentric chromosomes have the centromere located in the center, creating arms of equal length. Examples include chromosomes 1 and 3.</li><li>• Option B. Metacentric:</li><li>• Option C. Submetacentric: Submetacentric chromosomes have the centromere slightly off-center, creating one long arm and one short arm. Most human autosomes and the X chromosome are submetacentric.</li><li>• Option C. Submetacentric:</li><li>• Option D. Telocentric: Telocentric chromosomes have the centromere at the very end of the chromosome, creating only one arm. This type is not present in humans.</li><li>• Option D. Telocentric:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere as follows:</li><li>➤ Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere as follows:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old female presents with complaints of foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Drug of choice to treat this condition is? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clindamycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cotrimoxazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metronidazole", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_KhxwfGV.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with foul-smelling vaginal discharge, which is a common symptom of bacterial vaginosis (BV). In bacterial vaginosis, the correct treatment is Metronidazole .</li><li>• Metronidazole</li><li>• Bacterial vaginosis is often caused by an imbalance in the normal bacterial flora of the vagina, commonly involving Gardnerella vaginalis. The condition is diagnosed using Amsel's Criteria, which include: Thin, white homogenous vaginal discharge : The discharge is typically thin and white, and may have a fishy odor. pH of Vaginal fluid &gt; 4.5 : This elevated pH level is higher than the normal acidic environment of the vagina. Fishy odor of discharge on adding 10% KOH (Whiff test) : The discharge develops a characteristic fishy odor when mixed with potassium hydroxide. Presence of Clue cells on microscopy : Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells that have a stippled appearance due to adherence of bacteria.</li><li>• Bacterial vaginosis is often caused by an imbalance in the normal bacterial flora of the vagina, commonly involving Gardnerella vaginalis. The condition is diagnosed using Amsel's Criteria, which include: Thin, white homogenous vaginal discharge : The discharge is typically thin and white, and may have a fishy odor. pH of Vaginal fluid &gt; 4.5 : This elevated pH level is higher than the normal acidic environment of the vagina. Fishy odor of discharge on adding 10% KOH (Whiff test) : The discharge develops a characteristic fishy odor when mixed with potassium hydroxide. Presence of Clue cells on microscopy : Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells that have a stippled appearance due to adherence of bacteria.</li><li>• Bacterial vaginosis</li><li>• Thin, white homogenous vaginal discharge : The discharge is typically thin and white, and may have a fishy odor. pH of Vaginal fluid &gt; 4.5 : This elevated pH level is higher than the normal acidic environment of the vagina. Fishy odor of discharge on adding 10% KOH (Whiff test) : The discharge develops a characteristic fishy odor when mixed with potassium hydroxide. Presence of Clue cells on microscopy : Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells that have a stippled appearance due to adherence of bacteria.</li><li>• Thin, white homogenous vaginal discharge : The discharge is typically thin and white, and may have a fishy odor.</li><li>• Thin, white homogenous vaginal discharge</li><li>• pH of Vaginal fluid &gt; 4.5 : This elevated pH level is higher than the normal acidic environment of the vagina.</li><li>• pH of Vaginal fluid &gt; 4.5</li><li>• Fishy odor of discharge on adding 10% KOH (Whiff test) : The discharge develops a characteristic fishy odor when mixed with potassium hydroxide.</li><li>• Fishy odor of discharge on adding 10% KOH (Whiff test)</li><li>• Presence of Clue cells on microscopy : Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells that have a stippled appearance due to adherence of bacteria.</li><li>• Presence of Clue cells on microscopy</li><li>• Metronidazole is the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, and it is typically administered as oral tablets (500 mg twice daily for 7 days).</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Clindamycin : While Clindamycin can be used to treat bacterial vaginosis, it is generally not the first choice. Metronidazole is preferred due to its effectiveness and established use.</li><li>• Option A. Clindamycin</li><li>• Option C. Cotrimoxazole : This antibiotic is used for a variety of bacterial infections but is not effective for bacterial vaginosis.</li><li>• Option C. Cotrimoxazole</li><li>• Option D. Azithromycin : This is a macrolide antibiotic used primarily for sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia and is not used for bacterial vaginosis.</li><li>• Option D. Azithromycin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drug of choice for treating bacterial vaginosis is Metronidazole.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic for her postpartum checkup. She mentions that she has been exclusively breastfeeding her newborn and is concerned about meeting her own nutritional needs in order to ensure the best for her baby. She asks you about specific nutrient supplementation she might need during this period of lactation. Compared to her pregnancy, which nutrient would you recommend she should pay particular attention to increasing? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to the latest Nutritional Guidelines,</li><li>➤ According to the latest Nutritional Guidelines,</li><li>➤ Requirement in Pregnancy &gt; Lactation → Proteins; Zinc; Folic Acid; Iron Requirement in Lactation &gt; Pregnancy → Vitamin A; Iodine; Vitamin C; Carbohydrates, Calcium Requirement in Pregnancy = Lactation → Vitamin D; Calcium</li><li>➤ Requirement in Pregnancy &gt; Lactation → Proteins; Zinc; Folic Acid; Iron</li><li>➤ →</li><li>➤ Requirement in Lactation &gt; Pregnancy → Vitamin A; Iodine; Vitamin C; Carbohydrates, Calcium</li><li>➤ →</li><li>➤ Requirement in Pregnancy = Lactation → Vitamin D; Calcium</li><li>➤ →</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man who had undergone cholecystectomy presented five days after the surgery with abdominal pain and tachycardia. WBC count is 13000 cells/mm3. US showed fluid collection 7x7 cm in right sub-hepatic space. What is the next step in management? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibiotics and send home", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "US guided pig tail catheter drainage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopy and re-exploration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ERCP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. US guided pig tail catheter drainage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) US guided pig tail catheter drainage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Management of acute bile duct injury:</li><li>➤ S- Sepsis control by pigtail catheter or surgical drainage</li><li>➤ S- Sepsis control by pigtail catheter or surgical drainage</li><li>➤ N- Nutrition</li><li>➤ N- Nutrition</li><li>➤ A- Anatomical delineation via MRCP/ERCP</li><li>➤ A- Anatomical delineation via MRCP/ERCP</li><li>➤ P- Planned reconstruction</li><li>➤ P- Planned reconstruction</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a PHC, which of the following initial screening tests are used to diagnose diabetes? (INICET MAY 2021) HbA1c &gt;6.5 Fasting blood sugar &gt;126 mg/dL Random blood sugar &gt;200 mg/dL 2-hour post glucose load blood sugar", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial screening tests for diagnosing diabetes in a primary health care (PHC) setting typically include fasting blood sugar &gt;126 mg/dL, and random blood sugar &gt;200 mg/dL. These tests are widely accepted and feasible in most PHC settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The formula for urea clearance is U*V/P, where U is?(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum urea in mg /100ml", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine urea in g/24h", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine urea in mg /100ml", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Urine urea in mg /100ml", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/102.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Urine urea in mg /100ml</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the surgical step shown in the image given below: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Capsulorrhexis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrodissection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intraocular lens implantation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lens aspiration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Capsulorrhexis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/asdf.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Capsulorrhexis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Capsulorrhexis is characterized by the creation of a controlled and continuous tear in the anterior capsule of the lens, which is essential for accessing and removing the lens material in cataract surgery. This method provides a clear opening without leaving jagged edges, which is crucial for the structural integrity of the remaining capsule necessary for IOL placement.</li><li>➤ Capsulorrhexis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated by which of the following? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Touch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pressure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pacinian corpuscles are specialized mechanoreceptors that detect deep pressure and vibration, playing a crucial role in proprioception and providing sensory feedback about the physical environment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Binding site of miRNA on mRNA?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5’ UTR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3’ UTR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gene promotor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gene body", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3’ UTR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 3’ UTR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The binding site of miRNA on mRNA is typically the 3’ UTR (Untranslated Region), where miRNA can regulate gene expression by binding and influencing mRNA stability or translation.</li><li>➤ Ref - Lehninger 6 th e/p 1081</li><li>➤ Ref - Lehninger 6 th e/p 1081</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who has taken the first COVID vaccine comes for the second dose. An astute nurse noticed that the shoulder was flabby, flat, and was asymmetrical. There was an associated loss of contour of the shoulder joint. Injury to which of the structures might have resulted and was avoidable?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rotator cuff", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior circumflex artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral cutaneous nerve of arm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Axillary nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Axillary nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-78_UcSqfsd.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-79_eOpRDIS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Axillary nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The axillary nerve arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and supplies the deltoid muscle and the teres minor muscle. It also carries sensory fibers for the skin over a part of the deltoid (known as the \"regimental badge area\").</li><li>➤ Damage to the axillary nerve can result from shoulder dislocations or, as in this case, a vaccine administered too high on the arm. Injury to the axillary nerve would cause paralysis of the deltoid muscle, leading to a flat shoulder appearance and loss of the normal rounded contour of the deltoid. Over time, if the nerve does not recover, the deltoid muscle may atrophy, further accentuating the flat appearance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a long-acting reversible contraceptive method? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Copper T", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Implanon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopic tubal ligation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "SC DMPA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Laparoscopic tubal ligation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Laparoscopic tubal ligation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laparoscopic tubal ligation is a permanent method of contraception and is not a long-acting reversible contraceptive (LARC).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be observed in a patient diagnosed with Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aplastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemolysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-193051.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with PNH frequently experience hemolysis, thrombosis, and can develop aplastic anemia. While leukemia can occur as a later complication, it is not a typical presenting feature of PNH.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 1213</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 1213</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old boy was diagnosed with intussusception and is taken up for surgery. The surgeon found multiple polyps and sent the resected section for histopathology. The image is given below. What is the type of lesion? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tubulo-villous adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hamartomatous polyp", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Villous Adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperplastic polyp", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hamartomatous polyp", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-181904.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 1557</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 1557</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the objective tests for the hearing? ( INICET May 2021) BERA (Brainstem evoked response audiometry) OAE (Otoacoustic emission) PTA (Pure tone audiometry) Tympanometry", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Objective hearing tests like BERA, OAE, and Tympanometry provide essential diagnostic information without the need for patient interaction, distinguishing them from subjective tests like Pure Tone Audiometry which rely on patient responses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man with FUO has a job that requires traveling around the world. The bone marrow picture is shown below. Which of the following investigation would be the most appropriate in this case? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "rk 39 antigen test, Leishmaniasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "pLDH, Plasmodium malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biopsy, Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ELISA, HIV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. rk 39 antigen test, Leishmaniasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/untitled-294.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) rk 39 antigen test, Leishmaniasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The presence of macrophages with intracellular Leishmania donovani bodies in the bone marrow is diagnostic for leishmaniasis. The rk 39 antigen test is a rapid and reliable method for confirming visceral leishmaniasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A servant was sexually assaulted by her boss. There was presence of white stains on the clothes of the victim. Barberio's test was performed on the stains. Which of the following is detected by this test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spermine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acid phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Choline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fructose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Spermine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-164822.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Spermine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Tests for seminal stains</li><li>➤ Tests for seminal stains</li><li>➤ 1) Presumptive test for seminal stains:</li><li>➤ 1) Presumptive test for seminal stains:</li><li>➤ Fluorescence under UV light Microchemical tests: Florence test and Barberio's test</li><li>➤ Fluorescence under UV light</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests: Florence test and Barberio's test</li><li>➤ 2) Confirmatory Tests for Semen</li><li>➤ 2) Confirmatory Tests for Semen</li><li>➤ Detection of complete sperm under the microscope (Best test) Acid phosphatase test (second best test): It is produced by prostate gland. Acid phosphatase enzyme in semen is much higher concentration than other body fluids Creatine phosphokinase test : It is a component of Spermatozoa. Prostate specific antigen</li><li>➤ Detection of complete sperm under the microscope (Best test)</li><li>➤ Detection of complete sperm</li><li>➤ Acid phosphatase test (second best test): It is produced by prostate gland. Acid phosphatase enzyme in semen is much higher concentration than other body fluids</li><li>➤ Acid phosphatase test (second best test):</li><li>➤ Creatine phosphokinase test : It is a component of Spermatozoa.</li><li>➤ Creatine phosphokinase test</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Prostate specific antigen</li><li>➤ Prostate specific</li><li>➤ antigen</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following symptoms are seen in endometriosis? (INICET MAY 2021) Infertility Dysmenorrhea Vaginal discharge Vaginal bleeding", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue, which normally lines the uterus, grows outside the uterus. This condition is associated with specific symptoms:</li><li>• 1. Infertility : Women with endometriosis often experience difficulty conceiving. The presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus can interfere with the reproductive organs, leading to infertility.</li><li>• 1. Infertility</li><li>• 2. Dysmenorrhea : Painful menstruation is a hallmark of endometriosis. This condition can cause severe menstrual cramps due to the endometrial tissue responding to hormonal changes as it would in a normal menstrual cycle.</li><li>• 2. Dysmenorrhea</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. 3, 4 : Vaginal discharge and vaginal bleeding are not characteristic symptoms of endometriosis. Vaginal discharge may be seen in various other conditions but is not specific to endometriosis. Similarly, while endometriosis can cause abnormal bleeding, it typically presents with pain rather than increased vaginal bleeding.</li><li>• Option A. 3, 4</li><li>• Option B. 2, 3 : While dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation) is a symptom of endometriosis, vaginal discharge is not typically associated with this condition.</li><li>• Option B. 2, 3</li><li>• Option D. 2, 4 : Dysmenorrhea is indeed a symptom of endometriosis, but increased vaginal bleeding is not a primary symptom of this condition.</li><li>• Option D. 2, 4</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endometriosis commonly presents with symptoms including dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation) and infertility.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 253, DC Dutta Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 253, DC Dutta Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During rounds, your senior was discussing the given image. The following is an image of which of the following investigations? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contrast Dye study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "D Angiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT scan", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. CT scan", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-140.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. CT scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The above given image is a CT scan image since the bone can be identified as a high-density structure which appears white.</li><li>• CT scan is an imaging modality which uses X-rays for cross sectional images of the body and the density of the tissue through which this x-ray beam passes is measured from the calculation of attenuation coefficient.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Contrast Dye study: While contrast may be used in CT scans, the term \"contrast dye study\" alone does not specifically indicate a CT scan.</li><li>• Option A. Contrast Dye study:</li><li>• Option B. X-ray: Typically provides two-dimensional imaging and lacks the cross-sectional detail shown in these images.</li><li>• Option B. X-ray:</li><li>• Option C. D Angiography: Focuses on blood vessels using contrast material and typically does not provide detailed images of other anatomical structures as seen in these scans.</li><li>• Option C. D Angiography:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CT scans are invaluable in medical imaging for providing detailed cross-sectional views of internal structures, utilizing X-ray technology to distinguish between different tissue densities, evident from the white appearance of bone and detailed soft tissue visualization in the images.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which mediators involved in the early phase of type 1 hypersensitivity? (AIIMS MAY 2021) Mast cell Histamine Neutrophils Prostaglandins Leukotrienes", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4, 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 4, 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-174004.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 4, 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Early phase of type 1 hypersensitivity involves Mast cells, Histamine, Prostaglandins (D2) and Leukotrienes (C4 and D4).</li><li>➤ Early phase</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 377</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 377</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with a history of stabbing injury to her arm. Upon examination, there is a noticeable hematoma, and the patient reports not feeling any radial or ulnar pulses in the affected arm. Imaging reveals a 3cm longitudinal tear in the brachial artery. The medical team is faced with deciding the best treatment option for the patient. Which option should they choose? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary repair with end-to-end anastomosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Repair with great saphenous vein graft", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Repair with prosthetic graft", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Repair with saphenous vein patch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Repair with great saphenous vein graft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Repair with great saphenous vein graft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Repair with a great saphenous vein graft is an appropriate choice in cases of brachial artery injury with extensive damage and vascular compromise, allowing for the restoration of blood flow to the arm. This surgical intervention should be performed urgently to prevent further ischemic complications in the affected limb.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial rectus palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trochlear nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abducens nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oculomotor nerve palsy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oculomotor nerve palsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture1_1qZYf0X.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture101.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture102.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture12_Rngtr52.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Oculomotor nerve palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oculomotor nerve palsy significantly affects eye movement and eyelid function due to its role in innervating most of the extraocular muscles as well as lifting the eyelid. Diagnosis often involves a comprehensive evaluation of eye movement patterns, eyelid function, and pupil response, along with investigations to determine underlying causes. Treatment focuses on addressing the root cause and managing symptoms to protect eye function and quality of life.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In atrial fibrillation, choose the correct statements: (INICET MAY 2021) Novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) used in the treatment of moderate to severe MS Anticoagulants should be given in patients with ischemic stroke due to atrial fibrillation NOACs are contraindicated in prosthetic valves All patients with atrial fibrillation who are not candidates for cardiac surgery can be started on beta-blockers", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4 correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, and 3 correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3 correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4 correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 and 3 correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2 and 3 correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anticoagulants are used for ischemic stroke in AF, and NOACs are contraindicated in prosthetic valves.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which class of ovarian tumor does clear cell carcinoma of the ovary belong to? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epithelial cell tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Germ cell tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sex cord stromal tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Granulosa cell tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epithelial cell tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Epithelial cell tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Clear cell carcinoma of the ovary is classified under epithelial cell tumors. Epithelial ovarian tumors originate from the cells that line the surface of the ovary. Clear cell carcinoma is a subtype of epithelial ovarian tumors.</li><li>• Clear cell carcinoma of the ovary</li><li>• Classification of ovarian tumors:</li><li>• Classification of ovarian tumors:</li><li>• Epithelial Cell Tumor Serous Mucinous Brenner Clear cell Endometrioid Clear cell carcinoma falls under this category. Germ Cell Tumor Dysgerminoma Yolk sac tumor Choriocarcinoma Teratoma Embryonal Clear cell carcinoma is not classified here. Sex Cord Stromal Tumor Granulosa cell tumor Thecoma Fibroma Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor Clear cell carcinoma is not included in this category.</li><li>• Epithelial Cell Tumor Serous Mucinous Brenner Clear cell Endometrioid Clear cell carcinoma falls under this category.</li><li>• Epithelial Cell Tumor</li><li>• Serous Mucinous Brenner Clear cell Endometrioid Clear cell carcinoma falls under this category.</li><li>• Serous</li><li>• Serous</li><li>• Mucinous</li><li>• Mucinous</li><li>• Brenner</li><li>• Brenner</li><li>• Clear cell</li><li>• Clear cell</li><li>• Endometrioid</li><li>• Endometrioid</li><li>• Clear cell carcinoma falls under this category.</li><li>• Clear cell carcinoma</li><li>• Germ Cell Tumor Dysgerminoma Yolk sac tumor Choriocarcinoma Teratoma Embryonal Clear cell carcinoma is not classified here.</li><li>• Germ Cell Tumor</li><li>• Dysgerminoma Yolk sac tumor Choriocarcinoma Teratoma Embryonal Clear cell carcinoma is not classified here.</li><li>• Dysgerminoma</li><li>• Dysgerminoma</li><li>• Yolk sac tumor</li><li>• Yolk sac tumor</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma</li><li>• Teratoma</li><li>• Teratoma</li><li>• Embryonal</li><li>• Embryonal</li><li>• Clear cell carcinoma is not classified here.</li><li>• Clear cell carcinoma</li><li>• Sex Cord Stromal Tumor Granulosa cell tumor Thecoma Fibroma Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor Clear cell carcinoma is not included in this category.</li><li>• Sex Cord Stromal Tumor</li><li>• Granulosa cell tumor Thecoma Fibroma Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor Clear cell carcinoma is not included in this category.</li><li>• Granulosa cell tumor</li><li>• Granulosa cell tumor</li><li>• Thecoma</li><li>• Thecoma</li><li>• Fibroma</li><li>• Fibroma</li><li>• Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor</li><li>• Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor</li><li>• Clear cell carcinoma is not included in this category.</li><li>• Clear cell carcinoma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clear cell carcinoma of the ovary is classified as an epithelial cell tumor.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 291, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 291, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the dose of dexamethasone given for fetal lung maturity? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 doses of 6 mg given 12 hours apart", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 doses of 12 mg given 24 hours apart", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 doses of 6 mg given 12 hours apart", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 doses of 12 mg given 12 hours apart", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4 doses of 6 mg given 12 hours apart", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 4 doses of 6 mg given 12 hours apart</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For fetal lung maturity, dexamethasone is administered to help reduce the risks associated with premature birth by promoting the development of the fetal lungs. The recommended regimen for dexamethasone is:</li><li>• 4 doses of 6 mg each administered intramuscularly every 12 hours .</li><li>• 4 doses of 6 mg each administered intramuscularly every 12 hours .</li><li>• 4 doses of 6 mg each</li><li>• 12 hours</li><li>• This dosing schedule is intended to maximize the benefit of corticosteroids in promoting fetal lung maturity and reducing the incidence of complications associated with preterm birth, such as respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis, and the need for ventilatory support.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 2 doses of 6 mg given 12 hours apart: Incorrect. This dosing regimen is not the standard for dexamethasone. The correct regimen involves 4 doses of 6 mg.</li><li>• Option A. 2 doses of 6 mg given 12 hours apart:</li><li>• Option B. 2 doses of 12 mg given 24 hours apart: Incorrect. This regimen is used for betamethasone, not dexamethasone. The standard for dexamethasone is 4 doses of 6 mg.</li><li>• Option B. 2 doses of 12 mg given 24 hours apart:</li><li>• Option D. 4 doses of 12 mg given 12 hours apart: Incorrect. The correct dosing for dexamethasone is 6 mg per dose, not 12 mg.</li><li>• Option D. 4 doses of 12 mg given 12 hours apart:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For fetal lung maturity, the recommended dose of dexamethasone is 4 doses of 6 mg given intramuscularly every 12 hours.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2088, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2088, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a major diagnostic criterion of neuromyelitis Optica? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Area postrema syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute Myelitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Focal epilepsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic neuritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Focal epilepsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Focal epilepsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diagnostic Criteria for Neuromyelitis Optica Spectrum Disorder (NMOSD)</li><li>➤ Diagnostic Criteria for Neuromyelitis Optica Spectrum Disorder (NMOSD)</li><li>➤ Most Common Core Clinical criteria:</li><li>➤ Most Common Core Clinical criteria:</li><li>➤ Longitudinal extensive transverse myelitis (acute myelitis) Optic neuritis, often bilateral Area postrema syndrome</li><li>➤ Longitudinal extensive transverse myelitis (acute myelitis)</li><li>➤ Optic neuritis, often bilateral</li><li>➤ Area postrema syndrome</li><li>➤ Less Common Clinical Criteria:</li><li>➤ Less Common Clinical Criteria:</li><li>➤ Acute brainstem syndrome Acute diencephalic syndrome, which can manifest as symptomatic narcolepsy Symptomatic cerebral syndrome (symptomatic cerebral lesions)</li><li>➤ Acute brainstem syndrome</li><li>➤ Acute diencephalic syndrome, which can manifest as symptomatic narcolepsy</li><li>➤ Symptomatic cerebral syndrome (symptomatic cerebral lesions)</li><li>➤ Some patients with NMOSD may have anti-NMO IgG antibody positivity, also known as anti-aquaporin 4 antibody (AQP4-IgG).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this instrument used in laparoscopic surgery? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Veress needle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lind's needle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jacob needle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mathew needle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Veress needle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-99_xsibvuZ.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Veress needle</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the different levels of triage in emergency care? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary, secondary, and tertiary triage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immediate, delayed, and minimal triage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Head neck, thoracic and abdominal triage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Critical, non-critical, and dead triage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Immediate, delayed, and minimal triage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Immediate, delayed, and minimal triage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triage helps to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of care based on their condition and the resources available. By prioritizing patients based on the severity of their injuries or illnesses, emergency medical personnel can provide the best possible care to the greatest number of patients in a disaster or emergency situation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A laboratory technician is analyzing cell populations using flow cytometry. This technique allows for the simultaneous multiparametric analysis of the physical and/or chemical characteristics of single cells flowing through an optical and/or electronic detection apparatus. Which visual depictions are commonly generated in flow cytometry for the evaluation of these cell populations? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bar diagram, dot plot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Line diagram, dot plot", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Histogram, dot plot", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pie chart, dot plot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Histogram, dot plot", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture4777.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture5555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Histogram, dot plot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In flow cytometry, histograms and dot plots are the common visual depictions for evaluating cell populations.</li><li>➤ In flow cytometry, histograms and dot plots are the common visual depictions for evaluating cell populations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Acid-base imbalance is suspected in a patient. Which of the following would you use to determine it? (INICET MAY 2021) Arterial pH Venous pH Venous pO2 Venous pCO2", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arterial pH, venous pH, and venous pCO2 are used to determine acid-base imbalances.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Asherman syndrome is most commonly associated with? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oligomenorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypomenorrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dysmenorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Menorrhagia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypomenorrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-171526.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypomenorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asherman syndrome is most commonly associated with hypomenorrhea due to intrauterine adhesions following endometrial trauma.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 459, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 459, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-1, B-5, C-3, D-2, E-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-2, D-3, E-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-1, B-5, C-3, D-2, E-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-233.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-234.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-2, E-4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Yolk Sac Tumor is associated with AFP, Choriocarcinoma with Beta hCG, Epithelial Cell Tumor with Ca125, Granulosa Cell Tumor with Inhibin, and Dysgerminoma with LDH.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 521, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 521, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with a history of minor trauma 20 days back with a piece of wood. He presented as shown in the image. CT scan revealed clear sinuses and the presence of subcutaneous nodules. Microscopy of the tissue sections are positive to PAS and positive on Gomori methamine silver stain. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Midline lethal granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Foreign body granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phycomycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG4 granuloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Phycomycosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/ranula-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Phycomycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phycomycosis is a serious fungal infection affecting mainly the nasal passages and sinuses, identifiable by special staining techniques and known for its aggressive, potentially fatal progression requiring prompt treatment with antifungals and surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be used in the treatment of sideroblastic anemia? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) is used in the treatment of sideroblastic anemia as it is a cofactor in the heme synthesis pathway and can correct the underlying metabolic defect in certain cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nivolumab is used as a checkpoint inhibitor in?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medulloblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleuropulmonary blastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hodgkin's lymphoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hodgkin's lymphoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hodgkin's lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nivolumab is an immune checkpoint inhibitor used for the treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, among other cancers such as non-small cell lung cancer, advanced melanoma, and advanced head and neck cancer. It works by blocking the PD-1/PD-L1 interaction, thereby enhancing the immune response against cancer cells.</li><li>➤ Immune check point inhibitors</li><li>➤ Immune check point inhibitors</li><li>➤ N ew: N ivolumab</li><li>➤ N</li><li>➤ N</li><li>➤ D rugs: D urvalumab</li><li>➤ D</li><li>➤ D</li><li>➤ A ct: A velumab</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ At : At ezolizumab</li><li>➤ At</li><li>➤ At</li><li>➤ I mmune: I pilimumab</li><li>➤ I</li><li>➤ I</li><li>➤ C heck: C emiplimab</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ P oint: P embrolizumab</li><li>➤ P</li><li>➤ P</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following emergency contraceptive is used in India? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Misoprostol 400 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethinyl estradiol 600 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulipristal 30 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-228.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg is the emergency contraceptive used in India.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 243, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 243, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a true statement about congenital CMV infection? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "About 20-30% of the infections are symptomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Triad of SNHL, periventricular calcification and enamel hypoplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most children asymptomatic at birth can develop conductive hearing loss later in life", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "If mother is IgG positive for CMV, the child is unlikely to develop infection", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. If mother is IgG positive for CMV, the child is unlikely to develop infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) If mother is IgG positive for CMV, the child is unlikely to develop infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Maternal IgG positivity for CMV suggests a lower risk of congenital CMV transmission, making it less likely for the fetus to develop the infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At which level does the nerve supply for the marked structure arise? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red nucleus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sub thalamic nuclei", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decussation of pyramidal tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Olivary nucleus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Red nucleus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture1_D7XdOGB.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Red nucleus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The medial rectus muscle is the one highlighted in the provided CT picture. The oculomotor nerve, whose nucleus is located at the level of the superior colliculus adjacent to the red nucleus, supplies the medial rectus.</li><li>• The nuclear complex from which the oculomotor nerve arises consists of:</li><li>• Several groups of large motor neurons are collectively called the oculomotor nucleus. The motor neuron groups of the oculomotor nucleus innervate, in dorsoventral order, the ipsilateral inferior rectus, inferior oblique, and medial rectus. A medially placed column of cells innervates the contralateral superior rectus. Smaller preganglionic parasympathetic neurons called the Edinger-Westphal preganglionic nucleus</li><li>• Several groups of large motor neurons are collectively called the oculomotor nucleus. The motor neuron groups of the oculomotor nucleus innervate, in dorsoventral order, the ipsilateral inferior rectus, inferior oblique, and medial rectus. A medially placed column of cells innervates the contralateral superior rectus.</li><li>• Smaller preganglionic parasympathetic neurons called the Edinger-Westphal preganglionic nucleus</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B . Subthalamic nuclei : The subthalamic nucleus is part of the diencephalon and is closely associated with the basal ganglia circuitry. It plays a role in motor control. It's not directly associated with the oculomotor nerve's origin.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Subthalamic nuclei</li><li>• Option C . Decussation of pyramidal tract : The decussation of the pyramidal tract (motor fibers) occurs in the lower medulla oblongata, well below the level of the oculomotor nerve's origin. This is where the majority of motor fibers from one hemisphere cross to the opposite side.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Decussation of pyramidal tract</li><li>• Option D . Olivary nucleus : The olivary nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is primarily associated with the coordination of motor tasks. Again, it's located caudally relative to the oculomotor nerve's origin in the midbrain.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Olivary nucleus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The oculomotor nerve (CN III) arises from the anterior aspect of the midbrain, at the level of the superior colliculus. Its nucleus is situated ventral to the cerebral aqueduct and in close proximity to the red nucleus. Hence, the oculomotor nerve is often associated with the level of the red nucleus in the midbrain. It exits the midbrain medial to the cerebral peduncle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given condition: (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycosis fungoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Visceral leishmaniasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pemphigus vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture24.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-182933.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-183030.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture25.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture26.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture27.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by suprabasal blisters and a row of tombstone appearance on histology, with a fishnet pattern on direct immunofluorescence due to IgG deposition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition 2307-2308</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition 2307-2308</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are components of kangaroo mother care? ( INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Early discharge, skin to skin contact, prevent infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Early discharge, skin to skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skin to skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding, prevent infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Early discharge, exclusive breastfeeding and prevent infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Early discharge, skin to skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-164259.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Early discharge, skin to skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) involves skin-to-skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding, and early discharge, focusing on the care of low birthweight infants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy with a history of a fall from a tree presents with a lurching gait and dragging of his feet. Which of the following structures are involved? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-83_yKEsbeR.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-84_kpcG9e3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure involved in causing lurching gait in the child is gluteus medius (marked as 2). The gluteus medius muscle is critical for stabilizing the pelvis during gait. When functioning normally, it prevents the pelvis from dropping to the opposite side during the swing phase of the walk. If injured or dysfunctional, such as might occur from a traumatic fall, the ability to maintain pelvic stability is compromised, leading to a lurching gait, known clinically as a Trendelenburg gait.</li><li>• The structure shown in the image are :</li><li>• The structure shown in the image are :</li><li>• 1-Gluteus maximus</li><li>• 2-Gluteus medius</li><li>• 3-Piriformis</li><li>• 4-Sciatic nerve</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• 1. Gluteus Maximus : The largest and most superficial of the gluteal muscles, mainly responsible for extension and lateral rotation of the hip. Its involvement is more related to power movements like climbing or jumping rather than gait stability.</li><li>• 1. Gluteus Maximus</li><li>• 3. Piriformis : A small muscle located deep in the buttock, behind the gluteus maximus. It helps with lateral rotation of the hip. Although it is near the sciatic nerve, it is less likely involved in producing a lurching gait unless it compresses the sciatic nerve, causing sciatica.</li><li>• 3. Piriformis</li><li>• 4. Sciatic Nerve : The largest nerve in the body, running from the lower back to the feet. While injury to this nerve can cause pain and weakness in the legs, it typically would not cause a lurching gait unless there is significant associated muscle weakness.</li><li>• 4. Sciatic Nerve</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clinical Insight:</li><li>➤ Clinical Insight:</li><li>➤ Injury to the gluteus medius or the superior gluteal nerve can lead to an inability to properly abduct the hip on the stance side, resulting in a drop of the pelvis on the contralateral side when the affected leg is weight-bearing. This is often demonstrated by a positive Trendelenburg sign and manifests as a compensatory lurch toward the affected side to maintain balance.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Gluteus medius and minimus are powerful abductors of the hip joint. Mechanism of actions of gluteus medius and minimus-</li><li>➤ When the leg on one side is lifted off the ground, the gluteus medius and minimus muscles, on the opposite supported side, exert traction on the hip bone by acting from the femur. This action results in a slight raising of the pelvis on the unsupported side, which helps maintain the trunk in the upright position. The actions of these muscles are affected when there is an injury to the superior gluteal nerve, neck of the femur, or loss of normal angulation of the shaft of the femur. This occurs in conditions like paralysis of the glutei, developmental dysplasia of the hip, etc. When the gluteus medius and minimus are paralyzed, the pelvis sinks down on the unsupported (normal) side, when the patient tries to stand on the affected limb. This leads to a positive Trendelenburg's sign with a characteristic lurching gait - the patient lurches towards the affected side with contralateral pelvis drop.</li><li>➤ When the leg on one side is lifted off the ground, the gluteus medius and minimus muscles, on the opposite supported side, exert traction on the hip bone by acting from the femur. This action results in a slight raising of the pelvis on the unsupported side, which helps maintain the trunk in the upright position.</li><li>➤ The actions of these muscles are affected when there is an injury to the superior gluteal nerve, neck of the femur, or loss of normal angulation of the shaft of the femur. This occurs in conditions like paralysis of the glutei, developmental dysplasia of the hip, etc.</li><li>➤ When the gluteus medius and minimus are paralyzed, the pelvis sinks down on the unsupported (normal) side, when the patient tries to stand on the affected limb. This leads to a positive Trendelenburg's sign with a characteristic lurching gait - the patient lurches towards the affected side with contralateral pelvis drop.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be given for long term management of obesity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liraglutide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sibutramine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fenfluramine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Liraglutide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Liraglutide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Liraglutide is a viable and approved option for the long-term management of obesity. It works by mimicking the hormone GLP-1 to help regulate appetite and reduce calorie intake. Other Options like sibutramine and fenfluramine have been withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, and metformin, while causing modest weight loss, is not primarily indicated for obesity treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is correct regarding the healing of leprosy if left untreated? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No spontaneous remission is seen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Half of the cases resolve spontaneously after bacilli exposure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spontaneous remission is more common in children than in adults", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Indeterminate leprosy has more remission than tuberculoid leprosy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Indeterminate leprosy has more remission than tuberculoid leprosy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Indeterminate leprosy has more remission than tuberculoid leprosy.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spontaneous remission occurs even in the absence of specific treatment in majority (almost 80-90%) of the patients, but when compared to adults, in children spontaneous cure is very much variable. If left untreated, Indeterminate leprosy has a higher rate of spontaneous remission compared to tuberculoid leprosy.</li><li>➤ Spontaneous remission occurs even in the absence of specific treatment in majority (almost 80-90%) of the patients, but when compared to adults, in children spontaneous cure is very much variable.</li><li>➤ Spontaneous remission occurs even in the absence of specific treatment in majority (almost 80-90%) of the patients, but when compared to adults,</li><li>➤ children spontaneous cure</li><li>➤ variable.</li><li>➤ If left untreated, Indeterminate leprosy has a higher rate of spontaneous remission compared to tuberculoid leprosy.</li><li>➤ If left untreated, Indeterminate</li><li>➤ spontaneous remission</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 28.7</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 28.7</li><li>➤ Parks textbook of preventive &amp; social medicine 26 th edition Pg 359</li><li>➤ Parks textbook of preventive &amp; social medicine 26 th edition Pg 359</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In osteoporosis, serum calcium and alkaline phosphatase levels are usually:(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Variable", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Normal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_99_KW8BqA2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/08/io52.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Normal</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Transfusing irradiated red blood cells (RBCs) can effectively prevent which of the following conditions? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Graft versus host disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HLA Alloimmunization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immunomodulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Graft versus host disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Graft versus host disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The use of irradiated RBCs is specifically recommended to prevent Graft-Versus-Host Disease (GVHD) , making it the correct answer for this scenario.</li><li>➤ irradiated RBCs</li><li>➤ Graft-Versus-Host Disease (GVHD)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Through which of the following marked sites does SARS-COVID 19 spread to the brain? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-82_qJpk3Dq.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structures marked in the given image are :</li><li>• The structures marked in the given image are :</li><li>• Cribriform plate Foramen ovale Optic canal Foramen lacerum</li><li>• Cribriform plate</li><li>• Foramen ovale</li><li>• Optic canal</li><li>• Foramen lacerum</li><li>• The cribriform plate, marked as \"A\" in the image, is recognized as one of the potential entry routes for the SARS-CoV-2 virus to access the brain. The cribriform plate forms the roof of the nasal cavity and has small holes through which the olfactory nerves pass.</li><li>• The virus can potentially enter the olfactory bulbs situated above the cribriform plate, which are directly connected to the nasal cavity. This provides a pathway for the virus to spread from the upper respiratory tract to the olfactory nerve endings (as well as dissemination through trans-synaptic transfer) and subsequently to the brain, potentially leading to neurological manifestations.</li><li>• Encephalitis, demyelination, neuropathy, and stroke are the neurological sequelae to severe COVID-19 infection. The neurological invasion of the virus on the medullary cardiorespiratory center can lead to refractory respiratory failure in patients infected with COVID-19.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A (D - Foramen Lacerum): Mainly filled with cartilage and does not transmit major nerves or blood vessels that could carry infections into the cranial cavity.</li><li>• Option A (D - Foramen Lacerum):</li><li>• Option B (C - Optic Canal ): Serves as the passage for the optic nerve from the eye to the brain, but not a known route for SARS-CoV-2 entry into the brain.</li><li>• Option B (C - Optic Canal</li><li>• Option C (B - Foramen Ovale ): A passage for the mandibular nerve, part of the trigeminal nerve, which has no established connection to SARS-CoV-2 neuroinvasion.</li><li>• Option C (B - Foramen Ovale</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cribriform plate is a plausible pathway for SARS-CoV-2 to access the brain due to its direct connection to the nasal cavity and olfactory system. Understanding these potential routes is crucial for comprehending the broader impact of the virus on the nervous system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following components of the fungal cell wall is not seen in mucormycosis? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mannoproteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta 1, 3, glucan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chitin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ergosterol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Beta 1, 3, glucan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Beta 1, 3, glucan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta 1, 3, glucan is absent or minimally present in the cell walls of fungi causing mucormycosis, distinguishing them from many other fungi that have this polysaccharide as a major cell wall component. This characteristic is significant in the diagnosis and treatment of fungal infections.</li><li>➤ Beta 1, 3, glucan</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the postmortem findings and their time of appearance:(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-163601.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Adipocere formation Time of appearance: 8-10 days Explanation: Adipocere, also known as grave wax, is a postmortem change that occurs when body fat undergoes a transformation into a waxy substance in a moist environment. This process typically begins around 8-10 days after death.</li><li>• Adipocere formation</li><li>• Time of appearance: 8-10 days Explanation: Adipocere, also known as grave wax, is a postmortem change that occurs when body fat undergoes a transformation into a waxy substance in a moist environment. This process typically begins around 8-10 days after death.</li><li>• Time of appearance: 8-10 days</li><li>• Time of appearance:</li><li>• Explanation: Adipocere, also known as grave wax, is a postmortem change that occurs when body fat undergoes a transformation into a waxy substance in a moist environment. This process typically begins around 8-10 days after death.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relaxation of urethral sphincter Time of appearance: 24 hrs Explanation: After death, muscle relaxation, including the relaxation of the urethral sphincter, occurs due to the cessation of neural activity and muscle tone, typically around 24 hours postmortem.</li><li>• Relaxation of urethral sphincter</li><li>• Time of appearance: 24 hrs Explanation: After death, muscle relaxation, including the relaxation of the urethral sphincter, occurs due to the cessation of neural activity and muscle tone, typically around 24 hours postmortem.</li><li>• Time of appearance: 24 hrs</li><li>• Time of appearance:</li><li>• Explanation: After death, muscle relaxation, including the relaxation of the urethral sphincter, occurs due to the cessation of neural activity and muscle tone, typically around 24 hours postmortem.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Marbling of veins Time of appearance: 2-3 days Explanation: Marbling refers to the appearance of greenish-black discoloration along the veins due to the breakdown of hemoglobin and the production of hydrogen sulphide gas by bacteria. This occurs approximately 2-3 days after death.</li><li>• Marbling of veins</li><li>• Time of appearance: 2-3 days Explanation: Marbling refers to the appearance of greenish-black discoloration along the veins due to the breakdown of hemoglobin and the production of hydrogen sulphide gas by bacteria. This occurs approximately 2-3 days after death.</li><li>• Time of appearance: 2-3 days</li><li>• Time of appearance:</li><li>• Explanation: Marbling refers to the appearance of greenish-black discoloration along the veins due to the breakdown of hemoglobin and the production of hydrogen sulphide gas by bacteria. This occurs approximately 2-3 days after death.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Liquefaction of tissues Time of appearance: 4-5 days Explanation: Tissue liquefaction is a stage of decomposition where tissues start to break down into a liquid form. This process typically begins around 4-5 days postmortem.</li><li>• Liquefaction of tissues</li><li>• Time of appearance: 4-5 days Explanation: Tissue liquefaction is a stage of decomposition where tissues start to break down into a liquid form. This process typically begins around 4-5 days postmortem.</li><li>• Time of appearance: 4-5 days</li><li>• Time of appearance:</li><li>• Explanation: Tissue liquefaction is a stage of decomposition where tissues start to break down into a liquid form. This process typically begins around 4-5 days postmortem.</li><li>• Explanation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amongst postmortem findings:</li><li>➤ Adipocere formation is by 8-10 days Relaxation of urethral sphincter is by 24 hrs. Marbling of veins is by 2-3 days Liquefaction of tissues is by 4-5 days</li><li>➤ Adipocere formation is by 8-10 days</li><li>➤ Relaxation of urethral sphincter is by 24 hrs.</li><li>➤ Marbling of veins is by 2-3 days</li><li>➤ Liquefaction of tissues is by 4-5 days</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the next best step in the management of a 16-year-old male with a painless large round firm right testicular swelling, with a dragging sensation and AFP around 5000? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FNAC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scrotal trucut biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High inguinal orchidectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Repeat Tumor markers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. High inguinal orchidectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) High inguinal orchidectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ A painless testicular swelling in a young male with elevated AFP is highly suggestive of a testicular malignancy. The standard of care in such cases is to proceed with a high inguinal orchidectomy for both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following enzymes/diagnostic marker is incorrectly paired?(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta Glucocerebrosidase - Von Gierke’s", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ceruloplasmin - Hepatolenticular degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High LDH1/LDH2 - Myocardial Infarction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lipase - Pancreatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Beta Glucocerebrosidase - Von Gierke’s", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Beta Glucocerebrosidase - Von Gierke’s</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Beta-glucocerebrosidase is linked to Gaucher’s disease, not Von Gierke’s disease, which is caused by a deficiency in Glucose-6-phosphatase. Correct pairing of diagnostic markers and associated conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/p 64, 167,634</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/p 64, 167,634</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the provided options align with the depicted equivalence margin graph? (INICET MAY 2021) ‘A’ represents superiority of new treatment ‘I’ represents Inferiority of new treatment ‘E’ represents Non-inferior treatment ‘C’ is inconclusive", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/psm-pyq-12-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture2777.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In equivalence margin graphs for RCTs, 'A' can indicate a superior treatment, 'I' an inferior treatment, and 'E' a non-inferior treatment. 'C' does not represent an inconclusive result; it represents superiority.</li><li>➤ In equivalence margin graphs for RCTs, 'A' can indicate a superior treatment, 'I' an inferior treatment, and 'E' a non-inferior treatment. 'C' does not represent an inconclusive result; it represents superiority.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following named fractures with the bones involved:(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/screenshot-2024-01-06-185127.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/screenshot-2024-01-06-185209.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture33.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture35.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Methyl tetrahydrofolate accumulation and functional deficiency of folate is seen in the deficiency of: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vit B 12", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vit B 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vit B 6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vit B 12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/09/11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vit B12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To understand the metabolic consequences of vitamin deficiencies, medical students should recognize that the functional deficiency of folate, characterized by the accumulation of methyl tetrahydrofolate, is primarily seen in vitamin B12 deficiency, making it important to distinguish between the two deficiencies in clinical practice.</li><li>➤ Deficiency of Vitamin B12 leads to accumulation of methyl THF. Free THF becomes deficient (Folate Trap) and as THF is functional form of folate it is also known as functional deficiency of folate.</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/p 536</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/p 536</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old patient with a history of diabetes and hypertension came with post-menopausal bleeding. Which of the following you will do to evaluate the cause? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pap smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Visual inspection with iodine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colposcopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometrial sampling", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Endometrial sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Endometrial sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endometrial sampling is done to evaluate a patient presenting with postmenopausal bleeding.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 560, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 560, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male worker presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, irritability, fatigue, and memory problems. He works in a battery manufacturing factory for the last 20 years. On further investigations, he is diagnosed with lead poisoning. Which of the following is the most frequent mode of inorganic lead absorption contributing to his condition in such industrial environments? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Absorption through skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhaled lead dust", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ingestion of contaminated food and water", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contaminated hands", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inhaled lead dust", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/screenshot-2023-10-27-183620.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Inhaled lead dust</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning is known as ‘Plumbism’, Saturnism or Painter’s Colic</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning is known as ‘Plumbism’, Saturnism or Painter’s Colic</li><li>➤ Greatest source of lead in Lead Poisoning (Plumbism, Saturnism or Painter’s Colic) is Gasoline/petrol /vehicular exhaust/automobile exhaust Mode of absorption: Lead can be absorbed by inhalation (most common mode), ingestion or through skin</li><li>➤ Greatest source of lead in Lead Poisoning (Plumbism, Saturnism or Painter’s Colic) is Gasoline/petrol /vehicular exhaust/automobile exhaust</li><li>➤ Gasoline/petrol</li><li>➤ Mode of absorption: Lead can be absorbed by inhalation (most common mode), ingestion or through skin</li><li>➤ inhalation (most common mode),</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Clinical picture of lead poisoning:</li><li>➤ Clinical picture of lead poisoning:</li><li>➤ Facial pallor: Earliest and most consistent sign Anemia: Microcytic hypochromic Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs Burtonian Line: Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw) Lead colic: Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea) Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop Lead encephalopathy CNS effects: mostly due to organic lead compounds</li><li>➤ Facial pallor: Earliest and most consistent sign</li><li>➤ Anemia: Microcytic hypochromic</li><li>➤ Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs</li><li>➤ Burtonian Line: Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw)</li><li>➤ Burtonian Line: Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw)</li><li>➤ Lead colic: Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea)</li><li>➤ Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop</li><li>➤ Lead encephalopathy</li><li>➤ CNS effects: mostly due to organic lead compounds</li><li>➤ Diagnosis of lead poisoning:</li><li>➤ Diagnosis of lead poisoning:</li><li>➤ A useful screening test is Coproporphyrin in Urine (CPU).</li><li>➤ Treatment: EDTA</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false about the selection of essential drugs? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adequate safety profile needs to be established", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cost to benefit has to be considered", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fixed dose combination of drugs is preferred over single drugs", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disease prevalence is considered", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fixed dose combination of drugs is preferred over single drugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Fixed dose combination of drugs is preferred over single drugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The selection of essential drugs prioritizes factors like safety, cost-effectiveness, and disease prevalence. Fixed-dose combinations are not universally preferred over single drugs, as the choice depends on specific therapeutic needs and other considerations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man suddenly developed right-sided weakness and aphasia within 2 hours. His BP recorded was 160/110 mmHg and NCCT was clear. What is the next step in management? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT angiography to look for large vessel occlusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI to look for infarct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tab labetalol 10 mg stat", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thrombolysis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Thrombolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Thrombolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In acute ischemic stroke with BP &lt; 185/110 and clear NCCT, thrombolysis is the next step.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Positive charge in thick ascending loop of Henle is maintained by recirculation of which cation: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "H +", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Na +", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NH 4 +", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "K +", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. K +", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/09/12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) K+</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The thick ascending loop of Henle (TAL) is impermeable to water but there is active reabsorption of Na, Cl and K. The cotransporter in membrane of TAL is responsible for reabsorption of 1/3 of both Na and Cl in the body. On the basolateral side there is Na/K ATPase pump which throws sodium out and K in. This K + is transported back into lumen through Renal outer medullary K + channel (ROMK) channel for it to be recirculated.</li><li>➤ Ref- https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4220766/</li><li>➤ Ref- https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4220766/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old guy arrives with tense, itchy bullae over his limbs. The roof of the bullae collapsed after a few days. What is the most likely diagnosis shown in the clinical image below? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bullous pemphigoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Linear IgA dermatosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bullous pemphigoid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture1100.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture1222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture13555.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture14999.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bullous pemphigoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ \" Bullous Pemphigoid is a subepidermal blistering disorder predominantly affecting the elderly , characterized by tense itchy bullae , autoantibodies against BP180 and BP230 , and eosinophilic involvement.\"</li><li>➤ Bullous Pemphigoid</li><li>➤ subepidermal blistering disorder</li><li>➤ elderly</li><li>➤ tense itchy bullae</li><li>➤ autoantibodies</li><li>➤ BP180 and BP230</li><li>➤ eosinophilic</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 50, Page no. 50.4-50.37.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 50, Page no. 50.4-50.37.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not show both hyperkinetic and hypokinetic movements? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parkinson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wilson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neurodegeneration with Brain Iron Accumulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Huntington's chorea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Huntington's chorea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Huntington's chorea primarily presents with hyperkinetic movements and not hypokinetic movements.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple presents to the infertility clinic with a normal hysterosalpingogram and a semen analysis report with azoospermia. Which of the following test is useful to differentiate between an obstructive and a testicular cause? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum FSH levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum testosterone levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Testicular Biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum LH level", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Testicular Biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Testicular Biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The absence of sperm in semen is known as azoospermia. It can be due to: Pre-testicular azoospermia due to a hypothalamic or pituitary abnormality (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) Testicular failure or non-obstructive azoospermia Post-testicular obstruction implies normal spermatogenesis but failure to deliver the sperm into the ejaculate because of ducal obstruction. In testicular cause of azoospermia, there will be absent or very few sperms on biopsy whereas in obstructive azoospermia, there will be normal sperms on biopsy</li><li>• The absence of sperm in semen is known as azoospermia. It can be due to: Pre-testicular azoospermia due to a hypothalamic or pituitary abnormality (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) Testicular failure or non-obstructive azoospermia Post-testicular obstruction implies normal spermatogenesis but failure to deliver the sperm into the ejaculate because of ducal obstruction.</li><li>• Pre-testicular azoospermia due to a hypothalamic or pituitary abnormality (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) Testicular failure or non-obstructive azoospermia Post-testicular obstruction implies normal spermatogenesis but failure to deliver the sperm into the ejaculate because of ducal obstruction.</li><li>• Pre-testicular azoospermia due to a hypothalamic or pituitary abnormality (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism)</li><li>• Testicular failure or non-obstructive azoospermia</li><li>• Post-testicular obstruction implies normal spermatogenesis but failure to deliver the sperm into the ejaculate because of ducal obstruction.</li><li>• In testicular cause of azoospermia, there will be absent or very few sperms on biopsy whereas in obstructive azoospermia, there will be normal sperms on biopsy</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Serum FSH levels and Option B. Serum testosterone levels are important for spermatogenesis</li><li>• Option A. Serum FSH levels</li><li>• Option B. Serum testosterone levels</li><li>• FSH levels can be used to differentiate hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism from other causes of testicular failure</li><li>• FSH levels can be used to differentiate hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism from other causes of testicular failure</li><li>• Option D. Serum LH level : LH is a non-specific test in evaluation of azoospermia</li><li>• Option D. Serum LH level</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A testicular biopsy is useful to differentiate between an obstructive and a testicular cause of Azoospermia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 233, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6the edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 233, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6the edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the factor 'L' which combines with tissue factor to activate factor IX in given coagulation cascade? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factor XII", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor VII", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factor VIII", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VWF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Factor VII", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture20.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture21.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Factor VII</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor VII is the key clotting factor that combines with tissue factor to activate Factor IX and Factor X, playing a crucial role in the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statement is True regarding trematodes? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fasciola hepatica are seen in the intrahepatic biliary radicles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schistosoma are monoecious", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fasciola hepatica acquired through contaminated water", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Triclabendazole is the treatment of choice for all trematode infections", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fasciola hepatica are seen in the intrahepatic biliary radicles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-192.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fasciola hepatica are seen in the intrahepatic biliary radicles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fasciola hepatica is found in the intrahepatic biliary radicles of its definitive host. It is acquired through ingestion of metacercariae on aquatic vegetation, and its treatment of choice is triclabendazole. Schistosomes, unlike other trematodes, are dioecious, meaning they have separate sexes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male presented with symptoms of inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the 4th and 5th digits. He was also not able to hold a piece of paper between his fingers. What is the likely site of injury?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-73_AZ2mWie.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-74_ioAiv4S.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-75_X0ZDAMp.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An ulnar nerve damage is suggested by the clinical scenario, which includes a positive card test and the inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the 4th and 5th digits.</li><li>• The most likely site of injury would thus be medial epicondyle: site C</li><li>• Damage to the ulnar nerve at the medial epicondyle causes paralysis of the flexor carpi ulnaris (lack of ulnar deviation) and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus (loss of distal interphalangeal joint flexion). Hypothenar paralysis (which causes atrophy) and sensory loss are the results. Moreover, the extensor digitorum and flexor digitorum superficialis (provided by the radial nerve and median nerve, respectively) continue to function. The third and fourth digits are therefore not completely paralysed. The palmar interossei's fragility, which causes a loss of adduction, is what causes the positive card test.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Head of the Humerus: Articulates with the shoulder joint. Injury here typically affects shoulder movement, not the distal functions like finger flexion or sensory issues associated with the ulnar nerve.</li><li>• Option A. Head of the Humerus:</li><li>• Option B. Intertubercular Groove: Houses the tendon of the biceps brachii. Mainly affects movements related to the biceps muscle, not ulnar nerve functions.</li><li>• Option B. Intertubercular Groove:</li><li>• Option D. Lateral Epicondyle: Attachment site for forearm extensor muscles. Primarily involved in conditions like lateral epicondylitis, which causes localized pain rather than the broader sensory and motor deficits seen in ulnar nerve damage.</li><li>• Option D. Lateral Epicondyle:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ulnar nerve branches and supply:</li><li>➤ Ulnar nerve branches and supply:</li><li>➤ Superficial branch supplies palmaris brevis, skin on the palmar surface of medial 1½ fingers. The deep branch runs within the concavity of deep palmar arch and supplies all intrinsic muscles of the hand (except first 2 lumbricals and thenar muscles).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In conventional oxygen therapy, which device will deliver the highest FiO 2 ? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Venturi mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hudson mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-rebreathing mask", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nasal cannula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Non-rebreathing mask", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-151423.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Non</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The non-rebreathing mask delivers the highest FiO2 in conventional oxygen therapy, capable of providing up to 80% FiO2 at flow rates of 10-15 L/min, making it suitable for patients requiring high concentrations of oxygen.</li><li>➤ The non-rebreathing mask delivers the highest FiO2 in conventional oxygen therapy, capable of providing up to 80% FiO2 at flow rates of 10-15 L/min, making it suitable for patients requiring high concentrations of oxygen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statement/s is/are true regarding open fracture?(INICET MAY 2021) Compartment syndrome is rare. Immediate debridement should be done. Tibia is the most common long bone involved. Multiple fractures are uncommon.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I, II &amp; III are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "I &amp; II are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I, II &amp; IV are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. I, II & III are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) I, II &amp; III are correct</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female presents with redness and pain in the eye. Examination revealed an IOP of 38 mm of Hg, aqueous flare, and corneal precipitates. Which of the following drugs must be avoided in her? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prostaglandin analogs", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Prostaglandin analogs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Prostaglandin analogs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with anterior uveitis and high IOP, prostaglandin analogs should be avoided due to their potential to worsen intraocular inflammation and the risk of inducing or exacerbating cystoid macular edema. Other options such as beta blockers, mannitol, and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can be considered based on the individual patient's overall health and specific eye condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the content of given vacutainer? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na-EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trisodium citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Na-heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clot activator", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Clot activator", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with sinusitis, ulcerative lesions on the nasopharynx, nodular lesions with cavitations of the lung, and renal failure. Which of the following is the most useful investigation in this patient? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Test for ANCA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biopsy to show granulomas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AFB staining of sputum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BAL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Test for ANCA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Test for ANCA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In suspected GPA, the ANCA test is the most useful initial investigation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How long should elective surgery be deferred for a patient who had cough and fever, after he has recovered from COVID-19, and has not required any hospitalization?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "8-10 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 6 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 6 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Elective surgery should be deferred for 6 weeks in a patient who had cough and fever due to COVID-19 but did not require hospitalization. This ensures sufficient recovery time to reduce perioperative risks.</li><li>➤ Elective surgery should be deferred for 6 weeks in a patient who had cough and fever due to COVID-19 but did not require hospitalization. This ensures sufficient recovery time to reduce perioperative risks.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 2423</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 2423</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements accurately describe the effects of Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency? (AIIMS MAY 2021) Decrease in reduced glutathione Decreased NADPH Decreased lipid peroxidation Decreased RBC membrane damage", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only 1 is correct.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 &amp; 2 are correct.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 &amp; 3 are correct.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 &amp; 4 are correct.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 & 2 are correct.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-192431.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ G6PD deficiency leads to decreased levels of NADPH and reduced glutathione, which are essential for protecting RBCs from oxidative damage.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1197</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1197</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young child with absent thymus is brought to the OPD with features of hypoparathyroidism and tetany. Which of the following marked area in the picture is defective in this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "9", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "14", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 12", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-76_IgudUDx.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-130949.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most relevant site of defect in DiGeorge syndrome, given the symptoms described (absent thymus, hypoparathyroidism, and tetany), is associated with abnormalities in the third pharyngeal pouch—specifically the development of the inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition shown in the image. ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoid facies", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Goldenhar syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Horse facies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Frog facies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adenoid facies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/18.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adenoid facies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenoid facies can be recognized by characteristic features such as elongated face, open mouth posture due to nasal obstruction, hitched up upper lip revealing crowded upper teeth, and a pinched-in nose. It's associated with chronic adenoid hypertrophy, impacting the facial structure and respiratory function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve is blocked in the following local anesthesia technique shown in the image below? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasociliary nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior ethmoidal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sphenopalatine nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Greater palatine nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nasociliary nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-151519.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nasociliary nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The nasociliary nerve block involves inserting a needle superior and posterolateral to the medial canthal ligament of the eye and injecting a local anesthetic solution. This technique is primarily used for procedures involving the nasal area, such as septoplasty, rhinoplasty, and nasal bone fracture treatment.</li><li>➤ The nasociliary nerve block involves inserting a needle superior and posterolateral to the medial canthal ligament of the eye and injecting a local anesthetic solution. This technique is primarily used for procedures involving the nasal area, such as septoplasty, rhinoplasty, and nasal bone fracture treatment.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 2413-2414</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 2413-2414</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old woman landed up in AIIMS emergency after a road traffic accident with GCS of 3. She was intubated and sent for NCCT which was found to be normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diffuse axonal injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post-concussion syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extradural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herniation of brain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diffuse axonal injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-141.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Diffuse axonal injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario of the patient who had an RTA presents with an abnormal clinical manifestation and no imaging abnormality suggests diffuse axonal injury.</li><li>• Initial investigation for DAI→ NCCT: Normal or tiny microbleeds</li><li>• IOC for DAI → MRI</li><li>• Sequence of MRI best: SWI/ Gradient MR: Shows blooming suggestive of axonal shearing</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Post-concussion syndrome: This generally follows a mild traumatic brain injury, not severe cases presenting with a GCS of 3 and typically involves symptoms like headaches, dizziness, and cognitive difficulties developing after the injury.</li><li>• Option B. Post-concussion syndrome:</li><li>• Option C. Extradural hemorrhage: This condition would usually present with a focal mass effect on an NCCT, which was not noted in this case.</li><li>• Option C. Extradural hemorrhage:</li><li>• Option D. Herniation of brain: Brain herniation typically shows significant structural displacement on NCCT, which was reported as normal in this patient.</li><li>• Option D. Herniation of brain:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diffuse axonal injury is a significant concern in patients with severe trauma and low GCS, especially when initial NCCT scans do not reveal significant abnormalities. MRI, particularly with SWI or gradient MR sequences, is crucial for proper diagnosis due to its sensitivity to microbleeds and axonal injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient having frothy vaginal discharge was found to have a strawberry cervix. Which of the following is the drug of choice? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cefixime", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metronidazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-164120.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The description of a frothy vaginal discharge and a \"strawberry cervix\" is characteristic of trichomoniasis vaginalis , a common sexually transmitted infection caused by the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The drug of choice for treating trichomoniasis is Metronidazole . This medication can be administered as a single high dose (2g) or in a lower dose (200mg three times daily for 7 days).</li><li>• trichomoniasis vaginalis</li><li>• Metronidazole</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Fluconazole : This drug is used for treating candidiasis (yeast infections), not trichomoniasis. Candidiasis typically presents with a curdy white discharge rather than frothy discharge and is not associated with a strawberry cervix.</li><li>• Option B. Fluconazole</li><li>• Option C. Tetracycline : Tetracycline is an antibiotic used for various bacterial infections but is not effective against trichomoniasis. It is not the drug of choice for treating this parasitic infection.</li><li>• Option C. Tetracycline</li><li>• Option D. Cefixime : Cefixime is a cephalosporin antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections like gonorrhea. It is not effective against trichomoniasis and thus is not appropriate for this condition.</li><li>• Option D. Cefixime</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drug of choice for treating trichomoniasis vaginalis, which presents with frothy vaginal discharge and strawberry cervix, is Metronidazole.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cytochrome C oxidase is inhibited by all EXCEPT?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methane", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "H 2 S", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CO", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyanide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-105728.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Methane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CN, CO and H2S are inhibitors of Cytochrome c Oxidase (Complex IV of ETC). They inhibit by non-competitive inhibition and this type of inhibition is mostly irreversible. For a complete list of ETC inhibitors refer to table below:</li><li>➤ Inhibitor of ETC complexes</li><li>➤ Inhibitor of ETC complexes</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/p 123</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/p 123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A teenage girl presented with irregular cycles and increased facial hair. Her ovaries showed increased volume. Which of the following are used in the first line treatment? (INICET MAY 2021) Laparoscopic ovarian drilling Anti-androgens Lifestyle modifications Combined oral contraceptive pills", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation of irregular menstrual cycles and increased facial hair, combined with increased ovarian volume, is suggestive of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) . The first-line treatment options for PCOS typically include:</li><li>• polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)</li><li>• Anti-androgens (2): These medications help reduce symptoms related to excess androgens, such as facial hair and acne. Common examples include spironolactone.</li><li>• Anti-androgens</li><li>• Lifestyle modifications (3): These are crucial for managing PCOS. Weight loss and exercise can improve insulin sensitivity and help regulate menstrual cycles.</li><li>• Lifestyle modifications</li><li>• Combined oral contraceptive pills (4): These are used to regulate menstrual cycles, reduce hyperandrogenism symptoms (like hirsutism), and provide endometrial protection.</li><li>• Combined oral contraceptive pills</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Laparoscopic ovarian drilling (1): This is a surgical procedure used to treat PCOS, but it is generally considered a second-line treatment. It is typically performed when medical management fails to achieve the desired results.</li><li>• Laparoscopic ovarian drilling</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first-line treatments for PCOS include anti-androgens, lifestyle modifications, and combined oral contraceptive pills.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 460, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 460, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with right-sided loss of sensations of both the upper and lower limb complains of shooting pain from her fingers to the right shoulder and a burning sensation when touching cold water. Motor functions are normal. Which of the following structures is likely to be involved? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-71_2KvCA3I.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture2_rw0NybC.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Thalamus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The thalamic pain syndrome is caused by the occlusion of these thalamic and thalamogeniculate branches. C/L hemisensory loss, which begins as numbness and escalates to cause intense burning pain in the affected areas, is what distinguishes it.</li><li>➤ The thalamic pain syndrome</li><li>➤ A thalamic lesion results in a breakdown in communication between the brain's afferent route and cortex because the thalamus serves as the site for the relay of sensory information between the periphery and cortex. The healing process following a thalamic infarct is painful.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following methods uses RNA? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Western blot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RT-PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sangers method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G-banding", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. RT-PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) RT-PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RT-PCR is a method for detection of gene expression using reverse transcription of RNA to synthesize cDNA. Western Blot most commonly involve antigen-antibody interactions which is a.protein-protein interaction. Sanger’s method is a DNA sequencing technique by chain termination of DNA polymerization using DNA as template. G-banding is a chromosomal staining technique usually done for karyotyping analysis and involve only DNA.</li><li>➤ Ref- Lehninger 6 th e/p 331</li><li>➤ Ref-</li><li>➤ Lehninger 6 th e/p</li><li>➤ 331</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not used for protein precipitation? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heavy metals", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol &amp; acetone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Change in pH other than isoelectric pH", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichloroacetic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Change in pH other than isoelectric pH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-105838.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Change in pH other than isoelectric pH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Only at Isoelectric pH, protein’s net charge is zero, known as Zwitterion. This structure is insoluble, so precipitates out. At acidic pH, protein has positive charge. At alkaline pH, protein has negative charge. The other methods of protein precipitation are:</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/p 19</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/p 19</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During your clinical rotation, you notice the different color-coded waste bins meticulously arranged by the nursing staff as per the hospital's waste management protocol. If you were to guide a new intern about the appropriate disposal of items, which item among the following would you instruct them to discard in the black bin? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Soiled linen bedsheet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glove paper cover", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gloves", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contaminated gloves", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glove paper cover", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip21.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glove paper cover</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-infectious general refuse, such as glove paper covers, should be discarded in the black bin.</li><li>➤ Non-infectious general refuse, such as glove paper covers, should be discarded in the black bin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 63-year-old female patient presented with a 5x1 cm lump in the left upper outer quadrant, with no axillary lymph node involvement. Mammography revealed BIRADS 4b staging. She underwent breast conservation surgery, and the final HE reports showed high nuclear grade DCIS with 7 mm margin clearance. What is the further management? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adjuvant radiotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adjuvant chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follow up 6 monthly for 2 years and then yearly follow up", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trastuzumab therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adjuvant radiotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-182123.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adjuvant radiotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Based on the Van Nuys prognostic index, the patient’s score is: High grade- 3 points, Margins 7 mm-2 points, Size 5 cm- 3 points and age 63 years- 1 point= 9 points.</li><li>➤ The recommended next step in the patient's management would be adjuvant radiotherapy for scores 7 to 9.</li><li>➤ Score: 4 to 6: wide excision alone</li><li>➤ 7 to 9: Adjuvant radiotherapy</li><li>➤ 10 to 12: Mastectomy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument given below? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cusco's speculum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sims' speculum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proctoscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doyen's retractor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cusco's speculum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_FFzm3FJ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-230.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-231.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-232.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cusco's speculum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The instrument shown in the image is Cusco's speculum. Cusco's speculum is a self-retaining bivalve speculum used for visualization of the cervix, vaginal fornices and for performing pap smear. Advantage: Self retaining Disadvantage: Less space so can’t be used for some procedures, obscures the vaginal walls so vaginal lesion may be missed</li><li>• The instrument shown in the image is Cusco's speculum.</li><li>• Cusco's speculum is a self-retaining bivalve speculum used for visualization of the cervix, vaginal fornices and for performing pap smear.</li><li>• Advantage: Self retaining</li><li>• Disadvantage: Less space so can’t be used for some procedures, obscures the vaginal walls so vaginal lesion may be missed</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sim Speculum:</li><li>• Option B. Sim Speculum:</li><li>• Option C. Proctoscope</li><li>• Option C. Proctoscope</li><li>• Option D. Doyen Retractor</li><li>• Option D. Doyen Retractor</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cusco's speculum is a self-retaining bivalve speculum used for visualizing the cervix and vaginal fornices.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 628, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 628, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 17-year-old girl was brought by her mother to the outpatient department with primary amenorrhea. She had normal breast development and pubic hair. On examination, the vagina was blind-ending and the uterus was not palpable. What is the most probable diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mullerian agenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gonadal dysgenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Testicular feminization syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mullerian agenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mullerian agenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mullerian agenesis is characterized by the absence of the uterus and the upper part of the vagina, with normal ovarian function leading to normal breast and pubic hair development.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 450, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 450, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old patient had a tooth extraction three days back. He now presents with a mass in the submandibular region which is otherwise asymptomatic. There is no ulcer on the oral mucosa. On drainage of the discharge, it was foul-smelling with a lot of yellow granules. They showed gram-positive filamentous rods on grams staining. What is the most likely implicated pathogen? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chromoblastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Actinomycetes israelli", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Actinomycetes israelli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-45.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Actinomycetes israelli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cervicofacial actinomycosis, commonly caused by Actinomyces israelii, presents with submandibular masses, often after dental procedures, with foul-smelling discharge containing yellow sulfur granules. Gram staining reveals gram-positive filamentous rods, confirming the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old banker presented with vague abdominal pain. On US, he was found to have a renal mass lesion. CECT was done, as shown below. What is the diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RCC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal oncocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renal angiomyolipoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Renal angiomyolipoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-142.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-144.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-120925.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Renal angiomyolipoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The CT image presented here shows well-circumscribed lesions with low attenuation (black in color) that indicate fatty tissue. The presence of macroscopic fat is strongly suggestive angiomyolipoma. The presence of macroscopic fat within the lesion, which results in negative Hounsfield units on CT, is a key diagnostic feature of angiomyolipoma.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. RCC (Renal Cell Carcinoma): Typically appears as a solid mass that may be hypervascular and can show necrosis but does not characteristically contain macroscopic fat.</li><li>• Option A. RCC (Renal Cell Carcinoma):</li><li>• Option B. Renal oncocytoma: Usually presents as a well-circumscribed, solid mass with a central scar, which is not visible in this image.</li><li>• Option B. Renal oncocytoma:</li><li>• Option D. Renal cyst: Would appear as a fluid-filled structure without solid components, typically with very clear borders and no internal complexity or enhancement.</li><li>• Option D. Renal cyst:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common route of the spread of retinoblastoma? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic nerve invasion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hematogenous", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Direct invasion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphatic spread", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Direct invasion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/dfhf.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Direct invasion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Direct invasion is the primary method of spread for retinoblastoma is essential in recognizing how the tumor progresses and impacts surrounding ocular structures. This knowledge is crucial for effective screening, early diagnosis, and management to prevent advanced stages of disease and potential metastasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following increases gastric acid secretion except: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Serotonin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Serotonin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• All of the options listed increase gastric acid secretion except serotonin.</li><li>• Gastric Acid Secretion:</li><li>• Parietal Cells: Located deep in the oxyntic glands of the main body of the stomach, parietal cells are the only cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl). Enterochromaffin-Like (ECL) Cells: These cells lie in the deep recesses of the oxyntic glands and release histamine in direct contact with the parietal cells of the glands. The rate of HCl formation and secretion by the parietal cells is directly related to the amount of histamine secreted by the ECL cells.</li><li>• Parietal Cells: Located deep in the oxyntic glands of the main body of the stomach, parietal cells are the only cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl).</li><li>• Parietal Cells:</li><li>• Enterochromaffin-Like (ECL) Cells: These cells lie in the deep recesses of the oxyntic glands and release histamine in direct contact with the parietal cells of the glands. The rate of HCl formation and secretion by the parietal cells is directly related to the amount of histamine secreted by the ECL cells.</li><li>• Enterochromaffin-Like (ECL) Cells:</li><li>• Stimulation of ECL Cells:</li><li>• Stimulation of ECL Cells:</li><li>• Gastrin: The most potent stimulator of histamine secretion from ECL cells. Acetylcholine: Released from stomach vagal nerve endings, stimulates ECL cells. Histamine: Released by ECL cells, directly stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl.</li><li>• Gastrin: The most potent stimulator of histamine secretion from ECL cells.</li><li>• Acetylcholine: Released from stomach vagal nerve endings, stimulates ECL cells.</li><li>• Histamine: Released by ECL cells, directly stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl.</li><li>• Role of Serotonin:</li><li>• Serotonin: Localized in the enterochromaffin cells of the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa and within neurons of the GI tract, serotonin inhibits gastric acid secretion. It also stimulates the production and release of gastric and colonic mucus. Serotonin acts as an enteric neurotransmitter and increases intestinal motility.</li><li>• Serotonin: Localized in the enterochromaffin cells of the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa and within neurons of the GI tract, serotonin inhibits gastric acid secretion. It also stimulates the production and release of gastric and colonic mucus. Serotonin acts as an enteric neurotransmitter and increases intestinal motility.</li><li>• Serotonin:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Gastrin: Incorrect. Gastrin increases gastric acid secretion.</li><li>• Option A. Gastrin:</li><li>• Option B. Histamine: Incorrect. Histamine increases gastric acid secretion.</li><li>• Option B. Histamine:</li><li>• Option C. Acetylcholine: Incorrect. Acetylcholine increases gastric acid secretion.</li><li>• Option C. Acetylcholine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serotonin inhibits gastric acid secretion, while gastrin, histamine, and acetylcholine stimulate it. Serotonin also stimulates mucus production and increases intestinal motility, acting as an enteric neurotransmitter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following proteins of human papilloma virus inactivates Rb gene? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E6", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E7", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. E7", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) E7</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The E7 protein of Human Papillomavirus (HPV) inactivates the Rb gene, leading to disruption of the cell cycle and contributing to the development of cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which cell is involved in type 4/delayed type hypersensitivity? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytotoxic T cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macrophage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dendritic cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neutrophil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cytotoxic T cell", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-191.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cytotoxic T cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the urinary crystal shown below? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium oxalate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Calcium oxalate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-30-155713.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Calcium oxalate crystals are bipyramidal or envelope-shaped.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person often feels that his hands are contaminated and he is forced to wash his hands. Recently, he feels this repetitive, distressing thought of repetitive hand washing has begun affecting his performance. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DBT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Exposure and response prevention", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Systematic desensitization", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CBT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Exposure and response prevention", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Exposure and response prevention</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For OCD, Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP), a specialized form of CBT, is the evidence-based first-line treatment. It involves exposing patients to their obsessional triggers while refraining from performing their compulsive rituals, gradually reducing the distress elicited by obsessions.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 425.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following developmental milestones: ( INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-163743.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Memorize the typical age ranges for key developmental milestones in infants, such as transferring objects, social smiling, pincer grasp, and walking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the structure marked in the CT scan? (INCET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior ethmoidal canal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior ethmoidal canal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cribriform plate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior ethmoidal canal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-138.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Anterior ethmoidal canal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Anterior ethmoidal canal is noted by the marked arrows. The anterior ethmoidal canal can be recognized by the fact that it lies below the ethmoidal air cell roof. To prevent bleeding from this vessel during sinus procedures, it is crucial to recognize that the anterior ethmoidal artery runs via this canal. Maxillary sinus is noted in this view hence suggesting anterior plane.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. The posterior ethmoidal artery, vein, and nerve pass via the ethmoid bone’s posterior ethmoid canal or foramen. Due to the fact that this image is a coronal section taken at the level of the anterior ethmoidal cells, it cannot be seen.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Option C. The optic nerve can be identified as an oval intraorbital structure in the coronal sections.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Option D. The cribriform plate is a sieve-like structure between the nasal cavity and the anterior cranial fossa. It is part of the ethmoid bone and as it is pierced by the olfactory nerve fibers. Crista Galli is also a part of ethmoid bone that projects superiorly from the cribriform plate. It provides attachment for the falx cerebri.</li><li>• Option D.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anterior ethmoidal canal is critical to identify during sinus procedures to avoid complications such as bleeding from the anterior ethmoidal artery. It is located below the roof of the ethmoidal air cells and anterior to the posterior ethmoidal canal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/screenshot-2023-10-12-160439.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Let's match the descriptions to the terms:</li><li>• A. Depression : \"Difficult to diagnose due to the shell of physician’s pride\" would suggest that physicians might not show or express their symptoms due to professional pride. So, A matches with 3.</li><li>• A. Depression :</li><li>• B. Suicide : \"Women physicians, substance abuse, relationship troubles\" could be potential risk factors or associated factors. So, B matches with 4.</li><li>• B. Suicide :</li><li>• C. Burnout : \"State of emotional and physical exhaustion caused by prolonged stress, relieved after relaxation\" perfectly describes burnout. So, C matches with 2.</li><li>• C. Burnout :</li><li>• D. Overthinking : \"The feeling goes away as soon as you leave the hospital\" does not clearly correlate with overthinking, but given the other matches, this seems the closest fit. So, D matches with 1.</li><li>• D. Overthinking :</li><li>• So, the correct matching would be:</li><li>• A) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.</li><li>• Reference:</li><li>• Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 447, 764.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old male presented with hearing loss and tinnitus. A histology image is shown below. What can be the diagnosis for this patient? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leiomyoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schwannoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhabdomyoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Schwannoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_17_page_19.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-102426.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_17_page_21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_17_page_22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_17_page_23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Schwannoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Schwannoma is a benign tumor often associated with unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus, diagnosed via characteristic histological patterns and confirmed with MRI. It requires careful management, sometimes involving advanced surgical techniques such as Gamma Knife surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic for her first round of vaccinations. The mother is anxious and wants to ensure her child receives all the necessary immunizations. You explain that one of the shots the child will receive is the Pentavalent vaccine, which combines five different immunizations into a single injection. Which of the following immunizations are combined in the Pentavalent vaccine? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, HBV, Injectable Polio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diphtheria, Pertussis, Typhoid, HBV, Hib", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Haemophilus influenza B, Pneumococcal vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diphtheria, Tetanus, HBV, Haemophilus influenza B, Pertussis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diphtheria, Tetanus, HBV, Haemophilus influenza B, Pertussis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture3777.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/screenshot-2023-10-27-190517.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Diphtheria, Tetanus, HBV, Haemophilus influenza B, Pertussis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common tumor of the lacrimal gland? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoid cystic carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleomorphic adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucoepidermoid carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pleomorphic adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pleomorphic adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the lacrimal gland while adenoid cystic carcinoma is the most common carcinoma of the lacrimal gland.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of MRI image is given below? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proton density image", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Susceptibility weighted image", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gradient echo image", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inversion recovery image", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Susceptibility weighted image", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-139.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B Susceptibility weighted image</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Susceptibility weighted imaging (SWI ) is an MRI sequence which is sensitive to compounds that can distort the local magnetic field.</li><li>• Susceptibility weighted imaging (SWI</li><li>• Type of Gradient echo sequence / T2* sequence</li><li>• Black dots s/o hemorrhage known as blooming</li><li>• Sequence of choice for DAI (diffuse axonal injury)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Proton density image: Typically used to provide good anatomical detail and contrast of soft tissues, not specifically sensitive to magnetic susceptibilities.</li><li>• Option A. Proton density image:</li><li>• Option C. Gradient echo image: While SWI uses gradient echo sequences, it specifically exploits phase data and magnitude data to enhance the visibility of substances affecting magnetic susceptibility.</li><li>• Option C. Gradient echo image:</li><li>• Option D. Inversion recovery image: This MRI technique is used to suppress or enhance certain tissue types based on their relaxation properties, which is not indicative of the contrast seen in this image.</li><li>• Option D. Inversion recovery image:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Susceptibility weighted imaging (SWI) is particularly useful in detecting and differentiating substances in the brain that affect magnetic susceptibility, such as iron and blood, making it an excellent choice for identifying microhemorrhages and assessing diffuse axonal injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT involved in renal auto-regulation?(INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tubuloglomerular feedback", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myogenic reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renin-angiotensin system", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal sympathetic system fires", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Renal sympathetic system fires", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/inicet-physio-may-2021-02_XE4os0h.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Renal sympathetic system fires</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Renal autoregulation primarily involves the myogenic response and tubuloglomerular feedback mechanisms to maintain stable GFR. The renal sympathetic system, while involved in renal blood flow regulation, is not part of intrinsic autoregulation mechanisms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Para-sagittal section of the abdomen is given below. What is the superior border of the structure marked A?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caudate lobe of liver", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lesser omentum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inferior vena cava", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Caudate lobe of liver", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-124506.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-81_yINZyAs.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Caudate lobe of liver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Epiploic foramen is the structure indicated in the provided image. The caudate lobe of the liver forms the superior boundary of the epiploic foramen, also known as the foramen of Winslow.</li><li>• Epiploic foramen is a vertical slit of about 3 cm behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. It connects the lesser sac to the greater sac. The pearl summarizes the various relations of the foramen.</li><li>• The caudate lobe is a small lobe of the liver situated on the posterior aspect, between the sulcus for the vena cava on the right and the fissure for the ligamentum venosum on the left. The caudate lobe forms the superior border of the epiploic foramen.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Duodenum : The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine immediately beyond the stomach. While the duodenum is closely related to the epiploic foramen, specifically the posterior surface of its first part, it does not form the superior border. Instead, it comprises the posterior boundary.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Duodenum</li><li>• Option C. Lesser omentum : The lesser omentum is a double layer of peritoneum that extends from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach and the start of the duodenum. The free edge of the lesser omentum contains the bile duct, hepatic artery, and portal vein, forming the anterior border of the epiploic foramen.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Lesser omentum</li><li>• Option D . Inferior vena cava : The inferior vena cava (IVC) is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle body into the right atrium of the heart. It is located posteriorly to the epiploic foramen but does not form the superior border. It creates the posterior boundary, similar to the duodenum.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Inferior vena cava</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The epiploic foramen, also known as the foramen of Winslow, is a key anatomical passage within the abdominal cavity that connects the greater sac to the lesser sac.</li><li>➤ The caudate lobe of the liver forms the superior border of this foramen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is given as a part of the therapy for a child with severe COVID? ( INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corticosteroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ivermectin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Remdesivir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Corticosteroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Corticosteroids.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corticosteroids are recommended for the treatment of severe COVID-19 in children to manage inflammation and the severe immune response associated with the virus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The 20-year-old young female presented to the OPD with the following forehead lesions. Which of the following methods won't help with the treatment of various stages of this condition? (INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Topical benzoyl peroxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Topical fluocinolone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Topical tazarotene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Topical antibiotics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Topical fluocinolone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture1522.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture65555.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/21/picture2133.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Topical fluocinolone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Topical fluocinolone , a corticosteroid , can reduce inflammation , but it is not recommended for acne treatment as it can exacerbate the condition.</li><li>➤ fluocinolone</li><li>➤ corticosteroid</li><li>➤ reduce inflammation</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ acne</li><li>➤ exacerbate</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Volume 3 Chapter 90 page no 90.1-90.37</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Volume 3 Chapter 90 page no 90.1-90.37</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man who was under home isolation after testing positive for COVID-19, develops breathing difficulty and is brought to the ER. The patient is alert and responsive, but his respiratory rate is 26/min. Room air Sp02 is 86%. He is administered oxygen through a non -rebreathing mask with a flow rate of 10 L/ min. After a trial of one hour, his SpO 2 is 88%. What is the next step in management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase flow rate to 15 L/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High-flow nasal cannula oxygen therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No specific intervention necessary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High-flow nasal cannula oxygen therapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) High-flow nasal cannula oxygen therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with COVID-19 and hypoxemia unresponsive to a non-rebreather mask, transitioning to high-flow nasal cannula oxygen therapy (HFNC) is a logical next step. HFNC can provide better oxygenation and is a less invasive option before considering endotracheal intubation.</li><li>➤ In a patient with COVID-19 and hypoxemia unresponsive to a non-rebreather mask, transitioning to high-flow nasal cannula oxygen therapy (HFNC) is a logical next step. HFNC can provide better oxygenation and is a less invasive option before considering endotracheal intubation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What would happen to the half-life and plasma concentration of a drug which follows first-order kinetics, if the dose is doubled? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Half-life doubles and plasma concentration remains the same", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Half-life remains the same and plasma concentration doubles", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Half-life and plasma concentration remains the same", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Half-life and plasma concentration doubles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Half-life remains the same and plasma concentration doubles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Half-life remains the same and plasma concentration doubles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For drugs following first-order kinetics, The rate of elimination of the drug is directly proportional its plasma concentration. So, when the dose is doubled for a drug following first order kinetics, the plasma concentration is also doubled.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fibers from the structure marked in blue, terminate at which of the following? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fastigial nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior olivary nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red nucleus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subthalamus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Red nucleus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-68_asx8C9K.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-69_bsSBMlB.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-70_ef1fhSa.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Red nucleus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The red nucleus is located in the midbrain and plays a role in motor coordination. Fibers from the cerebellum via the superior cerebellar peduncle decussate and terminate primarily in the contralateral red nucleus. From the red nucleus, some of these fibers continue on to the thalamus. Thus, the red nucleus is a major target of the superior cerebellar peduncle fibers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman presents to the ER after falling off a horse. Her vitals are stable, but she complains of pain and tenderness in her lower abdomen and has not passed urine yet. On examination, there is a visible bruise over her lower abdomen, and blood is seen at the urethral meatus. The bladder is not palpable. What is the appropriate management for this patient? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wait and send her home", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immediate insertion of Foley catheter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Suprapubic aspiration of urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait for the bladder to fill and perform suprapubic cystostomy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Wait for the bladder to fill and perform suprapubic cystostomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Wait for the bladder to fill and perform suprapubic cystostomy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with severe watery diarrhea resembling that of rice gruel stool. Damage of which structure is likely to have resulted in the above finding? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zona Occludens", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gap junction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adherent junction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemidesmosomes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zona Occludens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Zona Occludens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Damage to the Zona Occludens (Tight Junctions) can result in increased intestinal permeability, leading to severe watery diarrhea. These tight junctions are crucial for maintaining the integrity of the intestinal barrier.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For the diagnosis of resistant hypertension, the patient should have uncontrolled hypertension despite taking three antihypertensive drugs. This should include at least one? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium channel blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alpha blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diuretic", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diuretic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnostic criteria for resistant hypertension include having blood pressure above target despite taking three drugs, one of which must be a diuretic, OR having controlled blood pressure with four or more drugs. Typically, a thiazide diuretic is used in the setting of hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are in the operating room and notice the tracing in gray color waveform on this device. What does it indicate? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Capnography", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Airway pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "O 2 pressure in inhaled air", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "O 2 pressure in exhaled air", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Capnography", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/untitled-3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-151806.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Capnography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Capnography is a crucial monitoring tool in the operating room and other clinical settings, used to measure and display the concentration of CO2 in exhaled air over time, helping to assess ventilation, confirm endotracheal tube placement, and monitor the effectiveness of resuscitation</li><li>➤ Capnography is a crucial monitoring tool in the operating room and other clinical settings, used to measure and display the concentration of CO2 in exhaled air over time, helping to assess ventilation, confirm endotracheal tube placement, and monitor the effectiveness of resuscitation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newly diagnosed HIV patient presented with fever, cough, and hemoptysis. His sputum sample showed acid-fast bacilli. What is the appropriate management for this patient? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Start ART if CD4 &lt;200", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start ART and then ATT after 2 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start ATT and then ART after 2 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start ATT and ART simultaneously", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Start ATT and then ART after 2 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In HIV patients with TB, start ATT first and then initiate ART after 2 weeks-2 months duration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not used to treat PCOD? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clomiphene citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tamoxifen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "OCP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tamoxifen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tamoxifen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tamoxifen is not commonly used in the treatment of Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD). Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) primarily used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Medical Management of PCOD: OCP (Option D): Oral contraceptive pills regulate the menstrual cycle and hormones and are given to women who are not desirous of fertility to regularize their cycles. Metformin (Option B): Metformin is an insulin sensitizer, which decreases hyperinsulinemia and improves fertility in patients with PCOD. Ovulation Induction Drugs: Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Medical Management of PCOD: OCP (Option D): Oral contraceptive pills regulate the menstrual cycle and hormones and are given to women who are not desirous of fertility to regularize their cycles. Metformin (Option B): Metformin is an insulin sensitizer, which decreases hyperinsulinemia and improves fertility in patients with PCOD. Ovulation Induction Drugs: Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Medical Management of PCOD:</li><li>• OCP (Option D): Oral contraceptive pills regulate the menstrual cycle and hormones and are given to women who are not desirous of fertility to regularize their cycles. Metformin (Option B): Metformin is an insulin sensitizer, which decreases hyperinsulinemia and improves fertility in patients with PCOD. Ovulation Induction Drugs: Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• OCP (Option D): Oral contraceptive pills regulate the menstrual cycle and hormones and are given to women who are not desirous of fertility to regularize their cycles.</li><li>• OCP (Option D):</li><li>• Metformin (Option B): Metformin is an insulin sensitizer, which decreases hyperinsulinemia and improves fertility in patients with PCOD.</li><li>• Metformin (Option B):</li><li>• Ovulation Induction Drugs: Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Ovulation Induction Drugs:</li><li>• Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD.</li><li>• Clomiphene (Option A):</li><li>• Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Letrozole:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Clomiphene citrate: Clomiphene is an ovulation induction agent used in the treatment of infertility in women with PCOD.</li><li>• Option A. Clomiphene citrate:</li><li>• Option B. Metformin: Metformin is used to decrease insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia in PCOD, which can help in regulating menstrual cycles and improving fertility.</li><li>• Option B. Metformin:</li><li>• Option D. OCP: Oral contraceptive pills are used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hormonal imbalances in women with PCOD who do not seek to become pregnant.</li><li>• Option D. OCP:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tamoxifen is not typically used in the treatment of PCOD. Instead, treatments include oral contraceptive pills, metformin, and ovulation induction agents such as clomiphene and letrozole.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3rd edition. Pg 398 Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg470</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3rd edition. Pg 398 Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg470</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are working as an ER physician, and a patient with a laceration has just been brought in. You decide to use the interrupted suturing technique to close the wound. As you prepare to suture, you recall that the angle of needle placement is crucial for optimal wound closure. What is the correct angle of needle placement for interrupted suturing technique? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60 degrees", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "70 degrees", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "80 degrees", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "90 degrees", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 90 degrees", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-141645.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 90 degrees</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To properly execute interrupted sutures, it is recommended that the needle is inserted and exited the skin at a right angle (90 degrees). It is important to rotate the needle through the tissue to prevent unnecessary enlargement of the needle hole. The distance between the entry point of the suture and the edge of the wound should be nearly equal to the depth of tissue that is being sutured. Additionally, it is advised to leave a distance that is twice this measurement between two consecutive sutures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What importance does the point labelled as 'C' hold? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Onset of symptoms", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Onset of pathological changes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Usual time of diagnosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exposure to etiologic agent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Onset of symptoms", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip17.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture6555_HE1z4lo.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Onset of symptoms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The onset of symptoms marks the transition from the subclinical stage to the clinical stage of disease.</li><li>➤ The onset of symptoms marks the transition from the subclinical stage to the clinical stage of disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following supplement is required more for a lactating woman than the pregnant female? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B 12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-110030.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin A is required more for a lactating woman than a pregnant female. This increased need ensures that there is enough vitamin A in breast milk to support the baby's growth and development, particularly for their immune system and vision.</li><li>➤ Vitamins and mineral requirement for pregnant and lactating women</li><li>➤ Vitamins and mineral requirement for pregnant and lactating women</li><li>➤ The above table shows the Vitamins A and C are required in significantly higher quantity during the lactation while Folate and iron are required in higher quantity during pregnancy. All other minerals and vitamin (Not shown in table) have similar requirements under both conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to IADPSG, what is the cut-off value of fasting blood glucose for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt;92 mg/dL", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt;95 mg/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt;106 mg/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;90 mg/dL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. >92 mg/dL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) &gt; 92 mg/dL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The International Association of Diabetes and Pregnancy Study Groups (IADPSG) has established criteria for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). According to their guidelines:</li><li>• The fasting blood glucose cut-off value for diagnosing GDM during a 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is &gt;92 mg/dL .</li><li>• The fasting blood glucose cut-off value for diagnosing GDM during a 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is &gt;92 mg/dL .</li><li>• &gt;92 mg/dL</li><li>• This value is used as part of a comprehensive assessment, including 1-hour and 2-hour postprandial glucose levels. The IADPSG criteria for GDM diagnosis include:</li><li>• Fasting: ≥92 mg/dL 1-hour: ≥180 mg/dL 2-hour: ≥153 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting: ≥92 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting:</li><li>• 1-hour: ≥180 mg/dL</li><li>• 1-hour:</li><li>• 2-hour: ≥153 mg/dL</li><li>• 2-hour:</li><li>• If any one of these values is abnormal, the diagnosis of GDM can be made.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. &gt;95 mg/dL : This is not the IADPSG recommended cut-off for fasting blood glucose. It is higher than the specified cut-off value for diagnosing GDM.</li><li>• Option B. &gt;95 mg/dL</li><li>• Option C. &gt;106 mg/dL : This value is significantly higher than the recommended cut-off. It exceeds the threshold for diagnosing GDM according to IADPSG guidelines.</li><li>• Option C. &gt;106 mg/dL</li><li>• Option D. &gt;90 mg/dL : While this value is close, it is slightly below the IADPSG recommended cut-off of &gt;92 mg/dL for diagnosing GDM.</li><li>• Option D. &gt;90 mg/dL</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cut-off value of fasting blood glucose for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus according to IADPSG is &gt;92 mg/dL.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 326, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 326, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following statements about proto-oncogenes are true except? (AIIMS MAY 2021) BRCA1 is an oncogene. HER2neu is amplified only in a fraction of breast cancer. EGFR (+) is seen in non-small cell lung cancer. N-MYC is a tumor suppressor gene.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-185925.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene and N-MYC is a proto-oncogene.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition 521-528</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition 521-528</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is examining the relationship between height and weight in a specific population. She decides to utilize a cluster sampling method to streamline the data collection process. After analyzing data from four distinct clusters, each one consistently demonstrates a correlation coefficient of 0.6 between height and weight. Based on this information, what can the researcher expect about the overall correlation coefficient when combining data from all four clusters? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Equal to 0.6", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Less than 0.6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "More than 0.6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skewed coefficient of 0.6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Equal to 0.6", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/22/ip22.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/screenshot-2023-10-27-191023.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Equal to 0.6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SCATTER/DOT DIAGRAM</li><li>➤ SCATTER/DOT DIAGRAM</li><li>➤ Also known as ‘Correlation diagram Is used to depict ‘correlation (relationship) between 2 quantitative variables Vertical axis in scatter diagram: should be the dependent or the outcome variable In a scatter diagram, 2 imaginary lines are drawn along the distribution of dots/ scatter.</li><li>➤ Also known as ‘Correlation diagram</li><li>➤ Is used to depict ‘correlation (relationship) between 2 quantitative variables</li><li>➤ Vertical axis in scatter diagram: should be the dependent or the outcome variable</li><li>➤ In a scatter diagram, 2 imaginary lines are drawn along the distribution of dots/ scatter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding nicotine substitution therapy? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Preferably given by gastrointestinal route", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Varenicline comes with a black box warning of cardiovascular death", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "There should be a 15-minute gap between nicotine gum and coffee/soda/acidic food as they decrease its absorption", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nicotine chewing gum is better for constant use as it gives 25% higher blood level than lozenges", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. There should be a 15-minute gap between nicotine gum and coffee/soda/acidic food as they decrease its absorption", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) There should be a 15-minute gap between nicotine gum and coffee/soda/acidic food as they decrease its absorption.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is an effective method to assist in smoking cessation. It is used to relieve craving for tobacco by substituting nicotine in tobacco with nicotine in safer forms. Various preparations include nicotine gums, nicotine lozenges, nicotine patch, nicotine spray and nicotine inhaler. Nicotine gum's absorption can be affected by acidic beverages, so it's advised to avoid them shortly before or while using the gum.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 684.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following feature is correct on the basis of given karyotype? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gynecomastia and long limbs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flat occiput", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Webbing of neck and lymphedema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Short stature and polydactyly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gynecomastia and long limbs", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/18.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-173214.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY) is characterized by gynecomastia, long limbs, small testes, and infertility.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 316-317</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 316-317</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of physical restraint given in the picture below: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Choke/carotid hold", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carotid sleeper hold", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hog tie", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bar arm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hog tie", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-16.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/13/screenshot-2023-10-13-112432.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/13/whatsapp-image-2023-10-13-at-113825.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hog tie</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Hog tying involves restraining a person’s hands behind their back, restraining their feet, and coupling the hand and feet restraints together from behind, often used as a form of torture or control.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Torture</li><li>➤ Torture</li><li>➤ Wet submarino/ Latina – suffocation of head in liquids/ dirty liquids</li><li>➤ Wet submarino/ Latina – suffocation of head in liquids/ dirty liquids</li><li>➤ Wet submarino/ Latina –</li><li>➤ Dry submarino: Plastic bag around face</li><li>➤ Dry submarino: Plastic bag around face</li><li>➤ Dry submarino:</li><li>➤ Telefono – beating on ear by hands</li><li>➤ Telefono – beating on ear by hands</li><li>➤ Telefono – beating on ear by hands</li><li>➤ Falanga (Bastinado): Beating on feet</li><li>➤ Falanga (Bastinado): Beating on feet</li><li>➤ Falanga (Bastinado): Beating on feet</li><li>➤ Parrot’s perch – rod placed below knees , upside down , hands tied to rod</li><li>➤ Parrot’s perch – rod placed below knees , upside down , hands tied to rod</li><li>➤ Parrot’s perch –</li><li>➤ 6. Planton – person made to stand for long hours</li><li>➤ 6. Planton – person made to stand for long hours</li><li>➤ 7. Saw horse – victim sits on sharp object → injury to perineal area</li><li>➤ 7. Saw horse – victim sits on sharp object → injury to perineal area</li><li>➤ 8. Hog tie – Restraining a prisoner's hands behind his back, restraining his feet and then coupling the hand and feet restraints from the back.</li><li>➤ 8. Hog tie –</li><li>➤ 9. Ghotna – wooden log rolled over the legs</li><li>➤ 9. Ghotna –</li><li>➤ 10. Chepuwa – wooden log is compressed on legs</li><li>➤ 10. Chepuwa –</li><li>➤ 11. Black slave – hot metal rod in anus</li><li>➤ 11. Black slave –</li><li>➤ 12. Electric cattle prod – electric current to sensitive parts (nipple, genitalia)</li><li>➤ 12. Electric cattle prod –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old laborer working at a construction site presented with fever and hemoptysis. The sputum sample collected for examination showed the following. The smear will be stained by which of the following sequences? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gentian violet - iodine - alcohol - safranin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methylene blue - malachite green - acetic acid-water", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methanol - methylene blue - acid-water", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbol fuschin - acid-alcohol - methylene blue", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Carbol fuschin - acid-alcohol - methylene blue", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/untitled-292.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/1-micro-44.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Carbol fuschin - acid-alcohol - methylene blue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, involving carbol fuschin, acid-alcohol, and methylene blue, is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in clinical samples. This technique highlights acid-fast bacilli, which retain the red color of carbol fuschin even after decolorization with acid-alcohol.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which fusion exocytosis complex is affected in tetanus? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Synaptobrevin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Snap 25", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syntaxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Synaptophysin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Synaptobrevin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Synaptobrevin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Medical students should understand that in tetanus, the tetanus neurotoxin targets and affects synaptobrevin (VAMP), disrupting the SNARE complex and inhibiting the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, leading to muscle hyperactivity and spastic paralysis. This knowledge is important for understanding the pathophysiology of tetanus.</li><li>➤ The light chain of tetanospasmin cleave the Gln76-Phe77 bond of synaptobrevin which is an integral V-SNARE necessary for vesicle fusion to membranes in CNS and thus by cleaving this SNARE, TeNT has the effect of interfering with exocytosis of neurotransmitters such as γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine from inhibitory interneurons causing violent spastic paralysis.</li><li>➤ Ref- Ananthanarayan and Paniker 10 th e/p 265</li><li>➤ Ref- Ananthanarayan and Paniker 10 th e/p 265</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The stroke volume depends on end-diastolic volume. This is best represented as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Length-force relationship", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Length- velocity relationship", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Length-tension relationship", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Length-viscosity relationship", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Length-tension relationship", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Length-tension relationship</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The relationship between end-diastolic volume and stroke volume in the heart is best described by the length-tension relationship, which underlies the Frank-Starling mechanism. This principle explains how increased filling of the heart leads to greater contraction force and increased stroke volume.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Beta hCG is structurally similar to which biochemical moiety? ( INICET May 2021", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "FSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ACTH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) LH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta hCG is structurally and functionally similar to Luteinizing Hormone (LH). Its primary role is to support the corpus luteum during early pregnancy, preventing its involution.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old man with hypertension is diagnosed with stage 4 chronic kidney disease, with eGFR of &lt;30. His doctor wants to prescribe a thiazide diuretic. Which of the following can be given? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlorothiazide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlorthalidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metolazone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrochlorothiazide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Metolazone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Metolazone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metolazone is the preferred thiazide-like diuretic for patients with stage 4 chronic kidney disease and an eGFR of less than 30 mL/min, as it retains its effectiveness even in the presence of significantly reduced kidney function. This is due to its additional action on the proximal tubule, which is less dependent on kidney function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who was diagnosed with epilepsy was put on retigabine thrice a day. Now phenytoin is being added. Which of the following changes should be made to retigabine therapy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase the dose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease the dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stop the drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stop retigabine and start on carbamazepine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increase the dose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Increase the dose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When phenytoin, an enzyme inducer, is added to a regimen that includes retigabine, the dose of retigabine should be increased to compensate for the increased metabolism and maintain effective seizure control.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Topiramate is used for? ( INICET May 2021", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treatment of migraine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Treatment of Lennox Gastaut syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prophylaxis of ADHD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treatment of dementia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Treatment of Lennox Gastaut syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Treatment of Lennox Gastaut syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Topiramate is primarily used for the treatment of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome, a severe form of epilepsy in children. It is also used for the prophylaxis of migraines, reducing alcohol cravings, aiding in weight loss, and as an adjunct therapy for bipolar disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a correct match regarding FDA approved antidotes of anticoagulants? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Andexanet alfa: Edoxaban", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Andexanet alfa: Rivaroxaban", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Idarucizumab: Dabigatran", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ciraparantag: Fondaparinux", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ciraparantag: Fondaparinux", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Ciraparantag: Fondaparinux</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Andexanet alfa is the approved antidote for oral factor Xa inhibitors like Edoxaban and Rivaroxaban, while Idarucizumab is the antidote for Dabigatran. Although Ciraparantag has shown promise as a broad-spectrum antidote, it is not FDA-approved for use with fondaparinux or other anticoagulants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Inhaled Nitric oxide is approved for treatment of? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Labile hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary hypertension", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Treatment of resistant migraine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Resistant Parkinson's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pulmonary hypertension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pulmonary hypertension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhaled Nitric Oxide is approved for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension, particularly in acute settings to reduce pulmonary artery pressure and improve oxygenation. It is not used for labile hypertension, migraines, or Parkinson's disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following can be the mechanism for paradoxical bronchoconstriction seen with the use of ipratropium bromide Except? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Presence of benzalkonium bromide in the preparation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prejunctional M2 receptor stimulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Associated use of hypertonic saline in nebulizer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Presence of EDTA as impurity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prejunctional M2 receptor stimulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Prejunctional M2 receptor stimulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paradoxical bronchoconstriction associated with ipratropium bromide is not caused by prejunctional M2 receptor stimulation. Instead, it can be caused by the presence of benzalkonium bromide, use of hypertonic saline, and presence of EDTA as impurities, which can all irritate the airways and lead to bronchoconstriction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Antimicrobial combinations are used in all except? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gonorrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intra-abdominal infections", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gonorrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Gonorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antimicrobial combination therapy is not used for the treatment of gonorrhea, which is typically managed with single-dose ceftriaxone therapy. In contrast, tuberculosis, intra-abdominal infections, and malaria require combination therapy to effectively manage the infections and prevent resistance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an off-label use of risperidone? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "OCD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PTSD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bipolar disorder", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bipolar disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Bipolar disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Risperidone is FDA-approved for the treatment of bipolar disorder, making it a labeled use. In contrast, the use of risperidone for OCD, dementia, and PTSD are off-label indications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The elimination rate constant of a drug is 0.05 hr. What is its half-life? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20.8 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6.9 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "13.8 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "9.8 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 13.8 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 13.8 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The half-life of a drug with an elimination rate constant of 0.05 hr is 13.8 hours, calculated using the formula t 1/2 =0.693/k</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is on phenytoin for a seizure disorder. He was prescribed sucralfate 4 times a day for peptic ulcers. What should be the minimum duration of time between consumption of these drugs? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "90 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "120 minutes", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 120 minutes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 120 minutes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The minimum duration of time between the consumption of phenytoin and sucralfate should be at least 120 minutes (2 hours) to ensure that phenytoin is adequately absorbed and to avoid interactions that could reduce its effectiveness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structure is affected in pancreas of a patient with Cystic Fibrosis? (AIIMS MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/10.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-173452.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Cystic Fibrosis, the acini (exocrine pancreas) are primarily affected due to mucus accumulation in the ducts, leading to atrophy and fibrosis of the exocrine pancreas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation is found to have high blood pressure recording and a urine protein of 3+. Concomitant presence of which of the following symptoms would make you suspect imminent eclampsia? 1. Headache 2. Blurred vision 3. Persistent pedal edema 4. Epigastric pain", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The take-home point for students is to recognize that the presence of headache, blurred vision, persistent pedal edema, and epigastric pain in a pre-eclamptic patient are critical signs suggesting imminent eclampsia, necessitating immediate comprehensive management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not included in the quadruple screening test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibin B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unconjugated Estriol (E3)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AFP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "hCG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibin B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inhibin B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The take-home point for students is to accurately identify the components of the quadruple screening test, which are AFP, hCG, Unconjugated Estriol, and Dimeric Inhibin A. It’s essential to distinguish between Dimeric Inhibin A and Inhibin B, as only the former is included in the test, reflecting a specific protocol used in prenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet May 2022 2022 05 08 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Which of the following is incorrect regarding innervation of the uterus? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensory level is from T10 to L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine contractility is mediated by innervations from level T7 - T8", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "In the 1st stage of labor, pain is due to the fibers at level of T10 - L1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In early labor, pain is usually because of the uterine contraction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Uterine contractility is mediated by innervations from level T7 - T8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-242.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Uterine contractility is mediated by innervations from level T7 - T8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The incorrect statement regarding the innervation of the uterus is option B. Uterine contractility is primarily mediated by hormonal mechanisms rather than by specific spinal innervations. Hormones such as estrogen, prostaglandins, and oxytocin play a significant role in inducing uterine contractions, while progesterone helps maintain uterine relaxation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Sensory level is from T10 to L1: The sensory innervation of the uterus is indeed from spinal levels T10 to L1. These afferent fibers enter the spinal cord via the inferior hypogastric plexus and are responsible for transmitting sensory information from the uterus.</li><li>• Option A. Sensory level is from T10 to L1:</li><li>• Option C. In the 1st stage of labor, pain is due to the fibers at level of T10 - L1: During the 1st stage of labor, pain is mediated by spinal segments T10 to L1. This pain is due to the distension of the cervix and lower uterine segment, as well as the contraction of the uterus.</li><li>• Option C. In the 1st stage of labor, pain is due to the fibers at level of T10 - L1:</li><li>• Option D. In early labor, pain is usually because of the uterine contraction: In early labor, pain is usually related to uterine contractions, which stimulate nociceptors in the genital tract and can cause discomfort and pain.</li><li>• Option D. In early labor, pain is usually because of the uterine contraction:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uterine contractility is not mediated by innervations from spinal level T7 - T8; instead, it is primarily influenced by hormonal mechanisms.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 500, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 500, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has been reported to have endemic transmission in India? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebola", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hendra virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) has been reported to have endemic transmission in India, specifically with an outbreak in Gujarat in 2011.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents to a clinic with her son, Ram, who has developed symptoms consistent with Measles, including fever and rash. She mentions that Ram's brother, Shyam, exhibited similar symptoms a few days earlier. Which of the following statements regarding the situation are accurate? (INICET MAY 2022) Ram is the index case Shyam is primary case Ram got infected from Shyam If mother had reported when Shyam got infection, Ram could have been vaccinated", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only 2 is correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All are correct", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Index case → First case that comes to the notice of investigator. Primary case → First case of a disease in a population. Incubation period of measles infection is 7 to 18 days Vaccine can be given within 72 hours of post-exposure and immunoglobulin can be given up to 6 days’ post-exposure.</li><li>➤ Index case → First case that comes to the notice of investigator.</li><li>➤ Index case</li><li>➤ Primary case → First case of a disease in a population.</li><li>➤ Primary case</li><li>➤ Incubation period of measles infection is 7 to 18 days</li><li>➤ Vaccine can be given within 72 hours of post-exposure and immunoglobulin can be given up to 6 days’ post-exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following procedure is performed for the management of: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Advanced gastric carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gallbladder carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distal cholangiocarcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic calcific pancreatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Distal cholangiocarcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-648.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Distal cholangiocarcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The procedure mentioned in the question, which is often performed to manage distal cholangiocarcinoma, is a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady who had undergone mastectomy for breast cancer is being treated with tamoxifen. How long should it be stopped for before she can conceive? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 month", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "No need to stop", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Can be stopped and conceived soon after stopping", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 3 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tamoxifen should be stopped for at least 3 months before attempting to conceive due to its long half-life and potential teratogenic effects. This ensures that the drug and its active metabolites are sufficiently cleared from the body, reducing the risk of harm to the fetus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a case of blunt abdominal trauma, a 30-year-old male patient presents with pelvic fracture, minimal urine output on catheterization, and no blood at the meatus. The radiological image shows extravasation of urine into the peritoneal cavity. What is the preferred next step in management? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suprapubic cystostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perurethral catheterization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pelvic packing along with B/L percutaneous nephrostomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Laparotomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-651.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Laparotomy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the assessment of the breathing component of a trauma patient, which of the following is the most life-threatening injury that should be identified and managed immediately? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical spine injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tension pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blunt cardiac injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flail chest", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tension pneumothorax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tension pneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are true about the internal capsule? Charcot's artery supplies the posterior limb. Retrolenticular part of the internal capsule contains optic radiation. Anterior limb of the capsule contains corticospinal tract fibers of the upper limb and face. Internal capsule has projection fibers. (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 2, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The internal capsule is primarily composed of projection fibers that connect the cortex to other parts of the brain or spinal cord. The internal capsule can be divided into three parts: anterior limb, genu, and posterior limb. Lesions in these areas can result in different neurological deficits.</li><li>• The anterior limb contains fibers that connect the frontal cortex to the thalamus and basal ganglia, and lesions here can cause motor and behavioral changes. The genu contains fibers that connect the frontal cortex to the contralateral motor cortex, and lesions here can cause facial weakness and hemiparesis. The posterior limb contains fibers that connect the sensory and motor cortices to the brainstem and spinal cord, and lesions here can cause sensory and motor deficits.</li><li>• The anterior limb contains fibers that connect the frontal cortex to the thalamus and basal ganglia, and lesions here can cause motor and behavioral changes.</li><li>• The genu contains fibers that connect the frontal cortex to the contralateral motor cortex, and lesions here can cause facial weakness and hemiparesis.</li><li>• The posterior limb contains fibers that connect the sensory and motor cortices to the brainstem and spinal cord, and lesions here can cause sensory and motor deficits.</li><li>• The retrolenticular part of the internal capsule carries fibers primarily from the optic radiation, which is a bundle of axons that originate from the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus and terminate in the visual cortex in the occipital lobe. Lesions in this area can result in visual field deficits, such as homonymous hemianopia, superior or inferior quadrantanopia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Statement 4 : Internal capsule has projection fibers - The internal capsule contains a large collection of projection fibers that include both ascending sensory and descending motor pathways. These fibers connect the cerebral cortex with the brainstem and spinal cord, conveying sensory information to the cortex and motor commands away from the cortex.</li><li>• Statement 4</li><li>• Internal capsule has projection fibers -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The internal capsule, a key white matter structure in the brain, contains Charcot's artery-supplied posterior limb, optic radiation in the retrolenticular part, and is primarily composed of projection fibers linking the cortex with the brainstem and spinal cord. Misinformation about the anterior limb's contents highlights the complexity and specificity of its neural pathways.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old boy presents with painless, massive lower gastrointestinal bleeding. He is diagnosed with Meckel's diverticulum, and surgical treatment is planned. Which of the following is the most commonly encountered ectopic tissue in Meckel's diverticulum? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastric and pancreatic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colonic and pancreatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastric and colonic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thyroid and lung", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gastric and pancreatic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gastric and pancreatic</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a branch of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iliolumbar artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral sacral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior gluteal artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superior gluteal artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inferior gluteal artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Inferior gluteal artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Branches of the anterior trunk of the internal iliac artery:</li><li>➤ Branches of the anterior trunk of the internal iliac artery:</li><li>➤ Vaginal artery (in females) Uterine artery (in females) Inferior vesical artery (in males) or vaginal artery (in females): supplies the urinary bladder and reproductive organs. Middle rectal artery: supplies the rectum and anal canal. Internal pudendal artery: supplies the perineum, external genitalia, and the lower anal canal. Obturator artery: supplies the adductor muscles of the thigh, external genitalia, and the hip joint. Inferior gluteal artery: supplies the muscles of the gluteal region. Superior vesical artery: supplies the urinary bladder and the vas deferens.</li><li>➤ Vaginal artery (in females)</li><li>➤ Uterine artery (in females)</li><li>➤ Inferior vesical artery (in males) or vaginal artery (in females): supplies the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.</li><li>➤ Middle rectal artery: supplies the rectum and anal canal.</li><li>➤ Internal pudendal artery: supplies the perineum, external genitalia, and the lower anal canal.</li><li>➤ Obturator artery: supplies the adductor muscles of the thigh, external genitalia, and the hip joint.</li><li>➤ Inferior gluteal artery: supplies the muscles of the gluteal region.</li><li>➤ Superior vesical artery: supplies the urinary bladder and the vas deferens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Amongst the options given below, which of these are not seen in cocaine poisoning? ( INICET May 2022 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tingling and numbness of hands and feet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Constricted pupils and bradycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperthermia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Constricted pupils and bradycardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Constricted pupils and bradycardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Features of cocaine intoxication:</li><li>➤ Features of cocaine intoxication:</li><li>➤ Early features – Stage of excitement: Dry mouth, dysphagia, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, dilated pupils, and increased temperature followed by convulsions, hallucinations, tingling, and numbness in the hands and feet. Late features – Stage of depression – Respiration is depressed, excessive sweating, collapse, convulsions, and death. Magnan’s symptoms / Cocaine bugs - Chronic cocaine users may have the feeling of insects crawling on their skin or the presence of grains of sand under the skin. Ulceration of nasal septum seen due to sniffing cocaine in chronic abuse</li><li>➤ Early features – Stage of excitement:</li><li>➤ Early features</li><li>➤ Dry mouth, dysphagia, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, dilated pupils, and increased temperature followed by convulsions, hallucinations, tingling, and numbness in the hands and feet.</li><li>➤ Late features – Stage of depression – Respiration is depressed, excessive sweating, collapse, convulsions, and death.</li><li>➤ Late features</li><li>➤ Magnan’s symptoms / Cocaine bugs - Chronic cocaine users may have the feeling of insects crawling on their skin or the presence of grains of sand under the skin.</li><li>➤ Ulceration of nasal septum seen due to sniffing cocaine in chronic abuse</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old male child with a body weight of 15kg and height of 100cm is admitted with renal failure. His blood urea was 100 mg/dL and serum creatinine was 1 mg/dL. What is the closest calculated eGFR in the patient? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "33 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "55 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "80 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 40 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-095909.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-095949.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 40 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) in pediatric patients can be calculated using the Schwartz formula, which is widely used in clinical practice. The formula takes into account the patient's height and serum creatinine levels, along with a constant value that is adjusted for age and sex.</li><li>➤ The modified Schwartz formula is most commonly used for this purpose. It is given as:</li><li>➤ For children aged 1 to 16 years, the constant k is typically 0.413</li><li>➤ Given the child's height of 100 cm and serum creatinine of 1 mg/dL:</li><li>➤ The closest value provided in the options is 40 ml/min/1.73 m² BSA, which is therefore the correct answer</li><li>➤ Understand and apply the Schwartz formula for estimating eGFR in pediatric patients based on height and serum creatinine levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following muscles form the pelvic diaphragm? 1. Iliococcygeus 2. Pubococcygeus 3. Obturator internus 4. Deep transverse perenei (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus are parts of the pelvic diaphragm, which is also known as the levator ani. The pelvic diaphragm is a muscular partition that separates the pelvic cavity above from the perineum below. It consists of two paired muscles, the levator ani and the coccygeus (also known as the ischiococcygeus or the pubococcygeus), and their fascial coverings.</li><li>• ischiococcygeus</li><li>• The levator ani muscle is a broad, thin muscle that forms the floor of the pelvic cavity. It consists of three parts: the pubococcygeus, the iliococcygeus, and the puborectalis.</li><li>• Pubococcygeus muscle is the most medial of the three, and it arises from the pubic bone and the fascia covering the obturator internus muscle. Iliococcygeus muscle arises from the fascia covering the obturator internus muscle and the ischial spine. Puborectalis muscle is a sling-like muscle that forms a loop around the anorectal junction, and it arises from the pubic bone.</li><li>• Pubococcygeus muscle is the most medial of the three, and it arises from the pubic bone and the fascia covering the obturator internus muscle.</li><li>• Pubococcygeus muscle</li><li>• Iliococcygeus muscle arises from the fascia covering the obturator internus muscle and the ischial spine.</li><li>• Iliococcygeus muscle</li><li>• Puborectalis muscle is a sling-like muscle that forms a loop around the anorectal junction, and it arises from the pubic bone.</li><li>• Puborectalis muscle</li><li>• The coccygeus muscle is a small, triangular muscle that lies posterior to the levator ani muscle. It arises from the ischial spine and the sacrospinous ligament and inserts onto the coccyx.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option C. The obturator internus forms the lateral wall of the ischioanal fossa and is not a part of the levator ani.</li><li>• Option C. The obturator internus</li><li>• Option D. The deep transverse perineal muscle is the content of the deep perineal space and contributes to the formation of the perineal body.</li><li>• Option D. The deep transverse perineal muscle</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus muscles, which are part of the levator ani muscle group. These muscles, including the puborectalis and coccygeus, contribute to the floor of the pelvic cavity and provide structural support, separating the pelvic cavity above from the perineum below.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false regarding management of diabetes in pregnancy? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elective C-section has no role in reducing incidence of brachial plexus injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "In a patient being planned for induction of labor, night dose of intermediate insulin is given as planned, and the morning dose is withheld", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "In active labor, if RBS &lt;70 mg%, D5 is started at 100-150 ml/h till the RBS is &gt;100 mg%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Capillary blood glucose monitoring levels are kept at fasting- 95 mg%; 1 h postprandial- 140 mg%; 2 h postprandial: 120 mg%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Elective C-section has no role in reducing incidence of brachial plexus injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-236.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Elective C-section has no role in reducing incidence of brachial plexus injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• False statement regarding management of diabetes in pregnancy is option A. The Cesarean section is found to be protective against traumatic injuries such as brachial plexus injury, in macrosomic babies born to mothers with diabetes. Elective LSCS is recommended when the estimated fetal weight is &gt; 4.5kg in diabetic mothers to reduce the incidence of birth trauma</li><li>• False statement regarding management of diabetes in pregnancy is option A.</li><li>• The Cesarean section is found to be protective against traumatic injuries such as brachial plexus injury, in macrosomic babies born to mothers with diabetes.</li><li>• Elective LSCS is recommended when the estimated fetal weight is &gt; 4.5kg in diabetic mothers to reduce the incidence of birth trauma</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. In a patient being planned for induction of labor, night dose of intermediate insulin is given as planned, and the morning dose is withheld : In a planned delivery, although the bedtime dose of intermediate-acting insulin is given, it is recommended that the morning dose must be withheld</li><li>• Option B. In a patient being planned for induction of labor, night dose of intermediate insulin is given as planned, and the morning dose is withheld</li><li>• Insulin Management for Labor Induction or Scheduled Cesarean Delivery</li><li>• Insulin Management for Labor Induction or Scheduled Cesarean Delivery</li><li>• Option C. In active labor, if RBS &lt;70 mg%, D5 is started at 100-150 ml/h till the RBS is &gt;100 mg%: In active labor, if RBS (Random blood glucose) &lt;70 mg%, D5 (5% dextrose) is started at 100-150 ml/h till the RBS is &gt;100 mg%. Before initiation of labor, normal saline is used for iv infusion.</li><li>• Option C. In active labor, if RBS &lt;70 mg%, D5 is started at 100-150 ml/h till the RBS is &gt;100 mg%:</li><li>• Option D. Capillary blood glucose monitoring levels are kept at fasting- 95 mg%; 1 h postprandial- 140 mg%; 2 h postprandial: 120 mg%: Self-monitoring of capillary blood glucose is advised in a pregnant woman diagnosed with diabetes. The glucose goals recommended are:</li><li>• Option D. Capillary blood glucose monitoring levels are kept at fasting- 95 mg%; 1 h postprandial- 140 mg%; 2 h postprandial: 120 mg%:</li><li>• Fasting: 95 mg/dL 1 h postprandial: 140 mg/dL 2 h postprandial: 120 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting: 95 mg/dL</li><li>• 1 h postprandial: 140 mg/dL</li><li>• 2 h postprandial: 120 mg/dL</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Elective C-section can reduce the incidence of brachial plexus injury in pregnancies complicated by diabetes, especially in cases of fetal macrosomia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2807, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2807, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2807, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An internist in India is seeing a patient from a minority cultural and linguistic group. To foster therapeutic alliance and provide the best care possible, which of the following approaches should the physician prioritize? (INICET MAY 2022) Insist on good communication. Insist on communication only via an interpreter. Treat them regardless of their cultural perceptions. Consider the patient's religion and cultural perception.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The communication skills of physicians are an effective step of making effective relationship between doctor and patient Research has shown that the way patients perceive their connection with their physician significantly influences their sense of satisfaction and level of concern about their health The goal of culturally competent health care services is to provide the highest quality of care to every patient, regardless of race, ethnicity, cultural background</li><li>➤ The communication skills of physicians are an effective step of making effective relationship between doctor and patient</li><li>➤ Research has shown that the way patients perceive their connection with their physician significantly influences their sense of satisfaction and level of concern about their health</li><li>➤ The goal of culturally competent health care services is to provide the highest quality of care to every patient, regardless of race, ethnicity, cultural background</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman with a family history of breast and ovarian cancer is seeking advice about her risk for developing breast cancer. She is currently taking oral contraceptive pills and is concerned about her risk. Which of the following is the next best step in management? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Genetic counselling and screening for BRA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Routine mammography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stop taking oral contraceptive pills", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prophylactic surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Genetic counselling and screening for BRA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Genetic counselling and screening for BRA</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mark the correct statement regarding inflammatory bowel disease (IBD): ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skepletions are present in Crohn's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucosal layers are involved in Crohn's disease and transmural involvement is seen in ulcerative colitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inflammatory bowel disease has a strong genetic predisposition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crohn's disease is curable through surgical resection of the affected segment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Skepletions are present in Crohn's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Skepletions (skip lesions) are a characteristic feature of Crohn's disease, distinguishing it from ulcerative colitis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has familial inheritance? ( INICET May 2022) Retinoblastoma Retinitis pigmentosa Муоріа Primary open angle glaucoma", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-01-18%20121420.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Retinoblastoma, Retinitis pigmentosa, Myopia, and Primary open-angle glaucoma — exhibit familial inheritance patterns, meaning they can be passed down through families, indicating genetic influences.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following features are seen in chronic arsenic poisoning except? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Raindrop pigmentation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peripheral neuritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mees line", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Luminous vomit", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Luminous vomit", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-131042.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-131046.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Luminous vomit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Features seen in chronic arsenic poisoning:</li><li>➤ Features seen in chronic arsenic poisoning:</li><li>➤ 1. Peripheral neuropathy (neuritis):</li><li>➤ 1. Peripheral neuropathy (neuritis):</li><li>➤ It can occur in Arsenic , Thallium , Mercury, and Lead.</li><li>➤ Lead: Mainly motor, little bit sensory neuropathy</li><li>➤ Lead:</li><li>➤ Arsenic, Thallium, mercury: mainly sensory, little bit motor neuropathy</li><li>➤ Arsenic, Thallium, mercury:</li><li>➤ 2) Skin symptoms:</li><li>➤ 2) Skin symptoms:</li><li>➤ - Hypopigmentation initially</li><li>➤ - Rain Drop Pigmentation as shown below</li><li>➤ - Peculiar skin rash – resembles Addison’s disease , Fading measles rash</li><li>➤ - Hyperkeratosis of palms &amp; soles as shown below:</li><li>➤ 3) Nails: Aldrich Mees Lines</li><li>➤ 3) Nails:</li><li>➤ Transverse whitish lines on nails (seen is Arsenic, and Thallium)</li><li>➤ 4) Hair: Alopecia seen in M ercury, A rsenic, T hallium (Mnemonic: Hair on MAT )</li><li>➤ 4) Hair:</li><li>➤ M</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ T</li><li>➤ MAT</li><li>➤ 5) GIT: Vomiting , Diarrhoea , pain abdomen</li><li>➤ 5) GIT:</li><li>➤ 6) Liver: Jaundice , Hepatomegaly , Fatty liver , Cirrhosis</li><li>➤ 6) Liver:</li><li>➤ 7) Blackfoot disease: Coagulation in Peripheral blood vessels leading to Gangrene of periphery</li><li>➤ 7) Blackfoot disease:</li><li>➤ 8) Malignancy of almost any body part</li><li>➤ 8) Malignancy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person presents to the hospital with fever and chills. Fever profile is ordered and is found to be negative for malaria and dengue. RK-39 test is found to be positive. What is the treatment of choice? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amphotericin B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Griseofulvin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dapsone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydroxychloroquine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amphotericin B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The RK-39 test is used to diagnose visceral leishmaniasis, and the treatment of choice for visceral leishmaniasis in India is Amphotericin B</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following coagulation factors increase in pregnancy except: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factor II", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor VII", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factor VIII", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factor XI", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Factor XI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Factor XI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor XI is the coagulation factor that does not increase during pregnancy and may actually decrease slightly.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 508, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 508, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are acid-fast staining organisms? (INICET MAY 2022) Nocardia Mycobacterium leprae Actinomyces Cryptosporidium parvum Isospora belli", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 4, 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4, 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 4, 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 4, 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nocardia, Mycobacterium leprae, Cryptosporidium parvum, and Isospora belli are acid-fast staining organisms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the phenomenon of a differential effect of the same gene from different parents? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gonadal mosaicism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Genomic imprinting", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anticipation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incomplete penetrance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Genomic imprinting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Genomic imprinting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic process where the same gene can have different effects depending on whether it is inherited from the mother or the father, typically through mechanisms like DNA methylation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 328</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 328</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female patient presents with a palpable lump in her breast. Which of the following investigations cannot be used to rule out malignancy? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radiological investigations", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PET scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clinical examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histology and cytology", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PET scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) PET scan</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the nerve passing around the marked structure: (INICET MAY 2022 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Common peroneal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sural nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tibial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Common peroneal nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture7_JnVEIDn.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-191113.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Common peroneal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Common peroneal nerve (also known as common fibular nerve) , a significant branch of the sciatic nerve, follows a course along the thigh's posterior compartment and wraps around the fibula's neck, making it susceptible to injury. After encircling the fibula, it splits into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves, which innervate the leg's lateral and anterior compartments and contribute sensory functions to parts of the foot.</li><li>➤ The Common peroneal nerve (also known as common fibular nerve)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old boy presents with lesion in tibial diaphysis. Histopathological examination is shown in below given image. On IHC, it was MIC-2 positive and synaptophysin positive cells. Most likely diagnosis will be: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ewing sarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malignant neuroblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteoclastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ewing sarcoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/08/io54.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20101949.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20102011.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20102025.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20102040.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ewing sarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of the patient's age, the diaphyseal location of the bone lesion, the classic small round blue cell morphology on histology, and especially the strong MIC-2 (CD99) positivity with some synaptophysin positivity, makes Ewing sarcoma the definitive and most appropriate diagnosis.</li><li>➤ The combination of the patient's age, the diaphyseal location of the bone lesion, the classic small round blue cell morphology on histology, and especially the strong MIC-2 (CD99) positivity with some synaptophysin positivity, makes Ewing sarcoma the definitive and most appropriate diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following conditions are caused by high-risk strains of Human Papilloma virus except: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oropharyngeal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laryngeal papillomatosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Laryngeal papillomatosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-120647.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Laryngeal papillomatosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laryngeal papillomatosis is caused by low-risk HPV strains (6 and 11) and not by the high-risk strains associated with cancers such as cervical, anal, and oropharyngeal carcinoma.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 563</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 563</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The organism with following life cycle is: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Strongyloides stercoralis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-80.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Strongyloides stercoralis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The life cycle of Strongyloides stercoralis involves skin penetration by filariform larvae and autoinfection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old girl presented with sudden-onset blindness for the past 4 hours. However, on history taking, it is noted that she is not concerned about it. However, she is concerned that her mother passed away recently and that she should have spent more time with her. Physical examination findings are normal. Which of the following is true about the condition? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "In children, equally among males and females", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "In adults, equally among males and females", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "In adults, occurs more in males than in females", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In children, occurs more in females than in males", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. In children, occurs more in females than in males", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) In children, occurs more in females than in males</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conversion disorder , also known as dissociative neurological symptom disorder , is characterized by neurological symptoms that can't be explained by a medical condition and are believed to arise in response to psychological stressors. The symptoms do not conform with anatomical and physiological principles . The condition is more common in females in both pediatric and adult populations.</li><li>➤ Conversion disorder</li><li>➤ dissociative neurological symptom disorder</li><li>➤ do not conform</li><li>➤ anatomical</li><li>➤ physiological principles</li><li>➤ more common in females</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 451-467.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements regarding MgSO 4 is false? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MgSO 4 causes uterine relaxation, but is dose dependent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MgSO 4 is continued upto 24 hours after delivery or last attack of seizure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It has inhibitory effect on cerebral cortex thereby preventing seizures and lowering the BP", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "In renal failure, MgSO4 loading dose can be given, but maintenance dose should be adjusted based on renal function", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It has inhibitory effect on cerebral cortex thereby preventing seizures and lowering the BP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It has inhibitory effect on cerebral cortex thereby preventing seizures and lowering the BP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MgSO4 is used for preventing seizures in eclampsia and causes uterine relaxation but does not lower blood pressure.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1867, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1867, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old lady had an uneventful vaginal delivery. On postpartum day 1, she presented with postpartum hemorrhage and complains of visual changes and severe headache. A few hours after the complaint, she is found to be in an unresponsive state and is intubated and put on ventilation. On further examination, she has a BP of 60/40 mmHg and tachycardia, blood sugar is 48 mg/dL. Hematocrit and WBC count was normal. Which of the following drugs would help reverse this state? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inj. Dobutamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Activated protein C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Steroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation described—postpartum hemorrhage followed by severe headache, visual changes, hypotension, and unresponsiveness—suggests Sheehan syndrome. This condition arises from pituitary apoplexy, which is pituitary infarction secondary to severe blood loss during or after childbirth.</li><li>• Sheehan Syndrome : This syndrome is characterized by pituitary gland failure due to substantial blood loss during delivery. The symptoms include persistent hypotension, tachycardia, hypoglycemia, lactation failure, headache, visual deficits, and in severe cases, shock, CNS hemorrhage, and even death. Steroids : Hormone replacement with glucocorticoids (steroids) is crucial for managing Sheehan syndrome. Steroids address the adrenal insufficiency and help stabilize the patient’s condition. Initially, glucocorticoids are administered, followed by other hormone replacements as needed.</li><li>• Sheehan Syndrome : This syndrome is characterized by pituitary gland failure due to substantial blood loss during delivery. The symptoms include persistent hypotension, tachycardia, hypoglycemia, lactation failure, headache, visual deficits, and in severe cases, shock, CNS hemorrhage, and even death.</li><li>• Sheehan Syndrome</li><li>• Steroids : Hormone replacement with glucocorticoids (steroids) is crucial for managing Sheehan syndrome. Steroids address the adrenal insufficiency and help stabilize the patient’s condition. Initially, glucocorticoids are administered, followed by other hormone replacements as needed.</li><li>• Steroids</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Inj. Dobutamine : Dobutamine is a beta-agonist used for managing cardiac failure and hypotension. While it may help with blood pressure, it does not address the underlying issue of pituitary failure and would not be the primary treatment for Sheehan syndrome.</li><li>• Option A. Inj. Dobutamine</li><li>• Option C. Thyroxine : Thyroxine (T4) is a thyroid hormone used in thyroid hormone replacement therapy. While it might be needed later if thyroid function is affected, it does not directly address the acute symptoms of Sheehan syndrome, which is primarily managed with steroids.</li><li>• Option C. Thyroxine</li><li>• Option D. Activated Protein C : Activated protein C is used in the management of severe sepsis and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), but it does not treat the pituitary dysfunction associated with Sheehan syndrome.</li><li>• Option D. Activated Protein C</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sheehan syndrome is treated primarily with glucocorticoid (steroid) therapy to manage pituitary failure following significant blood loss during or after childbirth.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 378, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 378, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Banding technique used for dicentric chromosomes: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NOR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "R", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture1_uAopcR9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Dicentric chromosome is an abnormal chromosome with two centromeres.</li><li>• C banding : stains heterochromatin which are regions of the chromosomes at or near centromere. So, C banding will be most useful for dicentric chromosomes.</li><li>• C banding</li><li>• So, C banding will be most useful for dicentric chromosomes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. G-banding: G-banding is the most common banding technique and uses Giemsa stain to stain AT-rich regions. It was developed as an alternative to Q-banding due to the cumbersome nature of Q-banding.</li><li>• Option A. G-banding:</li><li>• Option B. NOR-banding: NOR-banding (Nucleolar Organizer Region) is used to stain regions associated with nucleolus formation and is not specifically useful for dicentric chromosomes.</li><li>• Option B. NOR-banding:</li><li>• Option D. R-banding: R-banding provides a reverse pattern to G-banding, staining GC-rich regions instead of AT-rich regions. It is not specifically useful for identifying dicentric chromosomes.</li><li>• Option D. R-banding:</li><li>• Note – Q banding : uses quinacrine dye (first used dye) and stains repetitive AT rich regions.</li><li>• Note – Q banding</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ C-banding is the preferred technique for identifying dicentric chromosomes as it specifically stains heterochromatin regions at or near the centromere.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Robbins 10th Ed. / page- 262-263, 293</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the emergency room with symptoms of fever, increased respiratory rate, elevated heart rate, and low blood pressure. The physician suspects the patient may have SIRS. Which of the following is not a criteria for SIRS? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systolic blood pressure &lt;90 mmHg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temperature &gt;38 degree Celsius or &lt;36 degree Celsius", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory rate &gt;20 bpm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heart rate &gt;90 min", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Systolic blood pressure &lt;90 mmHg.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You see these marks on the forearm of a woman who is being constantly harassed for dowry by her in-laws. What is this finding known as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hesitation cuts", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grazed abrasion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laceration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patterned bruise", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hesitation cuts", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-637.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hesitation cuts</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hesitation cuts are superficial, parallel, and multiple cuts typically found in accessible areas like the wrist or throat, often indicating a cry for help or a practice attempt by individuals contemplating suicide.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The signaling sequence in a type 2 membrane protein with N-terminal facing cytoplasm is located in? (INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inside the membrane", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "At the C-terminal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "At the N-terminal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both inside the membrane and at C- terminal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inside the membrane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/inicet-physio-may-2022-01.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Inside the membrane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The signaling sequence in type 2 membrane proteins is located inside the membrane, crucial for the proper orientation and insertion of the protein.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which diagnostic investigation is utilized to identify the condition characterized by a 40-year-old man displaying abrupt erythematous painful lesions on the trunk and face, joint pain, and glove and stock anesthesia? ( INICET May 2022) Nerve examination Skin biopsy Slit skin smear Mantoux test", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/screenshot-2023-11-21-190935.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appropriate diagnostic investigations for a suspected case of leprosy include nerve examination, skin biopsy , and slit skin smear to detect the presence of Mycobacterium leprae and to assess the extent of nerve damage.</li><li>➤ nerve</li><li>➤ biopsy</li><li>➤ slit</li><li>➤ skin</li><li>➤ smear</li><li>➤ Mycobacterium</li><li>➤ leprae</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 28 page no 28.1, 28.3, 28.12</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 28 page no 28.1, 28.3, 28.12</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 21 st edition 1385, 1386, 1388</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 21 st edition 1385, 1386, 1388</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Adrenocorticotropic hormone is the drug of choice in which of the following conditions? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rolandic epilepsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "West syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lennox Gastaut syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. West syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/93.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) West syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the drug of choice in West syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which can be used as an alternative to breast milk in low birth weight (LBW) child? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cow's milk", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Preterm formula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Term formula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Human donor milk", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Human donor milk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Human donor milk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Human donor milk is the alternative to breast milk in low birth weight infants</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the potential observations that could be observed in this patient? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased posterior tibial &amp; dorsalis pedis pulsations", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loss of sensation over foot", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positive trendelenberg sign test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pain on compression of calf", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Loss of sensation over foot", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-650.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Loss of sensation over foot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Loss of sensation over the foot is a potential observation that could be observed in a patient with neuropathic/trophic ulcers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis of an old lady who sustained a fall and presented with a headache and neurological symptoms a few days later? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multi-infarct dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontal lobe meningioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Korsakoff disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subdural hematoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Subdural hematoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Subdural Hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Given the history of a fall and the delayed onset of neurological symptoms, a subdural hematoma (option D) is the most likely diagnosis in this case.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to you with left-sided flank pain. A CT scan was done which is shown below. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the condition? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albendazole can be started preoperatively", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyst contents can produce anaphylactic reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A segmented dog tapeworm is the causative agent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "FNAC or biopsy to be done before nephrectomy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. FNAC or biopsy to be done before nephrectomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/untitled-309.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) FNAC or biopsy to be done before nephrectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Hydatid disease, caused by Echinococcus granulosus, is characterized by cyst formation in organs such as the liver, lungs, and kidneys. FNAC or biopsy should not be done in cases of suspected hydatid cysts due to the risk of anaphylaxis and dissemination of the infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old male patient underwent hernia surgery and complained of a loss of sensations over the root of his penis during his postoperative recovery. The patient reported no prior history of genital trauma or surgery. Which of the following nerves would you suspect to be the cause of the patient's loss of sensation? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iliohypogastric nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ilioinguinal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Genitofemoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ilioinguinal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ilioinguinal nerve</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the pathognomonic structure in the slide given below? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sclerotic body", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Budding yeast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Negri body", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asteroid body", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sclerotic body", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-68.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/untitled-296.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-170613.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/untitled-298.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/pathognomonic-structure_page_1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/pathognomonic-structure_page_2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sclerotic body</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Few Important Pathognomonic structures associated with disease:</li><li>➤ Few Important Pathognomonic structures associated with disease:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A physician is consulting with a mother who has brought her one-year-old child to a health clinic. The mother mentions that the child received the initial DPT vaccine dose at 6 weeks but has not received any subsequent vaccinations. What would be the most appropriate next step in this child's immunization schedule? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Do not give DPT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restart DPT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give second dose of DPT", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give dT alone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Give second dose of DPT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-104816.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Give second dose of DPT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Age Limits for Delayed Immunization in NIS, India</li><li>➤ Age Limits for Delayed Immunization in NIS, India</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following parameters are true for anemia of chronic disease except: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in serum hepcidin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease in serum ferritin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal iron stores", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decrease in serum ferritin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-103903.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Decrease in serum ferritin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serum ferritin levels increase in anemia of chronic disease.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1234</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1234</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. Johnson is a 60-year-old woman who underwent a Whipple's procedure for pancreatic cancer three weeks ago. She developed a fever and abdominal pain, and her surgeon suspected a postoperative complication. Which of the following complications causes maximum malnutrition? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pancreatic fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duodenal fistula", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distal ileal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Colonic fistula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Duodenal fistula", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Duodenal fistula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ A duodenal fistula (option B) is the postoperative complication that can cause maximum malnutrition due to its disruption of nutrient absorption in the critical site of the digestive process, the duodenum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following in the sequence of auditory pathway: ( INICET May 2022) Cochlear nucleus Spiral ganglion Superior olivary nucleus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 - 4 - 3 - 2 - 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 - 1 - 3 - 4 - 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 - 4 -5 - 1 - 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 - 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2 -1 - 3 - 4- 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of structures involved in the auditory pathway from the periphery to the center is (E COLI MA).</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of structures involved in the auditory pathway from the periphery to the center is (E COLI MA).</li><li>➤ Eighth (Vestibulocochlear) nerve Cochlear Nucleus Superior Olivary nucleus Lateral lemniscus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body Auditory cortex</li><li>➤ Eighth (Vestibulocochlear) nerve</li><li>➤ Cochlear Nucleus</li><li>➤ Superior Olivary nucleus</li><li>➤ Lateral lemniscus</li><li>➤ Inferior colliculus</li><li>➤ Medial geniculate body</li><li>➤ Auditory cortex</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7th edition, Page No. 15</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7th edition, Page No. 15</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tumors shows the following finding? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yolk sac tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dysgerminoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Krukenberg tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Granulosa cell tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Yolk sac tumor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture11_btGazkE.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Yolk sac tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Schiller-Duval bodies is a key diagnostic feature of yolk sac tumors, distinguishing them from other types of ovarian tumors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements regarding the given image is correct? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albendazole is the drug of choice", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Majority of infections are asymptomatic in humans", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infection is acquired by ingestion of aquatic plants", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-segmented leaf like parasite", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Majority of infections are asymptomatic in humans", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/untitled-303.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Majority of infections are asymptomatic in humans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Hymenolepis nana (dwarf tapeworm) is the most common and smallest tapeworm in humans. Majority of infections are asymptomatic. The drug of choice is praziquantel .</li><li>➤ Hymenolepis nana</li><li>➤ praziquantel</li><li>➤ Parasites with aquatic plants as the source of infection:</li><li>➤ Fasciola hepatica Fasciolopsis buski Watsonius watsoni Gastrodiscoides hominis</li><li>➤ Fasciola hepatica</li><li>➤ Fasciolopsis buski</li><li>➤ Watsonius watsoni</li><li>➤ Gastrodiscoides hominis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician is providing counselling to a pregnant woman who is HIV positive about postnatal care for her soon-to-be-born child. Which of the following statements best captures the recommended management for an infant born to a mother with HIV regarding antiretroviral treatment (ART)? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "If replacement feeding, the neonate should be tested for HIV, if negative, ART is not required.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "In exclusive breastfeeding, give nevirapine for 6 months only when baby is positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "If replacement feeding, the neonate need not receive nevirapine if HIV negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "If exclusive replacement feeding, give nevirapine for 6 weeks, even if the baby is negative", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. If exclusive replacement feeding, give nevirapine for 6 weeks, even if the baby is negative", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/psm-pyq-10-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) If exclusive replacement feeding, give nevirapine for 6 weeks, even if the baby is negative</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infants of HIV-positive mothers on exclusive replacement feeding get 6-week nevirapine, regardless of their HIV status.</li><li>➤ Infants of HIV-positive mothers on exclusive replacement feeding get 6-week nevirapine, regardless of their HIV status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following therapeutic methods used in the management of psoriasis with their possible side effects? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-153919.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-154143.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-154306.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Common therapies for psoriasis with their potential side effects :</li><li>➤ therapies</li><li>➤ side</li><li>➤ effects</li><li>➤ PUVA increases the risk of skin cancer (1-c), Cyclosporine is nephrotoxic (2-b), Methotrexate can act as an abortifacient (3-a), and Acitretin is teratogenic and can cause mucositis (4-d).</li><li>➤ PUVA increases the risk of skin cancer (1-c),</li><li>➤ PUVA</li><li>➤ skin cancer</li><li>➤ Cyclosporine is nephrotoxic (2-b),</li><li>➤ Cyclosporine</li><li>➤ nephrotoxic</li><li>➤ Methotrexate can act as an abortifacient (3-a), and</li><li>➤ Methotrexate</li><li>➤ abortifacient</li><li>➤ Acitretin is teratogenic and can cause mucositis (4-d).</li><li>➤ Acitretin</li><li>➤ teratogenic</li><li>➤ mucositis</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 35 page no 35.26-28</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 35 page no 35.26-28</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page 3402</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page 3402</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "dd-NTPs in Sanger’s Sequencing technique uses? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Its fluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DNA polymerization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Termination of polymerase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Removal of primer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Termination of polymerase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Termination of polymerase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dideoxy nucleotides are nucleotides in which O from 2’ and 3’ position of sugar is absent. These nucleotides, if inserted in the growing DNA chains will cause termination of polymerization as DNA polymerase will not be able to perform catalyzation of formation of Phosphodiester bond. This form the basis for a DNA sequencing technique know as Sanger DNA sequencing aka chain termination method.</li><li>➤ termination of polymerization</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 439</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT a first-line drug for the management of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sulfasalazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydroxychloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azathioprine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Azathioprine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/07/screenshot-2024-09-07-152511.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Azathioprine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Azathioprine is not a first-line drug for the management of rheumatoid arthritis; the primary first-line drugs are sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine, and methotrexate.</li><li>➤ Note -</li><li>➤ Sulfasalazine and Hydroxychloroquine are considered safe for use during pregnancy and are preferred in the management of RA among pregnant patients. Azathioprine is also somewhat safe during pregnancy, but it is not as effective for RA, so it is less preferred compared to Sulfasalazine and Hydroxychloroquine. Methotrexate and Leflunomide are not safe for use during pregnancy and should be avoided due to potential risks to the developing fetus.</li><li>➤ Sulfasalazine and Hydroxychloroquine are considered safe for use during pregnancy and are preferred in the management of RA among pregnant patients.</li><li>➤ Sulfasalazine</li><li>➤ Hydroxychloroquine</li><li>➤ Azathioprine is also somewhat safe during pregnancy, but it is not as effective for RA, so it is less preferred compared to Sulfasalazine and Hydroxychloroquine.</li><li>➤ Azathioprine</li><li>➤ Methotrexate and Leflunomide are not safe for use during pregnancy and should be avoided due to potential risks to the developing fetus.</li><li>➤ Methotrexate</li><li>➤ Leflunomide</li><li>➤ Additional Information:</li><li>➤ Additional Information:</li><li>➤ Rheumatoid arthritis management: Range of biological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (bDMARDs) and targeted synthetic disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (tsDMARDs).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not help in the localization of lesions in the spinal cord? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contralateral hemiplegia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fasciculation at the level of lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper motor neuron lesion and lower motor neuron lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bladder involvement", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Contralateral hemiplegia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Contralateral hemiplegia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Contralateral hemiplegia indicates a lesion above the spinal cord, specifically above the level of pyramidal decussation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the action of the superior oblique muscle? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intorsion, abduction, depression", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intorsion, adduction, elevation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extorsion, abduction, depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extorsion, adduction, elevation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intorsion, abduction, depression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/inicet-ophtha-10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Intorsion, abduction, depression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding clear cell carcinoma of the kidney? (INICET MAY 2022) It is the most common sporadic renal tumor Associated with loss of long arm of chromosome 3 Arises from distal convoluted tubule Cells show intracellular accumulation of glycogen and fat", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clear cell carcinoma of the kidney is the most common sporadic renal tumor and is characterized by cells with intracellular accumulation of glycogen and fat, as well as an association with the loss of the short arm of chromosome 3.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1847-1849</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1847-1849</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following disease is exclusively seen in females? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rett syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asperger syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Selective mutism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atypical autism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rett syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rett syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rett syndrome is a rare genetic neurodevelopmental disorder almost exclusively seen in females. It is caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene located on the X chromosome. It is characterized by normal development for the first 6-18 months of life followed by a loss of purposeful hand skills, severe language impairment, and motor abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 165.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct sequence for correction of hypospadias surgery? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chordee correction, urethral mobilization, glanuloplasty,", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chordee correction, meatal advancement, urethral mobilization, glanuloplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meatal advancement, chordee correction, glanuloplasty, urethral mobilization", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glanuloplasty, urethral mobilization, chordee correction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chordee correction, urethral mobilization, glanuloplasty,", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chordee correction, urethral mobilization, glanuloplasty</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A and B in the graph below represent which of the following ions, in terms of permeability for action potential generation: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A is Na+, B is K+", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A is Na+, B is Ca2+", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A is K+, B is Ca2+", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A is Ca2+, B is K+", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A is Na+, B is K+", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/inicet-physio-may-2022-04.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A is Na+, B is K+</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During an action potential, the initial rapid depolarization is due to an increase in Na+ permeability (represented by A), followed by repolarization due to an increase in K+ permeability (represented by B).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Treatment of choice for acute arsenic poisoning is? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ipecac", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Activated charcoal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dimercaprol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dimercaprol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Dimercaprol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment of Acute Arsenic poisoning</li><li>➤ Treatment of Acute Arsenic poisoning</li><li>➤ Hemodynamic stabilization for significant GI losses (vomiting and diarrhea) Gastric lavage is done repeatedly with large amount of warm water and milk; Chelating Agents Chelating agents are useful in acute arsenic poisoning, but have very limited role in chronic arsenic poisoning There are three chelating agents useful in acute arsenic poisoning: British Anti Lewisite (BAL, aka dimercaprol, dimercaptopropanol): available in IM route. Traditionally BAL was used most commonly for As, but now DMSA and DMPS are considered better, as they can be given orally and have lower toxicity. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, aka succimer): available Orally Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid (DMPS, aka Dimerval): available Oral, IM and IV. DMPS is agent of choice for acute As poisoning.</li><li>➤ Hemodynamic stabilization for significant GI losses (vomiting and diarrhea)</li><li>➤ Gastric lavage is done repeatedly with large amount of warm water and milk;</li><li>➤ Chelating Agents Chelating agents are useful in acute arsenic poisoning, but have very limited role in chronic arsenic poisoning There are three chelating agents useful in acute arsenic poisoning: British Anti Lewisite (BAL, aka dimercaprol, dimercaptopropanol): available in IM route. Traditionally BAL was used most commonly for As, but now DMSA and DMPS are considered better, as they can be given orally and have lower toxicity. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, aka succimer): available Orally Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid (DMPS, aka Dimerval): available Oral, IM and IV. DMPS is agent of choice for acute As poisoning.</li><li>➤ Chelating Agents</li><li>➤ Chelating agents are useful in acute arsenic poisoning, but have very limited role in chronic arsenic poisoning There are three chelating agents useful in acute arsenic poisoning: British Anti Lewisite (BAL, aka dimercaprol, dimercaptopropanol): available in IM route. Traditionally BAL was used most commonly for As, but now DMSA and DMPS are considered better, as they can be given orally and have lower toxicity. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, aka succimer): available Orally Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid (DMPS, aka Dimerval): available Oral, IM and IV. DMPS is agent of choice for acute As poisoning.</li><li>➤ Chelating agents are useful in acute arsenic poisoning, but have very limited role in chronic arsenic poisoning</li><li>➤ There are three chelating agents useful in acute arsenic poisoning: British Anti Lewisite (BAL, aka dimercaprol, dimercaptopropanol): available in IM route. Traditionally BAL was used most commonly for As, but now DMSA and DMPS are considered better, as they can be given orally and have lower toxicity. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, aka succimer): available Orally Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid (DMPS, aka Dimerval): available Oral, IM and IV. DMPS is agent of choice for acute As poisoning.</li><li>➤ British Anti Lewisite (BAL, aka dimercaprol, dimercaptopropanol): available in IM route. Traditionally BAL was used most commonly for As, but now DMSA and DMPS are considered better, as they can be given orally and have lower toxicity. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, aka succimer): available Orally Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid (DMPS, aka Dimerval): available Oral, IM and IV. DMPS is agent of choice for acute As poisoning.</li><li>➤ British Anti Lewisite (BAL, aka dimercaprol, dimercaptopropanol): available in IM route. Traditionally BAL was used most commonly for As, but now DMSA and DMPS are considered better, as they can be given orally and have lower toxicity.</li><li>➤ British Anti Lewisite</li><li>➤ Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, aka succimer): available Orally</li><li>➤ Dimercaptosuccinic acid</li><li>➤ Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid (DMPS, aka Dimerval): available Oral, IM and IV. DMPS is agent of choice for acute As poisoning.</li><li>➤ Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "DNA-Protein interactions can be studied by using: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DNA fingerprinting", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DNA footprinting", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Northern Blotting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ELISA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. DNA footprinting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) DNA footprinting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DNA footprinting is the appropriate method for studying DNA-Protein interactions, as it allows researchers to identify the specific binding sites of proteins on DNA by selectively cleaving or modifying the DNA sequence. This technique is fundamental for understanding how proteins interact with DNA in various biological processes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 451</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not included in damage control surgery? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemorrhage control", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Resuscitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decontamination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vascular anastomosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vascular anastomosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vascular anastomosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ vascular anastomosis (option D) is not a standard part of damage control surgery, while the other options (A, B, and C) are relevant components of this surgical approach.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A biostatistics professor is teaching a group of medical students about the fundamentals of statistics. She mentions a branch that is specifically concerned with summarizing and presenting data in a meaningful way. Which of the following branches is she most likely referring to? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Theoretical statistics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Descriptive statistics", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Analytical statistics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inferential statistics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Descriptive statistics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Descriptive statistics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Descriptive statistics is dedicated to summarizing and presenting data in an easily understandable way, utilizing tables, graphs, and summary measures.</li><li>➤ Descriptive statistics is dedicated to summarizing and presenting data in an easily understandable way, utilizing tables, graphs, and summary measures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The rupture of penile urethra does not cause extravasation of blood into which of the following spaces? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superficial perineal pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep perineal pouch", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skin around penis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin around the scrotum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Deep perineal pouch", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. deep perineal pouch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rupture of the penile urethra causes extravasation of blood into the superficial perineal pouch, scrotum, penis, and then up to the lower anterior abdominal wall.</li><li>➤ The membranous layer of superficial fascia attaches to the ischiopubic rami and forms the lateral borders of the urogenital triangle. Thus, the urine does not extravasate to the thigh.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are theories of causation of preeclampsia except: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prostaglandins play an important role. Thromboxane A2 decreases; Prostacyclin: Thromboxane ratio increases in preeclampsia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endothelial cell dysfunction leads to reduced nitric oxide levels and this causes the clinical presentation of preeclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vasoconstriction leads to ischemia, necrosis and hemorrhage and end organ damage seen in preeclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-angiogenic factors play an important role in preeclampsia. There is an increase in FIt-1 and decrease in PIGF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prostaglandins play an important role. Thromboxane A2 decreases; Prostacyclin: Thromboxane ratio increases in preeclampsia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-237.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Prostaglandins play an important role. Thromboxane A2 decreases; Prostacyclin: Thromboxane ratio increases in preeclampsia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• All of the following are theories of causation of preeclampsia except option A. There is reduced or absent prostacyclin (PGI,) production with increased production of thromboxane (TXA,) and reduced ratio of prostacyclin: thromboxane in preeclampsia.</li><li>• All of the following are theories of causation of preeclampsia except option A. There is reduced or absent prostacyclin (PGI,) production with increased production of thromboxane (TXA,) and reduced ratio of prostacyclin: thromboxane in preeclampsia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Endothelial cell dysfunction leads to reduced nitric oxide levels and this causes the clinical presentation of preeclampsia: Endothelial cell dysfunction is another etiology. Injured or activated endothelial cells may produce less nitric oxide and may secrete substances that promote coagulation and vasopressor sensitivity.</li><li>• Option B. Endothelial cell dysfunction leads to reduced nitric oxide levels and this causes the clinical presentation of preeclampsia:</li><li>• Option C. Vasoconstriction leads to ischemia, necrosis and hemorrhage and end organ damage seen in preeclampsia: Vasospasm has long been associated with preeclampsia. Systemic endothelial activation causes vasospasm, which elevates resistance to produce hypertension. With diminished blood flow because of maldistribution from vasospasm and interstitial leakage, ischemia of the surrounding tissues can cause necrosis, hemorrhage, and other end-organ disturbances.</li><li>• Option C. Vasoconstriction leads to ischemia, necrosis and hemorrhage and end organ damage seen in preeclampsia:</li><li>• Option D. Anti-angiogenic factors play an important role in preeclampsia. There is an increase in FIt-1 and decrease in PIGF:</li><li>• Option D. Anti-angiogenic factors play an important role in preeclampsia. There is an increase in FIt-1 and decrease in PIGF:</li><li>• Angiogenic Factors:</li><li>• Placental vasculogenesis is evident 21 days after conception. Two antiangiogenic peptides that are increased Soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase 1 (s-flt-1) Soluble endoglin (s-eng) Factors that are decreased are PlGF PAPP-A VEGF</li><li>• Placental vasculogenesis is evident 21 days after conception. Two antiangiogenic peptides that are increased Soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase 1 (s-flt-1) Soluble endoglin (s-eng)</li><li>• Soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase 1 (s-flt-1) Soluble endoglin (s-eng)</li><li>• Soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase 1 (s-flt-1)</li><li>• Soluble endoglin (s-eng)</li><li>• Factors that are decreased are PlGF PAPP-A VEGF</li><li>• PlGF PAPP-A VEGF</li><li>• PlGF</li><li>• PAPP-A</li><li>• VEGF</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In preeclampsia, the prostacyclin: thromboxane ratio is decreased due to increased thromboxane A2 and decreased prostacyclin (PGI2).</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1802, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1802, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following statements about anti-Mullerian hormones are true, except: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is best tested in the fasting state on day 2 of menstrual cycle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycoprotein from granulosa cell of early antral follicle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Correlates with pregnancy rate of IVF cycles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It decreases sensitivity of the pre-antral follicles to FSH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is best tested in the fasting state on day 2 of menstrual cycle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is best tested in the fasting state on day 2 of menstrual cycle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) does not need to be tested in the fasting state or specifically on day 2 of the menstrual cycle.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 76, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 76, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which investigation is not necessary for the following condition? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Timed barium study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophageal manometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "24-h pH monitoring", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 24-h pH monitoring", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/untitled-647.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 24-h pH monitoring</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old boy is brought to OPD with swelling in the upper part of the tibia. X-ray revealed periosteal reaction in upper diaphysis of tibia. A histopathological image of the biopsy is given below. Immunohistochemistry was positive for Synaptophysin and MIC-2. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ewing sarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metastatic neuroblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteoclastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ewing sarcoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ewing sarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumor commonly occurring in the diaphysis of long bones in adolescents. It is characterized by positive immunohistochemical staining for Synaptophysin and MIC-2 (CD99).</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 2390-2391</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 2390-2391</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vaccination against which of the following is recommended in the elderly? (INICET MAY 2022) Varicella zoster virus Rotavirus Measles Pneumococcal meningitis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-198.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is the correct match of plant poisons and their active principles: ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Datura – Abrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Opium- Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nux vomica - Strychnine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abrus precatorius – Thebaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nux vomica - Strychnine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-132439.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Nux vomica- Strychnine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Best method for detection of mutations with low allele frequency is? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Droplet digital PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "FISH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nested PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sanger Sequencing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Droplet digital PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Droplet digital PCR</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct match, regarding the drug and its adverse effect? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydralazine - heart failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atenolol - hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aliskiren - hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verapamil – constipation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Verapamil – constipation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Verapamil – constipation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Verapamil, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is associated with constipation as a common adverse effect. Other drugs and their incorrect matches in this context include hydralazine (which can cause drug-induced lupus), atenolol (which does not cause hemolytic anemia), and aliskiren (which can cause hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false about bipolar disorder? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It most commonly affects ages 35-45 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 1 is common in both sexes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevalence in general population is 1-2%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Attempt to commit suicide is seen around 15% of people", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It most commonly affects ages 35-45 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It most commonly affects ages 35-45 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bipolar disorder typically presents in late adolescence or early adulthood. It is characterized by episodes of mania and depression, affects both sexes equally, has a prevalence of 1-2% in the general population, and carries a significant risk of suicide.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 376.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman with a severe headache is scheduled to undergo a CT scan. During history taking, which of the following will you definitely ask for before the commencement of the scan? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Use of cochlear implant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LMP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "History of fall", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "History of hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. LMP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) LMP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most important information to obtain during a history in a 28-year-old woman of reproductive age who has been referred for a CT scan is the last menstrual period (LMP). Since it is imperative to rule out pregnancy before taking a CT scan, last menstrual period is the most appropriate answer to this question.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Use of cochlear implant: While important in MRI to prevent damage to the implant from the magnetic field, it is not typically a concern in CT scans which use X-rays.</li><li>• Option A. Use of cochlear implant:</li><li>• Option C. History of fall: Although relevant to the medical history, it is not critical specifically before a CT scan unless symptoms suggest complications that a CT scan could exacerbate.</li><li>• Option C. History of fall:</li><li>• Option D. History of hypertension: Important in overall patient assessment but does not directly influence the decision to perform a CT scan as critically as confirming pregnancy status does.</li><li>• Option D. History of hypertension:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inquiring about the Last Menstrual Period (LMP) is essential for any woman of childbearing age before undergoing diagnostic procedures involving radiation, such as a CT scan, to avoid potential harm to an unborn baby.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a marker is expressed on natural killer cell? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CD 68", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CD 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CD 25", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CD 94", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. CD 94", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-115442.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) CD 94</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 356-357</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 356-357</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following phenomenon, Cell in cell appearance is seen? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apoptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Necroptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Entosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Entosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture7_t5T5RZb.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Entosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cell-in-cell appearance is characteristic of entosis , where one cell engulfs and digests another, distinguishing it from other forms of cell death.</li><li>➤ entosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old woman presents to the hospital with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. She was diagnosed with cholecystitis and cholelithiasis and underwent cholecystectomy. The post-operative biopsy reports came back positive for gallbladder carcinoma. What is true about gallbladder carcinoma? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palpable abdominal lump is the earliest sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Earliest sign is jaundice", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clinical presentation of gall stones can sometimes be distinguished from gall bladder cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Median age of survival is 6 months in all cases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Clinical presentation of gall stones can sometimes be distinguished from gall bladder cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Clinical presentation of gall stones can sometimes be distinguished from gall bladder cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Option C is correct because gallstones and gallbladder carcinoma often have distinct clinical presentations, allowing them to be distinguished from each other.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Uracil was found in genetic code. Which vitamin deficiency leads to this condition: (INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vit E", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Folate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Genetic code is related to DNA, but DNA do not contain Uracil. In pyrimidine synthesis, UMP is the first pyrimidine nucleotide to be synthesized and other two pyrimidines thymine and Cytosine are synthesized from it. Uracil to cytosine conversion requires amino group addition provided by glutamine. Uracil is converted to thymine by enzyme thymidylate synthase by methylation where methyl group is donated by methyl-THF. So, a deficiency Folate will result in thymine deficiency and may lead to uracil appearing in the DNA in place of thymine.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 333</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Deamination of methylated cytosine will form: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uracil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Guanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thymine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Thymine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture4_8NYw5pQ.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture5_Q7UPaEF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Thymine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thymine is a pyrimidine. The structure of different pyrimidines can be shown as:</li><li>➤ Now, it is clear from the figure below that if methylated cytosine is deaminated it will form thymine as:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 323</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man presents with 15 days of fever and altered sensorium for 1 day. A rapid diagnostic test was done, and Plasmodium falciparum was diagnosed. Which of the following is not a complication? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood glucose &lt;40 mg/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arterial pH &gt;7.2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum creatinine - 5.2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unarousable coma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arterial pH >7.2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arterial pH &gt;7.2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diagnostic criteria for identifying complicated falciparum malaria, based on clinical and laboratory findings:</li><li>➤ Arterial pH : An arterial pH of less than 7.25 is indicative of complicated falciparum malaria. Bicarbonate Levels : A bicarbonate level of less than 15 is also a sign of complicated falciparum malaria. Base Deficit : A base deficit of more than 8 is another indicator of severe disease. Hemoglobin : A hemoglobin level of less than 5, or the presence of hemoglobinuria, are significant markers of severity. Venous Lactate : A venous lactate level of more than 5 further confirms the complexity and severity of the malaria infection. Blood Glucose : A blood glucose level less than 40 mg/dL is a critical indicator of complicated falciparum malaria. Creatinine Levels : A creatinine level exceeding 3 mg/dL points to significant renal impairment associated with severe malaria. Urine Output : A urine output of less than 400 mL per day, despite adequate rehydration with IV fluids, also signifies complicated falciparum malaria.</li><li>➤ Arterial pH : An arterial pH of less than 7.25 is indicative of complicated falciparum malaria.</li><li>➤ Arterial pH</li><li>➤ Bicarbonate Levels : A bicarbonate level of less than 15 is also a sign of complicated falciparum malaria.</li><li>➤ Bicarbonate Levels</li><li>➤ Base Deficit : A base deficit of more than 8 is another indicator of severe disease.</li><li>➤ Base Deficit</li><li>➤ Hemoglobin : A hemoglobin level of less than 5, or the presence of hemoglobinuria, are significant markers of severity.</li><li>➤ Hemoglobin</li><li>➤ Venous Lactate : A venous lactate level of more than 5 further confirms the complexity and severity of the malaria infection.</li><li>➤ Venous Lactate</li><li>➤ Blood Glucose : A blood glucose level less than 40 mg/dL is a critical indicator of complicated falciparum malaria.</li><li>➤ Blood Glucose</li><li>➤ Creatinine Levels : A creatinine level exceeding 3 mg/dL points to significant renal impairment associated with severe malaria.</li><li>➤ Creatinine Levels</li><li>➤ Urine Output : A urine output of less than 400 mL per day, despite adequate rehydration with IV fluids, also signifies complicated falciparum malaria.</li><li>➤ Urine Output</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following anaethesia agents on the basis of their potency. (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nitrous oxide&gt;Halothane&gt;Isoflurane&gt;Methoxyflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methoxyflurane&gt;Halothane&gt;Isoflurane&gt;Nitrous oxide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methoxyflurane&gt;Isoflurane&gt;Halothane&gt;Nitrous oxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methoxyflurane&gt;Nitrous oxide&gt; Halothane&gt;Isoflurane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Methoxyflurane>Halothane>Isoflurane>Nitrous oxide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Methoxyflurane&gt;Halothane&gt;Isoflurane&gt;Nitrous oxide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Potency of Anesthetic Agents:</li><li>• Potency of Anesthetic Agents:</li><li>• The potency of inhaled anesthetic agents is measured by their Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC). The MAC value is inversely proportional to the potency; lower MAC values indicate higher potency.</li><li>• The potency of inhaled anesthetic agents is measured by their Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC). The MAC value is inversely proportional to the potency; lower MAC values indicate higher potency.</li><li>• MAC Values:</li><li>• MAC Values:</li><li>• Methoxyflurane: 0.16 Halothane: 0.75 Isoflurane: 1.4 Nitrous oxide: 104</li><li>• Methoxyflurane: 0.16</li><li>• Halothane: 0.75</li><li>• Isoflurane: 1.4</li><li>• Nitrous oxide: 104</li><li>• Order of Potency (from most potent to least potent):</li><li>• Order of Potency (from most potent to least potent):</li><li>• Methoxyflurane: With the lowest MAC of 0.16, it is the most potent agent. Halothane: With a MAC of 0.75, it is less potent than Methoxyflurane but more potent than Isoflurane and Nitrous oxide. Isoflurane: With a MAC of 1.4, it is less potent than Methoxyflurane and Halothane but more potent than Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide: With the highest MAC of 104, it is the least potent.</li><li>• Methoxyflurane: With the lowest MAC of 0.16, it is the most potent agent.</li><li>• Methoxyflurane:</li><li>• Halothane: With a MAC of 0.75, it is less potent than Methoxyflurane but more potent than Isoflurane and Nitrous oxide.</li><li>• Halothane:</li><li>• Isoflurane: With a MAC of 1.4, it is less potent than Methoxyflurane and Halothane but more potent than Nitrous oxide.</li><li>• Isoflurane:</li><li>• Nitrous oxide: With the highest MAC of 104, it is the least potent.</li><li>• Nitrous oxide:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Nitrous oxide &gt; Halothane &gt; Isoflurane &gt; Methoxyflurane: Incorrect, as Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC and is the least potent, while Methoxyflurane is the most potent.</li><li>• Option A. Nitrous oxide &gt; Halothane &gt; Isoflurane &gt; Methoxyflurane:</li><li>• Option C. Methoxyflurane &gt; Isoflurane &gt; Halothane &gt; Nitrous oxide: Incorrect, as Halothane is more potent than Isoflurane.</li><li>• Option C. Methoxyflurane &gt; Isoflurane &gt; Halothane &gt; Nitrous oxide:</li><li>• Option D. Methoxyflurane &gt; Nitrous oxide &gt; Halothane &gt; Isoflurane: Incorrect, as Nitrous oxide is the least potent and should be at the end of the sequence.</li><li>• Option D. Methoxyflurane &gt; Nitrous oxide &gt; Halothane &gt; Isoflurane:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The potency of inhaled anesthetic agents is inversely proportional to their MAC values. Methoxyflurane, with the lowest MAC, is the most potent, while Nitrous oxide, with the highest MAC, is the least potent. The correct order of potency is Methoxyflurane &gt; Halothane &gt; Isoflurane &gt; Nitrous oxide.</li><li>➤ The potency of inhaled anesthetic agents is inversely proportional to their MAC values. Methoxyflurane, with the lowest MAC, is the most potent, while Nitrous oxide, with the highest MAC, is the least potent. The correct order of potency is Methoxyflurane &gt; Halothane &gt; Isoflurane &gt; Nitrous oxide.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient, who is a known case of HIV with a CD4 count of 200 cells/cu.mm, presents with 5 days of cough and high-grade fever without chills and rigors. There is no history of diarrhea, vomiting, or nuchal rigidity. Chest x-ray is normal. What treatment will you give? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid + Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Co-trimoxazole + steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Co-trimoxazole only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antitubercular treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Co-trimoxazole only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Co-trimoxazole only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200 cells/cu.mm and presenting with cough and fever but a normal chest x-ray, co-trimoxazole is the first-line treatment for suspected PCP</li><li>➤ Note - For a patient with a CD4 count of 200 and lower respiratory tract symptoms:</li><li>➤ PCP Pneumonia : Suspect if the chest X-ray is normal or negative. Bacterial Pneumonia : Suspect if the chest X-ray shows consolidation or examination reveals bronchial breath sounds.</li><li>➤ PCP Pneumonia : Suspect if the chest X-ray is normal or negative.</li><li>➤ PCP Pneumonia</li><li>➤ Bacterial Pneumonia : Suspect if the chest X-ray shows consolidation or examination reveals bronchial breath sounds.</li><li>➤ Bacterial Pneumonia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thrombolysis can be considered in all of these conditions, except: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI showing &lt; 1/3rd of MCA territorial infarct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood pressure of &gt; 185/110 mmHg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ischemia &lt; 2 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Onset of symptoms &lt; 4 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blood pressure of > 185/110 mmHg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thrombolysis is contraindicated in patients with blood pressure higher than 185/110 mmHg at the time of treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which biopsy technique is used to diagnose Marjolin ulcer? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wedge biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Excision biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Core needle biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "USG-guided fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wedge biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wedge biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A wedge biopsy is the preferred and commonly used biopsy technique to diagnose Marjolin ulcers because it allows for the examination of tissue from the ulceration site.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following transporters with the molecule they carry. ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1b, 2a, 3c, 4d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1c, 2d, 3a, 4b", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1a , 2c, 3b, 4d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1c, 2a, 3d, 4b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1c, 2d, 3a, 4b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/212.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/211.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct match can be given as:</li><li>➤ The correct match can be given as:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 630-631</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following agents can be used as a disinfectant but not a sanitizer? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrogen peroxide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Penicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methyl paraben", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bleaching powder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydrogen peroxide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydrogen peroxide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Hydrogen peroxide is used as a disinfectant because it effectively destroys a wide range of pathogenic organisms. It is not typically used as a sanitizer, which is a process aimed at reducing, rather than completely eliminating, pathogenic organisms on surfaces.</li><li>➤ Hydrogen peroxide</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient presented with left-sided hemiparesis. Damage to which part of the internal capsule leads to this presentation? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retrolentiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sublentiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior limb", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Posterior limb", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Posterior limb</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Damage to the posterior limb of the internal capsule can lead to contralateral hemiparesis due to the involvement of motor and sensory pathways.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following cost-effective investigations are routinely recommended in the screening of antenatal mothers except? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echocardiography for cardiac disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urine analysis for bacteriuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood sugar levels for GDM", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VDRL for syphilis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Echocardiography for cardiac disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Echocardiography for cardiac disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Echocardiography for cardiac disease is not part of routine antenatal screening. While it is important for detecting cardiac conditions, echocardiography is typically performed only if there is a known or suspected cardiac disease. Routine screening for all antenatal mothers does not include echocardiography due to its cost and the specific indications required for its use.</li><li>• Routine antenatal screening is designed to identify common conditions that may affect the health of the mother and baby.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Urine analysis for bacteriuriaUrine analysis for bacteriuria: This test is routinely performed to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria, which, if left untreated, can lead to urinary tract infections and increase the risk of preterm labor.</li><li>• Option B. Urine analysis for bacteriuriaUrine analysis for bacteriuria:</li><li>• Option C. Blood sugar levels for GDM Blood sugar levels for GDM (Gestational Diabetes Mellitus): Screening for GDM is essential to identify women who develop diabetes during pregnancy, which can affect both maternal and fetal health.</li><li>• Option C. Blood sugar levels for GDM Blood sugar levels for GDM (Gestational Diabetes Mellitus):</li><li>• Option D. VDRL for syphilis: The VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test is a screening tool for syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection that can have serious consequences for both the mother and the baby if left untreated.</li><li>• Option D. VDRL for syphilis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Routine antenatal screening does not include echocardiography for cardiac disease unless there is a known or suspected condition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 110, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 110, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The absence of loud S1 in mitral stenosis would indicate all of the following, except: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcified valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "First degree heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mild mitral stenosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mild mitral stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In mitral stenosis, a loud S1 is typically seen in the early stages with mobile valves, while a soft S1 can indicate valve calcification, aortic regurgitation, or first degree heart block. Mild mitral stenosis without calcification usually results in a loud S1</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the below agents cause hypertension when consumed?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Organophosphorus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cocaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cocaine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cocaine is a sympathomimetic drug and has stimulant effects on CNS and cardiovascular system as mentioned below:</li><li>➤ Cocaine is a sympathomimetic drug and has stimulant effects on CNS and cardiovascular system as mentioned below:</li><li>➤ Agitation and Restlessness Tachycardia / Palpitations Hypertension Dilated Pupils Profuse Sweating Hyperthermia Restlessness Paranoia and hallucinations. Serious Cardiovascular Effects: Arrhythmias, Myocardial Infarction Respiratory Distress: Rapid, shallow breathing and respiratory distress. Seizures, Confusion and Altered Mental Status</li><li>➤ Agitation and Restlessness</li><li>➤ Tachycardia / Palpitations</li><li>➤ Hypertension</li><li>➤ Dilated Pupils</li><li>➤ Profuse Sweating</li><li>➤ Hyperthermia</li><li>➤ Restlessness</li><li>➤ Paranoia and hallucinations.</li><li>➤ Serious Cardiovascular Effects: Arrhythmias, Myocardial Infarction</li><li>➤ Respiratory Distress: Rapid, shallow breathing and respiratory distress.</li><li>➤ Seizures, Confusion and Altered Mental Status</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presented with history of ingestion of an unknown substance. He had increased sweating, lacrimation, diarrhea, muscle weakness, and tachycardia. What is the drug of choice for treatment? ( INICET May 2022 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium gluconate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pralidoxime", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obidoxime", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Atropine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-130048.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-130057.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-130105.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Atropine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of organophosphate poisoning presenting with symptoms like increased sweating, lacrimation, diarrhea, muscle weakness, and tachycardia, Atropine is the primary drug of choice for treatment. It acts by competitively inhibiting the muscarinic effects of acetylcholine.</li><li>➤ Atropine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who used to workout regularly at the gym, gradually developed pain in the hip which is aggravated while squatting. He gives history of regular steroid and creatine use over last six months. There is flattening of femoral head and subchondral cysts were seen on X-ray. What is the likely diagnosis?(INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AVN of hip", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "TB of hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fracture neck of femur", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteomalacia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. AVN of hip", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-08-134949.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/17_UDa2gD9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/20.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-08-151004.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/24.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/26.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/28.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-08-151752.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/30.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) AVN of hip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Regular steroid is the major risk factor for development of avascular necrosis of the hip. Flattening of femoral head on radiograph is also seen in the avascular necrosis of hip.</li><li>➤ Regular steroid is the major risk factor for development of avascular necrosis of the hip.</li><li>➤ Flattening of femoral head on radiograph is also seen in the avascular necrosis of hip.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the casualty following blunt trauma to the chest. A chest X-ray was done. Among the following radiographs, in which case would you further evaluate the patient before putting a chest tube? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,3,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2,3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3,4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,3,4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3,4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-145.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3,4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pneumothorax Hemothorax Consolidation Diaphragmatic hernia</li><li>• Pneumothorax</li><li>• Hemothorax</li><li>• Consolidation</li><li>• Diaphragmatic hernia</li><li>• Image 3: Consolidation would be managed symptomatically and chest tube shouldn’t be inserted.</li><li>• Image 3:</li><li>• Image 4: Diaphragmatic hernia: A direct blow to the diaphragm can cause it to rupture, allowing abdominal contents to herniate into the chest. In the case of stomach herniation into the chest, a nasogastric tube followed by chest radiography can be helpful. Video-assisted thoracoscopy or laparoscopy is the most accurate investigation.</li><li>• Image 4:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Radiographs 1-2 show hemothorax and pneumothorax. Intercostal chest drains should be inserted into the fifth intercostal space. The safe landmark is a triangle anterior to the midaxillary line above the nipple, below, and lateral to the pectoralis major muscle.</li><li>• Radiographs 1-2</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of blunt chest trauma, careful evaluation of chest radiographs is crucial. Consolidations (Image 3) and diaphragmatic hernias (Image 4) require specific management strategies distinct from those of pneumothorax or hemothorax, where immediate chest tube placement is standard.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. Smith has been referred to the plastic surgery department for the reconstruction of a large wound on her thigh. After a thorough examination, the surgeon decides to perform a skin graft. While discussing the procedure with Mrs. Smith, the surgeon explains the difference between split skin and full-thickness skin grafts. Identify the true statement regarding split thickness and full-thickness skin grafts:(INICET MAY 2022) Primary contracture is more in split skin grafts Secondary contracture is more in split skin grafts Primary contracture is more in full-thickness grafts Secondary contracture is more in full-thickness grafts", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an example of Mollicutes? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ureaplasma urealyticum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orientia tsutsugamushi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chlamydophila pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlamydia trachomatis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ureaplasma urealyticum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Mollicutes is a class of bacteria distinguished by the absence of a cell wall. The most well-known genera in this class are Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma , with Ureaplasma urealyticum being a notable example that causes non-gonococcal urethritis.</li><li>➤ Mollicutes</li><li>➤ Mycoplasma</li><li>➤ Ureaplasma</li><li>➤ Ureaplasma urealyticum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple already has 3 children and has been trying for another one for the last 1 year. However, the husband is diagnosed with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Which of the following is/are true? (INICET MAY 2022) Low FSH, low LH High FSH, low LH Oligospermia Low prolactin Low testosterone", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3 and 5", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 3 and 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 3 and 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, both FSH and LH levels are low, testosterone levels are low, and oligospermia is often present.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 232, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 232, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cerclage procedures would be done in a nonpregnant female? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lash and Lash cerclage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Benson and Durfee cerclage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wurms cerclage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laparoscopic cerclage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lash and Lash cerclage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-238_O5Ci2Bw.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-239.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-240.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-241.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lash and Lash cerclage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lash and Lash procedure is the only cerclage procedure that is done in the non-pregnant state</li><li>• Lash and Lash procedure is the only cerclage procedure that is done in the non-pregnant state</li><li>• Types of Cerclage Procedures (Other Options)</li><li>• Types of Cerclage Procedures (Other Options)</li><li>• Transvaginal Transabdominal</li><li>• Transvaginal</li><li>• Transabdominal</li><li>• 1. Transvaginal</li><li>• McDonald suture Purse string Below the level of the internal os Placed during pregnancy (12-14 weeks Sutures removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• McDonald suture Purse string Below the level of the internal os Placed during pregnancy (12-14 weeks Sutures removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Purse string Below the level of the internal os Placed during pregnancy (12-14 weeks Sutures removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Purse string</li><li>• Below the level of the internal os</li><li>• Placed during pregnancy (12-14 weeks</li><li>• Sutures removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Shirodkar cerclage Placed during pregnancy (!2-14 weeks) Bladder pushed up Closer to internal os More physiological than McDonald Usually done if previous failed McDonald A tape is inserted circumferentially near the os Removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Shirodkar cerclage Placed during pregnancy (!2-14 weeks) Bladder pushed up Closer to internal os More physiological than McDonald Usually done if previous failed McDonald A tape is inserted circumferentially near the os Removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Placed during pregnancy (!2-14 weeks) Bladder pushed up Closer to internal os More physiological than McDonald Usually done if previous failed McDonald A tape is inserted circumferentially near the os Removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Placed during pregnancy (!2-14 weeks)</li><li>• Bladder pushed up</li><li>• Closer to internal os</li><li>• More physiological than McDonald</li><li>• Usually done if previous failed McDonald</li><li>• A tape is inserted circumferentially near the os</li><li>• Removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Wurm’s Cerclage 2 sutures taken as shown in figure Placed during pregnancy at 12-14 weeks Removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Wurm’s Cerclage 2 sutures taken as shown in figure Placed during pregnancy at 12-14 weeks Removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• 2 sutures taken as shown in figure Placed during pregnancy at 12-14 weeks Removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• 2 sutures taken as shown in figure</li><li>• Placed during pregnancy at 12-14 weeks</li><li>• Removed at 37 weeks</li><li>• Lash Cerclage Done PRE-PREGNANCY A defect in cervix is removed and cervix reconstructed Deliver is ALWAYS by LSCS Sutures not removed</li><li>• Lash Cerclage Done PRE-PREGNANCY A defect in cervix is removed and cervix reconstructed Deliver is ALWAYS by LSCS Sutures not removed</li><li>• Done PRE-PREGNANCY A defect in cervix is removed and cervix reconstructed Deliver is ALWAYS by LSCS Sutures not removed</li><li>• Done PRE-PREGNANCY</li><li>• A defect in cervix is removed and cervix reconstructed</li><li>• Deliver is ALWAYS by LSCS</li><li>• Sutures not removed</li><li>• 2. Transabdominal:</li><li>• Could be done by laparotomy (1 st introduced by Benson and Durfee) OR by Laparoscopy Preferably done pre-pregnancy but can also be done during pregnancy Done in cases of failed transvaginal cerclage procedures. Most physiological as it is highest (at the level of the cervix)</li><li>• Could be done by laparotomy (1 st introduced by Benson and Durfee) OR by Laparoscopy</li><li>• Preferably done pre-pregnancy but can also be done during pregnancy</li><li>• Done in cases of failed transvaginal cerclage procedures.</li><li>• Most physiological as it is highest (at the level of the cervix)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Lash and Lash cerclage is the only cerclage procedure done in a nonpregnant female.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Tongue fasciculations are seen in: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Guillain-Barre syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spinal muscular atrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Spinal muscular atrophy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tongue fasciculations are a clinical sign associated with spinal muscular atrophy due to the involvement of lower motor neurons</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following findings are seen in a high-resolution CT scan of fungal pneumonia?(INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kerley lines", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hilar lymph nodes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cavitatory lesions with surrounding ground glass opacities", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cavitatory lesions with surrounding ground glass opacities", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-148.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cavitatory lesions with surrounding ground glass opacities</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Invasive aspergillosis</li><li>• HALO SIGN – Multiple nodules with central solid part and haziness around the lesion Seen in immunocompromised individuals with febrile neutropenia DOC – voriconazole</li><li>• HALO SIGN – Multiple nodules with central solid part and haziness around the lesion</li><li>• Seen in immunocompromised individuals with febrile neutropenia</li><li>• DOC – voriconazole</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Kerley lines: Commonly associated with interstitial edema and pulmonary congestion, not specifically fungal pneumonia.</li><li>• Option A. Kerley lines: Commonly</li><li>• Option B. Hilar lymph nodes: While enlargement can be seen in various conditions, it is not a specific finding for fungal pneumonia.</li><li>• Option B. Hilar lymph nodes:</li><li>• Option C. Pleural effusion: Although it may be present in various lung infections and conditions, it is not characteristic of fungal infections like invasive aspergillosis.</li><li>• Option C. Pleural effusion:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cavitatory lesions with surrounding ground glass opacities on a high-resolution CT scan are indicative of fungal infections like invasive aspergillosis, especially in immunocompromised patients. Recognition of these signs is crucial for the timely initiation of appropriate antifungal therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the hospital with complaints of abdominal pain. A stool examination was done, and it showed the presence of the organism shown in image A. The body has segments broader than the length. Which of the eggs shown in column B corresponds to this organism? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-170006.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-170058.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/2%20(2).png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the listed causes of alopecia, which one(s) result in non-scarring alopecia? ( INICET May 2022) Alopecia areata Telogen effluvium Androgenic alopecia Frontal fibrosing alopecia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/screenshot-2023-11-21-190130.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/screenshot-2023-11-21-190332.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/33.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-145444.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-145750.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational</li><li>➤ Objective</li><li>➤ Non-scarring alopecia’s do not destroy the hair follicle and allow for the possibility of hair regrowth. Scarring alopecia’s involve destruction and replacement of the hair follicle with scar tissue, leading to permanent hair loss.</li><li>➤ Non-scarring alopecia’s do not destroy the hair follicle and allow for the possibility of hair regrowth.</li><li>➤ Non-scarring alopecia’s</li><li>➤ Scarring alopecia’s involve destruction and replacement of the hair follicle with scar tissue, leading to permanent hair loss.</li><li>➤ Scarring alopecia’s</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 89 page no 89.25, 28, 33</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 89 page no 89.25, 28, 33</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page 1509</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page 1509</li><li>➤ Online resource: https://www.bmj.com/content/347/bmj.f6112</li><li>➤ Online resource:</li><li>➤ https://www.bmj.com/content/347/bmj.f6112</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correctly matched? Oxygen: Simple Diffusion Glucose: facilitated diffusion and Na-dependent Calcium: Active transport Na: Secondary Active transport", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only b is correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "If a and c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "If a, b and c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, b, c, &amp; d are correct", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. a, b, c, & d are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) a, b, c, &amp; d are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Oxygen: Simple Diffusion: Oxygen is transported by simple passive diffusion based on the concentration gradient. This process does not require any energy input and relies on the natural movement of oxygen molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Oxygen: Simple Diffusion:</li><li>• Option B. Glucose: facilitated diffusion and Na-dependent: Glucose is transported by facilitated diffusion using glucose transporters (GLUTs) and also through Na-dependent transport using sodium-glucose co-transporters (SGLT). GLUTs facilitate glucose transport without energy, while SGLT uses the sodium gradient to transport glucose into cells.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Glucose: facilitated diffusion and Na-dependent:</li><li>• Option C. Calcium: Active transport: Calcium is transported by active transport mechanisms, which require energy. These mechanisms include:</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Calcium: Active transport:</li><li>• Plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase (PMCA), which pumps calcium out of the cell. Sodium-calcium exchanger (NCX), which exchanges intracellular calcium for extracellular sodium. Additionally, calcium can be transported via receptor-mediated mechanisms, such as the IP3 receptor, facilitating calcium transport from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) to the mitochondria.</li><li>• Plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase (PMCA), which pumps calcium out of the cell.</li><li>• Sodium-calcium exchanger (NCX), which exchanges intracellular calcium for extracellular sodium. Additionally, calcium can be transported via receptor-mediated mechanisms, such as the IP3 receptor, facilitating calcium transport from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) to the mitochondria.</li><li>• Option D. Na: Secondary Active transport: Sodium is transported using the Na+-K+ ATPase pump, which is a type of secondary active transport. This pump uses energy from ATP to move sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell, maintaining the necessary gradients for cellular functions.</li><li>• Option D. Na: Secondary Active transport:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Each substance (oxygen, glucose, calcium, and sodium) has specific and correct transport mechanisms: oxygen by simple diffusion, glucose by facilitated and Na-dependent transport, calcium by active transport, and sodium by secondary active transport.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Dinesh Puri 3 rd ed/pg-639</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the skin manifestation seen resulting from drugs used to treat amebic dysentery? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fixed drug eruption", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urticaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maculopapular rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atopic dermatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fixed drug eruption", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture2999.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture3033.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fixed drug eruption</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fixed drug eruption is a skin manifestation commonly associated with the drugs used to treat amoebic dysentery (Metronidazole). While other skin reactions can occur due to various drugs, fixed drug eruptions are characterized by recurrent lesions at the same site upon re-exposure to a particular drug.</li><li>➤ Fixed drug eruption is a skin manifestation commonly associated with the drugs used to treat amoebic dysentery (Metronidazole).</li><li>➤ Fixed drug eruption</li><li>➤ While other skin reactions can occur due to various drugs, fixed drug eruptions are characterized by recurrent lesions at the same site upon re-exposure to a particular drug.</li><li>➤ recurrent</li><li>➤ same</li><li>➤ site</li><li>➤ re-exposure</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 118 page no 118.11-12</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 118 page no 118.11-12</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following triad is seen after an acute attack of angle-closure glaucoma? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vogt's triad", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Virchow triad", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hutchinson's triad", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gaucher triad", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vogt's triad", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vogt's triad</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vogt's triad in a patient with a history of acute primary angle-closure glaucoma can aid in rapid diagnosis and management of this potentially vision-threatening condition. It underscores the importance of timely intervention to preserve ocular health and prevent irreversible complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following conditions do you see punched-out lesions of the retina? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior staphyloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fundal coloboma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toxoplasmosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Toxoplasmosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appearance of punched-out lesions in the retina is crucial for diagnosing toxoplasmosis. This understanding can aid in distinguishing toxoplasmosis from other infectious or congenital conditions that affect the retina, guiding appropriate diagnostic and therapeutic interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Researcher was studying the effect of hypoxia, hypercapnia and change in pH on ventilation, when he simulated the condition of hypoxia and hypercapnia with pH of 7.35 and plotted the graph, which one of the following is the appropriate representation of the given condition? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/29/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901267.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/1-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Curve B represents the condition of simultaneous hypoxia and hypercapnia with normal pH, showing a steeper slope in the relationship between PCO 2 and ventilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly woman underwent surgical resection of her bowel, and after a few months, she presents with easy fatiguability and tiredness. Blood smear evaluation shows macrocytic anemia. Which of the following bowel resections is least likely to cause this condition? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jejunum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ileum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stomach", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Duodenum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Duodenum</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a cause of central cyanosis? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methemoglobinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High altitude", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypothermia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypothermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypothermia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypothermia causes only peripheral cyanosis due to sluggish blood flow, not central cyanosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following conditions are associated with Neurosecretory bodies except: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medullary thyroid carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pituitary adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paraganglioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenal cortical tumor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Adrenal cortical tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Adrenal cortical tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neurosecretory bodies are associated with neuroendocrine tumors, but not with adrenal cortical tumors, which originate from the adrenal cortex and are involved in steroid hormone production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given diagram shows the steps in bacterial cell wall formation. Identify the site of action of beta-lactam antibiotics. (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/5-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta-lactam antibiotics act at step 4 in the bacterial cell wall synthesis process by inhibiting transpeptidase enzymes, which are essential for cross-linking peptidoglycan chains, thereby weakening the bacterial cell wall and causing cell lysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presented with lagophthalmos, orbicularis oculi palsy, and loss of corneal sensation. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acanthamoeba castellanii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycobacterium leprae", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Onchocerca volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlamydia A to C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mycobacterium leprae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mycobacterium leprae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lagophthalmos, orbicularis oculi palsy, and loss of corneal sensation—are indicative of neurogenic involvement, which is characteristic of leprosy, caused by Mycobacterium leprae .</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cells are present in the molecular layer of the cerebellum? (INICET MAY 2022) 1. Stellate cells 2. Basket cells 3. Purkinje cells 4. Granular cells", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The molecular layer of the cerebellum primarily contains stellate and basket cells. This layer is one of three distinct layers of the cerebellar cortex and is crucial for integrating sensory and motor information to refine motor coordination and balance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In neonatal resuscitation, which of the following is the most effective indicator of successful ventilatory effort? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colour change", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rise in heart rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Air entry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chest rise", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rise in heart rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/images-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rise in heart rate.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In neonatal resuscitation, rise in heart rate is the most effective indicator of successful ventilatory effort.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Modified biophysical profile includes? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NST and fetal tone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NST and AFI", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "NST and breathing movements", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NST and gross fetal movements", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. NST and AFI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) NST and AFI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Modified Biophysical Profile (BPP) includes the Non-Stress Test (NST) and the Amniotic Fluid Index (AFI).</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 980, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 980, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The extent of drug absorption in plasma concentration vs time graph is represented by: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tmax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Area under the curve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cmax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "t1/2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Area under the curve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Area under the curve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Area Under the Curve (AUC) in a plasma concentration vs. time graph represents the extent of drug absorption, reflecting the total drug exposure over time and the overall bioavailability of the drug.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old boy presents to the Pediatrics OPD with the complaints of several episodes of melena. On physical examination, there was eczematous rash over the skin with multiple red pin-point hemorrhagic spots. His Hemogram reveals low platelet count and normal RBC and WBC counts. What is the next best investigation? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "WASP gene mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-platelet antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bone marrow biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electron microscopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. WASP gene mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) WASP gene mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome should be suspected in a pediatric patient with thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent bleeding episodes, and the next best step is to investigate for a WASP gene mutation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 439-440</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 439-440</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is wrong regarding primary and secondary immune response? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-140745.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-201.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-141229.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Antigen binding to MHC class I activates which of the following cells? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytotoxic T cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NK cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Helper cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cytotoxic T cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/28/screenshot-2024-06-28-135737.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cytotoxic T cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What sign on day 2 would indicate a need for surgery in a patient who was conservatively managed in the ICU after grade 3 splenic trauma? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemoglobin falls from 11g% to 10g%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extraperitoneal bladder rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distended gallbladder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pneumoperitoneum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/20/screenshot-2024-07-20-123251.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pneumoperitoneum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumoperitoneum is the most concerning sign in a patient with grade 3 splenic trauma and would indicate a need for surgery, as it suggests a perforation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Affinity maturation of antibodies is because of? ( (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Somatic hypermutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Differential mRNA processing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CD40", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gene rearrangements", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Somatic hypermutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Somatic hypermutation</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Seminal vesicles and vas deferens would be bilaterally absent congenitally in which of the following conditions? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klinefelter syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kallmann syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kartagener syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cystic fibrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cystic fibrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystic fibrosis is associated with congenital bilateral absence of the seminal vesicles and vas deferens, leading to obstructive azoospermia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 229, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 229, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young boy with a history of multiple blood transfusions presents with bone pain for the past 6 months. A peripheral smear showed sickle-shaped RBCs. Which of the following drugs are not used in the treatment of his condition? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bebtelovimab", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Voxelotor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydroxyurea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L-glutamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bebtelovimab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Bebtelovimab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bebtelovimab is not used in the treatment of sickle cell anemia; it is a monoclonal antibody used for COVID-19 treatment. In contrast, Voxelotor, Hydroxyurea, and L-glutamine are used in managing sickle cell anemia by improving hemoglobin function and reducing oxidative stress in red blood cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mark incorrect option: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nerve injury is more common in anterior dislocation of hip.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vascular injury is more common in anterior hip dislocation.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior dislocation of hip is more common than anterior.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In posterior hip dislocation, attitude of limb is adduction, flexion and internal rotation.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nerve injury is more common in anterior dislocation of hip.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nerve injury more common in anterior dislocation of hip.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of inhibitor in the graph? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Competitive inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non-competitive inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Allosteric inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uncompetitive inhibitor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Competitive inhibitor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture6_QnQWj1r.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture7_Mbd1qXc.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Competitive inhibitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is a Lineweaver-Burk plot of enzyme kinetics, with 1/v (inverse of velocity) on the Y-axis and 1/[S] (inverse of substrate concentration) on the X-axis. The red line represents the inhibitor, and the blue line represents the normal substrate.</li><li>• In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, the Km (Michaelis constant) increases while the Vmax (maximum velocity) remains unchanged. This is evident in the graph where the slope increases, indicating an increased Km, but the Y-intercept, representing 1/Vmax, stays the same.</li><li>• For non-competitive inhibition, Vmax decreases while Km remains unchanged. This would be shown by an increase in the Y-intercept, which is not the case here.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Non-competitive inhibitor: In non-competitive inhibition, the Vmax decreases while the Km remains unchanged. This would be reflected in the graph by an increased Y-intercept (1/Vmax) while the slope remains the same, which is not observed here.</li><li>• Option B. Non-competitive inhibitor:</li><li>• Option C. Allosteric inhibitor: Allosteric inhibitors bind to a site other than the active site and can either increase or decrease enzyme activity, affecting both Km and Vmax. The specific effects depend on the nature of the allosteric inhibition, which is not represented by the given Lineweaver-Burk plot.</li><li>• Option C. Allosteric inhibitor:</li><li>• Option D. Uncompetitive inhibitor: Uncompetitive inhibitors bind only to the enzyme-substrate complex, decreasing both Km and Vmax. This would be shown by parallel lines in the Lineweaver-Burk plot, which is not seen in the provided graph.</li><li>• Option D. Uncompetitive inhibitor:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Competitive inhibitors increase the Km without affecting the Vmax, which is shown by an increase in the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk plot without changing the Y-intercept.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 77</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Urinary tract infection in a pregnant lady in her 2nd trimester is best defined as: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Growth of 10 3 coliform in suprapubic sample", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Growth of 10 5 coliform in voided urine sample", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Frequency with dysuria with &gt;3 WBC/HPF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Frequency with dysuria with positive nitrite and leucoesterase dipstick test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Growth of 10 5 coliform in voided urine sample", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Growth of 105coliform in voided urine sample</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A urinary tract infection (UTI) in a pregnant woman is best defined by the growth of 10^5 coliforms per milliliter in a voided urine sample. This threshold is used to differentiate significant bacterial growth from contamination or a non-infectious presence of bacteria.</li><li>• In pregnancy, the standard diagnostic method for UTI is a urine culture. A growth of 10^5 or more coliforms per milliliter in a properly collected voided urine sample is considered diagnostic for UTI.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Growth of 103 coliform in suprapubic sample: Growth of 10^3 coliforms in a suprapubic sample is not a standard criterion for diagnosing UTI. Typically, suprapubic aspiration is used for more precise diagnoses, and lower thresholds may be acceptable due to reduced contamination risk compared to voided samples. However, for voided samples, the threshold is higher.</li><li>• Option A. Growth of 103 coliform in suprapubic sample:</li><li>• Option C. Frequency with dysuria with &gt;3 WBC/HPF: Frequency with dysuria and &gt;3 WBC/HPF indicates inflammation and possible infection but does not define a UTI by itself. The presence of WBCs in urine is a sign of inflammation or infection but is not specific for diagnosis.</li><li>• Option C. Frequency with dysuria with &gt;3 WBC/HPF:</li><li>• Option D. Frequency with dysuria with positive nitrite and leucoesterase dipstick test: Frequency with dysuria and positive nitrite and leucocyte esterase dipstick tests suggest a UTI but are not definitive. These tests are helpful as preliminary screening tools but are not as definitive as a quantitative urine culture.</li><li>• Option D. Frequency with dysuria with positive nitrite and leucoesterase dipstick test:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A urinary tract infection in a pregnant lady in her 2nd trimester is best defined as the growth of 10^5 coliforms in a voided urine sample.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 348, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 348, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vessel A has a length of L and diameter of D and vessel B has 2L and 2D. Considering, the flow is laminar through both the cylinders, the flow through B is how many times as much as the flow through A? (INICETMAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 times", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8 times", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "16 times", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "32 times", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 8 times", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/inicet-physio-may-2022-02.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 8 times</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The flow is directly proportional to the fourth power of the radius (𝑟4 r 4) and inversely proportional to the length (𝐿 L ) of the vessel.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are the diagnostic criteria for preterm labor except? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 contractions in 20 min and 8 contractions in 60 min with changes in cervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical dilatation &gt; 2 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "More than 80 percent effaced cervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervix posterior in position", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cervix posterior in position", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cervix posterior in position</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Preterm labor (PTL) is labor that occurs before the 37th week of gestation. Accurate diagnosis involves evaluating several key criteria:</li><li>• Contractions: At least one regular contraction every 10 minutes, or 4 contractions in 20 minutes, or 8 contractions in 60 minutes, with or without pain. Cervical Changes: Cervical dilation greater than 2 cm and more than 80% effacement are significant indicators of preterm labor.</li><li>• Contractions: At least one regular contraction every 10 minutes, or 4 contractions in 20 minutes, or 8 contractions in 60 minutes, with or without pain.</li><li>• Contractions:</li><li>• Cervical Changes: Cervical dilation greater than 2 cm and more than 80% effacement are significant indicators of preterm labor.</li><li>• Cervical Changes:</li><li>• The incorrect statement is Option D . A cervix that is posterior in position is not a diagnostic criterion for preterm labor. Instead, the cervix's position may be less relevant than its dilation and effacement in the diagnosis of preterm labor.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 4 contractions in 20 min and 8 contractions in 60 min with changes in cervix: Correct. Regular contractions that meet the criteria of 4 in 20 minutes or 8 in 60 minutes, along with changes in the cervix, are used to diagnose preterm labor.</li><li>• Option A. 4 contractions in 20 min and 8 contractions in 60 min with changes in cervix:</li><li>• Option B. Cervical dilatation &gt; 2 cm: Correct. Cervical dilation greater than 2 cm is a diagnostic criterion for preterm labor.</li><li>• Option B. Cervical dilatation &gt; 2 cm:</li><li>• Option C. More than 80 percent effaced cervix: Correct. Cervical effacement greater than 80% is another diagnostic criterion for preterm labor.</li><li>• Option C. More than 80 percent effaced cervix:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cervix being in a posterior position is not a diagnostic criterion for preterm labor. The diagnosis involves assessing contraction patterns and cervical changes such as dilation and effacement.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 366, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 366, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The cell marked in the image below is: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mast cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macrophage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasma cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibroblast", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mast cell", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture8_enr41p3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture9_5MubdbF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mast cell</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man was brought to the emergency room after poisoning with an unknown substance. Muscarinic poisoning was suspected and he was treated for the same. What is the possible presenting feature which led to the diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mydriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diuresis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Muscle fasciculations", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bradycardia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bradycardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Bradycardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bradycardia is a key presenting feature that can lead to the diagnosis of muscarinic poisoning. Muscarinic receptors, particularly M2 receptors in the heart, mediate a decrease in heart rate. Atropine is used to manage muscarinic poisoning by blocking acetylcholine's action on these receptors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is reviewing district data to determine which areas should be prioritized for tuberculosis (TB) interventions. According to the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP), which of the following HIV-TB prevalence rates would categorize a district as high-priority? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt;10%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt;12%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt;15%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;20%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. >10%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-093638.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) &gt;10%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old female patient presents to the hospital with complaints of abdominal pain and discomfort for the past few months. The patient also reported experiencing weight loss and loss of appetite. On evaluation, a mass is palpable in the upper abdomen, and an endoscopy shows an ulcerated lesion in the stomach. A biopsy of the lesion is taken and sent for immunohistochemistry. The biopsy sample is found to be positive for CD117 and negative for LCA, cytokeratin, and S100. Based on these findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GIST", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hodgkin’s lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GIST", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GIST</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GISTs are mesenchymal tumors that typically occur in the gastrointestinal tract. They often express CD117 (c-kit), a marker commonly associated with GIST. The negative staining for LCA (Leukocyte Common Antigen), cytokeratin, and S100 helps rule out other possibilities and supports the diagnosis of GIST.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false regarding post-partum hemorrhage (PPH)? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Start colloids initially, 4 times the blood lost", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours of childbirth", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PPH is loss of 500 ml of blood in vaginal delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Causes include retained placenta and atony", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Start colloids initially, 4 times the blood lost", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/untitled-243.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Start colloids initially, 4 times the blood lost</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Initial management of post-partum hemorrhage should involve intravenous isotonic crystalloids, not colloids.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1894, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1894, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The active metabolite of cyclophosphamide is: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "N - hydroxy cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 - hydroxy cyclophosphamide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 - acetyl cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "N - acetyl cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4 - hydroxy cyclophosphamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 4 - hydroxy cyclophosphamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cyclophosphamide's therapeutic effects are primarily due to its active metabolite, 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide. It is important to manage the side effects of cyclophosphamide, particularly hemorrhagic cystitis, through the use of mesna and adequate hydration. Pulmonary fibrosis and bone marrow suppression are other significant side effects to be monitored during treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following local anaesthetic causes hypertension? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lignocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bupivacaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prilocaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cocaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cocaine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Cocaine is the local anesthetic known to cause hypertension due to its vasoconstrictive effects.</li><li>➤ Cocaine is the local anesthetic known to cause hypertension due to its vasoconstrictive effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statement is correct regarding the given graph? (INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drug 1 represents agonist and drug 2 represents inverse agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Drug 3 represents agonist and drug 4 represents inverse agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Drug 1 represents agonist and drug 4 represents inverse agonist", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drug 2 represents partial agonist and drug 3 represents inverse agonist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Drug 1 represents agonist and drug 4 represents inverse agonist", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug 1 : Shows the highest level of response, indicating it is a full agonist.</li><li>➤ Drug 1</li><li>➤ Drug 2 : Shows a submaximal response, indicating it is a partial agonist.</li><li>➤ Drug 2</li><li>➤ Drug 3 : Shows no change in response, indicating it is an antagonist.</li><li>➤ Drug 3</li><li>➤ Drug 4 : Shows a negative response, indicating it is an inverse agonist.</li><li>➤ Drug 4</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following graphs represents normal response to OGTT? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Graph A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Graph B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Graph C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Graph D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Graph D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_QetTw5P.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Graph D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The normal response to an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) is depicted by Graph D. During an OGTT, a patient ingests a specified amount of glucose (commonly 75 grams), and blood glucose levels are measured at intervals to evaluate how well the body handles glucose. In a normal response:</li><li>• Blood glucose levels rise to a peak within 1 hour after ingestion. Glucose levels then decline and return to baseline by 2 hours. The glucose levels do not exceed the renal threshold at any point during the test.</li><li>• Blood glucose levels rise to a peak within 1 hour after ingestion.</li><li>• Glucose levels then decline and return to baseline by 2 hours.</li><li>• The glucose levels do not exceed the renal threshold at any point during the test.</li><li>• This pattern reflects the body's effective regulation of blood glucose levels and the normal function of insulin.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Graph A: Graph A might depict an abnormal glucose tolerance curve, such as one seen in impaired glucose tolerance or gestational diabetes, where glucose levels remain elevated for a prolonged period or fail to return to baseline.</li><li>• Option A. Graph A:</li><li>• Option B. Graph B : Graph B could show a response with an abnormal peak or delayed return to baseline, indicative of glucose intolerance or a diagnostic criterion for diabetes mellitus.</li><li>• Option B. Graph B</li><li>• Option C. Graph C : Graph C might represent an exaggerated glucose peak or prolonged elevated glucose levels, suggesting a pathological glucose tolerance response consistent with diabetes.</li><li>• Option C. Graph C</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A normal OGTT response features a peak in blood glucose levels within 1 hour, followed by a return to baseline levels within 2 hours, without exceeding the renal threshold.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/301045468_VARIANTS_OF_ORAL_GLUCOSE_TOLERANCE_TEST_OGTT_CURVE_IN_GESTATIONAL_DIABETES_MELLITUS_GDM</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.researchgate.net/publication/301045468_VARIANTS_OF_ORAL_GLUCOSE_TOLERANCE_TEST_OGTT_CURVE_IN_GESTATIONAL_DIABETES_MELLITUS_GDM</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fingerprint develops in how many weeks of intrauterine life? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12-16", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "18-22", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "22-28", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "32-36", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 12-16", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 12-16</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fingerprints start developing between 12-16 weeks of intrauterine life and are completed by 24 weeks, providing a unique identification for the individual that remains unchanged throughout their life.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of Brown-Séquard syndrome? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complete transection of spinal cord", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ipsilateral loss of vibration &amp; touch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contralateral loss of pain &amp; temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ipsilateral loss of proprioception", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Complete transection of spinal cord", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Complete transection of spinal cord</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brown-Séquard syndrome is characterized by hemisection of the spinal cord, leading to ipsilateral loss of vibration, touch, and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature. Complete transection of the spinal cord is not a feature of this syndrome</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a community health education session, an MBBS student is discussing the prevention of Typhoid Fever. Which of the following statements best captures the primary measures for preventing the transmission of Typhoid in the community? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "For the prevention of typhoid most important step is immunization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proper disposal of feces, safe water supply, and personal hygiene is more important than immunization", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Resistance to drugs in typhoid is less severe than that of TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Person to person transmission is present in 10% of cases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Proper disposal of feces, safe water supply, and personal hygiene is more important than immunization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Proper disposal of feces, safe water supply, personal hygiene is more important than immunization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary measures for preventing the transmission of Typhoid Fever in the community include proper disposal of feces, a safe water supply, and personal hygiene. These measures are more important than immunization for controlling the spread of the disease.</li><li>➤ The primary measures for preventing the transmission of Typhoid Fever in the community include proper disposal of feces, a safe water supply, and personal hygiene.</li><li>➤ These measures are more important than immunization for controlling the spread of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old female patient weighing 60 kg is on mechanical ventilation for ARDS secondary to urosepsis. The respiratory parameters are as follows: tidal volume- 360 mL; frequency- 30 breaths/min; PEEP- 5 cm of H2O; and FiO2- 90%. The arterial blood gas findings are as follows: paO2- 50 mmHg; paCO2- 38 mmHg and pH- 7.38. What is the next step? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reduce FiO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase tidal volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase respiratory rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase PEEP", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increase PEEP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increase PEEP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In ARDS management, if the patient remains hypoxemic despite a high FiO2, the next step is to increase the PEEP to improve oxygenation while maintaining lung-protective ventilation strategies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man is brought to the hospital with high-grade fever and altered consciousness. On examination, the patient had neck rigidity and pain when bending the neck. A lumbar puncture was performed and it showed a WBC count of 1500 cells/ L, majority being neutrophils, elevated pressure with protein of 120 mg/dL, and a CSF glucose level of 70 mg dL &amp; blood glucose level - 300 mg dL). How will you manage the index case? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Piperacillin + tazobactam", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amphotericin + flucytosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vancomycin + ceftriaxone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antitubercular therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vancomycin + ceftriaxone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vancomycin + ceftriaxone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vancomycin combined with a third-generation cephalosporin like ceftriaxone is the recommended initial treatment for suspected bacterial meningitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A clinician is attending to several patients with different conditions in a hospital setting. Which of the following diseases necessitates placing the patient in a separate isolation room due to its airborne transmission risk? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nipah", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aseptic meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Measles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles necessitates isolation in an airborne infection isolation room due to its high potential for airborne transmission, making it critical to prevent its spread in healthcare settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents to the hospital with palpitations. Her vitals are stable, and the ECG shows the following. Which of the following is used as first-line management to treat the condition? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DC Cardioversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verapamil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Adenosine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/07/screenshot-2024-09-07-154211.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Adenosine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For stable, regular narrow complex tachycardia, adenosine is the first-line pharmacological treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are the part of the innate immunity except: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha defensins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B lymphocytes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gamma Delta T lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lectin pathway", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B lymphocytes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-121910.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-122406.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B lymphocytes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following viruses exhibits genetic re-assortment similar to that of influenza virus? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-74.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-75.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-72.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-76.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Rotaviruses have a segmented RNA genome that allows them to undergo genetic reassortment similar to influenza viruses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the plant given in the image below? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Datura alba", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Argemone Mexicana", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abrus precatorius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erthyroxylum coca", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Argemone Mexicana", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/untitled-629.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-125800.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-125828.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-125901.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Argemone Mexicana</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The plant Argemone mexicana, identifiable by its yellow flowers and spiny leaves, is known for its toxic oil extract which can cause Epidemic dropsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Recommended HPV vaccination schedule for 9- to 14-year-olds according to WHO SAGE guidelines is: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 or 2 doses", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 doses", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 doses", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 or 2 doses", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1 or 2 doses</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The WHO SAGE guidelines recommend 1 or 2 doses of HPV vaccine for 9- to 14-year-olds.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old female patient presents with complaint of sudden diminishing vision. On examination, relative afferent pupillary defect is noted in the right eye and the left eye is normal. Which of the following investigations would you do next? ( INICET May 2022) MRI brain and orbit Myelin oligodendrocyte oligoprotein (MOG) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO) antibodies Blood sugar Thyroid profile", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of sudden visual loss with RAPD, it is crucial to perform a thorough diagnostic evaluation to determine the underlying cause. MRI of the brain and orbits, along with specific antibody tests for MOG and NMO, provide critical information for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of optic neuritis and related conditions. Monitoring blood sugar levels is also essential, especially in the context of potential steroid therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A physician is preparing to administer post-exposure prophylaxis for a patient who has been bitten by a potentially rabid animal. Which of the following statements about the administration of rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) is INCORRECT? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is exclusively given in the deltoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "The dose is 20 IU/kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Not given after 7 days of the 1st dose of the vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "If human RIG is unavailable, equine is preferred", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is exclusively given in the deltoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is exclusively given in the deltoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) should be infiltrated around the wound site and any remaining dose given intramuscularly, preferably in the deltoid, but it is not exclusively given in the deltoid.</li><li>➤ Rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) should be infiltrated around the wound site and any remaining dose given intramuscularly, preferably in the deltoid, but it is not exclusively given in the deltoid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the malignancies with the responsible genes: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-131400.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-130635.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-131818.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pleomorphic adenoma : This benign salivary gland tumor is associated with the overexpression of the Plag-1 proto-oncogene. Plag-1 plays a significant role in the tumorigenesis of pleomorphic adenoma, making option d the correct match. Burkitt's lymphoma : This aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma is most commonly associated with the translocation of the C-myc gene, particularly t(8;14) or t(8;22). This translocation leads to the overexpression of the C-myc oncogene, driving the proliferation of lymphoid cells, making option c the correct match. Neuroblastoma : Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood and is associated with amplification of the N-myc gene. N-myc plays a critical role in the aggressive behavior of neuroblastoma, making option b the correct match. Retinoblastoma : Retinoblastoma, the most common primary intraocular malignancy in children, is associated with mutations in the Rb gene. The Rb gene is a tumor suppressor that regulates cell cycle progression, and its inactivation leads to uncontrolled cell division, making option a the correct match.</li><li>• Pleomorphic adenoma : This benign salivary gland tumor is associated with the overexpression of the Plag-1 proto-oncogene. Plag-1 plays a significant role in the tumorigenesis of pleomorphic adenoma, making option d the correct match.</li><li>• Pleomorphic adenoma</li><li>• Plag-1</li><li>• d</li><li>• Burkitt's lymphoma : This aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma is most commonly associated with the translocation of the C-myc gene, particularly t(8;14) or t(8;22). This translocation leads to the overexpression of the C-myc oncogene, driving the proliferation of lymphoid cells, making option c the correct match.</li><li>• Burkitt's lymphoma</li><li>• C-myc</li><li>• c</li><li>• Neuroblastoma : Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood and is associated with amplification of the N-myc gene. N-myc plays a critical role in the aggressive behavior of neuroblastoma, making option b the correct match.</li><li>• Neuroblastoma</li><li>• N-myc</li><li>• b</li><li>• Retinoblastoma : Retinoblastoma, the most common primary intraocular malignancy in children, is associated with mutations in the Rb gene. The Rb gene is a tumor suppressor that regulates cell cycle progression, and its inactivation leads to uncontrolled cell division, making option a the correct match.</li><li>• Retinoblastoma</li><li>• Rb</li><li>• a</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about lupus nephritis in pregnancy? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immunosuppression can be continued during pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pregnancy to be planned once the disease has been quiescent for at least 6 months and there is no evidence of renal dysfunction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High dose corticosteroids for lupus flare in pregnancy is safe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ecospirin, methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids, azathioprine are safe in pregnancy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ecospirin, methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids, azathioprine are safe in pregnancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ecospirin, methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids, azathioprine are safe in pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SLE is a chronic autoimmune disorder involving the multisystem. It affects young women of childbearing age. The renal involvement of the disease can manifest in the form of active lupus nephritis or flare-ups during pregnancy. It can lead to preterm births, preeclampsia, and pregnancy loss while the infant can suffer from neonatal lupus and heart block. Management includes Preconceptionally counseling: Conception during a period of quiescence for at least 6 months determines a successful outcome. Stable remission of renal disease for at least 6 months before conception is recommended. Corticosteroids are useful during episodes of lupus flare and can be used safely in pregnancy. Immunosuppressants such as azathioprine can be continued during pregnancy. It may be used in case of severe SLE Hydroxychloroquine is found to be the best for maintenance and is safe in pregnancy. It can prevent the need for prolonged corticosteroid therapy. Methotrexate and cyclophosphamide are teratogenic and hence they are not safe during pregnancy.</li><li>• SLE is a chronic autoimmune disorder involving the multisystem. It affects young women of childbearing age. The renal involvement of the disease can manifest in the form of active lupus nephritis or flare-ups during pregnancy.</li><li>• It can lead to preterm births, preeclampsia, and pregnancy loss while the infant can suffer from neonatal lupus and heart block.</li><li>• Management includes</li><li>• Preconceptionally counseling: Conception during a period of quiescence for at least 6 months determines a successful outcome. Stable remission of renal disease for at least 6 months before conception is recommended.</li><li>• Corticosteroids are useful during episodes of lupus flare and can be used safely in pregnancy.</li><li>• Immunosuppressants such as azathioprine can be continued during pregnancy. It may be used in case of severe SLE</li><li>• Hydroxychloroquine is found to be the best for maintenance and is safe in pregnancy. It can prevent the need for prolonged corticosteroid therapy.</li><li>• Methotrexate and cyclophosphamide are teratogenic and hence they are not safe during pregnancy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Immunosuppression can be continued during pregnancy : Correct. Medications like azathioprine can be continued under medical guidance, while others are used cautiously.</li><li>• Option A. Immunosuppression can be continued during pregnancy</li><li>• Option B. Pregnancy to be planned once the disease has been quiescent for at least 6 months and there is no evidence of renal dysfunction : Correct. Quiescence of the disease and stable renal function are crucial for a successful pregnancy outcome.</li><li>• Option B. Pregnancy to be planned once the disease has been quiescent for at least 6 months and there is no evidence of renal dysfunction</li><li>• Option C. High dose corticosteroids for lupus flare in pregnancy is safe : Correct. High doses of corticosteroids can be used during a lupus flare, but must be carefully monitored.</li><li>• Option C. High dose corticosteroids for lupus flare in pregnancy is safe</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methotrexate and cyclophosphamide are not safe during pregnancy for managing lupus nephritis; corticosteroids and azathioprine are safer options.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 2895, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 2895, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student accidentally drops a sphygmomanometer, causing mercury spill on the floor. What is the most appropriate method to manage this spill? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Collect using your hand and discard in drain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Collect using paper/cardboard and put in water tube/bucket", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Collect and throw outside in the environment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Broom it and discard in dustbin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Collect using paper/cardboard and put in water tube/bucket", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Collect using paper/cardboard and put in water tube/bucket</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most appropriate method to manage a mercury spill is to collect it using paper/cardboard and place it in a water tube or bucket, then ensure safe and proper disposal. Avoid direct contact, vacuuming, or sweeping the mercury.</li><li>➤ The most appropriate method to manage a mercury spill is to collect it using paper/cardboard and place it in a water tube or bucket, then ensure safe and proper disposal.</li><li>➤ Avoid direct contact, vacuuming, or sweeping the mercury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are expected to produce a protein of interest. Arrange the following steps in a sequence. Lysis of bacterial cell Incorporating gene of interest into bacteria SDS-PAGE Hybridization Protein elution/extraction Expression of protein (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a-b-c-d-e-f", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "b-c-d-a-f-e", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "b-d-a-c-e-f", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "b-f-a-c-d-e", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. b-f-a-c-d-e", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture8_7bEWXtu.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) b-f-a-c-d-e</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The steps of Recombinant DNA technology for expressing a gene of interest for production of a desired protein in E. coli cell.</li><li>• The steps of Recombinant DNA technology are:</li><li>• The steps of Recombinant DNA technology are:</li><li>• b) Incorporating gene of interest into bacteria: The gene of interest is inserted into a vector such as a plasmid, which is then introduced into the host E. coli cell to produce recombinant E. coli. f) Expression of protein: The recombinant E. coli is grown in a suitable medium to express the protein inside the cells. a) Lysis of bacterial cell: The bacterial cells are lysed to extract the expressed protein. c) SDS-PAGE: The extracted protein is purified using SDS-PAGE electrophoresis. d) Hybridization: The protein is identified and confirmed by western blotting or hybridization. e) Protein elution/extraction: Finally, the protein is eluted or extracted for subsequent use.</li><li>• b) Incorporating gene of interest into bacteria: The gene of interest is inserted into a vector such as a plasmid, which is then introduced into the host E. coli cell to produce recombinant E. coli.</li><li>• b) Incorporating gene of interest into bacteria:</li><li>• f) Expression of protein: The recombinant E. coli is grown in a suitable medium to express the protein inside the cells.</li><li>• f) Expression of protein:</li><li>• a) Lysis of bacterial cell: The bacterial cells are lysed to extract the expressed protein.</li><li>• a) Lysis of bacterial cell:</li><li>• c) SDS-PAGE: The extracted protein is purified using SDS-PAGE electrophoresis.</li><li>• c) SDS-PAGE:</li><li>• d) Hybridization: The protein is identified and confirmed by western blotting or hybridization.</li><li>• d) Hybridization:</li><li>• e) Protein elution/extraction: Finally, the protein is eluted or extracted for subsequent use.</li><li>• e) Protein elution/extraction:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 432-438</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Chronic HBV infection would be consistent with which of the following serology? ( INICET MAY 2022) HBsAg Anti-HBsAg Anti-HBcAg HBV DNA", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic HBV infection is characterized by the persistence of HBsAg, the presence of Anti-HBc, and usually detectable HBV DNA. Anti-HBs is not present in chronic HBV infection as it indicates immunity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a perineal approach for rectal prolapse? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ripstein’s procedure", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Delorme’s operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiersch operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Altemeier’s procedure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ripstein’s procedure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ripstein’s procedure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Ripstein's procedure is done for its management using the abdominal approach. The perineal approach is often preferred in elderly patients with high operative risk and limited life expectancy. It involves surgeries such as Delorme's mucosectomy and Thiersch's wiring, which have higher recurrence rates than the abdominal approach.</li><li>➤ abdominal</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient presents with progressive difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids for 8 months. A barium swallow was done and is shown in the image below. What other investigations should be done to confirm the diagnosis in this patient? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "UGIE + contrast enhanced CT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UGIE + PET", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UGIE + 24-hour pH monitoring", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "UGIE + manometry", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. UGIE + manometry", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-146.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-133438.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) UGIE + manometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical scenario and the barium swallow image show a bird beak sign which indicates achalasia cardia. To confirm the diagnosis, Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and manometry should be performed. Manometry is the IOC for achalasia cardia and other motility disorders.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. UGIE + contrast enhanced CT: While useful for structural evaluation, it does not specifically assess esophageal motility.</li><li>• Option A. UGIE + contrast enhanced CT:</li><li>• Option B. UGIE + PET: Typically used for oncological assessments, not directly useful for diagnosing motility disorders.</li><li>• Option B. UGIE + PET:</li><li>• Option C. UGIE + 24-hour pH monitoring: Used to diagnose gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not directly relevant for achalasia unless GERD is also suspected.</li><li>• Option C. UGIE + 24-hour pH monitoring:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are true about biophysical profile (BPP) except? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Includes breathing, movements, tone, and AFI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Can tell us about fetal outcome and fetal pH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Score is inconsistent with fetal pH at different gestational ages", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Score &lt;4: fetal pH &lt;7.2; Score 0: 100% fetal acidemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Score is inconsistent with fetal pH at different gestational ages", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/06/screenshot-2024-08-06-171706.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Score is inconsistent with fetal pH at different gestational ages</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• BPP score is not inconsistent with fetal pH, but has a direct linear relationship with fetal pH and thus can be used to predict fetal acidemia. BPP is a multi-parametric, screening test to assess uteroplacental insufficiency. It consists of five components/ variables and the observations are made in a 30 minutes time period. The Biophysical Profile has 5 components and is scored using Manning score NST Amniotic Fluid Volume Fetal movement Fetal Tone Fetal Breathing</li><li>• BPP score is not inconsistent with fetal pH, but has a direct linear relationship with fetal pH and thus can be used to predict fetal acidemia.</li><li>• BPP is a multi-parametric, screening test to assess uteroplacental insufficiency.</li><li>• It consists of five components/ variables and the observations are made in a 30 minutes time period.</li><li>• The Biophysical Profile has 5 components and is scored using Manning score NST Amniotic Fluid Volume Fetal movement Fetal Tone Fetal Breathing</li><li>• NST Amniotic Fluid Volume Fetal movement Fetal Tone Fetal Breathing</li><li>• NST</li><li>• Amniotic Fluid Volume</li><li>• Fetal movement</li><li>• Fetal Tone</li><li>• Fetal Breathing</li><li>• A low Manning score correlates with fetal hypoxia Narcotics and sedatives can significantly lower the score A BPP score of 0 was almost invariably associated with significant fetal acidemia, whereas a normal score of 8 or 10 was associated with normal pH. An equivocal test result—a score of 6—was a poor predictor of an abnormal outcome. A drop in the BPP score from 2 or 4 down to 0 more accurately predicted an abnormal fetal outcome. Overall, BPP scores provided poor sensitivity to predict cord blood pH The Modified BPP has 2 components NST AFI</li><li>• A low Manning score correlates with fetal hypoxia</li><li>• Narcotics and sedatives can significantly lower the score</li><li>• A BPP score of 0 was almost invariably associated with significant fetal acidemia, whereas a normal score of 8 or 10 was associated with normal pH.</li><li>• An equivocal test result—a score of 6—was a poor predictor of an abnormal outcome. A drop in the BPP score from 2 or 4 down to 0 more accurately predicted an abnormal fetal outcome.</li><li>• Overall, BPP scores provided poor sensitivity to predict cord blood pH</li><li>• The Modified BPP has 2 components</li><li>• NST</li><li>• NST</li><li>• AFI</li><li>• AFI</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Includes breathing, movements, tone, and AFI : This statement is true. The BPP includes assessments of fetal breathing, movements, tone, and the amniotic fluid index (AFI) as part of its evaluation.</li><li>• Option A. Includes breathing, movements, tone, and AFI</li><li>• Option B. Can tell us about fetal outcome and fetal pH : This statement is true. The BPP score helps predict fetal outcome and provides an indication of fetal pH, reflecting the level of fetal distress.</li><li>• Option B. Can tell us about fetal outcome and fetal pH</li><li>• Option D. Score &lt;4: fetal pH &lt;7.2; Score 0: 100% fetal acidemia : This statement is true. A BPP score of less than 4 correlates with a fetal pH &lt;7.2, and a score of 0 is almost invariably associated with significant fetal acidemia.</li><li>• Option D. Score &lt;4: fetal pH &lt;7.2; Score 0: 100% fetal acidemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Biophysical Profile (BPP) provides a consistent prediction of fetal pH and outcome, with a lower score correlating with increased risk of fetal acidemia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 999, Williams Obstetric 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 999, Williams Obstetric 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cranial nerve that arises from the marked part? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Occulomotor nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abducens nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Abducens nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-23.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-24.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Abducens nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The abducens nerve, also known as cranial nerve VI, arises from the abducens nucleus in the pontomedullary junction, which is located in the lower part of the pons and upper part of the medulla oblongata in the brainstem. It exits the brainstem at the junction of the pons and medulla oblongata and travels through the cavernous sinus to innervate the lateral rectus muscle of the eye. Its main function is to control eye movement and allow for horizontal gaze.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was diagnosed for Cholelithiasis and underwent cholecystectomy. What would be the diagnosis according to the given image below? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cholesterolosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gallbladder polyp", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoma gallbladder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Strawberry gallbladder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gallbladder polyp", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gallbladder polyp</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gallbladder polyps, as seen in the image, are common and typically benign, with the risk of malignancy increasing with polyp size. Accurate identification is crucial for appropriate management.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 79, 1709</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 79, 1709</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A genetic counsellor is discussing various types of genetic tests with a couple planning for a child. Which of the following statements accurately describes genetic screening? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Screening tests define risk of passing genetic disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Screening tests are more accurate than diagnostic tests", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Screening requires genetic mapping", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Involve invasive procedures", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Screening tests define risk of passing genetic disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Screening tests define risk of passing genetic disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Genetic screening tests are used to define the risk of passing on a genetic disorder and can help determine the likelihood of developing a genetic condition. They are not as definitive as diagnostic tests and do not necessarily involve invasive procedures or genetic mapping.</li><li>➤ Genetic screening tests are used to define the risk of passing on a genetic disorder and can help determine the likelihood of developing a genetic condition.</li><li>➤ They are not as definitive as diagnostic tests and do not necessarily involve invasive procedures or genetic mapping.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false regarding Human genome project? (INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Collaboration of many countries", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20000 total genes were identified", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It uses modern sequencing techniques", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It took 2 years to discover", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It took 2 years to discover", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) It took 2 years to discover</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation: Option D is false. The Human Genome Project did not take only 2 years to complete. It was a long-term endeavor that spanned over a decade. The official launch of the project was in 1990, and a working draft of the human genome was announced in 2000. The project was completed in 2003.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relevance: This statement is false, and the actual timeline of the Human Genome Project demonstrates that it was a multi-year, collaborative effort.</li><li>• Relevance:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Collaboration of Many Countries:</li><li>• Option A. Collaboration of Many Countries:</li><li>• Explanation: The Human Genome Project was indeed a collaborative effort involving many countries, including the United States, the United Kingdom, France, Germany, Japan, and others. It aimed to map and sequence the entire human genome. Relevance: This statement is true and reflects the international nature of the project.</li><li>• Explanation: The Human Genome Project was indeed a collaborative effort involving many countries, including the United States, the United Kingdom, France, Germany, Japan, and others. It aimed to map and sequence the entire human genome.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relevance: This statement is true and reflects the international nature of the project.</li><li>• Relevance:</li><li>• Option B. 20,000 Total Genes Were Identified :</li><li>• Option B. 20,000 Total Genes Were Identified :</li><li>• Explanation: During the Human Genome Project, it was estimated that there are approximately 20,000-25,000 protein-coding genes in the human genome. This estimate is relatively accurate, considering the complexity of the human genome. Relevance: This statement is true and reflects one of the significant achievements of the HGP.</li><li>• Explanation: During the Human Genome Project, it was estimated that there are approximately 20,000-25,000 protein-coding genes in the human genome. This estimate is relatively accurate, considering the complexity of the human genome.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relevance: This statement is true and reflects one of the significant achievements of the HGP.</li><li>• Relevance:</li><li>• Option C. It Uses Modern Sequencing Techniques:</li><li>• Option C. It Uses Modern Sequencing Techniques:</li><li>• Explanation: The Human Genome Project utilized state-of-the-art sequencing techniques of its time, which included automated Sanger sequencing. These techniques were considered modern at the start of the project in the early 1990s. Relevance: This statement is true, considering the technologies available during the project's duration.</li><li>• Explanation: The Human Genome Project utilized state-of-the-art sequencing techniques of its time, which included automated Sanger sequencing. These techniques were considered modern at the start of the project in the early 1990s.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relevance: This statement is true, considering the technologies available during the project's duration.</li><li>• Relevance:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Human genome project started in 1990 and completed with sequence of Y chromosome this year in 2022. So, it took &gt; 2 decades. This was a collaborative project spread across many labs in different countries across world. Approximately 22000 genes were identified in entire Human genome using High throughput Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) techniques.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 30 th ed/pg- 98</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following features are observed in pleomorphic adenoma except: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myoepithelial cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Keratin pearls", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chondroid differentiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perineural invasion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Perineural invasion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-132733.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Perineural invasion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pleomorphic adenomas are characterized by a mixture of epithelial and mesenchymal components, including myoepithelial cells and chondroid differentiation, but they do not exhibit perineural invasion, which is more typical of malignant salivary gland tumors.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1436-1437</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1436-1437</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Eicosanoids are formed from:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arachidonic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Platelet aggregation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 fused rings", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arginine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arachidonic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-133244.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eicosanoids are bioactive lipid molecules that play a crucial role in various physiological processes in the body. They are formed from arachidonic acid. Arachidonic acid has (20 C, 4=) and is synthesized from linoleic acid. Eicosanoids (Prostaglandins and leukotrienes) are synthesized from arachidonic acid. So, Linoleic acid is considered as most essential fatty acid.</li><li>➤ Extra Information on PUFAs</li><li>➤ Extra Information on PUFAs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 224</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The cell wall depicted below is most likely to belong to which of the following organisms? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspergillus fumigatus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycoplasma pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinosporidium seeberi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aspergillus fumigatus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-77.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-202.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/23/untitled-203.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Aspergillus fumigatus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fungal cell wall of Aspergillus fumigatus contains β-glucans, chitin, and mannoproteins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the ratio of T cells to B cells in a healthy adult? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1:1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3:1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1:2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1:3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3:1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 3:1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ratio of T cells to B cells in a healthy adult is approximately 3:1.</li><li>➤ T cells to B cells</li><li>➤ 3:1.</li><li>➤ Ratio of CD4 to CD8 T-cells is 2:1.</li><li>➤ CD4 to CD8 T-cells is 2:1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old woman accuses her office colleague of spiking her drink and raping her. Which test can be used to detect vaginal cells on a person who is accused of rape? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Florence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barberio", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lugol's", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Precipitin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lugol's", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lugol's</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lugol's iodine test is used to detect vaginal cells on the penis of a rape accused by identifying glycogen-containing epithelial cells, which turn brown when exposed to Lugol's iodine solution.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely cause of waxing and waning jaundice in an alcoholic patient with dilatation of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct on CT examination? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cholangiocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Periampullary carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Common bile duct stone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Head of pancreas carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Periampullary carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Periampullary carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Periampullary carcinoma (option B) is the most likely cause of waxing and waning jaundice in an alcoholic patient with dilatation of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct on CT examination due to its anatomical location and its potential to obstruct both ducts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was diagnosed with Ewing sarcoma with ESWR1 gene mutation. The technique shown in the image was performed to confirm the diagnosis. Identify the technique shown in the image? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluorescent in situ hybridization", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Karyotyping", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immunohistochemistry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sanger's technique", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fluorescent in situ hybridization", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture9_3fPGCXe.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fluorescent in situ hybridization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In situ hybridization is a modified version of DNA–DNA hybridization . If a metaphase spread chromosome preparation is probed with a gene, the location of the gene on a specific chromosome can be identified. The principle may be applied to histology slide also. In the tissue preparation, DNA is denatured, the specific probe tagged with fluorescent labels, incubated, washed and seen under a fluorescent (UV) microscope. The process is named as Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH).</li><li>➤ In situ hybridization is a modified version of DNA–DNA hybridization</li><li>➤ Applications of FISH are:</li><li>➤ Applications of FISH are:</li><li>➤ Detects subtle microdeletions and rearrangements . Detects complex translocation Assessment of gene rearrangements in leukaemia Determination of amplification of HER2/neu in breast cancer Diagnosis of various types of lymphomas.</li><li>➤ Detects subtle microdeletions and rearrangements .</li><li>➤ microdeletions and rearrangements</li><li>➤ Detects complex translocation</li><li>➤ translocation</li><li>➤ Assessment of gene rearrangements in leukaemia</li><li>➤ gene rearrangements in leukaemia</li><li>➤ Determination of amplification of HER2/neu in breast cancer</li><li>➤ amplification of HER2/neu in breast cancer</li><li>➤ Diagnosis of various types of lymphomas.</li><li>➤ lymphomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common pattern of involvement of Pott’s spine is: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paradiscal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Central", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Paradiscal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/7_Q93okLV.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/8_mcG1lh8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/9_vultMKm.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/10_PADr1go.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-08-125724.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Paradiscal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The paradiscal type is most common pattern of involvement followed by central type followed by anterior type followed by the posterior type.</li><li>➤ The paradiscal type is most common pattern of involvement followed by central type followed by anterior type followed by the posterior type.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incorrect statement regarding the marked structure: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is the meeting point of frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blow to the lateral side of the skull injures the marked structure.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Accessory middle meningeal artery lies under this structure.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It corresponds to site of anterolateral fontanelle of fetal skull.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Accessory middle meningeal artery lies under this structure.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Accessory middle meningeal artery lies under this structure.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The structure marked in the image is the pterion. The main branch of Middle meningeal artery lies under this structure NOT accessory middle meningeal artery. The accessory middle meningeal artery usually arises from the maxillary artery and enters the middle cranial fossa through the foramen ovale or a separate foramen. Its location and presence can vary.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. It is the meeting point of frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones. Correct : The pterion is indeed the meeting point of these four bones.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• It is the meeting point of frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones.</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• Option B. Blow to the lateral side of the skull injures the marked structure. Correct : A blow to the pterion can be very dangerous because the middle meningeal artery runs just deep to this area, on the inner side of the skull. If this artery is ruptured due to a fracture at the pterion, it can lead to an epidural hematoma, which is a type of traumatic brain injury.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Blow to the lateral side of the skull injures the marked structure. Correct</li><li>• Option D. It corresponds to the site of the anterolateral fontanelle of the fetal skull. Correct : The pterion corresponds to the region of the anterolateral (or sphenoid) fontanelle in the fetal skull. This fontanelle usually closes a few months after birth.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• It corresponds to the site of the anterolateral fontanelle of the fetal skull. Correct</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pterion is the junction point of four bones in the skull: the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones. The term \"pterion\" comes from the Greek word \"pteron,\" meaning \"wing,\" because the pterion is located at the point where the sphenoid bone and the temporal bone form a wing-like shape. The pterion is located just above the zygomatic arch and anterior to the ear. The middle meningeal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, runs underneath the pterion and is at risk of injury in cases of head trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV patient presented with a headache and altered sensorium. MRI was performed. What is the likely diagnosis?(INICET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurocysticercosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cryptococcomas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neurocysticercosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-152.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Neurocysticercosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The MRI brain image shows multiple cyst-like lesions within the brain, which are characteristic of neurocysticercosis, often described as a \"starry sky\" appearance. Neurocysticercosis is an infection caused by the larvae of the pork tapeworm, Taenia solium. These lesions are typically cystic with a scolex (head of the larva) visible within the cysts, which is a diagnostic feature. This condition is common in areas where pork is commonly consumed and sanitation practices are poor, and it can lead to serious neurological symptoms like the ones presented by the patient.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tuberculoma: Generally appears as well-defined, enhancing masses on MRI, which are not specifically indicated by the cystic nature of the lesions seen in this image.</li><li>• Option B. Tuberculoma:</li><li>• Option C. Toxoplasmosis: Common in HIV patients, but typically presents as multiple ring-enhancing lesions rather than the cystic lesions with a clear scolex seen here.</li><li>• Option C. Toxoplasmosis:</li><li>• Option D. Cryptococcomas: Typically appear as gelatinous masses in the brain and would not usually present with the clear, cystic appearance with scoleces indicative of parasitic infection.</li><li>• Option D. Cryptococcomas:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neurocysticercosis should be considered in patients presenting with multiple cystic brain lesions, especially in contexts of headache and altered mental status, where the history and radiological findings suggest the presence of cysts with scoleces typical of tapeworm larvae.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with vertigo associated with horizontal nystagmus. The slow component is towards the left. What is the most likely diagnosis?( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior canal BPPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior canal BPPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right hypoactive labyrinth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left hypoactive labyrinth", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Left hypoactive labyrinth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Left hypoactive labyrinth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The direction of the slow and fast components of nystagmus is crucial in diagnosing the affected side in vestibular disorders. A left hypoactive labyrinth leads to nystagmus with a fast component to the right, matching the clinical presentation in this scenario.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 43</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 43</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Kassowitz rule is related to? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital syphilis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Latent syphilis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Congenital syphilis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Congenital syphilis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Kassowitz's rule pertains to congenital syphilis. According to this rule, if a woman with untreated syphilis has multiple pregnancies, the likelihood of congenital syphilis affecting the fetus in later pregnancies decreases. This phenomenon is observed as a result of the immune system's adaptive response and potential changes in the transmission dynamics of the infection over successive pregnancies. Therefore, the rule suggests that with each subsequent pregnancy, the outcome for the fetus improves if the infection remains untreated.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Primary syphilis : Primary syphilis involves the initial chancre or ulcer at the site of infection and is not related to Kassowitz's rule, which specifically addresses outcomes in congenital syphilis.</li><li>• Option A. Primary syphilis</li><li>• Option C. Secondary syphilis : Secondary syphilis is characterized by systemic manifestations such as skin rashes and mucous membrane lesions and is not related to Kassowitz's rule.</li><li>• Option C. Secondary syphilis</li><li>• Option D. Latent syphilis : Latent syphilis refers to a stage where no symptoms are present but the infection is still systemic. Kassowitz's rule is not associated with latent syphilis.</li><li>• Option D. Latent syphilis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kassowitz rule states that the likelihood of congenital syphilis infection decreases with each successive pregnancy in a woman with untreated syphilis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 343, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 343, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with fever and nuchal rigidity. The resident was instructed to perform a lumbar puncture on this patient. What is the correct order of managing this patient? ( INICET MAY 2022) Place IV cannula and give fluids at 40 mL/h Start injection ceftriaxone Send CSF sample for biochemistry and microanalysis Perform guarded lumbar puncture", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4, 3, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4, 3, 2, 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4, 3, 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 4, 3, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 4, 3, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In suspected meningitis, the ideal sequence is to secure samples for microbiological diagnosis before starting antibiotics, when clinically feasible. However, if there will be a significant delay in performing the lumbar puncture or if the patient is critically ill, antibiotics should not be delayed. The sequence emphasizes balancing the need for accurate diagnosis with timely intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are a part of the limbic system?(INICET MAY 2022) 1. Amygdala 2. Hippocampus 3. Thalamus", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/anatomy-may-inicet-2022-19-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The limbic system is a complex set of brain structures located on both sides of the thalamus, immediately beneath the cerebrum. It includes key components such as the amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, and cingulate gyrus. These structures support a variety of functions related to emotions, behavior, motivation, long-term memory, and olfaction.</li><li>• Amygdala: Integral for processing emotions, the amygdala is especially involved in fear, anxiety, and social cognition. It also plays a significant role in forming and retrieving emotional memories. Hippocampus: Essential for learning and memory, the hippocampus is pivotal in the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory and spatial navigation. Thalamus: Although primarily known as the relay station for sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex, the thalamus also supports functions of the limbic system by regulating consciousness, sleep, and alertness.</li><li>• Amygdala: Integral for processing emotions, the amygdala is especially involved in fear, anxiety, and social cognition. It also plays a significant role in forming and retrieving emotional memories.</li><li>• Amygdala:</li><li>• Hippocampus: Essential for learning and memory, the hippocampus is pivotal in the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory and spatial navigation.</li><li>• Hippocampus:</li><li>• Thalamus: Although primarily known as the relay station for sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex, the thalamus also supports functions of the limbic system by regulating consciousness, sleep, and alertness.</li><li>• Thalamus:</li><li>• Other structures are :</li><li>• Other structures are :</li><li>• The hypothalamus is involved in regulating many bodily functions, including hunger, thirst, body temperature, and circadian rhythms. It also plays a key role in the regulation of the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system.</li><li>• The cingulate gyrus is involved in a variety of functions, including emotion regulation, attention, and the processing of pain.</li><li>• Together, these structures form a complex network that plays a crucial role in many aspects of human behavior and cognition. Dysfunction or damage to the limbic system can lead to a range of neurological and psychiatric disorders, including Alzheimer's disease, depression, anxiety, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The limbic system’s role is critical, as its structures are deeply integrated into the processes governing emotions, memory, and essential physiological functions. Damage or dysfunction in any part of the limbic system can lead to profound psychological and cognitive impairments, affecting everything from emotional regulation to memory processing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia was started on risperidone. After taking the medication last night, the patient rushes to OPD today with complaints of upwards rolling of his eyes. What is the management of the condition? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Promethazine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Olanzapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stop antipsychotic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Promethazine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Promethazine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect, is characterized by spasm of muscles in any part of the body, e.g., oculogyric crisis, torticollis. It is seen in about 10% of patients on antipsychotics. Risk factors include young males, those who are antipsychotic naive and high potency antipsychotics. It usually occurs within hours of starting antipsychotic medication. They can be distressing but are reversible. Anticholinergic agents like promethazine (IM or IV) are first-line treatments for these reactions .</li><li>➤ Risk factors</li><li>➤ promethazine (IM or IV) are first-line treatments for these reactions</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry, 14th edition, Page No 110-111</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the disorder with X-linked dominant inheritance: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rett syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Huntington disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberous sclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rett syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/screenshot-2023-11-10-125144.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rett syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rett syndrome is an X-linked dominant disorder most commonly seen in girls, characterized by microcephaly, regression of motor milestones, developmental delay, and stereotyped movements.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What could be the most probable diagnosis for a 26-year-old woman who was brought to the ER at Hospital after a car accident, with a stable blood pressure, a GCS score of 3, and a normal non-contrast CT scan? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subdural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extradural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diffuse axonal injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebral contusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Diffuse axonal injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Diffuse axonal injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The patient's presentation with a GCS score of 3 and a normal non-contrast CT scan, the most probable diagnosis is diffuse axonal injury (option C), which can result in severe neurological impairment despite a normal initial CT scan.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following drugs is the new FDA approved immune check point inhibitor for carcinoma endometrium? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nivolumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pembrolizumab", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trastuzumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ipilimumab", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pembrolizumab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pembrolizumab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pembrolizumab is the new FDA-approved immune checkpoint inhibitor for carcinoma endometrium. It works by blocking the PD-1 receptor, enhancing the immune system's ability to attack cancer cells. It is also used for treating several other cancers, including metastatic urothelial cancer, refractory melanoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Merkel cell cancer, and chemotherapy-refractory head and neck cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In MSUD (Maple Syrup Urine disorder) which of the following is not restricted: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methionine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leucine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isoleucine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methionine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Methionine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) occurs due to the inherited deficiency of branched Chain Keto-acid Decarboxylase resulting in defect in oxidative decarboxylation and catabolism of branched chain amino acids Valine, Isoleucine and leucine. As a result, these amino acids accumulate and are excreted in urine. So, for the treatment, these BCAA should be restricted in diet.</li><li>➤ Methionine is a sulphur containing amino acid and do not require this enzyme for its metabolism. So, its restriction is not required in MSUD.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 290</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about anti-CMV IgG antibodies? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Denotes latent CMV infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Denotes chronic CMV infection with immunity to other serotypes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indicates acute CMV infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG avidity assay helps in differentiating past and primary infection", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IgG avidity assay helps in differentiating past and primary infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) IgG avidity assay helps in differentiating past and primary infection</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "AIDS-defining malignancies include all except: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kaposi's sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Invasive cervical carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Melanoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Melanoma is not considered an AIDS-defining malignancy, unlike Kaposi's sarcoma, invasive cervical carcinoma, and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements about Psoas abscess are true? ( INICET MAY 2022 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluctuant swelling in the hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cold abscess can develop from Pott's abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pain on passive extension of hip joint is seen in patients and elderly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand the clinical presentation and etiology of psoas abscess, particularly recognizing that it can manifest with local hip symptoms, have a connection to spinal tuberculosis (Pott's abscess), and cause specific movement-related pain due to its anatomical location and function</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How is neurogenic shock characterized? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypertension + Tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotension + Tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypotension + Bradycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertension + Bradycardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypotension + Bradycardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypotension + Bradycardia.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neurogenic shock should be recognized by its key characteristics of hypotension and bradycardia, resulting from a loss of sympathetic tone and unopposed parasympathetic activity due to spinal cord injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male presented with a positive Trendelenburg test. Identify the nerve injured: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inferior gluteal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior gluteal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sciatic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Superior gluteal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/anatomy-may-inicet-2022-20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Superior gluteal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ The superior gluteal nerve's role in stabilizing the pelvis during gait is critical. A positive Trendelenburg test indicates an inability to maintain pelvic stability due to weakness or paralysis of the gluteus medius and minimus muscles, typically stemming from an injury to the superior gluteal nerve. This understanding is essential for diagnosing and managing conditions related to hip stability and gait abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "NAPQI is the metabolite of which of the following drug toxicity? ( INICET May 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paracetamol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diclofenac", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketorolac", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Paracetamol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Paracetamol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NAPQI is a toxic metabolite produced during the metabolism of paracetamol. In cases of paracetamol overdose, NAPQI accumulates and causes liver damage. The antidote for paracetamol toxicity is N-acetylcysteine (NAC), which helps detoxify NAPQI by replenishing glutathione and providing sulfhydryl groups.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The half-life of letrozole is: (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "48 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "70 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "90 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "120 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 48 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 48 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The half-life of letrozole is 48 hours. It is an aromatase inhibitor used in the treatment of ER+ breast cancer in post-menopausal women and as the drug of choice for treating infertility due to anovulation in women with PCOS.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Phospholipase C acts via which of the following G protein-coupled receptors? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gq", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Go", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gq", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Gq</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phospholipase C (PLC) is activated by Gq-coupled receptors, which in turn generate the second messengers IP3 and DAG, leading to various downstream effects, including the mobilization of calcium ions from intracellular stores.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and was started on first-line antitubercular drugs. Which of the following drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of the marked layer shown by arrow in the image? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyrazinamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ethambutol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Isoniazid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-170623.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Isoniazid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Isoniazid acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acid, a critical component of the mycobacterial cell wall, making it an effective first-line treatment for tuberculosis. The other first-line drugs have different mechanisms of action, such as inhibiting RNA polymerase (rifampicin), blocking fatty acid synthase (pyrazinamide), and inhibiting arabinosyl transferase (ethambutol).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old lady came to psychiatry OPD with symptoms of hypomania. There is a past history of maniac episode. Now, she is planning to conceive. Which of the following drug is maximum teratogenic to the fetus? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Valproate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lamotrigine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxcarbazepine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Olanzapine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Valproate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Valproate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Valproate is the most teratogenic drug among the options listed, causing significant congenital anomalies such as neural tube defects, cleft lip and palate, and cardiac anomalies, as well as poor cognitive development. It should be avoided in women who are planning to conceive or are pregnant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True statement regarding the administration of 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors is/are: (INICET MAY 2022) 1. Reduces dihydrotestosterone levels 2. Reduces testosterone levels 3. Elevates PSA levels 4. Decreases PSA levels", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors are the competitive inhibitors of the enzyme 5 alpha-reductase which converts testosterone into the more active dihydroxy testosterone (DHT). This enzyme inhibition results in:</li><li>➤ Decreased DHT levels Decreased PSA levels Reduces prostate volume However, plasma testosterone levels remain unchanged or may increase due to non-conversion to DHT.</li><li>➤ Decreased DHT levels</li><li>➤ Decreased PSA levels</li><li>➤ Reduces prostate volume</li><li>➤ However, plasma testosterone levels remain unchanged or may increase due to non-conversion to DHT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The manufacturer of a drug company labels a drug as having 500 mg paracetamol. On quantitative analysis of the drug, it actually contained only 200 mg of paracetamol. What is this type of drug called? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spurious drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adulterated drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unethical drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Misbranded drug", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Misbranded drug", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Misbranded drug</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A drug labeled inaccurately with respect to its active ingredient quantity is considered a misbranded drug. Ensuring accurate labeling is crucial for regulatory compliance and consumer safety, as it ensures that drugs on the market are labeled truthfully and can be trusted for their intended use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs is associated with the increased risk of fractures? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rosiglitazone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liraglutide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Voglibose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Canagliflozin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rosiglitazone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/antidiabetic-agents-for-type-2-diabetes-mellitus-treatment.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Rosiglitazone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glitazones like rosiglitazone and pioglitazone are associated with following adverse effects:</li><li>➤ Hepatotoxicity Retention of sodium and water Risk of osteoporotic fractures</li><li>➤ Hepatotoxicity</li><li>➤ Retention of sodium and water</li><li>➤ Risk of osteoporotic fractures</li><li>➤ SGLT-2 inhibitors like canagliflozin is also associated with increased risk of fractures but the incidence is much lower than that with glitazones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What can be the mechanism by which phagolysosome cause cell death in autophagy? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Is both intra and extra cellular", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Can fuse with other organelles directly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fuses with lysosome to form autophagolysosome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Is a single membrane structure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fuses with lysosome to form autophagolysosome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/picture10_IsDgi6X.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fuses with lysosome to form autophagolysosome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fusion of an autophagic vacuole with a lysosome to form an autophagolysosome is a central step in the autophagy process, enabling the degradation and recycling of cellular components.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 72</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 72</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old chronic alcoholic presented with withdrawal symptoms. His liver function tests showed: AST 140 IU/L, ALT 110 IU/L, and GGT 500 IU/L. Which of the following benzodiazepines can be safely administered to this patient? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alprazolam", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clonazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lorazepam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with liver impairment, such as those with alcoholic hepatitis, lorazepam is the preferred benzodiazepine due to its short-acting nature and minimal hepatic metabolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A soldier operating in Siachen Glacier presents with numbness of his legs. Incorrect regarding the image given: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rewarming is the treatment of choice", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Analgesics are contraindicated", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thrombolytics can be used", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amputation in severe cases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Analgesics are contraindicated", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/07/screenshot-2024-09-07-154108.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For frostbite treatment, rewarming is essential, analgesics are indicated due to the pain associated with rewarming, thrombolytics can be used within 24 hours of injury, and amputation may be necessary in severe cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following clinical examination was performed. What lesion would cause an exaggerated reflex? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polyneuropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radiculopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper motor neuron", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lower motor neuron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Upper motor neuron", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/07/screenshot-2024-09-07-154119.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Upper motor neuron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Exaggerated reflexes, such as an exaggerated ankle jerk reflex, are indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion. Lower motor neuron lesions, including those caused by polyneuropathy and radiculopathy, typically result in diminished or absent reflexes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with perioral numbness, tingling, and tetany. All the following conditions can lead to this, except: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin D toxicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic kidney disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoparathyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin D toxicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin D toxicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin D toxicity causes hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, distinguishing it from other conditions that can lead to hypocalcemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Due to which phenomenon, B cells express IgM and IgD antibodies at the same time? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Somatic hypermutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alternative RNA splicing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Affinity maturation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allelic exclusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alternative RNA splicing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alternative RNA splicing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ B cells express both IgM and IgD through alternative RNA splicing, allowing the simultaneous expression of these two immunoglobulins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Serologic findings of a patient with hepatitis are given below. HBsAg positive, Anti-HBc (total) positive, Anti-HDV (total) positive. Which of the following is most useful in diagnosing HDV co-infection over superinfection? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High HDV viral load", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Presence of Anti-HBc IgM antibodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Presence of IgM anti-HDV antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Presence of Anti-HBc IgG antibodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Presence of Anti-HBc IgM antibodies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Presence of Anti-HBc IgM antibodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Anti-HBc IgM antibodies is most useful in diagnosing HDV co-infection over superinfection because it indicates a recent acute HBV infection, which is characteristic of co-infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet May 2023 2023 05 07 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A female with nephrotic syndrome underwent a renal biopsy. Which of the following statements is correct? (INICET MAY 2023) FSGS cannot be diagnosed by a percutaneous renal biopsy Patient should be observed for 24 hours following biopsy Dark red clots in the urine following a biopsy indicate a hematoma Patients with features of systemic amyloidosis and renal involvement can undergo abdominal fat pad biopsy instead of renal biopsy", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,2,3,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,3,4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2,3,4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2,3,4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-biopsy observation, recognition of biopsy-related complications, and alternative biopsy methods for systemic amyloidosis are essential in nephrotic syndrome management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a Pulmonary Function Test at what volume or capacity does the pressure measured at the upper airway reach zero? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Residual volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Functional residual capacity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total lung capacity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inspiratory capacity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Functional residual capacity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/image-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Functional residual capacity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Functional residual capacity is the lung volume at which the pressure in the upper airway reaches zero, indicating a relaxed state of the lungs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl arrives with several swellings and numerous brown rashes. Bone scans reveal heightened activity in the femur, skull, and rib areas. There are irregularities in her biochemical values. Additionally, she has a past medical record of hypothyroidism. The provided image displays an X-ray of her femur. What is the probable diagnosis from the options provided?(INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "McCune-Albright syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuroma with bone involvement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Papillary carcinoma of thyroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. McCune-Albright syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/untitled-366.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/fat-embolism_page_2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/screenshot-2024-01-04-190814.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/screenshot-2024-01-04-190827.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. McCune-Albright syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presentation of several swellings and numerous brown rashes represents café Au lait spots . Bone scans reveal heightened activity in the femur, skull, and rib areas. There are irregularities in her biochemical values. Presence of past medical history of hypothyroidism, and Shepherd crook deformity of femur in the given image, all point towards the McCune Albright Syndrome .</li><li>➤ The presentation of several swellings and numerous brown rashes represents café Au lait spots .</li><li>➤ café Au lait spots</li><li>➤ Bone scans reveal heightened activity in the femur, skull, and rib areas.</li><li>➤ There are irregularities in her biochemical values.</li><li>➤ Presence of past medical history of hypothyroidism, and Shepherd crook deformity of femur in the given image, all point towards the McCune Albright Syndrome .</li><li>➤ McCune Albright Syndrome</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the provided statements about the muscle depicted in the image are true? (INICET MAY 2023) They retract the scapula along with the middle fibers of Trapezius They elevate the scapula along with fibers of Trapezius They rotate the scapula tilting the glenoid cavity inferiorly They rotate the scapula tilting the glenoid cavity superiorly", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/anotmy-16.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/anotmy-13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Marked muscle in the image given is Rhomboid Major and minor.</li><li>• 1. They retract the scapula along with the middle fibers of Trapezius:</li><li>• 1. They retract the scapula along with the middle fibers of Trapezius:</li><li>• True. Both the rhomboideus major and minor muscles play a role in scapular retraction. This means they help pull the scapula (shoulder blade) toward the midline of the body, which is an action involved in retracting the scapula. The middle fibers of the trapezius muscle also contribute to scapular retraction.</li><li>• True. Both the rhomboideus major and minor muscles play a role in scapular retraction. This means they help pull the scapula (shoulder blade) toward the midline of the body, which is an action involved in retracting the scapula. The middle fibers of the trapezius muscle also contribute to scapular retraction.</li><li>• True.</li><li>• 2. They elevate the scapula along with fibers of Trapezius:</li><li>• 2. They elevate the scapula along with fibers of Trapezius:</li><li>• True . Both the rhomboideus major and minor muscles, along with the upper fibers of the trapezius muscle, contribute to scapular elevation. Scapular elevation involves lifting the shoulder blades upward, such as when shrugging the shoulders.</li><li>• True . Both the rhomboideus major and minor muscles, along with the upper fibers of the trapezius muscle, contribute to scapular elevation. Scapular elevation involves lifting the shoulder blades upward, such as when shrugging the shoulders.</li><li>• True</li><li>• 3. They rotate the scapula tilting the glenoid cavity inferiorly:</li><li>• 3. They rotate the scapula tilting the glenoid cavity inferiorly:</li><li>• True. The rhomboideus major and minor muscles can assist in rotating the scapula by tilting the glenoid cavity (the socket of the shoulder joint) inferiorly, which means they help move the inferior angle of the scapula downward and away from the spine.</li><li>• True. The rhomboideus major and minor muscles can assist in rotating the scapula by tilting the glenoid cavity (the socket of the shoulder joint) inferiorly, which means they help move the inferior angle of the scapula downward and away from the spine.</li><li>• True.</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• 4. They rotate the scapula tilting the glenoid cavity superiorly:</li><li>• 4. They rotate the scapula tilting the glenoid cavity superiorly:</li><li>• False. The primary action of the rhomboideus major and minor muscles is not to tilt the glenoid cavity superiorly. Their main functions involve scapular retraction and elevation, as discussed in statements 1 and 2. Tilted movement of the glenoid cavity superiorly is not a primary function associated with these muscles.</li><li>• False. The primary action of the rhomboideus major and minor muscles is not to tilt the glenoid cavity superiorly. Their main functions involve scapular retraction and elevation, as discussed in statements 1 and 2. Tilted movement of the glenoid cavity superiorly is not a primary function associated with these muscles.</li><li>• False.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Rhomboid Major and Minor muscles are key players in scapular stabilization, involved in retraction, elevation, and downward rotation of the scapula, aligning the glenoid cavity in a position that supports optimal shoulder function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following vessels is involved in the condition affecting the region marked in red in the image shown below? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior Cerebellar Artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior Superior Cerebellar Artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebral artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/picture10.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-130506.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-130551.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg syndrome or posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) syndrome , is a neurological condition caused by a blockage or disruption of blood flow in the PICA, a major artery that supplies the medulla. It results from damage to multiple structures in the medulla, including the nuclei of cranial nerves (such as the nucleus ambiguus), the spinothalamic tract, and the descending sympathetic pathways.</li><li>• Wallenberg syndrome or posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) syndrome</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Superior Cerebellar Artery: The superior cerebellar artery primarily supplies the superior surface of the cerebellum. Blockage or injury to this artery can lead to symptoms related to dysfunction of the upper cerebellum but is not associated with the classic features of lateral medullary syndrome.</li><li>• Option A. Superior Cerebellar Artery:</li><li>• Option C . Posterior Superior Cerebellar Artery : The posterior superior cerebellar artery supplies the superior part of the cerebellum and the superior cerebellar peduncle. It is not directly associated with the lateral medullary syndrome. Blockage of this artery can lead to symptoms related to the superior cerebellum but not the specific features seen in lateral medullary syndrome.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Posterior Superior Cerebellar Artery</li><li>• Option D. Cerebral Artery: The term \"cerebral artery\" is a broad term that refers to arteries supplying the brain, including the anterior, middle, and posterior cerebral arteries. Blockage or issues with these arteries can cause various types of strokes or neurological symptoms, but they are not directly related to lateral medullary syndrome, which specifically involves the medulla and the PICA.</li><li>• Option D. Cerebral Artery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (PICA) is a major artery that supplies the lateral and posterior parts of the medulla, as well as the inferior surface of the cerebellum. When there is an issue with the PICA, such as a clot or blockage, it can affect the blood supply to the lateral medulla. This leads to the classic symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome, including dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), hoarseness, vertigo, nystagmus (involuntary eye movements), ataxia (loss of coordination), and various sensory disturbances.</li><li>➤ Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg syndrome, typically results from a blockage or disruption of blood flow in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old female with diabetes mellitus has experienced a decrease in her HbA1c levels from 7.6 to 6.7 after starting a new oral medication. Laboratory tests show that she has high levels of GIP and GLP-1 and low levels of glucagon. Which of the following oral drugs was most likely administered to this patient? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Voglibose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alogliptin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pramlintide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liraglutide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alogliptin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Alogliptin.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alogliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most likely drug responsible for the increase in GLP-1 and GIP levels and the decrease in glucagon levels in this patient. It effectively lowers HbA1c levels and is administered orally, fitting the description provided.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug is not given in endometriosis? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medroxyprogesterone acetate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cabergoline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estradiol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Letrozole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Estradiol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Estradiol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Estradiol is avoided in the treatment of endometriosis because it can exacerbate the condition by promoting the growth of endometriotic lesions</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the provided formula correspond to? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Standard deviation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Variance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mean", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Median", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Standard deviation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256119.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Standard deviation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The standard deviation measures the dispersion of a data set around its mean.</li><li>➤ The standard deviation measures the dispersion of a data set around its mean.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old woman experiences a 2-year history of infertility, as well as experiencing dyspareunia and dysmenorrhea. She has a retroverted uterus and is sensitive in the Douglas pouch. What should be the subsequent course of action in her management? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diagnostic laparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laparotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HSG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TVS", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. TVS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-103004.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) TVS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first step in the management of suspected endometriosis is to perform transvaginal ultrasound (TVS) to evaluate pelvic structures and identify abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing symptoms of fever, acute abdominal pain, and a slight increase in white blood cell count. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterine torsion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infection of fibroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red degeneration of fibroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preterm labor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Red degeneration of fibroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Red degeneration of fibroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Red degeneration of fibroid, which typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy or puerperium, presents with severe abdominal pain, fever, and a slight increase in white blood cell count. It is caused by thrombosis and infarction of the fibroid, and treatment is symptomatic with analgesics and hydration. Surgery is not performed for red degeneration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Organize the listed bands within the sarcomere, starting from the periphery and moving towards the center. (INICET MAY 2023) Z line M line A band H zone", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,2,3,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2,3,4,1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,3,4,2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1,4,2,3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1,3,4,2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125612.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1,3,4,2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct order of bands within the sarcomere, from the periphery towards the center, is Z line, A band, H zone, and M line.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the recommended actions according to Neonatal Resuscitation guidelines for a baby born with meconium-stained amniotic fluid? (INICET MAY 2023) lntrapartum suction of nose and mouth before delivery of shoulder lntratracheal suction in case of non-vigorous baby Gentle suction of nose and mouth in case of vigorous baby PPV in case of non-vigorous baby after early steps", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/15/pedia-fmg-1-9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a newborn with meconium-stained amniotic fluid, PPV is administered if the baby is non-vigorous after the initial steps of resuscitation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following procedures is not performed via the perineal approach in a patient with rectal prolapse? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ripstein operation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiersch operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Altemeier procedure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delorme operation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ripstein operation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ripstein operation</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the histopathological image: ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elastic fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Routine Ha &amp; E", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amyloidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Collagen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Amyloidosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125687.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125688.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125689.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125690.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125691.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125692.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Amyloidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congo red staining, showing pink-red deposits under normal light, is characteristic of amyloid and is a key diagnostic tool for amyloidosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are seen in iron deficiency anemia? ( INICET MAY 2023) Reduced serum iron level Reduced transferrin saturation Increased total iron binding capacity Reduced ferritin level", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125669.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these options are considered direct gonioscopes?( INICET May 2023) Goldmann Richardson Zeis Koeppe", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/inicet-may-2023-optha-1-1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/inicet-may-2023-optha-1-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Direct gonioscopes like Richardson and Koeppe provide a detailed and direct view of the anterior chamber angle, which is valuable in diagnostic and certain therapeutic procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the sign? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Babinski sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ankle jerk", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jendrassik", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal plantar response", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Babinski sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-134049.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Babinski sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A positive Babinski sign indicates an upper motor neuron lesion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The vector shown in the image below transmits which of the following organism? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orientia tsutsugamushi", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kyasanur forest disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chandipura virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaplasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Orientia tsutsugamushi", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_9_GIdqneC.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Orientia tsutsugamushi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The trombiculid mite, particularly in its larval stage called a chigger, transmits Orientia tsutsugamushi, the causative agent of scrub typhus.</li><li>➤ The trombiculid mite, particularly in its larval stage called a chigger, transmits Orientia tsutsugamushi, the causative agent of scrub typhus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Thymus gland is specialized in identifying the molecules of the Major Histocompatibility Complex that are presented to it. It discerns whether these cells belong to the body's own or are of foreign origin. Which specific gene is accountable for this function? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NOTCH1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E2A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rag ½", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AIRE", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. AIRE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) AIRE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The AIRE gene is crucial for promoting self-tolerance by ensuring that developing T cells in the thymus are exposed to self-antigens, thus preventing autoimmune diseases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125684.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-172656.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-172238.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false about collagen: ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Most abundant AA is Phenyl-alanine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Collagen is a type of fibrous protein, which is most abundant of all human proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post translational hydroxylation of proline &amp; lysine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Triple helix is required for its function", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Most abundant AA is Phenyl-alanine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Most abundant AA is Phenyl-alanine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognizing the correct composition of collagen is essential to understand its structural role in the human body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following positions of the appendix: ( INICET MAY 2023) Subcaecal Retrocaecal Inside the pelvis Paracaecal", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125658.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/6_SG2ifRQ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male, aged 24, has presented with asymptomatic scaly skin lesions on his back, symmetrically distributed. The provided images showcase the lesions. Can you identify the pattern of these skin lesions &amp; the specific disease? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Collarette scale - Christmas tree pattern - Pityriasis rosea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wickham’s striae - Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Christmas tree pattern - Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wornoff ring – Seborrheic dermatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Collarette scale - Christmas tree pattern - Pityriasis rosea", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_54.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_56.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Collarette scale - Christmas tree pattern - Pityriasis rosea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of Pityriasis rosea is primarily based on the characteristic appearance and distribution of the rash, with the herald patch and subsequent Christmas tree pattern being hallmark features. Awareness of this pattern and the self-limiting nature of the disease helps in reassuring patients and managing expectations regarding the course of the condition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Highest thermic effect? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proteins", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbohydrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fats", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fatty acids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Proteins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Proteins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The thermic effect of food (TEF) refers to the increase in energy expenditure that occurs during the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of nutrients in the body. This effect varies depending on the macronutrient composition of the food consumed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with C/O muscle weakness came to OPD. Doctor found he has cardiomyopathy &amp; diagnosed him to be a case of Barth syndrome, where patient has mitochondrial dysfunction. What is the defect in this patient: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiolipin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lecithin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lysolecithin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cephalin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cardiolipin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cardiolipin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiolipin is a unique phospholipid primarily found in the inner mitochondrial membrane, where it plays a crucial role in maintaining mitochondrial structure and function. The defective cardiolipin affects several mitochondrial processes, including energy production, electron transport chain function, and mitochondrial membrane stability. C/f Muscle weakness Neutropenia Cardiomyopathy</li><li>➤ Cardiolipin is a unique phospholipid primarily found in the inner mitochondrial membrane, where it plays a crucial role in maintaining mitochondrial structure and function.</li><li>➤ The defective cardiolipin affects several mitochondrial processes, including energy production, electron transport chain function, and mitochondrial membrane stability.</li><li>➤ C/f Muscle weakness Neutropenia Cardiomyopathy</li><li>➤ Muscle weakness Neutropenia Cardiomyopathy</li><li>➤ Muscle weakness</li><li>➤ Neutropenia</li><li>➤ Cardiomyopathy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old woman, experiencing 6 years of infertility, possesses a BMI of 33 and exhibits facial hair. Further investigations have diagnosed her with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and observed tubal spillage from both sides. Given her desire to conceive with her husband, what would be the most suitable management plan for her? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight loss+ Metformin + induction of ovulation with urinary gonadotrophins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight loss + folic acid, Try for spontaneous induction, if failed move to induction of ovulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metformin + finasteride + Induction of ovulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weight loss+ Metformin + Induction of ovulation with clomiphene", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Weight loss + folic acid, Try for spontaneous induction, if failed move to induction of ovulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/15/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_47.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Weight loss + folic acid, try for spontaneous induction, if failed move to induction of ovulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a woman with PCOS and infertility, the initial management should include weight loss and folic acid supplementation, with attempts at spontaneous ovulation before progressing to more invasive induction methods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old girl comes in with primary amenorrhea and indications of virilization. She displays underdeveloped breasts and pubic hair consistent with prepubertal stages, rated at Tanner stage 2. She has a closed-off vaginal canal and noticeable enlargement of the clitoris. Despite her female sex, her testosterone levels are within the male range. Her genetic makeup is 46XY. What is the likely medical diagnosis in this case? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 alpha reductase deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Androgen insensitivity syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Swyer syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 5 alpha reductase deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/15/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_49.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 5 alpha reductase deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given scenario points to a diagnosis of 5 alpha reductase deficiency.</li><li>• 5 alpha reductase deficiency causes inability to convert testosterone to DHT.</li><li>• When DHT levels are low, newborns will possess external genitalia with a feminine appearance. These youngsters are commonly brought up as girls until they reach puberty, at which point they begin to display signs of masculinization due to the influence of testosterone. As a result, clitoromegaly becomes evident. The absence of estrogen conversion from testosterone results in limited breast growth. Scanty pubic hair is observed since its growth is contingent on both testosterone and dihydrotestosterone.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. 17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency : Leads to reduced formation of corticosteroids, sex hormones and increased mineralocorticoids (causing hypokalemia and hypertension). Patient with XY chromosome presents with atypical genitalia and undescended testes. Patient with XX chromosome lacks secondary sexual development.</li><li>• Option B. 17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency</li><li>• Option C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome : Defect in androgen receptor resulting in female-appearing genetic male (46, XY); female external genitalia with scant axillary and pubic hair, rudimentary vagina; uterus and fallopian tubes absent due to persistence of anti-Mullerian hormone from testes. Patients develop normal functioning testes. Patient has increased testosterone, estrogen &amp; LH as compared to other sex chromosome disorders.</li><li>• Option C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome</li><li>• Option D. Swyer syndrome : 46 XY gonadal dysgenesis; Absent secondary sexual characters, but normal female internal and external genitalia. Gonadectomy needs to be done.</li><li>• Option D. Swyer syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5-alpha reductase deficiency causes primary amenorrhea and virilization in genetic females (46XY), resulting in the inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). This leads to female external genitalia at birth and masculinization at puberty, with signs such as clitoromegaly and underdeveloped breasts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The microorganism demonstrates resistance to meropenem and aminoglycosides, while being susceptible to ticarcillin-clavulanate and cotrimoxazole. Which microorganism is most likely responsible? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stenotrophomonas maltophila", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Burkholderia cepacia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acinetobacter baumannii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stenotrophomonas maltophila", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stenotrophomonas maltophila</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stenotrophomonas maltophila is an opportunistic pathogen resistant to meropenem and aminoglycosides but susceptible to ticarcillin-clavulanate and cotrimoxazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly male patient who received a kidney transplant a decade ago is presently under immunosuppressive treatment. He reports experiencing a persistent cough and shortness of breath over the past week. Microscopic examination of his sputum reveals the presence of gram-positive budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae. What is the probable diagnosis in this case? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Invasive mucormycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Invasive aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Invasive candidiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Information is not enough for the diagnosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Invasive candidiasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125634.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Invasive candidiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Invasive candidiasis is characterized by the presence of gram-positive budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae in tissue or clinical specimens, especially in immunocompromised patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What characteristics define necrosis among the options provided? ( INICET MAY 2023) Disrupted cell membrane Induces inflammation Swelling of the cell Can be seen physiologically", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-173332.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125696.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125694.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FEATURES OF NECROSIS</li><li>➤ FEATURES OF NECROSIS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Observational study - MOOSE", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systematic review - PRISMA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diagnostic Study - CONSORT", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Case report – CARE", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Diagnostic Study - CONSORT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-175549.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Diagnostic Study - CONSORT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Note - More reporting guidelines can be found on Equator network</li><li>➤ Note</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A surgeon returns the entire hernial sac into the abdominal cavity of a patient with an inguinal hernia without reducing its contents. What is this known as? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maydl's hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduction en masse", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sliding hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incarcerated hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Reduction en masse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/hernia-13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/hernia-11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Reduction en masse</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Organize the subsequent structures in the auditory pathway, beginning from the receptors and moving towards the cortex: ( INICET May 2023) Auditory Cortex Spiral ganglion Cochlear Nucleus Lateral leminiscus Inferior colliculus Olivary complex Medial geniculate body", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3-2-4-6-7-5-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2-3-4-6-7-5-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2-3-6-4-5-7-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3-2-6-4-7-5-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2-3-6-4-5-7-1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/inicet-may-2023-ent.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2-3-6-4-5-7-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AUDITORY PATHWAY</li><li>➤ AUDITORY PATHWAY</li><li>➤ E – Eighth nerve</li><li>➤ C – Cochlear nucleus</li><li>➤ O – Olivary complex (superior)</li><li>➤ L – Lateral lemniscus</li><li>➤ I – Inferior colliculus</li><li>➤ M – Medial geniculate body</li><li>➤ A – Auditory cortex</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Clinical Therapeutic Index of a drug is best described as: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose in an individual.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The range of doses at which a drug is effective without causing significant adverse effects.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose in a population.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The dosage at which a drug is both safe and effective in the majority of patients.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose in a population.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. The ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose in a population.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Clinical Therapeutic Index of a drug is the ratio of the median lethal dose (LD50) to the median effective dose (ED50) in a population, representing the drug's margin of safety. A higher Therapeutic Index indicates a greater margin of safety.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a cause of reversible dementia? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B12 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Normal pressure hydrocephalus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lewy body dementia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lewy body dementia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lewy body dementia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lewy body dementia is not a reversible cause of dementia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is diagnosed with non-small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC). Molecular testing reveals a specific mutation in the EGFR gene. The oncologist is considering using targeted therapy. For which of the following EGFR mutations is Osimertinib most appropriately used to treat non-small cell lung carcinoma? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T790M mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "L858R mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T890M mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "M790T mutation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. T790M mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/02/screenshot-2023-12-02-110037.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. T790M mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is an infrequent yet highly serious adverse outcome of clozapine that necessitates consistent monitoring?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suicidal tendency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Agranulocytosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebral bleeding", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Agranulocytosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Agranulocytosis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is utilized to establish dependence among the options provided? (INICET MAY 2023) Strong desire to use the drug Priority to use drugs other than any other activity Increased tolerance Persistent use of drugs despite knowing the harmful effects", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125607.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125608.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a case of fatality resulting from firearm injuries, the entrance wound displays solely an abrasion collar. The firearm's firing distance probably is? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contact range", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Close range", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Near range", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distant range", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Distant range", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-095226.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Distant range</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ There are five features of firearm entry wound (inner most to outermost):</li><li>➤ Grease Collar (inner most) Abrasion collar Singeing Blackening Tattooing (outer most)</li><li>➤ Grease Collar (inner most)</li><li>➤ Abrasion collar</li><li>➤ Singeing</li><li>➤ Blackening</li><li>➤ Tattooing (outer most)</li><li>➤ Out of these five features, Abrasion collar and Grease collar can be found in any entry wound, irrespective of the distance between victim and firearm. This is because these are produced by bullet itself as it enters the body.</li><li>➤ Abrasion collar and Grease collar</li><li>➤ can be found in any entry wound, irrespective of the distance between victim and firearm.</li><li>➤ Whereas Singeing, Blackening and Tattooing occur only upto a limited distance</li><li>➤ Singeing, Blackening and Tattooing occur only upto a limited distance</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vancomycin nomogram is known as (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Matzke scale", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salazar scale", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rummack-mathew scale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Krutzko scale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Matzke scale", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Matzke scale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Vancomycin nomogram, also known as the Matzke scale, is a crucial tool for determining the appropriate dosing of vancomycin based on creatinine clearance and trough serum concentration, ensuring both efficacy and safety in patient treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most common cause of puberty menorrhagia? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anovulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bleeding disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anovulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anovulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Anovulation is the most common cause of puberty menorrhagia. Menorrhagia refers to heavy menstrual bleeding that occurs in a regular cycle. In adolescents, anovulation, which is the failure of the ovary to release an oocyte during a menstrual cycle, frequently leads to heavy or prolonged bleeding due to the lack of a normal hormonal cycle that regulates the endometrial lining. Without the usual cyclical hormonal fluctuations, the endometrial lining may become excessively thick, leading to heavy bleeding when it sheds. This condition is typical in puberty due to the body's ongoing adjustment to hormonal regulation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Endometriosis : Endometriosis involves the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, which can cause painful menstruation and potentially contribute to menorrhagia. However, it is less common than anovulation as the primary cause of menorrhagia in adolescents.</li><li>• Option B. Endometriosis</li><li>• Option C. Malignancy : Malignancy is a rare cause of menorrhagia in puberty. While malignancy can lead to abnormal bleeding, it is not the most common cause in this age group.</li><li>• Option C. Malignancy</li><li>• Option D. Bleeding disorder : Bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease or hemophilia can cause menorrhagia but are less common compared to anovulation in adolescents.</li><li>• Option D. Bleeding disorder</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anovulation is the most common cause of menorrhagia in puberty.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding in the given ultrasound image. (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mercedes-Benz sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gall bladder polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gall bladder cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phrygian cap", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Phrygian cap", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Phrygian cap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Phrygian cap is the most common congenital anatomic variant of the gallbladder, appearing as a fold at the gallbladder fundus. It is asymptomatic and has no pathological significance, important to recognize in imaging to differentiate it from potential abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An individual experienced a dog bite. Both the person and the dog are up-to-date with their vaccinations. The person's medical history includes a splenectomy performed five years ago. What is the optimal course of action for managing this situation? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amoxiclav", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amoxiclav", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Amoxiclav</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amoxicillin/clavulanate is the optimal course of action for prophylactic treatment following a dog bite, especially in individuals with increased infection risk, such as those with a history of splenectomy. Thorough wound care and appropriate prophylaxis for tetanus and rabies should also be part of the management plan.</li><li>➤ Amoxicillin/clavulanate is the optimal course of action for prophylactic treatment following a dog bite, especially in individuals with increased infection risk, such as those with a history of splenectomy.</li><li>➤ Thorough wound care and appropriate prophylaxis for tetanus and rabies should also be part of the management plan.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old boy came with a tumor resembling a mushroom in the distal femur, which has been present for the last two years. What characteristics should the clinician look for to discern a potential malignant transformation? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Initially growth of the tumor was away from the joint, now the growth of tumor is towards the joint.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tumor does not have malignant transformation potential.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tumor is in continuation with bone marrow cavity of the normal bone.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyaline cap thickness on MRI is 2cms.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hyaline cap thickness on MRI is 2cms.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201023.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/screenshot-2024-01-04-190631.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hyaline cap thickness on MRI is 2cms.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The malignant transformation of osteochondroma is suspected when the hyaline cap thickness is 2cm, as seen on the MRI.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with a prolonged fever of unknown origin (PUO), raising suspicion of brucellosis. To confirm the diagnosis, various dilutions of the patient's serum sample are prepared for a standard agglutination test. The outcome is as follows: No agglutination is observed at serum dilutions of 1:20 and 1:40, while positive agglutination occurs at dilutions of 1:80 and 1:160. What factor is accountable for the lack of agglutination in the initial two dilutions? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incorrect antigen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incorrect antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibody excess", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antigen excess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Antibody excess", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125643.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/29/screenshot-2024-06-29-150704.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Antibody excess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The prozone phenomenon, where antibody excess prevents agglutination, can account for the lack of agglutination in low dilution samples.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the subsequent statements accurately describes the immunological anomaly associated with the absence of CD40 in B cells? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total lack of natural killer cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lack of CD8 mediated cytotoxicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decrease in lgG and increase in lgM", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inability of neutrophils to fight against infections", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decrease in lgG and increase in lgM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125683.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decrease in lgG and increase in lgM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyper IgM syndrome is characterized by an increased level of IgM and decreased levels of other immunoglobulins like IgG, due to a defect in the CD40/CD40L interaction necessary for immunoglobulin class switching.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What procedures are carried out during Breast Conservation Surgery? ( INICET MAY 2023) Wide local excision Axillary node dissection Frozen section (biopsy) to be done during surgery Post-operative radiotherapy is optional", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The rise in blood pressure that occurs at the onset of the Valsalva maneuver is a result of? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in intrathoracic pressure adding to left ventricular pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in intrathoracic pressure adding to aortic pressure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in left atrial pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase in left ventricular volume", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increase in intrathoracic pressure adding to aortic pressure", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125616.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Increase in intrathoracic pressure adding to aortic pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The rise in blood pressure at the onset of the Valsalva maneuver is primarily due to the increase in intrathoracic pressure adding to aortic pressure, along with increased sympathetic activity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the purpose of using the SCOFF protocol? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mental health disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Behavioural disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sexual health disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eating disorder", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Eating disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Eating disorder</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Xanthurenic Acid in urine indicates: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B6 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B1 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B2 deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin B6 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/09/18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin B6 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In individuals with a deficiency of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), the conversion of tryptophan to niacin (vitamin B3) is impaired. As a result, tryptophan is metabolized through an alternative pathway, leading to the accumulation of xanthurenic acid. Therefore, the presence of xanthurenic acid in urine is indicative of a vitamin B6 deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which metal causes the endemic peripheral vascular disease known as Blackfoot disease?(INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antimony", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cadmium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arsenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-095117.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Arsenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blackfoot disease, characterized by darkening and gangrene of the feet and lower legs, is specifically caused by chronic arsenic poisoning. Other heavy metals such as cadmium, lead, and mercury can cause peripheral vascular disease, but Blackfoot disease is unique to arsenic exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old female is diagnosed with breast cancer. Her tumor is found to be HER2-positive but estrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) negative. The tumor was resistant to trastuzumab. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be effective in the treatment of this patient's breast cancer? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lapatinib", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sorafenib", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vismodegib", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erlotinib", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lapatinib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Lapatinib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lapatinib is an effective treatment for HER2-positive breast cancer, especially in cases where the cancer has become resistant to trastuzumab. It works by targeting the HER2 receptor and can help manage this specific type of breast cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person who has undergone a bone marrow transplant in the past is now presenting with a lung lesion. Upon microscopic analysis, the image of the lesion is provided below. What is the probable responsible organism for this condition? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptococcosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mucormycosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125652.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125653.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125654.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/01/aspergelllitosis.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Mucormycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mucormycosis is indicated in this clinical scenario due to the patient's history of a bone marrow transplant and the presence of a lung lesion. The image provided shows broad aseptate hyphae , which is characteristic of Mucormycosis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Histoplasma: Is a dimorphic fungus. At 25°C, it shows mycelial phase and at 37°C, it shows Yeast form.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Histoplasma:</li><li>• Option B. Cryptococcus: Colonies can be demonstrated by negative staining of their capsule.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Cryptococcus:</li><li>• Option D . Aspergillosis: Shows narrow, acute angled branching and septate, differing from the non-septate hyphae</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Aspergillosis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis is characterized broad aseptate hyphae with acute -angle branching. which commonly affecting in immunocompromised patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A case of complete gonadal dysgenesis was observed in a 46XY individual with female characteristics. The origin of complete gonadal dysgenesis lies in alterations of the SRY gene. What leads to complete gonadal dysgenesis in the SRY gene? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Point mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deletion of gene", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Translocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inversion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Deletion of gene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Deletion of gene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Complete gonadal dysgenesis in a 46XY individual is primarily caused by the deletion of the SRY gene, which leads to a failure in the development of male gonads, resulting in female characteristics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An oncologist is discussing with a colleague about the latest evidence-based approaches to treating non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). The KEYNOTE-189 trial comes up in their conversation. Which of the following accurately describes the focus of the KEYNOTE-189 trial? ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The trial investigated NSCLC treatment using a combination of pembrolizumab and chemotherapy.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "The trial focused solely on the use of pembrolizumab for treating NSCLC.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The study explored the efficacy of combining nivolumab and chemotherapy for NSCLC.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The trial looked at nivolumab as a treatment option for NSCLC.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The trial investigated NSCLC treatment using a combination of pembrolizumab and chemotherapy.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/02/screenshot-2023-12-02-110349.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. The trial investigated NSCLC treatment using a combination of pembrolizumab and chemotherapy.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism in the given image. (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspergillus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Talaromyces", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blastomyces", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125651.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/untitled-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mucor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucor is identified by broad aseptate hyaline hyphae with wide-angle branching, and it typically lacks rhizoids, unlike Rhizopus which has nodal rhizoids.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the subsequent pairs are inaccurately matched? ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrin - G cells, Antrum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secretin - S cells, Duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CCK - I cells, Duodenum and jejunum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Motilin - M cells, Duodenum and Jejunum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Motilin - M cells, Duodenum and Jejunum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Motilin - M cells, Duodenum and Jejunum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GIT HORMONES</li><li>➤ GIT HORMONES</li><li>➤ Gastrin – G cell at antrum. Acts on Parietal cells stimulate the H+ K+ ATPase. Secretin – S cells at Duodenum. Decrease gastric acid secretion and Increase pancreatic HCO 3 - secretion. CCK-PZ – I cells in duodenum and jejunum. Increase pancreatic HCO 3 - secretion, Increase gall bladder contraction, Decrease gastric emptying and increase sphincter of Oddi relaxation. GIP – K cells in duodenum and jejunum. Decrease H+ secretion and increase insulin release. Motilin – Mo cells in small intestine. Produces migrating motor complexes (MMCs).</li><li>➤ Gastrin – G cell at antrum. Acts on Parietal cells stimulate the H+ K+ ATPase.</li><li>➤ Secretin – S cells at Duodenum. Decrease gastric acid secretion and Increase pancreatic HCO 3 - secretion.</li><li>➤ CCK-PZ – I cells in duodenum and jejunum. Increase pancreatic HCO 3 - secretion, Increase gall bladder contraction, Decrease gastric emptying and increase sphincter of Oddi relaxation.</li><li>➤ GIP – K cells in duodenum and jejunum. Decrease H+ secretion and increase insulin release.</li><li>➤ Motilin – Mo cells in small intestine. Produces migrating motor complexes (MMCs).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Below is an electron microscopy depiction of a cellular structure. Determine the type of cell being depicted: ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Target cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hairy cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gaucher cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hairy cell", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125679.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125680.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125681.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125682.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hairy cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hairy cells, with their distinctive cytoplasmic projections, are a hallmark of Hairy Cell Leukemia, a chronic B-cell malignancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old man suffering from persistent fatigue and lymph node enlargement visits the outpatient department. Examination of his peripheral smear reveals the presence of smudge cells. To further establish a diagnosis, what additional investigations will you conduct? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polymerase chain reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorescent in situ hybridization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flow cytometry", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytogenetics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Flow cytometry", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125670.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Flow cytometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flow cytometry is the primary diagnostic tool for confirming Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia, particularly in cases where smudge cells are identified on a peripheral smear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person arrived with a lesion on their left buttock. This individual has a past medical record of undergoing a heart transplant 15 years ago. Analysis of the fluid extracted from the lesion reveals the presence of gram-positive filamentous bacteria. What is the probable microbial agent responsible for this condition? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nocardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacillus anthracis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycobacterium leprae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nocardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125645.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125646.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125647.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125648.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125649.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125650.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nocardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Nocardia is a gram-positive, branching filamentous bacillus, particularly seen in immunocompromised patients, and can be identified using modified acid-fast staining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the FDA say about a diet, high in fat intake? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diet should contain 400 kcal from carbohydrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diet should contain total 1000 kcal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diet should contain 800 kcal from fat", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diet should contain 80% fats", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Diet should contain total 1000 kcal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Diet should contain total 1000 kcal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The FDA defines a high-fat diet as one that has around 50% of its total caloric intake from fats, and a high-calorie diet should contain a total of 1000 kcal.</li><li>➤ The FDA defines a high-fat diet as one that has around 50% of its total caloric intake from fats, and a high-calorie diet should contain a total of 1000 kcal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which sequence of dyes is employed for ocular surface examination and dry eye staining? ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluorescein → Rose Bengal → Lisssamine green", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rose Bengal → Lisssamine green → Fluorescein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lisssamine green → Rose Bengal → Fluorescein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fluorescein → Lisssamine green → Rose Bengal", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fluorescein → Lisssamine green → Rose Bengal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125629.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fluorescein → Lisssamine green → Rose Bengal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recommended sequence of application—starting with fluorescein, followed by lissamine green, and ending with Rose Bengal—minimizes discomfort and interference between the dyes. Since Rose Bengal can be irritating, it is applied last, after the assessment with the less irritating dyes has been completed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Total plasma exchange is done in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. How does TPE help in the management of TTP? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TPE removes the von Willebrand factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "TPE removes the antiplatelet antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TPE replenishes the coagulation factors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TPE removes anti-ADAMTS13 autoantibodies and thereby increases ADAMTS protease activity", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. TPE removes anti-ADAMTS13 autoantibodies and thereby increases ADAMTS protease activity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) TPE removes anti-ADAMTS13 autoantibodies and thereby increases ADAMTS protease activity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ TPE in TTP primarily removes anti-ADAMTS13 autoantibodies, increasing ADAMTS13 activity and reducing microthrombi formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given below is an X-ray of shoulder of a 25-year-old male who suffered a shoulder injury and now exhibits swelling around the shoulder joint. Based on the X-ray, which structure(s) is/are probable sites of injury? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligament", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coracohumeral ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coracoacromial ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acromioclavicular ligament", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Both acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligament", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201022.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/screenshot-2024-01-04-190504.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/screenshot-2024-01-04-190536.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Both acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligament</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In acromioclavicular joint dislocation or separation, as shown in the image provided in the question, there is tear in the acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "To which organism does the provided image of the cell wall belong? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria meningitides", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neisseria meningitides", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125641.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Neisseria meningitides</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neisseria meningitidis is identified by the presence of lipooligosaccharides (LOS) in its cell wall, a distinguishing feature of this gram-negative bacterium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the wood lamp findings with the respective diseases: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-e, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-e, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-181740.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-181843.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-181948.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-e,2-c,3-d,4-b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wood's lamp is a useful diagnostic tool in dermatology for visualizing certain fungal and bacterial infections, as well as pigmentary disorders. The specific color of fluorescence can guide clinicians in making a preliminary diagnosis, which must be confirmed with additional tests or clinical evaluation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a true association related to HRT (Hormone replacement therapy) among the options provided? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreases risk of Colon cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased risk of breast cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased risk of endometrial cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increases risk of osteoporosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decreases risk of Colon cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Decreases risk of Colon cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) has been associated with a decreased risk of colon cancer. Studies have shown that estrogen in HRT may have a protective effect against the development of colon cancer. This effect is believed to be related to estrogen’s impact on gastrointestinal mucosal growth and repair.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Decreased risk of breast cancer: This option is incorrect. HRT, particularly with estrogen and progestin, is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. Long-term use of combined HRT has been shown to elevate the risk of breast cancer in several studies.</li><li>• Option B. Decreased risk of breast cancer:</li><li>• Option C. Decreased risk of endometrial cancer: This option is incorrect. Unopposed estrogen (estrogen alone without progestin) increases the risk of endometrial cancer. To mitigate this risk, progestin is often added to HRT in women with an intact uterus.</li><li>• Option C. Decreased risk of endometrial cancer:</li><li>• Option D. Increases risk of osteoporosis: This option is incorrect. HRT is actually used prophylactically to reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Estrogen helps maintain bone density and prevent bone loss, which is beneficial in managing osteoporosis.</li><li>• Option D. Increases risk of osteoporosis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) decreases the risk of colon cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Statement 1: Clinically a patient having flaccid bullae with painful erosions, will show Suprabasal split and inflammatory infiltrate in the blister cleft on histopathological examination. Statement 2: Row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both the statements are true but 2 is not the conclusion of 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both the statements are true and 2 is the conclusion of 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both the statements are true but 2 is not the conclusion of 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-180832.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-180859.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Both the statements are true but 2 is not the conclusion of 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris , a blistering autoimmune skin condition. The condition is characterized by suprabasal acantholysis (a separation of skin cells above the basal cell layer), leading to the formation of flaccid bullae with painful erosions. The \"row of tombstones\" appearance describes a specific histological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris.</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris</li><li>➤ suprabasal acantholysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following isn't considered a benefit of USG compared to Mammography? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Can be used for screening mammographically undetectable or clinically non palpable breast mass", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Useful in young females with dense breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Differentiates between solid and Cystic lesions in the Breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guided biopsy can be done", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Can be used for screening mammographically undetectable or clinically non palpable breast mass", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Can be used for screening mammographically undetectable clinically non palpable breast mass</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ultrasound should not be considered a standalone screening tool for non-palpable breast masses or those not detected by mammography. However, it is invaluable in specific scenarios such as evaluating women with dense breasts, distinguishing between cystic and solid breast lesions, and facilitating guided biopsies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female presents with skin thickening muscle weakness and the peripheries becoming pale on exposure to cold. She is positive for ANA and anti-Scl-70 antibodies. Her creatinine kinase is elevated and muscle biopsy shows perifascicular infiltration. What is the antibody associated with this? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti-U3 RNP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-centromere antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti-PM-Scl antibody", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-Jo-1 antibody", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anti-PM-Scl antibody", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Anti-PM-Scl antibody</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-PM-Scl antibody is associated with overlap syndromes involving scleroderma and myositis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Organize the given steps of Karyotyping into the accurate sequence. ( INICET MAY 2023) Collect cells by peripheral vein using a heparin syringe Culture in phytohaemoagglutinin Incubation at 37°C for 3 days Harvest with colchicine Routine staining with Giemsa", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 2, 4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 5, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 1, 3, 4, 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256100.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The accurate sequence for conducting Karyotyping is outlined below:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion : Resting membrane potential is dependent on proteins and phosphate ions. Reason : Diffusion potential can be calculated using Nernst Equation. (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The assertion is independently a true statement, but the reasons is independently a false statement.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The assertion is independently a false statement, but the reasons is independently a true statement.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both assertion and reason are independently true and the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both assertion and reason are independently true and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both assertion and reason are independently true and the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125615.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Both assertion and reason are independently true and the reason is not the</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Resting membrane potential is maintained by the uneven distribution of ions, primarily sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), chloride (Cl-), and other negative ions (including proteins and phosphate ions), across the cell membrane. The Nernst equation is used to calculate the diffusion potential (also known as the equilibrium potential) for a specific ion across a semi-permeable membrane.</li><li>➤ Resting membrane potential is maintained by the uneven distribution of ions, primarily sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), chloride (Cl-), and other negative ions (including proteins and phosphate ions), across the cell membrane.</li><li>➤ The Nernst equation is used to calculate the diffusion potential (also known as the equilibrium potential) for a specific ion across a semi-permeable membrane.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given ECG? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Torsade’s de pointes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atrial flutter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Torsade’s de pointes", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-133825.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Torsade’s de pointes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Torsade’s de pointes are a type of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with a characteristic twisting pattern.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male patient presented with generalized fatigue, frequent urination, and increased thirst over the past few months. He mentions that he has also been experiencing muscle weakness and occasional abdominal discomfort. His abdomen spine X-ray shows the below finding. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wilson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Addison's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hyperparathyroidism", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hyperparathyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Widespread kidney calcifications seen on X-ray, coupled with symptoms of fatigue, frequent urination, and increased thirst, are suggestive of hyperparathyroidism. This condition results from excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, leading to elevated blood calcium levels and subsequent calcium deposition in organs like the kidneys (nephrocalcinosis).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following image: ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemangioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic hygroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Branchial cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ranula", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ranula", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/ranula.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ranula</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Order in which the following heart sounds are heard from superior to inferior on the left side chest wall? (INICET MAY 2023) 1.Pulmonary area 2.Erb’s area 3.Mitral area", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 → 1 → 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 → 2 → 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 → 1 → 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 → 2 → 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 → 2 → 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 → 2 → 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct order from superior to inferior for heart sounds on the left side chest wall is pulmonary area, Erb’s area, and mitral area.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After the administration of phenylephrine, the depicted images reveal an observed alteration. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nodular scleritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nodular episcleritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tenon's cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nodular phlycten", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nodular episcleritis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125630.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Nodular episcleritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Episcleritis can typically be diagnosed based on its clinical appearance and response to phenylephrine. The ability of phenylephrine to cause blanching of the inflamed episcleral vessels is a useful diagnostic tool, helping to differentiate episcleritis from more serious conditions like scleritis, where the inflammation involves deeper tissues and the vessels do not blanch.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Before conducting an A-V fistula procedure, which of the following tests is typically conducted? The image of the test is given below: ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allen's test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adson's test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Elevated arm stress test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nicoladoni's test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Allen's test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/surgery-q-bank-1-min.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/image-3-min.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Allen's test</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby is brought to OPD for 10-week DPT vaccination appointment. He previously experienced a fever exceeding 40°C and had an inconsolable cry at 6 weeks old after receiving a vaccination. What would be the recommended course of action moving forward? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Avoid DPT vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give DT vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give DPT vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Defer by 4 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Give DT vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Give DT vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severe reactions (such as high fever &gt;40.5°C, persistent inconsolable crying &gt;3 hours, or hypotonic-hyporesponsive episodes) after a previous DPT dose are indications to withhold the pertussis component in future doses. The child should receive the DT vaccine instead.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The phlebotomist needs to collect samples from a patient for various tests. Among the options provided, which sequence of blood collection for testing ensures that the sample remains uncontaminated, considering the additives present in the collection tubes? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Light blue → Red → Lavender → Grey", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Light blue → Lavender → Red → Grey", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grey → Red → Light blue → Lavender", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Red → Lavender → Grey → Light blue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Light blue → Red → Lavender → Grey", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Light blue → Red → Lavender → Grey</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The accurate color sequence for the blood collection tubes is as follows:</li><li>➤ Light blue → Red → Lavender → Grey</li><li>➤ →</li><li>➤ →</li><li>➤ →</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following disorders with their genetic abnormalities. ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256109.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256112.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256113.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256114.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256115.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256116.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256117.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256110.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman who is using oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) experiences white vaginal discharge without itching or a foul odor. The discharge causes yellow staining on her underwear. Upon examination, the discharge reveals the presence of typical lactobacilli and an acidic pH. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vaginal candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased normal vaginal discharge", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlamydia infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increased normal vaginal discharge", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Increased normal vaginal discharge</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Increased normal vaginal discharge, known as leucorrhea, can occur in women using oral contraceptive pills. This discharge is typically white or yellow, non-irritant, no purulent, no offensive, and associated with the presence of lactobacilli and an acidic pH.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one among the following has the lowest risk of perinatal transmission? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HSV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rubella", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rubella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rubella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rubella has the lowest risk of perinatal transmission among the options listed, though it can still cause serious fetal complications if transmitted during pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the subsequent factors can lead to non-immune hydrops except for: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ABO incompatibility", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parvovirus B19", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chromosomal defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alpha thalassemia major", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ABO incompatibility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-105104.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ABO incompatibility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Non-immune hydrops refers to fetal hydrops that occur due to causes other than those related to maternal-fetal blood group incompatibility. ABO incompatibility is an immune-related cause of hydrops, known as immune hydrops, where the mother's immune system attacks the fetus's red blood cells due to incompatible ABO blood types. Non-immune hydrops arises from various other causes such as cardiovascular issues, genetic disorders, congenital infections, hematologic disorders, placental problems, and miscellaneous conditions.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Parvovirus B19 : This is a viral infection that can cause non-immune hydrops by affecting the fetus's red blood cells, leading to severe anemia and hydrops.</li><li>• Option B. Parvovirus B19</li><li>• Option C. Chromosomal defect : Chromosomal abnormalities, such as trisomy 21, 18, or 13, can cause non-immune hydrops through associated congenital abnormalities or malformations.</li><li>• Option C. Chromosomal defect</li><li>• Option D. Alpha thalassemia major : This is a hematologic disorder that results in severe anemia, which can lead to non-immune hydrops.</li><li>• Option D. Alpha thalassemia major</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ABO incompatibility leads to immune hydrops and is not a cause of non-immune hydrops.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Our physiology is designed to detect harmful substances through the perception of bitterness. Which of the substances listed below is accountable for causing this bitter taste?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amino acids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alkaloids", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrogen ions", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aldehydes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alkaloids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/image-2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/picture1_pnuxQMV.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alkaloids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alkaloids are the substances responsible for causing a bitter taste, activating G-protein-coupled receptors and the IP3/DAG pathway, leading to an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and the excitation of sensory afferent fibers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with chronic kidney disease has the following laboratory reports. Calculate the anion gap in this patient. Na + : 145 mEq/L, K + 4 mEq/L Cl: 90 mEq/L HCO3: 20 mEq/L. (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "68", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "35", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "43", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 35", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 35</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anion gap is calculated as Na - (Cl + HCO3), and a high anion gap may indicate metabolic acidosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the mode of inheritance from the pedigree chart given below: ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autosomal dominant", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudodominant inheritance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incomplete penetrance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Autosomal dominant", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256107.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256108.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Autosomal dominant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by a consistent appearance of affected individuals in every generation, with no sex bias and manifestation in individuals who carry one copy of the mutant allele.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An autopsy was performed on a woman who was reportedly discovered near a village lake. Among the listed factors, which one does not indicate drowning prior to death:(INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Water in stomach", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Washerwoman's hands and feet", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "White leathery foam around mouth and nostrils", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Positive diatom test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Washerwoman's hands and feet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-095140.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Washerwoman's hands and feet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Washerwoman's hands and feet indicate immersion in water but do not specify drowning as the cause of death, unlike other indicators such as water in the stomach, white leathery foam, and a positive diatom test, which strongly suggest antemortem drowning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following a hysterectomy, the patient received morphine for pain management both during the post-operative period and while in the ward. The current symptoms include respiratory depression and constricted (pinpoint) pupils. What would be the recommended medication for this patient? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pethidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Buprenorphine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Naloxone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Naloxone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Naloxone is the drug of choice for treating acute opioid overdose, characterized by symptoms such as respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and coma. It acts rapidly to reverse the effects of opioids by competitively inhibiting their action at opioid receptors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The base sequence of the strand of DNA used as the template for transcription has the base sequence GATCTAC. What is the base sequence of RNA product?( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CUAGAUG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GTAGATC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GAUCUAC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GUAGAUC", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. GUAGAUC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) GUAGAUC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The base sequence of RNA formed is exactly same as non-template strand which in this case is 5’ GTAGATC 3’. We have to just replace the T with U to get the RNA sequence. So RNA sequence is: 5’ GUAGAUC 3’</li><li>• The base sequence of RNA formed is exactly same as non-template strand which in this case is 5’ GTAGATC 3’.</li><li>• We have to just replace the T with U to get the RNA sequence. So RNA sequence is: 5’ GUAGAUC 3’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The complementary base pairing rules are:</li><li>➤ The complementary base pairing rules are:</li><li>➤ Adenine (A) pairs with Uracil (U) in RNA. Thymine (T) pairs with Adenine (A). Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G). Guanine (G) pairs with Cytosine (C).</li><li>➤ Adenine (A) pairs with Uracil (U) in RNA.</li><li>➤ Thymine (T) pairs with Adenine (A).</li><li>➤ Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G).</li><li>➤ Guanine (G) pairs with Cytosine (C).</li><li>➤ The RNA product formed during transcription is complementary to the DNA template strand and follows the base-pairing rules with uracil replacing thymine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following disorders is caused due to abnormal folding of proteins? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nephritic syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a disorder caused by the abnormal folding of prion proteins, leading to severe and fatal brain degeneration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mechanism of thalidomide teratogenicity include all except", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibition of angiogenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in IL-2, IL-4 and IL-5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Generation of oxygen free radicals", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Binding to cereblon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increase in IL-2, IL-4 and IL-5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Increase in IL-2, IL-4 and IL-5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thalidomide's teratogenicity is primarily associated with mechanisms such as the inhibition of angiogenesis, generation of oxygen free radicals, and binding to the cereblon protein. It does not cause an increase in IL-2, IL-4, and IL-5; in fact, it suppresses these interleukins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An individual with type 2 diabetes mellitus was prescribed a medication that lowered their HbA1C levels from 7.6 to 6.7. Subsequently, the person began experiencing discomfort characterized by itching in the vulvovaginal region. What is the probable medication that was initiated for this individual? (INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acarbose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Canagliflozin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Linagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liraglutide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Canagliflozin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Canagliflozin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Canagliflozin is an SGLT2 inhibitor that lowers blood sugar by causing more glucose to be excreted in the urine. It is known for causing genitourinary infections, including vulvovaginal candidiasis, which can result in symptoms like itching and discomfort.</li><li>➤ Canagliflozin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A study involved 30,000 women who were monitored for a period of 10 years to track the occurrence of breast cancer. Among them, 1200 women developed cancer and were subsequently given a questionnaire to evaluate potential risk factors. In parallel, 2000 women from the same study served as controls and were also subjected to the questionnaire. What is the name of this type of study? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retrospective cohort", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nested case control", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cross control cohort", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nested case control", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nested case control</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A nested case-control study involves identifying cases and controls from an existing cohort that is being followed over time, making it a cost-effective way to study the associations between exposures and outcomes.</li><li>➤ A nested case-control study involves identifying cases and controls from an existing cohort that is being followed over time, making it a cost-effective way to study the associations between exposures and outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old man has arrived with a gradual swelling on the left side of his face persisting for two weeks. He had a prior incident of trauma involving wood, which occurred two months ago. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses reveals a mass within the subcutaneous tissue of the left cheek. Examination of a tissue sample obtained via biopsy indicates the presence of a foreign body granuloma, with positive staining observed using PAS and GMS methods. What is the likely diagnosis? ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Midline lethal granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Foreign body granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phycomycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG4 granuloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Phycomycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Phycomycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phycomycosis should be considered in patients with a history of trauma, swelling, and positive fungal stains (PAS and GMS), particularly if they have underlying conditions like diabetes or immunosuppression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a fetal monitoring, which of the following factors primarily contributes to an increase in fetal heart rate acceleration during labor and delivery, signifying fetal well-being? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carotid body chemoreceptors", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic baroreceptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autonomic brain stem regulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ANP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carotid body chemoreceptors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/image-3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Carotid body chemoreceptors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Carotid body chemoreceptors are primarily responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen levels and contributing to fetal heart rate acceleration during labor, indicating fetal well-being.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the emergency department with a history of being involved in a road traffic accident, resulting in a fracture of the femur shaft. The patient's condition was promptly stabilized. However, after a period of 12 hours, the individual experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing, confusion, and the appearance of small reddish-purple skin rashes (petechiae) over the chest and underarm areas. What potential diagnosis could explain these symptoms? (INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fat embolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Head injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blunt trauma to the chest", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemorrhagic shock", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fat embolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/fat-embolism_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Fat embolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ History of a road traffic accident, resulting in a fracture of the femur shaft with appearance of symptoms of sudden onset of difficulty breathing, confusion, and small reddish-purple skin rashes over the chest and underarm areas after a period of 12 hours all indicates fat embolism which needs immediate intervention.</li><li>➤ History of a road traffic accident, resulting in a fracture of the femur shaft with appearance of symptoms of sudden onset of difficulty breathing, confusion, and small reddish-purple skin rashes over the chest and underarm areas after a period of 12 hours all indicates fat embolism which needs immediate intervention.</li><li>➤ History of a road traffic accident, resulting in a fracture of the femur shaft with appearance of symptoms of sudden onset of difficulty breathing, confusion, and small reddish-purple skin rashes over the chest and underarm areas after a period of 12 hours all indicates fat embolism which needs immediate intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the characteristics resulting from the compression of the listed structures in the event of thyroid enlargement. (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/screenshot-2023-11-04-192025.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-125556.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Trachea - c. Dyspnea (Difficulty Breathing): Thyroid enlargement can lead to the compression of the trachea (windpipe), causing narrowing of the airway. This compression can result in difficulty breathing, also known as dyspnea. Esophagus - d. Dysphagia (Difficulty Swallowing): When the thyroid gland enlarges and presses against the esophagus (the tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach), it can interfere with the normal swallowing process, leading to dysphagia or difficulty swallowing. Sympathetic Chain - b. Horner's Syndrome : Compression of the sympathetic chain, which runs along the sides of the neck, can result in Horner's syndrome. Horner's syndrome includes signs such as ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) on one side of the face. Thyroid enlargement can affect sympathetic nerve fibers and lead to these symptoms. Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve - a. Hoarseness: The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates the muscles responsible for vocal cord movement. Compression or damage to this nerve due to thyroid enlargement can result in hoarseness of voice and voice changes.</li><li>• Trachea - c. Dyspnea (Difficulty Breathing): Thyroid enlargement can lead to the compression of the trachea (windpipe), causing narrowing of the airway. This compression can result in difficulty breathing, also known as dyspnea.</li><li>• Trachea - c. Dyspnea (Difficulty Breathing):</li><li>• Esophagus - d. Dysphagia (Difficulty Swallowing): When the thyroid gland enlarges and presses against the esophagus (the tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach), it can interfere with the normal swallowing process, leading to dysphagia or difficulty swallowing.</li><li>• Esophagus - d. Dysphagia (Difficulty Swallowing):</li><li>• Sympathetic Chain - b. Horner's Syndrome : Compression of the sympathetic chain, which runs along the sides of the neck, can result in Horner's syndrome. Horner's syndrome includes signs such as ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) on one side of the face. Thyroid enlargement can affect sympathetic nerve fibers and lead to these symptoms.</li><li>• Sympathetic Chain - b. Horner's Syndrome</li><li>• Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve - a. Hoarseness: The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates the muscles responsible for vocal cord movement. Compression or damage to this nerve due to thyroid enlargement can result in hoarseness of voice and voice changes.</li><li>• Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve - a. Hoarseness:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these statements regarding primary dysmenorrhea is true? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pain begins after few hours of onset of periods and can last up to 48 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is dependent on psychological factors", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pain begins 3 days prior to the onset of periods and is present up to the second day of the period", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GnRH antagonists are the first line of treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is dependent on psychological factors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It Is dependent on psychological factors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary dysmenorrhea, characterized by menstrual pain without underlying pelvic pathology, can be influenced by psychological factors. This type of dysmenorrhea begins before or with the onset of menstrual periods and is typically treated first with NSAIDs, not GnRH antagonists.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?(INICET MAY 2023) 1. Iliococcygeus 2. Pubococcygeus 3. Obturator internus 4. Deep transverse perinei", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/anotmy-12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus muscles (part of the levator ani muscle group). The obturator internus and deep transverse perineal muscles are nearby but are not considered part of the pelvic diaphragm itself.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is not true about male sexual development?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "At eight weeks the embryo is bipotent", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wolffian duct develops into epididymis and vas deferens on either side of the body", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mullerian inhibiting substance inhibits mullerian duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dihydrotestosterone leads to the development of secondary sexual characters and external genitalia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. At eight weeks the embryo is bipotent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) At eight weeks the embryo is bipotent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• At eight weeks of gestation, the embryo is no longer bipotent. The term \"bipotent\" refers to the embryo's capability to develop into either male or female structures, which is true up until about the sixth week of development. By the eighth week, sexual differentiation is already underway, with the influence of the SRY gene causing the gonads to differentiate into testes in 46XY embryos. This differentiation results in a shift away from bipotency, making the embryo committed to developing male characteristics.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Wolffian duct develops into epididymis and vas deferens on either side of the body : This statement is true. The Wolffian ducts, under the influence of testosterone, develop into the male reproductive structures including the epididymis and vas deferens.</li><li>• Option B. Wolffian duct develops into epididymis and vas deferens on either side of the body</li><li>• Option C. Mullerian inhibiting substance inhibits Mullerian duct : This statement is true. Mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS), also known as anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH), is produced by Sertoli cells in the testes and inhibits the development of the Mullerian ducts, which would otherwise develop into female reproductive structures such as the uterine tubes and uterus.</li><li>• Option C. Mullerian inhibiting substance inhibits Mullerian duct</li><li>• Option D. Dihydrotestosterone leads to the development of secondary sexual characters and external genitalia : This statement is true. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT), a potent metabolite of testosterone, is crucial for the development of male external genitalia and secondary sexual characteristics such as facial hair and a deeper voice.</li><li>• Option D. Dihydrotestosterone leads to the development of secondary sexual characters and external genitalia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ At eight weeks of gestation, the embryo is no longer bipotent; sexual differentiation has already commenced.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an anti-apoptotic factor? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PUMA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BAD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BAK", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MCL 1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. MCL 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-173835.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) MCL 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cause(s) that result in non-scarring alopecia from the following options: ( INICET May 2023) Alopecia areata Telogen effluvium Androgenic alopecia Frontal fibrosing alopecia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-182828.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-182935.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old male child arrived with a history of fever, reddened and congested conjunctiva, along with skin exhibiting redness and peeling, as depicted in the provided images. A 2D echocardiogram revealed the presence of a coronary aneurysm. What constitutes the initial course of treatment for this condition? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IVIG", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clopidogrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LMWH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IVIG", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/15/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_53.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-151928.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IVIG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Kawasaki disease, the initial course of treatment involves the administration of IVIG to reduce the risk of coronary artery aneurysms and other complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The WHO-created slogan 'Perform Correctly,' regarding initial snake bite assistance, includes everything listed below except for which one? ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reassurance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tell sequence of events in detail after the bite", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Go to hospital", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incisions", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Incisions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-095255.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Incisions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Do not interfere with the snake bite wound. Always reassure the patient, immobilize the limb, and seek medical help immediately without attempting harmful interventions like making incisions or applying chemicals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT an anterior relation of the third part of the duodenum? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior mesenteric vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loops of jejunum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Root of mesentery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fundus and body of Gall bladder", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fundus and body of Gall bladder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/anotmy-10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-123322.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Fundus and body of Gall bladder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The fundus and body of the gallbladder are not typically considered anterior relations of the third part of the duodenum. The gallbladder is situated more to the right and superior to the duodenum, so it is not directly in front of it.</li><li>• Note - The junction of the first and second parts of the duodenum lies posterior to the neck of the gallbladder. The anterior relations of the third segment of the duodenum comprise the Superior mesenteric vessels, the Root of the mesentery, and Loops of the jejunum</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A) Superior mesenteric vessels : The superior mesenteric vessels, which include the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) and superior mesenteric vein (SMV), are anterior relations of the third part of the duodenum. The SMA runs just posterior to the third part of the duodenum, and the SMV is typically located to the right of the SMA and also in front of the duodenum.</li><li>• Option A)</li><li>• Superior mesenteric vessels</li><li>• Option B) Loops of jejunum: Loops of the jejunum, which are part of the small intestine, can lie anterior to the third part of the duodenum. The small intestine, including the jejunum, is positioned in the abdominal cavity, and its loops can be found in close proximity to the duodenum.</li><li>• Option B)</li><li>• Loops of jejunum:</li><li>• Option C) Root of mesentery: The root of the mesentery is an extension of the peritoneum that connects the small intestine (including the jejunum and ileum) to the posterior abdominal wall. It passes in front of the third part of the duodenum as it continues to the jejunum and ileum. Therefore, it is an anterior relation of the third part of the duodenum.</li><li>• Option C)</li><li>• Root of mesentery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What among the following can be employed for establishing the confidence interval in the Kaplan-Meier survival curve? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unequal precision band", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hirshberg band", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Holmes band", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hall-Wellner Band", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hall-Wellner Band", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/psm.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hall-Wellner Band</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hall-Wellner band is employed for establishing the confidence interval in the Kaplan-Meier survival curve, providing a visual representation of the variability and confidence in the survival estimates.</li><li>➤ The Hall-Wellner band is employed for establishing the confidence interval in the Kaplan-Meier survival curve, providing a visual representation of the variability and confidence in the survival estimates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false about postmortem changes? ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Greenish discoloration in right iliac fossa is the earliest sign of decomposition.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "In cases of drowning, postmortem hypostasis is seen only in lower limbs.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adipocere is seen in bodies recovered from water source.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cadaveric spasm is seen only in specific group of muscles.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. In cases of drowning, postmortem hypostasis is seen only in lower limbs.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-095331.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. In cases of drowning, postmortem hypostasis is seen only in lower limbs.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postmortem hypostasis occurs in dependent parts of the body based on the position at the time of death. In drowning cases, it affects the face, neck, chest, and limbs, not just the lower limbs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After visiting a village temple with his grandmother, a 5-year-old boy began crying intensely during the return trip. Within three hours, he was brought to the emergency department. He displayed symptoms such as altered consciousness, cold and sweaty extremities, heightened salivation, and excessive sweating. Physical examination revealed paleness and priapism, along with vital signs as follows: blood pressure of 140/78 mmHg, heart rate of 152 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 96%. Considering his condition, what treatment approach would you choose for his management? ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti-snake venom", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methylprednisolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prazosin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenaline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prazosin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Prazosin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prazosin is the first-line treatment for scorpion envenomation due to its ability to suppress sympathetic outflow and mitigate the effects of the autonomic storm.</li><li>➤ Prazosin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an examination for drunkenness, a person smells of alcohol and his conjunctiva appear red. During his motor examination, it is observed that he can walk in a straight line and can talk normally. Which of the following statements is true?(INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "He has consumed alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "He has consumed alcohol and is under the influence of alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "He has consumed alcohol but is not under its influence", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "He has not consumed alcohol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. He has consumed alcohol but is not under its influence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-095059.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. He has consumed alcohol but is not under its influence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood-Alcohol Concentration and Symptoms:</li><li>➤ Blood-Alcohol Concentration and Symptoms:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of ANA staining pattern shown in the image below? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Centromeric", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homogenous", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Speckled", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nucleolar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Centromeric", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-152907.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Centromeric</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Centromeric pattern in ANA staining is associated with anti-centromere antibodies and limited scleroderma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements regarding lithium is correct? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is approved for treatment of absent seizures", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fine tremors can be noted within therapeutic range", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It does not cause teratogenicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is not absorbed orally", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fine tremors can be noted within therapeutic range", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Fine tremors can be noted within therapeutic range</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lithium, a medication commonly used for bipolar disorder, can cause fine tremors within the therapeutic range. It is well absorbed orally and has teratogenic potential, making it important to use with caution in pregnant women.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the surgical instrument shown in the image: ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adson's forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kocher's forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mixter forceps", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rampley forceps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mixter forceps", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/9_tZbETJx.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/10_ZhUJgJY.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/111.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/12_5OuZEGc.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mixter forceps</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During her pregnancy, the lady regularly cleans her cat's litter to prevent toxoplasma infection. What is the specific infective stage of this organism found in the cat feces? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bradyzoites", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tissue cysts", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tachyzoites", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oocysts", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oocysts", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125636.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Oocysts</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The specific infective stage of Toxoplasma gondii found in cat feces is the oocyst, which poses a risk of infection if ingested.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the optimal urine output for a patient who has undergone laparoscopic cholecystectomy? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "500 ml/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.5 ml/minute", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.5-1.5 ml/kg/hour", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 ml/kg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.5-1.5 ml/kg/hour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 0.5-1.5 ml/kg/hour</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the subsequent options is non-essential in the evaluation of mosaic Turner syndrome? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti-nuclear antibodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose tolerance test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Audiometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Echocardiography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anti-nuclear antibodies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125693.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anti-nuclear antibodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While glucose tolerance testing, audiometry, and echocardiography are essential in the evaluation of Turner syndrome, testing for anti-nuclear antibodies is not necessary unless there is a clinical suspicion of an associated autoimmune disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following in the sequence of auditory pathway: (INICET MAY 2023) Cochlear nucleus Spiral ganglion Superior olivary nucleus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-2-3-4-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5-4-3-2-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2-1-3-4-5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3-4-5-1-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2-1-3-4-5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2-1-3-4-5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of structures involved in the auditory pathway from the periphery to the center is ( E COLI MA ).</li><li>➤ E COLI MA</li><li>➤ Eighth (Vestibulocochlear) nerve Cochlear Nucleus Superior Olivary nucleus Lateral lemniscus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body Auditory cortex</li><li>➤ Eighth (Vestibulocochlear) nerve</li><li>➤ Cochlear Nucleus</li><li>➤ Superior Olivary nucleus</li><li>➤ Lateral lemniscus</li><li>➤ Inferior colliculus</li><li>➤ Medial geniculate body</li><li>➤ Auditory cortex</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient is being treated for a mood disorder. After starting a new medication, he experiences priapism, a prolonged, painful erection. The healthcare provider is considering changing the medication. Which drug is most likely responsible for causing priapism in this patient? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trazodone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venlafaxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bupropion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mirtazapine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trazodone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Trazodone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trazodone is the most likely antidepressant to cause priapism among the listed options due to its known side effect profile. This serious condition necessitates careful monitoring and potentially switching medications to prevent recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "La belle indifference is seen in which of the following conditions? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mania", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conversion disorder", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Conversion disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Conversion disorder</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant female visited the obstetrics and gynecology outpatient department (OBG OPD) for her regular prenatal examination. Her past pregnancy involved a stillbirth at 28 weeks. She has a history of engaging in sexual relations with multiple partners and recalls a painless sore on her vulva before her previous pregnancy. What initial investigative step should be taken for this patient? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "VDRL", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dark ground microscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Culture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. VDRL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) VDRL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a pregnant woman with a history of stillbirth and a painless genital ulcer, the initial investigation should be the VDRL test to screen for syphilis, as syphilis can significantly impact pregnancy outcomes and requires prompt treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the given statements, which one would lead you to consider primary amenorrhea as a possibility? (INICET MAY 2023) Failure to attain menarche by 15 years of age Failure to attain menarche even after 3 years of thelarche High levels of TSH and short stature Failure of development of breasts by 13 years of age", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary amenorrhea should be considered if there is failure to attain menarche by 15 years of age, failure to attain menarche even after 3 years of thelarche, or failure of breast development by 13 years of age.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Organize the subsequent afferent columns in the floor of the fourth ventricle, proceeding from the medial to the lateral direction. (INICET MAY 2023) 1. General somatic 2. General visceral 3. Special somatic 4. Special visceral", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 1, 4, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4, 1, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4, 3, 2, 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 4, 1, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-124220.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/whatsapp-image-2023-11-04-at-190127.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2, 4, 1, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the floor of the fourth ventricle, the arrangement of the afferent sensory columns from medial to lateral is - 2. General visceral, 4. Special visceral, 1. General somatic &amp; 3. Special somatic</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea and has orthostatic hypotension. What metabolic abnormalities would you expect in this patient? (INICET MAY 2023) 1.Hypokalemia 2.Hypochloremia 3.Metabolic alkalosis 4.Respiratory alkalosis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 ,3,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severe vomiting and diarrhea typically cause hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic alkalosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most frequent cause of adrenal incidentaloma? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subclinical Cushing's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aldosterone producing adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-functioning adenoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Non-functioning adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Non-functioning adenoma</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What diseases' risk is elevated due to smoking? ( INICET MAY 2023) Duct ectasia Fibroadenoma Mondor's disease Breast carcinoma", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 &amp; 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 &amp; 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old patient arrives at the OPD with a concern about her ability to perceive speech sounds while struggling to comprehend the actual words being spoken. Her Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA) and Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA) results show discrepancies, as the PTA is relatively within the normal range. However, her mid-latency and cortical responses are both non-existent. What probable diagnosis can be inferred from these findings? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Michel aplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Auditory neuropathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malingering", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cochlear otosclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Auditory neuropathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Auditory neuropathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Auditory neuropathy should be suspected in patients who present with normal hearing sensitivity on pure tone audiometry but show significant difficulties with speech comprehension and abnormal brainstem evoked response audiometry results.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic cigarette smoker now joined a construction company. His pulmonary function test results are given below.(INICET MAY 2023) Initial lung volumes were: FEV1 - 0.9L, FVC - 1.9L, FEV1/FVC - 0.4 After bronchodilation: FEV1 - 1.9L, FVC - 3.9L, FEV1/FVC - 0.4 What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vascular disease with bronchodilator reversibility", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restrictive lung disease with bronchodilator reversibility", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Restrictive lung disease without bronchodilator reversibility", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obstructive disease with bronchodilator reversibility", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Obstructive disease with bronchodilator reversibility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Obstructive disease with bronchodilator reversibility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma or COPD, may show bronchodilator reversibility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During which phase of the cardiac cycle is an AR murmur likely to be heard? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular ejection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Throughout cardiac cycle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isovolumetric contraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular diastole", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ventricular diastole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ventricular diastole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aortic regurgitation murmurs are heard during ventricular diastole</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In this case, a young boy is exhibiting symptoms of reduced mood, decreased energy, and diminished engagement with his environment. He has refrained from eating for the past week and his thoughts include phrases like \"I have lost my mind. I am deceased. How can I consume food?\". What is the specific delusion in this scenario? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cotard's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypochondriacal delusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nihilistic delusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bizarre delusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nihilistic delusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nihilistic delusion</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old girl, accompanied by her mother, is brought to a lady police sub-inspector, alleging a history of sexual violence that occurred two days ago. The next course of action for the registered medical practitioner would be?(INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Take a detailed history", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Preserve clothing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Take consent for genital examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Documentation of injuries and examination findings", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Take a detailed history", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Take a detailed history</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In cases of alleged sexual violence, the initial and crucial step for the registered medical practitioner is to take a detailed history from the victim.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What condition can lead to the characteristic waveform on capnography displayed by a patient under general anesthesia as observed on the ET CO2 monitor? ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malignant hyperthermia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchospasm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rebreathing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Accidental extubation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bronchospasm", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/20-24-monitoring-in-anesthesia-6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/20-24-monitoring-in-anesthesia-3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/20-24-monitoring-in-anesthesia-9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/20-24-monitoring-in-anesthesia-7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bronchospasm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shark Fin appearance seen in bronchospasm is due to anaphylaxis.</li><li>➤ Shark Fin appearance seen in bronchospasm is due to anaphylaxis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Liver produces KB but cannot use KB due to absence of which enzyme: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiophorase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiolase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HMG CoA synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HMG CoA Reductase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thiophorase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The liver plays a crucial role in ketone body metabolism. During periods of prolonged fasting or low carbohydrate intake, the liver produces ketone bodies (acetoacetate and β-hydroxybutyrate) through a process called ketogenesis. These ketone bodies are then released into the bloodstream and can be used as an alternative fuel source by various tissues, including the brain, heart, and skeletal muscles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of hypoxia according to given graph: (Brown graph is normal) ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stagnant hypoxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histotoxic hypoxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypoxic hypoxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anemic hypoxia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Anemic hypoxia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125697.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125698.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Anemic hypoxia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stagnant hypoxia: Oxygen deficiency due to poor blood circulation. Histotoxic hypoxia: Cells unable to utilize oxygen despite its availability. Hypoxic hypoxia: Generalized lack of oxygen in the body's tissues. Anemic hypoxia: Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood due to low hemoglobin.</li><li>➤ Stagnant hypoxia: Oxygen deficiency due to poor blood circulation.</li><li>➤ Histotoxic hypoxia: Cells unable to utilize oxygen despite its availability.</li><li>➤ Hypoxic hypoxia: Generalized lack of oxygen in the body's tissues.</li><li>➤ Anemic hypoxia: Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood due to low hemoglobin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the statements regarding claudication pain is incorrect? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rest pain is seen more in the night", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pain in intermittent claudication comes at first step of walking.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most common cause is atheroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The clinical stem does not reflect the site of peripheral arterial obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pain in intermittent claudication comes at first step of walking.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pain in intermittent claudication comes at first step of walking.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The incorrect statement among the provided options is that pain in intermittent claudication occurs at the first step of walking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are true about subclinical myocarditis? (INICET MAY 2023) Palpitations Elevated BNP Troponins Regional wall motion abnormalities in echo ECG suggestive of myocarditis Low LVEF in echo", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,2,3,4,5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,3,4,5", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2,3,4,5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2,3,4,5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subclinical myocarditis can present with elevated cardiac biomarkers, regional wall motion abnormalities, ECG changes, and reduced LVEF, but not Palpitations, which is common in viral myocarditis.</li><li>➤ Past common causes of myocarditis: Coxsackie virus types A and B.</li><li>➤ Currently, Most common cause of myocarditis: Parvovirus B19 and HHV6.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presented with excessive daytime sleepiness and impaired concentration and memory for one year. On examination the BMI was 43 kg/m² and BP was 170/98 mmHg. ABG was done in awake state and the findings are given below. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? PaO2: 70 mmHg PaCO2: 53 mmHg HCO3: 33 mmHg. (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obesity hypoventilation syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obstructive sleep apnea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central sleep apnea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Narcolepsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Obesity hypoventilation syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obesity hypoventilation syndrome involves obesity, chronic hypercapnia, and hypoxemia, primarily in the awake state.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old woman comes in with a grayish-white vaginal discharge. Upon conducting a gram stain of the discharge, clue cells are observed. What are clue cells? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Degranulated neutrophils", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epithelial cells covered by bacteria", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gardenella vaginalis with Bacillin rods", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doderlein bacili in the macrophage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epithelial cells covered by bacteria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/15/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_44.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Epithelial cells covered by bacteria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clue cells are epithelial cells covered by bacteria, and their presence is indicative of bacterial vaginosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old man presents with weight loss and fever. The patient reports a history of blood in the stool and vomiting two weeks ago. Upon examination, tenderness is noted in the right hypochondrium along with an enlarged liver (hepatomegaly). An abdominal CT scan reveals a lesion in the right liver lobe characterized by irregular borders, several partitions, and varied densities. What is the most probable diagnosis? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyogenic liver abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydatid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amoebic liver abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemangioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Amoebic liver abscess", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/10/screenshot-2024-09-10-123426.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Amoebic liver abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of clinical symptoms, physical examination findings, and the characteristic imaging features of an irregular, partitioned lesion in the liver makes amoebic liver abscess the most probable diagnosis in this case</li><li>➤ ANCHOVY SAUCE – STERILE PUS SEEN IN AMEBIC LIVER ABSCESS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false for descriptors of central tendency? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mode is affected by extreme values", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mean is affected by extreme values", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Median is calculated by overall observations", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mode can be used as a qualitative data descriptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mode is affected by extreme values", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mode is affected by extreme values</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The mode is not affected by extreme values and can be used to describe qualitative data. In contrast, the mean is affected by extreme values, and the median is a robust measure of central tendency that is calculated using overall observations.</li><li>➤ The mode is not affected by extreme values and can be used to describe qualitative data.</li><li>➤ In contrast, the mean is affected by extreme values, and the median is a robust measure of central tendency that is calculated using overall observations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where is the SRY region located?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Short arm of Y chromosome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Short arm of X chromosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Long arm of Y chromosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Long arm of X chromosome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Short arm of Y chromosome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/anotmy-11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Short arm of Y chromosome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The SRY gene is located on the short arm (p-arm) of the Y chromosome (Yp11). This gene is often referred to as the \"master switch\" for male development. It codes for a transcription factor that triggers the development of testes in an embryo, which, in turn, leads to the development of male reproductive structures.</li><li>• The SRY gene is located on the short arm (p-arm) of the Y chromosome (Yp11). This gene is often referred to as the \"master switch\" for male development. It codes for a transcription factor that triggers the development of testes in an embryo, which, in turn, leads to the development of male reproductive structures.</li><li>• It is an intron less sex-determining gene on the Y chromosome.</li><li>• It is an intron less sex-determining gene on the Y chromosome.</li><li>• Y- chromosome</li><li>• The SRY (Sex-determining Region Y) gene is a critical genetic region responsible for initiating male sex determination and the development of male reproductive organs in mammals, including humans. Let's discuss the location of the SRY region in detail for each option:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B) Short arm of X chromosome: Incorrect. The SRY gene is not located on the X chromosome. It is specific to the Y chromosome and plays a pivotal role in male sex determination.</li><li>• Option B) Short arm of X chromosome:</li><li>• Option C) Long arm of Y chromosome: Incorrect. The SRY gene is not on the long arm (q-arm) of the Y chromosome. It is situated on the short arm, as mentioned earlier.</li><li>• Option C) Long arm of Y chromosome:</li><li>• Option D) Long arm of X chromosome: Incorrect. The SRY gene is not present on the X chromosome. It is unique to the Y chromosome and is responsible for the differentiation of the bipotential gonad into the testis during early embryonic development.</li><li>• Option D) Long arm of X chromosome:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sex- determining region Y protein (SRY) gene or TDF ( Testis-determining factor ) is a DNA binding protein encoded by the SRY gene that is responsible for the initiation of male sex determination in mammals. Its expression causes the development of primary sex cords, which later develop into seminiferous tubules.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the options listed can be utilized for assessing data normalcy except? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plot histogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mantel-Haenszel test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Box whisker", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shapiro Wilk test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mantel-Haenszel test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mantel-Haenszel test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Mantel-Haenszel test is not used for assessing the normality of data. Normality can be assessed using tools like plot histograms, box-and-whisker plots, Shapiro-Wilk test, Kolmogorov–Smirnov test, etc.</li><li>➤ The Mantel-Haenszel test is not used for assessing the normality of data. Normality can be assessed using tools like plot histograms, box-and-whisker plots, Shapiro-Wilk test, Kolmogorov–Smirnov test, etc.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under which circumstances is live vaccination not contraindicated? ( INICET MAY 2023) DiGeorge syndrome Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome Ataxia telangiectasia Complement deficiency", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 4 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256118.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 4 only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Complement deficiency does not pose a contraindication for live vaccination.</li><li>➤ However, it is important to note that live vaccines should be avoided in individuals with DiGeorge syndrome, Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome, and Ataxia telangiectasia, because these are immunodeficiency disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man, aged 25, arrived with complaints of being unable to bend the distal interphalangeal joint of his 4th and 5th fingers. Additionally, he faced difficulty in gripping a piece of paper between his fingers. Where is the probable location of the injury? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201024.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The marked structure C is the medial epicondyle. The Ulnar nerve passes from behind the epicondyle. Injury to the ulnar nerve at this area causes ulnar claw hand i.e., the extension of IP joints of 4 th and 5 th fingers; along with weakness in grip of the hand.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient recovered from hepatitis B infection. Which of the following curve represents antibodies seen 4 weeks post-recovery? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti HBs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti HBc", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HBeAg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBsAg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anti HBs", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-152209.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anti HBs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-HBs antibodies indicate recovery and immunity from hepatitis B infection. This is the only protective antibody that signifies the patient has successfully recovered from the infection and has developed immunity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the accurate statement regarding thymoma? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Most common neoplasm of thymus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Most common posterior mediastinal tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Usually symptomatic with dyspnoea, dysphagia and SVC syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chest Xray is the investigation of choice", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Most common neoplasm of thymus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Most common neoplasm of thymus</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) functions to stabilize the image on the retina during head movement. What is the ratio of eye velocity to head velocity, known as the VOR gain? (INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct VOR gain is crucial for visual stability. A gain of 1 allows for precise compensation for head movements, ensuring that the visual environment remains stable, which is vital for tasks that involve motion and require steady vision, such as reading while in a moving vehicle or playing sports.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male individual arrived at the emergency room following a road traffic accident, displaying signs indicative of a potential pelvic fracture. Upon assessment, he was determined to be experiencing hypovolemic shock. What is the initial course of action for managing hemorrhage control in this scenario? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate internal fixation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple blood transfusions", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Use bedsheets to compress the pelvis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emergency external fixation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Use bedsheets to compress the pelvis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Use bedsheets to compress the pelvis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Given the acute nature of the presentation and the need for immediate action to address life-threatening bleeding, the primary and fastest step would be C) Use bedsheets to compress the pelvis . This is a temporizing measure that can stabilize the patient until more definitive interventions (like external or internal fixation) can be safely undertaken.</li><li>➤ C) Use bedsheets to</li><li>➤ compress the pelvis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following image. (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blister due to barbiturate poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blister due to antemortem burns", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Edema due to chemical burn", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blister due to antemortem burns", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/09/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125623.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Blister due to antemortem burns</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antemortem burn blisters are characterized by elevated domes filled with serous fluid, reddened surrounding base, and high enzyme activity, indicating significant cellular and tissue reactions distinct from other types of blisters or burns.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the indicators that suggest CPR is of high quality? ( INICET May 2023) 1. Chest compression at a rate of 100-120/minute 2. Breathing rate of 20-25/minute 3. Depth of compression should be 5-6 cm 4. Allow chest recoil", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 3, 4 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 3, 4 only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• High-Quality CPR Indicators:</li><li>• High-Quality CPR Indicators:</li><li>• 1. Chest Compression Rate: Chest compressions should be performed at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute.</li><li>• 1. Chest Compression Rate:</li><li>• 3. Depth of Compression: Compressions should have a depth of 5-6 centimeters (2-2.4 inches).</li><li>• 3. Depth of Compression:</li><li>• 4. Chest Recoil: It is essential to allow the chest to fully recoil after each compression to ensure adequate filling of the heart between compressions. If an advanced airway, such as an endotracheal tube or supraglottic airway device, is in place, the recommended ventilation rate is 10 breaths per minute.</li><li>• 4. Chest Recoil:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 2, 3 only: While a compression depth of 5-6 cm is correct, a breathing rate of 20-25/minute is not part of the indicators for high-quality CPR.</li><li>• Option A. 2, 3 only:</li><li>• Option C. 1, 2, 3, 4: Although chest compression rate, depth, and recoil are correct indicators, the breathing rate of 20-25/minute is not recommended for high-quality CPR.</li><li>• Option C. 1, 2, 3, 4:</li><li>• Option D. 1 only: While the correct chest compression rate is part of high-quality CPR, other factors like compression depth and chest recoil are also crucial.</li><li>• Option D. 1 only:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Effective CPR involves chest compressions performed at a rate between 100 to 120 compressions per minute and at a depth of 5 to 6 centimeters, allowing the chest to fully recoil after each compression. The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 without an advanced airway, and 10 breaths per minute if an advanced airway is in place.</li><li>➤ Effective CPR involves chest compressions performed at a rate between 100 to 120 compressions per minute and at a depth of 5 to 6 centimeters, allowing the chest to fully recoil after each compression. The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 without an advanced airway, and 10 breaths per minute if an advanced airway is in place.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the tactile hallucinations observed in instances of prolonged cocaine intoxication? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oneroid state", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Formication", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dipsomania", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carphologia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Formication", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Formication</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 73-year-old individual arrives with painless rectal bleeding. Which of the listed investigations are conducted for this patient? ( INICET MAY 2023) Colonoscopy CECT CEA CA 19-9", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Given the patient's presenting symptom of painless rectal bleeding:</li><li>➤ Colonoscopy is a primary diagnostic tool to visualize and biopsy any potential sources of bleeding. CECT could be useful in determining the extent of a potential tumor or to check for other causes of bleeding. CEA might be used to check for the possibility of colorectal cancer.</li><li>➤ Colonoscopy is a primary diagnostic tool to visualize and biopsy any potential sources of bleeding.</li><li>➤ CECT could be useful in determining the extent of a potential tumor or to check for other causes of bleeding.</li><li>➤ CEA might be used to check for the possibility of colorectal cancer.</li><li>➤ Hence, the investigations that would be most appropriate and relevant for this patient would be options 1, 2, and 3 . Therefore, answer choice D) 1, 2, and 3 is correct.</li><li>➤ 1, 2, and 3</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient displaying lytic lesions on the skull is being considered for a diagnosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosis. What represents a distinctive discovery on electron microscopy among the following options? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histiocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Birbeck granules", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eosinophils", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Giant cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Birbeck granules", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-170927.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125673.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Birbeck granules</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Birbeck granules on electron microscopy is a distinctive and pathognomonic finding in Langerhans cell histiocytosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which muscles receive innervation from the Superior Gluteal Nerve? (INICET MAY 2023) 1. Gluteus Medius 2. Gluteus Minimus 3. Tensor fascia lata 4. Piriformis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/anotmy-15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gluteus Medius, Gluteus Minimus, and Tensor Fascia Lata receive innervation from the Superior Gluteal Nerve (L4, L5, and S1 nerve roots). Piriformis, on the other hand, is innervated by one of the branch of sacral plexus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to the CDC classification of bioterrorism agents, which one of the following statements is untrue? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Category A - Easily transmitted and are associated with high mortality rates", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Category D - Re-emerging diseases that are high priority agents", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Category C - Emerging diseases that are easy to disseminate and are associated with high mortality rates", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Category B - Slow to disseminate and are associated with low mortality rates", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Category D - Re-emerging diseases that are high priority agents", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-1256120_page_2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Category D - Re-emerging diseases that are high priority agents</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the fracture site in the X-ray shown below. (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4th, 5th, 6th rib", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "5th, 6th &amp; 7th rib", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "7th and 8th rib", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6th and 7th rib", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 4th, 5th, 6th rib", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_7.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 4th, 5th, 6th rib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When identifying rib fractures on a chest X-ray, start counting from the first rib, which is located just beneath the clavicle, and follow downward. Note the curvature of the ribs: anterior ribs curve downward and outward, while posterior ribs curve upward. This method helps in accurately locating and identifying the specific ribs involved in fractures or other abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is/are correct statement(s) regarding skeletal muscle? ( INICET May 2023) Extracellular calcium entry is important in the skeletal muscle contraction. Calcium is mainly released from mitochondria. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Voltage-gated calcium channel on sarcolemma has no role in excitation-contraction coupling.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Only 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Only 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is essential for skeletal muscle contraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions is the causative agent associated with in this case? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gingivostomatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pure red cell aplasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kaposi sarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pure red cell aplasia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125637.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125638.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125639.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125640.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pure red cell aplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19, the causative agent of erythema infectiosum, is associated with pure red cell aplasia, particularly in individuals with underlying hemolytic disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about blood products? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platelets is stored between 20°c to 24°C with a shelf life of 5 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryoprecipitate is stored at -20°C with a shelf life of 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Packed red cells stored with adenine, glucose, mannitol and saline is stored between -5°C to -15 °C with a shelf life of 5 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fresh frozen plasma is stored between -5°C to -15° C with a shelf life of 2 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Platelets is stored between 20°c to 24°C with a shelf life of 5 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-175332.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Platelets is stored between 20°c to 24°C with a shelf life of 5 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-coagulants solution and shelf life</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Pompe’s disease, enzyme deficiency is? ( INICET May 2023", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lysosomal acid alpha glucosidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphofructokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Muscle glycogen phosphorylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lactate dehydrogenase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lysosomal acid alpha glucosidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/09/17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lysosomal acid alpha glucosidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In individuals with Pompe's disease, the deficiency of lysosomal acid alpha glucosidase leads to the accumulation of glycogen in various tissues, particularly the muscles. This glycogen buildup affects the proper functioning of cells and tissues, causing a wide range of symptoms, primarily affecting the muscles and respiratory system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the options provided, which protozoan parasite is found within Kupffer cells? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toxoplasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leishmania donovani", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Babesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasmodium vivax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leishmania donovani", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125635.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leishmania donovani</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The amastigote form of Leishmania donovani, also known as LD bodies, is found within macrophages, including Kupffer cells in the liver, during infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person comes to the OPD with symptoms of not using his left side and not washing the left side of his body while bathing. On examination he wasn't able to draw the left side of the images. Which of the following is the most likely location of the lesion? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left motor cortex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right motor cortex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left posterior parietal area", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right posterior parietal area", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Right posterior parietal area", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-152753.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Right posterior parietal area</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Left-sided neglect is often due to a lesion in the right posterior parietal area.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following options is incorrectly matched? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterine prolapse - Vaginal hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vault prolapse - Sacrospinous ligament suspension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystocele - Colposuspension", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectocele - Posterior colporrhaphy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cystocele - Colposuspension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-101304.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cystocele - Colposuspension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For cystocele, the appropriate surgical management is anterior colporrhaphy, not colposuspension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complains of persistent, dull, aching pain in both legs. He reports a history of extended periods of standing and mentions having visibly twisted veins in his legs. What tests would typically be conducted to assess saphenofemoral incompetence in this scenario? ( INICET MAY 2023) Brodie Trendelenburg Test Morrissey's test Fegan's test Modified Perthes test", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following lines: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hinderer’s lines", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marionettes line", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Relaxed skin tension lines", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blaschko lines", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Blaschko lines", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_57.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_58.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_59_ZMoJiTh.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Blaschko lines</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blaschko lines offer a fascinating insight into human embryonic development and their pattern can help diagnose several dermatological conditions. Each of these lines has specific implications in medical practice, particularly in dermatology, plastic surgery, and cosmetic procedures, illustrating the intersection of clinical knowledge with aesthetic considerations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person undergoing Anti PD1 immunotherapy (Nivolumab) presents with itching, eczema, and hives-like rashes. Upon histopathological analysis, a blister beneath the outer skin layer is observed. The direct immunofluorescence assessment of the affected areas indicates the presence of Linear C3 and IgG along the basement membrane. What is the diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bullous pemphigoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pemphigus foliaceous", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bullous pemphigoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_65.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_66_gvIHsNa.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_67.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bullous pemphigoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bullous Pemphigoid in patients undergoing immunotherapy is critical due to the potential severity of the condition and the need for prompt and effective management to reduce symptoms and prevent complications. Monitoring for new or worsening symptoms in patients on immunotherapy is essential to catch such reactions early.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of amyloidosis is more likely to develop in a patient undergoing long-term hemodialysis due to renal failure? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amyloid light chain (AL)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amyloid associated protein (AA)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amyloid β2 microglobulin (Aβ2M)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amyloid transthyretin (ATTR)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Amyloid β2 microglobulin (Aβ2M)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171322.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171541.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171641.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Amyloid β2 microglobulin (Aβ2M)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Long-term hemodialysis patients with renal failure may experience the development of amyloidosis due to the accumulation of Aβ2-microglobulin.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ A. Generalized/Systemic Amyloidosis</li><li>➤ A. Generalized/Systemic Amyloidosis</li><li>➤ B. Localised Amyloidosis</li><li>➤ B. Localised Amyloidosis</li><li>➤ C. Hereditary Amyloidosis</li><li>➤ C. Hereditary Amyloidosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these statements is true regarding perimetry? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kinetic perimetry is used in quantification and tracking of visual changes in established glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "In Static perimetry, stimulus intensity is held constant and moved centrally with detection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Visual field defect to be classified as glaucoma, it should have the corresponding optic nerve head abnormalities", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Early signs include generalised constriction of isopters and barring of blind spot", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Early signs include generalised constriction of isopters and barring of blind spot", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Early signs include generalised constriction of isopters and barring of blind spot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Perimetry is vital for early detection and monitoring of glaucoma. Generalized constriction of isopters and enlargement of the blind spot are key early signs that can indicate the presence of this eye condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with suspected endocrine dysfunction, which hormone primarily acts through the signaling pathway shown in the diagram below, potentially contributing to the patient's condition? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leptin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcitonin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vasopressin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aldosterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leptin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125609.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/08/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125610.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Leptin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The transmission of infection during the perinatal period exhibits a range of symptoms, including anemia, potential myocarditis, high-output cardiac failure, and ascites. Identify the specific causative agent responsible for these manifestations: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treponema pallidum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parvovirus B19", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toxoplasma gondii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Parvovirus B19", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125642.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125642_U6cRlzs.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125639_pN7GMam.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125640_sGdjSup.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Parvovirus B19</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19 is responsible for severe anemia, hydrops fetalis, and other serious complications in fetuses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the diseases with their maximum incubation period. ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-182041.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-182436.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome has undergone a renal biopsy. All of the following statement(s) is/are true except? ( INICET MAY 2023) FSGS is not diagnosed by a percutaneous renal biopsy. Patient should be observed for 24 hours following biopsy. Dark red clots in the urine following a biopsy indicate a hematoma. Patients with features of systemic amyloidosis and renal involvement should undergo renal biopsy.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Percutaneous renal biopsy is a key diagnostic tool for conditions like FSGS, and proper post-procedure monitoring is essential to manage potential complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Below is an image of an MRCP scan. Which of the following options is the most probable diagnosis? (INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Choledocholithiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cholecystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancreatic duct stricture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Choledocholithiasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_11.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Choledocholithiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Choledocholithiasis is diagnosed primarily through imaging like MRCP, which reveals stones within the common bile duct as distinct circular filling defects. This condition is a significant cause of biliary obstruction and requires prompt diagnosis and management to prevent complications such as severe biliary colic and obstructive jaundice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient in emergency has the following lab parameters: creatinine 1.5 and BUN 45. The chest x-ray is shown below. In gram staining and culture only, rhinovirus was isolated. The patient is shifted to ICU. What is the treatment of choice in this patient? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Piperacillin Tazobactam plus ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/whatsapp-image-2024-09-13-at-103848-am_uLaNUaB.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of a beta-lactam antibiotic and azithromycin is the treatment of choice for ICU-admitted patients with community-acquired pneumonia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions is the Banana sign on USG associated with? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spina bifida", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Down’s syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klinefelter syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Spina bifida", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-161020.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Spina bifida</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Banana sign\" on ultrasound is specifically associated with spina bifida and represents the abnormal shape of the cerebellar vermis. It is a critical ultrasound finding suggestive of spina bifida and should be carefully evaluated alongside other signs such as the \"Lemon sign,\" which depicts an abnormal skull shape resembling a lemon, also indicative of neural tube defects like spina bifida.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-kg patient arrives at the emergency department with acute pancreatitis and is subsequently transferred to the ICU. The patient is intubated and placed on a ventilator with the following settings: FiO₂ 90%, PEEP 12 cm H₂O, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and tidal volume 420 ml. An arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals: pH 7.33, PaO₂ 110 mmHg, PaCO₂ 58 mmHg, and SpO₂ 100%. What would be the most appropriate next step in management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase PEEP to 16", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase tidal volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reduce respiratory rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reduce FiO₂", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Reduce FiO₂", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Reduce FiO₂</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's oxygenation status is excellent with a PaO₂ of 110 mmHg and SpO₂ of 100% while on a high FiO₂ of 90%. Prolonged exposure to high FiO₂ levels increases the risk of oxygen toxicity and absorption atelectasis. Therefore, FiO₂ should be reduced below 60% once oxygenation is adequate. The elevated PaCO₂ (58 mmHg) with a near-normal pH (7.33) reflects compensated respiratory acidosis, which is acceptable in the context of lung-protective ventilation strategies. In ARDS, permissive hypercapnia is an accepted approach where mild-to-moderate CO₂ retention is tolerated to avoid volutrauma and barotrauma from high tidal volumes or aggressive ventilation. Thus, reducing FiO₂ is safer and more appropriate than increasing tidal volume.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Increase PEEP to 16: Not required as oxygenation is already adequate; higher PEEP may risk barotrauma.</li><li>• Option A. Increase PEEP to 16:</li><li>• Option B. Increase tidal volume: Though it may help clear CO₂, increasing tidal volume in ARDS risks volutrauma; permissive hypercapnia is preferred.</li><li>• Option B. Increase tidal volume:</li><li>• Option C. Reduce respiratory rate: Would worsen hypercapnia, which is already elevated.</li><li>• Option C. Reduce respiratory rate:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In ARDS, once oxygenation is adequate, FiO₂ should be reduced to ≤60% to minimize oxygen toxicity. Permissive hypercapnia is a protective ventilatory strategy that accepts mild hypercapnia to avoid ventilator-induced lung injury from high tidal volumes or pressures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure in the eye: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Egger’s line", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lens capsule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Canal of Hannover", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Canal of Petit", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Canal of Petit", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125631.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125632.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Canal of Petit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Canal of Petit is an essential structure in the anatomy of the eye, playing a critical role in the stability and function of the lens. Its correct identification and understanding are pivotal in eye health management and surgical procedures involving the lens and surrounding structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following : (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/screenshot-2023-11-04-192316.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-125921.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Facial nerve - B. Taste from anterior two-thirds of the tongue : The facial nerve (CN VII) is responsible for carrying taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also controls the muscles of facial expression. Spinal accessory nerve - A. Shrugging of the shoulder: The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius muscle, which is responsible for actions such as shrugging the shoulder and scapula elevation. It also contributes to head rotation. Glossopharyngeal nerve - C. Taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue : The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) carries taste sensations from the posterior one-third of the tongue. It also plays a role in swallowing and provides sensory information from the throat and tonsils. Mandibular nerve - D. Chewing: The mandibular nerve (V3) is a branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) and is responsible for innervating the muscles of mastication (chewing), as well as providing sensory input to the lower jaw, teeth, and gums.</li><li>• Facial nerve - B. Taste from anterior two-thirds of the tongue : The facial nerve (CN VII) is responsible for carrying taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also controls the muscles of facial expression.</li><li>• Facial nerve - B. Taste from anterior two-thirds of the tongue</li><li>• Spinal accessory nerve - A. Shrugging of the shoulder: The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius muscle, which is responsible for actions such as shrugging the shoulder and scapula elevation. It also contributes to head rotation.</li><li>• Spinal accessory nerve - A. Shrugging of the shoulder:</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal nerve - C. Taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue : The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) carries taste sensations from the posterior one-third of the tongue. It also plays a role in swallowing and provides sensory information from the throat and tonsils.</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal nerve - C. Taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue</li><li>• Mandibular nerve - D. Chewing: The mandibular nerve (V3) is a branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) and is responsible for innervating the muscles of mastication (chewing), as well as providing sensory input to the lower jaw, teeth, and gums.</li><li>• Mandibular nerve - D. Chewing:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the case of an elderly male presenting with meningitis, a gram stain of the CSF sample shows the presence of gram-positive bacilli. Which of the following statements accurately pertains to the motility of the responsible microorganism? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Motile at 22°C and 37° C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Motile at 37°C, non-motile at 22°C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Motile at 25° C, non-motile at 37°C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-motile at 22°C and 37°C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Motile at 25° C, non-motile at 37°C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Motile at 25° C, non-motile at 37°C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Listeria monocytogenes exhibits motility at 25°C but is non-motile at 37°C.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the kappa statistics for the given dataset while comparing the IGRA and Mantoux test. ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.8", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-180740.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-180903.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-181132.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 0.4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The kappa statistic measures the agreement between two tests beyond chance. In this case, the kappa statistic is 0.4, indicating moderate agreement between the IGRA and Mantoux tests.</li><li>➤ The kappa statistic measures the agreement between two tests beyond chance.</li><li>➤ In this case, the kappa statistic is 0.4, indicating moderate agreement between the IGRA and Mantoux tests.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old boy, a known case of type I DM, undergoes the following test for the detection of KB. Which is this test: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rothera’s Test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Benedict’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seliwanoff’s Test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biuret Test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rothera’s Test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rothera's Test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rothera's Test is a commonly used laboratory test to detect the presence of ketone bodies, specifically acetoacetate, in urine or blood samples. It is particularly relevant in the context of diabetes mellitus, as individuals with uncontrolled diabetes, especially type I diabetes, may experience an increase in ketone production.</li><li>➤ In type I diabetes, the body is unable to produce sufficient insulin, resulting in a lack of glucose utilization by cells for energy. As a result, the body begins to break down fats as an alternative energy source, leading to the production of ketone bodies, including acetoacetate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the components of Nada's Minor Criteria? (INICET MAY 2023) Systolic mumur Grade 3 Diastolic murmur Abnormal second heart sound Abnormal BP", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-151020.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Nada’s criteria for detecting congenital heart disease, minor criteria include an abnormal second heart sound and abnormal blood pressure. The presence of one major or two minor criteria suggests the presence of heart disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a new approved drug for Rett syndrome. ( INICET May 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zavegepant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trofinetide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sparsentan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Elacestrant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trofinetide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Trofinetide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trofinetide is a newly approved drug for Rett syndrome, exhibiting neuroprotective properties similar to those of glypromate (GPE), and is beneficial for treating the symptoms of this genetic disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following drugs with the receptors they act upon: (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/02/screenshot-2023-12-02-102705.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125667.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/11/whatsapp-image-2023-07-04-at-125668.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient undergoing renal transplant management was started on cyclosporine as part of the immunosuppressive regimen. Within a few weeks, the patient begins to show elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin levels. The treating physician suspects drug-induced cholestasis and considers the involvement of a specific cellular transporter. Which cellular transporter is most likely responsible for cyclosporine-induced cholestasis in this patient", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MDR1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BRCA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRP2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "OATP1B1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MRP2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. MRP2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MRP2 (Multi-Drug Resistance-associated Protein 2) is the cellular transporter most likely responsible for cyclosporine-induced cholestasis due to its role in the efflux of bile salts and bilirubin into the bile canaliculus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common genetic factor responsible for hypercoagulability? ( INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factor V Leiden mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Protein C deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antithrombin III deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G20210A prothrombin gene mutation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Factor V Leiden mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Factor V Leiden mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor V Leiden mutation is the most common inherited cause of hypercoagulability, primarily due to resistance to Activated Protein C.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following indicates severe COVID-19 ? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RR &gt;24/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MAP 70 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lung infiltrates &gt;42% on CT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SpO2 &lt; 85% on room air", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. SpO2 < 85% on room air", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) SpO2 &lt; 85% on room air</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severe COVID-19 is indicated by an SpO2 of less than 85% on room air.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following options is false regarding the measurement of temperature in a febrile patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rectal temperature is ideal for measuring the core body temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rectal temperature is lower than axillary temperature", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tympanic membrane temperature is lower than rectal temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectal temperature is higher than oral temperature", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rectal temperature is lower than axillary temperature", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rectal temperature is lower than axillary temperature</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rectal temperature is considered the most accurate measurement of core body temperature and is higher than both oral and axillary temperatures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "La belle indifference is seen in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mania", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conversion disorder", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Conversion disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Conversion disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ La belle indifference , characterized by a lack of concern toward symptoms, is often associated with conversion disorder or functional neurological symptom disorder.</li><li>➤ La belle indifference</li><li>➤ conversion disorder</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a true association with HRT?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreases risk of Colon cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased risk of breast cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased risk of endometrial cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increases risk of osteoporosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decreases risk of Colon cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Decreases risk of Colon cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) decreases the risk of colon cancer but is associated with an increased risk of breast and endometrial cancers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cells with prolific smooth endoplasmic reticulum secrete _______:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eicosanoid hormones", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steroid hormones", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amine hormones", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peptide hormones", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Steroid hormones", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Steroid hormones</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cells with abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum are specialized for the synthesis of steroid hormones, playing a key role in detoxification and lipid metabolism processes in various cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-month-old child with a 3-day history of watery diarrhea and vomiting presented with altered sensorium. Which of the following are differential diagnoses: Severe dehydration HUS Cerebral Venous Thrombosis Hyponatremia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The differential diagnoses of watery diarrhea and altered sensorium in a child include severe dehydration, cerebral venous thrombosis, and hyponatremia , while HUS is usually associated with bloody diarrhea and is ruled out in this case.</li><li>➤ severe dehydration, cerebral venous thrombosis, and hyponatremia</li><li>➤ HUS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most specific indicator of alcohol-induced liver dysfunction is _____ :", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum bilirubin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GGT", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "SGOT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SGPT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. GGT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) GGT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) is the most specific marker of alcohol-induced liver dysfunction, but its elevation may also occur in other hepatobiliary diseases or due to medication effects.</li><li>➤ Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with thrombocytopenia, platelet transfusion is done when the platelet level drops below a threshold. To proceed with surgery, platelet transfusion is done to achieve a platelet level of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50,000", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "60,000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 50,000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 50,000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For safe surgery in patients with thrombocytopenia, a platelet count of at least 50,000/mm³ is recommended to minimize the risk of bleeding.</li><li>➤ 50,000/mm³</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the nerve block shown in the given image:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasociliary nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior ethmoidal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sphenopalatine nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Greater palatine nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nasociliary nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/14/screenshot-2024-10-14-125516.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nasociliary nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The nasociliary nerve is a branch of the ophthalmic nerve (a branch of the trigeminal nerve) that provides sensory innervation to parts of the eye and nasal region.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old boy was brought with a history of chronic cough, and foul-smelling stools. His sibling who had similar complaints died a few years back. Sweat chloride test and CFTR gene studies were done. CFTR gene codes for proteins involved in the transport of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na+", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HCO3-", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cl-", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "K+", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cl-", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cl-</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene , which encodes for a protein that regulates chloride ion transport in epithelial cells. It results in thickened secretions in various organs and is diagnosed by a positive sweat chloride test and genetic testing.</li><li>➤ CFTR gene</li><li>➤ chloride ion</li><li>➤ sweat chloride test</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Feeding is done through the given method. Which of the following is not a complication of this:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Refeeding syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspiration pneumonia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aspiration pneumonia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/14/whatsapp-image-2024-10-14-at-35827-pm.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Aspiration pneumonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary complications of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line include pneumothorax (during insertion), refeeding syndrome (a metabolic disorder), and osteoporosis (from long-term use). Aspiration pneumonia is associated more with enteral feeding rather than parenteral feeding.</li><li>➤ pneumothorax</li><li>➤ refeeding syndrome</li><li>➤ osteoporosis</li><li>➤ Aspiration pneumonia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "BRCA 1 gene is associated with______: Repair of ds DNA break Risk of development of ovarian cancer Tumor suppressor gene Mutation is seen in the subset of Fanconi anemia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene primarily associated with the repair of double-stranded DNA breaks , the development of breast and ovarian cancer , and it functions to suppress tumor formation. BRCA2 mutations are more commonly linked to Fanconi anemia .</li><li>➤ BRCA1</li><li>➤ repair of double-stranded DNA breaks</li><li>➤ development of breast and ovarian cancer</li><li>➤ BRCA2</li><li>➤ Fanconi anemia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fructose is absent in the seminal fluid, which of the following statements is true regarding this?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital absence of seminal vesicles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obstruction in the ejaculatory duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both A and B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Both A and B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fructose is an essential component of seminal fluid, produced by the seminal vesicles . Its absence in the semen can indicate either a congenital absence of seminal vesicles or an obstruction of the ejaculatory duct .</li><li>➤ seminal vesicles</li><li>➤ congenital absence of seminal vesicles</li><li>➤ obstruction of the ejaculatory duct</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used to define dependence? Strong desire to use the drug Priority to use drugs other than any other activity Increased tolerance Persistent use of drugs despite knowing the harmful effects", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of substance dependence includes multiple criteria, such as a strong desire to use , prioritizing the substance over other activities , developing tolerance , and persistent use despite harmful effects . All these criteria must be present for a diagnosis of dependence.</li><li>➤ substance dependence</li><li>➤ strong desire to use</li><li>➤ prioritizing the substance over other activities</li><li>➤ developing tolerance</li><li>➤ persistent use despite harmful effects</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a 46XY female complete gonadal dysgenesis was noted. Complete gonadal dysgenesis is caused by what in the SRY gene?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Point mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deletion of gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Translocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inversion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Point mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Point mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Complete gonadal dysgenesis in a 46XY female is most commonly associated with a point mutation in the SRY gene . This results in underdeveloped gonads, failure of androgen and AMH production, and a female phenotype with normal mullerian structures.</li><li>➤ point mutation</li><li>➤ SRY gene</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet May 2024 2024 05 19 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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(INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "KIT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PDGFR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NRG-1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. NRG-1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) NRG-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NRG-1 is not a marker for gastrointestinal stromal tumors. The primary markers for GISTs include KIT, PDGFR, and SDH mutations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Salter Harris Type 1 injury passes through which zone? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Resting zone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proliferative zone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertrophic zone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zone of provisional calcification", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypertrophic zone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131543.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131600.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/salter.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131827.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypertrophic zone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypertrophic zone of the physis has a high bone turnover. It is the area where all Salter-Harris injuries occur. Thus, the Type I injuries occurs in the hypertrophic zone of the physis.</li><li>➤ Hypertrophic zone of the physis has a high bone turnover.</li><li>➤ It is the area where all Salter-Harris injuries occur.</li><li>➤ Thus, the Type I injuries occurs in the hypertrophic zone of the physis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most likely tumor arising from the slide shown in the image? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adenocarcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/23/whatsapp-image-2024-08-23-at-10620-pm-2.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenocarcinoma is identified by the presence of glandular formations in histopathological slides.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is/are the complications associated with GERD? (INICET MAY 2024) Asthma Laryngitis Pulmonary Fibrosis Chronic cough", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a chronic condition where stomach contents flow back into the esophagus, causing various symptoms and complications. The complications of GERD can extend beyond the esophagus, affecting the respiratory system and other areas.</li><li>• Asthma: GERD can exacerbate asthma symptoms. The reflux of stomach acid can irritate the airways and lungs, triggering asthma attacks or making existing asthma more difficult to control. Laryngitis: Acid reflux can lead to inflammation of the larynx (voice box), causing laryngitis. Symptoms may include hoarseness, throat pain, and voice changes. Pulmonary Fibrosis: Although less common, chronic aspiration of gastric contents due to GERD can contribute to the development of pulmonary fibrosis. This is particularly seen in patients with diffuse scleroderma, where severe GERD is a significant risk factor for interstitial lung disease (ILD). Chronic cough: GERD is a recognized cause of chronic cough. The reflux of acid can irritate the esophagus and respiratory tract, leading to a persistent cough.</li><li>• Asthma: GERD can exacerbate asthma symptoms. The reflux of stomach acid can irritate the airways and lungs, triggering asthma attacks or making existing asthma more difficult to control.</li><li>• Asthma:</li><li>• Laryngitis: Acid reflux can lead to inflammation of the larynx (voice box), causing laryngitis. Symptoms may include hoarseness, throat pain, and voice changes.</li><li>• Laryngitis:</li><li>• Pulmonary Fibrosis: Although less common, chronic aspiration of gastric contents due to GERD can contribute to the development of pulmonary fibrosis. This is particularly seen in patients with diffuse scleroderma, where severe GERD is a significant risk factor for interstitial lung disease (ILD).</li><li>• Pulmonary Fibrosis:</li><li>• Chronic cough: GERD is a recognized cause of chronic cough. The reflux of acid can irritate the esophagus and respiratory tract, leading to a persistent cough.</li><li>• Chronic cough:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GERD can lead to a variety of extra-esophageal complications, including asthma, laryngitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and chronic cough. Recognizing these complications is crucial for the comprehensive management of patients with GERD.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-month-old child presents with photophobia and watering. Which of the following cannot be the cause? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital entropion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congenital distichiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction is associated with excessive tearing but does not cause photophobia. Other conditions like congenital entropion, congenital glaucoma, and congenital distichiasis can cause both photophobia and watering due to corneal involvement and irritation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient presents with regurgitation of food and weight loss over the past several months. A barium swallow is performed. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Achalasia cardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophageal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zenker's diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diffuse esophageal spasm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Achalasia cardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-134638.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Achalasia cardia is characterized by the failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax, leading to a bird's beak appearance on a barium swallow. This is the most likely diagnosis in a patient presenting with regurgitation of food and weight loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man was admitted to the hospital after three days of abdominal pain and vomiting. His laboratory reports revealed a potassium value of 3.2 mEq/L. All of the following can be seen except: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quadriparesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetes insipidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebral edema", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cerebral edema", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cerebral edema is not associated with hypokalemia; it is a complication of hyponatremia. Hypokalemia can cause ventricular arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug resistance is most seen with which STI? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Donovanosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonorrhoea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gonorrhoea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Gonorrhoea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gonorrhoea, caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae , is known for developing significant resistance to multiple antibiotics. Over the years, Neisseria gonorrhoeae has shown resistance to several classes of antibiotics, including penicillin, tetracycline, and fluoroquinolones. More recently, there has been an increasing number of reports of resistance to cephalosporins, including ceftriaxone, which is currently the first-line treatment for Gonorrhoea. The development of drug resistance in Gonorrhoea is largely due to the bacterium's ability to acquire resistance genes through horizontal gene transfer and spontaneous mutations.</li><li>• Gonorrhoea, caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae , is known for developing significant resistance to multiple antibiotics.</li><li>• Over the years, Neisseria gonorrhoeae has shown resistance to several classes of antibiotics, including penicillin, tetracycline, and fluoroquinolones.</li><li>• More recently, there has been an increasing number of reports of resistance to cephalosporins, including ceftriaxone, which is currently the first-line treatment for Gonorrhoea.</li><li>• The development of drug resistance in Gonorrhoea is largely due to the bacterium's ability to acquire resistance genes through horizontal gene transfer and spontaneous mutations.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Chancroid : Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi , has not shown the same level of widespread antibiotic resistance as gonorrhoea. It is typically treated with antibiotics such as azithromycin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, or erythromycin.</li><li>• Option A. Chancroid</li><li>• Option B. Donovanosis : Donovanosis, caused by Klebsiella granulomatis , is relatively rare and has not shown significant issues with antibiotic resistance. It is usually treated with azithromycin, doxycycline, or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.</li><li>• Option B. Donovanosis</li><li>• Option C. Syphilis : Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum , is typically treated with penicillin. Although there have been some cases of resistance to macrolides like azithromycin, penicillin remains highly effective, and there is no widespread resistance to it.</li><li>• Option C. Syphilis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gonorrhoea is the STI most commonly associated with significant and increasing antibiotic resistance, posing a major challenge to treatment and control efforts worldwide.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are properties of ventricular muscle fibers: (INICET MAY 2024) All or none law Length-tension relation Tetanus Long refractory period", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Ventricular muscle fibers exhibit several unique properties that are crucial for their function:</li><li>• 1. All or None Law : This principle states that a single muscle fiber will either contract fully or not at all in response to a stimulus. Ventricular muscle fibers act as a syncytium due to the presence of gap junctions made up of connexin proteins, which allows them to follow the all-or-none law. Thus, this property is true for ventricular muscle fibers.</li><li>• 1. All or None Law</li><li>• 2. Length-Tension Relation : The length-tension relationship in ventricular muscle fibers is a reflection of the Frank-Starling law, which states that the force of contraction of the heart muscle is proportional to its initial length (or end-diastolic volume, EDV). This relationship is crucial for adjusting cardiac output based on the volume of blood returning to the heart. Within physiological limits, an increase in the initial length of the muscle fiber increases the force of contraction.</li><li>• 2. Length-Tension Relation</li><li>• 4. Long Refractory Period : Ventricular muscle fibers have a long refractory period due to the extended plateau phase in their action potential. This long refractory period is crucial in preventing tetanus and ensuring that the heart muscle relaxes fully before the next contraction, maintaining efficient pumping action.</li><li>• 4. Long Refractory Period</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• 3. Tetanus : Tetanus is a sustained muscle contraction that occurs when the muscle is stimulated at a high frequency. However, due to the long refractory period in ventricular muscle fibers, tetanus is not possible. The plateau phase (phase 2) of the cardiac action potential is prolonged, which ensures that the heart muscle cannot be re-stimulated before the previous contraction is complete. This prevents sustained contractions (tetanus), which would be detrimental to cardiac function.</li><li>• 3. Tetanus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ventricular muscle fibers follow the all-or-none law, have a length-tension relationship (Frank-Starling law), and possess a long refractory period that prevents tetanus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the 2nd generation supraglottic airway device from the options given below. (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LMA Fastrach", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LMA Flexible", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LMA Proseal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "AMBU LMA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. LMA Proseal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-105259.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/010.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-105323.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-105328.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) LMA Proseal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LMA Proseal is a second-generation supraglottic airway device, identified by its two-tube system that enhances safety by reducing the risk of aspiration</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements regarding the drugs shown in graph A and graph B is correct. ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drug A is competitive inhibitor and drug B is un-competitive inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Drug A is competitive inhibitor and drug B is non-competitive inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drug A is non-competitive inhibitor and drug B is competitive inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drug A is un-competitive inhibitor and drug B is competitive inhibitor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Drug A is competitive inhibitor and drug B is non-competitive inhibitor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/22/screenshot-2024-05-22-155759.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which drug is contraindicated in a patient with atonic PPH with a history of hypertension? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Misoprostol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ergotamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "PGF2 alpha", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ergotamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ergotamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ergotamine is contraindicated in patients with hypertension due to its potent vasoconstrictive effects, which can significantly increase blood pressure and cause cardiovascular complications. This drug should be avoided in hypertensive patients, especially when managing postpartum hemorrhage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Declaration of Oslo is for? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Therapeutic abortion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Torture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hunger", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ethical aspects of medical research", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Therapeutic abortion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Therapeutic abortion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Declaration of Oslo specifically addresses the ethical considerations involved in therapeutic abortion, distinguishing it from other declarations that focus on different ethical issues in medical practice</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one is not a criterion for Kawasaki disease? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Purulent conjunctivitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphadenopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Strawberry tongue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Purulent conjunctivitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Purulent conjunctivitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kawasaki disease is diagnosed based on a set of clinical criteria, including non-purulent conjunctivitis, rash, lymphadenopathy, and changes in the oral cavity such as strawberry tongue. Purulent conjunctivitis is not a feature of Kawasaki disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following connective tissue degradation disorder is associated with aortic aneurysm? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marfan's Syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atherosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Marfan's Syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Marfan's Syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marfan's Syndrome is a connective tissue disorder closely associated with the development of aortic aneurysms due to the defective fibrillin-1 protein affecting the structural integrity of the aortic wall.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A decrease in GFR is associated with which of the following? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased Renal Blood Flow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased Glomerular hydrostatic pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased Bowman's oncotic pressure", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased Glomerular oncotic pressure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decreased Bowman's oncotic pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decreased Bowman's oncotic pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decreased Bowman's capsule oncotic pressure reduces net filtration pressure (NFP) and decreases glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Increased Bowman's capsule oncotic pressure increases filtration pressure and GFR.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which joint is not formed by the bone shown in the image? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syndesmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Synchondrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plane joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Symphysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Synchondrosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171341.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171354.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Synchondrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thoracic vertebrae do not form synchondrosis (primary cartilaginous) joints; they are involved in forming plane joints, syndesmosis, and symphysis joints.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male presented with palpitations and hence ECG was taken. ECG demonstrated narrow complex tachycardia and his BP was 70/40 mm of Hg. What is the next step in the management of this patient? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Synchronized DC Cardioversion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV Adenosine (6mg)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carotid Sinus Massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV Amiodarone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Synchronized DC Cardioversion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In hemodynamically unstable patients with narrow complex tachycardia, synchronized DC cardioversion is the immediate treatment of choice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of sensation is carried by the 2nd order neuron of the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve ? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proprioception", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Touch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pain", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vibration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/untitled-6_01aPAfq.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve carries pain and temperature sensations, distinguishing it from the other nuclei responsible for proprioception, touch, and vibration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female with a history of chest pain and upper respiratory tract infection, seven days ago, presents with shortness of breath. She has BP of 100/60 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 110/min. Chest x-ray reviews an enlarged heart, which appears like a water bottle. Which of the following is incorrect? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulsus Paradoxus is usually seen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pericardiocentesis may be required", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loud S1 is a common finding", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Echo will show diastolic RA/RV collapse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Loud S1 is a common finding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cardiac tamponade, muffled heart sounds are a key finding, not a loud S1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "FISH can detect all except which of the following? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amplification", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deletion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Translocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Point mutation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Point mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Point mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FISH (Fluorescence in situ hybridization) can detect chromosomal abnormalities like amplifications, deletions, and translocations, but cannot detect point mutations, which require molecular methods such as PCR for identification.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female consumed a white colored rodenticide powder and presents with a potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L. She has irregular pulse and muscle paralysis. ECG shows multiple ventricular ectopic beats. What is the suspected poison? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aluminum Phosphide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zinc Phosphide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium Carbonate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Barium Carbonate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Barium Carbonate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypokalemia with symptoms such as muscle paralysis, irregular pulse, and ECG changes like ventricular ectopic beats strongly suggest poisoning with barium carbonate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mental Health Gap Action (mhGAP) Program does not include: ( INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mental illness in children", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "OCD", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. OCD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) OCD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ OCD (Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder) is not included in the WHO's Mental Health Gap Action (mhGAP) program, which focuses on other high-burden mental health conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient with a penicillin allergy presents with enterococcal endocarditis. Which of the following drugs can be used safely in this patient? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aztreonam", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Piperacillin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vancomycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-102729.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with penicillin allergies who have enterococcal infections, vancomycin is the preferred and safe alternative for treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Structure lies in the floor of inferior horn of lateral ventricle all except (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Collateral eminence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hippocampus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fimbria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tail of caudate nucleus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tail of caudate nucleus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171443.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tail of caudate nucleus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The tail of the caudate nucleus is located in the roof of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle, not in the floor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia B? (multiple choice) (INICET MAY 2024) a) Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) b) Cryoprecipitate c) Factor VIII concentrates d) Cryo poor Plasma", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a &amp; c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a &amp; d", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "a, b, c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. a & d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Hemophilia B is a genetic bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of factor IX. The primary treatment for hemophilia B involves the replacement of the missing factor IX.</li><li>• Treatment Options: Factor IX concentrates: The specific treatment for hemophilia B is the administration of factor IX concentrates, which directly replace the deficient clotting factor.</li><li>• Treatment Options:</li><li>• Factor IX concentrates:</li><li>• a. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP): FFP contains all the clotting factors, including factor IX, in certain proportions. It can be used as a treatment for hemophilia B, especially in situations where factor IX concentrates are not available. FFP serves as a \"poor man's alternative\" due to its comprehensive content of clotting factors.</li><li>• a. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP):</li><li>• d. Cryopoor Plasma: This is FFP from which the cryoprecipitate has been removed. While cryoprecipitate contains high levels of factor VIII, von Willebrand factor, and fibrinogen, the cryopoor plasma retains significant amounts of factor IX. Therefore, cryopoor plasma can be used as an alternative treatment for hemophilia B. ( preferred over FFP )</li><li>• d.</li><li>• Cryopoor Plasma:</li><li>• preferred over FFP</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• b. Cryoprecipitate: This blood product is enriched with factor VIII, von Willebrand factor, and fibrinogen but contains little to no factor IX, making it unsuitable for treating hemophilia B.</li><li>• b. Cryoprecipitate:</li><li>• c. Factor VIII concentrates: This treatment is specific to hemophilia A, which is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII. It is not effective for hemophilia B.</li><li>• c.</li><li>• Factor VIII concentrates:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The treatment of hemophilia B primarily involves the administration of factor IX concentrates. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) and cryopoor plasma are also viable options due to their content of factor IX. Factor VIII concentrates and cryoprecipitate are not suitable for hemophilia B as they do not contain significant levels of factor IX.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the device in the image: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PEG tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NJ tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NG tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chest drain tube", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PEG tube", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/29/screenshot-2024-08-29-163000.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-181627.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-181713.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-181748.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PEG tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The PEG tube is a specialized device used for long-term feeding directly into the stomach, identified by its retention bolster and the presence of specific tools in the insertion kit. Understanding the key components of the PEG tube kit helps differentiate it from other types of medical tubes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the fluid of choice in pediatric patients? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DNS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "NS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5% dextrose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. DNS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) DNS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fluid of choice in pediatric patients is DNS (Dextrose Normal Saline), which provides essential hydration, electrolytes, and glucose for energy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female with breast cancer undergoes investigation which reveals the presence of ER positivity. Presence of ER is important as it is a: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diagnostic marker", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prognostic marker", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Predictive marker", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surrogate molecular marker", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Predictive marker", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ER positivity in breast cancer is a predictive marker that helps determine the likelihood of response to hormonal therapies, making it crucial for guiding treatment decisions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most potent biological Estrogen: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Estradiol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estrone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estriol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conjugated estrogen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Estradiol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Estradiol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Estrogens are a group of steroid hormones that play a crucial role in the regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics. Among the different forms of estrogen, estradiol (E2) is the most potent and biologically active. Estradiol is primarily produced by the ovaries and is the dominant form of estrogen during the reproductive years.</li><li>• Estradiol binds with the highest affinity to estrogen receptors compared to other forms like estrone and estriol, which is why it exerts the most potent biological effects.</li><li>• Estradiol</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Estrone : Estrone (E1) is less potent than estradiol and is the primary form of estrogen after menopause. It has a weaker affinity for estrogen receptors and thus, exerts less biological activity.</li><li>• Option B. Estrone</li><li>• Option C. Estriol : Estriol (E3) is the weakest of the three primary estrogens. It is primarily produced during pregnancy and has the least biological activity due to its low affinity for estrogen receptors.</li><li>• Option C. Estriol</li><li>• Option D. Conjugated estrogen : Conjugated estrogens are a mixture of several types of estrogens, typically used in hormone replacement therapy. They are not as biologically potent as estradiol when considered individually.</li><li>• Option D. Conjugated estrogen</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Estradiol is the most potent biological estrogen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a foreign body (chuna) in his eyes and complains of irritability and lacrimation. What is the first step of management in this patient? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibiotics drops in eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temporary tarsorrhaphy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Irrigation of eye with normal saline", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Complete Scraping", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Irrigation of eye with normal saline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-123633.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Irrigation of eye with normal saline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first step in the management of chemical injuries to the eye is immediate and copious irrigation with normal saline to wash out the chemical substance</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are criteria for diagnosis of DKA except: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "S. glucose &gt; 250 mg/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arterial pH &lt; 7.3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anion gap &gt; 12", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "S. Potassium &lt; 3.5 mEq/L", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. S. Potassium < 3.5 mEq/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) S. Potassium &lt; 3.5 mEq/L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnostic criteria for DKA include hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap. Potassium levels, while important to monitor and manage in DKA, are not part of the diagnostic criteria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is not a product of heme catabolism? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ferrous ion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aminolaevulinic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biliverdin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbon monoxide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aminolaevulinic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aminolaevulinic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aminolaevulinic acid is a precursor in the synthesis of heme, not a product of its catabolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs used in the management of type 2 diabetes is associated with an increased risk of urinary tract infections? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dapagliflozin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pioglitazone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sitagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dapagliflozin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dapagliflozin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dapagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor, is associated with an increased risk of urinary tract infections due to its mechanism of increasing glucose excretion in the urine. This highlights the importance of monitoring for UTIs in patients prescribed this medication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient presented with proximal weakness, lethargy, low/depressed mood, and recurrent renal stones. Laboratory testing revealed a normal S. Calcium and increased PTH levels. What is the organ involved and the pathology? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parathyroid gland and hyperparathyroidism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid and Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adrenal and Pheochromocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone and Metabolic Bone Disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Parathyroid gland and hyperparathyroidism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Parathyroid gland and hyperparathyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Normocalcemic primary hyperparathyroidism presents with normal serum calcium and elevated PTH levels and is associated with symptoms like proximal weakness, lethargy, low mood, and recurrent renal stones. It is a diagnosis of exclusion after ruling out other causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presented with weight gain, proximal muscle weakness, purple striae, and easy bruising. What is the likely underlying condition? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypercortisolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperaldosteronism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypercortisolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypercortisolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cushing's syndrome, or hypercortisolism, is characterized by weight gain, proximal muscle weakness, purple striae, and easy bruising due to the catabolic effects of excess cortisol.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of leprosy can result in hyperpigmentation? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dapsone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clofazimine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Clofazimine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Clofazimine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clofazimine, a drug used in leprosy treatment, can cause significant hyperpigmentation of the skin and discoloration of body fluids, which can be an important consideration in patient counseling and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following diuretic is correctly matched with its site of action ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osmotic diuretics- Collecting duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors-Proximal tubule", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiazides-Loop of Henle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aldosterone antagonists-Distal tubules", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors-Proximal tubule", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-30%20132839.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - Proximal tubule</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with the long-term use of intermittent teriparatide for the treatment of osteoporosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteonecrosis of the jaw bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subtrochanteric fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loss of bone mass", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Osteosarcoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Osteosarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The long-term use of teriparatide is associated with an increased risk of osteosarcoma, which is why its use is limited to a maximum of two years.</li><li>➤ two years.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the blood product with the shelf life mentioned in the next column: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-3, B-1, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-134922.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ T he shelf life of different blood products is essential for proper storage and timely usage in medical practice.</li><li>➤ Single donor platelet - 5 days Packed red blood cells - 42 days Cryoprecipitate - 1 year Granulocyte concentrate - 24 hours</li><li>➤ Single donor platelet - 5 days</li><li>➤ Packed red blood cells - 42 days</li><li>➤ Cryoprecipitate - 1 year</li><li>➤ Granulocyte concentrate - 24 hours</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "16-year-old girl presented with primary amenorrhea. On examination she has well developed secondary sexual characters and labs revealed a normal LH and FSH. Her karyotype is 46XX. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gonadal Dyagenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mullerian Agenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kallman Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Androgen insensitivity Syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mullerian Agenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mullerian Agenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mullerian agenesis (MRKH syndrome) presents with primary amenorrhea, normal secondary sexual characteristics, normal hormone levels (LH and FSH), and a 46,XX karyotype.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an incorrect statement about Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) ? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reed Sternberg cells are of B cell origin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reed Sternberg cells are CD30+ and PAX 5+", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nodular sclerosis HL commonly involves the mediastinum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Commonest site for HL is the Waldeyer ring", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Commonest site for HL is the Waldeyer ring", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Commonest site for HL is the Waldeyer ring</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hodgkin lymphoma typically involves the cervical, mediastinal, axillary, and inguinal lymph nodes. The involvement of the Waldeyer ring is more characteristic of non-Hodgkin lymphoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the crystal in a patient with urinary pH of 8.7: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triple Phosphate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium oxalate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uric acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Triple Phosphate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-130550.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Triple Phosphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triple phosphate (struvite) crystals are associated with alkaline urine and have a \"coffin-lid\" appearance. They are commonly seen in patients with urinary tract infections caused by urease-positive organisms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of mutation results in the reversal to the wild type of phenotype when the mutant gene is suppressed? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frameshift mutation of coding gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Addition of another normal gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deletion of the mutant gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mutation of tRNA", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mutation of tRNA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/whatsapp-image-2024-08-31-at-12858-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-170152.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mutation of tRNA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Suppressor mutations, particularly those in tRNA, can reverse the effects of a previous mutation by allowing protein synthesis to continue even when a premature stop codon is present, thereby restoring the normal (wild-type) phenotype.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug resistance is most commonly seen with which of the following infections?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Donovanosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonorrhea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gonorrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Gonorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, gonorrhea is the infection most commonly associated with drug resistance, making it a critical concern in the treatment of STIs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of nausea, diarrhea, and vomiting. Upon further investigation, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals the following: pH: 7.55, PCO2: 50 mmHg, HCO3-: 44 mmol/L. Given these findings, which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory Acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory Alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metabolic Acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic Alkalosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metabolic Alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an elevated pH and bicarbonate level, with respiratory compensation leading to increased PCO2.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is incorrect about Wilms’ tumor? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Commonly presents as an abdominal mass", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Presents in children &lt; 6 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Majority of patients recover due to chemotherapy and radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung metastasis is rare and seen as a late feature", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lung metastasis is rare and seen as a late feature", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lung metastasis is rare and seen as a late feature</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lung metastasis in Wilms’ tumor is not rare; it is actually a common site of metastasis and often occurs early in the disease course.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Erythropoietin is produced by: (INICET MAY 2024) Kidney Liver Spleen Lung", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 and 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1 and 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Erythropoietin is a hormone primarily produced by the kidneys and to a lesser extent by the liver. In a healthy individual, the majority of erythropoietin (approximately 90%) is produced by the kidney, specifically by peritubular interstitial fibroblasts. These cells respond to hypoxia (low oxygen levels) by increasing the production of erythropoietin, which then stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. The liver also contributes to erythropoietin production, particularly through sinusoidal cells, although it accounts for only about 10% of the hormone's production under normal conditions.</li><li>• In certain pathological conditions, such as in some types of anemia (e.g., thalassemia major), the spleen may take on a role in erythropoietin production to compensate for the body's increased need for red blood cells. However, this is not the case in healthy individuals, which is why the spleen and other organs like the lung are not considered significant sources of erythropoietin under normal physiological conditions.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• 3 and 4 : While the spleen can contribute in pathological states, it is not a primary source under normal conditions, and the lung does not contribute to erythropoietin production.</li><li>• 3 and 4</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erythropoietin is primarily produced by the kidneys, with the liver contributing to a lesser extent. Understanding the primary and secondary sources of erythropoietin is crucial, particularly in the context of conditions affecting red blood cell production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following drugs act as HER-1 inhibitors except ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cetuximab", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Necitumumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pertuzumab", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Panitumumab", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pertuzumab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pertuzumab</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient underwent surgery under general anaesthesia. Rocuronium was used as a muscle relaxant during the procedure. After the surgery, the patient has not regained muscle function, indicating prolonged muscle paralysis. The medical team needs to reverse the effects of rocuronium quickly to ensure patient safety and recovery. Which of the following can result in the fastest reversal? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sugammadex", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neostigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Edrophonium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sugammadex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sugammadex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, sugammadex is the most effective and fastest-acting agent for reversing the effects of rocuronium, making it the best choice in this clinical scenario.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Parthenogenesis is seen in which of the following worm? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichuris trichura", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Strongyloides stercoralis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Strongyloides stercoralis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Strongyloides stercoralis: Strongyloides stercoralis is unique among the nematodes because it can reproduce through parthenogenesis. This means that the female worms can produce fertile eggs without mating with a male. In the human host, only female Strongyloides worms are found in the intestine, and they are capable of producing eggs or larvae without male fertilization. Oviparous, Viviparous, and Oviviparous Nematodes: Oviparous: These worms lay eggs which then develop outside the female’s body. Examples include Ascaris and Trichuris. Viviparous: These worms give birth to live larvae. Examples include some species of Dracunculus and Wuchereria. Oviviparous: These worms lay eggs that hatch immediately as they are laid, producing larvae. Strongyloides stercoralis is an example, as the eggs hatch into larvae almost immediately after being laid.</li><li>• Strongyloides stercoralis: Strongyloides stercoralis is unique among the nematodes because it can reproduce through parthenogenesis. This means that the female worms can produce fertile eggs without mating with a male. In the human host, only female Strongyloides worms are found in the intestine, and they are capable of producing eggs or larvae without male fertilization.</li><li>• Strongyloides stercoralis:</li><li>• Oviparous, Viviparous, and Oviviparous Nematodes: Oviparous: These worms lay eggs which then develop outside the female’s body. Examples include Ascaris and Trichuris. Viviparous: These worms give birth to live larvae. Examples include some species of Dracunculus and Wuchereria. Oviviparous: These worms lay eggs that hatch immediately as they are laid, producing larvae. Strongyloides stercoralis is an example, as the eggs hatch into larvae almost immediately after being laid.</li><li>• Oviparous, Viviparous, and Oviviparous Nematodes:</li><li>• Oviparous: These worms lay eggs which then develop outside the female’s body. Examples include Ascaris and Trichuris. Viviparous: These worms give birth to live larvae. Examples include some species of Dracunculus and Wuchereria. Oviviparous: These worms lay eggs that hatch immediately as they are laid, producing larvae. Strongyloides stercoralis is an example, as the eggs hatch into larvae almost immediately after being laid.</li><li>• Oviparous: These worms lay eggs which then develop outside the female’s body. Examples include Ascaris and Trichuris.</li><li>• Oviparous:</li><li>• Viviparous: These worms give birth to live larvae. Examples include some species of Dracunculus and Wuchereria.</li><li>• Viviparous:</li><li>• Oviviparous: These worms lay eggs that hatch immediately as they are laid, producing larvae. Strongyloides stercoralis is an example, as the eggs hatch into larvae almost immediately after being laid.</li><li>• Oviviparous:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Trichuris trichura: This worm is oviparous, meaning it lays eggs that develop and hatch outside the female’s body. It does not reproduce via parthenogenesis.</li><li>• Option A. Trichuris trichura:</li><li>• Option C. Ancylostoma duodenale: This is also an oviparous worm. It lays eggs that develop in the external environment.</li><li>• Option C. Ancylostoma duodenale:</li><li>• Option D. Enterobius vermicularis: Commonly known as pinworm, it is also oviparous, laying eggs that hatch outside the body. It does not reproduce via parthenogenesis.</li><li>• Option D. Enterobius vermicularis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parthenogenesis, where a female worm can produce offspring without male fertilization, is a unique reproductive strategy seen in Strongyloides stercoralis. This worm is also oviviparous, laying eggs that hatch almost immediately.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man presented with chest pain and shortness of breath. An ECG was taken in the emergency and was shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NSTEMI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unstable Angina", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior MI", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute Myocarditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Posterior MI", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-101157.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of tall R waves, ST depression, and upright T waves in leads V2 and V3 are indicative of a posterior myocardial infarction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which will you not see in twin pregnancy? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MCMA (Monochorionic Monoamniotic)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MCDA (Monochorionic Diamniotic)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MADC (Monoamniotic Dichorionic)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "DADC (Dichorionic Diamniotic)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MADC (Monoamniotic Dichorionic)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) MADC (Monoamniotic Dichorionic)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Monoamniotic Dichorionic (MADC) is not a possible configuration in twin pregnancies. The formation of the amnion and chorion follows a specific sequence that does not allow for this combination. Understanding the timing and resulting structures of zygote division is crucial in determining the type of twin pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young girl presents with retention of urine and cyclical abdominal pain. On examination, there is a tense bluish bulge seen at the introitus. The diagnosis is? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Imperforate hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transverse vaginal septum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vertical vaginal septum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mullerian agenesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Imperforate hymen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Imperforate hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of cyclical abdominal pain, urinary retention, and a tense bluish bulge at the introitus in a young girl strongly suggests an imperforate hymen. Early diagnosis and surgical intervention can prevent complications and relieve symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not associated with post-transcriptional modification? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methylation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endonuclease cleavage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Capping", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glycosylation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glycosylation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Glycosylation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycosylation is not a post-transcriptional modification. Post-transcriptional modifications include processes like capping, methylation, and splicing, which are critical for the maturation of mRNA before it is translated into protein.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the least common cause of bipedal edema? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lupus Nephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic Venous Insufficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heart Failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic Liver Disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chronic Venous Insufficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chronic Venous Insufficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic venous insufficiency typically causes unilateral or asymmetric leg swelling, making it the least common cause of symmetric bipedal edema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Best investigation for malaria speciation identification - (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thick smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thin smear with acridine orange", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thin smear with Giemsa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Buffy Coat", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thin smear with Giemsa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thin smear with Giemsa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thin blood smears stained with Giemsa are the gold standard for malaria species identification due to their ability to clearly show parasite morphology within a single layer of RBCs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following STD is transmitted by all components of the blood? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Filariasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Syphilis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Syphilis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, is an STD that can be transmitted by all components of the blood, highlighting the importance of thorough blood screening.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged housewife consumed rodenticide powder and presented with K+ levels of 2.5meq. On examination, irregular pulse with muscle paralysis is present. ECG shows ventricular ectopics. What is the suspected poison? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aluminium phosphide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zinc phosphide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium carbonate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Warfarin tablets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Barium carbonate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Barium carbonate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Barium carbonate poisoning leads to hypokalemia , muscle paralysis , and cardiac arrhythmias , requiring urgent treatment with gastric lavage and sulfate administration to prevent fatal complications.</li><li>➤ Barium carbonate poisoning</li><li>➤ hypokalemia</li><li>➤ muscle paralysis</li><li>➤ cardiac arrhythmias</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is anisometropia? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Difference in refractive error", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Difference in color of iris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Difference in axial length", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Difference in visual acuity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Difference in refractive error", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Difference in refractive error</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anisometropia is defined as a difference in the refractive error between the two eyes, which can lead to difficulties in binocular vision and potentially cause amblyopia in the more affected eye.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not useful for hemoglobin estimation by the colorimetric test? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RBC pipette", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sahli graduated hemoglobin tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Comparator with brown glass standard", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemoglobin pipette", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RBC pipette", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/23/screenshot-2024-08-23-132314.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) RBC pipette</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The RBC pipette is not useful for hemoglobin estimation by the colorimetric (Sahli's) method, as it is designed for cell counting rather than for the preparation and color comparison required in this test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In triage, immediately life-threatening injury is categorized as what color code? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Red", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Red</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a triage situation, an immediately life-threatening injury is classified under the Red color code , indicating the need for urgent medical intervention.</li><li>➤ immediately life-threatening injury is classified under the Red color code</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not have polysaccharide vaccine? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumococcal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meningococcal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "H. influenzae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hepatitis B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hepatitis B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatitis B vaccine is a recombinant vaccine, not a polysaccharide vaccine, as it targets a virus that does not have a polysaccharide capsule.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presented with an ulcerated breast lump. Nipple retraction was seen, with some warmth and redness. On biopsy, it was diagnosed as invasive ductal carcinoma. According to AJCC 8th Ed., which of these correctly represents the stage? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage IV with N1-N2 involvement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T4b", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage IIIB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It cannot be M1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. T4b", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) T4b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ulceration of a breast lump with skin involvement typically corresponds to T4b in the AJCC 8th edition staging system for breast cancer. It is essential to differentiate between T4b and T4d (inflammatory breast cancer) based on the clinical presentation and pathological findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old patient presented with left facial weakness. Routine lab workup was normal. What is the next best step in management? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acyclovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Corticosteroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physiotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Corticosteroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Corticosteroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best initial management for a patient with Bell's palsy is corticosteroid therapy. Early administration within 72 hours of symptom onset greatly enhances the likelihood of complete recovery. Antivirals may be added in severe cases, but they are not the mainstay of treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents at 18 weeks with low risk of trisomy on quadruple marker and high risk of NTD. What is the next best step? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anomaly scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amniocentesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chorionic villous sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NIPT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anomaly scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anomaly scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with a high risk of neural tube defects identified by elevated alpha-fetoprotein on a quadruple marker test, the best next step is an anomaly scan (TIFA), which is highly effective in identifying structural fetal abnormalities, including NTDs</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient following head injury with altered consciousness, vomiting, and GCS of 10/15 undergoes CT scan as shown. What is the next step? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV Mannitol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decompression", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anticoagulation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decompression", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-181226.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decompression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epidural hematoma with neuro deterioration is a neurosurgical emergency that requires immediate decompression to prevent further brain injury and improve patient outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is not a feature of 3rd nerve palsy? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pupil dilatation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Down and out eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abduction limitation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Abduction limitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Abduction limitation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Third nerve palsy presents with pupil dilatation, ptosis, and a down and out eye. Abduction limitation is not a feature of third nerve palsy; it is seen in sixth nerve palsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following disorders with their respective clinical features or lab findings: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 → B, 2 → C, 3 → A, 4 → D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 → C, 2 → B, 3 → A, 4 → D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 → A, 2 → C, 3 → B, 4 → D", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 → A, 2 → C, 3 → D, 4 → B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 → A, 2 → C, 3 → B, 4 → D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/31/screenshot-2024-08-31-170404.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1 → A, 2 → C, 3 → B, 4 → D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycogen storage diseases (GSDs) are classified based on the specific enzyme deficiency involved, leading to distinct clinical features such as exercise intolerance in McArdle’s disease, glycogen accumulation in lysosomes in Pompe’s disease, and hypoglycemia with lactic acidosis in Von Gierke’s disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is/are criteria for anaphylaxis? (INICET MAY 2024) Persistent abdominal cramps and vomiting Hypertension Urticaria and swollen lips Respiratory distress", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, b &amp; c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "b &amp; c are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a, c &amp; d", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. a, c & d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) a, c &amp; d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that involves multiple organ systems and is characterized by symptoms such as urticaria, swollen lips, respiratory distress, and persistent gastrointestinal symptoms. Hypotension, rather than hypertension, is a critical diagnostic feature. Recognizing these criteria promptly is crucial for the immediate management of anaphylaxis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During total thyroidectomy for papillary thyroid cancer, which of the following steps will not lead to hoarseness of voice? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dissection of Beahr’s triangle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dissection of Zuckerkandl tubercle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dissection of strap muscles", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ligation of Superior thyroid artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dissection of strap muscles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dissection of strap muscles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dissection of the strap muscles during thyroidectomy does not involve the recurrent laryngeal nerve, and therefore, will not cause hoarseness of voice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 80-year-old patient suffers with Intracapsular femoral neck fracture. What would be the most appropriate management option for her management? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Russell’s traction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bar and boot plaster", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intramedullary nailing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemiarthroplasty", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hemiarthroplasty", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131913.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hemiarthroplasty</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct statement: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT uses non-filtered X-rays", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radiation exposure in CT scan is 20mSv", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT is the initial investigation for gallstones", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HU of water is zero", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HU of water is zero", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) HU of water is zero</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hounsfield Unit (HU) of water is zero, serving as a reference point for measuring the radiodensity of various tissues in CT imaging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Histological examination of a cervical lymph node biopsy is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hodgkin lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tuberculosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/23/whatsapp-image-2024-08-23-at-10620-pm_hlG7P8A.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of caseous necrosis and a ring of lymphocytes in the histological examination of cervical lymph nodes strongly suggests tuberculosis as the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rapid cycling in bipolar disorder is characterised by all of the following features except: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Occurs more commonly in men", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Is commonly associated with concomitant hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Characterised by at least four distinct episodes per year", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antidepressants increase the likelihood", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Occurs more commonly in men", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rapid cycling in bipolar disorder is more commonly seen in females and is characterized by at least four distinct episodes per year.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the stage of sleep denoted by the arrow: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NREM 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NREM 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NREM 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "REM", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. REM", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-152214.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/whatsapp-image-2024-08-26-at-21214-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) REM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The stage of sleep indicated by the arrow is REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep. This can be identified based on the specific patterns observed in the EEG (Electroencephalogram), EMG (Electromyogram), and EOG (Electrooculogram) readings:</li><li>• EEG : The EEG during REM sleep shows low-amplitude, high-frequency waves that are similar to the wakeful state. This pattern is characteristic of REM sleep and is often described as \"sawtooth\" waves. EMG : The EMG during REM sleep shows a flat line, indicating muscle atonia. This muscle atonia is a defining feature of REM sleep, where most of the body's voluntary muscles are temporarily paralyzed. This prevents the sleeper from acting out their dreams. EOG : The EOG during REM sleep shows rapid movements of the eyes, which is where REM sleep gets its name. These rapid eye movements are indicative of the intense brain activity occurring during this stage, despite the body's overall lack of movement.</li><li>• EEG : The EEG during REM sleep shows low-amplitude, high-frequency waves that are similar to the wakeful state. This pattern is characteristic of REM sleep and is often described as \"sawtooth\" waves.</li><li>• EEG</li><li>• EMG : The EMG during REM sleep shows a flat line, indicating muscle atonia. This muscle atonia is a defining feature of REM sleep, where most of the body's voluntary muscles are temporarily paralyzed. This prevents the sleeper from acting out their dreams.</li><li>• EMG</li><li>• EOG : The EOG during REM sleep shows rapid movements of the eyes, which is where REM sleep gets its name. These rapid eye movements are indicative of the intense brain activity occurring during this stage, despite the body's overall lack of movement.</li><li>• EOG</li><li>• In contrast, non-REM (NREM) sleep stages (including NREM 2, 3, and 4) show different patterns:</li><li>• NREM stages generally have higher amplitude, lower frequency EEG patterns. Muscle tone is reduced but not absent as in REM sleep. Eye movements are either slow or absent, depending on the specific NREM stage.</li><li>• NREM stages generally have higher amplitude, lower frequency EEG patterns.</li><li>• Muscle tone is reduced but not absent as in REM sleep.</li><li>• Eye movements are either slow or absent, depending on the specific NREM stage.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. NREM 2 : This stage of sleep is characterized by sleep spindles and K-complexes on the EEG, with reduced but not absent muscle tone and minimal eye movement. The patterns described in the question do not match this stage.</li><li>• Option A. NREM 2</li><li>• Option B. NREM 3 : Known as slow-wave sleep or deep sleep, NREM 3 is characterized by high-amplitude, low-frequency delta waves on the EEG. Muscle tone is decreased but not completely absent, and there is minimal to no eye movement. The pattern described does not correspond to NREM 3.</li><li>• Option B. NREM 3</li><li>• Option C. NREM 4 : Often combined with NREM 3 in the modern classification, this stage is also characterized by delta waves, reduced muscle tone, and lack of eye movement. The described pattern is inconsistent with this stage as well.</li><li>• Option C. NREM 4</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ REM sleep is characterized by low-amplitude, high-frequency EEG waves, muscle atonia as shown in the EMG, and rapid eye movements as shown in the EOG. Recognizing these patterns is crucial for correctly identifying REM sleep, which is a critical stage for processes like memory consolidation and emotional regulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Regarding ABO blood grouping, which statement is false? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgM is the most common antibody in ABO", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ABO antibodies are natural and present since birth", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ABO antigens are carbohydrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antibodies are present only if antigens are absent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ABO antibodies are natural and present since birth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ABO antibodies are natural and present since birth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ABO antibodies, while natural, are not present at birth but develop in the first few months of life (typically 3-6 months) through exposure to environmental factors, particularly gut bacteria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman has experienced the loss of her newborn. She is currently producing breast milk, leading to discomfort and the risk of developing a breast abscess due to milk stasis and incomplete emptying. Which of the following drug can be used to prevent this complication? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mifepristone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cabergoline", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chlorpromazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metoclopramide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cabergoline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cabergoline</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause of proptosis in a middle-aged person? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Soft tissue tumour in orbit", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid eye disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic nerve meningioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cavernous hemangioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thyroid eye disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thyroid eye disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common cause of proptosis in a middle-aged person is thyroid eye disease (Graves' ophthalmopathy).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anticoagulant requires coagulation profile monitoring? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enoxaparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lepirudin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fondaparinux", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dabigatran", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lepirudin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lepirudin</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has otitis media with effusion. Which of the following is wrong? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is bilateral", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It undergoes spontaneous resolution after cold decreases", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is associated with cold", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It shows Ad type of curve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It shows Ad type of curve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) It shows Ad type of curve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Otitis media with effusion shows a B type of tympanogram curve, not an Ad type curve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are components of Beck's cognitive theory of depression except: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysfunctional beliefs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cognitive distortions", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Introjection", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Automatic negative thoughts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Introjection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Introjection is not a component of Beck's cognitive theory of depression; it is associated with psychoanalytic theory, which focuses on internalized feelings towards an object, such as a parent, and is less commonly used in contemporary understanding of depression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is incorrect about Nutritional Rickets? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal Serum Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High Parathyroid hormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low Serum Phosphorus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High Urine Calcium to Creatinine Ratio", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. High Urine Calcium to Creatinine Ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) High Urine Calcium to Creatinine Ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nutritional rickets is characterized by low vitamin D, leading to compensatory high PTH, which helps maintain normal serum calcium (often), but causes low serum phosphorus and, importantly, low urine calcium excretion due to renal calcium conservation. A low UCa/Cr ratio is more commonly associated with nutritional rickets. However, a high UCa/Cr ratio is not entirely uncommon and might reflect specific underlying mechanisms in some cases. Therefore, the UCa/Cr ratio in nutritional rickets can vary depending on the specific situation.</li><li>➤ Nutritional rickets is characterized by low vitamin D, leading to compensatory high PTH, which helps maintain normal serum calcium (often), but causes low serum phosphorus and, importantly, low urine calcium excretion due to renal calcium conservation.</li><li>➤ Nutritional rickets is characterized by low vitamin D, leading to compensatory high PTH, which helps maintain normal serum calcium (often), but causes low serum phosphorus and, importantly, low urine calcium excretion due to renal calcium conservation.</li><li>➤ A low UCa/Cr ratio is more commonly associated with nutritional rickets.</li><li>➤ A low UCa/Cr ratio is more commonly associated with nutritional rickets.</li><li>➤ low UCa/Cr ratio</li><li>➤ However, a high UCa/Cr ratio is not entirely uncommon and might reflect specific underlying mechanisms in some cases.</li><li>➤ However, a high UCa/Cr ratio is not entirely uncommon and might reflect specific underlying mechanisms in some cases.</li><li>➤ high UCa/Cr ratio</li><li>➤ Therefore, the UCa/Cr ratio in nutritional rickets can vary depending on the specific situation.</li><li>➤ Therefore, the UCa/Cr ratio in nutritional rickets can vary depending on the specific situation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-diabetic drug is associated with increased risk of urinary tract infections? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dapagliflozin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pioglitazone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sitagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dapagliflozin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dapagliflozin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, dapagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor, is associated with an increased risk of urinary tract infections due to its mechanism of increasing glucose excretion in the urine. This patient’s recurrent UTIs could be related to her use of dapagliflozin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a history of hyperglycemia and has had positive urine glucose tests on two separate occasions in the last six months. The patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is considering various medications to manage the patient's condition and prevent potential complications, including renal involvement. Which of the following drugs will not delay renal involvement? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SGLT2 inhibitors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Finerenone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrochlorthiazide", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Angiotensin receptor blockers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hydrochlorthiazide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hydrochlorothiazide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, while SGLT2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors, and ARBs have renal protective properties and can help delay renal involvement in diabetic patients, hydrochlorothiazide does not have these specific protective effects and is the correct answer in this context.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a criteria for making a diagnosis of an anaphylactic reaction? (INICET MAY 2024) Swollen lips and urticaria Hypertension Breathing difficulty Persistent abdominal pain and vomiting", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of swollen lips and urticaria along with breathing difficulty are key criteria for diagnosing an anaphylactic reaction, while hypertension and persistent abdominal pain are not typical features.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common hernia in females (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct inguinal hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indirect inguinal hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femoral hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obturator hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Indirect inguinal hernia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Indirect inguinal hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In females, the most common type of hernia is the indirect inguinal hernia, despite femoral hernias being more common in females compared to males.</li><li>➤ Incidence of Hernia in Females: Indirect inguinal Hernia &gt; Direct inguinal Hernia &gt; Femoral hernia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the hormones represented by the following: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A - Somatostatin B - GH C - GHRH D - IGF1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A - Somatostatin B - GHRH C - GH D - IGF1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A - IGF1 B - GHRH C - GH D - Somatostatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A - GHRH B - Somatostatin C - GH D - IGF1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A - Somatostatin B - GHRH C - GH D - IGF1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/whatsapp-image-2024-08-26-at-20219-pm.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A - Somatostatin B - GHRH C - GH D - IGF1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A. Somatostatin (Growth Hormone Inhibitory Hormone, GHIH) : Somatostatin is released from the hypothalamus and acts as an inhibitory hormone, suppressing the secretion of GH from the pituitary gland.</li><li>• A. Somatostatin (Growth Hormone Inhibitory Hormone, GHIH)</li><li>• B. Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone (GHRH) : GHRH stimulates the pituitary gland to release growth hormone.</li><li>• B. Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone (GHRH)</li><li>• C. Growth Hormone (GH) : GH is released from the somatotrophs of the anterior pituitary gland and has a direct effect on tissues.</li><li>• C. Growth Hormone (GH)</li><li>• D. Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF1) : IGF1 is produced in the liver in response to GH and mediates many of the growth-promoting effects of GH, representing the indirect effects of GH.</li><li>• D. Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF1)</li><li>• The hypothalamus, often referred to as the \"master gland,\" orchestrates this hormonal cascade by releasing both inhibitory and stimulatory hormones that regulate the secretion of GH.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sequence of hormonal regulation in growth hormone release is: Somatostatin (inhibitory) and GHRH (stimulatory) from the hypothalamus regulate GH release from the pituitary, which in turn stimulates IGF1 production in the liver.</li><li>➤ Somatostatin (inhibitory) and GHRH (stimulatory) from the hypothalamus regulate GH release from the pituitary, which in turn stimulates IGF1 production in the liver.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following clinical features can be encountered in Korsakoff psychosis? (INICET MAY 2024) Amnesia Confabulation Ophthalmoplegia Peripheral neuropathy", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Korsakoff psychosis is characterized by severe memory impairment (amnesia), confabulation, and peripheral neuropathy. It does not include ophthalmoplegia, which is a feature of the acute Wernicke's encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following drugs decreases the serum parathyroid hormone levels? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Risedronate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcitriol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lithium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diuretics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calcitriol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Calcitriol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D, decreases serum parathyroid hormone levels by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines and directly inhibiting PTH secretion from the parathyroid glands through its action on vitamin D receptors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is not true about febrile seizure? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age 6 months – 5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Simple febrile seizure lasts for &lt;15 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "No need for long term antiepileptics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "54% recurrence", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 54% recurrence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Febrile seizures typically occur between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, last less than 15 minutes, and do not require long-term antiepileptic treatment. The recurrence rate is much lower than 54%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with bleeding since 2 days and abdominal pain. Her LMP was 6 weeks back. An ultrasound shows fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abruptio placentae", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Missed abortion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ruptured ectopic pregnancy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In early pregnancy, if a patient presents with abdominal pain, bleeding, and a history of missed periods, with fluid in the pouch of Douglas seen on ultrasound, the most likely diagnosis is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This condition requires immediate surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is/are included as a part of primary survey in trauma? (multiple correct combinations) (INICET MAY 2024) A. Endotracheal intubation B. Chest X-ray C. Plain CT D. ICD insertion", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B, C are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B, C &amp; D are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B and D are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A, B and D are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A, B and D are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the primary survey of a trauma patient, life-saving interventions like ET intubation, bedside chest X-ray, and ICD insertion are performed to stabilize the patient. A CT scan is not part of this immediate assessment and is reserved for stable patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In folate deficiency, the False statement is: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High homocysteine and normal methylmalonic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemolytic anemia is a feature", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "B12 supplementation is recommended along with Folate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Purine and pyrimidine synthesis are affected", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hemolytic anemia is a feature", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hemolytic anemia is a feature</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Folate deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia, not hemolytic anemia. It is associated with high homocysteine levels and normal methylmalonic acid levels, and folate is essential for purine and pyrimidine synthesis, which are necessary for DNA synthesis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Assertion (A): Myocarditis is the common known complication of faucial diphtheria Reason (R) : It is due to bacteremia by diphtheria (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Assertion is true, reason is true; reason is the correct explanation for the assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Assertion is true, reason is true; reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assertion is false and reason is also true", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assertion is true and reason is also false", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Assertion is true and reason is also false", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Assertion is true and reason is also false</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Assertion: Myocarditis is indeed a common and serious complication of diphtheria, especially in cases of faucial diphtheria. The diphtheria toxin can cause significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to myocarditis.</li><li>• Assertion:</li><li>• Reason: The assertion that myocarditis is due to bacteremia by diphtheria is incorrect. Diphtheria does not cause bacteremia. Instead, the complications, including myocarditis, are due to the exotoxin produced by the Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The toxin disseminates through the bloodstream, affecting various organs, including the heart, nerves, and kidneys.</li><li>• Reason:</li><li>• Diphtheria Toxin: The pathogenesis of diphtheria involves the production of diphtheria toxin, which is a potent exotoxin. This toxin, rather than the bacteria itself, enters the bloodstream (toxemia) and affects distant organs. Toxemia vs. Bacteremia: Diphtheria is characterized by toxemia, not bacteremia. The bacteria remain localized at the site of infection (e.g., the throat), but the toxin spreads systemically. Myocarditis as a Complication: The diphtheria toxin affects the heart muscle, leading to myocarditis, which is the most common and severe complication of diphtheria. Other complications include neuritis and damage to the adrenal glands.</li><li>• Diphtheria Toxin: The pathogenesis of diphtheria involves the production of diphtheria toxin, which is a potent exotoxin. This toxin, rather than the bacteria itself, enters the bloodstream (toxemia) and affects distant organs.</li><li>• Diphtheria Toxin:</li><li>• Toxemia vs. Bacteremia: Diphtheria is characterized by toxemia, not bacteremia. The bacteria remain localized at the site of infection (e.g., the throat), but the toxin spreads systemically.</li><li>• Toxemia vs. Bacteremia:</li><li>• Myocarditis as a Complication: The diphtheria toxin affects the heart muscle, leading to myocarditis, which is the most common and severe complication of diphtheria. Other complications include neuritis and damage to the adrenal glands.</li><li>• Myocarditis as a Complication:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Assertion is true, reason is true; reason is the correct explanation for the assertion: Incorrect because the reason given is not the correct explanation.</li><li>• Option A. Assertion is true, reason is true; reason is the correct explanation for the assertion:</li><li>• Option B. Assertion is true, reason is true; reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion: Incorrect because the reason itself is false.</li><li>• Option B. Assertion is true, reason is true; reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion:</li><li>• Option C. Assertion is false and reason is also true: Incorrect because the assertion is true, but the reason is false.</li><li>• Option C. Assertion is false and reason is also true:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myocarditis is a common and serious complication of diphtheria due to the effects of the diphtheria toxin. It is important to recognize that the complications arise from toxemia, not bacteremia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents at 36 weeks with chronic HTN and 3+ proteinuria. Her BP is 170/100 mmHg and she complains of headache and blurring of vision. What is the best management option? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Labetalol + MgSO4 + Expedite delivery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Labetalol + MgSO4 + Wait till 37 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Labetalol + Corticosteroids + wait till 37 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Labetalol + Corticosteroids + Expedite delivery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Labetalol + MgSO4 + Expedite delivery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Labetalol + MgSO4 + Expedite delivery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of severe preeclampsia after 34 weeks, immediate delivery, blood pressure control with labetalol, and seizure prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate are essential for optimal maternal and fetal outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old came with complaints of pain in the abdomen and bleeding PV for the last 2 days. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks back. On examination, she has hypotension, tachycardia and cervical motion tenderness. Ultrasound of the abdomen shows free fluid in the pouch of Douglas and paracolic gutters. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abruptio placenta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ruptured ectopic pregnancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Missed abortion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A ruptured ectopic pregnancy presents with abdominal pain, amenorrhea, and vaginal bleeding, often leading to shock and free fluid in the abdomen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calcium deposition is seen in which layer? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171632.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171737.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171801.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The zone of calcified cartilage is where calcium deposition occurs, leading to the hardening of cartilage and its eventual replacement by bone during the growth of long bones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with vomiting, altered sensorium, and hypotension. His last binge drinking episode was 7 days ago. An ultrasound reveals a small liver with coarse echotexture and mild portal vein dilation. Given these findings, what is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Administer lactulose and wait for stool passage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perform endoscopy to assess for varices", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Initiate treatment with thiamine and lorazepam", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administer chlordiazepoxide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Initiate treatment with thiamine and lorazepam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a chronic alcoholic presenting with altered sensorium, the immediate administration of thiamine is crucial to treat potential Wernicke's encephalopathy. Lorazepam can be used for its safer hepatic profile if benzodiazepine administration is necessary. The focus should be on treating the most urgent and reversible conditions first.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "22-year-old patient with high myopia and thick glasses presents with floaters in his eyes. What is the cause of this condition? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retinal detachment", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitreous hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Branched retinal artery occlusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Retinal detachment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Retinal detachment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with high myopia are at increased risk for peripheral retinal degeneration and subsequent retinal detachment, presenting with symptoms like floaters and flashes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was injured with a rusted metal object. What is the mechanism of action of tetanus toxin in such cases? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibit the release of GABA and glycine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibit the release of Acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhibit the release of epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibit the release of norepinephrine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibit the release of GABA and glycine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inhibit the release of GABA and glycine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin) inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine, leading to unopposed muscle contractions and the characteristic spasms of tetanus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following in IgA vasculitis warrants the use of corticosteroids? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "GI bleeding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abdominal pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin rash", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. GI bleeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corticosteroids are indicated in IgA vasculitis primarily for severe manifestations such as gastrointestinal bleeding, indicating more extensive disease involvement. Other manifestations, such as arthritis, abdominal pain, and skin rash, are generally self-limiting and respond well to supportive care. Corticosteroids are not typically required for these symptoms unless they are part of a more severe systemic involvement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the rate of increment of head circumference in the first three months of life? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 cm per month", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 cm per month", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 cm per month", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.5 cm per month", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 cm per month", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The head circumference of a baby increases by approximately 2 cm per month during the first three months of life.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old man collapsed and was brought to the emergency. ECG was taken and a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation (AF) was made. Which of the following is true? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Almost never seen in heart with normal morphology", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV Digoxin can be used for ventricular rate control", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "DC Cardioversion is required in all cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Discrepancy in HR and PR is a clinically reliable criteria for diagnosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IV Digoxin can be used for ventricular rate control", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-101221.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IV Digoxin can be effectively used for ventricular rate control in patients with atrial fibrillation, especially in those with heart failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Congenital lactic acidosis is due to the defect of: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transketolase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isocitrate dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency is a key cause of congenital lactic acidosis, as it prevents the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, leading to an accumulation of lactic acid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following presents with repeated catalase-positive infections? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X-linked Agammaglobulinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic Granulomatous Disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe Combined Immunodeficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chediak-Higashi syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chronic Granulomatous Disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chronic Granulomatous Disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic Granulomatous Disease is characterized by repeated catalase-positive infections due to defective NADPH oxidase complex, impacting the ability of phagocytes to kill ingested microorganisms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the diagnosis based on this X-ray? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tibial Condyle fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Patella fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemarthrosis of Knee Joint", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Patella fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131335.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-19%20115127.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131347.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131359.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131410.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131422.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131433.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131447.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Patella fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the comminuted fracture of the patella.</li><li>➤ The given image shows the comminuted fracture of the patella.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a feature of delayed blood transfusion reaction? (INICET MAY 2024) Increased unconjugated bilirubin Cola colored urine after 2 hours Increased LDH Failure of rise of hemoglobin after transfusion", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1,2,3,4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1,3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delayed blood transfusion reactions occur more than 24 hours after transfusion and are characterized by increased unconjugated bilirubin, increased LDH, and failure of hemoglobin levels to rise. Immediate cola-colored urine indicates an acute reaction, not a delayed one.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-165454.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Each skin condition has a specific diagnostic test:</li><li>➤ Leprosy is diagnosed using a split skin smear, typically from the earlobe. Tinea capitis, a fungal infection, is diagnosed using a KOH wet mount of skin, nail, or hair scrapings. Contact dermatitis is evaluated using a patch test to identify allergens. Lupus vulgaris, a form of cutaneous tuberculosis, is diagnosed through a skin biopsy to look for granulomas.</li><li>➤ Leprosy is diagnosed using a split skin smear, typically from the earlobe.</li><li>➤ Tinea capitis, a fungal infection, is diagnosed using a KOH wet mount of skin, nail, or hair scrapings.</li><li>➤ Contact dermatitis is evaluated using a patch test to identify allergens.</li><li>➤ Lupus vulgaris, a form of cutaneous tuberculosis, is diagnosed through a skin biopsy to look for granulomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are functions of the superior oblique except: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adduction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intorsion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adduction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Adduction is not a function of the superior oblique muscle. Adduction involves moving the eyeball towards the midline (towards the nose), and this movement is primarily mediated by the medial rectus muscle.</li><li>• Adduction</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Abduction: The superior oblique muscle helps in the lateral movement of the eyeball, meaning it moves the eye away from the midline (abduction).</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Abduction:</li><li>• Option C. Depression: When the eye is adducted (turned towards the nose), the superior oblique muscle helps to depress the eyeball, moving it downward.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Depression:</li><li>• Option D. Intorsion: This is the primary function of the superior oblique muscle. Intorsion involves the rotation of the top of the eyeball towards the nose.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Intorsion:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The superior oblique muscle is one of the extraocular muscles and is innervated by the trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV). The primary functions of the superior oblique muscle can be remembered using the mnemonic \"SO-LID\":</li><li>➤ S uperior O blique L ateral movement (Abduction) I ntorsion D epression</li><li>➤ S uperior O blique</li><li>➤ S</li><li>➤ O</li><li>➤ L ateral movement (Abduction)</li><li>➤ L</li><li>➤ I ntorsion</li><li>➤ I</li><li>➤ D epression</li><li>➤ D</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a suicide inhibitor? (INICET May 2024) Nor-ethindrone Ritonavir Spironolactone Benzbromarone", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Suicide inhibitors, also known as mechanism-based inhibitors, irreversibly bind to and permanently inactivate their target enzymes. This type of inhibition is significant because the enzyme activity cannot be restored unless new enzymes are synthesized by the body.</li><li>➤ Mnemonic to Remember Important Suicide Inhibitors:</li><li>➤ Mnemonic to Remember Important Suicide Inhibitors:</li><li>➤ “Every Nurse Sees The Clot Results Promptly”</li><li>➤ “Every Nurse Sees The Clot Results Promptly”</li><li>➤ E : Ethinyl estradiol N : Norethindrone S : Spironolactone T : Ticlopidine C : Clopidogrel R : Ritonavir P : Propylthiouracil</li><li>➤ E : Ethinyl estradiol</li><li>➤ E</li><li>➤ N : Norethindrone</li><li>➤ N</li><li>➤ S : Spironolactone</li><li>➤ S</li><li>➤ T : Ticlopidine</li><li>➤ T</li><li>➤ C : Clopidogrel</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ R : Ritonavir</li><li>➤ R</li><li>➤ P : Propylthiouracil</li><li>➤ P</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Structures passing between marked point ? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palatopharyngeus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stylopharyngeus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stylohyoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mylohyoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stylopharyngeus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/04/whatsapp-image-2024-10-03-at-125245.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171512.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-155053.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-194506.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Stylopharyngeus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The stylopharyngeus muscle passes between the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictors, and it is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the vertebral level of the Green marked structure in the image in anatomical position? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L4-L5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "S3-S5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coccyx", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Coccyx", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/untitled-455.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171414.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Coccyx</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ischial spine in anatomical position aligns with the coccyx, serving as an important landmark for various medical procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following signs is not typically seen in allergic rhinitis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allergic shiners", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Allergic salute", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Otto veraguth folds", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dennis Morgan lines", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Otto veraguth folds", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Otto veraguth folds</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Otto Veraguth folds are not associated with allergic rhinitis but are more commonly seen in individuals with depression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Examine the list of features given : ( INICET MAY 2024) Delayed skin pinch Lethargy Thirst Sunken eyes Reduced Urine output The features of some dehydration include:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-101113.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ According to the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMNCI) guidelines, dehydration is categorized into three levels based on specific signs and symptoms:</li><li>➤ According to the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMNCI) guidelines, dehydration is categorized into three levels based on specific signs and symptoms:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Artery supplying near marked structure is (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left circumflex artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left marginal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior interventricular artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior interventricular artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anterior interventricular artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-160528.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171616.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Anterior interventricular artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anterior interventricular artery (LAD) supplies the anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum and is critical for heart function, making it a key vessel in coronary circulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true regarding rotavirus vaccine? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Live vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Given orally", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Found in monovalent &amp; pentavalent variant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotavirus should not be given after 6 months", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rotavirus should not be given after 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The catch-up schedule for the rotavirus vaccine extends up to one year of age, contrary to the incorrect statement that it should not be given after 6 months.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mt. Fuji sign is seen in: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumocephalus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumomediastinum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pneumocephalus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-150100.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pneumocephalus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Mt. Fuji sign is indicative of tension pneumocephalus and is characterized by the peaking of the frontal lobes due to intracranial air pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the vertebral level of section in given image? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T9", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "T10", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T11", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. T9", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171920.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171944.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171956.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171932.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) T9</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The T9 vertebral level in cross-sectional anatomy images often shows the liver, stomach, heart, and lungs, making it a key point for identifying these structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diagnose the condition shown in the following image. (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic osteomyelitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ewing’s sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute osteomyelitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chronic osteomyelitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-132135.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-132150.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-132201.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-132211.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chronic osteomyelitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic Osteomyelitis is characterized by long-standing infection, typically with a chronic clinical course and imaging findings that reflect bone destruction and chronic inflammation. The given image in the question shows sequestrum and involucrum in the lower end of femur, which are typically characteristic of chronic osteomyelitis.</li><li>➤ Chronic Osteomyelitis is characterized by long-standing infection, typically with a chronic clinical course and imaging findings that reflect bone destruction and chronic inflammation.</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows sequestrum and involucrum in the lower end of femur, which are typically characteristic of chronic osteomyelitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For the given Kaplan-Meier curve on the role of T-cells in the allograft rejection process, true statement is: ( INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only CD4 contributed to graft rejection significantly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only CD8 contributed to graft rejection significantly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both CD4 and CD8 protected against graft rejection significantly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both CD4 and CD8 contributed to graft rejection significantly", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Both CD4 and CD8 contributed to graft rejection significantly", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/untitled-222.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Both CD4 and CD8 contributed to graft rejection significantly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Both CD4 and CD8 T-cells are crucial contributors to the allograft rejection process, and their combined depletion significantly prolongs graft survival.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the most common Osteoporotic fracture site? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intertrochanteric fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vertebral fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femur shaft fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subtrochanteric fracture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vertebral fracture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131843.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vertebral fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common site for osteoporotic fractures is the vertebral column followed by femur (mainly neck) and lower end of the radius.</li><li>➤ The most common site for osteoporotic fractures is the vertebral column followed by femur (mainly neck) and lower end of the radius.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A case of trauma presents to the Emergency with an unknown blood group. Since the patient was hemodynamically unstable, he required immediate blood transfusion. Which blood type can be transfused? ( INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A positive and O negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "AB negative and O negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "O positive and O negative", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A positive and O positive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. O positive and O negative", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) O positive and O negative</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Universal blood donor and the safest option: O negative.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with neck swelling and difficulty in swallowing food. Histopathological examination of the swelling shows increased nests of cells with amyloid deposition. Which of the following is the cell of origin of this mass? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endothelial cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parafollicular cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follicular cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hurthle cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Parafollicular cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Parafollicular cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Medullary thyroid carcinoma, characterized by nests of cells and amyloid deposition, arises from the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not caused by parvovirus B19? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pure red cell aplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrops fetalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aplastic crisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Petechial rash", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Petechial rash", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Petechial rash</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19 can cause pure red cell aplasia, aplastic crisis, and hydrops fetalis, but it is not associated with petechial rash.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 47-year-old renal transplant patient presented with watery diarrhea. Stool examination revealed oval cysts 30 x 15 microns as shown in the image below. Which among the following is the causative organism: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cryptosporidium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isospora", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclospora", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microsporidia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Isospora", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-161435.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Isospora</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Isospora belli (Cystoisospora belli) causes watery diarrhea in immunocompromised patients and is identified by its oval cysts measuring approximately 20 to 30 microns, which are acid-fast positive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct match out of the following diuretics and the respective site of action: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osmotic diuretics → Collecting duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors → Proximal convoluted tubule", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiazides → Loop of Henle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aldosterone antagonists → Distal Convoluted tubule", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors → Proximal convoluted tubule", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diuretics with their site of action:</li><li>➤ Diuretics with their site of action:</li><li>➤ Osmotic diuretics → Proximal convoluted tubule and the descending limb of the loop of Henle Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors → Proximal convoluted tubule Thiazides → Distal convoluted tubule Aldosterone antagonists → Collecting duct</li><li>➤ Osmotic diuretics → Proximal convoluted tubule and the descending limb of the loop of Henle</li><li>➤ Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors → Proximal convoluted tubule</li><li>➤ Thiazides → Distal convoluted tubule</li><li>➤ Aldosterone antagonists → Collecting duct</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Select the correct sequence: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PKA → cAMP → adenylyl cyclase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "cAMP → Adenylyl cyclase → PKA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenylyl cyclase → cAMP → PKA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "PKA→ Adenylyl cyclase → cAMP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Adenylyl cyclase → cAMP → PKA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Adenylyl cyclase → cAMP → PKA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The sequence involves the activation of a G protein-coupled receptor pathway. When a hormone binds to its receptor, the associated heterotrimeric G protein undergoes a conformational change. This change leads to the exchange of GDP for GTP on the G protein's alpha subunit, causing it to dissociate from the beta and gamma subunits.</li><li>• The activated GTP-bound alpha subunit then interacts with adenylyl cyclase, an enzyme located on the inner membrane of the cell. Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP). The newly formed cAMP acts as a secondary messenger that activates Protein Kinase A (PKA). PKA, in turn, phosphorylates various target proteins, leading to a cascade of cellular responses.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence in the G protein-coupled receptor pathway is: Adenylyl cyclase activates the conversion of ATP to cAMP, which then activates Protein Kinase A (PKA).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient with a history of chronic pulmonary aspergillosis is being treated with voriconazole. He has been on the medication for two weeks and comes to the clinic for a follow-up. During the visit, he asks about the specific guidelines and considerations for taking voriconazole to ensure its effectiveness and safety. Which of the following statements is true about voriconazole? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It should not be given with pyrazinamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It should be taken empty stomach", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is given as a loading dose", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It requires therapeutic drug monitoring", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is given as a loading dose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is given as a loading dose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, the statement that voriconazole \"is given as a loading dose\" is the most universally applicable and critical aspect of its administration, especially for ensuring rapid therapeutic levels in treating fungal infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old boy presents with right-sided nasal obstruction and recurrent epistaxis for the past 6 months. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "JNA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Allergic rhinitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coagulation disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antrochoanal polyp", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. JNA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) JNA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (JNA) is the most likely diagnosis for a 13-year-old boy with right-sided nasal obstruction and recurrent epistaxis, as it commonly presents in adolescent males with these symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient arrives at the emergency department presenting with symptoms of abdominal pain, vomiting, tachypnea, and tachycardia. Laboratory results are as follows: pH: 7.34, Sodium: 135 mmol/L, Potassium: 5 mmol/L, Bicarbonate: 12 mmol/L, Chloride: 92 mmol/L, RBS: 450 mg/dL. Given these laboratory findings, which of the following statements best describes the patient's acid-base status? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Non-Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis (NAGMA)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis (HAGMA)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Compensated Metabolic Alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory Acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis (HAGMA)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-125329.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High anion gap metabolic acidosis (HAGMA) is characterized by an anion gap greater than 12 mmol/L, indicating an accumulation of unmeasured anions. This condition is often seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, which presents with elevated blood glucose levels and metabolic acidosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child has bilateral SNHL. Which of the following is not preferred in the child? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cochlear implant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Making him sit in front row in class", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hearing aid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion is not preferred for treating bilateral sensorineural hearing loss as it addresses conditions causing conductive hearing loss, not sensorineural hearing loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a PCSK-9 inhibtior? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Evolocumab", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ezetimibe", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Evinacumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Everolimus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Evolocumab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Evolocumab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, evolocumab is the correct answer as it is a PCSK-9 inhibitor used to lower LDL cholesterol levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these are the components of high-quality CPR? (INICET MAY 2024) a) Compression rate 100-120/min b) Depth of compression in adults is 3-4 cm c) Ventilation of 2 breaths for every 30 compressions d) Allow complete chest recoil", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only a &amp; b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a, b &amp; c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, c &amp; d", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. a, c & d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For high-quality CPR in adults, ensure a compression rate of 100-120/min, a compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm), a ventilation ratio of 30:2, and allow complete chest recoil between compressions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-month-old baby presents with vesicles on the anterior abdominal wall and forearm, as well as meningitis. A Tzanck smear shows multinucleated giant cells. The mother has a history of genital lesions. What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the causative agent? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varicella zoster", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HSV 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enterococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toxoplasmosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HSV 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HSV 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HSV-2 is a common cause of neonatal herpes, which presents with vesicular lesions and can be confirmed with a Tzanck smear showing multinucleate giant cells. Maternal genital herpes is a significant risk factor for neonatal transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida is in the 2nd stage of labor for 2 hours. The head is at +3 with caput present and the fetal heart rate (FHR) is dropping to 90 bpm. What is the best way to deliver the head? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mid cavity forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Outlet forceps", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventouse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Outlet forceps", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Outlet forceps</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of fetal distress with the fetal head at +3 station, outlet forceps are the preferred method of assisted delivery due to their speed and effectiveness, particularly when caput is present.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best indicator of some dehydration in SAM? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skin pinch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sunken eyeballs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine output, Thirst &amp; oral mucosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Absent tears", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Urine output, Thirst & oral mucosa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Urine output, Thirst &amp; oral mucosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In SAM children, the best indicators of dehydration are urine output, the dryness of the oral mucosa and the child's thirst.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 75-year-old patient suffers with extracapsular femoral neck fracture. What would be the most appropriate management option for her management? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Russell’s traction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bar and boot plaster", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intramedullary nailing", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemiarthroplasty", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intramedullary nailing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-131936.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-132035.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-132049.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-132102.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Intramedullary nailing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intramedullary nailing , while useful for certain types of fractures, is generally the first choice for extracapsular femoral neck fractures in elderly patients due to the risks and potential complications associated with the procedure. Cephalomedullary nailing is done in such cases.</li><li>➤ Intramedullary nailing , while useful for certain types of fractures, is generally the first choice for extracapsular femoral neck fractures in elderly patients due to the risks and potential complications associated with the procedure.</li><li>➤ Cephalomedullary nailing is done in such cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are types of polysaccharide vaccines except : ( INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemophilus influenzae B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumococcal vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meningococcal vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hepatitis B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hepatitis B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatitis B is a recombinant subunit vaccine, not a polysaccharide vaccine. Polysaccharide vaccines include those for pneumococcus, meningococcus, and Haemophilus influenzae type B.</li><li>➤ Hepatitis B is a recombinant subunit vaccine, not a polysaccharide vaccine.</li><li>➤ Note - Polysaccharide vaccines work by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies specifically against the polysaccharide components of the bacterial capsule. These polysaccharides are unique to particular strains or serotypes of bacteria, making the vaccine effective in targeting those specific types.</li><li>➤ Note</li><li>➤ Limitations of Polysaccharide vaccines : serotype-specific and do not facilitate herd immunity due to their lack of a robust T-cell response.</li><li>➤ Limitations of Polysaccharide vaccines</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Devices which are not used in colorimetric test? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RBC pipette", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Comparator", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemoglobinometer tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "N/10 HCl", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RBC pipette", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-145446.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-145552.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) RBC pipette</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The tools shows is the Sahli's method for hemoglobin estimation, a type of colorimetric test.</li><li>• RBC pipette : This device is specifically designed for counting red blood cells and is marked with a red bead. It is not used in hemoglobin estimation via the colorimetric method. The RBC pipette plays no role in this test, which is why it is the correct answer for the device that is not used in this process.</li><li>• RBC pipette</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Comparator : This is used to compare the color intensity of the hemoglobin solution with standard color shades to estimate the hemoglobin concentration.</li><li>• Option B. Comparator</li><li>• Option C. Hemoglobinometer tube : A crucial component of the Sahli's hemoglobinometer, this tube is marked for measuring hemoglobin concentration in percentage and grams per deciliter.</li><li>• Option C. Hemoglobinometer tube</li><li>• Option D. N/10 HCl : This reagent is used to convert hemoglobin into acid hematin, which can then be measured using the colorimetric method.</li><li>• Option D. N/10 HCl</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The RBC pipette is not used in the Sahli's method of hemoglobin estimation, which employs a colorimetric test involving the hemoglobinometer tube, comparator, and N/10 HCl.</li><li>➤ RBC pipette</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which contrast agent is safe in a patient with renal failure? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "USG contrast agents", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI contrast agents", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iodinated contrast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT contrast agent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. USG contrast agents", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) USG contrast agents</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ USG contrast agents, such as SONO (sulfur hexafluoride microbubbles), are the only contrast agents safe for use in patients with renal failure as they are excreted via the lungs and do not rely on renal clearance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure:(INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior rib", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior rib", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Costal cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Posterior rib", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-150623.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Posterior rib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The posterior rib appears as a horizontal structure on a chest X-ray, distinguishing it from the more curved anterior ribs and other thoracic structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had fever and sore throat for which he was started on antibiotic treatment. He develops abdominal pain. He has eosinophiluria and also has WBC casts in his urine. What is the likely diagnosis of the patient? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tubulointerstitial nephritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lupus nephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhabdomyolysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tubulointerstitial nephritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tubulointerstitial nephritis can present with eosinophiluria and WBC casts in the urine, often following antibiotic treatment, particularly with beta-lactam antibiotics. This condition results from an allergic reaction causing inflammation in the renal interstitium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT indicative of underlying serious pathology in headache? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age &gt; 50", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temporal tenderness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic Cocaine use", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subacute progression over 4 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chronic Cocaine use", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic cocaine use is not typically indicative of a serious underlying pathology in headache unless associated with acute episodes.</li><li>➤ Headache Symptoms That Suggest a Serious Underlying Disorder</li><li>➤ Headache Symptoms That Suggest a Serious Underlying Disorder</li><li>➤ Sudden-onset headache First severe headache \"Worst\" headache ever Vomiting that precedes headache Subacute worsening over days or weeks Pain induced by bending, lifting, coughing Pain that disturbs sleep or presents immediately upon awakening Known systemic illness Onset after age 55 Fever or unexplained systemic signs Abnormal neurologic examination Pain associated with local tenderness, e.g., region of temporal artery</li><li>➤ Sudden-onset headache</li><li>➤ First severe headache</li><li>➤ \"Worst\" headache ever</li><li>➤ Vomiting that precedes headache</li><li>➤ Subacute worsening over days or weeks</li><li>➤ Pain induced by bending, lifting, coughing</li><li>➤ Pain that disturbs sleep or presents immediately upon awakening</li><li>➤ Known systemic illness</li><li>➤ Onset after age 55</li><li>➤ Fever or unexplained systemic signs</li><li>➤ Abnormal neurologic examination</li><li>➤ Pain associated with local tenderness, e.g., region of temporal artery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not helpful for differentiating between necrosis and apoptosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intact cell organelle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Altered cell shape", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enzyme mediated degradation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Internal organelle disintegration with lipid change", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Altered cell shape", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key features to differentiate necrosis from apoptosis include the state of cell organelles (intact in apoptosis, disintegrated in necrosis), enzyme-mediated degradation (present in necrosis), and internal organelle disintegration with lipid changes (present in necrosis). Altered cell shape alone is not a useful parameter for differentiation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Crohn’s disease in comparison to ulcerative colitis is least likely to show which of the following? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reduced risk of colon cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Continuous involvement of the gut", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Higher risk of perianal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rarely present with daily hematochezia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Continuous involvement of the gut", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Continuous involvement of the gut is least likely to be associated with Crohn's disease, which is characterized by segmental, patchy inflammation known as \"skip lesions.\"</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the antidote of cyanide poisoning? (INICET MAY 2024) A. Amyl Nitrite B. Sodium Nitrite C. Sodium Thiosulphate D. Benzyl Thiocyanate E. Sodium Nitroprusside", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ABC", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ABCD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ACD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ABC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ABC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The main antidotes for cyanide poisoning include amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulphate. These agents work by either converting cyanide into a less toxic form or by forming methemoglobin which binds to cyanide, freeing cytochrome C oxidase .</li><li>➤ .</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During fetal autopsy, what is the order of examination to differentiate between live and stillbirth ? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thorax &gt; Abdomen &gt; Thorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thorax &gt; Head &gt; Abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Head &gt; Abdomen &gt; Thorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Head &gt; Thorax &gt; Abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Head > Abdomen > Thorax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Head &gt; Abdomen &gt; Thorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During a fetal autopsy, the correct sequence of examination is Head &gt; Abdomen &gt; Thorax, with the abdomen being opened before the thorax to check the diaphragm level for respiration evidence</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male presented to OPD with complaints of excessive daytime sleepiness, and his wife also complains that he snores a lot at night during sleep. Which of the following is incorrect regarding his condition? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased tone of the pharyngeal muscles worsens obstruction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fall of oxygen saturation triggers waking episodes at night", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Episodes of apnea increase stress on the heart", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoxemia stimulates respiratory effort", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increased tone of the pharyngeal muscles worsens obstruction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In obstructive sleep apnea, decreased tone or flaccidity of the pharyngeal muscles during sleep leads to airway collapse and obstruction. Increased muscle tone would help keep the airway open and is not a cause of obstruction in this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not play a role in fetal growth? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Growth hormone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insulin-like growth factors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Growth hormone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Growth hormone does not play a significant role in fetal growth, while insulin-like growth factors and thyroxine are crucial for proper fetal development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not correct about a patient with G6PD deficiency? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased formation of Heinz body", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Males and females can be affected", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reduced NADPH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reduced oxidative stress inside the red cells", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Reduced oxidative stress inside the red cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ G6PD deficiency increases oxidative stress in red blood cells, leading to hemolysis and formation of Heinz bodies. It affects both males and females, though more commonly males.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the Dermatological disorders in Column A with their respective investigations in Column B: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-115026.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-115210.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-115344.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-115449.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Correct matches:</li><li>• Correct matches:</li><li>• 1. Tinea : Tinea infections, also known as dermatophytosis, are fungal infections of the skin, hair, or nails. The diagnosis is commonly made by performing a potassium hydroxide (KOH) mount of skin scrapings, which reveals fungal hyphae under a microscope.</li><li>• 1. Tinea</li><li>• 2. Lepromatous leprosy : This form of leprosy is diagnosed using a slit skin smear, where a sample from the skin lesion is stained and examined for the presence of acid-fast bacilli (Mycobacterium leprae).</li><li>• 2. Lepromatous leprosy</li><li>• 3. Lupus vulgaris : Lupus vulgaris is a form of cutaneous tuberculosis. The diagnosis often involves a biopsy of the lesion, which shows granulomatous inflammation with caseation necrosis and the presence of acid-fast bacilli.</li><li>• 3. Lupus vulgaris</li><li>• 4. Allergic dermatitis : Allergic contact dermatitis is diagnosed using a patch test, where suspected allergens are applied to the skin under occlusive patches to observe for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.</li><li>• 4. Allergic dermatitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tinea is diagnosed with a KOH mount, lepromatous leprosy with a slit skin smear, lupus vulgaris with a biopsy, and allergic dermatitis with a patch test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cannabinoids are not approved for treatment of ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dravet Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberous sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rett syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lennox Gastaut syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rett syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rett syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, cannabinoids, specifically cannabidiol (CBD), are not approved for the treatment of Rett syndrome, whereas they are approved for use in Dravet Syndrome, Tuberous Sclerosis, and Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old female suffers a proximal 1/3rd Femoral shaft fracture. What would be the ideal treatment option? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hip Spica", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Above knee slab", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Above knee cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intramedullary nailing", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Intramedullary nailing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Intramedullary nailing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intramedullary nailing is the treatment option of choice in proximal femoral shaft fractures as it is minimally invasive and provides faster recovery.</li><li>➤ Intramedullary nailing is the treatment option of choice in proximal femoral shaft fractures as it is minimally invasive and provides faster recovery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are criteria of IUGR except? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abdominal circumference &lt; 3rd percentile", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Estimated fetal weight &lt; 3rd percentile", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Absent or reversal of diastolic flow in umbilical artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterine A PI &lt; 95%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Uterine A PI < 95%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Uterine A PI &lt; 95%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The uterine artery pulsatility index (PI) is typically high in cases of IUGR due to increased resistance. A low PI (&lt; 95%) would not indicate IUGR, making it the incorrect option in this contex</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an intranuclear immuno-histochemistry marker for neuroendocrine tumor? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chromogranin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NCAM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synaptophysin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "INSM", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. INSM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) INSM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ INSM is an intranuclear marker for neuroendocrine tumors, distinguishing it from other cytoplasmic or membranous markers such as Chromogranin, NCAM, and Synaptophysin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not included in making a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abnormalities in social communication", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abnormalities in socialisation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Restriction in interests and behaviour", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cognitive dysfunction", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cognitive dysfunction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder includes impairments in social interaction, social communication, and restrictive, repetitive behaviors, but not cognitive dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an amino acid-derived neurotransmitter? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dopamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GABA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Creatine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Creatine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Creatine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Creatine is not a neurotransmitter. It is a molecule that plays a key role in energy metabolism, particularly in muscle cells, but it does not function in neurotransmission. Dopamine, serotonin, and GABA, on the other hand, are all neurotransmitters derived from amino acids.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Inhaled NO is used in: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary Pulmonary Artery Hypertension", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obstructive Sleep Apnea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unstable Angina", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erectile Dysfunction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Primary Pulmonary Artery Hypertension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Primary Pulmonary Artery Hypertension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhaled nitric oxide is primarily used to manage conditions with elevated pulmonary artery pressures, such as primary pulmonary artery hypertension. It is not used for obstructive sleep apnea, unstable angina, or erectile dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child with weight for height less than minus 1 SD &amp; height for age is minus 2 SD. What is the best possible assessment? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic malnutrition", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute on chronic malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chronic malnutrition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chronic malnutrition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic malnutrition is diagnosed when a child's height for age is less than minus 2 standard deviations from the median of the reference population, indicating stunting.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Indicated structure gives origin to which of the following fiber (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cerebello-rubral", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cerebello-reticul", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cerebello-vestibul", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dentato-rubral", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dentato-rubral", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-162435.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Dentato-rubral</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The dentate nucleus gives rise to the dentato-rubral fibers, which project to the red nucleus and are crucial for motor coordination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient presents with fever, cough, and tenacious white sputum. Which of the following should be used for treatment? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syrup Dextromethorphan with bromhexine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syrup Codeine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syrup Dextromethorphan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syrup Bromhexine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Syrup Bromhexine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with a productive cough and thick, tenacious sputum, mucolytic agents like bromhexine should be used to help break down and clear the mucus, rather than suppressing the cough reflex with antitussives.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which inhaled anesthetic agent is preferred for pediatric induction of anesthesia? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sevoflurane", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isoflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Halothane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sevoflurane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sevoflurane is the anesthetic agent of choice for inhalational induction in pediatric patients due to its sweet smell and rapid onset of action.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-diabetic drug is associated with unexplained diarrhea? ( INICET May 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pioglitazone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pramlintide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glimepiride", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metformin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metformin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Metformin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, metformin is the anti-diabetic drug most commonly associated with unexplained diarrhea. The patient's symptoms are likely related to metformin use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the Downe score of a newborn who has cyanosis which improves on giving oxygen, mild to moderate retractions, grunting heard on naked ear, air entry markedly decreased, RR 40 per minute? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "7", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/23/screenshot-2024-08-23-160859.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Downe score is used to assess the severity of respiratory distress in newborns. A score of 6 in this case indicates moderate respiratory distress, characterized by cyanosis that improves with oxygen, mild to moderate retractions, grunting heard on naked ear, markedly decreased air entry, and a normal respiratory rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5, E-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-102003.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eonism (Transvestism) is wearing clothes of the opposite sex, Frotteurism is rubbing genitals against another person, Necrophilia is having sex with dead bodies, Exhibitionism is exposing genitalia to unsuspecting individuals, and Passive Algoglenia is gratification from experiencing pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about the likely organism shown in the image below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Most commonly affects lungs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yeast cells with Pseudohyphae are seen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Humans are the only reservoir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe infection is seen if CD4 count is below 900", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Most commonly affects lungs", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-165153.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Most commonly affects lungs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Cryptococcus neoformans most commonly affects the lungs as the primary site of infection, followed by potential dissemination to other organs, especially the central nervous system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with O negative and husband B positive delivered a baby. Has received anti-D prophylaxis at 28 weeks. In which of the following conditions will you give anti-D post-delivery? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Baby O –ve, DCT -ve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Baby O –ve, DCT +ve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Baby +ve, DCT +ve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Baby +ve, DCT -ve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Baby +ve, DCT -ve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Baby +ve, DCT -ve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Administer anti-D immunoglobulin to an Rh-negative mother after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive and the Direct Coombs Test (DCT) is negative to prevent Rh sensitization and protect future pregnancies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which diagnostic tool is preferred for metabolic disease screening in children? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tandem mass spectrometry", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complete blood count (CBC)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urinalysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genetic testing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tandem mass spectrometry", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tandem mass spectrometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tandem mass spectrometry is the gold standard for screening inborn errors of metabolism in children due to its ability to detect multiple metabolic disorders from a single blood sample.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the incorrect statement about Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA): (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fanconi syndrome presents with RTA 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bicarbonaturia is a feature of RTA 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RTA 4 is associated with hypokalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "RTA 4 is due to aldosterone resistance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. RTA 4 is associated with hypokalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) RTA 4 is associated with hypokalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RTA Type 4 is characterized by hyperkalemia due to aldosterone deficiency or resistance. The incorrect statement is that RTA Type 4 is associated with hypokalemia, which contradicts the typical presentation of hyperkalemia in this type of RTA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tall 10-year-old boy presents with Sexual Maturity Rating 5 and hyperpigmentation. His BP is 150/100 mm Hg. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "11β-Hydroxylase deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "21β-Hydroxylase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "17β-Hydroxylase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SCC deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 11β-Hydroxylase deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 11β-Hydroxylase deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 11β-Hydroxylase deficiency in congenital adrenal hyperplasia causes hypertension due to salt retention and precocious puberty due to excess androgen production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is the most specific disease caused by Streptococcus agalactiae?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neonatal sepsis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infective endocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dental caries", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pharyngitis with or without tonsillitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neonatal sepsis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Neonatal sepsis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus) is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the dose of corticosteroids for lung maturity? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dexamethasone 12 mg 24 hourly 2 doses", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dexamethasone 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Betamethasone 12 mg 12 hourly 2 doses", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Betamethasone 12 mg 24 hourly 4 doses", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dexamethasone 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dexamethasone 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For fetal lung maturity, the standard dosing regimen of Dexamethasone is 6 mg intramuscularly every 12 hours for a total of 4 doses. This regimen is effective in reducing the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Interventional technique used for the management of cerebral aneurysm: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coiling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Embolization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Basal stent placement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Balloon Angioplasty", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Coiling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred interventional technique for the management of cerebral aneurysms is endovascular coiling due to its lower morbidity and mortality compared to surgical clipping.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-154118.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the nucleic acid composition of viruses is crucial. Rotavirus has dsRNA, SARS-CoV-2 has ssRNA, Parvovirus has ssDNA, and HPV has dsDNA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True statement regarding the breast (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior &amp; medial quadrant has more tissue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 lobules are present", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Axillary tail of Spence crosses anterior axillary fold", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nipple is located at 4th intercostal space in most of the females", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Axillary tail of Spence crosses anterior axillary fold", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/03/screenshot-2024-09-03-171455.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Axillary tail of Spence crosses anterior axillary fold</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The axillary tail of Spence crosses the anterior axillary fold, which is an important anatomical detail relevant in breast examinations and surgeries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following defects causes familial hypercholesterolemia? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Apo E", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apo CII", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LDL receptor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Apo B48", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. LDL receptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) LDL receptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by a defect in the LDL receptor, leading to elevated levels of LDL cholesterol in the blood and increased risk of atherosclerosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After parotid surgery, the patient is found to have weakness of the lower lip on the ipsilateral side. Which of these injuries is likely to produce this? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Main trunk of facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temporal branch of facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cervical branch of facial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parotid duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cervical branch of facial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cervical branch of facial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Weakness of the lower lip after parotid surgery is most likely due to injury to the cervical branch of the facial nerve. The marginal mandibular branch is the most specific, but if not listed, the cervical branch is the closest correct option</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the source of trauma in the image below. (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scissor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rod", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Axe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bullet", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bullet", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-101707.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bullet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A circular hole with beveling on the outer table of the skull is indicative of a bullet wound, specifically an exit wound.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis based on the given image? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aberrant right subclavian artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right sided aortic arch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tracheal diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esophageal duplication", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aberrant right subclavian artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/18/screenshot-2024-07-18-151449.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Aberrant right subclavian artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An aberrant right subclavian artery is an anatomical variant where the artery arises as the fourth branch of the aortic arch and courses posterior to the esophagus, often leading to dysphagia lusoria due to esophageal compression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "INSURE technique is used in newborn, born with which condition? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meconium aspiration syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transient tachypnea of newborn", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyaline membrane disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neonatal jaundice", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyaline membrane disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The INSURE technique (Intubate, Surfactant, Extubate) is primarily used in preterm infants with hyaline membrane disease to administer surfactant and improve lung function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of rheumatic heart disease who is noncompliant with treatment presents with complaints of superior field vision loss for the past 1 week. What is the probable cause of the given condition? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Branched retinal artery occlusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Central retinal artery occlusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Branched retinal vein occlusion (BRVO)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central retinal vein occlusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Branched retinal vein occlusion (BRVO)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Branched retinal vein occlusion (BRVO)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BRVO is the most probable cause of superior field vision loss in a patient with rheumatic heart disease due to its association with thromboembolic events and gradual onset of symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with fever for 5 days and retro-orbital pain, suggestive of dengue fever. Which investigation should be conducted next for confirmation? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NS1 antigen test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Viral culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgM ELISA", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IgM ELISA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) IgM ELISA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For dengue fever confirmation after 5 days of symptoms, IgM ELISA is the most appropriate diagnostic test according to national guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which form of vitiligo is initially progressive and later becomes stable and non-progressive? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mixed", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Segmental", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acrofacial", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Focal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Segmental", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Um1uf4p.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-123817.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Segmental</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Segmental vitiligo is characterized by its initial rapid progression confined to a segmental area, followed by stabilization and lack of further progression, distinguishing it from other forms of vitiligo that can remain progressive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following neurotransmitters is released from SA node in response to increase in blood pressure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acetylcholine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dopamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nor Epinephrine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acetylcholine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acetylcholine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In summary, the correct neurotransmitter released from the SA node in response to an increase in blood pressure is acetylcholine, as it is part of the parasympathetic response to decrease heart rate and lower blood pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are growth promoting proto-oncogenes except? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FGF", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PDGF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TGF alpha", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TGF beta", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. TGF beta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) TGF beta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Among growth factors, TGF beta stands out as a tumor suppressor, while FGF, PDGF, and TGF alpha are growth-promoting proto-oncogenes. Understanding the distinct roles of these factors is crucial in comprehending cancer biology and developing targeted therapies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is seen in UMN (Upper Motor Neuron) weakness? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyper-reflexia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rigidity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fasciculations", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hyper-reflexia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hallmark feature of Upper Motor Neuron (UMN) weakness is hyper-reflexia, characterized by exaggerated deep tendon reflexes. This occurs due to the loss of inhibitory control from the brain on the reflex arcs in the spinal cord.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are true about Ankylosing spondylitis except: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HLA B27 is associated in 90% cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is non-erosive and only joints are affected", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Involvement of sacroiliac joint is earliest sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Affects males more than females", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is non-erosive and only joints are affected", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/25/screenshot-2024-07-25-132229.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It is non-erosive and only joints are affected</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with vision problem in his right eye. On examination IOP of his right eye is 50 mmHg and left eye is 16 mm Hg. Slit lamp examination shows presence of flare cells in anterior chamber and cataractous lens in the right eye. What is the diagnosis of this condition? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phacolytic glaucoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malignant glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fuch heterochromic iridocyclitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phacomorphic glaucoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phacolytic glaucoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Phacolytic glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phacolytic glaucoma is characterized by high intraocular pressure, presence of flare cells in the anterior chamber, and a cataractous lens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the stage of sleep based on the EEG shown below: (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NREM1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NREM2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NREM3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "REM", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. REM", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-131403.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ REM sleep is characterized by EEG patterns similar to wakefulness, rapid eye movements on EOG, and muscle atonia on EMG.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with an unknown blood group experiences trauma and is unstable, requiring an urgent blood transfusion. Which types of blood should be transfused? (multiple choice) (INICET MAY 2024) a. A+ b. AB+ c. O+ d. O-", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a &amp; b", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "c &amp; d", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "None of above", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. c & d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In emergency situations where a patient’s blood type is unknown and an urgent blood transfusion is required, the safest choice is to use blood that minimizes the risk of adverse reactions.</li><li>• Universal Donor:</li><li>• Universal Donor:</li><li>• d. O- (O Negative): O negative blood is considered the universal donor for red blood cells because it lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, which means it can be safely given to any patient regardless of their blood type. This is the safest option and is preferred when available.</li><li>• d.</li><li>• O- (O Negative):</li><li>• preferred</li><li>• c. O+ (O Positive): In situations where O negative blood is not available, O positive blood can be used, especially in adult males and females beyond childbearing age, as it still minimizes the risk of severe hemolytic reactions. O positive blood can be safely given to any Rh-positive patient and is often used when O negative supplies are limited.</li><li>• c.</li><li>• O+ (O Positive):</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• a. A+: A positive blood can only be given to patients with A+ or AB+ blood types due to the presence of A antigens and the Rh factor, making it unsuitable for universal emergency transfusions.</li><li>• a. A+:</li><li>• b. AB+: AB positive blood is the universal recipient, meaning people with AB+ blood can receive any blood type, but it is not a universal donor. AB+ blood can only be given to other AB+ patients.</li><li>• b. AB+:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In emergency situations requiring urgent blood transfusions for patients with unknown blood types, O negative blood is the universal donor and the safest choice. If O negative is not available, O positive can also be used to minimize the risk of adverse reactions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of G6PD deficiency? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Males and females are equally affected", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxidative stress", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Due to deficiency of NADPH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Characterized by presence of Heinz bodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Males and females are equally affected", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/22/screenshot-2024-08-22-140054.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ G6PD deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder that predominantly affects males, leads to oxidative stress due to a deficiency of NADPH, and is characterized by the presence of Heinz bodies in red blood cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are features of Korsakoff syndrome? (INICET MAY 2024) Confabulation Amnesia Peripheral neuropathy Ophthalmoplegia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Korsakoff syndrome is characterized by amnesia, confabulation, and peripheral neuropathy, but not ophthalmoplegia, which is associated with Wernicke's encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-104329.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eonism is sexual gratification by cross-dressing, frotteurism involves rubbing genitals against a non-consenting person, necrophilia is sexual stimulation by corpses, and algolagnia involves sexual gratification from inflicting or suffering pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with annular lesions on the skin. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present with annular lesions? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tinea corporis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Porokeratosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pityriasis rosea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urticaria", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Urticaria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-113934.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-114236.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-114358.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-114545.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-114707.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Urticaria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is characterized by transient, well-circumscribed, erythematous, and edematous plaques that can be pruritic.</li><li>• These lesions typically appear and disappear within a few hours and do not usually form annular (ring-shaped) patterns. Urticaria can be triggered by various factors including allergens, stress, or physical stimuli, but the lesions themselves are generally not annular.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Tinea corporis : This is a dermatophyte infection that commonly presents as annular, scaly plaques with a well-defined edge and central clearing. These ring-like lesions are characteristic of tinea infections.</li><li>• Option A. Tinea corporis</li><li>• Option B. Porokeratosis : This is a disorder of keratinization that presents with annular plaques with a distinct ridge-like border. The characteristic lesion of porokeratosis is an annular plaque with a raised, ridge-like border and central atrophy.</li><li>• Option B. Porokeratosis</li><li>• Option C. Pityriasis rosea : This condition often begins with a single herald patch followed by the development of multiple oval, scaly lesions that may have a ring or annular appearance. The distribution is often in a Christmas-tree pattern on the back.</li><li>• Option C. Pityriasis rosea</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urticaria is characterized by transient erythematous plaques that do not typically present as annular lesions, unlike conditions such as tinea corporis, porokeratosis, and pityriasis rosea.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mother had painful vesicular lesions over genitalia one year back. Baby is born with features of meningitis and fever and rashes in abdomen and forearm and died within a week. Scrapings from lesions showed multinucleate giant cells. What is the most likely organism? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 ( HSV2)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterovirus 70", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human Papillomavirus (HPV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Varicella-Zoster Virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 ( HSV2)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 (HSV2)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The correct answer is HSV2 (Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2). The clinical history provided in the question strongly suggests neonatal herpes infection. The mother had a history of painful vesicular lesions over the genitalia, which is characteristic of genital herpes caused by HSV2. Neonatal herpes can be transmitted from the mother to the baby during childbirth if the mother has an active HSV infection. The baby presented with symptoms of meningitis, fever, and rash, which are typical manifestations of neonatal herpes. The presence of multinucleated giant cells on scrapings from lesions further supports the diagnosis, as these are characteristic findings in herpes infections.</li><li>• The correct answer is HSV2 (Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2). The clinical history provided in the question strongly suggests neonatal herpes infection.</li><li>• The mother had a history of painful vesicular lesions over the genitalia, which is characteristic of genital herpes caused by HSV2.</li><li>• Neonatal herpes can be transmitted from the mother to the baby during childbirth if the mother has an active HSV infection.</li><li>• The baby presented with symptoms of meningitis, fever, and rash, which are typical manifestations of neonatal herpes.</li><li>• The presence of multinucleated giant cells on scrapings from lesions further supports the diagnosis, as these are characteristic findings in herpes infections.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Enterovirus 70:</li><li>• Option B. Enterovirus 70:</li><li>• Enterovirus 70 is associated with acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, not with vesicular lesions or the neonatal symptoms described in the question. It does not typically cause multinucleated giant cells in lesions.</li><li>• Enterovirus 70 is associated with acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, not with vesicular lesions or the neonatal symptoms described in the question.</li><li>• It does not typically cause multinucleated giant cells in lesions.</li><li>• Option C. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) :</li><li>• Option C. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)</li><li>• HPV causes warts and is associated with genital warts, but it does not cause painful vesicular lesions or neonatal meningitis. HPV also does not produce multinucleated giant cells on lesion scrapings.</li><li>• HPV causes warts and is associated with genital warts, but it does not cause painful vesicular lesions or neonatal meningitis.</li><li>• HPV also does not produce multinucleated giant cells on lesion scrapings.</li><li>• Option D. VZV:</li><li>• Option D. VZV:</li><li>• Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) can cause vesicular lesions, but the clinical scenario described (painful genital lesions in the mother) and the findings in the neonate (multinucleated giant cells and severe systemic symptoms) are more consistent with HSV2 rather than VZV.</li><li>• Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) can cause vesicular lesions, but the clinical scenario described (painful genital lesions in the mother) and the findings in the neonate (multinucleated giant cells and severe systemic symptoms) are more consistent with HSV2 rather than VZV.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2 (HSV2) is the most likely organism causing neonatal herpes, characterized by the presence of painful vesicular lesions in the mother and severe systemic symptoms including meningitis, fever, and rash in the newborn, along with multinucleated giant cells found in lesion scrapings.</li><li>➤ Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2 (HSV2) is the most likely organism causing neonatal herpes, characterized by the presence of painful vesicular lesions in the mother and severe systemic symptoms including meningitis, fever, and rash in the newborn, along with multinucleated giant cells found in lesion scrapings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is not a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis B infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caroli's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary sclerosing cholangitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Opisthorchis V", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hepatitis B infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-175606.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hepatitis B infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatitis B infection is not a recognized risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Instead, focus on chronic inflammatory conditions, parasitic infections, and certain congenital disorders as key risk factors for this type of cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following a stab injury to the chest, the following imaging finding was noted. What is the diagnosis? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diaphragmatic rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung contusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hemothorax", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-180736.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hemothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A white-out on the chest X-ray after a chest injury, especially with accompanying hypotension, is indicative of a hemothorax, which is the accumulation of blood in the pleural space.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following patients, supportive psychotherapy would not be preferred? (INICET MAY 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A patient who is in acute crisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A patient with cognitive deficits", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A patient who is severely ill with deficient ego functioning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A patient with strong ego and high motivation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A patient with strong ego and high motivation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Supportive psychotherapy is not preferred for patients with a strong ego and high motivation, as they can handle and benefit from more complex and deeper forms of therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Many GPCR receptors act via increase in cAMP. There are several steps involved in this mechanism as given below. Which of the following is correct sequence of events in cAMP signal transduction pathway? ( INICET May 2024) Steps involved 1. Activation of adenylate cyclase 2. Activation of PKA 3. Conversion of ATP to cAMP 4. Phosphorylation of target proteins", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4, 2, 1 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 3, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 3, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet Nov 2020 2020 11 20 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A female patient presents with active genital warts with a history of recurrence, but her husband doesn't have it. What advice will you give to prevent transmission? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give continuous prophylaxis to the patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give prophylactic antivirals to the husband", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give antivirals whenever active lesions are present", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Don't involve in intercourse when active lesions are present", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Don't involve in intercourse when active lesions are present", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13543.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-132947.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Don't involve in intercourse when active lesions are present</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To prevent the transmission of genital warts caused by HPV , it is advisable to avoid sexual intercourse when active lesions are present, as there are no effective antiviral prophylaxis options for HPV, and HPV transmission risk is highest during periods with active lesions.</li><li>➤ HPV</li><li>➤ avoid sexual intercourse</li><li>➤ active lesions</li><li>➤ no effective antiviral prophylaxis options</li><li>➤ highest during periods</li><li>➤ active lesions.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 25 Page no 25.43</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 25 Page no 25.43</li><li>➤ Illustrated synopsis of dermatology &amp; sexually transmitted diseases page no 318</li><li>➤ Illustrated synopsis of dermatology &amp; sexually transmitted diseases page no 318</li><li>➤ Robbins &amp; Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 10 E page no 998</li><li>➤ Robbins &amp; Cotran Pathologic basis of disease, 10 E page no 998</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with meningitis with a history of fever for 4 days and erythematous rashes on the chest. There was no history of travel and tick bite. His CSF findings showed increased protein, normal glucose, mild lymphocytosis and few RBCs. Which of the following is the most likely organism to cause this clinical picture? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "West Nile virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meningococci", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strep pneumoniae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enterovirus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Enterovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/2%20(1)_WrZ7mjE.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Enterovirus</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following E. coli with their respective pathogenesis? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-155807.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-160222.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The components of qSOFA score include all except: (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Altered Mental status", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low Blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High Respiratory rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased heart rate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increased heart rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-144013.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increased heart rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sequential organ failure assessment score (SOFA score), previously known as the sepsis-related organ failure assessment score, is used to track a person's status during the stay in an intensive care unit (ICU) to determine the extent of a person's organ function or rate of failure.</li><li>➤ The score is based on six different scores, one each for the respiratory, cardiovascular, hepatic, coagulation, renal and neurological systems.</li><li>➤ The Quick SOFA Score (quickSOFA or qSOFA) was introduced by the Sepsis-3 group in February 2016 as a simplified version of the SOFA Score as an initial way to identify patients at high risk for poor outcome with an infection.</li><li>➤ The score ranges from 0 to 3 points. The presence of 2 or more qSOFA points near the onset of infection was associated with a greater risk of death or prolonged intensive care unit stay.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the foramen marked in the image below: ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Foramen rotundum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Foramen ovale", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vidian canal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Foramen spinosum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Foramen rotundum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-91.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-92.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-93.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Foramen rotundum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows the sphenoid bone. The foramen marked is the foramen rotundum. Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve passes through it.</li><li>• The foramen rotundum is a small circular opening in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, located in the middle cranial fossa of the skull. It serves as a passage for the maxillary nerve (CN V2), which is one of the three branches of the trigeminal nerve.</li><li>• The maxillary nerve exits the cranial cavity through the foramen rotundum and then travels through the pterygopalatine fossa, where it gives off several branches that innervate the maxillary teeth, the maxillary sinus, and the skin of the face in the maxillary region.</li><li>• Other structures that may pass through the foramen rotundum include small blood vessels and veins, but these are less significant than the maxillary nerve in terms of clinical relevance.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Option B . Foramen Ovale:</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Foramen Ovale:</li><li>• Location: The foramen ovale is also located in the sphenoid bone, adjacent to the foramen rotundum. Contents: It transmits the mandibular nerve (another branch of the trigeminal nerve or CN V3), the accessory meningeal artery, and sometimes a small emissary vein.</li><li>• Location: The foramen ovale is also located in the sphenoid bone, adjacent to the foramen rotundum.</li><li>• Location:</li><li>• Contents: It transmits the mandibular nerve (another branch of the trigeminal nerve or CN V3), the accessory meningeal artery, and sometimes a small emissary vein.</li><li>• Contents:</li><li>• Option C. Vidian Canal (Pterygoid Canal):</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Vidian Canal (Pterygoid Canal):</li><li>• Location: The vidian canal is a small canal in the sphenoid bone, extending from the pterygopalatine fossa to the middle cranial fossa. Contents: It contains the vidian nerve, which is a branch of the maxillary nerve (CN V2), as well as the vidian artery and sympathetic fibers.</li><li>• Location: The vidian canal is a small canal in the sphenoid bone, extending from the pterygopalatine fossa to the middle cranial fossa.</li><li>• Location:</li><li>• Contents: It contains the vidian nerve, which is a branch of the maxillary nerve (CN V2), as well as the vidian artery and sympathetic fibers.</li><li>• Contents:</li><li>• Option D. Foramen Spinosum:</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Foramen Spinosum:</li><li>• Location: The foramen spinosum is situated in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. Contents: It transmits the middle meningeal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, and the middle meningeal vein.</li><li>• Location: The foramen spinosum is situated in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone.</li><li>• Location:</li><li>• Contents: It transmits the middle meningeal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, and the middle meningeal vein.</li><li>• Contents:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is unable to abduct his arm. Which of the following root values is likely to be affected? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C7", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. C5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-171540.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. C5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most likely cause of the inability to abduct the arm is a C5 root lesion.</li><li>• The C5 spinal nerve plays a crucial role in controlling shoulder abduction. It gives rise to the axillary nerve, which innervates the deltoid muscle. Damage or compression of the C5 nerve root or axillary nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of the deltoid muscle, leading to difficulty in abducting the arm.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. C4: The C4 spinal nerve does not directly innervate the muscles responsible for shoulder abduction. It primarily supplies sensory information to areas of the neck and upper shoulders.</li><li>• Option A. C4:</li><li>• Option C . C6: The C6 spinal nerve primarily innervates the muscles responsible for elbow flexion and wrist extension, not shoulder abduction. Damage to the C6 nerve root would affect these functions rather than shoulder abduction.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• C6:</li><li>• Option D . C7: The C7 spinal nerve primarily innervates the muscles responsible for elbow and wrist flexion and finger extension. It is not directly involved in shoulder abduction.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• C7:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Muscles of the shoulder</li><li>➤ Muscles of the shoulder</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following clotting factor deficiency will not affect clotting in vivo? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factor VII", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor V", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factor XII", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factor IX", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Factor XII", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1104.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Factor XII</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor XII deficiency will not affect the clotting in vivo. In vivo, tissue factor is the major initiator of coagulation. It is amplified by feedback loops involving thrombin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not required for calculation of creatinine clearance? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine creatinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum creatinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24-hour urine output", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Volume of serum passing through kidney in 24 hours", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Volume of serum passing through kidney in 24 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/picture1_Rrq2ORO.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Volume of serum passing through kidney in 24 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy presents with pallor and lymphadenopathy; the X-ray of his skull is given below. Which of the following drug is not used for the management of the suspected diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vinblastine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vincristine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vincristine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/picture4_YOReme1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Vincristine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Options A. Cyclophosphamide: Explanation</li><li>• Options B. Methotrexate: Explanation : Methotrexate is used to treat LCH by interfering with the growth of abnormal cells.</li><li>• Options B. Methotrexate: Explanation</li><li>• Options C. Vinblastine: Explanation : Vinblastine is commonly used as the first-line treatment for LCH, particularly in children, by disrupting the growth of abnormal Langerhans cells.</li><li>• Options C. Vinblastine: Explanation</li><li>• Options D. Vincristine: Explanation : Vincristine is not recommended for LCH. Other chemotherapy drugs like vinblastine are preferred for this condition.</li><li>• Options D. Vincristine: Explanation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH) is treated with various chemotherapy drugs, but vincristine is not typically used for this condition. Vinblastine, methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, and other drugs are preferred for the management of LCH.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the ECF volume in a volunteer in whom 10 gm of mannitol was injected in venous blood. At equilibrium urinary excretion of mannitol was found to be 10% and the plasma concentration of mannitol was 65 mg/100 ml? In a volunteer, 10 grams of mannitol was injected into the venous blood. At equilibrium, the urinary excretion of mannitol was found to be 10% and the plasma concentration of mannitol was measured at 65 mg/100 ml. Calculate the extracellular fluid (ECF) volume based on this information. ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "14L", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "10L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "281", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20L", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 14L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-114650.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 14L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The extracellular fluid (ECF) volume can be calculated by using the dilution principle, taking into account the amount of marker substance injected, the amount excreted, and the plasma concentration of the marker.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neuron is receiving 400 inputs from 150 sensory neurons. This is an example of? How would you categorize a situation where a single neuron receives inputs from 150 sensory neurons, totaling to 400 inputs? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Divergence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Convergence", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Feedback inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Feedforward excitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Convergence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-5_1-8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Convergence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Convergence is when multiple neurons synapse onto a single neuron, integrating inputs from various sources. In the scenario described, where one neuron receives inputs from 150 sensory neurons, convergence is the appropriate term.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following investigations are not used for diagnosing osteoporosis?(INICET NOV 2020) DEXA Bone scan Quantitative CT Chemical analysis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I, II are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "III, IV are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "II, IV are correct", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. II, IV are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_99_aUsrK5F.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DEXA scan is the investigation of choice. Quantitative CT is a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement technique in which the CT scanner is calibrated using solid phantoms (made of calcium hydroxyapatite, representing various bone mineral densities) placed under the patient in a pad. With this calibration, the Hounsfield units are converted to bone mineral density values. The technique can be used for both peripheral and central BMD measurements, with lumbar spine and hip being preferred locations. DEXA measures the bone mineral density of both the outer (cortical) shell and the inner (trabecular) structure of the bone. QCT, on the other hand, measures only the inner part. Because of this difference, QCT studies of the spine show a lower T-score than a DEXA would.</li><li>➤ DEXA scan is the investigation of choice.</li><li>➤ Quantitative CT is a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement technique in which the CT scanner is calibrated using solid phantoms (made of calcium hydroxyapatite, representing various bone mineral densities) placed under the patient in a pad. With this calibration, the Hounsfield units are converted to bone mineral density values. The technique can be used for both peripheral and central BMD measurements, with lumbar spine and hip being preferred locations.</li><li>➤ DEXA measures the bone mineral density of both the outer (cortical) shell and the inner (trabecular) structure of the bone. QCT, on the other hand, measures only the inner part. Because of this difference, QCT studies of the spine show a lower T-score than a DEXA would.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following weapons with the possible injuries caused by them: ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20192213.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20192228.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mechanism of injury with the following weapons:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Raise in ESR during pregnancy is due to? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Platelet", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrinogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-thrombin antibody", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fibrinogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fibrinogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pregnancy is characterized as a hypercoagulable state, and several changes occur in the coagulation system during pregnancy. One of the significant changes is the increase in fibrinogen levels, which leads to a rise in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Fibrinogen Levels: During pregnancy, fibrinogen levels increase by approximately 50%, from 200-400 mg/dL to 300-600 mg/dL. This rise in fibrinogen contributes significantly to the increased ESR. ESR: The ESR can increase up to four times during pregnancy due to the increased levels of fibrinogen and globulin. Platelet Count: There may be a slight fall in platelet count during pregnancy, commonly due to gestational thrombocytopenia, which is caused by hemodilution and increased platelet consumption. This condition usually has no adverse effect on pregnancy and is often observed in the third trimester. Coagulation Factors: There is an increase in the plasma levels of several coagulation factors, including factors 1 (fibrinogen), 2, 7, 8, 9, and 10. Factors 2, 5, and 12 remain unchanged or mildly increased, while factors 11 and 13 are slightly decreased. Clotting Time: Clotting time is generally unaffected by pregnancy. Anti-Thrombin III: Levels of anti-thrombin III decrease during pregnancy.</li><li>• Fibrinogen Levels: During pregnancy, fibrinogen levels increase by approximately 50%, from 200-400 mg/dL to 300-600 mg/dL. This rise in fibrinogen contributes significantly to the increased ESR.</li><li>• Fibrinogen Levels:</li><li>• ESR: The ESR can increase up to four times during pregnancy due to the increased levels of fibrinogen and globulin.</li><li>• ESR:</li><li>• Platelet Count: There may be a slight fall in platelet count during pregnancy, commonly due to gestational thrombocytopenia, which is caused by hemodilution and increased platelet consumption. This condition usually has no adverse effect on pregnancy and is often observed in the third trimester.</li><li>• Platelet Count:</li><li>• Coagulation Factors: There is an increase in the plasma levels of several coagulation factors, including factors 1 (fibrinogen), 2, 7, 8, 9, and 10. Factors 2, 5, and 12 remain unchanged or mildly increased, while factors 11 and 13 are slightly decreased.</li><li>• Coagulation Factors:</li><li>• Clotting Time: Clotting time is generally unaffected by pregnancy.</li><li>• Clotting Time:</li><li>• Anti-Thrombin III: Levels of anti-thrombin III decrease during pregnancy.</li><li>• Anti-Thrombin III:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Albumin: Albumin levels typically decrease during pregnancy due to hemodilution, and they do not contribute to the rise in ESR.</li><li>• Option A. Albumin:</li><li>• Option B. Platelet: Platelet count may slightly decrease due to gestational thrombocytopenia, but this does not contribute to the rise in ESR.</li><li>• Option B. Platelet:</li><li>• Option D. Anti-thrombin antibody: This is not a relevant factor in the context of ESR increase during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option D. Anti-thrombin antibody:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The rise in erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) during pregnancy is primarily due to the increased levels of fibrinogen.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Pg59</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Pg59</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the areas marked F, C in the following diagram: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic respiratory acidosis, acute metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute respiratory acidosis, acute respiratory alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute Metabolic alkalosis, acute respiratory acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute respiratory acidosis, acute metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute respiratory acidosis, acute respiratory alkalosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm124.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/27/nm125.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the relationship between pH, bicarbonate (HCO3-), and CO2 is crucial for interpreting arterial blood gases. Area F indicates acute respiratory acidosis due to increased CO2, and area C indicates acute respiratory alkalosis due to decreased CO2.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with 6 weeks amenorrhea and a positive pregnancy test came with complaints of lower abdominal pain, moderate bleeding PV. She was hemodynamically stable. On ultrasound, there was no gestational sac in the uterus. Ovaries were normal and no free fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the next line of management? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Declare as complete abortion and follow-up in 15 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Admit and observe", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diagnostic laparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Follow-up with beta-HCG", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Follow-up with beta-HCG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Follow-up with beta-HCG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, a positive pregnancy test, and no gestational sac visible on ultrasound, the next step is to follow up with serial beta-HCG levels to differentiate between an early intrauterine pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy, and a miscarriage.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 356</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 356</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a criteria for severe acute malnutrition? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight for height less than -3 SD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MUAC &lt; 11.5mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B/L Pedal Edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weight for age less than -3 SD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Weight for age less than -3 SD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Weight for age less than -3 SD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severe acute malnutrition is defined by weight-for-height less than -3 SD, MUAC &lt; 115 mm, or the presence of bilateral pedal edema, but not by weight-for-age less than -3 SD.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is the most severe manifestation of CKD? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased GFR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased creatinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proteinuria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hyperkalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia in CKD patients is a critical condition that requires immediate medical attention due to its potential to cause fatal cardiac disturbances. Always prioritize the management of hyperkalemia in CKD patients to prevent cardiac complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a mobile, warm to touch nodule in the neck. On the anaerobic culture of the biopsy material from this swelling, it showed colonies as shown in the image which had gram-positive branching rods on staining. Which of the following is the drug of choice in this condition? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cotrimoxazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Penicillin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgical drainage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Penicillin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/10.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Penicillin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Penicillin is the drug of choice for treating actinomycete infections, particularly in cervicofacial cases presenting with nodules and characteristic colonies. Prolonged antibiotic therapy is necessary, and surgical intervention may be required for chronic lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You work as a medical officer in a Primary Health Center (PHC). You are tasked with developing a strategy to address widespread anemia in the community. Considering the need for efficacy, safety, and ease of administration, which of the following options would you recommend for the prevention and treatment of anemia in this setting? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FeSO4 + Vit C + Folate + Vit B12", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron (III) hydroxide polymaltose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ferrous fumarate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inj. iron sucrose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. FeSO4 + Vit C + Folate + Vit B12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) FeSO4 + Vit C + Folate + Vit B12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The comprehensive and cost-effective approach, including FeSO4 + Vitamin C + Folate + Vitamin B12, is preferable for the widespread prevention and treatment of anemia in a community setting, especially in a resource-limited Primary Health Center (PHC).</li><li>➤ The comprehensive and cost-effective approach, including FeSO4 + Vitamin C + Folate + Vitamin B12, is preferable for the widespread prevention and treatment of anemia in a community setting, especially in a resource-limited Primary Health Center (PHC).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male baby, born to a non-consanguineous couple, presents with blisters on areas of friction. Their previous baby also experienced similar issues and unfortunately passed away at the age of 2 weeks. What is the probable diagnosis?( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidermolysis bullosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic bullous disorder of childhood", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neonatal pemphigus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epidermolysis bullosa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13544.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/screenshot-2023-11-27-092626.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-133525.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Epidermolysis bullosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The likely diagnosis in a neonate presenting with blistering at areas of friction , especially with a similar family history and early demise in a sibling , is Epidermolysis bullosa, a genetic condition causing extremely fragile skin leading to blister formation with minimal trauma.</li><li>➤ neonate</li><li>➤ blistering</li><li>➤ friction</li><li>➤ family history</li><li>➤ early demise in a sibling</li><li>➤ extremely fragile skin</li><li>➤ minimal trauma.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 71 Page no 71.4-71.16</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 71 Page no 71.4-71.16</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following substances can be used for new bone formation in cases of non-union fracture?(INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PMMA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone morphogenetic protein", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bone morphogenetic protein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/screenshot-2024-01-06-174331.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/screenshot-2024-01-06-174451.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bone morphogenetic protein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BMP helps in bone formation and repair. Thus, for the union of non-united fractures by surgery, it is used as an autograft material.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Components of the MELD (2016) score are all except? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bilirubin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Albumin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prothrombin time", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Creatinine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Albumin is not a component of the MELD score. The key components are bilirubin, creatinine, and INR, with sodium also included in the updated MELD-Na scoring system to better predict outcomes in patients with end-stage liver disease.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harrison 21/Cirrhosis/Chap 344</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man in his 50s comes to the emergency room with severe abdominal pain. During the examination, his heart rate is 120 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is measured at 90/50mmg. Guarding is observed during a per abdomen examination. An erect abdominal X-ray is provided. What is the best management in this case based on these findings? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "USG abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exploratory laparotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Elective surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Exploratory laparotomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-190.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Exploratory laparotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Pneumoperitoneum refers to the presence of air or gas within the peritoneal cavity, the space within the abdomen that contains the intestines, liver, and other abdominal organs.</li><li>➤ Pneumoperitoneum</li><li>➤ Clinical Presentation and Diagnosis:</li><li>➤ Clinical Presentation and Diagnosis:</li><li>➤ Patients with a significant amount of free air in the peritoneal cavity due to organ perforation often present with severe abdominal pain, signs of peritonitis (like guarding and rebound tenderness), and systemic symptoms like fever or shock. An erect abdominal X-ray is a commonly used diagnostic modality to detect pneumoperitoneum. On the X-ray, free air under the diaphragm, or \"free subdiaphragmatic air\", is a classic finding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common drawback of the given device? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial contamination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Does not provide multiple doses", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drug deposition in the oropharynx", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Not portable", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Drug deposition in the oropharynx", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/picture3_4FJIap8.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common drawback of metered-dose inhalers (MDIs) is drug deposition in the oropharynx, which reduces the efficiency of drug delivery to the lungs and can increase the risk of local side effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug reduces mortality in COVID-19 patients? ( INICET Nov 2020) A. Dexamethasone B. Remdesivir C. Favipiravir", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B and C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A and B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only A", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, B, C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Only A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Only A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dexamethasone is the only drug among the listed options that has been shown to reduce mortality in severe COVID-19 cases, due to its potent anti-inflammatory effects. Remdesivir and favipiravir have not demonstrated a mortality benefit.</li><li>➤ Dexamethasone</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following helps to differentiate a fixed dilated pupil? ( INICET Nov 2020) Phenylephrine 1% Pilocarpine 0.1% Pilocarpine Cocaine 0.5% Epinephrine", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4 and 5 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 and 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-120120.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture97.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture98.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture99.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pilocarpine at concentrations of 1% and 0.1% is crucial for differentiating causes of fixed dilated pupils, with 1% identifying pharmacological blockade or nerve palsy, and 0.1% detecting hypersensitivity in cases like Adie's pupil.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The middle radioulnar joint is an example of a: ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plane synovial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary cartilaginous", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary cartilaginous", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibrous joint", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fibrous joint", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Fibrous joint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The middle radioulnar joint is an example of a fibrous joint (syndesmosis).</li><li>• Fibrous joints are joints where bones are connected by fibrous tissue, such as ligaments or sutures.</li><li>• Examples of fibrous joints include the sutures of the skull and the syndesmosis between the radius and ulna at the distal radioulnar joint.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Plane synovial: Plane synovial joints are also known as gliding joints. They allow for limited gliding or sliding movements between flat articular surfaces. Examples of plane synovial joints include the intercarpal joints of the wrist.</li><li>• Option A. Plane synovial:</li><li>• Option B. Primary cartilaginous: Primary cartilaginous joints, also called synchondroses, are joints where bones are connected by hyaline cartilage. An example of a primary cartilaginous joint is the epiphyseal plate in growing long bones.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Primary cartilaginous:</li><li>• Option C. Secondary cartilaginous: Secondary cartilaginous joints, or symphyses, are joints where bones are connected by fibrocartilage. Examples include the intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis.</li><li>• Option C. Secondary cartilaginous:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Three joints connect the radius and ulna to one another:</li><li>➤ Three joints connect the radius and ulna to one another:</li><li>➤ Proximal (superior) radioulnar joint Middle radioulnar joint Distal (inferior) radioulnar joint</li><li>➤ Proximal (superior) radioulnar joint</li><li>➤ Middle radioulnar joint</li><li>➤ Distal (inferior) radioulnar joint</li><li>➤ Proximal and distal radioulnar joints are uniaxial pivot joints (synovial) and are involved in pronation and supination movements of the forearm.</li><li>➤ The middle radioulnar joint is a fibrous joint (syndesmosis). The radius and ulna, in the middle, are connected by two syndesmoses namely:</li><li>➤ The oblique cord - extends distally from the radial tuberosity to the radius from the lateral side of the ulnar tuberosity. Interosseous membrane - a broad, thin collagenous structure, which runs perpendicular to the oblique cord. It extends distomedially between the interosseous borders of the radius and ulna.</li><li>➤ The oblique cord - extends distally from the radial tuberosity to the radius from the lateral side of the ulnar tuberosity.</li><li>➤ Interosseous membrane - a broad, thin collagenous structure, which runs perpendicular to the oblique cord. It extends distomedially between the interosseous borders of the radius and ulna.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Phototherapy converts bilirubin to? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stercobilin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lumirubin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biliverdin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urobilin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lumirubin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/90_Do8nZuQ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lumirubin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phototherapy converts bilirubin into lumirubin, a water-soluble isomer that can be excreted by the kidneys, making it an effective treatment for neonatal jaundice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "DNA Methylation is not involved in?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chromatin remodeling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mismatch repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gene Silencing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Base pair excision", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Base pair excision", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Base pair excision</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DNA methylation is not involved in the base pair excision repair mechanism. Instead, it plays significant roles in chromatin remodeling, mismatch repair, and gene silencing by modifying the DNA structure and influencing protein interactions and gene expression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following nerves are involved in the movement of the eyeball except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-98.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-99.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The nerve marked as 'A' is the optic nerve (I CN), and is not involved in the movement of the eyeball.</li><li>• The optic nerve is primarily responsible for carrying visual information from the retina to the brain. It is not directly involved in controlling eye movements, but it is crucial for vision itself.</li><li>• The nerves marked in the image are:</li><li>• The nerves marked in the image are:</li><li>• A- Optic nerve (II CN) B- Oculomotor nerve (III CN) C- Abducens nerve (VI CN) D- Trochlear nerve (IV CN)</li><li>• A- Optic nerve (II CN)</li><li>• B- Oculomotor nerve (III CN)</li><li>• C- Abducens nerve (VI CN)</li><li>• D- Trochlear nerve (IV CN)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Oculomotor nerve (III CN): The oculomotor nerve controls the majority of the eye's movements. It innervates several extraocular muscles responsible for moving the eye in various directions, including upward, downward, and medially. It also controls the pupil's constriction and the accommodation of the lens for focusing on near objects.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Oculomotor nerve (III CN):</li><li>• Option C . Abducens nerve (VI CN): The abducens nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for moving the eye outward or laterally. It allows for abduction of the eye, helping to look away from the nose.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Abducens nerve (VI CN):</li><li>• Option D. Trochlear nerve (IV CN): The trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and intorsion (rotation inward). It helps in downward and inward eye movements.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Trochlear nerve (IV CN):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which protein is present in the HPV vaccine? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E6, E7", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "E1, E2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. L1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) L1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The HPV vaccine contains the L1 protein, which forms virus-like particles that induce an immune response to prevent infection by various HPV types, significantly reducing the risk of HPV-associated cancers and genital warts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young girl presents with the complaints of continuous dribbling of urine. However, she also voids normally. Her parents tell you that she had never been totally dry since her birth. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ectopic ureter", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ureterocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital megaureter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vesicoureteric reflux", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ectopic ureter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ectopic ureter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An ectopic ureter should be suspected in a young female with continuous dribbling of urine since birth, despite normal voiding, due to the abnormal insertion of the ureter outside the bladder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby assessed 5 minutes after birth is found to be pink, with blue extremities, and irregular respiration. Heart rate is 80 beats per minute. There is grimace and some flexion. What is the Apgar score for this baby? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/80_DpM8hOi.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Apgar score is used to quickly assess the overall health of a newborn, with a score of 5 indicating the need for some medical intervention but not immediate resuscitation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient who just lost his work felt irritated and depressed for the majority of the time. Thinking about the future troubled him, and he was irritated with his family members. He went out to see movies with his friends on occasion and was able to enjoy himself, but when he returned home, he experienced identical sensations. What's the most likely diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Generalized anxiety disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adjustment disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mixed anxiety with depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Moderate depression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adjustment disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adjustment disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adjustment disorder is characterized by emotional responses to stressful events like financial problems, medical illness, relationship problems or death of a loved one. It manifests with emotional or behavioral symptoms which include depressed mood, anxiety, worry, a feeling of inability to cope and some degree of disturbance in individuals daily functioning. The symptoms typically remit within 6 months if the stressor has ended. Treatment of choice is supportive psychotherapy.</li><li>➤ remit within 6 months</li><li>➤ Treatment of choice is supportive psychotherapy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 112.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Iritis is seen in all except: (INICET NOV 2020", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SLE", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulcerative colitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Behcet's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rheumatoid arthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rheumatoid Arthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rheumatoid arthritis is typically associated with scleral and episcleral inflammation rather than iritis, distinguishing it from other autoimmune conditions like SLE, Ulcerative Colitis, and Behcet's Disease that can present with iritis as a part of their systemic manifestations.</li><li>➤ scleral and episcleral inflammation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Rheumatology/Rheumatoid arthritis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following bacteria with the drug of choice used for each? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-160007.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metronidazole is the drug of choice for anaerobic infections caused by Bacteroides . Vancomycin is the drug of choice for infections caused by MRSA . Penicillins like amoxicillin and ampicillin are used for Haemophilus influenzae infections. Meropenem is used for infections caused by Klebsiella , particularly ESBL-producing strains.</li><li>➤ Metronidazole is the drug of choice for anaerobic infections caused by Bacteroides .</li><li>➤ Metronidazole</li><li>➤ Bacteroides</li><li>➤ Vancomycin is the drug of choice for infections caused by MRSA .</li><li>➤ Vancomycin</li><li>➤ MRSA</li><li>➤ Penicillins like amoxicillin and ampicillin are used for Haemophilus influenzae infections.</li><li>➤ Penicillins</li><li>➤ Haemophilus influenzae</li><li>➤ Meropenem is used for infections caused by Klebsiella , particularly ESBL-producing strains.</li><li>➤ Meropenem</li><li>➤ Klebsiella</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following muscles is not involved in the overhead abduction of the arm? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serratus anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deltoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trapezius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pectoralis major", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pectoralis major", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-164732.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Pectoralis major</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PRINCIPLE MUSCLES ACTING ON SHOULDERS</li><li>➤ PRINCIPLE MUSCLES ACTING ON SHOULDERS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gibbs-Donnan equilibrium is mainly due to? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bicarbonate in the intracellular compartment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium in the extracellular compartment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intracellular proteins", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Intracellular proteins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Intracellular proteins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ At Gibbs-Donnan equilibrium ,</li><li>➤ At Gibbs-Donnan equilibrium</li><li>➤ On each side of the membrane, each solution will be electrically neutral The product of diffusible ions on one side of the membrane will be equal to the product of diffusible ions on the other side of the membrane The electrochemical gradients produced by unequal distribution of charged ions produces a transmembrane potential difference which can be calculated using the Nernst equation The presence of impermeant ions on one side of the membrane creates an osmotic diffusion gradient attracting water into that compartment.</li><li>➤ On each side of the membrane, each solution will be electrically neutral</li><li>➤ The product of diffusible ions on one side of the membrane will be equal to the product of diffusible ions on the other side of the membrane</li><li>➤ The electrochemical gradients produced by unequal distribution of charged ions produces a transmembrane potential difference which can be calculated using the Nernst equation</li><li>➤ The presence of impermeant ions on one side of the membrane creates an osmotic diffusion gradient attracting water into that compartment.</li><li>➤ Intracellular proteins are negatively charged non-permeable ions, then distribution of other permeable ions is affected in a predictable way (Donnan Effect) so that at equilibrium their concentration ratios are equal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is comparing the means of three different groups with non-normally distributed data and small sample sizes. Which of the following tests is best suited for analyzing this non-parametric data? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Student t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Friedman test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pearson", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Friedman test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/screenshot-2023-10-30-113543.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Friedman test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Choose the Friedman test when you need to compare the means of three or more related groups, and the data is not normally distributed, ensuring accurate and reliable statistical analysis in non-parametric settings.</li><li>➤ Choose the Friedman test when you need to compare the means of three or more related groups, and the data is not normally distributed, ensuring accurate and reliable statistical analysis in non-parametric settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A resident in neurology is assessing a patient who recently sustained a traumatic brain injury using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). How should the resident describe the type of data obtained from the GCS? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nominal scale data", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ordinal scale data", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alphanumerical data", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interval scale data", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ordinal scale data", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/screenshot-2023-10-30-114041.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ordinal scale data</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A clinician is conducting a study on the occurrence of a rare disease within a specific population over a certain time period. The disease cases occur independently, and the average rate of occurrence is constant. Which statistical distribution best represents the likelihood of observing a specific number of disease cases within this defined time period? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Binomial distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gaussian distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Poisson distribution", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal distribution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Poisson distribution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Poisson distribution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Poisson distribution is used to model the number of rare disease cases occurring independently in a fixed period of time.</li><li>➤ The Poisson distribution is used to model the number of rare disease cases occurring independently in a fixed period of time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the findings in freshwater drowning? ( INICET Nov 2020) Hemodilution Hypokalemia Hyponatremia Arrhythmia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of freshwater drowning, we see</li><li>➤ In cases of freshwater drowning, we see</li><li>➤ Hemodilution – Due to excessive fluid absorption Hyponatremia – Due to hemodilution Arrythmia – Due to electrolyte abnormalities Hyperkalemia -Due to release of intracellular potassium from swollen RBCs</li><li>➤ Hemodilution – Due to excessive fluid absorption</li><li>➤ Hemodilution – Due to excessive fluid absorption</li><li>➤ Hyponatremia – Due to hemodilution</li><li>➤ Hyponatremia – Due to hemodilution</li><li>➤ Arrythmia – Due to electrolyte abnormalities</li><li>➤ Arrythmia – Due to electrolyte abnormalities</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia -Due to release of intracellular potassium from swollen RBCs</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia -Due to release of intracellular potassium from swollen RBCs</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child suffering from steroid-dependent nephrotic syndrome is brought to the OD for vaccination. Which of the following is true about vaccination in this child? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All live vaccines under NIS can be given as per schedule", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "All killed vaccines under NIS can be given", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only pneumococcal vaccine should be given to the child in acute phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Live vaccines are contraindicated in the child's sibling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. All killed vaccines under NIS can be given", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) All killed vaccines under NIS can be given</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In children with steroid-dependent nephrotic syndrome, all killed vaccines under the National Immunization Schedule can be safely administered, while live vaccines should be given with caution depending on the child's immunosuppressive therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the true statement about the Tillaux sign? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Presence of a mass in the periumbilical region", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brilliant transillumination when a light is shone through the mass", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mobility of the mass perpendicular to the mesentery attachment line", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Positive fluctuation observed when the mass is pressed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mobility of the mass perpendicular to the mesentery attachment line", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mobility of the mass perpendicular to the mesentery attachment line</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tillaux's sign is positive when a mesenteric cyst is present, and the mass or swelling is mobile perpendicular to the mesentery attachment line. Mesenteric cysts are typically found in the small intestine (60%) or colon (40%) and can be classified as chylolymphatic (the most common type), enterogenous, urogenital remnant, or dermoid. These cysts are commonly found in adults and are characterized by a painless abdominal swelling with physical signs (Tillaux triad) such as a fluctuant swelling near the umbilicus, a mass that moves freely in a plane perpendicular to the attachment of the mesentery (known as Tillaux's sign), and the presence of a zone of resonance around the cyst.</li><li>➤ Tillaux triad of mesenteric cyst:</li><li>➤ Soft fluctuant periumbilical lump Movement perpendicular to mesenteric attachment Zone of resonance around the lump</li><li>➤ Soft fluctuant periumbilical lump</li><li>➤ Movement perpendicular to mesenteric attachment</li><li>➤ Zone of resonance around the lump</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure in given endoscopic view of the nasal cavity:( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inferior turbinate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle turbinate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior turbinate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uncinate process", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inferior turbinate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/27/picture1_c5KNVno.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture35.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/27/picture3_ubbI1jR.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inferior turbinate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The inferior turbinate is a critical structure for the proper conditioning of air entering the respiratory system. Its large surface area and vascular mucosa play essential roles in the humidification and warming of inhaled air, contributing to the overall respiratory health and protection against pathogens and particulate matter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following sets of X-rays are suggestive of:(INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paget’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ankylosing spondylitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/08/io41.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture6_s6u3JH2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture7_Rk85vtn.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture8_u5ruM0J.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture9_1PBTZoB.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture11_Kzv382F.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture12_TuU0XGL.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture13_8mhU4kM.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture17.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The radiographic images given the question shows:</li><li>➤ The radiographic images given the question shows:</li><li>➤ A. Bamboo spine</li><li>➤ B. Sacroiliitis</li><li>➤ C. Loss of lumbar lordosis</li><li>➤ D. Dagger’s sign</li><li>➤ These features are characteristic of Ankylosing spondylitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child presented with complaints of bed-wetting almost twice a week for the past 1 year. A detailed investigation was done to rule out the organic cause. What should be the treatment plan for this child?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pharmacotherapy with imipramine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psychodynamic psychotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bladder training, with reward for delaying micturition during daytime", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bell and pad based classical conditioning", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bell and pad based classical conditioning", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bell and pad based classical conditioning</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sleep related enuresis is defined as voiding of urine at inappropriate places. It is nocturnal in around 80% of cases. The most common cause of bed wetting are psychosocial such as sibling rivalry. The treatment of choice is bed alarms . Drug of choice is desmopressin . Another medication which can be used is imipramine .</li><li>➤ bed alarms</li><li>➤ desmopressin</li><li>➤ imipramine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 169.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following antidepressants causes the least sexual dysfunction? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoxetine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venlafaxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mirtazapine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Imipramine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mirtazapine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Mirtazapine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mirtazapine is an atypical antidepressant. Apart from increasing the levels of serotonin and nor-adrenaline (due to blockade of presynaptic alpha 2 receptors), It also acts as an antagonist of serotonin (5-HT2 and 5-HT3) receptors. It has some degree of H1 blocking property also. It is therefore known as NSSA (Nor adrenergic and Specific Serotonergic Antidepressant). Mirtazapine is generally associated with a lower incidence of sexual side effects compared to SSRIs and SNRIs, making it a better option for patients concerned about these issues.</li><li>➤ Mirtazapine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "M3 incisional hernia refers to: (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epigastric", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infraumbilical", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Umbilical", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Suprapubic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Umbilical", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-142430.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Umbilical</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following enzymes has the highest catalytic efficiency? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Km of an enzyme = 10 micromole and Kcat = 20 per sec", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Km of an enzyme = 2000 nanomole and Kcat = 50 per sec", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Km of an enzyme = 2 micromole and Kcat = 200 per sec", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Km of an enzyme = 4 micromole and Kcat = 200 per sec", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Km of an enzyme = 2 micromole and Kcat = 200 per sec", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/07/screenshot-2024-06-07-105313.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Km of an enzyme = 2 micromole and Kcat = 200 per sec</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Catalytic efficiency, calculated as 𝐾 𝑐𝑎𝑡 /𝐾 𝑚 is maximized with high 𝐾 𝑐𝑎𝑡 and low Km .</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A rose gardener with a history of thorn prick presents with the following lesions. What is the possible causative agent? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sporothrix schenckii", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sporothrix schenckii", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13547.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sporothrix schenckii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient with a history of thorn prick , especially a gardener , presenting with nodular lesions along lymphatic channels , the most likely causative agent is Sporothrix schenckii, responsible for sporotrichosis , a fungal infection commonly associated with gardening activities.</li><li>➤ history of thorn prick</li><li>➤ gardener</li><li>➤ nodular</li><li>➤ lymphatic channels</li><li>➤ Sporothrix schenckii,</li><li>➤ sporotrichosis</li><li>➤ fungal</li><li>➤ gardening</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition, Chapter 32 Page no 32.71</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition, Chapter 32 Page no 32.71</li><li>➤ Illustrated synopsis of dermatology &amp; sexually transmitted diseases page no 297</li><li>➤ Illustrated synopsis of dermatology &amp; sexually transmitted diseases page no 297</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 21 st edition Page no 1542</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 21 st edition Page no 1542</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with pelvic fracture and head trauma after a road traffic accident. He was given IV morphine for pain relief following which he developed respiratory difficulty. What could be the most likely cause? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pelvic Fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CO2 retention due to opioid use", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cerebral Edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CO2 retention due to opioid use", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. CO2 retention due to opioid use</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Opioids like morphine can cause respiratory depression by decreasing the respiratory rate and tidal volume, leading to CO2 retention. This effect is particularly concerning in patients with head trauma due to the potential for increased intracranial pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old woman who presented with complaints of fever and joint pain develops the following lesion on her nose after a few days of taking NSAIDs. What is your diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fixed drug eruption", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chikungunya", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13541_FPCfPCR.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-135455.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-135612.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the context of fever, body ache, and joint pain , followed by the development of brownish pigmentation on the nose, Chikungunya is the probable diagnosis, as it can present with persistent joint pain and hyperpigmentation, particularly in regions where the virus is endemic.</li><li>➤ fever, body ache, and joint pain</li><li>➤ brownish pigmentation</li><li>➤ Chikungunya</li><li>➤ joint pain</li><li>➤ hyperpigmentation,</li><li>➤ endemic.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common lung finding in COVID 19 infection is? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary infarction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diffuse alveolar damage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endothelial injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibrin clots", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Diffuse alveolar damage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Diffuse alveolar damage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diffuse alveolar damage is the most common and significant lung finding in severe COVID-19 infection, leading to the clinical syndrome of ARDS.</li><li>➤ Diffuse alveolar damage</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following situations will you use a sanitizer? (INICET NOV 2020) Before examining the patient After examining the patient After touching the patient's surroundings Hands are visibly soiled", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B &amp; C only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A &amp; B only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B, C &amp; D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C &amp; D only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A, B & C only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A, B and C only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Healthcare personnel should use hand sanitizer before and after examining a patient and after touching the patient's surroundings. However, when hands are visibly soiled, hand hygiene should be performed using soap and water instead of a sanitizer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are vitamin-B12 dependent enzymes? ( INICET Nov 2020) Methylmalonyl Co isomerase Homocysteine synthase Folate reductase Methionine synthase", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 4 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011092.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1 and 4 only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The enzymes methylmalonyl CoA isomerase and methionine synthase are dependent on vitamin B12. These enzymes play critical roles in metabolic pathways, including amino acid catabolism and methylation reactions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids for the last eight months. A barium swallow test has been conducted, and the results are available for review. What further investigations are required for this patient? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Upper GI endoscopy &amp; Manometry", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Upper GI endoscopy &amp; PET scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper GI endoscopy &amp; CECT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Upper GI endoscopy and 24-hour PH monitoring", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Upper GI endoscopy & Manometry", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-183.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Upper GI endoscopy &amp; Manometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Achalasia is a disorder of the esophagus characterized by absent peristalsis and impaired relaxation of the LES. Manometry is the most sensitive test to diagnose achalasia and can identify early disease before esophageal dilatation and food retention. The diagnostic criteria for achalasia with manometry are impaired LES relaxation, absent peristalsis, and elevated LES pressure. Subtypes are classified according to Chicago classification as Type 1 (classical), Type 2 (pan-esophageal pressurisation) and type 3 (Spastic). Endoscopy can rule out pseudo achalasia/carcinoma.</li><li>➤ Achalasia is a disorder of the esophagus characterized by absent peristalsis and impaired relaxation of the LES.</li><li>➤ Manometry is the most sensitive test to diagnose achalasia and can identify early disease before esophageal dilatation and food retention.</li><li>➤ The diagnostic criteria for achalasia with manometry are impaired LES relaxation, absent peristalsis, and elevated LES pressure. Subtypes are classified according to Chicago classification as Type 1 (classical), Type 2 (pan-esophageal pressurisation) and type 3 (Spastic).</li><li>➤ Endoscopy can rule out pseudo achalasia/carcinoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs promotes bone formation? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcitonin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Raloxifene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bisphosphonates", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Teriparatide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Teriparatide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-151658.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Teriparatide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DRUGS USED IN OSTEOPOROSIS</li><li>➤ DRUGS USED IN OSTEOPOROSIS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 21-year-old female was brought dead to the casualty. On examination there was frothing from her nose and mouth. What is the likely cause of death? (INICET NOVEMBER 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drowning", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hanging", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strangulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Traumatic asphyxia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Drowning", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-25.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Drowning</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Frothing from the nose and mouth, along with other specific postmortem findings, strongly suggests drowning as the cause of death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a history of rapidly enlarging swelling in her right breast for the last 15 days. During the physical examination, there was a local rise in temperature, and the lump was partially mobile over the chest wall. What could be the probable diagnosis for this patient? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inflammatory carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Giant fibroadenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phyllodes tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galactocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inflammatory carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inflammatory carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In the given scenario, the patient's rapid onset of disease and examination findings suggest inflammatory carcinoma of the breast, which is the most aggressive subtype of breast cancer. Inflammatory breast cancer typically presents with brawny induration, erythema with a raised edge, and edema (Peau d'orange appearance), along with a breast lump. Skin biopsy is used to diagnose inflammatory breast cancer. The treatment for inflammatory breast cancer includes combined-modality treatment, such as neoadjuvant chemotherapy, mastectomy, radiation therapy, hormonal therapy for ER-positive tumors, and Trastuzumab for HER-2-positive tumors.</li><li>➤ In the given scenario, the patient's rapid onset of disease and examination findings suggest inflammatory carcinoma of the breast, which is the most aggressive subtype of breast cancer.</li><li>➤ Inflammatory breast cancer typically presents with brawny induration, erythema with a raised edge, and edema (Peau d'orange appearance), along with a breast lump.</li><li>➤ Skin biopsy is used to diagnose inflammatory breast cancer.</li><li>➤ The treatment for inflammatory breast cancer includes combined-modality treatment, such as neoadjuvant chemotherapy, mastectomy, radiation therapy, hormonal therapy for ER-positive tumors, and Trastuzumab for HER-2-positive tumors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old chef presented with complaints of leg pain and swelling. Upon examination, he was diagnosed with varicose veins. Further examination revealed the presence of skin eczema and lipodermatosclerosis. According to the CEAP classification system, He would be classified as: (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "С3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. C4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) C4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation of the CEAP Classification:</li><li>• The CEAP classification is a system used to categorize venous disease based on clinical, etiologic, anatomic, and pathophysiologic criteria. Here's a breakdown:</li><li>• C : Clinical classification E : Etiologic classification A : Anatomic classification P : Pathophysiologic classification</li><li>• C : Clinical classification</li><li>• C</li><li>• E : Etiologic classification</li><li>• E</li><li>• A : Anatomic classification</li><li>• A</li><li>• P : Pathophysiologic classification</li><li>• P</li><li>• The \"C\" or clinical classification is divided as follows:</li><li>• C0 : No visible or palpable signs of venous disease. C1 : Telangiectasias or reticular veins. C2 : Varicose veins. C3 : Edema. C4 : Skin changes without ulceration. This is further divided into: C4a : Pigmentation or eczema. C4b : Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche. C4c : Corona phlebectatica C5 : Skin changes with healed ulceration. C6 : Skin changes with active ulceration.</li><li>• C0 : No visible or palpable signs of venous disease.</li><li>• C0</li><li>• C1 : Telangiectasias or reticular veins.</li><li>• C1</li><li>• C2 : Varicose veins.</li><li>• C2</li><li>• C3 : Edema.</li><li>• C3</li><li>• C4 : Skin changes without ulceration. This is further divided into: C4a : Pigmentation or eczema. C4b : Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche. C4c : Corona phlebectatica</li><li>• C4</li><li>• C4a : Pigmentation or eczema. C4b : Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche. C4c : Corona phlebectatica</li><li>• C4a : Pigmentation or eczema.</li><li>• C4a</li><li>• C4b : Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche.</li><li>• C4b</li><li>• C4c : Corona phlebectatica</li><li>• C4c</li><li>• C5 : Skin changes with healed ulceration.</li><li>• C5</li><li>• C6 : Skin changes with active ulceration.</li><li>• C6</li><li>• In summary, the patient's symptoms of varicose veins combined with skin changes such as eczema and lipodermatosclerosis correspond to the C4 classification in the CEAP system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "John is a 45-year-old male who has been experiencing a bulge in his groin area that becomes more prominent when he coughs or strains. He has been diagnosed with an inguinal hernia and is scheduled for surgery. Before the procedure, the surgeon explains the condition and its potential complications. Which of the following statements about inguinal hernias are true? (AIIMS NOV 2020) Medial border of the triangle of doom is bound by gonadal vessels Medial border of the triangle of doom is bound by Vas deferens Medial border of myopectineal orifice is bound by rectus abdominis. Medial border of myopectineal orifice is bound by iliopsoas", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-144240.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-144325.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with carcinoma in situ (CIS) of the cervix and no obvious macroscopic growth. What is the next line of management? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conization", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colposcopy and biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Follow-up after 6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Conization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/30/untitled-278.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Conization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a young woman diagnosed with carcinoma in situ (CIS) of the cervix, conization is the recommended next step, providing both diagnostic and therapeutic benefits.</li><li>➤ Ref: FIGO Revised Staging of Cervical Cancer, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th Edition, Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition page367,</li><li>➤ Ref: FIGO Revised Staging of Cervical Cancer, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th Edition, Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition page367,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition shown in the image: ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Postmortem lividity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marbling", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Filigree burns", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subcutaneous emphysema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Marbling", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-26.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Marbling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marbling is a postmortem change characterized by greenish-black streaks on the skin due to the formation of sulfhemoglobin, becoming prominent 24-48 hours after death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "50 yr old gentleman presented with progressive abdominal distension with shifting dullness on examination and dilated veins on lateral chest wall. Ascitic fluid analysis given below. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congestive heart failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Budd Chiari syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Budd Chiari syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-105207.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-105251.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Budd-Chiari syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Hepatology/ascites</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent LASIK for myopia and now is undergoing cataract surgery. What is the formula used for lens power calculation in this patient?(INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SRK 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SRK 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hoffer Q", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haigis-L", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Haigis-L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients who have had previous corneal refractive surgery like LASIK, specialized IOL calculation formulas such as Haigis-L should be used to ensure accurate lens power calculation for cataract surgery. This formula specifically addresses the altered corneal parameters to provide a more precise refractive outcome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Apart from the abdomen, which body part is included in e-FAST? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retroperitoneum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peripheral vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thoracic cavity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dural and subdural spaces", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thoracic cavity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-131858.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thoracic cavity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ E-FAST stands for Extended Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma, which is a bedside ultrasound examination used to evaluate trauma patients. It involves the use of a portable ultrasound machine to assess for free fluid in the abdomen, chest, and around the heart.</li><li>➤ In addition to identifying free fluid, e-FAST can also be used to evaluate for other injuries, such as pneumothorax, hemothorax, and pericardial effusion. E-FAST has become a standard of care in trauma evaluation and is a valuable tool in the early detection and treatment of life-threatening injuries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A statistician is examining the scores of a recent standardized test to assess the variability in student performance. She is particularly interested in understanding the extent of score dispersion from the lowest to the highest mark achieved. Which statistical measure should she use to directly determine this? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Variance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coefficient of variation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Range", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interquartile range", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Range", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-094311.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Range</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The range directly measures the extent of score dispersion from the lowest to the highest value in a dataset.</li><li>➤ The range directly measures the extent of score dispersion from the lowest to the highest value in a dataset.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is: ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hybridization, Annealing, Elongation, Denaturation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Elongation, Denaturation, Hybridization, Annealing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Denaturation, Annealing, Extension", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Annealing, Extension, Denaturation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011089.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is Denaturation, Annealing, and Extension. These steps are repeated in cycles to exponentially amplify the target DNA segment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The illustration below shows alternative splicing of a gene which has intron segments 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. It yields two products A and B, by the action of different promoters. You are provided with the promoters W, X, Y, and Z, each of which binds to a different segment as shown below and acts in the marked direction. Which of the following promoters will you use to get product A? (INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "W, X, Y", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "W, Z", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "WX", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "W Y", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. W Y", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011090.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. W Y</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• A promoter is a region of DNA upstream of a gene where relevant proteins bind to initiate</li><li>• transcription of that gene. In the case of this question, product A is formed by including specific</li><li>• segments and excluding others through the process of alternative splicing.</li><li>• Sequence A consists of segments 1, 3, 4, and 5. Promoter W Required for segment 1. Promoter Y Required for segments 3, 4, and 5. Segment 2 is excluded during alternative splicing.</li><li>• Sequence A consists of segments 1, 3, 4, and 5. Promoter W Required for segment 1. Promoter Y Required for segments 3, 4, and 5. Segment 2 is excluded during alternative splicing.</li><li>• Promoter W Required for segment 1. Promoter Y Required for segments 3, 4, and 5. Segment 2 is excluded during alternative splicing.</li><li>• Promoter W Required for segment 1.</li><li>• Promoter Y Required for segments 3, 4, and 5.</li><li>• Segment 2 is excluded during alternative splicing.</li><li>• Thus, the combination of Promoters W and Y will result in the production of sequence A by including</li><li>• the correct segments and excluding segment 2.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option a (W, X, Y) : This combination Required Promoter X, for segment 2, but it is unnecessary since W and Y alone are sufficient to yield product A. Option b (W, Z) : Promoter Z does not include segments 3, making this option incorrect for generating product A. Option c (WX) : Promoters W and X are insufficient because they do not include segments 3, 4, and 5, which are essential for product A.</li><li>• Option a (W, X, Y) : This combination Required Promoter X, for segment 2, but it is unnecessary since W and Y alone are sufficient to yield product A.</li><li>• Option a (W, X, Y) : This combination Required Promoter X, for segment 2, but it</li><li>• Option a (W, X, Y)</li><li>• is unnecessary since W and Y alone are sufficient to yield product A.</li><li>• Option b (W, Z) : Promoter Z does not include segments 3, making this option incorrect for generating product A.</li><li>• Option b (W, Z)</li><li>• Option c (WX) : Promoters W and X are insufficient because they do not include segments 3, 4, and 5, which are essential for product A.</li><li>• Option c (WX)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A promoter is a region of DNA upstream of a gene where relevant proteins bind to initiate</li><li>➤ transcription of that gene.</li><li>➤ Using promoters W, Y will yield product A by including segments 1, 3, 4, and 5 and removing segment 2 through alternative splicing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is reviewing the storage conditions of various vaccines in a rural health center. She wants to ensure that all the vaccines have been stored appropriately and have not been exposed to temperatures outside the recommended range. She is looking for a specific indicator on the vaccine vials that shows the cumulative heat exposure over time. Which of the following is the correct indicator she should check? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "VMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "VVM", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "MVV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IVMI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. VVM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture52222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/screenshot-2023-10-27-130342.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) VVM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) as the correct tool used to indicate the cumulative heat exposure of vaccines over time, ensuring their potency and safe use.</li><li>➤ Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) as the correct tool used to indicate the cumulative heat exposure of vaccines over time, ensuring their potency and safe use.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following dilution of adrenaline and its use? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1 B-2 C-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2 B-1 C-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3 B-2 C-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-1 B-3 C-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-2 B-1 C-3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-154726.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-154955.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. A-2 B-1 C-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following muscles is attached to the area marked green in the image below? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abductor pollicis longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Palmar interossei", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Opponens pollicis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flexor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Opponens pollicis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-87.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-88.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Opponens pollicis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The palmar aspect of the first metacarpal is the area marked in the image. At this location, the opponens pollicis muscle inserts.</li><li>• Opponens pollicis: Origin: Tubercle of the trapezium and flexor retinaculum Insertion: Whole length of the lateral border and adjoining lateral half of the palmar aspect of the first metacarpal. Action: Flexes the metacarpal bone of the thumb.</li><li>• Opponens pollicis:</li><li>• Opponens pollicis:</li><li>• Origin: Tubercle of the trapezium and flexor retinaculum</li><li>• Origin:</li><li>• Insertion: Whole length of the lateral border and adjoining lateral half of the palmar aspect of the first metacarpal.</li><li>• Insertion:</li><li>• Action: Flexes the metacarpal bone of the thumb.</li><li>• Action:</li><li>• The image below shows various intrinsic muscles of the hand.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Abductor Pollicis Longus: Abductor pollicis longus is not directly attached to the first metacarpal. It originates from the posterior surface of the ulna and radius and inserts into the base of the first metacarpal bone. Its primary action is to abduct the thumb away from the palm.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Abductor Pollicis Longus:</li><li>• Option B. Palmar Interossei: The palmar interossei muscles are located between the metacarpal bones in the palm of the hand. They are responsible for adducting the fingers toward the midline of the hand. They are not directly attached to the first metacarpal.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Palmar Interossei:</li><li>• Option D . Flexor Pollicis Brevis: The flexor pollicis brevis muscle has two heads: the superficial head and the deep head. The superficial head originates from the flexor retinaculum, while the deep head originates from the trapezoid and capitate bones.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Flexor Pollicis Brevis:</li><li>• Both heads of the flexor pollicis brevis insert into the base of the first metacarpal bone. The main action of the flexor pollicis brevis is to flex the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint.</li><li>• Both heads of the flexor pollicis brevis insert into the base of the first metacarpal bone.</li><li>• The main action of the flexor pollicis brevis is to flex the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The opponens pollicis muscle originates from the flexor retinaculum and the tubercles of the trapezium bone. It inserts into the first metacarpal bone. The primary action of the opponens pollicis is to oppose the thumb, allowing for the grasping and pinching movements of the thumb.</li><li>➤ The opponens pollicis muscle originates from the flexor retinaculum and the tubercles of the trapezium bone. It inserts into the first metacarpal bone.</li><li>➤ The primary action of the opponens pollicis is to oppose the thumb, allowing for the grasping and pinching movements of the thumb.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the brace given in the following image:(INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Milwaukee brace", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Taylor brace", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ash brace", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Boston brace", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Milwaukee brace", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/08/io43.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/screenshot-2024-01-06-171450.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/picture21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/screenshot-2024-01-06-172050.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The brace shown in the image in the question is of a Milwaukee brace, which is used to treat scoliosis in adolescent children.</li><li>➤ The brace shown in the image in the question is of a Milwaukee brace, which is used to treat scoliosis in adolescent children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man with history of acute MI complains of acute, severe, and diffuse abdominal pain accompanied by multiple episodes of vomiting. Upon examination, his pulse rate is 110bpm with an irregular rhythm, while his blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. The abdomen looks soft, not swollen, and there are no bowel sounds. What potential diagnosis could be considered for this patient based on these findings? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute severe pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ruptured aortic aneurysm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute mesenteric ischemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peptic ulcer perforation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute mesenteric ischemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute mesenteric ischemia (AMI)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The given clinical scenario suggests acute mesenteric ischemia as a possible diagnosis. The most common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia is an embolus. The risk factors for acute mesenteric ischemia/embolus in the given clinical scenario are the presence of an irregularly irregular pulse suggestive of atrial fibrillation and a previous history of ischemic heart disease/myocardial infarction.</li><li>➤ The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain in a patient with atrial fibrillation or atherosclerosis is the most important clue to an early diagnosis of acute mesenteric ischemia. The pain is typically in the central abdomen and out of proportion to the physical findings. Associated features may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal distension, peritonitis, and passage of bloody stools.</li><li>➤ Angiography is the gold standard for the diagnosis of acute mesenteric ischemia, and management involves laparotomy. The goal of operative exploration is to reset the compromised bowel and restore blood supply via embolectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is diagnosed with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which among the following will not be seen in this child? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bilious vomiting", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Visible peristalsis from left to right", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypochloremia and hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bilious vomiting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bilious vomiting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CHPS (congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis) is most commonly seen in infants between 2 to 8 weeks of age. It is caused by the hypertrophy of the circular muscle of the Pylorus, which results in constriction and obstruction of the gastric outlet. First-born male infants are at the highest risk for developing CHPS. Projectile, non-bilious vomiting is a common symptom in infants with CHPS. A palpable olive-shaped mass is usually felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastrium, and visible peristalsis can be observed moving from left to right, followed by projectile vomiting. Infants with CHPS develop a characteristic metabolic abnormality including hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria. Loss of hydrochloric acid leads to metabolic alkalosis and hypochloremia due to persistent vomiting. The kidneys try to compensate for alkalosis by secreting Na+ and HCO3, but the loss of sodium stimulates aldosterone secretion leading to the loss of potassium ions (hypokalemia). Loss of H+ ions in urine lowers the urinary pH resulting in paradoxical aciduria. Treatment involves rehydration and correction of metabolic abnormalities before surgery, and the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy is the standard surgical procedure for CHPS.</li><li>➤ CHPS (congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis) is most commonly seen in infants between 2 to 8 weeks of age.</li><li>➤ It is caused by the hypertrophy of the circular muscle of the Pylorus, which results in constriction and obstruction of the gastric outlet.</li><li>➤ First-born male infants are at the highest risk for developing CHPS.</li><li>➤ Projectile, non-bilious vomiting is a common symptom in infants with CHPS.</li><li>➤ A palpable olive-shaped mass is usually felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastrium, and visible peristalsis can be observed moving from left to right, followed by projectile vomiting.</li><li>➤ Infants with CHPS develop a characteristic metabolic abnormality including hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria.</li><li>➤ Loss of hydrochloric acid leads to metabolic alkalosis and hypochloremia due to persistent vomiting.</li><li>➤ The kidneys try to compensate for alkalosis by secreting Na+ and HCO3, but the loss of sodium stimulates aldosterone secretion leading to the loss of potassium ions (hypokalemia).</li><li>➤ Loss of H+ ions in urine lowers the urinary pH resulting in paradoxical aciduria.</li><li>➤ Treatment involves rehydration and correction of metabolic abnormalities before surgery, and the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy is the standard surgical procedure for CHPS.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hypertensive pregnant woman with abdominal pain, bleeding per vaginum, and loss of fetal movements. What is the probable diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abruptio placenta", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydramnios", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preterm labour", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Abruptio placenta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Abruptio placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, commonly occurs in hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. It is characterized by the premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, leading to painful vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and often fetal distress or fetal death. The uterus may be tonically contracted in such cases.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Hypertensive Disorders: Abruptio placentae is frequently associated with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. Clinical Presentation: Painful vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and loss of fetal movements are hallmark signs. Uterine Contraction: The uterus may feel firm and tender, indicating a tonic contraction.</li><li>• Hypertensive Disorders: Abruptio placentae is frequently associated with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.</li><li>• Hypertensive Disorders:</li><li>• Clinical Presentation: Painful vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and loss of fetal movements are hallmark signs.</li><li>• Clinical Presentation:</li><li>• Uterine Contraction: The uterus may feel firm and tender, indicating a tonic contraction.</li><li>• Uterine Contraction:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Placenta previa: Placenta previa involves painless vaginal bleeding due to the placenta covering the cervix. It generally does not cause decreased fetal movements unless there is severe bleeding leading to maternal and fetal compromise.</li><li>• Option B. Placenta previa:</li><li>• Option C. Hydramnios: Hydramnios (polyhydramnios) involves excessive amniotic fluid and does not typically present with bleeding.</li><li>• Option C. Hydramnios:</li><li>• Option D. Preterm labor: Preterm labor typically does not present with bleeding and is characterized by regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. Prematurity in preterm labor is iatrogenic if induced.</li><li>• Option D. Preterm labor:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Abruptio placenta should be suspected in a hypertensive pregnant woman presenting with painful vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and loss of fetal movements, as it is commonly associated with hypertensive disorders and presents with these clinical features.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 1944</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 1944</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given life cycle belongs to which of the following organisms? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leptospira", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hanta virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yersinia pestis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salmonella typhi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leptospira", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Leptospira</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The life cycle of Leptospira involves transmission from animal reservoirs through contaminated water and soil, leading to human infection, which fits the depiction in the provided images.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes with palpitation to ER. His Pulse-180/min and BP-70mm of Hg systolic. ECG shows narrow QRS complex tachycardia with regular heart rate. What is the next step in management? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DC Cardioversion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valsalva Maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verapamil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. DC Cardioversion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) DC cardioversion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DC cardioversion is the emergency treatment of choice for a patient with hemodynamically unstable narrow QRS complex tachycardia, as it quickly restores normal rhythm and stabilizes the patient.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Cardiology/SVT/chap 246</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-144711.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a true statement regarding telomerase? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Has reverse transcriptase activity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Present only in Eukaryotes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maintain the chromosome length", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Involved in DNA Repair", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Involved in DNA Repair", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Involved in DNA repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Telomerase is an enzyme with reverse transcriptase activity, present only in eukaryotes, and is crucial for maintaining chromosome length by adding telomeric repeats. It is not directly involved in DNA repair.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a type of subcortical dementia?(INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pick's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parkinson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Huntington's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wilson's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pick's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/screenshot-2023-10-12-124045.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pick's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 24.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is seen in: ( AIIMS NOV 2020) HIV SLE CLL Hepatitis B", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1112.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MPGN can be seen in various conditions, including HIV, SLE, CLL, and Hepatitis B , making it important to consider these diseases in the differential diagnosis of MPGN</li><li>➤ MPGN</li><li>➤ HIV, SLE, CLL, and Hepatitis B</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotrans pathological basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1777</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbins and Cotrans pathological basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1777</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is correct for a patient on high dose of penicillin and gentamicin? iNICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TDM is done with penicillin because of narrow therapeutic index", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "TDM is done with gentamicin because of narrow therapeutic index", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "TDM is done with both because of dangerous side effects", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both drugs do not need monitoring", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. TDM is done with gentamicin because of narrow therapeutic index", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. TDM is done with gentamicin because of narrow therapeutic index</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) is crucial for gentamicin due to its narrow therapeutic index and potential for nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Penicillin, on the other hand, generally does not require TDM because it does not have a narrow therapeutic index.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is absent in a case of otitis media among the options provided? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bezold abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Griesinger's sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Battle's sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delta sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Battle's sign", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_U12kS2b.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_VzbRqdT.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_E3iSA6N.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Battle's sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While otitis media can lead to various complications, including Bezold abscess and lateral sinus thrombosis (indicated by Griesinger’s sign and Delta sign), Battle's sign is not associated with this condition. Instead, Battle's sign should prompt an evaluation for temporal bone fractures, emphasizing the importance of distinguishing between signs of infection and trauma.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 87, 93, 507</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 87, 93, 507</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with cervical lymphadenopathy has (11;14) positive. Which of the following markers should be done to confirm the diagnosis? ( AIIMS NOV 2020) CD10; CD 200; SOX11; Cyclin D1", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1116.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-180835.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with t(11;14) translocation, confirming the diagnosis of mantle cell lymphoma requires testing for Cyclin D1 and SOX11 expression.</li><li>➤ t(11;14)</li><li>➤ Cyclin D1</li><li>➤ SOX11</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1132-1133</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1132-1133</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child is suffering from selective mutism. He is most probably suffering from? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Childhood depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Childhood psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Childhood anxiety disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperkinetic disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Childhood anxiety disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Childhood anxiety disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Selective mutism is an anxiety disorder characterized by a child's consistent failure to speak in specific situations, despite being able to speak in others.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 3719.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given set of instruments are used in? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central line insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arterial line insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Airway management", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiopulmonary resuscitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Airway management", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-114.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Airway management</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The instruments shown in the image are part of an airway cart. The equipment typically found in an airway cart is designed for managing the airway during anesthesia or in emergency situations. The contents of the airway cart usually include:</li><li>• Laryngoscope: A device used to obtain a view of the vocal folds and the glottis, which is essential for endotracheal intubation. Tracheal tubes of various sizes: These tubes are used to secure the airway by passing through the trachea. Masks: Various types of masks to deliver oxygen or anesthetic gases. Laryngeal mask airways (LMA): A device placed over the laryngeal inlet to provide ventilation. Flexible fiberoptic intubation equipment: Used for intubation in difficult airway situations. Retrograde intubation equipment: Tools used for intubation when conventional methods fail. Front of neck access equipment: Devices for surgical airway access. Equipment required for emergency invasive airway access: Tools needed for emergency tracheostomy or cricothyrotomy.</li><li>• Laryngoscope: A device used to obtain a view of the vocal folds and the glottis, which is essential for endotracheal intubation.</li><li>• Laryngoscope:</li><li>• Tracheal tubes of various sizes: These tubes are used to secure the airway by passing through the trachea.</li><li>• Tracheal tubes of various sizes:</li><li>• Masks: Various types of masks to deliver oxygen or anesthetic gases.</li><li>• Masks:</li><li>• Laryngeal mask airways (LMA): A device placed over the laryngeal inlet to provide ventilation.</li><li>• Laryngeal mask airways (LMA):</li><li>• Flexible fiberoptic intubation equipment: Used for intubation in difficult airway situations.</li><li>• Flexible fiberoptic intubation equipment:</li><li>• Retrograde intubation equipment: Tools used for intubation when conventional methods fail.</li><li>• Retrograde intubation equipment:</li><li>• Front of neck access equipment: Devices for surgical airway access.</li><li>• Front of neck access equipment:</li><li>• Equipment required for emergency invasive airway access: Tools needed for emergency tracheostomy or cricothyrotomy.</li><li>• Equipment required for emergency invasive airway access:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Central line insertion: This procedure requires different instruments such as central venous catheters, guidewires, dilators, and sterile drapes.</li><li>• Option A. Central line insertion:</li><li>• Option B. Arterial line insertion: This involves the use of arterial catheters, guidewires, and transducers, not typically found in an airway cart.</li><li>• Option B. Arterial line insertion:</li><li>• Option D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR): CPR primarily requires defibrillators, chest compression devices, and basic airway management tools like bag-valve masks (BVM), but not the comprehensive set shown for airway management.</li><li>• Option D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The instruments in an airway cart are specifically designed for various procedures involved in airway management, including intubation and emergency airway access.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes to the hospital within 3 hours of the onset of chest pain. ECG revealed ST depression in anterior chest leads and T wave inversion. She could be best managed by? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCl", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prophylaxis for arrhythmia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thrombolysis with alteplase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin with heparin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aspirin with heparin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-105103.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Aspirin with heparin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cardiology/ACS/Chap 277</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image shown below. ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gunshot wound", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tattooing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arsenic poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Graze wound", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gunshot wound", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-27.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Gunshot wound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A gunshot wound can be identified by its central round hole, surrounding soot, singeing of hairs, tattooing from powder particles, and bevelling of the wound edges.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old patient visits his family practitioner for a yearly examination. On examination, his BP was 190/100 mm Hg. His pulse pressure was 90 mm Hg. What would have decreased resulting in this increase in pulse pressure?(INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myocardial contractility", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stroke volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arterial wall compliance", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac output", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Arterial wall compliance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Arterial wall compliance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decreased arterial wall compliance leads to increased stiffness of the arteries, resulting in higher systolic blood pressure and an increased pulse pressure, as observed in the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following systems exhibits a feedback gain of infinity in negative feedback mechanism? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood volume control by kidney", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temperature control in hypothalamus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BP control by baroreceptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infinite gain is not possible.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blood volume control by kidney", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blood volume control by kidney</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood volume control by the kidney exemplifies a highly effective negative feedback mechanism, theoretically approaching infinite gain by maintaining blood volume within a narrow range. While true infinite gain is not possible in biological systems, the kidneys' regulatory function is exceptionally efficient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most frequently observed tumor in the retroperitoneal space? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liposarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhabdomyosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synovial sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurofibroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Liposarcoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Liposarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Retroperitoneal tumors can be benign or malignant and may be of various origins. Mesodermal tumors are the most common malignant retroperitoneal tumors. The order of frequency for primary retroperitoneal malignancy is liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, and malignant nerve sheath tumors. Liposarcoma has three histologic varieties, which are well-differentiated and undifferentiated liposarcoma, pleomorphic liposarcoma, and myxoid/round cell liposarcoma. Among the three subtypes, pleomorphic liposarcoma is the most malignant and often metastasizes, while well-differentiated liposarcoma is the least malignant.</li><li>➤ Retroperitoneal tumors can be benign or malignant and may be of various origins.</li><li>➤ Mesodermal tumors are the most common malignant retroperitoneal tumors.</li><li>➤ The order of frequency for primary retroperitoneal malignancy is liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, and malignant nerve sheath tumors.</li><li>➤ Liposarcoma has three histologic varieties, which are well-differentiated and undifferentiated liposarcoma, pleomorphic liposarcoma, and myxoid/round cell liposarcoma.</li><li>➤ Among the three subtypes, pleomorphic liposarcoma is the most malignant and often metastasizes, while well-differentiated liposarcoma is the least malignant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following features differentiate delirium from dementia in Alzheimer's disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acuity of onset and agitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acuity of onset and loss of consciousness", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Visual hallucinations and impaired memory", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Agitation and irritation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acuity of onset and loss of consciousness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/screenshot-2023-10-12-124404.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acuity of onset and loss of consciousness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 22.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism shown in this image: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ascaris lumbricoides", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/8.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ascaris lumbricoides</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ascaris lumbricoides is a large, cylindrical nematode parasite found in the human intestine, easily identifiable by its size, tapered ends, and characteristic pink to white color transition. The disease it causes, ascariasis, is transmitted via the fecal-oral route.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is the definition of effective CPR? Respiratory rate: 20 - 24 breaths per minute. Chest compressions: 100-120/min. Allow complete chest recoil. 5-6 cm depression.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/untitled-14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Effective CPR includes the following components:</li><li>• Chest compressions: 100-120/min. This ensures that the heart is pumping enough blood to maintain circulation during cardiac arrest. Allow complete chest recoil. Allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions ensures that the heart fills adequately with blood between each compression, which is crucial for effective circulation. 5-6 cm depression. The depth of chest compressions should be between 5-6 cm (2-2.4 inches) for adults. This depth is essential to create enough pressure to maintain circulation.</li><li>• Chest compressions: 100-120/min. This ensures that the heart is pumping enough blood to maintain circulation during cardiac arrest.</li><li>• Allow complete chest recoil. Allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions ensures that the heart fills adequately with blood between each compression, which is crucial for effective circulation.</li><li>• 5-6 cm depression. The depth of chest compressions should be between 5-6 cm (2-2.4 inches) for adults. This depth is essential to create enough pressure to maintain circulation.</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Respiratory rate: 20-24 breaths per minute. This is not correct for effective CPR. The recommended respiratory rate during CPR is about 10-12 breaths per minute when an advanced airway is in place. Higher respiratory rates can lead to hyperventilation, which can be detrimental.</li><li>• Respiratory rate: 20-24 breaths per minute. This is not correct for effective CPR. The recommended respiratory rate during CPR is about 10-12 breaths per minute when an advanced airway is in place. Higher respiratory rates can lead to hyperventilation, which can be detrimental.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Effective CPR is characterized by chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute, allowing complete chest recoil, and compressing the chest to a depth of 5-6 cm.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 2529-2534</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 2529-2534</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following marked structures does not form part of the laryngeal skeleton? ( INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/WhatsApp%20Image%202025-03-27%20at%2011.30.59%20AM.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-90.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The structure marked as 'A', is the hyoid bone, which is not a part of the laryngeal skeleton.</li><li>• The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located at the base of the tongue. While it is not considered a part of the larynx itself, it is closely associated with the larynx and serves as an attachment point for several laryngeal muscles</li><li>• The structures marked in the image are:</li><li>• The structures marked in the image are:</li><li>• Hyoid bone Thyroid cartilage Epiglottis Cricoid cartilage</li><li>• Hyoid bone</li><li>• Thyroid cartilage</li><li>• Epiglottis</li><li>• Cricoid cartilage</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B . Thyroid Cartilage: The thyroid cartilage is a large, shield-shaped cartilage in the larynx. It forms the prominent Adam's apple in the front of the neck and plays a role in sound production.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Thyroid Cartilage:</li><li>• Option C. Epiglottis: The epiglottis is a leaf-shaped cartilage located at the base of the tongue. Its primary function is to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway (trachea) during swallowing.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Epiglottis:</li><li>• Option D. Cricoid Cartilage: The cricoid cartilage is a ring-shaped cartilage located just below the thyroid cartilage. It is the only complete ring of cartilage in the larynx and provides structural support to the airway.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Cricoid Cartilage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A set of cartilages that are joined by ligaments and fibrous membranes make up the laryngeal skeleton:</li><li>➤ Hyaline cartilage : The thyroid, cricoid, and the greater part of the arytenoid cartilages Elastic cartilage : The corniculate, cuneiform, tritiate, and epiglottic cartilages and the apices of the arytenoid cartilage.</li><li>➤ Hyaline cartilage : The thyroid, cricoid, and the greater part of the arytenoid cartilages</li><li>➤ Hyaline cartilage</li><li>➤ Elastic cartilage : The corniculate, cuneiform, tritiate, and epiglottic cartilages and the apices of the arytenoid cartilage.</li><li>➤ Elastic cartilage</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are posted as an intern in casualty. An elderly 60-year-old man is brought to you with complaints of chest pain. He has tested positive for COVID. Which of the following features will prompt you to get this patient admitted to dedicated COVID health centre? (INICET NOV 2020) A. Respiratory rate of 25/min B. SpO2 93% C. Multiple comorbidities D. Age", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A &amp; B only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A, B, C &amp; D only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B, &amp; C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "B, C, &amp; D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A, B, C & D only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A, B, C &amp; D only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When evaluating a COVID-19 patient for hospital admission, consider clinical signs of respiratory distress, overall oxygen saturation, presence of comorbidities, and age due to their significant impacts on disease severity and outcome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the approximate age of a person in whom the medial end of the clavicle is fused and also the sternum is completely fused? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt;18 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "18-22 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "22-25 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;25 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. >25 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/12/screenshot-2024-06-12-103439.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. &gt;25 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct statement regarding immune surveillance? ( AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti CTLA 4 Ab is a new modality in the treatment of advanced cancers", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mutation of tumor suppressor genes decreases antigen toxicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PD1/ PDL1 activation leading to tumor suppression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Binding of CD28 leads to immune tolerance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anti CTLA 4 Ab is a new modality in the treatment of advanced cancers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anti CTLA 4 Ab is a new modality in the treatment of advanced cancers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-CTLA-4 antibodies like Ipilimumab are a new modality in the treatment of advanced cancers, enhancing the anti-tumor immune response by blocking inhibitory signals to T cells.</li><li>➤ Anti-CTLA-4 antibodies</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 574</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbin and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 574</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs are used for absence seizures? ( INICET Nov 2020) A. Carbamazepine B. Valproate C. Ethosuximide D. Gabapentin", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B and C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B and C only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "B only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "B and D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B and C only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-154357.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. B and C only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DRUGS USED IN ABSENCE SEIZURES</li><li>➤ DRUGS USED IN ABSENCE SEIZURES</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman is found to have a fibroid of 14 weeks size. She has no specific symptoms. What is the next step in management? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myomectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "No intervention as the patient is asymptomatic", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medical management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. No intervention as the patient is asymptomatic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) No intervention as the patient is asymptomatic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the case of an asymptomatic fibroid, intervention is generally not required regardless of the size. The management approach is typically conservative, involving observation and regular monitoring.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Asymptomatic Fibroids: Fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not require immediate intervention. Instead, they can be observed with yearly ultrasounds or reviewed earlier if symptoms develop. Common Symptoms of Fibroids: These include heavy menstrual bleeding, dysmenorrhea, pressure symptoms, and the presence of an abdominal mass. Management of Symptomatic Fibroids: Depending on the patient's age, size of the fibroid, number, and location, symptomatic fibroids may be considered for myomectomy or hysterectomy.</li><li>• Asymptomatic Fibroids: Fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not require immediate intervention. Instead, they can be observed with yearly ultrasounds or reviewed earlier if symptoms develop.</li><li>• Asymptomatic Fibroids:</li><li>• Common Symptoms of Fibroids: These include heavy menstrual bleeding, dysmenorrhea, pressure symptoms, and the presence of an abdominal mass.</li><li>• Common Symptoms of Fibroids:</li><li>• Management of Symptomatic Fibroids: Depending on the patient's age, size of the fibroid, number, and location, symptomatic fibroids may be considered for myomectomy or hysterectomy.</li><li>• Management of Symptomatic Fibroids:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Hysterectomy: This is a major surgical procedure and is typically reserved for symptomatic fibroids or when other treatment options have failed or are not suitable.</li><li>• Option A. Hysterectomy:</li><li>• Option B. Myomectomy: Myomectomy is a surgical procedure to remove fibroids and is considered for symptomatic patients who wish to preserve their uterus.</li><li>• Option B. Myomectomy:</li><li>• Option D. Medical management: Medical management is used to manage symptoms and is not necessary for asymptomatic fibroids.</li><li>• Option D. Medical management:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In asymptomatic patients with fibroids, intervention is generally not required. Observation and regular monitoring are appropriate unless symptoms develop, in which case, further management options such as myomectomy or hysterectomy may be considered.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg207</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg207</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs exacerbates myasthenia and is usually avoided in a patient with myasthenia gravis? ( INICET Nov 2020) 1. Lidocaine 2. Aspirin 3. Meropenem 4. Phenytoin", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-161810.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DRUGS THAT SHOULD BE AVOIDED IN MYSTHENIA GRAVIS</li><li>➤ DRUGS THAT SHOULD BE AVOIDED IN MYSTHENIA GRAVIS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A known asthmatic patient with fever and sore throat was prescribed an antibiotic. Two days later he presents with a maculopapular rash. Which of the following drugs might have caused this? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prednisolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salbutamol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fexofenadine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amoxicillin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Amoxicillin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Amoxicillin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amoxicillin, an aminopenicillin antibiotic, is commonly associated with allergic reactions, including maculopapular rashes. This is a well-known side effect of penicillin antibiotics. Prednisolone, salbutamol, and fexofenadine are less likely to cause such reactions, and in the case of prednisolone and fexofenadine, they are actually used to treat allergic reactions and rashes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is your diagnosis with respect to the findings shown in the peripheral smear given below? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hereditary spherocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B12 deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/990.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of macro-ovalocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils in a peripheral smear is indicative of B12 deficiency and megaloblastic anemia.</li><li>➤ macro-ovalocytes</li><li>➤ hypersegmented neutrophils</li><li>➤ B12 deficiency</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What investigations would you recommend for a female patient who presents with a 4cm x 3cm irregular mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast and a palpated lymph node of 2cm in the right axilla, but no mass palpated in the opposite breast? (AIIMS NOV 2020) Bilateral Mammography PET Scan Biopsy of the breast mass USG guided biopsy of the lymph node", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-160532.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Balamuthia mandrillaris: Uses pseudopodia for movement. Balantidium coli: Uses cilia for locomotion. Trichomonas vaginalis: Uses flagella for movement. Toxoplasma gondii: Exhibits gliding motility, a substrate-dependent movement without the use of traditional locomotory organelles.</li><li>➤ Balamuthia mandrillaris: Uses pseudopodia for movement.</li><li>➤ Balamuthia mandrillaris:</li><li>➤ Balantidium coli: Uses cilia for locomotion.</li><li>➤ Balantidium coli:</li><li>➤ Trichomonas vaginalis: Uses flagella for movement.</li><li>➤ Trichomonas vaginalis:</li><li>➤ Toxoplasma gondii: Exhibits gliding motility, a substrate-dependent movement without the use of traditional locomotory organelles.</li><li>➤ Toxoplasma gondii:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a good prognostic factor in schizophrenia? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Positive symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Late age of onset", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insidious onset of symptoms", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Associated with depression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Insidious onset of symptoms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/screenshot-2023-10-12-124205.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Insidious onset of symptoms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 62.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is reviewing populations targeted by the HIV sentinel surveillance program. Which group is NOT traditionally included in HIV sentinel surveillance? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Single male migrants", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Truck drivers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "STD clinic attendees", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antenatal woman", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. STD clinic attendees", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) STD clinic attendees</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sites for HIV sentinel surveillance includes:</li><li>➤ A pregnant woman of reproductive age and attending the antenatal clinic for the first time. Female sex workers. Hijra/Transgenders. IV drug users Truckers. Homosexual Men Migrants.</li><li>➤ A pregnant woman of reproductive age and attending the antenatal clinic for the first time.</li><li>➤ Female sex workers.</li><li>➤ Hijra/Transgenders.</li><li>➤ IV drug users</li><li>➤ Truckers.</li><li>➤ Homosexual Men</li><li>➤ Migrants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Correct sequence after p wave: (INICET NOV 2020) A- 'a' wave B- 1st heart sound C-Rapid filling of ventricles D- 't' wave", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ABCD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CABD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ABDC", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ACBD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ABDC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ABDC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Electrical events precede mechanical events in cardiac homeostasis</li><li>➤ P wave→ Atrial contraction (a wave).</li><li>➤ QRS→ ventricular contraction (C wave)</li><li>➤ T wave→ Ventricular relaxation (Early rapid filling (Y descent)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cardiology/Clinical/ chap 239</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the objective tests used to assess hearing? BERA (Brainstem evoked response audiometry) OAE (Otoacoustic emission) PTA (Pure tone audiometry) Tympanometry", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/picture36.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/02/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Objective tests such as BERA, OAE, and Tympanometry provide essential diagnostic data without requiring any active response from the patient, thus suitable for use in patients who may not be able to respond reliably, such as young children or those with certain disabilities.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 25, 26, 29</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 25, 26, 29</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On your evening walk in the park, you notice an unconscious man lying on the ground. What would you do next? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Check carotid pulse, start CPR, and call for help, Defibrillate if no pulse.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Call for help, check pulse, do CPR, defibrillate if no pulse", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Observe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ignore and continue to walk", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Call for help, check pulse, do CPR, defibrillate if no pulse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Call for help, check pulse, do CPR, defibrillate if no pulse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Call for help, check pulse, do CPR, defibrillate if no pulse: This is the recommended sequence in most bystander situations. Firstly, ensure scene safety (make sure you're not putting yourself or the individual in further danger). Then, call for help or ask someone nearby to do so. This ensures that professional medical help is on the way. After calling for help, you’d check the pulse and breathing. If the person is not breathing and/or doesn’t have a pulse, you would start CPR. If an Automated External Defibrillator (AED) is available and the person doesn’t have a pulse, you would use it as soon as possible.</li><li>• Call for help, check pulse, do CPR, defibrillate if no pulse:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Check carotid pulse, start CPR, and call for help, Defibrillate if no pulse: While checking the pulse and starting CPR is correct, calling for help first ensures that professional medical assistance is on the way, which is crucial for the best chance of survival.</li><li>• Option A. Check carotid pulse, start CPR, and call for help, Defibrillate if no pulse:</li><li>• Option C. Observe: This is not the recommended approach. Immediate intervention is critical when someone is unconscious, especially if they are not breathing or lack a pulse. Delays in initiating CPR or calling for help can drastically reduce the chance of survival and increase the potential for permanent injury.</li><li>• Option C. Observe:</li><li>• Option D. Ignore and continue to walk: This is not an ethical or appropriate response when encountering someone in potential distress. Immediate action can make the difference between life and death.</li><li>• Option D. Ignore and continue to walk:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ In an emergency situation where someone is unconscious, the immediate steps should be to call for help, check for a pulse and breathing, start CPR if needed, and use a defibrillator if available and the person has no pulse.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs 2715-2716</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pgs</li><li>➤ 2715-2716</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The radiograph presented below has been taken to enhance the evaluation of the frontal sinus. What is the widely used term for this particular perspective?( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Water's view", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caldwell view", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pierre's view", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Towne's view", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Caldwell view", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/34.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/named-views_page_1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/named-views_page_2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/named-views_page_3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/29/named-views_page_4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-180239.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Caldwell view</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following structures are cut in mediolateral episiotomy except? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transverse perineal muscles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obturator muscle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bulbospongiosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transverse perineal branches of pudendal nerves", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Obturator muscle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Obturator muscle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The obturator muscle is not cut in a mediolateral episiotomy. It is located deeper in the pelvis and is not involved in the incision made during this procedure.</li><li>• Structures cut in a mediolateral episiotomy:</li><li>• Structures cut in a mediolateral episiotomy:</li><li>• Posterior vaginal wall mucosa Perineal muscles: Superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles Bulbospongiosus Part of levator ani Subcutaneous tissue and skin</li><li>• Posterior vaginal wall mucosa</li><li>• Posterior vaginal wall mucosa</li><li>• Perineal muscles: Superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles Bulbospongiosus Part of levator ani</li><li>• Perineal muscles:</li><li>• Superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles Bulbospongiosus Part of levator ani</li><li>• Superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles</li><li>• Bulbospongiosus</li><li>• Part of levator ani</li><li>• Subcutaneous tissue and skin</li><li>• Subcutaneous tissue and skin</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• In a mediolateral episiotomy, the following structures are typically cut to facilitate childbirth:</li><li>• Option A. Transverse perineal muscles: These include the superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles.</li><li>• Option A. Transverse perineal muscles:</li><li>• Option C. Bulbospongiosus: A muscle of the perineum that is also incised during the procedure.</li><li>• Option C. Bulbospongiosus:</li><li>• Option D. Transverse perineal branches of pudendal nerves: These branches can be affected during the episiotomy.</li><li>• Option D. Transverse perineal branches of pudendal nerves:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a mediolateral episiotomy, various perineal structures, including the posterior vaginal wall mucosa, superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles, bulbospongiosus, part of the levator ani, subcutaneous tissue, and skin, are incised. The obturator muscle is not involved in this procedure.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Pg 649</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition Pg 649</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following bony structures is present behind the marked area? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Post clivus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lesser wing of sphenoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sella turcica", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carotid canal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lesser wing of sphenoid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture333333.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Lesser wing of sphenoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pterion is an H-shaped sutural junction between four bones of the skull:</li><li>➤ The pterion is an H-shaped sutural junction between four bones of the skull:</li><li>➤ 1. Frontal bone</li><li>➤ 2. Squamous part of the temporal bone</li><li>➤ 3. Greater wing of the sphenoid bone</li><li>➤ 4. Parietal bone</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these hormones have intracellular receptors? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thyroxine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucagon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parathormone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thyroxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thyroxine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thyroxine acts by binding to intracellular nuclear receptors, initiating transcription and subsequent protein synthesis. This distinguishes it from hormones like epinephrine, glucagon, and parathormone, which bind to receptors on the cell membrane.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The structures marked in the image below are found in the epithelial lining of all of the following sites, except? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oviduct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epididymis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchi", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ependyma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epididymis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-95.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-96.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Epididymis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ciliated epithelium:</li><li>➤ Ciliated epithelium:</li><li>➤ The epithelium bears cilia, which moves in a coordinated fashion, and help in the movement of the mucus, or propel the movement of any other structures such as ova or spermatozoa. The ciliated columnar epithelium is found in most of the respiratory tract, the uterus, and the uterine tube (oviduct), efferent ductules of the testis, parts of the middle ear and auditory tube; the ependyma lining the central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricles of the brain. The pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is seen in the trachea and in large bronchi.</li><li>➤ The epithelium bears cilia, which moves in a coordinated fashion, and help in the movement of the mucus, or propel the movement of any other structures such as ova or spermatozoa.</li><li>➤ The ciliated columnar epithelium is found in most of the respiratory tract, the uterus, and the uterine tube (oviduct), efferent ductules of the testis, parts of the middle ear and auditory tube; the ependyma lining the central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricles of the brain.</li><li>➤ The pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is seen in the trachea and in large bronchi.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following disease has the highest mortality once clinically manifested? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nipah", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rabies", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebola", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zika", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rabies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rabies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rabies has the highest mortality rate once clinical symptoms appear, making it virtually 100% fatal without immediate post-exposure prophylaxis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Intercellular communication in eukaryotes is by? ( NICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lysosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peroxisome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exosome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Exosome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Exosome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Exosomes are key players in intercellular communication in eukaryotes, mediating the transfer of various biomolecules between cells and influencing diverse biological processes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with urethral discharge. A gram stain smear is made from the discharge sample and the following microscopic image is seen. What is the most likely causative organism? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichomonas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlamydia trachomatis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gardnerella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neisseria gonorrhea", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/9.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Neisseria gonorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The presence of gram-negative, intracellular, kidney-shaped diplococci in urethral discharge is characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhea, a common causative agent of sexually transmitted infections resulting in urethritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the action of the muscle at the hip, which is attached to the marked area in the image below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abduction and external rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extension and lateral rotation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extension, adduction, and lateral rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flexion and abduction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Extension and lateral rotation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-101.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Extension and lateral rotation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The primary actions of the gluteus maximus are hip extension and lateral rotation. These actions are important for movements like standing up from a sitting position, climbing stairs, and running.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Abduction and external rotation: The gluteus maximus does contribute to abduction but not external rotation. The primary muscles responsible for hip external rotation are the deep muscles of the hip joint.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Abduction and external rotation:</li><li>• Option C . Extension, adduction, and lateral rotation: While extension and lateral rotation are correct, adduction is not a primary action of the gluteus maximus. Adduction is more associated with the adductor muscles of the thigh.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Extension, adduction, and lateral rotation:</li><li>• Option D. Flexion and abduction: Flexion and abduction are not the primary actions of the gluteus maximus. These movements are primarily associated with other muscles like the iliopsoas for hip flexion and the tensor fasciae latae for hip abduction.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Flexion and abduction:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The gluteus maximus muscle, which is attached to the gluteal tuberosity of the femur, primarily performs hip extension and lateral rotation. These actions are essential for tasks such as standing up, climbing stairs, and running. Remember, despite contributing to abduction, the gluteus maximus does not support external rotation as a primary action.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ketosis is common in type 1 DM due to: ( INICET Nov 2020) 1. Decreased beta-oxidation of fatty acids 2. Increased mobilization of fat from the adipose cell 3. Decreased acetyl Co in TCA cycle 4. Increased beta-hydroxy butyrate synthase", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2,3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,2,3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2,3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011094.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Ketosis in type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by increased mobilization of fat from adipose tissue, decreased entry of acetyl CoA into the TCA cycle, and increased production of ketone bodies, particularly beta-hydroxybutyrate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Reticular fibres are not present in which of the following structures? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thymus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymph node", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bone marrow", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spleen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thymus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Thymus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Reticular fibres are not present in the thymus. The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ involved in the development and maturation of T lymphocytes (T cells) and does not contain a significant amount of reticular fibers.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Lymph Node: Lymph nodes contain reticular fibers within their structure. Reticular fibers in lymph nodes create a network that supports immune cells, such as lymphocytes and macrophages, as they filter and process lymphatic fluid.</li><li>• Option B. Lymph Node:</li><li>• Option C. Bone Marrow: Reticular fibers are found in the bone marrow. They contribute to the framework of the bone marrow, supporting blood-forming cells and various hematopoietic elements involved in blood cell production.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Bone Marrow:</li><li>• Option D. Spleen: Reticular fibers are present in the spleen. Similar to lymph nodes, the spleen contains reticular fibers that support immune cells and help filter blood.</li><li>• Option D. Spleen:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reticular fibres:</li><li>➤ Reticular fibres:</li><li>➤ A form of connective tissue fibre known as reticular fibres, reticular fibres, or reticulin is made of type III collagen released by reticular cells. Crosslinking reticular fibres create a delicate meshwork (reticulin). Soft tissues like the liver, bone marrow, and the tissues and organs of the lymphatic system benefit from the support provided by this network.</li><li>➤ They differ from type I collagen fibres in that, they are finer and are arranged in the form of a network (reticulum). The fibres appear black in colour on staining with silver impregnation. Due to this affinity to silver salts, they are also known as argentophil fibres.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-month-old child with Hb 6.3 was undergoing repeated blood transfusions. The last transfusion was given in the 9th month. Which of the following investigation is used for a definitive diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High performance liquid chromatography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ferritin levels estimation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bone marrow aspiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Globin gene sequencing", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Globin gene sequencing", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/111.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Globin gene sequencing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Globin gene sequencing is the definitive test for diagnosing thalassemia, a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with the complaints of chest pain. Which among the following is the best investigation to diagnose MI within 2-4 hours? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Troponin-T", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CKMB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BNP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Troponin-T", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-110113.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Troponin – T</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rise by &gt;20%of troponin is used for diagnosis of Reinfarction</li><li>➤ Newer biomarkers: HFABP, miRNA1,21,33</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - (Cardiology/Biomarkers, MI)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old medical student developed epistaxis that resolved spontaneously. He has been afebrile for the last 24 hours and his platelet count is 14,000/µL. His BP is 110/70 mm of Hg and there is a 28% rise in hematocrit. What should be the management? (INICET NOV 2020) 1. Give 4 units of platelets 2. Give plenty of oral fluids 3. Give IV fluids 4. Keep under observation 5. Discharge the patient", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In dengue hemorrhagic fever, management focuses on careful fluid management and close observation during the critical phase to prevent or manage complications such as shock. Platelet transfusions are not routinely given based solely on low counts but are reserved for cases of significant clinical bleeding or extremely low platelet counts.</li><li>➤ Note - There is no correlation between bleeding manifestation and platelet count.</li><li>➤ Note</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Dengue Case management for Clinicians- CDC</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old male was brought to the emergency room following a road traffic accident. On examination, his GCS was E2M2V3. He had no fractures and no hydrocephalus or raised intracranial pressure. Non-contrast CT was performed and was found to be normal. The likely diagnosis is? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diffuse axonal injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post-concussion syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extra Dural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herniation of brain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diffuse axonal injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-168.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A Diffuse axonal injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario of the patient who had an RTA presents with an abnormal clinical manifestation and no imaging abnormality suggests diffuse axonal injury.</li><li>• C/F: High energy trauma (road traffic accident) + Low GCS score / comatose</li><li>• C/F:</li><li>• Initial investigation for DAI→ NCCT: Normal or tiny microbleeds</li><li>• IOC for DAI → MRI</li><li>• IOC for DAI</li><li>• Sequence of MRI best: SWI/ Gradient MR: Shows blooming suggestive of axonal shearing</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Post-concussion syndrome: Patients with post-concussion syndrome have mild traumatic brain injury. It does not present with a severe clinical status as seen in this patient.</li><li>• Option B. Post-concussion syndrome:</li><li>• Option C. Extra Dural hemorrhage: Extradural hemorrhage results secondary to trauma to head. The bleeding is usually arterial and blood collects between outer dura and inner table of the skull. It can very well be visualized on CT.</li><li>• Option C. Extra Dural hemorrhage:</li><li>• Option D. Post-concussion syndrome: A cerebral herniation is a shift of cerebral tissue in an adjacent space. Intracranial brain herniation can be classified into 3 types - subfalcine, trans tentorial and tonsillar. A distinct clinical picture can be produced as a result of compression of neurovascular structures by the herniating part. CT is the imaging modality of choice because it can be done rapidly.</li><li>• Option D. Post-concussion syndrome:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of road traffic accidents where a patient presents with a significant neurological deficit and a normal initial CT scan, diffuse axonal injury should be considered. An MRI with specific sequences is required to confirm the diagnosis and understand the extent of injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In skeletal muscle, dihydropyridine and ryanodine receptors are coupled by?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chemically", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Electrically", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chemically and then electrically", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mechanically", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mechanically", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mechanically</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In skeletal muscle, the dihydropyridine and ryanodine receptors are coupled mechanically, meaning their interaction and functional coupling rely on direct physical contacts between these protein structures to initiate muscle contraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a finding of large bowel obstruction? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dilated loops of intestine with valvulae conniventes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "String of pearls sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central dilated bowel loops", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dilated loops with haustrations", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dilated loops with haustrations", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Dilated loops with haustrations</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Dilated bowel loops with haustrations is a feature of large bowel obstruction.</li><li>• Large bowel obstructions have colonic distension proximal to the obstruction with the distal portion collapsed. The colon is considered dilated if it is more than 6 cm in diameter while the cut off for caecum is 9cm.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Dilated loops of intestine with valvulae conniventes: Dilated loops of the intestine with plica circulars (valvulae conniventes) and predominantly central loops are features of the small bowel obstruction. The small bowel is considered dilated if it is more than 3 cm in diameter.</li><li>• Option A. Dilated loops of intestine with valvulae conniventes:</li><li>• Option B. String of pearls sign: The string of pearls sign is also a feature of small bowel obstruction seen in plain radiographs or CT. It represents a row of gas bubbles trapped between the valvulae conniventes.</li><li>• Option B. String of pearls sign:</li><li>• Option C. Central dilated bowel loops: While central dilation can occur in any intestinal obstruction, it is more typical of small bowel obstruction where the loops tend to centrally accumulate.</li><li>• Option C. Central dilated bowel loops:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Identifying dilated loops with haustrations is critical for diagnosing large bowel obstruction, helping differentiate it from small bowel obstruction, which features dilated loops with valvulae conniventes and may show the string of pearls sign.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In spine straightening surgeries, screws used for fixation are inserted through which of the following parts of the vertebra? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spinous process", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pedicle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lamina", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Facet joint", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pedicle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-04-12%20122712.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pedicle of the vertebra is the area used to fixate the screws through during the spine straightening surgeries for scoliosis.</li><li>➤ Pedicle of the vertebra is the area used to fixate the screws through during the spine straightening surgeries for scoliosis.</li><li>➤ Pedicle of the vertebra is the area used to fixate the screws through during the spine straightening surgeries for scoliosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presents with a swollen foot and multiple sinuses as shown in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycetoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nocardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mycetoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mycetoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mycetoma is characterized by swelling, draining sinuses, and colonial grains in exudates, and is common among individuals who walk barefoot. The diagnosis is supported by clinical presentation, histology, and the color of the grains. Treatment involves surgical debridement and prolonged antibiotic therapy for actinomycetoma or antifungal therapy for eumycetoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young woman was found dead at home under mysterious circumstances. Her live-in partner was reported missing. These were the postmortem images taken by the forensic photographer. Which of the following is the likely cause of her death? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Throttling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strangulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hanging", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mugging", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Throttling", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-28.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-29_cVBvNJU.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Throttling involves manual strangulation by applying pressure to the neck, causing bruises, abrasions, and contusions, and can lead to death by occlusion of blood supply or airway and pressure on the carotid sinus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The transplacental transmission of the organism given in the image which causes microcephaly is: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nipah", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zika virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella ", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Zika virus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Zika Virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Zika virus is known for causing microcephaly through transplacental transmission by infecting and damaging neural progenitor cells in the developing fetal brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation is used to reduce pain. What is the mechanism behind this?(INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desensitization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gate control theory", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Descending inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gate control theory", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-5_1-6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gate control theory</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) reduces pain through the gate control theory, which involves blocking pain signals at the spinal cord level by activating large diameter afferent fibers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following in the sequence of auditory pathway: ( INICET Nov 2020) Cochlear nucleus Spiral ganglion Superior olivary nucleus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 - 4 - 3 - 2 - 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 - 1 - 3 - 4 - 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 - 4 - 5 - 1 - 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 - 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 - 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of structures involved in the auditory pathway from the periphery to the center is (E COLI MA). Eighth (Vestibulocochlear) nerve Cochlear Nucleus Superior Olivary nucleus Lateral lemniscus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body Auditory cortex The spiral ganglion situated in Rosenthal's canal contains bipolar cells. The dendrites of these bipolar cells join to form the cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve which ends in the cochlear nuclei.</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of structures involved in the auditory pathway from the periphery to the center is (E COLI MA). Eighth (Vestibulocochlear) nerve Cochlear Nucleus Superior Olivary nucleus Lateral lemniscus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body Auditory cortex</li><li>➤ Eighth (Vestibulocochlear) nerve Cochlear Nucleus Superior Olivary nucleus Lateral lemniscus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body Auditory cortex</li><li>➤ Eighth (Vestibulocochlear) nerve</li><li>➤ Cochlear Nucleus</li><li>➤ Superior Olivary nucleus</li><li>➤ Lateral lemniscus</li><li>➤ Inferior colliculus</li><li>➤ Medial geniculate body</li><li>➤ Auditory cortex</li><li>➤ The spiral ganglion situated in Rosenthal's canal contains bipolar cells. The dendrites of these bipolar cells join to form the cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve which ends in the cochlear nuclei.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a researcher aiming to compile and analyze data from various independent studies to enhance the precision of treatment effect estimates for a specific medical condition. Which of the following methodologies is most appropriate for achieving this objective? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systematic review", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meta-analysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "RCT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Meta-analysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Meta-analysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meta-analysis is the most effective quantitative approach for synthesizing data from multiple research studies to derive a more precise estimate of the treatment effect. Preference of epidemiological studies for establishing causality - 1st preference is - Meta-analysis</li><li>➤ Meta-analysis is the most effective quantitative approach for synthesizing data from multiple research studies to derive a more precise estimate of the treatment effect.</li><li>➤ Preference of epidemiological studies for establishing causality - 1st preference is - Meta-analysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Affinity maturation is due to: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isotype switching", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Somatic hypermutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "mRNA splicing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VDJ rearrangement", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Somatic hypermutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Somatic hypermutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Affinity maturation, which results in the production of high-affinity antibodies, is primarily due to somatic hypermutation (SHM) of immunoglobulin genes in B cells, coupled with selective survival and proliferation of B cells producing high-affinity antibodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gibbs free energy curve of an enzyme-catalysed reaction is given by? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011091.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011091-1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011093.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Gibbs free energy curve of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is best represented by Curve A, which shows the formation of a transition state and the reduction in activation energy, leading to the production of the final product.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given condition is caused by which drug? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Actinomycin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bleomycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitomycin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doxorubicin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bleomycin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13550.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture5_OFqjQ6s.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/screenshot-2023-11-27-102206.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bleomycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For medical students and residents, it is crucial to identify bleomycin as the chemotherapeutic agent that can cause flagellate hyperpigmentation , a dermatological side effect not commonly associated with actinomycin, mitomycin C, or doxorubicin.</li><li>➤ bleomycin</li><li>➤ chemotherapeutic agent</li><li>➤ flagellate hyperpigmentation</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 4 &amp; 120, Page no 4.12 &amp; 120.8</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 4 &amp; 120, Page no 4.12 &amp; 120.8</li><li>➤ Goodman &amp; Gillman’s The pharmacological basis of therapeutics 13 th edition Page no 1193</li><li>➤ Goodman &amp; Gillman’s The pharmacological basis of therapeutics 13 th edition Page no 1193</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3702947/</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3702947/</li><li>➤ https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/share/F7KSRDKWUJX3W2GZTEAC?target=10.1002/ski2.92</li><li>➤ https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/share/F7KSRDKWUJX3W2GZTEAC?target=10.1002/ski2.92</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old woman presents with abnormal uterine bleeding for two months. What is the next line of management? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LNG- IUCD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "POP for 3 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometrial sampling", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Endometrial sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Endometrial sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The next line of management in a 50-year-old woman with abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is an endometrial biopsy. This is crucial to rule out endometrial hyperplasia or malignancy, especially in a peri-menopausal woman.</li><li>• Indications for Endometrial Sampling:</li><li>• Indications for Endometrial Sampling:</li><li>• Peri-menopausal women with AUB. Hyperestrogenic states like obesity or tamoxifen treatment with thickened endometrium on transvaginal sonography (TVS). Women with failed medical management and persistent bleeding. Transvaginal ultrasound findings of endometrial thickness &gt;12 mm in premenopausal women and &gt;4 mm in postmenopausal women.</li><li>• Peri-menopausal women with AUB.</li><li>• Hyperestrogenic states like obesity or tamoxifen treatment with thickened endometrium on transvaginal sonography (TVS).</li><li>• Women with failed medical management and persistent bleeding.</li><li>• Transvaginal ultrasound findings of endometrial thickness &gt;12 mm in premenopausal women and &gt;4 mm in postmenopausal women.</li><li>• Methods of Endometrial Sampling:</li><li>• Methods of Endometrial Sampling:</li><li>• Curettage Aspiration biopsy using Pipelle or Vibra aspirator</li><li>• Curettage</li><li>• Aspiration biopsy using Pipelle or Vibra aspirator</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. LNG-IUCD: The Levonorgestrel intrauterine device (LNG-IUCD) is a treatment option but should be considered after ruling out malignancy.</li><li>• Option A. LNG-IUCD:</li><li>• Option B. POP for 3 months: Progestin-only pills (POP) can be used to manage AUB, but endometrial sampling should be done first to rule out malignancy.</li><li>• Option B. POP for 3 months:</li><li>• Option C. Hysterectomy: Hysterectomy is a definitive treatment but is considered after other management options and ruling out malignancy.</li><li>• Option C. Hysterectomy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In peri-menopausal women presenting with abnormal uterine bleeding, the first step is to perform endometrial sampling to rule out endometrial hyperplasia or malignancy before considering other treatment modalities.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg184</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg184</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about disulfiram? (INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "When used with alcohol, the patients develops nausea, vomiting, flushing, chest discomfort and palpitations", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is an anti-craving drug for alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It can be initiated even in minimally motivated person", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Its action persists maximum up to 2-3 days after stopping the drug", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. When used with alcohol, the patients develops nausea, vomiting, flushing, chest discomfort and palpitations", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. When used with alcohol, the patients develops nausea, vomiting, flushing, chest discomfort and palpitations</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Disulfiram, when used concurrently with alcohol, causes a severe and unpleasant reaction due to the accumulation of acetaldehyde, including nausea, vomiting, flushing, chest discomfort, and palpitations, serving as a deterrent to alcohol consumption. It should be used in highly motivated individuals committed to abstaining from alcohol.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the level of the cross-section shown in the image below. ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T1 - T2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T2 - T3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T3 - T4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "T4 - T5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. T3 - T4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-103.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/ia-104.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. T3 - T4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The cross-section shown in the image is at the level of T3-T4.</li><li>• A massive vascular opening for the aortic arch is visible in the cross-section, along with three smaller holes for the brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery, and left subclavian artery. This implies that the level of the segment was somewhere between T3 and T4.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Options A, B: In cross-sections at the levels of T1-T2 and T2-T3, only the small vascular openings of the branches arising from the arch of aorta would be visible.</li><li>• Options A, B:</li><li>• Option D: In cross-section at the level of T4-T5, where, the arch of the aorta begins and ends, bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk is visible.</li><li>• Option D:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ At the T3-T4 level, the cross-section prominently features the aortic arch along with openings for the brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery, and left subclavian artery, which are key identifiers for this segment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The maximum thermic effect is seen with a meal which has? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protein", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fat", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbohydrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mixed meal having all 3 in equal amount", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Protein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Protein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The maximum thermic effect is seen with protein-rich meals, as proteins require more energy for digestion, absorption, and metabolism compared to fats and carbohydrates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. Thompson, a 58-year-old male, underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy for the treatment of gallstones. Following the procedure, he complained of abdominal pain and fever. Upon further evaluation, it was found that he had a bile leak. The surgeon ordered imaging tests to identify the extent of the bile duct injury. The imaging results showed injury to the right aberrant posterior sectoral duct with bile leak. What would be the Strasberg classification of this injury? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type В", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Type C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-125539.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Type C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following enzymes are involved in gluconeogenesis? ( INICET Nov 2020) A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Phosphoenol pyruvate kinase C. Hexokinase D. Pyruvate kinase E. Glucose 6 phosphatase", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B and E only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B and C only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A and E only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, B and C only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A, B and E only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/06/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011067_4pnsnxo.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A, B and E only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The enzymes pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, and glucose-6-phosphatase are essential for gluconeogenesis, a metabolic pathway that synthesizes glucose from non-carbohydrate substrates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with 12 weeks amenorrhea presents with vaginal bleeding. On examination, the cervical os is open and the uterus is 14 weeks size. USG shows a snowstorm appearance. The next best step in the management is? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medical management", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follow up with beta-hCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Suction and evacuation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Suction and evacuation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Suction and evacuation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The snowstorm appearance on ultrasound is characteristic of a complete molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole). Molar pregnancies are abnormal pregnancies where there is an overgrowth of trophoblastic tissue.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Complete Molar Pregnancy: Presents with vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus greater than expected for gestational age, and a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Treatment: The primary treatment for a molar pregnancy is suction and evacuation to remove the abnormal trophoblastic tissue. Post-Evacuation Surveillance: After evacuation, it is crucial to monitor beta-hCG levels to ensure complete removal of the molar tissue and to detect any possible malignancy (e.g., choriocarcinoma).</li><li>• Complete Molar Pregnancy: Presents with vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus greater than expected for gestational age, and a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound.</li><li>• Complete Molar Pregnancy:</li><li>• Treatment: The primary treatment for a molar pregnancy is suction and evacuation to remove the abnormal trophoblastic tissue.</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Post-Evacuation Surveillance: After evacuation, it is crucial to monitor beta-hCG levels to ensure complete removal of the molar tissue and to detect any possible malignancy (e.g., choriocarcinoma).</li><li>• Post-Evacuation Surveillance:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Medical management: Medical management is not appropriate for molar pregnancy, as surgical evacuation is necessary.</li><li>• Option A. Medical management:</li><li>• Option B. Follow up with beta-hCG: Beta-hCG monitoring is essential after the initial treatment but not before the evacuation of the molar tissue.</li><li>• Option B. Follow up with beta-hCG:</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy: Hysterectomy is not the first line of treatment for a molar pregnancy unless there are specific complications or risk factors warranting such an invasive procedure.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The management of a molar pregnancy involves suction and evacuation to remove the abnormal trophoblastic tissue, followed by post-evacuation surveillance with beta-hCG levels to monitor for persistent gestational trophoblastic disease or malignancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s Textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 614</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s Textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 614</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which curve among the following represents the production of gamma-globin chains?(INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Green Curve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Black Curve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue Curve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Orange curve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Orange curve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-5_1-2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-5_1-4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Orange curve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The orange curve in the provided image represents the production of gamma-globin chains, which are crucial during the fetal period and decline after birth as beta-globin production increases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following pupillary abnormalities is most likely to be observed in a patient with primary open-angle glaucoma? ( INICET Nov 2020", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Marcus Gunn pupil", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adie's tonic pupil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Argyll-Robertson pupil", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hutchinson's pupil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Marcus Gunn pupil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marcus Gunn pupil, or relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), is an important clinical sign in primary open-angle glaucoma, indicating asymmetric optic nerve damage, and is identified using the swinging flashlight test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient undergoes a pacemaker replacement procedure at a tertiary care hospital. The surgeon successfully replaces the pacemaker and hands over the used device to the nursing staff for proper disposal as per biomedical waste management guidelines. According to the guidelines for biomedical waste management, in which colored bag should the used pacemaker be discarded? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "White", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Black", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Blue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-092807_2cmcsm5.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Blue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old boy collapsed while playing football. ECG showed V5, V6 inversion and prominent inverted T-waves. 2D echocardiography showed the septal anterior motion of mitral valve leaflet. Which of the following features will be seen on clinical examination and which of the following are true regarding the management? (INICET NOV 2020) Clinical findings a. Pulsus bisferiens b. Pulsus alternans c. Ejection systolic murmur d. Murmur increases on standing e. Murmur decreases on standing Management 1. Beta-blockers are given 2. Beta-blockers are contraindicated 3. ICD is indicated 4. ICD is contraindicated", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 &amp; 3; a, c, d", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 &amp; 4; b, c, e", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 &amp; 3; a, d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 &amp; 4; b, e", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 & 3; a, c, d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key Points:</li><li>➤ Key Points:</li><li>➤ All murmurs decrease on standing except MVP and HCM.</li><li>➤ All murmurs decrease on standing except MVP and HCM.</li><li>➤ Pulsus bisferiens can be seen in HCM</li><li>➤ Pulsus bisferiens can be seen in HCM</li><li>➤ HCM is characterized by myocyte disarray &amp; fibrosis causing increase risk of sudden cardiac death &amp; arrhythmias.</li><li>➤ HCM is characterized by myocyte disarray &amp; fibrosis causing increase risk of sudden cardiac death &amp; arrhythmias.</li><li>➤ Pulsus alternans is seen in LVF</li><li>➤ Pulsus alternans is seen in LVF</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Basics of CVS/Chap 239</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these options is not a division originating from the external carotid artery within Kiesselbach's plexus? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sphenopalatine artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Greater palatine artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Septal branch of superior labial artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/picture1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ARTERIAL SUPPLY OF THE NOSE:</li><li>➤ ARTERIAL SUPPLY OF THE NOSE:</li><li>➤ Internal carotid system -</li><li>➤ Internal carotid system -</li><li>➤ Branches of ophthalmic artery Anterior ethmoidal artery Posterior ethmoidal artery</li><li>➤ Branches of ophthalmic artery</li><li>➤ Anterior ethmoidal artery</li><li>➤ Posterior ethmoidal artery</li><li>➤ External Carotid System –</li><li>➤ External Carotid System –</li><li>➤ Sphenopalatine artery (branch of maxillary artery) gives nasopalatine and posterior medial nasal branches. Septal branch of greater palatine artery (branch of maxillary artery). Septal branch of superior labial artery (branch of facial artery).</li><li>➤ Sphenopalatine artery (branch of maxillary artery) gives nasopalatine and posterior medial nasal branches.</li><li>➤ Septal branch of greater palatine artery (branch of maxillary artery).</li><li>➤ Septal branch of superior labial artery (branch of facial artery).</li><li>➤ KIESSELBACH'S PLEXUS -</li><li>➤ KIESSELBACH'S PLEXUS -</li><li>➤ Four arteries anastomose at the anterior inferior part of nasal septum to form a vascular plexus called Kiesselbach's plexus.</li><li>➤ Anterior ethmoidal Septal branch of superior labial Septal branch of sphenopalatine Septal branch of greater palatine</li><li>➤ Anterior ethmoidal</li><li>➤ Septal branch of superior labial</li><li>➤ Septal branch of sphenopalatine</li><li>➤ Septal branch of greater palatine</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 198</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 198</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following groups of people must be screened for Ca cervix: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "More than 65 years old", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Less than 25 years old", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "25 to 65-year-old females", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Teenagers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 25 to 65-year-old females", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 25 to 65-year-old females</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) and the American Cancer Society (ACS) guidelines (2020), cervical cancer screening is recommended for women aged 25 to 65 years. The guidelines specify the following:</li><li>• ACOG/ACS Guidelines (2020):</li><li>• ACOG/ACS Guidelines (2020):</li><li>• Begin screening at age 25. Ages 25 to 65: HPV testing every 5 years (preferred). HPV/Pap co-testing every 5 years (acceptable). Pap test alone every 3 years (acceptable). Age &gt;65: No testing required if a series of previous tests were normal.</li><li>• Begin screening at age 25.</li><li>• Begin screening at age 25.</li><li>• Ages 25 to 65: HPV testing every 5 years (preferred). HPV/Pap co-testing every 5 years (acceptable). Pap test alone every 3 years (acceptable).</li><li>• Ages 25 to 65:</li><li>• HPV testing every 5 years (preferred). HPV/Pap co-testing every 5 years (acceptable). Pap test alone every 3 years (acceptable).</li><li>• HPV testing every 5 years (preferred).</li><li>• HPV/Pap co-testing every 5 years (acceptable).</li><li>• Pap test alone every 3 years (acceptable).</li><li>• Age &gt;65: No testing required if a series of previous tests were normal.</li><li>• Age &gt;65:</li><li>• WHO Guidelines (2020):</li><li>• WHO Guidelines (2020):</li><li>• Begin screening at age 30. Primary mode of screening: HPV testing. Frequency: Every 5 to 10 years.</li><li>• Begin screening at age 30.</li><li>• Begin screening at age 30.</li><li>• Primary mode of screening: HPV testing.</li><li>• Primary mode of screening:</li><li>• Frequency: Every 5 to 10 years.</li><li>• Frequency:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. More than 65 years old: Screening is generally not required for women over 65 if they have had a series of normal screening results.</li><li>• Option A. More than 65 years old:</li><li>• Option B. Less than 25 years old: Screening is not recommended for women under 25 according to ACOG/ACS guidelines.</li><li>• Option B. Less than 25 years old:</li><li>• Option D. Teenagers: Screening is not recommended for teenagers as cervical cancer is extremely rare in this age group and the benefits of screening do not outweigh the potential harms.</li><li>• Option D. Teenagers:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cervical cancer screening is recommended for women aged 25 to 65 years, with various acceptable methods and intervals as specified by the ACOG and ACS guidelines.</li><li>➤ Ref: ACOG guidelines for screening of cervical cancer, WHO guidelines for screening of cervical cancer, Williams Textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition 634, 635.</li><li>➤ Ref: ACOG guidelines for screening of cervical cancer, WHO guidelines for screening of cervical cancer, Williams Textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition 634, 635.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly woman on treatment for migraine presents with chest pain. She has a previous history of ischemic heart disease. Which of the following mechanism of the prescribed drug for migraine might have caused this presentation? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-HT antagonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5-HT agonist", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium Channel Blocker action", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitric oxide mediated vasodilation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5-HT agonist", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 5-HT agonist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5-HT Agonist includes medications like triptans (e.g., sumatriptan), which are commonly used in migraine treatment. Triptans are 5-HT1B/1D receptor agonists and can cause vasoconstriction of blood vessels. In patients with ischemic heart disease, this vasoconstriction can exacerbate angina (chest pain) or precipitate myocardial infarction, especially if the coronary arteries are already compromised.</li><li>➤ 5-HT Agonist</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are working as a casualty medical officer. A 16-year-old girl is brought to the casualty by her parents after alleged sexual assault, the girl refuses physical examination. Which of the following would you do? Start treatment for STD and pregnancy Inform the police Record refusal of consent Take vaginal samples Start medical examination", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ As the girl is under 18 years of age, as per POCSO (The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences) act 2012, the medical practitioner should start treatment for STI &amp; pregnancy, inform the police and record the refusal of consent for examination</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presented with morning stiffness that gradually resolves over one hour. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this condition? (INICET NOV 2020) NSAIDs can improve the symptoms and have disease modifying activity. Absence of erosion rules out the diagnosis. It is associated with raised ESR and CRP. HLA DR4 is related to the prognosis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I, II, III are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "I, III, IV are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "III, IV are correct", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. III, IV are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/screenshot-2024-01-06-162306.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rheumatoid arthritis presents with raised serum ESR and quantitative CRP levels, and HLA DR4 positivity.</li><li>➤ Rheumatoid arthritis presents with raised serum ESR and quantitative CRP levels, and HLA DR4 positivity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the surgery with related nerve injuries: (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3. B-4. C-1. D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-143134.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-143134_ybPrj5F.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The disruption of which of the following is responsible for watery diarrhea in cholera caused by Vibrio? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intercalated discs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macula densa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zonula occludens ", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemidesmosomes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Zonula occludens ", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Zonula occludens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The disruption of zonula occludens (tight junctions) by cholera toxin is responsible for the increased permeability of intestinal epithelial cells, leading to the characteristic watery diarrhea seen in cholera.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman visits an infertility clinic. She has a regular 28-day cycle. How should she be evaluated? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum progesterone on day 14", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum progesterone on day 21", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum LH on day 14", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum LH on day 21", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Serum progesterone on day 21", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Serum progesterone on day 21</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For a woman with a regular 28-day cycle, serum progesterone is typically measured on day 21 to assess for ovulation. Progesterone levels on day 21 of the menstrual cycle provide information about whether ovulation has occurred.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Day 21 Progesterone Measurement: In a regular 28-day cycle, day 21 corresponds to the mid-luteal phase, about 7 days after ovulation. Progesterone levels peak during this time, and values above 10 ng/mL are indicative of ovulation. Purpose: This test helps to determine if the cycles are ovulatory or anovulatory.</li><li>• Day 21 Progesterone Measurement: In a regular 28-day cycle, day 21 corresponds to the mid-luteal phase, about 7 days after ovulation. Progesterone levels peak during this time, and values above 10 ng/mL are indicative of ovulation.</li><li>• Day 21 Progesterone Measurement:</li><li>• Purpose: This test helps to determine if the cycles are ovulatory or anovulatory.</li><li>• Purpose:</li><li>• Other tests for ovulation:</li><li>• Other tests for ovulation:</li><li>• Basal body temperature: A biphasic temperature pattern suggests ovulation. Urinary LH kits (ovulation prediction kits): Ovulation occurs the day following the peak LH surge. Endometrial biopsy: This can provide histological confirmation of ovulation. Ultrasonography: Follicular tracking can visualize the growth and rupture of the follicle.</li><li>• Basal body temperature: A biphasic temperature pattern suggests ovulation.</li><li>• Basal body temperature:</li><li>• Urinary LH kits (ovulation prediction kits): Ovulation occurs the day following the peak LH surge.</li><li>• Urinary LH kits (ovulation prediction kits):</li><li>• Endometrial biopsy: This can provide histological confirmation of ovulation.</li><li>• Endometrial biopsy:</li><li>• Ultrasonography: Follicular tracking can visualize the growth and rupture of the follicle.</li><li>• Ultrasonography:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Serum progesterone on day 14: Measuring progesterone on day 14 is not useful as it corresponds to the follicular phase when progesterone levels are low and not indicative of ovulation.</li><li>• Option A. Serum progesterone on day 14:</li><li>• Option C. Serum LH on day 14: While an LH surge around day 14 can indicate impending ovulation, it does not confirm that ovulation has actually occurred.</li><li>• Option C. Serum LH on day 14:</li><li>• Option D. Serum LH on day 21: Measuring LH on day 21 is not useful for assessing ovulation, as LH levels peak around mid-cycle and are not elevated during the luteal phase.</li><li>• Option D. Serum LH on day 21:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a woman with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle, measuring serum progesterone on day 21 is the appropriate method to evaluate for ovulation, with levels above 10 ng/mL indicating that ovulation has occurred.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg435</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg435</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A psychotic patient developed voluntary purposeless movements and was once observed to be standing still for hours with waxy flexibility and negativism. What is the appropriate medical management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clonidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lorazepam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lorazepam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Catatonia is a neuropsychiatric syndrome that can manifest with features like waxy flexibility, negativism, and purposeless movements. Lorazepam is a first-line treatment for catatonia and can provide rapid symptom relief. ECT is considered to be the treatment of choice.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 59, 67.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old male with Marfanoid habitus presents with sharp chest pain and sudden onset dyspnea. Chest X-ray was performed and is shown below. What is the most probable diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydropneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aortic dissection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pneumothorax", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-167.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C Pneumothorax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given CXR shows the presence of pneumothorax, which represents air in the pleural space.</li><li>• DIAGNOSIS: Right pneumothorax</li><li>• DIAGNOSIS:</li><li>• MEDIASTINAL SHIFT: Contralateral</li><li>• MEDIASTINAL SHIFT:</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE IX : CT scan</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE IX</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE X-RAY: Expiratory X ray</li><li>• MOST SENSITIVE X-RAY:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pulmonary embolism: Often presents with sudden onset dyspnea and may show signs of right heart strain on imaging, but it does not directly cause the visible signs of air in the pleural cavity as seen in pneumothorax.</li><li>• Option A. Pulmonary embolism:</li><li>• Option B. Hydropneumothorax: This would be indicated by both air and fluid levels within the pleural space, which are not visible in this X-ray.</li><li>• Option B. Hydropneumothorax:</li><li>• Option D. Aortic dissection: Would potentially show mediastinal widening or other structural abnormalities, which are not depicted in this image.</li><li>• Option D. Aortic dissection:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumothorax is identified by the visible presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, and is commonly associated with sudden onset chest pain and dyspnea, especially in patients with connective tissue disorders like Marfan syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows simple muscle twitch along with the time trace, recorded in a frog gastrocnemius muscle. Calculate the minimum tetanizing frequency. (The time tracer was made with a 100hz tuning fork)?(INICET 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25 per second", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 per second", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "17 per second", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 per second", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 20 per second", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-5_1-10.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 20 per second</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The minimum tetanizing frequency of a muscle is determined by the reciprocal of the contraction period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Methylisothiazolinone (MI) in cosmetics is used as? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surfactant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Humectant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Emulsifier", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preservative", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Preservative", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13549.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/screenshot-2023-11-27-101311.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Preservative</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ It's important to understand that Methylisothiazolinone (MI) is used as a preservative in cosmetics to prevent microbial growth , distinguishing it from surfactants, humectants, and emulsifiers, which have different functional roles in product formulation.</li><li>➤ Methylisothiazolinone (MI)</li><li>➤ preservative</li><li>➤ cosmetics</li><li>➤ microbial growth</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 128, Page no 128.36</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 128, Page no 128.36</li><li>➤ Online resources: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4689087/</li><li>➤ Online resources:</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4689087/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nurse removes her latex gloves contaminated with blood and bodily fluids after a procedure. According to biomedical waste management guidelines, into which colored bag should she place the used gloves for disposal? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transparent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Red", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-092807_eQEsiJX.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Red</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following poisons and their probable mechanism of action: ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2. B-3. C-4, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20200449.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-28%20200503.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A. Zinc chloride :</li><li>• A. Zinc chloride</li><li>• Mechanism: Irritant Explanation: Zinc chloride is a chemical compound known to cause erosive esophagitis and irritation to the eyes and mucous membranes.</li><li>• Mechanism: Irritant</li><li>• Mechanism:</li><li>• Explanation: Zinc chloride is a chemical compound known to cause erosive esophagitis and irritation to the eyes and mucous membranes.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• B. Chloral hydrate :</li><li>• B. Chloral hydrate</li><li>• Mechanism: Stupefying (CNS depressant) Explanation: Chloral hydrate is a central nervous system depressant used historically as a sedative and hypnotic agent.</li><li>• Mechanism: Stupefying (CNS depressant)</li><li>• Mechanism:</li><li>• Explanation: Chloral hydrate is a central nervous system depressant used historically as a sedative and hypnotic agent.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• C. Quinine :</li><li>• C. Quinine</li><li>• Mechanism: Abortifacient Explanation: Quinine has been used historically to induce abortion, although its use in this context is highly dangerous and not recommended.</li><li>• Mechanism: Abortifacient</li><li>• Mechanism:</li><li>• Explanation: Quinine has been used historically to induce abortion, although its use in this context is highly dangerous and not recommended.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• D. Potassium carbonate :</li><li>• D. Potassium carbonate</li><li>• Mechanism: Corrosive Explanation: Potassium carbonate is an alkali that has a corrosive action on tissues, causing chemical burns upon contact.</li><li>• Mechanism: Corrosive</li><li>• Mechanism:</li><li>• Explanation: Potassium carbonate is an alkali that has a corrosive action on tissues, causing chemical burns upon contact.</li><li>• Explanation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are true regarding KF ring? (INICET NOV 2020) 1. Seen in all patients with neurological involvement 2. Is pathognomonic for Wilson's disease 3. Resolves with desferrioxamine 4. Seen in all patients with hepatic involvement 5. Seen in superior and inferior pole of Descemet's membrane", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 5 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 5 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4 and 5 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 and 5 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1 and 5 only.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ KF can be seen in disorders causing chronic cholestasis. Seen in ~99% of patients with neuro wilson's, 44-60% with hepatic involvement.</li><li>➤ Desferioxamine is chelating agent in iron toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Liver/Wilsons/Chap 344</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the vitamin which when deficient can lead to neonatal seizures? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pantothenic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pyridoxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pyridoxine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyridoxine deficiency can cause refractory seizures in neonates, and recognizing this condition is crucial because these seizures can be rapidly treated with pyridoxine supplementation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following parasites with their respective hosts: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2, B-1,C-4 ,D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-161105.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-28%20115612.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct about the drugs used in Gout? ( INICET Nov 2020) A. Aspirin is not used as it decreases the uric acid excretion B. Diclofenac is used as it concentrates in the joint C. Indomethacin is used as it acts by multiple pathways D. Aspirin is used as it is most powerful NSAID", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B &amp; C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A, B, C &amp; D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A &amp; B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C &amp; D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A, B & C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A, B &amp; C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred treatment for an acute gout attack is an NSAID (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug), such as indomethacin. A typical first-line treatment for gout is indomethacin. Besides suppressing prostaglandin synthesis, indomethacin and other NSAIDs also reduce rate of crystal phagocytosis. Furthermore, intraarticular steroids like methylprednisolone or triamcinolone may be given.</li><li>➤ The preferred treatment for an acute gout attack is an NSAID (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug), such as indomethacin.</li><li>➤ A typical first-line treatment for gout is indomethacin. Besides suppressing prostaglandin synthesis, indomethacin and other NSAIDs also reduce rate of crystal phagocytosis.</li><li>➤ Furthermore, intraarticular steroids like methylprednisolone or triamcinolone may be given.</li><li>➤ Aspirin is not utilized because it promotes renal retention of uric acid.</li><li>➤ Aspirin is not utilized because it promotes renal retention of uric acid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child was operated for a tumour in the lower end of femur. The gross specimen of the resected tumour is shown below. What is the diagnosis? (INCET MAY 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chondrosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "GCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chondroblastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Osteosarcoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/08/io40.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture1_Gl2GIva.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture2_OlAQ2Xq.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture36.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture4_LMkxVjy.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/06/picture5_ByldorW.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows a cut section of osteosarcoma of the femur. The destructive tumor arises from the metaphysis, with extensive involvement of the marrow cavity and extension into soft tissue.</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows a cut section of osteosarcoma of the femur.</li><li>➤ The destructive tumor arises from the metaphysis, with extensive involvement of the marrow cavity and extension into soft tissue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with Grave's disease was taking antithyroid medication throughout her pregnancy. The baby was born with aplasia cutis congenita. Which drug could have caused this condition? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carbimazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methylthiouracil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levothyroxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrouracil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carbimazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MMZ, Carbimazole associated with embryonopathy in first trimester</li><li>➤ Graves in Pregnancy:</li><li>➤ &lt;16 weeks: PTU (MM teratogenic)</li><li>➤ &gt;16 weeks: MMI (PTU hepatotoxicity)</li><li>➤ Lactation: MMI (RAIA avoided 4-6 weeks after cessation of breastfeeding as RAI is concentrated in breast tissue)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Hyperthyroidism/Graves/Chap 384</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A team of oncologists is implementing a new treatment strategy for metastatic melanoma that significantly improves overall survival rates for patients. How would you categorize the change in incidence and prevalence of metastatic melanoma in the population treated at this center? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incidence increases and prevalence reduces", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incidence reduces and prevalence remains the same", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incidence reduces and prevalence increases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PREVALENCE</li><li>➤ PREVALENCE</li><li>➤ Total current (Old + New) cases in a given population over. Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of disease [P = I × d] Prevalence describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery</li><li>➤ Total current (Old + New) cases in a given population over.</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of disease [P = I × d]</li><li>➤ Prevalence describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery</li><li>➤ INCIDENCE</li><li>➤ INCIDENCE</li><li>➤ Number of new cases occurring in a defined population over a specified period of time.</li><li>➤ Number of new cases occurring in a defined population over a specified period of time.</li><li>➤ Note - A treatment that extends the lives of patients with a chronic condition will increase prevalence, even if incidence remains stable.</li><li>➤ Note - A treatment that extends the lives of patients with a chronic condition will increase prevalence, even if incidence remains stable.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male presented to the OPD with painful genital ulcers. Which of the following can cause a painful ulcer on the glans penis? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlamydia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphogranuloma venereum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chancroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chancroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Oral contraceptives act by all of the following mechanisms except: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibit implantation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical mucus thickening", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhibit ovulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase GnRH release", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increase GnRH release", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increase GnRH release</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) function through several mechanisms to prevent pregnancy, but increasing the release of Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is not one of them. In fact, OCPs inhibit the release of GnRH.</li><li>• Mechanisms of action of OCPs:</li><li>• Mechanisms of action of OCPs:</li><li>• Inhibit ovulation: By suppressing the release of GnRH, and consequently, the pituitary secretion of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH), OCPs prevent the development and release of an ovum. Prevent implantation: OCPs create a less favorable endometrial environment for implantation of a fertilized egg. Cervical mucus thickening: OCPs increase the viscosity of cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to enter the uterus and fertilize an ovum. Produce static endometrial hypoplasia: OCPs cause the endometrial lining to remain thin, which further prevents implantation. Affect tubal motility: OCPs can alter the motility of the fallopian tubes, reducing the likelihood of sperm meeting an ovum.</li><li>• Inhibit ovulation: By suppressing the release of GnRH, and consequently, the pituitary secretion of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH), OCPs prevent the development and release of an ovum.</li><li>• Inhibit ovulation:</li><li>• Prevent implantation: OCPs create a less favorable endometrial environment for implantation of a fertilized egg.</li><li>• Prevent implantation:</li><li>• Cervical mucus thickening: OCPs increase the viscosity of cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to enter the uterus and fertilize an ovum.</li><li>• Cervical mucus thickening:</li><li>• Produce static endometrial hypoplasia: OCPs cause the endometrial lining to remain thin, which further prevents implantation.</li><li>• Produce static endometrial hypoplasia:</li><li>• Affect tubal motility: OCPs can alter the motility of the fallopian tubes, reducing the likelihood of sperm meeting an ovum.</li><li>• Affect tubal motility:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Inhibit implantation: OCPs prevent the endometrium from becoming suitable for implantation.</li><li>• Option A. Inhibit implantation:</li><li>• Option B. Cervical mucus thickening: OCPs increase the thickness of cervical mucus to block sperm penetration.</li><li>• Option B. Cervical mucus thickening:</li><li>• Option C. Inhibit ovulation: OCPs suppress the hormonal signals that trigger ovulation.</li><li>• Option C. Inhibit ovulation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation, preventing implantation, thickening cervical mucus, producing static endometrial hypoplasia, and affecting tubal motility. They do not increase GnRH release; rather, they inhibit it.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition 485</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition 485</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A school going child had applied henna and comes to dermatology OPD with the following lesions What is the possible diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contact dermatitis due to henna", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dermatitis artefacta", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polymorphous light eruption", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitiligo", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dermatitis artefacta", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/picture2.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dermatitis artefacta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In assessing skin lesions, it's important to consider the psychological aspect of dermatology. Dermatitis artefacta should be suspected in lesions that are localized , well-circumscribed , and do not have a distribution pattern consistent with the history or other physical causes.</li><li>➤ In assessing skin lesions, it's important to consider the psychological aspect of dermatology.</li><li>➤ psychological aspect of dermatology.</li><li>➤ Dermatitis artefacta should be suspected in lesions that are localized , well-circumscribed , and do not have a distribution pattern consistent with the history or other physical causes.</li><li>➤ Dermatitis artefacta</li><li>➤ localized</li><li>➤ well-circumscribed</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ distribution pattern</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Rooks’ textbook of dermatology 9 th edition 128.13</li><li>➤ Rooks’ textbook of dermatology 9 th edition 128.13</li><li>➤ Kaplan &amp; Saddocks concise textbook of clinical Psychiatry 11 th edition page 435, 436</li><li>➤ Kaplan &amp; Saddocks concise textbook of clinical Psychiatry 11 th edition page 435, 436</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition 405</li><li>➤ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition 405</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What would be the next suitable examination for a chronic smoker, aged 40, who is experiencing blue discoloration of the toe and intermittent claudication? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT Angiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MR Angiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Digital subtraction angiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duplex scan", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Duplex scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-130612.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Duplex scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Chronic smoking can cause peripheral arterial disease, which can present with bluish discoloration of the toe and intermittent claudication. Duplex Scanning is a non-invasive technique that uses ultrasound to provide an image of the vessel and can be used to investigate this condition. Duplex Scanning allows for detailed visualization of blood flow within the vessel, with different colors indicating changes in direction and velocity of flow.</li><li>➤ Chronic smoking can cause peripheral arterial disease, which can present with bluish discoloration of the toe and intermittent claudication.</li><li>➤ Duplex Scanning is a non-invasive technique that uses ultrasound to provide an image of the vessel and can be used to investigate this condition.</li><li>➤ Duplex Scanning allows for detailed visualization of blood flow within the vessel, with different colors indicating changes in direction and velocity of flow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "High anion gap acidosis with low bicarbonate levels is seen in all the following conditions except: (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal disorders", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lactic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetic ketoacidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salicylate poisoning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Renal disorders", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Renal disorders typically cause non-anion gap metabolic acidosis (NAGMA) due to an inability to excrete acid or conserve bicarbonate, rather than high anion gap acidosis seen in conditions like lactic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, and salicylate poisoning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with seizures. His CT head reveals multiple parenchymal cysts. Which of the following is correct regarding management in this case? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steroids followed by antiparasitic drugs", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antiparasitic drugs followed by steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Steroids before antiepileptics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue antiepileptics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Steroids followed by antiparasitic drugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Steroids followed by antiparasitic drugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The management of neurocysticercosis involves administering steroids first to control inflammation, followed by antiparasitic drugs to target the larval infection, along with antiepileptic drugs to control seizures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was treated with imipramine for a major depressive episode in the hospital for 4 weeks. What is the main concern while considering his discharge from the hospital?(INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Need for drug monitoring", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ECG monitoring for arrhythmias", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Suicidal risk", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sedation being the side effect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Suicidal risk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Suicidal risk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The main concern when discharging a patient treated with imipramine for a major depressive episode is the risk of suicide. This requires ensuring that the patient has a safe environment, a follow-up plan, and appropriate support to manage their mental health effectively after discharge.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are true? ( INICET Nov 2020) A. Morphine is used for treatment of pulmonary oedema B. Opioids are used for treatment of pain due to biliary colic C. Indomethacin can cause headache D. Aspirin is used for treatment of peptic ulcer disease", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A and C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A, B and C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A and D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "B, C and D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A and C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A and C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Morphine can be used for the treatment of pulmonary edema, and indomethacin can cause headaches. Aspirin is not used for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease and can actually worsen it. While opioids can be used for biliary colic, their use is not without complications, and not all opioids are appropriate for this condition.</li><li>➤ Morphine can be used for the treatment of pulmonary edema, and indomethacin can cause headaches.</li><li>➤ Aspirin is not used for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease and can actually worsen it. While opioids can be used for biliary colic, their use is not without complications, and not all opioids are appropriate for this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions will have the least chances of a dry tap on bone marrow aspiration? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hairy cell leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular lymphoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "AML M7", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myelodysplastic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Follicular lymphoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Follicular lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Causes of dry tap are:</li><li>➤ Causes of dry tap are:</li><li>➤ Faulty technique Metastatic carcinoma infiltration Chronic myeloid leukemia Myelofibrosis Hairy cell leukemia Acute leukemia Hodgkin's lymphoma AML- M7</li><li>➤ Faulty technique</li><li>➤ Metastatic carcinoma infiltration</li><li>➤ Chronic myeloid leukemia</li><li>➤ Myelofibrosis</li><li>➤ Hairy cell leukemia</li><li>➤ Acute leukemia</li><li>➤ Hodgkin's lymphoma</li><li>➤ AML- M7</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which fixation technique is used for fat in the histopathological examination? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IHC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frozen section", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liquid paraffin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Formalin fixed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Liquid paraffin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Liquid paraffin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Liquid paraffin is the most commonly used fixation technique for preserving and examining fat in histopathological sections.</li><li>➤ Liquid paraffin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cells marked in the given image? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphocyte-1, Monocyte-4, Eosinophil-2, Basophil-3, Neutrophil -5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphocyte-2, Monocyte-4, Eosinophil-1, Basophil-3, Neutrophil -5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphocyte-1, Monocyte-2, Eosinophil-5, Basophil-4, Neutrophil -3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphocyte-2, Monocyte-1, Eosinophil-3, Basophil-5, Neutrophil -4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lymphocyte-1, Monocyte-4, Eosinophil-2, Basophil-3, Neutrophil -5", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1101.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1102.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lymphocyte- 1, Monocyte-4, Eosinophil-2, Basophil-3, Neutrophil -5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Granulocytes:</li><li>➤ Granulocytes:</li><li>➤ Neutrophil - 3 to 5 lobed nucleus with small, bluish granules in the cytoplasm Eosinophil - Binucleate/spectacle shaped nuclei with brick-red granules in the cytoplasm Basophil- Large bluish granules in the cytoplasm which obscure the nucleus.</li><li>➤ Neutrophil - 3 to 5 lobed nucleus with small, bluish granules in the cytoplasm</li><li>➤ Eosinophil - Binucleate/spectacle shaped nuclei with brick-red granules in the cytoplasm</li><li>➤ Basophil- Large bluish granules in the cytoplasm which obscure the nucleus.</li><li>➤ Agranulocytes:</li><li>➤ Agranulocytes:</li><li>➤ Lymphocytes- size just larger than an BC. No granules, no nucleoli present. Monocytes - largest cells with a kidney-shaped nucleus.</li><li>➤ Lymphocytes- size just larger than an BC. No granules, no nucleoli present.</li><li>➤ Monocytes - largest cells with a kidney-shaped nucleus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is correct regarding Peutz-Jeghers syndrome? ( AIIMS NOV 2020) Arborizing pattern of smooth muscle Loss of heterozygosity in the STK11 gene Multiple Gl polyps Autosomal recessive Congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium is seen", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 4, and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, and 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1113.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1114.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is characterized by an arborizing pattern of smooth muscle , loss of heterozygosity in the STK11 gene , and multiple GI polyps , and it is autosomal dominant .</li><li>➤ arborizing pattern of smooth muscle</li><li>➤ loss of heterozygosity in the STK11 gene</li><li>➤ multiple GI polyps</li><li>➤ autosomal dominant</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1557</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1557</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following are true about chancroid: (INICET NOV 2020) School of fish appearance Bleeds on touch Painful Groove sign", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C &amp; D only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A, B, C &amp; D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B &amp; C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A &amp; B only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A, B & C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A, B, &amp; C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, is characterized by painful ulcers with a friable base that easily bleeds and has a \"school of fish\" appearance on Gram stain. The \"groove sign\" is not associated with chancroid but rather with lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to the OPD with long hands and feet, and a protruding lower jaw. Which of the following genes is most likely implicated in this scenario? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GATA1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PIT1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ТРІТ", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SF1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PIT1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-181302.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) PIT1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PIT1 mutations are implicated in the development of somatotroph adenomas, leading to acromegaly with features such as enlarged hands, feet, and a protruding lower jaw.</li><li>➤ PIT1</li><li>➤ acromegaly</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbin and Cotran pathological basis of disease 8 th edition pg 2129</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbin and Cotran pathological basis of disease 8 th edition pg 2129</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EBV Negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CD 30 Negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CD 20 positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Poor prognosis compared to classical HL", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Poor prognosis compared to classical HL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-181612.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Poor prognosis compared to classical HL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was brought to the emergency department with a big lesion on his forearm. As a surgery resident you decide to excise the lesion in the emergency operation theatre. Which of the following investigations will test the entire coagulation pathway? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Activated partial thromboplastin time", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prothrombin time", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thromboelastography", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bleeding time", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thromboelastography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1106.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1107.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thromboelastography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thromboelastography (TEG) is the most comprehensive test for evaluating the entire coagulation pathway, including coagulation factor activity, platelet function, and fibrinolysis, making it ideal for intraoperative and emergency settings.</li><li>➤ Thromboelastography (TEG)</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK537061/</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK537061/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The absence of the structure marked as A will present with all except: (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pernicious anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carcinoid syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vit B12 Deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zollinger Ellison syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Zollinger Ellison syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1108.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/1109.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Zollinger Ellison syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The absence of parietal cells is not associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome but can lead to Pernicious anemia and Vitamin B12 deficiency .</li><li>➤ absence of parietal cells</li><li>➤ Zollinger-Ellison syndrome</li><li>➤ Pernicious anemia</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1493</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1493</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most appropriate biopsy specimen in case of a thyroid biopsy is? (AIIMS NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15 follicular cell clusters contain 10-12 cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 follicular cell clusters contain 6-8 cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 follicular cell clusters contain 10-15 cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 follicular cell clusters contain 10-15 cells", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 6 follicular cell clusters contain 10-15 cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-182944.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 6 follicular cell clusters contain 10-15 cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The following cytologic findings have been used to define specimen adequacy:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Blood examination shows pancytopenia, which can be correct? (AIIMS NOV 2020) Megaloblastic anemia Hairy cell leukemia MDS with hypocellular BM APML", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Causes of pancytopenia –</li><li>➤ Causes of pancytopenia –</li><li>➤ I. Aplastic anemia</li><li>➤ Aplastic anemia</li><li>➤ II. Pancytopenia with normal or increased marrow cellularity e.g.</li><li>➤ Pancytopenia with normal or increased marrow cellularity e.g.</li><li>➤ Myelodysplastic syndromes Hypersplenism Megaloblastic anemia</li><li>➤ Myelodysplastic syndromes</li><li>➤ Hypersplenism</li><li>➤ Megaloblastic anemia</li><li>➤ III . Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (page 314 )</li><li>➤ . Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (page 314</li><li>➤ IV . Bone marrow infiltrations e.g.</li><li>➤ . Bone marrow infiltrations e.g.</li><li>➤ Hematologic malignancies ( leukemias, lymphomas, myeloma ) Non-hematologic metastatic malignancies Storage diseases Osteopetrosis Myelofibrosis</li><li>➤ Hematologic malignancies ( leukemias, lymphomas, myeloma )</li><li>➤ Non-hematologic metastatic malignancies</li><li>➤ Storage diseases</li><li>➤ Osteopetrosis</li><li>➤ Myelofibrosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Galactomannan in serum is seen in: (INICET NOV 2020) Invasive aspergillosis Systemic candidiasis Mucormycosis Cryptococcosis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 &amp; 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 &amp; 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 &amp; 3 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1 Only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The galactomannan assay is specifically used to diagnose invasive aspergillosis, and the presence of galactomannan in serum is indicative of this fungal infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What will be the most likely associated condition with increased TSH and low T4 levels?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pituitary Adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grave's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hashimoto's thyroiditis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hashimoto's thyroiditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary hypothyroidism is characterized by increased TSH and low T4 levels. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient areas.</li><li>➤ Hashimoto's thyroiditis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following events occur immediately when a person changes his/her posture from supine to standing?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease in firing from baroreceptor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vagal output to cardiac fibers increase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mesenteric Vasoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase cardiac contractility", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decrease in firing from baroreceptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Decrease in firing from baroreceptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a person stands up from a supine position, there is a pooling of blood in the lower extremities, leading to reduced venous return and cardiac output, which results in decreased baroreceptor firing and subsequent compensatory mechanisms to maintain blood pressure.</li><li>➤ decreased baroreceptor firing</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following increases in COPD? FRC TLC VC FEV1/FVC", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 and 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In COPD, there is an increase in Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) and potentially Total Lung Capacity (TLC) , particularly in cases of emphysema. FEV1/FVC ratio decreases, reflecting the obstructive nature of the disease.</li><li>➤ Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)</li><li>➤ Total Lung Capacity (TLC)</li><li>➤ FEV1/FVC ratio</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rees and Ecker diluting fluid is used in _______?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wintrobe tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "WBC Pipette", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RBC Pipette", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemoglobin pipette", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. RBC Pipette", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) RBC Pipette</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Other Options Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Wintrobe tube : Incorrect. The Wintrobe tube is used in the determination of erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and hematocrit values.</li><li>• Option A. Wintrobe tube</li><li>• Option B. WBC Pipette : Incorrect. The WBC pipette is used with other diluting fluids specific for leukocyte counts, not Rees and Ecker's fluid.</li><li>• Option B. WBC Pipette</li><li>• Option D. Hemoglobin pipette : Incorrect. Hemoglobin pipettes are used for hemoglobin estimation, typically not requiring Rees and Ecker's solution.</li><li>• Option D. Hemoglobin pipette</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rees and Ecker’s solution is specifically used in the RBC pipette to dilute blood samples for accurate platelet counting .</li><li>➤ RBC pipette</li><li>➤ platelet counting</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parathyroid adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lithium intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic kidney disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Parathyroid adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Parathyroid adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parathyroid adenoma is associated with primary hyperparathyroidism . Secondary hyperparathyroidism arises from conditions that lead to hypocalcemia , such as chronic kidney disease, vitamin D deficiency, or lithium intake .</li><li>➤ Parathyroid adenoma</li><li>➤ primary hyperparathyroidism</li><li>➤ Secondary hyperparathyroidism</li><li>➤ hypocalcemia</li><li>➤ chronic kidney disease, vitamin D deficiency, or lithium intake</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The data which best explains the difference between the highest and the lowest values is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Variance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coefficient of variation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Range", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interquartile range", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Range", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Range</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Range is a simple measure that explains the spread between the highest and lowest values in a dataset, making it useful for quickly understanding data dispersion.</li><li>➤ Range</li><li>➤ spread between the highest and lowest values</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman in labour presented to the ER. A vaginal breech delivery was planned for her. What statement regarding the management is false?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Breech identified for the first time during delivery is a contraindication for vaginal delivery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breech delivery is done in a hospital where a facility for emergency cesarean delivery is available", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continuous FHR monitoring is required for breech delivery during labour", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Should be done by a skilled obstetrician", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Breech identified for the first time during delivery is a contraindication for vaginal delivery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Breech identified for the first time during delivery is a contraindication for vaginal delivery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breech presentation during labour is not an automatic contraindication for vaginal delivery. However, specific criteria must be met, including the availability of emergency cesarean facilities, continuous fetal monitoring, and the presence of a skilled obstetrician.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman has cramps in her legs. What will you suggest her to relieve the pain?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extend knee and dorsiflex foot", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flex knee and dorsiflex foot", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extend knee and plantar flex foot", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flex knee and plantar flex foot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extend knee and dorsiflex foot", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Extend knee and dorsiflex foot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To relieve leg cramps, suggest extension of the knee and dorsiflexion of the foot to effectively stretch the calf muscles. Additionally, consider correcting any nutritional deficiencies associated with leg cramps in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ extension of the knee and dorsiflexion of the foot</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet Nov 2021 2021 11 14 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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C. 10 L/min</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The maximum oxygen flow rate which can be kept with a conventional oxygen mask (Simple Face Mask, also known as Hudson mask) is 10 L/min. This is a standard setting for delivering oxygen to patients who require moderate levels of oxygen supplementation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 5 L/min: While 5 L/min can be used, it is not the maximum flow rate for a Hudson mask.</li><li>• Option A. 5 L/min:</li><li>• Option B. 15 L/min : This flow rate is generally used with a non-rebreather mask rather than a conventional Hudson mask.</li><li>• Option B. 15 L/min</li><li>• Option D. 20 L/min: This flow rate exceeds the capacity of most conventional oxygen delivery systems like the Hudson mask.</li><li>• Option D. 20 L/min:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The maximum flow rate for a conventional Hudson oxygen mask is 10 L/min.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the sequence of performing a Thomas test?(INICET NOV 2021) Passive flexion of affected hip Overcorrection on the normal side Measure the flexion angle Checking for lumbar lordosis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I, II, III, IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I, III, II, IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "II, III, IV, I", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV, II, I, III", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IV, II, I, III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_87.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) IV, II, I, III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of performing the Thomas test is:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of performing the Thomas test is:</li><li>➤ Checking for lumbar lordosis</li><li>➤ ↓</li><li>➤ Overcorrection on the normal side</li><li>➤ ↓</li><li>➤ Passive flexion of affected hip</li><li>➤ ↓</li><li>➤ Measure the flexion angle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The leading cause of bladder outlet obstruction in male children is: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior urethral valve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urethral atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior urethral valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ureterocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Posterior urethral valve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Posterior urethral valve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most frequent cause of bladder outflow obstruction in male children is the posterior urethral valve (PUV). PUV is a membranous fold located in the posterior urethra, typically found just distal to the verumontanum. It is thought to occur due to the persistence of the urogenital membrane. Urethral obstruction can cause dilation of the posterior urethral valve, bladder, and bilateral hydronephrosis, leading to a keyhole sign on prenatal ultrasound and potentially oligohydramnios. If not detected prenatally, PUV may present postnatally as a newborn or young infant with urinary tract symptoms, abdominal distension or and recurrent UTIs. Left untreated, PUV may result in chronic kidney disease, bladder dysfunction, and vesicoureteral reflux. Diagnosis of PUV is typically based on the presence of an elongated posterior valve during the voiding phase of the voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG).</li><li>➤ The most frequent cause of bladder outflow obstruction in male children is the posterior urethral valve (PUV).</li><li>➤ PUV is a membranous fold located in the posterior urethra, typically found just distal to the verumontanum. It is thought to occur due to the persistence of the urogenital membrane.</li><li>➤ Urethral obstruction can cause dilation of the posterior urethral valve, bladder, and bilateral hydronephrosis, leading to a keyhole sign on prenatal ultrasound and potentially oligohydramnios.</li><li>➤ If not detected prenatally, PUV may present postnatally as a newborn or young infant with urinary tract symptoms, abdominal distension or and recurrent UTIs.</li><li>➤ Left untreated, PUV may result in chronic kidney disease, bladder dysfunction, and vesicoureteral reflux.</li><li>➤ Diagnosis of PUV is typically based on the presence of an elongated posterior valve during the voiding phase of the voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following syndromes with their respective karyotypes? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/14/screenshot-2024-10-14-185037.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• MRKH syndrome (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser): This syndrome has a karyotype of 46XX . Swyer Syndrome: This condition is characterized by 46XY karyotype. Turner Syndrome: This is due to monosomy X, having a karyotype of 45XO . Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome: This condition occurs in individuals with a karyotype of 46XY , where there is a complete androgen insensitivity, resulting in a phenotypically female appearance despite having male (XY) chromosomes.</li><li>• MRKH syndrome (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser): This syndrome has a karyotype of 46XX .</li><li>• MRKH syndrome (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser):</li><li>• 46XX</li><li>• Swyer Syndrome: This condition is characterized by 46XY karyotype.</li><li>• Swyer Syndrome:</li><li>• 46XY</li><li>• Turner Syndrome: This is due to monosomy X, having a karyotype of 45XO .</li><li>• Turner Syndrome:</li><li>• 45XO</li><li>• Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome: This condition occurs in individuals with a karyotype of 46XY , where there is a complete androgen insensitivity, resulting in a phenotypically female appearance despite having male (XY) chromosomes.</li><li>• Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome:</li><li>• 46XY</li><li>• Matching:</li><li>• Matching:</li><li>• MRKH : 46XX Swyer Syndrome : 46XY Turner Syndrome : 45XO Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome : 46XY</li><li>• MRKH : 46XX</li><li>• MRKH</li><li>• Swyer Syndrome : 46XY</li><li>• Swyer Syndrome</li><li>• Turner Syndrome : 45XO</li><li>• Turner Syndrome</li><li>• Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome : 46XY</li><li>• Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the karyotypes associated with different syndromes helps in diagnosing and managing these conditions effectively. MRKH is associated with 46XX, Swyer syndrome with 46XY, Turner syndrome with 45XO, and Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome with 46XY.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 446,447</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 446,447</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cranial nerve passing through the given structure: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "III", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "V", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "VI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IV", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-16.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-194331.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. IV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the given image, the dorsal aspect of the brainstem is marked and the cranial nerve that is passing there is the trochlear nerve (CN IV).</li><li>• Trochlear nerve</li><li>• Trochlear nerve</li><li>• Origin : The trochlear nerve is the only cranial nerve that emerges from the dorsal (posterior) aspect of the brain. Specifically, it originates from the dorsal surface of the midbrain, below the inferior colliculus. Exit proceed to the superior orbital fissure to enter the orbit. Function : It is a motor nerve that innervates a single extraocular muscle, the superior oblique muscle. The primary action of the superior oblique muscle is to intort (rotate inward), depress, and abduct the eyeball.</li><li>• Origin : The trochlear nerve is the only cranial nerve that emerges from the dorsal (posterior) aspect of the brain. Specifically, it originates from the dorsal surface of the midbrain, below the inferior colliculus.</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Exit proceed to the superior orbital fissure to enter the orbit.</li><li>• Exit</li><li>• Function : It is a motor nerve that innervates a single extraocular muscle, the superior oblique muscle. The primary action of the superior oblique muscle is to intort (rotate inward), depress, and abduct the eyeball.</li><li>• Function</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A . Oculomotor Nerve (III):</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Oculomotor Nerve (III):</li><li>• Origin : The oculomotor nerve originates in the anterior aspect of the midbrain. Specifically, its fibers arise from the oculomotor nucleus, which is located in the superior colliculus of the midbrain. Exit Point : After emerging from the midbrain, it exits the brainstem at the level of the interpeduncular fossa (the space between the cerebral peduncles). Function : It innervates most of the muscles controlling eye movements. It also contains parasympathetic fibers that are involved in pupil constriction and the lens's accommodation.</li><li>• Origin : The oculomotor nerve originates in the anterior aspect of the midbrain. Specifically, its fibers arise from the oculomotor nucleus, which is located in the superior colliculus of the midbrain.</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Exit Point : After emerging from the midbrain, it exits the brainstem at the level of the interpeduncular fossa (the space between the cerebral peduncles).</li><li>• Exit Point</li><li>• Function : It innervates most of the muscles controlling eye movements. It also contains parasympathetic fibers that are involved in pupil constriction and the lens's accommodation.</li><li>• Function</li><li>• Option B . Facial Nerve (VII):</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Facial Nerve (VII):</li><li>• Origin : The facial nerve arises from the pons. Specifically, its fibers come from the facial nerve nucleus. Exit Point : It emerges from the brainstem at the cerebellopontine angle, between the pons and the medulla. It exits lateral to the abducens nerve and medial to the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII). Function : The facial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression. It also has taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and carries parasympathetic fibers to salivary and lacrimal glands.</li><li>• Origin : The facial nerve arises from the pons. Specifically, its fibers come from the facial nerve nucleus.</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Exit Point : It emerges from the brainstem at the cerebellopontine angle, between the pons and the medulla. It exits lateral to the abducens nerve and medial to the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII).</li><li>• Exit Point</li><li>• Function : The facial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression. It also has taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and carries parasympathetic fibers to salivary and lacrimal glands.</li><li>• Function</li><li>• Option D . Abducens Nerve (VI):</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Abducens Nerve (VI):</li><li>• Origin : The abducens nerve originates in the pons. Its fibers arise from the abducens nucleus, which is located in the dorsal pons near the floor of the fourth ventricle. Exit Point : It emerges from the ventral surface of the brainstem at the junction between the pons and the medulla, in the groove between the pons and the pyramid of the medulla. Function : It innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which abducts the eye.</li><li>• Origin : The abducens nerve originates in the pons. Its fibers arise from the abducens nucleus, which is located in the dorsal pons near the floor of the fourth ventricle.</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Exit Point : It emerges from the ventral surface of the brainstem at the junction between the pons and the medulla, in the groove between the pons and the pyramid of the medulla.</li><li>• Exit Point</li><li>• Function : It innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which abducts the eye.</li><li>• Function</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve that originates in the midbrain at the level of the inferior colliculus from the trochlear nuclei. It is the only cranial nerve that emerges from the brainstem's dorsal surface and has the longest intracranial course.</li><li>➤ The main actions of superior oblique are:</li><li>➤ The main actions of superior oblique are:</li><li>➤ Depression in adducted position- Patients with trochlear nerve palsy have difficulty in looking downwards when eyes are in the adducted position. Abduction Intorsion of the eyeball.</li><li>➤ Depression in adducted position- Patients with trochlear nerve palsy have difficulty in looking downwards when eyes are in the adducted position.</li><li>➤ Abduction</li><li>➤ Intorsion of the eyeball.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are associated with massive splenomegaly except: (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aplastic anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hairy cell leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aplastic anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aplastic anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aplastic anemia is a syndrome of chronic primary hematopoietic failure. This results in pancytopenia (anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia). Splenomegaly is characteristically absent; if it is present, the diagnosis of aplastic anemia should be seriously questioned. Similarly, splenomegaly is also never seen in cases of ITP.</li><li>➤ Splenomegaly is characteristically absent; if it is present, the diagnosis of aplastic anemia should be seriously questioned. Similarly, splenomegaly is also never seen in cases of ITP.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg. 1239, 1173</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg. 1239, 1173</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause for hospital admission after day care surgery? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory distress", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post-surgical pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Postoperative nausea and vomiting", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bleeding", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/06/screenshot-2024-07-06-115839.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most common cause for hospital admission or delayed discharge from the hospital post day care surgery is Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). PONV is a frequent complication following surgery and anesthesia, significantly impacting patient comfort and recovery, and often leading to extended hospital stays or readmissions.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Respiratory distress : While it is a serious concern, it is not as commonly the cause for hospital admission after day care surgery as PONV.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Respiratory distress</li><li>• Option B. Post-surgical pain : Although post-surgical pain is a common issue, it is generally managed effectively with analgesics and is less frequently the cause for hospital admission compared to PONV.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Post-surgical pain</li><li>• Option D. Bleeding: Postoperative bleeding can be a complication but is less common as a cause for hospital admission after day care surgery compared to PONV.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Bleeding:</li><li>• Risk factors for PONV:</li><li>• Risk factors for PONV:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is the most common cause for hospital admission or delayed discharge after day care surgery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 2603</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 2603</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most effective drug in smoking cessation?( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varenicline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Buspirone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nicotine gum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rimonabant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Varenicline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Varenicline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Varenicline is the most effective medication for smoking cessation. It works as a partial agonist at nicotinic receptors, helping to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and reduce the rewarding effects of nicotine. This makes it a highly effective option for individuals seeking to quit smoking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given below is an electron microscopic image of the lung tissue. A patient infected with SARS-COV2 presents with ARDS. The infection would affect and expand which of the labelled layers? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-381.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-382_TF621GV.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-383.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-384.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In ARDS, especially in cases associated with SARS-CoV-2 infection , the primary injury occurs in the endothelial cells of the blood-air barrier, leading to inflammation, increased permeability, and subsequent respiratory failure.</li><li>➤ SARS-CoV-2 infection</li><li>➤ endothelial cells</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of drain: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Open", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Closed", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Semi open", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Semi closed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Closed", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/04/untitled-194.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/04-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Closed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Romovac drain is a closed negative suction drain placed in subcutaneous tissue and indicated in modified radical mastectomy, subcutaneous swelling excision, and amputations. Other specialized drains include chest drains for air removal from the pleural cavity and T-tubes for bile drainage after surgical exploration of the bile duct.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most probable diagnosis for a young male presenting with Leucotrichia and lesions as depicted in the image is? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Focal vitiligo", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Segmental vitiligo", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Piebaldism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nevus depigmentosus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Segmental vitiligo", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13553.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/whatsapp-image-2023-12-01-at-163939-1.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/25/picture10_Km1evDr.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/25/picture11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Segmental vitiligo</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Segmental vitiligo presents with one or more macules in a dermatomal or segmental pattern, often accompanied by Leucotrichia.</li><li>➤ Segmental vitiligo</li><li>➤ dermatomal or segmental</li><li>➤ Leucotrichia.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks Textbook of dermatology 9 th Edition page no 88.34</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks Textbook of dermatology 9 th Edition page no 88.34</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old woman who has had 2 children through normal delivery presents with a dull aching pain over the abdomen, with irregular menses. Per vaginal examination revealed a mass felt through the posterior fornix. A USG showed a clear ovarian cyst of size 5 x 5 cm. What is the next best step? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measure CA 125 levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follow up after 6 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT pelvis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Follow up after 6 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Follow up after 6 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a reproductive-aged woman with a clear ovarian cyst less than 8 cm and minimal symptoms, the best approach is to follow up with a repeat ultrasound after 6-12 weeks, rather than immediate intervention.</li><li>➤ Ref: RCOG greentop guideline number 62 , Williams textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg217</li><li>➤ Ref: RCOG greentop guideline number 62 , Williams textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg217</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a village, the residents find a new groundwater source. After intake of water from this source many villagers presented with nausea, vomiting, dark bloody stools, conjunctivitis, and a burning sensation in the throat and stomach. Which poisoning do you suspect in this case? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Potassium permanganate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thallium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arsenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-34.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Arsenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents to you with itchy lesions on the scalp with hair loss as shown in the image below. What would be the next best step? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "KOH mount", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Slit skin smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gram staining", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. KOH mount", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-1347.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-160011.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-160143.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-160300.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-160359.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) KOH mount</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For itchy lesions on the scalp with hair loss suggestive of tinea capitis , a KOH mount is the preferred initial test to visualize fungal elements.</li><li>➤ itchy lesions</li><li>➤ tinea capitis</li><li>➤ KOH mount</li><li>➤ visualize fungal</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.38, 32.40</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II-9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.38, 32.40</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old alcoholic comes to the casualty after being hurt in a fight with a stranger. A lacerated wound is seen over his skull. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of this lacerated wound? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shearing force", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Impact of a semi sharp-edged object", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Overstretching of skin and subcutaneous tissue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tissue crushed between weapon and underlying bone", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tissue crushed between weapon and underlying bone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-31.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Tissue crushed between weapon and underlying bone</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common ocular manifestation of COVID-19 is: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinal vein thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Viral keratouveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follicular conjunctivitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudomembranous conjunctivitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Follicular conjunctivitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Follicular conjunctivitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Follicular conjunctivitis is the most common ocular manifestation seen in patients with COVID-19, highlighting the virus's ability to affect multiple body systems including the eyes. This underscores the importance of protective measures for healthcare providers, such as wearing masks and eye protection when examining patients suspected of having COVID-19.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with lytic lesions on the skull is suspected of a diagnosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosis. Which of the following is a characteristic finding on electron microscopy? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histiocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Birbeck granules", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eosinophils", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Giant cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Birbeck granules", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-395.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Birbeck granules</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Birbeck granules on electron microscopy is a characteristic finding in Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) , confirming the diagnosis of this condition.</li><li>➤ Birbeck granules</li><li>➤ characteristic finding</li><li>➤ Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition Pg 1168</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition Pg 1168</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is preferred in the management of primary progressive multiple sclerosis? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Natalizumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ocrelizumab", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fingolimod", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alemtuzumab", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ocrelizumab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ocrelizumab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ocrelizumab is the only drug currently shown to be effective in the management of primary progressive multiple sclerosis (PPMS).</li><li>➤ Remember - The drug that has been shown to be effective in treating secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (SPMS) is Siponimod, which is a sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor agonist.</li><li>➤ Remember</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is not used in post laryngectomy rehabilitation?( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tracheo- esophageal prosthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophageal speech", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polite yawning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Super supraglottic swallow", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Super supraglottic swallow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Super supraglottic swallow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Super supraglottic swallow technique is crucial for enhancing airway protection in dysphagia management but is not utilized in post-laryngectomy rehabilitation, where the focus is primarily on restoring voice and smell functions through other specialized techniques.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition 352, 353; Scott Brown 7 th edition, Volume 2, Page No. 2090</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition 352, 353; Scott Brown 7 th edition, Volume 2, Page No. 2090</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the method of killing shown in the picture below : ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burking", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Smothering", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Traumatic asphyxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Overlaying", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Burking", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-32.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Burking</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Burking involves a combination of smothering and traumatic asphyxia, characterized by chest compression and obstruction of the airways, a method historically associated with the criminal activities of Burke and Hare.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following in sequential order with regards to the steps of collection of samples for pap smear testing: (INICET NOV 2021) Use posterior vaginal wall retractor Take the sample Make smear on a slide Fix the smear", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for collecting samples for a pap smear is to first use a posterior vaginal wall retractor to visualize the cervix, take the sample, make the smear on a slide, and then fix the smear using 95% ethyl alcohol.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 110,111, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition 632, 633</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 110,111, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition 632, 633</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lesion in which lobe will lead to impairment of hand-eye coordination?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parietal lobe", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontal lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Temporal lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipital lobe", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Parietal lobe", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Parietal lobe</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The parietal lobe is essential for hand-eye coordination due to its role in integrating sensory information and spatial awareness, guiding movements accurately in response to visual stimuli.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the normal uterocervical length? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "7 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "10 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 7 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 7 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The normal length of the uterine cavity, including the cervical canal, is usually 6-7 cm. This measurement is essential in gynecological evaluations and procedures. This measurement helps in assessing normal uterine anatomy and can be used in various clinical procedures such as the insertion of intrauterine devices (IUDs). Ovary: The ovary measures about 3 cm x 2 cm x 1 cm. Fallopian Tube: The length of the Fallopian tube is about 10 cm, and the lumen is 1-2 mm at the isthmus.</li><li>• The normal length of the uterine cavity, including the cervical canal, is usually 6-7 cm. This measurement is essential in gynecological evaluations and procedures.</li><li>• This measurement helps in assessing normal uterine anatomy and can be used in various clinical procedures such as the insertion of intrauterine devices (IUDs).</li><li>• Ovary: The ovary measures about 3 cm x 2 cm x 1 cm.</li><li>• Ovary:</li><li>• Fallopian Tube: The length of the Fallopian tube is about 10 cm, and the lumen is 1-2 mm at the isthmus.</li><li>• Fallopian Tube:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The normal length of the uterine cavity, including the cervical canal, is 6-7 cm.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition Pg 25, Dutta's textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 7</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition Pg 25, Dutta's textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 7</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding CORDS? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CORADS- O indicates normal lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CORADS-5 is typical of COVID-19", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleural thickening is typical of COVID-19", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lobar consolidation is typical of COVID-19", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CORADS-5 is typical of COVID-19", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-153729.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• CORADS-COVID-19 Reporting and Data System</li><li>• CO-RADS is a categorical assessment scale used to evaluate pulmonary involvement of COVID-19 on chest CT scans. Each category reflects the level of suspicion of COVID-19.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. CO-RADS-0: This category indicates that the CT examination is insufficient for assessment, not that the lungs are normal, which is a common misunderstanding.</li><li>• Option A. CO-RADS-0:</li><li>• Option C. Pleural thickening: While pleural thickening can occur in COVID-19, it is not typical or diagnostic of the disease. COVID-19 primarily affects the parenchyma of the lungs rather than the pleura.</li><li>• Option C. Pleural thickening:</li><li>• Option D. Lobar consolidation: Though lobar consolidation may be present in severe cases of COVID-19, it is not typical of the disease, as COVID-19 more frequently presents with peripheral ground-glass opacities.</li><li>• Option D. Lobar consolidation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ COVID-19 Reporting and Data System (CO-RADS) is a categorical assessment for pulmonary involvement of COVID-19 on chest CT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The sodium iodide symporter is present in all of the following except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thyroid gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salivary gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pituitary gland", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pituitary gland", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pituitary gland</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The sodium iodide symporter (NIS) is essential for iodide transport in various tissues. The NIS seen in:</li><li>➤ The NIS seen in:</li><li>➤ Thyroid Salivary glands Gastric mucosa Placenta Ciliary body of the eye Choroid plexus Mammary glands Certain cancers are derived from these tissues.</li><li>➤ Thyroid</li><li>➤ Salivary glands</li><li>➤ Gastric mucosa</li><li>➤ Placenta</li><li>➤ Ciliary body of the eye</li><li>➤ Choroid plexus</li><li>➤ Mammary glands</li><li>➤ Certain cancers are derived from these tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old female patient presents with cough, low-grade fever, and hemoptysis. Investigations reveal a cavitary lesion on her right lung apex, which on biopsy reveals caseous necrosis. The underlying pathophysiology is: (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enzyme degradation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrinoid deposition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sudden cut-off of blood supply", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-404.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulmonary tuberculosis is characterized by granulomatous inflammation with caseous necrosis, driven by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction mediated by activated macrophages and T-helper cells.</li><li>➤ Pulmonary tuberculosis</li><li>➤ type 4 hypersensitivity reaction</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 392</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 392</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The strict anaerobe among the following is: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burkholderia cepaci", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yersinia enterocolitica", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stenotrophomonas maltophilia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prevotella", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Prevotella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Prevotella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prevotella species are strict anaerobes, thriving in oxygen-free environments, and are part of the normal flora of the oral, vaginal, and gut microbiota. They can be involved in various anaerobic infections, particularly of the respiratory tract.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following marked structure is damaged in respiratory distress syndrome? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/113.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/114.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type II pneumocytes are crucial for surfactant production and alveolar stability, and their dysfunction or immaturity is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in neonates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatric resident is preparing a presentation on neonatal mortality in India. She finds a dataset from the verbal autopsy report (2010-2013) and wants to understand the hierarchy of factors contributing to neonatal deaths. Based on this data, how would you arrange these factors from the most significant contributor to the least? (INICET NOV 2021) Prematurity and low birth weight Birth injuries and birth asphyxia Congenital anomalies Sepsis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1&gt;2&gt;4&gt;3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1&gt;4&gt;2&gt;3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4&gt;1&gt;2&gt;3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1&gt;2&gt;3&gt;4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1>2>4>3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/screenshot-2023-10-28-143714.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1&gt;2&gt;4&gt;3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Causes of Neonatal mortality (0 – 4 weeks):</li><li>➤ Low birth weight and prematurity Birth injury and difficult labour Sepsis Congenital anomalies Hemolytic diseases of newborn Conditions of placenta and cord Diarrhoeal diseases Acute respiratory infections Tetanus</li><li>➤ Low birth weight and prematurity</li><li>➤ Birth injury and difficult labour</li><li>➤ Sepsis</li><li>➤ Congenital anomalies</li><li>➤ Hemolytic diseases of newborn</li><li>➤ Conditions of placenta and cord</li><li>➤ Diarrhoeal diseases</li><li>➤ Acute respiratory infections</li><li>➤ Tetanus</li><li>➤ According to WHO, Preterm birth, intrapartum-related complications (birth asphyxia), infections and congenital defects are the leading causes of most neonatal deaths.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A doctor tells a 31-year-old woman, who is 20 weeks pregnant, that her baby has a developmental defect. She has come to you for a second opinion. The following US finding is seen. Identify the defect? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anencephaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystic hygroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Encephalocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anencephaly", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/04/picture9.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anencephaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anencephaly is an open neural tube defect characterized by the absence of the cranial calvaria and prominent orbits, detectable by ultrasound as early as 10 to 11 weeks of gestation. It can be prevented with pre-conceptional folic acid supplementation.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 201, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg471</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 201, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg471</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the dose of carbetocin used in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "150 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "200 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100 mcg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 100 mcg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 100 mcg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recommended dose of carbetocin for the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage is 100 mcg, administered either IM or IV.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female patient came to the outpatient department with complaints of neck swelling. She gives a history of weight loss and palpitations. On examination, she has exophthalmos and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland. What are the essential investigations that should be done for the patient? (INICET NOV 2021) Thyroid scan Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) Thyroid function tests Ultrasound of neck Anti-thyroid antibody", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4, and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 5 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 4, 5 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4, and 5 only", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with clinical signs of hyperthyroidism and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland, essential investigations include a thyroid scan, thyroid function tests, ultrasound of the neck, and anti-thyroid antibody tests. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) is not typically required in these cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which pathogen causes attachment-effacement lesion in the intestinal mucosa? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diffusely adherent Escherichia coli", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-171808.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the chart given in the picture below: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hess chart", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Snellen chart", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pelli-Robson chart", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ETDRS chart - Early treatment diabetic retinopathy study", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hess chart", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/dfnhdfghdfg.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/fnghdfhdf.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/dnfhgfdn.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/dfhndfthdftb.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hess chart</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hess chart is specifically designed to assess binocular vision and ocular muscle function, especially useful in diagnosing and managing strabismus and similar conditions affecting eye alignment and movement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy presents with fever, night sweats, and neck swelling. The biopsy of swelling showed a starry sky appearance. What is the most likely genetic abnormality seen in this case? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MYC gene", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "RAS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BCR-ABL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "p53", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MYC gene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Burkitt's lymphoma is characterized by the t(8;14) translocation involving the MYC gene , which leads to the overexpression of the MYC protein, driving the aggressive nature of the disease. The starry sky appearance on histopathology is a key diagnostic feature.</li><li>➤ Burkitt's lymphoma</li><li>➤ t(8;14) translocation</li><li>➤ MYC gene</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1123</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Treatment of choice for an acute attack of cluster headache is: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral sumatriptan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subcutaneous sumatriptan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "100% oxygen at 6 L/minute", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100% oxygen at 8 L/minute", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subcutaneous sumatriptan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Subcutaneous sumatriptan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The treatment of choice for an acute attack of cluster headache is subcutaneous sumatriptan, and 100% oxygen therapy should be administered at a rate of at least 12 liters per minute for effectiveness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of cyclosporine? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibition of calcineurin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "AMP kinase stimulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IMP dehydrogenase inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibition of calcineurin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Inhibition of calcineurin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cyclosporine exerts its immunosuppressive effects by inhibiting calcineurin, thereby preventing the activation of T cells and reducing the production of cytokines such as IL-2. This mechanism is crucial for its role in preventing graft rejection and managing autoimmune diseases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with vertigo, tinnitus, and head tilt. He underwent myringoplasty for the safe type of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) 6 months back. What is your diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perilymphatic fistula", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Labyrinthitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paget's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vestibular schwannoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Perilymphatic fistula", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Perilymphatic fistula</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Perilymphatic fistula should be suspected in patients presenting with vestibular symptoms following ear surgery, particularly when associated with activities that change intracranial or middle ear pressure. Diagnosis is largely based on clinical history, symptomatology, and specific imaging tests.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the pelvic diaphragm in the picture given below: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/28/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901258.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The levator ani is the principal muscle of the pelvic floor and is composed of three parts: the puborectalis, the pubococcygeus, and the iliococcygeus. It is primarily innervated by the pudendal nerve and the S4 nerve root.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The marked structure develops from which of the following structures? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Common cardinal vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior cardinal vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supracardinal vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subcardinal vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Supracardinal vein", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Supracardinal vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The supracardinal veins develop in the embryo as paired structures and are involved in the drainage of the body wall. On the right side, the supracardinal vein becomes the azygos vein, while on the left side, it contributes to the formation of the hemiazygos and accessory hemiazygos veins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Milk production in pregnancy is inhibited by? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low luteinizing hormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High estrogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human somatomammotropin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low thyroid-stimulating hormone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High estrogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) High estrogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High estrogen levels inhibit milk production during pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 173, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 173, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following jugular venous pressure (JVP) waves corresponds to the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a wave", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "c wave", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "x descent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "y descent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. c wave", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-nov-1-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) c wave</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"c\" wave of the jugular venous pressure waveform corresponds to the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle, reflecting the bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium as the right ventricle begins to contract.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neonate is found to have increased irritability, poor feeding, and 2 episodes of seizures. Lumbar puncture was done and the findings were suggestive of meningitis. What is the most likely causative organism? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus agalactiae", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria meningitidis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Listeria monocytogenes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Streptococcus agalactiae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Streptococcus agalactiae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae) is the most common cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and early recognition and treatment are critical for reducing morbidity and mortality.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Administration of which of the following drugs would increase the bioavailability of saquinavir? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ritonavir", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cimetidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ganciclovir", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ritonavir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ritonavir</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person was brought to the emergency department with facial swelling, itching, and hypotension following a bee sting. The mentioned clinical features are due to the increase in which immunoglobulin? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgE", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgM", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IgE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-402.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IgE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IgE is the immunoglobulin responsible for mediating type I hypersensitivity reactions , such as anaphylaxis, which can occur in response to bee stings or other allergens.</li><li>➤ IgE</li><li>➤ type I hypersensitivity reactions</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 373</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 373</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After reaching an equilibrium state during exercising, it was found that the body was consuming oxygen at the rate of 1500 ml/min. Calculate the MET score if the baseline oxygen consumption at rest is 250 ml/min? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1/5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1/6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The MET score represents the energy expenditure of an activity as a multiple of the resting metabolic rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following in the Japanese encephalitis virus life cycle? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-173342.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_XhS7DFx.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the Japanese encephalitis virus life cycle:</li><li>➤ Humans are accidental hosts. Pigs are amplifier hosts. Ardeid birds are reservoir hosts. Culex mosquitoes are the vectors responsible for transmission.</li><li>➤ Humans are accidental hosts.</li><li>➤ Humans</li><li>➤ Pigs are amplifier hosts.</li><li>➤ Pigs</li><li>➤ Ardeid birds are reservoir hosts.</li><li>➤ Ardeid birds</li><li>➤ Culex mosquitoes are the vectors responsible for transmission.</li><li>➤ Culex mosquitoes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following has the highest airway resistance? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alveolar duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchi", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory bronchioles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small bronchioles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bronchi", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-nov-1-9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bronchi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Bronchi, the medium-sized airways, have the highest airway resistance due to their relatively narrow diameter compared to the total cross-sectional area of smaller airways.</li><li>➤ Airflow can be derived from Poiseuille- Hagen formula:</li><li>➤ Airflow can be derived from Poiseuille- Hagen formula:</li><li>➤ Where:</li><li>➤ Where:</li><li>➤ R is the resistance is pie symbol r is radius is viscosity L is length</li><li>➤ R is the resistance</li><li>➤ is pie symbol</li><li>➤ r is radius</li><li>➤ is viscosity</li><li>➤ L is length</li><li>➤ According to Poisuille’s formula, Airway resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power radius.</li><li>➤ Poiseuille- Hagen formula suggests that the smallest airways are the major site of resistance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old boy came with bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis, cell, and virus associated with the image given below? ( AIIMS NOV 2021) ( RS cell: Reed - Sternberg cell, HIV: Human immunodeficiency virus, CMV: Cytomegalovirus, EBV: Epstein-Barr virus )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, RS cell, EBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kaposi sarcoma, Giant cell, HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hodgkin's lymphoma, RS cell, EBV", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infectious mononucleosis, RS cell, CMV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hodgkin's lymphoma, RS cell, EBV", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-398.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-04-181612.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hodgkin's lymphoma, RS cell, EBV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hodgkin's lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells , and it is often associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) , particularly in specific subtypes.</li><li>➤ Hodgkin's lymphoma</li><li>➤ Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells</li><li>➤ Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following external fixators used for treatment of fracture of tibia in order of increasing stability: (INICET NOV 2021) Ilizarov Uniplanar frame with one rod Biplanar frame Uniplanar frame with two rods", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "II, IV, III, I", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "I, III, II, IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "II, III, IV, I", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I, II, III, IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. II, IV, III, I", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/external-fixator_page_1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_mA9lhdg.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. II, IV, III, I</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For the fixation of tibia fracture, the order of external fixators used in order of increased stability is:</li><li>➤ For the fixation of tibia fracture, the order of external fixators used in order of increased stability is:</li><li>➤ For the fixation of tibia fracture, the order of external fixators used in order of increased stability is:</li><li>➤ Uniplanar frame with one rod (II) &lt; uniplanar frame with two rods (IV) &lt; biplanar frame (III) &lt; ilizarov (I)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following congenital heart disease has equal saturation in all the chambers of the heart? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tetralogy of Fallot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total anomalous pulmonary venous circulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tricuspid atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transposition of great arteries", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous circulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/112.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Total anomalous pulmonary venous circulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Circulation (TAPVC), there is equal oxygen saturation in all chambers of the heart due to the complete mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the right atrium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the appropriate technique to measure the placement of a nasogastric tube? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "From the tip of the nose to the ear lobule to the xiphisternum.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "From the angle of the mouth to the tragus to the xiphisternum.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "From the ala of the nose to the angle of the mandible to the xiphisternum.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "From the angle of the mouth to the ear lobule to the umbilicus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. From the tip of the nose to the ear lobule to the xiphisternum.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/whatsapp-image-2023-11-17-at-21320-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) From the tip of the nose to the ear lobule to the xiphisternum.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To determine the appropriate length of a nasogastric tube (also known as Ryle's tube) used for treating intestinal obstruction or providing nutritional support, the NEX method is commonly used, which involves measuring from the tip of the nose to the ear lobule to the xiphisternum. The approximate length to be inserted is around 55 cm. The preferred position for inserting the Ryle's tube is in a sitting position with the neck slightly flexed.</li><li>➤ The proper positioning of the tube can be confirmed through auscultation in the epigastric area while injecting a bolus of air or by an abdominal radiograph. The ideal placement for an NG tube used for suction is within the stomach to avoid damage to the duodenum. In contrast, an NG feeding tube should be placed post-pyloric to reduce the risk of aspiration.</li><li>➤ Indications for NG tube usage include gastric decompression in intestinal obstruction, aspiration of gastric fluid, nutritional support, and medication administration. However, some absolute contraindications to NG tube insertion include severe midface trauma and recent nasal surgery.</li><li>➤ A tray of specialized instruments is used for nasogastric tube insertion, including a lubricating jelly, an NG tube, a syringe, and gloves, among others.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following devices can be used for managing a patient with B/L external auditory canal atresia?(INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture38.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with bilateral external auditory canal atresia, BAHA is an excellent management option, leveraging bone conduction to bypass the outer and middle ear, thus facilitating hearing when traditional air-conduction devices cannot be used.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urinary sodium &lt;20 mEq/L", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum sodium &lt;135 mEq/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine osmolality &gt;100 mOsm/kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patient can be clinically euvolemic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urinary sodium <20 mEq/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Urinary sodium &lt;20 mEq/L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key fact to remember is that in SIADH, patients have high urinary sodium (typically &gt;40 mEq/L) due to the body's inability to excrete water properly, leading to concentrated urine.</li><li>➤ high urinary sodium (typically &gt;40 mEq/L)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are true? (INICET NOV 2021) Due to increasing mammography, there occurs over-diagnosis of breast carcinoma Colon cancer screening is done by digital rectal examination Oral cancer screening is done by visual inspection Cervix cancer screening is done by a pap smear", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Screening for common cancers using relatively non-invasive tests is expected to lead to early diagnosis, allow more conservative surgical therapies with decreased morbidity, and potentially improve surgical cure rates and overall survival rates. Current American Cancer Society guidelines advocate colon cancer screening for the average-risk population beginning at age 50 years. Recommended procedures include yearly fecal occult blood testing (FOBT)/fecal immunohistochemical testing (FIT), flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years, or FOBT/FIT and flexible sigmoidoscopy. Visual inspection of the oral cavity has been widely used for screening oral cancer. The target population for oral cancer screening includes those aged 30 years and older who use tobacco and/or alcohol. Advantages of visual inspection include its feasibility, safety, acceptability, accuracy to detect oral precancerous and cancerous lesions, and efficacy and cost-effectiveness in reducing oral cancer mortality. Pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer. Screening should begin at age 21 years. For women aged between 21-29 years, screening should be done every 3 years with Pap smear examination. For women aged between 30-65 years, screening should be done every 5 years with both HPV and the Pap co-test. Using mammography as a routine screening tool in women has been reported to reduce mortality from breast cancer. The United Kingdom recently established an independent expert panel to estimate the benefits and harms associated with screening women in its national screening program. The panel estimated that breast screening resulted in a 20% reduction in breast cancer mortality. The panel also noted over-diagnosis of breast carcinoma but concluded that breast screening confers significant benefits and should be continued.</li><li>➤ Screening for common cancers using relatively non-invasive tests is expected to lead to early diagnosis, allow more conservative surgical therapies with decreased morbidity, and potentially improve surgical cure rates and overall survival rates.</li><li>➤ Current American Cancer Society guidelines advocate colon cancer screening for the average-risk population beginning at age 50 years. Recommended procedures include yearly fecal occult blood testing (FOBT)/fecal immunohistochemical testing (FIT), flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years, or FOBT/FIT and flexible sigmoidoscopy.</li><li>➤ Visual inspection of the oral cavity has been widely used for screening oral cancer. The target population for oral cancer screening includes those aged 30 years and older who use tobacco and/or alcohol. Advantages of visual inspection include its feasibility, safety, acceptability, accuracy to detect oral precancerous and cancerous lesions, and efficacy and cost-effectiveness in reducing oral cancer mortality.</li><li>➤ Pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer. Screening should begin at age 21 years. For women aged between 21-29 years, screening should be done every 3 years with Pap smear examination. For women aged between 30-65 years, screening should be done every 5 years with both HPV and the Pap co-test.</li><li>➤ Using mammography as a routine screening tool in women has been reported to reduce mortality from breast cancer. The United Kingdom recently established an independent expert panel to estimate the benefits and harms associated with screening women in its national screening program. The panel estimated that breast screening resulted in a 20% reduction in breast cancer mortality. The panel also noted over-diagnosis of breast carcinoma but concluded that breast screening confers significant benefits and should be continued.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with hypoxemia and a normal alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient. What can be the cause? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right to left shunt", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventilation/Perfusion mismatch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypoventilation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alveolar membrane damage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypoventilation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypoventilation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypoventilation is a primary cause of hypoxemia with a normal alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not glucogenic?(INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxaloacetate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acetyl CoA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lactate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyruvate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acetyl CoA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acetyl coenzyme A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acetyl CoA is not a glucogenic compound as it cannot be directly converted into glucose, unlike oxaloacetate, lactate, and pyruvate, which are glucogenic and contribute to glucose synthesis.</li><li>➤ Substrates of gluconeogenesis (mostly 3C)</li><li>➤ Substrates of gluconeogenesis (mostly 3C)</li><li>➤ Pyruvate (3C) Lactate (3C) Propionic acid (3C) Glycerol (3C) Glucogenic amino acids (18 amino acids) Both Ketogenic &amp; Glucogenic amino acids Any TCA Intermediate (forms oxaloacetate which can enter gluconeogenesis)</li><li>➤ Pyruvate (3C)</li><li>➤ Lactate (3C)</li><li>➤ Propionic acid (3C)</li><li>➤ Glycerol (3C)</li><li>➤ Glucogenic amino acids (18 amino acids)</li><li>➤ Both Ketogenic &amp; Glucogenic amino acids</li><li>➤ Any TCA Intermediate (forms oxaloacetate which can enter gluconeogenesis)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is NOT a part of AMTSL? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterotonics after delivery of placenta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Controlled cord traction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Early cord clamping", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Early cord clamping", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Early cord clamping</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct components of AMTSL include administering a uterotonic, controlled cord traction, and uterine massage. Early cord clamping is not part of AMTSL; instead, delayed cord clamping is recommended.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient has grade III ASA. Which of the following post bronchodilator PFT findings requires further evaluation of the lung function of the patient? ( INICET Nov 2021) ASA- American Society of Anesthesiology PFT- Pulmonary function test FEV1 - Forced expiratory volume in 1 second FVC- Forced vital capacity", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FEV1 &lt; 0.85 and FEV1/FVC &lt;0.8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "FEV1 &lt; 0.85 and FEV1/FVC &lt;0.75", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FEV1 &lt; 0.8 and FEV1/FVC &lt;0.7", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "FEV1 &lt; 0.8 and FEV1/FVC &lt;0.75", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. FEV1 < 0.8 and FEV1/FVC <0.7", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/06/screenshot-2024-07-06-150644.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. FEV1 &lt; 0.8 and FEV1/FVC &lt;0.7</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ As per GOLD criteria for COPD, FEV1 &lt;0.8 and FEV1/FVC &lt;0.7 are classified as moderate COPD and require further evaluation of lung function.</li><li>➤ GOLD criteria for COPD is given as follows:</li><li>➤ GOLD criteria for COPD is given as follows:</li><li>➤ Abbreviations : COPD, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; GOLD, Global Initiative for Lung Disease</li><li>➤ Abbreviations</li><li>➤ As per GOLD criteria for COPD, FEV1 &lt;0.8 and FEV1/FVC &lt;0.7 are classified as moderate COPD and require further evaluation of the lung function.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 950</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 950</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old patient arrives at the clinic with complaints of nasal obstruction on the right side and sporadic occurrences of blood-stained nasal discharge. The CT scan results are depicted in the image provided. What might be the potential underlying reason for these symptoms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inverted papilloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maxillary carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esthesioneuroblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inverted papilloma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture42.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture43.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture44.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture45.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture46.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inverted Papilloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inverted Papilloma should be considered when an elderly patient presents with unilateral nasal symptoms and imaging reveals a mass, especially when the presentation includes epistaxis and nasal obstruction without the severe pain or neurological symptoms that might suggest a more malignant etiology.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a global health conference, you're in a discussion with fellow epidemiologists about the changing patterns of disease occurrence over the years. The conversation shifts towards the steady rise in non-communicable diseases over a considerable time span. One of your colleagues quizzes the group on the terminology for such a trend. Which term best describes this pattern of increasing prevalence over extended periods? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seasonal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclical", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Periodic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secular", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Secular", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Secular</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secular trends describe long-term changes in disease occurrence over years or decades, distinct from seasonal or cyclical variations.</li><li>➤ Secular trends describe long-term changes in disease occurrence over years or decades, distinct from seasonal or cyclical variations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the gold standard investigation for the diagnosis of myocarditis? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endo-myocardial biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Magnetic Resonance Imaging", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brain Natriuretic Peptide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LDH1 to LDH2 ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endo-myocardial biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-112101.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Endo-myocardial biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endo-myocardial biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosing myocarditis, as it allows for direct histopathological examination of myocardial tissue.</li><li>➤ Endo-myocardial biopsy</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 1064</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 1064</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Imagine being part of a team aiming to identify the link between a novel nutritional supplement and its potential effects on muscle growth. You're tasked with deciding the most appropriate study design to establish a cause-and-effect relationship. Among the given options, which study design would be the most effective for demonstrating a connection between cause and effect? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Case control study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cross-sectional study", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clinical trial", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cohort study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cohort study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cohort studies are ideal for establishing cause-and-effect relationships by following exposures over time and observing outcomes.</li><li>➤ Cohort studies are ideal for establishing cause-and-effect relationships by following exposures over time and observing outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the frequency of tetanic stimulation used in neuromuscular monitoring? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.2 Hz", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 Hz", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 Hz", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "50 Hz", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 50 Hz", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/06/screenshot-2024-07-06-120657.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/06/single-twitch.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 50 Hz</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is the frequency typically used for tetanic stimulation in neuromuscular monitoring. A stimulation of 50 Hz for 5 seconds results in a tetanic contraction. If the patient is under profound neuromuscular blockade, no contraction will be observed. If there's some recovery from blockade, a contraction will be noted but may be weaker than in a patient with no blockade. Fade during or after tetanic stimulation can indicate incomplete recovery from blockade.</li><li>• Tetanic stimulation is a method used in neuromuscular monitoring to assess the degree of neuromuscular blockade in patients who have received neuromuscular blocking agents (often used during surgeries to produce muscle paralysis). Tetanic stimulation involves giving a high-frequency series of electrical impulses to a peripheral nerve to cause sustained muscle contraction. The response to tetanic stimulation can help determine the depth of neuromuscular blockade and the presence of fade.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 0.2 Hz : This frequency is more representative of a \"single twitch\" stimulation, where one stimulus is delivered every 5 seconds. It is used to monitor the initial onset and the later stages of recovery from neuromuscular blockade.</li><li>• Option A. 0.2 Hz</li><li>• Option B. 2 Hz : This refers to a train-of-four (TOF) stimulation where four stimuli are given at a frequency of 2 Hz (2 stimuli per second). It's a common method of monitoring neuromuscular blockade, especially when assessing for residual blockade. A fading response in the TOF is indicative of neuromuscular blockade.</li><li>• Option B. 2 Hz</li><li>• Option C. 20 Hz : This isn't a standard frequency for neuromuscular monitoring.</li><li>• Option C. 20 Hz</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The frequency of tetanic stimulation used in neuromuscular monitoring is typically 50 Hz.</li><li>➤ PATTERN OF NERVE STIMULATION:</li><li>➤ PATTERN OF NERVE STIMULATION:</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1359</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1359</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man presents with the following lesion after traumatic inoculation. Identify the causative organism? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycobacterium scrofulaceum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sporothrix schencki", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Madurella mycetomatis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phialophora verrucosa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sporothrix schencki", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_ECFy0jT.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_grpav2l.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sporothrix schencki</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sporothrix schenckii, the cause of sporotrichosis, typically presents as a chain of nodular and ulcerating lesions along lymphatic channels following traumatic inoculation, earning it the name \"Rose Gardener's Disease.\"</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During resuscitation in a patient with severe hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias, a patient received a 20% Intralipid injection. What could have been the most probable diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Local anesthesia toxicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asphyxia due to drowning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Electrocution", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulseless electrical activity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Local anesthesia toxicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Local anesthesia toxicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Intralipid (20% lipid emulsion) is used specifically for treating local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) by acting as a lipid sink to reduce the concentration of the local anesthetic in the plasma.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 885</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 885</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-year-old male comes with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS). Which of the following is not a typical presenting LUTS? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sudden urge to urinate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incontinence while asleep", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incontinence when patient lies down and coughs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incontinence during intercourse", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Incontinence during intercourse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Incontinence during intercourse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LUTS can be divided into three categories: storage, voiding, and post-micturitional.</li><li>➤ Storage LUTS involves the failure of the bladder to act as a urine reservoir, leading to symptoms such as increased frequency of voiding, nocturia, urgency, and urge incontinence.</li><li>➤ Voiding LUTS is commonly seen in bladder outlet obstruction and includes symptoms such as hesitancy, reduced stream, and straining.</li><li>➤ Post-micturitional LUTS, also caused by bladder outlet obstruction, includes symptoms such as incomplete emptying and post-micturition dribble. Other symptoms of LUTS include stress incontinence, nocturnal enuresis, and strangury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common complication of the central line insertion below the marked bone? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arterial puncture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thrombophlebitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Empyema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chylothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arterial puncture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-15_OHMmMGN.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Arterial puncture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The bone indicated in the image above is the left clavicle. An arterial puncture is the most common complication of a central line insertion below this bone.</li><li>• Complications of central vein catheterization are - Arterial puncture- this is the most common complication. Cardiac tamponade is the most important life-threatening complication. It occurs as a result of puncture of intrapericardial superior vena cava, right atrium, or right ventricle. Pneumothorax- injury to the underlying pleura may lead to pneumothorax. This is more common in subclavian vein catheterization. Chylothorax can occur particularly in left subclavian vein catheterization. But it is not the most common. Injury to the associated nerves like brachial plexus, stellate ganglion, phrenic nerve, or vocal cords. Thromboembolism leading to venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism is more common with femoral veins. Infections</li><li>• Complications of central vein catheterization are - Arterial puncture- this is the most common complication. Cardiac tamponade is the most important life-threatening complication. It occurs as a result of puncture of intrapericardial superior vena cava, right atrium, or right ventricle. Pneumothorax- injury to the underlying pleura may lead to pneumothorax. This is more common in subclavian vein catheterization. Chylothorax can occur particularly in left subclavian vein catheterization. But it is not the most common. Injury to the associated nerves like brachial plexus, stellate ganglion, phrenic nerve, or vocal cords. Thromboembolism leading to venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism is more common with femoral veins. Infections</li><li>• Complications of central vein catheterization are -</li><li>• Arterial puncture- this is the most common complication. Cardiac tamponade is the most important life-threatening complication. It occurs as a result of puncture of intrapericardial superior vena cava, right atrium, or right ventricle. Pneumothorax- injury to the underlying pleura may lead to pneumothorax. This is more common in subclavian vein catheterization. Chylothorax can occur particularly in left subclavian vein catheterization. But it is not the most common. Injury to the associated nerves like brachial plexus, stellate ganglion, phrenic nerve, or vocal cords. Thromboembolism leading to venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism is more common with femoral veins. Infections</li><li>• Arterial puncture- this is the most common complication.</li><li>• Cardiac tamponade is the most important life-threatening complication. It occurs as a result of puncture of intrapericardial superior vena cava, right atrium, or right ventricle.</li><li>• Pneumothorax- injury to the underlying pleura may lead to pneumothorax. This is more common in subclavian vein catheterization.</li><li>• Chylothorax can occur particularly in left subclavian vein catheterization. But it is not the most common.</li><li>• Injury to the associated nerves like brachial plexus, stellate ganglion, phrenic nerve, or vocal cords.</li><li>• Thromboembolism leading to venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism is more common with femoral veins.</li><li>• Infections</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B . Thrombophlebitis : Thrombophlebitis refers to inflammation of a vein associated with clot formation. While thrombophlebitis can occur following any central line placement, it's more commonly associated with peripheral IV lines. However, central venous catheters are more commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is the formation of a blood clot inside the larger, deeper veins.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Thrombophlebitis</li><li>• Option C. Empyema : Empyema refers to the accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity. While empyema itself is not a direct complication of central line placement, pneumothorax or hemothorax (air or blood in the pleural space, respectively) caused by central line placement can lead to infection and subsequently empyema if not recognized and treated.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Empyema</li><li>• Option D . Chylothorax : Chylothorax is the accumulation of lymphatic fluid in the pleural space. This can happen if the thoracic duct is damaged. The thoracic duct is a major lymphatic vessel that runs in the thorax but is not typically at risk with subclavian line placement. Chylothorax would be more of a concern with procedures that are done in close proximity to the thoracic duct, like surgeries or interventions in the mediastinum or around the esophagus.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Chylothorax</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arterial puncture is one of the most common complications associated with the subclavian approach for central venous catheter placement. The subclavian artery lies directly beneath the vein, so inadvertent puncture of the artery can occur if the needle is advanced too deeply or at an incorrect angle. Accidental puncture of the subclavian artery can lead to complications such as hematoma, hemothorax, and can also be problematic if not recognized because threading a catheter into the arterial system can have catastrophic consequences.</li><li>➤ Arterial puncture</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following disorders causing secondary amenorrhea with their respective lab findings: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-172314.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Secondary amenorrhea is the absence of menses for more than three months in girls or women who previously had regular menstrual cycles or six months in girls or women who had irregular menses. Premature Ovarian failure: FSH and LH levels will be very high, estrogen levels are low Asherman's syndrome: As the cause in the endometrium, hormonal levels are normal. PCOS: Alteration in the LH/FSH ratio Sheehan's syndrome/ pituitary apoplexy: Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism: So FSH and LH are low and so is Estrogen</li><li>• Secondary amenorrhea is the absence of menses for more than three months in girls or women who previously had regular menstrual cycles or six months in girls or women who had irregular menses.</li><li>• Premature Ovarian failure: FSH and LH levels will be very high, estrogen levels are low</li><li>• Asherman's syndrome: As the cause in the endometrium, hormonal levels are normal.</li><li>• PCOS: Alteration in the LH/FSH ratio</li><li>• Sheehan's syndrome/ pituitary apoplexy: Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism: So FSH and LH are low and so is Estrogen</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To correctly diagnose the underlying cause of secondary amenorrhea, it is essential to understand and interpret the hormonal profiles associated with different conditions:</li><li>➤ Premature Ovarian Failure: Elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased estradiol indicate ovarian insufficiency. Asherman Syndrome: Low levels of FSH, LH, and estradiol suggest an endometrial cause, such as scarring. PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome): Typically characterized by normal FSH, elevated LH, and normal estradiol levels, reflecting an imbalance in gonadotropins. Sheehan Syndrome: Normal levels of FSH, LH, and estradiol are indicative of pituitary insufficiency, where the pituitary gland fails to stimulate the ovaries.</li><li>➤ Premature Ovarian Failure: Elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased estradiol indicate ovarian insufficiency.</li><li>➤ Premature Ovarian Failure:</li><li>➤ Asherman Syndrome: Low levels of FSH, LH, and estradiol suggest an endometrial cause, such as scarring.</li><li>➤ Asherman Syndrome:</li><li>➤ PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome): Typically characterized by normal FSH, elevated LH, and normal estradiol levels, reflecting an imbalance in gonadotropins.</li><li>➤ PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome):</li><li>➤ Sheehan Syndrome: Normal levels of FSH, LH, and estradiol are indicative of pituitary insufficiency, where the pituitary gland fails to stimulate the ovaries.</li><li>➤ Sheehan Syndrome:</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg 380,</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg 380,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following eggs to the organism? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-170216.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_J55uDw6.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-170551.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_eJcpnQc.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_7Nde0KF.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_U2KRrjv.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which part of this bone is palpable in the infraclavicular fossa: (INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "F", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The coracoid process is a palpable landmark in the infraclavicular fossa, important for clinical examination and as a reference point for various shoulder procedures. Its recognition is crucial in the assessment of shoulder pathologies and for orientation during surgical approaches to the shoulder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the false statement out of the following: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TACE is used for multinodular lesions", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lenvatinib is used for lesions less than 3 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The incidence of HCC is increasing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NASH and NAFLD are risk factors for HCC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lenvatinib is used for lesions less than 3 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lenvatinib is used for lesions less than 3 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Barcelona-Clinic-Liver Cancer (BCLC) Classification is the commonly used staging system for HCC. Very early HCC is treated by ablation, early HCC with a single nodule is resected, and when there are multiple nodules over 3 cm, ablation or transplantation are considered. Intermediate stage HCC is treated by chemoembolization, and TACE (Trans-arterial chemoembolization) is used for multinodular lesions. Advanced stages of the disease with macrovascular invasion are treated with systemic therapies. Lenvatinib and sorafenib are first-line drugs. Supportive care is given at the terminal stage of the disease.</li><li>➤ The Barcelona-Clinic-Liver Cancer (BCLC) Classification is the commonly used staging system for HCC.</li><li>➤ Very early HCC is treated by ablation, early HCC with a single nodule is resected, and when there are multiple nodules over 3 cm, ablation or transplantation are considered.</li><li>➤ Intermediate stage HCC is treated by chemoembolization, and TACE (Trans-arterial chemoembolization) is used for multinodular lesions.</li><li>➤ Advanced stages of the disease with macrovascular invasion are treated with systemic therapies. Lenvatinib and sorafenib are first-line drugs.</li><li>➤ Supportive care is given at the terminal stage of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with following lesions on the genitals. Scrapings from the lesion would show? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tzanck cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multinucleate giant cells (MNGCs)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A &amp; B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Henderson Patterson bodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both A & B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/2_ba9b5kJ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/3_dWwqGqk.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/4_LZvYmJE.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/25/screenshot-2023-11-25-114321.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Both A &amp; B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Herpes simplex virus infections, scrapings from lesions may show both Acantholytic / Tzanck cells and Multinucleate giant cells (MNGCs).</li><li>➤ Herpes simplex virus</li><li>➤ Acantholytic / Tzanck</li><li>➤ Multinucleate giant cells (MNGCs).</li><li>➤ Ref - Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology 10 th edition Page no 474-476</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology 10 th edition Page no 474-476</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding mitochondrial DNA? ( INICET Nov 2021) Higher chances of mutations as compared to the nuclear genome Single stranded Circular DNA mt codons are slightly different from nuclear DNA codons mtDNA encodes for all the ETC complex proteins Has around 16,000 base pairs", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, C, E", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B, A, C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D, B, E", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A, C, E", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-103550.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A, C, E</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial DNA has a higher mutation rate compared to nuclear DNA, has a slightly different genetic code, and contains around 16,000 base pairs, encoding for a portion but not all of the proteins required for the electron transport chain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient suffered from tibial fracture following a road traffic accident. He complained of pain on passive flexion. His posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses were palpable, but he had loss of sensation in the 1st webspace. What will be the next step? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reapply cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Get a venous Doppler done", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measure anterior compartment pressure", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give analgesics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Measure anterior compartment pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-05-163810.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-08-105101.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Measure anterior compartment pressure</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vulval hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condyloma accuminata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vulval cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bartholin cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vulval cancer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_7PtUv03.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vulval cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image shows a 4 cm × 5 cm irregular fungating lesion present on the left labium majus of the vulva. The most likely diagnosis is vulvar carcinoma. Vulvar cancer is typically characterized by irregular, fungating, or ulcerative lesions on the vulva. These lesions can be painful and may bleed or discharge.</li><li>• The given image shows a 4 cm × 5 cm irregular fungating lesion present on the left labium majus of the vulva. The most likely diagnosis is vulvar carcinoma.</li><li>• Vulvar cancer is typically characterized by irregular, fungating, or ulcerative lesions on the vulva. These lesions can be painful and may bleed or discharge.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vulval hematoma: Vulval hematomas may occur due to direct trauma or accidental injuries. They present as a localized collection of blood within the vulvar tissues, leading to swelling and bruising, but they do not typically form irregular fungating lesions.</li><li>• Option A. Vulval hematoma:</li><li>• Option B. Condyloma acuminata: Condyloma acuminata, also known as genital warts, are commonly caused by HPV types 6 and 11.</li><li>• Option B. Condyloma acuminata:</li><li>• They appear as multiple, small, cauliflower-like growths and are not typically large, irregular, or fungating.</li><li>• Option D. Bartholin cyst: A Bartholin cyst occurs when the duct of the Bartholin gland gets blocked due to infection, resulting in a buildup of glandular secretions.</li><li>• Option D. Bartholin cyst:</li><li>• It presents as a swelling on one side of the vaginal opening, but it is typically smooth and round, not irregular and fungating.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vulvar cancer often presents as an irregular, fungating lesion on the vulva.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 337,338</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 337,338</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the incorrect statement regarding clomiphene citrate? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Causes monofollicular development", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibits negative feedback on GnRH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Causes endometrial thinning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Can be used with gonadotropins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Causes monofollicular development", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Causes monofollicular development</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clomiphene citrate induces ovulation by inhibiting the negative feedback of estrogen on the hypothalamus, leading to increased secretion of gonadotropins and the development of multiple follicles. It can cause endometrial thinning and can be used with gonadotropins, but it does not cause monofollicular development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Third part of vertebral artery is related to which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/anat-inicet-nov-2021-10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman presented with confusion, constipation, and persistent low mood. ALP was elevated. She was diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following is the imaging of choice? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "FDG PET", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "СТ", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sestamibi scan", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sestamibi scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-171.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-153042.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sestamibi scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical features of 40-year-old woman with confusion, constipation, along with persistent low mood is suggestive of hypercalcemia, which could be due to primary Hyperparathyroidism.</li><li>• IOC for parathyroid adenoma: Tc99-Sestamibi scan</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. MRI: While MRI can provide detailed soft tissue images, it is not the preferred imaging modality for detecting parathyroid adenomas.</li><li>• Option A. MRI:</li><li>• Option B. FDG PET: PET scans are used in cancer imaging and are not specific for identifying parathyroid adenomas.</li><li>• Option B. FDG PET:</li><li>• Option C. CT: While CT scans can identify anatomical details and some tumors, they lack the specificity of Sestamibi scans in identifying hyperactive parathyroid tissue.</li><li>• Option C. CT:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Sestamibi scan is specifically useful for identifying parathyroid adenomas in patients suspected of having primary hyperparathyroidism, due to its ability to effectively localize hyperfunctioning parathyroid tissue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thiamine deficiency causes lactic acidosis due to inhibition of: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PDH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyruvate carboxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PEP carboxy kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyruvate kinase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PDH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/7_vr24cgN.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PDH (Pyruvate dehydrogenase)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyruvate dehydrogenase is the enzyme affected in a patient with thiamine deficiency who develops lactic acidosis.</li><li>➤ Enzyme performing oxidative decarboxylation need vitamin B1 for their reaction. Some examples are:</li><li>➤ PDH Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Isocitrate dehydrogenase Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ PDH</li><li>➤ Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ Isocitrate dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ Additional Information:</li><li>➤ Additional Information:</li><li>➤ Marker for B1 deficiency is Transketolase activity Coenzyme for simple decarboxylation: B6 Marker for B2 deficiency is RBC glutathione reductase activity</li><li>➤ Marker for B1 deficiency is Transketolase activity</li><li>➤ Transketolase activity</li><li>➤ Coenzyme for simple decarboxylation: B6</li><li>➤ Marker for B2 deficiency is RBC glutathione reductase activity</li><li>➤ RBC glutathione reductase activity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If the contractility of the heart is decreased, which of the following is seen? ( INICET Nov 2021) ESV: End-systolic volume EDV: End-diastolic volume", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EDV and pressure curve shifts to left without change in slope", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Slope changes in ESV pressure curve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "End systolic volume and pressure curve shifts to left without change in slope", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Slope changes in EDV and pressure curve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Slope changes in ESV pressure curve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-nov-1-7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Slope changes in ESV pressure curve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A decrease in cardiac contractility leads to a decrease in the slope of the end-systolic pressure-volume (ESV) curve, indicating reduced efficiency in blood ejection during systole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The extracellular concentration of chloride is 100mmol/L and the intracellular concentration is 10 mol/L. What is the equilibrium potential of chloride? (INICET NOVEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "+ 10 mV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "- 10 mV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "- 60 mV", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "+ 60 mV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. - 60 mV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/screenshot-2024-05-29-104405.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) - 60 mV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The equilibrium potential for an ion can be calculated using the Nernst equation:</li><li>➤ The equilibrium potential for an ion can be calculated using the Nernst equation:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Double bleb sign seen in early pregnancy is due to? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Twin pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amnion and chorion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yolk sac and amniotic sac", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heterotopic pregnancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Yolk sac and amniotic sac", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-174.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-175.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Yolk sac and amniotic sac</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The double bleb sign is due to the yolk sac and amniotic sac.</li><li>• On USG, gestational sac contains the yolk sac and amniotic sac which appear as two small bubbles known as the double bleb sign.</li><li>• It is seen at 7.5 – 8 weeks.</li><li>• Do not confuse with Double decidual sign</li><li>• Double decidual sign</li><li>• Double decidual sign – true gestational sac surrounded by two layers – decidua capsularis and decidua parietalis with fluid collection in between.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Twin pregnancy: This would involve two separate gestational sacs or distinct embryonic structures in a single sac, not the double bleb sign of a single gestational sac.</li><li>• Option A. Twin pregnancy:</li><li>• Option B. Amnion and chorion: These are two layers surrounding the embryo, but the double bleb sign specifically refers to the early visualization of the yolk sac and amniotic sac.</li><li>• Option B. Amnion and chorion:</li><li>• Option D. Heterotopic pregnancy: Involves simultaneous intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies. This would not specifically relate to the double bleb sign, which is a normal ultrasound finding in a single intrauterine pregnancy.</li><li>• Option D. Heterotopic pregnancy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The double bleb sign is a normal ultrasound finding in early pregnancy, showing the presence of both the yolk sac and the amniotic sac within the gestational sac, important for confirming a normal early intrauterine pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following in relation to fingerprint changes: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-e, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-e, 5-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b, 5-e", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-e, 5-b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-e, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/12/screenshot-2024-06-12-111635.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/12/screenshot-2024-06-12-111643.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1-e, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient after a road traffic accident presents to the emergency room with difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech. Investigations reveal fractures in the occipitotemporal region. Which of the following areas should be tested in order to find the nerve which is involved? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/screenshot-2023-11-09-170026.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The occipitotemporal fracture in the clinical scenario is suggestive of involvement of the 9th and 10th cranial nerves, which are tested by pressing on the uvula, which is indicated as 2 in the image.</li><li>• The jugular foramen is located between the lower border of the petrous part of the temporal bone and the condylar part of the occipital bone. As the investigations reveal fractures in the occipitotemporal region, along with the history of difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech, are suggestive of injury to the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerve passing through the jugular foramen.</li><li>• Unilateral lesions of IX and X cranial nerves are commonly caused by skull-base fractures, strokes, or tumors.</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerve examination include :</li><li>• Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerve examination include</li><li>• Observing the position and symmetry of the palate and uvula(marked as 2 in the given image) at rest and with phonation (\"aah\"). The pharyngeal (gag\") reflex is evaluated by stimulating the posterior pharyngeal wall on each side with a sterile, blunt object (e.g., tongue blade)</li><li>• Observing the position and symmetry of the palate and uvula(marked as 2 in the given image) at rest and with phonation (\"aah\").</li><li>• The pharyngeal (gag\") reflex is evaluated by stimulating the posterior pharyngeal wall on each side with a sterile, blunt object (e.g., tongue blade)</li><li>• Individuals who have a proximal unilateral vagus nerve lesion report having trouble swallowing. On the affected side, the soft palate muscles will be weak. When the patient is asked to utter \"aah,\" for example, an attempt to elevate the soft palate voluntarily will demonstrate a deficit in that side's ability to do so. Due to the palatal muscles' unopposed action on that side, there will also be a deviation of the uvula to the typical side along with this.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. A. 1: This area does not relate to the glossopharyngeal or vagus nerves, which are crucial in the described symptoms.</li><li>• Option. A. 1:</li><li>• Option. C. 3 : This area is likely distant from the jugular foramen where nerves IX and X pass, thus not directly involved with the symptoms presented.</li><li>• Option. C. 3</li><li>• Option. D. 4: This lower section of the brain and skull does not typically involve the pathways or exit points of the cranial nerves implicated in swallowing and speech functions.</li><li>• Option. D. 4:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of occipitotemporal fractures with symptoms of difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech, it is critical to assess the function of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves, as these are commonly affected by such injuries. Testing should focus on the functionality of the palate and uvula where these nerves can be clinically evaluated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person working in an industry for a long time developed progressive breathlessness. The histopathological image of his lung biopsy is given below. What industry was he most likely working in? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silica", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asbestos", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coal dust", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cotton", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Asbestos", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-386.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-387.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-388.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Asbestos</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asbestosis is associated with the presence of asbestos bodies and interstitial fibrosis, typically seen in individuals working in industries involving asbestos exposure .</li><li>➤ Asbestosis</li><li>➤ asbestos bodies</li><li>➤ asbestos exposure</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition 1306-1307</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition 1306-1307</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female patient with class II pulmonary hypertension presents with a negative vasoreactivity test. Which of the following is used in the next step of management? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iloprost", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ambrisentan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epoprostenol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ambrisentan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ambrisentan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In class II and class III pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), the best option is to use a combination of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor like Tadalafil and an endothelin receptor antagonist like Ambrisentan. Combination therapy is preferred, even though it may not be listed in all options. For refractory class III and class IV PAH patients, prostanoids are used.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The latent period, contraction period, and relaxation period of a skeletal muscle are 10 ms, 40 ms, and 50 ms respectively. Calculate the tetanizing frequency? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 per second", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50 per second", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 per second", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "25 per second", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 25 per second", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 25 per second</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tetanization- As the frequency increases, there comes a point where each new contraction occurs before the preceding one is over. As a result, the second contraction is added partially to the first, so that the total strength of contraction rises progressively with increasing frequency. When the frequency reaches a critical level, the successive contractions eventually become so rapid that they fuse together, and the whole muscle contraction appears to be completely smooth and continuous. This is called Tetanization.</li><li>➤ Tetanization-</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Wobble hypothesis is due to which property of the codon?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Degeneracy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ambiguousity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Universality", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Commaless", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Degeneracy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/6_bLkI3qi.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Degeneracy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The wobble hypothesis is primarily due to the degeneracy of the genetic code, allowing multiple codons to code for the same amino acid, with variation in the third (wobble) position of the codon.</li><li>➤ Wobble bases</li><li>➤ Wobble bases</li><li>➤ 3rd base of the codon on mRNA and 1 st base of anticodon on tRNA in 5’ to 3’ direction are wobble positions.</li><li>➤ Wobble hypothesis says that for binding between bases present in these positions, some imprecision is allowed. i.e. one base in anticodon can bind with various bases of codon. This is also called as degeneracy of codon i.e. There is more than one codon for one amino acid. So, Wobble hypothesis is due to degeneracy of codons.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a researcher studying global mortality rates, and you notice substantial differences in the age structures of various countries. Recognizing that direct comparisons could be misleading due to these differences, you explore methods to equalize or adjust the mortality data to get a more accurate comparative view. In your research, you come across the term \"standardized age mortality ratio.\" Which of the following best describes this concept? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Death rate of a population adjusted to a standard age distribution", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Death rate of a population adjusted to a standard sex distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Removal of bias due to different age group population in different countries", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "To eliminate age structure of different countries", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Death rate of a population adjusted to a standard age distribution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Death rate of a population adjusted to a standard age distribution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The standardized age mortality ratio adjusts the death rate of a population to a standard age distribution, allowing for more accurate comparisons between populations with different age structures.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Types of Standardized Death Rates</li><li>➤ Types of Standardized Death Rates</li><li>➤ Direct standardization:</li><li>➤ Direct standardization:</li><li>➤ Method: Age-specific rates of the population (whose crude death rate is to be standardized) is applied on a standard population Total expected deaths calculated Total expected deaths divided by total standard population to yield standardized death rate Feasibility: Availability of age-specific death rates (ASDR) Availability of population in each age group</li><li>➤ Method: Age-specific rates of the population (whose crude death rate is to be standardized) is applied on a standard population Total expected deaths calculated Total expected deaths divided by total standard population to yield standardized death rate</li><li>➤ Age-specific rates of the population (whose crude death rate is to be standardized) is applied on a standard population Total expected deaths calculated Total expected deaths divided by total standard population to yield standardized death rate</li><li>➤ Age-specific rates of the population (whose crude death rate is to be standardized) is applied</li><li>➤ on a standard population</li><li>➤ Total expected deaths calculated</li><li>➤ Total expected deaths divided by total standard population to yield standardized death rate</li><li>➤ Feasibility: Availability of age-specific death rates (ASDR) Availability of population in each age group</li><li>➤ Availability of age-specific death rates (ASDR) Availability of population in each age group</li><li>➤ Availability of age-specific death rates (ASDR)</li><li>➤ Availability of population in each age group</li><li>➤ Indirect standardization: Standardized mortality ratio (SMR): Is simplest and most useful form</li><li>➤ Indirect standardization:</li><li>➤ Method: Calculate expected deaths, assuming that study group experiences the death rates of a standard population Feasibility: Permits adjustment where age-specific rates are not available or are unstable because of small numbers Examples of indirect Standardization: Standardized mortality ratio (SMR) = Observed deaths/ Expected deaths × 100 Life Table Analysis Survival Analysis</li><li>➤ Method: Calculate expected deaths, assuming that study group experiences the death rates of a standard population</li><li>➤ Feasibility: Permits adjustment where age-specific rates are not available or are unstable because of small numbers</li><li>➤ Examples of indirect Standardization:</li><li>➤ Standardized mortality ratio (SMR) = Observed deaths/ Expected deaths × 100</li><li>➤ Standardized mortality ratio (SMR) = Observed deaths/ Expected deaths × 100</li><li>➤ Life Table Analysis</li><li>➤ Life Table Analysis</li><li>➤ Survival Analysis</li><li>➤ Survival Analysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not included in the quadruple screening test? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibin B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unconjugated Estriol (E3)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AFP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "hCG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibin B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/30/untitled-279.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inhibin B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The quadruple screening test includes Free β hCG, unconjugated Estriol (uE3), Maternal Serum α-fetoprotein (AFP), and Inhibin A. Inhibin B is not included in the quadruple test.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following is true about intracellular regulation of iron in the above condition? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ferritin translation is increased by binding IRP to IRE", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ferritin translation is decreased by binding IRP to IRE", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transferrin receptor 1 translation is unaffected by binding IRP to IRE", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transferrin receptor 1 translation is decreased by binding IRP to IRE", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ferritin translation is decreased by binding IRP to IRE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ferritin translation is decreased by binding IP to IRE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In iron deficiency anemia , ferritin translation is decreased due to the binding of IRP to IRE in the ferritin mRNA, reducing iron storage and making more iron available for use.</li><li>➤ iron deficiency anemia</li><li>➤ decreased</li><li>➤ IRP to IRE</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most specific and typical sign of juvenile dermatomyositis in a 17-year-old patient is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Photosensitive skin rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nail bed capillary changes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gottron's papules", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malar rash", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gottron's papules", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture30.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture32.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gottron's papules</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gottron's papules are flat-topped, red or violaceous papules. They are considered pathognomonic (specifically indicative) of dermatomyositis and are one of the hallmark features of the disease and represent the most specific sign of juvenile dermatomyositis in a 17-year-old patient.</li><li>➤ Gottron's papules</li><li>➤ pathognomonic</li><li>➤ hallmark features</li><li>➤ most specific sign</li><li>➤ juvenile dermatomyositis</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 53, page nos. 53.4, 53.11</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 53, page nos. 53.4, 53.11</li><li>➤ Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21 st edition Page no 1182, 1183</li><li>➤ Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21 st edition Page no 1182, 1183</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following tumours with their treatment choices: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-08-111732.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-08-111816.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At what age does a child attain half-height of the adult height? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12 - 18 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20 - 24 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "32 - 36 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "40 - 48 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 20 - 24 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture121.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 20-24 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Children typically attain half of their adult height by 20-24 months, a critical milestone in early childhood growth and development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following emergency contraceptive is used in India? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Misoprostol 400 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethinyl estradiol 600 mcg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulipristal 30 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/26/untitled-228.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg is the emergency contraceptive used in India.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 243, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 243, Berek and Novak’s Gynecology 15 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a Xenodiagnostic method? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rabbit ileal loop for enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Injecting Aedes thorax with blood of a suspected dengue patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Injecting a hamster with splenic biopsy for diagnosis of leishmaniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intradermal test on guinea pigs for toxigenicity of Corynebacterium diphtheria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Injecting Aedes thorax with blood of a suspected dengue patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Injecting Aedes thorax with blood of a suspected dengue patient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Xenodiagnosis involves using a vector to ingest potentially infected tissue or fluids and then examining the vector for the presence of the pathogen, making it particularly useful in cases where direct detection of the pathogen is challenging due to low numbers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding marked by the arrow in the below image: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vossius ring", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weiss ring", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fleischer's ring", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kayser Fleischer ring", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vossius ring", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/dfhmdfh.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/fghndf.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/dfhndfgh.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/fghndfg.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vossius ring</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Vossius ring is an important clinical marker of previous blunt trauma to the eye, characterized by pigment imprint from the iris on the lens surface, mirroring the size of the contracted pupil at the time of impact.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true statement about Korsakoff syndrome? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triad of confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loss of long-term memory but intact personality", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterograde amnesia with loss of recent memory", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loss of implicit memory and immediate recall", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anterograde amnesia with loss of recent memory", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Anterograde amnesia with loss of recent memory</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Korsakoff syndrome is a chronic memory disorder caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. It is primarily associated with chronic alcohol misuse. It is characterized by anterograde amnesia (difficulty forming new memories) and often retrograde amnesia (loss of past memories). Confabulation is common, where patients fill memory gaps with fabricated information. Treatment involves thiamine replacement and abstaining from alcohol. It often follows or coexists with Wernicke's encephalopathy, which is an acute syndrome requiring immediate thiamine treatment.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 38-40.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adult male patient in his 60s presented to the outpatient department with a complaint of haematuria. Upon examination, a 2x2 cm bladder mass was observed, which was diagnosed as a low-grade transitional cell carcinoma. What is the recommended course of action for this patient? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transurethral resection of the bladder tumour", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Resection with ileal conduit", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Partial cystectomy with bladder reconstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transurethral resection of the bladder tumour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Transurethral resection of the bladder tumour</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-muscle invasive bladder tumors (pTa/pT1): TUR-BT + Intravesical chemotherapy</li><li>➤ Non-muscle invasive bladder tumors (pTa/pT1): TUR-BT + Intravesical chemotherapy</li><li>➤ Muscle invasive (pT2/pT3 and some pT4): Radical cystectomy + Ileal conduit</li><li>➤ Muscle invasive (pT2/pT3 and some pT4): Radical cystectomy + Ileal conduit</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are major diagnostic criteria for allergic fungal sinusitis except? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Presence of nasal polyps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eosinophilic mucin without invasion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Characteristic CT findings", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Positive fungal culture", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Positive fungal culture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-01-22%20134220.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Positive fungal culture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bent and Kuhn described a diagnostic criterion for AFRS. They found 11 important clinical features, 5 of which were termed major criteria and the remaining 6 features as minor criteria. These criteria includes:</li><li>➤ Ref - Scott Brown 8 th edition, Volume 1, Page No. 1049</li><li>➤ Ref - Scott Brown 8 th edition, Volume 1, Page No. 1049</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be used for induction of anesthesia, maintenance and can be safely used in endotracheal intubation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Halothane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sevoflurane", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isoflurane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sevoflurane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sevoflurane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sevoflurane is a versatile inhalation anesthetic that can be used for both the induction and maintenance of anesthesia. Its sweet smell makes it suitable for inhalational induction, especially in pediatric patients and others who might find pungent agents unpleasant. Sevoflurane also provides a smooth transition for endotracheal intubation due to its bronchodilatory effects and stable hemodynamic profile. Additionally, its low blood-gas solubility coefficient allows for rapid induction and emergence from anesthesia, which is beneficial in a surgical setting.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Halothane: While Halothane can be used for induction and maintenance of anesthesia, it has a higher risk of hepatotoxicity and arrhythmias. It is also less commonly used in modern practice compared to Sevoflurane.</li><li>• Option A. Halothane:</li><li>• Option B. Desflurane: Desflurane is typically used for maintenance rather than induction due to its pungent odor and tendency to cause airway irritation. It also requires a special heated vaporizer due to its high vapor pressure.</li><li>• Option B. Desflurane:</li><li>• Option D. Isoflurane : Isoflurane is primarily used for maintenance of anesthesia rather than induction due to its pungent smell and potential to cause airway irritation. It is less suitable for inhalational induction compared to Sevoflurane.</li><li>• Option D. Isoflurane</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Sevoflurane is an ideal agent for both the induction and maintenance of anesthesia and is safe for use during endotracheal intubation due to its favorable properties.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man who was involved in a bomb blast at a railway station was brought to the hospital with multiple small puncture wounds to the left side of the chest and multiple small abrasions all over the body. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for these injuries? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flying missiles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blast of air", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Explosion burns", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furniture abrasions", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Flying missiles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Flying missiles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Classification of Blast injuries:</li><li>➤ Classification of Blast injuries:</li><li>➤ Injuries from explosions are traditionally classified into:</li><li>➤ Injuries from explosions are traditionally classified into:</li><li>➤ Primary blast injuries : injuries due to solely to the blast wave Secondary blast or explosive injury : primarily ballistic trauma resulting from fragmentation wounds from the explosive device or the environment Tertiary blast or explosive injury: result of displacement of the victim or environmental structures, is largely blunt traumatic injuries Quaternary explosive injuries: burns, toxins, and radiologic contamination</li><li>➤ Primary blast injuries : injuries due to solely to the blast wave</li><li>➤ Primary blast injuries</li><li>➤ Secondary blast or explosive injury : primarily ballistic trauma resulting from fragmentation wounds from the explosive device or the environment</li><li>➤ Secondary blast or explosive injury</li><li>➤ Tertiary blast or explosive injury: result of displacement of the victim or environmental structures, is largely blunt traumatic injuries</li><li>➤ Tertiary blast or explosive injury:</li><li>➤ Quaternary explosive injuries: burns, toxins, and radiologic contamination</li><li>➤ Quaternary explosive injuries:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Inferior thyroid artery supply which of the following structure? 1. Thyroid 2. Parathyroid 3. Esophagus 4. Thymus", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3 &amp; 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 &amp; 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 &amp; 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 &amp; 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3 & 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2, 3 &amp; 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk and arises from the subclavian artery. It runs upward in front of the vertebral column and enters the thyroid gland at its lower pole. Along its course, the inferior thyroid artery gives off several branches that supply the thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, and the pharynx.</li><li>• Thyroid : The inferior thyroid artery primarily supplies blood to the thyroid gland . The gland requires a substantial blood supply due to its high metabolic activity, especially when it's actively producing thyroid hormones. The inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland at its posterior aspect and supplies the majority of the gland, especially its inferior portion. Parathyroid : The parathyroid glands are small endocrine glands located on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. There are usually four parathyroid glands: two superior and two inferior. The inferior parathyroid glands are typically supplied by the inferior thyroid artery. The blood supply to these glands is crucial because they produce parathyroid hormone (PTH), which plays a vital role in calcium homeostasis. Esophagus : The esophagus , especially its cervical portion, may receive some blood supply from the branches of the inferior thyroid artery. However, it's essential to note that the primary blood supply to the esophagus comes from the esophageal branches of various arteries along its length, such as the aorta and the left gastric artery. Thymus : While the inferior thyroid artery is not a primary source of blood supply for the thymus, there can be some anastomotic connections between the vessels supplying these structures in the anterior mediastinum. However, the primary blood supply to the thymus comes from the internal thoracic and anterior mediastinal branches.</li><li>• Thyroid : The inferior thyroid artery primarily supplies blood to the thyroid gland . The gland requires a substantial blood supply due to its high metabolic activity, especially when it's actively producing thyroid hormones. The inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland at its posterior aspect and supplies the majority of the gland, especially its inferior portion.</li><li>• Thyroid</li><li>• thyroid gland</li><li>• Parathyroid : The parathyroid glands are small endocrine glands located on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. There are usually four parathyroid glands: two superior and two inferior. The inferior parathyroid glands are typically supplied by the inferior thyroid artery. The blood supply to these glands is crucial because they produce parathyroid hormone (PTH), which plays a vital role in calcium homeostasis.</li><li>• Parathyroid</li><li>• inferior parathyroid glands</li><li>• Esophagus : The esophagus , especially its cervical portion, may receive some blood supply from the branches of the inferior thyroid artery. However, it's essential to note that the primary blood supply to the esophagus comes from the esophageal branches of various arteries along its length, such as the aorta and the left gastric artery.</li><li>• Esophagus</li><li>• esophagus</li><li>• Thymus : While the inferior thyroid artery is not a primary source of blood supply for the thymus, there can be some anastomotic connections between the vessels supplying these structures in the anterior mediastinum. However, the primary blood supply to the thymus comes from the internal thoracic and anterior mediastinal branches.</li><li>• Thymus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The thyroid gland receives its main arterial blood supply from the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. The inferior thyroid artery also supplies the parathyroid glands with blood. Additionally, its branches provide blood to the esophagus, larynx, trachea, thymus and pharynx.</li><li>➤ Branches:</li><li>➤ Branches:</li><li>➤ Pharyngeal branches Ascending cervical artery Inferior artery Muscular branches</li><li>➤ Pharyngeal branches</li><li>➤ Ascending cervical artery</li><li>➤ Inferior artery</li><li>➤ Muscular branches</li><li>➤ Thymic branches – originate from internal thoracic, inferior thyroid arteryand often superior thyroid arteries &amp; supply the thymus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation is found to have high blood pressure recording and a urine protein of 3+. Concomitant presence of which of the following symptoms would make you suspect imminent eclampsia? (INICET NOV 2021) Headache Blurred vision Persistent pedal edema Epigastric pain", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Imminent eclampsia is indicated by the presence of severe symptoms in a patient with preeclampsia. The following symptoms are particularly concerning and suggest the risk of progression to eclampsia:</li><li>• Headache Blurred vision Epigastric pain Vomiting (though not listed in the options)</li><li>• Headache</li><li>• Headache</li><li>• Blurred vision</li><li>• Blurred vision</li><li>• Epigastric pain</li><li>• Epigastric pain</li><li>• Vomiting (though not listed in the options)</li><li>• Vomiting</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• 1. Headache: Severe, persistent headache is a sign of central nervous system involvement.</li><li>• 1. Headache:</li><li>• 2. Blurred vision: Visual disturbances such as blurred vision or seeing spots are due to cerebral or retinal vasospasm.</li><li>• 2. Blurred vision:</li><li>• 4. Epigastric pain: Pain in the epigastric or right upper quadrant can indicate hepatic involvement, such as stretching of the Glisson capsule due to liver swelling.</li><li>• 4. Epigastric pain:</li><li>• Other symptoms not specifically listed:</li><li>• Other symptoms not specifically listed:</li><li>• Vomiting: This can also be a sign of worsening preeclampsia.</li><li>• Vomiting: This can also be a sign of worsening preeclampsia.</li><li>• Vomiting:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• 3. Persistent pedal edema : While edema can be present in preeclampsia, it is not a specific indicator of imminent eclampsia.</li><li>• 3. Persistent pedal edema :</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a pregnant woman with preeclampsia, the presence of headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain indicates imminent eclampsia and necessitates immediate intervention with prophylactic magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) and planning for delivery to prevent the onset of seizures.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams text book of obstetrics 26 th edition Pg 1840, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics pg 261,262</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams text book of obstetrics 26 th edition Pg 1840, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics pg 261,262</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not classified as OCD as per ICD 11? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichotillomania", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Body dysmorphic disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypochondriac disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PTSD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. PTSD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) PTSD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obsessive-compulsive or related disorders in ICD-11 are classified as:</li><li>➤ Obsessive-compulsive disorder Body dysmorphic disorder Olfactory reference disorder Hypochondriasis Hoarding disorder Trichotillomania Excoriation disorder</li><li>➤ Obsessive-compulsive disorder</li><li>➤ Body dysmorphic disorder</li><li>➤ Olfactory reference disorder</li><li>➤ Hypochondriasis</li><li>➤ Hoarding disorder</li><li>➤ Trichotillomania</li><li>➤ Excoriation disorder</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: International Classification of Diseases, 11th edition, Page No 43-47</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-month-old infant presents to the emergency department with intermittent episodes of severe colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and passage of currant jelly stools. The clinical suspicion is towards intussusception. Taking the child's immunization history, which recent vaccine could be associated with a slightly increased risk of this condition? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rotavirus vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral Polio vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenovirus vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rotavirus vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture655.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rotavirus vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rotavirus vaccine is associated with a rare complication of intussusception, an important consideration when assessing an infant presenting with symptoms of this condition.</li><li>➤ Rotavirus vaccine is associated with a rare complication of intussusception, an important consideration when assessing an infant presenting with symptoms of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the imaging modality given below? (INCET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "USG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluoroscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X-Ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. USG", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-173.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) USG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image is suggestive of USG of the neck.</li><li>• The thyroid gland, muscles, blood vessels, bony structures or cartilages, and nerves are all visible on a sonographic examination of the neck.</li><li>• On USG, normal thyroid appears homogeneously hyperechoic with a uniform echotexture. Large blood vessels (the common carotid artery and, more laterally, the internal jugular vein) can be seen laterally to the thyroid.</li><li>• USG is the radiological IOC to evaluate thyroid nodules.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Fluoroscopy: Primarily used for real-time imaging of moving body structures using X-rays, which is not indicated by the type of static image and detail shown.</li><li>• Option B. Fluoroscopy:</li><li>• Option C. X-Ray: Typically shows denser tissues like bones and lacks the detailed soft tissue contrast visible in this ultrasound image.</li><li>• Option C. X-Ray:</li><li>• Option D. MRI: Provides high-resolution images of internal structures using magnetic fields and radio waves, typically not showing the real-time flow or specific echogenic properties visible in ultrasound images.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. MRI:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ultrasound (USG) is the imaging modality of choice for evaluating the thyroid and other neck structures due to its ability to provide detailed images of soft tissue structures without exposure to ionizing radiation. It is particularly useful for assessing the thyroid gland, including the evaluation of nodules and vascular structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false in a patient with advanced liver disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutarate is increased.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased synthesis of glutamine and glutamate from alpha-ketoglutarate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased ATP synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperammonaemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutarate is increased.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/8_P1vZFTO.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutarate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Detoxification of ammonia takes place in the liver, where it is metabolised and excreted as urea (urea cycle). Due to impairment of ammonia metabolism in advanced liver disease, ammonia levels increase which withdraws α-ketoglutarate to form glutamate and glutamine.</li><li>➤ This in turn results in lowered concentrations of all citric acid cycle intermediates, and hence decreased ATP synthesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old male patient with heart failure is scheduled for a heart transplant. His renal function test is deranged, and hemoglobin is 6 g/dL. The physician ordered 2 units of whole blood. Four hours after transfusion, he developed severe respiratory distress. On examination, he is hypoxemic, has tachycardia, and his mean arterial pressure is elevated. Which of the following are the best investigations for the above scenario? (INICET NOV 2021) Chest X-ray Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level Absolute neutrophil count Leucocyte antibodies Platelets", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 and 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1 and 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with suspected transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), the best investigations are a chest X-ray to detect pulmonary edema and BNP levels to assess cardiac stress and fluid overload</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is the most radioresistant phase of the cell cycle? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "S phase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "M phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "G1 phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G2 phase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. S phase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-160416.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) S phase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• S phase of the cell cycle is considered the most radioresistant. During the S phase, cells are actively duplicating their DNA. The replication machinery during this phase makes the DNA less accessible to radiation-induced damage and the cell has enhanced mechanisms to repair any damage that does occur, thereby making it more resistant to the effects of radiation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. M phase: The mitotic phase where cells are actively dividing. This phase and G2 are often considered more radiosensitive because cells are highly vulnerable to damage during mitosis.</li><li>• Option B. M phase:</li><li>• Option C. G1 phase: The first gap phase where cells grow and prepare to synthesize DNA. This phase is relatively more radiosensitive compared to the S phase.</li><li>• Option C. G1 phase:</li><li>• Option D. G2 phase: The second gap phase right before mitosis where cells prepare to divide. This phase is typically more radiosensitive, as cells are preparing for mitosis and have less capability for DNA repair compared to the S phase.</li><li>• Option D. G2 phase:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ S phase is the most radioresistant phase of the cell cycle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What should be the ideal percentage for normal sperm morphology in a seminal fluid analysis? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "6%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "8%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-280.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 4%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Morphology is the most important factor/marker of semen analysis. As per the strict criteria, &gt;4% normal forms of morphology must be present.</li><li>• Morphology is the most important factor/marker of semen analysis.</li><li>• As per the strict criteria, &gt;4% normal forms of morphology must be present.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ideal percentage for normal sperm morphology in a seminal fluid analysis is &gt;4% according to WHO 2010 criteria.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3rd edition Pg442, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg232</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3rd edition Pg442, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg232</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a suspected case of cholangitis in a 47-year-old woman, what other component besides abdominal pain does not comprise Reynold's pentad? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jaundice", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Altered sensorium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hematemesis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hematemesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hematemesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cholangitis is an infection of the common bile duct caused by obstruction and increased pressure due to CBD stones. The classical triad of cholangitis (Charcot) is fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. If left untreated, cholangitis can progress to Reynold's pentad with hypotension and altered mental status due to sepsis. Abdominal ultrasound is used to diagnose biliary stones and bile duct dilatations in cholangitis. Treatment for cholangitis includes broad-spectrum antibiotics, rehydration, and biliary drainage using endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). Biliary stones are the primary cause of cholangitis and can be removed by endoscopic sphincterotomy during ERCP.</li><li>➤ Cholangitis is an infection of the common bile duct caused by obstruction and increased pressure due to CBD stones.</li><li>➤ The classical triad of cholangitis (Charcot) is fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice.</li><li>➤ If left untreated, cholangitis can progress to Reynold's pentad with hypotension and altered mental status due to sepsis.</li><li>➤ Abdominal ultrasound is used to diagnose biliary stones and bile duct dilatations in cholangitis.</li><li>➤ Treatment for cholangitis includes broad-spectrum antibiotics, rehydration, and biliary drainage using endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).</li><li>➤ Biliary stones are the primary cause of cholangitis and can be removed by endoscopic sphincterotomy during ERCP.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is more appropriate for quantitative analysis of viral RNA genome?(INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Real time PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conventional PCR with Restriction Fragment Length pair technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RT-PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RT-PCR followed by Real time PCR", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. RT-PCR followed by Real time PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) RTPCR followed by Real time PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Real-time PCR is the most appropriate technique for quantitative analysis of viral RNA genomes, allowing real-time monitoring and quantification of viral RNA load.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a dematiaceous fungus? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucor species", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillus niger", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cladosporium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blastomyces dermatitidis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cladosporium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cladosporium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cladosporium is a dematiaceous fungus, characterized by its dark pigmentation due to melanin in its cell walls, and it is associated with various diseases including phaeohyphomycosis, chromoblastomycosis, and eumycotic mycetoma.</li><li>➤ Cladosporium is a dematiaceous fungus, characterized by its dark pigmentation due to melanin in its cell walls, and it is associated with various diseases including phaeohyphomycosis, chromoblastomycosis, and eumycotic mycetoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the probable diagnosis from the given clinical image? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine inversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterocervical prolapse", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibroid polyp", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Uterocervical prolapse", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_toNKW9y.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Uterocervical prolapse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The clinical image showing clear visualization of the cervix along with the prolapsed uterus indicates uterocervical prolapse, a condition often seen in elderly women due to weakened pelvic muscles and hypoestrogenism.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg548, Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 224</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg548, Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 224</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-day-old neonate brought to the outpatient department is found to have bilateral conjunctivitis. Chest X-ray done showed lung infiltrates. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for the infection? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlamydia trachomatis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemophilus influenzae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycoplasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chlamydia trachomatis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/picture100.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chlamydia trachomatis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neonatal conjunctivitis typically presents during the first month of life and the age of the neonate is an important clue to the infection's etiology.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following differentials should not be considered for the lesion seen in the image developed in a forest officer?(INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scrub typhus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cutaneous anthrax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Healing brown recluse spider bite", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13551.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13551_WCHoZls.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture28.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kyasanur Forest Disease tick-borne viral hemorrhagic fever, primarily presenting with haemorrhagic and neurological symptoms, should not be considered for skin lesion, Eschar, unlike the other mentioned differentials.</li><li>➤ Kyasanur Forest Disease tick-borne</li><li>➤ hemorrhagic fever,</li><li>➤ haemorrhagic and neurological</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 34 page no 34.33</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 34 page no 34.33</li><li>➤ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s textbook of Microbiology 10 th edition Page no 249, 250, 415, 530</li><li>➤ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s textbook of Microbiology 10 th edition Page no 249, 250, 415, 530</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a cause of secondary amenorrhea? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Turner's mosaic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kallman syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sheehan's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asherman's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kallman syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Kallman syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Kallman syndrome is a condition of hypothalamic hypogonadism that presents as primary amenorrhea with anosmia. It does not cause secondary amenorrhea.</li><li>• Causes of secondary amenorrhea:</li><li>• Causes of secondary amenorrhea:</li><li>• Sheehan's syndrome: This is a condition where the pituitary gland is damaged due to severe blood loss during or after childbirth, leading to secondary amenorrhea. Asherman's syndrome: This condition involves the formation of scar tissue in the uterine cavity, often as a result of surgical procedures like dilation and curettage (D&amp;C), leading to secondary amenorrhea. Turner mosaic: This refers to a form of Turner syndrome where some of the cells have the typical 45,X karyotype and others have a different karyotype (e.g., 46,XX). It can lead to secondary amenorrhea. Premature ovarian failure: This condition occurs when the ovaries stop functioning normally before age 40, causing secondary amenorrhea.</li><li>• Sheehan's syndrome: This is a condition where the pituitary gland is damaged due to severe blood loss during or after childbirth, leading to secondary amenorrhea.</li><li>• Sheehan's syndrome:</li><li>• Asherman's syndrome: This condition involves the formation of scar tissue in the uterine cavity, often as a result of surgical procedures like dilation and curettage (D&amp;C), leading to secondary amenorrhea.</li><li>• Asherman's syndrome:</li><li>• Turner mosaic: This refers to a form of Turner syndrome where some of the cells have the typical 45,X karyotype and others have a different karyotype (e.g., 46,XX). It can lead to secondary amenorrhea.</li><li>• Turner mosaic:</li><li>• Premature ovarian failure: This condition occurs when the ovaries stop functioning normally before age 40, causing secondary amenorrhea.</li><li>• Premature ovarian failure:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Turner's mosaic: A cause of secondary amenorrhea due to ovarian insufficiency.</li><li>• Option A. Turner's mosaic:</li><li>• Option C. Sheehan's syndrome: A cause of secondary amenorrhea due to pituitary damage.</li><li>• Option C. Sheehan's syndrome:</li><li>• Option D. Asherman's syndrome: A cause of secondary amenorrhea due to uterine scarring.</li><li>• Option D. Asherman's syndrome:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kallman syndrome is a cause of primary amenorrhea due to hypothalamic hypogonadism and anosmia. Secondary amenorrhea can be caused by conditions such as Sheehan's syndrome, Asherman's syndrome, Turner mosaic, and premature ovarian failure.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg375</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition Pg375</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The table below gives the AUC of drug B alone and that of drug B when combined with another drug A. If the p value is &lt;0.01, then which of the following statements is true? (INICET 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drug A decreases intestinal absorption of Drug B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Drug A reduces first pass metabolism of Drug B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drug A increases the metabolism of Drug B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drug A increases renal elimination of Drug B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Drug A reduces first pass metabolism of Drug B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-170654.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Drug A reduces first pass metabolism of Drug B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The increase in the AUC of Drug B when combined with Drug A, with a statistically significant p value, indicates that Drug A reduces the first pass metabolism of Drug B, thereby increasing its bioavailability.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The possible diagnosis for a child whose mother had a history of bronchial asthma &amp; child developed itchy plaques bilaterally over the popliteal fossa, &amp; cubital fossa (as shown below) could be? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atopic dermatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pemphigus vegetans", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Atopic dermatitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13555.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/25/screenshot-2023-11-25-124727.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/14_xtcrkLz.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-161103.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Atopic dermatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child with a familial history of atopy presenting with itchy plaques over the popliteal and cubital fossae, Atopic Dermatitis is the most likely diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Atopic Dermatitis</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 2 Chapter 41 page no 41.1, 41.2, 41.13-19, volume 3 Chapter 149 page no 149.21</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 2 Chapter 41 page no 41.1, 41.2, 41.13-19, volume 3 Chapter 149 page no 149.21</li><li>➤ Image source:</li><li>➤ Image source:</li><li>➤ https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Category:Atopic_dermatitis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old male patient presented to the outpatient department with cervical lymphadenopathy. As a part of the evaluation, the Paul-Bunnell test was done. What is the principle of this test? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complement fixation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Super-antigens", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heterophile antibodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haptens", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Heterophile antibodies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Heterophile antibodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Paul-Bunnell test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies, which agglutinate sheep erythrocytes, and is used in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is a known case of angle-closure glaucoma has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which of the following drugs have to be avoided in this patient? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amitriptyline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sertraline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mirtazapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fluvoxamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amitriptyline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Amitriptyline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with angle-closure glaucoma, medications with anticholinergic properties, such as Amitriptyline, should be avoided due to their potential to increase intraocular pressure and exacerbate the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True about electroencephalogram (EEG) is all except: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-5% of the population can have epileptiform discharges.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scalp EEG may be helpful in localizing frontal lobe epilepsy.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doing EEG is mandatory for the diagnosis of seizures.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy shows triphasic and slow waves.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Doing EEG is mandatory for the diagnosis of seizures.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Doing EEG is mandatory for the diagnosis of seizures.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ EEG is not mandatory for the diagnosis of seizures as patients can have seizures even with a normal EEG.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best measures ovarian reserve? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Luteal phase LH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post luteal phase LH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FSH in the follicular phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) is a glycoprotein secreted by the granulosa cells of pre-antral follicles. It is the best marker of ovarian reserve because it can be tested on any day of the cycle. Values and Interpretation: Normal value: 2-6.8 ng/mL Poor ovarian reserve: &lt;1 ng/mL Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD) and Hyperstimulation Syndrome: &gt;10 ng/mL</li><li>• Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) is a glycoprotein secreted by the granulosa cells of pre-antral follicles. It is the best marker of ovarian reserve because it can be tested on any day of the cycle.</li><li>• Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH)</li><li>• Values and Interpretation: Normal value: 2-6.8 ng/mL Poor ovarian reserve: &lt;1 ng/mL Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD) and Hyperstimulation Syndrome: &gt;10 ng/mL</li><li>• Values and Interpretation:</li><li>• Normal value: 2-6.8 ng/mL Poor ovarian reserve: &lt;1 ng/mL Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD) and Hyperstimulation Syndrome: &gt;10 ng/mL</li><li>• Normal value: 2-6.8 ng/mL</li><li>• Normal value:</li><li>• Poor ovarian reserve: &lt;1 ng/mL</li><li>• Poor ovarian reserve:</li><li>• Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD) and Hyperstimulation Syndrome: &gt;10 ng/mL</li><li>• Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD) and Hyperstimulation Syndrome:</li><li>• Tests for ovarian reserve:</li><li>• Tests for ovarian reserve:</li><li>• FSH levels: Measured in the early follicular phase (Day 2 or 3 of the menstrual cycle). High FSH means the ovarian reserve is getting depleted. Serum estradiol values: Measured on day 3 of the cycle. Serum estradiol &gt;75 pg/mL indicates ovarian hypofunction. Antral follicular count on ultrasound: Counts less than 4-5 on days 2-5 denote poor response to hormones. Inhibin B: Values &lt;40 pg/mL indicate poor reserve.</li><li>• FSH levels: Measured in the early follicular phase (Day 2 or 3 of the menstrual cycle). High FSH means the ovarian reserve is getting depleted.</li><li>• FSH levels:</li><li>• Serum estradiol values: Measured on day 3 of the cycle. Serum estradiol &gt;75 pg/mL indicates ovarian hypofunction.</li><li>• Serum estradiol values:</li><li>• Antral follicular count on ultrasound: Counts less than 4-5 on days 2-5 denote poor response to hormones.</li><li>• Antral follicular count on ultrasound:</li><li>• Inhibin B: Values &lt;40 pg/mL indicate poor reserve.</li><li>• Inhibin B:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Luteal phase LH: Not a reliable measure of ovarian reserve.</li><li>• Option A. Luteal phase LH:</li><li>• Option B. Post luteal phase LH: Not a reliable measure of ovarian reserve.</li><li>• Option B. Post luteal phase LH:</li><li>• Option C. FSH in the follicular phase: While useful, it is less reliable than AMH for assessing ovarian reserve.</li><li>• Option C. FSH in the follicular phase:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) is the best marker of ovarian reserve as it can be tested on any day of the menstrual cycle and provides a reliable measure of the ovarian reserve.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 528,529, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg435</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 528,529, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg435</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old girl presented with amenorrhea. On examination, she had normal genitalia &amp; normal breast development. Her tests reveal a 5 alpha-reductase deficiency. What could be the probable diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Concealed sex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "True hermaphroditism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Female pseudohermaphrodite", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Male pseudohermaphrodite", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Male pseudohermaphrodite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Male pseudohermaphrodite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Male pseudohermaphroditism involves male gonads with female external genitalia. In 5 alpha-reductase deficiency, there is a failure of the testis to descend and ill development of the penis, resulting in a female phenotype despite having male internal genitalia.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 443</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 443</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incorrect match: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1- Cilia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4- Lamina propria", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2- Goblet cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3- Nuclei of epithelial cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4- Lamina propria", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture1333.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 4 - Lamina propria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The marked structure in the image are</li><li>➤ 1- Cilia</li><li>➤ 2- Goblet cell</li><li>➤ 3- Nuclei of epithelial cell</li><li>➤ 4- Basement membrane</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old boy complains of cough and throat pain. On examination of the oral cavity, a white pseudomembrane was visualized. A swab was taken from it and stained as given in the image below. What is the procedure for the following staining? (INICET NOV 2021) Albert's stain- I Acid alcohol Gram's iodine Safranin Methylene blue Crystal violet Carbol fuschin Acetone", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 5, 8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6, 3, 8, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "7, 8, 4, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 2, 1, 8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6, 3, 8, 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_78DwXrw.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_c36qdZv.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 6, 3, 8, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct Gram staining procedure for identifying Corynebacterium diphtheriae includes the steps of applying crystal violet, adding Gram's iodine, decolorizing with acetone, and counterstaining with safranin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient with critical mitral stenosis presented with atrial fibrillation. He has a history of multiple episodes of transient ischemic attacks. Which of the following are true regarding the prevention of stroke in this patient? (INICET NOV 2021) Only aspirin is given Warfarin is given Direct oral anticoagulants are not indicated Mitral valvotomy should be recommended", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with critical mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation, especially those with a history of TIA, Warfarin should be given for stroke prevention, and direct oral anticoagulants are not indicated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 57-year-old man was brought to the hospital with complaints of dizziness and breathlessness. During his physical examination, you notice the following discoloration over his face. He is presently being treated with amiodarone, metoprolol, verapamil, lisinopril, and amlodipine. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amlodipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verapamil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amiodarone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/789.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Amiodarone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amiodarone can cause a characteristic bluish or greyish discoloration of the skin, particularly in sun-exposed areas, due to its deposition in the skin after prolonged use. This side effect is not commonly associated with the other medications listed (amlodipine, metoprolol, and verapamil).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old male patient was undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Halfway through the surgery, a sudden drop in EtCO 2 to 8 mm Hg was noted. His SpO 2 became 90% and blood pressure dropped to 70/50 mmHg and peak airway pressure was 18 cm of H 2 O. What is the diagnosis? CO 2 embolism Severe bronchospasm Pneumothorax Single bronchus intubation EtCO 2 -End-tidal carbon dioxide", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both 1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1 only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 1. CO2 embolism : During laparoscopic procedures, CO2 is used to insufflate the abdomen, creating a pneumoperitoneum. This allows for better visualization and manipulation of the internal structures. If there's a vascular injury, especially to a large vein, CO2 can enter the circulation and cause an embolism. This can lead to sudden cardiovascular collapse and a sharp drop in EtCO2, as observed in the scenario. Also, a sudden drop in oxygen saturation (SpO2) can occur due to the embolism obstructing the pulmonary vasculature. The significant drop in EtCO2, in this case, is indicative of a CO2 embolism.</li><li>• 1. CO2 embolism</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• 2. Severe bronchospasm : Bronchospasm would lead to an increase in peak airway pressure, which wasn't seen in this scenario (the peak airway pressure was 18 cm of H2O, which is within the normal range). Moreover, EtCO2 would generally be elevated in bronchospasm due to retention of CO2, not decreased as seen in the scenario.</li><li>• 2. Severe bronchospasm</li><li>• 3. Pneumothorax : A pneumothorax could cause a drop in SpO2 and blood pressure. However, the EtCO2 drop to 8 mm Hg in the setting of laparoscopic surgery more specifically suggests a CO2 embolism. Additionally, one would expect an increase in peak airway pressures with a tension pneumothorax.</li><li>• 3. Pneumothorax</li><li>• 4. Single bronchus intubation : If the endotracheal tube is advanced too far and intubates a single bronchus, it would lead to ventilation of one lung only. This can cause a decrease in SpO2, but the sudden drop in EtCO2 as seen in the scenario isn't typical for single bronchus intubation.</li><li>• 4. Single bronchus intubation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ A sudden and significant drop in EtCO2 during laparoscopic surgery, along with a decrease in SpO2 and blood pressure, strongly suggests a CO2 embolism.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1879</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1879</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the component responsible for endotoxic shock in gram-negative bacteria? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_RzAeNDr.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_IRiEQ64.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-163752.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Differences between exotoxins and endotoxins</li><li>➤ Differences between exotoxins and endotoxins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a primary care physician seeing a patient for a routine check-up. The patient expresses concern about colon cancer and asks about potential risk factors and preventive measures. You provide the following information: (INICET NOV 2021) Right and left colon cancers can exhibit distinct behaviour. Colon cancer can have hereditary components. Colon cancer risk can be mitigated by metformin. Liver metastases are a common occurrence in colon cancer. Which of the following options is/are true regarding colon cancer:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What information is conveyed by the graph presented below? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal, negatively skewed, positively skewed, skewed with outliers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Normal, positively skewed, negatively skewed, normal with outliers", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal, negatively skewed, positively skewed, normal with outliers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skewed with outliers, positively skewed, negatively skewed, normal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Normal, positively skewed, negatively skewed, normal with outliers", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip43.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/psm-pyq-16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture755.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Normal, positively skewed, negatively skewed, normal with outliers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Box and Whisker plot</li><li>➤ Box and Whisker plot</li><li>➤ A graphical presentation of Numerical Data through its quartiles. It has a box in the center and two wishers in its sides. The box has got 2 ends, Quartile 1 (Q1) &amp; Quartile 3 (Q3) The vertical line inside the box is called median also known as Q2. The whole data is divided into 4 Quartiles The lower end of one whisker represent the minimum value of the distribution. The higher end of other Whisker represents the maximum value of the distribution.</li><li>➤ A graphical presentation of Numerical Data through its quartiles.</li><li>➤ It has a box in the center and two wishers in its sides.</li><li>➤ The box has got 2 ends, Quartile 1 (Q1) &amp; Quartile 3 (Q3)</li><li>➤ The vertical line inside the box is called median also known as Q2. The whole data is divided into 4 Quartiles</li><li>➤ The lower end of one whisker represent the minimum value of the distribution.</li><li>➤ The higher end of other Whisker represents the maximum value of the distribution.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are causes of neonatal seizures? (INICET NOV 2021) Hyponatremia Hypomagnesemia Hypocalcemia Hypernatremia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture120.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neonatal seizures can be caused by various metabolic disturbances, including hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and hypernatremia, and these should be considered in the differential diagnosis of seizures in neonates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the virus given in the following replication cycle? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human immunodeficiency virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes simplex virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis B virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coronavirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Herpes simplex virus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_eSBIKQD.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-172316.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-172438.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/02/screenshot-2024-07-02-172648.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Herpes simplex virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpes simplex virus (HSV), is characterized by steps involving the fusion of the virus with the plasma membrane, nuclear entry, transcription, replication, capsid assembly, glycosylation, and virus release.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An individual is in an environment of a temperature of 47°C. What is the mechanism of heat loss? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Convection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sweating", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sweating", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-nov-1-5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sweating</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ At high environmental temperatures, the body relies primarily on sweating and evaporation to lose heat and regulate body temperature effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the surgery of breast carcinoma, a frozen section was conducted. Which of the following options is incorrect regarding this procedure? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To determine sentinel lymph node involvement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To assess margin positivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "To evaluate metastasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "To immediately confirm the definitive diagnosis in all cases", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. To immediately confirm the definitive diagnosis in all cases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) To immediately confirm the definitive diagnosis in all cases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The analysis of frozen sections can assist in diagnosing nodal metastasis and identifying the involvement of sentinel lymph nodes during surgery. If a positive node is detected during the procedure, the surgeon can proceed with the immediate removal of axillary lymph nodes. Conversely, if the sentinel node shows no signs of tumor involvement, additional axillary dissection can be avoided. In breast-conserving surgeries, frozen sections can aid in assessing tumor margins and ensuring complete removal.</li><li>➤ The analysis of frozen sections can assist in diagnosing nodal metastasis and identifying the involvement of sentinel lymph nodes during surgery.</li><li>➤ If a positive node is detected during the procedure, the surgeon can proceed with the immediate removal of axillary lymph nodes.</li><li>➤ Conversely, if the sentinel node shows no signs of tumor involvement, additional axillary dissection can be avoided.</li><li>➤ In breast-conserving surgeries, frozen sections can aid in assessing tumor margins and ensuring complete removal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following investigations is used to diagnose unicornuate uterus? (INICET NOV 2021) Falloposcopy Laparoscopy HSG X-ray", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 2. Laparoscopy: This is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that allows direct visualization of the pelvic organs, including the uterus. It is effective in diagnosing structural anomalies like a unicornuate uterus.</li><li>• 2. Laparoscopy:</li><li>• 3. HSG (Hysterosalpingogram): This is an X-ray procedure where a contrast dye is injected into the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes. It helps in visualizing the shape of the uterine cavity and the patency of the fallopian tubes, making it useful in diagnosing a unicornuate uterus.</li><li>• 3. HSG (Hysterosalpingogram):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 2, 4: While laparoscopy (2) is correct, X-ray (4) alone is not specific or detailed enough to diagnose a unicornuate uterus.</li><li>• Option A. 2, 4:</li><li>• Option B. 1, 2: Falloposcopy (1) is used to visualize the interior of the fallopian tubes, not to diagnose uterine anomalies. Laparoscopy (2) is correct but falloposcopy is not appropriate for this diagnosis.</li><li>• Option B. 1, 2:</li><li>• Option C. 1, 3: Similar to option B, falloposcopy (1) is not relevant for diagnosing uterine anomalies, even though HSG (3) is correct.</li><li>• Option C. 1, 3:</li><li>• Falloposcopy: Refers to the visualization of the interior of the fallopian tube lumen and tubal ostia using a flexible fiber optic device via hysteroscope. Diagnosis of Mullerian Anomalies: Can be achieved through various methods, including: Ultrasound (Preferably 3D USG) MRI (Investigation of choice) HSG Hystero-laparoscopy</li><li>• Falloposcopy: Refers to the visualization of the interior of the fallopian tube lumen and tubal ostia using a flexible fiber optic device via hysteroscope.</li><li>• Falloposcopy:</li><li>• Diagnosis of Mullerian Anomalies: Can be achieved through various methods, including: Ultrasound (Preferably 3D USG) MRI (Investigation of choice) HSG Hystero-laparoscopy</li><li>• Diagnosis of Mullerian Anomalies:</li><li>• Ultrasound (Preferably 3D USG) MRI (Investigation of choice) HSG Hystero-laparoscopy</li><li>• Ultrasound (Preferably 3D USG)</li><li>• MRI (Investigation of choice)</li><li>• HSG</li><li>• Hystero-laparoscopy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laparoscopy and HSG are effective diagnostic tools for identifying unicornuate uterus and other Mullerian anomalies.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 47, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg418</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 47, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg418</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the false statement regarding suicidal inhibition? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The inhibitor can bind with any site resulting in suicidal inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "The binding of the enzyme to the substrate analogue is irreversible", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "They are enzyme specific and used in rational drug design", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The inhibitor forms a product with the enzyme and the product inhibits it", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The inhibitor can bind with any site resulting in suicidal inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. The inhibitor can bind with any site resulting in suicidal inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CLINICAL IMPORTANCE</li><li>➤ CLINICAL IMPORTANCE</li><li>➤ Suicide inhibitors have significant implications in drug development, especially for designing drugs that target enzymes involved in disease processes. For instance, certain antibiotics work by suicide inhibition of bacterial enzymes, and some drugs used in the treatment of hypertension and depression also act through this mechanism.</li><li>➤ Understanding the mechanism of suicide inhibition helps in the development of more effective and specific drugs, with fewer off-target effects. It's a powerful example of how knowledge of biochemistry can be applied in medicinal chemistry and pharmacology.</li><li>➤ EXAMPLES OF SUICIDE INHIBITORS</li><li>➤ EXAMPLES OF SUICIDE INHIBITORS</li><li>➤ Beta lactams (Penicillins) Aspirin Allopurinol MAO inhibitors</li><li>➤ Beta lactams (Penicillins)</li><li>➤ Aspirin</li><li>➤ Allopurinol</li><li>➤ MAO inhibitors</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old male patient with chronic fatigue and lymphadenopathy presents to the outpatient department. His peripheral smear shows the presence of smudge cells. Which of the following additional investigations will you do to arrive at a diagnosis? ( AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polymerase chain reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorescent in situ hybridization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flow cytometry", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytogenetics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Flow cytometry", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-113259.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Flow cytometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient suspected of having Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) , Flow cytometry is the key diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis by identifying the characteristic immunophenotype of CLL cells.</li><li>➤ Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)</li><li>➤ Flow cytometry</li><li>➤ Ref: Robins Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1114</li><li>➤ Ref: Robins Pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1114</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with bilateral proptosis. From the peripheral smear, he was suspected to have chloroma. What is the next investigation of choice? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platelet count", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "WBC count", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flow cytometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone marrow examination", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bone marrow examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bone marrow examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For suspected chloroma in the context of AML, a bone marrow examination is the critical next step to confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment.</li><li>➤ chloroma</li><li>➤ bone marrow examination</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 1150-1154</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8th edition pg 1150-1154</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the rules used as tests of insanity? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Durham's rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curren's rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neither A nor B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both A and B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Both A and B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Both Durham's rule and Curren's rule are significant tests used to determine criminal responsibility in cases where the defendant's mental state is in question.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old patient presented with scrotal swelling and ataxia. Which among the following could likely be a cause? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glioblastoma multiforme", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hodgkin lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-Hodgkin lymphoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non seminomatous germ cell tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-396.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), particularly Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL), is a likely cause of scrotal swelling and ataxia due to its potential for extranodal involvement and associated paraneoplastic syndromes.</li><li>➤ Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), particularly Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL),</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following complication is specific to Monochorionic twins? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Selective fetal growth restriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polyhydramnios", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Twin to twin transfusion syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neural tube defects", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Twin to twin transfusion syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Complications specific to monochorionic twins are:</li><li>• Twin to twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) : This is a specific complication seen in monochorionic twins. There is a donor twin and a recipient twin; the donor is anemic and pale with oligohydramnios, while the recipient is polycythemic and may have circulatory overload, ascites, and hydrops. Quintero's staging is used for TTTS, and the treatment involves laser ablation of vessels. TRAP sequence (Twin Reversed Arterial Perfusion) : This is another specific complication seen in monochorionic twins, involving an acardiac twin.</li><li>• Twin to twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) : This is a specific complication seen in monochorionic twins. There is a donor twin and a recipient twin; the donor is anemic and pale with oligohydramnios, while the recipient is polycythemic and may have circulatory overload, ascites, and hydrops. Quintero's staging is used for TTTS, and the treatment involves laser ablation of vessels.</li><li>• Twin to twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)</li><li>• TRAP sequence (Twin Reversed Arterial Perfusion) : This is another specific complication seen in monochorionic twins, involving an acardiac twin.</li><li>• TRAP sequence (Twin Reversed Arterial Perfusion)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Selective fetal growth restriction : While this can occur in monochorionic twins, it is not specific to them.</li><li>• Option A. Selective fetal growth restriction</li><li>• Option B. Polyhydramnios : This can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to monochorionic twins.</li><li>• Option B. Polyhydramnios</li><li>• Option D. Neural tube defects : These can occur in any pregnancy and are not specific to monochorionic twins.</li><li>• Option D. Neural tube defects</li><li>• Thus, options A, B, and D are not specific complications of monochorionic twins.</li><li>• Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg904,905</li><li>• Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg904,905</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male presented with mild intermittent upper abdominal pain. X-ray is given below. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bochdalek hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Morgagni hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hiatal hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eventration of diaphragm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hiatal hernia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-169.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-152745.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hiatal hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Retrocardiac air fluid level is seen on CXR which is suggestive of a hiatal hernia. It is defined as the displacement through esophageal hiatus of GE junction or other parts of the stomach into the thoracic cavity</li><li>• IOC for hiatal hernia: Contrast enhanced CT + oral contrast (Iohexol most commonly) (to determine obstruction/ Volvulus)</li><li>• IOC for hiatal hernia:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Bochdalek hernia: This is a congenital diaphragmatic hernia typically occurring at the posterolateral part of the diaphragm, not associated with the retrocardiac region.</li><li>• Option A. Bochdalek hernia:</li><li>• Option B. Morgagni hernia: Another type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs anteriorly at the sternocostal triangles, not retrocardiac.</li><li>• Option B. Morgagni hernia:</li><li>• Option D. Eventration of diaphragm: Involves an abnormal elevation of the diaphragm muscle, not typically presenting as an air-fluid level in the retrocardiac area.</li><li>• Option D. Eventration of diaphragm:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hiatal hernia can be diagnosed on plain chest X-ray when an air-fluid level is visible in the retrocardiac area, indicating herniation of stomach contents into the thorax through the esophageal hiatus. Contrast-enhanced CT with oral contrast is the imaging of choice for further evaluation, particularly to assess for any complications like obstruction or volvulus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following set of instruments are used for which procedure? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pap smear", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hysteroscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dilatation and curettage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pap smear", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/inicet-obg-nov-2021-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pap smear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given set of instruments are commonly used for taking a Pap smear. The instruments include:</li><li>• Cusco's bivalved self-retaining speculum: Used to visualize the cervix. Koplin's jar: Used to store the collected sample. Slides to prepare the smear: Used for placing the collected sample. Ayer's spatula and endocervical brush: Used to collect cells from the ectocervix and endocervix, respectively. Fixative containing 95% ethanol: Used to preserve the collected sample on the slides.</li><li>• Cusco's bivalved self-retaining speculum: Used to visualize the cervix.</li><li>• Cusco's bivalved self-retaining speculum:</li><li>• Koplin's jar: Used to store the collected sample.</li><li>• Koplin's jar:</li><li>• Slides to prepare the smear: Used for placing the collected sample.</li><li>• Slides to prepare the smear:</li><li>• Ayer's spatula and endocervical brush: Used to collect cells from the ectocervix and endocervix, respectively.</li><li>• Ayer's spatula and endocervical brush:</li><li>• Fixative containing 95% ethanol: Used to preserve the collected sample on the slides.</li><li>• Fixative containing 95% ethanol:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hysteroscopy: This procedure involves using a hysteroscope to visualize the inside of the uterine cavity, and the instruments shown are not used for this purpose.</li><li>• Option B. Hysteroscopy:</li><li>• Option C. Biopsy: While some of these instruments might be used in a cervical biopsy, the specific combination shown is typically for a Pap smear.</li><li>• Option C. Biopsy:</li><li>• Option D. Dilatation and curettage: This procedure involves dilating the cervix and scraping the endometrial lining, which requires different instruments than those shown.</li><li>• Option D. Dilatation and curettage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The set of instruments shown, including Cusco's speculum, Koplin's jar, slides, Ayer's spatula, endocervical brush, and fixative, are used for performing a Pap smear to collect and preserve cervical cell samples for cytological examination.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 110,111, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition 632, 633</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 110,111, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition 632, 633</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Imagine a scenario where a novel medication is introduced that significantly reduces mortality from a specific disease but does not actually cure the disease. As patients continue to live longer with the disease due to this medication, it would have an effect on the epidemiological metrics. Which of the following statements correctly describes the expected change in prevalence and incidence as a result of this medication? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease in incidence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease in prevalence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in incidence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase in prevalence", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increase in prevalence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increase in prevalence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PREVALENCE</li><li>➤ PREVALENCE</li><li>➤ Total current (Old + New) cases in a given population over. Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of disease [P = I × d] Prevalence describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery</li><li>➤ Total current (Old + New) cases in a given population over.</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of disease [P = I × d]</li><li>➤ Prevalence describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery</li><li>➤ INCIDENCE</li><li>➤ INCIDENCE</li><li>➤ Number of new cases occurring in a defined population over a specified period of time.</li><li>➤ Number of new cases occurring in a defined population over a specified period of time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following will halter the maturity of collagen? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beri-beri", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Night blindness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rickets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Scurvy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/10_QCSkthc.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Scurvy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scurvy is the condition that will halt the maturity of collagen because it is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis.</li><li>➤ Ascorbic acid is necessary for the post-translational hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues .</li><li>➤ Ascorbic acid is necessary for the post-translational hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues</li><li>➤ Hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine are essential for the formation of cross links in the collagen, which gives the tensile strength to the fibers. This process is absolutely necessary for the normal production of supporting tissues such as osteoid, collagen and intercellular cement substance of capillaries.</li><li>➤ Thus, in ascorbic acid deficiency (Scurvy), collagen is abnormal and the intercellular cement substance is brittle . So, capillaries are fragile, leading to the tendency to bleed even under minor pressure.</li><li>➤ in ascorbic acid deficiency (Scurvy), collagen is abnormal and the intercellular cement substance is brittle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a public health researcher evaluating a new screening test for early detection of a specific disease in a community. Your team successfully conducted a pilot study in a small group. Before planning a large-scale implementation, you wish to ensure that the findings from your pilot study can be applied to larger, diverse groups of individuals outside your initial sample. This ability to extrapolate the findings in the broader population, i.e. the external validity of a screening test is related to which of the following options? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stability", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Objectivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Generalizability", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Repeatability", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Generalizability", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/screenshot-2023-10-28-131034.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Generalizability</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ External validity of a screening test is related to generalizability.</li><li>➤ Validity refers to what extent the test measures which it purports to measure (adequacy of measurement).</li><li>➤ Types of Validity</li><li>➤ Types of Validity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What treatment should be avoided for a male patient in his mid-40s who was brought to the emergency department following a road traffic accident, and presents with a heart rate of 120/min, respiratory rate of 30/min, and an X-ray image of his chest? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasogastric tube insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chest tube insertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Log roll", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epidural anaesthesia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chest tube insertion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/picture1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chest tube insertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The provided image displays an elevated left hemidiaphragm with stomach herniated into thorax, likely due to a diaphragmatic hernia resulting from blunt trauma in a road traffic accident.</li><li>➤ Chest tube insertion or thoracostomy is not recommended in cases of diaphragmatic hernia and is contraindicated Chest tube insertion is generally indicated for pneumothorax, hemothorax, chylothorax, pleural effusion, among others, but is contraindicated in the presence of pulmonary adhesions, pulmonary trauma, coagulopathy, and diaphragmatic hernia. To insert a chest tube, the 5th intercostal space should be accessed anterior to the midaxillary line, within the triangle of safety, which is located above the level of the nipple and below and lateral to the pectoralis major muscle. Acquired diaphragmatic hernia does not contraindicate nasogastric tube insertion, log roll, or epidural anesthesia.</li><li>➤ Chest tube insertion or thoracostomy is not recommended in cases of diaphragmatic hernia and is contraindicated</li><li>➤ Chest tube insertion is generally indicated for pneumothorax, hemothorax, chylothorax, pleural effusion, among others, but is contraindicated in the presence of pulmonary adhesions, pulmonary trauma, coagulopathy, and diaphragmatic hernia.</li><li>➤ To insert a chest tube, the 5th intercostal space should be accessed anterior to the midaxillary line, within the triangle of safety, which is located above the level of the nipple and below and lateral to the pectoralis major muscle.</li><li>➤ Acquired diaphragmatic hernia does not contraindicate nasogastric tube insertion, log roll, or epidural anesthesia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with complaints of dyspnea on exertion for 1 month. Echocardiography showed the presence of mitral stenosis and left ventricular hypertrophy. Identify the histopathological finding given below and the probable diagnosis? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aschoff body; Rheumatic heart disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcification of valve; Mitral stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Granuloma; Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-caseating granuloma; Tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aschoff body; Rheumatic heart disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-392.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Aschoff body; Rheumatic heart disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aschoff bodies are indicative of Rheumatic heart disease (RHD) , and their presence supports the diagnosis in a patient with clinical features such as mitral stenosis and left ventricular hypertrophy.</li><li>➤ Aschoff bodies</li><li>➤ Rheumatic heart disease (RHD)</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1044</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1044</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are true regarding heart failure except: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Regardless of ejection fraction and the type of heart failure, the 5-year mortality rate is around 50%.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non-cardiovascular death is more in HFrEF as compared to HFpEF.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ACEi cause cough in 15% and angioedema in 1%.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AF is common in the elderly and is the cause of stroke in a quarter of stroke cases.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Non-cardiovascular death is more in HFrEF as compared to HFpEF.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Non-cardiovascular death is more in HFrEF as compared to HFpEF.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-cardiovascular deaths are more common in HFpEF patients compared to HFrEF patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a nutritionist giving a lecture about milk pasteurization and its quality assurance tests. A curious student inquires about the various tests to validate the efficacy of pasteurization. You begin to list them, but highlight one that is not directly related to the pasteurization process. Which of the following tests does not directly evaluate the efficiency of milk pasteurization? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphatase test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "lodine test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Standard plate count", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methylene blue reduction test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. lodine test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) lodine test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PASTEURIZATION TESTS:</li><li>➤ PASTEURIZATION TESTS:</li><li>➤ Phosphatase Test: Widely used test Standard Plate Count: Standard is coliforms be absent in 1 ml of milk Methylene blue reduction test: Enforced limit is 30,000 bacterial count per ml of pasteurized milk</li><li>➤ Phosphatase Test: Widely used test</li><li>➤ Standard Plate Count: Standard is coliforms be absent in 1 ml of milk</li><li>➤ Methylene blue reduction test: Enforced limit is 30,000 bacterial count per ml of pasteurized milk</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is not able to see the lateral fields. He was having a mild headache for a few weeks and now presented to the clinic. Visual field examination shows the following finding. What is the probable site of the lesion based on the image displayed?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Occipital lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic radiation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Optic chiasma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/dsgvsdf.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/mygfffff.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Optic chiasma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Visual field defects:</li><li>➤ Visual field defects:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a global health researcher working on a report assessing the development status of various countries. To classify the countries and compare them, you decide to use the Human Development Index (HDI). You recall that HDI is a commonly utilized measure but seek to clarify its exact components, as presented by organizations like the World Health Organization (WHO). Which of the following correctly identifies the components that make up the HDI? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Life expectancy at birth, literacy and standard of living", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Life expectancy at 1 year, literacy and standard of living", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infant mortality rate, literacy and standard of living", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Life expectancy at 1 year, literacy and infant mortality rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Life expectancy at birth, literacy and standard of living", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/screenshot-2023-10-28-130805.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Life expectancy at birth, literacy and standard of living</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You're mentoring a group of budding epidemiologists who are keen on understanding the nuances of different study designs. One of them is particularly interested in case-control studies. During your discussion, you decide to quiz them on aspects that are typically not inherent to case-control studies. Which of the given options would not usually be part of a case-control study? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Follow up", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Matching", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strength of association", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Selection of study subjects", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Follow up", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Follow up</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Case-control studies do not include follow-up of subjects but focus on matching, assessing the strength of association using odds ratios, and selecting cases and controls for analysis.</li><li>➤ Case-control studies do not include follow-up of subjects but focus on matching, assessing the strength of association using odds ratios, and selecting cases and controls for analysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A surgeon performs an appendicectomy with a grid iron incision. He later converts the incision to Rutherford Morrison incision. Which of the following are cut? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "External oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Internal oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transversus abdominis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/03.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old patient with obstructive jaundice has a distended gall bladder and a dilated common bile duct and intrahepatic biliary radicles on ultrasound. Which of the following will be most useful to localize the cause? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endoscopic ultrasound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obstructive jaundice is a condition in which there is a blockage of the flow of bile out of the liver. This results in redirection of excess bile and its by-products into the blood, and bile excretion from the body is incomplete</li><li>➤ Symptoms of obstructive jaundice include yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes; paler stools and darker urine; and intense itching.</li><li>➤ The most common cause of obstructive jaundice is the presence of CBD stones (choledocholithiasis). Other causes of obstructive jaundice are tumors, trauma, cysts, and inflammation in the bile ducts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following cause a right shift of the oxygen- hemoglobin dissociation curve, except? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased HbF", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Raised 2,3 BPG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased CO ₂", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increased HbF", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-nov-1-3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increased HbF</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right with factors that decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, such as increased 2,3 BPG, acidosis, and increased CO₂. In contrast, increased fetal hemoglobin (HbF) causes a left shift, indicating higher oxygen affinity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure in the given CT image. (INICET NOVEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Concha bullosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumatised superior turbinate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Onodi cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haller cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pneumatised superior turbinate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-094423.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture49.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/picture50.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pneumatised superior turbinate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumatisation of the superior turbinate, indicates the presence of air spaces within the turbinates, which can have implications for nasal physiology and potential sinus pathologies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with fever, dyspnea, palpitations, and tachycardia. The echocardiography revealed vegetation in the septal leaflets. Tissue sections from them reveal the following findings as shown in the image. What is the most likely implicated agent? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pigmented septate hyphae at 90 degrees, Mucormycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right angle branching septate hyphae, Fusarium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute angle branching hyphae, Rhizopus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute angle branching septate hyphae, Aspergillus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acute angle branching septate hyphae, Aspergillus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_O5CDemy.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_WXDdRuJ.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_AMX5Kgl.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Acute angle branching septate hyphae, Aspergillus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspergillus: Typically seen as septate hyphae with acute angle branching on histological stains such as GMS. Mucor and Rhizopus: Non-septate, broad hyphae with right angle branching, distinguishing them from Aspergillus. Fusarium: Requires culture for definitive identification, although morphologically similar to Aspergillus.</li><li>➤ Aspergillus: Typically seen as septate hyphae with acute angle branching on histological stains such as GMS.</li><li>➤ Aspergillus:</li><li>➤ Mucor and Rhizopus: Non-septate, broad hyphae with right angle branching, distinguishing them from Aspergillus.</li><li>➤ Mucor and Rhizopus:</li><li>➤ Fusarium: Requires culture for definitive identification, although morphologically similar to Aspergillus.</li><li>➤ Fusarium:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the fixative used for a pap smear? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Formalin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Air dried", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal saline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "95% ethanol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 95% ethanol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 95% ethanol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fixative used for a Pap smear is typically 95% ethanol, which helps preserve the cellular details on the slides for accurate cytological examination.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 110,111, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition 632, 633</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition Pg 110,111, William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition 632, 633</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/screenshot-2023-10-12-164243.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Twilight (A) refers to a transient, impaired state of consciousness often seen during seizures or certain other medical conditions. Therefore, it matches with Impaired level of consciousness (2).</li><li>• Twilight (A)</li><li>• Impaired level of consciousness (2).</li><li>• Oneroid state (B) is a term used in psychiatry to describe a dream-like state of consciousness, hence matching with Oneirophrenia (4) , which is derived from the words meaning 'dream' and 'mind'.</li><li>• Oneroid state (B)</li><li>• Oneirophrenia (4)</li><li>• Oligophrenia (C) is an outdated medical term used to describe intellectual disability or subnormal intelligence. Thus, it matches with Subnormal intelligence (1) .</li><li>• Oligophrenia (C)</li><li>• Subnormal intelligence (1)</li><li>• Paranoid Ideation (D) involves thoughts dominated by ideas of persecution or conspiracy against the individual. This matches with Persecution (3) .</li><li>• Paranoid Ideation (D)</li><li>• Persecution (3)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oneroid state is characterized by a dream-like state resembling Oneirophrenia. Oligophrenia refers to intellectual disability, and Paranoid Ideation is centered on ideas of persecution.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Sim’s symptoms in the Mind, 7th edition, Page No 39, 40, 132; Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 4599.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most preferred chromatography for HbA1c? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Electrophoresis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ion-exchange chromatography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Affinity chromatography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immuno turbidimetry", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ion-exchange chromatography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ion-exchange chromatography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycated hemoglobin (GHB), reported as hemoglobin A 1c (HbA 1c ), is a biochemical marker that is used routinely in the management of individuals with diabetes mellitus to monitor long-term glycemic control and assess the risk of developing complications.</li><li>➤ monitor long-term glycemic control and assess the risk of developing complications.</li><li>➤ Four basic types of methods are used most commonly to measure HbA1c: immunoassay, ion-exchange high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC), boronate affinity HPLC, and enzymatic assays.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a true statement about obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atypical antipsychotics is the first line treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevalence is 7 -10 percent in general population", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depression is a common comorbidity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contamination is an uncommon obsession", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Depression is a common comorbidity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Depression is a common comorbidity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions. Life time prevalence is around 2-3% and is more common among females. Most common presentation is obsessive contamination with compulsive washing followed by pathological doubt with repeated checking. Most common comorbidity is depression. First line treatment includes SSRIs and chlomipramine. Atypical antipsychotics are used as adjunctive treatment.</li><li>➤ 2-3%</li><li>➤ Most common presentation is obsessive contamination with compulsive washing</li><li>➤ Most common comorbidity is depression. First line treatment includes SSRIs and chlomipramine.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 95-97.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following ions have decreased concentration on the luminal side of proximal convoluted tubule except: ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amino acids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloride", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bicarbonate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chloride", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chloride</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chloride concentration on the luminal side of the proximal convoluted tubule does not decrease as significantly as amino acids, glucose, and bicarbonate due to the preferential reabsorption of these other solutes in the early segments of the PCT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which require maximum energy for assimilation? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proteins", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbohydrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mono-unsaturated fatty acids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Poly-unsaturated fatty acids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Proteins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Proteins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Proteins require the maximum energy for assimilation among the options listed, as they need to be broken down into individual amino acids for various metabolic processes, including energy production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old girl committed suicide by hanging, after a fight with her boyfriend. On conducting the autopsy, the ligature mark is seen at the lower 1/3rd of the neck and she is seen to have a protruded tongue. One side eye is open and both the pupils are dilated. What is the cause for the open eye? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right internal jugular vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical sympathetic chain", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left vagus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right internal carotid artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cervical sympathetic chain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-35.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cervical sympathetic chain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ PM findings of hanging in the Neck</li><li>➤ PM findings of hanging in the Neck</li><li>➤ Petechiae-Tardieu spot La facies sympathique Salivary dribbling Ligature mark Tissues under ligature mark are dry, pale, and glistening Thyroid cartilage Hyoid bone fracture</li><li>➤ Petechiae-Tardieu spot</li><li>➤ La facies sympathique</li><li>➤ La facies sympathique</li><li>➤ Salivary dribbling</li><li>➤ Ligature mark</li><li>➤ Tissues under ligature mark are dry, pale, and glistening</li><li>➤ Thyroid cartilage</li><li>➤ Hyoid bone fracture</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fibers from the marked structure end in which of the following areas of the thalamus? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reticular nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior nucleus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventral Lateral nucleus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anterior nucleus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/picture22222.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Anterior nucleus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anterior nuclear group of the thalamus is involved in emotional tone and recent memory. Fibers from the mammillary bodies, via the mammillothalamic tract, terminate in the anterior nuclei of the thalamus. The connection between the mammillary bodies and the anterior thalamic nucleus is a crucial part of the Papez circuit.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The cell marked in the black arrow below slide is inhibitory to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deep nuclei of cerebellum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vestibular nuclei", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior olivary nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basal ganglia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Deep nuclei of cerebellum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/ai-4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Deep nuclei of cerebellum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The deep cerebellar nuclei include the fastigial, interposed (which is further divided into the globose and emboliform nuclei), and the dentate nuclei. The axons of Purkinje cells synapse onto neurons in these nuclei. Importantly, Purkinje cells are inhibitory and utilize the neurotransmitter GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) to inhibit the cells of the deep cerebellar nuclei.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For the diagnosis of resistant hypertension, the patient should have uncontrolled hypertension despite taking three antihypertensive drugs. This should include at least one? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium channel blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alpha blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diuretic", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diuretic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnostic criteria for resistant hypertension include having blood pressure above target despite taking three drugs, one of which must be a diuretic, OR having controlled blood pressure with four or more drugs. Typically, a thiazide diuretic is used in the setting of hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following oncogenic viruses can integrate with the human genome to initiate carcinogenesis except: (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HTLV", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "EBV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HTLV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HTLV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oncogenic DNA and RNA Viruses:</li><li>➤ Oncogenic DNA and RNA Viruses:</li><li>➤ Oncogenic DNA Viruses: EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus) HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) HPV (Human Papillomavirus) HHV-8 (Human Herpesvirus-8) MCPyV (Merkel Cell Polyomavirus) Oncogenic RNA Viruses: HCV (Hepatitis C Virus) HTLV-1 (Human T-cell Lymphotropic Virus-1)</li><li>➤ Oncogenic DNA Viruses: EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus) HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) HPV (Human Papillomavirus) HHV-8 (Human Herpesvirus-8) MCPyV (Merkel Cell Polyomavirus)</li><li>➤ EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus) HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) HPV (Human Papillomavirus) HHV-8 (Human Herpesvirus-8) MCPyV (Merkel Cell Polyomavirus)</li><li>➤ EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)</li><li>➤ HBV (Hepatitis B Virus)</li><li>➤ HPV (Human Papillomavirus)</li><li>➤ HHV-8 (Human Herpesvirus-8)</li><li>➤ MCPyV (Merkel Cell Polyomavirus)</li><li>➤ Oncogenic RNA Viruses: HCV (Hepatitis C Virus) HTLV-1 (Human T-cell Lymphotropic Virus-1)</li><li>➤ HCV (Hepatitis C Virus) HTLV-1 (Human T-cell Lymphotropic Virus-1)</li><li>➤ HCV (Hepatitis C Virus)</li><li>➤ HTLV-1 (Human T-cell Lymphotropic Virus-1)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the features given below is of a male pelvis? Triangular obturator foramen U-shaped pubic angle Everted ischial tuberosity Large greater sciatic notch Large acetabulum Deep preauricular sulcus", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2,3,4,5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4,5,6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Only 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-30.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Differences between male and female pelvis</li><li>➤ Differences between male and female pelvis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to hospital who has not eaten anything for 2 days. Which of the following tests will be positive?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Only 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/9_R14LAUu.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Only 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prolonged fasting leads to ketonuria which can be detected by Rothera’s test i.e., test 3</li><li>• Prolonged fasting leads to ketonuria which can be detected by Rothera’s test i.e., test 3</li><li>• Rothera's test: Saturate 5 mL of urine with solid ammonium sulphate. Add a few drops of freshly prepared sodium nitroprusside followed by 2 mL of liquor ammonia along the sides of the test tube. Development of a purple ring indicates the presence of ketone bodies in urine . Strip tests based on the same principle are also available.</li><li>• Rothera's test:</li><li>• purple ring indicates the presence of ketone bodies in urine</li><li>• Other tests</li><li>• Other tests</li><li>• Test 1: Benedict’s test: To 5 mL Benedict’s reagent, add 0.5 mL urine. Boil for 2 minutes. Blue, green, yellow, orange or red precipitate indicate reducing sugars. Black colour (muddy brown) is seen if homogentisic acid is present. Disaccharides may be identified by alkali destruction test. As there is low glucose in blood and will not be excreted in urine. So It will be negative.</li><li>• Test 1: Benedict’s test:</li><li>• Blue, green, yellow, orange or red precipitate indicate reducing sugars.</li><li>• The urine of a patient with diabetic keto acidosis will give positive Benedict's test as well as Rothera's test. But in starvation ketosis, Benedict's test is negative, but Rothera's test will be positive.</li><li>• But in starvation ketosis, Benedict's test is negative, but Rothera's test will be positive.</li><li>• Test 2: S hows the heat coagulation test . The heat coagulation test is used to detect the presence of proteins in urine. Since proteins are generally conserved during fasting to protect muscle mass, this test will be negative, rather proteins will be conserved to protect muscles.</li><li>• Test 2:</li><li>• S</li><li>• hows the heat coagulation test</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Prolonged fasting leads to ketosis, which can be detected by Rothera’s test (test 3), resulting in a positive result for ketone bodies in the urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Imagine you are a clinician administering vaccines to a group of travelers going to a region with high Hepatitis B prevalence. One of the travelers, who has a background in biology, curiously asks which specific part of the Hepatitis B virus is actually present in the vaccine to induce an immune response. Out of the given options, which antigen is included in the Hepatitis B subunit vaccine? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HbeAg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HbsAg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HbcAg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBV DNA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HbsAg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HbsAg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hepatitis B subunit vaccine contains HBsAg, which is essential for inducing an immune response against the virus.</li><li>➤ The Hepatitis B subunit vaccine contains HBsAg, which is essential for inducing an immune response against the virus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an amphipathic Lipid? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triglycerides", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphoglycerol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycolipids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphingolipids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Triglycerides", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/5_RQ4Z1Io.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Triglycerides</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triglycerides are not amphipathic lipids, while phosphoglycerol, glycolipids, and sphingolipids are amphipathic and play important roles in cell membrane structure and function.</li><li>➤ They are formed by esterification between three Fatty acids and one glycerol molecule. As Ester bond is non-polar so, molecule of TG is a non-polar. They are also called as neutral fats.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following instruments are used in the caesarean section? (INICET NOV 2021) Bard-Parker blade Doyen's retractor Cusco's speculum Allis forceps Shirodkar's uterine clamp Green Armytage forceps", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 5, 6", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 4, 6", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 4, 6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 4, 6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Instruments used in a cesarean section</li><li>• BP handle Allis forceps Artery forceps Doyen retractor Green Armitage forceps Metzenbaum scissors</li><li>• BP handle</li><li>• Allis forceps</li><li>• Artery forceps</li><li>• Doyen retractor</li><li>• Green Armitage forceps</li><li>• Metzenbaum scissors</li><li>• Among the options</li><li>• Cusco’s speculum has no role in LSCA It is a vaginal self-retaining speculum with two blades Shirodkar’s uterine clamp is used in gynecological procedures to hold the uterus.</li><li>• Cusco’s speculum has no role in LSCA It is a vaginal self-retaining speculum with two blades</li><li>• Shirodkar’s uterine clamp is used in gynecological procedures to hold the uterus.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Identify that Bard-Parker blade, Doyen's retractor, Allis forceps, and Green Armytage forceps are essential instruments used in a cesarean section, while Cusco's speculum and Shirodkar's uterine clamp are not used in this procedure.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition Page no 756</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition Page no 756</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman comes with a history of Colles’ fracture 6 months ago. Her DEXA scan reveals T score of -2.5. What is the next best step?(INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium and vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hormone replacement therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alendronate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Repeat DEXA scan after 6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Alendronate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_99.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/screenshot-2024-01-02-192803.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/picture20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Alendronate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alendronate, a drug of class of bisphosphonates is the drug of choice for the treatment of osteoporosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with cirrhosis and ascites presented to you. The gross appearance of his liver is as shown below. Which among the following is true about it? (AIIMS NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dark areas represent necrosis, white areas represent viable liver tissue", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dark areas represent viable liver tissue, white areas represent necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "White areas represent central hepatocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dark areas represent peri-portal hepatocytes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dark areas represent necrosis, white areas represent viable liver tissue", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/14/untitled-397.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dark areas represent necrosis; white areas represent viable liver tissue.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nutmeg liver is characterized by a mottled appearance, where dark areas represent necrosis due to chronic passive congestion, and white areas represent viable liver tissue .</li><li>➤ Nutmeg liver</li><li>➤ dark areas represent necrosis</li><li>➤ white areas represent viable liver tissue</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1665</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 8 th edition pg 1665</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher in epidemiology is planning to conduct a meta-analysis to better understand the effects of a specific intervention. While he lists the various stages and processes associated with a meta-analysis, he includes one element that isn't typically involved in a meta-analysis. Which of the following isn't directly associated with the process of a meta-analysis? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Selection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Randomization", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abstraction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Randomization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/666.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Randomization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Randomization is a part of conducting individual randomized controlled trials, not the process of performing a meta-analysis.</li><li>➤ Randomization is a part of conducting individual randomized controlled trials, not the process of performing a meta-analysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not used to treat PCOD? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clomiphene citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metformin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tamoxifen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "OCP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tamoxifen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tamoxifen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tamoxifen is not commonly used in the treatment of Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD). Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) primarily used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Medical Management of PCOD: OCP (Option D): Oral contraceptive pills regulate the menstrual cycle and hormones and are given to women who are not desirous of fertility to regularize their cycles. Metformin (Option B): Metformin is an insulin sensitizer, which decreases hyperinsulinemia and improves fertility in patients with PCOD. Ovulation Induction Drugs: Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Medical Management of PCOD: OCP (Option D): Oral contraceptive pills regulate the menstrual cycle and hormones and are given to women who are not desirous of fertility to regularize their cycles. Metformin (Option B): Metformin is an insulin sensitizer, which decreases hyperinsulinemia and improves fertility in patients with PCOD. Ovulation Induction Drugs: Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Medical Management of PCOD:</li><li>• OCP (Option D): Oral contraceptive pills regulate the menstrual cycle and hormones and are given to women who are not desirous of fertility to regularize their cycles. Metformin (Option B): Metformin is an insulin sensitizer, which decreases hyperinsulinemia and improves fertility in patients with PCOD. Ovulation Induction Drugs: Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• OCP (Option D): Oral contraceptive pills regulate the menstrual cycle and hormones and are given to women who are not desirous of fertility to regularize their cycles.</li><li>• OCP (Option D):</li><li>• Metformin (Option B): Metformin is an insulin sensitizer, which decreases hyperinsulinemia and improves fertility in patients with PCOD.</li><li>• Metformin (Option B):</li><li>• Ovulation Induction Drugs: Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Ovulation Induction Drugs:</li><li>• Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD. Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Clomiphene (Option A): Clomiphene citrate is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to PCOD.</li><li>• Clomiphene (Option A):</li><li>• Letrozole: Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is the drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD.</li><li>• Letrozole:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Clomiphene citrate: Clomiphene is an ovulation induction agent used in the treatment of infertility in women with PCOD.</li><li>• Option A. Clomiphene citrate:</li><li>• Option B. Metformin: Metformin is used to decrease insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia in PCOD, which can help in regulating menstrual cycles and improving fertility.</li><li>• Option B. Metformin:</li><li>• Option D. OCP: Oral contraceptive pills are used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hormonal imbalances in women with PCOD who do not seek to become pregnant.</li><li>• Option D. OCP:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tamoxifen is not typically used in the treatment of PCOD. Instead, treatments include oral contraceptive pills, metformin, and ovulation induction agents such as clomiphene and letrozole.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3rd edition. Pg 398 Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg470</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3rd edition. Pg 398 Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg470</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The below-given image is characteristically seen in which of the following type of leprosy? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Borderline Tuberculoid leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lepromatous leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Borderline leprosy (BB Leprosy)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoid leprosy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Borderline leprosy (BB Leprosy)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13554.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Borderline leprosy (BB Leprosy)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with borderline leprosy are at risk for developing reactions like Type 1 (reversal) reactions, which can lead to rapid worsening of lesions and require immediate medical attention. Accurate diagnosis based on clinical presentation, bacterial index, and histopathology is crucial as the treatment duration and regimen may differ based on the type of leprosy. Borderline leprosy is typically treated with multi-drug therapy (MDT), similar to other forms of leprosy.</li><li>➤ Patients with borderline leprosy are at risk for developing reactions like Type 1 (reversal) reactions, which can lead to rapid worsening of lesions and require immediate medical attention.</li><li>➤ Accurate diagnosis based on clinical presentation, bacterial index, and histopathology is crucial as the treatment duration and regimen may differ based on the type of leprosy. Borderline leprosy is typically treated with multi-drug therapy (MDT), similar to other forms of leprosy.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of Dermatology 9 th edition page no 28.3, 28.5, 28.10</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of Dermatology 9 th edition page no 28.3, 28.5, 28.10</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the repair mechanism associated with CRISPR-Cas9? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Base excision repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nucleotide excision repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-homologous end joining", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mismatch repair", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Non-homologous end joining", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/screenshot-2024-06-04-103059.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Non-homologous end joining</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary repair mechanism associated with CRISPR-Cas9 is non-homologous end joining (NHEJ), which repairs double-strand breaks by ligating the broken DNA ends, potentially causing insertions or deletions that disrupt the target gene.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to IADPSG, what is the cut-off value of fasting blood glucose for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus? (INICET MAY 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt;92 mg/dL", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt;95 mg/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt;106 mg/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;90 mg/dL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. >92 mg/dL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) &gt; 92 mg/dL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The International Association of Diabetes and Pregnancy Study Groups (IADPSG) has established criteria for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). According to their guidelines:</li><li>• The fasting blood glucose cut-off value for diagnosing GDM during a 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is &gt;92 mg/dL .</li><li>• The fasting blood glucose cut-off value for diagnosing GDM during a 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is &gt;92 mg/dL .</li><li>• &gt;92 mg/dL</li><li>• This value is used as part of a comprehensive assessment, including 1-hour and 2-hour postprandial glucose levels. The IADPSG criteria for GDM diagnosis include:</li><li>• Fasting: ≥92 mg/dL 1-hour: ≥180 mg/dL 2-hour: ≥153 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting: ≥92 mg/dL</li><li>• Fasting:</li><li>• 1-hour: ≥180 mg/dL</li><li>• 1-hour:</li><li>• 2-hour: ≥153 mg/dL</li><li>• 2-hour:</li><li>• If any one of these values is abnormal, the diagnosis of GDM can be made.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. &gt;95 mg/dL : This is not the IADPSG recommended cut-off for fasting blood glucose. It is higher than the specified cut-off value for diagnosing GDM.</li><li>• Option B. &gt;95 mg/dL</li><li>• Option C. &gt;106 mg/dL : This value is significantly higher than the recommended cut-off. It exceeds the threshold for diagnosing GDM according to IADPSG guidelines.</li><li>• Option C. &gt;106 mg/dL</li><li>• Option D. &gt;90 mg/dL : While this value is close, it is slightly below the IADPSG recommended cut-off of &gt;92 mg/dL for diagnosing GDM.</li><li>• Option D. &gt;90 mg/dL</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cut-off value of fasting blood glucose for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus according to IADPSG is &gt;92 mg/dL.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 326, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 326, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is on phenytoin for a seizure disorder. He was prescribed sucralfate 4 times a day for peptic ulcers. What should be the minimum duration of time between consumption of these drugs? ( INICET May 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "90 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "120 minutes", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 120 minutes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 120 minutes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The minimum duration of time between the consumption of phenytoin and sucralfate should be at least 120 minutes (2 hours) to ensure that phenytoin is adequately absorbed and to avoid interactions that could reduce its effectiveness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Category A, B, C, D, X in drug classification is indicative of which of the following?(INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Safety in pregnancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dose adjustment in renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cost ratio from cheap to expensive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "As per safety or therapeutic index", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Safety in pregnancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/14/screenshot-2023-12-14-165435.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Safety in pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classification of drugs into categories A, B, C, D, and X is specifically used to indicate their safety during pregnancy, helping healthcare providers to make informed decisions about medication use in pregnant patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The dose at which dopamine acts on beta 1 receptors is:(INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2-10 mcg/kg/min", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt; 2 mcg/kg/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10-20 mcg/kg/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 20 mcg/kg/min", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2-10 mcg/kg/min", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 2-10 mcg/kg/min</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dopamine has dose-dependent receptor selectivity. It acts on beta 1 receptors at doses of 2-10 mcg/kg/min, increasing cardiac output by enhancing heart rate and contractility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of remdesivir? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RNA-dependent DNA polymerase inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fusion inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Entry inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Remdesivir works by inhibiting RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, thus preventing viral RNA replication in COVID-19 patients. It is important to monitor liver and kidney function during treatment and be aware of its contraindications and potential adverse effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anionic and weakly acidic drugs bind to which of the following? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albumin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Globulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lipoprotein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alpha-1 glycoprotein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anionic and weakly acidic drugs bind predominantly to albumin in the plasma. This binding affects their pharmacokinetics, distribution, and overall bioavailability.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-month-old boy was diagnosed with Hemophilus influenza meningitis. The initial treatment plan was to start on ampicillin but later was shifted to ceftriaxone. What could be the probable reason? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemophilus alters penicillin binding protein sites, hence resistant to ampicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Easier to administer IV ceftriaxone than IV ampicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice, but patient is allergic to sulfa drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemophilus produces beta lactamase, hence resistant to ampicillin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hemophilus produces beta lactamase, hence resistant to ampicillin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hemophilus produces beta lactamase, hence resistant to ampicillin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary reason for switching from ampicillin to ceftriaxone in the treatment of Hemophilus influenzae meningitis is the production of beta-lactamase by H. influenzae, which renders the bacteria resistant to ampicillin. Ceftriaxone is more resistant to beta-lactamase and provides effective CNS penetration, making it a more suitable choice for treating bacterial meningitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is a known case of cirrhosis of the liver presents with abdominal distension and swelling of the lower limbs. The preferred diuretic for this patient would be?( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triamterene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eplerenone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chlorthalidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Eplerenone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Eplerenone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eplerenone, as a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist and potassium-sparing diuretic, is the preferred choice for managing ascites and peripheral edema in patients with cirrhosis due to its ability to counteract the effects of elevated aldosterone levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who was receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation was prescribed a cephalosporin antibiotic to treat a lower respiratory tract infection. He returned to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis. Which of the following cephalosporins is most likely to have caused this? ( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cefixime", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cefoperazone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftobiprole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ceftazidime\"", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cefoperazone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cefoperazone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cefoperazone is the cephalosporin most likely to cause hemarthrosis in a patient on warfarin therapy due to its MTT group, which can inhibit the VKOR enzyme and potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Other cephalosporins like cefixime, ceftobiprole, and ceftazidime do not have this interaction and are less likely to cause such bleeding complications.</li><li>➤ Cefoperazone</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a novel anti-depressant? ( INICET Nov 2021", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lurasidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vilazodone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asenapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pimavanserin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vilazodone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Vilazodone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vilazodone is a novel antidepressant with a dual mechanism of action, functioning as both an SSRI and a 5HT1A receptor partial agonist, making it effective for treating depression with fewer sexual side effects. Other Options listed are atypical antipsychotics and not classified as antidepressants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a centrally acting opioid antitussive?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ambroxol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diphenoxylate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levopropoxyphene", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levorphanol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Levopropoxyphene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Levopropoxyphene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Levopropoxyphene is a centrally acting opioid specifically used for its antitussive properties. While levorphanol is also an opioid with antitussive effects, it is more commonly used for pain relief. Levopropoxyphene's primary indication as an antitussive makes it the most appropriate choice among the given options.</li><li>➤ Levopropoxyphene</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The anti-epileptic drugs which can also be used for the treatment of neuropathic pain are: ( INICET Nov 2021) 1. Pregabalin 2. Carbamazepine 3. Lamotrigine 4. Gabapentin", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pregabalin, carbamazepine, and gabapentin are anti-epileptic drugs that are also effective in treating neuropathic pain. These medications are utilized not only for seizure control but also for managing various forms of chronic pain associated with nerve damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic smoker presented with shortness of breath, bilateral pitting pedal edema, and abdominal distension. On examination, jugular venous pulse was found to be elevated and liver was palpable 8 cm below the costal margin. An abnormality in which of the following structures is responsible for the patient's symptoms? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right Ventricle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left Ventricle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitral Valve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right Ventricle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Right Ventricle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Right ventricular failure is characterized by systemic venous congestion, which manifests as elevated jugular venous pressure, pitting pedal edema, hepatomegaly, and abdominal distension. This condition is often seen in chronic smokers due to the impact of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) on the heart.</li><li>➤ Right ventricular failure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions is associated with hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with hypertension? (INICET NOV 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bartter syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liddle syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gitelman syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gordon syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Liddle syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Liddle syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Liddle syndrome is characterized by hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis and hypertension due to the overactivation of epithelial sodium channels in the kidneys.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person working in a restaurant comes to the casualty with a huge burn on his abdomen. On examination, the injury looks like below. What is the most likely cause of the injury?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Electric burn", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chemical burn", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dry heat", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Moist heat", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Moist heat", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-33.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Moist heat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most likely cause of the burn injury shown in the image is moist heat, specifically a scald injury caused by hot liquids or steam.</li><li>➤ TYPES of SCALD INJURIES</li><li>➤ TYPES of SCALD INJURIES</li><li>➤ Immersion burns: Due to immersion in hot liquid, usually water. Accidental Splash burns Steam burns: Exposure to superheated steam.</li><li>➤ Immersion burns: Due to immersion in hot liquid, usually water.</li><li>➤ Immersion burns: Due to immersion in hot liquid, usually water.</li><li>➤ Accidental Splash burns</li><li>➤ Accidental Splash burns</li><li>➤ Steam burns: Exposure to superheated steam.</li><li>➤ Steam burns: Exposure to superheated steam.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following increase gastric acid secretion except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Serotonin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Serotonin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key learning point is to recognize the role of various substances in the regulation of gastric acid secretion. Understanding these pathways is essential for the management of conditions like peptic ulcer disease, where control of acid secretion can be crucial for effective treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet Nov 2022 Session 1 2022 11 13 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 25-year-old female patient is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which of the following is not an advantage of laparoscopic surgery? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laparoscopic surgeries result in lesser post-operative pain.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laparoscopic surgeries are cosmetically better as they result in smaller incisions.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopic surgeries result in an earlier return to normal physiological function.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laparoscopic surgeries result in a longer duration of stay in the hospital", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Laparoscopic surgeries result in a longer duration of stay in the hospital", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Laparoscopic surgeries result in a longer duration of stay in the hospital</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male with a H/o dyslipidemia having ABC-A1 mutation shows the following. See the image and tell the diagnosis. ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wolman’s Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gaucher’s Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tangier’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tay Sach’s disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tangier’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture2_XX4nmXu.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture3_bCUeUCB.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Tangier’s disease / Hypo alpha lipoproteinemia</li><li>➤ Tangier’s disease / Hypo alpha lipoproteinemia</li><li>➤ ABC-A1 transporters are required for efflux of intracellular free cholesterol and phospholipids across the plasma membrane to combine with apolipoproteins, forming nascent high-density lipoprotein-cholesterol (HDL-C) particles (see fig).</li><li>➤ So, in case of defective ABC-A1, HDL cholesterol and PL are not exported, and HDL is not properly formed causing HDL↓ (Hypo alpha-lipoproteinemia). Cholesterol accumulates in reticuloendothelial system causing: Hepatosplenomegaly Enlarged lymph nodes Large orange/ yellow tonsils (due to fat deposition) The characteristic feature of Wolman’s disease is calcification of adrenals . It is also known as cholesterol ester storage disease and occurs due to deficiency of enzyme acid lipase</li><li>➤ So, in case of defective ABC-A1, HDL cholesterol and PL are not exported, and HDL is not properly formed causing HDL↓ (Hypo alpha-lipoproteinemia).</li><li>➤ Cholesterol accumulates in reticuloendothelial system causing: Hepatosplenomegaly Enlarged lymph nodes Large orange/ yellow tonsils (due to fat deposition)</li><li>➤ Hepatosplenomegaly Enlarged lymph nodes Large orange/ yellow tonsils (due to fat deposition)</li><li>➤ Hepatosplenomegaly</li><li>➤ Enlarged lymph nodes</li><li>➤ Large orange/ yellow tonsils (due to fat deposition)</li><li>➤ The characteristic feature of Wolman’s disease is calcification of adrenals . It is also known as cholesterol ester storage disease and occurs due to deficiency of enzyme acid lipase</li><li>➤ calcification of adrenals</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient presents to the clinic with erythematous lesions over the exposed areas of the skin like hands, arms, chest, etc. She also complains of arthralgia and breathlessness. Which among the following antibodies will be useful in diagnosing this condition? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antihistone antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-dsDNA antibodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anticentromere antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antinuclear antibodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anti-dsDNA antibodies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/whatsapp-image-2024-09-13-at-103830-am.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anti-dsDNA antibodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-dsDNA antibodies are highly specific for diagnosing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), despite their moderate sensitivity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition given in the image:(INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Symblepharon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ankyloblepharon", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital blepharophimosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congenital ptosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ankyloblepharon", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture1_j7cTqzr.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture2_0mFcOxL.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture3_162BtKJ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ankyloblepharon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ankyloblepharon involves the fusion of the eyelid margins, which can be congenital or acquired, and requires surgical intervention to correct the adhesion and restore normal eyelid function and appearance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Which of the following pathways, cyclooxygenase is involved? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kreb's cycle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prostaglandin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leukotriene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prostaglandin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prostaglandin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cyclooxygenase is involved in the prostaglandin synthesis pathway, converting arachidonic acid into prostaglandins, which are key mediators of inflammation, pain, and other physiological responses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vaccine is not recommended to be given before splenectomy in a 5-year-old child with hereditary spherocytosis and hypersplenism? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumococcal vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Typhoid vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Haemophilus influenza B vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meningococcal vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Typhoid vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Typhoid vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Typhoid vaccine is often deferred in children with hereditary spherocytosis and hypersplenism before splenectomy due to the risk of transiently reduced platelet count, which can be problematic in the presence of hypersplenism. Other vaccines, such as the pneumococcal, Haemophilus influenzae B, and meningococcal vaccines, may be administered based on routine immunization recommendations and the individual's spleen status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which virus can be identified by a PCR method and is endemic to India? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hendra virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "West Nile Virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebola virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yellow fever", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. West Nile Virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) West Nile Virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ West Nile Virus (WNV) can be identified by PCR and is endemic to India, with significant historical and ongoing presence, making it a critical pathogen for regional public health monitoring and response.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Chemoprophylaxis for leprosy should be given to which of the following persons? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022) Sharing the same clothes, towels Living with a patient with leprosy for &gt; 6 month Contact of age more than 2 years Contact for more than 20 hours per week.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/screenshot-2023-11-22-160933.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chemoprophylaxis for leprosy is crucial for contacts who have had significant exposure to an individual with leprosy, particularly those living in the same household or in close contact for extended periods.</li><li>➤ Rifampicin:</li><li>➤ Rifampicin:</li><li>➤ A single dose of 600 mg kills more than 99% of the susceptible organisms present at the start of treatment, that is as much as 3 to 6 months of daily treatment with the combination dapsone plus Clofazimine. Rifampicin has become established as a highly potent bactericidal drug , and it acts by inhibiting the bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase . Single Dose of Rifampicin (SDR) is used in chemoprophylaxis. Chemoprophylaxis must be initiated only 4 weeks after treatment for leprosy has begun in the patient so as to ensure the patient is non-infectious .</li><li>➤ A single dose of 600 mg kills more than 99% of the susceptible organisms present at the start of treatment, that is as much as 3 to 6 months of daily treatment with the combination dapsone plus Clofazimine.</li><li>➤ single dose of 600 mg</li><li>➤ 99%</li><li>➤ susceptible organisms</li><li>➤ 3 to 6 months</li><li>➤ dapsone plus Clofazimine.</li><li>➤ Rifampicin has become established as a highly potent bactericidal drug , and it acts by inhibiting the bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase .</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ highly potent bactericidal drug</li><li>➤ inhibiting</li><li>➤ bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase</li><li>➤ Single Dose of Rifampicin (SDR) is used in chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>➤ Single Dose of Rifampicin</li><li>➤ chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>➤ Chemoprophylaxis must be initiated only 4 weeks after treatment for leprosy has begun in the patient so as to ensure the patient is non-infectious .</li><li>➤ 4 weeks after treatment for leprosy</li><li>➤ patient</li><li>➤ patient is non-infectious</li><li>➤ Ref - Jopling’s Handbook of Leprosy 6 th Edition Page no 242</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Jopling’s Handbook of Leprosy 6 th Edition Page no 242</li><li>➤ Leprosy/Hansen disease: Contact tracing and post-exposure prophylaxis</li><li>➤ Leprosy/Hansen disease: Contact tracing and post-exposure prophylaxis</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789290228073 (page 23, 24)</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789290228073</li><li>➤ (page 23, 24)</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3051288/</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3051288/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a branch of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iliolumbar artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral sacral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior gluteal artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superior gluteal artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inferior gluteal artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Inferior gluteal artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Branches of the anterior trunk of the internal iliac artery:</li><li>➤ Branches of the anterior trunk of the internal iliac artery:</li><li>➤ Vaginal artery (in females) Uterine artery (in females) Inferior vesical artery (in males) or vaginal artery (in females): supplies the urinary bladder and reproductive organs. Middle rectal artery: supplies the rectum and anal canal. Internal pudendal artery: supplies the perineum, external genitalia, and the lower anal canal. Obturator artery: supplies the adductor muscles of the thigh, external genitalia, and the hip joint. Inferior gluteal artery: supplies the muscles of the gluteal region. Superior vesical artery: supplies the urinary bladder and the vas deferens.</li><li>➤ Vaginal artery (in females)</li><li>➤ Uterine artery (in females)</li><li>➤ Inferior vesical artery (in males) or vaginal artery (in females): supplies the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.</li><li>➤ Middle rectal artery: supplies the rectum and anal canal.</li><li>➤ Internal pudendal artery: supplies the perineum, external genitalia, and the lower anal canal.</li><li>➤ Obturator artery: supplies the adductor muscles of the thigh, external genitalia, and the hip joint.</li><li>➤ Inferior gluteal artery: supplies the muscles of the gluteal region.</li><li>➤ Superior vesical artery: supplies the urinary bladder and the vas deferens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Glycogen phosphorylase is activated directly or indirectly by? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose 6 Phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Calcium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/01.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Glycogen phosphorylase is activated indirectly through the calcium signaling pathway, which initiates a series of enzymatic reactions ultimately leading to the activation of glycogen phosphorylase. This mechanism allows the regulation of glycogen breakdown in response to cellular energy needs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Book test is for: (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior interosseous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ulnar nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102203.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102224.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102238.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102251.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102308.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102320.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102348.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102400.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102415.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ulnar nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Book test is done for ulnar nerve palsy where there is hyperflexion of the thumb IP joint while attempting to pinch, indicating a substitution of flexor pollicis longus (innervated by median nerve) for adductor pollicis (innervated by ulnar nerve).</li><li>➤ Book test is done for ulnar nerve palsy where there is hyperflexion of the thumb IP joint while attempting to pinch, indicating a substitution of flexor pollicis longus (innervated by median nerve) for adductor pollicis (innervated by ulnar nerve).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding memantine? (INICET NOV 2022) 1. Its therapeutic effect is due to its antagonistic action on NMDA receptors. 2. It is reserved for moderate-to-severe cases of Alzheimer’s disease. 3. It is used only as a monotherapy and should not be used with cholinesterase inhibitors. 4. It is given at a daily dose of 20-30 mg/day.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist used for moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease. It can be used alone or in combination with cholinesterase inhibitors, and the standard maximum dose is 20 mg/day.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following conditions are associated with Metastatic calcification except: (INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Accumulation of calcium phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parathyroid activation secretion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin D deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-131920.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin D deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metastatic calcification is associated with conditions that lead to hypercalcemia, not with conditions that result in normal or low calcium levels, such as Vitamin D deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following teratogenic drugs with their teratogenic effects: ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-181740.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The teratogenic effects of certain drugs is crucial for managing medication use during pregnancy. Lithium can cause Ebstein’s anomaly, Warfarin is associated with saddle nose and growth retardation, Thalidomide causes limb malformations, and Chloramphenicol can lead to Grey Baby Syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a gram-positive organism that shows the following appearance on Ziehl-Neelsen staining? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nocardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycobacterium leprae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Actinomyces", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nocardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/30.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-114237.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/33.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nocardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nocardia can be identified by its branching filamentous structure on gram stain and weak acid-fast positivity due to the presence of mycolic acid in its cell wall, distinguishing it from other gram-positive and acid-fast organisms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 19-year-old girl presents with a midline neck swelling that moves on deglutition. Ultrasound revealed a 2 cm x 2 cm nodule on the left lobe of the thyroid, extending into the strap muscles. The histopathology image is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medullary cancer of thyroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular cancer of thyroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroglossal cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Papillary cancer of thyroid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Papillary cancer of thyroid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/5_PlzqSOh.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Papillary cancer of thyroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid is characterized by Orphan Annie nuclei, psammoma bodies, and a papillary architecture, which are key diagnostic features.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with lesions on the inner thighs and peri-anal region. They are nodular, 4-6 mm in size, and appear pale. The histopathological image shows multiple intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies consistent with Henderson-Patterson bodies. The diagnosis is: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichodysplasia spinulosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condyloma accuminata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Donovanosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Molluscum contagiosum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture14.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Molluscum contagiosum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that presents with dome-shaped papules containing Henderson-Patterson bodies, which are diagnostic of this condition.</li><li>➤ Molluscum contagiosum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following cells with their locations: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-113620_lLxRHlh.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-113757.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are causes of uterine dysfunction, except: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High fetal head station", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiparity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuraxial block", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chorioamnionitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Multiparity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Multiparity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Multiparity is not a cause of uterine dysfunction; rather, nulliparity (the condition of a woman who has never given birth) is a recognized cause. Uterine dysfunction, particularly hypotonic uterine dysfunction, is associated with several factors, but multiparity is generally associated with a more efficient labor process due to the body's previous experience with childbirth.</li><li>• Multiparity is not a cause of uterine dysfunction; rather, nulliparity (the condition of a woman who has never given birth) is a recognized cause. Uterine dysfunction, particularly hypotonic uterine dysfunction, is associated with several factors, but multiparity is generally associated with a more efficient labor process due to the body's previous experience with childbirth.</li><li>• Causes of hypotonic uterine dysfunction:</li><li>• Causes of hypotonic uterine dysfunction:</li><li>• Neuraxial analgesia : The use of epidural or spinal anesthesia can interfere with uterine contractions. Chorioamnionitis : This is an infection of the amniotic fluid and membranes, which can lead to inflammation and impaired uterine contractility. Nulliparity : First-time mothers (nulliparous women) are more likely to experience uterine dysfunction due to the unconditioned nature of the uterine muscles. Other factors : Mechanical disruption of myometrial function by a fibroid or pelvic tumor Maternal obesity Uterine mullerian anomaly Increased maternal age Malposition and malpresentation of the fetus Contracted pelvis</li><li>• Neuraxial analgesia : The use of epidural or spinal anesthesia can interfere with uterine contractions.</li><li>• Neuraxial analgesia</li><li>• Chorioamnionitis : This is an infection of the amniotic fluid and membranes, which can lead to inflammation and impaired uterine contractility.</li><li>• Chorioamnionitis</li><li>• Nulliparity : First-time mothers (nulliparous women) are more likely to experience uterine dysfunction due to the unconditioned nature of the uterine muscles.</li><li>• Nulliparity</li><li>• Other factors : Mechanical disruption of myometrial function by a fibroid or pelvic tumor Maternal obesity Uterine mullerian anomaly Increased maternal age Malposition and malpresentation of the fetus Contracted pelvis</li><li>• Other factors</li><li>• Mechanical disruption of myometrial function by a fibroid or pelvic tumor Maternal obesity Uterine mullerian anomaly Increased maternal age Malposition and malpresentation of the fetus Contracted pelvis</li><li>• Mechanical disruption of myometrial function by a fibroid or pelvic tumor</li><li>• Maternal obesity</li><li>• Uterine mullerian anomaly</li><li>• Increased maternal age</li><li>• Malposition and malpresentation of the fetus</li><li>• Contracted pelvis</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. High fetal head station : High fetal head station can be associated with labor dystocia and uterine dysfunction as it may indicate issues with the descent of the baby.</li><li>• Option A. High fetal head station</li><li>• Option C. Multiparity : Neuraxial block (e.g., epidural) can interfere with effective uterine contractions, leading to uterine dysfunction.</li><li>• Option C. Multiparity</li><li>• Option D. Chorioamnionitis : Chorioamnionitis, an infection, can impair uterine contractions and lead to dysfunctional labor.</li><li>• Option D. Chorioamnionitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nulliparity, not multiparity, is a cause of uterine dysfunction. Causes of hypotonic uterine dysfunction include neuraxial analgesia, chorioamnionitis, nulliparity, and mechanical factors such as fibroids or pelvic tumors.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg459, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 416</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg459, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 416</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The parents notice that their child is tired and that he has shortness of breath on climbing stairs and while lying down. What is the first investigation that you would do? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echocardiogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chest x-ray", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spirometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI to rule out enlarged heart", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chest x-ray", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chest x-ray</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a child presenting with shortness of breath on exertion and orthopnea, the first investigation should be a chest x-ray to evaluate potential pulmonary pathology and signs of congestive heart failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the nerve passing around the marked structure: (INICET MAY 2022 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Common peroneal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sural nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tibial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Common peroneal nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture7_JnVEIDn.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/09/ia-5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-191113.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Common peroneal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Common peroneal nerve (also known as common fibular nerve) , a significant branch of the sciatic nerve, follows a course along the thigh's posterior compartment and wraps around the fibula's neck, making it susceptible to injury. After encircling the fibula, it splits into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves, which innervate the leg's lateral and anterior compartments and contribute sensory functions to parts of the foot.</li><li>➤ The Common peroneal nerve (also known as common fibular nerve)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What of the following stain can be used for staining Iron in tissues? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Masson's trichrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prussian blue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PAS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fite-Faraco", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prussian blue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/52_XMAcGmy.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prussian blue stain is specifically used for detecting iron deposits in tissues, particularly in cases of iron overload or iron-related disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) staining oocysts of size 8-10 µm cysts are visible. Identify the organism? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isospora", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptosporidium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclospora", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microspora", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cyclospora", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-120408.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-120540.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/06-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cyclospora</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows strangulation by Spanish windlass method. What type of strangulation method does it belong to? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bansdola", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Garroting", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mugging", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Throttling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Garroting", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-37.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Garroting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Spanish windlass method of strangulation, shown in the image, belongs to the category of garroting, which involves the use of a ligature tightened by a lever or similar mechanism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given image: ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gaucher’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wolman's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niemann pick disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fish eye disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gaucher’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture15.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/screenshot-2024-01-01-132209.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gaucher’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The given image shows crumpled tissue paper appearance of macrophage cells (see images below) which is a characteristic feature of Gaucher’s disease. This disease is a type of sphingolipidoses and occurs due to deficiency of enzyme β-glucosyl ceramidase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the left curve, given the fact that the right curve is of adult hemoglobin.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myoglobin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal hemoglobin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbon monoxide poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myoglobin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture6_yokrhNY.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture7_N22vVT4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Myoglobin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The left curve is for myoglobin as it is a rectangular hyperbola curve which is characteristic of Michaelis Menton kinetics. Fetal hemoglobin, CO poisoning and acidosis will shift the sigmoidal shape of hemoglobin saturation curve as shown in the image below:</li><li>• The left curve is for myoglobin as it is a rectangular hyperbola curve which is characteristic of Michaelis Menton kinetics.</li><li>• Fetal hemoglobin, CO poisoning and acidosis will shift the sigmoidal shape of hemoglobin saturation curve as shown in the image below:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Fetal hemoglobin: Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin, which shifts the curve to the left. However, the curve still maintains a sigmoidal shape.</li><li>• Option B. Fetal hemoglobin:</li><li>• Option C. Carbon monoxide poisoning: Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin with a much higher affinity than oxygen, shifting the hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left and making it more difficult for oxygen to be released to tissues. This also retains the sigmoidal shape.</li><li>• Option C. Carbon monoxide poisoning:</li><li>• Option D. Acidosis: Acidosis generally causes a rightward shift of the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve, reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. This is the opposite of what is observed with myoglobin.</li><li>• Option D. Acidosis:</li><li>• The left shift observed in the myoglobin curve reflects its high affinity for oxygen, distinguishing it from the sigmoidal curves seen in hemoglobin variations.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myoglobin has a hyperbolic oxygen dissociation curve due to its single polypeptide chain and high oxygen affinity, contrasting with the sigmoidal curve of hemoglobin due to its cooperative binding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following can be used in first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy (MTP), except: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mifepristone + misoprostol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Manual vacuum aspiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dilatation and curettage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate : This method is typically used for second-trimester abortions. It involves the instillation of ethacridine lactate into the extra-amniotic space to induce abortion. However, it is rarely used nowadays due to advancements in other safer and more effective methods. Medical methods of first-trimester abortion : Mifepristone + misoprostol : A combination of mifepristone (a progesterone receptor antagonist) and misoprostol (a prostaglandin analog) is a common and effective method for first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy. Surgical methods of first-trimester abortion : Manual vacuum aspiration : This is a safe and effective method for terminating a pregnancy in the first trimester. Dilatation and curettage : Another surgical method used to evacuate the contents of the uterus in the first trimester.</li><li>• Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate : This method is typically used for second-trimester abortions. It involves the instillation of ethacridine lactate into the extra-amniotic space to induce abortion. However, it is rarely used nowadays due to advancements in other safer and more effective methods.</li><li>• Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate</li><li>• This method is typically used for second-trimester abortions. It involves the instillation of ethacridine lactate into the extra-amniotic space to induce abortion. However, it is rarely used nowadays due to advancements in other safer and more effective methods.</li><li>• This method is typically used for second-trimester abortions. It involves the instillation of ethacridine lactate into the extra-amniotic space to induce abortion. However, it is rarely used nowadays due to advancements in other safer and more effective methods.</li><li>• Medical methods of first-trimester abortion : Mifepristone + misoprostol : A combination of mifepristone (a progesterone receptor antagonist) and misoprostol (a prostaglandin analog) is a common and effective method for first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy.</li><li>• Medical methods of first-trimester abortion</li><li>• Mifepristone + misoprostol : A combination of mifepristone (a progesterone receptor antagonist) and misoprostol (a prostaglandin analog) is a common and effective method for first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy.</li><li>• Mifepristone + misoprostol : A combination of mifepristone (a progesterone receptor antagonist) and misoprostol (a prostaglandin analog) is a common and effective method for first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy.</li><li>• Mifepristone + misoprostol</li><li>• Surgical methods of first-trimester abortion : Manual vacuum aspiration : This is a safe and effective method for terminating a pregnancy in the first trimester. Dilatation and curettage : Another surgical method used to evacuate the contents of the uterus in the first trimester.</li><li>• Surgical methods of first-trimester abortion</li><li>• Manual vacuum aspiration : This is a safe and effective method for terminating a pregnancy in the first trimester. Dilatation and curettage : Another surgical method used to evacuate the contents of the uterus in the first trimester.</li><li>• Manual vacuum aspiration : This is a safe and effective method for terminating a pregnancy in the first trimester.</li><li>• Manual vacuum aspiration</li><li>• Dilatation and curettage : Another surgical method used to evacuate the contents of the uterus in the first trimester.</li><li>• Dilatation and curettage</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Mifepristone + misoprostol : Mifepristone + misoprostol is a commonly used combination for medical termination in the first trimester.</li><li>• Option A. Mifepristone + misoprostol</li><li>• Option B. Manual vacuum aspiration : Manual vacuum aspiration is a standard procedure for first-trimester abortion.</li><li>• Option B. Manual vacuum aspiration</li><li>• Option C. Dilatation and curettage : Dilatation and curettage is another method used in the first trimester to terminate a pregnancy.</li><li>• Option C. Dilatation and curettage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate is not used for first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy (MTP).</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg364,369, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg203</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg364,369, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg203</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following option is a common size of a Foley catheter used in female patients and patients who have had urethral surgery or who have strictures? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 Fr", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "14 Fr", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "16 Fr", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "22 Fr", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 14 Fr", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/picture5_Z8axJaw.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 14 Fr</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FOLEY’S CATHETER</li><li>➤ FOLEY’S CATHETER</li><li>➤ The size in French (12F, 14F, 16F etc.) represents the outer diameter. 1 F = 1/3 rd mm.</li><li>➤ The size in French (12F, 14F, 16F etc.) represents the outer diameter. 1 F = 1/3 rd mm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male patient presented in OPD with hemoptysis. On examination, a hilar mass was noticed. The histopathological image is shown below. Immunohistochemistry revealed that the cells were positive for p40. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Small cell cancer lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Large cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Squamous cell carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/11_kocFFZn.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-120453.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-115311_T9eOCZG.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-113157_GHno4ZQ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Squamous cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The patient, aged 60, shows a lesion as depicted in the image below. Additionally, he reports that he felt a spider crawling in the area of the lesion when he woke up. What is the most probable diagnosis based on this information? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes zoster infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Irritant contact dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Allergic contact dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes simplex infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Herpes zoster infection", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture3_vuB7XiA.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/whatsapp-image-2023-11-22-at-50843-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Herpes zoster infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a 60-year-old patient presenting with a unilateral vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution, the most likely diagnosis is herpes zoster infection .</li><li>➤ 60-year-old</li><li>➤ unilateral vesicular rash</li><li>➤ dermatomal</li><li>➤ herpes zoster infection</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page nos 4.13, 25.27-25.28</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page nos 4.13, 25.27-25.28</li><li>➤ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li><li>➤ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare worker is performing patient care in a hospital setting. Which of the following is not a correct situation for using hand rub according to standard hand hygiene protocol? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "If the hands are visibly soiled", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "While moving from a contaminated site to a clean site during patient care", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Before donning on gloves", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "During direct patient contact", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. If the hands are visibly soiled", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) If the hands are visibly soiled</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hand hygiene is essential for infection prevention in healthcare settings. Alcohol-based hand rubs are preferred in most cases, but soap and water should be used for visibly soiled hands and in cases of outbreaks of certain pathogens like Clostridium difficile. Hand hygiene should be performed before and after every direct patient contact, before donning gloves, and after removing gloves. Additionally, hand hygiene should be performed while moving from a contaminated site to a clean site during patient care. It is important to note that using hand rub is not appropriate if the hands are visibly soiled, as the rub cannot effectively remove dirt and debris from the hands. In such cases, soap and water handwashing is recommended.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are true regarding sirtuins? (INICET NOV 2022) Increases insulin sensitivity and thus glucose metabolism. Promotes genes that increase longevity. They are of 7 types. They are one of the types of histone deacetylases.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sirtuins are a family of seven histone deacetylases involved in increasing insulin sensitivity, glucose metabolism, promoting genes associated with longevity, and playing a significant role in various cellular processes.</li><li>➤ Sirtuins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with multiple stab injuries to the chest. On examination, there is reduced chest movement on the right side and tracheal deviation to the left side. Additionally, the neck veins are distended. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Emergency room thoracotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ICD placement", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Needle thoracocentesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Finger thoracotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Needle thoracocentesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Needle thoracocentesis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "SARS CoV-2 diagnosis is done by all except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RT PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Real time PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Southern blotting", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immunoassays", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Southern blotting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Southern blotting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Southern blotting is commonly used in molecular biology and genetics for various purposes, including:</li><li>➤ Southern blotting is commonly used in molecular biology and genetics for various purposes, including:</li><li>➤ DNA fragment identification and sizing. Gene mapping and localization. Detection of specific genes or sequences. Analysis of genetic mutations and polymorphisms. DNA fingerprinting.</li><li>➤ DNA fragment identification and sizing.</li><li>➤ Gene mapping and localization.</li><li>➤ Detection of specific genes or sequences.</li><li>➤ Analysis of genetic mutations and polymorphisms.</li><li>➤ DNA fingerprinting.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Transport of iron into enterocytes is done by which of the following proteins: ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transferrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ferroportin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepcidin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Divalent metal transporter - 1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Divalent metal transporter - 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/1_8K6VXRG.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Divalent metal transporter – 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary transporter responsible for iron uptake into enterocytes from the intestinal lumen is the divalent metal transporter-1 (DMT1).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows the life cycle of a virus. Which of the proteins of the virus act as oncogenes? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E1, E2, E5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E6, E7", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "L1, L2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "E1, E2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. E6, E7", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-83.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-84.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-85.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) E6, E7</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ E6 and E7 proteins of HPV are the primary oncogenes responsible for the virus's ability to cause cancer. They do this by inactivating key tumor suppressor proteins, p53 and pRb, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and proliferation.</li><li>➤ E6 and E7 proteins of HPV are the primary oncogenes responsible for the virus's ability to cause cancer. They do this by inactivating key tumor suppressor proteins, p53 and pRb, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and proliferation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incorrectly matched pair(s) of pharyngeal arch and its artery? 1st arch - Maxillary artery 2nd arch - Hyoid and stapedial artery 3rd arch - Common carotid and proximal internal carotid artery 4th arch - Subclavian artery 6th arch - Aorta on the left side", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "iv, v", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "v", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ii, iii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. v", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• All the given pairs of pharyngeal arteries and their arteries are correctly matched except for 'v' (option C).</li><li>• The 6th pharyngeal arch has its blood supply on the left side from the left pulmonary artery and ductus arteriosus, not from the aorta.</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• 1st arch - Maxillary artery : Correct. The maxillary artery is indeed a derivative of the first pharyngeal arch. 2nd arch - Hyoid and stapedial artery: Correct. The hyoid artery (or the stapedial artery in its embryonic context) is derived from the second pharyngeal arch. 3rd arch - Common carotid and proximal internal carotid artery : Correct. The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to portions of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery. 4th arch - Subclavian artery: Correct on the right side. The fourth pharyngeal arch is associated with the development of the right subclavian artery and part of the aortic arch on the left side.</li><li>• 1st arch - Maxillary artery : Correct. The maxillary artery is indeed a derivative of the first pharyngeal arch.</li><li>• 1st arch - Maxillary artery</li><li>• 2nd arch - Hyoid and stapedial artery: Correct. The hyoid artery (or the stapedial artery in its embryonic context) is derived from the second pharyngeal arch.</li><li>• 2nd arch - Hyoid and stapedial artery:</li><li>• 3rd arch - Common carotid and proximal internal carotid artery : Correct. The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to portions of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery.</li><li>• 3rd arch - Common carotid and proximal internal carotid artery</li><li>• 4th arch - Subclavian artery: Correct on the right side. The fourth pharyngeal arch is associated with the development of the right subclavian artery and part of the aortic arch on the left side.</li><li>• 4th arch - Subclavian artery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old researcher is keenly interested in understanding the relationship between lung cancer and smoking habits. After conducting an extensive study and analyzing his data, he finds that the attributable risk is 90%. Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of this result? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10% of lung cancers in smokers is not associated with smoking", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "90% cases of lung cancer can be eliminated in population if smoking is eliminated", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "90% cases of lung cancer can be eliminated in smokers if smoking is eliminated", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10% cases of lung cancer can be eliminated in population if smoking is eliminated", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 10% of lung cancers in smokers is not associated with smoking", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-125535.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 10% of lung cancers in smokers is not associated with smoking</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Interpretation of AR (attributable risk): AR is indicative of the extent of the disease attributed to the exposure Interpretation of PAR (Population attributable risk): If risk factor is modified or eliminated, there will be so much annual reduction in incidence of disease in the given population</li><li>➤ Interpretation of AR (attributable risk): AR is indicative of the extent of the disease attributed to the exposure</li><li>➤ Interpretation of PAR (Population attributable risk): If risk factor is modified or eliminated, there will be so much annual reduction in incidence of disease in the given population</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following patients would be classified as having primary amenorrhea? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "11-year-old girl with Tanner stage 1 breasts", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "14-year-old girl with Tanner stage 1 breasts", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "13-year-old girl with Tanner stage 5 breasts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12-year-old with Tanner stage 4 breasts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 14-year-old girl with Tanner stage 1 breasts", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 14-year-old girl with Tanner stage 1 breasts</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menstruation by age 13 without secondary sexual characteristics or by age 15 with secondary sexual characteristics.</li><li>➤ Ref: ACOG Committee opinion menstruation in girls and adolescents (2015), Speroff’s gynecologic endocrinology 7th edition pg401, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 450</li><li>➤ Ref: ACOG Committee opinion menstruation in girls and adolescents (2015), Speroff’s gynecologic endocrinology 7th edition pg401, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 450</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is seen in methanol intoxication? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis with high anion gap", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methanol intoxication causes metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap due to the accumulation of formic acid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the depiction in the accompanying image, which model of disease causation is being illustrated? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sufficient component cause model", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidemiological triad", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PERT model", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Web of causation model", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sufficient component cause model", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip46.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture4444.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/psm-pyq-11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sufficient component cause model</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sufficient component cause model illustrates how multiple factors contribute to disease causation, with some factors being necessary components in multiple causal pathways.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the microscopy technique to produce high contrast image of transparent, live bacteria? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phase contrast microscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dark field microscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Electron microscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polarized microscopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phase contrast microscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Phase contrast microscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phase contrast microscopy is the technique used to produce high contrast images of transparent, live bacteria by converting phase shifts into brightness changes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the cells according to their positions from the basal layer towards the lumen in the seminiferous tubules? ( INICET Nov 2022) 1. Spermatogonia 2. Primary spermatocyte 3. Spermatid 4. Spermatozoa 5. Myoepithelial cell", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,5,4,2,3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,2,3,4,5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5,4,3,2,1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5,1,2,3,4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 5,1,2,3,4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 5,1,2,3,4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ From the basal layer towards the lumen in the seminiferous tubules, the cells are arranged in the order of:</li><li>➤ Myoepithelial cells Spermatogonia Primary spermatocyte Spermatid Spermatozoa</li><li>➤ Myoepithelial cells</li><li>➤ Spermatogonia</li><li>➤ Primary spermatocyte</li><li>➤ Spermatid</li><li>➤ Spermatozoa</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are risk factors of vulval cancer except? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vulval dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vulval hamartoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Smoking", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vulval warts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vulval hamartoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vulval hamartoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vulval hamartomas are not a risk factor for vulval cancer, while chronic irritation, immunosuppressive conditions, HPV infection, smoking, anogenital warts, STDs, and vulvar dystrophies are known risk factors.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 680, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 334</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 680, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 334</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Delayed hypersensitivity is due to? ( INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interferon gamma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interleukin-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interleukin-12", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interleukin-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Interferon gamma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-105707.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-87.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Interferon gamma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Interferon gamma is the key cytokine responsible for mediating delayed hypersensitivity reactions by activating macrophages and enhancing their pathogen-killing capabilities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man presents with skin lesions as shown in the image below. All of the following organisms can spread through dermal and subcutaneous lymphatics, except? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sporothrix schenckii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nocardia asteroides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycobacterium marinum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Staphylococcus aureus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/26.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ While Sporothrix schenckii, Nocardia asteroides, and Mycobacterium marinum are known to spread through dermal and subcutaneous lymphatics, causing lymphocutaneous lesions, Staphylococcus aureus typically causes localized skin infections and does not exhibit this pattern of spread.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify true statements about familial adenomatous polyposis? (INICET NOV 2022) Autosomal recessive inheritance If not treated, all cases progress to adenocarcinoma colon. KRAS mutations cause familial adenomatous polyposis It is associated with congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-123524.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The clinical finding in the 10-year-old boy includes fever, joint pain, and a hand lesion as shown in the image below. What is the likely diagnosis based on these findings? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gottron's papules - Juvenile dermatomyositis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatoid nodules - Juvenile rheumatic arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sclerodactyly - Systemic sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mechanic's hand - Systemic lupus erythematosus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gottron's papules - Juvenile dermatomyositis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/1_3RUwRSy.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture3_TWy4qiE.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gottron's papules - Juvenile dermatomyositis.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a case involving fever, joint pain, and hand lesions in a child , the presence of Gottron's papules is indicative of Juvenile dermatomyositis .</li><li>➤ fever, joint pain, and hand lesions in a child</li><li>➤ Gottron's papules</li><li>➤ Juvenile dermatomyositis</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 53 page no 53.1-53.12</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 53 page no 53.1-53.12</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 21 st edition Page 2820-2821</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 21 st edition Page 2820-2821</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about proto-oncogenes? (INICET NOV 2022) KIT has decreased expression in GIST. KRAS mutation is more commonly associated with small-cell lung carcinoma. ERBB2 over-expression is associated with breast carcinomas. PDGFR-β has suppressed expression in colorectal cancers.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-121654.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-121749.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 3 Only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ERBB2 encodes for HER2, which is involved in Breast carcinoma. ERBB1 encodes for EGRF, which is involved in Adenocarcinoma of lung. Genes involved in GIST are → DOG1 &gt; CD117 (cKIT) &gt; CD34 KRAS mutations are cause of Lung, colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma. Gain of function mutation can cause Adenocarcinoma in lung. PDGFR-β over-expression is seen in Glioma and Leukemia.</li><li>➤ ERBB2 encodes for HER2, which is involved in Breast carcinoma. ERBB1 encodes for EGRF, which is involved in Adenocarcinoma of lung.</li><li>➤ Genes involved in GIST are → DOG1 &gt; CD117 (cKIT) &gt; CD34</li><li>➤ KRAS mutations are cause of Lung, colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma. Gain of function mutation can cause Adenocarcinoma in lung.</li><li>➤ PDGFR-β over-expression is seen in Glioma and Leukemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Urinary alkalinization will be most useful in toxicity of which of the following drugs? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium channel blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acetaminophen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aspirin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Aspirin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urinary alkalinization is most useful in the treatment of aspirin (salicylate) toxicity because it increases the elimination of salicylates by trapping them in the urine through ionization. This method is not effective for beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or acetaminophen toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The rupture of penile urethra does not cause extravasation of blood into which of the following spaces? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superficial perineal pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep perineal pouch", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skin around penis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin around the scrotum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Deep perineal pouch", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. deep perineal pouch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rupture of the penile urethra causes extravasation of blood into the superficial perineal pouch, scrotum, penis, and then up to the lower anterior abdominal wall.</li><li>➤ The membranous layer of superficial fascia attaches to the ischiopubic rami and forms the lateral borders of the urogenital triangle. Thus, the urine does not extravasate to the thigh.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A persistent alcoholic patient presents with convulsions and impaired sensorium. He has been drinking for ten years and consumes 24 units every day. His most recent drink was two days ago. He is discovered to have auditory hallucinations as well as secondary delusions. What method will you employ to manage this patient? Diazepam Thiamine Naltrexone Flupenthixol depot injection", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) typically presents 48-72 hours after the last drink and is characterized by disturbances of consciousness, disorientation to time, place, and person, hallucinations (especially visual), agitation, coarse tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. Risk factors include surgery, infections or other medical conditions. It is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Treatment includes intravenous lorazepam or diazepam with thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry, 14th edition, Page No 472-473.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old boy was brought to OPD with complaint of fatigue. Serum investigations revealed findings as given below. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022) Hemoglobin – 9 g/dl Mean cell volume (MCV) – 60 fL Mean cell Hb (MCH) – 20 pg Serum Ferritin – 185 mcg/L Total leukocyte count – Elevated lymphocyte and Neutrophils [Normal values: Serum Ferritin: 50-200 mcg/L; Mean cell volume (MCV) - 80-100 fL; Mean cell Hb (MCH) - 27-31 pg]", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anemia of chronic disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron-deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thalassemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-125253.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thalassemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of biophysical profile? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amniotic fluid volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal tone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Daily fetal movement count", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-stress test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Daily fetal movement count", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Daily fetal movement count</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Daily fetal movement count (DFMC) is not a component of the BPP. DFMC, often assessed using Cardiff’s count of 10, is a separate method for monitoring fetal movements.</li><li>• The Biophysical Profile (BPP) is a comprehensive test used in the assessment of fetal wellbeing. It includes five components, which are scored using the Manning score: Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) Fetal movements Fetal tone Fetal breathing movements A low Manning score is indicative of fetal hypoxia and may necessitate further clinical intervention. Additionally, the Modified Biophysical Profile (BPP) includes only two components: Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid index (AFI)</li><li>• The Biophysical Profile (BPP) is a comprehensive test used in the assessment of fetal wellbeing. It includes five components, which are scored using the Manning score: Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) Fetal movements Fetal tone Fetal breathing movements</li><li>• Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) Fetal movements Fetal tone Fetal breathing movements</li><li>• Non-stress test (NST)</li><li>• Amniotic fluid volume (AFV)</li><li>• Fetal movements</li><li>• Fetal tone</li><li>• Fetal breathing movements</li><li>• A low Manning score is indicative of fetal hypoxia and may necessitate further clinical intervention.</li><li>• Additionally, the Modified Biophysical Profile (BPP) includes only two components: Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid index (AFI)</li><li>• Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid index (AFI)</li><li>• Non-stress test (NST)</li><li>• Amniotic fluid index (AFI)</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Amniotic fluid volume : Amniotic fluid volume is a component of the BPP and helps assess the amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus.</li><li>• Option A. Amniotic fluid volume</li><li>• Option B. Fetal tone : Fetal tone is another component of the BPP, assessing the baby's muscle tone.</li><li>• Option B. Fetal tone</li><li>• Option D. Non-stress test : Non-stress test (NST) is part of the BPP and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movements.</li><li>• Option D. Non-stress test</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Biophysical Profile (BPP) consists of five components: NST, AFV, fetal movements, fetal tone, and fetal breathing movements. Daily fetal movement count (DFMC) is not part of the BPP.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 342, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 122</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 342, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 122</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old lady underwent a total abdominal hysterectomy. She came to the hospital after one week with acute pain in the abdomen with features suggestive of perforation. An X-ray showed the following picture. Identify the type of offense for which the surgeon can be held responsible? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Novus actus interveniens", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Res ipsa loquitur", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Res judicata", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vicarious liability", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Res ipsa loquitur", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-38.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Res ipsa loquitur</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of surgical instruments left inside a patient post-operation is a clear case of negligence, aptly described by the legal principle of \"Res ipsa loquitur,\" meaning the fact speaks for itself.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tests can be used if otoacoustic emissions is absent for screening? (INICET NOV 2022) Pure tone audiometry Tympanometry Free field audiometry Speech audiometry", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-110337.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Image of Rickettsial morula in a monocyte is shown below. Identify the organism? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rickettsia rickettsii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rickettsia conorii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ehrlichia chaffeensis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaplasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-102120.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ehrlichia chaffeensis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman with a severe headache is scheduled to undergo a CT scan. During history taking, which of the following will you definitely ask for before the commencement of the scan? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Use of cochlear implant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LMP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "History of fall", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "History of hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. LMP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) LMP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most important information to obtain during a history in a 28-year-old woman of reproductive age who has been referred for a CT scan is the last menstrual period (LMP). Since it is imperative to rule out pregnancy before taking a CT scan, last menstrual period is the most appropriate answer to this question.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Use of cochlear implant: While important in MRI to prevent damage to the implant from the magnetic field, it is not typically a concern in CT scans which use X-rays.</li><li>• Option A. Use of cochlear implant:</li><li>• Option C. History of fall: Although relevant to the medical history, it is not critical specifically before a CT scan unless symptoms suggest complications that a CT scan could exacerbate.</li><li>• Option C. History of fall:</li><li>• Option D. History of hypertension: Important in overall patient assessment but does not directly influence the decision to perform a CT scan as critically as confirming pregnancy status does.</li><li>• Option D. History of hypertension:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inquiring about the Last Menstrual Period (LMP) is essential for any woman of childbearing age before undergoing diagnostic procedures involving radiation, such as a CT scan, to avoid potential harm to an unborn baby.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following molecules with their carriers in plasma: ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-a, 2-d, 3-b 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/29/12.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plasma transporters like prealbumin, albumin, haptoglobin, and hemopexin play crucial roles in the transport and recycling of thyroxine, fatty acids, hemoglobin, and heme respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient, who is a known case of HIV with a CD4 count of 200 cells/cu.mm, presents with 5 days of cough and high-grade fever without chills and rigors. There is no history of diarrhea, vomiting, or nuchal rigidity. Chest x-ray is normal. What treatment will you give? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid + Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Co-trimoxazole + steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Co-trimoxazole only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antitubercular treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Co-trimoxazole only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Co-trimoxazole only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200 cells/cu.mm and presenting with cough and fever but a normal chest x-ray, co-trimoxazole is the first-line treatment for suspected PCP</li><li>➤ Note - For a patient with a CD4 count of 200 and lower respiratory tract symptoms:</li><li>➤ PCP Pneumonia : Suspect if the chest X-ray is normal or negative. Bacterial Pneumonia : Suspect if the chest X-ray shows consolidation or examination reveals bronchial breath sounds.</li><li>➤ PCP Pneumonia : Suspect if the chest X-ray is normal or negative.</li><li>➤ PCP Pneumonia</li><li>➤ Bacterial Pneumonia : Suspect if the chest X-ray shows consolidation or examination reveals bronchial breath sounds.</li><li>➤ Bacterial Pneumonia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thrombolysis can be considered in all of these conditions, except: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI showing &lt; 1/3rd of MCA territorial infarct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood pressure of &gt; 185/110 mmHg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ischemia &lt; 2 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Onset of symptoms &lt; 4 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blood pressure of > 185/110 mmHg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thrombolysis is contraindicated in patients with blood pressure higher than 185/110 mmHg at the time of treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following cancers with their corresponding criteria for the minimum number of lymph nodes required for pathological staging: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-162903.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient presented with left-sided hemiparesis. Damage to which part of the internal capsule leads to this presentation? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retrolentiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sublentiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior limb", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Posterior limb", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Posterior limb</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Damage to the posterior limb of the internal capsule can lead to contralateral hemiparesis due to the involvement of motor and sensory pathways.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The absence of loud S1 in mitral stenosis would indicate all of the following, except: ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcified valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "First degree heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mild mitral stenosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mild mitral stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In mitral stenosis, a loud S1 is typically seen in the early stages with mobile valves, while a soft S1 can indicate valve calcification, aortic regurgitation, or first degree heart block. Mild mitral stenosis without calcification usually results in a loud S1</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cyanotic heart diseases causes increased pulmonary blood flow? (INICET MAY 2022) Ebstein anomaly Tetralogy of Fallot Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) Total anomalous pulmonary venous communication (TAPVC)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cyanotic congenital heart diseases such as Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) and Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Communication (TAPVC) cause increased pulmonary blood flow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare worker in a remote primary healthcare clinic is reviewing the Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) on a vial of a vaccine that has been stored in the clinic for some time. Which of the following statements regarding the utility and interpretation of the VVM is/are correct?\" (INICET NOV 2022) It is used for monitoring heat exposure of the vaccine by healthcare workers in primary healthcare. It shows cumulative exposure of the vaccine to the heat. It can be used to assess the potential efficacy of the vaccine. Calculation of the expiry date can be done using VVM. The expiry date of the vaccine can be relaxed if VVM is in an acceptable range. If the square and the circle are the same in color, then the vaccine can be safely used.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5, 6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture3555.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/screenshot-2023-10-27-130342.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following increase the risk of recurrence of febrile seizures? (INICET MAY 2022) Age &lt; 1 year Temperature of 38-39°C Duration of fever &lt; 24 h Duration of fever &gt; 48 h", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The risk of recurrent febrile seizures is increased in children under 1 year of age, with fever temperatures between 38-39°C, and fever lasting less than 24 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "2,3 BPG causes unloading of oxygen to tissues because:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It decreases ATP production and hence breaks the links between globin chains", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It increases ATP production", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Binds to the central cavity of hemoglobin surrounded by histidine and lysine and favours salt bridge formation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibits Taut structure formation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Binds to the central cavity of hemoglobin surrounded by histidine and lysine and favours salt bridge formation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture5_Zb3dzLZ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Binds to the central cavity of hemoglobin surrounded by histidine and lysine and favors salt bridge formation:</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ 2,3 BPG is formed in RL shunt which has no net ATP production 2,3 BPG has negative charge whereas beta chain of hemoglobin has large negative charges due to amino acids His and Lys. Together they form the salt bridges (see fig) which promote formation of taut conformation and helps in deoxygenation.</li><li>➤ 2,3 BPG is formed in RL shunt which has no net ATP production</li><li>➤ 2,3 BPG has negative charge whereas beta chain of hemoglobin has large negative charges due to amino acids His and Lys. Together they form the salt bridges (see fig) which promote formation of taut conformation and helps in deoxygenation.</li><li>➤ When 2,3 BPG levels gets decreased, it promotes relaxed confirmation of Hb resulting in oxygen loading.</li><li>➤ When 2,3 BPG levels gets decreased, it promotes relaxed confirmation of Hb resulting in oxygen loading.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with severe abdominal pain. Identify the false statement given about the examination of the abdomen: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemoperitoneum leads to reddish discoloration of the flanks of the abdomen.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cullen’s sign refers to discoloration around the umbilicus.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Palpation begins at the site of pain.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guarding and rigidity indicate peritoneal irritation.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Palpation begins at the site of pain.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Palpation begins at the site of pain.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When examining a patient with abdominal pain, always begin palpation away from the site of pain to ensure a more accurate and less distressing assessment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the reason behind Senile Atrophy? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Denervation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased nutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased workload", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reduced blood supply", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Reduced blood supply", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-125722.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Reduced blood supply</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Senile atrophy is primarily due to reduced blood supply, leading to tissue shrinkage and loss of function with aging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are long-term reversible methods of contraception, except: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Progestin injection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Progestin implants", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Female sterilization", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levonorgestrel-releasing and copper-containing intrauterine devices", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Female sterilization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Female sterilization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Long-Acting Reversible Contraceptives (LARC) are those which are administered at a frequency of less than once per month. LARC methods include:</li><li>• Intrauterine devices (IUDs): Such as CuT 380A with a lifespan of 10 years, and the Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD (LNG IUD) with a lifespan of 5 years. Implants: Implanon, which contains etonorgestrel, has a lifespan of 3 years, and Norplant II, which contains LNG, also has a lifespan of 3 years. Injectable contraceptives: Including Depo-Provera (DMPA) which is administered as 150 mg every 3 months, and Norethisterone enanthate (NET-EN) which is administered as 200 mg every 2 months.</li><li>• Intrauterine devices (IUDs): Such as CuT 380A with a lifespan of 10 years, and the Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD (LNG IUD) with a lifespan of 5 years.</li><li>• Intrauterine devices (IUDs):</li><li>• Implants: Implanon, which contains etonorgestrel, has a lifespan of 3 years, and Norplant II, which contains LNG, also has a lifespan of 3 years.</li><li>• Implants:</li><li>• Injectable contraceptives: Including Depo-Provera (DMPA) which is administered as 150 mg every 3 months, and Norethisterone enanthate (NET-EN) which is administered as 200 mg every 2 months.</li><li>• Injectable contraceptives:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Progestin injection: This is a form of LARC. Injectable contraceptives like DMPA and NET-EN are given at intervals of 2 to 3 months.</li><li>• Option A. Progestin injection:</li><li>• Option B. Progestin implants: These are also considered LARC. Implanon and Norplant II are examples of progestin implants with a duration of action up to 3 years.</li><li>• Option B. Progestin implants:</li><li>• Option D. Levonorgestrel-releasing and copper-containing intrauterine devices: Both types of IUDs are classified as LARC. The CuT 380A lasts for up to 10 years, and the LNG IUD lasts for up to 5 years.</li><li>• Option D. Levonorgestrel-releasing and copper-containing intrauterine devices:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARC) include intrauterine devices (IUDs), progestin implants, and injectable contraceptives, but do not include permanent methods like female sterilization.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 107,112, 127, Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 491-492,479,</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 107,112, 127, Dutta’s textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition pg 491-492,479,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the dose range of lithium in mEq/dL for acute attacks of mania and long-term maintenance?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5 to 1 mEq/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.1 to 0.5 mEq/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.6 to 1.5 mEq/dL", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 to 3 mEq/dL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.6 to 1.5 mEq/dL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 0.6 to 1.5 mEq/dL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 655</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which disease causes the lesion shown in the image below? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rocky mountain spotted fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "COVID-19", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scrub typhus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Scrub typhus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture5_y6cRShi.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Scrub typhus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Scrub typhus, caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, is characterized by an eschar at the site of the mite bite, along with fever and systemic symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following drugs in column A to their site of action in column B? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-184118.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/14/screenshot-2024-10-14-180359.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acetazolamide acts on the proximal convoluted tubule, Torsemide on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, Chlorothiazide on the distal convoluted tubule, and Vasopressin on the collecting duct.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presents with pain and discharge in his left eye. He says that he sustained an injury caused by a leaf a few days back. What is the finding seen in the image? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyphema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aqueous flare", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arlt line", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypopyon", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypopyon", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture3_9GuvF0u.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture4_Y2WCgfK.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture5_eRZ1892.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypopyon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypopyon is points to severe intraocular inflammation needing prompt treatment to preserve eye function and prevent potential complications. The presence of hypopyon after an injury with organic material highly suggests a fungal etiology, requiring specific antifungal treatment alongside broad-spectrum antibacterial coverage.</li><li>➤ Hypopyon</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Refsum’s disease is caused by the defect of? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta oxidation of branched chain fatty acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alpha oxidation of branched chain fatty acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Omega oxidation of branched chain fatty acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alpha oxidation of dicarboxylic acids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alpha oxidation of branched chain fatty acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alpha oxidation of branched-chain fatty acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Characteristic of Peroxisomal pathways:</li><li>➤ Characteristic of Peroxisomal pathways:</li><li>➤ No ATP production in any of peroxisomal pathways H 2 O 2 is regularly formed which is neutralized by peroxisomal enzymes catalase &amp; peroxidase. Two pathways which occur in peroxisomes are:</li><li>➤ No ATP production in any of peroxisomal pathways</li><li>➤ H 2 O 2 is regularly formed which is neutralized by peroxisomal enzymes catalase &amp; peroxidase.</li><li>➤ Two pathways which occur in peroxisomes are:</li><li>➤ 1. α-Oxidation of branched chain fatty acids (BCFA)</li><li>➤ 2. Oxidation of Very Long Chain Fatty Acid (VLCFA)</li><li>➤ Refsum's disease: Occur due to defect in α-oxidation of BCFA in peroxisomes due to defect in phytanic acid hydroxylase. So, Phytanic acid not oxidised.</li><li>➤ Refsum's disease:</li><li>➤ Beta-oxidation occurs for saturated and even chain fatty acids like palmitic and stearic acid In Omega-oxidation dicarboxylic acids are formed. In MCAD deficiency there is dicarboxylic acidosis and non-ketotic hypoglycemia.</li><li>➤ Beta-oxidation occurs for saturated and even chain fatty acids like palmitic and stearic acid</li><li>➤ In Omega-oxidation dicarboxylic acids are formed. In MCAD deficiency there is dicarboxylic acidosis and non-ketotic hypoglycemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How is cerebral perfusion pressure calculated? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systolic blood pressure + Intracranial pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systolic blood pressure - intracranial pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mean arterial pressure/intracranial pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mean arterial pressure - intracranial pressure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mean arterial pressure - intracranial pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mean arterial pressure - intracranial pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated by subtracting the intracranial pressure (ICP) from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). This measurement is crucial for ensuring adequate blood flow and oxygen delivery to the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following statements is true regarding the course of the mandibular nerve? (INICET NOV 2022) Auriculotemporal nerve is a branch from the anterior division of the mandibular nerve, and it emerges from behind the temporomandibular joint. Buccal branch is a branch from the anterior division of the mandibular nerve, and it emerges from behind the mandibular ramus. Lingual nerve is a branch from the posterior division of the mandibular nerve, and it arcs around the submandibular duct. Ophthalmic nerve is a branch from the anterior division of the mandibular nerve, and it arises in the middle cranial fossa.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2,3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1,4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2,3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 2,3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Correct Statements:</li><li>• Correct Statements:</li><li>• Statement 2 : True. The buccal branch, which is indeed a branch of the anterior division of the mandibular nerve, emerges from behind the mandibular ramus. This nerve primarily supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the cheek and buccal mucosa.</li><li>• Statement 2</li><li>• Statement 3: True. The lingual nerve, a branch from the posterior division of the mandibular nerve, is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It famously arcs around the submandibular duct, a notable anatomical feature.</li><li>• Statement 3:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Statement 1 : Incorrect. The auriculotemporal nerve actually arises from the posterior division of the mandibular nerve, not the anterior division, and it does indeed emerge from behind the temporomandibular joint.</li><li>• Statement 1</li><li>• Statement 4: Incorrect. The ophthalmic nerve is not a branch of the mandibular nerve. Instead, it is an independent division of the trigeminal nerve (V1), originating from the trigeminal ganglion located in the middle cranial fossa. It is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the forehead, scalp, and parts of the eye.</li><li>• Statement 4:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The mandibular nerve's complex branching includes both sensory and motor components that are essential for facial sensation and movements. Understanding its branches, such as the buccal and lingual nerves, and their courses, is critical in dental, surgical, and diagnostic practices.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The dead body of a 4-year-old child who was playing around the riverside and accidentally drowned in the river is recovered. There is frothing seen from his mouth and nose. Which of the below postmortem findings is not seen in a case of drowning? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Voluminous and ballooned out lungs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High concentration of arsenic from shaft of hair", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paltauf's hemorrhage in sub pleura", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cadaveric spasm with mud in closed fist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High concentration of arsenic from shaft of hair", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-25_4Q29tq1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. High concentration of arsenic from shaft of hair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of drowning, typical findings include frothing from the mouth and nose, voluminous lungs, and cadaveric spasm with debris. High arsenic concentration in hair shafts is not associated with drowning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A forest worker developed skin lesions over the forearm, which initially started as macules but then became nodules. Histology of the nodules shows the following findings. Which of the following is true regarding this condition? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a dematiaceous fungus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infection can spread and involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, tendon, muscle or joints", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Angioinvasion is common especially in people with hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "These bodies are formed by engulfment of the dead fungi by the macrophages", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is a dematiaceous fungus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/40.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is a dematiaceous fungus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chromoblastomycosis is a chronic fungal infection characterized by the presence of dark-coloured, thick-walled sclerotic cells (Medlar bodies) in histological sections, resulting from traumatic implantation of dematiaceous fungi.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dorzolamide is a: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Topically applied sulfonamide antibacterial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Topical ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Second-generation sulfonylurea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Opioid receptor agonist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Topical ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dorzolamide is a topical ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to reduce intraocular pressure by decreasing the production of aqueous humor, making it effective in the treatment of glaucoma. This distinguishes it from sulfonamide antibacterials, second-generation sulfonylureas, and opioid receptor agonists, which are used for different medical conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the nerve supply of the structure marked in the image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Musculocutaneous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Median nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/7.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Median nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The median nerve supplies the 1st lumbrical which is marked.</li><li>• The 1st lumbrical muscle is innervated by the median nerve. It is a small, quadrilateral muscle located in the hand that arises from the tendon of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle of the index finger and inserts into the extensor expansion of the index finger. Its main function is to flex the metacarpophalangeal joint of the index finger and extend the interphalangeal joints of the index finger. The 1st lumbrical muscle is named because it is associated with the first (index) finger, and there are a total of four lumbrical muscles in the hand - one for each of the four fingers (excluding the thumb).</li><li>• The first and second lumbrical nerves are innervated by the median nerve. The third and fourth lumbricals are innervated by the deep terminal branch of the ulnar nerve.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Radial Nerve: The radial nerve primarily innervates the extensor muscles of the forearm and hand, including the wrist and finger extensors. It does not supply the lumbrical muscles.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Radial Nerve:</li><li>• Option C. Ulnar Nerve: The ulnar nerve supplies several intrinsic hand muscles, including the lumbrical muscles. However, the first lumbrical is typically innervated by the median nerve, as mentioned earlier.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Ulnar Nerve:</li><li>• Option D. Musculocutaneous Nerve: The musculocutaneous nerve primarily innervates the muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm. It does not supply the lumbrical muscles.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Musculocutaneous Nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ T he 1st lumbrical muscle of the hand is innervated by the median nerve is crucial for clinical assessments of hand function, especially in cases of nerve injury or compression syndromes like carpal tunnel syndrome, where the median nerve's functionality can be compromised.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes with a history of high fever for 5 days and altered sensorium. On further probing, it was found that he had two seizures one day ago. Peripheral smear shows the following findings. How will you manage this patient? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline 100 mg intravenously for 7 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clindamycin 600 mg intravenously 8 hourly for 7 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Artesunate 2.4 mg/kg intravenously at 12 and 24 hours, followed by daily once", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chloroquine intramuscularly 8 hourly for 3 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Artesunate 2.4 mg/kg intravenously at 12 and 24 hours, followed by daily once", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/27.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Artesunate 2.4 mg/kg intravenously at 12 and 24 hours, followed by daily once</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cerebral malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is a medical emergency requiring prompt treatment with intravenous artesunate, which is the most effective and rapid-acting medication for severe malaria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the image, a 60-year-old male patient with diabetes presents with progressive skin lesions. What could be the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Discoid lupus erythematosus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Basal cell carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture4_QYIjZ0G.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture17.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture19.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Basal cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In an elderly patient , progressive pearly or waxy skin lesions, especially if located on sun-exposed areas, are likely indicative of basal cell carcinoma .</li><li>➤ elderly patient</li><li>➤ pearly or waxy skin</li><li>➤ sun-exposed</li><li>➤ basal cell carcinoma</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Page no 4.15, 51.3, 88.10-12, 141.1-16</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Page no 4.15, 51.3, 88.10-12, 141.1-16</li><li>➤ Robbins basic pathology 10 th edition page no 1148</li><li>➤ Robbins basic pathology 10 th edition page no 1148</li><li>➤ Bailey &amp; Loves short practice of surgery 27 th edition Page no 599, 604-6011</li><li>➤ Bailey &amp; Loves short practice of surgery 27 th edition Page no 599, 604-6011</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following suture materials is commonly used in neurosurgery and microsurgery? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nylon", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polyglactin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polypropylene 1-0", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polypropylene 2-0", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nylon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-153525.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nylon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given peripheral smear is associated with which of the following leukemias? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic lymphocytic leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic myelogenous leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-122634_v2GVwX7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man from Mumbai presents to a clinic with fatigue and weakness. His family has a history of chronic diseases, but he himself has been asymptomatic until recently. The physician explains the different stages of disease progression and the interventions required. Which of the following best matches the stages with their relevant descriptions? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-123815.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture6555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which marked structure causes lateral rotation, flexion, and abduction at the hip joint, along with flexion at the knee joint? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/14.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/muscle.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The muscle marked in the image are:</li><li>• The muscle marked in the image are:</li><li>• Option A. 1- Rectus femoris</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Option B. 2- Vastus lateralis</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Option C . 3- Adductor longus</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Option D . 4- Sartorius</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Sartorius is involved in lateral rotation, flexion, and abduction at the hip joint, and flexion at the knee. The structure marked '4' is sartorius.</li><li>• The sartorius muscle is a long, thin muscle that runs down the front of the thigh. It is the body's longest muscle and is sometimes referred to as the tailor muscle because of the position that tailors often adopt while working. The sartorius muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and the upper half of the notch below it, and runs obliquely across the thigh to insert into the superior aspect of the medial surface of the tibial shaft near the tibial tuberosity. It joins the aponeurosis of the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles to form the pes anserinus.</li><li>• The sartorius muscle is responsible for several actions, including flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of the thigh, as well as flexion of the leg. Because of its location and actions, it is involved in many activities that require movement of the lower limb, such as walking, running, and climbing stairs.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Muscles of the anterior compartment of thigh (spinal segments in bold are the major segments innervating the muscle)</li><li>➤ Muscles of the anterior compartment of thigh (spinal segments in bold are the major segments innervating the muscle)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following physiological adaptations is generally not observed at high altitudes? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary vasoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polycythemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoxia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Respiratory acidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Respiratory acidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The principal means by which acclimatization to high altitude comes about are</li><li>➤ The principal means by which acclimatization to high altitude comes about are</li><li>➤ A great increase in pulmonary ventilation - increase in pulmonary ventilation on rising to a high altitude blows off large quantities of carbon dioxide, reducing the Pco2 and increasing the ph of the body fluids. Increased numbers of red blood cells, Increased diffusing capacity of the lungs, Increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues Increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low Po2. Cellular Acclimatization - cell mitochondria and cellular oxidative enzyme systems are slightly more plentiful than in sea-level inhabitants</li><li>➤ A great increase in pulmonary ventilation - increase in pulmonary ventilation on rising to a high altitude blows off large quantities of carbon dioxide, reducing the Pco2 and increasing the ph of the body fluids.</li><li>➤ Increased numbers of red blood cells,</li><li>➤ Increased diffusing capacity of the lungs,</li><li>➤ Increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues</li><li>➤ Increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low Po2.</li><li>➤ Cellular Acclimatization - cell mitochondria and cellular oxidative enzyme systems are slightly more plentiful than in sea-level inhabitants</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET NOVEMBER 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/untitled-21.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-115802.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wullstein’s classification of tympanoplasty provides a systematic approach to different types of middle ear reconstructions based on the extent of ossicular damage and required surgical repair.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Eonism can be defined as? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wearing clothes of opposite sex", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Public display of genitalia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seeing a male undressing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Seeing a female undressing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wearing clothes of opposite sex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Eonism or transvestism is the act of wearing clothes of the opposite sex for pleasure, named after Charles Eon de Beaumont.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the zero pressure indicate in the pressure-volume curve? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Residual volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Functional residual capacity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tidal volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inspiratory reserve volume", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Functional residual capacity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-5_1-7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Functional residual capacity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The zero pressure in the pressure-volume curve indicates the functional residual capacity, which is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to new WHO guidelines, what is the minimum number of antenatal visits recommended to have a positive pregnancy outcome? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "8", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The WHO recommends a minimum of 8 antenatal visits to improve pregnancy outcomes and reduce perinatal mortality.</li><li>➤ Ref: The 2016 WHO model for positive pregnancy experience, MOHFW guidelines for antenatal care, ACOG guidelines for antenatal care (2017).</li><li>➤ Ref: The 2016 WHO model for positive pregnancy experience, MOHFW guidelines for antenatal care, ACOG guidelines for antenatal care (2017).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the wrong statement regarding the period of gestation calculation: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1st trimester USG is the best assessment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calculated from the last day of the last menstrual period", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "In an IVF pregnancy, day of embryo transfer/day of fertilization is needed to calculate POG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crown-rump length is the best measure of period of gestation in the first trimester", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calculated from the last day of the last menstrual period", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Calculated from the last day of the last menstrual period</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gestational age is calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), not the last day.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg, Dutta’s 108, 109, textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg127</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg, Dutta’s 108, 109, textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg127</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old female patient weighing 60 kg is on mechanical ventilation for ARDS secondary to urosepsis. The respiratory parameters are as follows: tidal volume- 360 mL; frequency- 30 breaths/min; PEEP- 5 cm of H2O; and FiO2- 90%. The arterial blood gas findings are as follows: paO2- 50 mmHg; paCO2- 38 mmHg and pH- 7.38. What is the next step? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reduce FiO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase tidal volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase respiratory rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase PEEP", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increase PEEP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increase PEEP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In ARDS management, if the patient remains hypoxemic despite a high FiO2, the next step is to increase the PEEP to improve oxygenation while maintaining lung-protective ventilation strategies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male, with a smoking history of 20 pack years, presented in OPD with breathlessness and chest pain. Further investigations revealed a lung tumor. On staining, cells are positive for chromogranin. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Large cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small cell carcinoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Small cell carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-115311.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-144842.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Small cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man is brought to the hospital with high-grade fever and altered consciousness. On examination, the patient had neck rigidity and pain when bending the neck. A lumbar puncture was performed and it showed a WBC count of 1500 cells/ L, majority being neutrophils, elevated pressure with protein of 120 mg/dL, and a CSF glucose level of 70 mg dL &amp; blood glucose level - 300 mg dL). How will you manage the index case? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Piperacillin + tazobactam", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amphotericin + flucytosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vancomycin + ceftriaxone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antitubercular therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vancomycin + ceftriaxone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vancomycin + ceftriaxone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vancomycin combined with a third-generation cephalosporin like ceftriaxone is the recommended initial treatment for suspected bacterial meningitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient with Graves' disease with eye signs and enlarged thyroid is scheduled for a total thyroidectomy. What medication can be administered in the preoperative period to minimize intraoperative bleeding in this patient? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Potassium iodide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propylthiouracil", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Betamethasone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Potassium iodide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Potassium iodide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Graves' disease is an autoimmune disorder that results in an overactive thyroid gland, known as hyperthyroidism. In this condition, the immune system attacks the thyroid gland, causing it to produce more thyroid hormone than the body needs. As a result, the thyroid gland becomes hyperactive, leading to various symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism. Graves' disease is the most prevalent cause of hyperthyroidism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of the optic disc in glaucoma? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Roenne's nasal step", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bayonetting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased cup-disc ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Baring of nasal arteries", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Roenne's nasal step", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture2_LziWdrm.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-182049.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Roenne's nasal step</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Roenne's nasal step, while indicative of the functional impact of glaucoma, does not represent a direct observation of the optic disc but is rather a manifestation of the disease's effect on the visual field.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Selenocysteine is present in which of the following enzymes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutathione reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glutathione peroxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thioredoxine peroxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thioredoxine oxidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glutathione peroxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glutathione peroxidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Enzymes which require amino acid selenocysteine at their catalytic site are:</li><li>➤ Enzymes which require amino acid selenocysteine at their catalytic site are:</li><li>➤ Glutathione Peroxidase Thioredoxin Reductase Iodothyronine deiodinase</li><li>➤ Glutathione Peroxidase</li><li>➤ Thioredoxin Reductase</li><li>➤ Iodothyronine deiodinase</li><li>➤ Codon for selenocysteine: UGA This AA is formed by co–translational (during translation) modification (not by post-translational modification).</li><li>➤ Codon for selenocysteine: UGA</li><li>➤ This AA is formed by co–translational (during translation) modification (not by post-translational modification).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tumor shown in the radiograph? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30% malignant transformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epiphyseal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ground glass opacity is diagnostic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiotherapy is the treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epiphyseal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102700.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Epiphyseal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Giant cell tumors are epiphyseal tumors of the long bones.</li><li>➤ Giant cell tumors are epiphyseal tumors of the long bones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the right sequence of steps in the conversion of cholesterol to testosterone ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20, 22 desmolase, 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 17 alpha hydroxylase, 17,20 lyase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 17 alpha hydroxylase, 17,20 lyase, 20, 22 desmolase,", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20, 22 desmolase, 17,20 lyase, 17 alpha hydroxylase, 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "17 alpha hydroxylase, 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, 20, 22 desmolase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 20, 22 desmolase, 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 17 alpha hydroxylase, 17,20 lyase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture9_mbYtURI.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture10_GsePGR0.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 20, 22 desmolase, 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 17 alpha hydroxylase, 17,20 lyase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for the conversion of cholesterol to testosterone involves the enzymes 20, 22 desmolase, 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, 17 alpha hydroxylase, and 17,20 lyase in that specific order.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the volume of the prostate in normal adult males? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20cc", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "50cc", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "75cc", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100cc", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 20cc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/anatomy-nov-inicet-2022-02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 20cc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The volume of the prostate in normal adult males is 20cc.</li><li>• The volume of the prostate gland in normal adult males can vary depending on age and other factors. However, on average, the volume of the prostate gland in an adult male is around 20-30 cubic centimeters (cc) or milliliters (mL).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The typical volume of the prostate in a normal adult male is around 20cc</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man presented in OPD with complaints of fever, night sweats, and weight loss for 2 months. On examination, lymphadenopathy was present. They were non-tender, rubbery in consistency, located in the supraclavicular and inguinal regions on both sides. Peripheral smear showed the presence of bi-nucleated cells. Which markers can be identified in this condition? (INICET NOV 2022) CD15 CD30 CD19 CD3", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-121049.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 and 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Hodgkin's lymphoma, Reed-Sternberg cells characteristically express CD15 and CD30, making these markers essential for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with eclampsia is started on magnesium sulfate. What is the first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loss of knee jerk", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reduced muscle tone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Loss of knee jerk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Loss of knee jerk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity is the loss of deep tendon reflexes (knee jerk).</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition page 759</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition page 759</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The viruses of the filoviridae family like Ebola and Marburg resemble which of the following morphologies? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-123335.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-123451.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-123609.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-99.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-101.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Filoviruses, such as Ebola and Marburg, are filamentous and contain nonsegmented single-stranded RNA.</li><li>➤ Filoviruses, such as Ebola and Marburg, are filamentous and contain nonsegmented single-stranded RNA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a diabetic patient, the following lesions are present in the armpit. What would be observed during a Wood's lamp examination? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow fluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coral red fluorescence", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue fluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Green fluorescence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coral red fluorescence", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13579.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture20.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/screenshot-2023-11-22-175903.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-182645.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coral red fluorescence.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Wood's lamp uses UVA light with a wavelength of 365nm ( 320 - 400 nm) for the diagnosis of various skin conditions based on the fluorescence characteristics of the skin under this specific range of ultraviolet light.</li><li>➤ Wood's</li><li>➤ UVA</li><li>➤ 365nm</li><li>➤ 320</li><li>➤ 400</li><li>➤ fluorescence</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4 page no 4.20</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4 page no 4.20</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition, Chapter 26 Page no 26.40</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition, Chapter 26 Page no 26.40</li><li>➤ Image source: https://dermnetnz.org/assets/Uploads/bacterial/erythrasma13__WatermarkedWyJXYXRlcm1hcmtlZCJd.jpg</li><li>➤ Image source:</li><li>➤ https://dermnetnz.org/assets/Uploads/bacterial/erythrasma13__WatermarkedWyJXYXRlcm1hcmtlZCJd.jpg</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient had difficulty in walking upstairs. When he was made to bear weight on right lower limb, the left-sided pelvis dropped down, but when he was standing on the left lower limb, the right-sided pelvis moved up. Which of the following is the likely lesion? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right superior gluteal nerve palsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left superior gluteal nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right inferior gluteal nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left inferior gluteal nerve palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right superior gluteal nerve palsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102139.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Right superior gluteal nerve palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ On standing on the right lower limb, the left side pelvis drops and while standing on the left leg, the right side pelvis lifted up. This is indicative of right superior gluteal nerve palsy. This sign is called Trendelenburg Sign.</li><li>➤ On standing on the right lower limb, the left side pelvis drops and while standing on the left leg, the right side pelvis lifted up. This is indicative of right superior gluteal nerve palsy. This sign is called Trendelenburg Sign.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-year-old male patient presents to the surgical emergency with a history of peptic ulcer disease and pain in abdomen, bloating, and obstipation for 3 days. What is the next line in management? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CECT abdomen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exploratory laparotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Perforation of a hollow viscus is a life-threatening condition caused by the rupture of the alimentary tract. This results in the leakage of enteric contents, leading to acute bacterial peritonitis. Clinical features include abdominal pain and distension, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, tenderness, rebound tenderness, decreased or absent bowel sounds, and guarding on palpation. Investigations include estimating the white blood cell count, urea, serum electrolytes, and an erect abdominal radiograph showing free gas under the diaphragm. CECT is the most sensitive investigation to detect minimal/suspected pneumoperitoneum. Management includes IV fluids and exploratory laparotomy.</li><li>➤ Perforation of a hollow viscus is a life-threatening condition caused by the rupture of the alimentary tract.</li><li>➤ This results in the leakage of enteric contents, leading to acute bacterial peritonitis.</li><li>➤ Clinical features include abdominal pain and distension, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, tenderness, rebound tenderness, decreased or absent bowel sounds, and guarding on palpation.</li><li>➤ Investigations include estimating the white blood cell count, urea, serum electrolytes, and an erect abdominal radiograph showing free gas under the diaphragm.</li><li>➤ CECT is the most sensitive investigation to detect minimal/suspected pneumoperitoneum.</li><li>➤ Management includes IV fluids and exploratory laparotomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following side effects are more commonly seen with carbamazepine than oxcarbazepine, except: ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyponatremia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Elevated levels of gamma glutamyl transpeptidas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyponatremia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hyponatremia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with oxcarbazepine than carbamazepine. While both drugs can cause similar side effects due to their similar mechanisms of action, certain adverse effects, such as hypotension, rash, and elevated GGT levels, are more frequently seen with carbamazepine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The significance of HMP shunt are all except? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Source of NADPH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Source of ribose 5 phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Source of acetyl CoA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Utilizes ribose", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Utilizes ribose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture1_4nsrjPd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Utilizes ribose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The Hexose Monophosphate (HMP) shunt, also known as the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP), has several significant roles:</li><li>• The Hexose Monophosphate (HMP) shunt, also known as the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP), has several significant roles:</li><li>• Source of NADPH: The HMP shunt produces NADPH in its oxidative phase. NADPH is essential for various biosynthetic reactions, including fatty acid synthesis and maintaining the reduced state of glutathione in red blood cells. Source of ribose 5 phosphate: At the end of the oxidative phase, ribulose 5-phosphate is produced, which can be further converted into ribose 5-phosphate. Ribose 5-phosphate is a crucial precursor for the synthesis of nucleotides and nucleic acids. Source of acetyl CoA: One of the end products of the HMP shunt is glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, which can enter glycolysis. Through glycolysis, it can eventually form pyruvate, which can be converted into acetyl CoA in the presence of oxygen.</li><li>• Source of NADPH: The HMP shunt produces NADPH in its oxidative phase. NADPH is essential for various biosynthetic reactions, including fatty acid synthesis and maintaining the reduced state of glutathione in red blood cells.</li><li>• Source of NADPH:</li><li>• Source of ribose 5 phosphate: At the end of the oxidative phase, ribulose 5-phosphate is produced, which can be further converted into ribose 5-phosphate. Ribose 5-phosphate is a crucial precursor for the synthesis of nucleotides and nucleic acids.</li><li>• Source of ribose 5 phosphate:</li><li>• Source of acetyl CoA: One of the end products of the HMP shunt is glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, which can enter glycolysis. Through glycolysis, it can eventually form pyruvate, which can be converted into acetyl CoA in the presence of oxygen.</li><li>• Source of acetyl CoA:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Option D. Utilizes ribose: This statement is incorrect as the HMP shunt primarily produces ribose 5-phosphate rather than utilizing it. Ribose 5-phosphate is a significant product of this pathway and is used in the synthesis of nucleotides and nucleic acids.</li><li>• Option D. Utilizes ribose:</li><li>• The overall reaction of the HMP shunt can be summarized as:</li><li>• The overall reaction of the HMP shunt can be summarized as:</li><li>• 3G-6-P+6NADP+→2G-6-P+Glyceraldehyde-3-P+3CO2+6NADPH</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The HMP shunt is significant for producing NADPH and ribose 5-phosphate and indirectly contributing to the formation of acetyl CoA, but it does not utilize ribose.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following represents maximum amplitude in Thromboelastography? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platelet", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intrinsic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extrinsic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "vWD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Platelet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Platelet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The maximum amplitude in Thromboelastography represents platelets. TEG is a non-invasive test that quantitatively measures the ability of whole blood to form a clot.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the cause of tattooing around the entry wound of a bullet? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unburnt particles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Smoke", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Impact", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Muzzle impression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Unburnt particles", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-39.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-40.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-41.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tattooing around the entry wound of a bullet is caused by unburnt particles of gunpowder embedding into the skin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The daughter of a woman who received diethylstilbestrol during her pregnancy is at higher risk for? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clear cell adenocarcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sarcoma botryoides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Clear cell adenocarcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Clear cell adenocarcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a synthetic estrogen that was previously prescribed to pregnant women to prevent miscarriages and other pregnancy complications. It was later discovered to be a teratogen and is no longer used. Exposure to DES in utero is known to cause the following conditions: In girls : T-shaped uterus Cockscomb cervix Vaginal and cervical clear cell adenocarcinoma In boys : Micropenis Hypospadias Undescended testes</li><li>• Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a synthetic estrogen that was previously prescribed to pregnant women to prevent miscarriages and other pregnancy complications. It was later discovered to be a teratogen and is no longer used.</li><li>• Diethylstilbestrol (DES)</li><li>• Exposure to DES in utero is known to cause the following conditions: In girls : T-shaped uterus Cockscomb cervix Vaginal and cervical clear cell adenocarcinoma In boys : Micropenis Hypospadias Undescended testes</li><li>• In girls : T-shaped uterus Cockscomb cervix Vaginal and cervical clear cell adenocarcinoma In boys : Micropenis Hypospadias Undescended testes</li><li>• In girls : T-shaped uterus Cockscomb cervix Vaginal and cervical clear cell adenocarcinoma</li><li>• In girls</li><li>• T-shaped uterus Cockscomb cervix Vaginal and cervical clear cell adenocarcinoma</li><li>• T-shaped uterus</li><li>• Cockscomb cervix</li><li>• Vaginal and cervical clear cell adenocarcinoma</li><li>• In boys : Micropenis Hypospadias Undescended testes</li><li>• In boys</li><li>• Micropenis Hypospadias Undescended testes</li><li>• Micropenis</li><li>• Hypospadias</li><li>• Undescended testes</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Squamous cell carcinoma : Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of cervical cancer. It arises from the ectocervix, at the squamocolumnar junction. This type of cancer is not specifically associated with DES exposure.</li><li>• Option A. Squamous cell carcinoma</li><li>• Option C. Adenocarcinoma : Adenocarcinoma arises from the endocervix and is not specifically linked to DES exposure.</li><li>• Option C. Adenocarcinoma</li><li>• Option D. Sarcoma botryoides : Sarcoma botryoides is a type of rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the cervix. It presents as a pinkish polypoidal growth filling up the vagina completely and causes blood-tinged watery discharge. It is not associated with DES exposure.</li><li>• Option D. Sarcoma botryoides</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DES exposure in utero is specifically associated with an increased risk of clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg42</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg42</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male underwent NCCT abdomen for suspected renal calculi. An incidental finding was noted in the liver. What is the likely diagnosis? (INCET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatocellular carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fibronodular hyperplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liver abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydatid cyst", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hydatid cyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-177.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/26/untitled-178.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hydatid cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The above CT image showing a calcified lesion in the liver with a lamellar wall which indicates hydatid disease.</li><li>• Caused by Echinococcus granulosus → Humans – accidental host</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hepatocellular carcinoma: Typically presents as a solid tumor with irregular borders and might show vascular invasion or enhancement after contrast administration, not typically calcified.</li><li>• Option A. Hepatocellular carcinoma:</li><li>• Option B. Fibronodular hyperplasia: Refers to a benign liver lesion that generally does not demonstrate the clear, calcified, and layered appearance of a hydatid cyst.</li><li>• Option B. Fibronodular hyperplasia:</li><li>• Option C. Liver abscess: Would more likely present as a fluid-filled lesion with possible air-fluid levels and peripheral enhancement after contrast, not the lamellar calcification seen here.</li><li>• Option C. Liver abscess:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydatid cysts in the liver are recognized on CT scans by their calcified, lamellar structure and are an important differential when considering cystic liver lesions, particularly in regions where Echinococcus is endemic.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INCET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-01-27%20183230.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-163521_sTAjDlR.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-163534_8I0o2Kl.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-163547_HQrbrqm.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-163602_nOdKJAL.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-01-27%20183612.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 1. Football sign: This sign is associated with pneumoperitoneum, where an accumulation of gas in the peritoneal cavity gives a silhouette resembling a football on X-ray images.</li><li>• 1. Football sign:</li><li>• 2. Rat tail sign: Typically seen in carcinoma of the esophagus, this sign describes the tapering of the esophageal lumen due to the tumor, resembling a rat’s tail. .</li><li>• 2. Rat tail sign:</li><li>• 3. String sign: Found in CHPS (Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis), it refers to the appearance of a narrowed, elongated channel through the pylorus.</li><li>• 3. String sign:</li><li>• 4. Inverted umbrella sign: This is seen in cases of TB (tuberculosis), particularly referring to the appearance of a contracted cecum and narrow ileocecal junction</li><li>• 4. Inverted umbrella sign:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the ECG given below, which of the following drugs is NOT used in the management of the condition? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diltiazem", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Adenosine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/whatsapp-image-2024-09-13-at-103835-am.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Adenosine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenosine should not be used in the management of atrial fibrillation due to its potential to induce or worsen the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which alternative method can be used for the procedure shown in the image below? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Head circumference", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arm span", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crown-rump length", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Knee height", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arm span", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/97.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arm span</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arm span can be used as an alternative method for measuring height, especially when direct height measurement is not feasible.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following organs has the least arteriovenous oxygen difference? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kidney", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kidney", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Kidney</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The kidney has the least arteriovenous oxygen difference among the given organs due to its primary function of blood filtration, which requires relatively low oxygen extraction. This results in a low A-V O2 difference compared to organs like the brain and liver that have higher metabolic and oxygen consumption demands.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cystic fibrosis is caused by which of the following deletion? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tyrosine at 508", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phenylalanine at 508", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tryptophan at 508", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lysine at 805", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phenylalanine at 508", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture4_CFFYSB0.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Phenylalanine at 508</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Cystic fibrosis is due to mutation in cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein by deletion of one codon which give rise to phenylalanine at position 508 of this protein. Mnemonic: F-fibrosis, F- Phenylalaine</li><li>➤ This protein helps in movement of H 2 O and chloride ion in and out of cell and helps in the formation of mucus secretion and saliva.</li><li>➤ In normal conditions, the channel allows the formation of thin layer of mucus. But in cystic fibrosis, a thick layer of mucus is formed (see fig) causing airway obstruction leading to infection and ultimately scarring of lung tissue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with fever and nuchal rigidity. The resident was instructed to perform a lumbar puncture on this patient. What is the correct order of managing this patient? ( INICET MAY 2022) Place IV cannula and give fluids at 40 mL/h Start injection ceftriaxone Send CSF sample for biochemistry and microanalysis Perform guarded lumbar puncture", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4, 3, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4, 3, 2, 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4, 3, 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 4, 3, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 4, 3, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In suspected meningitis, the ideal sequence is to secure samples for microbiological diagnosis before starting antibiotics, when clinically feasible. However, if there will be a significant delay in performing the lumbar puncture or if the patient is critically ill, antibiotics should not be delayed. The sequence emphasizes balancing the need for accurate diagnosis with timely intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is evaluating the effectiveness of a health system in emphasizing early detection of leprosy in a community setting. Which of the following metrics would be most indicative of the system's commitment to early identification?\" (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treatment completion rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Annual new case detection rate per lac", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Treatment initiation rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proportion of newly diagnosed patients with grade-2 disability", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Proportion of newly diagnosed patients with grade-2 disability", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/untitled-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Proportion of newly diagnosed patients with grade-2 disability</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The proportion of newly diagnosed patients with grade-2 disability is a key indicator of the effectiveness of a health system in detecting leprosy early. Lower proportions suggest better early detection efforts</li><li>➤ The proportion of newly diagnosed patients with grade-2 disability is a key indicator of the effectiveness of a health system in detecting leprosy early.</li><li>➤ Lower proportions suggest better early detection efforts</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Brunt sugar smell of urine is due to the defect of? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-115715.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Burnt sugar-like odour is a characteristic feature of Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) which occurs due to the inherited deficiency of branched chain Keto-acid dehydrogenase/decarboxylase. It results in a defect in oxidative phosphorylation and catabolism of branched-chain amino acids (BCAA) Valine/Isoleucine/leucine. As a result, these amino acids are excreted in urine. There is also mental retardation.</li><li>• Burnt sugar-like odour is a characteristic feature of Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) which occurs due to the inherited deficiency of branched chain Keto-acid dehydrogenase/decarboxylase.</li><li>• It results in a defect in oxidative phosphorylation and catabolism of branched-chain amino acids (BCAA) Valine/Isoleucine/leucine. As a result, these amino acids are excreted in urine. There is also mental retardation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase: Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase leads to phenylketonuria (PKU), which is characterized by a mousy or musty odor due to the accumulation of phenylalanine and its metabolites.</li><li>• Option A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase:</li><li>• Option B. Isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase: Deficiency of isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase causes isovaleric acidemia, which is associated with a rancid, cheesy, or sweaty feet odor due to the accumulation of isovaleric acid.</li><li>• Option B. Isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase:</li><li>• Option C. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase: Deficiency of fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase leads to tyrosinemia type I, which is characterized by a boiled cabbage or rotten mushrooms odor due to the accumulation of tyrosine and its metabolites.</li><li>• Option C. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following equipment is required for putting intravenous cannula in a newborn? (INICET NOV 2022) 22G cannula 24G IV cannula 5-mL syringe Adhesive tape Normal saline", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,3,4,5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2,3,4,5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1,4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2,3,4,5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/06/screenshot-2024-07-06-160732.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2,3,4,5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 2. 24G IV cannula: This refers to a 24-gauge (24G) cannula, which is typically used for neonates and infants due to its smaller diameter, making it suitable for their small and fragile veins.</li><li>• 2. 24G IV cannula:</li><li>• 3. 5-mL syringe: While placing an IV cannula, it's essential to have a syringe attached. The syringe helps to test the patency of the cannula once it's in the vein (flashback of blood can be seen), and it also assists in gently flushing the cannula with normal saline to ensure it's correctly positioned.</li><li>• 3. 5-mL syringe:</li><li>• 4. Adhesive tape: Once the cannula is in position, adhesive tape or a securement device is necessary to stabilize and fix the cannula in place, preventing it from dislodging.</li><li>• 4. Adhesive tape:</li><li>• 5. Normal saline: Normal saline is used for flushing the cannula once it's in place to ensure patency. It's also utilized to keep the cannula patent if it's not immediately hooked up to an IV line.</li><li>• 5. Normal saline:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• 1. 22G IV cannula: A 22-gauge (22G) cannula is larger and may be used for older infants or children but is often too large for a newborn's tiny veins. Hence, it is not typically used for neonates.</li><li>• 1. 22G IV cannula:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ For placing an IV cannula in a newborn, the equipment required includes a 24G needle, a 5-mL syringe, adhesive tape, and normal saline.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with diabetes develops a UTI, which gets complicated with hypotension that is resistant to IV fluids. Which of the following antibiotics can be used? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Piperacillin-Tazobactam", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amoxicillin-Clavulanate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitrofurantoin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Piperacillin-Tazobactam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Piperacillin-Tazobactam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of septic shock, especially in a patient with diabetes and complicated UTI, broad-spectrum antibiotics such as Piperacillin-Tazobactam are critical for empirical therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following are parvovirus-related manifestations. Identify the incorrect pair? ( INICET NOV 2022) Pure red cell aplasia - chronic hemolytic anemia Polymyalgia rheumatica - young women Hydrops fetalis - pregnant women Erythema infectiosum - infants", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture3_yezpQKZ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Polymyalgia rheumatica is typically seen in women above 50 years old and is not related to parvovirus infection in young women. Parvovirus B19 is more commonly associated with conditions such as erythema infectiosum in children, pure red cell aplasia in patients with chronic hemolytic anemia, and hydrops fetalis in pregnant women.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Parvo virus infection -</li><li>➤ Parvo virus infection -</li><li>➤ Common symptoms of parvovirus B19 (B19V) infection include a mild nonspecific prodromal illness that may consist of fever (15-30% of patients), malaise, headache, myalgia, nausea, and rhinorrhea; typically beginning 5-7 days after initial infection</li><li>➤ A diffuse maculopapular rash can appear 1-4 days later and fades to a lacy erythematous rash, which may be pruritic and may spread gradually toward the distal extremities. Most seropositive patients have no history of this classic biphasic illness. The clinical symptoms widely vary, and the classic \"slapped cheek\" rash is much more common in young children called as erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek disease,</li><li>➤ lacy erythematous rash,</li><li>➤ \"slapped cheek\" rash</li><li>➤ Alternatively, parvovirus B19 infection may manifest with purpuric rash, erythema multiforme, or pruritus of the soles of the feet. Parvovirus B19 may cause a papular-purpuric \"gloves-and-socks\" syndrome (PPGSS ), which manifests as an erythematous exanthem of the hands and feet with a distinct margin at the wrist and ankle joints.</li><li>➤ papular-purpuric \"gloves-and-socks\" syndrome (PPGSS</li><li>➤ Transient small joint arthropathy may be the main clinical presentation of parvovirus B19 in adults.</li><li>➤ small joint arthropathy</li><li>➤ Pure red cell aplasia and chronic hemolytic anemia is seen in patients with immunosuppression.</li><li>➤ Pure red cell aplasia and chronic hemolytic anemia</li><li>➤ Patients with severe anemia due to transient aplastic crisis (TAC ) may present with pallor, fatigue, or signs of an aplastic crisis.</li><li>➤ transient aplastic crisis (TAC</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19V infection during pregnancy can lead to hydrops fetalis and/or fetal loss .</li><li>➤ hydrops fetalis and/or fetal loss</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with signs and symptoms of shock. Which of the following statements regarding shock is true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anaerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low pH mainly activates lysosomal enzymes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peripheral vasodilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal perfusion is enhanced", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Low pH mainly activates lysosomal enzymes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Low pH mainly activates lysosomal enzymes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shock is a state of circulatory failure resulting in tissue hypoperfusion and hypoxia. Prolonged shock eventually leads to irreversible tissue damage. In cases of shock, there is inadequate oxygenation. Thus, cells switch from aerobic to anaerobic respiration where lactic acid, not carbon dioxide, is produced. The accumulation of lactic acid in the blood leads to systemic acidosis.</li><li>➤ Lysosomes are membraned organelles that enclose all the hydrolysing enzymes capable of breaking down biological polymers. The lysosomal enzymes are only active in acidic pH (low pH value) and this pH is maintained within the organelle. Hypoxic tissue injury during shock causes membrane damage, and extravasation of the enzymes from lysosomes. Thus, leading to tissue death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What finding on immunohistochemical staining is consistent with basal-like breast cancer in a 59-year-old female presenting with a breast lump?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ER +, PR +, HER2 –", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ER +, PR -, HER2 –", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ER -, PR -, HER2 –", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ER -, PR -, HER2 +", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ER -, PR -, HER2 –", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ER-, PR-, HER2-</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basal-like or triple-negative breast cancer is characterized by the absence of estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor type 2 (HER2) on immunohistochemical staining. Positive staining is indicated by the presence of brown-coloured tissue, with ER and PR staining the nucleus brown, while HER2 staining the cell membrane brown.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The injury shown in the radiograph can result in: (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ACL injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ACL and medial collateral ligament injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral collateral ligament injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medial meniscus injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ACL injury", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103255.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103307.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. ACL injury</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How would you describe the tonicity of the fluid leaving the proximal convoluted tubule in the absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isotonic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotonic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertonic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Depends on fluid intake", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Isotonic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Isotonic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluid leaving the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is isotonic due to the isosmotic reabsorption of solutes and water, regardless of the presence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This ensures that the fluid entering the loop of Henle has the same osmolarity as plasma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hospital is investigating the effectiveness of statins in a multiple-centric clinical trial. The study involves 4000-5000 patients and half of them have received the drug while the other half was given a placebo. Both the subjects and the investigators are unaware of which group is getting the drug and which group is being administered the placebo. Which of the following phases of clinical trial corresponds to this scenario? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phase 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phase 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-103816.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Phase 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The described clinical trial, with its large sample size, multiple centers, double-blind design, and focus on confirming the efficacy of statins, corresponds to a Phase 3 clinical trial. This phase is crucial for determining whether the drug is effective and safe for widespread use.</li><li>➤ Phase 3</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of substance addiction is admitted to the hospital due to the overdose of the addictive substance. The patient has slow heart rate, respiratory depression, and low blood pressure. His ocular findings are shown below. Which of the following statements is true regarding this condition? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "This action can be reversed by phenylephrine.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It cannot be reversed by levallorphan.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " It is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tolerance develops to this adverse effect on long-term use.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/750.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.It is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Opioid-induced miosis is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, and it is a characteristic sign of opioid intoxication. This effect cannot be reversed by phenylephrine, and tolerance does not develop to this effect with long-term opioid use. Opioid antagonists like naloxone and levallorphan can reverse the miosis caused by opioid overdose</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following drugs in Column A with their contraindications in Column B? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-180006.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Morphine is contraindicated in head injury due to its effects on pupil size and respiratory depression. Amiodarone is associated with QT prolongation and potential arrhythmias. Vigabatrin is teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy. Estrogen increases the risk of thromboembolic events.</li><li>➤ Morphine is contraindicated in head injury due to its effects on pupil size and respiratory depression. Amiodarone is associated with QT prolongation and potential arrhythmias. Vigabatrin is teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy. Estrogen increases the risk of thromboembolic events.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows the life cycle of human immunodeficiency virus. Which of the following drugs acts at step 5? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Raltegravir", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enfuvirtide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tenofovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zidovudine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Raltegravir", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/752.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is correct regarding clinical trials? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "New drug application is filed after phase 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase 4 is also called post-marketing surveillance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phase 3 are open label studies without any blinding", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase 2 is done on healthy individuals", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phase 4 is also called post-marketing surveillance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-181342.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Phase 4 is also called post-marketing surveillance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man sustained a scorpion sting 2 hours ago. On examination, his blood pressure is 104/ 55 mm Hg; Heart Rate 72 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 32 breaths/ minute. He also complains of breathlessness. Which of the following is the preferred drug for management of this patient? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ivabradine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prazosin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Frusemide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prazosin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Prazosin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prazosin is the preferred drug for managing the symptoms of a scorpion sting, as it counteracts the effects of catecholamines released due to the venom, providing relief from hypertension and pulmonary edema. Other drugs listed do not directly address the primary pathophysiological effects of a scorpion sting.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An experiment is being conducted on a dog blood pressure to study the effect of acetylcholine. The blood pressure is recorded at each intervention and is shown below. What does phase 4 in the graph indicate? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muscarinic action of acetyIcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Potentiation of acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antagonism of acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " Nicotinic action of acetylcholine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nicotinic action of acetylcholine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/picture1_2v4u1Uh.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phase 4 in the graph indicates the nicotinic action of acetylcholine, characterized by a rise in blood pressure due to the stimulation of neuronal nicotinic receptors after administering a high dose of acetylcholine (5 mg) following the blockade of muscarinic receptors with atropine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is a known case of HIV is started on combined active antiretroviral therapy (cART). After few months of treatment, he develops palmo-plantar hyperpigmentation. What is the most likely drug implicated in this scenario?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nelfinavir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Emtricitabine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abacavir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zidovudine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Emtricitabine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Emtricitabine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Emtricitabine, an NRTI used in the treatment of HIV, is known to cause palmo-plantar hyperpigmentation as a side effect. This differentiates it from other antiretroviral medications such as nelfinavir, abacavir, and zidovudine, which have different side effect profiles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with erectile dysfunction is given sildenafil. Which of the following mediates the action of sildenafil? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CAMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "cGMP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphatidyl glycerol and inositol phosphate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. cGMP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. cGMP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sildenafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, enhances and prolongs erections by preventing the breakdown of cGMP, which is the primary mediator responsible for smooth muscle relaxation and increased blood flow in the corpus cavernosum of the penis during arousal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Alkalinization of urine will be helpful in the treatment of poisoning due to? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weakly basic drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strong acids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strong bases", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weakly acidic drugs", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Weakly acidic drugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Weakly acidic drugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alkalinization of urine is an effective strategy to enhance the excretion of weakly acidic drugs by increasing their ionization and reducing their reabsorption in the renal tubules, thus promoting their elimination from the body. This method is particularly useful in cases of poisoning with weak acids, such as aspirin (salicylates).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following drugs with the targets of their actions: ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-185018.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-185152.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is brought with altered sensorium and seizures. Attendant shows the laboratory report which reveals elevated transaminases. Which of the following can be used in this condition? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Midazolam", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alprazolam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxazepam", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oxazepam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Oxazepam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with liver impairment, such as those with elevated transaminases, it is crucial to use medications that are not heavily reliant on hepatic metabolism and do not produce active metabolites. Oxazepam, being metabolized via conjugation, is a safer option in such scenarios compared to other benzodiazepines like midazolam, diazepam, and alprazolam.</li><li>➤ Remember with mnemonic ‘ STOLE’</li><li>➤ S hort-acting Benzodiazepines</li><li>➤ S</li><li>➤ T emazepam O xazepam L orazepam E stazolam</li><li>➤ T emazepam</li><li>➤ O xazepam</li><li>➤ L orazepam</li><li>➤ E stazolam</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An anti-arrhythmic drug, which is effective in both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, is shown to have the following effect on action potential. Which of the following is the most likely drug? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tocainide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Quinidine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lignocaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Quinidine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-10.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-180023.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-180053.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-180124.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Quinidine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Class IA anti-arrhythmic agents like Quinidine prolong the action potential duration by blocking sodium and potassium channels, making them effective in treating both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias. This effect is clearly reflected in the graph provided, distinguishing it from other classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with periorbital pain and nasal discharge. On examination, the findings shown in the image below. She is an immunocompromised patient currently on HAART. Which of the following antifungal regimen should be prescribed to this patient along with HAART? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inj. Amphotericin B for 4-8 weeks, followed by oral itraconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Inj. Amphotericin B for 8 weeks, followed by oral posaconazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inj. Fluconazole, followed by oral fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inj. Amphotericin B, followed by flucytosine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inj. Amphotericin B for 8 weeks, followed by oral posaconazole", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/759.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis requires aggressive treatment with Amphotericin B followed by consolidation therapy with posaconazole, particularly in immunocompromised patients. This combination helps ensure both initial and sustained control of the fungal infection.</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is on treatment for hyperlipidemia develops gallstones. What is the mechanism of action of the causative drug that was given to this patient? ( (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibits HMG Co reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Activates PPAR alpha", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Binds to deoxycholic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibit intestinal absorption of cholesterol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Activates PPAR alpha", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Activates PPAR alpha</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibrates are lipid-lowering agents that work by activating PPARα. While effective at reducing triglycerides and VLDL, they can increase the risk of gallstone formation due to increased cholesterol content in bile. This is an important consideration when choosing lipid-lowering therapy, especially in patients at risk for cholelithiasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The lipid profile of a patient who suffered from acute coronary syndrome is given below. What drug can be used to treat this condition? (INICET NOV 2022) Serum low-density lipoprotein: 127 g/dL Serum high-density lipoprotein: 32 mg/dL Serum triglycerides: 278 mg/dL", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fenofibrate 160 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rosuvastatin + Fenofibrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rosuvastatin 10 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atorvastatin 80 mg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Atorvastatin 80 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Atorvastatin 80 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Patients with atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease, such as those who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome, should be treated with high-intensity statins to reduce LDL cholesterol and prevent further cardiovascular events. Atorvastatin (40–80 mg) and rosuvastatin (20–40 mg) are the main options in this category.</li><li>➤ high-intensity statins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following clinical examination was performed. What lesion would cause an exaggerated reflex? ( INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polyneuropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radiculopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper motor neuron", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lower motor neuron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Upper motor neuron", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/07/screenshot-2024-09-07-154119.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Upper motor neuron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Exaggerated reflexes, such as an exaggerated ankle jerk reflex, are indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion. Lower motor neuron lesions, including those caused by polyneuropathy and radiculopathy, typically result in diminished or absent reflexes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with violent, flinging movements. Where is the lesion causing the hemiballismus seen? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Putamen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subthalamic nucleus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caudate nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Globus pallidus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subthalamic nucleus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Subthalamic nucleus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemiballismus, characterized by violent, flinging movements, is most commonly caused by a lesion in the subthalamic nucleus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following steps of ventricular action potential in the correct order: ( INICET Nov 2022) Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels Repolarizing K+ currents Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels Transient outward flow of potassium", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B, A, C, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "D, C, B, A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C, D, A, B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, B, C, D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C, D, A, B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-5_1-5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for ventricular action potential is as follows:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for ventricular action potential is as follows:</li><li>➤ C. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels</li><li>➤ D. Transient outward flow of potassium</li><li>➤ A. Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels</li><li>➤ B. Repolarizing K+ currents</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Due to which phenomenon, B cells express IgM and IgD antibodies at the same time? (INICET MAY 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Somatic hypermutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alternative RNA splicing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Affinity maturation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allelic exclusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alternative RNA splicing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alternative RNA splicing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ B cells express both IgM and IgD through alternative RNA splicing, allowing the simultaneous expression of these two immunoglobulins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old girl presented with sudden-onset blindness for the past 4 hours. However, on history taking, it is noted that she is not concerned about it. However, she is concerned that her mother passed away recently and that she should have spent more time with her. Physical examination findings are normal. Which of the following is true about the condition? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "In children, equally among males and females.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "In adults, equally among males and females.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "In adults, occurs more in males than in females.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In children, occurs more in females than in males.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. In children, occurs more in females than in males.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) In children, occurs more in females than in males.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conversion disorder often follows psychological stress and is characterized by sudden neurological symptoms without a medical explanation. It commonly presents with motor or sensory deficits and is more prevalent in females, especially in children and adolescents .</li><li>➤ Conversion disorder</li><li>➤ females, especially in children and adolescents</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which statement is false regarding late decelerations? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Starts after peak of uterine contraction and ends after uterine contraction ends", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "They are smooth and gradual", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "At least 10 beats, 2 times in a 20 min period above baseline", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Not associated with accelerations", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. At least 10 beats, 2 times in a 20 min period above baseline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) At least 10 beats, 2 times in a 20 min period above baseline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Late decelerations are characterized by a gradual, symmetrical decrease in fetal heart rate that begins after the peak of uterine contractions and persists beyond their end. They are typically caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are a concerning sign for fetal hypoxia .</li><li>➤ Late decelerations</li><li>➤ uteroplacental insufficiency</li><li>➤ fetal hypoxia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with bare lymphocytic disease, graft vs host reaction does not occur due to: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complement deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deficiency of CD4 T lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MHC class II deficiency on lymphocytes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "MHC class I deficiency on lymphocytes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MHC class II deficiency on lymphocytes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) MHC class II deficiency on lymphocytes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bare lymphocytic disease results from a deficiency in MHC class II molecules , leading to the impaired development of CD4+ T lymphocytes , and thereby causing a combined immunodeficiency. The lack of MHC class II prevents graft vs host disease from occurring in these patients.</li><li>➤ Bare lymphocytic disease</li><li>➤ MHC class II molecules</li><li>➤ CD4+ T lymphocytes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET NOV 2022) 1 - Kleptomania 2 - Pyromania 3 - Mutilomania 4 - Dipsomania A - Intense desire to drink alcoholic drinks B - Intense desire to mutilate C - Intense desire to steal items of trivial value D - Intense desire to burn things", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Impulse control disorders include kleptomania (urge to steal), pyromania (urge to set fires), dipsomania (urge to drink alcohol), and mutilomania (urge to mutilate). These behaviors are driven by compulsions and often result in distress or impairment despite their immediate rewarding nature.</li><li>➤ kleptomania</li><li>➤ pyromania</li><li>➤ dipsomania</li><li>➤ mutilomania</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image given below is a type of _______. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abrasion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laceration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stab wound", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Contusion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/07/screenshot-2024-10-05-130616.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Contusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Contusions are caused by blunt force trauma, leading to subcutaneous bleeding (bruising) without breaking the skin. The delayed appearance of bruises is common, and their progression provides clues to the timing and severity of the injury.</li><li>➤ Contusions</li><li>➤ delayed appearance</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient was clinically diagnosed to have hypothyroidism. Measurements of the following parameters were obtained: TSH; combined protein levels; and total and free T3, T4, and rT3. Which one of the following options represents her condition? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/07/screenshot-2024-10-07-175439.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In primary hypothyroidism , you typically see low free T3 and T4 levels with elevated TSH . Proper diagnosis and management are crucial, and hypothyroidism is often treated with levothyroxine to normalize hormone levels.</li><li>➤ primary hypothyroidism</li><li>➤ low free T3 and T4</li><li>➤ elevated TSH</li><li>➤ levothyroxine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in children, which of the following is true? (INICET NOV 2022) Most common cause of UTI is Streptococcus pneumoniae . Bowel, bladder dysfunction increases the risk of recurrence. Cotrimoxazole is not given. Micturating cysto-urethrogram (MCU) is done in children with recurrence of UTI.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pediatric patients, Escherichia coli is the most common pathogen causing UTIs. Risk factors for recurrent UTIs include bladder and bowel dysfunction . Evaluation of recurrent UTIs typically involves a micturating cysto-urethrogram (MCU) to assess for structural issues like vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) . Cotrimoxazole is commonly used for treatment and as prophylaxis to prevent recurrent infections.</li><li>➤ Escherichia coli</li><li>➤ bladder and bowel dysfunction</li><li>➤ micturating cysto-urethrogram (MCU)</li><li>➤ vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)</li><li>➤ Cotrimoxazole</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following molecules helps the leukocytes roll over the endothelial cells in the vessels? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cadherins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1 (PECAM-1)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "E-selectin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cd11a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. E-selectin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) E-selectin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ E-selectin facilitates the rolling of leukocytes on the endothelium, which is the first step in the process of leukocyte extravasation during inflammation. This is followed by stronger adhesion through integrins and migration to the site of tissue injury.</li><li>➤ E-selectin</li><li>➤ rolling</li><li>➤ integrins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given bone marrow biopsy instrument. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Klima needle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salah’s needle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jamshidi needle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Islam needle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Klima needle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/07/screenshot-2024-10-07-183006.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/07/screenshot-2024-10-07-183523.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/07/screenshot-2024-10-07-183659.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/07/screenshot-2024-10-07-183815.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Klima needle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Klima needle is used for bone marrow biopsy and is characterized by its guard without a side screw. It is crucial to differentiate between biopsy needles like Klima, Salah, Jamshidi, and Islam based on their structural features and specific use in medical procedures.</li><li>➤ Klima needle</li><li>➤ bone marrow biopsy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause of moderate-severe visual impairment according to the National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey 2015-19? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Refractive error", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Untreated cataract", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetic retinopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Untreated cataract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Untreated cataract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Untreated cataracts are the most common cause of moderate-severe visual impairment in individuals over the age of 50, according to the National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey 2015-19 . Cataracts are a treatable cause of blindness and emphasize the need for timely surgical intervention to restore vision.</li><li>➤ Untreated cataracts</li><li>➤ moderate-severe visual impairment</li><li>➤ National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey 2015-19</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Neurogenic shock is associated with _______. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypertension + tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotension + tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypotension + bradycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertension + bradycardia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypotension + bradycardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypotension + bradycardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neurogenic shock is a type of distributive shock associated with hypotension and bradycardia due to the loss of sympathetic tone following spinal cord injuries , leading to vasodilation, decreased cardiac output, and unopposed vagal activity.</li><li>➤ Neurogenic shock</li><li>➤ distributive shock</li><li>➤ hypotension</li><li>➤ bradycardia</li><li>➤ spinal cord injuries</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following are correct regarding normal placenta, except _______. (INICET NOV 2022) (OBG)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Placenta weight at term is 470 g", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Round-oval with 22 cm diameter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extraplacental membranes and 2-vesseled umbilical cord present", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central thickness &gt;2.5 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Extraplacental membranes and 2-vesseled umbilical cord present", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Extraplacental membranes and 2-vesseled umbilical cord present</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The normal placenta at term weighs around 470 g , is round-oval with a diameter of 22 cm , and has a three-vessel umbilical cord . A two-vessel cord is an abnormal finding.</li><li>➤ normal placenta</li><li>➤ 470 g</li><li>➤ round-oval</li><li>➤ 22 cm</li><li>➤ three-vessel umbilical cord</li><li>➤ two-vessel cord</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: Column A: A. Malaria B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Actinomycosis Column B: 1. ZN stain 2. Fite-Faraco stain 3. Gram stain 4. Giemsa stain", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Each pathogen has a preferred staining method for its detection:</li><li>➤ Giemsa stain for malaria (Plasmodium species). Ziehl-Neelsen stain for tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis). Fite-Faraco stain for leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae). Gram stain for actinomycosis (Actinomyces species).</li><li>➤ Giemsa stain for malaria (Plasmodium species).</li><li>➤ Giemsa stain</li><li>➤ malaria</li><li>➤ Ziehl-Neelsen stain for tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis).</li><li>➤ Ziehl-Neelsen stain</li><li>➤ tuberculosis</li><li>➤ Fite-Faraco stain for leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae).</li><li>➤ Fite-Faraco stain</li><li>➤ leprosy</li><li>➤ Gram stain for actinomycosis (Actinomyces species).</li><li>➤ Gram stain</li><li>➤ actinomycosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tests cannot be used to assess nasal mucociliary clearance?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Saccharine test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Electron microscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Charcoal powder method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scintigraphy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Electron microscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Electron microscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Electron microscopy is used to study the structure of cilia but cannot measure mucociliary clearance . Other tests, such as the saccharine test , scintigraphy , and the charcoal powder method , are used to directly assess nasal mucociliary clearance in clinical practice.</li><li>➤ Electron microscopy</li><li>➤ structure</li><li>➤ mucociliary clearance</li><li>➤ saccharine test</li><li>➤ scintigraphy</li><li>➤ charcoal powder method</li><li>➤ nasal mucociliary clearance</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following findings are seen in a high-resolution CT scan of fungal pneumonia? (INICET NOV 2022) Interlobular septations Peripheral wedge-shaped consolidation Pleural effusion Cavitary lesions with surrounding ground glass opacities", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fungal pneumonia on HRCT typically shows interlobular septations, peripheral wedge-shaped consolidation, and pleural effusion with a nodule surrounded by ground-glass attenuation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET NOV 2022) Tooth A. Canine B. Lateral incisor C. First molar D. Third molar Age of eruption 1. 6-7 years 2. 8-9 years 3. 11-12 years 4. 17-25 yearss", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct timeline of tooth eruption for different types of permanent teeth is essential for understanding developmental milestones, particularly in pediatrics and forensic medicine. Key timings include:</li><li>➤ First molar: 6-7 years Lateral incisor: 7-9 years Canine: 11-12 years Third molar: 17-25 years</li><li>➤ First molar: 6-7 years</li><li>➤ Lateral incisor: 7-9 years</li><li>➤ Canine: 11-12 years</li><li>➤ Third molar: 17-25 years</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An old lady sustained a fall and developed a headache and neurological symptoms a few days later. What is your diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multi-infarct dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontal lobe meningioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Korsakoff disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subdural hematoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Subdural hematoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Subdural hematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subdural hematoma is caused by the rupture of bridging veins between the dura and arachnoid mater, often due to minor trauma in the elderly or patients on anticoagulants. Diagnosis is confirmed through a non-contrast CT scan , and surgical intervention is required in severe cases with significant mass effect.</li><li>➤ Subdural hematoma is caused by the rupture of bridging veins between the dura and arachnoid mater, often due to minor trauma in the elderly or patients on anticoagulants. Diagnosis is confirmed through a non-contrast CT scan , and surgical intervention is required in severe cases with significant mass effect.</li><li>➤ Subdural hematoma</li><li>➤ non-contrast CT scan</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Handedness is seen at the age of ______. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Handedness is typically seen and established by the age of 3 years. This is a crucial developmental milestone and should be recognized as part of normal child development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the conduction abnormality from the ECG given below. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First degree heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Third degree heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Second degree heart block", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Second degree heart block", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/09/screenshot-2024-10-09-110723.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Second-degree heart block type 1 (Wenckebach) is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following steps of dilation and curettage in sequence. (INICET NOV 2022) Serial dilation Curettage Uterine sound Assessment of uterine size and direction", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4-3-2-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4-2-3-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4-3-1-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4-1-2-3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4-3-1-2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 4-3-1-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for performing a dilation and curettage is 4-3-1-2 , starting with assessing the uterine size and direction, followed by uterine sounding, dilation, and finally curettage. This order is crucial to ensure safe and effective treatment.</li><li>➤ 4-3-1-2</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 11-year-old boy was brought to the outpatient clinic with intentional tremors, and poor scholastic performance. His sister has similar complaints. On examination, hepatomegaly is seen. The eye finding is shown in the image. What is the probable diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wilson’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Huntington’s chorea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glutaric aciduria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wilson’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/09/screenshot-2024-10-09-111446.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wilson's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Wilson’s disease is an autosomal-recessive disorder caused by mutations in the ATP7B gene , leading to abnormal copper accumulation in organs, most notably the liver and brain. Symptoms include neurological decline and hepatic dysfunction, along with characteristic Kayser-Fleischer rings in the eyes.</li><li>➤ Wilson’s disease</li><li>➤ ATP7B gene</li><li>➤ Kayser-Fleischer rings</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a part of damage control surgery? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Control of hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Resuscitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decontamination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vascular anastomosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vascular anastomosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vascular anastomosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Vascular anastomosis is not a part of damage control surgery but is performed in later stages as part of definitive surgery . Damage control surgery is aimed at stabilizing patients with life-threatening conditions through steps like hemorrhage control, resuscitation, and contamination limitation.</li><li>➤ Vascular anastomosis</li><li>➤ damage control surgery</li><li>➤ definitive surgery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly lady presents with abdominal pain and distension. She has a history of scoliosis. Given below is the erect X-ray abdomen radiograph of the lady. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Large bowel obstruction due to sigmoid volvulus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Large bowel obstruction due to fecolith", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cecal volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small bowel obstruction due to bowel perforation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Large bowel obstruction due to sigmoid volvulus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/09/screenshot-2024-10-09-112259.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The \"coffee bean sign\" seen on X-ray is a characteristic feature of sigmoid volvulus , a condition where the sigmoid colon twists on itself, causing large bowel obstruction.</li><li>➤ sigmoid volvulus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with cyanosis. His chest radiograph is shown below. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ebstein's anomaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transposition of great arteries (TGA)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVC)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/09/screenshot-2024-10-09-112556.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a cyanotic congenital heart disease that shows a boot-shaped heart (coeur en sabot) on chest radiograph due to right ventricular hypertrophy. The condition is characterized by pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.</li><li>➤ boot-shaped heart</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vesicular rash is seen in __________. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hand, foot, and mouth disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zika fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Roseola infantum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hand, foot, and mouth disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hand, foot, and mouth disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key point to remember from this question is that vesicular rashes, especially involving the palms, soles, and oral mucosa, are characteristic of hand, foot, and mouth disease caused by Coxsackie A virus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following plant poisons with their active principles. (INICET NOV 2022) Column:1 1. Datura 2. Opium 3. Abrus precatorius 4. Nux vomica Column:2 a. Atropine b. Abrin c. Thebaine d. Strychnine", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-c ,3-d, 4-a.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All the following are criteria for SIRS, except ______. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systolic BP &lt;90 mmHg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temperature &gt;38 degrees Celsius or &lt;36 degrees Celsius", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory rate &gt;20 bpm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heart rate &gt;90/min", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Systolic BP <90 mmHg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Systolic BP &lt;90 mmHg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ SIRS criteria include hyperthermia/hypothermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, and abnormal white blood cell count. Systolic BP is not included as a direct diagnostic criterion for SIRS.</li><li>➤ not</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following image shows a health belief model. What does box C stand for? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perceived control", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Behavioral modification", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Health motivation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Self-efficacy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Health motivation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/09/screenshot-2024-10-09-131705.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The health belief model is a framework for understanding how a person's beliefs about health and illness can influence their behavior. The key takeaway is that health motivation plays a central role in whether someone decides to take action to protect their health.</li><li>➤ health motivation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the correct sequence for the correction of hypospadias? (INICET NOV 2022) Urethroplasty Meatoplasty Orthoplasty Glanuloplasty", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 → 3 →2 → 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 → 1 → 2 → 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 → 1 → 4 → 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 → 3 → 4 → 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3 → 1 → 4 → 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.C) 3→1→4→2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for hypospadias repair is orthoplasty first (to correct chordee), followed by urethroplasty , glanuloplasty , and finally meatoplasty to reconstruct the urethral opening.</li><li>➤ orthoplasty</li><li>➤ urethroplasty</li><li>➤ glanuloplasty</li><li>➤ meatoplasty</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV patient presented with a headache and altered sensorium. Consider the following statements and identify the essential criteria for the diagnosis of neurocysticercosis. (INICET NOV 2022) Brain biopsy showing the parasite. Muscle biopsy showing foci of calcification. MRI sequence as seen in A. MRI sequence as seen in B. Image A Image B", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 4 only", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/10/screenshot-2024-10-10-183057.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/10/screenshot-2024-10-10-183111.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.B) 1 and 4 only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Neurocysticercosis diagnosis requires evidence from neuroimaging (e.g., cystic lesions with scolex) and/or histologic confirmation through biopsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old postmenopausal female patient comes with persistent backache not responding to conservative treatment. She has a history of lifting heavy weights 4 months back and progressively increasing pain that worsens on walking. The pain starts radiating down her legs after walking for a distance of around 100 m. However, she feels no pain on walking uphill. What is the most probable diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteoporotic compression fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lumbar stenosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thromboangiitis obliterans", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atherosclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lumbar stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lumbar stenosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Lumbar stenosis presents with back pain that worsens with standing and walking (neurogenic claudication) and is relieved by sitting, squatting, or walking uphill due to the flexion of the spine, which increases the spinal canal capacity and reduces nerve compression.</li><li>➤ Lumbar stenosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following would you do? (INICET NOV 2022) Chest X-ray Oxygen administration Salbutamol nebulization three times in 60 minutes Administration of oral corticosteroids", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2, 3 ,4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ In acute exacerbation of asthma , management includes oxygen therapy , salbutamol nebulization , and oral corticosteroids . A chest X-ray is only indicated if complications or other diagnoses are suspected.</li><li>➤ acute exacerbation of asthma</li><li>➤ oxygen therapy</li><li>➤ salbutamol nebulization</li><li>➤ oral corticosteroids</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve is blocked when local anesthesia is given below the inguinal ligament during femoral vein catheterization?(INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Genitofemoral nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ilioinguinal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Genitofemoral nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The genitofemoral nerve is blocked when local anesthesia is administered below the inguinal ligament during femoral vein catheterization. This nerve provides sensory innervation to the anteromedial thigh, scrotum in males, and mons pubis in females, and is responsible for the cremasteric reflex . Understanding the anatomy of the inguinal region and its relation to the femoral triangle is crucial in procedures involving catheterization or surgery in this area.</li><li>➤ genitofemoral nerve</li><li>➤ cremasteric reflex</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A point-of-care diagnostic test with a sensitivity of 98% shows a negative test result in a patient. What does this imply? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The patient would need another point-of-care diagnostic test for the same clinical condition.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevalence of the disease is 2%.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Patient is less likely to have the disease.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patient has been wrongly ruled out due to false negativity.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Patient is less likely to have the disease.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The higher the sensitivity of a diagnostic test, the fewer false negatives occur, meaning a negative result implies the patient is less likely to have the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about optic neuritis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Relative afferent pupillary defect is seen.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "There is no pain on ocular movement.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple myeloma is a common cause.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Relative afferent pupillary defect is seen.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), also called Marcus Gunn pupil, is a key diagnostic finding in optic neuritis, and multiple sclerosis is the common cause of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET NOV 2024) Marjolin ulcer over the dorsum of the foot measuring 3 x 2 cm 1.5 cm cervical lymph node in the neck Soft tissue sarcoma over mid-thigh Solitary thyroid nodule Excision biopsy Core needle biopsy USG guided FNAC Wedge biopsy", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marjolin's ulcer requires a wedge biopsy for diagnosis, soft tissue sarcomas are best diagnosed using core needle biopsy, and USG-guided FNAC is used for thyroid nodules.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient was diagnosed with gastric cancer. On immunohistopathology, the biopsy sample was found to be positive for CD117 and negative for LCA, cytokeratin, and S100. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022) LCA - Leukocyte common antigen GIST - Gastrointestinal stromal tumors SCC - Squamous cell carcinoma", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GIST (Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hodgkin's lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SCC (Squamous Cell Carcinoma)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GIST (Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GIST</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) are identified by the expression of CD117 (c-KIT) on immunohistochemistry, with the most common site being the stomach. Markers such as S100 , cytokeratin , and LCA are negative in GIST but positive in other tumor types (melanoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and lymphoma, respectively).</li><li>➤ CD117 (c-KIT)</li><li>➤ S100</li><li>➤ cytokeratin</li><li>➤ LCA</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is a known case of HIV is started on combined active antiretroviral therapy (cART). After 5 months of treatment, he develops hyperpigmentation in the palms and soles. What is the most likely drug causing this? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nelfinavir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Emtricitabine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abacavir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zidovudine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Emtricitabine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Emtricitabine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Emtricitabine is an NRTI that can cause hyperpigmentation of the palms and soles , especially in individuals on long-term antiretroviral therapy. It is essential to monitor patients for this side effect, although it is typically benign.</li><li>➤ Emtricitabine</li><li>➤ hyperpigmentation of the palms and soles</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cells are present in the molecular layer of the cerebellum? (INICET NOV 2022) Stellate cells Basket cells Purkinje cells Granular cells", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The molecular layer of the cerebellum contains stellate cells and basket cells that form inhibitory synapses on Purkinje cells. Purkinje cells are located in their own middle layer, and granular cells reside in the innermost granular layer.</li><li>➤ molecular layer</li><li>➤ stellate cells</li><li>➤ basket cells</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Serologic findings of a patient with hepatitis are given below: (INICET NOV 2022) HBsAg positive Anti-HBc IgM positive Anti-HDV IgM positive Anti-HBc IgG negative Titer of HBV DNA: 7.4 x 10⁸ Titer of HDV DNA: 4.1 x 10⁴ Which of the following is most useful in diagnosing HDV co-infection over superinfection?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High HDV viral load", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High HBV viral load", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Presence of IgM anti-HDV antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Absence of anti-HBc IgG antibodies", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Absence of anti-HBc IgG antibodies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/11/screenshot-2024-10-11-192226.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Absence of anti-HBc IgG antibodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ In cases of hepatitis B and D, the absence of anti-HBc IgG antibodies indicates an acute co-infection of HBV and HDV. This finding helps distinguish co-infection from superinfection , which typically occurs in patients with chronic HBV infection and is marked by the presence of anti-HBc IgG antibodies. Co-infection generally has a better prognosis compared to superinfection, which is more likely to lead to chronic disease and cirrhosis.</li><li>➤ absence of anti-HBc IgG antibodies</li><li>➤ acute co-infection</li><li>➤ superinfection</li><li>➤ chronic HBV infection</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common ocular manifestation of COVID-19 is _______. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follicular conjunctivitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Papillary conjunctivitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Follicular conjunctivitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Follicular conjunctivitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The most common ocular manifestation of COVID-19 is follicular conjunctivitis . Patients with conjunctivitis as the sole symptom of COVID-19 should be tested with nasopharyngeal RT-PCR, as ocular involvement can be an early or even sole indicator of SARS-CoV-2 infection.</li><li>➤ most common ocular manifestation</li><li>➤ follicular conjunctivitis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Disruption of the axon with an intact endoneurium is seen in which of the following? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurapraxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Axonapraxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Axonotmesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurotmesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Axonotmesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Axonotmesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Axonotmesis involves the disruption of the axon while the endoneurium and perineurium remain intact. This allows for axonal regeneration, unlike in more severe injuries like neurotmesis, where complete nerve continuity is lost.</li><li>➤ Axonotmesis</li><li>➤ axon</li><li>➤ endoneurium</li><li>➤ perineurium</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought following an RTA. He was found to have an incomplete lesion of the spinal cord. What would be seen if the central part of the cord was involved? (INICET NOV 2022) LMN lesion of upper limbs and trunk and UMN of lower limbs. UMN lesion of upper limbs and trunk and LMN of lower limbs. Bladder and bowel involvement. Posterior tract involvement.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Central cord syndrome is characterized by upper limb motor weakness (LMN) , lower limb UMN signs , and bladder and bowel dysfunction . It often occurs following hyperextension injuries of the cervical spine and is marked by sensory dissociation (loss of pain and temperature, with sparing of proprioception and fine touch).</li><li>➤ Central cord syndrome</li><li>➤ upper limb motor weakness (LMN)</li><li>➤ lower limb UMN signs</li><li>➤ bladder and bowel dysfunction</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bleeding as shown in the image is due to which of the following vessels? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bridging veins", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle meningeal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lenticulostriate artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vertebral artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bridging veins", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/11/screenshot-2024-10-11-193255.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bridging veins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ A subdural hemorrhage is caused by the tearing of bridging veins between the dura and arachnoid. It is most commonly associated with head trauma, anticoagulant use, and alcohol abuse. The hallmark imaging finding is blood accumulation under the dura, and non-contrast CT is the investigation of choice.</li><li>➤ subdural hemorrhage</li><li>➤ bridging veins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with heart disease has breathlessness on going to the bathroom. What grade does he belong to? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NYHA 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NYHA 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MMRC 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MMRC 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NYHA 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) NYHA 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The NYHA classification is commonly used to evaluate patients with heart failure based on their level of physical activity and symptom severity. Class III patients experience significant limitations in activity, where even mild exertion (such as going to the bathroom) causes symptoms like breathlessness.</li><li>➤ NYHA classification</li><li>➤ heart failure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the correct sequence of management in a patient who presents to the casualty with an RTA (Road Traffic Accident)? (INICET NOV 2022) Cervical spine stabilization Intubation IV cannulation CECT (Contrast-Enhanced CT)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 1, 4, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The correct sequence in the primary survey of trauma management includes cervical spine stabilization , airway protection (intubation) , intravenous access , and imaging (CECT) to assess injuries. Following the ATLS protocol ensures patient stabilization and appropriate treatment priorities.</li><li>➤ correct sequence</li><li>➤ cervical spine stabilization</li><li>➤ airway protection (intubation)</li><li>➤ intravenous access</li><li>➤ imaging (CECT)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Delayed hypersensitivity is due to ______. (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interferon gamma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interleukin-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interleukin-12", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interleukin-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Interferon gamma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Interferon gamma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) plays a central role in delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity , as it activates macrophages and amplifies the immune response. This process is critical in conditions such as tuberculin reactions and contact dermatitis .</li><li>➤ Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)</li><li>➤ delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity</li><li>➤ tuberculin reactions</li><li>➤ contact dermatitis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the causes of alopecia. Which among the following cause(s) non-scarring alopecia? (INICET NOV 2022) Alopecia areata Telogen effluvium Androgenic alopecia Frontal fibrosing alopecia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Non-scarring alopecia includes androgenic alopecia , alopecia areata , and telogen effluvium . These conditions result in hair loss that does not involve permanent destruction of the hair follicles, distinguishing them from scarring types of alopecia like frontal fibrosing alopecia .</li><li>➤ androgenic alopecia</li><li>➤ alopecia areata</li><li>➤ telogen effluvium</li><li>➤ frontal fibrosing alopecia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following therapeutic methods used in the management of psoriasis with their possible side effects. (INICET NOV 2022) Column A 1. PUVA 2. Cyclosporine 3. Methotrexate 4. Acitretin Column B a. Abortifacient b. Effective but is highly nephrotoxic c. Long-term use increases the risk of skin cancer d. Mucositis, teratogenic", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ In psoriasis treatment, be aware of the side effects of key therapies:</li><li>➤ PUVA increases the risk of skin cancer with long-term use. Cyclosporine is highly nephrotoxic . Methotrexate has abortifacient properties. Acitretin causes mucositis and is highly teratogenic .</li><li>➤ PUVA increases the risk of skin cancer with long-term use.</li><li>➤ PUVA</li><li>➤ skin cancer</li><li>➤ Cyclosporine is highly nephrotoxic .</li><li>➤ Cyclosporine</li><li>➤ nephrotoxic</li><li>➤ Methotrexate has abortifacient properties.</li><li>➤ Methotrexate</li><li>➤ abortifacient</li><li>➤ Acitretin causes mucositis and is highly teratogenic .</li><li>➤ Acitretin</li><li>➤ mucositis</li><li>➤ teratogenic</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What test is not used for testing olfaction? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Smell diskettes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arnold stick test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "UPSIT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CC-SIT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arnold stick test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arnold stick test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The Arnold stick test is not used to test olfaction. Common tests for evaluating the olfactory system include smell diskettes , UPSIT , and CC-SIT .</li><li>➤ Arnold stick test</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ smell diskettes</li><li>➤ UPSIT</li><li>➤ CC-SIT</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet Nov 2022 Session 2 2022 11 13 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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Which of the following is the most likely drug? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tocainide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Quinidine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lignocaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Quinidine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-10.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-180023.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-180053.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-180124.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Quinidine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Class IA anti-arrhythmic agents like Quinidine prolong the action potential duration by blocking sodium and potassium channels, making them effective in treating both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias. This effect is clearly reflected in the graph provided, distinguishing it from other classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following steps of ventricular action potential in the correct order: ( INICET Nov 2022) Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels Repolarizing K+ currents Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels Transient outward flow of potassium", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B, A, C, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "D, C, B, A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C, D, A, B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, B, C, D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C, D, A, B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/05/physiology-5_1-5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for ventricular action potential is as follows:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence for ventricular action potential is as follows:</li><li>➤ C. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels</li><li>➤ D. Transient outward flow of potassium</li><li>➤ A. Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels</li><li>➤ B. Repolarizing K+ currents</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Brunt sugar smell of urine is due to the defect of? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-115715.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Burnt sugar-like odour is a characteristic feature of Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) which occurs due to the inherited deficiency of branched chain Keto-acid dehydrogenase/decarboxylase. It results in a defect in oxidative phosphorylation and catabolism of branched-chain amino acids (BCAA) Valine/Isoleucine/leucine. As a result, these amino acids are excreted in urine. There is also mental retardation.</li><li>• Burnt sugar-like odour is a characteristic feature of Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) which occurs due to the inherited deficiency of branched chain Keto-acid dehydrogenase/decarboxylase.</li><li>• It results in a defect in oxidative phosphorylation and catabolism of branched-chain amino acids (BCAA) Valine/Isoleucine/leucine. As a result, these amino acids are excreted in urine. There is also mental retardation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase: Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase leads to phenylketonuria (PKU), which is characterized by a mousy or musty odor due to the accumulation of phenylalanine and its metabolites.</li><li>• Option A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase:</li><li>• Option B. Isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase: Deficiency of isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase causes isovaleric acidemia, which is associated with a rancid, cheesy, or sweaty feet odor due to the accumulation of isovaleric acid.</li><li>• Option B. Isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase:</li><li>• Option C. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase: Deficiency of fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase leads to tyrosinemia type I, which is characterized by a boiled cabbage or rotten mushrooms odor due to the accumulation of tyrosine and its metabolites.</li><li>• Option C. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following option is a common size of a Foley catheter used in female patients and patients who have had urethral surgery or who have strictures? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 Fr", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "14 Fr", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "16 Fr", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "22 Fr", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 14 Fr", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/picture5_Z8axJaw.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 14 Fr</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FOLEY’S CATHETER</li><li>➤ FOLEY’S CATHETER</li><li>➤ The size in French (12F, 14F, 16F etc.) represents the outer diameter. 1 F = 1/3 rd mm.</li><li>➤ The size in French (12F, 14F, 16F etc.) represents the outer diameter. 1 F = 1/3 rd mm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "First deformity corrected in CTEV is:(INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cavus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Forefoot adduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Varus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Equinus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cavus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102714.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102726.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102757.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102812.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102825.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Cavus</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is brought to the casualty with a history of choking. On examination, there is decreased air entry in the left lung. What would be the correct management? (INICET NOV 2022) Bronchoscopy Computed tomography scan ICD insertion Chest x-ray", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child with suspected foreign body aspiration, a chest X-ray and bronchoscopy are the key steps for diagnosis and management. Bronchoscopy allows for both visualization and removal of the foreign body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-month-old boy presents with progressive pallor and abdominal distension. The peripheral smear done is as shown below, and the Mentzer index was found to be less than 13. What are the investigations to be done in this patient? (INICET NOV 2022) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) PT and APTT Bone marrow Peripheral blood smear", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 and 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/111_BYg1SyJ.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child suspected of having thalassemia, High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) and a peripheral blood smear are key investigations for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is seen in MEN 2B syndrome? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Café au lait spot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medullary thyroid carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parathyroid adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic nerve glioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Medullary thyroid carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Medullary thyroid carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most significant feature of MEN 2B syndrome is the presence of medullary thyroid carcinoma, alongside mucosal neuromas and a marfanoid body habitus, often linked to mutations in the RET proto-oncogene</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What finding on immunohistochemical staining is consistent with basal-like breast cancer in a 59-year-old female presenting with a breast lump?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ER +, PR +, HER2 –", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ER +, PR -, HER2 –", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ER -, PR -, HER2 –", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ER -, PR -, HER2 +", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ER -, PR -, HER2 –", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ER-, PR-, HER2-</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basal-like or triple-negative breast cancer is characterized by the absence of estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor type 2 (HER2) on immunohistochemical staining. Positive staining is indicated by the presence of brown-coloured tissue, with ER and PR staining the nucleus brown, while HER2 staining the cell membrane brown.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following steps are included in the management of acute necrotizing pancreatitis in a patient with large intra-abdominal fluid accumulation and pancreatic necrosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV antibiotics, IV fluids, culture, assisted drainage, and MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV fluids, MRI, assisted drainage, and laparotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV antibiotics, IV fluids, culture, and assisted drainage", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV antibiotics, IV fluids, culture, assisted drainage, MRI, and laparotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IV antibiotics, IV fluids, culture, and assisted drainage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) IV antibiotics, IV fluids, culture, and assisted drainage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct steps in the management of acute necrotizing pancreatitis include IV antibiotics, IV fluids, culture, and assisted drainage. Large intra-abdominal fluid accumulation and pancreatic necrosis are complications of acute pancreatitis that require immediate management.</li><li>➤ Aggressive fluid resuscitation, pain control, and early nutrition are initiated, followed by contrast-enhanced computed tomography to diagnose necrosis. If infected necrosis is suspected, fine-needle aspiration is done, and the aspirate is subjected to Gram staining and culture sensitivity. IV antibiotics are started with carbapenem as the first-choice drug.</li><li>➤ The step-up approach, which includes percutaneous drainage followed by minimally invasive video-assisted retroperitoneal debridement, is adopted for definitive management. Hence, the correct option is C) IV antibiotics, IV fluids, culture, and assisted drainage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Whole- body CT scan protocol for a trauma patient includes all, except? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT Head", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT Cervical spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT Limbs", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT Abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CT Limbs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CT limbs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• CT Limbs is not included in the whole-body CT of a trauma patient.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. CT Head: Non-contrast CT (NCCT) of the head to check for any intracranial hemorrhages or fractures.</li><li>• Option A. CT Head:</li><li>• Option B. CT Cervical Spine: NCCT of the cervical spine to assess for any fractures or dislocations that may compromise the spinal cord.</li><li>• Option B. CT Cervical Spine:</li><li>• Option D. CT Abdomen: Contrast-enhanced CT of the torso, including the abdomen and pelvis, to evaluate for internal injuries such as organ lacerations, bleeding, or other trauma-related abnormalities.</li><li>• Option D. CT Abdomen:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Whole-body CT or trauma CT includes:</li><li>➤ NCCT head NCCT C-spine Contrast-enhanced CT of torso</li><li>➤ NCCT head</li><li>➤ NCCT C-spine</li><li>➤ Contrast-enhanced CT of torso</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old banker presented with vague abdominal pain. On USG, he was found to have a renal mass lesion. CECT was done, as shown below. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RCC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal oncocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renal angiomyolipoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Renal angiomyolipoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-184.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-144.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-164700.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Renal angiomyolipoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The CT image presented here shows well-circumscribed lesions with low attenuation (black in color) that indicate fatty tissue. The presence of macroscopic fat is strongly suggestive angiomyolipoma.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. RCC (Renal Cell Carcinoma): Typically appears as a solid renal mass that may enhance heterogeneously after contrast administration and generally does not contain macroscopic fat.</li><li>• Option A. RCC (Renal Cell Carcinoma):</li><li>• Option B. Renal oncocytoma: A benign renal tumor that typically appears as a well-circumscribed, homogeneously enhancing mass on imaging, without the characteristic fat component seen in angiomyolipomas.</li><li>• Option B. Renal oncocytoma:</li><li>• Option D. Renal cyst: Would appear as a fluid-filled, round structure with no enhancement; the lesion in the image is solid with fatty components, inconsistent with a simple cyst.</li><li>• Option D. Renal cyst:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Egg shell calcification is seen in all the following, except? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Post-radiation therapy lymph nodes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metastatic lymph nodes", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metastatic lymph nodes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Metastatic lymph node</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A ring of calcification at the periphery of a lymph node is known as eggshell calcification.</li><li>• While calcifications can occur in metastatic nodes, they usually do not form the classic eggshell pattern. Instead, calcifications in metastatic nodes are often more irregular or diffusely distributed.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Silicosis: This condition, often seen in individuals exposed to silica dust, can lead to eggshell calcification of the lymph nodes due to chronic inflammation and fibrosis.</li><li>• Option A. Silicosis:</li><li>• Option B. Sarcoidosis: Another granulomatous disease that can lead to eggshell calcification in lymph nodes as part of its systemic manifestation affecting the lungs and lymphatic system.</li><li>• Option B. Sarcoidosis:</li><li>• Option C. Post-radiation therapy lymph nodes: Radiation can induce changes in lymph node structure including calcifications, commonly in a peripheral pattern, as a late sequela of treatment.</li><li>• Option C. Post-radiation therapy lymph nodes:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eggshell calcification is a specific radiologic sign associated with certain granulomatous diseases and post-treatment changes but is not commonly seen in metastatic lymph nodes. It may be seen in:</li><li>➤ Silicosis Sarcoidosis post-radiation therapy in lymph nodes post-ATT in lymph nodes in TB</li><li>➤ Silicosis</li><li>➤ Sarcoidosis</li><li>➤ post-radiation therapy in lymph nodes</li><li>➤ post-ATT in lymph nodes in TB</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with multiple stab injuries to the chest. On examination, there is reduced chest movement on the right side and tracheal deviation to the left side. Additionally, the neck veins are distended. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Emergency room thoracotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ICD placement", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Needle thoracocentesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Finger thoracotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Needle thoracocentesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Needle thoracocentesis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old boy presented with recurrent URTI, poor growth, high-arched palate, and impaired hearing. Tympanogram is given as follows. What would be the most appropriate management?( INICET Nov 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grommet insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myringotomy with grommet insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myringotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/untitled-23.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-114129.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/whatsapp-image-2023-09-13-at-42819-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-114609.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion is the most appropriate management for a child presenting with serous otitis media due to adenoid hypertrophy, addressing both the immediate symptoms and underlying cause.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following method of disinfection and sterilization can also kill spores? ( INICET NOV 2022) Glutaraldehyde Ethylene oxide Pasteurization Ortho-phthalaldehyde", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-111846.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pick the mechanism of death in cold water drowning? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asphyxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laryngeal spasm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vagal inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac arrest", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vagal inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cold water drowning, the primary cause of death is vagal inhibition, leading to cardiac arrest due to the sudden stimulation of the vagus nerve from cold water immersion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Eonism can be defined as? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wearing clothes of opposite sex", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Public display of genitalia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seeing a male undressing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Seeing a female undressing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wearing clothes of opposite sex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Eonism or transvestism is the act of wearing clothes of the opposite sex for pleasure, named after Charles Eon de Beaumont.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the drugs marked as A, B, and C:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A - Aspirin, B -Vorapaxar, C - Prasugrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " A - Aspirin, B - Eptifibatide, C - Vorapaxar", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A - Aspirin, B - Eptifibatide, C - Prasugrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A - Aspirin, B - Prasugrel, C - Eptifibatide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A - Aspirin, B - Eptifibatide, C - Vorapaxar", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/14.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.A - Aspirin, B - Eptifibatide, C - Vorapaxar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct identification of antiplatelet drugs and their mechanisms of action is crucial for understanding their roles in preventing platelet aggregation and managing cardiovascular conditions. Aspirin inhibits COX-1, Eptifibatide blocks Gp IIb/IIIa receptors, and Vorapaxar inhibits the PAR-1 receptor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false regarding disulfiram? 1. Stops alcohol craving 2. Accumulates acetaldehyde 3. Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase 4. Starting dose is 250 mg", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Disulfiram does not reduce alcohol cravings; it works by causing adverse reactions when alcohol is consumed, thereby discouraging drinking. It inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, not alcohol dehydrogenase, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde and subsequent unpleasant symptoms. The starting dose for disulfiram therapy is typically 250 mg per day.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following conditions are associated with Metastatic calcification except: (INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Accumulation of calcium phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parathyroid activation secretion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin D deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-131920.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin D deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metastatic calcification is associated with conditions that lead to hypercalcemia, not with conditions that result in normal or low calcium levels, such as Vitamin D deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the value of normal Glomerular oncotic pressure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "25 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "32 mmHg", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "54 mmHg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 32 mmHg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 32 mmHg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The normal glomerular oncotic pressure is approximately 32 mmHg, which helps maintain fluid balance by drawing water back into the capillaries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Delayed hypersensitivity is due to? ( INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interferon gamma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interleukin-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interleukin-12", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interleukin-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Interferon gamma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-105707.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-87.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Interferon gamma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Interferon gamma is the key cytokine responsible for mediating delayed hypersensitivity reactions by activating macrophages and enhancing their pathogen-killing capabilities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male presented in OPD with a swelling in his neck. Given below is the histopathological image. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medullary carcinoma of thyroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Papillary carcinoma of thyroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follicular carcinoma of thyroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-132838.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following cancers with their corresponding criteria for the minimum number of lymph nodes required for pathological staging: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-162903.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following best describes the reason for severe intractable pain in the leg due to sciatica in a patient with rectal carcinoma?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior infiltration in females", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior infiltration in males", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral infiltration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior infiltration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior infiltration in females", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Anterior infiltration in females</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of stress? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "External pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mental tension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is the body's response to anything that requires attention or action causing physical, emotional, or psychological strain", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Internal strain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is the body's response to anything that requires attention or action causing physical, emotional, or psychological strain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is the body's response to anything that requires attention or action causing physical, emotional, or psychological strain.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stress can be conceptualized as the body's adaptive response to demands or threats. It's not just a psychological phenomenon; it has physiological correlates as well. Stressors can be external (e.g., environmental pressures) or internal (e.g., illness, or undergoing a medical procedure), and they can be short-lived (acute) or long-term (chronic).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 2117</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Non-immune hydrops is seen in all, except? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human immunodeficiency virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes simplex virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parvovirus B19", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Human immunodeficiency virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Human immunodeficiency virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Non-immune hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of fluid in at least two fetal compartments, such as ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, or skin edema, not caused by maternal alloimmunization. Pathogenesis includes decreased colloid oncotic pressure, increased hydrostatic or central venous pressure, and enhanced vascular permeability. These factors can lead to the development of fetal effusions and anasarca (generalized edema). Infectious causes of non-immune hydrops include parvovirus B19, syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, rubella, enterovirus, varicella, herpes simplex, coxsackievirus, listeriosis, leptospirosis, Chagas disease, and Lyme disease.</li><li>• Non-immune hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of fluid in at least two fetal compartments, such as ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, or skin edema, not caused by maternal alloimmunization.</li><li>• Pathogenesis includes decreased colloid oncotic pressure, increased hydrostatic or central venous pressure, and enhanced vascular permeability. These factors can lead to the development of fetal effusions and anasarca (generalized edema).</li><li>• Infectious causes of non-immune hydrops include parvovirus B19, syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, rubella, enterovirus, varicella, herpes simplex, coxsackievirus, listeriosis, leptospirosis, Chagas disease, and Lyme disease.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Herpes simplex virus : This virus can cause non-immune hydrops due to fetal infection leading to systemic inflammation and multiorgan failure.</li><li>• Option B. Herpes simplex virus</li><li>• Option C. Syphilis : A congenital infection with syphilis can cause severe fetal anemia and hydrops fetalis.</li><li>• Option C. Syphilis</li><li>• Option D. Parvovirus B19 : This virus is a well-known cause of non-immune hydrops due to its predilection for infecting red blood cell precursors, leading to severe fetal anemia and hydrops.</li><li>• Option D. Parvovirus B19</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is not a cause of non-immune hydrops fetalis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition page no 926</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition page no 926</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with severe abdominal pain. Identify the false statement given about the examination of the abdomen: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemoperitoneum leads to reddish discoloration of the flanks of the abdomen.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cullen’s sign refers to discoloration around the umbilicus.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Palpation begins at the site of pain.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guarding and rigidity indicate peritoneal irritation.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Palpation begins at the site of pain.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Palpation begins at the site of pain.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When examining a patient with abdominal pain, always begin palpation away from the site of pain to ensure a more accurate and less distressing assessment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Image of Rickettsial morula in a monocyte is shown below. Identify the organism? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rickettsia rickettsii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rickettsia conorii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ehrlichia chaffeensis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anaplasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-102120.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ehrlichia chaffeensis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the pattern of abrasion shown in the image below? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ligature mark", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Graze abrasion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brush burns", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Imprint abrasion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ligature mark", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-42.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-43.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug should not be prescribed in a patient with G6PD deficiency due to risk of development of hemolysis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primaquine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Penicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Primaquine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Primaquine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drugs contraindicated in G6PD deficiency are –</li><li>➤ Drugs contraindicated in G6PD deficiency are –</li><li>➤ Primaquine (Tafenoquine) Dapsone Sulfonamides (including cotrimoxazole) Nitrofurantoin</li><li>➤ Primaquine (Tafenoquine)</li><li>➤ Dapsone</li><li>➤ Sulfonamides (including cotrimoxazole)</li><li>➤ Nitrofurantoin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby is diagnosed with B cell leukemia. All of the following are good prognostic factors except: (INICET NOV 2022) Hyperdiploidy Age &lt; 1 year t(9;22) t(4;11)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-134221.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following:(INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-130045.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture4_7qyUR70.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture5_t8ZnLw9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Colour vision - Ishihara chart Intraocular pressure - Applanation tonometer Peripheral vision - Perimetry Central vision - Tangent screen test</li><li>➤ Colour vision - Ishihara chart</li><li>➤ Ishihara chart</li><li>➤ Intraocular pressure - Applanation tonometer</li><li>➤ Applanation tonometer</li><li>➤ Peripheral vision - Perimetry</li><li>➤ Perimetry</li><li>➤ Central vision - Tangent screen test</li><li>➤ Tangent screen test</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia:( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,2,4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1,2,3,4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1,2,4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/22/screenshot-2024-10-22-173217.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antipsychotic drugs manage schizophrenia by targeting various neurotransmitter systems. D2 antagonism helps reduce positive symptoms, while 5HT2A antagonism improves negative symptoms. Muscarinic receptor antagonism can help mitigate extrapyramidal side effects. Misconceptions about receptor effects, such as 5HT1A agonism causing weight loss, need to be corrected.</li><li>➤ Antipsychotic drugs</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man presents with a mass in the right kidney on a CECT scan, as shown below. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal angiomyolipoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal oncocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renal cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Renal cell carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-187.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-144_IwptMAR.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/23/screenshot-2024-05-23-165250.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Renal cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The case of an elderly man with a heterogeneous large renal mass in the CECT image suggests renal cell carcinoma (RCC). RCC often appears as a solid renal mass with areas of necrosis or hemorrhage that cause the heterogeneity in density seen on CT images. This type of cancer is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults and can present with various imaging appearances, but a large, irregular, and heterogeneous mass is highly suggestive.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Renal angiomyolipoma: Typically appears as a well-circumscribed mass with a significant fat component, which should show negative Hounsfield units (HU) on CT, which is not evident in the presented image.</li><li>• Option A. Renal angiomyolipoma:</li><li>• Option B. Renal oncocytoma: Generally presents as a well-circumscribed, homogenous mass with a central scar. It does not typically appear as heterogeneous as RCC.</li><li>• Option B. Renal oncocytoma:</li><li>• Option D. Renal cyst: Would appear as a fluid-filled structure with very well-defined borders and no solid components, which does not match the characteristics of the mass show</li><li>• Option D. Renal cyst:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Chemoprophylaxis for leprosy should be given to which of the following persons? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022) Sharing the same clothes, towels Living with a patient with leprosy for &gt; 6 month Contact of age more than 2 years Contact for more than 20 hours per week.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/screenshot-2023-11-22-160933.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chemoprophylaxis for leprosy is crucial for contacts who have had significant exposure to an individual with leprosy, particularly those living in the same household or in close contact for extended periods.</li><li>➤ Rifampicin:</li><li>➤ Rifampicin:</li><li>➤ A single dose of 600 mg kills more than 99% of the susceptible organisms present at the start of treatment, that is as much as 3 to 6 months of daily treatment with the combination dapsone plus Clofazimine. Rifampicin has become established as a highly potent bactericidal drug , and it acts by inhibiting the bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase . Single Dose of Rifampicin (SDR) is used in chemoprophylaxis. Chemoprophylaxis must be initiated only 4 weeks after treatment for leprosy has begun in the patient so as to ensure the patient is non-infectious .</li><li>➤ A single dose of 600 mg kills more than 99% of the susceptible organisms present at the start of treatment, that is as much as 3 to 6 months of daily treatment with the combination dapsone plus Clofazimine.</li><li>➤ single dose of 600 mg</li><li>➤ 99%</li><li>➤ susceptible organisms</li><li>➤ 3 to 6 months</li><li>➤ dapsone plus Clofazimine.</li><li>➤ Rifampicin has become established as a highly potent bactericidal drug , and it acts by inhibiting the bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase .</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ highly potent bactericidal drug</li><li>➤ inhibiting</li><li>➤ bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase</li><li>➤ Single Dose of Rifampicin (SDR) is used in chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>➤ Single Dose of Rifampicin</li><li>➤ chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>➤ Chemoprophylaxis must be initiated only 4 weeks after treatment for leprosy has begun in the patient so as to ensure the patient is non-infectious .</li><li>➤ 4 weeks after treatment for leprosy</li><li>➤ patient</li><li>➤ patient is non-infectious</li><li>➤ Ref - Jopling’s Handbook of Leprosy 6 th Edition Page no 242</li><li>➤ Ref -</li><li>➤ Jopling’s Handbook of Leprosy 6 th Edition Page no 242</li><li>➤ Leprosy/Hansen disease: Contact tracing and post-exposure prophylaxis</li><li>➤ Leprosy/Hansen disease: Contact tracing and post-exposure prophylaxis</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789290228073 (page 23, 24)</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789290228073</li><li>➤ (page 23, 24)</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3051288/</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3051288/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with periorbital pain and nasal discharge. On examination, the findings shown in the image below. She is an immunocompromised patient currently on HAART. Which of the following antifungal regimen should be prescribed to this patient along with HAART? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inj. Amphotericin B for 4-8 weeks, followed by oral itraconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Inj. Amphotericin B for 8 weeks, followed by oral posaconazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inj. Fluconazole, followed by oral fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inj. Amphotericin B, followed by flucytosine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inj. Amphotericin B for 8 weeks, followed by oral posaconazole", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/759.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis requires aggressive treatment with Amphotericin B followed by consolidation therapy with posaconazole, particularly in immunocompromised patients. This combination helps ensure both initial and sustained control of the fungal infection.</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with complaints of fever, rash, body ache, and throat ache. He has a history of thorn prick injury a week back. What antibiotics would you give empirically to this child? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amoxicillin+ clavulanate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meropenem", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amoxicillin+ clavulanate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Amoxicilin +clavulanate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a child presenting with symptoms suggestive of scarlet fever following a thorn prick injury, empirical antibiotic treatment with amoxicillin + clavulanate is appropriate while awaiting diagnostic confirmation of Group A Streptococcus infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of recurrent ovarian cancer? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platinum resistant if recurrence &gt; 12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Partial platinum resistant if recurrence is within 6-12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Platinum sensitive if recurrence &gt; 6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Platinum sensitive if recurrence > 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/al-35.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Platinum sensitive if recurrence &gt; 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Platinum-refractory disease : This includes women who progress during primary chemotherapy. It has the worst prognosis, as these patients do not respond to platinum-based chemotherapy at all. Platinum-resistant disease : This includes women who relapse within 6 months of completing primary therapy. Bevacizumab has been approved for the treatment of platinum-resistant disease due to its ability to inhibit angiogenesis, which is crucial for tumor growth and metastasis. Platinum-sensitive disease : This includes women who relapse more than 6 months after completing primary therapy. These patients are considered to have a better prognosis and are treated with a platinum-based combination such as carboplatin and paclitaxel or gemcitabine.</li><li>• Platinum-refractory disease : This includes women who progress during primary chemotherapy. It has the worst prognosis, as these patients do not respond to platinum-based chemotherapy at all.</li><li>• Platinum-refractory disease</li><li>• Platinum-resistant disease : This includes women who relapse within 6 months of completing primary therapy. Bevacizumab has been approved for the treatment of platinum-resistant disease due to its ability to inhibit angiogenesis, which is crucial for tumor growth and metastasis.</li><li>• Platinum-resistant disease</li><li>• Platinum-sensitive disease : This includes women who relapse more than 6 months after completing primary therapy. These patients are considered to have a better prognosis and are treated with a platinum-based combination such as carboplatin and paclitaxel or gemcitabine.</li><li>• Platinum-sensitive disease</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Platinum resistant if recurrence &gt; 12 months : This statement is incorrect. If the recurrence occurs more than 12 months after treatment, it is considered platinum-sensitive, not resistant.</li><li>• Option A. Platinum resistant if recurrence &gt; 12 months</li><li>• Option B. Partial platinum resistant if recurrence is within 6-12 months : This statement is not a recognized classification. The classification focuses on the 6-month mark to distinguish between resistant and sensitive.</li><li>• Option B. Partial platinum resistant if recurrence is within 6-12 months</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Platinum-sensitive recurrent ovarian cancer is characterized by a recurrence occurring more than 6 months after completing primary therapy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Berek and Novak’s gynecology 15 th edition pg 1387</li><li>➤ Ref: Berek and Novak’s gynecology 15 th edition pg 1387</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with difficulty in walking. The wrist radiograph is shown below. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteomalacia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteogenesis imperfecta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rickets", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paget’s disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rickets", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103055.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103111.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103123.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103133.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103151.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103206.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103218.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103228.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103243.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Rickets</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incorrect statement in rapid sequence intubation? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Preoxygenation with 100% oxygen for 3 minutes is done.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High-volume low-pressure cuff Endotracheal tube is used.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is the method of choice in cardiac arrest patients .", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Induction agent and muscle relaxant are given simultaneously.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is the method of choice in cardiac arrest patients .", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. It is the method of choice in cardiac arrest patients</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Rapid sequence intubation is not the method of choice in cardiac arrest patients due to the need for immediate airway management and ongoing chest compressions, making drug administration less critical.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of biophysical profile? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amniotic fluid volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal tone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Daily fetal movement count", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-stress test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Daily fetal movement count", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Daily fetal movement count</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Daily fetal movement count (DFMC) is not a component of the BPP. DFMC, often assessed using Cardiff’s count of 10, is a separate method for monitoring fetal movements.</li><li>• The Biophysical Profile (BPP) is a comprehensive test used in the assessment of fetal wellbeing. It includes five components, which are scored using the Manning score: Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) Fetal movements Fetal tone Fetal breathing movements A low Manning score is indicative of fetal hypoxia and may necessitate further clinical intervention. Additionally, the Modified Biophysical Profile (BPP) includes only two components: Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid index (AFI)</li><li>• The Biophysical Profile (BPP) is a comprehensive test used in the assessment of fetal wellbeing. It includes five components, which are scored using the Manning score: Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) Fetal movements Fetal tone Fetal breathing movements</li><li>• Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) Fetal movements Fetal tone Fetal breathing movements</li><li>• Non-stress test (NST)</li><li>• Amniotic fluid volume (AFV)</li><li>• Fetal movements</li><li>• Fetal tone</li><li>• Fetal breathing movements</li><li>• A low Manning score is indicative of fetal hypoxia and may necessitate further clinical intervention.</li><li>• Additionally, the Modified Biophysical Profile (BPP) includes only two components: Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid index (AFI)</li><li>• Non-stress test (NST) Amniotic fluid index (AFI)</li><li>• Non-stress test (NST)</li><li>• Amniotic fluid index (AFI)</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Amniotic fluid volume : Amniotic fluid volume is a component of the BPP and helps assess the amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus.</li><li>• Option A. Amniotic fluid volume</li><li>• Option B. Fetal tone : Fetal tone is another component of the BPP, assessing the baby's muscle tone.</li><li>• Option B. Fetal tone</li><li>• Option D. Non-stress test : Non-stress test (NST) is part of the BPP and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movements.</li><li>• Option D. Non-stress test</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Biophysical Profile (BPP) consists of five components: NST, AFV, fetal movements, fetal tone, and fetal breathing movements. Daily fetal movement count (DFMC) is not part of the BPP.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 342, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 122</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg 342, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 122</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the postmortem sign in which a gas shadow is present in the great vessels of a fetus in the case of intrauterine demise? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Robert’s sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spalding sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ball sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Halo sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Robert’s sign", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-44.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Robert‘ssign</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who was diagnosed with prostate cancer is being investigated. The bone scan is reported as a super scan with increased uptake in the bones and reduced activity in the kidney and soft tissue. What is the reason for this super scan appearance? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased uptake due to diffuse metastasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased uptake by carcinoma prostate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased uptake by the bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased uptake by adrenal glands and kidney", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increased uptake due to diffuse metastasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/27/untitled-185.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increased uptake due to diffuse metastasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The super scan appearance is due to increased uptake due to diffuse metastasis.</li><li>• On a bone scan, a generalized increase in skeletal uptake relative to soft tissue and absent or faint renal activity. This is referred to as a super scan.</li><li>• All the bones show diffusely increased uptake whereas kidneys are not visualized. Seen with- Metabolic bone diseases Diffuse Sclerotic bone metastasis</li><li>• All the bones show diffusely increased uptake whereas kidneys are not visualized.</li><li>• kidneys</li><li>• Seen with- Metabolic bone diseases Diffuse Sclerotic bone metastasis</li><li>• Metabolic bone diseases Diffuse Sclerotic bone metastasis</li><li>• Metabolic bone diseases</li><li>• Diffuse Sclerotic bone metastasis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Increased uptake by carcinoma prostate: While the primary prostate carcinoma may cause metastases, the increased uptake seen in a super scan specifically refers to bone metastases, not the primary tumor itself.</li><li>• Option B. Increased uptake by carcinoma prostate:</li><li>• Option C. Increased uptake by the bone: This option is too general and does not specify the underlying cause, which in the context of a super scan is typically metastatic disease.</li><li>• Option C. Increased uptake by the bone:</li><li>• Option D. Decreased uptake by adrenal glands and kidney: This choice misrepresents the scenario, as the decreased visualization of kidneys is a result of the intense skeletal uptake overshadowing other areas, not due to decreased uptake by these organs themselves.</li><li>• Option D. Decreased uptake by adrenal glands and kidney:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A bone scan super scan appearance in a patient with known malignancy such as prostate cancer usually indicates extensive bone metastasis, necessitating aggressive management and treatment planning to address widespread disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old male presents to the gastroenterology clinic with complaints of weight loss, early satiety, and anorexia. The physician suspects gastric carcinoma and orders further investigations to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following statements regarding gastric carcinoma is correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is mostly hereditary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diffuse type of gastric cancer is characterised by k-RAS mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wnt signaling pathway defect is seen in intestinal-type gastric CA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Depth of cancer has no role in prognosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Wnt signaling pathway defect is seen in intestinal-type gastric CA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Wnt signaling pathway defect is seen in intestinal-type gastric CA.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with diabetes develops a UTI, which gets complicated with hypotension that is resistant to IV fluids. Which of the following antibiotics can be used? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Piperacillin-Tazobactam", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amoxicillin-Clavulanate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitrofurantoin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Piperacillin-Tazobactam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Piperacillin-Tazobactam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of septic shock, especially in a patient with diabetes and complicated UTI, broad-spectrum antibiotics such as Piperacillin-Tazobactam are critical for empirical therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A petechial rash is associated with all the following, except? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zika virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Roseola infantum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kyasanur forest disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "West Nile fever", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Roseola infantum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-112900.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-112914.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-112924.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-112935.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Roseola infantum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Roseola infantum is characterized by a rapid onset of a high fever followed by a rash, but it does not typically present with petechial rashes. In contrast, Zika virus, Kyasanur Forest disease, and West Nile fever can cause petechial rashes as part of their clinical manifestations.</li><li>➤ Roseola infantum is characterized by a rapid onset of a high fever followed by a rash, but it does not typically present with petechial rashes. In contrast, Zika virus, Kyasanur Forest disease, and West Nile fever can cause petechial rashes as part of their clinical manifestations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "50-year-old obese female presents to the emergency department with severe right upper quadrant pain, fever, and nausea. The physician suspects acute cholecystitis and orders imaging studies to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following statements is not true about acute cholecystitis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gall bladder thickness &gt;3 mm on USG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Murphy's sign positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leukocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preferential visualization of gall bladder in HIDA scan", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Preferential visualization of gall bladder in HIDA scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Preferential visualization of gall bladder in HIDA scan.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute cholecystitis is a common condition characterized by inflammation of the gallbladder, typically due to the presence of gallstones obstructing the cystic duct. Clinical features of acute cholecystitis include right upper quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A positive Murphy's sign is right upper quadrant tenderness on palpation. On ultrasound imaging, gall bladder thickness &gt;3 mm is a common finding in acute cholecystitis. The HIDA scan is a diagnostic tool for acute cholecystitis, showing non-visualization of the gall bladder 3 hours after radioisotope administration. Preferential visualization of the gall bladder on a HIDA scan is not a feature of acute cholecystitis. It is important to diagnose and treat acute cholecystitis promptly to prevent complications such as gallbladder perforation or gangrene.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman presents with a breast lump and the physician suspects breast cancer. The physician orders imaging studies and a biopsy to confirm the diagnosis. During the diagnostic workup, the physician explains the lymphatic drainage of the breast and discusses the location of the apical lymph nodes. In which location are the apical lymph nodes located?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "In the axillary pad of fat, at the apex of the axilla", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Along the margin of the pectoralis minor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Along the subscapular veins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior in the center", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. In the axillary pad of fat, at the apex of the axilla", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. In the axillary pad of fat, at the apex of the axilla.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease has elevated serum creatinine and urea levels. Which of the following oral hypoglycemic agents is safe to use? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glimepiride", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Exenatide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vildagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Linagliptin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Linagliptin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Linagliptin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Linagliptin is the preferred oral hypoglycemic agent for patients with diabetes and chronic kidney disease, as it does not require dose adjustment and is safely excreted by the liver.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hypertensive patient who is on losartan develops an HbA1c level of 8.1%. Which of the following drugs would you replace losartan with? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amlodipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Telmisartan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Olmesartan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Telmisartan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Telmisartan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For hypertensive patients with diabetes and elevated HbA1c levels, Telmisartan is the preferred replacement for losartan due to its PPAR-gamma agonistic activity, which helps improve glycemic control.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mode of transmission of abdominal TB includes all except? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct spread from mesenteric lymph nodes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hematogenous spread", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Feco-oral route", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Direct contact with infected animal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Feco-oral route", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Direct contact with infected animal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Modes of spread:</li><li>➤ Modes of spread:</li><li>➤ By ingesting Infected food or milk - Primary intestinal tuberculosis Infected sputum - Secondary intestinal tuberculosis Hematogenous spread from distant tubercular focus Contagious spread from infected adjacent foci Through lymphatic channel Common site of abdominal TB - Terminal ileum and cecum</li><li>➤ By ingesting Infected food or milk - Primary intestinal tuberculosis Infected sputum - Secondary intestinal tuberculosis</li><li>➤ Infected food or milk - Primary intestinal tuberculosis Infected sputum - Secondary intestinal tuberculosis</li><li>➤ Infected food or milk - Primary intestinal tuberculosis</li><li>➤ Infected sputum - Secondary intestinal tuberculosis</li><li>➤ Hematogenous spread from distant tubercular focus</li><li>➤ Contagious spread from infected adjacent foci</li><li>➤ Through lymphatic channel</li><li>➤ Common site of abdominal TB - Terminal ileum and cecum</li><li>➤ Feco-oral route is not known to spread abdominal TB.</li><li>➤ Feco-oral route is not known to spread abdominal TB.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old boy was brought to OPD with complaint of fatigue. Serum investigations revealed findings as given below. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022) Hemoglobin – 9 g/dl Mean cell volume (MCV) – 60 fL Mean cell Hb (MCH) – 20 pg Serum Ferritin – 185 mcg/L Total leukocyte count – Elevated lymphocyte and Neutrophils [Normal values: Serum Ferritin: 50-200 mcg/L; Mean cell volume (MCV) - 80-100 fL; Mean cell Hb (MCH) - 27-31 pg]", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anemia of chronic disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron-deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thalassemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-125253.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thalassemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with thalassemia is undergoing multiple blood transfusions. What is the best method to detect iron overload? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver iron concentration", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI T2 myocardium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum ferritin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NTBI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Liver iron concentration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Liver iron concentration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best method to detect iron overload in a patient receiving repeated blood transfusions is Liver iron concentration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common site of abdominal tuberculosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rectum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Small intestine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ileocecal junction", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ileocecal junction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ileocecal junction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common site of abdominal tuberculosis is the ileocecal junction, particularly near the terminal ileum. This region's lymphoid tissue creates a favorable environment for Mycobacterium tuberculosis to proliferate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the egg belonging to the following parasite from the column B? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/28.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-89.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-90.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enterobius vermicularis eggs are elongated ovoid, flattened on one side and convex on the other, with a double-layered, thick, transparent shell and contain a tadpole-shaped coiled embryo.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following is atropine contraindicated? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute congestive glaucoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute anterior uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corneal ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute congestive glaucoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acute congestive glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atropine should be used cautiously, and is contraindicated in acute congestive glaucoma due to its potential to exacerbate the condition by further increasing intraocular pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What event takes place when the retina is exposed to light? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperpolarization, increase in neurotransmitter release", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperpolarization, decrease in neurotransmitter release", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depolarization, decrease in neurotransmitter release", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Depolarization, increase in neurotransmitter release", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyperpolarization, decrease in neurotransmitter release", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyperpolarization, decrease in neurotransmitter release</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Light exposure results in the hyperpolarization of photoreceptor cells in the retina, leading to a decrease in the release of the neurotransmitter glutamate. This process is crucial for converting light signals into electrical signals that can be processed by the brain to form visual images.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has presented for a routine eye evaluation. You have checked his visual acuity using Snellen's chart and found it to be 6/6. What is the minimum angle of resolution? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15 minutes of arc", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 minutes of arc", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 minutes of arc", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 minute of arc", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5 minutes of arc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture6_JFtDR2I.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 5 minutes of arc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The minimum angle of resolution for someone with a visual acuity of 6/6 using a Snellen chart is 5 minutes of arc. This indicates the precise and detailed visual capability required to resolve fine details at a standard distance, a fundamental concept in understanding and assessing visual acuity in clinical settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a gram-positive organism that shows the following appearance on Ziehl-Neelsen staining? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nocardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycobacterium leprae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Actinomyces", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nocardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/30.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-114237.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/32.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/33.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nocardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nocardia can be identified by its branching filamentous structure on gram stain and weak acid-fast positivity due to the presence of mycolic acid in its cell wall, distinguishing it from other gram-positive and acid-fast organisms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of pterygium? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rate of recurrence is 95%.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is a fibrovascular growth.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The parts of a pterygium are head, neck and body.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Has progressive and regressive types.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rate of recurrence is 95%.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture7_mN5l2bY.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-143100.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rate of recurrence is 95%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pterygium's recurrence after surgical removal depends greatly on the surgical technique and the use of adjuvant therapies, not inherently 95% as previously thought. Effective management includes surgical excision combined with conjunctival autografts and adjuvant therapy to reduce the risk of recurrence significantly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of complicated cataracts? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Krukenberg spindle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polychromatic lusture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Occurs after uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breadcrumb appearance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Krukenberg spindle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture8_yKFm9vd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Krukenberg spindle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Krukenberg spindle is a vertical, spindle-shaped deposit of pigment on the posterior surface of the cornea, commonly seen in pigmentary glaucoma. It results from the dispersion of pigment granules from the iris that adhere to the corneal endothelium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old civil engineer is working on a construction project in an area recently affected by a devastating earthquake. To prevent future devastation, the local government has amended the building codes. These changes are aimed at ensuring structures in the area can better withstand seismic activity. The engineer reviews the changes to determine the best approach for the new construction project. This modification to the building codes is primarily an example of which phase of disaster management? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disaster response", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disaster reconstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disaster rehabilitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disaster mitigation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Disaster mitigation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/whatsapp-image-2023-10-20-at-173957.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Disaster mitigation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Disaster mitigation involves proactive measures such as improved building codes to reduce the impact of future disasters, aiming to lessen vulnerability and enhance resilience against potential hazards.</li><li>➤ Disaster mitigation involves proactive measures such as improved building codes to reduce the impact of future disasters, aiming to lessen vulnerability and enhance resilience against potential hazards.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man has been diagnosed with tuberculosis. As part of his treatment plan, he is prescribed a combination of antitubercular drugs. While counseling him on the drug regimen, you explain the mechanisms of action of each drug. Which of the following combinations of statements accurately describe the mechanisms of some of the drugs used in treating tuberculosis? (INICET NOV 2022) Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis Pyrazinamide is an enzyme inducer Rifampicin is used only in the treatment of tuberculosis Bedaquiline inhibits ATP synthase", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. Bedaquiline inhibits ATP synthase enzyme. Pyrazinamide inhibits trans-translation Rifampicin inhibit RNA polymerase</li><li>➤ Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis.</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline inhibits ATP synthase enzyme.</li><li>➤ Pyrazinamide inhibits trans-translation</li><li>➤ Rifampicin inhibit RNA polymerase</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What will the corrected reticulocyte count if Hb is 5 g/dl and absolute reticulocyte count is 9%? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1.8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-183759.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corrected reticulocyte count is essential in evaluating the bone marrow response in anemic patients. It is calculated by adjusting the absolute reticulocyte count according to the degree of anemia (using actual and normal hemoglobin values).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To break AT bonds high Tm is required", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To break GC bonds low Tm is required", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "To break AT bonds low Tm is required", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "AT bonds and GC bonds need the same TM", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. To break AT bonds low Tm is required", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) To break AT bonds low Tm is required</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In DNA, there are two hydrogen bonds between A and T and three hydrogen bonds between G and C. So, AT bonds will require a lower Tm (melting temperature) compared to GC bonds as less energy is required for breaking 2 bonds compared to three bonds.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tissues are dependent on insulin for glucose uptake? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pancreas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Muscle and adipose tissues", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Placenta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Muscle and adipose tissues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-115921.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Muscle and adipose tissues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• GLUT-4 glucose transporter is insulin dependent and is the only GLUT present in muscle and adipose tissues. So, muscles and adipose tissues are totally dependent on Insulin for glucose uptake.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Liver: The liver uses GLUT-2 transporters for glucose uptake, which are not insulin-dependent. GLUT-2 allows the liver to take up glucose and store it as glycogen or use it for energy production, independent of insulin.</li><li>• Option A. Liver:</li><li>• Option B. Pancreas: The pancreas also uses GLUT-2 transporters for glucose uptake, which are not insulin-dependent. In the pancreas, GLUT-2 plays a role in sensing blood glucose levels and regulating insulin secretion.</li><li>• Option B. Pancreas:</li><li>• Option D. Placenta: The placenta uses GLUT-1 and GLUT-3 transporters for glucose uptake, which are not insulin-dependent. These transporters facilitate the basal uptake of glucose to support the energy needs of the placenta and fetus.</li><li>• Option D. Placenta:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How would you manage a child with status epilepticus? (INICET NOV 2022) Airway and breathing IV Lorazepam Midazolam, Propofol, Thiopentone IV Fosphenytoin", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 1, 4, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 4, 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 4, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture122.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 4, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The management of status epilepticus in children should follow a systematic approach: securing the airway and ensuring breathing, administering a benzodiazepine, followed by fosphenytoin if seizures persist, and considering more potent agents like midazolam, propofol, or thiopentone if the status epilepticus is refractory to initial treatments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The parents notice that their child is tired and that he has shortness of breath on climbing stairs and while lying down. What is the first investigation that you would do? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echocardiogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chest x-ray", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spirometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI to rule out enlarged heart", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chest x-ray", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chest x-ray</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a child presenting with shortness of breath on exertion and orthopnea, the first investigation should be a chest x-ray to evaluate potential pulmonary pathology and signs of congestive heart failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following are parvovirus-related manifestations. Identify the incorrect pair? ( INICET NOV 2022) Pure red cell aplasia - chronic hemolytic anemia Polymyalgia rheumatica - young women Hydrops fetalis - pregnant women Erythema infectiosum - infants", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/picture3_yezpQKZ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Polymyalgia rheumatica is typically seen in women above 50 years old and is not related to parvovirus infection in young women. Parvovirus B19 is more commonly associated with conditions such as erythema infectiosum in children, pure red cell aplasia in patients with chronic hemolytic anemia, and hydrops fetalis in pregnant women.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Parvo virus infection -</li><li>➤ Parvo virus infection -</li><li>➤ Common symptoms of parvovirus B19 (B19V) infection include a mild nonspecific prodromal illness that may consist of fever (15-30% of patients), malaise, headache, myalgia, nausea, and rhinorrhea; typically beginning 5-7 days after initial infection</li><li>➤ A diffuse maculopapular rash can appear 1-4 days later and fades to a lacy erythematous rash, which may be pruritic and may spread gradually toward the distal extremities. Most seropositive patients have no history of this classic biphasic illness. The clinical symptoms widely vary, and the classic \"slapped cheek\" rash is much more common in young children called as erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek disease,</li><li>➤ lacy erythematous rash,</li><li>➤ \"slapped cheek\" rash</li><li>➤ Alternatively, parvovirus B19 infection may manifest with purpuric rash, erythema multiforme, or pruritus of the soles of the feet. Parvovirus B19 may cause a papular-purpuric \"gloves-and-socks\" syndrome (PPGSS ), which manifests as an erythematous exanthem of the hands and feet with a distinct margin at the wrist and ankle joints.</li><li>➤ papular-purpuric \"gloves-and-socks\" syndrome (PPGSS</li><li>➤ Transient small joint arthropathy may be the main clinical presentation of parvovirus B19 in adults.</li><li>➤ small joint arthropathy</li><li>➤ Pure red cell aplasia and chronic hemolytic anemia is seen in patients with immunosuppression.</li><li>➤ Pure red cell aplasia and chronic hemolytic anemia</li><li>➤ Patients with severe anemia due to transient aplastic crisis (TAC ) may present with pallor, fatigue, or signs of an aplastic crisis.</li><li>➤ transient aplastic crisis (TAC</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19V infection during pregnancy can lead to hydrops fetalis and/or fetal loss .</li><li>➤ hydrops fetalis and/or fetal loss</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the blood supply of the structure marked with the arrow in the image below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior cerebral artery and middle cerebral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior cerebral artery and posterior cerebral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior cerebral artery and anterior communicating artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Middle cerebral artery and posterior cerebral artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anterior cerebral artery and anterior communicating artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/28/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901260.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Anterior cerebral artery and anterior communicating artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corpus callosum's blood supply is primarily provided by the anterior cerebral artery, with additional support from the anterior communicating artery. This knowledge is crucial in understanding potential impacts of circulatory issues within the brain, such as strokes, which could affect interhemispheric communication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with proximal transverse colon carcinoma. The physician recommends an extended right colectomy as a treatment option. Which arteries should be resected during an extended right colectomy to prevent the spread of cancer in proximal transverse colon carcinoma? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ileocolic, right colic and branch of middle colic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ileocolic, right colic, stem of middle colic, left colic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ileocolic, right colic and trunk of middle colic", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Middle colic only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ileocolic, right colic and trunk of middle colic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ileocolic, right colic and trunk of middle colic.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of radical colectomies and vessels ligated:</li><li>➤ Types of radical colectomies and vessels ligated:</li><li>➤ Right hemicolectomy: Ileocolic, right colic and right branch of middle colic artery Extended right hemicolectomy: Ileocolic, right colic and stem/origin of middle colic artery Left hemicolectomy: Left colic and sigmoid artery</li><li>➤ Right hemicolectomy: Ileocolic, right colic and right branch of middle colic artery</li><li>➤ Extended right hemicolectomy: Ileocolic, right colic and stem/origin of middle colic artery</li><li>➤ Left hemicolectomy: Left colic and sigmoid artery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Zellweger syndrome is caused by the defect of which of the following organelles?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lysosomes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peroxisomes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nucleus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Peroxisomes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Peroxisomes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In Zellweger syndrome, there are empty peroxisomes in all body cells causing defect in alpha-oxidation and oxidation of VLCFA. So, both phytanic acid and VLCFA accumulate. It is the most severe Peroxisomal Biogenesis Disorder (PBD).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a feature of Klumpke’s palsy? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wrist drop", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ape thumb deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Claw hand", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Porter’s tip deformity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Claw hand", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102428.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102559.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102619.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102631.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102646.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Claw hand</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The characteristic deformity of Klumpke’s palsy is Claw hand due to paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles and weakness of wrist and finger flexors.</li><li>➤ The characteristic deformity of Klumpke’s palsy is Claw hand due to paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles and weakness of wrist and finger flexors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is seen in methanol intoxication? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis with high anion gap", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methanol intoxication causes metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap due to the accumulation of formic acid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Treatment of open fracture of femur: (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Closed reduction and internal fixation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Open reduction and internal fixation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Open reduction and external fixation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Closed reduction and external fixation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Open reduction and external fixation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102923.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-103040.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Open reduction and external fixation</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given image depicts: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Succenturiate lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Velamentous insertion of the cord", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both succenturiate lobe and velamentous insertion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal placenta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both succenturiate lobe and velamentous insertion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/inicet-obg-nov-2022-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Both succenturiate lobe and velamentous insertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Succenturiate lobe : This refers to a placenta with one or more accessory lobes connected to the main part of the placenta by blood vessels. It is characterized by the presence of a smaller, separate lobe in addition to the main placental mass. Velamentous insertion of the cord : This occurs when the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes (chorioamnion) rather than directly into the placental mass. The vessels then travel through the membranes to reach the placenta, making them vulnerable to rupture. The image shows both conditions: a smaller accessory lobe (succenturiate lobe) and the cord inserting into the membranes rather than the placenta (velamentous insertion).</li><li>• Succenturiate lobe : This refers to a placenta with one or more accessory lobes connected to the main part of the placenta by blood vessels. It is characterized by the presence of a smaller, separate lobe in addition to the main placental mass.</li><li>• Succenturiate lobe</li><li>• Velamentous insertion of the cord : This occurs when the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes (chorioamnion) rather than directly into the placental mass. The vessels then travel through the membranes to reach the placenta, making them vulnerable to rupture.</li><li>• Velamentous insertion of the cord</li><li>• The image shows both conditions: a smaller accessory lobe (succenturiate lobe) and the cord inserting into the membranes rather than the placenta (velamentous insertion).</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Succenturiate lobe : This option is partially correct but does not account for the velamentous insertion.</li><li>• Option A. Succenturiate lobe</li><li>• Option B. Velamentous insertion of the cord : This option is partially correct but does not account for the succenturiate lobe.</li><li>• Option B. Velamentous insertion of the cord</li><li>• Option D. Normal placenta : This is incorrect as the image shows abnormalities not seen in a normal placenta.</li><li>• Option D. Normal placenta</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A placenta with both a succenturiate lobe and velamentous insertion of the cord is characterized by the presence of a smaller accessory lobe and the umbilical cord inserting into the fetal membranes.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg122, 117, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 251,253</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 24 th edition pg122, 117, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 251,253</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 67-year-old woman presents with altered sensorium, breathlessness, hypotension, and bradycardia. Examination revealed non-pitting edema of the extremities. She has a long-standing history of weight gain, constipation, cold intolerance, and menorrhagia. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Septic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiogenic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myxedema coma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Myxedema coma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Myxedema coma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myxedema coma is a severe, life-threatening condition of profound hypothyroidism, characterized by symptoms such as altered sensorium, bradycardia, hypotension, and non-pitting edema. Immediate treatment involves IV thyroxine and IV hydrocortisone to manage both thyroid and potential adrenal insufficiency</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following types of headaches requires further evaluation? (INICET NOV 2022) Headache for &gt; 4 hours Worst headache of life New-onset progressive headache Headache with blurring of vision", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Headaches described as the \"worst headache of life,\" new-onset progressive headaches, and headaches accompanied by blurring of vision require further medical evaluation to rule out serious conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child brought to OPD with complaints of fever, erythematous rash, and bone pain. X-ray of the skull revealed multiple lytic lesions. Skin biopsy shows prominent nuclear grooves with eosinophils as in the image below. Immunohistochemistry is positive for S100, CD1a. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rosai-Dorfman disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kimura disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Juvenile Xanthogranuloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Langerhans cell histiocytosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture10.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-134845.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Langerhans cell histiocytosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) is identified by a combination of clinical symptoms (such as bone pain, fever, and rash), characteristic histopathological features (nuclear grooves, eosinophils), and positive immunohistochemical markers (S100, CD1a). The presence of multiple lytic bone lesions, especially in the skull, is a key diagnostic clue.</li><li>➤ Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are responsible for Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction except? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TNF alpha", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IL-6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IL-8", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "INF- y", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. INF- y", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is primarily driven by a surge in pro-inflammatory cytokines such as TNF alpha, IL-6, and IL-8, but not by INF-γ.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with cold feet and a history of wearing socks even in the summers. On examination, lower limb pulses are diminished as compared to the radial pulse. Prominent radio femoral delay is present. What is the underlying condition? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "There is hypertrophy of ductus arteriosus.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coarctation distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supply is from posterior to anterior thoracic artery.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Collaterals develop to supply upper limb.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coarctation distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coarctation distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coarctation of the aorta typically presents with cold feet, diminished lower limb pulses, and radiofemoral delay due to a narrowing of the aorta distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An unconscious child is brought to the casualty. What is the correct sequence of the management? (INICET NOV 2022) Assess breathing Assess pulse Assess response Start compressions Bag and mask ventilation", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3-1-2-5-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-2-3-4-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3-1-2-4-5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-2-4-3-5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3-1-2-4-5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/WhatsApp%20Image%202025-06-17%20at%2016.35.35_1a8b87e8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3-1-2-4-5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In BLS, the correct sequence of actions is crucial for effective management. Start by assessing response, followed by breathing and pulse, then initiate compressions and ventilation as needed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which hormone is secreted by placenta? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "hCG", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "FSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GnRH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. hCG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) hCG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is the hormone secreted by the placenta. It is a glycoprotein produced by the syncytiotrophoblast cells of the placenta. hCG can be detected in the maternal serum or urine as early as 8-9 days post-fertilization using radioimmunoassay. In early pregnancy, hCG concentrations in plasma double every 1.4-2 days. The primary role of hCG is to maintain the corpus luteum during the beginning of pregnancy, ensuring the continued production of progesterone, which is critical for maintaining the uterine lining and supporting pregnancy.</li><li>• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is the hormone secreted by the placenta. It is a glycoprotein produced by the syncytiotrophoblast cells of the placenta.</li><li>• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)</li><li>• hCG can be detected in the maternal serum or urine as early as 8-9 days post-fertilization using radioimmunoassay. In early pregnancy, hCG concentrations in plasma double every 1.4-2 days.</li><li>• The primary role of hCG is to maintain the corpus luteum during the beginning of pregnancy, ensuring the continued production of progesterone, which is critical for maintaining the uterine lining and supporting pregnancy.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. LH : Luteinizing Hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, not by the placenta. It plays a key role in regulating the menstrual cycle and ovulation.</li><li>• Option A. LH</li><li>• Option C. FSH : Follicle-Stimulating Hormone is also produced by the anterior pituitary gland. It is involved in the development of ovarian follicles and the regulation of the menstrual cycle.</li><li>• Option C. FSH</li><li>• Option D. GnRH : Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone is produced by the hypothalamus, it stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release FSH and LH.</li><li>• Option D. GnRH</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone secreted by the placenta, crucial for maintaining early pregnancy by supporting the corpus luteum and progesterone production.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg266, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 66</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg266, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 66</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a pregnant woman at 12 weeks of gestation, who is currently undergoing multidrug therapy (MDT) for leprosy, she now presents with type 2 lepra reaction. What is the preferred treatment for this patient? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop MDT and start oral steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalidomide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue MDT and add oral steroids", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Continue MDT and add oral steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-175436.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-175555.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Continue MDT and add oral steroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a pregnant woman with leprosy who presents with a Type 2 lepra reaction, the preferred treatment is to continue multidrug therapy and add oral steroids to manage the acute inflammatory symptoms . Thalidomide is c ontraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenicity.</li><li>➤ In a pregnant woman with leprosy who presents with a Type 2 lepra reaction, the preferred treatment is to continue multidrug therapy and add oral steroids to manage the acute inflammatory symptoms .</li><li>➤ Type 2 lepra</li><li>➤ continue multidrug therapy</li><li>➤ add oral steroids</li><li>➤ acute inflammatory symptoms</li><li>➤ Thalidomide is c ontraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenicity.</li><li>➤ Thalidomide</li><li>➤ ontraindicated</li><li>➤ teratogenicity.</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Chapter 28 Page no 28.16</li><li>➤ Ref - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Chapter 28 Page no 28.16</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 21 st edition page no 1387, 1390</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 21 st edition page no 1387, 1390</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are true regarding cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection? (INICET NOV 2022) Neonates who are asymptomatic at birth have a lesser risk of later sequelae. 20-40% are symptomatic at birth. In developing countries, the rate of transmission of CMV infection to the infant is more common from primary maternal infection than reactivation. Diagnosis by urine specimen at 4 weeks of age", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/17/screenshot-2024-09-17-155140.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neonates who are asymptomatic at birth from congenital CMV infection have a lower risk of long-term sequelae, and transmission is more common from primary maternal infection than from reactivation, especially in developing countries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man from Mumbai presents to a clinic with fatigue and weakness. His family has a history of chronic diseases, but he himself has been asymptomatic until recently. The physician explains the different stages of disease progression and the interventions required. Which of the following best matches the stages with their relevant descriptions? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-123815.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture6555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are risk factors of vulval cancer except? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vulval dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vulval hamartoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Smoking", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vulval warts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vulval hamartoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vulval hamartoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vulval hamartomas are not a risk factor for vulval cancer, while chronic irritation, immunosuppressive conditions, HPV infection, smoking, anogenital warts, STDs, and vulvar dystrophies are known risk factors.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 680, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 334</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 680, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 334</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with impaired hearing. Her audiometry findings are given below: ( INICET Nov 2021) Pick the right combination of tuning fork test results that would be seen in this patient. (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left Rinne's test negative, Weber's test lateralized to right ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left Rinne's test negative, Weber's test lateralized to left ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left Rinne's test positive, Weber's test lateralized to right ear", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left Rinne's test positive, Weber's test lateralized to left ear", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Left Rinne's test positive, Weber's test lateralized to right ear", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/image_NA8q83V.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/13/untitled-24.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-115232.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Left Rinne’s test positive, Weber’s test lateralized to right ear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne's test remains positive, and Weber's test lateralizes to the better-hearing ear. The provided audiogram indicates left-sided SNHL, resulting in a positive Rinne test on the left and Weber lateralizing to the right ear.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 24, 25</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 24, 25</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with cough, cold, fever, and malaise associated with weight loss and ascites. The patient does not have any evidence of cirrhosis and her coagulation profile is normal. Ascitic fluid analysis showed elevated adenosine deaminase. What can be done next? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peritoneal Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start ATT", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laparotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Start ATT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Start ATT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In high-prevalence countries for tuberculosis, elevated adenosine deaminase (ADA) in ascitic fluid, along with clinical signs, is sufficient to start anti-tubercular therapy (ATT) without the need for invasive procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Antepartum hemorrhage due to abruption shows all except? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterine tenderness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frequent contractions", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Painless vaginal bleeding", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mild to moderate vaginal bleeding", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Painless vaginal bleeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Painless vaginal bleeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Painless vaginal bleeding is not a feature of abruption of the placenta. It is a characteristic feature of placenta previa. Patients with placental abruption present with sudden-onset abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and frequent contractions. Abruptio placenta is the partial or total separation of a normally implanted placenta before delivery, leading to bleeding and other complications.</li><li>• Painless vaginal bleeding is not a feature of abruption of the placenta. It is a characteristic feature of placenta previa.</li><li>• Painless vaginal bleeding</li><li>• Patients with placental abruption present with sudden-onset abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and frequent contractions.</li><li>• Abruptio placenta is the partial or total separation of a normally implanted placenta before delivery, leading to bleeding and other complications.</li><li>• Abruptio placenta</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Uterine tenderness : This is a common feature of placental abruption due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.</li><li>• Option A. Uterine tenderness</li><li>• Option B. Frequent contractions : Increased frequency of uterine contractions is associated with placental abruption.</li><li>• Option B. Frequent contractions</li><li>• Option D. Mild to moderate vaginal bleeding : Vaginal bleeding of varying degrees, from mild to severe, is typically seen in placental abruption.</li><li>• Option D. Mild to moderate vaginal bleeding</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placental abruption presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and frequent contractions, but not with painless vaginal bleeding, which is characteristic of placenta previa.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg1944, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 297</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg1944, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 297</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A clinician is examining various approaches to determine the rate at which a contraceptive method fails. Which index is specifically employed for this purpose? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pharmacological index", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pearl index", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Performance index", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Efficacy index", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pearl index", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture7888.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pearl index</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Pearl Index is the standard measure used to determine the contraceptive failure rate, defined as the number of failures per 100 woman-years of exposure. This index helps in evaluating the reliability and effectiveness of various contraceptive methods</li><li>➤ The Pearl Index is the standard measure used to determine the contraceptive failure rate, defined as the number of failures per 100 woman-years of exposure.</li><li>➤ This index helps in evaluating the reliability and effectiveness of various contraceptive methods</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following scientists with their discoveries: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-b, 2-a, 3-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-a", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/screenshot-2023-10-27-132715.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-124747.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the provided formula correspond to? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Standard deviation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Variance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mean", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Median", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Standard deviation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture8666.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Standard deviation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Standard deviation is the deviation of each value from the standard value [Mean].</li><li>➤ Standard deviation is the deviation of each value from the standard value [Mean].</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following signs can be elicited at this gestation? (INICET NOV 2022) Goodell's sign Osiander's sign Internal ballottement Lightening", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-290.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Goodell's sign : This sign is the softening of the cervix, which can be elicited around the 6th week of gestation. Osiander's sign : This sign refers to the increased pulsation felt through the lateral fornices, which can be detected between 6 to 8 weeks of gestation. Internal ballottement : This can be elicited between the 16th and 28th weeks of gestation when the fetus can be felt to move away and return to the fingers upon gentle tap on the cervix. Lightening : This is a sensation of relief of the pressure symptoms due to the engagement of the presenting part, typically felt around 38 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Goodell's sign : This sign is the softening of the cervix, which can be elicited around the 6th week of gestation.</li><li>• Goodell's sign</li><li>• Osiander's sign : This sign refers to the increased pulsation felt through the lateral fornices, which can be detected between 6 to 8 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Osiander's sign</li><li>• Internal ballottement : This can be elicited between the 16th and 28th weeks of gestation when the fetus can be felt to move away and return to the fingers upon gentle tap on the cervix.</li><li>• Internal ballottement</li><li>• Lightening : This is a sensation of relief of the pressure symptoms due to the engagement of the presenting part, typically felt around 38 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Lightening</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. 1, 3 : Internal ballottement cannot be elicited at 8 weeks of gestation as it is typically felt between 16 and 28 weeks.</li><li>• Option A. 1, 3</li><li>• Option C. 1, 4 : Lightening is not experienced until about 38 weeks of gestation, making this option incorrect.</li><li>• Option C. 1, 4</li><li>• Option D. 3, 4 : Neither internal ballottement nor lightening can be elicited at 8 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Option D. 3, 4</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The signs that can be elicited at 8 weeks of gestation are Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix) and Osiander's sign (increased pulsation felt through the lateral fornices).</li><li>➤ Signs in early pregnancy are as shown below</li><li>➤ Signs in early pregnancy are as shown below</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 74</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 74</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The non-contraceptive uses of oral contraceptives include all of the following except? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reduction in the risk of ovarian cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Protection against sexually transmitted diseases including HIV", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reduction in the risk of endometrial cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Protection against sexually transmitted diseases including HIV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Protection against sexually transmitted diseases including HIV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The non-contraceptive benefits of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) include:</li><li>• Reduction in the risk of ovarian cancer : COCPs reduce the incidence of ovarian cancer. Reduction in the risk of endometrial cancer : COCPs lower the incidence of endometrial malignancy. Reduction in the incidence of ectopic pregnancy : COCPs decrease the likelihood of ectopic pregnancies by preventing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus.</li><li>• Reduction in the risk of ovarian cancer : COCPs reduce the incidence of ovarian cancer.</li><li>• Reduction in the risk of ovarian cancer</li><li>• Reduction in the risk of endometrial cancer : COCPs lower the incidence of endometrial malignancy.</li><li>• Reduction in the risk of endometrial cancer</li><li>• Reduction in the incidence of ectopic pregnancy : COCPs decrease the likelihood of ectopic pregnancies by preventing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus.</li><li>• Reduction in the incidence of ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• However, COCPs do not provide protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), including HIV.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Reduction in the risk of ovarian cancer : COCPs are known to reduce the incidence of ovarian cancer.</li><li>• Option A. Reduction in the risk of ovarian cancer</li><li>• Option B. Ectopic pregnancy : COCPs lower the risk of ectopic pregnancy by preventing ovulation and thickening the cervical mucus.</li><li>• Option B. Ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Option D. Reduction in the risk of endometrial cancer : COCPs decrease the risk of endometrial cancer.</li><li>• Option D. Reduction in the risk of endometrial cancer</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Combined oral contraceptive pills do not provide protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), including HIV.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 124, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 489</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg 124, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 489</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents to the AIIMS emergency department with severe fatigue and prostration. She is a known case of chronic stable angina. While collecting a blood sample, you notice the blood has a brownish hue. What is the underlying diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carboxyhemoglobinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sideroblastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methemoglobinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sulfhemoglobinemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Methemoglobinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Methemoglobinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A brownish hue in the blood, especially in a patient on nitrate therapy, is indicative of methemoglobinemia, a condition where hemoglobin is oxidized, impairing its ability to carry oxygen effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old presents with absent menses. Examination shows widely spaced nipples, webbed neck, and Tanner grade 1 breast development. USG shows streak ovaries. Investigation shows raised FSH, raised LH, and reduced estradiol. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kallmann syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Androgen insensitivity syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser (MRKH) syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Turner syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Turner syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome is characterized by primary amenorrhea, streak ovaries, hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, widely spaced nipples, and a webbed neck.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg411, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 441</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of Gynecology 3 rd edition pg411, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg 441</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presented with loss of pain and temperature, but her touch sensation was intact. Imaging showed cavitation around the central canal. What is the probable diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brown-Sequard syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tabes dorsalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syringobulbia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syringomyelia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Syringomyelia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Syringomyelia presents with a loss of pain and temperature sensation while preserving touch sensation, and is characterized by cavitation around the central canal of the spinal cord.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was treated for peptic ulcer with an H. pylori regimen. Which of the following is used to assess the success of treatment? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgG antibody study", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urea breath test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urease test of biopsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Urea breath test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Urea breath test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The urea breath test is the preferred non-invasive method for assessing the success of H. pylori eradication therapy due to its accuracy and convenience.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The patient has a fever, cough, and cold. The chest X-ray is given below. What will be the examination finding in the infra-scapular region? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperresonance on percussion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coarse crackles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dull note on percussion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pleural rub", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dull note on percussion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/whatsapp-image-2024-09-13-at-103848-am.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dull note on percussion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A dull note on percussion is a key clinical finding in pleural effusion, indicating the presence of fluid in the pleural space.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of keratoconus? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haab's striae", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Munson's sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Irregular astigmatism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scissoring reflex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Haab's striae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/picture87.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Following signs may be elicited in keratoconus –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man was brought to the emergency department after he was attacked by his lover’s husband with an axe. On examination, crushing of the hair bull was seen. Identify the type of wound? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clean cut incised wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lacerated wound", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chop wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Avulsion injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lacerated wound", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-45.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the postmortem change given in the image below? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Marbling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tattooing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lividity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Filigree burns", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Marbling", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-46.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Marbling</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female working in the matchbox factory presents to the dentist with loose teeth, foul smelling discharge, sinuses and fistulae around mouth and disfigurement of the jaw as shown in the picture below. What is the causative agent for this condition? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bromine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antimony", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluorine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Phosphorus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-47.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phossy jaw is caused by exposure to white phosphorus, leading to osteomyelitis, necrosis of the jaw, foul-smelling discharge, and significant disfigurement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a diabetic patient, the following lesions are present in the armpit. What would be observed during a Wood's lamp examination? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow fluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coral red fluorescence", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue fluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Green fluorescence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coral red fluorescence", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13579.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture20.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/screenshot-2023-11-22-175903.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-182645.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coral red fluorescence.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Wood's lamp uses UVA light with a wavelength of 365nm ( 320 - 400 nm) for the diagnosis of various skin conditions based on the fluorescence characteristics of the skin under this specific range of ultraviolet light.</li><li>➤ Wood's</li><li>➤ UVA</li><li>➤ 365nm</li><li>➤ 320</li><li>➤ 400</li><li>➤ fluorescence</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4 page no 4.20</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4 page no 4.20</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition, Chapter 26 Page no 26.40</li><li>➤ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition, Chapter 26 Page no 26.40</li><li>➤ Image source: https://dermnetnz.org/assets/Uploads/bacterial/erythrasma13__WatermarkedWyJXYXRlcm1hcmtlZCJd.jpg</li><li>➤ Image source:</li><li>➤ https://dermnetnz.org/assets/Uploads/bacterial/erythrasma13__WatermarkedWyJXYXRlcm1hcmtlZCJd.jpg</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following rules of law are associated with insanity? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Durham's rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curren's rule", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neither A nor B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both A and B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Both A and B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Both Durham's rule and Curren's rule are significant tests used to determine criminal responsibility in cases where the defendant's mental state is in question.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following protein deficiency is responsible for Hereditary Angioedema? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C1 inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decay accelerating factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CD59", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C5 convertase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. C1 inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-150719.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) staining oocysts of size 8-10 µm cysts are visible. Identify the organism? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isospora", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptosporidium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclospora", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microspora", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cyclospora", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-120408.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-120540.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/06-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cyclospora</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The dose-response curve for three drugs in the same tissue is shown in the image below. Which of the following statements is true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Efficacy of drug A is more than that of drug B.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Potency of drug B is more than that of drug A.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Drug A and drug B are agonists .", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drug C is a non-competitive antagonist.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Drug A and drug B are agonists .", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-15.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key Points:</li><li>➤ Key Points:</li><li>➤ Agonists: Drugs A and B are full agonists because they can achieve the maximum response. Partial Agonist: Drug C produces a submaximal response compared to Drugs A and B, which indicates it is a partial agonist. Potency: Drug A is more potent than Drug B because it achieves 50% of its maximum response at a lower concentration. Non-competitive Antagonist: Drug C is not a non-competitive antagonist, as it does not simply reduce the efficacy of another agonist but instead acts as a partial agonist on its own.</li><li>➤ Agonists: Drugs A and B are full agonists because they can achieve the maximum response.</li><li>➤ Agonists:</li><li>➤ Partial Agonist: Drug C produces a submaximal response compared to Drugs A and B, which indicates it is a partial agonist.</li><li>➤ Partial Agonist:</li><li>➤ Potency: Drug A is more potent than Drug B because it achieves 50% of its maximum response at a lower concentration.</li><li>➤ Potency:</li><li>➤ Non-competitive Antagonist: Drug C is not a non-competitive antagonist, as it does not simply reduce the efficacy of another agonist but instead acts as a partial agonist on its own.</li><li>➤ Non-competitive Antagonist:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman presented in OPD with complaints of fatigue and weakness. Investigations revealed the following as shown below. The peripheral smear is shown below. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022) Hb – 5 g% MCH – 24 MCV – Low TLC – 11000 /µL Platelets – 5,00,000 /cubic mm Normal values: Mean cell volume (MCV): 90 +/- 8 fL Mean cell Hb (MCH): 30 +/- 3 pg", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Megaloblastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron-deficiency anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalassemia major", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Essential thrombocytosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Iron-deficiency anemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture11.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-171012.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-171054.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Iron-deficiency anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does the ECG show? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Electrical alternans", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "P pulmonale", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventricular bigeminy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Improper calibration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. P pulmonale", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/whatsapp-image-2024-09-13-at-103852-am.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) P pulmonale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ P pulmonale, indicated by tall P waves greater than 2.5 mm in lead II, signifies right atrial enlargement commonly due to pulmonary hypertension or other pulmonary conditions leading to increased right atrial pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes to the OPD with the following Skin Manifestation of a Disease associated with Raynaud Phenomenon. What is the manifestation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Poikiloderma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salt and Pepper Pigmentation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leucotrichia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitiligo", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Salt and Pepper Pigmentation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/30/picture6_jBW2wUn.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Salt and Pepper Pigmentation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Poikiloderma is a skin disorder characterized by: (ATP)</li><li>• Option A. Poikiloderma</li><li>• (ATP)</li><li>• Atrophy Telangiectasia s Pigment abnormalities Hypo and hyper</li><li>• Atrophy</li><li>• Atrophy</li><li>• Telangiectasia s</li><li>• Telangiectasia</li><li>• Pigment abnormalities Hypo and hyper</li><li>• Pigment</li><li>• It is seen in ionizing radiation-damaged skin and dermatomyositis.</li><li>• ionizing radiation-damaged skin</li><li>• dermatomyositis.</li><li>• Option C . Sometimes the colour of the hair can change to white in the amelanotic lesions of vitiligo . It is known as Leucotrichia.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• vitiligo</li><li>• Leucotrichia.</li><li>• Option D . Sharply demarcated depigmented macules are a hallmark of vitiligo . It results from the loss of melanocytes.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• depigmented macules</li><li>• vitiligo</li><li>• melanocytes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ 'Salt and pepper' pigmentation i s a skin manifestation associated with systemic sclerosis , a condition commonly accompanied by Raynaud's phenomenon . This pattern includes both hyperpigmented and hypopigmented areas interspersed on the skin.</li><li>➤ 'Salt and pepper' pigmentation i</li><li>➤ systemic sclerosis</li><li>➤ Raynaud's phenomenon</li><li>➤ hyperpigmented</li><li>➤ hypopigmented</li><li>➤ Ref : Rooks Textbook of Dermatology, 9 th Edition, Chapter 56 Page No 56.1 – 56.23</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Rooks Textbook of Dermatology, 9 th Edition, Chapter 56 Page No 56.1 – 56.23</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old female patient undergoes an appendicectomy procedure. Two days later, she complains of severe abdominal pain and is found to have a collection of blood in the abdomen on examination. On exploration, it is discovered that a particular artery should have been ligated during the surgery to prevent this complication. Which of the following arteries should have been ligated during the appendicectomy procedure to prevent postoperative hemorrhage in this patient? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ileocolic artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right colic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior rectal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superior mesenteric artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ileocolic artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ileocolic artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During the removal of the appendix, the inferior branch of the ileocolic artery needs to be ligated at the base of the appendix to prevent postoperative hemorrhage. The appendicular artery typically arises directly from the ileocolic artery and supplies the appendix through multiple small branches. If not ligated, the appendicular artery may cause bleeding complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Increased H + ions in the intermembrane space of mitochondria are due to? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased oxidative phosphorylation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased ATP production", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reduced chemiosmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Water retention in inner mitochondrial space", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decreased oxidative phosphorylation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Decreased oxidative phosphorylation</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cytokines is not involved in Th1 response? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IFN gamma (Interferon-gamma)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IL- 2 (Interleukin-2)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IL- 12 (Interleukin-12)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IL- 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IL- 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/3_GQmj9YH.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-114325.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) IL- 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following statements are false about IL-12 except? (INICET NOV 2022) Increases production of interferon- γ Inhibits T cells Inhibits B cells Produced by macrophages", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Interleukin-12 (IL-12) is produced by macrophages and increases the production of interferon- γ (IFN- γ).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with erectile dysfunction is given sildenafil. Which of the following mediates the action of sildenafil? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CAMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "cGMP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphatidyl glycerol and inositol phosphate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. cGMP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. cGMP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sildenafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, enhances and prolongs erections by preventing the breakdown of cGMP, which is the primary mediator responsible for smooth muscle relaxation and increased blood flow in the corpus cavernosum of the penis during arousal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old chronic smoker presents to the OPD with complaints of shortness of breath and cough. A mass is noted at the lower lobe periphery of the lung. A diagnosis of lung adenocarcinoma is made. What will be the biopsy finding? (INICET NOV 2022) Thyroid transcription factor-1 P40 Napsin A Chromogranin", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/screenshot-2023-11-16-113157_j7U5sRU.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The instrument shown below is used for estimating for hemoglobin levels. What does it measure? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alkaline hematin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acid hematin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxyhemoglobin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deoxyhemoglobin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acid hematin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/51_BqIE09s.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acid hematin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sahli’s Hemoglobinometer estimates hemoglobin levels by converting hemoglobin into acid hematin, which is then compared to a color standard.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Oculocephalic reflex assesses the integrity of which of the following cranial nerves? (INICET NOV 2022) 1. III 2. IV 3. VI 4. VIII 5. VII", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/picture9_Z665ajL.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The oculocephalic reflex assesses the integrity of cranial nerves III (oculomotor), VI (abducens), and VIII (vestibulocochlear), which are crucial for coordinated eye movements in response to head motion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hamman sign is seen in: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumopericardium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumomediastinum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydropneumothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pneumomediastinum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pneumomediastinum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hamman sign, or Hamman's crunch, is a specific clinical sign heard in cases of pneumomediastinum, characterized by a crunching sound synchronous with the heartbeat due to the presence of air in the mediastinum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the appropriate BIRADS category for a 23-year-old woman with a breast lump, no skin changes, and no indurations, whose histology shows a fibroadenoma appearance? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BIRADS 1 or 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BIRADS 2 or 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BIRADS 2, 3, or 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BIRADS 2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. BIRADS 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/17/screenshot-2023-11-17-171804.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) BIRADS 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the case of a 23-year-old woman with a breast lump, no skin changes, and no indurations, whose histology shows a fibroadenoma appearance, the appropriate BIRADS category is BIRADS 2.</li><li>➤ Fibroadenoma is a benign tumor that poses a low risk of malignancy. The Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BIRADS) categories are used to assess the likelihood of malignancy of breast lesions seen on mammograms, ultrasounds, or MRI. Grades 1 and 2 have a very low probability of being malignant, while grade 3 has a slightly higher probability of malignancy.</li><li>➤ Grades 4 and 5 are considered suspicious and warrant further investigation as they have a higher probability of malignancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these steps is included in the management of snake bite?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loose tourniquet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Debride to avoid the spread", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kill the snake", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hospitalize for anti-venom administration and immobilization", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hospitalize for anti-venom administration and immobilization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-48.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hospitalize for anti-venom administration and immobilization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The management of snake bites primarily involves hospitalization for the administration of anti-venom and immobilization of the affected limb to minimize the spread of venom.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman presented with pulsatile proptosis of the right eye, retroorbital pain accompanied with fever and headache. On examination, fundus and BP were normal. Which of the following structures are involved? Abducens nerve Oculomotor nerve Internal carotid artery Cavernous sinus", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/25/inicet-ophtha-15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/picture89.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fibres of the given structure originate from? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amygdala", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mammillary body", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caudate nucleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hippocampus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hippocampus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/18/anatomy-nov-inicet-2022-05.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hippocampus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given structure is the fornix and its fibres arise from the hippocampus.</li><li>• The fornix is a C-shaped bundle of white matter fibers that connects the hippocampus to other regions of the brain, including the mammillary bodies, thalamus, and septal nuclei. The fibers of the fornix arise from the hippocampus, which is involved in the formation and consolidation of memories, and then project through the fornix to other parts of the limbic system. Dysfunction of the fornix and hippocampus can result in memory impairments, as seen in conditions such as Alzheimer's disease.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Amygdala : The amygdala is a small almond-shaped structure located deep within the temporal lobes of the brain. It is involved in processing emotions, especially fear and emotional memory. While the amygdala does have connections to the limbic system, it is not a direct source of fibers for the fornix. However, it does interact with the hippocampus and other limbic structures.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Amygdala</li><li>• Option B . Mammillary Body: The mammillary bodies are a pair of small, round structures located on the undersurface of the brain, specifically in the diencephalon. They are closely connected to the hippocampus and are considered part of the limbic system. The fornix sends fibers to and receives fibers from the mammillary bodies, facilitating the flow of information within the limbic circuit.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Mammillary Body:</li><li>• Option C . Caudate Nucleus : The caudate nucleus is a component of the basal ganglia and is involved in motor control and cognitive functions. While it interacts with some limbic structures, it is not a primary source of fornix fibers. Instead, it has connections with other regions involved in motor control and reward processing.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Caudate Nucleus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hippocampus is a critical structure within the limbic system that plays a central role in memory formation and spatial navigation. It is the primary source of fibers that make up the fornix. The fornix carries information from the hippocampus to other limbic structures, including the mammillary bodies and the anterior thalamic nuclei, as well as to the septal nuclei and the cingulate gyrus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which structure is supplied by the nerve causing this elevation? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Risorius", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levator palpebrae superioris", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Risorius", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Risorius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Risorius is supplied by the facial nerve, resulting in the marked elevation. The image depicts the floor of the fourth ventricle, as well as the facial colliculus.</li><li>• The facial colliculus is a raised area on the floor of the fourth ventricle in the brainstem, and it is associated with the motor nucleus of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). The facial nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles of facial expression, including the risorius muscle, which is one of the muscles that can cause elevation of the corner of the mouth in smiling. Therefore, the structure that is supplied by the nerve causing this elevation would be the risorius muscle.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Lateral rectus: Is an extraocular muscle that arises from the lateral part of the common tendinous ring. It is innervated by the abducens nerve.</li><li>• Option A. Lateral rectus:</li><li>• Option B. Superior oblique: Is an extraocular muscle that arises from the body of the sphenoid. It is innervated by the trochlear nerve.</li><li>• Option B. Superior oblique:</li><li>• Option D. Levator palpebrae superioris: The levator palpebrae superioris muscle is supplied by the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III). This muscle is responsible for raising the upper eyelid (levator means \"elevator\"), allowing you to open your eyes.</li><li>• Option D. Levator palpebrae superioris:</li><li>• The oculomotor nerve also innervates several other muscles that control eye movement and pupil constriction, making it an important cranial nerve for eye function</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The risorius muscle, responsible for pulling the corner of the mouth laterally and aiding in expressions like smiling, is innervated by the facial nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following physiological adaptations is generally not observed at high altitudes? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary vasoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polycythemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoxia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Respiratory acidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Respiratory acidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The principal means by which acclimatization to high altitude comes about are</li><li>➤ The principal means by which acclimatization to high altitude comes about are</li><li>➤ A great increase in pulmonary ventilation - increase in pulmonary ventilation on rising to a high altitude blows off large quantities of carbon dioxide, reducing the Pco2 and increasing the ph of the body fluids. Increased numbers of red blood cells, Increased diffusing capacity of the lungs, Increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues Increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low Po2. Cellular Acclimatization - cell mitochondria and cellular oxidative enzyme systems are slightly more plentiful than in sea-level inhabitants</li><li>➤ A great increase in pulmonary ventilation - increase in pulmonary ventilation on rising to a high altitude blows off large quantities of carbon dioxide, reducing the Pco2 and increasing the ph of the body fluids.</li><li>➤ Increased numbers of red blood cells,</li><li>➤ Increased diffusing capacity of the lungs,</li><li>➤ Increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues</li><li>➤ Increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low Po2.</li><li>➤ Cellular Acclimatization - cell mitochondria and cellular oxidative enzyme systems are slightly more plentiful than in sea-level inhabitants</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following scale types with their lesions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/untitled-13558_1YHi2Nx.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture9_6tWtHra.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture12_BOpEZzo.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/18/screenshot-2024-06-18-181649.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following actions under AMTSL. Arrange them in the right order? (INICET NOV 2022) Uterine massage Give uterotonic (oxytocin 10 mg) Exclude the presence of another fetus Controlled cord traction AMTSL- Active management of the third stage of labor.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 1, 2, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3, 2, 4, 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 4, 3, 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4, 1, 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3, 2, 4, 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 3, 2, 4, 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The steps of Active Management of the Third Stage of Labor (AMTSL) should be followed in a specific order: exclude the presence of another fetus, administer a uterotonic, perform controlled cord traction, and then provide uterine massage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A surgically resected specimen of an ovarian mass is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immature teratoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mature cystic teratoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucinous cystadenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serous cystadenoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mature cystic teratoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/1_xUY8Y7x.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mature cystic teratoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mature cystic teratomas (dermoid cysts) are characterized by the presence of multiple tissue types such as hair, sebaceous material, and sometimes teeth or bone within a cystic ovarian mass.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of gynecology 3 rd edition pg, Dutta’s textbook of gynecology 6 th edition pg</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is seen in placenta previa? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Warning bleeds", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dark painful bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine tenderness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased large uterine size", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Warning bleeds", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Warning bleeds</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placenta previa typically presents with painless, recurrent vaginal bleeding (warning bleeds) in the third trimester or during labor, with a soft, non-tender uterus.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg1940, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 307</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg1940, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 307</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman with 35 weeks+5 days gestation complains of epigastric pain, headache, and blurring of vision. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg. She is in labor pain. Examination of the cervix shows a 3 cm dilatation with a bag of liquor. What is the appropriate management? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conservative management", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Administer tocolytics and deliver at 37 wks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give steroid cover and wait until steroid cover is complete.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treat hypertension, administer MgSO4, and consider termination of pregnancy.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Treat hypertension, administer MgSO4, and consider termination of pregnancy.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-291.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Treat hypertension, administer MgSO4, and consider termination of pregnancy.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of severe pre-eclampsia at or beyond 34 weeks of gestation, immediate management involves controlling hypertension, administering magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures, and expediting delivery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 1850, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg267</li><li>➤ Ref: Williams textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 1850, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg267</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant mother was on SSRIs. The risk of which of the following is increased in the newborn? ( INICET Nov 2022) Low APGAR score. ADHD. Persistent pulmonary hypertension. Delayed developmental milestones.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a, b, c, d", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "b, c, d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, b, c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. a, b, c, d", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) a, b, c, d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• a. Low APGAR score : SSRIs in late pregnancy can lead to neonatal adaptation syndrome, impacting the APGAR score.</li><li>• a. Low APGAR score</li><li>• b. ADHD: Some research suggests a potential link between prenatal SSRI exposure and ADHD.</li><li>• b. ADHD:</li><li>• c. Persistent pulmonary hypertension: Late-pregnancy SSRI exposure is associated with this risk.</li><li>• c. Persistent pulmonary hypertension:</li><li>• d. Delayed developmental milestones: There's some evidence linking SSRIs to delayed milestones, though it's less consistent.</li><li>• d. Delayed developmental milestones:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SSRIs during pregnancy are linked to multiple neonatal risks. They may increase the risk of cardiac birth defects, decreased gestational age, spontaneous abortion, decreased birth weight, suboptimal fetal growth, low APGAR scores, autism spectrum disorders, ADHD and persistent pulmonary hypertension (SSRIs and SNRIs).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry, 14th edition, Page No 687-688</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding perimortem cesarean section? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LSCS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pfannenstiel incision", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper segment cesarean section", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Done in OT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Upper segment cesarean section", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Upper segment cesarean section</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An upper segment cesarean section is performed during a perimortem cesarean section (PMCS). PMCS is an emergency cesarean delivery of a woman who is expected to die within the next few moments or has just died.</li><li>• Key points about PMCS:</li><li>• Timing : According to the AHA 2020 Guidelines for CPR, perimortem cesarean should be considered if there is no return of spontaneous circulation within 5 minutes in a pregnant woman who has experienced total cardiopulmonary arrest. Purpose : The goal of PMCS is to improve maternal and fetal outcomes by relieving the compression of the inferior vena cava (IVC) by the gravid uterus, which enhances venous return and diaphragmatic displacement. This, in turn, improves respiratory dynamics and resuscitative efforts. Fetal Outcome : The infant has a higher chance of survival if PMCS is performed within 10 minutes of maternal death. Surgical Technique : A classical upper-segment cesarean section with a vertical uterine incision is performed. Location : PMCS does not need to be done in the operating theatre (OT); it can be done wherever the patient is located to expedite the process.</li><li>• Timing : According to the AHA 2020 Guidelines for CPR, perimortem cesarean should be considered if there is no return of spontaneous circulation within 5 minutes in a pregnant woman who has experienced total cardiopulmonary arrest.</li><li>• Timing</li><li>• Purpose : The goal of PMCS is to improve maternal and fetal outcomes by relieving the compression of the inferior vena cava (IVC) by the gravid uterus, which enhances venous return and diaphragmatic displacement. This, in turn, improves respiratory dynamics and resuscitative efforts.</li><li>• Purpose</li><li>• Fetal Outcome : The infant has a higher chance of survival if PMCS is performed within 10 minutes of maternal death.</li><li>• Fetal Outcome</li><li>• Surgical Technique : A classical upper-segment cesarean section with a vertical uterine incision is performed.</li><li>• Surgical Technique</li><li>• Location : PMCS does not need to be done in the operating theatre (OT); it can be done wherever the patient is located to expedite the process.</li><li>• Location</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. LSCS : Lower segment cesarean section (LSCS) is not typically used in PMCS.</li><li>• Option A. LSCS</li><li>• Option B. Pfannenstiel incision : This is a horizontal incision typically used in elective cesarean sections, not in emergency PMCS.</li><li>• Option B. Pfannenstiel incision</li><li>• Option D. Done in OT : PMCS does not need to be performed in the operating theatre; it can be done immediately at the site of the patient to save time.</li><li>• Option D. Done in OT</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Perimortem cesarean section (PMCS) involves performing a classical upper-segment cesarean section with a vertical uterine incision in an emergency situation to improve maternal and fetal outcomes.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK459265/</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK459265/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following in sequence? (INICET NOV 2022) Crowning Engagement Restitution External rotation", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B, A, C, D", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B, A, D, C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B, C, A, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "B, D, A, C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. B, A, C, D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) B, A, C, D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The sequence of cardinal movements in the mechanism of labor is a series of positions and motions that the fetus goes through as it navigates through the birth canal. These movements are:</li><li>• Engagement : This is when the fetal head enters the pelvic inlet and the widest part of the head has passed through the pelvic brim. Descent : The downward movement of the fetal head within the pelvic inlet. Flexion : The fetal head bends so the chin is brought closer to the chest, presenting the smallest diameter to the birth canal. Internal Rotation : The fetal head rotates to align with the maternal pelvis. Extension : The fetal head extends as it passes under the symphysis pubis, followed by the crowning (the fetal head remains visible at the vulva without slipping back). Crowning : The fetal head is visible at the vulva without slipping back. Restitution : The fetal head rotates to the position it was in when it engaged in the pelvis. External Rotation : The fetal shoulders rotate to align with the head. Expulsion of the rest of the body : The remainder of the fetal body is delivered.</li><li>• Engagement : This is when the fetal head enters the pelvic inlet and the widest part of the head has passed through the pelvic brim.</li><li>• Engagement</li><li>• Descent : The downward movement of the fetal head within the pelvic inlet.</li><li>• Descent</li><li>• Flexion : The fetal head bends so the chin is brought closer to the chest, presenting the smallest diameter to the birth canal.</li><li>• Flexion</li><li>• Internal Rotation : The fetal head rotates to align with the maternal pelvis.</li><li>• Internal Rotation</li><li>• Extension : The fetal head extends as it passes under the symphysis pubis, followed by the crowning (the fetal head remains visible at the vulva without slipping back).</li><li>• Extension</li><li>• Crowning : The fetal head is visible at the vulva without slipping back.</li><li>• Crowning</li><li>• Restitution : The fetal head rotates to the position it was in when it engaged in the pelvis.</li><li>• Restitution</li><li>• External Rotation : The fetal shoulders rotate to align with the head.</li><li>• External Rotation</li><li>• Expulsion of the rest of the body : The remainder of the fetal body is delivered.</li><li>• Expulsion of the rest of the body</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. B, A, D, C : This sequence incorrectly places external rotation before restitution.</li><li>• Option B. B, A, D, C</li><li>• Option C. B, C, A, D : This sequence incorrectly places restitution before crowning.</li><li>• Option C. B, C, A, D</li><li>• Option D. B, D, A, C : This sequence incorrectly places external rotation before crowning and restitution.</li><li>• Option D. B, D, A, C</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cardinal movements in the mechanism of labor occur in the following sequence: engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension (preceded by crowning), restitution, external rotation, and expulsion of the rest of the body.</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 145</li><li>➤ Ref: Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 145</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following:( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/02/untitled-292.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct matching of the procedures with their respective characteristics is as follows:</li><li>• Amniocentesis (A-4) : This procedure involves the assessment of amniotic fluid, often for detecting alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and other genetic conditions. It is generally performed between 15-18 weeks but may be done later as well. Chorionic Villous Sampling (B-1) : CVS is performed earlier in pregnancy, typically between 10-13 weeks. It involves sampling of placental tissue to test for chromosomal abnormalities and genetic conditions. Fetal Blood Sampling (C-2) : Also known as cordocentesis or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS), this procedure is done around 19-20 weeks to obtain fetal blood, often for testing fetal anemia, infections, or genetic conditions. Fetoscopy (D-3) : This procedure involves visualizing the fetus directly in utero and is used in specific circumstances to assess fetal anatomy and perform interventions.</li><li>• Amniocentesis (A-4) : This procedure involves the assessment of amniotic fluid, often for detecting alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and other genetic conditions. It is generally performed between 15-18 weeks but may be done later as well.</li><li>• Amniocentesis (A-4)</li><li>• Chorionic Villous Sampling (B-1) : CVS is performed earlier in pregnancy, typically between 10-13 weeks. It involves sampling of placental tissue to test for chromosomal abnormalities and genetic conditions.</li><li>• Chorionic Villous Sampling (B-1)</li><li>• Fetal Blood Sampling (C-2) : Also known as cordocentesis or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS), this procedure is done around 19-20 weeks to obtain fetal blood, often for testing fetal anemia, infections, or genetic conditions.</li><li>• Fetal Blood Sampling (C-2)</li><li>• Fetoscopy (D-3) : This procedure involves visualizing the fetus directly in utero and is used in specific circumstances to assess fetal anatomy and perform interventions.</li><li>• Fetoscopy (D-3)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 : Incorrect because Chorionic Villous Sampling (CVS) is not done at 19-20 weeks, and fetoscopy does not typically involve amniotic fluid assessment.</li><li>• Option A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1</li><li>• Option B. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 : Incorrect because Amniocentesis is not done at 19-20 weeks, and fetal blood sampling is not done at 8-12 weeks.</li><li>• Option B. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4</li><li>• Option D. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 : Incorrect because Amniocentesis is not used to visualize fetal organs, and Chorionic Villous Sampling is not done at 19-20 weeks.</li><li>• Option D. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand the appropriate timing and purpose of various prenatal diagnostic procedures such as Amniocentesis, Chorionic Villous Sampling, Fetal Blood Sampling, and Fetoscopy.</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 882, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 741</li><li>➤ Ref: William’s textbook of obstetrics 26 th edition pg 882, Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics 8 th edition pg 741</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the options below is an acceptable condition for breast conservative surgery? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tumor size &lt; 4cm, with N1 axillary metastasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tumor size exceeding the size of the breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Previous chest irradiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Presence of multiple tumors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tumor size < 4cm, with N1 axillary metastasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tumor size &lt;4cm, with N1 axillary metastasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breast conservative surgery involves the removal of the primary breast cancer with adequate normal breast tissue, followed by adjuvant radiotherapy and assessment of regional lymph nodes through a separate axillary incision.</li><li>➤ Absolute contraindications for breast conservative surgery include pregnancy, persistently positive margins, multicentric lumps, diffuse microcalcification, extensive ductal carcinoma in situ, and inflammatory breast cancer.</li><li>➤ Relative contraindications include active systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, a large lump-to-breast ratio (&gt;5 cm size lump), known or suspected genetic predisposition to breast cancer (i.e., BRCA1, BRCA2), multifocal disease, and prior radiation therapy to the chest wall or breast.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is vagitus uterinus? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cry of baby in the womb", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infection of vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infection of uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infection of both vagina and uterus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cry of baby in the womb", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cry of baby in the womb</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vagitus uterinus refers to the cry of a baby in the womb, which is a rare phenomenon that can occur if there is a rupture of the amniotic sac with air entry.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are true regarding sirtuins? (INICET NOV 2022) Increases insulin sensitivity and thus glucose metabolism. Promotes genes that increase longevity. They are of 7 types. They are one of the types of histone deacetylases.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sirtuins are a family of seven histone deacetylases involved in increasing insulin sensitivity, glucose metabolism, promoting genes associated with longevity, and playing a significant role in various cellular processes.</li><li>➤ Sirtuins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows the life cycle of a virus. Which of the proteins of the virus act as oncogenes? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E1, E2, E5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E6, E7", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "L1, L2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "E1, E2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. E6, E7", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-83.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-84.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-85.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) E6, E7</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ E6 and E7 proteins of HPV are the primary oncogenes responsible for the virus's ability to cause cancer. They do this by inactivating key tumor suppressor proteins, p53 and pRb, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and proliferation.</li><li>➤ E6 and E7 proteins of HPV are the primary oncogenes responsible for the virus's ability to cause cancer. They do this by inactivating key tumor suppressor proteins, p53 and pRb, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and proliferation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Epstein-Barr virus interacts with B cells via which of the following? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CD21", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CD20", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CD19", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CD23", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CD21", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CD21</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infects B cells by binding to the CD21 receptor, which is the primary entry point for the virus into these cells.</li><li>➤ Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infects B cells by binding to the CD21 receptor, which is the primary entry point for the virus into these cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What of the following stain can be used for staining Iron in tissues? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Masson's trichrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prussian blue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PAS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fite-Faraco", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prussian blue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/52_XMAcGmy.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prussian blue stain is specifically used for detecting iron deposits in tissues, particularly in cases of iron overload or iron-related disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old male presents to your clinic after a dog bite earlier in the day. Physical examination reveals a 1.5 cm abrasion with some oozing. Given the nature of the wound and the potential interventions post-exposure, which combination of actions and descriptors best characterizes the appropriate management? (INICET NOV 2022) Category 3 wound Wash the wound with normal tap water for 15-20 minutes Clean the wound with spirit Loose suturing of the wound with a proper dressing Equine immunoglobin is given at a dose of 40 IU/kg of body weight, twice Intra-dermal vaccine is administered on days 0, 3, 7, 28", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3, 5, 6", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 5, 6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 6", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-125243.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, 6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Water has accumulated in a container from a malfunctioning septic system, and mosquito larvae are observed. Based on the provided larval image, which mosquito species is it likely to be? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anopheles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aedes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mansonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Culex", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Culex", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip52.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/untitled-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Culex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For which medical condition is the provided drug typically recommended? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sexually transmitted infections", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AIDS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Malaria", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/ip53.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Malaria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT), is typically recommended for the treatment of falciparum malaria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hooch tragedy is related to which of the following alcohols?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methyl alcohol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethyl alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethylene glycol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyporglycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methyl alcohol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture13_OiM4P0s.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Methyl alcohol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Country liquor can be categorised as spurious liquor or hooch when the amount of methane added could turn fatal. There are number of death cases reported every year due to consumption of such alcohol.</li><li>➤ The metabolism of methyl alcohol is shown in figure below:</li><li>➤ The metabolism of methyl alcohol is shown in figure below:</li><li>➤ The formaldehyde and formic acid formed as products during the metabolism can cause severe metabolic acidosis, blindness and neurologic damage.</li><li>➤ The treatment involves administration of ethanol or Fomepizole which act as competitive inhibitors of enzyme ADH and prevent the formation of these two products.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with lesions on the inner thighs and peri-anal region. They are nodular, 4-6 mm in size, and appear pale. The histopathological image shows multiple intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies consistent with Henderson-Patterson bodies. The diagnosis is: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichodysplasia spinulosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condyloma accuminata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Donovanosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Molluscum contagiosum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture14.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/16/picture15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Molluscum contagiosum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that presents with dome-shaped papules containing Henderson-Patterson bodies, which are diagnostic of this condition.</li><li>➤ Molluscum contagiosum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of fever, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and laboratory test result of leptospira IM reactivity, now presented with breathlessness, fever, and jaundice that worsened after treatment with penicillin. What is the possible diagnosis? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Resistant leptospirosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Penicillin allergy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Co-infection with dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute inflammatory response occurring within 24 hours of initiating antibiotic treatment for spirochete infections, characterized by fever, chills, myalgia, and exacerbation of symptoms due to the release of inflammatory cytokines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The hormone that does not play a role in the growth of the fetus is: (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Growth hormone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucocorticoids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Growth hormone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Growth hormone.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Growth hormone does not play a significant role in fetal growth, which is primarily regulated by insulin, thyroxine, and glucocorticoids.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding the tape shown in the image? (INICET NOV 2022) It is called Shelter's tape. It is used to assess severe acute malnutrition. Reading of 13.5 to 14.5 cm is considered undernourished. It is useful mainly for frontline field workers.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/121.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shakir's tape is a tool used to assess severe acute malnutrition by measuring the mid-upper arm circumference, particularly useful for frontline field workers in resource-limited settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient had difficulty in walking upstairs. When he was made to bear weight on right lower limb, the left-sided pelvis dropped down, but when he was standing on the left lower limb, the right-sided pelvis moved up. Which of the following is the likely lesion? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right superior gluteal nerve palsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left superior gluteal nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right inferior gluteal nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left inferior gluteal nerve palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right superior gluteal nerve palsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102139.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Right superior gluteal nerve palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ On standing on the right lower limb, the left side pelvis drops and while standing on the left leg, the right side pelvis lifted up. This is indicative of right superior gluteal nerve palsy. This sign is called Trendelenburg Sign.</li><li>➤ On standing on the right lower limb, the left side pelvis drops and while standing on the left leg, the right side pelvis lifted up. This is indicative of right superior gluteal nerve palsy. This sign is called Trendelenburg Sign.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman presenting at less than 34 weeks of gestation displays signs of mild to moderate anemia. Under the \"Anemia Mukh Bharat\" initiative, which therapeutic approach would be the most appropriate? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 iron and folic acid (IFA) tablets, taken OD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV iron sucrose for non-compliance with oral tablets", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 iron and folic acid tablets OD + IV iron sucrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IM ferric carboxy maltose (FCM)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IV iron sucrose for non-compliance with oral tablets", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/psm-pyq-17.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture10777.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture1133.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IV iron sucrose for non-compliance with oral tablets</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat (2018)</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat (2018)</li><li>➤ Aim: Reduce anemia by 3% per year</li><li>➤ 6 x 6 x 6 strategy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A forest worker developed skin lesions over the forearm, which initially started as macules but then became nodules. Histology of the nodules shows the following findings. Which of the following is true regarding this condition? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a dematiaceous fungus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infection can spread and involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, tendon, muscle or joints", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Angioinvasion is common especially in people with hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "These bodies are formed by engulfment of the dead fungi by the macrophages", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is a dematiaceous fungus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/40.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is a dematiaceous fungus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chromoblastomycosis is a chronic fungal infection characterized by the presence of dark-coloured, thick-walled sclerotic cells (Medlar bodies) in histological sections, resulting from traumatic implantation of dematiaceous fungi.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The viruses of the filoviridae family like Ebola and Marburg resemble which of the following morphologies? ( INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-123335.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-123451.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-123609.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-99.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1-micro-101.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Filoviruses, such as Ebola and Marburg, are filamentous and contain nonsegmented single-stranded RNA.</li><li>➤ Filoviruses, such as Ebola and Marburg, are filamentous and contain nonsegmented single-stranded RNA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tumor shown in the radiograph? (INICET NOVEMBER 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30% malignant transformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epiphyseal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ground glass opacity is diagnostic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiotherapy is the treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epiphyseal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/screenshot-2024-01-05-102700.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Epiphyseal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Giant cell tumors are epiphyseal tumors of the long bones.</li><li>➤ Giant cell tumors are epiphyseal tumors of the long bones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fructosamine (which is used for assessing long term glycemic control in a person with hemolysis) is a glycated product of: ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycosaminoglycan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fructose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Albumin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture11_IMtPhem.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/01/picture12_Gkvqsnu.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-150418.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Glucose can be attached to proteins, albumin, and also to RBCs forming HbA1c. Fructosamine is term used for all the glycated proteins including glycated albumin.</li><li>➤ glycated albumin.</li><li>➤ In hemolysis patient, HbA1c analysis cannot be done because it will be falsely decreased due to damage to RBCs and loss of hemoglobin. So, fructosamine determination is used for these patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are signs of heart failure? (INICET NOV 2022) Non-pulsatile rise of JVP Orthopnea Dyspnea after 2 hours of sleep Right upper quadrant pain/Right hypochondrial pain", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Signs of heart failure include orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), and right upper quadrant pain due to congestive hepatomegaly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hospital is investigating the effectiveness of statins in a multiple-centric clinical trial. The study involves 4000-5000 patients and half of them have received the drug while the other half was given a placebo. Both the subjects and the investigators are unaware of which group is getting the drug and which group is being administered the placebo. Which of the following phases of clinical trial corresponds to this scenario? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phase 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phase 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-103816.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Phase 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The described clinical trial, with its large sample size, multiple centers, double-blind design, and focus on confirming the efficacy of statins, corresponds to a Phase 3 clinical trial. This phase is crucial for determining whether the drug is effective and safe for widespread use.</li><li>➤ Phase 3</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare worker in a remote primary healthcare clinic is reviewing the Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) on a vial of a vaccine that has been stored in the clinic for some time. Which of the following statements regarding the utility and interpretation of the VVM is/are correct?\" (INICET NOV 2022) It is used for monitoring heat exposure of the vaccine by healthcare workers in primary healthcare. It shows cumulative exposure of the vaccine to the heat. It can be used to assess the potential efficacy of the vaccine. Calculation of the expiry date can be done using VVM. The expiry date of the vaccine can be relaxed if VVM is in an acceptable range. If the square and the circle are the same in color, then the vaccine can be safely used.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5, 6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/picture3555.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/27/screenshot-2023-10-27-130342.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Urinary alkalinization will be most useful in toxicity of which of the following drugs? (INICET NOV 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium channel blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acetaminophen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aspirin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Aspirin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urinary alkalinization is most useful in the treatment of aspirin (salicylate) toxicity because it increases the elimination of salicylates by trapping them in the urine through ionization. This method is not effective for beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or acetaminophen toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of substance addiction is admitted to the hospital due to the overdose of the addictive substance. The patient has slow heart rate, respiratory depression, and low blood pressure. His ocular findings are shown below. Which of the following statements is true regarding this condition? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "This action can be reversed by phenylephrine.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It cannot be reversed by levallorphan.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " It is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tolerance develops to this adverse effect on long-term use.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/750.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.It is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Opioid-induced miosis is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, and it is a characteristic sign of opioid intoxication. This effect cannot be reversed by phenylephrine, and tolerance does not develop to this effect with long-term opioid use. Opioid antagonists like naloxone and levallorphan can reverse the miosis caused by opioid overdose</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following drugs in Column A with their contraindications in Column B? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-180006.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Morphine is contraindicated in head injury due to its effects on pupil size and respiratory depression. Amiodarone is associated with QT prolongation and potential arrhythmias. Vigabatrin is teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy. Estrogen increases the risk of thromboembolic events.</li><li>➤ Morphine is contraindicated in head injury due to its effects on pupil size and respiratory depression. Amiodarone is associated with QT prolongation and potential arrhythmias. Vigabatrin is teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy. Estrogen increases the risk of thromboembolic events.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows the life cycle of human immunodeficiency virus. Which of the following drugs acts at step 5? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Raltegravir", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enfuvirtide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tenofovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zidovudine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Raltegravir", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/752.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following teratogenic drugs with their teratogenic effects: ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-d, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/screenshot-2023-12-01-181740.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The teratogenic effects of certain drugs is crucial for managing medication use during pregnancy. Lithium can cause Ebstein’s anomaly, Warfarin is associated with saddle nose and growth retardation, Thalidomide causes limb malformations, and Chloramphenicol can lead to Grey Baby Syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An experiment is being conducted on a dog blood pressure to study the effect of acetylcholine. The blood pressure is recorded at each intervention and is shown below. What does phase 4 in the graph indicate? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muscarinic action of acetyIcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Potentiation of acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antagonism of acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " Nicotinic action of acetylcholine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nicotinic action of acetylcholine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/pharmc-1-9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/01/picture1_2v4u1Uh.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phase 4 in the graph indicates the nicotinic action of acetylcholine, characterized by a rise in blood pressure due to the stimulation of neuronal nicotinic receptors after administering a high dose of acetylcholine (5 mg) following the blockade of muscarinic receptors with atropine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows strangulation by Spanish windlass method. What type of strangulation method does it belong to? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bansdola", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Garroting", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mugging", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Throttling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Garroting", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/29/image-37.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Garroting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Spanish windlass method of strangulation, shown in the image, belongs to the category of garroting, which involves the use of a ligature tightened by a lever or similar mechanism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sameer was tried in a court in the case of Sanjay’s murder in the park. Sahil appeared in court and stated that he saw Sameer with an axe in his hand while passing the park. What is this evidence known as? ( INICET Nov 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hostile", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indirect", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Direct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hearsay", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Indirect", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Indirect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Indirect or circumstantial evidence suggests a fact but does not directly prove it. In this case, seeing Sameer with an axe near the park suggests involvement but does not directly prove his guilt.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the most appropriate answer: (INICET NOV 2022) Assertion: In phenylketonuria, the urine has a mousy odor. Reason: The serum levels of tyrosine, dopamine, and norepinephrine are decreased in phenylketonuria.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both assertion and reason are independently false statements.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The assertion is independently a true statement, but the reason is independently a false statement.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both assertion and reason are independently true statements, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both assertion and reason are independently true statements, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both assertion and reason are independently true statements, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Both assertion and reason are independently true statements, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In phenylketonuria, the mousy odor of urine is due to the accumulation of phenylacetate, while decreased levels of tyrosine and catecholamines are a result of the impaired conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine. However, the two phenomena are not causally related.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following muscles form the pelvic diaphragm? Iliococcygeus Pubococcygeus Obturator internus Deep transverse perinei", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A, B, C, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A, B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A, B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pelvic diaphragm , also known as the levator ani , consists of the iliococcygeus , pubococcygeus , and puborectalis muscles. These muscles provide essential support to the pelvic organs and play a critical role in maintaining continence and pelvic stability.</li><li>➤ pelvic diaphragm</li><li>➤ levator ani</li><li>➤ iliococcygeus</li><li>➤ pubococcygeus</li><li>➤ puborectalis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the site of drainage of the structure marked in green?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior meatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle meatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior meatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphenoethmoidal recess", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sphenoethmoidal recess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-154036.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sphenoethmoidal recess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sphenoid sinus drains into the sphenoethmoidal recess , which is located above the superior concha. Understanding the drainage pathways of the paranasal sinuses is important in diagnosing and treating sinus infections and related conditions.</li><li>➤ sphenoid sinus</li><li>➤ sphenoethmoidal recess</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Combination of appearance in CTEV (Congenital Talipes Equinovarus) is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Equinus, eversion, forefoot adduction, cavus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Equinus, inversion, forefoot adduction, cavus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Equinus, eversion, forefoot abduction, cavus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Equinus, inversion, forefoot adduction, planus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Equinus, inversion, forefoot adduction, cavus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Equinus, inversion, forefoot adduction, cavus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The deformity in Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV) consists of equinus , inversion , forefoot adduction , and cavus . Early detection and treatment using Ponseti’s method can correct the deformity and prevent long-term complications.</li><li>➤ Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)</li><li>➤ equinus</li><li>➤ inversion</li><li>➤ forefoot adduction</li><li>➤ cavus</li><li>➤ Ponseti’s method</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Skin manifestations caused by the drug administered for amebic dysentery are due to ______.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fixed drug eruption", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urticaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maculopapular rash", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atopic dermatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fixed drug eruption", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fixed drug eruption</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Fixed drug eruption (FDE) is a common drug reaction, especially with medications like metronidazole . It presents as sharply demarcated, recurrent lesions at the same location upon re-exposure to the drug. Recognizing this pattern is essential for diagnosis and discontinuation of the offending drug.</li><li>➤ Fixed drug eruption (FDE)</li><li>➤ metronidazole</li><li>➤ sharply demarcated, recurrent lesions</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where is the signaling sequence in a type 2 membrane protein located?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inside the membrane at the N-terminal end", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inside the membrane at the C-terminal end", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Outside the membrane at the N-terminal end", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Outside the membrane at the C-terminal end", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inside the membrane at the N-terminal end", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The signaling sequence for a type 2 membrane protein is located inside the membrane at the N-terminal end , which anchors the protein to the membrane.</li><li>➤ inside the membrane at the N-terminal end</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following primary second messengers is involved in the contraction of ciliary muscles while focusing on near objects?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "cAMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "cGMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Na+ inflow through a channel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IP3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IP3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) IP3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The second messenger inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (IP₃) plays a crucial role in ciliary muscle contraction during the accommodation reflex, particularly when focusing on near objects. This mechanism involves parasympathetic stimulation of M₃ receptors and the subsequent increase in intracellular calcium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Severe intractable pain in the leg due to sciatica in a patient with carcinoma rectum is due to:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior infiltration in females", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior infiltration in males", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral infiltration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior infiltration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior infiltration in females", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anterior infiltration in females</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sciatica in rectal carcinoma patients, particularly in females, is often due to anterior infiltration of the inferior hypogastric plexus, which supplies the sciatic nerve. Understanding the anatomical differences in the positioning of the plexus between males and females is crucial in diagnosing the cause of sciatic pain in these patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding the placement of ECG leads?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The earth to all leads is in the right leg.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lead I: Positive pole to the right and negative pole towards the left.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lead III: Positive pole on the left and negative pole towards the right.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead II: Positive pole on the right and negative pole towards the left.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The earth to all leads is in the right leg.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) The earth to all leads is in the right leg.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The right leg (RL) is used as the ground or neutral electrode in ECG lead placement, stabilizing the readings for the limb leads. Familiarity with the bipolar lead configuration is essential for correct ECG interpretation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is depicted in the following image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Babinski sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Withdrawal reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grasp reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plantar reflex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Babinski sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-162622.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Babinski sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Babinski sign involves dorsiflexion of the great toe and fanning of the other toes when the lateral aspect of the sole is stroked. This sign is abnormal in adults and older children, indicating an upper motor neuron lesion.</li><li>➤ Babinski sign</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has been reported to have endemic transmission in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebola", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hendra virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) has endemic transmission in India, with the first outbreak reported in Gujarat in 2011. It is transmitted by Hyalomma ticks and has a high mortality rate.</li><li>➤ Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF)</li><li>➤ Hyalomma ticks</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient on a vegetarian diet presenting with easy fatigability and pallor was investigated. Peripheral smear showed findings of macrocytic anemia. What is the probable cause of anemia in this patient? Other lab findings are as follows: Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 112 fL Serum homocysteine: Elevated Serum methylmalonic acid: Normal", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folate deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol-induced macrocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiamine deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Folate deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Folate deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of macrocytic anemia with elevated homocysteine and normal methylmalonic acid (MMA) levels , folate deficiency should be suspected. In contrast, both elevated homocysteine and MMA levels suggest vitamin B12 deficiency.</li><li>➤ normal methylmalonic acid (MMA) levels</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Macula densa is made of specialized cells located at:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Junction of thick descending limb and DCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Junction of thick descending limb and PCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Junction of thick ascending limb and DCT", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Junction of DCT and collecting duct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Junction of thick ascending limb and DCT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Junction of thick ascending limb and DCT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The macula densa is located at the junction of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) , and is an integral part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus responsible for regulating kidney function and blood pressure through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).</li><li>➤ macula densa</li><li>➤ thick ascending limb</li><li>➤ distal convoluted tubule (DCT)</li><li>➤ juxtaglomerular apparatus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be used to calculate the cardiac output? ECHO Ventilation-perfusion scan Thermodilution Fick's principle", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B, C, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B, C, D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, C, D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A, C, D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A, C, D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiac output can be measured using several methods such as the Fick principle , thermodilution , and ECHO . The average cardiac output in adults is approximately 5 L/min .</li><li>➤ Fick principle</li><li>➤ thermodilution</li><li>➤ ECHO</li><li>➤ 5 L/min</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A gentleman presents to the OPD with a saddle nose deformity. He gives a past history of cough, on/off fever, and hemoptysis. On examination, septal perforation is present with pale granuloma. His chest x-ray showed multiple cavitary lesions, and the biopsy showed granuloma, multinucleate giant cells, and caseous necrosis. What would be the probable cause?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wegener's granulomatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Saddle-nose deformity with granuloma and caseous necrosis on biopsy is highly suggestive of tuberculosis .</li><li>➤ granuloma</li><li>➤ caseous necrosis</li><li>➤ tuberculosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fracture of the jugular canal can present as:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3rd of tongue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loss of taste sensation in posterior 1/3rd of tongue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of general sensation in anterior 2/3rd of tongue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loss of motor sensation in anterior 2/3rd of tongue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Loss of taste sensation in posterior 1/3rd of tongue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Loss of taste sensation in posterior 1/3rd of tongue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A fracture of the jugular canal can lead to a loss of taste sensation in the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue due to damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) .</li><li>➤ fracture of the jugular canal</li><li>➤ posterior 1/3rd</li><li>➤ glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensations in the face, vertigo with numbness and loss of sweating, and dysarthria on the contralateral side. All these symptoms are caused due to a lesion in: Medial medulla Lateral medulla Ventromedial medulla Lateral medulla including nucleus ambiguus and spinothalamic tract", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B and D", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B, C and D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B and C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A and B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. B and D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) B and D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) is caused by an infarction in the lateral medulla , affecting structures such as the spinothalamic tract , nucleus ambiguus , trigeminal nucleus , and sympathetic fibers , leading to a distinct pattern of ipsilateral and contralateral deficits.</li><li>➤ lateral medulla</li><li>➤ spinothalamic tract</li><li>➤ nucleus ambiguus</li><li>➤ trigeminal nucleus</li><li>➤ sympathetic fibers</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following cell types with their associated malignancy. Popcorn cell Faggot cell Cerebriform nuclei Starry sky Acute promyelocytic leukemia Lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma Burkitt lymphoma Sezary syndrome", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The student must memorize the key associations of specific cell types with their respective malignancies:</li><li>➤ Popcorn cell : Lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma Faggot cell : Acute promyelocytic leukemia Cerebriform nuclei : Sezary syndrome Starry sky : Burkitt lymphoma</li><li>➤ Popcorn cell : Lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma</li><li>➤ Popcorn cell</li><li>➤ Faggot cell : Acute promyelocytic leukemia</li><li>➤ Faggot cell</li><li>➤ Cerebriform nuclei : Sezary syndrome</li><li>➤ Cerebriform nuclei</li><li>➤ Starry sky : Burkitt lymphoma</li><li>➤ Starry sky</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the given cellular components with their respective marker enzymes.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-172818.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Each cellular organelle can be identified by its specific marker enzyme. Knowing these associations is essential for understanding cell biology and organelle function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is a β2 agonist? Dopexamine Dipivefrine Fenoldopam Mirabegron", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4, 3, 2, 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dipivefrine and dopexamine are β2-adrenergic receptor agonists used in clinical settings for conditions such as glaucoma and heart failure, respectively. Recognizing drug-receptor interactions is essential for understanding their therapeutic applications.</li><li>➤ Dipivefrine</li><li>➤ dopexamine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements about sympathetic, parasympathetic, and motor nerves. Which of the following statements are true? Sympathetic efferents are distributed all over the body/ extensively whereas parasympathetic distribution is limited. Sympathetic fibers travel long distances after leaving the sympathetic chain, before finally synapsing and then a shorter distance to effector organs. Parasympathetic fibers travel a shorter distance to their respective ganglia which are located close to the target organs. Motor neurons are located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord from where the axons come out and divide into several branches, each of which supplies an individual muscle fiber.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sympathetic nervous system has an extensive distribution throughout the body, while the parasympathetic nervous system has a limited distribution. Motor neurons located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord supply individual muscle fibers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the normal insensible water loss?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 mL/hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "150 mL/hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50 mL/hour", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "200 mL/hour", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 50 mL/hour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 50 mL/hour</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Insensible water loss is the loss of water through vaporization from the respiratory tract and diffusion from the skin, which accounts for approximately 50 mL/hour in humans.</li><li>➤ 50 mL/hour</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following lobes of the lung is affected when there is aspiration in supine position?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lingula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Upper part of right inferior lobe", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right superior lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right middle lobe", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Upper part of right inferior lobe", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Upper part of right inferior lobe</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the supine position , aspiration typically affects the upper part of the right inferior lobe and the posterior segment of the right superior lobe . This pattern is due to the gravitational distribution of aspirated material in a recumbent patient.</li><li>➤ supine position</li><li>➤ upper part of the right inferior lobe</li><li>➤ posterior segment of the right superior lobe</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female patient presents with complaints of nasal obstruction and post-nasal drip. There is a past history of FESS for failed conservative management 5 years ago. Uncinectomy and maxillary ostium dilation were done during the previous FESS. A DNE done now shows patent ostia and mucosal edema of the maxillary sinus lining. What is the next best step in management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Repeat surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macrolides for 4 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Steroid irrigation and antihistamines", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biological therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Steroid irrigation and antihistamines", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Steroid irrigation and antihistamines</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nasal steroid irrigation and antihistamines are the next best step in the management of acute rhinosinusitis with mucosal edema and patent sinus ostia, especially in patients with previous sinus surgery. This approach reduces inflammation and edema to restore normal sinus drainage.</li><li>➤ Nasal steroid irrigation</li><li>➤ antihistamines</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hypertensive patient on medication presents with the following lab values: K⁺: 6.5 meq/L Na⁺: 137 meq/L Urea: 42 mg/dL Creatinine: 3.8 mg/dL Which of the following drugs should be stopped?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amlodipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Losartan", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Losartan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Losartan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Losartan, an ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker), should be discontinued in hypertensive patients with hyperkalemia as it can worsen potassium retention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most effective oral drug in smoking cessation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Varenicline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cevimeline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Muscarine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Varenicline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Varenicline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Varenicline is a partial agonist of the α4 and β2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and is the most effective oral drug for smoking cessation. It blocks dopaminergic stimulation and reduces the rewarding effects of nicotine.</li><li>➤ Varenicline</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs increases trabecular outflow?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Timolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Netarsudil", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brimonidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetazolamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Netarsudil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Netarsudil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Netarsudil is a rho-kinase inhibitor that increases trabecular outflow in the treatment of glaucoma and ocular hypertension by relaxing the trabecular meshwork.</li><li>➤ rho-kinase inhibitor</li><li>➤ trabecular outflow</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Finasteride is used to treat male-pattern baldness by inhibiting which of the following enzymes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aromatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "17-hydrolase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5-alpha reductase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphodiesterase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 5-alpha reductase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 5-alpha reductase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Finasteride works by inhibiting 5-alpha reductase , which blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) , a major factor in male-pattern baldness and benign prostatic hyperplasia.</li><li>➤ 5-alpha reductase</li><li>➤ dihydrotestosterone (DHT)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rituximab is a:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polyclonal antibody which acts against CD20", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polyclonal antibody which acts against CD50", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Monoclonal antibody which acts against CD20", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Monoclonal antibody which acts against CD50", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Monoclonal antibody which acts against CD20", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Monoclonal antibody which acts against CD20</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20 on B-cells, used in treating B-cell lymphomas and chronic lymphocytic leukemia .</li><li>➤ monoclonal antibody</li><li>➤ CD20</li><li>➤ B-cell lymphomas</li><li>➤ chronic lymphocytic leukemia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The clinical finding in the 10-year-old boy includes fever, joint pain, and a hand lesion as shown in the image below. What is the likely diagnosis based on these findings? (INICET NOV 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gottron's papules - Juvenile dermatomyositis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatoid nodules - Juvenile rheumatic arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sclerodactyly - Systemic sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mechanic's hand - Systemic lupus erythematosus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gottron's papules - Juvenile dermatomyositis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/1_3RUwRSy.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture3_TWy4qiE.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/22/picture4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gottron's papules - Juvenile dermatomyositis.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a case involving fever, joint pain, and hand lesions in a child , the presence of Gottron's papules is indicative of Juvenile dermatomyositis .</li><li>➤ fever, joint pain, and hand lesions in a child</li><li>➤ Gottron's papules</li><li>➤ Juvenile dermatomyositis</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 53 page no 53.1-53.12</li><li>➤ Ref - Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 53 page no 53.1-53.12</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 21 st edition Page 2820-2821</li><li>➤ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 21 st edition Page 2820-2821</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presents to the outpatient department with a satellite skin lesion. On examination, the patient has one hypopigmented lesion and one thickened nerve. The images of two blister packs are provided. Based on the WHO / NLEP Guidelines, which treatment is most appropriate for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Packet 1 for 12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Packet 2 for 12 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Packet 1 for 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Packet 2 for 6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Packet 2 for 12 months", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture2_e7rPz6c.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_TAhJtvE.png", "https://tnhealth.tn.gov.in/tngovin/dph/images/mbadultdose.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_QuOAkXI.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_cv8eRBC.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_F3OLXAd.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Jopling’s handbook of leprosy, 6 th edition, page no 10</li><li>↳ Jopling’s handbook of leprosy, 6 th edition, page no 10</li><li>↳ Andrew’s diseases of the skin: clinical dermatology 13 th edition page no 338, 339, 345</li><li>↳ Andrew’s diseases of the skin: clinical dermatology 13 th edition page no 338, 339, 345</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet Nov 2023 2023 11 05 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Which of the following mood stabilizers causes hepatitis ? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lithium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valproate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbamezapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Topiramate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Valproate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-170026_BWTfqLy.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Valproate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Valproate, a commonly used mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, is associated hepatitis. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial in patients on valproate therapy to detect and manage potential liver damage early.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of heavy metal toxicity. Laboratory investigations confirm the presence of heavy metal ions in the patient's bloodstream. The medical team is considering chelation therapy to bind and facilitate the excretion of the toxic metals. Which of the following agents is NOT typically used for the treatment of heavy metal toxicity? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BAL (British Anti-Lewisite)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oximes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oximes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Oximes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oximes are not used for heavy metal chelation and are specifically used to treat organophosphate poisoning by reactivating acetylcholinesterase. Chelating agents like BAL, EDTA, and penicillamine are typically used for heavy metal toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following muscles are supplied by the lateral plantar nerve? ( INICET Nov 2023) Abductor hallucis Flexor digitorum accessorius Flexor hallucis brevis First lumbrical First interossei", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 and 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2 and 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-102502_Vdv1wE0.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2 and 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lateral plantar nerve supplies the flexor digitorum accessorius (quadratus plantae) and the first interossei muscles in the foot.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism and the staining method used in the provided image. (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nocardia acid fast stain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus gram stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcus india ink", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coccidioidomycosis PAS stain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nocardia acid fast stain", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-183830.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nocardia acid fast stain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The image shows filamentous bacteria with partial acid-fastness, characteristic of Nocardia species stained using an acid-fast technique.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Streptococcus gram stain : Shows gram-positive cocci, not filamentous bacteria.</li><li>• Option B. Streptococcus gram stain</li><li>• Option C. Cryptococcus india ink : Would reveal spherical yeast forms with a clear halo.</li><li>• Option C. Cryptococcus india ink</li><li>• Option D. Coccidioidomycosis PAS stain : Typically shows spherules rather than filamentous structures.</li><li>• Option D. Coccidioidomycosis PAS stain</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Nocardia species are identified using an acid-fast stain, which highlights their filamentous and partially acid-fast nature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked ligament? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PCL", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ACL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meniscus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MCL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PCL", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/10/screenshot-2024-05-10-181315.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PCL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The marked ligament in the MRI scan is the PCL (Posterior Cruciate Ligament) . This identification is supported by the ligament's location and trajectory as depicted in the image.</li><li>➤ PCL (Posterior Cruciate Ligament)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient cannot identify objects but she can see the color, texture, shape. What is the site of the lesion? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial parietal area", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral parietal area", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infra temporal area", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipital area", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Occipital area", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-102912.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Occipital area</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lesions in the secondary visual processing areas (areas 18 and 19) of the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia, where the patient can see but cannot identify objects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mark the correct statement/s about Inner and Outer hair cells. (INICET Nov 2023) Inner hair cells are in a single row and transmit auditory impulses Outer hair cells are in 3-4 rows and modulate function of inner hair cells Outer hair cells are more responsible for movement of tectorial membrane Inner hair cells are in single row and modulate function of outer hair cells Outer and inner hair cells are present in the ratio 3:1", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 5 are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "All are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 4 and 5 are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 5 are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2 and 5 are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct statements about inner and outer hair cells are that inner hair cells are in a single row and transmit auditory impulses, outer hair cells are in 3-4 rows and help modulate cochlear mechanics, and the ratio of outer to inner hair cells is about 3:1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with ulcerative colitis is experiencing three episodes of bleeding in stools per day but is otherwise stable. What is the appropriate treatment for this patient? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-Aminosalicylic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "5-Fluorouracil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Budesonide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6-Mercaptopurine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 5-Aminosalicylic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 5-Aminosalicylic acid.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 5-Aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) is the first-line treatment for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis and is effective in reducing inflammation and maintaining remission in stable patients experiencing active symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following activate glycogen phosphorylase? ( INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ca 2+", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose 6-Phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High ATP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ca 2+", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/05.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation: Calcium ions play a role in the activation of glycogen phosphorylase. When there is a need for energy, an increase in intracellular calcium levels can activate glycogen phosphorylase. Calcium ions bind to calmodulin, which, in turn, activates phosphorylase kinase. Phosphorylase kinase then phosphorylates and activates glycogen phosphorylase.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relevance: Calcium-mediated activation of glycogen phosphorylase is part of the fight-or-flight response, ensuring a rapid release of glucose for energy during periods of stress or physical activity.</li><li>• Relevance:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Glucose 6-Phosphate:</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Glucose 6-Phosphate:</li><li>• Explanation: Glucose 6-phosphate is a product of the glycolytic pathway and is an indicator of sufficient energy within the cell. High levels of glucose 6-phosphate inhibit glycogen phosphorylase. Glycogen phosphorylase is typically activated when glucose levels are low and energy demand is high. Relevance: The presence of glucose 6-phosphate signals that the cell has adequate energy reserves and does not need to break down glycogen.</li><li>• Explanation: Glucose 6-phosphate is a product of the glycolytic pathway and is an indicator of sufficient energy within the cell. High levels of glucose 6-phosphate inhibit glycogen phosphorylase. Glycogen phosphorylase is typically activated when glucose levels are low and energy demand is high.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relevance: The presence of glucose 6-phosphate signals that the cell has adequate energy reserves and does not need to break down glycogen.</li><li>• Relevance:</li><li>• Option C. Glucose:</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Glucose:</li><li>• Explanation: Glucose itself does not directly activate glycogen phosphorylase. In fact, high levels of glucose can have an inhibitory effect on glycogen phosphorylase because it indicates that there is sufficient glucose available for energy needs, reducing the need to break down glycogen. Relevance: Elevated glucose levels signal that there is no immediate need to activate glycogen phosphorylase.</li><li>• Explanation: Glucose itself does not directly activate glycogen phosphorylase. In fact, high levels of glucose can have an inhibitory effect on glycogen phosphorylase because it indicates that there is sufficient glucose available for energy needs, reducing the need to break down glycogen.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relevance: Elevated glucose levels signal that there is no immediate need to activate glycogen phosphorylase.</li><li>• Relevance:</li><li>• Option D. High ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate):</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• High ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate):</li><li>• Explanation: High levels of ATP can inhibit glycogen phosphorylase. ATP is a molecule that stores energy, and when ATP levels are high, it indicates that the cell has sufficient energy reserves. In this context, glycogen phosphorylase would not be activated to break down glycogen. Relevance: High ATP levels signal that there is no immediate need for additional energy from glycogenolysis.</li><li>• Explanation: High levels of ATP can inhibit glycogen phosphorylase. ATP is a molecule that stores energy, and when ATP levels are high, it indicates that the cell has sufficient energy reserves. In this context, glycogen phosphorylase would not be activated to break down glycogen.</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Relevance: High ATP levels signal that there is no immediate need for additional energy from glycogenolysis.</li><li>• Relevance:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycogen Phosphorylase is first and RLE of glycogenolysis. It transfers P i , uses PLP (B 6 ) and breaks α (1 à 4) bonds from one end until 4 glucose residues are left at branch point. End-product is Glucose 1–P (90%). It exists in two forms b and a. which is regulated by various mechanism shown as:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old patient with a history of progressive vision loss is scheduled for cataract surgery under the National Program for Control of Blindness and Visual Impairment. Which of the following is NOT an accurate guideline or inclusion criterion for cataract surgery within this national program? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patients requiring cataract surgeries are selected and asked to report to base hospital", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perform more small incision cataract surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "To do surgery in rural area with make shift hospital/Ots", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "To perform surgeries in fixed facility surgery by shifting patients from rural area.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. To do surgery in rural area with make shift hospital/Ots", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) To do surgery in rural area with make shift hospital/Ots</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• To do surgery in rural area with makeshift hospital/Ots i s not advisable, suggests conducting surgeries in temporary setups or less equipped facilities, typically in rural areas. This is considered unsafe and against the guidelines because such environments cannot guarantee the sterility and safety standards required for surgical procedures.</li><li>• To do surgery in rural area with makeshift hospital/Ots i</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Patients requiring cataract surgeries are selected and asked to report to base hospital : This refers to the standard protocol where patients identified as needing cataract surgery are instructed to come to a base or main hospital that is equipped for such procedures. This ensures that surgeries are performed in a controlled, sterile environment with appropriate medical facilities and staff.</li><li>• Option A. Patients requiring cataract surgeries are selected and asked to report to base hospital</li><li>• Option B. Perform more small incision cataract surgery (SICS) : This statement encourages the adoption of small incision cataract surgery, which is a modern technique that allows for quicker recovery times and potentially fewer complications than traditional methods. It is particularly advantageous in resource-limited settings because it does not require expensive machinery like phacoemulsification units.</li><li>• Option B. Perform more small incision cataract surgery (SICS)</li><li>• Option D. To perform surgeries in fixed facility surgery by shifting patients from rural area : This approach involves transporting patients from rural and remote areas to fixed, well-equipped surgical facilities, typically located in urban or suburban centers. This ensures all patients receive high-quality care in facilities that meet national and international health and safety standards.</li><li>• Option D. To perform surgeries in fixed facility surgery by shifting patients from rural area</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The primary aim of these guidelines is to ensure that all surgeries, particularly sensitive ones like cataract surgery, are performed in environments that uphold the highest standards of medical care and patient safety. The emphasis is on using modern surgical techniques and ensuring that all procedures are carried out in well-equipped, permanent medical facilities to minimize risks and enhance recovery outcomes. The standard guideline includes:</li><li>➤ Village Register (Linelisting of cases) Screening camps Transport of cases to Base hospital Free surgery – fixed facility surgery approach (Reach in approach at base Hospitals preferred over Reach out approach as camp mode) Follow up of cases (for this camp mode is preferred)</li><li>➤ Village Register (Linelisting of cases)</li><li>➤ Screening camps</li><li>➤ Transport of cases to Base hospital</li><li>➤ Free surgery – fixed facility surgery approach (Reach in approach at base Hospitals preferred over Reach out approach as camp mode)</li><li>➤ Follow up of cases (for this camp mode is preferred)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a function of the marked layer? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gluconeogenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium and water retention", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased sex hormones", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immune cell interaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sodium and water retention", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-170452.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sodium and water retention</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex is responsible for sodium and water retention through the secretion of mineralocorticoids, primarily aldosterone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Insulin independent absorption occurs in all except: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adipose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "RBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancreas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adipose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adipose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucose uptake in adipose tissue is insulin-dependent, while RBCs, pancreas, and brain utilize insulin-independent mechanisms for glucose absorption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with fever, cough, weight loss, histology of the pathology is as shown below. What is the most likely cytokine involved? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interferon gamma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complement 5a protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Histamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prostaglandin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Interferon gamma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-151657.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Interferon gamma</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cadaveric spasm is seen in all except: (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suicidal firearm wounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Traumatic asphyxia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drowning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electrocution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Traumatic asphyxia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Traumatic asphyxia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the emergency department in an unconscious state. The patient is dehydrated and the blood pressure of the patient is 90/60 mm Hg. Laboratory investigations revealed the serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L, sodium level of 129 mEq/L, and blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) for which he was prescribed medication by a local physician; however, the patient abruptly discontinued the medication a few weeks ago. Based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, which of the following drugs should be administered as a life-saving measure to treat this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrocortisone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium bicarbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertonic saline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydrocortisone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydrocortisone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydrocortisone is the drug of choice for treating adrenal insufficiency or Addisonian crisis, which can present with hypotension, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, dehydration, and hypoglycemia, especially in patients with a history of corticosteroid use who abruptly discontinue their medication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following poison and site of action : (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1,B-2,C-4,D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-095846.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the OPD with complaints of vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus which lasts minutes to hours with accompanied nausea and vomiting. On investigation, there is endolymphatic hypertension present. What is the diagnosis? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meniere’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BPPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acoustic neuroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Meniere’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-111007.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Meniere’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Meniere’s disease is a chronic condition that requires management of symptoms through lifestyle changes, medications to control vertigo, and sometimes more invasive treatments to manage fluid pressure in the inner ear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Causes of non-immune hydrops fetalis are all except: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ABO incompatibility", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congestive cardiac failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parvovirus infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chromosomal anomalies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ABO incompatibility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ABO incompatibility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize the various causes of non-immune hydrops fetalis. Understand that conditions such as congestive cardiac failure, infections (e.g., parvovirus), and chromosomal anomalies can contribute to the development of hydrops in the absence of immune-mediated factors. Be aware that ABO incompatibility is not a typical cause of non-immune hydrops fetalis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most important prognostic factor for Ca Breast is: (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Axillary lymph node status", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Size", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distant metastasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hormonal status", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Axillary lymph node status", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Axillary lymph node status</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While all these factors are important in assessing the prognosis of breast cancer, the status of the axillary lymph nodes is traditionally considered a key indicator due to its implications for the spread of the disease within the body and potential treatment strategies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following occur during the beginning cough reflex? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Forced expiration against a closed glottis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Forced expiration against an open glottis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Forced inspiration against a closed glottis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Forced expiration against a closed glottis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Forced expiration against a closed glottis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The beginning of the cough reflex involves a forced expiration against a closed glottis, building up pressure in the lungs which is then rapidly released when the glottis opens.Top of Form</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following stains cause brown color to Her 2 neu cells of breast carcinoma as shown in the image? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoroscein isothiocyanate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alkaline phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diamino benzidene", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Benzene", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Diamino benzidene", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-172631.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Diamino benzidene</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is prescribed a corrective lens with the following prescription: -1D spherical, -2D cylinder at 180 degrees. What type of refractive error is being corrected? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "With the rule astigmatism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Against the rule astigmatism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Simple astigmatism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mixed astigmatism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. With the rule astigmatism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) With the rule astigmatism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When prescribed corrective lenses for astigmatism, understanding the orientation and type of astigmatism (with the rule, against the rule, simple, or mixed) is crucial for ensuring the correct lens type and orientation is used, thus maximizing visual clarity and health.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male with a history of recurrent sinusitis presents with decreased vision, eye protrusion, and fever. A computed tomography (CT) scan was done. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Preseptal cellulitis with sinusitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbital cellulitis with sinusitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sub periosteal abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cellulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Orbital cellulitis with sinusitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/12/screenshot-2024-06-12-175843.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Orbital cellulitis with sinusitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Orbital cellulitis with sinusitis is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications such as vision loss, intracranial spread of infection, and other severe outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Blood supply for the red shaded area in the given image is a branch of which artery? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior cerebellar artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior cerebral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vertebral artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basilar artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vertebral artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-104457.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-104528.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vertebral artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA), which is a branch of the vertebral artery, supplies the lateral medulla. Damage to this artery can result in lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to OPD with complaints of pain in his genital area. On examination, there were painful coalescing vesicles, associated with painful inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes Simplex Virus-2 (HSV-2)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human papillomavirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Varicella zoster virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Herpes Simplex Virus-2 (HSV-2)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-180504.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-180511.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-180524.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-180535.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Herpes Simplex Virus-2 (HSV-2)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Identify Herpes Simplex Virus-2 (HSV-2) as the cause of painful, coalescing genital vesicles and painful lymphadenopathy in the given clinical scenario.</li><li>➤ Herpes Simplex Virus-2 (HSV-2)</li><li>➤ painful,</li><li>➤ genital vesicles</li><li>➤ and painful lymphadenopathy</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition page 25.12, 25.16, 25.24, 25.44</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition page 25.12, 25.16, 25.24, 25.44</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with breathlessness. On chest X-ray, the following object is seen. Identify? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Button battery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ball", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bottle cap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Button battery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/10/screenshot-2024-05-10-181303.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Button battery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image you’ve provided shows a radiopaque object in the esophagus of a child, which is identified as a button battery.</li><li>• On X-rays, button batteries typically present as small, circular objects with a double rim or halo effect. This is because they have a distinctive two-layer structure which shows up clearly on radiographs. The appearance in the X-ray is characteristic of a button battery, with a clearly visible double rim. This is a medical emergency due to the risk of rapid and severe damage to the mucosal tissues from electrical discharge and leakage of caustic substances.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Coin : Coins are also circular and radiopaque on X-rays but lack the double rim feature seen with button batteries. Coins tend to be uniform in density throughout. Although they are a common type of foreign body ingested by children, they generally pose less immediate danger compared to button batteries.</li><li>• Option B. Coin</li><li>• Option C. Ball : A small ball, depending on its material, might appear on an X-ray if it's dense enough. However, it would not typically show the structured double rim characteristic of a button battery.</li><li>• Option C. Ball</li><li>• Option D. Bottle Cap : Bottle caps may appear circular but would show irregular edges or threading and do not have the double rim appearance.</li><li>• Option D. Bottle Cap</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediate identification and removal of an ingested button battery are crucial due to the rapid damage that can occur. Emergency endoscopic retrieval is usually necessary to prevent severe injury or death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An overweight 13-year-old girl has the following blackish discoloration on her neck, as shown in the image below. What is this condition and its association? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acanthosis nigricans – Insulin resistance", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stria albicans – Cushing syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Xeroderma pigmentosum – Freckles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Café au lait spots – McCune Albright syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acanthosis nigricans – Insulin resistance", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-181820.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-181828.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-181838.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-181849.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Striae Albicans :</li><li>• Option B. Striae Albicans</li><li>• This refers to the white or silver stretch marks that occur when the skin has been stretched rapidly as in the case of rapid weight gain or with conditions like Cushing syndrome.</li><li>• This refers to the white or silver stretch marks that occur when the skin has been stretched rapidly as in the case of rapid weight gain or with conditions like Cushing syndrome.</li><li>• white or silver stretch marks</li><li>• rapid weight gain</li><li>• Cushing syndrome.</li><li>• However, the image does not show stretch marks but rather a hyperpigmented, thickened area of skin.</li><li>• However, the image does not show stretch marks but rather a hyperpigmented, thickened area of skin.</li><li>• Option C. Xeroderma Pigmentosum :</li><li>• Option C. Xeroderma Pigmentosum</li><li>• This is a rare genetic disorder characterized by extreme sensitivity to ultraviolet (UV) rays from sunlight, leading to an increased risk of skin cancer.</li><li>• This is a rare genetic disorder characterized by extreme sensitivity to ultraviolet (UV) rays from sunlight, leading to an increased risk of skin cancer.</li><li>• genetic disorder</li><li>• sensitivity</li><li>• skin cancer.</li><li>• The lesions associated with this condition are more freckle-like and do not resemble the thick, velvety texture seen in the image.</li><li>• The lesions associated with this condition are more freckle-like and do not resemble the thick, velvety texture seen in the image.</li><li>• freckle-like</li><li>• Option D. Café au lait spots :</li><li>• Option D. Café au lait spots</li><li>• These are light brown to dark brown spots commonly associated with neurofibromatosis or McCune-Albright syndrome .</li><li>• These are light brown to dark brown spots commonly associated with neurofibromatosis or McCune-Albright syndrome .</li><li>• light brown to dark brown spots</li><li>• neurofibromatosis or McCune-Albright syndrome</li><li>• Unlike Acanthosis Nigricans, café au lait spots are smooth in texture and uniform in pigmentation, not velvety or thickened.</li><li>• Unlike Acanthosis Nigricans, café au lait spots are smooth in texture and uniform in pigmentation, not velvety or thickened.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize Acanthosis Nigricans by its velvety, hyperpigmented plaques on the neck and its association with insulin resistance in the context of obesity.</li><li>➤ Recognize Acanthosis Nigricans by its velvety, hyperpigmented plaques on the neck and its association with insulin resistance in the context of obesity.</li><li>➤ Acanthosis Nigricans</li><li>➤ velvety, hyperpigmented plaques</li><li>➤ neck</li><li>➤ insulin resistance</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Page no 87.2</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Page no 87.2</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 46-year-old male with a history of depression has been treated with fluoxetine for the past six months. He presented to the emergency department with altered consciousness and an ECG showing QT prolongation, with a QTc of 447 ms. Recently, he was prescribed an additional medication for chronic pain management. Which of the following drugs was most likely added to his regimen that could have contributed to his current condition? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methadone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Piperidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Morphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tramadol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methadone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Methadone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methadone can cause QT prolongation, and when combined with fluoxetine, which inhibits its metabolism, the risk of QT prolongation and related cardiac issues increases significantly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old female with bleeding disorder, gives family history of her father and sister suffering from the same bleeding disorders. Which is the most likely disorder? ( INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Von Willebrand disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemophilia A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Christmas disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factor 12 Deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Von Willebrand disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Von Willebrand disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Von Willebrand disease is characterized by its autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and affects both genders, making it the most likely diagnosis for a female patient with a family history of bleeding disorders involving both male and female family members.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman is in labor. The cervix is 3 cm dilated and 70% effaced. A \"bag of worms\" is felt. What is the next best step? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rupture membranes and confirm cord prolapse", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Emergency LSCS", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Put the cord above the vertex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait for spontaneous delivery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Emergency LSCS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Emergency LSCS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected cord prolapse during labor, an emergency LSCS is the recommended course of action to safely deliver the baby and minimize the risk of complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Enzyme deficient in pompe’s disease is: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose 6 phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alpha 1, 4 glucosidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Muscle phosphorylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphofructokinase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alpha 1, 4 glucosidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alpha 1, 4 glucosidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand the enzymatic basis of Pompe's disease, recognizing that it is caused by a deficiency of alpha-1,4-glucosidase (acid maltase). Be aware of the clinical manifestations and biochemical abnormalities associated with Pompe's disease, which is characterized by the accumulation of glycogen in various tissues, particularly in muscles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the genetic material, Number of Adenine will not be equal to that of Thymine:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitochondrial DNA of human", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HIV", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HIV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HIV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a retrovirus with RNA as its genetic material. In RNA, adenine pairs with uracil. So, the number of adenine will not be equal to that of thymine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the antigen present in the recombinant HPV vaccine? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E1 + E2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E6 + E7", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "L1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "L2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. L1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) L1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The recombinant HPV vaccine primarily includes the L1 protein, which self-assembles into virus-like particles, providing the basis for immune recognition without causing the disease.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. E1 + E2: E1 and E2 are early viral proteins, not included in vaccines due to their role in viral replication.</li><li>• Option A. E1 + E2:</li><li>• Option B. E6 + E7: E6 and E7 are proteins involved in oncogenesis, not appropriate for vaccine development.</li><li>• Option B. E6 + E7:</li><li>• Option D. L2: L2 is also a capsid protein but not the primary antigen used in current HPV vaccines.</li><li>• Option D. L2:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The L1 protein of HPV forms the basis of the recombinant HPV vaccine, effectively stimulating an immune response by mimicking the virus structure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has been diagnosed with Luminal A type of breast carcinoma. Which of the following best describes the marker profile in her? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ER+, PR+, HER2- High Ki67", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ER+, PR+, HER2- Low Ki67", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ER+, PR+, HER2+ High Ki67", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ER-, PR-, HER2- High Ki67", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ER+, PR+, HER2- Low Ki67", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ER+, PR+, HER2- Low Ki67</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At 6 weeks of life, a child developed a fever after DPT vaccination. And now child is 10 weeks due for vaccination. What should be done next? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give DPT Vaccination", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give DT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Don’t give DPT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Don’t give any vaccination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Give DPT Vaccination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Give DPT Vaccination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand the approach to managing adverse events following immunization. Recognize that mild reactions, such as fever after a vaccine, do not necessarily contraindicate subsequent doses. Adherence to the recommended vaccination schedule is crucial for providing timely and effective protection against vaccine-preventable diseases</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a study involving radiographic evaluations, two physicians independently assessed 100 chest X-rays. They calculated a Kappa statistic of 0.71 to measure inter-rater agreement. What does this Kappa value indicate about the level of agreement between the two doctors? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Slight", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fair", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moderate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Substantial", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Substantial", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Substantial</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Kappa statistic is used to measure the degree of agreement between two raters beyond what would be expected by chance. Here's what each value typically indicates about the level of agreement:</li><li>• A. Slight : A Kappa value from 0.01 to 0.20. This range indicates that there is minimal agreement between the two raters, barely above what would be expected by random chance.</li><li>• A. Slight</li><li>• B. Fair: A Kappa value from 0.21 to 0.40. This suggests there is some agreement between the raters, but it remains relatively low.</li><li>• B. Fair:</li><li>• C. Moderate: A Kappa value from 0.41 to 0.60. This level indicates a moderate amount of agreement, showing that the raters often agree on their assessments.</li><li>• C. Moderate:</li><li>• D. Substantial: A Kappa value from 0.61 to 0.80. This indicates a high level of agreement, suggesting that the raters consistently agree in their assessments most of the time.</li><li>• D. Substantial:</li><li>• E. Near Perfect agreement – kappa value from 0.81 to 0.99</li><li>• E. Near Perfect agreement</li><li>• F. Perfect agreement – Kappa value – 1.00</li><li>• F. Perfect agreement</li><li>• In this case, a Kappa value of 0.71 falls within the \"Substantial\" category, indicating a strong and consistent level of agreement between the two physicians assessing the chest X-rays. This is generally considered an excellent result in clinical settings, as it shows that both observers have a similar interpretation of the radiographic images, which can greatly improve diagnostic accuracy and patient care.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The Kappa statistic is a reliable tool for assessing the consistency and reliability of diagnostic interpretations between different raters, especially in medical imaging where subjective judgment can vary.</li><li>➤ High Kappa values, like 0.71, reinforce the reliability of the assessments and the potential for standardized approaches in clinical practice</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An immunocompromised patient presents with the following lesion on the lateral aspect of the tongue as shown in the image below. This white membrane was not scrapeable with a gauze piece. What is the diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral hairy Leukoplakia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lichen Sclerosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oral hairy Leukoplakia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-180801.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-180810.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-181805.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oral Hairy Leucoplakia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Lichen Planus :</li><li>• Option B. Lichen Planus</li><li>• This condition usually presents as white, lace-like patterns (Wickham's striae) as shown in the image below, on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and other oral mucosa .</li><li>• This condition usually presents as white, lace-like patterns (Wickham's striae) as shown in the image below, on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and other oral mucosa .</li><li>• white, lace-like patterns (Wickham's striae)</li><li>• buccal mucosa, tongue, and other oral mucosa</li><li>• It can sometimes have erosive, painful areas , but it does not have the \"hairy\" appearance typical of Oral Hairy Leukoplakia.</li><li>• It can sometimes have erosive, painful areas , but it does not have the \"hairy\" appearance typical of Oral Hairy Leukoplakia.</li><li>• erosive, painful areas</li><li>• Option C. Lichen Sclerosus :</li><li>• Option C. Lichen Sclerosus</li><li>• This is a chronic condition that typically affects the anogenital area , not the oral mucosa.</li><li>• This is a chronic condition that typically affects the anogenital area , not the oral mucosa.</li><li>• anogenital area</li><li>• It is characterized by white patches that can lead to scarring , but it does not occur on the tongue.</li><li>• It is characterized by white patches that can lead to scarring , but it does not occur on the tongue.</li><li>• white patches</li><li>• scarring</li><li>• Option D. Candidiasis :</li><li>• Option D. Candidiasis</li><li>• Also known as oral thrush , candidiasis presents with white patches that typically can be scraped off to reveal a red, bleeding surface underneath. The fact that the lesion in the image is not scrapeable makes candidiasis less likely.</li><li>• Also known as oral thrush , candidiasis presents with white patches that typically can be scraped off to reveal a red, bleeding surface underneath. The fact that the lesion in the image is not scrapeable makes candidiasis less likely.</li><li>• oral thrush</li><li>• scraped off</li><li>• red, bleeding surface</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diagnose Oral Hairy Leukoplakia by its characteristic non-scrapeable, white, hairy appearance on the lateral aspect of the tongue, especially in i mmunocompromised patients.</li><li>➤ Diagnose Oral Hairy Leukoplakia by its characteristic non-scrapeable, white, hairy appearance on the lateral aspect of the tongue, especially in i mmunocompromised patients.</li><li>➤ Oral Hairy Leukoplakia</li><li>➤ non-scrapeable, white, hairy appearance on the lateral</li><li>➤ mmunocompromised</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Page no 25.33</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Page no 25.33</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which component of the HIV genome is necessary for the virus to enter the host cell membrane? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GP120", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CCR5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GP41", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CXCR4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GP120", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GP120</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GP120, a glycoprotein on the HIV envelope, is necessary for binding to CD4 receptors on host cells, facilitating viral entry.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not seen in Downs syndrome? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Short stature", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caudal regression syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Caudal regression syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Caudal regression syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize the common clinical features and associated conditions of Down syndrome. Understand that hypothyroidism, hearing loss, and short stature are commonly observed in individuals with Down syndrome. Be aware of the distinct features of other congenital conditions, such as caudal regression syndrome, that are not typically associated with Down syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The blood investigation of a patient is given below. What is the probable diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2023) HBsAg - NR, Anti HBs - NR, Anti HBc IgM - NR, Anti HBc total - positive, HBeAg - NR, Anti HBe – NR (NR – Non reactive)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute HBV infection in window period", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immune with recombinant HBV Vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HBV infection in the remote past, completely recovered", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic HBV infection inactive carrier", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HBV infection in the remote past, completely recovered", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HBV infection in the remote past, completely recovered</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's serological markers indicate the following:</li><li>• HBsAg - Non-Reactive (NR): This suggests that the patient is not currently infected with Hepatitis B.</li><li>• HBsAg - Non-Reactive (NR): This suggests that the patient is not currently infected with Hepatitis B.</li><li>• Anti HBs - NR: Lack of antibodies against the Hepatitis B surface antigen suggests no current immunity from vaccination or recent infection.</li><li>• Anti HBs - NR: Lack of antibodies against the Hepatitis B surface antigen suggests no current immunity from vaccination or recent infection.</li><li>• Anti HBc IgM - NR: The absence of IgM antibodies against the core antigen indicates no recent acute infection. Anti HBc total - positive: Presence of total core antibodies (including IgG) indicates past exposure to the virus.</li><li>• Anti HBc IgM - NR: The absence of IgM antibodies against the core antigen indicates no recent acute infection.</li><li>• Anti HBc total - positive: Presence of total core antibodies (including IgG) indicates past exposure to the virus.</li><li>• HBeAg - NR: Absence of the e antigen suggests no active viral replication.</li><li>• HBeAg - NR: Absence of the e antigen suggests no active viral replication.</li><li>• Anti HBe - NR: Absence of antibodies against the e antigen suggests no current or recent active infection.</li><li>• Anti HBe - NR: Absence of antibodies against the e antigen suggests no current or recent active infection.</li><li>• Given these markers, the most likely scenario is that the patient had a Hepatitis B infection in the past and has completely recovered. The presence of Anti HBc total (which is predominantly IgG) signifies past infection. In cases of remote past infection, anti-HBs antibodies may fall below detectable levels, although the patient still has immunity through memory B cells.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Acute HBV infection in window period: In the window period of acute HBV infection, Anti HBc IgM should be positive, which is not the case here.</li><li>• Option A. Acute HBV infection in window period:</li><li>• Option B. Immune with recombinant HBV Vaccine: Patients vaccinated against HBV typically have positive Anti HBs and negative Anti HBc total, as they have not been exposed to the virus.</li><li>• Option B. Immune with recombinant HBV Vaccine:</li><li>• Option D. Chronic HBV infection inactive carrier: Chronic HBV infection requires the presence of HBsAg for more than six months. The absence of HBsAg rules out chronic infection.</li><li>• Option D. Chronic HBV infection inactive carrier:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Anti HBc total (predominantly IgG) with all other markers negative suggests a past HBV infection that has completely resolved.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following instrument is used to measure: (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proptosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squint", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diplopia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Proptosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/12/screenshot-2024-06-12-175831.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Proptosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hertel exophthalmometer is a specialized tool for assessing the extent of proptosis in conditions affecting the orbit and surrounding tissues, helping guide further diagnostic and therapeutic steps for conditions like thyroid eye disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the term used to describe a study that is longitudinal, observational, and includes the analysis of variables to determine associations? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Case Control Study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ecological study", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Randomized Control Trial", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cohort study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cohort study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct term for a longitudinal, observational study that involves the analysis of variables to determine associations among a group of people is a \"cohort study”.</li><li>• In a cohort study, participants are followed over time to see how different exposures affect their chances of developing an outcome. It's useful for studying the effects of suspected risk factors that cannot be controlled experimentally.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Case-Control Study : This type of study involves identifying participants based on the presence (case) or absence (control) of a particular outcome or disease and then looking back retrospectively to compare exposure to a risk factor or intervention between the groups.</li><li>• Option A. Case-Control Study</li><li>• Option C. Ecological Study : These studies assess risk factors or outcomes in a population based on data at the group level, rather than individual data. It's useful for initial, broad correlations between environmental or contextual factors and health outcomes.</li><li>• Option C. Ecological Study</li><li>• Option D. Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT) : This is an experimental study where participants are randomly assigned to either the group receiving the intervention or to a control group that does not, to compare outcomes in a controlled way.</li><li>• Option D. Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ For analyzing how various factors might affect health outcomes over time within a specified group, a cohort study is typically the most appropriate method due to its ability to follow participants through time and observe changes and outcomes as they occur naturally.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male presents with suspected poisoning and has pin-point pupils. Which of the following can be the poison. (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Opioid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Datura", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amphetamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Opioid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-100112.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Opioid</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the OPD with complaints of bleeding from the nose, nasal obstruction and difficulty in breathing. He gave the history of bathing in the local pool near his house. On examination, red polypoidal mass with whitish dots on the surface is observed. Based on the history, examination and given histopathological image what would be the diagnosis of this patient? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rhinosporidiosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhinoscleroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lupus vulgaris", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rhinosporidiosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-111150.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rhinosporidiosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rhinosporidiosis should be suspected in patients with nasal masses who have a history of contact with stagnant water bodies, presenting with the characteristic polypoidal mass and sporangia on histopathology.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient undergoing treatment for multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) presents with symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance, and lethargy. Laboratory investigations reveal high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and low levels of T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine). Which of the following drugs is likely responsible for these symptoms? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cycloserine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethionamide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyrazinamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ethionamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ethionamide.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethionamide, a second-line drug used in the treatment of multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB), can cause hypothyroidism, characterized by symptoms such as weight gain, cold intolerance, lethargy, elevated TSH, and low T3 and T4 levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child came to OPD with fever for 6 days with strawberry tongue, conjunctival congestion, and peeling of skin. What should be the ideal treatment? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IVIG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plenty of fluids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cephalosporins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IVIG", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/17/screenshot-2024-01-17-120130.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-20%20122250.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IVIG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fever + 4 out of 5 below = Classic Kawasaki</li><li>➤ Fever + 4 out of 5 below = Classic Kawasaki</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman at 30 weeks presents with painful bleeding PV, reduced fetal movement, increased uterine tone, and absent FHR. BP is 166/98 mmHg, and the cervix is 6cm dilated, 70% effaced with intact membranes. What is the next best step? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Emergency LSCS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start Antihypertensives and emergency LSCS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start Antihypertensives and ARM", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tocolysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Start Antihypertensives and ARM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Start Antihypertensives and ARM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Given the high BP and symptoms suggesting placental issues, starting antihypertensives addresses the hypertension, and artificial rupture of membranes (ARM) is indicated to advance labor, especially in a context where continuing pregnancy may pose risks.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Emergency LSCS: An emergency LSCS without addressing hypertension could be risky.</li><li>• Option A. Emergency LSCS:</li><li>• Option B. Start Antihypertensives and emergency LSCS: While emergency surgery is critical, managing BP first is essential.</li><li>• Option B. Start Antihypertensives and emergency LSCS:</li><li>• Option D. Tocolysis: Tocolysis is contraindicated in hypertensive disorders and fetal distress.</li><li>• Option D. Tocolysis:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• In cases of hypertensive crisis with placental issues, managing maternal BP is crucial before procedures like ARM to safely advance labor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: ( INICET Nov 2023 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-170423.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Different genetic disorders are inherited through various modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant (e.g., Myotonic Dystrophy), autosomal recessive (e.g., Cystic Fibrosis), X-linked recessive (e.g., Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy), and mitochondrial (e.g., LHON).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient taking DMPA came 14 days late. What should be advised to her? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Do UPT and then give DMPA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DMPA + 7 days backup", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DMPA from next cycle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give DMPA, no backup required", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Give DMPA, no backup required", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Give DMPA, no backup required</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients receiving DMPA who are less than 15 days late for their injection, it can be administered without the need for additional contraceptive measures or delay.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which Biochemical method is exploited for monoclonal antibody production by hybridoma technique? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycolytic pathway", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pentose Phosphate pathway", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kreb’s cycle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Purine salvage pathway", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Purine salvage pathway", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/20.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Purine salvage pathway</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The purine salvage pathway is critical in hybridoma technology for monoclonal antibody production, enabling the selection of viable hybridoma cells in HAT medium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which organism moves transcellularly by utilizing actin filaments? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Listeria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "EIEC (Enteroinvasive E. coli)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vibrio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Listeria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Listeria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Listeria monocytogenes moves within and between cells by polymerizing host actin filaments, forming \"comet tails\" that propel the bacterium.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. EIEC (Enteroinvasive E. coli) : Invades intestinal cells but does not utilize actin filaments for intracellular movement.</li><li>• Option B. EIEC</li><li>• (Enteroinvasive E. coli)</li><li>• Option C. Salmonella : Invades cells but moves intracellularly via different mechanisms, not actin-based motility.</li><li>• Option C. Salmonella</li><li>• Option D. Vibrio : Known for cholera; does not utilize actin for intracellular movement.</li><li>• Option D. Vibrio</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Listeria monocytogenes uniquely utilizes actin filaments for intracellular movement, a key feature distinguishing it from other enteric pathogens like EIEC, Salmonella, and Vibrio.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient's fasting blood glucose level is found to be 160 mg/dL. What will you advise the patient regarding non-pharmacological management? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "At least 80g dietary fibre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt;5 g salt intake everyday", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&lt; 30% of the calories should come from fat", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cholesterol &lt; 100g", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. < 30% of the calories should come from fat", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) &lt; 30% of the calories should come from fat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For diabetic patients, it is recommended that less than 30% of daily calories come from fat, with saturated fat being less than 10% and trans fats being avoided. This helps in managing blood sugar levels and reducing cardiovascular risks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is not considered in the diagnosis of Metabolic syndrome: ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hip Circumference", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HDL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hip Circumference", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hip Circumference</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Efferent to which nucleus of thalamus from indicated structure in the image? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventro-postero-lateral", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulvinar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-102042.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-102142.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fornix transmits signals from the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies, which then project to the anterior nucleus of the thalamus, playing a crucial role in memory processing within the Papez circuit.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is used to prevent painful vaso-occlusive crises and decrease long-term complications in sickle cell anemia? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydroxyurea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methotrexate plus leucovorin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methionine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eltrombopag", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydroxyurea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydroxyurea.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydroxyurea is the primary medication used to prevent painful vaso-occlusive crises and decrease long-term complications in sickle cell anemia by increasing the concentration of fetal hemoglobin (HbF).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient recovered from Covid-19, treated with steroids, now presents with nasal discharge for 3 weeks. What does the histopathological image indicate? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichosporon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mucor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-183803.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mucor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The histopathological image shows broad, non-septate hyphae with right-angle branching, typical of Mucor species, suggesting a diagnosis of mucormycosis.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Aspergillus : Typically shows septate hyphae with acute angle branching.</li><li>• Option B. Aspergillus</li><li>• Option C. Candida : Forms yeast cells and pseudohyphae, not hyphae.</li><li>• Option C. Candida</li><li>• Option D. Trichosporon : Forms hyaline hyphae and arthroconidia, different from what is seen in the image.</li><li>• Option D. Trichosporon</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Mucor is the cause of fungal infections characterized by broad, non-septate hyphae with right-angle branching, particularly in immunocompromised patients such as those recently treated with steroids post-Covid-19 infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these classifications of bile duct injury takes into account the location of injury, and thermal and vascular injury to bile ducts? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bismuth", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strassberg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stewart- Way", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hannover", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hannover", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hannover</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bismuth and Strassberg classifications are anatomically based classifications of bile duct injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a gunshot case, blackening is noted surrounding a firearm entry wound. Blackening occurs mainly due to: (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heat fire effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Muzzle of fireman weapon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unburnt gunpowder particles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black smoke particles", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Black smoke particles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Black smoke particles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The presence of blackening, soot, and unburnt gunpowder at a gunshot entry wound provides crucial information about the distance and angle of the shot.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of Kallmann syndrome? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anosmia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syndactyly in males", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Precocious puberty in females", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "White forelock", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anosmia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anosmia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anosmia is the most characteristic feature of Kallmann syndrome, which is associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism due to isolated GnRH deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient with a history of depression was started on amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). The patient was later found unconscious at home and brought to the emergency department. On examination, the patient shows signs of arrhythmias, confusion, and pupillary dilation. Which of the following does NOT suggest TCA poisoning?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arrhythmias", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Confusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pupillary dilation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypothermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypothermia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypothermia is not a typical feature of tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) poisoning, whereas arrhythmias, confusion, and pupillary dilation are common clinical manifestations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of joint marked in the image: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ball and socket", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Saddle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gliding", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Saddle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-165542_ZPnQXgK.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Saddle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The incudo-malleolar joint is a saddle joint , an important anatomical feature in the middle ear.</li><li>➤ The incudo-malleolar joint is a saddle joint , an important anatomical feature in the middle ear.</li><li>➤ incudo-malleolar joint</li><li>➤ saddle joint</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old man was brought after a fall. He has a fever and confusion. On examination, he had a cough with rales. The patient was also tachypneic. How will you manage this patient? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Admit and give IV levofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Treat at home with oral Amox-clav", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Admit and give IV ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Admit and give IV ceftriaxone and IV levofloxacin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Admit and give IV ceftriaxone and IV levofloxacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Admit and give IV ceftriaxone and IV levofloxacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This patient is likely suffering from community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and presents with confusion, fever, cough with rales, and tachypnea. Given his age (65 years) and symptoms, a CURB-65 score calculation is necessary. The CURB-65 score assigns points based on confusion, urea level, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age ≥ 65. Here, the patient scores at least 3 points (confusion, tachypnea, age ≥ 65), indicating a need for hospital admission and potentially ICU care.</li><li>• In managing CAP with a high CURB-65 score, empirical antibiotic therapy typically includes a combination of a beta-lactam (like ceftriaxone) and a macrolide or a respiratory fluoroquinolone (like levofloxacin). This combination is chosen to cover the most common pathogens, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and atypical bacteria.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Admit and give IV levofloxacin: Levofloxacin alone is a potent respiratory fluoroquinolone but may not provide sufficient broad-spectrum coverage</li><li>• Option A. Admit and give IV levofloxacin:</li><li>• Option B. Treat at home with oral Amox-clav: Given the patient's high CURB-65 score, home treatment is inappropriate. Oral antibiotics like Amox-clav are insufficient for severe CAP needing hospitalization.</li><li>• Option B. Treat at home with oral Amox-clav:</li><li>• Option C. Admit and give IV ceftriaxone: While IV ceftriaxone is effective against many CAP pathogens, the addition of IV levofloxacin provides better coverage, especially for atypical organisms.</li><li>• Option C. Admit and give IV ceftriaxone:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In elderly patients with high CURB-65 scores and suspected severe community-acquired pneumonia, hospital admission and combination antibiotic therapy (such as IV ceftriaxone and IV levofloxacin) are essential for effective management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which virus requires reverse transcriptase PCR for detection? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RSV", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RSV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) RSV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) is an RNA virus that requires reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) to convert its RNA into DNA for detection. RT-PCR is a sensitive method used to detect and quantify RNA viruses by first converting their RNA into complementary DNA (cDNA) using the enzyme reverse transcriptase.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Herpes virus: Herpes viruses are DNA viruses and do not require reverse transcription. They can be detected using standard PCR methods that amplify their DNA directly.</li><li>• Option B. Herpes virus:</li><li>• Option C. EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus): Epstein-Barr Virus is a DNA virus and uses standard PCR for detection. Reverse transcription is not necessary for DNA viruses.</li><li>• Option C. EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus):</li><li>• Option D. CMV (Cytomegalovirus): Cytomegalovirus is also a DNA virus and can be detected through standard DNA PCR. Reverse transcription is not needed for its detection.</li><li>• Option D. CMV (Cytomegalovirus):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ RSV, an RNA virus, requires reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) for detection by converting RNA into DNA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man with a known history of diabetes mellitus presents with a BP of 150/90 and dizziness. What is the best way to manage this patient? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diet, Exercise, Lifestyle modification + Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diet, Exercise, Lifestyle modification", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diet + Prazosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diet, Exercise, Lifestyle modification + Amlodipine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diet, Exercise, Lifestyle modification + Amlodipine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Diet, Exercise, Lifestyle modification + Amlodipine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For hypertensive diabetic patients, it is essential to start pharmacological therapy along with lifestyle modifications to reduce cardiovascular risk. Amlodipine is an appropriate choice for initial therapy in this context.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following side effects are more commonly seen with carbamezapine than oxcarbazepine , except ? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rashes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyponatremia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood dyscrasias", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyponatremia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyponatremia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While both carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine can cause similar side effects, hyponatremia is notably more prevalent with oxcarbazepine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Reinke crystals are seen in which of the following gonadal tumours: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seminoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yolk sac tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leydig cell tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sertoli cell tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Leydig cell tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Leydig cell tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Reinke crystals are pathognomonic of Leydig cell tumors of the testis and are useful in differentiating these from other testicular neoplasms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organism is intrinsically resistant to the given drug?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspergillus niger: Voriconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillus fumigatus: Micafungin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candida glabrata: Amphotericin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candida krusei: Fluconazole", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Candida krusei: Fluconazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-111101.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Candida krusei is intrinsically resistant to fluconazole, necessitating the use of alternative antifungal agents for treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male, aged 24, has presented with asymptomatic scaly skin lesions on his back, symmetrically distributed. The provided images showcase the lesions. Can you identify the pattern of these skin lesions &amp; the specific disease? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Collarette scale - Christmas tree pattern - Pityriasis rosea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wickham’s striae - Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Christmas tree pattern - Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Woronoff ring – Seborrheic dermatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Collarette scale - Christmas tree pattern - Pityriasis rosea", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-180414.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-180427.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-180442.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-180455.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Wickham’s Striae - Lichen Planus:</li><li>• Option B. Wickham’s Striae - Lichen Planus:</li><li>• Wickham's striae are fine, white lines found on the surface of papules in lichen planus. Surface of lichen planus lesions seen with oil on top of lesion reveals these whitish linear streaks .</li><li>• Wickham's striae are fine, white lines found on the surface of papules in lichen planus.</li><li>• Wickham's striae</li><li>• white lines</li><li>• papules</li><li>• Surface of lichen planus lesions seen with oil on top of lesion reveals these whitish linear streaks .</li><li>• lichen planus</li><li>• oil on top</li><li>• whitish linear streaks</li><li>• Lichen planus typically presents with pruritic, purplish, polygonal papules and does not exhibit a Christmas tree pattern.</li><li>• Lichen planus typically presents with pruritic, purplish, polygonal papules and does not exhibit a Christmas tree pattern.</li><li>• Lichen planus</li><li>• pruritic, purplish, polygonal papules</li><li>• Option C. Christmas Tree Pattern - Lichen Planus:</li><li>• Option C. Christmas Tree Pattern - Lichen Planus:</li><li>• This is incorrect because, although lichen planus is a common dermatologic condition, it does not present with a Christmas tree pattern. This pattern is specific to pityriasis rosea.</li><li>• incorrect</li><li>• lichen planus</li><li>• not</li><li>• Christmas tree</li><li>• Option D. Woronoff Ring – Seborrheic Dermatitis :</li><li>• Option D. Woronoff Ring – Seborrheic Dermatitis</li><li>• The Woronoff ring is a hypopigmented ring surrounding individual psoriatic lesions . It is usually associated with treatment, most commonly UV radiation or topical steroids .</li><li>• The Woronoff ring is a hypopigmented ring surrounding individual psoriatic lesions . It is usually associated with treatment, most commonly UV radiation or topical steroids .</li><li>• Woronoff ring</li><li>• hypopigmented ring</li><li>• psoriatic lesions</li><li>• UV radiation</li><li>• topical steroids</li><li>• Seborrheic dermatitis presents with greasy, scaly lesions predominantly on the scalp, face, and upper trunk .</li><li>• Seborrheic dermatitis presents with greasy, scaly lesions predominantly on the scalp, face, and upper trunk .</li><li>• Seborrheic dermatitis</li><li>• greasy, scaly lesions</li><li>• scalp, face, and upper trunk</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When presented with symmetrically distributed , asymptomatic scaly skin lesions on the back in a young adult, consider pityriasis rosea , particularly if the lesions follow a Christmas tree pattern . This pattern, along with the presence of collarette scaling , is highly suggestive of pityriasis rosea.</li><li>➤ When presented with symmetrically distributed , asymptomatic scaly skin lesions on the back in a young adult, consider pityriasis rosea , particularly if the lesions follow a Christmas tree pattern .</li><li>➤ symmetrically distributed</li><li>➤ scaly</li><li>➤ young adult,</li><li>➤ pityriasis rosea</li><li>➤ Christmas tree pattern</li><li>➤ This pattern, along with the presence of collarette scaling , is highly suggestive of pityriasis rosea.</li><li>➤ collarette scaling</li><li>➤ Ref : Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition page 35.8, 37.3, 115.9</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition page 35.8, 37.3, 115.9</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All the following are used for identification of a dead body except: ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nail", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hair", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nail", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Nail</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While nails can sometimes provide useful information, such as traces of substances the individual may have been in contact with, they are less reliable for DNA-based identification compared to other tissues like blood or hair with follicles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following cancers with their respective genes involved: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-151332.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenocarcinoma lung : Associated with mutations or rearrangements in ALK, making ALK inhibitors a treatment option. Myeloproliferative neoplasm : JAK 2 mutations enhance the understanding and treatment of these diseases. Pancreatic Carcinoma : Known for K-RAS mutations which are pivotal in the development and progression of pancreatic cancer.</li><li>➤ Adenocarcinoma lung : Associated with mutations or rearrangements in ALK, making ALK inhibitors a treatment option.</li><li>➤ Adenocarcinoma lung</li><li>➤ Myeloproliferative neoplasm : JAK 2 mutations enhance the understanding and treatment of these diseases.</li><li>➤ Myeloproliferative neoplasm</li><li>➤ Pancreatic Carcinoma : Known for K-RAS mutations which are pivotal in the development and progression of pancreatic cancer.</li><li>➤ Pancreatic Carcinoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Entry of glucose is insulin independent in all of them except: ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pancreas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adipose tissues", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Adipose tissues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/05/screenshot-2024-06-05-164623.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Adipose Tissues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Major Glucose transporters and their function is summarized as:</li><li>➤ Major Glucose transporters and their function is summarized as:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is classified under Biosafety level -3 infections? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "XDR-TB", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebola", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congo Crimean fever", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. XDR-TB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) XDR-TB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• XDR-TB (Extensively Drug-Resistant Tuberculosis) requires BSL-3 (Biosafety Level 3) containment due to its high risk of airborne transmission and severe disease potential.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Salmonella : Generally handled under BSL-2 due to lower risk.</li><li>• Option B. Salmonella</li><li>• Option C. Ebola : Handled under BSL-4, given its high risk and lethality.</li><li>• Option C. Ebola</li><li>• Option D. Congo Crimean Fever : Also requires BSL-4 due to high fatality rates and transmission risk.</li><li>• Option D. Congo Crimean Fever</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The classification of pathogens is according to biosafety levels. XDR-TB is managed under BSL-3 conditions due to its airborne risks and drug resistance challenges.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a tributary of the inferior vena cava? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left inferior phrenic vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left supra-renal vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left gonadal vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right ascending lumbar vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Left inferior phrenic vein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-104032.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Left inferior phrenic vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The tributaries of the inferior vena cava include veins that drain directly into it without first passing through another vein, except for the hepatic veins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with CKD with refractory hypertension is brought to the casualty with dizziness. His BP was found to be 200/120 mmHg. His BUN was 50 mg/dl and creatinine was 3 mg/dl. Potassium was 6 mEq/L. Which of the following is an indication of emergency hemodialysis? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Severe acidosis with elevated BUN and creatinine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Potassium level of 6 mEq/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Severe acidosis with elevated BUN and creatinine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Severe acidosis with elevated BUN and creatinine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Emergency hemodialysis is indicated for severe acidosis, refractory hyperkalemia, volume overload, intoxications, and uremic complications. Severe acidosis with elevated BUN and creatinine is a critical indication for initiating emergency hemodialysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young child presented with nocturnal chest pain and a history of syncope has the ECG shown below. What is the most probable diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myocardial infarction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HOCM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brugada syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "DCM", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Brugada syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-112958.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Brugada syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brugada syndrome should be suspected in patients, especially young males, with a history of syncope or nocturnal chest pain presenting with the characteristic ECG pattern of pseudo-right bundle branch block and ST-segment elevation in leads V1 and V2.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is wrong about the clinical pediatric case as shown in the image? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It occurs due to the persistence of prochordal plate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It occurs due to the defective migration of primordial cells to the genital ridge", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It contains skin, cartilage and bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is a benign tumor of coccyx", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It occurs due to the persistence of prochordal plate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-101650.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-101721.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It occurs due to the persistence of prochordal plate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sacrococcygeal teratomas arise from the remnants of the primitive streak and can contain various tissues including skin, cartilage, and bone. They are typically benign tumors located at the base of the coccyx.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false regarding the anatomy of the adrenal glands? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The right adrenal gland is semi-lunar in shape.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "The left adrenal gland is closely related with the tail of pancreas and spleen.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The adrenal are yellow on gross appearance.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The adrenal are retroperitoneal in location.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The right adrenal gland is semi-lunar in shape.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-165225_xT3m9Hk.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) The right adrenal gland is semi-lunar in shape.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The right adrenal gland is pyramidal in shape, while the left adrenal gland is semi-lunar in shape.</li><li>➤ The right adrenal gland is pyramidal in shape, while the left adrenal gland is semi-lunar in shape.</li><li>➤ right adrenal gland</li><li>➤ pyramidal</li><li>➤ left adrenal gland</li><li>➤ semi-lunar</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The fibres of the internal oblique muscle and transversus abdominus muscle contribute to which boundaries of the inguinal canal walls? ( INICET Nov 2023) Anterior wall Roof Floor Posterior wall", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ii and iv", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "i, ii, and iv", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i and iii", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "iii and iv", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ii and iv", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-170131.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/whatsapp-image-2024-07-04-at-123537-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ii and iv</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles contribute to the roof and posterior wall of the inguinal canal through their conjoint tendon.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incision made and marked is the image: (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Robson", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Battle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gibson", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kochers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gibson", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-123903.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gibson</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gibson Incision is a type of oblique incision made along the line of the inguinal ligament. It is primarily used for procedures involving the lower ureter, pelvic kidney, or bladder surgery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 39-year-old G6P2L1A3 presents with a history of previous 2 LSCS with PAS. What will you NOT counsel her about? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Need for blood transfusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Risk of bladder injury in case of PAS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Risk of bowel injury in case of PAS", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Risk of peripartum hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Risk of bowel injury in case of PAS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Risk of bowel injury in case of PAS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In cases of placenta accreta spectrum (PAS), the main risks include bleeding requiring transfusion, bladder injury, and possibly peripartum hysterectomy. Bowel injury is less commonly associated with PAS unless extreme or exceptional surgical complications occur.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Need for blood transfusion: It is common to counsel about the need for blood transfusion due to the high risk of hemorrhage.</li><li>• Option A. Need for blood transfusion:</li><li>• Option B. Risk of bladder injury in case of PAS: Bladder injury is a significant risk if the placenta invades the bladder area.</li><li>• Option B. Risk of bladder injury in case of PAS:</li><li>• Option D. Risk of peripartum hysterectomy: Peripartum hysterectomy may be necessary if the placenta is inseparable from the uterus.</li><li>• Option D. Risk of peripartum hysterectomy:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• When counseling a patient with a history of previous cesarean sections and PAS, focus on the more likely complications such as significant bleeding, bladder injury, and the possibility of needing a hysterectomy, rather than bowel injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient undergoing antitubercular therapy reports joint pain 10 days after initiation of treatment. Laboratory tests reveal normal AST and ALT levels, a serum creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL, and an elevated serum uric acid level of 10 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's treatment?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop pyrazinamide and continue the rest of the drugs with kidney function test (KFT) monitoring.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Add uric acid-lowering drugs and continue antitubercular therapy (ATT) as such with liver function test (LFT) and KFT monitoring.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continue all drugs and monitor serum uric acid level as well as LFT and KFT.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stop all ATT drugs until laboratory values return to normal.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stop pyrazinamide and continue the rest of the drugs with kidney function test (KFT) monitoring.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stop pyrazinamide and continue the rest of the drugs with kidney function test (KFT) monitoring.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricemia and joint pain; stopping pyrazinamide while continuing other antitubercular drugs with monitoring is the appropriate management strategy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old woman with no significant medical history, who has been using depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) for contraception, presents to the clinic after missing her scheduled injection by 14 days. She denies any sexual activity since her last injection. Her last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago, and she has no signs of pregnancy. What is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient regarding contraception? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "UPT before DMPA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give DMPA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give DMPA with 7 days of barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait till next period", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Give DMPA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/1_UFQNIHz.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/2_LOTjz82.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/3_nN8y3tH.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Give DMPA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• As per the ministry of health and family welfare guidelines, ideally Inj DMPA (Antara) should be administered 3 monthly as shown in the table below:</li><li>• As per the ministry of health and family welfare guidelines, ideally Inj DMPA (Antara) should be administered 3 monthly as shown in the table below:</li><li>• Follow up of clients (coming on scheduled date for next injection i.e after 3 months</li><li>• Defaulter: A defaulter is a client who does not return for the next injection on the scheduled date; but comes for it within the grace period i.e. 2 weeks earlier and upto 4 weeks later from the scheduled date).</li><li>• Defaulter: A defaulter is a client who does not return for the next injection on the scheduled date; but comes for it within the grace period i.e. 2 weeks earlier and upto 4 weeks later from the scheduled date).</li><li>• Defaulter: A defaulter is a client who does not return for the next injection on the scheduled date; but comes for it within the grace period i.e. 2 weeks earlier and upto 4 weeks later from the scheduled date).</li><li>• Drop out: A dropout is a MPAclient who comes for the next injection after the grace period of 4 weeks is over and more than 4 months have passed since she took her last injection</li><li>• In the scenario mentioned above, the patient is a DEFAULTER and hence the Inj should be administered as she falls within the grace period</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. UPT before DMPA : This would be appropriate if the patient was a drop-out, i.e. if she had presented &gt; 4 weeks of the date that she had to come on.</li><li>• Option A. UPT before DMPA</li><li>• Option C. Give DMPA with 7 days of barrier : This approach would be recommended if the injection was delayed beyond 4 weeks.</li><li>• Option C. Give DMPA with 7 days of barrier</li><li>• Option D. Wait till next period : This unnecessarily delays contraceptive protection and is not recommended.</li><li>• Option D. Wait till next period</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a patient misses her scheduled DMPA injection by up to 30 days, the most appropriate recommendation is to administer DMPA directly without pregnancy testing. This is because Inj DMPA is known to cause a delayed return to fertlity. This ensures continuous contraceptive protection while following evidence-based guidelines that balance safety with practical clinical considerations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the OPD with an ulcerative lesion noted near the nose/medical canthus. What is the probable diagnosis? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lentigo maligna melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nevus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Basal cell carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-123131.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Basal cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Given the description of an ulcerative lesion near critical areas like the nose and medial canthus, Basal Cell Carcinoma is the most probable diagnosis due to its frequent occurrence in these regions and its tendency to ulcerate. Treatment typically involves surgical excision, and in some cases, topical or systemic therapy may be considered.</li><li>➤ Basal Cell Carcinoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cause(s) that result in non-scarring alopecia from the following options: (INICET NOV 2023) Alopecia areata Telogen effluvium Androgenic alopecia Frontal fibrosing alopecia", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-180618.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-180636.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Androgenic alopecia, alopecia areata, and telogen effluvium (1, 2 and 3) are responsible for non-scarring alopecia . On the other hand, frontal fibrosing alopecia falls under the category of primary cicatricial (scarring) alopecia.</li><li>• Androgenic alopecia, alopecia areata, and telogen effluvium</li><li>• non-scarring alopecia</li><li>• frontal fibrosing alopecia</li><li>• cicatricial (scarring)</li><li>• Alopecia areata It is an autoimmune condition that causes patchy hair loss . The hair follicles are not destroyed and can regrow hair if the underlying inflammation is treated, thus it is considered non-scarring . Telogen effluvium It is a form of temporary hair loss that typically occurs after stress , a shock , or a traumatic event . The hair loss is diffuse and does not involve scarring of the scalp. Androgenic alopecia It is also known as male or female pattern baldness , is characterized by a progressive thinning of the hair in a typical pattern . The condition is non-scarring as the hair follicles gradually produce thinner and shorter hairs but are not destroyed. FRONTAL FIBROSING ALOPECIA Type of Hair Loss : Scarring alopecia primarily affecting the frontal hairline and eyebrows. Predominantly Affects : Postmenopausa l women. Symptoms : Progressive hairline recession, eyebrow loss, and sometimes body hair loss. Clinical Features : Frontal Hairline Recession : Gradual and symmetrical. Eyebrow Thinning : Outer third of eyebrows commonly affected.</li><li>• Alopecia areata It is an autoimmune condition that causes patchy hair loss . The hair follicles are not destroyed and can regrow hair if the underlying inflammation is treated, thus it is considered non-scarring .</li><li>• Alopecia areata</li><li>• It is an autoimmune condition that causes patchy hair loss . The hair follicles are not destroyed and can regrow hair if the underlying inflammation is treated, thus it is considered non-scarring .</li><li>• It is an autoimmune condition that causes patchy hair loss .</li><li>• autoimmune condition</li><li>• patchy hair loss</li><li>• The hair follicles are not destroyed and can regrow hair if the underlying inflammation is treated, thus it is considered non-scarring .</li><li>• non-scarring</li><li>• Telogen effluvium It is a form of temporary hair loss that typically occurs after stress , a shock , or a traumatic event . The hair loss is diffuse and does not involve scarring of the scalp.</li><li>• Telogen effluvium</li><li>• It is a form of temporary hair loss that typically occurs after stress , a shock , or a traumatic event . The hair loss is diffuse and does not involve scarring of the scalp.</li><li>• It is a form of temporary hair loss that typically occurs after stress , a shock , or a traumatic event .</li><li>• after stress</li><li>• shock</li><li>• traumatic event</li><li>• The hair loss is diffuse and does not involve scarring of the scalp.</li><li>• diffuse</li><li>• Androgenic alopecia It is also known as male or female pattern baldness , is characterized by a progressive thinning of the hair in a typical pattern . The condition is non-scarring as the hair follicles gradually produce thinner and shorter hairs but are not destroyed.</li><li>• Androgenic alopecia</li><li>• It is also known as male or female pattern baldness , is characterized by a progressive thinning of the hair in a typical pattern . The condition is non-scarring as the hair follicles gradually produce thinner and shorter hairs but are not destroyed.</li><li>• It is also known as male or female pattern baldness , is characterized by a progressive thinning of the hair in a typical pattern .</li><li>• male or female pattern baldness</li><li>• progressive thinning</li><li>• typical pattern</li><li>• The condition is non-scarring as the hair follicles gradually produce thinner and shorter hairs but are not destroyed.</li><li>• FRONTAL FIBROSING ALOPECIA Type of Hair Loss : Scarring alopecia primarily affecting the frontal hairline and eyebrows. Predominantly Affects : Postmenopausa l women. Symptoms : Progressive hairline recession, eyebrow loss, and sometimes body hair loss. Clinical Features : Frontal Hairline Recession : Gradual and symmetrical. Eyebrow Thinning : Outer third of eyebrows commonly affected.</li><li>• FRONTAL FIBROSING ALOPECIA</li><li>• Type of Hair Loss : Scarring alopecia primarily affecting the frontal hairline and eyebrows. Predominantly Affects : Postmenopausa l women. Symptoms : Progressive hairline recession, eyebrow loss, and sometimes body hair loss. Clinical Features : Frontal Hairline Recession : Gradual and symmetrical. Eyebrow Thinning : Outer third of eyebrows commonly affected.</li><li>• Type of Hair Loss : Scarring alopecia primarily affecting the frontal hairline and eyebrows.</li><li>• Type of Hair Loss</li><li>• Scarring</li><li>• eyebrows.</li><li>• Predominantly Affects : Postmenopausa l women.</li><li>• Predominantly Affects</li><li>• Postmenopausa</li><li>• Symptoms : Progressive hairline recession, eyebrow loss, and sometimes body hair loss.</li><li>• Symptoms</li><li>• Clinical Features : Frontal Hairline Recession : Gradual and symmetrical. Eyebrow Thinning : Outer third of eyebrows commonly affected.</li><li>• Clinical Features</li><li>• Frontal Hairline Recession : Gradual and symmetrical. Eyebrow Thinning : Outer third of eyebrows commonly affected.</li><li>• Frontal Hairline Recession : Gradual and symmetrical.</li><li>• Frontal Hairline Recession</li><li>• Eyebrow Thinning : Outer third of eyebrows commonly affected.</li><li>• Eyebrow Thinning</li><li>• Perifollicular Erythema : Redness around hair follicles. Potential Causes : Autoimmune or hormonal factors may play a role. Treatment : Medical Approaches : Topical or systemic corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications. Cosmetic Solutions : Wigs, eyebrow makeup, tattoos. Prognosis : Hair loss is often permanent; early intervention may slow progression.</li><li>• Perifollicular Erythema : Redness around hair follicles.</li><li>• Perifollicular Erythema</li><li>• Potential Causes : Autoimmune or hormonal factors may play a role.</li><li>• Potential Causes</li><li>• Treatment : Medical Approaches : Topical or systemic corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications. Cosmetic Solutions : Wigs, eyebrow makeup, tattoos.</li><li>• Treatment</li><li>• Medical Approaches : Topical or systemic corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications. Cosmetic Solutions : Wigs, eyebrow makeup, tattoos.</li><li>• Medical Approaches : Topical or systemic corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications.</li><li>• Medical Approaches</li><li>• Cosmetic Solutions : Wigs, eyebrow makeup, tattoos.</li><li>• Cosmetic Solutions</li><li>• Prognosis : Hair loss is often permanent; early intervention may slow progression.</li><li>• Prognosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-scarring alopecia , which allows for the possibility of hair regrowth , includes alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, and androgenic alopecia. Frontal fibrosing alopecia is associated with scarring alopecia .</li><li>➤ Non-scarring alopecia , which allows for the possibility of hair regrowth , includes alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, and androgenic alopecia.</li><li>➤ Non-scarring alopecia</li><li>➤ hair regrowth</li><li>➤ alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, and androgenic alopecia.</li><li>➤ Frontal fibrosing alopecia is associated with scarring alopecia .</li><li>➤ Frontal fibrosing</li><li>➤ scarring alopecia</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Page no 32.24, 32.39-40, 86.17, 89.6, 89.7, 89.14, 89.17, 89.20, 89.24, 89.25, 89.46</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Page no 32.24, 32.39-40, 86.17, 89.6, 89.7, 89.14, 89.17, 89.20, 89.24, 89.25, 89.46</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman comes with complaints of hyperpigmentation of her palms after an adrenalectomy. She also has new onset vision deficits. What is the likely diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nelson syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sheehan syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conn's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Addison's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nelson syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Nelson syndrome occurs in patients who have undergone bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's disease due to an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma. After the adrenalectomy, the absence of cortisol feedback leads to increased secretion of ACTH by the pituitary adenoma. This results in:</li><li>• Hyperpigmentation: Due to elevated levels of ACTH and its precursor, which stimulates melanocytes. Vision deficits: Caused by the growth of the pituitary adenoma, which can compress the optic chiasma.</li><li>• Hyperpigmentation: Due to elevated levels of ACTH and its precursor, which stimulates melanocytes.</li><li>• Hyperpigmentation:</li><li>• Vision deficits: Caused by the growth of the pituitary adenoma, which can compress the optic chiasma.</li><li>• Vision deficits:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sheehan syndrome : Caused by postpartum necrosis of the pituitary gland, leading to hypopituitarism. It presents with failure to lactate, amenorrhea, and hypothyroidism, but not with hyperpigmentation or vision deficits post-adrenalectomy.</li><li>• Option B. Sheehan syndrome</li><li>• Option C. Conn's syndrome: Primary hyperaldosteronism, characterized by hypertension, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. It does not cause hyperpigmentation or vision deficits.</li><li>• Option C. Conn's syndrome:</li><li>• Option D. Addison's disease: Primary adrenal insufficiency presenting with hyperpigmentation due to high ACTH, but it is not typically associated with vision deficits or occurring after adrenalectomy.</li><li>• Option D. Addison's disease:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nelson syndrome is characterized by hyperpigmentation and vision deficits following bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's disease, due to the growth of an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 73-year-old diabetic, hypertensive woman underwent a cardiac biopsy. Her histology image with special stain is as shown below. What is the diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dilated cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HOCM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atrial fibrillation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-151313.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Restrictive cardiomyopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In restrictive cardiomyopathy, the key histological feature is myocardial fibrosis leading to stiffening of the heart muscle, which impacts its ability to fill properly during diastole, though systolic function might be preserved.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old with a history of COPD is brought to the ER with worsening dyspnea. ABG was done and pH was 7.3, pCO2 was 60 mmHg with HCO3- being 28 mEq/L. Which of the following is seen in this patient? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory acidosis, hyperventilation, inadequate metabolic compensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis, hypoventilation, inadequate metabolic compensation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory acidosis, hypoventilation, inadequate metabolic compensation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory acidosis, hypoventilation, adequate metabolic compensation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Respiratory acidosis, hypoventilation, inadequate metabolic compensation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Respiratory acidosis, hypoventilation, inadequate metabolic compensation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) shows a pH of 7.3, indicating acidosis (normal pH: 7.35-7.45). The elevated pCO2 of 60 mmHg (normal: 35-45 mmHg) points to a respiratory cause of the acidosis, specifically respiratory acidosis. In COPD patients, chronic CO2 retention is common, leading to increased bicarbonate (HCO3-) levels as a compensatory mechanism. However, in acute respiratory acidosis, the metabolic compensation is typically inadequate, as seen by the HCO3- level of 28 mEq/L (normal: 22-28 mEq/L). The inadequate compensation suggests an acute exacerbation rather than a chronic condition, as chronic respiratory acidosis would have a more elevated bicarbonate level (&gt;30 mEq/L).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Respiratory acidosis, hyperventilation, inadequate metabolic compensation: Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. The patient's presentation does not fit this scenario.</li><li>• Option A. Respiratory acidosis, hyperventilation, inadequate</li><li>• metabolic compensation:</li><li>• Option B. Respiratory alkalosis, hypoventilation, inadequate metabolic compensation: Hypoventilation causes respiratory acidosis, not alkalosis. This choice is incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. Respiratory alkalosis, hypoventilation, inadequate metabolic compensation:</li><li>• Option D. Respiratory acidosis, hypoventilation, adequate metabolic compensation: Adequate metabolic compensation would show higher bicarbonate levels (&gt;30 mEq/L). The patient's bicarbonate level indicates inadequate compensation, ruling out this option.</li><li>• Option D. Respiratory acidosis, hypoventilation, adequate metabolic compensation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In acute respiratory acidosis due to COPD exacerbation, expect hypoventilation and inadequate metabolic compensation, indicated by elevated pCO2 and only slightly elevated HCO3- levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An Autopsy was conducted on a male with history of drowning. However, no water was found in his lungs, and he was determined to have experienced ‘dry drowning’. What is the cause of death: (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asphyxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vagal inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laryngospasm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Laryngospasm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Laryngospasm</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young girl presents with menstrual irregularity, acne, increased hair growth with a Ferriman Gallway score of 6, and a BMI of 29. Her mother has diabetes. Which is not a management option? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "OCP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "OCP + Anti androgen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yoga + Exercise", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Counsel for metabolic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. OCP + Anti androgen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) OCP + Anti androgen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are commonly used alone for managing symptoms like acne and menstrual irregularity in PCOS. The addition of anti-androgens is typically reserved for cases where OCPs alone do not manage hirsutism effectively.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. OCP: OCPs are a standard treatment for managing menstrual irregularities and hyperandrogenism.</li><li>• Option A. OCP:</li><li>• Option C. Yoga + Exercise: Yoga and exercise are recommended for weight management and improving insulin sensitivity.</li><li>• Option C. Yoga + Exercise:</li><li>• Option D. Counsel for metabolic syndrome: Counseling for metabolic syndrome is crucial given her high BMI and family history of diabetes.</li><li>• Option D. Counsel for metabolic syndrome:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• In managing PCOS-like symptoms, initial treatment often starts with OCPs. Additional treatments like anti-androgens are considered if initial treatments are insufficient. Lifestyle modifications are always beneficial.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which infection contracted in pregnancy won't be teratogenic? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cytomegalovirus (CMV)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HSV 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HSV 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) HSV 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 (HSV 2) primarily causes genital infections and is not generally teratogenic. It poses risks primarily at delivery if there is an active infection, leading to neonatal herpes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Rubella: Rubella is highly teratogenic, especially if contracted in the first trimester.</li><li>• Option A. Rubella:</li><li>• Option B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV): Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a common cause of congenital infections and can result in severe fetal abnormalities.</li><li>• Option B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV):</li><li>• Option D. Chicken pox: Chickenpox (Varicella) can lead to congenital varicella syndrome, which is teratogenic.</li><li>• Option D. Chicken pox:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Among the listed infections, HSV 2 is not considered teratogenic, although it requires careful management to prevent neonatal transmission during delivery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare professional nurse was ordered by a doctor to take patient’s blood sample for glucose estimation. She took this patient’s sample at 8 a.m. in the morning in the blue vacutainer. Anticoagulant in this container is: ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sodium citrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Potassium oxalate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sodium fluoride", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sodium citrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/whatsapp-image-2024-01-10-at-115230.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sodium citrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man presented with an acute onset of chest pain radiating to the left arm and diaphoresis. His ECG and cardiac biomarkers show non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. Which of the following will be used in the treatment of this patient? ( INICET Nov 2023) 1. Atorvastatin 2. Aspirin 3. Clopidogrel 4. Low molecular weight heparin 5. Alteplase", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 2, 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the management of non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), several medications are routinely used to reduce the risk of further ischemic events and manage the condition effectively:</li><li>• Atorvastatin: High-intensity statin therapy is recommended to lower cholesterol levels and stabilize atherosclerotic plaques. Aspirin: This antiplatelet agent is essential for reducing clot formation and preventing further arterial blockage. Clopidogrel: Another antiplatelet agent, often used in combination with aspirin, to provide dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT), which is beneficial in preventing further ischemic events. Low molecular weight heparin: Anticoagulant therapy, such as enoxaparin, is crucial in preventing thrombus formation and managing NSTEMI. Enoxaparin is typically administered subcutaneously at a dose of 1 mg/kg twice daily.</li><li>• Atorvastatin: High-intensity statin therapy is recommended to lower cholesterol levels and stabilize atherosclerotic plaques.</li><li>• Aspirin: This antiplatelet agent is essential for reducing clot formation and preventing further arterial blockage.</li><li>• Clopidogrel: Another antiplatelet agent, often used in combination with aspirin, to provide dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT), which is beneficial in preventing further ischemic events.</li><li>• Low molecular weight heparin: Anticoagulant therapy, such as enoxaparin, is crucial in preventing thrombus formation and managing NSTEMI. Enoxaparin is typically administered subcutaneously at a dose of 1 mg/kg twice daily.</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• 5. Alteplase: This thrombolytic agent is used in the management of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) when percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is not immediately available. It is not indicated for NSTEMI due to the lack of ST elevation and the associated risks of bleeding without significant benefit.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For NSTEMI management, the treatment includes Atorvastatin, Aspirin, Clopidogrel, and Low molecular weight heparin. Thrombolytic agents like Alteplase are reserved for STEMI with specific indications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most sensitive investigation for parathyroid tumor imaging? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tc Sestamibi scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tc Sestamibi SPECT", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "USG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tc Sestamibi SPECT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tc Sestamibi SPECT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For the imaging of parathyroid tumors, particularly in the context of hyperparathyroidism, several modalities can be employed. Each has its strengths and particular clinical situations where it might be the preferred choice.</li><li>• Tc Sestamibi SPECT (Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography technique also utilizes Technetium-99m sestamibi but combines it with CT imaging to provide three-dimensional imaging. This makes SPECT more sensitive than a plain sestamibi scan for locating parathyroid tumors, especially when they are ectopic or embedded deep within the neck or chest.</li><li>• Tc Sestamibi SPECT (Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Tc Sestamibi Scan : This is a nuclear medicine scan that uses a small amount of a radioactive compound , typically Technetium-99m sestamibi, which is absorbed by active parathyroid tissue more than normal tissue. While sensitive, it provides a two-dimensional view which can sometimes make precise localization of smaller or deeper tumors challenging.</li><li>• Option A. Tc Sestamibi Scan</li><li>• Option C. USG (Ultrasound): Ultrasound is useful for imaging the parathyroid glands due to its non-invasive nature and ability to detect lesions in real-time. It is particularly effective for glands located in typical positions near the thyroid. However, its effectiveness diminishes for ectopic glands or in obese patients where acoustic windows may be poor.</li><li>• Option C. USG (Ultrasound):</li><li>• Option D. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging): MRI can provide detailed images and is useful in complex cases, such as when other imaging modalities fail or in surgical planning. However, its sensitivity is generally lower than Sestamibi SPECT for detecting parathyroid adenomas, and it is less commonly used primarily due to higher costs and limited availability.</li><li>• Option D. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Tc Sestamibi SPECT is generally considered the most sensitive imaging modality for detecting parathyroid tumors, particularly because it offers three-dimensional localization capabilities that can greatly assist surgeons in planning minimally invasive surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has just delivered a full-term baby and developed uterine inversion with the placenta still attached. What is the immediate next step? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Remove placenta and reposition the uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Put uterus inside without removing the placenta", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shift to OT and insert the uterus back", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start Oxytocin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Put uterus inside without removing the placenta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Put uterus inside without removing the placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the case of uterine inversion, the uterus should be repositioned with the placenta still attached to avoid significant bleeding, followed by medical management for uterine contraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Open cardiac massage is what kind of wound? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clean", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contaminated", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dirty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clean contaminated", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Contaminated", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Contaminated</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Open cardiac massage is categorized as a Contaminated wound due to the nature of emergency procedures that may involve rapid and less controlled entry into the chest cavity, leading to a higher risk of infection compared to clean surgeries. This classification underscores the importance of using appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis and stringent postoperative care to manage and minimize the risk of infection</li><li>➤ Contaminated</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common cause of hypercalcemia in hospitalized patients is ( INICET Nov 2023", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malignancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D toxicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Malignancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Malignancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In hospitalized patients, the most common cause of hypercalcemia is malignancy. Malignancy-associated hypercalcemia often results from the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP) by cancer cells, which mimics the effects of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels. This is frequently seen in cancers such as breast cancer, lung cancer, and multiple myeloma.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Primary hyperparathyroidism: This is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in outpatients but not in hospitalized patients. It is characterized by elevated levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) due to parathyroid gland hyperplasia, adenoma, or carcinoma.</li><li>• Option B. Primary hyperparathyroidism:</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D toxicity: Hypercalcemia can occur due to excessive intake of vitamin D, leading to increased intestinal absorption of calcium. However, it is not the most common cause in hospitalized patients.</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D toxicity:</li><li>• Option D. Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia: This is a rare genetic condition characterized by benign hypercalcemia with low urinary calcium excretion. It mimics primary hyperparathyroidism but is less common and typically not seen as the most frequent cause of hypercalcemia in hospitalized patients.</li><li>• Option D. Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malignancy is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in hospitalized patients, often due to the secretion of PTHrP by cancer cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Incorrect statement about choledocal cyst is: (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyst is opened and drainage done", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Todani classification used for grading", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Associated with abnormal biliopancreatic junction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cyst is opened and drainage done", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cyst is opened and drainage done</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ While the management of choledochal cysts involves a comprehensive approach considering the risk of malignancy, the appropriate surgical intervention usually entails the complete removal of the cyst and careful reconstruction of the biliary system, not just simple drainage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the purpose of conducting a HEADSS evaluation?(INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adolescents", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Under 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neonates", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Elderly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adolescents", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adolescents</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The HEADSS assessment is a structured psychosocial interview technique specifically designed to be used with adolescents . The purpose of conducting a HEADSS evaluation is to provide a comprehensive framework for obtaining a detailed history from adolescents. It covers several key areas, including:</li><li>• adolescents</li><li>• Home &amp; Environment- Understanding the adolescent's living conditions, relationships with family members, and any issues at home. Education and Employment - Gathering information about the adolescent's school performance, educational aspirations, and employment status. Activities - Identifying the adolescent's involvement in extracurricular activities, hobbies, and how they spend their free time. Drugs - Assessing the use of drugs, alcohol, and tobacco, including experimentation and regular use. Sexuality - Discussing topics related to sexual activity, orientation, and practices to ensure safe and healthy sexual behaviors. Suicide /Depression - Screening for mood issues, depression, suicidal thoughts, or other mental health concerns.</li><li>• Home &amp; Environment- Understanding the adolescent's living conditions, relationships with family members, and any issues at home.</li><li>• Home</li><li>• Education and Employment - Gathering information about the adolescent's school performance, educational aspirations, and employment status.</li><li>• Education and Employment</li><li>• Activities - Identifying the adolescent's involvement in extracurricular activities, hobbies, and how they spend their free time.</li><li>• Activities</li><li>• Drugs - Assessing the use of drugs, alcohol, and tobacco, including experimentation and regular use.</li><li>• Drugs</li><li>• Sexuality - Discussing topics related to sexual activity, orientation, and practices to ensure safe and healthy sexual behaviors.</li><li>• Sexuality</li><li>• Suicide /Depression - Screening for mood issues, depression, suicidal thoughts, or other mental health concerns.</li><li>• Suicide</li><li>• Now Extended to become – HEEADSS</li><li>• Now Extended to become – HEEADSS</li><li>• E – Eating and Exercise</li><li>• E – Eating and Exercise</li><li>• S - Safety</li><li>• S - Safety</li><li>• Educational objective : The HEADSS assessment helps healthcare providers establish rapport with adolescent patients, identify risk factors, and discuss sensitive issues in a non-judgmental, confidential manner. This can lead to better health outcomes by addressing potential problems early.</li><li>• Educational objective :</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of consumption of 2-3 drinks per week comes with complaints of right upper quadrant discomfort. He has grade 2 steatosis. His BMI was 29 kg/m² and AST and ALT levels were slightly elevated. What would you advise him? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lifestyle modification and weight loss", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ursodeoxycholic acid and lifestyle modification", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lifestyle modifications and vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pioglitazone and lifestyle modifications", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lifestyle modification and weight loss", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient is likely suffering from non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), specifically non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), given his history of minimal alcohol consumption, grade 2 steatosis, elevated BMI, and mildly elevated liver enzymes (AST and ALT). The cornerstone of treatment for NASH is lifestyle modification and weight loss. These interventions help reduce liver fat, inflammation, and fibrosis. No FDA-approved medications currently exist for the treatment of NASH; thus, lifestyle changes are the primary recommended approach.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ursodeoxycholic acid and lifestyle modification: Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for primary biliary cholangitis, not NASH, and thus is not appropriate here.</li><li>• Option B. Ursodeoxycholic acid and lifestyle modification:</li><li>• Option C. Lifestyle modifications and vitamin E: Vitamin E can be used off-label in non-diabetic patients with NASH but is not FDA-approved or considered first-line treatment. It can be considered but is secondary to lifestyle changes.</li><li>• Option C. Lifestyle modifications and vitamin E:</li><li>• Option D. Pioglitazone and lifestyle modifications: Pioglitazone, along with other medications like metformin and GLP-1 receptor agonists, is sometimes used off-label for diabetic patients with NASH. However, it is not FDA-approved for NASH and should not be the first-line recommendation.</li><li>• Option D. Pioglitazone and lifestyle modifications:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lifestyle modification and weight loss are the primary and most effective treatments for non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), as no FDA-approved medications are currently available for this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about red blood cells in Sickle cell anemia: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low mechanical fragility, high osmotic fragility", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High mechanical fragility, high osmotic fragility", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low mechanical fragility, low osmotic fragility", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High mechanical fragility, low osmotic fragility", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. High mechanical fragility, low osmotic fragility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) High mechanical fragility, low osmotic fragility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sickle cells exhibit high mechanical fragility due to their abnormal shape and membrane characteristics under stress but display low osmotic fragility because they are less prone to rupture in varying osmotic conditions compared to normal red blood cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by the vector shown below? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orientia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Babesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ehrlichia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crimean congo hemorrhagic fever", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Orientia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/16/screenshot-2024-05-16-183846_IThTtkD.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Orientia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Orientia, the causative agent of scrub typhus, is transmitted by chigger mites, not by the tick shown in the image.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Babesia : Transmitted by ticks</li><li>• Option B. Babesia</li><li>• Option C. Ehrlichia : Also transmitted by ticks</li><li>• Option C. Ehrlichia</li><li>• Option D . Crimean congo hemorrhagic fever : Also transmitted by ticks</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Crimean congo hemorrhagic fever</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Orientia tsutsugamushi, responsible for scrub typhus, is not transmitted by ticks but by chigger mites, distinguishing it from other tick-borne infections like Babesia and Ehrlichia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the classical markers of a seminoma: (INICET NOV 2023) KIT OCT 3 PLAP HCG", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 Only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 &amp; 2 Only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding CF (Cystic Fibrosis): ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chloride secretion is decreased in sweat and increased in pancreatic fluid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloride secretion is increased in sweat and decreased in pancreatic fluid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloride secretion is decreased in both sweat and pancreatic fluid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chloride secretion is increased in both sweat and pancreatic fluid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chloride secretion is increased in sweat and decreased in pancreatic fluid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In sweat glands, the defective CFTR leads to decreased chloride reabsorption, resulting in increased chloride secretion in sweat. Therefore, individuals with CF have elevated levels of chloride in their sweat, which is a diagnostic feature of the condition.</li><li>• In the pancreas, the impaired CFTR function leads to decreased chloride secretion into pancreatic fluid. This results in the production of thick, sticky mucus in the pancreatic ducts, leading to pancreatic insufficiency. The pancreas is unable to release digestive enzymes properly into the small intestine, affecting the digestion of food.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator) gene. CFTR is a chloride channel that regulates the movement of chloride ions across cell membranes. In individuals with cystic fibrosis, the function of CFTR is impaired.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following bands will increase in serum electrophoresis in Nephrotic syndrome? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gamma globulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alpha 2 globulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta globulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Albumin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alpha 2 globulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-171753.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alpha 2 globulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In Nephrotic syndrome, Alpha 2 globulin increases on serum electrophoresis as a response to heavy proteinuria, while albumin significantly decreases leading to symptoms such as severe swelling and fluid accumulation in the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "First part of PCT has which of the following transport proteins? ( INICET Nov 2023) Sodium potassium pump Na- glucose co-transporter Sodium hydrogen antiport Na + Bicarbonate cotransporter", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,2,3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,3,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1,2,3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1,2,3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Proximal convoluted tubule – transport processes –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked with an arrow: ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carina", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary trunk", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arch of Aorta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pulmonary trunk", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-101905.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pulmonary trunk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pulmonary trunk is a major vessel located anterior to the aorta, bifurcating into the right and left pulmonary arteries, and is the structure identified by the arrow in the cross-sectional image of the thorax.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "2,3 BPG binds with which of the following? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Globin part of myoglobin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Globin part of hemoglobin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heme part of myoglobin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heme part of hemoglobin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Globin part of hemoglobin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Globin part of hemoglobin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 2,3-BPG binds to the beta chains of the globin part of hemoglobin, reducing its affinity for oxygen and facilitating the release of oxygen to tissues. This interaction is crucial for efficient oxygen delivery in response to tissue demands.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The active site of enzyme is complimentary to: ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transition state", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Allosteric activator", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Substrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Product", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Substrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Substrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The educational objective here is to understand the concept of the active site of an enzyme and its relationship to substrates. The active site of an enzyme is complimentary to the substrate, allowing specific interactions that enable the enzyme to catalyze a particular chemical reaction. It stabilizes the transition state of the reaction, facilitating the conversion of substrates into products.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the OPD with bilateral hearing loss with worsened right ear hearing loss. On examination, the doctor diagnose Otosclerosis and recommends stapedectomy as a final resort to the problem. What would be the findings of tuning fork tests based on which the doctor has recommended stapedectomy? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rinne’s test positive , Weber’s test lateralized to left ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rinne’s test positive , Weber’s test lateralized to right ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rinne’s test negative , Weber’s test lateralized to left ear", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rinne’s test negative , Weber’s test lateralized to right ear", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rinne’s test negative , Weber’s test lateralized to right ear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rinne’s test negative, Weber’s test lateralized to right ear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of a negative Rinne test and Weber test lateralizing to the ear with more hearing loss is indicative of conductive hearing loss in that ear. In otosclerosis, the ossification of the stapes leads to mechanical dysfunction, preventing effective sound transmission, hence a stapedectomy might be recommended to mechanically bypass the ossified stapes and improve hearing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male presents with increased thirst and increased frequency and volume of urination. He has no other symptoms. His random blood sugar was 205 mg/dl, what appropriate investigations should be done? ( INICET Nov 2023) HbA1c Urine ACR Echocardiography Fundoscopy ECG Serum protein electrophoresis", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i, ii, iii, iv", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "i, ii, iii, vi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i, ii, iii, v", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i, ii, iv, v", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. i, ii, iv, v", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) i, ii, iv, v</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a newly diagnosed diabetic patient, essential investigations include HbA1c, urine ACR, fundoscopy, and ECG to assess glycemic control, kidney function, eye health, and cardiovascular risk, respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the figure shown below, mechanism of action of valproate is best represented by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Valproate increases GABA levels by stimulating the enzyme GAD (glutamic acid decarboxylase) to convert glutamate into GABA and by inhibiting GABA transaminase, preventing the breakdown of GABA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "PTH increases Calcium in blood. This is due to:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rapid release of calcium by osteocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rapid release of calcium by osteoclasts", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rapid release of calcium from bones and increased calcium reabsorption in kidneys", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase calcium reabsorption in kidneys", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rapid release of calcium from bones and increased calcium reabsorption in kidneys", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rapid release of calcium from bones and increased calcium reabsorption in kidneys:</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The educational objective here is to understand the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in regulating calcium levels in the blood and the mechanisms by which it accomplishes this task.</li><li>➤ Role of PTH in Calcium Regulation: PTH is a hormone produced by the parathyroid glands, which are small glands located in the neck. Its primary function is to regulate calcium homeostasis in the body, ensuring that blood calcium levels remain within a narrow and critical range. Increase in Blood Calcium: PTH increases blood calcium levels by stimulating various physiological processes: Stimulation of Osteoclasts: PTH activates osteoclasts, specialized bone cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. This results in the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream. Enhanced Calcium Reabsorption: PTH enhances the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys. This means that less calcium is excreted in urine, conserving it for use in the body. Activation of Vitamin D: PTH indirectly stimulates the production of active vitamin D (calcitriol) in the kidneys. Calcitriol helps increase calcium absorption from the digestive tract, further contributing to higher blood calcium levels. Negative Feedback Loop: The regulation of PTH secretion is tightly controlled by a negative feedback loop. When blood calcium levels drop below the normal range, the parathyroid glands release PTH, which acts to raise calcium levels. Once calcium levels return to normal, PTH secretion decreases, preventing excess calcium in the blood.</li><li>➤ Role of PTH in Calcium Regulation: PTH is a hormone produced by the parathyroid glands, which are small glands located in the neck. Its primary function is to regulate calcium homeostasis in the body, ensuring that blood calcium levels remain within a narrow and critical range.</li><li>➤ Role of PTH in Calcium Regulation:</li><li>➤ Increase in Blood Calcium: PTH increases blood calcium levels by stimulating various physiological processes: Stimulation of Osteoclasts: PTH activates osteoclasts, specialized bone cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. This results in the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream. Enhanced Calcium Reabsorption: PTH enhances the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys. This means that less calcium is excreted in urine, conserving it for use in the body. Activation of Vitamin D: PTH indirectly stimulates the production of active vitamin D (calcitriol) in the kidneys. Calcitriol helps increase calcium absorption from the digestive tract, further contributing to higher blood calcium levels.</li><li>➤ Increase in Blood Calcium:</li><li>➤ Stimulation of Osteoclasts: PTH activates osteoclasts, specialized bone cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. This results in the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream. Enhanced Calcium Reabsorption: PTH enhances the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys. This means that less calcium is excreted in urine, conserving it for use in the body. Activation of Vitamin D: PTH indirectly stimulates the production of active vitamin D (calcitriol) in the kidneys. Calcitriol helps increase calcium absorption from the digestive tract, further contributing to higher blood calcium levels.</li><li>➤ Stimulation of Osteoclasts: PTH activates osteoclasts, specialized bone cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. This results in the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream.</li><li>➤ Stimulation of Osteoclasts:</li><li>➤ Enhanced Calcium Reabsorption: PTH enhances the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys. This means that less calcium is excreted in urine, conserving it for use in the body.</li><li>➤ Enhanced Calcium Reabsorption:</li><li>➤ Activation of Vitamin D: PTH indirectly stimulates the production of active vitamin D (calcitriol) in the kidneys. Calcitriol helps increase calcium absorption from the digestive tract, further contributing to higher blood calcium levels.</li><li>➤ Activation of Vitamin D:</li><li>➤ Negative Feedback Loop: The regulation of PTH secretion is tightly controlled by a negative feedback loop. When blood calcium levels drop below the normal range, the parathyroid glands release PTH, which acts to raise calcium levels. Once calcium levels return to normal, PTH secretion decreases, preventing excess calcium in the blood.</li><li>➤ Negative Feedback Loop:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is incorrect about baroreceptors? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Located in the thick muscle layer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stretch receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Afferent fibers pass via the glossopharyngeal nerve branch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sensitive to changes in arterial pressure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Located in the thick muscle layer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Located in the thick muscle layer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Baroreceptors are located in the adventitial layer, not in the thick muscle layer, and they are sensitive to changes in arterial pressure, functioning as stretch receptors with afferent fibers passing via the glossopharyngeal nerve.`1</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where are the apocrine glands present among the given options? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palm and soles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Face", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Axilla", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scalp", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Axilla", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-13-180750.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Axilla</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Palm and Soles :</li><li>• Option A. Palm and Soles</li><li>• The skin of palms and soles is primarily populated with eccrine sweat glands , not apocrine. Eccrine glands are involved in thermoregulation and are not associated with hair follicles. They produce a watery sweat that is not typically odorous.</li><li>• The skin of palms and soles is primarily populated with eccrine sweat glands , not apocrine.</li><li>• palms and soles</li><li>• eccrine sweat glands</li><li>• Eccrine glands are involved in thermoregulation and are not associated with hair follicles. They produce a watery sweat that is not typically odorous.</li><li>• thermoregulation</li><li>• watery sweat</li><li>• Option B. Face :</li><li>• Option B. Face</li><li>• While there are some apocrine glands on the face, they are not as numerous or as active as those in the axilla. The face primarily contains sebaceous glands and eccrine sweat glands .</li><li>• While there are some apocrine glands on the face, they are not as numerous or as active as those in the axilla.</li><li>• The face primarily contains sebaceous glands and eccrine sweat glands .</li><li>• sebaceous glands</li><li>• eccrine sweat glands</li><li>• Option D. Scalp :</li><li>• Option D. Scalp</li><li>• The scalp does have apocrine glands, but they are far less concentrated and active compared to those in the axilla. The scalp also contains eccrine sweat glands and is rich in sebaceous glands.</li><li>• The scalp does have apocrine glands, but they are far less concentrated and active compared to those in the axilla.</li><li>• The scalp also contains eccrine sweat glands and is rich in sebaceous glands.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Identify the axilla as the primary location of apocrine sweat glands.</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Page no 2.8</li><li>➤ Ref: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition Page no 2.8</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of graph is used to illustrate studies on healthcare and disease prevalence in a population?(INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bar diagram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple regression Model", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ishikawa diagram/Fish bone diagram", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ishikawa diagram/Fish bone diagram", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/13/screenshot-2024-06-13-111312.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ishikawa diagram/Fish bone diagram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Ishikawa Diagram/Fish Bone Diagram/ Cause &amp; Effect Diagram :</li><li>• Ishikawa Diagram/Fish Bone Diagram/ Cause &amp; Effect Diagram</li><li>• Description : A visual tool that helps trace a problem’s cause back to its roots, creating a branched diagram that looks like a fishbone.</li><li>• Description</li><li>• Application : Used to identify, explore, and display the possible causes of a particular problem, particularly useful in quality control and prevention strategies in healthcare.</li><li>• Application</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Bar Diagram :</li><li>• Option A. Bar Diagram</li><li>• Description : Bar diagrams use bars of varying lengths to represent data. Each bar corresponds to a category with a specific quantity.</li><li>• Description</li><li>• Application : Useful for comparing quantities across different categories, such as the number of cases in different disease categories or patient counts in various demographic groups.</li><li>• Application</li><li>• Option B. Histogram :</li><li>• Option B. Histogram</li><li>• Description : A histogram is similar to a bar chart but is used for continuous quantitative data divided into bins or intervals. It helps in understanding the distribution of data.</li><li>• Description</li><li>• Application : Commonly used to show the distribution of a dataset, such as the age distribution of patients suffering from a specific disease or the distribution of blood pressure readings in a population.</li><li>• Application</li><li>• Option C. Multiple Regression Model :</li><li>• Option C. Multiple Regression Model</li><li>• Description : Not a graph, but a statistical technique that models the relationship between a dependent variable and multiple independent variables.</li><li>• Description</li><li>• Application : Used to predict outcomes based on several variables, such as predicting patient outcomes based on age, treatment type, and pre-existing conditions.</li><li>• Application</li><li>• Educational objectives : Fishbone diagrams are instrumental in root cause analysis, helping healthcare teams systematically investigate the contributory factors leading to health issues or outbreaks.</li><li>• Educational objectives</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of ATP binding cassette efflux pumps? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tacrolimus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diltiazem", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verapamil", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Verapamil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Verapamil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Verapamil is a known inhibitor of ATP-binding cassette transporters, particularly P-glycoprotein, and can be used to enhance the pharmacokinetics of various drugs by increasing their intracellular concentrations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the schedule and route of administration of MR vaccine: (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MR SC and Oral Vitamin A at 8 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MR IM and Oral Vitamin A at 8 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MR SC and Oral Vitamin A at 9 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "MR IM and Oral Vitamin A at 9 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MR SC and Oral Vitamin A at 9 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/13/screenshot-2024-06-13-110944.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/13/screenshot-2024-06-13-111150.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) MR SC and Oral Vitamin A at 9 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• This option is correct as per the National Immunization Schedule. The MR vaccine is given subcutaneously at 9 completed months along with the first dose of Vitamin A, aligning with the guidelines for both treatments.</li><li>• Vitamin A Supplementation schedule</li><li>• In total – 9 doses – 17 Lacs IU</li><li>• Measles vaccine schedule</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• The MR vaccine should be administered subcutaneously at 9 completed months, and the first dose of Vitamin A should be given concurrently. This regimen helps to ensure optimal immune response and nutritional support, which is crucial for preventing measles, rubella, and vitamin A deficiency-related health issues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which drug is used to prevent cardiotoxicity induced by daunorubicin? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aprepitant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dexrazoxane", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amifostine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dexamethasone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dexrazoxane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dexrazoxane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dexrazoxane is specifically used to prevent cardiotoxicity induced by anthracycline chemotherapy agents such as daunorubicin by reducing free radical formation and oxidative stress on the heart.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a risk factor for progression to borderline ovarian tumor? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Functional ovarian cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nulliparity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nulliparity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nulliparity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nulliparity is recognized as a risk factor for borderline ovarian tumors, highlighting the influence of reproductive factors on ovarian health.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given below is the image of a 33-hour chick embryo. Which of the following is derived from the marked structure? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dorsal root ganglion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ribs", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parietal pleura", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ribs", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-093150.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-165020.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ribs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The para-axial mesoderm forms somites, which give rise to the vertebrae and ribs .</li><li>➤ The para-axial mesoderm forms somites, which give rise to the vertebrae and ribs .</li><li>➤ para-axial mesoderm</li><li>➤ vertebrae and ribs</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following Statements? ( INICET Nov 2023) Statement 1- Contemplation – A person who smokes is thinking of quitting smoking Statement 2- Precontemplation – A person is considering starting morning walks and its benefits to the health Statement 3- Maintenance phase/determination phase – A person quit smoking one year back and has not smoked since then Statement 4- Action phase – A person with obesity says he cant’s do anything as it runs deep in his family", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Statement 1 and 3 are correct", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Statement 1 and 2 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Statement 1,2,3 are correct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All are correct", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Statement 1 and 3 are correct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Statement 1 and 3 are correct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Behavior change – 6 stages –</li><li>➤ Precontemplation → Contemplation → Preparation/ Determination → Action/will power → Maintenance → Termination</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Concerning the mechanism of action of various antimicrobial drugs, which of the following statements is FALSE? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Linezolid: Binds to 30S ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin: Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aztreonam: Inhibits cell wall synthesis.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Daptomycin: Causes depolarization of membranes.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Linezolid: Binds to 30S ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Linezolid: Binds to 30S ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Linezolid binds to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, not the 30S subunit, making the statement that it binds to the 30S subunit and inhibits protein synthesis false. The other drugs mentioned have their mechanisms correctly stated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child with a known history of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of increased thirst, frequent urination, abdominal pain, and confusion. On examination, the child appears dehydrated and is breathing rapidly. Laboratory tests reveal a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dl and blood gas analysis is indicative of acidosis. Initial treatment with intravenous fluids has been started. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Initiate an insulin intravenous infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give an insulin stat dose of 0.1 units/kg intravenously, followed by an infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administer normal saline for the first hour followed by insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hour", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue with intravenous fluids without insulin administration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Administer normal saline for the first hour followed by insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)Administer normal saline for the first hour followed by insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hour</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to latest guidelines for management of DKA in children first IV fulids are administered for one hour, then insulin is adminsitered by IV infusion at a rate of 0.1 U/kg/hour.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old woman with epithelial ovarian cancer has peritoneal metastases and ascites. What is the management? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Debulking followed by radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Debulking followed by chemotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chemotherapy followed by debulking", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staging laparotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Debulking followed by chemotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Debulking followed by chemotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For advanced ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases and ascites, the preferred treatment is surgical debulking followed by chemotherapy. This approach helps reduce tumor load and enhances chemotherapy effectiveness.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Debulking followed by radiotherapy: Radiotherapy is not typically used as a first-line treatment in ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases.</li><li>• Option A. Debulking followed by radiotherapy:</li><li>• Option C. Chemotherapy followed by debulking: Starting with chemotherapy may be considered, but debulking first is usually preferred.</li><li>• Option C. Chemotherapy followed by debulking:</li><li>• Option D. Staging laparotomy: Staging laparotomy is primarily diagnostic, not therapeutic.</li><li>• Option D. Staging laparotomy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In advanced epithelial ovarian cancer with peritoneal involvement, initial surgical debulking followed by chemotherapy is the standard management approach to maximize treatment efficacy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with heart failure characterized by a reduced ejection fraction and low urine output. Which of the following anti-diabetic medications has been recently approved for the treatment of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, and may also improve diuresis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Empagliflozin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Linagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rosiglitazone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insulin degludec", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Empagliflozin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Empagliflozin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Empagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor, is approved for the treatment of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and provides cardiovascular benefits, including increased diuresis, which can help manage fluid overload in heart failure patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the percentage of burns in a patient that presented to the emergency with flame burn injury covering the entire chest and abdomen, the entire right upper limb and full circumference of the right thigh. (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "27", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "36", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "45", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "53", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 36", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-095834.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 36</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ This calculation as per the case scenario and Wallace rule of 9 results in a total burned body surface area of 36%, which corresponds to option B.</li><li>➤ Rule of Nine</li><li>➤ Rule of Nine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given image shows a normal graph on the left and the patient's graph on the right. Which of the following diagnoses can be inferred from the graph? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chest wall neuromuscular disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bronchiectasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-112354.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The spirometry graph compares a normal patient's lung function with that of the patient. The normal graph shows an FEV1/FVC ratio (Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second / Forced Vital Capacity) of more than 70%, which is typical in healthy individuals. In contrast, the patient's graph shows a significantly reduced FEV1/FVC ratio of approximately 50-55%, indicating an obstructive lung disease.</li><li>• Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by reduced airflow due to airway narrowing or obstruction, leading to a lower FEV1/FVC ratio. The common obstructive lung diseases include asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, COPD, bronchiectasis, and cystic fibrosis. Among the given options, bronchiectasis is the only obstructive lung disease.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Chest wall neuromuscular disease: This typically causes restrictive lung disease, not obstructive, and would present with a normal or high FEV1/FVC ratio but reduced lung volumes.</li><li>• Option A. Chest wall neuromuscular disease:</li><li>• Option B. Sarcoidosis: This is an interstitial lung disease, which is restrictive. It would show a normal or elevated FEV1/FVC ratio with reduced lung volumes.</li><li>• Option B. Sarcoidosis:</li><li>• Option C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis: Another interstitial lung disease leading to restrictive patterns on spirometry, characterized by a normal or high FEV1/FVC ratio with reduced total lung capacity.</li><li>• Option C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A reduced FEV1/FVC ratio (&lt;70%) is indicative of obstructive lung disease. Among the given options, bronchiectasis is the obstructive lung disease associated with this spirometry pattern.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was being delivered oxygen by nasal canula at 3L/min. What is the FiO2 being delivered? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "30%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "40%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "45%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 30%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 30%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) delivered by nasal cannula increases by approximately 4% for every 1 liter per minute of oxygen flow. Thus:</li><li>• 1 L/min would raise the FiO2 to about 24%. 2 L/min would be about 28%. 3 L/min would be about 32%.</li><li>• 1 L/min would raise the FiO2 to about 24%.</li><li>• 2 L/min would be about 28%.</li><li>• 3 L/min would be about 32%.</li><li>• Given the options provided, the closest and most commonly accepted approximation for the FiO2 being delivered at a flow rate of 3 L/min through a nasal cannula would be around 30%.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 25%: This FiO2 would typically correspond to an oxygen flow rate of about 1 L/min via nasal cannula.</li><li>• Option A. 25%:</li><li>• Option C. 40%: This FiO2 would typically correspond to an oxygen flow rate of about 5 L/min via nasal cannula.</li><li>• Option C. 40%:</li><li>• Option D. 45%: This FiO2 would typically correspond to an oxygen flow rate of about 6 L/min via nasal cannula.</li><li>• Option D. 45%:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The FiO2 delivered by a nasal cannula at a flow rate of 3 L/min is approximately 30%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following criteria corresponding to ASA grade III? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mild illness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Moderate illness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe illness which is constant threat to life", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe illness", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Severe illness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Severe illness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option D. Severe illness: The American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification System is used to assess and communicate a patient's pre-anesthesia medical co-morbidities. ASA grade III is defined as a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating. This means the patient has a serious illness, but it does not necessarily pose a constant threat to life, which would correspond to ASA IV.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Severe illness:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Mild illness : This corresponds to ASA II, which is defined as a patient with mild systemic disease. It does not reach the severity required for ASA III.</li><li>• Option A. Mild illness</li><li>• Option B. Moderate illness : This is not an official ASA classification term. The closest would be ASA II (mild systemic disease) or ASA III (severe systemic disease).</li><li>• Option B. Moderate illness</li><li>• Option C. Severe illness which is a constant threat to life: This corresponds to ASA IV. It describes a patient with severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, not ASA III.</li><li>• Option C. Severe illness which is a constant threat to life:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ASA grade III corresponds to a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating.</li><li>➤ The classification system is as follows:</li><li>➤ The classification system is as follows:</li><li>➤ ASA I : A normal healthy patient. ASA II : A patient with mild systemic disease. ASA III : A patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating. ASA IV : A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. ASA V : A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation. ASA VI : A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes.</li><li>➤ ASA I : A normal healthy patient.</li><li>➤ ASA I</li><li>➤ ASA II : A patient with mild systemic disease.</li><li>➤ ASA II</li><li>➤ ASA III : A patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating.</li><li>➤ ASA III</li><li>➤ ASA IV : A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.</li><li>➤ ASA IV</li><li>➤ ASA V : A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation.</li><li>➤ ASA V</li><li>➤ ASA VI : A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes.</li><li>➤ ASA VI</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old farmer reports symptoms of fever, body pain, and a cough. A physical examination reveals a black lesion as depicted in the accompanying image. Laboratory tests confirm the presence of IgM antibodies indicative of Scrub Typhus infection. What treatment approach would be most advisable in this case? ( INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline alone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doxycycline + Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ceftriaxone alone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Doxycycline alone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/13/screenshot-2024-06-13-111337.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Doxycycline alone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This black lesion is Eschar and this is the acute case of Scrub Typhus.</li><li>• Causative organism - Rickettsia tsutsugamushi; Vector - Mite</li><li>• The preferred approach depends on the severity of the condition and individual patient considerations.</li><li>• Option A. Doxycycline Alone :</li><li>• Option A. Doxycycline Alone</li><li>• Use : This is the first-line treatment for Scrub Typhus. Mechanism : Doxycycline works by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria, effectively controlling the infection. Why Prefer : It's highly effective and typically well-tolerated, making it suitable for most cases unless contraindicated.</li><li>• Use : This is the first-line treatment for Scrub Typhus.</li><li>• Use</li><li>• Mechanism : Doxycycline works by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria, effectively controlling the infection.</li><li>• Mechanism</li><li>• Why Prefer : It's highly effective and typically well-tolerated, making it suitable for most cases unless contraindicated.</li><li>• Why Prefer</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Doxycycline + Azithromycin : Used when there is co-infection with other pathogens that azithromycin can cover or when doxycycline alone isn't adequately effective.</li><li>• Option B. Doxycycline + Azithromycin</li><li>• Option C. Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline : This combination might be used in more severe cases or when the patient has complications that might benefit from a broader antibiotic coverage.</li><li>• Option C. Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline</li><li>• Option D. Ceftriaxone Alone : While effective against many types of bacteria, it's not the targeted treatment for Scrub Typhus and generally not recommended unless other options are contraindicated.</li><li>• Option D. Ceftriaxone Alone</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Doxycycline alone is usually sufficient and most advisable for uncomplicated Scrub Typhus. Combination therapies may be considered in specific clinical scenarios where co-infections or severe presentations are evident.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant female with bipolar disorder with previous history of 4 episodes and no episode for the past 1 year, well controlled with 750 mg Lithium, now in the third trimester , comes to the psychiatrist. What is the next step in management ? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease dose", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Switch to valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stop the drug and proceed drug free", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decrease dose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-165810.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Decrease dose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, it's crucial to carefully manage lithium dosage to balance efficacy with safety, avoiding both relapse and toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one is not helpful in DNA Double stand break repair? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ATM", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BRCA 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MSH 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ku 70", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MSH 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) MSH 2</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The adjoining graph shows the effect of PTH on blood calcium and phosphate in an experimental animal. How does PTH increase plasma calcium? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "By increasing osteoclast activity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "By increasing osteoblastic activity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "By decreasing renal excretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "By increasing osteoclastic activity and decreasing renal excretion of calcium", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. By increasing osteoclastic activity and decreasing renal excretion of calcium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture10_vgzKlLM.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) By increasing osteoclastic activity and decreasing renal excretion of calcium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• PTH increases calcium levels by promoting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and reducing the kidneys' excretion of calcium, effectively increasing plasma calcium.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. By increasing osteoclast activity: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) stimulates osteoclasts indirectly, leading to increased bone resorption, which releases calcium into the bloodstream.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• By increasing osteoclast activity:</li><li>• Option B. By increasing osteoblastic activity: While PTH does stimulate osteoblasts, this action is primarily to produce RANKL, a cytokine that activates osteoclasts, not to build new bone.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• By increasing osteoblastic activity:</li><li>• Option C. By decreasing renal excretion: PTH reduces calcium excretion by the kidneys, increasing reabsorption of calcium in the renal tubules, contributing to higher blood calcium levels.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• By decreasing renal excretion:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases plasma calcium levels by promoting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and reducing renal excretion of calcium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child has features of meningitis with following CSF examination: protein=93, glucose=20, Lymphocytes + Diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Viral meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tubercular meningitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tubercular meningitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Tubercular meningitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize the CSF findings associated with different types of meningitis. Understand that the CSF profile, including elevated protein, decreased glucose, and lymphocytic pleocytosis, can be indicative of tubercular meningitis. Be aware of the various etiologies and clinical presentations of meningitis in pediatric patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure indicated by the arrow:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alveolar sac", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory bronchus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Terminal bronchiole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intrapulmonary bronchiole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Respiratory bronchus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-104233.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-04-104310.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Respiratory bronchus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The respiratory bronchus is the structure where gas exchange begins in the lung, identified by its simple cuboidal epithelium and the presence of alveoli arising from its walls.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old male with a history of stage IV non-small cell lung cancer presents with worsening dyspnea, non-productive cough, and uncontrolled pain despite current medication. He has declined further aggressive treatment. What stands true for Palliative care? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To cure disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Do nothing to prolong life", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "To improve quality of life patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nothing is done in palliative care", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. To improve quality of life patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) To improve quality of life patient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Palliative care is a specialized medical care focused on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of a serious illness.</li><li>• The primary goal of palliative care is to improve the quality of life for the patient . It involves treating pain and other distressing symptoms, providing psychological and spiritual care, and supporting the patient and their family to cope with the challenges of a serious illness.</li><li>• to improve the quality of life for the patient</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. To cure disease : This is incorrect. Palliative care does not aim to cure the underlying disease but focuses on alleviating symptoms and improving the quality of life for both the patient and their family.</li><li>• Option A. To cure disease</li><li>• Option B. Do nothing to prolong life : Palliative care does not necessarily aim to prolong life, nor does it hasten death. It’s about enhancing the quality of life and may also indirectly prolong it by improving general health and well-being.</li><li>• Option B. Do nothing to prolong life</li><li>• Option D. Nothing is done in palliative care : This is incorrect. Palliative care involves active and comprehensive management of various issues that arise with serious illnesses, including physical, emotional, social, and spiritual aspects of care.</li><li>• Option D. Nothing is done in palliative care</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Palliative care is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. It addresses a wide range of needs, ensuring the patient’s comfort and supporting the family through difficult times, emphasizing symptom management and personal support over curative treatments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a virilizing ovarian tumor? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brenner tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arrhenoblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoid tumor of the ovary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Theca cell tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arrhenoblastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arrhenoblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arrhenoblastoma is a virilizing ovarian tumor known for its androgen production, often leading to masculinizing symptoms in females.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the management of a thyroid storm, a critical and life-threatening condition due to an excess of thyroid hormone, a variety of medications are used to control the symptoms and the overactive thyroid. Which of the following drugs is NOT typically used in the treatment of thyroid storm? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lugol’s Iodine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acetaminophen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aspirin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Aspirin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspirin is not used in the treatment of thyroid storm because it can increase free thyroid hormone levels by displacing thyroid hormones from their binding proteins, potentially worsening the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "3-point bony relationship is maintained in which fracture? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elbow dislocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Supracondylar humerus fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intercondylar humerus fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both B and C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Supracondylar humerus fracture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/picture604.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Supracondylar humerus fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The three-point bony relationship of the elbow is maintained only in the supracondylar humerus fracture because this fracture occurs above the bony landmarks associated with the relation.</li><li>➤ The three-point bony relationship of the elbow is maintained only in the supracondylar humerus fracture because this fracture occurs above the bony landmarks associated with the relation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 47-year-old male presents with 400 ml urine output in 24 hours. On histology he had crescents with pauci immune glomerulonephritis. What is the main etiology? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti GBM antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ANCA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti phospholipase A2 receptor antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti nculear antibody", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ANCA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ANCA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ ANCA-associated vasculitis is linked to pauci-immune glomerulonephritis, where crescents are formed in glomeruli without significant immune deposits, differentiating it from conditions such as Goodpasture's syndrome or lupus nephritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female presents with pain in lower abdomen and vomiting in the ER. Clinical examination reveals a swelling, lateral and below the public tubercle. X-ray show intestinal obstruction. What is the most probable diagnosis? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adhesions", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strangulated inguinal hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strangulated femoral hernia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Appendicular mass", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Strangulated femoral hernia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Strangulated femoral hernia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Given the location of the swelling and the associated symptoms, the most probable diagnosis is a Strangulated Femoral Hernia . This condition requires prompt surgical intervention to relieve the obstruction and restore blood flow to the entrapped tissues to prevent further complications such as tissue necrosis.</li><li>➤ Strangulated Femoral Hernia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not used in chelation of heavy metals: ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B.A.L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Desferrioxamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oximes", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oximes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/08/screenshot-2024-05-08-100202.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Oximes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following accurately pairs the diagnostic stain with the corneal condition it indicates? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cobalt blue with trypan blue for corneal ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cobalt green with Rose Bengal stain for corneal opacity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cobalt blue with fluorescein stain for corneal ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cobalt blue with lissamine green for corneal abrasion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cobalt blue with fluorescein stain for corneal ulcer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/12/screenshot-2024-06-12-175816.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cobalt blue with fluorescein stain for corneal ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluorescein stain under cobalt blue light remains a standard and effective method for diagnosing corneal ulcers due to its ability to vividly highlight areas of epithelial loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following muscles with their action at shoulder joint: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-180933.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Latissimus dorsi is responsible for extension with medial rotation . Supraspinatus is responsible for abduction . Infraspinatus is responsible for lateral rotation . Pectoralis Major (sternal head) is responsible for flexion .</li><li>➤ Latissimus dorsi is responsible for extension with medial rotation .</li><li>➤ Latissimus dorsi</li><li>➤ extension with medial rotation</li><li>➤ Supraspinatus is responsible for abduction .</li><li>➤ Supraspinatus</li><li>➤ abduction</li><li>➤ Infraspinatus is responsible for lateral rotation .</li><li>➤ Infraspinatus</li><li>➤ lateral rotation</li><li>➤ Pectoralis Major (sternal head) is responsible for flexion .</li><li>➤ Pectoralis Major (sternal head)</li><li>➤ flexion</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In evaluating a patient with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), which of the following findings would be atypical for a classification of 'very severe’? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Venous bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neovascularization of disc", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinal hemorrhages", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microaneurysm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neovascularization of disc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Neovascularization of disc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When examining a patient with diabetic retinopathy, finding neovascularization would necessitate reclassification to proliferative diabetic retinopathy, which requires different management strategies including possible laser therapy or anti-VEGF injections to prevent further vision loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Detoxification of Xenobiotics for phase 1 reaction (Hydroxylation) require monooxygenase/cytochrome P-450 along with: ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NADPH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NADH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FAD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "FADH2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NADPH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) NADPH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In this reaction, a xenobiotic undergoes hydroxylation with the help of oxygen and NADPH as a cofactor. The cytochrome P450 enzyme catalyzes this reaction, leading to the introduction of a hydroxyl group into the xenobiotic molecule, making it more water-soluble and facilitating subsequent conjugation reactions in phase 2 detoxification.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old vegetarian patient presented with weakness and reduced work capacity. He had a Hb of 10gm/dl and MCV-110. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aplastic Anaemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Megaloblastic anaemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Megaloblastic anaemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Megaloblastic anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In cases of anemia with high MCV, especially in vegetarians or those with dietary restrictions, megaloblastic anemia should be considered. Vitamin B12 and folate levels should be assessed to confirm the diagnosis, and dietary intake of these vitamins should be evaluated and corrected if deficient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Reason of Hepatomegaly in Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Accumulation of glycogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Accumulation of Glucose-6-phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Accumulation of Glucose-1-phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Accumulation of glycogenin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Accumulation of glycogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Accumulation of glycogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is known as Von Gierke’s disease or Type I GSD.</li><li>➤ Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is known as Von Gierke’s disease or Type I GSD.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the adjoining image of the muscle fiber action potential, the phase marked B is due to which of the following? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Efflux of potassium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Influx of potassium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sodium efflux", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium influx", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Efflux of potassium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/whatsapp-image-2024-01-29-at-183752.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Efflux of potassium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The repolarization phase of a muscle fiber action potential is primarily due to the efflux of potassium ions (K+) from the cell, which restores the membrane potential to its resting state.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the mode of inheritance with the disorder in the appropriate column: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/13/screenshot-2024-05-13-151820.JPG"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Each genetic disorder has a specific pattern of inheritance that affects its transmission and manifestation in individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patent underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The histopathology specimen reveals carcinoma with invasion into the muscularis propria. What is the next best step? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Excision of the stump", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radical/ wide excision of GB fossa", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Radical/ wide excision of GB fossa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Radical/ wide excision of GB fossa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radical/wide excision of the GB fossa is indeed the appropriate next step to prevent local recurrence and potentially improve survival outcomes. This decision is based on the depth of tumor invasion and the general aggressiveness of gallbladder cancers.</li><li>➤ Radical/wide excision of the GB fossa</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Low transferrin saturation is seen in: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemochromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Megaloblastic anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iron deficiency anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iron deficiency anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Low transferrin saturation is a significant marker for diagnosing iron deficiency anemia, reflecting a shortfall in available iron for red blood cell production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which technique is used to identify auto antibodies? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct immunofluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indirect immunofluorescence", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "FISH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Indirect immunofluorescence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Indirect immunofluorescence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Indirect immunofluorescence allows for the detection of circulating autoantibodies in patient serum by using antigen-expressing substrates, making it a critical tool for diagnosing various autoimmune diseases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The graph given below shows the normal FEV1 and FVC curves for a normal lung and a diseased lung. The abnormal graph represents which of the following? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchiectasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "COPD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. COPD", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture14_AhUMt1O.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) COPD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The spirometry pattern for COPD shows a significant reduction in FEV1 with a less pronounced reduction in FVC, leading to a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio. This is indicative of obstructive lung disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The sulcus located deep to the marked structure is? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central sulcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stem of the lateral sulcus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior frontal sulcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superior temporal sulcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stem of the lateral sulcus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-165302.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/whatsapp-image-2024-07-04-at-122513-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Stem of the lateral sulcus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The stem of the lateral sulcus is located deep to the marked structure in the image, which is a critical landmark in neuroanatomy for separating the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe.</li><li>➤ The stem of the lateral sulcus is located deep to the marked structure in the image, which is a critical landmark in neuroanatomy for separating the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe.</li><li>➤ stem of the lateral sulcus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "These findings are suggestive of which of the following conditions", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Addison's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gigantism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acromegaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cushing's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acromegaly", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-113157.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The images provided show a patient with coarse facial features, prognathism (protruding jaw), frontal bossing (prominent forehead), and prominent jaw bones. These are characteristic features of acromegaly, a condition caused by excessive growth hormone (GH) production, usually due to a pituitary adenoma.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Addison's disease: Characterized by hyperpigmentation, hypotension, and weight loss, not by coarse facial features.</li><li>• Option A. Addison's disease:</li><li>• Option B. Gigantism: Also caused by excess GH, but it occurs before the closure of the growth plates in children and adolescents, leading to increased height and growth of long bones. The facial features are not as prominent as in acromegaly.</li><li>• Option B. Gigantism:</li><li>• Option D. Cushing's syndrome: Characterized by features such as central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, and purple striae, not by coarse facial features and prognathism.</li><li>• Option D. Cushing's syndrome:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acromegaly is diagnosed based on characteristic facial features such as coarse facial features, prognathism, and frontal bossing, resulting from excessive growth hormone production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following scenarios is a liver transplant possible in the case of secondary tumours? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ca breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ca testis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Active RCC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ca testis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ca testis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Liver transplantation for metastatic cancer is rare and generally only considered under specific conditions. These conditions typically include the isolation of metastasis to the liver, good control of the primary cancer, and a lack of other effective treatment options. Each type of cancer must be evaluated on its own characteristics, including its responsiveness to treatment and overall prognosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient presents with widespread purpura and easy bruising. Laboratory tests reveal a significantly low platelet count with normal hemoglobin and white blood cell count, indicating a diagnosis of isolated thrombocytopenia. The patient has no prior history of autoimmune disorders or recent viral infections. Considering these symptoms and diagnosis, which tyrosine kinase inhibitor would be appropriate for this patient? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oprelvekin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fostamatinib", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eltrombopag", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bosutinib", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fostamatinib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fostamatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor specifically used for treating chronic immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) by inhibiting spleen tyrosine kinase (Syk) to reduce platelet destruction and increase platelet count.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Maternal infection that may lead to teratogenic effect is : ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chicken pox", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• All listed infections—Chickenpox, Rubella, and CMV (Cytomegalovirus)—can potentially lead to teratogenic effects if a mother contracts them during pregnancy. Here's a brief explanation of how each can impact fetal development:</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Chickenpox : Infection in early pregnancy can lead to congenital varicella syndrome, which includes skin scarring, limb abnormalities, and neurologic disorders.</li><li>• Option A. Chickenpox</li><li>• Option B. Rubella : Known for its teratogenic potential if contracted in the first trimester; can cause congenital rubella syndrome, leading to cataracts, deafness, heart defects, and neurological damage.</li><li>• Option B. Rubella</li><li>• Option C. CMV : The most common viral cause of congenital infections leading to developmental disabilities, including hearing loss, vision loss, and neurodevelopmental disorders.</li><li>• Option C. CMV</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• Educational objective</li><li>• Maternal infection that may lead to teratogenic effect is : TORCH infection</li><li>• T oxoplasmosis O ther (includes infections such as Syphilis, Varicella-Zoster, Parvovirus B19, and Zika virus) R ubella C ytomegalovirus (CMV) H erpes Simplex Virus (HSV)</li><li>• T oxoplasmosis</li><li>• T</li><li>• O ther (includes infections such as Syphilis, Varicella-Zoster, Parvovirus B19, and Zika virus)</li><li>• O</li><li>• R ubella</li><li>• R</li><li>• C ytomegalovirus (CMV)</li><li>• C</li><li>• H erpes Simplex Virus (HSV)</li><li>• H</li><li>• Note – Now, also includes – Treponema pallidum, HIV, Hep. B viruses</li><li>• Note</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-day old neonate presented with scaphoid abdomen, respiratory distress and mediastinal shift. All of the following can be done except? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "O2 by mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive pressure ventilation by ventilator", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ET intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bag and mask ventilation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bag and mask ventilation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bag and mask ventilation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize the clinical signs of diaphragmatic hernia, such as a scaphoid abdomen, respiratory distress, and mediastinal shift. Understand the appropriate interventions, including oxygen administration, positive pressure ventilation, endotracheal intubation, and the limitations of bag and mask ventilation in specific clinical scenarios.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with symptoms of exertional and nocturnal dyspnea, cardiomegaly observed on imaging, pedal edema, a gallop rhythm on cardiac auscultation, and rales in both lungs. Based on this clinical presentation, which suggests congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to prevent the progression of the disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Captopril", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carvedilol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Captopril", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Captopril</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, is the best choice for preventing the progression of heart failure due to its effectiveness in reducing mortality and morbidity, decreasing afterload and preload, and improving symptoms and long-term outcomes in heart failure patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When asked the patient to stand on left foot, right side went down. Which structures are involved in this case? (INICET NOV 2023) Superior gluteal nerve Gluteus minimus Gluteus medius Sciatic nerve", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-170540.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/04/screenshot-2024-07-03-170621.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A positive Trendelenburg sign, where the pelvis drops on the opposite side when standing on one foot, indicates weakness or paralysis of the gluteus medius and minimus muscles, which are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is a not a risk factor for Carcinoma of Gall bladder? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Porcelain gall bladder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary sclerosing cholangitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polyp &lt;10 mm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gallstone&gt;3 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Polyp <10 mm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Polyp &lt;10 mm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ While porcelain gallbladders and large gallstones are established risk factors for gallbladder cancer, and primary sclerosing cholangitis has a known association with gallbladder malignancies, small gallbladder polyps (less than 10 mm) typically represent a lower risk for cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old patient with a confirmed diagnosis of mild to moderate Alzheimer's dementia has shown aversion and non-compliance to oral medications. The patient's caregiver reports difficulty in administering the oral drugs due to the patient's refusal to swallow pills. Considering the need for continued treatment, which of the following medications could be prescribed in a form that does not require oral administration?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Memantine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Donepezil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rivastigmine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galantamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rivastigmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with Alzheimer's dementia who refuses oral medication, rivastigmine can be prescribed in a transdermal patch form, providing an alternative route of administration that ensures the patient can continue to receive their dementia management therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old girl presents to you with her mother, reporting abdominal discomfort and is found to be 12 weeks pregnant based on a positive urine pregnancy test. As a medical professional, what would be your initial course of action? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Start examining", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inform police", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Preserve clothes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Get consent from mother for P/V", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inform police", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Inform Police</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In many jurisdictions, pregnancy in a minor may be considered evidence of statutory rape or sexual abuse, hence, informing the police is crucial for legal proceedings and safeguarding the minor.</li><li>• Other Option</li><li>• Other Option</li><li>• Option A. Start examining: Although a medical examination is necessary, it must be conducted with proper legal and parental consent, especially considering the age and the situation's sensitivity.</li><li>• Option A. Start examining:</li><li>• Option C. Preserve clothing: This could be necessary in a case where forensic evidence needs to be gathered, especially if there was recent assault. However, this would follow legal reporting.</li><li>• Option C. Preserve clothing:</li><li>• Option D. Take consent from mother: Consent is crucial, especially for minors. However, it does not preclude the obligation to report statutory rape or sexual abuse to authorities.</li><li>• Option D. Take consent from mother:</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• When dealing with potentially criminal situations involving minors, such as a young teenager's pregnancy, the first step is to ensure the situation is addressed legally and safely. Informing law enforcement and ensuring proper medical and legal procedures safeguard the minor's health and legal rights.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis in the ECG shown below?( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First degree heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Third degree heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wenckebach heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mobitz type 2 block", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mobitz type 2 block", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-112639.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mobitz type 2 block</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mobitz type 2 block is identified by a constant PR interval with intermittently non-conducted P waves. Recognizing this pattern is crucial for appropriate management, as Mobitz type 2 can progress to complete heart block and often requires a pacemaker.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which extracellular cell adhesion is disrupted by Vibrio cholerae? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Integrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cadherin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Occludens", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Occludens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Occludens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Vibrio cholerae disrupts occludens, specifically targeting tight junctions between intestinal epithelial cells, which impairs their barrier function.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Integrin : Primarily involved in cell-extracellular matrix adhesion, not typically disrupted by Vibrio cholerae.</li><li>• Option A. Integrin</li><li>• Option B. Cadherin : Important for cell-cell adhesion in adherens junctions, not the main target of Vibrio cholerae.</li><li>• Option B. Cadherin</li><li>• Option D. None of the above : Incorrect, as occludens are indeed affected by Vibrio cholerae.</li><li>• Option D. None of the above</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Vibrio cholerae specifically targets occludens, which are crucial components of tight junctions, thereby compromising intestinal epithelial barrier functions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the OPD with complaints of hearing loss and can understand only shouted or amplified speech. What would be the degree of impairment according to the WHO classification of ability to understand speech? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mild hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Moderate hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe hearing loss", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Profound hearing loss", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Severe hearing loss", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Severe hearing loss</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The case scenario described above points towards Severe hearing loss in the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male had a road traffic accident and was brought to emergency with stable vitals. Which wound is not expected: (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chop wound", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple bruises", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Graze abrasion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laceration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chop wound", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Chop wound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chop wounds are unusual in road traffic accidents .</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents in the OPD complaining of unable to evert the ankle. The following deformity is seen. Which of the following gait is present? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stepping gait", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Waddling gait", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Circumduction gait", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stepping gait", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/screenshot-2024-01-04-175840.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/whatsapp-image-2024-01-04-at-180800.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/picture204.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stepping gait</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The image shown in the question is the high stepping gait, seen in the common peroneal nerve injury. This gait is present due to foot drop or weakness of the foot dorsiflexors.</li><li>➤ The image shown in the question is the high stepping gait, seen in the common peroneal nerve injury. This gait is present due to foot drop or weakness of the foot dorsiflexors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which gene is not involved in double strand DNA break repair mechanism? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MSH2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "BRCA1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "KU70", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ATM", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MSH2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ understand the roles of different genes and proteins in the repair of double-strand DNA breaks (DSBs), which is essential for maintaining genome stability and preventing mutations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with tear in the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid capsule and labrum. Identify the lesion. (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bankart’s lesion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hill-sachs lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteolytic lesion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bankart’s lesion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/picture304.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/picture404.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Bankart’s lesion</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Phase zero in the adjoining image is due to which of the following? (INICET MAY 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium influx", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium influx", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Potassium influx", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Potassium Efflux", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Calcium influx", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture13_jdVEPQQ.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Calcium influx</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In nodal tissue, such as the SA node, Phase 0 of the action potential is caused by the rapid influx of calcium ions through voltage-gated calcium channels, leading to the rapid depolarization that initiates the action potential.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents to the emergency department with symptoms that have persisted for five days, including high-grade fever, severe headache, generalized body aches, and a new cough accompanied by mild shortness of breath. She also reports noticing a blackish lesion at the site of an insect bite on her thigh after returning from a camping trip in a region known for chigger infestation. On physical examination, she is found to have a fever of 39°C, regional lymphadenopathy, and a well-defined eschar at the site of the lesion. Lung auscultation reveals mild diffuse rales. Laboratory tests show a normal white blood cell count and elevated liver enzymes. A chest X-ray indicates interstitial infiltrates, suggestive of atypical pneumonia that may be related to her primary infection. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravenous doxycycline only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous doxycycline and ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intravenous doxycycline and azithromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intravenous doxycycline only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Intravenous doxycycline only.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Doxycycline is the treatment of choice for rickettsial infections, such as those contracted from chigger bites, and is effective against both the primary infection and associated complications like atypical pneumonia.</li><li>➤ Doxycycline is the treatment of choice for rickettsial infections, such as those contracted from chigger bites, and is effective against both the primary infection and associated complications like atypical pneumonia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The motor supply of the muscle spindle is which of the following? (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha neuron", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gamma neuron", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beta neuron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delta neuron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gamma neuron", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/29/picture11_PUBfeb5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gamma neuron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gamma motor neurons (A gamma) specifically innervate the intrafusal fibers of muscle spindles, adjusting their tension and sensitivity to stretch, which is crucial for proper proprioceptive feedback.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In 18 th century British East India company used to transport which substance of abuse to China: (INICET NOVEMBER 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Opium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marijuana", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Magic mushroom", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Opium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Opium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In 18 th century British East India company used to transport opium to China.</li><li>➤ In 18 th century British East India company used to transport opium to China.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old lady with diabetes mellitus comes with dizziness. Which of the following would be seen in a patient with hyperinsulinemia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyper-ketonemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased Amino acids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Raised glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased fatty acid synthesis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increased fatty acid synthesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hyperinsulinemia refers to an elevated level of insulin in the blood.</li><li>• Insulin is a lipogenic hormone, meaning it promotes the synthesis of fatty acids and their storage as triglycerides in adipose tissue. This is due to insulin's ability to activate enzymes involved in lipogenesis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hyper-ketonemia: Incorrect. Insulin suppresses ketone production, so hyperinsulinemia would prevent the formation of ketone bodies.</li><li>• Option A. Hyper-ketonemia:</li><li>• Option B. Increased Amino acids: Incorrect. Insulin promotes protein synthesis and reduces the level of amino acids in the blood by enhancing their uptake into cells and their incorporation into proteins.</li><li>• Option B. Increased Amino acids:</li><li>• Option C. Raised glucose: Incorrect. Hyperinsulinemia lowers blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells and inhibiting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver.</li><li>• Option C. Raised glucose:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyperinsulinemia promotes increased fatty acid synthesis due to insulin's role as a lipogenic hormone, which enhances the storage of energy in the form of fat.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which bacterial toxin acts by interfering with EF-2 function? (INICET NOV 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clostridium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacillus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vibrio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diphtheria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Diphtheria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylating elongation factor 2 (EF-2), blocking its function.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Clostridium : Produces toxins, but they do not target EF-2.</li><li>• Option B. Clostridium</li><li>• Option C. Bacillus : Associated with different toxins not affecting EF-2.</li><li>• Option C. Bacillus</li><li>• Option D. Vibrio : Known for cholera toxin affecting intestinal secretion, not EF-2.</li><li>• Option D. Vibrio</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diphtheria toxin uniquely targets EF-2, crucial for understanding its mechanism of action in causing disease by inhibiting protein synthesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which surgical procedure should a 21-year-old boxer avoid to maintain optimal visual health? (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RK", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "PRK (Photorefractive Keratectomy)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LASIK (Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SMILE (Small Incision Lenticule Extraction)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RK", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) RK</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a boxer, avoiding procedures that compromise the cornea's physical integrity is crucial due to the high risk of impacts to the face. Among these options, RK and potentially LASIK present higher risks. SMILE or PRK might be safer alternatives, providing effective vision correction with a reduced risk of severe complications from physical trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old female patient presents with weight loss, anxiety, tachycardia, and restlessness. The resting pulse was 110 beats per minute. Which of the following tests should be done next to evaluate her condition further? ( INICET Nov 2023 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total T3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Free T4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TSH", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. TSH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) TSH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the evaluation of suspected thyroid dysfunction, the initial and most crucial test is the measurement of Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH). TSH is the most sensitive indicator of thyroid function because even minor changes in thyroid hormone levels cause significant changes in TSH levels due to the feedback mechanism between the thyroid gland and the pituitary gland. Elevated or suppressed TSH levels provide clear insight into whether the thyroid gland is underactive (hypothyroidism) or overactive (hyperthyroidism). Given the patient's symptoms of weight loss, anxiety, tachycardia, and restlessness, hyperthyroidism is suspected, making TSH the appropriate initial test.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Total T3: T3 levels can be influenced by various factors and are usually measured after initial TSH and Free T4 tests suggest hyperthyroidism.</li><li>• Option A. Total T3:</li><li>• Option B. Thyroid Scan: This imaging test evaluates thyroid structure and function, useful in cases where nodules or hyperactivity need to be assessed. It is not the first-line test for evaluating general thyroid function.</li><li>• Option B. Thyroid Scan:</li><li>• Option C. Free T4: Free T4 is important in assessing thyroid function and is typically measured alongside TSH. However, TSH is preferred as the initial screening test due to its sensitivity in detecting thyroid dysfunction.</li><li>• Option C. Free T4:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial test for evaluating suspected thyroid dysfunction, particularly in hyperthyroid symptoms, is TSH due to its sensitivity and reliability in reflecting thyroid status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Grievous hurt under Section 320 IPC include all except: (INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Permanent privation of hearing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fracture femur", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "7 days admission in hospital", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emasculation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 7 days admission in hospital", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 7 days admission in hospital</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Grievous hurt under IPC 320 involves injuries that cause permanent disability, severe bodily pain, or life-altering effects. Hospital stay duration alone does not qualify an injury as grievous hurt unless accompanied by a severe or specified injury under the law.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. During the social history taking, she mentions that she has started engaging in certain behaviors and rituals that align with her new community after recently moving to a different country. What is the term for this type of behavior acquisition? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Custom", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Socialization", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mores", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Socialization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Socialization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Learning and try to adapt to new community. This is known as Socialization</li><li>• Socialization is the process by which individuals learn and adopt the norms, values, and behaviors appropriate to their society. Socialization is key in helping individuals function as members of their society, and it involves learning the language, norms, and rituals of the community. This term directly applies to the scenario described, as the woman is adopting behaviors that align with her new community.</li><li>• Socialization</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Custom : This term refers to a traditional and widely accepted way of behaving or doing something that is specific to a particular society, place, or time. Customs are the established patterns of behavior that can be objectively verified within a particular social setting</li><li>• Option A. Custom</li><li>• Option B. Culture : Is the learned behavior which is socially acquired. Culture is a broader term that includes knowledge, belief systems, art, morals, laws, and any other capabilities and habits acquired by individuals as members of society.</li><li>• Option B. Culture</li><li>• Option D. Mores : These are the moral norms, manners, or customs that are considered important for the welfare of a community and are enforced by social disapproval or formal sanctions if violated. Mores are a subset of social norms that include strong moral connotations and are seen as foundational to societal welfare.</li><li>• Option D. Mores</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ \"Socialization\" best captures the process the woman is undergoing as she adopts the practices of her new community.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60 years old male patient was undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During the surgery, it was observed that there was a sudden decrease in etCO2 to 8 mm Hg, SpO2 was 90%, BP dropped to 80/50 mm Hg and peak airway pressure was observed to be 18 mm Hg. Which of the most probable diagnosis? ( INICET Nov 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CO2 embolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endobronchial intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchospasm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CO2 embolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. CO2 embolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the scenario described, a sudden decrease in end-tidal CO2 (etCO2) to 8 mm Hg, along with a drop in blood pressure (BP) to 80/50 mm Hg and oxygen saturation (SpO2) to 90%, but with normal peak airway pressure (18 mm Hg), strongly suggests a CO2 embolism. During laparoscopic procedures, CO2 is used for insufflation to create a pneumoperitoneum, which can occasionally enter a blood vessel and cause a CO2 embolism. This event leads to a rapid decrease in etCO2 due to reduced return of CO2 to the lungs, hypoxemia, and cardiovascular collapse. The normal peak airway pressures help differentiate it from other causes of acute respiratory distress.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pneumothorax : A pneumothorax, or collapsed lung, could occur due to barotrauma from mechanical ventilation or surgical complications. However, it typically causes an increase in peak airway pressures due to increased resistance to ventilation. The absence of increased peak airway pressures makes pneumothorax less likely in this case.</li><li>• Option A. Pneumothorax</li><li>• Option C. Endobronchial Intubation : Endobronchial intubation occurs when the endotracheal tube is inserted too far and intubates one of the main bronchi, typically the right main bronchus. This can lead to hypoventilation of one lung, causing a decrease in etCO2 and SpO2. However, peak airway pressures might be higher due to one-lung ventilation, which was not observed here.</li><li>• Option C. Endobronchial Intubation</li><li>• Option D. Bronchospasm : Bronchospasm involves the constriction of the muscles in the walls of the bronchioles, leading to narrowed airways. This would usually present with an increase in peak airway pressures due to the narrowed airways, which is not consistent with the normal peak airway pressures reported in this scenario.</li><li>• Option D. Bronchospasm</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During laparoscopic surgery, the sudden onset of hypotension, hypoxemia, and a significant decrease in etCO2 with normal peak airway pressures suggests a CO2 embolism, a rare but potentially life-threatening complication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following types of pain stimulus is associated with the Carrageenan-induced experimental pain model?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inflammatory stimulus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute noxious stimulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deep boring stimulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neuropathic stimulus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inflammatory stimulus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inflammatory stimulus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Carrageenan-induced pain model is a widely used experimental model to study acute inflammation , especially in assessing the efficacy of anti-inflammatory drugs. It characterizes the inflammatory response through the release of mediators like prostaglandins, histamine, and serotonin .</li><li>➤ Carrageenan-induced pain model</li><li>➤ acute inflammation</li><li>➤ prostaglandins, histamine, and serotonin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient presented with a 3-day history of fever, headache, myalgia and retro-orbital pain with no signs of bleeding. On examination, maculopapular rash is seen. Which is the next appropriate step in management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NS1 antigen detection", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Widal test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rapid influenza antigen test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgM ELISA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NS1 antigen detection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) NS1 antigen detection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with suspected dengue fever during the first 5 days of illness, NS1 antigen detection is the preferred diagnostic test. It allows for the early detection of dengue infection, before the immune system develops antibodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old lady was brought to the hospital by her daughter, with episodes of falls, confusion, chronic diarrhea, and cough. The intern decided to conduct a geriatric assessment. Which of the following factors indicated such an examination?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age, sex, falls", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Age, cough, chronic diarrhoea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Age, fall, confusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Age, sex, cough, chronic diarrhea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Age, fall, confusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Age, fall, confusion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The need for a comprehensive geriatric assessment is primarily indicated by age, history of falls, and cognitive changes (e.g., confusion), as these factors significantly impact the physical and mental well-being of older adults.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following stains are used in the cervical smear below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Papanicolaou stain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toluidene blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "H &amp; E stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Giemsa stain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Papanicolaou stain", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/10/screenshot-2024-10-10-150912.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Papanicolaou stain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Papanicolaou stain (Pap stain) is the gold standard for screening cervical cancer and other premalignant conditions due to its ability to differentiate various cell types and their abnormalities through color staining.</li><li>➤ Papanicolaou stain (Pap stain)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are advantages of saline wet mount over iodine wet mount? Demonstration of motility of trophozoites Identify the internal structures of cysts Differentiate between bile and non-bile-stained eggs", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Saline wet mounts are particularly useful for demonstrating the motility of trophozoites and differentiating between bile and non-bile-stained eggs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct about congenital CMV?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "40-50 % of the cases are symptomatic at birth", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optimum sample for PCR is blood/ urine/ saliva sample within 2-3 weeks of birth", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "If asymptomatic at birth, then there is a higher risk of developing SNHL later", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Most common congenital infection after congenital syphilis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Optimum sample for PCR is blood/ urine/ saliva sample within 2-3 weeks of birth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Optimum sample for PCR is blood/ urine/ saliva sample within 2-3 weeks of birth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital CMV is best diagnosed through PCR from blood, urine, or saliva samples collected within the first 2-3 weeks of life, as this allows differentiation from acquired infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV-positive patient presented with headache and neck stiffness. Fundoscopy revealed papilledema. India ink staining of the CSF showed an encapsulated organism. Which of the following statements is true regarding this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Start ART after 2-3 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Opening pressure will be normal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start amphotericin monotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "80% of patients will have positive radiological findings", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Start ART after 2-3 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Start ART after 2-3 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with HIV who develop cryptococcal meningitis, ART should be delayed for 2-3 weeks after starting antifungal treatment to reduce the risk of IRIS, which could exacerbate clinical symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old girl presented with fever and retro-orbital pain for 2 days. The tourniquet test and NS1 antigen test were positive. Which of the following features is considered a criterion for the severe form of this disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AST and ALT &gt;1000", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leucopenia plus thrombocytopenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Persistent vomiting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatomegaly &gt;1cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. AST and ALT >1000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) AST and ALT &gt;1000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AST or ALT levels ≥1000 are indicators of severe dengue and signify significant liver involvement, requiring close monitoring and possibly intensive care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the true statements: The most commonly fractured carpal bone is the lunate The scaphoid is most commonly fractured at the waist The cast for scaphoid fracture is set in a glass-holding position Kienböck's disease is due to osteonecrosis of the lunate", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ii, iii, and iv only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "i, iii only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "iii, iv only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i, ii only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ii, iii, and iv only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ii, iii, and iv only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured carpal bone, typically at its waist, and its fractures are immobilized using a cast in a glass-holding position. Kienböck's disease involves osteonecrosis of the lunate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man presented with a history of stab injury over the arm. On examination, there was a hematoma present, and radial and ulnar pulses were not felt. A 3.5 cm longitudinal tear is noted in the brachial artery. Which among the following is the best treatment option?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary repair with end-to-end anastomosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Repair with great saphenous vein graft", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Repair with prosthetic graft", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Repair with saphenous vein patch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Repair with great saphenous vein graft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Repair with great saphenous vein graft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For long arterial tears in trauma, such as a stab injury to the brachial artery, using a great saphenous vein graft for repair is preferred due to its compatibility with the native artery's diameter, elasticity, and non-thrombogenic properties.</li><li>➤ great saphenous vein graft</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young man is brought to the casualty with pinpoint pupils. Which of the following is the most likely substance he would have consumed?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Datura", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Opium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Opium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Opium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Opioid overdose, including that of opium, typically presents with pinpoint pupils (miosis) , respiratory depression, and altered mental status. Recognizing these symptoms is crucial for timely intervention with naloxone , which can reverse the toxic effects of opioids.</li><li>➤ pinpoint pupils (miosis)</li><li>➤ naloxone</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following vessels will serve as an alternate source of blood supply to prevent uterine ischemia, in case the primary artery is ligated in the event of PPH?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ovarian artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arcuate artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Round ligament artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ovarian artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ovarian artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of postpartum hemorrhage where the uterine artery is ligated, the ovarian artery can serve as an alternate source of blood flow to prevent uterine ischemia due to its anastomotic connection with the uterine artery. Understanding the vascular anatomy is critical for managing severe PPH effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hawkins's classification is used for which fractures?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Talus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Navicular", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tibia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcaneum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Talus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Talus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hawkins's classification is specifically used for fractures of the neck of the talus, assessing the severity and risk of complications like avascular necrosis. Understanding this classification aids in determining the appropriate management and prognosis of talar neck fractures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "B cells express IgM and IgD antibodies at the same time due to which phenomenon?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Somatic hypermutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alternative RNA splicing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Affinity maturation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allelic exclusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alternative RNA splicing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alternative RNA splicing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ B cells express both IgM and IgD simultaneously on their surfaces through the process of alternative RNA splicing. This mechanism allows different proteins to be produced from the same RNA transcript by selectively splicing it into different forms, enabling the expression of both isotypes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3.5 kg term neonate born to a mother with eclampsia, did not cry at birth. Which of the following is the criteria for perinatal asphyxia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "APGAR persists at 4-7 for &gt; 5 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cord pH &lt; 7.2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypotonia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypotonia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypotonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Perinatal asphyxia is characterized by neurological manifestations such as hypotonia, low APGAR scores, severe acidosis (pH &lt; 7.0), and multiorgan dysfunction. Hypotonia in the immediate neonatal period is a critical clinical sign of potential hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy and perinatal asphyxia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presented with swollen and tender joints. There is symmetric involvement of multiple joints such as wrists, hands, and feet, which is bilateral, along with morning stiffness lasting more than 1 hour. Erythema is absent. What is the most probable diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gout", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoarthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Psoriatic arthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rheumatoid arthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rheumatoid arthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by symmetric joint involvement, primarily affecting small joints like the MCP and PIP joints, with morning stiffness lasting more than 1 hour. It presents with chronic inflammation and is differentiated from other types of arthritis by these clinical features and serological markers like rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-CCP antibodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient with a tibial fracture in a cast presented to the emergency department with complaints of intense pain. The cast was removed and on examination, passive extension was painful. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses were present and there was a loss of sensation over the first web space. What is the next step?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duplex imaging", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Re-apply cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measure anterior compartment pressure", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Analgesics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Measure anterior compartment pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Measure anterior compartment pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with fractures and signs of intense pain, pain on passive stretch, and sensory changes, always suspect acute compartment syndrome . Immediate measurement of compartment pressures is critical to guide the need for fasciotomy and prevent irreversible tissue damage.</li><li>➤ acute compartment syndrome</li><li>➤ compartment pressures</li><li>➤ fasciotomy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 228</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Inicet Nov 2024 2024 11 10 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 228</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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(INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis A virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis B virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis C virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis D virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hepatitis A virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_51pJJKm.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hepatitis A virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Public Health Classification of Water Borne Diseases</li><li>➤ Public Health Classification of Water Borne Diseases</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Best level of evidence as seen in research is? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Case control study", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meta-analysis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Meta-analysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_lD4T0wa.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_D45bObf.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_t7KJPDT.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Meta-analysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meta-analysis represents the highest level of evidence in the evidence-based medicine hierarchy, above systematic reviews, randomized controlled trials, cohort studies, and case-control studies.</li><li>➤ highest level of evidence</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "ICER is used as an Economic model in which of the following Health Management Techniques: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cost benefit analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cost effectiveness analysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Systems analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cost accounting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cost effectiveness analysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_W9d7wmk.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cost effectiveness analysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ICER (Incremental Cost-Effectiveness Ratio) is a key economic model used in cost-effectiveness analysis to compare the relative costs and outcomes of different interventions.</li><li>➤ cost-effectiveness analysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a criteria for defining severe acute malnutrition? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low weight for Height", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low Height for age", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mid upper arm circumference", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pedal edema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Low Height for age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Low Height for age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Low height for age (stunting) is an indicator of chronic malnutrition and is not a criterion for defining Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM).</li><li>➤ Low height for age (stunting) is an indicator of chronic malnutrition</li><li>➤ Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM).</li><li>➤ The three criteria for SAM are:</li><li>➤ Weight for height &lt;-3 SD (visible severe wasting) Bilateral pedal edema Mid-upper arm circumference &lt; 115 millimeters</li><li>➤ Weight for height &lt;-3 SD (visible severe wasting)</li><li>➤ Weight for height &lt;-3 SD (visible severe wasting)</li><li>➤ Bilateral pedal edema</li><li>➤ Bilateral pedal edema</li><li>➤ Mid-upper arm circumference &lt; 115 millimeters</li><li>➤ Mid-upper arm circumference &lt; 115 millimeters</li><li>➤ Pem Status Indicators</li><li>➤ Low Wt. for Age → Under Weight → Acute on chronic PEM Low Wt. for Height → Wasting → Acute PEM Low Ht for Age → Stunting → Chronic PEM</li><li>➤ Low Wt. for Age → Under Weight → Acute on chronic PEM</li><li>➤ Low Wt. for Height → Wasting → Acute PEM</li><li>➤ Low Ht for Age → Stunting → Chronic PEM</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Malaria diagnosis under field settings is best done by using? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thin peripheral blood smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thick peripheral blood smear", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Buffy coat technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rapid diagnostic test (HRP Type 2 Pf Antigen)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thick peripheral blood smear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_uWQdszh.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thick peripheral blood smear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For malaria diagnosis in field settings in developing countries like India, thick peripheral blood smear is the preferred method due to its higher sensitivity and lower cost compared to other methods.</li><li>➤ higher sensitivity and lower cost compared to other methods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a high risk group for HIV? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Injecting drug users (IDU)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Men having sex with men (MSM)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Commercial sex workers (CSW)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Long distance truck drivers (LDTD)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Long distance truck drivers (LDTD)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_mH409b4.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Long distance truck drivers (LDTD)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HIV Transmission Spectrum: High-Risk Groups vs Bridge Populations vs General Populations</li><li>➤ HIV Transmission Spectrum: High-Risk Groups vs Bridge Populations vs General Populations</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child presented to OPD of a PHC Watery diarrhea having severe dehydration. Most likely causative agent underlying would be: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shigella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E.Coli O157:H7", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rota virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rota virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rota virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rotavirus is the most common cause of watery diarrhea with severe dehydration in young children under 5 years of age.</li><li>➤ watery diarrhea with severe dehydration</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vaccine that should not be given in age above 65 years is: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumococcal vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Varicella zoster vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human papilloma virus vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Td Vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Human papilloma virus vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Human papilloma virus vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HPV (Human Papilloma Virus) vaccine has an upper age limit of approximately 45 years and is not indicated for administration in individuals above 65 years of age</li><li>➤ upper age limit of approximately 45 years and is not indicated for administration in individuals above 65 years of age</li><li>➤ Vaccination For Elderly (CDC)</li><li>➤ Influenza Pneumococcal Td- every 10 years</li><li>➤ Influenza</li><li>➤ Pneumococcal</li><li>➤ Td- every 10 years</li><li>➤ If ≥ 60 yr. vaccine indicated</li><li>➤ Herpes Zoster Hep A, Hep B Menningococcal v. MMR Varicella v. YF v.</li><li>➤ Herpes Zoster</li><li>➤ Hep A, Hep B</li><li>➤ Menningococcal v.</li><li>➤ MMR</li><li>➤ Varicella v.</li><li>➤ YF v.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a village population, patients having diabetes and hypertension are enumerated. Then their family members are screening for diabetes and hypertension. This is a type of: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mass screening", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Selective screening", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiphasic screening", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anonymous screening", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Selective screening", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_jPIFKks.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Selective screening</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are the components of Anemia Mukt Bharat Programme except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 health functionaries", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 health beneficiaries", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 institutional mechanisms", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 interventions", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 6 health functionaries", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-30%20135420.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_loMbys3.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 6 health functionaries</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Anemia Mukt Bharat program follows a 6x6x6 strategy which includes 6 beneficiaries, 6 interventions, and 6 institutional mechanisms, but does not include 6 health functionaries.</li><li>➤ 6x6x6 strategy which includes 6 beneficiaries, 6 interventions, and 6 institutional mechanisms,</li><li>➤ IFA TABLETS [Anemia Mukt Bharat]</li><li>➤ IFA TABLETS [Anemia Mukt Bharat]</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is not used for uncomplicated malaria? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sulfadoxine – pyrimethamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primaquine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Artemether", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Artemether", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_EGtKl2q.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_50Ys5Xa.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Artemether</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Artemisinin derivatives like artemether should never be given alone for malaria treatment as they promote resistance. They must always be used in combination therapy (ACT).</li><li>➤ combination therapy (ACT).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the following, mark the correct sequence of steps for a Randomized controlled trial (RCT)? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Analysis, Blinding, Inclusion and Exclusion, Randomization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blinding, Inclusion and Exclusion, Randomization, Analysis,", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inclusion and Exclusion, Randomization, Blinding, Analysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inclusion and Exclusion, Blinding, Randomization, Analysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inclusion and Exclusion, Randomization, Blinding, Analysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Inclusion and Exclusion, Randomization, Blinding, Analysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of steps in conducting a Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT): defining inclusion and exclusion criteria, randomization, blinding, and finally analysis.</li><li>➤ inclusion and exclusion criteria, randomization, blinding, and finally analysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the challenge faced in the operationalization of the concept of Universal Health Coverage (UHC)? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Universal Health Coverage aims to provide free health care services to all, regardless of the available resources in the country.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Universal Health Coverage aims to provide services despite having unregulated and fragmented healthcare delivery systems.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Universal Health Coverage prioritizes the safety of resources in a low-resource setting.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Universal Health Coverage targets primary health care delivery based on the needs of the population.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Universal Health Coverage aims to provide services despite having unregulated and fragmented healthcare delivery systems.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Universal Health Coverage aims to provide services despite having unregulated and fragmented healthcare delivery systems.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The main challenge in operationalizing Universal Health Coverage (UHC) is the delivery of services due to unregulated and fragmented healthcare delivery systems.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following viral vaccines are types of Live vaccines except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rota viral vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis B vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Varicella vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hepatitis B vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_mjO9bEE.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hepatitis B vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classification of vaccines</li><li>➤ Classification of vaccines</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are examples of passive immunity except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antitoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Monoclonal antibodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Toxoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Toxoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Toxoids (like those used in tetanus and diphtheria vaccines ) stimulate active immunity rather than providing passive immunity.</li><li>➤ tetanus and diphtheria vaccines</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Culture medium used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Muller Hinton agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blood agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sabouraud’s agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lowenstein-Jensen medium", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lowenstein-Jensen medium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lowenstein-Jensen medium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lowenstein-Jensen medium as the traditional solid culture medium used for the isolation and identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are effective modalities for the prevention of spread of COVID-19 diseases except? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mask use", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cough etiquette", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ivermectin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Covid Vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ivermectin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ivermectin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ivermectin has no proven role in the prevention or treatment of COVID-19 disease despite early speculation, while mask use, cough etiquette, and COVID-19 vaccines are proven effective preventive measures.</li><li>➤ Ivermectin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding prevention of Zika virus is? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NSAIDS are useful to cure the symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condoms should be used during intercourse and pregnancy should be avoided", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A good vaccine is available", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasmapheresis has a role in management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Condoms should be used during intercourse and pregnancy should be avoided", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_OXVLszv.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Condoms should be used during intercourse and pregnancy should be avoided</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Preventive measures for Zika virus infection, including the importance of condom use during intercourse and avoiding pregnancy due to the risk of teratogenic effects on the fetus.</li><li>➤ condom use during intercourse and avoiding pregnancy due to the risk of teratogenic effects on the fetus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A cotton swab, pus stained, is disposed in which color of BMW management category? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow category", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red category", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "White category", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue category", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Yellow category", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_gxk7c8C.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_2nYrpbd.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_ViQxEww.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_56w3kap.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Yellow category</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cotton swabs stained with pus are classified as soiled waste and should be disposed of in the yellow category of biomedical waste management.</li><li>➤ Cotton swabs stained with pus</li><li>➤ yellow category</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Truelove and Witt criteria are used for assessing which of the following conditions? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Encephalitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute severe ulcerative colitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ARDS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute severe ulcerative colitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_TjxPFrg.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acute severe ulcerative colitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Truelove and Witt criteria are used for assessing the severity of ulcerative colitis.</li><li>➤ Truelove and Witt's Criteria for Severity of Ulcerative Colitis</li><li>➤ Truelove and Witt's Criteria for Severity of Ulcerative Colitis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nadas criteria include all of the following except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chest X-ray findings", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Raised Trop T level", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CCF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diastolic murmur", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Raised Trop T level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_ke331nr.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Raised Trop T level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nadas criteria are used for diagnosing congenital heart disease, which includes both major criteria (systolic murmur grade 3-4/6, diastolic murmur, CCF, cyanosis) and minor criteria (grade 2/6 systolic murmur, abnormal S2, abnormal X-ray, abnormal ECG, abnormal BP).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following viruses spreads predominantly through water? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HCV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HAV (Hepatitis A Virus)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HDV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HAV (Hepatitis A Virus)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HAV (Hepatitis A Virus)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatitis A virus spreads predominantly through the fecal-oral route and contaminated water, unlike other hepatitis viruses, which have different primary modes of transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cannot be used to differentiate psoriatic arthritis from other conditions? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enthesitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Presence of diarrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dactylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nail pitting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Presence of diarrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Presence of diarrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enthesitis, dactylitis, and nail changes are characteristic features that help diagnose psoriatic arthritis. Diarrhea is a nonspecific symptom that can occur in multiple forms of arthritis and cannot be used as a differentiating feature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is considered ineffective in the prevention of COVID-19? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ivermectin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cough etiquette", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ivermectin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ivermectin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ivermectin, despite being widely discussed during the pandemic, has not been proven effective in preventing COVID-19 infection, unlike established preventive measures such as masks, vaccines, and proper cough etiquette.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to KDIGO staging of chronic kidney disease (CKD), what is the GFR range for stage 3b? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60–90 mL/min/1.73m²", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15–30 mL/min/1.73m²", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "45–59 mL/min/1.73m²", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30–44 mL/min/1.73m²", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 30–44 mL/min/1.73m²", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 30–44 mL/min/1.73m²</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GFR ranges for CKD staging:</li><li>➤ Stage 1: &gt;90 mL/min/1.73m² Stage 2: 60–89 mL/min/1.73m² Stage 3a: 45–59 mL/min/1.73m² Stage 3b: 30–44 mL/min/1.73m² Stage 4: 15–29 mL/min/1.73m² Stage 5: &lt;15 mL/min/1.73m²</li><li>➤ Stage 1: &gt;90 mL/min/1.73m²</li><li>➤ Stage 2: 60–89 mL/min/1.73m²</li><li>➤ Stage 3a: 45–59 mL/min/1.73m²</li><li>➤ Stage 3b: 30–44 mL/min/1.73m²</li><li>➤ Stage 4: 15–29 mL/min/1.73m²</li><li>➤ Stage 5: &lt;15 mL/min/1.73m²</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman reports episodes of palpitations and dizziness, particularly following physical activity such as playing tennis. She has experienced these symptoms multiple times over the last two years. ECG is taken and it is shown. Based on her presentation and the accompanying ECG findings, which of the following diagnoses is most likely? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brugada syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uhl anomaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_cS5E9cv.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epsilon waves on ECG are pathognomonic for ARVD, which typically presents in young people with exertional symptoms and can be a cause of sudden cardiac death, particularly common in Italy. The condition involves desmosomal mutations and progressive RV dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A scuba diver surfaces rapidly, soon experiencing joint pain, dizziness, and difficulty breathing indicating decompression sickness. Which of the following is not associated with it? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coagulopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Haemodilution", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Visual loss", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Haemodilution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Haemodilution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decompression sickness leads to hemoconcentration (not haemodilution) and can present with joint pain (\"the bends\"), neurological symptoms, coagulopathy, and sensory organ dysfunction including vision and hearing loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis (HAGMA) is not caused by: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diarrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inborn errors of metabolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diarrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Diarrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diarrhea causes Normal Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis (NAGMA), not High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis (HAGMA).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman presents with weight loss, mediastinal lymphadenopathy, and pleural effusion. Her HRCT shows a \"tree-in-bud\" pattern, indicating lung consolidation and effusion. Analysis of pleural fluid reveals high adenosine deaminase (ADA) levels with a predominance of lymphocytes. What is the most likely finding on lymph node biopsy? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fungal hyphae surrounded by lymphocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthracosis pigment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Necrotizing epithelioid granuloma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reactive hyperplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Necrotizing epithelioid granuloma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Necrotizing epithelioid granuloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a young woman with systemic symptoms, tree-in-bud pattern, lymphocytic pleural effusion, and high ADA, TB is the most likely diagnosis. The hallmark histopathological finding is a necrotizing epithelioid granuloma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following groups is not considered a core risk factor group for HIV transmission? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Female sex workers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Long distance truck drivers", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Male having sex with male", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IV drug abusers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Long distance truck drivers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_93334Gb.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_dcL1dbs.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Long-distance truck drivers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The distinction between core risk groups and bridge populations in HIV transmission:</li><li>➤ Core risk groups include:</li><li>➤ Core risk groups include:</li><li>➤ Female sex workers Men who have sex with men (MSM) Transgender populations Injectable drug users</li><li>➤ Female sex workers</li><li>➤ Men who have sex with men (MSM)</li><li>➤ Transgender populations</li><li>➤ Injectable drug users</li><li>➤ Bridge populations , like truck drivers and migrants, serve as intermediaries in disease transmission.</li><li>➤ Bridge populations</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following vaccines is generally not recommended for individuals over 65 years of age? (INICET NOV 2024) Hepatitis B Influenza Human papillomavirus (HPV) Pneumococcal", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a and c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "c only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "a, b and d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "b and c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. c only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) c only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The age-based restrictions for HPV vaccination (approved only up to age 45) and the core vaccines recommended for elderly individuals (pneumococcal, influenza, and conditional hepatitis B vaccination).</li><li>➤ The only non-recommended vaccine in this list for those over 65 years is HPV , while pneumococcal, influenza, and hepatitis B vaccines may all be indicated based on individual risk factors and previous vaccination status.</li><li>➤ HPV</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which JAK inhibitor drug is recommended for moderate to severe ulcerative colitis in a patient who is not responding well to TNF-alpha blockers? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ustekinumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Etanercept", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vedolizumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tofacitinib", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tofacitinib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tofacitinib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tofacitinib is the JAK inhibitor approved for moderate to severe ulcerative colitis in patients who have failed TNF-alpha blockers. Other JAK inhibitors used in rheumatological diseases include baricitinib and upadacitinib.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Regarding Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) in children, which of the following statements is false? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasmapheresis is not effective in refractory GBS", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV immunoglobulins are the first line of treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Areflexia in the weaker arm is included in diagnostic criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Albumino-cytological dissociation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Plasmapheresis is not effective in refractory GBS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_vQdge7y.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Plasmapheresis is not effective in refractory GBS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Plasmapheresis and IVIG are effective treatment options for GBS, including refractory cases, with neither being superior to the other. Never use immunosuppression or steroids in acute GBS.</li><li>➤ Level of diagnostic certainty in Brighton criteria for GBS</li><li>➤ Level of diagnostic certainty in Brighton criteria for GBS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Acute graft rejection in a kidney transplant patient is indicated by: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Creatinine raised by 5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Any rise in creatinine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Creatinine raised by 10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Not associated with rise in Creatinine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Any rise in creatinine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Any rise in creatinine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute graft rejection in kidney transplant patients typically presents with asymptomatic elevation in serum creatinine. Traditional symptoms like fever and graft tenderness are less common due to current immunosuppression protocols. Any rise in creatinine should prompt consideration of acute rejection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "LMN lesions are associated with? (INICET NOV 2024) Decrease in muscle tone Spastic paralysis Babinski positivity Fasciculations", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lower motor neuron lesions are characterized by:</li><li>➤ Decreased muscle tone (flaccidity) Fasciculations (muscle twitching) Absence of spasticity and Babinski sign (which are UMN signs)</li><li>➤ Decreased muscle tone (flaccidity)</li><li>➤ Fasciculations (muscle twitching)</li><li>➤ Absence of spasticity and Babinski sign (which are UMN signs)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with altered sensorium and his BP was 220/110 mmHg. He also had one episode of vomiting and on examination has weakness in the left upper and lower limbs. Which of the following is incorrect? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BP should be checked multiple times before administering anti-hypertensives", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "In haemorrhagic stroke, you should aggressively treat with intravenous anti-hypertensives", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "In haemorrhagic stroke, BP should be reduced to 160/100 mmHg with anti-hypertensives", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BP should be reduced immediately to less than 140/90 mmHg in ischemic stroke", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. BP should be reduced immediately to less than 140/90 mmHg in ischemic stroke", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_xvR4CKZ.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) BP should be reduced immediately to less than 140/90 mmHg in ischemic stroke</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The specific blood pressure targets in acute stroke:</li><li>➤ General recommendation in hypertensive emergency: Reduce BP by 25% in 1st hour, then target around 160/100 mmHg within 2–6 hours Ischemic stroke with thrombolysis: &lt;185/110 mmHg Ischemic stroke without thrombolysis: &lt;220/120 mmHg Hemorrhagic Stroke: Controversial – SBP &lt;140 mmHg (INTERACT2) vs. 140–180 mmHg (WHO 2021)</li><li>➤ General recommendation in hypertensive emergency: Reduce BP by 25% in 1st hour, then target around 160/100 mmHg within 2–6 hours</li><li>➤ Ischemic stroke with thrombolysis: &lt;185/110 mmHg</li><li>➤ Ischemic stroke without thrombolysis: &lt;220/120 mmHg</li><li>➤ Hemorrhagic Stroke: Controversial – SBP &lt;140 mmHg (INTERACT2) vs. 140–180 mmHg (WHO 2021)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the management of patients who have achieved return of spontaneous circulation following CPR? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Target SpO₂ more than 94%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Initiate targeted temperature management of &lt;33°C, if the patient is confused", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Perform emergent cardiac intervention if ST elevation is present in the ECG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) above 65 mmHg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Initiate targeted temperature management of <33°C, if the patient is confused", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Initiate targeted temperature management of &lt;33°C, if the patient is confused</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In post-resuscitation care after ROSC, targeted temperature management should be maintained between 33–36°C, with higher targets (36–37.5°C) for patients at risk of bleeding or coagulopathy. Temperature should never be targeted below 33°C due to increased complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not typically associated with Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome Type 1 (APS-1)? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoparathyroidism is common", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus association is high", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Association with mucocutaneous candidiasis is high", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Early onset in infancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus association is high", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus association is high</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classic triad of APS-1:</li><li>➤ Mucocutaneous candidiasis (most common and earliest manifestation) Hypoparathyroidism Addison's disease</li><li>➤ Mucocutaneous candidiasis (most common and earliest manifestation)</li><li>➤ Hypoparathyroidism</li><li>➤ Addison's disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is considered the initial recommended test for diagnosing pheochromocytoma? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "24 hr urinary total metanephrines", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MIBG scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasma catecholamines", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRI of the whole abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 24 hr urinary total metanephrines", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 24 hr urinary total metanephrines</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A 24-hour urinary metanephrines test with fractionated catecholamines is the initial recommended test for diagnosing pheochromocytoma in the general population. Plasma metanephrines can be considered in high-risk populations (such as those with a family history or genetic syndromes).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thrombocytopenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thrombosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Thrombosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Thrombosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classic pentad of TTP consists of fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, and neurological involvement. Macrovascular thrombosis is not a defining feature of TTP, unlike in conditions such as antiphospholipid syndrome, where both macro- and microvascular thrombosis can occur.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not correct regarding Behçet's disease? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pathergy test is a criterion as per the ISG diagnostic criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulcers are common on the dorsum of the penis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aphthous ulcers occur similar to Crohn’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bilateral pan uveitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ulcers are common on the dorsum of the penis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ulcers are common on the dorsum of the penis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Behçet’s disease typically affects the scrotum, vulva, eyes, and oral mucosa. Ulcers on the dorsum of the penis are atypical, making option B the incorrect statement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child presented with fever, thrombocytopenia, and hematuria. The mother tells you that the baby also suffered from bloody diarrhea a few days back. Which is likely microorganism to be isolated from the stool sample? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E. coli O157:H7", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shigella flexneri", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salmonella enteritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aeromonas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. E. coli O157:H7", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) E. coli O157:H7</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ E. coli O157:H7 is the most common cause of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome in children, typically presenting with bloody diarrhea followed by the triad of hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What causes decrease in GFR? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decrease in Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in glomerular hydrostatic pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decrease in glomerular filtration coefficient", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decrease in glomerular oncotic pressure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decrease in glomerular filtration coefficient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decrease in glomerular filtration coefficient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glomerular filtration coefficient (Kf) and GFR are directly proportional, meaning a decrease in Kf causes a decrease in GFR.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following findings are typically associated with glomerular hematuria? (INICET NOV 2024) Brown urine Dysuria absent Crystals in urine Edema is rare", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A, B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A, B and C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, B, D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A, B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A, B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glomerular hematuria includes brown/cola-colored urine and absence of dysuria, while presence of edema and absence of urinary crystals are other important characteristics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Features of MEN2B are all except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medullary thyroid carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucosal ganglioneuromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parathyroid hyperplasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marfanoid habitus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Parathyroid hyperplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Parathyroid hyperplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parathyroid hyperplasia is NOT a component of MEN2B syndrome, while the characteristic features include medullary thyroid carcinoma, mucosal neuromas, marfanoid habitus, and megacolon (the 4 M's).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a stimulus for catecholamine synthesis? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Smoking", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Standing posture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperglycemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exercise", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyperglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hyperglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypoglycemia (not hyperglycemia) is a potent stimulus for catecholamine release, leading to autonomic symptoms like tremors, palpitations, anxiety, and sweating. Hyperglycemia does not stimulate catecholamine synthesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following hormones to receptors: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_yEQI1e3.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The distinct receptor mechanisms for different hormone classes:</li><li>➤ Acetylcholine → Ligand-gated channels Insulin → Tyrosine kinase pathway Growth hormone → JAK-STAT pathway Thyroxine → Nuclear receptors</li><li>➤ Acetylcholine → Ligand-gated channels</li><li>➤ Insulin → Tyrosine kinase pathway</li><li>➤ Growth hormone → JAK-STAT pathway</li><li>➤ Thyroxine → Nuclear receptors</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of NAME syndrome? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nevi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial myxoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myxoid neurofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ebstein's anomaly", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ebstein's anomaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ebstein's anomaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NAME syndrome (now part of Carney complex) consists of Nevi (blue), Atrial myxoma, Myxoid neurofibroma, and Ephelides (freckles). Ebstein's anomaly is not a component of this syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following should be prevented when collecting a blood sample for serum calcium? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Making a fist with forearm exercise", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tourniquet should be tied and released as soon as possible", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Should be collected in sitting position &amp; better to avoid prolonged immobilization", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sample should be analyzed within 15–30 min of collection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Making a fist with forearm exercise", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Making a fist with forearm exercise</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Making a fist and performing forearm exercises during blood collection for calcium measurement should be avoided, as it can falsely elevate calcium levels through muscle ischemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with diabetes mellitus, the synthesis of TG and VLDL is increased from the liver. What is the cause of the same? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased action of LPL and increased action of HSL", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased action of LPL and increased action of HSL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased action of LPL and decreased action of HSL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased action of LPL and decreased action of HSL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decreased action of LPL and increased action of HSL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Decreased action of LPL and increased action of HSL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In diabetes mellitus, decreased LPL and increased HSL activities lead to increased triglycerides and VLDL synthesis in the liver, contributing to diabetic dyslipidemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with uveitis and sacroiliitis. What is most likely associated with it? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HLA B8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HLA B27", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HLA B5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HLA B51", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HLA B27", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HLA B27</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HLA-B27 is strongly associated with seronegative spondyloarthropathies, particularly when patients present with the combination of uveitis and sacroiliitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with recurrent Raynaud’s phenomenon. She also complained of thickening of skin in the hands and difficulty in swallowing. What is the diagnosis and immunofluorescence pattern shown? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nuclear pattern; SLE", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homogeneous pattern; SLE", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Speckled pattern; Systemic sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-centromere pattern; Systemic sclerosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Anti-centromere pattern; Systemic sclerosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_xOrfzxr.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Anti-centromere pattern; Systemic sclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-centromere antibodies producing a centromeric immunofluorescence pattern are specifically associated with limited systemic sclerosis , particularly when presenting with Raynaud's phenomenon and acral skin thickening.</li><li>➤ limited systemic sclerosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old patient complained of bilateral lower limb numbness. He has a history of low BP and gastrectomy done for gastric cancer a year back. On examination, Romberg test is positive and there is loss of proprioception in both lower limbs. Which of the following deficiency can cause this condition? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B6 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiamine deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Folic acid deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gastrectomy leads to B12 deficiency due to loss of intrinsic factor, and B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, presenting with posterior column signs (proprioception loss and positive Romberg test).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are hereditary causes of thrombosis except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protein C deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factor V Leiden mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antithrombin III deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PNH is an acquired (not hereditary) stem cell disorder caused by somatic mutations in the PIG-A gene. Protein C deficiency, Factor V Leiden mutation, and Antithrombin III deficiency are hereditary causes of thrombophilia.</li><li>➤ acquired</li><li>➤ hereditary</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause of inherited Thrombophilia? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protein C deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prothrombin deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factor V Leiden mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antithrombin III Deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Factor V Leiden mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Factor V Leiden mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor V Leiden mutation is the most common inherited cause of thrombophilia.</li><li>➤ Factor V Leiden mutation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In haemolytic anaemia, which of the following is correct? (INICET NOV 2024) Urobilinogen is high Serum conjugated bilirubin is elevated Serum transaminases are increased Indirect van den Bergh reaction is positive", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Haemolytic anaemia is characterized by:</li><li>➤ Increased urobilinogen in urine Elevated unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin Positive indirect van den Bergh reaction Normal enterohepatic circulation</li><li>➤ Increased urobilinogen in urine</li><li>➤ Elevated unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin</li><li>➤ Positive indirect van den Bergh reaction</li><li>➤ Normal enterohepatic circulation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not associated with celiac disease? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Modified Marsh classification", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgA transglutaminase positivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgG antigliadin positivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HLA DQ6 and HLA DQ11", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HLA DQ6 and HLA DQ11", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) HLA DQ6 and HLA DQ11</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac disease is genetically associated with HLA-DQ2 (95% of cases) and HLA-DQ8 , not HLA-DQ6 and HLA-DQ11.</li><li>➤ HLA-DQ2</li><li>➤ HLA-DQ8</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which mutation is seen in sickle cell disease? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glu → Val (6)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lys → Arg (9)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glu → Lys (6)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ala → Gly (9)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glu → Val (6)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glu → Val (6)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sickle cell disease is caused by a point mutation at position 6 of the β-globin chain, where glutamic acid (Glu) is replaced by valine (Val) .</li><li>➤ glutamic acid (Glu)</li><li>➤ valine (Val)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 46-year-old diabetic presented with fever, malaise, and cough. His chest X-ray is shown. Which of the following is correct? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lobar infiltrates – Pyogenic pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hilar infiltrates – Malignancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interstitial infiltrates – Mycoplasma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspiration pneumonia – Upper segment of right lower lobe", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Interstitial infiltrates – Mycoplasma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_8xKbZoP.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Interstitial infiltrates – Mycoplasma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bilateral patchy interstitial infiltrates on chest X-ray, along with fever, malaise, and cough, are characteristic of atypical pneumonia , particularly Mycoplasma pneumonia .</li><li>➤ Bilateral patchy interstitial infiltrates</li><li>➤ atypical pneumonia</li><li>➤ Mycoplasma pneumonia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the normal arteriovenous ratio at the optic disc? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2:5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2:3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1:5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1:3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2:3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2:3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The normal arteriovenous (AV) ratio at the optic disc is 2:3. This ratio represents the normal relationship between arteriole and venule caliber at the optic disc. The artery appears lighter in color and has a thicker wall, while the vein appears darker and has a thinner wall. This ratio is important in assessing various ocular conditions, particularly hypertensive retinopathy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 2:5 : This is incorrect as it suggests arterioles are too narrow compared to venules. This ratio would indicate pathological narrowing of arterioles.</li><li>• Option A. 2:5</li><li>• Option C. 1:5 : This is incorrect and would represent a severely abnormal ratio suggesting significant arteriolar narrowing, which might be seen in advanced hypertensive retinopathy.</li><li>• Option C. 1:5</li><li>• Option D. 1:3 : While this ratio is seen in hypertensive retinopathy, it is not the normal AV ratio. In hypertensive retinopathy, there is narrowing of arterioles leading to a reduction in the AV ratio from 2:3 to 1:3.</li><li>• Option D. 1:3</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The normal arteriovenous ratio at the optic disc is 2:3, which serves as a baseline for evaluating vascular changes in various retinal conditions, particularly hypertensive retinopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the case of macular corneal opacity, which of the following is true? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iris details are seen.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pupil margins are seen.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both iris details and pupil margins are seen.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both iris details and pupil margins are not seen.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pupil margins are seen.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pupil margins are seen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In macular corneal opacity, the iris details are not visible through the opacity, but the pupil margin can be easily seen. This is a key distinguishing feature of macular opacity compared to other types of corneal opacities. Macular opacity involves significant stromal injury but affects less than half the depth of the stroma. The opacity is easily visible but allows some visualization of deeper structures like pupillary margins.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Iris details are seen : This is incorrect. In macular opacity, the texture and details of the iris are obscured by the opacity.</li><li>• Option A. Iris details are seen</li><li>• Option C. Both iris details and pupil margins are seen : This is incorrect and better describes nebular opacity, which is the mildest form where both iris details and pupil margins are visible.</li><li>• Option C. Both iris details and pupil margins are seen</li><li>• Option D. Both iris details and pupil margins are not seen : This is incorrect and describes leucomatous opacity, which is the densest form where neither iris details nor pupil margins are visible.</li><li>• Option D. Both iris details and pupil margins are not seen</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Macular corneal opacity, pupil margins are visible while iris details cannot be seen - this is a key diagnostic feature that helps differentiate it from other types of corneal opacities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-year-old child who was born premature at 34 weeks POG weighing 1400 gms presents with leukocoria. On CT, intraocular calcification is seen. What is the most probable diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "R.O.P", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital Cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coat’s Disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Retinoblastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20115715.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Retinoblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• While the history of prematurity (34 weeks) and low birth weight (1400g) might suggest ROP, the presence of intraocular calcification on CT scan is pathognomonic for retinoblastoma. Retinoblastoma is the most common primary intraocular malignancy of childhood, and it is the only condition among the given options that shows intraocular calcification. This calcification can be detected on CT scan, though CT is generally avoided due to radiation exposure risks. The preferred imaging modalities are ultrasound B-scan and contrast-enhanced MRI.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. ROP (Retinopathy of Prematurity): While the premature birth and low birth weight are risk factors for ROP, it does not present with intraocular calcification. ROP occurs in newborns &lt;34 weeks or &lt;2.0 kg birth weight and presents with abnormal vessel development.</li><li>• Option A. ROP (Retinopathy of Prematurity):</li><li>• Option B. Congenital Cataract: This presents as leukocoria but does not show intraocular calcification. It is an opacity of the natural lens that is present at birth.</li><li>• Option B. Congenital Cataract:</li><li>• Option D. Coat's Disease: While this can present with leukocoria, it is characterized by retinal telangiectasia and exudation without calcification. It typically affects young males and is usually unilateral.</li><li>• Option D. Coat's Disease:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intraocular calcification seen on imaging in a child with leukocoria is pathognomonic for retinoblastoma, regardless of other clinical factors like prematurity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with bilateral sudden onset painless vision loss. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diabetic retinopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iridocyclitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute congestive glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Keratoconus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diabetic retinopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20115939.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Diabetic retinopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bilateral sudden onset painless vision loss is most commonly associated with diabetic retinopathy , particularly in cases of proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR) leading to vitreous hemorrhage .</li><li>• painless</li><li>• diabetic retinopathy</li><li>• proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR)</li><li>• vitreous hemorrhage</li><li>• Diabetic retinopathy can cause vitreous hemorrhage , which results in sudden, painless vision loss. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR) is characterized by neovascularization, which can rupture and cause bilateral involvement due to systemic nature of diabetes. Unlike other causes of vision loss, diabetic retinopathy progresses asymptomatically until a significant event like hemorrhage or tractional retinal detachment occurs.</li><li>• Diabetic retinopathy can cause vitreous hemorrhage , which results in sudden, painless vision loss.</li><li>• Diabetic retinopathy</li><li>• vitreous hemorrhage</li><li>• painless</li><li>• Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR) is characterized by neovascularization, which can rupture and cause bilateral involvement due to systemic nature of diabetes.</li><li>• bilateral involvement</li><li>• Unlike other causes of vision loss, diabetic retinopathy progresses asymptomatically until a significant event like hemorrhage or tractional retinal detachment occurs.</li><li>• diabetic retinopathy progresses asymptomatically</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Iridocyclitis: Incorrect. Iridocyclitis (anterior uveitis) causes painful vision loss with redness, photophobia, and keratic precipitates , which are absent in this case.</li><li>• Option B. Iridocyclitis:</li><li>• painful</li><li>• redness, photophobia, and keratic precipitates</li><li>• Option C. Acute Congestive Glaucoma: Incorrect. This condition presents with sudden onset painful vision loss , red eye , halos around lights , and raised intraocular pressure . The presence of pain distinguishes it from diabetic retinopathy.</li><li>• Option C. Acute Congestive Glaucoma:</li><li>• sudden onset painful vision loss</li><li>• red eye</li><li>• halos around lights</li><li>• raised intraocular pressure</li><li>• pain</li><li>• Option D. Keratoconus: Incorrect. Keratoconus leads to progressive rather than sudden vision loss and is not typically bilateral at onset. It causes irregular astigmatism but does not cause complete vision loss suddenly.</li><li>• Option D. Keratoconus:</li><li>• progressive</li><li>• sudden</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bilateral sudden painless vision loss is most commonly due to diabetic retinopathy , particularly proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR) with vitreous hemorrhage .</li><li>➤ diabetic retinopathy</li><li>➤ proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR)</li><li>➤ vitreous hemorrhage</li><li>➤ Diminished Vision Classification</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the following layers of the retina in the correct order from the outermost to the innermost layer. (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 – Retinal Pigment Epithelium, 2 – Outer Nuclear Layer, 3 – Inner Plexiform Layer, 4 – Ganglion Cell Layer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 – Outer Nuclear Layer, 2 – Retinal Pigment Epithelium, 3 – Ganglion Cell Layer, 4 – Inner Plexiform Layer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 – Ganglion Cell Layer, 2 – Inner Plexiform Layer, 3 – Retinal Pigment Epithelium, 4 – Outer Nuclear Layer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 – Retinal Pigment Epithelium, 2 – Inner Plexiform Layer, 3 – Outer Nuclear Layer, 4 – Ganglion Cell Layer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 – Retinal Pigment Epithelium, 2 – Outer Nuclear Layer, 3 – Inner Plexiform Layer, 4 – Ganglion Cell Layer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-20%20120031.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1 – Retinal Pigment Epithelium, 2 – Outer Nuclear Layer, 3 – Inner Plexiform Layer, 4 – Ganglion Cell Layer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct sequence of retinal layers from outermost to innermost is RPE, outer nuclear layer, inner plexiform layer, and ganglion cell layer. The RPE is the outermost layer of the retina, followed by the outer nuclear layer which contains photoreceptor cell bodies. The inner plexiform layer contains synapses between bipolar, amacrine, and ganglion cells, while the ganglion cell layer, containing ganglion cell bodies, is closest to the vitreous.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anatomical sequence of retinal layers from outermost to innermost:</li><li>➤ Retinal Pigment Epithelium → Outer Nuclear Layer → Inner Plexiform Layer → Ganglion Cell Layer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pterygium can lead to which of the following? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Astigmatism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eye Pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Macular edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Purulent Discharge", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Astigmatism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Astigmatism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pterygium can lead to astigmatism because the fibrous growth on the cornea tends to flatten the cornea in the horizontal meridian. This creates an irregular corneal surface, specifically causing with-the-rule astigmatism. The pterygium grows along the horizontal axis, making it flatter, which results in the vertical axis becoming comparatively steeper, leading to astigmatism. This condition may cause visual disturbance, especially if it grows across the pupil.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Eye Pain : This is incorrect. Pterygium is typically painless. Patients may experience foreign body sensation, but actual pain is not a characteristic feature.</li><li>• Option B. Eye Pain</li><li>• Option C. Macular edema : This is incorrect. Pterygium is a surface growth that affects the anterior segment of the eye and does not cause macular edema, which is a condition affecting the posterior segment.</li><li>• Option C. Macular edema</li><li>• Option D. Purulent Discharge : This is incorrect. Pterygium is a non-inflammatory condition and does not cause purulent discharge. While there might be mild irritation and tearing, purulent discharge is not associated with pterygium.</li><li>• Option D. Purulent Discharge</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pterygium can cause with-the-rule astigmatism by flattening the cornea in the horizontal meridian.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the investigation of choice for Best disease? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Electrooculogram (EOG)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Electroretinogram (ERG)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Visual Evoked potential", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multifocal electro retinogram", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Electrooculogram (EOG)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Electrooculogram (EOG)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Electrooculogram (EOG) is the investigation of choice for Best disease. EOG is the only condition where best disease has significant diagnostic value, and Best disease is the only condition where EOG is of primary diagnostic significance. In Best disease, the Arden ratio (peak to trough ratio) in EOG is abnormal (&lt;1.5) while ERG remains normal in early stages. EOG measures the standing potential between the front and back of the eye and is particularly sensitive to RPE function, which is primarily affected in Best disease.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Electroretinogram (ERG) :This is incorrect because ERG is typically normal in Best disease, especially in early stages. ERG measures the electrical response of the retina to light stimulation and primarily tests photoreceptor function.</li><li>• Option B. Electroretinogram (ERG)</li><li>• Option C. Visual Evoked potential : This is incorrect because VEP tests the integrity of the entire visual pathway from retina to occipital cortex and is not specific for Best disease. It records the electrical activity in the visual cortex in response to visual stimuli.</li><li>• Option C. Visual Evoked potential</li><li>• Option D. Multifocal electro retinogram : This is incorrect because mfERG, while useful for evaluating macular function, is not the primary diagnostic test for Best disease. It provides topographic measurement of retinal electrophysiological activity in the central retina.</li><li>• Option D. Multifocal electro retinogram</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Electrooculogram (EOG) is the investigation of choice for Best disease, with an abnormal Arden ratio (&lt;1.5) being diagnostic while ERG remains normal in early stages.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In case of a chemical injury to the eye, what is the immediate first step in the management? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Check visual acuity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Take history", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intraocular pressure measurement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Copious irrigation with saline", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Copious irrigation with saline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Copious irrigation with saline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In chemical injury to the eye, copious irrigation with saline is the immediate first step in management. The primary goal is to remove the offending agent as quickly as possible to minimize tissue damage. Irrigation should be started immediately using whatever solution is available (saline, Ringer's lactate, balanced salt solution, or even plain water). It's crucial not to use neutralizing solutions (like acid for alkali or vice versa) as this can generate heat and cause additional damage.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Check visual acuity : This is incorrect as checking visual acuity would delay the urgent need to remove the causative chemical agent. Visual acuity can be checked after initial irrigation.</li><li>• Option A. Check visual acuity</li><li>• Option B. Take history : This is incorrect. While history is important, it should not delay immediate irrigation. Basic history (type of chemical) can be taken while performing irrigation.</li><li>• Option B. Take history</li><li>• Option C. Intraocular pressure measurement : This is incorrect. IOP measurement has no role in immediate management of chemical injury and could potentially cause more harm if done before thorough irrigation.</li><li>• Option C. Intraocular pressure measurement</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediate copious irrigation with saline or any available appropriate solution is the first step in managing chemical injury to the eye, taking precedence over all other examinations or investigations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is typically seen in diabetic retinopathy? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tractional retinal detachment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myopic refractive error", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior staphyloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retinoschisis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tractional retinal detachment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tractional retinal detachment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tractional retinal detachment (TRD) is a characteristic complication of proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR). In PDR, new vessels proliferate and are accompanied by fibrous tissue formation. When this fibrous tissue contracts, it pulls on the retina, leading to tractional retinal detachment. This typically occurs as a late complication of PDR, following vitreous hemorrhage and fibrovascular proliferation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Myopic refractive error : This is incorrect. Myopic refractive error is not associated with diabetic retinopathy. It is a refractive condition where light focuses in front of the retina rather than on it.</li><li>• Option B. Myopic refractive error</li><li>• Option C. Posterior staphyloma : This is incorrect. Posterior staphyloma is typically associated with high myopia, not diabetic retinopathy. It represents an outward bulging of the posterior pole of the eye.</li><li>• Option C. Posterior staphyloma</li><li>• Option D. Retinoschisis : This is incorrect. Retinoschisis, which is a splitting of the retinal layers, is not a characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy. It is commonly seen in degenerative conditions and as a congenital condition.</li><li>• Option D. Retinoschisis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tractional retinal detachment is a characteristic complication of proliferative diabetic retinopathy, caused by the contraction of fibrovascular tissue that develops with neovascularization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In fluorescein angiography, how do microaneurysms typically appear? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypofluorescent spots", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperfluorescent dots", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluorescent leakage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dark shadows", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyperfluorescent dots", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyperfluorescent dots</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In fluorescein angiography (FFA), microaneurysms appear as hyperfluorescent dots. Microaneurysms are focal saccular dilatations of capillary walls where pericytes are absent, typically located in the outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer. When fluorescein dye is injected, these microaneurysms fill with the dye and appear as bright, well-defined hyperfluorescent dots, particularly visible at the edge of areas of capillary non-perfusion.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hypofluorescent spots : This is incorrect. Hypofluorescent spots are typically seen in areas of blockage (like hemorrhages) or capillary dropout, not microaneurysms.</li><li>• Option A. Hypofluorescent spots</li><li>• Option C. Fluorescent leakage : This is incorrect. While microaneurysms may eventually leak, their characteristic initial appearance is as discrete hyperfluorescent dots, not diffuse leakage.</li><li>• Option C. Fluorescent leakage</li><li>• Option D. Dark shadows : This is incorrect. Dark shadows or blocking defects are typically seen with hemorrhages or pigmented lesions, not microaneurysms.</li><li>• Option D. Dark shadows</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Microaneurysms appear as hyperfluorescent dots on fluorescein angiography, serving as an important diagnostic feature in conditions like diabetic retinopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding viscoelastic substances used in cataract surgery? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It can be left in the eye at the end of surgery.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It damages the corneal epithelium or the endothelium.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SF6 and perfluorocarbon are commonly used viscoelastics.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is used to maintain the anterior chamber during capsulorhexis and IOL insertion.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It is used to maintain the anterior chamber during capsulorhexis and IOL insertion.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) It is used to maintain the anterior chamber during capsulorhexis and IOL insertion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Viscoelastic substances, also called ophthalmic visco-surgical devices (OVDs), are used to maintain the anterior chamber shape and volume during cataract surgery, particularly during capsulorhexis and IOL insertion. These gel-like materials protect intraocular tissues during surgical procedures and help maintain space in the anterior chamber, making surgical maneuvers safer and easier.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. It can be left in the eye at the end of surgery : This is incorrect. Viscoelastic must be thoroughly removed at the end of surgery as retained viscoelastic can cause post-operative rise in intraocular pressure.</li><li>• Option A. It can be left in the eye at the end of surgery</li><li>• Option B. It damages the corneal epithelium or the endothelium : This is incorrect. Rather than causing damage, viscoelastic substances protect the corneal endothelium from surgical trauma and phacoemulsification energy.</li><li>• Option B. It damages the corneal epithelium or the endothelium</li><li>• Option C. SF6 and perfluorocarbon are commonly used viscoelastics : This is incorrect. These are vitreous substitutes used in vitreoretinal surgery, not viscoelastic substances used in cataract surgery.</li><li>• Option C. SF6 and perfluorocarbon are commonly used viscoelastics</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Viscoelastic substances are essential in cataract surgery for maintaining anterior chamber form and protecting intraocular structures, particularly during capsulorhexis and IOL insertion, and must be removed at the end of surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Posterior interosseous nerve injury causes? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loss of extension at finger", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loss of supination", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of extension of wrist", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wrist drop", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Loss of extension at finger", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Loss of extension at finger</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The posterior interosseous nerve (deep branch of radial nerve) supplies all posterior compartment muscles except anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. Its injury results in finger extension loss while preserving partial wrist extension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Structure which is related deep to marked structure? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stem of lateral sulcus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ICA Siphon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wernicke’s area", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pineal gland", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stem of lateral sulcus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20193004_LJE3OR7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stem of lateral sulcus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pterion is an H-shaped area on the lateral skull where four bones meet (frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid), and it overlies the stem of the lateral sulcus and middle meningeal artery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are derivatives of NCC except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinal pigment membrane", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ciliary muscles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Melanocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ciliary ganglion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retinal pigment membrane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Retinal pigment membrane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neural crest cells give rise to diverse structures including melanocytes, parasympathetic ganglia (including ciliary ganglion), and components of the eye (like ciliary muscles), but the retinal pigment epithelium develops from the optic cup neuroectoderm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "NCC derivative for cardiac Structure? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AV Cushion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Septum primum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "SA node", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conotruncal Septum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Conotruncal Septum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Conotruncal Septum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neural crest cells contribute to the development of the conotruncal septum (spiral septum) in the heart, and abnormalities in neural crest cell migration can lead to various congenital heart defects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient not able to chew the food and food stuck between cheeks and teeth. Which muscle weakness is associated with this clinical condition? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Buccinator", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbicularis oris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zygomaticus major", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Levator labi superioris", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Buccinator", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Buccinator</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The buccinator muscle, innervated by the facial nerve (CN VII), is essential for keeping food between the teeth during mastication, and its weakness results in food accumulation between cheeks and teeth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve does the marked structure contain? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "III", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "VI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ophthalmic division", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IV", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20175521.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20180131.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the thinnest cranial nerve, emerges from the dorsal midbrain, completely decussates, and supplies only the superior oblique muscle of the contralateral eye.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve is not the content of superior orbital fissure? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "II", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "III", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. II", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20180349.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) II</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The superior orbital fissure transmits cranial nerves III, IV, VI, V1 (including lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches), and associated vessels, while the optic nerve (CN II) passes through the separate optic canal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of gland marked in the image? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Merocrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ecrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Holocrine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Holocrine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20164908.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20180511.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Holocrine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sebaceous glands are holocrine glands where the entire cell disintegrates to form the secretion, and they appear as \"empty\" structures in histological sections because their lipid contents are dissolved during slide preparation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Primary follicles arrest in which phase of prophase 1? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leptotene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zygotene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pachytene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diplotene", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diplotene", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20180608.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Diplotene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary oocytes remain arrested in the diplotene stage of prophase I of meiosis from before birth until puberty, resuming meiosis only when stimulated by hormones during the menstrual cycle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While walking, the suspended leg is supported by which muscle on other side? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gluteus medius", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gluteus maximus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tensor Fascia Lata", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quadriceps femoris", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gluteus medius", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gluteus medius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The gluteus medius muscle on the stance leg stabilizes the pelvis during walking, preventing the pelvis from dropping on the suspended leg side (Trendelenburg sign when dysfunctional).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Epiblast first migration lead to formation of? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ectoderm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endoderm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mesoderm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Notochord", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endoderm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endoderm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sequence of germ layer formation during gastrulation is: endoderm (first), mesoderm (second), and ectoderm (third), with the first migration of epiblast cells forming the endoderm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked structure in the given image? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Notochord", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primitive streak", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neural groove", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neural crest cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Notochord", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20181233.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Untitled-588.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Notochord</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The notochord is a midline rod-like structure that induces formation of the neural tube, defines the embryonic axis, and later forms the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had complaints of ureteric colic. Examination was normal. What is the best imaging to diagnose? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uretroscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NCCT KUB", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CECT KUB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. NCCT KUB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) NCCT KUB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NCCT KUB is the best imaging modality for diagnosing ureteric colic and detecting renal calculi due to its high sensitivity for hyperdense stones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the artery marked with blue arrow in the image. (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior auricular artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle meningeal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superficial temporal artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipital artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Superficial temporal artery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20165703.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Superficial temporal artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The superficial temporal artery is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery, supplying the temporal region and easily identifiable in MR angiography studies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly man presents with persistent bad breath and a history of dysphagia lasting 7 months. Barium swallow is provided. What is the most likely diagnosis? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophageal Neoplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Achalasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zenker’s Diverticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diffuse esophageal spasm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Zenker’s Diverticulum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20165745.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20165815.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20165854.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20165921_dp0XQck.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Zenker’s Diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Zenker’s diverticulum is a pulsion diverticulum occurring at Killian’s dehiscence, a weak area between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. It presents with dysphagia, halitosis, regurgitation of undigested food, and chronic symptoms. A barium swallow study confirms the diagnosis by revealing a posterior outpouching in the pharyngoesophageal region.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Esophageal Neoplasia: Typically presents with progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and sometimes hematemesis.</li><li>• Option A. Esophageal Neoplasia:</li><li>• Option B. Achalasia: Characterized by dysphagia to both solids and liquids, with a ‘bird-beak’ appearance on barium swallow.</li><li>• Option B. Achalasia:</li><li>• Option D. Diffuse esophageal spasm: Causes intermittent chest pain and dysphagia with a ‘corkscrew’ appearance on imaging.</li><li>• Option D. Diffuse esophageal spasm:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zenker’s diverticulum is a pharyngoesophageal pouch presenting with dysphagia, halitosis, and regurgitation. Diagnosis is confirmed with a barium swallow study.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Incorrect about chest X-ray infiltrate is: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interstitial infiltrate - pyogenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspiration - Super segments of lower lobe involved", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphadenopathy - TB, fungal, or malignancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interstitial infiltrate - Atypical pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Interstitial infiltrate - pyogenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20165947.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20170023.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-19%20170032.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Interstitial infiltrate - pyogenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pyogenic (bacterial) pneumonia typically presents with lobar consolidation rather than interstitial infiltrates. Interstitial infiltrates are more characteristic of atypical pneumonia caused by organisms such as Mycoplasma pneumoniae, viruses, or Legionella species.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Aspiration - Super segments of lower lobe involved : Can involve both upper and lower lung segments depending on patient positioning.</li><li>• Option B. Aspiration - Super segments of lower lobe involved :</li><li>• Option C. Lymphadenopathy - TB, fungal, or malignancy: Seen in tuberculosis, fungal infections, and malignancies.</li><li>• Option C. Lymphadenopathy - TB, fungal, or malignancy:</li><li>• Option D. Interstitial infiltrate - Atypical pneumonia: Typically associated with viral, atypical bacterial, or chronic lung diseases.</li><li>• Option D. Interstitial infiltrate - Atypical pneumonia:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyogenic pneumonia presents with lobar consolidation, whereas interstitial infiltrates are seen in atypical pneumonia and viral infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Marshall’s triad of abrasion, bruise &amp; punctate laceration is seen in which phase of bomb blast injury? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tertiary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quaternary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Secondary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_diSiYDJ.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Secondary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marshall's triad (multiple small abrasions, contusions, and punctate lacerations) is characteristic of secondary blast injury caused by flying debris and bomb fragments.</li><li>➤ Bomb Blast Injuries</li><li>➤ Bomb Blast Injuries</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy who went to the school consumed some unknown substance &amp; came to the emergency with pulmonary oedema. On examination silver nitrate breath test is positive. What is the antidote for the substance consumed? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MgSO4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prussian blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Physostigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MgSO4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) MgSO4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is used as treatment for aluminum phosphide poisoning, which can be detected using the silver nitrate breath test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Methylene blue is used as an antidote for? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aluminum phosphide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mercury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitrites", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nitrites", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-16%20183648_Y9WYmfU.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Ah8LJZf.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nitrites</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methylene blue is the antidote for methemoglobinemia, commonly caused by nitrites, as it converts methemoglobin (Fe3+) back to normal hemoglobin (Fe2+).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is incorrect about heat exhaustion? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loss of thermoregulatory mechanism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orthostatic hypotension is seen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Altered consciousness is seen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Core body temp is &lt;105°F", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Loss of thermoregulatory mechanism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-16%20183914.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Loss of thermoregulatory mechanism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Heat exhaustion presents with profuse sweating, hypotension, and altered consciousness, but the thermoregulatory mechanism remains intact. Loss of thermoregulation occurs in heat stroke.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "This powder is used in treatment of which poisoning? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mercury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phosphorus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_6DWFjdh.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Phosphorus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Copper Sulphate (blue vitriol) was historically used to treat phosphorus poisoning but is no longer recommended due to its own toxicity. The current antidotes for phosphorus poisoning include KMnO₄ (Potassium Permanganate) and Copper Sulphate , although clinical use has largely been discontinued.</li><li>➤ KMnO₄ (Potassium Permanganate) and Copper Sulphate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is not included in the severe acute malnutrition definition? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Height for weight", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Height for age", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "MUAC &lt;11.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pedal oedema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Height for age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Height for age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Height for age reflects chronic malnutrition (stunting), while SAM is defined by weight for height &lt; -3 SD, MUAC &lt; 11.5 cm, or the presence of bilateral edema.</li><li>➤ WHO definitions:</li><li>➤ WHO definitions:</li><li>➤ Weight for height &lt; -3 SD, without pedal edema Mid upper arm circumference (MUAC2) &lt; -11.5 with or without pedal edema</li><li>➤ Weight for height &lt; -3 SD, without pedal edema</li><li>➤ Mid upper arm circumference (MUAC2) &lt; -11.5 with or without pedal edema</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are seen in Cystic fibrosis except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biliary atresia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meconium ileus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nasal polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bleeding diathesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Biliary atresia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Biliary atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Biliary atresia is not a manifestation of cystic fibrosis, while meconium ileus, nasal polyps, and bleeding diathesis (due to vitamin K deficiency) are common findings in patients with cystic fibrosis.</li><li>➤ Clinical features:</li><li>➤ Clinical features:</li><li>➤ 1. Respiratory system</li><li>➤ 1. Respiratory system</li><li>➤ Repeated URTI Chronic cough Sputum Bronchiectasis Atelectasis Nasal polyp H. influenza, S. aureus are the first organisms recovered from lung secretions Mortality in cystic fibrosis is due to Burkholderia</li><li>➤ Repeated URTI</li><li>➤ Chronic cough</li><li>➤ Sputum</li><li>➤ Bronchiectasis</li><li>➤ Atelectasis</li><li>➤ Nasal polyp</li><li>➤ H. influenza, S. aureus are the first organisms recovered from lung secretions</li><li>➤ Mortality in cystic fibrosis is due to Burkholderia</li><li>➤ 2. Genitourinary</li><li>➤ 2. Genitourinary</li><li>➤ Azoospermia Infertility</li><li>➤ Azoospermia</li><li>➤ Infertility</li><li>➤ Cong. B/I absence/obliteration of vas deferens</li><li>➤ 3. Intestinal</li><li>➤ 3. Intestinal</li><li>➤ Meconium ileus is most common disorder at birth Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) Rectal prolapse</li><li>➤ Meconium ileus is most common disorder at birth</li><li>➤ Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS)</li><li>➤ Rectal prolapse</li><li>➤ If sweat chlorides are normal, go for nasal transmembrane potential difference</li><li>➤ 4. Pancreatic</li><li>➤ 4. Pancreatic</li><li>➤ Pancreatic: exocrine insufficiency-will lead to foul smelling stool Chronic pancreatitis</li><li>➤ Pancreatic: exocrine insufficiency-will lead to foul smelling stool</li><li>➤ Chronic pancreatitis</li><li>➤ 5. Hepatic:</li><li>➤ 5. Hepatic:</li><li>➤ Focal biliary cirrhosis Prolonged neonatal jaundice</li><li>➤ Focal biliary cirrhosis</li><li>➤ Prolonged neonatal jaundice</li><li>➤ 6. Nutritional:</li><li>➤ 6. Nutritional:</li><li>➤ Failure to thrive Hypoproteinemia + edema Fat soluble vitamin def.</li><li>➤ Failure to thrive</li><li>➤ Hypoproteinemia + edema</li><li>➤ Fat soluble vitamin def.</li><li>➤ Salt loss syndrome:</li><li>➤ Salt loss syndrome:</li><li>➤ Acute salt depletion + chronic metabolic alkalosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common organism for croup? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haemophilus influenzae", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Influenza virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Influenza virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-29%20185651-Picsart-AiImageEnhancer.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-29%20194028.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_0hgq2xQ.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Influenza virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Viral pathogens, particularly parainfluenza virus and influenza virus, as the most common causative agents of croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child who can make a cross, tell stories make tower of 6 cubes and goes to toilet alone, what is the age of the child: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The developmental milestones of a 4-year-old child, including the ability to draw a cross, tell stories, build a tower of 6 cubes, and achieve complete toilet independence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2 yr old child presented with fever, thrombocytopenia, hematuria. The mother tells you that the baby also suffered from diarrhea a few days back. Which is the most common organism for likely cause? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E Coli 0157:H7", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shigella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yersinia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. E Coli 0157:H7", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) E. Coli 0157:H7</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The clinical presentation of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) following diarrheal illness and identify E. coli O157:H7 as the most common causative organism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is false about breast milk jaundice: (INICET NOV 2024) Breast feeding should be completely stopped Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Phototherapy is required to treat most cases Bilirubin levels are usually more than 10 mg/dL at 3-4 weeks", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a, c and d", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a and c", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "a, b and d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a and d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. a and c", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-30%20121652.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) a and c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Breast milk jaundice does not require stopping breastfeeding and most cases do not require phototherapy, despite causing unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia with levels that may exceed 10 mg/dL at 3-4 weeks of age.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are incorrect about resuscitation of a critically sick child, except? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Preferred route of adrenaline intraosseous", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Compression to ventilation ratio should be 30:2 with 2 rescuers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chest compression depth should be one-third of A-P diameter of chest", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Injection Adenosine 0.01 ml/kg IV or IO (1:10,000)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chest compression depth should be one-third of A-P diameter of chest", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_WEZAtXg.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chest compression depth should be one-third of A-P diameter of chest</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chest compression depth for pediatric resuscitation as one-third of the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest, while recognizing incorrect statements about medication routes and compression-to-ventilation ratios.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Treatment non-responsive Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) includes all except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Appetite not increased by day 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "No edema reduction by day 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "No Complete absence of edema by day 20", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weight gain less than 5 gm/kg/day for 3 consecutive days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. No Complete absence of edema by day 20", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) No complete absence of edema by day 20</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SAM with edema, complete resolution of edema should occur by day 10 of treatment, not day 20, and identify the correct criteria for non-responsive SAM including lack of appetite improvement by day 4, no edema reduction by day 4, and insufficient weight gain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true about neonatal cholestasis, except? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biliary atresia is the most common cause of neonatal cholestasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kasai procedure should be done within 90 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HIDA scan is used for diagnosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Can be differentiated from other differential diagnoses by biopsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kasai procedure should be done within 90 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Kasai procedure should be done within 90 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kasai procedure (portoenterostomy) for biliary atresia should be performed within 60 days of life, not 90 days, as earlier intervention is associated with better outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_j1hhL7b.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_6InPmls.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What causes maximum hearing loss? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otitis media with effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Partial fixation of footplate of stapes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ossicular discontinuity with intact TM", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malleus-incus disruption with TM disruption", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ossicular discontinuity with intact TM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ossicular discontinuity with intact TM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ossicular discontinuity with intact tympanic membrane causes maximum hearing loss (50 dB) because sound waves have no alternative pathway to reach the inner ear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Carhart notch is seen in: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sudden SNHL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meniere’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acoustic neuroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Otosclerosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_UORq4ak.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_yCqe1gG.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Otosclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carhart's notch is a characteristic dip at 2000 Hz on the bone conduction curve in pure tone audiometry, specifically seen in otosclerosis.</li><li>➤ Important points to remember on otoselerosis:</li><li>➤ Important points to remember on otoselerosis:</li><li>➤ Most common site - Fissula ante fenestrum Most common type- Stapedial Other 2 type -Cochlear, Histologic Clinical presentation - Hearing impairment Paracusis willisii (hears better in noisy surroundngs) Otoscopy - Intract tympanic membrane Schwarts sign - Seen in active lesions only, reddish hue seen on promontory through intact TM Tunning fork tests - Rinne negative, Weber to poorer ear → conductive loss Pure tone audiometry -Dip at 2000Hz on BC curve (Carhart's notch) Treatment of choice - Surgery (Stapedotomy &gt; Stapedectomy) Other treatments - NaF, Hearing aid for those not fit for surgery.</li><li>➤ Most common site - Fissula ante fenestrum</li><li>➤ Most common type- Stapedial</li><li>➤ Other 2 type -Cochlear, Histologic</li><li>➤ Clinical presentation - Hearing impairment</li><li>➤ Paracusis willisii (hears better in noisy surroundngs)</li><li>➤ Otoscopy - Intract tympanic membrane</li><li>➤ Schwarts sign - Seen in active lesions only, reddish hue seen on promontory through intact TM</li><li>➤ Tunning fork tests - Rinne negative, Weber to poorer ear → conductive loss</li><li>➤ Pure tone audiometry -Dip at 2000Hz on BC curve (Carhart's notch)</li><li>➤ Treatment of choice - Surgery (Stapedotomy &gt; Stapedectomy)</li><li>➤ Other treatments - NaF, Hearing aid for those not fit for surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the PTA. (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CHL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SNHL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mixed", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mixed", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_mxABUcZ.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-30%20130433.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Ig03YeC.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mixed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In mixed hearing loss, the audiogram shows both bone conduction below normal (SNHL component) and an air-bone gap (conductive component), indicating pathology in both inner ear and middle/outer ear.</li><li>➤ Whenever a PTA is given, first see whether there is air-bone gap(AC &amp; BC curves are separated by a long gap) or not If there is no air-bone gap or very little gap, then it could be sensorineural hearing loss. If there is a long separation in between the AC &amp; BC curves, then it could be either conductive or mixed. First see whether the distantly separated curves are present in the upper part of the graph or lower part. If occupying upper part, then it is conductive hearing loss and if occupying lower part, then it could be mixed.</li><li>➤ Whenever a PTA is given, first see whether there is air-bone gap(AC &amp; BC curves are separated by a long gap) or not</li><li>➤ If there is no air-bone gap or very little gap, then it could be sensorineural hearing loss.</li><li>➤ If there is a long separation in between the AC &amp; BC curves, then it could be either conductive or mixed.</li><li>➤ First see whether the distantly separated curves are present in the upper part of the graph or lower part.</li><li>➤ If occupying upper part, then it is conductive hearing loss and if occupying lower part, then it could be mixed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has the worst prognosis? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Partial U/L RLN palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Partial B/L RLN palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complete U/L RLN palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Complete B/L RLN palsy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Complete B/L RLN palsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Complete B/L RLN palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Complete bilateral RLN palsy has the worst prognosis due to both vocal cords being fixed in paramedian position, causing severe airway compromise requiring emergency intervention.</li><li>➤ Bilateral RLN palsy:</li><li>➤ Both VCs come to lie in the paramedian position. Because all intrinsic muscles are paralyzed on both sides except cricothyroids as they are supplied by SLN. But their action is adduction and tension. Hence, they try to pull the vocal cords medially causing airway obstruction (This is called as Wagner and Grossman theory). Patient presents with a stridor in a life-threatening condition. Emergency tracheostomy is required to restore the airway. 6 months later, if normalisation of VC does not occur, surgical management done which include Lateralisation thyroplasty (Isshiki type II). Cordectomy (by CO2 laser). Posterior transverse cordotomy (Kashima operation) Laryngeal reinnervation procedures like nerve muscle implant.</li><li>➤ Both VCs come to lie in the paramedian position.</li><li>➤ Because all intrinsic muscles are paralyzed on both sides except cricothyroids as they are supplied by SLN.</li><li>➤ But their action is adduction and tension.</li><li>➤ Hence, they try to pull the vocal cords medially causing airway obstruction (This is called as Wagner and Grossman theory).</li><li>➤ Patient presents with a stridor in a life-threatening condition.</li><li>➤ Emergency tracheostomy is required to restore the airway.</li><li>➤ 6 months later, if normalisation of VC does not occur, surgical management done which include Lateralisation thyroplasty (Isshiki type II). Cordectomy (by CO2 laser). Posterior transverse cordotomy (Kashima operation) Laryngeal reinnervation procedures like nerve muscle implant.</li><li>➤ Lateralisation thyroplasty (Isshiki type II). Cordectomy (by CO2 laser). Posterior transverse cordotomy (Kashima operation) Laryngeal reinnervation procedures like nerve muscle implant.</li><li>➤ Lateralisation thyroplasty (Isshiki type II).</li><li>➤ Cordectomy (by CO2 laser).</li><li>➤ Posterior transverse cordotomy (Kashima operation)</li><li>➤ Laryngeal reinnervation procedures like nerve muscle implant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the fracture shown in the image below. (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chevallet fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Jarjaway fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C-shaped fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chevallet fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_XLP4qXW.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_TSYvXy1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chevallet fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the first investigation in newborn for audiological assessment? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BERA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "OAE (Otoacoustic Emissions)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Impedance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. OAE (Otoacoustic Emissions)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) OAE (Otoacoustic Emissions)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ OAE is the first-line screening test for newborn hearing assessment due to its simplicity, speed, and non-invasive nature.</li><li>➤ Newborn screening of hearing:</li><li>➤ Newborn screening of hearing:</li><li>➤ Here we test otoacoustic emissions (OAE) and brainstem evoked response audiometry (BERA). Outer hair cells in cochlea emit these very low intensity sounds (OAE) &amp; they can be collected by a microphone kept in EAC. Normal OAE means cochlear hair cells are functioning normally and cochlea is normally functioning. BERA tests the integrity of auditory nerve (auditory pathway from cochlea to brain). It is an objective test. Here we give a sound stimulus and check the electrical potentials that arise along the auditory pathway from cochlear nerve to brain. Wave V is most prominent in BERA that corresponds to lateral lemniscus. It is a non-invasive procedure. It is also an objective test (whereas PTA is a subjective test = result depends on the responses given by patient/subject). Normal BERA means the cochlear nerve is intact and conducting sound impulses from cochlea to brain. So, normal OAE and BERA will indicate an almost normal hearing pathway, hence used in newborn screening. BERA is also used to check malingerers (people those who pretend deaf).</li><li>➤ Here we test otoacoustic emissions (OAE) and brainstem evoked response audiometry (BERA).</li><li>➤ Outer hair cells in cochlea emit these very low intensity sounds (OAE) &amp; they can be collected by a microphone kept in EAC.</li><li>➤ Normal OAE means cochlear hair cells are functioning normally and cochlea is normally functioning.</li><li>➤ BERA tests the integrity of auditory nerve (auditory pathway from cochlea to brain). It is an objective test. Here we give a sound stimulus and check the electrical potentials that arise along the auditory pathway from cochlear nerve to brain. Wave V is most prominent in BERA that corresponds to lateral lemniscus. It is a non-invasive procedure. It is also an objective test (whereas PTA is a subjective test = result depends on the responses given by patient/subject).</li><li>➤ Here we give a sound stimulus and check the electrical potentials that arise along the auditory pathway from cochlear nerve to brain. Wave V is most prominent in BERA that corresponds to lateral lemniscus. It is a non-invasive procedure. It is also an objective test (whereas PTA is a subjective test = result depends on the responses given by patient/subject).</li><li>➤ Here we give a sound stimulus and check the electrical potentials that arise along the auditory pathway from cochlear nerve to brain.</li><li>➤ Wave V is most prominent in BERA that corresponds to lateral lemniscus.</li><li>➤ It is a non-invasive procedure. It is also an objective test (whereas PTA is a subjective test = result depends on the responses given by patient/subject).</li><li>➤ Normal BERA means the cochlear nerve is intact and conducting sound impulses from cochlea to brain.</li><li>➤ So, normal OAE and BERA will indicate an almost normal hearing pathway, hence used in newborn screening.</li><li>➤ BERA is also used to check malingerers (people those who pretend deaf).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the procedure being done in the image? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stapedeotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myringoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ossiculoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mastoidectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stapedeotomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_i4Kria3.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stapedotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stapedotomy is the surgical procedure of choice for otosclerosis, involving removal of fixed stapes suprastructure and placement of a piston prosthesis to restore sound transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which opening is present posterior to the marked structure in the image? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eustachian tube", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Onodi cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sphenopalatine foramen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphenoid sinus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Eustachian tube", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_I9cZeVu.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Eustachian tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Eustachian tube opening is located 1 cm posterior to the posterior end of inferior turbinate on the lateral wall of nasopharynx.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the audiogram. (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Noise-induced hearing loss", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meniere’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acoustic neuroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Noise-induced hearing loss", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_SkYlhX6.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Noise-induced hearing loss</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Noise-induced hearing loss has a characteristic audiometric pattern with a sharp dip at 4000 Hz, typically bilateral and symmetrical.</li><li>➤ Dip at 2000Hz on BC curve - Otosclerosis Dip at 4000Hz - Noise induced hearing loss Cookie bite audiogram - Congenital hearing loss mostly Trough shaped audiogram - Acoustic neuroma Up-sloping curve with SNHL - Meniere's disease (low frequencies involved) Down-sloping curve with SNHL - Presycusis (high frequency loss) {Presbycusis - age induced hearing loss. Treatment: hearing aid}. High frequency audiometry is used for detecting ototoxicity.</li><li>➤ Dip at 2000Hz on BC curve - Otosclerosis</li><li>➤ Dip at 4000Hz - Noise induced hearing loss</li><li>➤ Cookie bite audiogram - Congenital hearing loss mostly</li><li>➤ Trough shaped audiogram - Acoustic neuroma</li><li>➤ Up-sloping curve with SNHL - Meniere's disease (low frequencies involved)</li><li>➤ Down-sloping curve with SNHL - Presycusis (high frequency loss) {Presbycusis - age induced hearing loss. Treatment: hearing aid}.</li><li>➤ High frequency audiometry is used for detecting ototoxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Early onset pre-eclampsia is defined as: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Before 28 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Before 30 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Before 32 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Before 34 weeks", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Before 34 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Before 34 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Early onset pre-eclampsia is defined as pre-eclampsia occurring before 34 weeks of gestation , while late-onset pre-eclampsia occurs after 34 weeks.</li><li>➤ before 34 weeks of gestation</li><li>➤ after 34 weeks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is restitution? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Head rotated by 1/8 th of a circle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Head rotating due to untwisting of the neck", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The shoulder undergoing rotation by 1/8 th of circle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The movement by which the head is born", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Head rotating due to untwisting of the neck", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_FLKY4PB.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Head rotating due to untwisting of the neck</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Restitution is the untwisting movement of the fetal head that occurs after delivery of the head, correcting the twist that occurred during internal rotation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple has been attempting to conceive for the past two years with unprotected intercourse yet without success, the husband's semen analysis was ordered and results are as follows: Volume: 2ml Viability: 75% Sperm count: 40 million per ejaculate The wife’s HSG report shows no abnormalities. What percentage of infertile women have unexplained infertility? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "15%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "20%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 15%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 15%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Unexplained infertility accounts for 15% of all infertility cases, while female factor accounts for 40%, male factor for 30%, and combined factors for 15%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which step is not included in active management of third stage of labor (AMTSL)? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bimanual compression", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CCT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administration of oxytocics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bimanual compression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bimanual compression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bimanual compression is a treatment method for atonic postpartum hemorrhage, not a preventive measure in AMTSL. The three basic components of AMTSL are: administration of oxytocics, controlled cord traction, and uterine massage/postpartum vigilance.</li><li>➤ administration of oxytocics, controlled cord traction, and uterine massage/postpartum vigilance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea presents to the outpatient department with complaints of an inability to pass urine and cyclical abdominal pain. On examination, a bluish hue is observed in the vagina. What is the most likely cause of her condition? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Imperforate Hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transverse vaginal septum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "OHVIRA syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Imperforate Hymen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Imperforate Hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Imperforate hymen presents with primary amenorrhea, cyclical abdominal pain, and urinary retention in adolescent girls. The pathognomonic finding is a bluish bulge in the vagina due to collected menstrual blood (hematocolpos).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old athlete woman presents the gyne clinic with complaints of secondary amenorrhea and primary infertility. She has a history of low body weight and occasional dieting to maintain her physique with a current BMI of 17.5. Laboratory investigations reveal the following hormone levels LH=0.3, FSH=2, Prolactin=20ng, TSH: 1.2, BMI: 17.5. She likely to suffer from? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary ovarian insufficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normogonadotropic normogonadism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism in female athletes is characterized by:</li><li>➤ Low FSH and LH levels (&lt;2) Associated with low BMI and excessive exercise Common cause of secondary amenorrhea in athletes</li><li>➤ Low FSH and LH levels (&lt;2)</li><li>➤ Associated with low BMI and excessive exercise</li><li>➤ Common cause of secondary amenorrhea in athletes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Shortest anterior posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anatomical conjugate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diagonal conjugate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obstetric conjugate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "True conjugate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Obstetric conjugate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_VMSRcb2.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Obstetric conjugate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The obstetric conjugate is the shortest and most clinically significant anterior-posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet, measuring from the sacral promontory to the posterior surface of the pubic symphysis. The diagonal conjugate can be measured clinically, and subtracting 1.5 cm from it gives the obstetric conjugate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year woman with six weeks of amenorrhea presents with sharp lower abdominal pain, light vaginal spotting and a bp of 90/ 60 mmHg. pelvic exam reveals right adnexal tenderness. Choose the incorrect statement about this condition. (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abdominal pain or discomfort is the commonest presentation for ectopic in 90%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral methotrexate is the choice of medical management in patient with shock", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ectopic pregnancy is increased in patient with history of PID", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patient will have reduced levels of progesterone but is not diagnostic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oral methotrexate is the choice of medical management in patient with shock", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Oral methotrexate is the choice of medical management in patient with shock</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Medical management with methotrexate is contraindicated in ectopic pregnancy with hemodynamic instability (shock); such cases require immediate surgical intervention .</li><li>➤ immediate surgical intervention</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HPE image of the endometrium is shown. The hormone responsible for this is secreted by? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corpus luteum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary follicle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Granulosa cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Theca interna", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Corpus luteum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_ldW7S7Y.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Secretory changes in the endometrium are caused by progesterone, which is primarily secreted by the corpus luteum during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is not an indication of instrumental vaginal delivery? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CPD (Cephalopelvic Disproportion)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal distress", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maternal exhaustion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prolonged 2nd stage labour", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CPD (Cephalopelvic Disproportion)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CPD (Cephalopelvic Disproportion)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CPD is an absolute contraindication for instrumental vaginal delivery and requires cesarean section, while fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, and prolonged second stage (without CPD) are valid indications for instrumental delivery.</li><li>➤ absolute contraindication</li><li>➤ fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, and prolonged second stage (without CPD) are valid indications</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old woman presented with malodorous vaginal discharge and whiff test positive. What is the likely cause? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichomoniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neisseria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bacterial vaginosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_8O8T33Y.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bacterial vaginosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A positive whiff test is a key diagnostic criterion for bacterial vaginosis as part of the Amsel criteria, where 3 out of 4 criteria must be present for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When is delayed cord clamping done? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vigorous term babies not requiring resuscitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "All preterm babies irrespective of birth weight", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vigorous term and preterm babies not requiring resuscitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All term babies irrespective of birth weight", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vigorous term and preterm babies not requiring resuscitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vigorous term and preterm babies not requiring resuscitation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delayed cord clamping should be performed in all vigorous term and preterm babies not requiring resuscitation, with the only contraindication being the need for immediate resuscitation in an asphyxiated baby.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16 weeks pregnant woman planned for Anomaly scan. Following the scan, the patient was advised to take a Quadruple test. Which is not part of the Quadruple test? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dimeric Inhibin B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta hCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AFP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unconjugated Estriol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dimeric Inhibin B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dimeric Inhibin B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The quadruple test consists of four specific markers: AFP, beta hCG, Inhibin A (not B), and unconjugated estriol. Dimeric Inhibin B is not a component of this test.</li><li>➤ AFP, beta hCG, Inhibin A (not B), and unconjugated estriol.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mitochondria of spermatozoa form the: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Head sheath", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Connecting part", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Middle piece", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tail", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Middle piece", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_wyJ3Q6J.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Middle piece</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The mitochondria of spermatozoa are specifically located in the middle piece, providing energy for sperm motility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Physiological changes in pregnancy include all of the following except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fasting Hypoglycemia and Postprandial Hyperglycemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase SBP and DBP at 6 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in RBC mass", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peripheral Insulin Resistance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increase SBP and DBP at 6 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Increase in SBP and DBP at 6 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood pressure normally decreases during pregnancy , with maximum fall in the second trimester. Any increase in blood pressure during pregnancy is abnormal and requires evaluation.</li><li>➤ decreases during pregnancy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Savita is posted in a low-resource hospital setting. She explains to a patient about risk factors of cervical cancer, including HPV. Which of the following would be appropriate for cervical cancer screening? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pap smear alone every 5 yearly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pap smear + HPV DNA every 5 yearly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pap smear alone every 3 yearly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pap smear in high-risk individuals", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pap smear alone every 3 yearly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pap smear alone every 3 yearly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In low-resource settings, cervical cancer screening should be done using Pap smear alone every 3 years, starting from age 21 years .</li><li>➤ Pap smear alone every 3 years, starting from age 21 years</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old P1L1 woman presented with acute abdominal pain. She has a H/O RHD and recently went for mitral valve replacement and is currently on warfarin therapy. On examination, there is a 14-week size abdominal pelvic mass and on USG, a 6 × 8 cm unilocular cyst with reticular appearance is seen. What is the next best step in management of this patient? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surgical exploration", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follow up", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measure Ca – 125", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Surgical exploration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Surgical exploration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Large hemorrhagic ovarian cysts in patients on anticoagulation require surgical management after correcting coagulation parameters.</li><li>➤ surgical management</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The primary oocyte is arrested in: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pachytene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prophase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leptotene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metaphase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prophase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Prophase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary oocytes are arrested in prophase of meiosis I from fetal life until puberty. This arrest is a crucial event in female reproductive development and understanding of oogenesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Breast cancer of size 6 x 8 cm with dimpling with invasion of Pectoralis Major and ipsilateral matted axillary nodes belongs to what TNM stage? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T3N2M0", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "T4bN1M0", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T4aN2M0", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T2N2M1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. T3N2M0", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-05%20141850.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) T3N2M0</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Skin dimpling and pectoralis major invasion do not affect T stage in breast cancer TNM staging T3 stage is for tumors &gt; 5 cm Matted axillary nodes represent N2 disease</li><li>➤ Skin dimpling and pectoralis major invasion do not affect T stage in breast cancer TNM staging</li><li>➤ T3 stage is for tumors &gt; 5 cm</li><li>➤ Matted axillary nodes represent N2 disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old patient with a history of prior neck radiation for lymphoma is diagnosed with 2 x 3 cm papillary thyroid cancer. No lymph node enlargement is present. What is the treatment? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemithyroidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total thyroidectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemithyroidectomy + MRND", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Total Thyroidectomy + MRND", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Total thyroidectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Total thyroidectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Total thyroidectomy is now the preferred approach only for those differentiated thyroid cancers (DTCs) at higher risk for recurrence:</li><li>• Tumor at least 4 cm Gross extrathyroidal extension Evidence of metastatic disease Radiation-induced DTC (mentioned in the history) Familial non-medullary thyroid cancer Multifocal bilateral DTC.</li><li>• Tumor at least 4 cm</li><li>• Gross extrathyroidal extension</li><li>• Evidence of metastatic disease</li><li>• Radiation-induced DTC (mentioned in the history)</li><li>• Radiation-induced DTC (mentioned in the history)</li><li>• Familial non-medullary thyroid cancer</li><li>• Multifocal bilateral DTC.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hemithyroidectomy:</li><li>• Option A. Hemithyroidectomy:</li><li>• History of radiation is a high-risk feature requiring total thyroidectomy Hemithyroidectomy is reserved for low-risk, small unifocal tumors without risk factors</li><li>• History of radiation is a high-risk feature requiring total thyroidectomy</li><li>• Hemithyroidectomy is reserved for low-risk, small unifocal tumors without risk factors</li><li>• Option C. Hemithyroidectomy + MRND:</li><li>• Option C. Hemithyroidectomy + MRND:</li><li>• MRND is not indicated without clinical lymphadenopathy MRND is mainly done for medullary thyroid cancer Hemithyroidectomy is inadequate given the radiation history</li><li>• MRND is not indicated without clinical lymphadenopathy</li><li>• MRND is mainly done for medullary thyroid cancer</li><li>• Hemithyroidectomy is inadequate given the radiation history</li><li>• Option D. Total Thyroidectomy + MRND:</li><li>• Option D. Total Thyroidectomy + MRND:</li><li>• No lymph node involvement noted For papillary thyroid cancer without lymphadenopathy, central compartment (level VI) clearance may be done, but not MRND</li><li>• No lymph node involvement noted</li><li>• For papillary thyroid cancer without lymphadenopathy, central compartment (level VI) clearance may be done, but not MRND</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ History of radiation exposure is an absolute indication for total thyroidectomy in differentiated thyroid cancer, regardless of tumor size.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is not a component/adjunct of the primary survey in trauma? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chest X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pelvic X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extended FAST", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CECT", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. CECT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-15%20190630.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) CECT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CECT is not a component of primary survey - it belongs to secondary survey and is performed only in hemodynamically stable patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of chest trauma with breathlessness on examination is found to have systolic BP of 90 mmHg, SpO2 of 85%, GCS 8/15, absent breath sounds. What is the next step? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Secure airway, ICD placement, and IV fluids", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start IV fluids, give atropine and send for chest x-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administer IV Dextrose and send for CT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Evaluate for head injury and perform surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Secure airway, ICD placement, and IV fluids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-15%20191123.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Secure airway, ICD placement, and IV fluids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In trauma, follow ABCDE sequence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A wound was left open initially, with debridement and cleaning performed for 5 days before it was closed by sutures. What type of wound healing is this? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tertiary intention", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary intention", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary intention", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quaternary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tertiary intention", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tertiary intention</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tertiary intention (delayed primary healing) involves initial open wound management followed by surgical closure after the development of healthy granulation tissue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Earliest/most common symptom of CA esophagus? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysphagia more to liquids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dysphagia more to solids", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lump", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dysphagia more to solids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dysphagia more to solids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Progressive dysphagia, initially more to solids than liquids, is the earliest and most common symptom of carcinoma esophagus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with oral cancer as shown. What is the T stage? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T4a", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "T4b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. T4a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-15%20191856.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-15%20192010.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) T4a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Invasion of floor of mouth in oral cancer represents T4a disease, indicating moderately advanced but resectable local disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is true about intermittent claudication? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pain occurs on walking a fixed distance and is relieved by rest", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pain occurs immediately on standing and improves on bending forward", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pain is worse at night in bed and at rest", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pain occurs on taking the first step", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pain occurs on walking a fixed distance and is relieved by rest", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-15%20192331.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pain occurs on walking a fixed distance and is relieved by rest</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intermittent claudication is characterized by pain occurring after walking a fixed distance and being relieved by rest, similar to angina of the legs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the angle between the laparoscopic working port and telescope called? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Azimuth angle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Elevation angle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Working angle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manipulation angle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Azimuth angle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-15%20192944.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Azimuth angle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The angle between the laparoscopic working port and telescope is called the Azimuth angle, which should ideally be 15-30 degrees for optimal ergonomics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is suffering from a pressure sore on examination is found to have partially broken skin with a shallow ulcer. What is the grade of the sore? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Untitled-13535.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Grade 2 pressure sore is characterized by partial thickness skin loss with shallow ulceration, without exposure of deeper tissues.</li><li>➤ Stages:</li><li>➤ Stages:</li><li>➤ Non blanching erythema with intact skin Partial thickness skin loss (some skin intact) Full thickness loss (subcut, Fat seen) Subcut, Loss (deep fascia/muscles/bones tendons seen)</li><li>➤ Non blanching erythema with intact skin</li><li>➤ Partial thickness skin loss (some skin intact)</li><li>➤ Full thickness loss (subcut, Fat seen)</li><li>➤ Subcut, Loss (deep fascia/muscles/bones tendons seen)</li><li>➤ Management:</li><li>➤ Management:</li><li>➤ Avoid continuous supine position → frequent change in position Use of air mattress/water bed Cover the pressure sore: fascia lata flap/ negative pressure wound therapy (VAC dressing)</li><li>➤ Avoid continuous supine position → frequent change in position</li><li>➤ Use of air mattress/water bed</li><li>➤ Cover the pressure sore: fascia lata flap/ negative pressure wound therapy (VAC dressing)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is seen in acute pancreatitis? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lipase is more specific than amylase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lipase requires 30 days to return to baseline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lipase reflects the severity of pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "More than 75% of cases have hypercalcemia on admission", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lipase is more specific than amylase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lipase is more specific than amylase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lipase is more pancreas-specific than amylase and is the preferred diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis. Lipase does NOT indicate severity. Most patients have hypocalcemia, NOT hypercalcemia. Severity is assessed using clinical scores (BISAP, Ranson’s, APACHE-II) and imaging.</li><li>➤ Lipase is more pancreas-specific than amylase and is the preferred diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis.</li><li>➤ Lipase does NOT indicate severity.</li><li>➤ Most patients have hypocalcemia, NOT hypercalcemia.</li><li>➤ Severity is assessed using clinical scores (BISAP, Ranson’s, APACHE-II) and imaging.</li><li>➤ 1 st Investigation:</li><li>➤ 1 st Investigation:</li><li>➤ Pancreatic enzymes are elevated in blood Serum amylase (non specific) → rises early (4-6 hours of attack) Serum lipase → rises 12-24 hours later (sensitive and specific, test of choice) Imaging → no need for diagnosis, only when unsure of dx, rule out etiology like gall stone Imaging modality of choice → CECT abdomen (done after 72 hours of symptoms)</li><li>➤ Pancreatic enzymes are elevated in blood Serum amylase (non specific) → rises early (4-6 hours of attack) Serum lipase → rises 12-24 hours later (sensitive and specific, test of choice)</li><li>➤ Serum amylase (non specific) → rises early (4-6 hours of attack) Serum lipase → rises 12-24 hours later (sensitive and specific, test of choice)</li><li>➤ Serum amylase (non specific) → rises early (4-6 hours of attack)</li><li>➤ Serum lipase → rises 12-24 hours later (sensitive and specific, test of choice)</li><li>➤ Imaging → no need for diagnosis, only when unsure of dx, rule out etiology like gall stone Imaging modality of choice → CECT abdomen (done after 72 hours of symptoms)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the separation of the spleen from the stomach while performing splenectomy, bleeding is likely to occur from which source? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Short gastric artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left gastroepiploic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right gastroepiploic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Splenic artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Short gastric artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-17%20191555.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Short gastric artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Short gastric vessels running in the gastrosplenic ligament between the splenic hilum and gastric fundus are the most likely source of bleeding during splenic dissection from stomach during splenectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient reports pain in the right upper abdomen. An ultrasound-guided FNAC of liver cysts reveals the presence of a parasitic organism. Which of the following is most likely to be the causative organism? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echinococcus granulosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Taenia saginata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Taenia solium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "H. nana", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Echinococcus granulosus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-17%20191719.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-17%20191745.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Untitled-633.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Echinococcus granulosus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Echinococcus granulosus is the causative organism for hydatid cysts of the liver, which is the most common site of hydatid disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of peptic ulcer shows increased gastrin levels upon pentagastrin stimulation. What is the probable diagnosis and its anatomical boundaries? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insulinoma; cystic duct, 2nd &amp; 3rd part of the duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastrinoma; CBD, 2nd &amp; 3rd part of the duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastrinoma; cystic duct, 2nd &amp; 3rd part of the duodenum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insulinoma; CBD, 2nd &amp; 3rd part of the duodenum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gastrinoma; cystic duct, 2nd & 3rd part of the duodenum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-17%20192347.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-17%20194051.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gastrinoma; cystic duct, 2nd &amp; 3rd part of the duodenum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gastrinoma occurs within the Triangle of Passaro, bounded by the cystic duct, 2nd and 3rd parts of duodenum, and head/neck of pancreas, with duodenum being the most common location.</li><li>➤ Gastrinoma</li><li>➤ Gastrinoma</li><li>➤ Malignant Present in triangle of passaro MC site: duodenum (D1)</li><li>➤ Malignant</li><li>➤ Present in triangle of passaro</li><li>➤ MC site: duodenum (D1)</li><li>➤ Clinical feature: due to hypergastrinemia – Zollinger ellison syndrome</li><li>➤ Clinical feature: due to hypergastrinemia – Zollinger ellison syndrome</li><li>➤ Recurrent peptic ulcer Ulcer at abnormal location Acid induced diarrhea</li><li>➤ Recurrent peptic ulcer</li><li>➤ Ulcer at abnormal location</li><li>➤ Acid induced diarrhea</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient with findings of hypercalcemia of 12.8 mg% and elevated PTH levels is found to have a 1.5 cm mass below the thyroid. What is the next step? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scintigraphy (MIBG) followed by focused neck exploration for parathyroid removal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perform a DEXA scan, and if normal, will rule out the need for surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Assess Creatinine clearance, if &gt; 80 mandates need for surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No surgery, only surveillance needed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Scintigraphy (MIBG) followed by focused neck exploration for parathyroid removal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Scintigraphy (MIBG) followed by focused neck exploration for parathyroid removal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary hyperparathyroidism with elevated calcium, elevated PTH, and visible adenoma, the management involves localization through scintigraphy followed by focused surgical removal.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug binds to CD4 receptors and is used for both CCR-5 as well as CXCR-4 tropic HIV? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maraviroc", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ibalizumab", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fostemsavir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tenofovir", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ibalizumab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20114941.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20114953.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20115024.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ibalizumab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ibalizumab is a post-attachment inhibitor that binds to CD4 receptors. After HIV attaches to CD4 via GP120, ibalizumab prevents the conformational change in the CD4 receptor that is necessary for viral entry. Since it acts directly on CD4 receptors, it is effective against both CCR5 and CXCR4-tropic HIV strains.</li><li>• Entry Inhibitors</li><li>• Entry Inhibitors</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Maraviroc : This is a CCR5 co-receptor antagonist. It only works against CCR5-tropic HIV and is ineffective against CXCR4-tropic strains.</li><li>• Option A. Maraviroc</li><li>• Option C. Fostemsavir: This is an attachment inhibitor that binds to viral GP120, preventing initial attachment to CD4 receptors. It does not bind to CD4 receptors directly.</li><li>• Option C. Fostemsavir:</li><li>• Option D. Tenofovir : This is a Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI). It works after viral entry by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis. It does not affect viral entry or bind to CD4 receptors.</li><li>• Option D. Tenofovir</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ibalizumab is a post-attachment inhibitor that binds to CD4 receptors and prevents HIV from entering T-cells by inhibiting conformational changes required for interaction with CCR5 and CXCR4 co-receptors. It is useful in multidrug-resistant HIV cases where other entry inhibitors like Maraviroc (CCR5-specific) are ineffective.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the correct antidote with the given drug toxicity: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine: L-carnitine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barbiturate: Fomepizole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arsenic: Desferrioxamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Benzodiazepine: Flumazenil", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Benzodiazepine: Flumazenil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-07%20165208_f2fUXnZ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Benzodiazepine: Flumazenil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. Mechanism - it acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine receptor site on the GABA-A receptor complex. By competitively blocking these receptors, it can rapidly reverse benzodiazepine-induced sedation and respiratory depression.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Atropine: L-carnitine : Incorrect. Physostigmine is the antidote for atropine poisoning as it can reverse both peripheral and central anticholinergic effects. L-carnitine is used specifically for valproate-induced hepatotoxicity.</li><li>• Option A. Atropine:</li><li>• L-carnitine</li><li>• Option B. Barbiturate: Fomepizole : Incorrect. Barbiturates do not have a specific antidote - management involves alkalinization of urine to enhance excretion. Fomepizole is the antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning as it inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase.</li><li>• Option B. Barbiturate:</li><li>• Fomepizole</li><li>• Option C. Arsenic: Desferrioxamine : Incorrect. British Anti-Lewisite (BAL/Dimercaprol) is the antidote for arsenic poisoning. Desferrioxamine is specifically used for iron poisoning (both acute poisoning and chronic overload).</li><li>• Option C. Arsenic:</li><li>• Desferrioxamine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antidotes</li><li>➤ Antidotes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs act at the site marked by the arrow? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vigabatrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Felbamate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tiagabine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tiagabine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20115042.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20115118.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tiagabine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tiagabine acts by inhibiting GABA transporter-1 (GAT-1), which is responsible for the reuptake of GABA from the synapse. By blocking this transporter, Tiagabine increases the synaptic concentration of GABA, enhancing inhibitory neurotransmission and providing antiepileptic effects. The name \"Tiagabine\" itself suggests its mechanism - Transport Inhibitor of GABA or GAT-1 inhibitor.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vigabatrin : Incorrect. It inhibits GABA transaminase, the enzyme responsible for GABA breakdown, not the GABA transporter. This increases GABA levels through a different mechanism.</li><li>• Option A. Vigabatrin</li><li>• Option B. Valproate : Incorrect. It has multiple mechanisms of action, primarily involving sodium channel blockade and enhancement of GABA-mediated inhibition, but does not specifically target GAT-1.</li><li>• Option B. Valproate</li><li>• Option C. Felbamate : Incorrect. It acts as an NMDA receptor antagonist and enhances GABA-mediated inhibition through different mechanisms, not through GAT-1 inhibition.</li><li>• Option C. Felbamate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tiagabine inhibits GABA reuptake by blocking the GABA transporter (GAT-1), leading to increased extracellular GABA and enhanced inhibitory neurotransmission, making it an effective treatment for epilepsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which antiepileptic drug specifically enhances the inactivation phase of voltage-gated slow sodium channels, helping to stabilize hyperexcitable neurons? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lamotrigine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Felbamate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lacosamide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lacosamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20110456.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lacosamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lacosamide has a unique mechanism of action among antiepileptic drugs. It selectively enhances slow inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels. While most sodium channel blocking antiepileptics (like phenytoin, carbamazepine) act on fast sodium channels, lacosamide specifically targets slow sodium channels. This mechanism helps stabilize hyperexcitable neuronal membranes and prevents repetitive neuronal firing.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Phenytoin : Incorrect. While it does act on sodium channels, it primarily blocks fast sodium channels, not slow sodium channels. It acts by promoting the inactive state of these channels.</li><li>• Option A. Phenytoin</li><li>• Option B. Lamotrigine : Incorrect. Like phenytoin, it acts primarily on fast sodium channels and also affects calcium channels. It does not specifically target slow sodium channels.</li><li>• Option B. Lamotrigine</li><li>• Option C. Felbamate: Incorrect. It works primarily as an NMDA receptor antagonist and has no significant effect on sodium channels, either fast or slow.</li><li>• Option C. Felbamate:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lacosamide uniquely acts by enhancing the slow inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels, distinguishing it from other sodium channel-blocking antiepileptics that act on fast sodium channels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following statements are true regarding thiopentone except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is highly lipid-soluble drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is quickly concentrated in the brain after IV administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It shows the phenomenon of redistribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It has a short duration of action due to rapid renal excretion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It has a short duration of action due to rapid renal excretion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20115149.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) It has a short duration of action due to rapid renal excretion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Thiopentone's short duration of action is due to redistribution, not rapid renal excretion. Due to its high lipid solubility, it rapidly crosses the blood-brain barrier and enters the brain, causing quick onset of anesthesia. However, it then redistributes to other tissues (muscle and fat), leading to a rapid decrease in brain concentration and therefore a short duration of action. The drug remains in the body but is no longer in sufficient concentration in the brain to maintain anesthetic effects.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. It is highly lipid-soluble drug : Correct. Thiopentone is highly lipid-soluble, which enables it to rapidly cross the blood-brain barrier.</li><li>• Option A. It is highly lipid-soluble drug</li><li>• Option B. It is quickly concentrated in the brain after IV administration : Correct. Due to its high lipid solubility, it rapidly enters the brain within seconds of IV administration.</li><li>• Option B. It is quickly concentrated in the brain after IV administration :</li><li>• Option C. It shows the phenomenon of redistribution : Correct. After initial brain concentration, thiopentone redistributes to other tissues, particularly muscle and fat.</li><li>• Option C. It shows the phenomenon of redistribution</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thiopentone's short duration of action is due to redistribution to other tissues, not rapid renal excretion.</li><li>➤ THIOPENTONE</li><li>➤ THIOPENTONE</li><li>➤ T - Thiobarbiturates H - Hyperthyroidism I - Inadvertent intra-arterial injection causes vasospasm (treatment - flush with NS, heparin, lignocaine) O - pH 10.5 (alkaline) P - pH Porphyrias (C/I) Prolongation of QT interval E - Epilepsy N - Neuroanesthesia (DOC) T - Termination of action- redistribution</li><li>➤ T - Thiobarbiturates</li><li>➤ H - Hyperthyroidism</li><li>➤ I - Inadvertent intra-arterial injection causes vasospasm (treatment - flush with NS, heparin, lignocaine)</li><li>➤ O - pH 10.5 (alkaline)</li><li>➤ P - pH</li><li>➤ Porphyrias (C/I)</li><li>➤ Prolongation of QT interval</li><li>➤ E - Epilepsy</li><li>➤ N - Neuroanesthesia (DOC)</li><li>➤ T - Termination of action- redistribution</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old female presents with metastatic breast cancer. She has previously undergone treatment with surgery, radiation, and multiple lines of chemotherapy, but her disease has progressed. Genetic testing reveals a BRCA1 mutation, indicating an impaired DNA repair mechanism. Her cancer is classified as HER2-negative and hormone receptor-positive. Given the genetic findings, her oncologist considers using a therapy that targets the PARP enzyme to exploit the DNA repair vulnerability of her cancer cells. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate to prescribe as a PARP inhibitor in this patient? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palbociclib", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rucaparib", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vorinostat", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ustekinumab", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rucaparib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20115210.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rucaparib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rucaparib is a PARP (Poly ADP-Ribose Polymerase) inhibitor. PARP inhibitors work by blocking DNA repair mechanisms in cancer cells. In patients with BRCA mutations (who already have impaired DNA repair), PARP inhibition leads to synthetic lethality and cell death. The name helps identify PARP inhibitors as they end in \"parib\" (from Poly ADP-Ribose Polymerase inhibitor).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Palbociclib: Incorrect. This is a cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) 4/6 inhibitor used in hormone receptor-positive breast cancer. While it might be useful in this patient's case, it is not a PARP inhibitor.</li><li>• Option A. Palbociclib:</li><li>• Option C. Vorinostat : Incorrect. This is a histone deacetylase inhibitor used in certain hematologic malignancies, not a PARP inhibitor.</li><li>• Option C. Vorinostat</li><li>• Option D. Ustekinumab : Incorrect. This is a monoclonal antibody against interleukins used in psoriasis and other autoimmune conditions, not a PARP inhibitor.</li><li>• Option D. Ustekinumab</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PARP inhibitors (drugs ending in \"parib\") are particularly effective in cancers with BRCA mutations due to their mechanism of synthetic lethality in cells with impaired DNA repair.</li><li>➤ Breast Cancer</li><li>➤ Breast Cancer</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic, hypertensive, and post-MI patient on atorvastatin, metoprolol, and aspirin has lipid profile results of total cholesterol: 238 mg/dL, triglycerides: 125 mg/dL, HDL: 50 mg/dL, and LDL: 160 mg/dL. Which additional medications should be considered to optimize lipid management in this patient? (INICET NOV 2024) Bemepedoic acid Ezetimibe Gemfibrozil Evolocumab", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient has elevated total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol with normal triglycerides and HDL. Therefore, drugs targeting cholesterol reduction would be most appropriate:</li><li>• 1. Bempedoic acid inhibits ATP citrate lyase, reducing cholesterol synthesis</li><li>• Bempedoic</li><li>• 2. Ezetimibe inhibits intestinal cholesterol absorption</li><li>• Ezetimibe</li><li>• 4. Evolocumab (PCSK9 inhibitor) increases LDL receptor availability, enhancing LDL clearance All these mechanisms would help lower the elevated LDL and total cholesterol levels.</li><li>• Evolocumab</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• Other Option:</li><li>• 3. Gemfibrozil is incorrect as fibrates primarily target high triglycerides, which are normal in this patient (125 mg/dL).</li><li>• 3. Gemfibrozil</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lipid-lowering medications based on the specific lipid abnormality: statins, PCSK9 inhibitors, ezetimibe, and bempedoic acid for elevated cholesterol/LDL; fibrates primarily for elevated triglycerides.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding fosphenytoin? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "At high doses in elderly patients, it causes cardiotoxicity and in younger patients nephrotoxicity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adverse effects can be avoided if the dose is kept less than 250 mg phenytoin sodium equivalents", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is given to all seizure patients in emergency irrespective of CNS adverse effects and hypotension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High oral dose can result in cerebellar degeneration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adverse effects can be avoided if the dose is kept less than 250 mg phenytoin sodium equivalents", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adverse effects can be avoided if the dose is kept less than 250 mg phenytoin sodium equivalents</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Fosphenytoin is a water-soluble prodrug of phenytoin used for IV administration. When the dose is kept below 250 mg phenytoin sodium equivalents, adverse effects can be minimized. This dosing guideline helps prevent complications while maintaining therapeutic efficacy. After administration, fosphenytoin is converted to phenytoin by phosphatases in blood and liver.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. At high doses in elderly patients, it causes cardiotoxicity and in younger patients nephrotoxicity - Incorrect. Cardiotoxicity can occur at high doses in all age groups, not just elderly. There is no specific age-related difference in nephrotoxicity.</li><li>• Option A. At high doses in elderly patients, it causes cardiotoxicity and in younger patients nephrotoxicity</li><li>• Option C. It is given to all seizure patients in emergency irrespective of CNS adverse effects and hypotension - Incorrect. While it's useful in emergency situations, it's not given indiscriminately. CNS effects and hypotension need to be monitored and managed.</li><li>• Option C. It is given to all seizure patients in emergency irrespective of CNS adverse effects and hypotension</li><li>• Option D. High oral dose can result in cerebellar degeneration - Incorrect. Fosphenytoin is given intravenously, not orally. While phenytoin can cause cerebellar degeneration, this statement is incorrect for fosphenytoin's route of administration.</li><li>• Option D. High oral dose can result in cerebellar degeneration -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fosphenytoin's adverse effects can be minimized by keeping the dose below 250 mg phenytoin sodium equivalents, and it is specifically designed for IV administration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male weighing 46 kg was treated with a drug. It has a Vd of 6 L/kg and clearance of 4.6 L/hour. What is the approximate half-life of this drug? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.9 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.5 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 40 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 40 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The half-life can be calculated using the formula:</li><li>• t1/2 = 0.693 × Vd/Clearance</li><li>• Vd given is 6 L/kg, so total Vd = 6 × 46 = 276 L Clearance = 4.6 L/hour Therefore: t1/2 = 0.693 × 276/4.6 ≈ 0.693 × 60 ≈ 40 hours</li><li>• Vd given is 6 L/kg, so total Vd = 6 × 46 = 276 L</li><li>• Clearance = 4.6 L/hour Therefore: t1/2 = 0.693 × 276/4.6 ≈ 0.693 × 60 ≈ 40 hours</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The formula for calculating half-life (t1/2 = 0.693 × Vd/Clearance) and remember to account for total Vd when given in L/kg by multiplying with body weight.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding pretomanid? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Its use is contraindicated along with CYP 2C9 inducers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It can be used for resistant malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is approved for treatment of XDR tuberculosis in combination with Bedaquiline and Linezolid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It acts by formation of reactive oxygen species", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is approved for treatment of XDR tuberculosis in combination with Bedaquiline and Linezolid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is approved for treatment of XDR tuberculosis in combination with Bedaquiline and Linezolid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pretomanid is approved as part of the BPaL (Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, and Linezolid) regime for treating extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) and pre-XDR TB in India. This combination therapy represents a significant advancement in treating highly resistant forms of tuberculosis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Its use is contraindicated along with CYP 2C9 inducers : Incorrect. Pretomanid is metabolized by CYP3A4, not CYP2C9, and is contraindicated with CYP3A4 inhibitors.</li><li>• Option A. Its use is contraindicated along with CYP 2C9 inducers</li><li>• Option B. It can be used for resistant malaria : Incorrect. Pretomanid is specifically approved for tuberculosis treatment, not malaria.</li><li>• Option B. It can be used for resistant malaria</li><li>• Option D. It acts by formation of reactive oxygen species : Incorrect. Pretomanid acts by releasing reactive nitrogen species (not oxygen), which inhibit mycolic acid synthesis in mycobacteria.</li><li>• Option D. It acts by formation of reactive oxygen species</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pretomanid is part of the BPaL regimen (Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, and Linezolid) approved for treating XDR-TB and pre-XDR TB, and works through the release of reactive nitrogen species to inhibit mycolic acid synthesis.</li><li>➤ New Drugs:</li><li>➤ New Drugs:</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline: Act by inhibiting ATP synthase enzyme, can result in QT prolongation Delamanid: Act by inhibiting mycolic acid in mycobacteria, can result in QT prolongation Pretomanid: Act by inhibiting mycolic acid in mycobacteria</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline: Act by inhibiting ATP synthase enzyme, can result in QT prolongation</li><li>➤ Delamanid: Act by inhibiting mycolic acid in mycobacteria, can result in QT prolongation</li><li>➤ Pretomanid: Act by inhibiting mycolic acid in mycobacteria</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements regarding the causes of fall in diastolic blood pressure is correct? (INICET NOV 2024) Loss of sympathetic outflow in the lumbar region Antagonism of beta-1 adrenergic receptors Blockade of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors Antagonism of beta-2 adrenergic receptors", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A fall in diastolic blood pressure primarily occurs due to vasodilation. Two mechanisms listed that cause vasodilation are:</li><li>• 1. Loss of sympathetic outflow in lumbar region : Sympathetic system causes vasoconstriction, so its loss leads to vasodilation</li><li>• 1. Loss of sympathetic outflow in lumbar region</li><li>• 3. Blockade of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors : Alpha-1 receptors mediate vasoconstriction, so their blockade causes vasodilation</li><li>• 3. Blockade of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• 2. Antagonism of beta-1 adrenergic receptors : Incorrect. Beta-1 blockade primarily affects heart rate and contractility, leading to decreased systolic blood pressure, not diastolic pressure.</li><li>• 2. Antagonism of beta-1 adrenergic receptors</li><li>• 4. Antagonism of beta-2 adrenergic receptors : Incorrect. Beta-2 receptors mediate vasodilation, so their blockade would cause vasoconstriction and potentially increase diastolic pressure.</li><li>• 4. Antagonism of beta-2 adrenergic receptors</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diastolic blood pressure is primarily affected by vascular tone - vasodilation decreases it (through loss of sympathetic tone or alpha-1 blockade) while vasoconstriction increases it.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct statement regarding iron isomaltoside? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It should not be given with erythropoietin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is given by intravenous route", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is more immunogenic than iron dextran", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A single bolus dose is enough for treatment of iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is given by intravenous route", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-08%20115237.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It is given by intravenous route</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Iron isomaltoside is an intravenous iron preparation that can be given via IV route over approximately 30 minutes. It is characterized by having a very low risk of allergic reactions compared to other IV iron preparations. The drug can be administered in high doses, typically requiring 2-3 doses for complete treatment.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. It should not be given with erythropoietin: Incorrect. Iron isomaltoside can be safely given with erythropoietin. It's iron ferromoxitol that should be avoided with erythropoietin.</li><li>• Option A. It should not be given with erythropoietin:</li><li>• Option C. It is more immunogenic than iron dextran: Incorrect. Iron isomaltoside has very low immunogenicity and is less immunogenic than iron dextran.</li><li>• Option C. It is more immunogenic than iron dextran:</li><li>• Option D. A single bolus dose is enough for treatment: Incorrect. Usually 2-3 doses are required for complete treatment, though occasionally one dose might be sufficient.</li><li>• Option D. A single bolus dose is enough for treatment:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron isomaltoside is an IV iron preparation characterized by low immunogenicity, compatibility with erythropoietin, and typically requires 2-3 doses for complete treatment.</li><li>➤ Injectable Iron</li><li>➤ Preparations of injectable iron are: Iron Dextran-Can be given IV as well as IM Iron Sorbital citrate (Used im olnly) Intramuscular iron is given by Z-tract technique to avoid pigmentation</li><li>➤ Preparations of injectable iron are: Iron Dextran-Can be given IV as well as IM Iron Sorbital citrate (Used im olnly)</li><li>➤ Iron Dextran-Can be given IV as well as IM Iron Sorbital citrate (Used im olnly)</li><li>➤ Iron Dextran-Can be given IV as well as IM</li><li>➤ Iron Sorbital citrate (Used im olnly)</li><li>➤ Intramuscular iron is given by Z-tract technique to avoid pigmentation</li><li>➤ Indication of injectable iron:</li><li>➤ Oral iron cannot be given e.g. Malabsorption Not tolerated (due to GI symptoms) Given with erythropoietin Erythropoietin will stinulate RBC formation and will unmask any iron deficiency Dose of injectable iron = 4.3 x Hb deficit (g/dl) x body weight (kg) This formula includes the iron required for replenishment of stores also.</li><li>➤ Oral iron cannot be given e.g. Malabsorption Not tolerated (due to GI symptoms)</li><li>➤ Malabsorption Not tolerated (due to GI symptoms)</li><li>➤ Malabsorption</li><li>➤ Not tolerated (due to GI symptoms)</li><li>➤ Given with erythropoietin Erythropoietin will stinulate RBC formation and will unmask any iron deficiency</li><li>➤ Erythropoietin will stinulate RBC formation and will unmask any iron deficiency</li><li>➤ Erythropoietin will stinulate RBC formation and will unmask any iron deficiency</li><li>➤ Dose of injectable iron = 4.3 x Hb deficit (g/dl) x body weight (kg) This formula includes the iron required for replenishment of stores also.</li><li>➤ This formula includes the iron required for replenishment of stores also.</li><li>➤ This formula includes the iron required for replenishment of stores also.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following pathological bodies with their associated condition: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_vckL9VL.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_7wXpMOe.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_u1lzjMj.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-05%20114104.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_mf4o5qa.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lewy bodies → Parkinson's disease</li><li>➤ Lewy bodies → Parkinson's disease</li><li>➤ Negri bodies → Rabies</li><li>➤ Negri bodies → Rabies</li><li>➤ Dutcher bodies → Multiple myeloma</li><li>➤ Dutcher bodies → Multiple myeloma</li><li>➤ Michaelis-Gutmann bodies → Malakoplakia</li><li>➤ Michaelis-Gutmann bodies → Malakoplakia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an inherited cause of thrombosis? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protein S deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homocystinuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antithrombin III deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PNH is an acquired disorder caused by somatic mutations, while Protein S deficiency, Homocystinuria, and AT III deficiency are inherited causes of thrombosis.</li><li>➤ PNH</li><li>➤ Protein S deficiency, Homocystinuria, and AT III deficiency</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is most commonly associated with a hypercoagulable state? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antithrombin III deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor V mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factor XIII deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factor XII deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Factor V mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Factor V mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor V Leiden mutation is the most common inherited cause of hypercoagulable states, increasing thrombosis risk 4-5 times in heterozygous and 50 times in homozygous individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following interactions between T cells and APC (Antigen-Presenting Cell) are required for T cell activation/differentiation except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T cell receptor and MHC II", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CD28 and CD80", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PD-PDL1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytokine secretion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. PD-PDL1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_xUHeUTD.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) PD-PDL1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PD-PDL1 interaction is an inhibitory checkpoint that causes T cell exhaustion rather than activation. This pathway is important in cancer immunotherapy where checkpoint inhibitors are used to prevent tumor immune evasion.</li><li>➤ T cell exhaustion</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Epithelial mesenchymal transcription is mediated by which transcription factors? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cathepsin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SNAIL/TWIST", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "MMP-9", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TTF-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. SNAIL/TWIST", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) SNAIL/TWIST</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SNAIL and TWIST are the key transcription factors responsible for mediating epithelial-mesenchymal transition, a crucial step in cancer metastasis.</li><li>➤ SNAIL and TWIST</li><li>➤ epithelial-mesenchymal transition, a crucial step in cancer metastasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old man presented to you with neuropathy in his bilateral lower limbs and a positive Romberg sign. He has a history of gastrectomy for stomach cancer. He is likely deficient in which of the following? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Folate deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transferrin deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_K3ZWzNb.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_B5M09uG.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-gastrectomy patients are at high risk for Vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor production, leading to neurological manifestations like peripheral neuropathy, positive Romberg sign and megaloblastic anemia. Lifelong vitamin B12 supplementation is essential in such patients to prevent neurological and hematological complications.</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency</li><li>➤ peripheral neuropathy, positive Romberg sign and megaloblastic anemia. Lifelong vitamin B12 supplementation is essential in such patients to prevent neurological and hematological complications.</li><li>➤ Causes of B12 Deficiency</li><li>➤ Causes of B12 Deficiency</li><li>➤ Vegans At stomach level - Elderly/ gastrectomy / Pernicious anemia At pancreas level - Pancreatitis, hypofunctioning pancreas At intestine level - Bacterial overgrowth syndrome, diverticulosis. At ileum level - Malabsorption disorders, GIT TB, Crohn's disease, fish tapeworm ↓ intake ↓ absorption - ↓ intrinsic factor – pernicious anemia ↑ requirement - Children, pregnancy, lactation</li><li>➤ Vegans</li><li>➤ At stomach level - Elderly/ gastrectomy / Pernicious anemia</li><li>➤ At pancreas level - Pancreatitis, hypofunctioning pancreas</li><li>➤ At intestine level - Bacterial overgrowth syndrome, diverticulosis.</li><li>➤ At ileum level - Malabsorption disorders, GIT TB, Crohn's disease, fish tapeworm</li><li>➤ ↓ intake</li><li>➤ ↓ absorption - ↓ intrinsic factor – pernicious anemia</li><li>➤ ↑ requirement - Children, pregnancy, lactation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which Mutation is seen in sickle cell anemia? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Substitution of glutamic acid by valine at position 6 of the α -globin chain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Substitution of glutamic acid by leucine at position 6 of the β-globin chain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Substitution of glutamic acid by valine at position 6 of the β-globin chain", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Substitution of glutamic acid by leucine at position 6 of the α-globin chain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Substitution of glutamic acid by valine at position 6 of the β-globin chain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_JuB3Hjq.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Substitution of glutamic acid by valine at position 6 of the β-globin chain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation resulting in substitution of glutamic acid by valine specifically at position 6 of the β-globin chain.</li><li>➤ glutamic acid by valine specifically at position 6 of the β-globin chain.</li><li>➤ This results in polymerization of deoxygenated hemoglobin S (HbS), sickling of red blood cells, and complications such as vaso-occlusive crises and hemolysis.</li><li>➤ COMPLICATIONS:</li><li>➤ COMPLICATIONS:</li><li>➤ Vaso-occlusive crisis: most common clinical complication Aplastic crisis: BM overactivity due to compensatory mechanism → parvovirus infection Sequestration crisis: ↑↑↑splenic size leading to hypovolemia Hemolytic crisis- due to infection, splenic macrophage becomes overactive</li><li>➤ Vaso-occlusive crisis: most common clinical complication</li><li>➤ Aplastic crisis: BM overactivity due to compensatory mechanism → parvovirus infection</li><li>➤ Sequestration crisis: ↑↑↑splenic size leading to hypovolemia</li><li>➤ Hemolytic crisis- due to infection, splenic macrophage becomes overactive</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child presents with gums bleeding, hepatosplenomegaly has a peripheral smear finding shown in the image. Flow cytometry was ordered for patient and CD19, CD22 and TdT came to be positive. What is the likely diagnosis? ( INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ALL B Lymphocyte Type", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ALL T Lymphocyte Type", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AML", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CML", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ALL B Lymphocyte Type", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_xQObGOP.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) ALL B Lymphocyte Type</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ B-cell ALL is characterized by lymphoblasts on peripheral smear and positivity for B-cell markers (CD19, CD22) and TdT on flow cytometry.</li><li>➤ peripheral smear and positivity for B-cell markers (CD19, CD22) and TdT on flow cytometry.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn presents with umbilical cord stump bleeding and a history of recurrent bleeding episodes. Laboratory results reveal normal PT, APTT, and platelet count, but a positive clot solubility test. What coagulation factor deficiency is most likely responsible for these symptoms? ( INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factor XII", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor XI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factor VIII", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factor XIII", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Factor XIII", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Untitled-1_LoVcTw3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Factor XIII</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Factor XIII deficiency presents with umbilical cord bleeding and shows normal PT, aPTT, and platelet count but positive clot solubility test due to unstable clot formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All blood products are separated by Centrifugation except: ( INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platelet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum albumin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cryoprecipitate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serum albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_BqehzDt.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Serum albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Centrifugation is used to separate RBCs, platelets, and plasma-derived components like cryoprecipitate. Serum albumin, however, is obtained through fractionation, making it the correct answer.</li><li>➤ Serum albumin, however, is obtained through fractionation, making it the correct answer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For HbA1c sample, the vacutainer used contains which of the following: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium fluoride", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EDTA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. EDTA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_VLV0kZO.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) EDTA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For HbA1c estimation, EDTA (lavender-top vacutainer) is used because it prevents coagulation while preserving RBC integrity for accurate glycosylated hemoglobin measurement.</li><li>➤ Vacutainer Vials and Their Uses</li><li>➤ Vacutainer Vials and Their Uses</li><li>➤ Sequence of blood Drawn - Chalo Bhai, Red yellow Green Light → Go</li><li>➤ Culture Bottle – Blue – Red – Yellow – Green – Lavender – Grey</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vacutainer is commonly used to collect blood samples for serum electrolyte analysis? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Green", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Purple", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Green", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_V7lqopr.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Green</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For serum electrolyte analysis , green-top vacutainers (containing lithium heparin ) are the preferred choice as they prevent clotting without interfering with the electrolyte measurement.</li><li>➤ serum electrolyte analysis</li><li>➤ green-top vacutainers</li><li>➤ lithium heparin</li><li>➤ Sequence of blood Drawn - Chalo Bhai, Red yellow Green Light → Go</li><li>➤ Culture Bottle – Blue – Red – Yellow – Green – Lavender – Grey</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of TTP? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thrombocytopenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thrombosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haemolytic anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thrombosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_pDcLiD9.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thrombosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classical pentad of TTP:</li><li>➤ Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia Renal failure Fever Neurological manifestations</li><li>➤ Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia</li><li>➤ Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia</li><li>➤ Thrombocytopenia</li><li>➤ Thrombocytopenia</li><li>➤ Renal failure</li><li>➤ Renal failure</li><li>➤ Fever</li><li>➤ Fever</li><li>➤ Neurological manifestations</li><li>➤ Neurological manifestations</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Features of MEN2B are all of the following except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medullary thyroid cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PTH carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucocutaneous neurofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marfanoid habitus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PTH carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-05%20122549.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) PTH carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: ( INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-2, B- 3, C-4, D-1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A-2, B- 3, C-4, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Ohnoc8c.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-05%20125042.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tumor Markers</li><li>➤ Tumor Markers</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the column: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_04sXH0f.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Yxwfw5z.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structures shown in the images: ( INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corpus callosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psammoma body", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corpus luteum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corpora amylacea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Corpora amylacea", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_TlDaW2o.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_ApHRAw7.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Corpora amylacea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The histological appearance of corpora amylacea, which are eosinophilic, concentrically laminated glycoprotein deposits that commonly occur in the prostate gland of elderly males as part of the normal aging process.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not classified as a germ cell tumor of the ovary? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yolk sac tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dysgerminoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Choriocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Granulosa cell tumor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Granulosa cell tumor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_EEewVPf.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_E90J34Y.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Granulosa cell tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Granulosa cell tumor is classified as a sex cord-stromal tumor of the ovary, not a germ cell tumor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best investigation for aneuploidy? (INICET NOV 2024) In Situ Hybridization Conventional cytogenetics PCR Sanger sequencing", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A &amp; B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C &amp; D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A, B, C and D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A & B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A &amp; B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FISH (Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization) and conventional cytogenetics are the best techniques for detecting aneuploidy (abnormal chromosome numbers), while PCR and Sanger sequencing are used for specific sequence analysis but not aneuploidy detection.</li><li>➤ FISH (Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization) and conventional cytogenetics</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_cnJyaL0.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Zj04d9v.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_1nfl9Rg.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Genetic Disorders and Their Inheritance Patterns</li><li>➤ Genetic Disorders and Their Inheritance Patterns</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with abdominal pain, acute diarrhea, and is diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following statements is false regarding this condition? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Associated with HLA DQ6/DQ11", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgA Tissue Transglutaminase antibodies are present", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marsh Criteria used for diagnosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG deamidated Gliadin antibodies are present", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Associated with HLA DQ6/DQ11", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_PKQnfFG.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Associated with HLA DQ6/DQ11</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, not HLA-DQ6/DQ11, and diagnosis involves IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies, deamidated gliadin antibodies, and application of the Marsh criteria.</li><li>➤ Important disease associated with HLA</li><li>➤ Important disease associated with HLA</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of NAME syndrome? ( INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nevus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebstein’s anomaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atrial myxoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ebstein’s anomaly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_htvclV3.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ebstein's anomaly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Components of NAME Syndrome</li><li>➤ Components of NAME Syndrome</li><li>➤ Ebstein's anomaly is not part of this syndrome but is associated with maternal lithium exposure during pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ebstein's anomaly is not part of this syndrome but is associated with maternal lithium exposure during pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a swelling in the forearm. Microscopic examination reveals the following features. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding this condition? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Associated with neurofibromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malignant tumor with frequent metastasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Originate from neural sheath", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verocay body on light microscopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Malignant tumor with frequent metastasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_oW8r0zx.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-05%20124320.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Malignant tumor with frequent metastasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SCHWANNOMA</li><li>➤ SCHWANNOMA</li><li>➤ Peripheral Nerve sheath tumor Benign Arises from Schwann cells of Peripheral nerves or Cranial nerves (8th CN &gt; 5th CN)</li><li>➤ Peripheral Nerve sheath tumor</li><li>➤ Benign</li><li>➤ Arises from Schwann cells of Peripheral nerves or Cranial nerves (8th CN &gt; 5th CN)</li><li>➤ Risk factor:</li><li>➤ Risk factor:</li><li>➤ NF2 gene mutation causes reduced merlin expression and increased cell multiplication B/L schwannoma due to NF-2 gene mutation Schwannoma arising from 8th CN was earlier called acoustic neuroma Now called as vestibular schwannoma C/F: SNHL, tinnitus, decreased corneal reflex Diagnosed with MRI</li><li>➤ NF2 gene mutation causes reduced merlin expression and increased cell multiplication</li><li>➤ B/L schwannoma due to NF-2 gene mutation</li><li>➤ Schwannoma arising from 8th CN was earlier called acoustic neuroma</li><li>➤ Now called as vestibular schwannoma</li><li>➤ C/F: SNHL, tinnitus, decreased corneal reflex</li><li>➤ Diagnosed with MRI</li><li>➤ Histology shows</li><li>➤ Histology shows</li><li>➤ Hypercellular Antony 'A' area and hypocellular Antony 'B' area Antony 'A' area: tumor cells arranged in fence-like pattern → nuclear-free zones called verocay bodies Verocay body: Nuclear free area Presence of true palisading IHC shows S100+</li><li>➤ Hypercellular Antony 'A' area and hypocellular Antony 'B' area Antony 'A' area: tumor cells arranged in fence-like pattern → nuclear-free zones called verocay bodies</li><li>➤ Antony 'A' area: tumor cells arranged in fence-like pattern → nuclear-free zones called verocay bodies</li><li>➤ Antony 'A' area: tumor cells arranged in fence-like pattern → nuclear-free zones called verocay bodies</li><li>➤ Verocay body: Nuclear free area</li><li>➤ Presence of true palisading</li><li>➤ IHC shows S100+</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sodium benzoate is given for urea cycle defects for scavenging ammonia. Which amino acid donates amino group to the scavengers? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arginine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glutamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspartate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glycine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glycine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urea cycle disorders, sodium benzoate is used as an ammonia scavenger that conjugates specifically with glycine to form hippurate (hippuric acid), which is then excreted in the urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following Amino acid products: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-3, B-1, C -2, D-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-3, B-1, C -2, D-4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-05%20160350.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-05%20160406.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amino Acid Conversions</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Patient had dietary Cu deficiency, which is required by lysyl oxidase to cross link the collagen, what is the diagnosis of the patient? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Menkes Disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scoliosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ehlers Danlos syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Menkes Disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-05%20160428.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-30%20131525.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Menkes Disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Menkes disease is caused by copper deficiency which affects lysyl oxidase activity, an enzyme required for collagen cross-linking, resulting in weak collagen formation and characteristic symptoms including brittle hair.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a cytochrome C oxidase inhibitor? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carbon monoxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nitric oxide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrogen sulfide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyanide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nitric oxide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-05%20161131.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Nitric oxide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nitric oxide (NO) is not an inhibitor of cytochrome C oxidase (complex IV), while carbon monoxide, hydrogen sulfide, and cyanide are inhibitors of this complex IV in the electron transport chain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient diagnosed with diabetes has high increased LDL and VLDL because of (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hormone sensitive lipase and lipoprotein lipase both increased", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hormone sensitive lipase increased &amp; lipoprotein lipase decreased", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lipoprotein lipase increased &amp; hormone sensitive lipase decreased", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lipoprotein lipase and hormone sensitive lipase both decreased", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hormone sensitive lipase increased & lipoprotein lipase decreased", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hormone sensitive lipase increased &amp; lipoprotein lipase decreased</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diabetes, hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) activity is increased while lipoprotein lipase (LPL) activity is decreased due to insulin deficiency or resistance, leading to elevated levels of VLDL and LDL.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are used in recombinant DNA technology (genetic engineering) except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphatases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CRISPR Cas9", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isomerases", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Terminal transferase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Isomerases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-05%20161200.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Isomerases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Isomerases, which catalyze structural rearrangements within molecules, are not used in recombinant DNA technology or genetic engineering, while phosphatases, CRISPR Cas9, and terminal transferase are utilized in these techniques.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true for hemolytic anemia ? (INICET NOV 2024) Indirect van den bergh test positive Direct van den bergh test positive Increased urine urobilonogen", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a and c", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "b only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "c only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. a and c", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-05%20163914.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) a and c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemolytic anemia is characterized by a positive indirect Vandenbergh test (due to increased unconjugated bilirubin) and increased urine urobilinogen (due to increased hemoglobin breakdown).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the Following hormones to receptors: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_cz4tr8D.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Jzaqqro.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classification of Receptors</li><li>➤ Classification of Receptors</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not seen in an inner segment of the photoreceptor? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Golgi apparatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ER", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitochondria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disc", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Disc", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_2iR9Pf6.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Disc</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is involved in Static Two-point discrimination? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meissner’s corpuscles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Merkel disk", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pacinian corpuscles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ruffini ending", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Merkel disk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_bKoOXLC.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_g0UtPCH.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Merkel disk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following curves shows oxygen Hb dissociation after transfusion of stored blood: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_pYvXroV.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_5DFnPZk.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct labeling (A, B, C, D) in the given image? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Z line, A band, H zone, I Band", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A band, Z line, H zone, M Band", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A band, I Band, Z line, H zone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Z line, A band, M Band, H zone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Z line, A band, H zone, I Band", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_U0m5BGD.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_HDBTXDN.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_hpTVzaZ.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/55536_yMpB2h1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Z line, A band, H zone, I Band</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mechanical nociceptors and its response to a probe with blunt object, pin prick and tooth forceps with serration is recorded as a output of a force transducer coupled to the stimulator. What will you infer from a given diagram? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blunt object with high force doesn’t stimulate nociceptors", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sharp object doesn’t stimulate nociceptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pinching with serrated object stimulate mechanoceptors but doesn’t cause pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sharp pain sensation is carried by type C nerve fiber", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blunt object with high force doesn’t stimulate nociceptors", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_8gi6Dy7.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blunt object with high force doesn't stimulate nociceptors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nociceptors (pain receptors) respond differentially to various mechanical stimuli - they are activated by sharp objects and pinching/pressure that can potentially damage tissue, but not by blunt pressure even with high force. Fast, sharp pain is transmitted via A-delta fibers, while slow, dull pain is transmitted via C fibers.</li><li>➤ Nociceptors (pain receptors)</li><li>➤ sharp objects and pinching/pressure that can potentially damage tissue,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following Decreases GFR except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased glomerular coefficient Kf", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase glomerular oncotic pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reduced Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased Bowman Oncotic Pressure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Increased Bowman Oncotic Pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_E0SMwPR.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Increased Bowman Oncotic Pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When Bowman's capsule oncotic pressure increases, it pulls more water molecules from the glomerular capillaries into the Bowman's space . This increases filtration, resulting in increased GFR. Proteins in Bowman's capsule would pull more water molecules towards them, which constitutes the filtration process.</li><li>➤ glomerular capillaries into the Bowman's space</li><li>➤ increased GFR.</li><li>➤ pull more water molecules</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following transport mechanism doesn’t require ATP: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 &amp; 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_qCr6vVp.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1, 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Simple diffusion through membrane , Simple diffusion through channels, Paracellular transport do not require ATP as they represent forms of passive transport, while Active transport requiring ATP</li><li>➤ Simple diffusion through membrane</li><li>➤ Simple diffusion through channels, Paracellular transport</li><li>➤ Active transport</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Decompression sickness, which one of the following is not seen? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hearing loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemodilution", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thrombosis/Coagulopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Visual disturbance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hemodilution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hemodilution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decompression sickness causes hemoconcentration (not hemodilution) due to plasma extravasation resulting from vascular damage caused by nitrogen bubbles.</li><li>➤ hemoconcentration</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Catecholamine secretion is increased by all except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoglycemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperglycemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Smoking", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exercise", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyperglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hyperglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Catecholamine secretion increases during stress conditions like hypoglycemia, smoking, and exercise, but not during hyperglycemia.</li><li>➤ hypoglycemia, smoking, and exercise, but not during hyperglycemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following contributes to the latent period in a single muscle twitch? (INICET NOV 2024) Excitation-contraction coupling Opening of sodium channels on NMJ Transmission of impulse from the site of stimulus to NMJ Pumping of calcium back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a and b", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a, b, c", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "only b", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a, b, c, d", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. a, b, c", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) a, b, c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The latent period in a single muscle twitch includes excitation-contraction coupling, opening of sodium channels at the neuromuscular junction, and transmission of impulse from the site of stimulus to the neuromuscular junction, but does not include calcium reuptake which is part of the relaxation phase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is correct about physiological dead space? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is less than anatomical dead space", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It can be measured by spirometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is because of inadequate perfusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is because of inadequate ventilation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is because of inadequate perfusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-05%20132851.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is because of inadequate perfusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Physiological dead space is the sum of anatomical dead space and alveolar dead space, with alveolar dead space occurring primarily due to inadequate perfusion of ventilated alveoli, resulting in wasted ventilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following about the enteric nervous regulation system is false? (INICET NOV 2024) Interstitial cells of Cajal are pacemakers It can function independently of the brain and spinal cord All the afferents are from the vagus nerve Myenteric plexus is in the Lamina propria", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 3, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The enteric nervous system is anatomically organized into two major plexuses - the myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus located between longitudinal and circular muscle layers that controls motility, and the submucosal (Meissner's) plexus that regulates secretion . The enteric nervous system receives dual innervation from both sympathetic and parasympathetic (vagal ) sources while maintaining the ability to function independently.</li><li>➤ the myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus located between longitudinal and circular muscle layers that controls motility, and the submucosal (Meissner's) plexus that regulates secretion</li><li>➤ sympathetic and parasympathetic (vagal</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "LMN (Lower Motor Neuron) lesion is associated with which one of the following? (INICET NOV 2024) Reduced muscle tone Spastic paralysis Babinski sign positive Fasciculation", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_p1CeWL2.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1, 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Peripheral chemoreceptors are most sensitive to which one of the following? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CO₂", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypoxia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypoxia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_VXHM0fa.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypoxia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peripheral chemoreceptors ( carotid and aortic bodies ) are most sensitive to hypoxia (decreased PO₂ less than 60 mmHg), despite also responding to increases in PCO₂ and H⁺ (acidosis).</li><li>➤ carotid and aortic bodies</li><li>➤ (acidosis).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nail lacquer used in treatment of Onychomycosis among the given options: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Griseofulvin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tavaborole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caspofungin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Itraconazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tavaborole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_25Qzfwr.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_t894NFd.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_argwZkw.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tavaborole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tavaborole (5%) is one of the approved nail lacquers used as topical therapy in onychomycosis, along with other agents like Amorolfine, Ciclopirox-olamine and Efinaconazole.</li><li>➤ Tavaborole (5%)</li><li>➤ Amorolfine, Ciclopirox-olamine and Efinaconazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer from Himachal Pradesh presented with nodulo ulcerative lesions with axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the causative organism? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sporothrix", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histoplasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coccidioides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sporothrix", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_2cCITwP.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_BvHO0GV.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_XUD1Iyd.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sporothrix</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener’s Disease) is caused by Sporothrix schenckii and presents with noduloulcerative lesions following a Sporotrichoid pattern along lymphatics . It is common in farmers, gardeners , and those handling plants or soil.</li><li>➤ Sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener’s Disease) is caused by Sporothrix schenckii and presents with noduloulcerative lesions following a Sporotrichoid pattern along lymphatics .</li><li>➤ Sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener’s Disease)</li><li>➤ Sporothrix schenckii</li><li>➤ noduloulcerative</li><li>➤ Sporotrichoid</li><li>➤ lymphatics</li><li>➤ It is common in farmers, gardeners , and those handling plants or soil.</li><li>➤ farmers, gardeners</li><li>➤ plants or soil.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In males, urethritis is caused by all except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neisseria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mycoplasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichomonas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gardnerella", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gardnerella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_680cHdy.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Gardnerella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gardnerella vaginalis is not a causative organism of male urethritis , while recognizing the common bacterial and protozoal causes of both gonococcal and non-gonococcal urethritis in males.</li><li>➤ Gardnerella vaginalis</li><li>➤ not a causative organism of male urethritis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Himachal gardener man walks barefoot. Which infection is he prone to develop? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Madurella Mycetomatis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptococcosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxocara canis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coccidioides immitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Madurella Mycetomatis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_uegAO6C.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_NOfjfKK.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Madurella Mycetomatis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Barefoot walking predisposes to mycetoma caused by Madurella mycetomatis , presenting with the classic triad of grains, sinuses, and tumefaction .</li><li>➤ Barefoot walking</li><li>➤ mycetoma</li><li>➤ Madurella mycetomatis</li><li>➤ grains, sinuses, and tumefaction</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following methods of cold sterilization except: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasma sterilization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gamma rays", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UV rays", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Autoclave", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Autoclave", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Autoclave</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autoclave is a hot sterilization method operating at 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 PSI pressure, while plasma sterilization, gamma rays, and UV rays are cold sterilization methods that do not involve heat application.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Inoculation loops are commonly sterilized by which method? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autoclaving", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microwave", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Passing over flame 3 times", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heat till it become red hot", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Heat till it become red hot", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Heat till it becomes red hot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Inoculation loops must be sterilized by heating till red hot to ensure complete elimination of microorganisms, as this is the most effective and practical physical heat method for these instruments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following test is used for antibiotic sensitivity? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elek’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E-test (Epsilometertest)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Latex agglutination test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CAMP test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. E-test (Epsilometertest)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) E-test (Epsilometer test)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The E-test (Epsilometer test) is the standard method for determining the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) of antibiotics against bacteria using an antibiotic gradient strip.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20- year male had a pustule which rapidly progressed to necrotizing fascitis. On microscopy findings were seen. What is the most likely organism involved in this case? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enterococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Micrococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Streptococcus pyogenes", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_aZPJuqv.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Streptococcus pyogenes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus):</li><li>➤ Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus):</li><li>➤ Is the most common cause of necrotizing fasciitis Appears microscopically as gram-positive cocci in chains Can progress rapidly from a superficial infection to deep tissue involvement</li><li>➤ Is the most common cause of necrotizing fasciitis</li><li>➤ necrotizing fasciitis</li><li>➤ Appears microscopically as gram-positive cocci in chains</li><li>➤ gram-positive cocci</li><li>➤ Can progress rapidly from a superficial infection to deep tissue involvement</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis is typically cultured in which medium? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lowenstein-jensen medium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macconkey agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sabouraud dextrose agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Muller hinton", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lowenstein-jensen medium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lowenstein-Jensen medium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ M. tuberculosis requires specific growth conditions and must be cultured on Lowenstein-Jensen medium, which provides the necessary nutrients for its slow growth over several weeks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following options is wrong about ascaris lumbricoides? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heavy infection is associated with Rectal prolapse", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Most infections are asymptomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fertilised unembronated egg takes time to infect after it goes in soil", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Can spread to lungs and cause Asthma like symptoms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Heavy infection is associated with Rectal prolapse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_4Wx0V2E.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rectal prolapse is a characteristic complication of heavy Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) infection, not Ascaris lumbricoides infection. Ascaris causes pulmonary symptoms during its larval migration phase and is often asymptomatic in its intestinal phase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer presents with history of blunt trauma to the chest. There is formation of pus from the wound. Microscopy showed mildly acid fast bacteria with branching. What is the most likely organism? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nocardia species", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Listeria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anthrax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nocardia species", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Oc9wWfK.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_Mr399OK.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Nocardia species</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nocardia is characterized by being:</li><li>➤ Mildly acid-fast (1% acid-fast positive) Shows branching filamentous morphology Common in traumatic injuries with soil contamination Important occupational pathogen</li><li>➤ Mildly acid-fast (1% acid-fast positive)</li><li>➤ Shows branching filamentous morphology</li><li>➤ Common in traumatic injuries with soil contamination</li><li>➤ Important occupational pathogen</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "DOC for fasciola hepatica: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triclabendazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Albendazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mebendazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Praziquental", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Triclabendazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Triclabendazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triclabendazole is the drug of choice for treating Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infections.</li><li>➤ Triclabendazole</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an example of passive immunity? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toxoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antitoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Monoclonal antibodies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Toxoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Toxoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Passive immunity involves direct antibody transfer without immune system stimulation, while active immunity (like toxoids) involves stimulating the immune system to produce its own antibodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common cause of diarrhoea in children: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotavirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ascaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sheigella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rotavirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_HprFM1W.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rotavirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rotavirus is the leading cause of severe diarrheal disease in infants and young children worldwide.</li><li>➤ Agents causing Traveler's diarrhea</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pus swab should be discarded in which of the following waste containers? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red bag", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow bag", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Black bag", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue bag", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Yellow bag", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Yellow bag</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Yellow bags are designated for soiled and infected waste materials in biomedical waste management, including pus swabs and other contaminated materials.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match each disease with the correct causative agent from the options provided: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_xj8N96X.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The specific causative organisms for these bacterial diseases:</li><li>➤ Donovanosis → Klebsiella granulomatis Oroya fever → Bartonella bacilliformis Rat bite fever → Streptobacillus moniliformis Pinta → Treponema carateum</li><li>➤ Donovanosis → Klebsiella granulomatis</li><li>➤ Oroya fever → Bartonella bacilliformis</li><li>➤ Rat bite fever → Streptobacillus moniliformis</li><li>➤ Pinta → Treponema carateum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about Cryptococcus, except? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extrapulmonary cryptococcus is AIDS defining", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptococcus gatti is Associated with bird droppings", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "All pathogenic strains are urease positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CD4 count greater than 500", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. CD4 count greater than 500", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) CD4 count greater than 500</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cryptococcal infections occur at CD4 counts less than 100 cells/microliter, not at counts greater than 500. This is a crucial diagnostic criterion for suspecting cryptococcal infection in HIV/AIDS patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "IV anesthetic agent that causes adrenocortical suppression is: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propofol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiopentone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Etomidate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-29%20184051.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-29%20184253.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Etomidate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Etomidate causes adrenocortical suppression by inhibiting 11-beta hydroxylase enzyme in the adrenal cortex, making it unsuitable for use in critically ill or septic patients who require normal steroid function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person has suffered from chest trauma resulting in fracture of 2-6th ribs. He is being given pain relief by IV analgesic agents. Which of these blocks will be helpful in pain relief? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical plexus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Supraclavicular block", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thoracic epidural", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lumbar epidural", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thoracic epidural", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thoracic epidural</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thoracic epidural is the optimal choice for pain management in multiple rib fractures as it provides effective analgesia through continuous blockade of multiple thoracic dermatomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these statements is incorrect about Thiopentone? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is highly lipid soluble", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It achieves maximum concentration in brain after IV infusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Redistribution to adipose tissue and muscle is seen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The rapid decline in its effect is due to renal excretion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. The rapid decline in its effect is due to renal excretion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_5TiRYqp.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) The rapid decline in its effect is due to renal excretion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The rapid decline in thiopentone's anesthetic effect is due to redistribution to less perfused tissues, not renal excretion, explaining its ultra-short acting nature.</li><li>➤ THIOPENTONE</li><li>➤ T - Thiobarbiturates H - Hyperthyroidism I - Inadvertent intra-arterial Injection causes vasospasm (treatment - flush with NS, heparin, lignocaine) O - pH 10.5 (alkaline) P - pH Porphyrias (C/I) Prolongation of QT interval E - Epilepsy N - Neuroanesthesia (DOC) T - Termination of action - redistribution</li><li>➤ T - Thiobarbiturates</li><li>➤ H - Hyperthyroidism</li><li>➤ I - Inadvertent intra-arterial Injection causes vasospasm (treatment - flush with NS, heparin, lignocaine)</li><li>➤ O - pH 10.5 (alkaline)</li><li>➤ P - pH</li><li>➤ Porphyrias (C/I)</li><li>➤ Prolongation of QT interval</li><li>➤ E - Epilepsy</li><li>➤ N - Neuroanesthesia (DOC)</li><li>➤ T - Termination of action - redistribution</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Jackson Rees circuit is used in: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pediatric controlled ventilation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adult controlled ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obstetric ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac patients", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pediatric controlled ventilation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_TdavaWq.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_2eS5oRn.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_0we6aL2.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pediatric controlled ventilation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Jackson Rees circuit (Mapleson F) is specifically designed and used for pediatric anesthesia, suitable for both spontaneous and controlled ventilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "AMBU AURA40 is what generation LMA? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Second", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Third", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fourth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. First", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_aWg9jCx.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_7CKOYBx.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) First</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AMBU AURA40 is a first-generation LMA characterized by having only one tube for airway management without a separate gastric drainage channel.</li><li>➤ Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) Generations</li><li>➤ Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) Generations</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient complains of frequent episodes of red, painful eyes, stiffness, and back pain. He has sacroiliitis and anterior uveitis, according to the examination. Which HLA is frequently involved among the following? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HLA DR4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HLA DR3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HLA DQB1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HLA B27", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HLA B27", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) HLA B27</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The patient's symptoms of red painful eyes, stiffness, back pain, sacroiliitis, and anterior uveitis strongly indicates ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is strongly associated with this condition. Other HLA types are linked to various autoimmune diseases, HLA-B27 is the most strongly associated with this specific presentation.</li><li>➤ The patient's symptoms of red painful eyes, stiffness, back pain, sacroiliitis, and anterior uveitis strongly indicates ankylosing spondylitis.</li><li>➤ HLA-B27 is strongly associated with this condition.</li><li>➤ Other HLA types are linked to various autoimmune diseases, HLA-B27 is the most strongly associated with this specific presentation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman was taken to a trauma centre after suffering an accident. An X-ray of her pelvis was taken, and the image below demonstrates an intracapsular fracture neck of femur. In this instance, what is the management? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemiarthroplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ORIF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Closed Reduction + Internal fixation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Open + Closed Reduction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Closed Reduction + Internal fixation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20122253.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-21%20191613.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Closed reduction + internal fixation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a young patient, usually &lt; 65 years of age, the ideal treatment method for intracapsular femoral neck fractures is closed reduction and internal fixation using cancellous screws. CRIF saves the femoral head by providing stable fixation after reduction, minimizing additional trauma to the already compromised blood supply, and avoiding the long-term complications. ORIF is usually an option if CRIF fails, and hemiarthroplasty is reserved for older, less active individuals.</li><li>➤ In a young patient, usually &lt; 65 years of age, the ideal treatment method for intracapsular femoral neck fractures is closed reduction and internal fixation using cancellous screws.</li><li>➤ In a young patient, usually &lt; 65 years of age, the ideal treatment method for intracapsular femoral neck fractures is closed reduction and internal fixation using cancellous screws.</li><li>➤ CRIF saves the femoral head by providing stable fixation after reduction, minimizing additional trauma to the already compromised blood supply, and avoiding the long-term complications.</li><li>➤ CRIF saves the femoral head by providing stable fixation after reduction, minimizing additional trauma to the already compromised blood supply, and avoiding the long-term complications.</li><li>➤ ORIF is usually an option if CRIF fails, and hemiarthroplasty is reserved for older, less active individuals.</li><li>➤ ORIF is usually an option if CRIF fails, and hemiarthroplasty is reserved for older, less active individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient presented with fracture following a trivial fall. X-ray is shown below. Determine the reason of fracture in the patient. (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tubercular Hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brown Tumour", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bone Metastasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eosinophilic Granuloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bone Metastasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20122401.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20122415.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bone Metastasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most likely diagnosis for the provided x-ray and patient’s history of fracture following a fall is bone metastasis. Metastatic bone disease, common in elderly patients, often weakens the bone, making it prone to fracture, even with minimal trauma. The X-ray might show subtle changes suggestive of bone loss and/or a lesion, which could indicate the presence of metastatic disease.</li><li>➤ The most likely diagnosis for the provided x-ray and patient’s history of fracture following a fall is bone metastasis.</li><li>➤ Metastatic bone disease, common in elderly patients, often weakens the bone, making it prone to fracture, even with minimal trauma.</li><li>➤ The X-ray might show subtle changes suggestive of bone loss and/or a lesion, which could indicate the presence of metastatic disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which muscle on the other supporting side is problematic when standing on one leg? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iliacus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gluteus Medius", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gluteus maximus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quadratus Lumborum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gluteus Medius", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20122437.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20122500.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gluteus Medius</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gluteus medius muscle is crucial for hip abduction and pelvic stability. When standing on one leg, the gluteus medius on the supporting side works hard to prevent your pelvis from dropping towards the non-supporting side. Weakness in this muscle can lead to a Trendelenburg gait, where the pelvis dips excessively on the unsupported side.</li><li>➤ Gluteus medius muscle is crucial for hip abduction and pelvic stability.</li><li>➤ When standing on one leg, the gluteus medius on the supporting side works hard to prevent your pelvis from dropping towards the non-supporting side.</li><li>➤ Weakness in this muscle can lead to a Trendelenburg gait, where the pelvis dips excessively on the unsupported side.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which action will be impacted in PIN Palsy? (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supination of forearm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extension of fingers", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extension of elbow", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wrist drop", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Extension of fingers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Extension of fingers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PIN palsy is a neuropathic compression of the posterior interosseous nerve where it passes through the radial tunnel. This may result in paresis or paralysis of the digital and thumb extensor muscles, resulting in an inability to extend the thumb and fingers at their MCP joints. Wrist extension is preserved due to the action of the extensor carpi radialis longus innervated by the radial nerve.</li><li>➤ PIN palsy is a neuropathic compression of the posterior interosseous nerve where it passes through the radial tunnel.</li><li>➤ This may result in paresis or paralysis of the digital and thumb extensor muscles, resulting in an inability to extend the thumb and fingers at their MCP joints.</li><li>➤ Wrist extension is preserved due to the action of the extensor carpi radialis longus innervated by the radial nerve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "FRAX is related to: (INICET NOV 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fracture risk assessment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fracture rehabilitation assessment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fracture repair assessment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fracture reduction assessment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fracture risk assessment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-14%20122531.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fracture risk assessment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FRAX is a tool for prevention by identifying those at risk of fractures.</li><li>➤ FRAX is a tool for prevention by identifying those at risk of fractures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 238 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Neet Pg 2018 2018 01 07 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 300 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "The flipped LDH ratio implies:(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LDH 1 &gt; LDH 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "LDH2 &gt; LDH1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LDH 2 &gt; LDH 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LDH 3 &gt; LDH 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LDH 1 > LDH 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210193.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) LDH1 &gt; LDH 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of LDH -</li><li>➤ Types of LDH -</li><li>➤ LDH-1: Heart LDH-2: Blood LDH-3: Brain, kidney, lungs, spleen, pancreas LDH-4: Liver and skeletal muscle LDH-5: Liver and skeletal muscle</li><li>➤ LDH-1: Heart</li><li>➤ LDH-1:</li><li>➤ LDH-2: Blood</li><li>➤ LDH-2:</li><li>➤ LDH-3: Brain, kidney, lungs, spleen, pancreas</li><li>➤ LDH-3:</li><li>➤ LDH-4: Liver and skeletal muscle</li><li>➤ LDH-4:</li><li>➤ LDH-5: Liver and skeletal muscle</li><li>➤ LDH-5:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy complains of multiple episodes of acute severe pain in his fingers and toes which resolves on its own for the past 1 year. Which of the following conditions is he most likely suffering from? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha-thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta-thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Von Willebrand disease type 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sickle cell anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/nm10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-163858.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sickle cell anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sickle cell anemia should be suspected in patients who present with episodic acute pain in the extremities, a symptom commonly resulting from vaso-occlusive crises due to abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells blocking blood flow.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21 /Hemoglobinopathies/Chapter 98</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What alternative drug would you use for cardiac arrest if epinephrine is not effective? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vasopressin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Amiodarone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Amiodarone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Amiodarone is an effective alternative drug for cardiac arrest, particularly for ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia when initial defibrillation attempts have failed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely diagnosis for a 13-year-old boy with a history of chronic and recurrent itchy flexural lesions, considering his family history of asthma? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seborrheic dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atopic dermatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Allergic contact dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erysipelas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atopic dermatitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1294.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1295.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1296.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1297.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/1_ef9oUNS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Atopic dermatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Identify atopic dermatitis as a chronic, pruritic inflammatory skin disease commonly associated with flexural distribution of eczematous lesions and a family history of atopic conditions, such as asthma.</li><li>➤ atopic dermatitis</li><li>➤ chronic, pruritic inflammatory</li><li>➤ flexural distribution</li><li>➤ family history</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 2 Chapter 41 page no 41.1, 41.2, 41.13-19</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 2 Chapter 41 page no 41.1, 41.2, 41.13-19</li><li>↳ Rooks’ textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 3 Chapter 149 page no 149.21</li><li>↳ Rooks’ textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 3 Chapter 149 page no 149.21</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ https://www.jaad.org/article/S0190-9622(13)01095-5/fulltext</li><li>↳ https://www.jaad.org/article/S0190-9622(13)01095-5/fulltext</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of which of the following condition? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paragonimiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydatid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxoplasmosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cryptococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Toxoplasmosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Toxoplasmosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Sabin-Feldman dye test remains a gold standard for the serological diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis due to its ability to detect the presence of specific antibodies against Toxoplasma gondii, reflecting the body's immune response to the infection.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Skin test for diagnosis of parasitic infections:</li><li>➤ Casoni test – Hydatid disease Montenegro test – Kala azar Frenkel test – Toxoplasmosis Fairley test – Schistosomiasis Bachman test – Trichinellosis</li><li>➤ Casoni test – Hydatid disease</li><li>➤ Casoni test</li><li>➤ Montenegro test – Kala azar</li><li>➤ Montenegro test</li><li>➤ Frenkel test – Toxoplasmosis</li><li>➤ Fairley test – Schistosomiasis</li><li>➤ Bachman test – Trichinellosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Quadruple testing is done during? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "9-11 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "12-14 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "15-20 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "22-28 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 15-20 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 15-20 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Quadruple testing, also known as the quadruple screen or quad screen, is typically performed between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy, with the most accurate results obtained between 16-18 weeks. The test measures four serum analytes:</li><li>• Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) Unconjugated estriol (uE3) Free Beta-hCG Inhibin-A</li><li>• Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)</li><li>• Unconjugated estriol (uE3)</li><li>• Free Beta-hCG</li><li>• Inhibin-A</li><li>• This test helps assess the risk of certain chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and trisomy 18, as well as neural tube defects. The quad screen has a lower sensitivity compared to the first trimester combined screening (which includes nuchal translucency and dual marker screening), making it particularly useful for women who present for prenatal care later in pregnancy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 9-11 weeks : This timeframe is generally used for first trimester screening tests, such as the combined screening, which includes nuchal translucency and the dual marker test (free β-hCG and PAPP-A).</li><li>• Option A. 9-11 weeks</li><li>• Option B. 12-14 weeks : This period is also used for the combined first trimester screening but is not appropriate for the quad screen.</li><li>• Option B. 12-14 weeks</li><li>• Option D. 22-28 weeks : This period is outside the recommended timeframe for the quad screen. Tests in this period are more focused on gestational diabetes screening and routine ultrasounds.</li><li>• Option D. 22-28 weeks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The quadruple test is performed between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy to screen for chromosomal abnormalities and neural tube defects.</li><li>➤ Easy to remember : In Down Syndrome, Beta hCG and Inhibin A are increases (B – Big; B in Beta hCG, B in Inhibin A)</li><li>➤ Easy to remember</li><li>➤ *King Edward Abdicated his throne so all levels are decreased</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient develops prosthetic valve endocarditis 2 years after valve replacement surgery. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococcus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coagulase negative staphylococci", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HACEK organisms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Streptococcus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Streptococcus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis:</li><li>➤ Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis:</li><li>➤ Early (&lt; 2 months): CONS &gt; S. Aureus Late (&gt; 2-12 months): Similar to native valve -S. viridans</li><li>➤ Early (&lt; 2 months): CONS &gt; S. Aureus</li><li>➤ Early (&lt; 2 months):</li><li>➤ Late (&gt; 2-12 months): Similar to native valve -S. viridans</li><li>➤ Late (&gt; 2-12 months):</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy presents with bitemporal hemianopia. CT is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pituitary adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meningioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Craniopharyngioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oligodendroglioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Craniopharyngioma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_N5SX1Ea.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Craniopharyngioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Craniopharyngioma should be considered in young patients presenting with symptoms of visual field loss and a calcified suprasellar mass on imaging. This tumor's characteristic location and calcification are key diagnostic clues.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference– Grainger &amp; Allison’s Diagnostic Radiology Essentials, Second Edition, Page No 742</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can alter the gene expression by methylation and acetylation but not change the gene sequence? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epigenetics", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Translocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inversion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epigenetics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Epigenetics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epigenetics has been defined and today is generally accepted as ‘‘ the study of changes in gene function that are mitotically and/or meiotically heritable and that do not entail a change in DNA sequence.</li><li>➤ the study of changes in gene function that are mitotically and/or meiotically heritable and that do not entail a change in DNA sequence.</li><li>➤ Epigenetic modification of core histones (acetylation of specific lysine residues) facilitates an open structure and permits access to transcription factors for interaction with DNA. On the other hand, methylation at the CG sequence of the promoters transcriptionally inactivates chromatin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the recommended time gap between the application of two live vaccines? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "8 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 4 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ General rules for multiple vaccine administration: –</li><li>➤ General rules for multiple vaccine administration: –</li><li>➤ 2 live vaccines can be given together Live and killed vaccines can be given together Cholera vaccine and Yellow fever vaccine cannot be given together OPV is a live vaccine where single dose is not sufficient for immunization 2 live vaccines can be administered simultaneously at different sites (or at an interval of 4 weeks)</li><li>➤ 2 live vaccines can be given together</li><li>➤ Live and killed vaccines can be given together</li><li>➤ Cholera vaccine and Yellow fever vaccine cannot be given together</li><li>➤ OPV is a live vaccine where single dose is not sufficient for immunization</li><li>➤ 2 live vaccines can be administered simultaneously at different sites (or at an interval of 4 weeks)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument given in the image below: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deaver’s retractor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Morrison retractor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": " Czerny’s retractor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Double hook retractor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Morrison retractor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture3333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/whatsapp-image-2023-11-07-at-141825.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/whatsapp-image-2023-11-07-at-142231.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Morrison retractor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Morrison retractor is used during abdominal surgeries, specifically to retract the liver and expose the retroperitoneal space.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bacterial transduction occurs by? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasmids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sex pili", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacteriophage", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uptake of genetic material by other bacteria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bacteriophage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bacteriophage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transduction facilitated by bacteriophages represents a crucial mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria, contributing to genetic diversity and the spread of traits such as antibiotic resistance among bacterial populations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are components responsible for the countercurrent mechanism in the kidney except? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sodium outflow in thick ascending limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Water outflow in thin descending limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sodium outflow in thin ascending limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flow of tubular fluid from PCT and DCT", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Flow of tubular fluid from PCT and DCT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Flow of tubular fluid from PCT and DCT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• PCT and DCT is not a component of the countercurrent mechanism.</li><li>• Countercurrent system has two divisions:</li><li>• Countercurrent multiplier formed by loop of Henle &amp; Medullary CD Countercurrent exchanger formed by vasa recta.</li><li>• Countercurrent multiplier formed by loop of Henle &amp; Medullary CD</li><li>• Countercurrent exchanger formed by vasa recta.</li><li>• The major factors that contribute to the buildup of solute concentration into the renal medulla are as follows:</li><li>• Ascending limb of loop of Henle - thick portion (Active transport) and thin portion (Passive transport) of sodium ions and co-transport of potassium, chloride, and other ions into the medullary interstitium Descending limb of loop of Henle – Passive transport of water from the tubules to interstitium Inner medullary collecting ducts - facilitated diffusion of large amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium</li><li>• Ascending limb of loop of Henle - thick portion (Active transport) and thin portion (Passive transport) of sodium ions and co-transport of potassium, chloride, and other ions into the medullary interstitium</li><li>• Descending limb of loop of Henle – Passive transport of water from the tubules to interstitium</li><li>• Inner medullary collecting ducts - facilitated diffusion of large amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Sodium outflow in thick ascending limb : Incorrect as exclusion because it is a key component of the countercurrent multiplier, actively transporting sodium out of the tubular fluid.</li><li>• Option A. Sodium outflow in thick ascending limb</li><li>• Option B. Water outflow in thin descending limb : Incorrect as exclusion because it contributes to the countercurrent mechanism by allowing water to passively leave the tubular fluid, increasing its concentration.</li><li>• Option B. Water outflow in thin descending limb</li><li>• Option C. Sodium outflow in thin ascending limb : Incorrect as exclusion; although less active than the thick segment, it still participates in sodium transport.</li><li>• Option C. Sodium outflow in thin ascending limb</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The flow of tubular fluid from the PCT and DCT is not a component of the kidney's countercurrent mechanism, which primarily involves the loop of Henle and medullary collecting ducts in actively and passively managing solute and water concentrations to concentrate urine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Bragg peak effect is pronounced in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proton", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neutron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Proton", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Proton</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Proton beam therapy characteristics:</li><li>➤ Proton beam therapy characteristics:</li><li>➤ It has marked effect with increased depth in the soft tissues. Bragg's peak is their peculiar feature. Ideal agents for treating deep seated tumors. Agent of choice for treatment of clival chordomas.</li><li>➤ It has marked effect with increased depth in the soft tissues.</li><li>➤ Bragg's peak is their peculiar feature.</li><li>➤ Ideal agents for treating deep seated tumors.</li><li>➤ Ideal agents for treating deep seated tumors.</li><li>➤ Agent of choice for treatment of clival chordomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which organ is the earliest to undergo putrefaction from the given options? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prostate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Brain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Brain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The order of organ putrefaction (early to late) is as follows:</li><li>➤ Larynx and trachea Liver and lungs Brain Heart Kidney Prostate and Non Gravid uterus Skin, muscle, tendons Bones and teeth</li><li>➤ Larynx and trachea</li><li>➤ Liver and lungs</li><li>➤ Brain</li><li>➤ Heart</li><li>➤ Kidney</li><li>➤ Prostate and Non Gravid uterus</li><li>➤ Skin, muscle, tendons</li><li>➤ Bones and teeth</li><li>➤ Prostate and Non gravid uterus are organs which putrefy very late. The gravid uterus putrefies earlier.</li><li>➤ Mnemonic: LBHK</li><li>➤ Mnemonic:</li><li>➤ L for larynx, liver, lungs, B for brain H for Heart, K for Kidney</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The best method to obtain tissue for the diagnosis of pancreatic carcinoma is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transgastric FNAC guided by endoscopic ultrasound", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI-guided biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopic-guided biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Percutaneous transperitoneal biopsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transgastric FNAC guided by endoscopic ultrasound", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Transgastric FNAC guided by endoscopic ultrasound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transgastric FNAC guided by endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) is the preferred method for diagnosing pancreatic carcinoma due to its high diagnostic accuracy and minimally invasive nature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not an OCD related disorder?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hair pulling disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temper tantrums", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hoarding disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin picking", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Temper tantrums", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Temper tantrums</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Obsessive-compulsive or related disorders are classified as:</li><li>➤ Obsessive-compulsive disorder Body dysmorphic disorder Hoarding disorder Trichotillomania Excoriation disorder</li><li>➤ Obsessive-compulsive disorder</li><li>➤ Body dysmorphic disorder</li><li>➤ Hoarding disorder</li><li>➤ Trichotillomania</li><li>➤ Excoriation disorder</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 418-436.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following nerve develops from second brachial arch?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vagal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Facial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-120620.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-107.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-108.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Facial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the characteristic pattern seen in Brown-Sequard syndrome? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contralateral loss of joint sense and position", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contralateral loss of pain sensation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ipsilateral loss of complete sensory functions", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contralateral motor functions", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Contralateral loss of pain sensation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Contralateral loss of pain sensation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Brown-Sequard syndrome, the characteristic neurological pattern includes ipsilateral motor weakness and proprioceptive loss, alongside contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation, due to a lateral hemisection of the spinal cord.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old emmetropic man is no longer able to read with the presbyopic glasses he had made 5 years ago. The power of his new prescription glasses should be:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "+1.5 D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "+2D", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "+3D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "+4D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. +2D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-191038.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. +2D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Roughly, the power of prescription glasses age-wise is as follows:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mycoplasma is inherently resistant to which of the following antibiotics? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta lactam antibiotics", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Macrolides", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fluoroquinolones", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Beta lactam antibiotics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Beta lactam antibiotics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The unique features of Mycoplasma is the absence of a cell wall, this is why beta-lactam antibiotics are not suitable for treating infections caused by Mycoplasma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following acts by causing both decreased bone resorption and increased bone formation? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strontium ranelate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ibandronate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Teriparatide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcitonin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Strontium ranelate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Strontium ranelate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Strontium ranelate is unique among osteoporosis treatments in that it both decreases bone resorption and increases bone formation, making it a valuable option for improving bone health in patients with osteoporosis. Other drugs like ibandronate and calcitonin primarily focus on reducing bone resorption, while teriparatide promotes bone formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following should be avoided by a patient of fish odor syndrome?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biotin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Choline", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pantothenic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Choline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Choline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fish odor syndrome (trimethylaminuria) is a metabolic syndrome caused by abnormal excretion of trimethylamine in the breath, urine, sweat, saliva and vaginal secretions . Trimethylamine is derived from the intestinal bacterial degradation of foods rich in choline and carnitine and is normally oxidized by the liver to odorless trimethylamine N-oxide which is then excreted in the urine. Impaired oxidation of trimethylamine due to the deficiency of flavin containing mono oxygenase 3 (FMO3 ) is thought to be the cause of the fish odor syndrome and is responsible for the smell of rotting fish.</li><li>➤ caused by abnormal excretion of trimethylamine in the breath, urine, sweat, saliva and vaginal secretions</li><li>➤ due to the deficiency of flavin containing mono oxygenase 3 (FMO3</li><li>➤ Foods like eggs, liver, peanuts, meat, poultry, fish, dairy foods, pasta and rice are to be avoided.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which trimester does acute fatty liver manifest most commonly during pregnancy? ( NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First trimester", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Second trimester", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Third trimester", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Third trimester", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Third trimester</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a life-threatening medical disorder involving the liver. It most commonly manifests during the late second and third trimester of pregnancy. The diagnosis is made by the Swansea Criteria, wherein 6 or more of the following are required to make the diagnosis:</li><li>• Vomiting Abdominal pain Polydipsia, polyuria Encephalopathy Coagulopathy (raised PT, aPTT) Increased bilirubin Increased uric acid levels Increased creatinine Leukocytosis Hypoglycemia Raised liver enzymes Raised serum ammonia levels Ascites or bright liver on ultrasound Microvascular steatosis on liver biopsy</li><li>• Vomiting</li><li>• Abdominal pain</li><li>• Polydipsia, polyuria</li><li>• Encephalopathy</li><li>• Coagulopathy (raised PT, aPTT)</li><li>• Increased bilirubin</li><li>• Increased uric acid levels</li><li>• Increased creatinine</li><li>• Leukocytosis</li><li>• Hypoglycemia</li><li>• Raised liver enzymes</li><li>• Raised serum ammonia levels</li><li>• Ascites or bright liver on ultrasound</li><li>• Microvascular steatosis on liver biopsy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) most commonly manifests during the third trimester of pregnancy and is diagnosed using the Swansea Criteria.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2684, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2684, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The heart starts to beat in which week?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2nd week", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4th week", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "6th week", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10th week", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4th week", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 4th week</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The heart starts to beat in the 4th week of development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old man presented with a noticeable swelling in his scrotum. After careful evaluation, a decision was made to perform an orchidectomy. The histopathological examination of the tissue reveals the following findings. Based on these findings which of the following diagnoses best describes the patient's condition? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seminoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": " Yolk-sac tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Embryonal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " Teratoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Seminoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture10000.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Seminoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Seminoma is a type of germ cell tumor characterized by large, uniform, polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm, distinct cell borders, and prominent central nucleoli, often presenting as a well-circumscribed, gray-white, fleshy mass without hemorrhage or necrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following instrument is used for: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Septoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myringoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myringotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenoidectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Myringotomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/3_57M2che.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/4_VAHCaZh.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Myringotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The myringotome is crucial for performing a myringotomy, allowing for precise incisions in the tympanic membrane to address issues such as serous otitis media. The instrument's design facilitates targeted, clean cuts to insert grommets if needed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A elderly patient presents with cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, and peripheral neuropathy. Which investigation should be performed next to help you diagnose the condition? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ANCA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "RA factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HbsAg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DIF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ANCA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-163807.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. ANCA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Features are suggestive of small vessel vasculitis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Vasculitis syndrome/Chap 363</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fimbriectomy is also known as? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pomeroy technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uchida's procedure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kroner's procedure", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Irving's procedure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kroner's procedure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Kroner’s procedure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Fimbriectomy is a method of tubal ligation where the fimbriated end of the Fallopian tube is ligated and excised. This technique is also known as Kroner’s procedure.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Pomeroy technique : In this method, the mid-isthmic portion of the Fallopian tube is elevated and then folded at the midpoint. One or two rapidly absorbable sutures are tied around the double thickness of the tube, and the folded portion is excised sharply.</li><li>• Option A. Pomeroy technique</li><li>• Option B. Uchida's procedure : This involves ligating and excising the midportion of the Fallopian tube. The utero-tubal serosa is then hydro-dissected, and the proximal tubal stump is pulled into the mesosalpinx. The peritoneum is closed over the proximal cut end of the tube.</li><li>• Option B. Uchida's procedure</li><li>• Option D. Irving's procedure : In this method, the midportion of the Fallopian tube is ligated and excised. The proximal tubal stump is inserted into an incision made into the myometrium and securely sutured to bury the proximal stump in the myometrium.</li><li>• Option D. Irving's procedure</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fimbriectomy, also known as Kroner's procedure, involves ligation and excision of the fimbriated end of the Fallopian tube.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 497, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 497, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Coagulation profile monitoring is needed in therapy with which of the following drugs? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fondaparinux", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enoxaparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dabigatran", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lepirudin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lepirudin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lepirudin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Lepirudin, a direct thrombin inhibitor, requires regular monitoring of the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) due to its potential for unpredictable anticoagulant effects and the risk of serious bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following scan is of a young woman on oral contraceptives. The most likely diagnosis is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatocellular carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metastatic infiltrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatic adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemangioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hepatic adenoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_lTp4y0Q.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_189.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hepatic adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatic adenomas are benign liver tumors often associated with the use of oral contraceptive pills (OCPs). They occur more frequently in young women and are known for their risk of hemorrhage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an opsonin? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C3a", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C3b", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C5a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. C3b", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) C3b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ C3b is an opsonin important in the immune system for marking pathogens for phagocytosis, enhancing the body's ability to clear infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Modified shock index is calculated using? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HR/SBP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HR/DBP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HR/MAP", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "PR/SBP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HR/MAP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. HR/MAP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Modified shock index = HR/MAP</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following cranial nerve nuclei are part of special visceral afferent column except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trochlear nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vagus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trochlear nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-125450.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/picture10-inicet-may-2023-1.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Trochlear nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about DNA polymerase I? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is involved in the creation of Okazaki fragments", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is found in prokaryotes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It synthesizes RNA primers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is the primary enzyme of DNA synthesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is found in prokaryotes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture3_r2tDOYK.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It is found in prokaryotes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DNA polymerase I is a critical enzyme found in prokaryotes, involved in DNA replication and repair. While it plays key roles, including the removal of RNA primers from Okazaki fragments, DNA polymerase III is the primary enzyme for DNA synthesis in these organisms</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an epithelial tumor of the stomach? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carcinoid tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastric adenocarcinoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gastric adenocarcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/3_0ateZOy.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-114417.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Gastric adenocarcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the Mallampati class of this patient? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Class II", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Class I", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Class IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Class III", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Class II", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/whatsapp-image-2023-07-07-at-114209-am.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/untitled-966.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Class II</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Mallampati classification is a useful tool for predicting the difficulty of intubation, with higher classes indicating more challenging airways. The image provided corresponds to Mallampati class II, where the soft palate and base of the uvula are visible.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the last fontanelle to close? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Occipital", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mastoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-99.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-144552.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Anterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The X Ray of the skull as shown in the image given below is seen in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paget's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hyperparathyroidism", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_XTScOBb.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_187.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hyperparathyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radiological skull features of hyperparathyroidism are:</li><li>➤ Radiological skull features of hyperparathyroidism are:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is your diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mongolian spot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Naevus of Ito", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital melanocytic naevus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Becker's naevus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Becker's naevus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/426.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-120935.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Becker's naevus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Becker's naevus is a patchy, hyperpigmented lesion that often develops during adolescence and may include hypertrichosi s, distinguishing it from congenital conditions such as Mongolian spots, Naevus of Ito, and congenital melanocytic naevi.</li><li>➤ Becker's naevus</li><li>➤ patchy, hyperpigmented</li><li>➤ adolescence</li><li>➤ hypertrichosi</li><li>➤ congenital</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Bolognia 4 th edition, chapter 112, page no 2232</li><li>↳ Question Level – EASY</li><li>↳ Question Level – EASY</li><li>↳ Question Id-7443 Unique Key-Q6167342</li><li>↳ Question Id-7443 Unique Key-Q6167342</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are indications for surgical intervention in abdominal aortic aneurysms? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Size more than 5.5 cm in males", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Patient is experiencing abdominal pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expansion of &gt;0.5 cm within 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Abdominal aortic aneurysms require surgical intervention if the size exceeds 5.5 cm in males, the patient presents with abdominal pain, or if there is an expansion of more than 0.5 cm within 6 months.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The best type of anesthesia for pre-eclampsia is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spinal anesthesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidural anesthesia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "General anesthesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caudal block", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epidural anesthesia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Epidural anesthesia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epidural anesthesia is preferred for pre-eclampsia due to its ability to provide effective pain relief, avoid airway manipulation, and minimize drug passage to the fetus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is associated with QT prolongation? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lignocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quinidine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Magnesium sulfate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Quinidine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Quinidine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Quinidine, a Class Ia antiarrhythmic drug, is associated with QT prolongation and can lead to Torsades de Pointes due to its action on both sodium and potassium channels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where is the electrode placed in cochlear implant procedures? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Round window", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oval window", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scala vestibuli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scala tympani", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Scala tympani", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_219.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Scala tympani</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The scala tympani is the preferred site for electrode placement in cochlear implant surgery to ensure optimal auditory nerve stimulation, highlighting the importance of precision in surgical approaches to maximize the benefits of the implant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false regarding scleredema?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Can occur in association with diabetes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Associated with sclerodactyly and Raynaud’s phenomenon", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The dermis is 3-4 times thicker than normal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythema and peau d'orange appearance of the skin can be seen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Associated with sclerodactyly and Raynaud’s phenomenon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1300.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-164948.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Associated with sclerodactyly or Raynaud’s phenomenon.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Bolognia 4 th edition, chapter 46, page no 870</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 59 page no 59.09 - 59.11.</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 59 page no 59.09 - 59.11.</li><li>↳ Question Level – HARD</li><li>↳ Question Level – HARD</li><li>↳ Question Id-7440 Unique Key-Q1728345</li><li>↳ Question Id-7440 Unique Key-Q1728345</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subcutaneous nodules", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sjogren's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Felty's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vasculitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Subcutaneous nodules", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/organ-involved.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-163519.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-163628.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Subcutaneous nodules</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Additional Information Deformities</li><li>➤ Additional Information Deformities</li><li>➤ 1. Pseudo Deformities</li><li>➤ 1. Pseudo Deformities</li><li>➤ 2. True Deformities</li><li>➤ 2. True Deformities</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Pocket Medicine 8E/2022</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause of ventriculomegaly in newborns? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arnold-Chiari malformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dandy-Walker syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arachnoid villi malformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aqueductal stenosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aqueductal stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/23/screenshot-2024-02-23-124444.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Aqueductal stenosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aqueductal stenosis is the leading cause of ventriculomegaly in newborns due to the narrowing or obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct, leading to hydrocephalus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Heller's operation is done for: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Achalasia cardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carcinoma esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esophageal stricture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Achalasia cardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Achalasia cardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Heller's myotomy is a surgical procedure used to treat achalasia cardia by cutting the lower esophageal sphincter muscle to relieve obstruction and improve swallowing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is true about ovotesticular disorders of sex development? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Karyotype is 46 XY", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovotestis is seen in the gonadal biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The response of testosterone to hCG is increased", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterus is usually absent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ovotestis is seen in the gonadal biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ovotestis is seen in the gonadal biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ovotesticular disorder of sex development is characterized by the presence of both ovarian and testicular tissues, typically with a 46, XX karyotype and possible SRY gene translocation, and can present with ovotestis seen on gonadal biopsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn baby refuses breast milk since the 2nd day of birth but accepts glucose water. He develops vomiting and severe jaundice by the 5th day. Benedict's test was positive for urine and blood glucose was low. The most likely cause is due to the deficiency of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aldose reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Galactokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "UDP galactose-4-epimerase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture6_gNj26fN.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase deficiency, or classic galactosemia, is a severe metabolic disorder marked by an inability to metabolize galactose properly, leading to serious systemic symptoms including jaundice, hypoglycemia, and liver dysfunction. Early diagnosis and management through dietary adjustments are crucial for preventing long-term complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When is dilatation and curettage contraindicated? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pelvic inflammatory disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Menstrual irregularities", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pelvic inflammatory disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pelvic inflammatory disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) includes endometritis, salpingitis, oophoritis, and parametritis. Any interventions like dilatation and curettage (D&amp;C) are contraindicated in active PID due to the risk of exacerbating the infection and causing further complications.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Ectopic pregnancy : D&amp;C is not contraindicated in ectopic pregnancy; however, it is not typically performed in its management as it does not provide any benefit for this condition.</li><li>• Option B. Ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Option C. Menstrual irregularities : D&amp;C can be performed to obtain an endometrial biopsy in peri-menopausal women with abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) if there are no other identifiable causes and if endometrial hyperplasia or malignancy is suspected.</li><li>• Option C. Menstrual irregularities</li><li>• Option D. Endometriosis : D&amp;C is not usually performed solely for endometriosis unless there is an associated AUB that needs to be evaluated or treated.</li><li>• Option D. Endometriosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dilatation and curettage (D&amp;C) is contraindicated in active pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) due to the risk of spreading the infection</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 168, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 168, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Prolonged bleeding time is seen in? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemophilia A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemophilia B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Von Willebrand disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemophilia C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Von Willebrand disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Von Willebrand disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prolonged bleeding time and prolonged APTT is seen in Von Willebrand disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is defined as the emotional release and discharge after consciously reliving a painful experience that has been repressed? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Catharsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abreaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Venting out", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guided relaxation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Abreaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Abreaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In abreaction, an attempt is made to bring the unconscious memories and emotions into conscious awareness using hypnosis, medications and other techniques.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 860.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the transporter of iron into enterocytes? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ferroportin 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hephaestin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Divalent Metal Transporter 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Divalent Metal Transporter 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Divalent Metal Transporter 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Divalent Metal Transporter 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Iron uptake into enterocytes is primarily facilitated by the Divalent Metal Transporter 1 (DMT1), which actively transports ferrous iron (Fe2+) across the apical membrane of these cells. The process involves several steps:</li><li>• Reduction of Iron : Luminal non-heme iron, predominantly in the ferric (Fe3+) state, must first be reduced to ferrous (Fe2+) iron. This reduction is carried out by ferrireductases like b cytochromes and STEAP3. Transport via DMT1 : Once reduced to Fe2+, iron is transported into the enterocytes through DMT1 located on the apical membrane. Exit from Enterocytes : After crossing into the enterocyte, Fe2+ destined for the circulation is exported across the basolateral membrane by Ferroportin. This export is coupled with the oxidation of Fe2+ back to Fe3+ by iron oxidases such as hephaestin and ceruloplasmin.</li><li>• Reduction of Iron : Luminal non-heme iron, predominantly in the ferric (Fe3+) state, must first be reduced to ferrous (Fe2+) iron. This reduction is carried out by ferrireductases like b cytochromes and STEAP3.</li><li>• Reduction of Iron</li><li>• Transport via DMT1 : Once reduced to Fe2+, iron is transported into the enterocytes through DMT1 located on the apical membrane.</li><li>• Transport via DMT1</li><li>• Exit from Enterocytes : After crossing into the enterocyte, Fe2+ destined for the circulation is exported across the basolateral membrane by Ferroportin. This export is coupled with the oxidation of Fe2+ back to Fe3+ by iron oxidases such as hephaestin and ceruloplasmin.</li><li>• Exit from Enterocytes</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Ferroportin 1 : Incorrect as Ferroportin is responsible for the export of iron from enterocytes into the blood, not for iron uptake into enterocytes.</li><li>• Option A. Ferroportin 1</li><li>• Option B. Hephaestin : Incorrect because hephaestin is involved in the oxidation of Fe2+ to Fe3+ during iron export from enterocytes, not in the uptake.</li><li>• Option B. Hephaestin</li><li>• Option D. Divalent Metal Transporter 2 : Incorrect as DMT2 is not the primary transporter involved in the uptake of iron into enterocytes.</li><li>• Option D. Divalent Metal Transporter 2</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Divalent Metal Transporter 1 (DMT1) is critical for the uptake of ferrous iron (Fe2+) into enterocytes from the intestinal lumen, functioning in conjunction with enzymes that reduce ferric (Fe3+) to ferrous (Fe2+) iron.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct order of layers incised while performing a fasciotomy for compartment syndrome? ( NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skin and Subcutaneous tissue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Skin, Subcutaneous tissue, Superficial fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skin, Subcutaneous tissue, Superficial fascia and Deep fascia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin, Subcutaneous tissue, Superficial fascia, Deep fascia and a few muscular fibers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Skin, Subcutaneous tissue, Superficial fascia and Deep fascia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-125100.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Skin, Subcutaneous tissue, Superficial fascia and Deep fascia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During a fasciotomy for compartment syndrome, the incision must pass through the skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, and deep fascia to adequately decompress the affected muscle compartments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is incorrect about non-invasive prenatal testing? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It uses cell-free circulating fetal DNA in the maternal serum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is used for the diagnosis of trisomy 13, 18 and 21", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It can be performed after 10 weeks of gestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is done after the routine first trimester ultrasound assessment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is used for the diagnosis of trisomy 13, 18 and 21", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It is used for the diagnosis of trisomy 13, 18, and 21</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. It uses cell-free fetal DNA circulating in the maternal serum to screen for certain genetic conditions, including trisomies 13, 18, and 21.</li><li>• NIPT is not used for diagnosis but for screening. It has high sensitivity (about 99%) for detecting trisomies 21, 18, and 13, but positive results must be confirmed with diagnostic tests such as chorionic villus sampling (CVS) or amniocentesis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. It uses cell-free circulating fetal DNA in the maternal serum : Correct. NIPT uses cell-free circulating fetal DNA in the maternal serum to assess the risk of certain genetic conditions in the fetus.</li><li>• Option A. It uses cell-free circulating fetal DNA in the maternal serum</li><li>• Option C. It can be performed after 10 weeks of gestation : Correct. NIPT can be performed after 10 weeks of gestation, when there is enough fetal DNA in the maternal blood for accurate analysis.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• It can be performed after 10 weeks of gestation</li><li>• Option D. It is done after the routine first trimester ultrasound assessment : Correct. NIPT is often done after the routine first trimester ultrasound assessment, which helps determine gestational age and detect multiple pregnancies or major anomalies.</li><li>• Option D. It is done after the routine first trimester ultrasound assessment</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) is a screening test for aneuploidy using cell-free fetal DNA in maternal serum, typically performed after 10 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 890, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 890, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the odor of a mummified body? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Odorless", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pungent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Putrid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Offensive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Odorless", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Odorless</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A mummified body is odorless due to its dry and preserved state, an adipocere body which has foul rancid smell (like decomposing fats)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most common end-product of fatty acid synthesis pathway? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arachidonic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oleic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Palmitic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetyl CoA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Palmitic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Palmitic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fatty acids are synthesized from acetyl CoA mainly by a de novo synthetic pathway operating in the cytoplasm referred to as extramitochondrial or cytoplasmic fatty acid synthase system.</li><li>➤ The major fatty acid synthesized de novo is palmitic acid, the 16C saturated fatty acid . The process occurs in liver, adipose tissue, kidney, brain, and mammary glands.</li><li>➤ The major fatty acid synthesized de novo is palmitic acid, the 16C saturated fatty acid</li><li>➤ Beta oxidation of fatty acids breaks it down into Acetyl CoA.</li><li>➤ Defect in pathway - Inhibition of lipogenesis occurs in type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, and variations in its activity affect the nature and extent of obesity.</li><li>➤ Defect in pathway</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The joint between the attachment of the 8th and 9th rib with 7th rib is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibrocartilaginous joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Symphyseal joint", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synovial joint", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibrous joint", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Synovial joint", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-114321.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-97.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Synovial joint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a screening examination conducted on a population of 1000 individuals for diabetes mellitus (DM), 90 individuals tested positive. Subsequently, a gold standard test for DM was performed, identifying 100 positive cases. What is the calculated sensitivity? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "90/100", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "100/110", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "(90-10)/1000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "90/1000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 90/100", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-092605.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 90/100</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sensitivity is the proportion of true positive cases correctly identified by a screening test out of all actual positive cases identified by the gold standard test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman presents with obstructed labor and is grossly dehydrated. Investigations reveal fetal demise. What will be the management? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Craniotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decapitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cesarean section", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Forceps extraction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cesarean section", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cesarean section</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Obstructed labor is a direct indication for an emergency cesarean section Obstructed labor happens when despite good uterine contractions, labor does not progress due to problems in the maternal pelvis/ fetus or a mechanical obstruction Features of Obstructed Labor: Maternal exhaustion and dehydration Abdominal examination Upper segment is tonically contracted with no relaxation The wall becomes thicker Lower segment becomes distended and thinned out Fetal parts not easily felt Round ligaments taut and tender Bandl’s ring is felt (Retraction ring) Fetal heart rate absent Vaginal exam Vagina feels hot and dry Cervix hangs loosely like a curtain Caput +++ Moulding +++ Head feels jammed in the pelvis The mainstay of management will be to start IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. Emergency LSCS is the rule in Obstructed labor even in a dead fetus</li><li>• Obstructed labor is a direct indication for an emergency cesarean section</li><li>• Obstructed labor happens when despite good uterine contractions, labor does not progress due to problems in the maternal pelvis/ fetus or a mechanical obstruction</li><li>• Features of Obstructed Labor:</li><li>• Maternal exhaustion and dehydration</li><li>• Abdominal examination Upper segment is tonically contracted with no relaxation The wall becomes thicker Lower segment becomes distended and thinned out Fetal parts not easily felt Round ligaments taut and tender Bandl’s ring is felt (Retraction ring) Fetal heart rate absent</li><li>• Upper segment is tonically contracted with no relaxation The wall becomes thicker Lower segment becomes distended and thinned out Fetal parts not easily felt Round ligaments taut and tender Bandl’s ring is felt (Retraction ring) Fetal heart rate absent</li><li>• Upper segment is tonically contracted with no relaxation The wall becomes thicker</li><li>• Lower segment becomes distended and thinned out</li><li>• Fetal parts not easily felt</li><li>• Round ligaments taut and tender</li><li>• Bandl’s ring is felt (Retraction ring)</li><li>• Fetal heart rate absent</li><li>• Vaginal exam Vagina feels hot and dry Cervix hangs loosely like a curtain Caput +++ Moulding +++ Head feels jammed in the pelvis</li><li>• Vagina feels hot and dry Cervix hangs loosely like a curtain Caput +++ Moulding +++ Head feels jammed in the pelvis</li><li>• Vagina feels hot and dry</li><li>• Cervix hangs loosely like a curtain</li><li>• Caput +++</li><li>• Moulding +++</li><li>• Head feels jammed in the pelvis</li><li>• The mainstay of management will be to start IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.</li><li>• Emergency LSCS is the rule in Obstructed labor even in a dead fetus</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Craniotomy : This is a destructive fetal operation which is not preferred anymore even in a non-viable fetus/ dead fetus. It can be done if ffacilities for immediate cesarean are not available. The main indications for fetal craniotomy are:</li><li>• Option A. Craniotomy</li><li>• Cephalic presentation with obstructed labour Hydrocephalus in a living fetus Interlocking head of twins Aftercoming head of breech</li><li>• Cephalic presentation with obstructed labour</li><li>• Hydrocephalus in a living fetus</li><li>• Interlocking head of twins</li><li>• Aftercoming head of breech</li><li>• Option B. Decapitation : It is severing of the fetal head from the trunk. It is a destructive operation and again is not preferred unless facilities for emergency LSCS are not available or in exceptional circumstances. Indications are</li><li>• Option B. Decapitation</li><li>• Indications are</li><li>• Neglected shoulder with a dead fetus Locked twins</li><li>• Neglected shoulder with a dead fetus</li><li>• Locked twins</li><li>• Option D. Forceps extraction : Instrumental delivery is contra-indicated in obstructed labor. CPD should be ruled out prior to applying an instrument (Forceps or vacuum)</li><li>• Option D. Forceps extraction</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of obstructed labor, an emergency cesarean section is the recommended management, even if the fetus is deceased.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 421, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 421, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common site for an extragonadal germ cell tumor? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pineal gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retroperitoneum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sacrococcygeal region", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mediastinum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mediastinum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mediastinum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Common sites of extragonadal germ cell tumor –</li><li>➤ Common sites of extragonadal germ cell tumor –</li><li>➤ Mediastinum (50-70%) Retroperitoneum (30-40%) Pineal gland (5%) Sacrococcygeal area (less than 5%)</li><li>➤ Mediastinum (50-70%)</li><li>➤ Retroperitoneum (30-40%)</li><li>➤ Pineal gland (5%)</li><li>➤ Sacrococcygeal area (less than 5%)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cytotoxic and expired medications are appropriately discarded through: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dumping", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autoclave", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incineration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemical disinfection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Incineration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-092426.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Incineration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Multiple abscesses with discharging sinuses, demonstrating sulphur granules in pus, are caused by: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Actinomyces", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nocardia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tularemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Actinomyces", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Actinomyces</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Actinomycosis, particularly its cervicofacial form, is characterized by the formation of abscesses that discharge pus containing sulfur granules. This hallmark feature helps in diagnosing the disease, which requires prolonged antibiotic therapy due to its chronic and indurative nature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A posthumous child can be best defined as: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delivery of a macerated fetus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Child is delivered after death of biological father", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Child is born to an unmarried couple", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Child is abandoned by the parents", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Child is delivered after death of biological father", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Child is delivered after death of biological father</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A posthumous child is one who is born after the death of one of their biological parents, most commonly the father.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pseudo P pulmonale is seen in which electrolyte abnormality? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyponatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypercalcemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypokalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-164018.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hypokalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these options is NOT a means of directly transmitting communicable diseases? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vertical transmission", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contact with soil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Droplet nuclei", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Droplet transmission", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Droplet nuclei", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Droplet nuclei</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Droplet nuclei represent an indirect transmission method, as they can remain airborne for long periods and travel over distances, whereas vertical transmission , contact with soil , and droplet transmission are forms of direct transmission of communicable diseases.</li><li>➤ Droplet nuclei</li><li>➤ indirect transmission</li><li>➤ vertical transmission</li><li>➤ contact with soil</li><li>➤ droplet transmission</li><li>➤ direct transmission</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with hypertension. On examination, there is no existing cardiovascular disease, no hypertension-mediated organ damage (HMOD), and the renal function is normal. He should be immediately started on pharmacological management if his blood pressure is more than: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt; 130/80 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt; 140/90 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt; 150/100 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 160/100 mmHg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. > 160/100 mmHg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-164121.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. &gt; 160/100 mmHg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immediate pharmacological treatment for hypertension in patients without additional cardiovascular risk factors or organ damage should commence when blood pressure levels exceed 160/100 mmHg, according to the ISH 2020 guidelines. This approach helps to target treatment to those most likely to benefit from immediate intervention, balancing the benefits and risks of pharmacotherapy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: ISH2020, AHA2017 HTN guidelines</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient came with a history of unprotected sexual intercourse around 20 years ago following which he had developed genital ulcers. Now, he complains of neurological symptoms and visual disturbances. Which of the following will be seen on exposure of his pupils to light? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pupils react but do not accommodate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pupils accommodate but do not react", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pupils neither react not accommodate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pupils react and accommodate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pupils accommodate but do not react", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pupils accommodate but do not react</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Argyll Robertson pupil, characterized by pupils that accommodate but do not react to light, is a hallmark of neurosyphilis. This condition reflects damage to the central nervous system by Treponema pallidum, which affects both the neurological and visual systems.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true regarding the actions of endothelin-1 except? ( NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchodilation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vasoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased GFR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Has inotropic effect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bronchodilation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/665.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Bronchodilation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Contrary to bronchodilation, ET-1 actually causes bronchoconstriction in the lungs, mediated through ET-B receptors. This makes it detrimental in respiratory pathologies.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Vasoconstriction : Correct and a well-documented action of ET-1.</li><li>• Option B. Vasoconstriction</li><li>• Option C. Decreased GFR : Correct, as ET-1 affects renal blood flow and filtration.</li><li>• Option C. Decreased GFR</li><li>• Option D. Has inotropic effect : Correct, ET-1 increases the force of heart contractions.</li><li>• Option D. Has inotropic effect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Actions of Endothelin-1 (ET-1)</li><li>➤ Actions of Endothelin-1 (ET-1)</li><li>➤ On blood vessels - Potent vasoconstrictor, vascular growth, matrix production inflammation → can lead to atherosclerosis, Pulmonary artery hypertension, systemic hypertension On heart – Inotropic effect, Apoptosis, cardiomyocytes and cardio fibroblast growth and metabolism → can lead to heart failure, cardiac fibrosis, cardiac hypertrophy In the kidneys - involved in Tubuloglomerular feedback - \\ GFR leads to diuresis, natriuresis, glomerular filtration, renal blood flow. Maybe be involved in glomerulosclerosis diabetic nephropathy, polycystic kidney disease, proteinuric diseases, hypertension. In the lungs, it causes bronchoconstriction (mediated via ET-B receptors) In the brain, - regulate the transport of substances across blood brain barrier (BBB). In GIT, they are involved in the migration of myenteric plexus to distal colon (failure leads to Hirschsprung's/megacolon). Platelet activation Closure of ductus arteriosus. Deletion of both alleles of ET-1 gene - craniofacial abnormalities and respiratory failure at birth.</li><li>➤ On blood vessels - Potent vasoconstrictor, vascular growth, matrix production inflammation → can lead to atherosclerosis, Pulmonary artery hypertension, systemic hypertension</li><li>➤ On heart – Inotropic effect, Apoptosis, cardiomyocytes and cardio fibroblast growth and metabolism → can lead to heart failure, cardiac fibrosis, cardiac hypertrophy</li><li>➤ In the kidneys - involved in Tubuloglomerular feedback - \\ GFR leads to diuresis, natriuresis, glomerular filtration, renal blood flow. Maybe be involved in glomerulosclerosis diabetic nephropathy, polycystic kidney disease, proteinuric diseases, hypertension.</li><li>➤ In the lungs, it causes bronchoconstriction (mediated via ET-B receptors)</li><li>➤ In the brain, - regulate the transport of substances across blood brain barrier (BBB).</li><li>➤ In GIT, they are involved in the migration of myenteric plexus to distal colon (failure leads to Hirschsprung's/megacolon).</li><li>➤ Platelet activation</li><li>➤ Closure of ductus arteriosus.</li><li>➤ Deletion of both alleles of ET-1 gene - craniofacial abnormalities and respiratory failure at birth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is a true statement about Crohn’s disease?( NEET PG 2018 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antibiotics are the only effective treatment for a Crohn's mass.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Symptomatic relapse following surgery is not related to the presence of disease during resection.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crohn's disease most commonly involves the proximal ileum.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continuous lesions observed during endoscopic examination are diagnostic of Crohn's disease.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Symptomatic relapse following surgery is not related to the presence of disease during resection.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Symptomatic relapse following surgery is not related to the presence of disease during resection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Surgical resection in Crohn's disease does not cure the condition, and symptomatic relapse can occur independently of the presence of disease at the resection margins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are true regarding peripartum cardiomyopathy except? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Development of cardiac failure within 5 months of delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left ventricular diastolic dysfunction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Absence of identifiable cause", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dilated left ventricle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Left ventricular diastolic dysfunction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Left ventricular diastolic dysfunction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Peripartum cardiomyopathy (PPCM) is a form of heart failure that occurs during the last month of pregnancy or within five months postpartum. It is characterized by left ventricular systolic dysfunction, rather than diastolic dysfunction. The diagnostic criteria for PPCM include:</li><li>• Cardiac failure developing in the last month of pregnancy or within five months after delivery. Absence of an identifiable cause for the cardiac failure. Absence of recognizable heart disease prior to the last month of pregnancy. Echocardiographic evidence of left ventricular systolic dysfunction (ejection fraction &lt;45% or fractional shortening &lt;30%) along with a dilated left ventricle.</li><li>• Cardiac failure developing in the last month of pregnancy or within five months after delivery.</li><li>• Absence of an identifiable cause for the cardiac failure.</li><li>• Absence of recognizable heart disease prior to the last month of pregnancy.</li><li>• Echocardiographic evidence of left ventricular systolic dysfunction (ejection fraction &lt;45% or fractional shortening &lt;30%) along with a dilated left ventricle.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Development of cardiac failure within 5 months of delivery : Correct. PPCM develops within five months of delivery.</li><li>• Option A. Development of cardiac failure within 5 months of delivery</li><li>• Option C. Absence of identifiable cause : Correct. PPCM is diagnosed in the absence of an identifiable cause for cardiac failure.</li><li>• Option C. Absence of identifiable cause</li><li>• Option D. Dilated left ventricle : Correct. PPCM is associated with a dilated left ventricle.</li><li>• Option D. Dilated left ventricle</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peripartum cardiomyopathy is characterized by left ventricular systolic dysfunction and occurs within the last month of pregnancy or up to five months postpartum, in the absence of an identifiable cause for cardiac failure.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482185/</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482185/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Water's view is used to best visualize which of the following sinuses? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maxillary sinus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethmoidal sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Frontal sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphenoid sinus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Maxillary sinus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_218.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Maxillary sinus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Water's view is particularly effective for visualizing the maxillary sinus, making it an essential diagnostic tool in sinus imaging, especially when evaluating issues related to the maxillary sinuses.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 493</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 493</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Va/Q = infinity means? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Partial pressure of O 2 becomes zero", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "No exchange of O 2 &amp; CO 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CO 2 alone equilibrates with the venous blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Partial pressure of both CO 2 and O 2 remain normal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. No exchange of O 2 & CO 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. No exchange of O2&amp; CO2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In quantitative terms, the ventilation-perfusion ratio is expressed as Va/Q. When Va (alveolar ventilation) is normal for a given alveolus and Q (blood flow) is also normal for the same alveolus, the ventilation-perfusion ratio (Va/Q) is also said to be normal.</li><li>• This ratio explains the respiratory exchange when there is an imbalance between alveolar ventilation and alveolar blood flow When the ventilation (Va) is zero, yet there is still perfusion (Q) of the alveolus, the Va/Q is zero. When there is adequate ventilation (Va) but zero perfusion (Q), the ratio Va/Q is infinity. At a ratio of either zero or infinity, there is no exchange of gases through the respiratory membrane of the affected alveoli.</li><li>• This ratio explains the respiratory exchange when there is an imbalance between alveolar ventilation and alveolar blood flow</li><li>• When the ventilation (Va) is zero, yet there is still perfusion (Q) of the alveolus, the Va/Q is zero.</li><li>• When there is adequate ventilation (Va) but zero perfusion (Q), the ratio Va/Q is infinity.</li><li>• At a ratio of either zero or infinity, there is no exchange of gases through the respiratory membrane of the affected alveoli.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Partial pressure of O2 becomes zero : Incorrect as partial pressure of O2 will be high in the alveoli but without perfusion, no exchange occurs.</li><li>• Option A. Partial pressure of O2 becomes zero</li><li>• Option C. CO2 alone equilibrates with the venous blood : Incorrect because without perfusion, there's no blood flow to equilibrate CO2 levels.</li><li>• Option C. CO2 alone equilibrates with the venous blood</li><li>• Option D. Partial pressure of both CO2 and O2 remain normal : Incorrect because, although the partial pressures in the ventilated alveoli might appear normal or even high for O2, without perfusion, these gases are not effectively exchanged with the blood.</li><li>• Option D. Partial pressure of both CO2 and O2 remain normal</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A ventilation-perfusion (Va/Q) ratio of infinity, indicative of ventilation without perfusion, results in no exchange of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) due to the absence of blood flow to the ventilated alveoli. This scenario highlights the critical balance needed between air delivery to the lungs and blood flow through the pulmonary circulation for effective respiratory gas exchange.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions can be treated with pirenzepine? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peptic ulcer disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Peptic ulcer disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Peptic ulcer disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pirenzepine is an M1 muscarinic receptor antagonist that reduces gastric acid secretion and is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. It is not indicated for conditions such as asthma, glaucoma, or hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most consistent and persistent feature of bladder carcinoma is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Painless hematuria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Painful hematuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dysuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Suprapubic mass", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Painless hematuria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Painless hematuria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Painless hematuria is the classical and most persistent feature of bladder carcinoma, often being the initial and sometimes the only symptom observed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anaplasia refers to: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lack of differentiation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Variation in cell size and shape", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Replacement of one type of cell by other", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disordered arrangement of tumor cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lack of differentiation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lack of differentiation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anaplasia indicates a high grade of malignancy due to the significant loss of differentiation and structural and functional changes in the neoplastic cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mechanism of action of the curare group of muscle relaxants is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Persistently depolarizing at neuromuscular junction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Competitively blocking the binding of ACh to its receptors", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Repetitive stimulation of ACh receptors on muscle endplate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibiting the calcium channels on presynaptic membrane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Competitively blocking the binding of ACh to its receptors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Competitively blocking the binding of ACh to its receptors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The curare group of muscle relaxants work by competitively blocking the binding of acetylcholine to its receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis.</li><li>➤ The curare group of muscle relaxants work by competitively blocking the binding of acetylcholine to its receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 779</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 779</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged woman who presented with tremors, palpitations, weight loss, and menstrual irregularities is diagnosed with Graves' disease. Which of the following statements would be correct with respect to her thyroid function test? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low TSH levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low free T4 levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low serum T3 levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radioactive iodine Uptake (RAIU) at 24 hours below normal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Low TSH levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/nm18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Low TSH levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Graves' disease, low TSH levels are a key diagnostic marker reflecting the increased production and release of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, which exert negative feedback on the pituitary gland to reduce TSH secretion.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Hyperthyroidism/Grave’s disease/Chap 384</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding an allosteric modifier? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Desaturates the enzyme", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Causes the enzyme to work faster only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Binds to the catalytic site", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Participates in feedback regulation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Participates in feedback regulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Participates in feedback regulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Allosteric Regulation</li><li>➤ Allosteric Regulation</li><li>➤ Allosteric enzyme has one catalytic site where the substrate binds and another separate allosteric site where the modifier binds (allo = other). Allosteric and substrate binding sites may or may not be physically adjacent. The binding of the regulatory molecule can either enhance the activity of the enzyme ( allosteric activation ), or inhibit the activity of the enzyme ( allosteric inhibition ). In the former case, the regulatory molecule is known as the positive modifier and in the latter case as the negative modifier . The binding of substrate to one of the subunits of the enzyme may enhance substrate binding by other subunits. This effect is said to be positive cooperativity . If the binding of substrate to one of the subunits decreases the avidity of substrate binding by other sites, the effect is called negative cooperativity. In feedback mechanism, one of the intermediates or products will go back and bind to the allosteric site of one of the enzymes involved in the series of reactions, thereby either inhibiting or activating the enzyme.</li><li>➤ Allosteric enzyme has one catalytic site where the substrate binds and another separate allosteric site where the modifier binds (allo = other).</li><li>➤ one catalytic site</li><li>➤ separate allosteric site</li><li>➤ Allosteric and substrate binding sites may or may not be physically adjacent.</li><li>➤ The binding of the regulatory molecule can either enhance the activity of the enzyme ( allosteric activation ), or inhibit the activity of the enzyme ( allosteric inhibition ).</li><li>➤ allosteric activation</li><li>➤ allosteric inhibition</li><li>➤ In the former case, the regulatory molecule is known as the positive modifier and in the latter case as the negative modifier .</li><li>➤ positive modifier</li><li>➤ negative modifier</li><li>➤ The binding of substrate to one of the subunits of the enzyme may enhance substrate binding by other subunits. This effect is said to be positive cooperativity . If the binding of substrate to one of the subunits decreases the avidity of substrate binding by other sites, the effect is called negative cooperativity.</li><li>➤ positive cooperativity</li><li>➤ negative cooperativity.</li><li>➤ In feedback mechanism, one of the intermediates or products will go back and bind to the allosteric site of one of the enzymes involved in the series of reactions, thereby either inhibiting or activating the enzyme.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with frequent urination, nocturia, and enuresis. 24-hour urine volume was measured and recorded to be 7 liters. The urine osmolarity was 260 mOsm/L. ADH assay was performed and the recorded values were reported as 0.8 pg/mL. An MRI of the brain was performed and T1 weighted indicated the absence of the bright spot. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nephrogenic DI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary polydipsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pituitary DI", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mannitol infusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pituitary DI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/nm4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/17/untitled-403.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pituitary DI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MMS algorithm for finding out the cause :</li><li>➤ MMS algorithm for finding out the cause</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The ligament that maintains anteversion of the uterus during pregnancy is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Round ligament", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardinal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterosacral ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pubocervical ligament", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Round ligament", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Round ligament</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The round ligament is responsible for maintaining the anteversion of the uterus, particularly during pregnancy. It consists of smooth muscle extensions of the uterine corpus and is the homologue of the gubernaculum testis. These ligaments arise from the lateral aspect of the corpus just below and anterior to the origin of the fallopian tubes, extend laterally to the pelvic sidewall, and enter the retroperitoneal space. They pass lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels before entering the inguinal canal through the internal inguinal ring and terminate in the subcutaneous tissue of the labia majora. During pregnancy, the round ligaments stretch to accommodate the enlarging uterus, helping to maintain its anteverted position.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Cardinal ligament : Also known as the transverse cervical ligament or Mackenrodt ligaments, these provide significant support to the uterus and cervix by attaching the lateral aspect of the uterus and cervix to the pelvic walls. However, they do not maintain anteversion.</li><li>• Option B. Cardinal ligament</li><li>• Option C. Uterosacral ligament : These ligaments insert broadly into the posterior pelvic walls and sacrum and form the lateral boundaries of the cul-de-sac (Pouch of Douglas). They play a role in supporting the uterus but do not contribute to maintaining anteversion.</li><li>• Option C. Uterosacral ligament</li><li>• Option D. Pubocervical ligament : This ligament forms part of the supportive structure for the uterus and vagina, attaching them to the pubic bone. It provides anterior support but does not maintain the anteversion of the uterus.</li><li>• Option D. Pubocervical ligament</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The round ligament is primarily responsible for maintaining the anteversion of the uterus, especially during pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is Prosopagnosia?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Impairment of consciousness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Being unaware of one's problems", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Difficulty in identifying known faces", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Failure to identify objects", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Difficulty in identifying known faces", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Difficulty in identifying known faces</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Prosopagnosia (also known as face blindness or facial agnosia) is a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to recognize faces. An autonomic response may be produced in response to a familiar face.</li><li>• Note - Prosopagnosia is not related to memory dysfunction, memory loss, impaired vision, or learning disabilities. The disorder is thought to be the result of congenital influence, damage, or impairment in a fold in the brain that appears to coordinate the neural systems controlling facial perception and memory (right fusiform gyrus).</li><li>• Note</li><li>• Face recognitions is represented mainly in the right inferior temporal lobe, but left lobe is also involved and injury to this area cause prosopagnosia. Prosopagnosia can result from stroke, traumatic brain injury (TBI), or certain neurodegenerative diseases.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Impairment of consciousness : Incorrect because prosopagnosia specifically relates to difficulty in recognizing faces, not general impairments of consciousness.</li><li>• Option A. Impairment of consciousness</li><li>• Option B. Being unaware of one's problems : Incorrect as this describes anosognosia, not prosopagnosia.</li><li>• Option B. Being unaware of one's problems</li><li>• Option D. Failure to identify objects : Incorrect because this defines object agnosia, whereas prosopagnosia is specifically the inability to recognize faces.</li><li>• Option D. Failure to identify objects</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize faces, often due to damage to the right fusiform gyrus and related brain areas involved in facial perception and memory, distinct from general memory loss or vision impairment.</li><li>➤ Note:</li><li>➤ Autotopagnosia - inability to recognize or to orient different parts of one's own body Simultagnosia -the inability to perceive more than one object at a time. Somatagnosia - inability to identify any part of the body, either one's own or another's body Tactile agnosia (stereognosia) - inability to recognize objects by touch</li><li>➤ Autotopagnosia - inability to recognize or to orient different parts of one's own body</li><li>➤ Autotopagnosia</li><li>➤ Simultagnosia -the inability to perceive more than one object at a time.</li><li>➤ Simultagnosia</li><li>➤ Somatagnosia - inability to identify any part of the body, either one's own or another's body</li><li>➤ Somatagnosia</li><li>➤ Tactile agnosia (stereognosia) - inability to recognize objects by touch</li><li>➤ Tactile agnosia (stereognosia)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the proportion of disease occurrence among those who were exposed compared to those who were not exposed? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Attributable risk", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Odds ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Relative risk", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Population attributable risk", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Relative risk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-091839.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-091828.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Relative risk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Relative Risk (RISK RATIO) is used to estimate risk of disease (calculated as incidence of that disease) with exposure to a factor Relative risk (RR) IS A BETTER ESTIMATE of strength of association than Attributable risk (AR) Strength of association: Relative risk (cohort study) Odds ratio (case control study)</li><li>➤ Relative Risk (RISK RATIO) is used to estimate risk of disease (calculated as incidence of that disease) with exposure to a factor</li><li>➤ Relative risk (RR) IS A BETTER ESTIMATE of strength of association than Attributable risk (AR)</li><li>➤ Strength of association: Relative risk (cohort study) Odds ratio (case control study)</li><li>➤ Relative risk (cohort study) Odds ratio (case control study)</li><li>➤ Relative risk (cohort study)</li><li>➤ Odds ratio (case control study)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Van Nuys grading system for ductal carcinoma in situ does not include:(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age of the patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Size of the tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hormone receptor staining", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Presence of necrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hormone receptor staining", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-125435.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hormone receptor staining</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Van Nuys grading system for ductal carcinoma in situ does not include Hormone receptor staining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the first step after fitting the pessary to check if the pessary is adequately retained? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asking the patient to void and see if the pessary is in place", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seeing if the patient feels any discomfort, which means that the pessary is retained", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asking the patient to perform the Valsalva manuever and see if the pessary is in place", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Being able to admit two fingers between the ring and the pessary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Asking the patient to perform the Valsalva manuever and see if the pessary is in place", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Asking the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver and see if the pessary is in place</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A vaginal pessary is a device used to support the pelvic organs in women with uterovaginal prolapse who are either unfit for surgery or unwilling to undergo surgery. The fitting process involves several steps to ensure the pessary is comfortable and effective:</li><li>• Patient Preparation : The patient is positioned in the lithotomy position and should have an empty bladder and rectum. Vaginal Examination : An assessment of vaginal length and width is performed to estimate the appropriate pessary size. Insertion : The pessary is lubricated and inserted in a cephalad direction against the posterior vaginal wall. Placement Check : An index finger is directed into the posterior vaginal fornix to ensure the cervix is above the pessary, and the pessary should fit snugly against the vaginal walls without causing pain. Adequacy Check : The patient is asked to perform a Valsalva maneuver (forceful exhalation against a closed airway) to see if the pessary remains in place, ensuring it is not dislodged during increased intra-abdominal pressure. Functionality Check : The patient should be able to stand, walk, cough, and urinate without difficulty or discomfort.</li><li>• Patient Preparation : The patient is positioned in the lithotomy position and should have an empty bladder and rectum.</li><li>• Patient Preparation</li><li>• Vaginal Examination : An assessment of vaginal length and width is performed to estimate the appropriate pessary size.</li><li>• Vaginal Examination</li><li>• Insertion : The pessary is lubricated and inserted in a cephalad direction against the posterior vaginal wall.</li><li>• Insertion</li><li>• Placement Check : An index finger is directed into the posterior vaginal fornix to ensure the cervix is above the pessary, and the pessary should fit snugly against the vaginal walls without causing pain.</li><li>• Placement Check</li><li>• Adequacy Check : The patient is asked to perform a Valsalva maneuver (forceful exhalation against a closed airway) to see if the pessary remains in place, ensuring it is not dislodged during increased intra-abdominal pressure.</li><li>• Adequacy Check</li><li>• Functionality Check : The patient should be able to stand, walk, cough, and urinate without difficulty or discomfort.</li><li>• Functionality Check</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Asking the patient to void and see if the pessary is in place : While checking the ability to void is important, it is not the first step after fitting the pessary.</li><li>• Option A. Asking the patient to void and see if the pessary is in place</li><li>• Option B. Seeing if the patient feels any discomfort, which means that the pessary is retained : Patient comfort is crucial, but discomfort does not necessarily mean the pessary is adequately retained.</li><li>• Option B. Seeing if the patient feels any discomfort, which means that the pessary is retained</li><li>• Option D. Being able to admit two fingers between the ring and the pessary : This is not a standard method for checking the fit of a pessary.</li><li>• Option D. Being able to admit two fingers between the ring and the pessary</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After fitting a pessary, the first step to check if it is adequately retained is to ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver and see if the pessary remains in place.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient on angina medication comes to you with erectile dysfunction. Because the patient is being treated with one drug, you decide against prescribing sildenafil, that drug is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium channel blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nitrates", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ACE inhibitors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nitrates", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nitrates</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nitrates and sildenafil should not be used together due to the risk of severe hypotension from the combined effect on cGMP levels leading to excessive vasodilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an indication of high tracheostomy? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vocal cord palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracheomalacia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foreign body obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Suspicion of Laryngeal carcinoma planned for surgery later", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Suspicion of Laryngeal carcinoma planned for surgery later", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Suspicion of Laryngeal carcinoma planned for surgery later</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High tracheostomy is specifically indicated for suspicion of laryngeal carcinoma planned for surgery, as this condition requires eventual removal of the larynx, allowing for the creation of a fresh tracheostome in a new, clean area.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 359</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 359</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Viral infection causing transient aplastic anemia is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polio", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parvovirus B-19", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "HHV-8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Parvovirus B-19", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/23/screenshot-2024-02-23-133000.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Parvovirus B-19</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19 infection targets erythroid cell lines, particularly the pronormoblast stage, and is known to cause transient aplastic anemia, particularly in patients with underlying hemolytic disorders, as well as other clinical manifestations such as erythema infectiosum, arthritis, and non-immune fetal hydrops.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these disorders was earlier known as minimal brain dysfunction? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dyslexia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mental subnormality", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oligophrenia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ADHD, formerly known as minimal brain dysfunction, is characterized by symptoms of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity. Diagnosis requires symptoms before age 12 in multiple settings. Treatment commonly involves stimulant medications and behavioral therapy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 1171.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a primary skin lesion? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crust", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Purpura", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Induration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Purpura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/415.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/417.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/418.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/419.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/421.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1299.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/lesions_page-0001.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/lesions_page-0002.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Purpura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Purpura is a primary skin lesion indicative of an underlying vascular or coagulation disorder , differentiating it from secondary skin lesions such as crusts, atrophy, and induration , which result from external factors or the progression of skin diseases is also crucial.</li><li>➤ Purpura</li><li>➤ vascular or coagulation disorder</li><li>➤ secondary</li><li>➤ crusts, atrophy, and induration</li><li>➤ external factors</li><li>➤ progression</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 4 page no 4.10</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Id-7437 Unique Key-Q1311505</li><li>↳ Question Id-7437 Unique Key-Q1311505</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old male patient, who is a known case of diabetes mellitus since the past 25 years, came for a health checkup. He was found to have uncontrolled blood sugar levels and third cranial nerve palsy. Which is the most common feature of third nerve palsy seen in such a case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudoptosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ptosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pupillary dysfunction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ptosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/whatsapp-image-2023-11-06-at-190003.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ptosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid) is the most common feature of third nerve palsy seen in diabetic patients, due to the selective ischemic damage to the central fibers of the oculomotor nerve, sparing the peripheral pupillary fibers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the term for the probability of infection occurring in susceptible individuals after they come into contact with an infectious person during the incubation period? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Secondary attack rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Case fatality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary attack rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tertiary attack rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Secondary attack rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-094118.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Secondary attack rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The secondary attack rate is a crucial epidemiological measure for understanding the spread of infectious diseases among contacts of an initial case. It helps determine the infectivity and potential for outbreaks within a population.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not the mechanism of action of progesterone only pills? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thicken the cervical mucus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevents ovulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kills the sperms in the cervical canal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibits penetration of sperm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kills the sperms in the cervical canal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Kills the sperms in the cervical canal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Progesterone only pills (POPs), also known as mini pills, act through several mechanisms to prevent pregnancy, but they do not kill sperms in the cervical canal.</li><li>• Incorrect. Progesterone only pills do not have a spermicidal effect. They do not kill sperm; instead, they work by altering the cervical mucus and preventing ovulation.</li><li>• The mechanisms of action include:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Thickening the cervical mucus : This makes it difficult for sperm to enter the uterus and fertilize an egg.</li><li>• Option A. Thickening the cervical mucus</li><li>• Option B. Preventing ovulation : Although not as consistently as combined oral contraceptives, POPs can inhibit ovulation in some women.</li><li>• Option B. Preventing ovulation</li><li>• Option D. Inhibiting penetration of sperm : By thickening the cervical mucus and affecting the endometrial lining, POPs inhibit the sperm’s ability to penetrate and fertilize an egg.</li><li>• Option D. Inhibiting penetration of sperm</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Progesterone only pills prevent pregnancy by thickening cervical mucus, inhibiting ovulation, and preventing sperm penetration, but they do not kill sperm in the cervical canal.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 323, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 323, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is altered in thyroid profile throughout pregnancy? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Free T3 level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Free T4 level", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total T3 level", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "TSH level", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Total T3 level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Total T3 level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• During pregnancy, the thyroid profile undergoes several changes due to physiological adaptations. One significant change is the increase in total T3 and T4 levels. This occurs because of the elevated levels of thyroid-binding globulin (TBG), which increases the amount of bound thyroid hormones. Despite this increase, the levels of free T3 and free T4 remain relatively unchanged.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Thyroid-binding globulin (TBG): The production of TBG increases during pregnancy due to elevated estrogen levels. This leads to higher levels of total T3 and total T4. Free T3 and Free T4: Despite the increase in total hormone levels, the free (unbound) hormone levels remain relatively stable. This is why free T3 and free T4 are preferred for thyroid function testing during pregnancy. TSH: The levels of TSH may decrease slightly in the first trimester due to the thyrotropic effects of hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin), but they generally stabilize in the second and third trimesters. Iodine requirement: Pregnancy increases the body's requirement for iodine by about 50%, due to increased renal clearance and fetal iodine needs.</li><li>• Thyroid-binding globulin (TBG): The production of TBG increases during pregnancy due to elevated estrogen levels. This leads to higher levels of total T3 and total T4.</li><li>• Thyroid-binding globulin (TBG):</li><li>• Free T3 and Free T4: Despite the increase in total hormone levels, the free (unbound) hormone levels remain relatively stable. This is why free T3 and free T4 are preferred for thyroid function testing during pregnancy.</li><li>• Free T3 and Free T4:</li><li>• TSH: The levels of TSH may decrease slightly in the first trimester due to the thyrotropic effects of hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin), but they generally stabilize in the second and third trimesters.</li><li>• TSH:</li><li>• Iodine requirement: Pregnancy increases the body's requirement for iodine by about 50%, due to increased renal clearance and fetal iodine needs.</li><li>• Iodine requirement:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Free T3 level : This remains relatively unchanged during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option A. Free T3 level</li><li>• Option B. Free T4 level : This also remains relatively unchanged during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. Free T4 level</li><li>• Option D. TSH level : While TSH levels can decrease slightly in the first trimester, they typically stabilize throughout the rest of the pregnancy.</li><li>• Option D. TSH level</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pregnancy, total T3 and T4 levels increase due to elevated thyroid-binding globulin, while free T3 and T4 levels remain unchanged.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 57, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 9 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 57, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 9 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to the berlin definition, moderate ARDS is characterized by all, except: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PaO2/FiO2 ratio 200-300 mm/Hg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bilateral interstitial infiltrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Symptom onset within a week", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No cardiac failure on echocardiography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PaO2/FiO2 ratio 200-300 mm/Hg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. PaO2/FiO2 ratio 200-300 mm/Hg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Bilateral interstitial infiltrates: This is correct and consistent with all classifications of ARDS, which require bilateral opacities on imaging, either from chest radiographs or CT, indicative of pulmonary edema not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload.</li><li>• Option B. Bilateral interstitial infiltrates:</li><li>• Option C. Symptom onset within a week: True for the Berlin definition, which stipulates that ARDS must occur within 7 days of a known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms.</li><li>• Option C. Symptom onset within a week:</li><li>• Option D. No cardiac failure on echocardiography: Also true according to the Berlin definition, as the pulmonary edema should not be fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload, thus necessitating the exclusion of cardiac failure through echocardiography.</li><li>• Option D. No cardiac failure on echocardiography:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 2012 Berlin Definition:</li><li>➤ 2012 Berlin Definition:</li><li>➤ Onset within 7 days after a known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms B/L opacities (Alveolar/Interstitial that are \"consistent with pulmonary edema\" on chest radiographs or chest CT) Minimum PEEP setting or CPAP, 5 cm of water.</li><li>➤ Onset within 7 days after a known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms</li><li>➤ Onset within 7 days</li><li>➤ B/L opacities (Alveolar/Interstitial that are \"consistent with pulmonary edema\" on chest radiographs or chest CT)</li><li>➤ \"consistent with pulmonary edema\"</li><li>➤ Minimum PEEP setting or CPAP, 5 cm of water.</li><li>➤ PaO 2 : FiO 2 assessed on invasive mechanical ventilation (CPAP criterion used for the diagnosis of mild ARDS).</li><li>➤ Categorization of ARDS severity (on the basis of FiO 2 ):</li><li>➤ Categorization of ARDS severity (on the basis of FiO 2 ):</li><li>➤ Mild: 200-300 Moderate: 100-200 Severe: &lt;100</li><li>➤ Mild: 200-300</li><li>➤ Moderate: 100-200</li><li>➤ Severe: &lt;100</li><li>➤ In resource limited settings Kigali Modifications was proposed (2016):</li><li>➤ Kigali Modifications</li><li>➤ Bilateral opacities could be documented by either ultrasonography or chest radiograph . Oxygenation criteria: pulse oximetry oxygen saturation (SpO 2 )/FiO 2 ratio ≤ 315 without the requirement for PEEP.</li><li>➤ Bilateral opacities could be documented by either ultrasonography or chest radiograph .</li><li>➤ Oxygenation criteria: pulse oximetry oxygen saturation (SpO 2 )/FiO 2 ratio ≤ 315 without the requirement for PEEP.</li><li>➤ (SpO 2 )/FiO 2 ratio ≤ 315 without the requirement for PEEP.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Respiratory Failure/Chap 301</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the prominent nerve pointed in the given image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Great auricular nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lesser occipital nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Great auricular nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/untitled-931.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-95.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Great auricular nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The great auricular nerve is a branch of the cervical plexus, specifically originating from the second and third cervical spinal nerves (C2-C3). It provides sensory innervation to the skin over the parotid gland, the external ear, and the angle of the mandible.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with left to right shunt and high output cardiac failure. The following is his MRI. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vein of Galen malformation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dandy Walker syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumocephalus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Venous sinus thrombosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vein of Galen malformation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_WwCEDbH.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_190.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_191.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Vein of Galen malformation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vein of Galen malformation is a critical diagnosis to consider in infants presenting with signs of high-output cardiac failure, and it can be identified with specific imaging findings such as large flow voids on MRI indicative of abnormal vascular connections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following cells seen in the lymph node are indicative of: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infectious Mononucleosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CMV infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Influenza", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Measles", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/1_gUu9uhI.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells with eosinophilic inclusion bodies resembling grape clusters in a lymph node biopsy is pathognomonic of measles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Kidney responds to shock by: ( NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increasing renal blood flow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increasing afferent arteriole resistance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increasing GFR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both B and C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increasing afferent arteriole resistance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Increasing afferent arteriole resistance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Kidney responds to shock by increasing afferent arteriolar resistance.</li><li>• Both afferent and efferent arterioles are constricted, but the efferent vessels are constricted to a greater degree. Increased resistance of afferent arterioles reduces glomerular hydrostatic pressure and decreases GFR. The glomerular filtration rate is reduced, but renal plasma flow is reduced to a larger extent, thus increasing the filtration fraction.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Increasing renal blood flow : Incorrect because renal blood flow actually decreases as part of the body's effort to conserve blood for vital organs.</li><li>• Option A. Increasing renal blood flow</li><li>• Option C. Increasing GFR : Incorrect as GFR decreases due to increased afferent arteriolar resistance.</li><li>• Option C. Increasing GFR</li><li>• Option D. Both B and C : Incorrect because, while increasing afferent arteriole resistance is correct, increasing GFR is not.</li><li>• Option D. Both B and C</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During shock, the kidneys respond by increasing afferent arteriole resistance, leading to reduced glomerular hydrostatic pressure and a decrease in GFR. This adaptation helps conserve blood flow and maintain systemic circulation critical for survival in shock conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is Edmond Locard known for? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Study of fingerprints", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Theory of exchange", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stature estimation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Forensic ballistics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Theory of exchange", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Theory of exchange</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Edmond Locard is best known for Locard's Exchange Principle, which states that whenever two bodies come into contact, there is an exchange of materials, thereby linking criminals to crime scenes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nude mice are not resistant to xenograft due to the absence of? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both B and T cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "INK cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. T cell", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) T cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nude mice lack a thymus, resulting in a deficiency of mature T cells, which are essential for rejecting xenografts. This highlights the crucial role of T cells in adaptive immune responses and graft rejection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about chromic catgut? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is made from cat gut", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is made from rabbit gut", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is absorbed by enzymatic degradation and macrophage phagocytosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is tanned with nickel salts to improve handling and to resist degradation in tissue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is absorbed by enzymatic degradation and macrophage phagocytosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. It is absorbed by enzymatic degradation and macrophage phagocytosis.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chromic catgut is an absorbable suture material derived from sheep or goat intestines and is absorbed in the body through enzymatic degradation and macrophage phagocytosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of these are characteristic features of pancreatic carcinoma except: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cigarette smoking is a risk factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carcinoma of body of pancreas often present with jaundice", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "They elicit intense desmoplastic response", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perineural invasion is common", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Carcinoma of body of pancreas often present with jaundice", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Carcinoma of body of pancreas often present with jaundice</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While pancreatic carcinomas are generally associated with intense desmoplastic responses and perineural invasion, jaundice is specifically linked more with carcinoma at the head of the pancreas rather than the body or tail.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the earliest sign in Crohn's disease? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cobblestone appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep fissured ulcers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rose-thorn appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aphthous ulcers", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aphthous ulcers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Aphthous ulcers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aphthous ulcers are the earliest sign of Crohn's disease, often appearing in the mouth and gastrointestinal tract before more severe lesions develop.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the predominant pathogen to infect the renal transplant recipients in the period around 1 to 4 months following the transplantation? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "JC virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BK virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epstein-Barr virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cytomegalovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cytomegalovirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cytomegalovirus is the leading cause of infection in renal transplant recipients during the first four months post-transplantation, showcasing the importance of monitoring and managing CMV to prevent its common presentations and complications in this vulnerable period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "TB test done only on whole blood sample is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TrueNat TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gene xpert", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interferon gamma release assay", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Interferon gamma release assay", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Interferon gamma release assay</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Interferon gamma release assay is a valuable tool for diagnosing latent TB, particularly suitable for patients who may not be effectively diagnosed through traditional skin tests, offering a sensitive and specific method that utilizes whole blood to detect an immune response to TB antigens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following nerves is preferred in anesthesia to monitor neuromuscular blockade? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulnar Nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median Nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mandibular nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ulnar Nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ulnar Nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The ulnar nerve is the preferred nerve for monitoring neuromuscular blockade in anesthesia due to its accessibility and reliable twitch response of the adductor pollicis muscle, which reflects the status of critical muscles like the diaphragm and laryngeal muscles.</li><li>➤ The ulnar nerve is the preferred nerve for monitoring neuromuscular blockade in anesthesia due to its accessibility and reliable twitch response of the adductor pollicis muscle, which reflects the status of critical muscles like the diaphragm and laryngeal muscles.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 834</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 834</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false regarding the given image? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It represents melanocytic hamartoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It causes no visual disturbance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is associated with facial angiofibroma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "They are associated with a neurocutaneous syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is associated with facial angiofibroma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture1_hQ8NREt.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/23/screenshot-2024-02-23-124300.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is associated with facial angiofibroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Lisch nodules on the iris is associated with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1) and is not associated with facial angiofibroma, which is seen in Tuberous Sclerosis Complex, not NF1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is the most common presentation of postpartum nerve injury? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facial palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wrist drop", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foot drop", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Claw hand", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Foot drop", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Foot drop</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most common postpartum nerve injury is an injury to the peroneal nerve, which results in foot drop. This type of injury often occurs during deliveries where the lithotomy position is used for an extended period. The lithotomy position can cause prolonged pressure on the peroneal nerve, which is located near the fibular head, leading to nerve damage.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Peroneal nerve injury: The peroneal nerve is susceptible to compression, especially when the legs are positioned in stirrups for prolonged periods, as is common in the lithotomy position during childbirth. Foot drop: This condition is characterized by an inability to dorsiflex the foot, leading to a dragging foot while walking. Symptoms: Patients may present with weakness in lifting the front part of the foot and toes, a high-stepping gait to prevent the foot from dragging, and numbness or tingling over the top of the foot and the outer part of the upper leg.</li><li>• Peroneal nerve injury: The peroneal nerve is susceptible to compression, especially when the legs are positioned in stirrups for prolonged periods, as is common in the lithotomy position during childbirth.</li><li>• Peroneal nerve injury:</li><li>• Foot drop: This condition is characterized by an inability to dorsiflex the foot, leading to a dragging foot while walking.</li><li>• Foot drop:</li><li>• Symptoms: Patients may present with weakness in lifting the front part of the foot and toes, a high-stepping gait to prevent the foot from dragging, and numbness or tingling over the top of the foot and the outer part of the upper leg.</li><li>• Symptoms:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Facial palsy : This is not commonly associated with postpartum nerve injuries.</li><li>• Option A. Facial palsy</li><li>• Option B. Wrist drop : This condition results from a radial nerve injury and is not a common presentation of postpartum nerve injuries.</li><li>• Option B. Wrist drop</li><li>• Option D. Claw hand : This is associated with ulnar nerve injury and is also not a common presentation of postpartum nerve injuries.</li><li>• Option D. Claw hand</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common postpartum nerve injury is peroneal nerve injury, leading to foot drop, often associated with the lithotomy position used during childbirth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "L &amp; H type Reed-Sternberg (RS) cell is seen in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mixed cellar type", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nodular sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphocyte predominant", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Classical Hodgkin Lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lymphocyte predominant", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lymphocyte predominant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ L &amp; H type Reed-Sternberg cells, displaying a popcorn-like appearance and expressing B-cell markers, are a hallmark of lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the surgical procedure that involves the removal of a small segment of the lactiferous duct, typically from the breast in which a probe is inserted into the duct from which the discharge is emerging. A tennis racquet incision is made, and the flap is dissected to reach the duct. The duct is then excised. This procedure is known as? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Macrodochectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microdochectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cone excision", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wide excision of the lactiferous duct.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Microdochectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Microdochectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Microdochectomy is the surgical removal of a discharging lactiferous duct, commonly performed for cases of single-duct pathologies like duct papilloma or duct ectasia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is incorrect regarding Sibson’s fascia?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Attached to the inner border of 2nd rib", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Covers apical part of lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Part of scalenus minimus muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vessels pass above the fascia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Attached to the inner border of 2nd rib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-100.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Attached to the inner border of 2nd rib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sibson's fascia is not directly attached to the inner border of the 2nd rib. Instead, it is associated with the cervical pleura and extends superiorly to attach to the transverse process of the 1st cervical (C1) vertebra, also known as the atlas. It forms the outer boundary of the cervicothoracic (suprapleural) space.</li><li>➤ Sibson's fascia is not directly attached to the inner border of the 2nd rib. Instead, it is associated with the cervical pleura and extends superiorly to attach to the transverse process of the 1st cervical (C1) vertebra, also known as the atlas. It forms the outer boundary of the cervicothoracic (suprapleural) space.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "IGF-I is synthesized by which of the following organ? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pituitary gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancreas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenal glands", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Liver", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Liver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The predominant organ producing insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) is the liver. IGF-I is produced in response to stimulation by growth hormone (GH), which is primarily secreted by the pituitary gland. However, while GH stimulates IGF-I production, it is the liver that is responsible for producing the majority of circulating IGF-I in the body.</li><li>• Growth hormone acts on the liver to form small proteins called \"somatomedins\"</li><li>• Somatomedins increases bone growth in all aspect Also called as insulin-like growth factor (IGF) as effects are similar to insulin Four types are present - Most important is somatomedin C, specifically referred to as \"insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) Binds to carrier protein in blood Half-life - about 20 Hrs Blood concentration of IGF-1, follows the levels of growth hormone. Growth effects of GH are mostly attributed to somatomedin (rather than its direct effect on bones &amp; peripheral tissues)</li><li>• Somatomedins increases bone growth in all aspect</li><li>• Also called as insulin-like growth factor (IGF) as effects are similar to insulin</li><li>• Four types are present - Most important is somatomedin C, specifically referred to as \"insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)</li><li>• Binds to carrier protein in blood</li><li>• Half-life - about 20 Hrs</li><li>• Blood concentration of IGF-1, follows the levels of growth hormone.</li><li>• Growth effects of GH are mostly attributed to somatomedin (rather than its direct effect on bones &amp; peripheral tissues)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pituitary gland : Incorrect because while the pituitary gland secretes growth hormone that stimulates IGF-I production, it does not synthesize IGF-I itself.</li><li>• Option B. Pituitary gland</li><li>• Option C. Pancreas : Incorrect because the pancreas is involved in the production of insulin and other digestive enzymes, not IGF-I.</li><li>• Option C. Pancreas</li><li>• Option D. Adrenal glands : Incorrect because the adrenal glands produce corticosteroids and catecholamines, not IGF-I.</li><li>• Option D. Adrenal glands</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The liver is the primary organ responsible for the synthesis of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I), which is stimulated by growth hormone secreted from the pituitary gland.</li><li>➤ Ref– Textbook of Medical physiology Guyton and Hall, 11 th edition, page no. 924</li><li>➤ Ref– Textbook of Medical physiology Guyton and Hall, 11 th edition, page no. 924</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sacubitril is a new drug approved for chronic heart failure. The mechanism of action of Sacubitril is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Angiotensin Il inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ACE inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renin inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sacubitril is a neprilysin (neutral endopeptidase) inhibitor used in combination with valsartan to treat chronic heart failure. By inhibiting neprilysin, sacubitril increases the levels of natriuretic peptides and other vasoactive substances, leading to beneficial cardiovascular effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "cGMP is the second messenger of? ( NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Somatostatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Angiotensin II", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ADH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NO (nitric oxide)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. NO (nitric oxide)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-095010.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. NO (nitric oxide)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Vasodilatory actions of NO are mediated by CGMP.</li><li>• Hormone-receptor complex activates the enzymes of the cell and causes the formation of another substance called the second messenger or intracellular hormonal mediator.</li><li>• Second messenger produces the effects of the hormone inside the cells. Protein hormones and the catecholamines act through second messenger. Most common second messenger is cyclic AMP.</li><li>• NO activates guanylyl cyclase in vascular smooth muscle cells resulting in the conversion of cGTP to cGMP (2nd messenger) which activates cGMP dependent protein kinase, that causes blood vessels to relax.</li><li>• Cyclic GMP is synthesized from the nucleotide GTP using the enzyme guanylyl cyclase. Cyclic GMP serves as the second messenger for</li><li>• atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) nitric oxide (NO) the response of the rods of the retina to light</li><li>• atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)</li><li>• nitric oxide (NO)</li><li>• the response of the rods of the retina to light</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Somatostatin : Incorrect because somatostatin typically acts through inhibition of adenylate cyclase, thus reducing cyclic AMP (cAMP) levels, not through cGMP.</li><li>• Option A. Somatostatin</li><li>• Option B. Angiotensin II : Incorrect as angiotensin II primarily acts through the phosphatidylinositol signaling pathway and does not utilize cGMP as a second messenger.</li><li>• Option B. Angiotensin II</li><li>• Option C. ADH : Incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) primarily utilizes cAMP as its second messenger, particularly in its renal actions.</li><li>• Option C. ADH</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nitric oxide (NO) uses cGMP as its second messenger to mediate vasodilation. NO activates guanylyl cyclase, increasing cGMP levels in vascular smooth muscle cells, leading to vessel relaxation. This highlights cGMP's role in cardiovascular function and its importance in the regulation of blood pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The adult form of echinococcus is seen in which of the following? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dog", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cat", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Swine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sheep", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dog", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dog</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dogs are the definitive hosts for the adult form of Echinococcus, underscoring the importance of proper hygiene and preventive measures in areas where these animals are common to minimize the risk of transmission and subsequent human infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms causes scombroid fish poisoning? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staphylococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peptostreptococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Scombroid fish poisoning is primarily caused by the decarboxylation of L-histidine into histamine by bacteria such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa in improperly stored fish, leading to a range of symptoms from mild gastrointestinal discomfort to severe allergic reactions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male having pain and deformity of the tibia as shown in X-ray. He had history of trauma 2 years back. What is the most probable diagnosis?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ewing’s sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic osteomyelitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stress fracture tibia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chronic osteomyelitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/26/untitled-1367954.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/51.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/37.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/38_w554lWW.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/39.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/40.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chronic osteomyelitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The radiological image shown in the question and the clinical symptoms described are suggestive of chronic osteomyelitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old lady complains of post-coital bleeding. She has a positive pap smear. What is the next line of management? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colposcopy directed biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cone biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Repeat pap smear", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Colposcopy directed biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Colposcopy directed biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A positive pap smear indicates the presence of some cytological abnormality (such as epithelial or glandular cell abnormalities). The next appropriate step is to perform a colposcopy and directed biopsy. Colposcopy provides a magnified view of the cervix, allowing for the identification and biopsy of abnormal areas. During the colposcopy, scoring systems like Ried’s index or Swede’s score are used to evaluate the severity of the pathology, and cervical biopsy samples are taken from acetowhite areas identified during the procedure.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Cone biopsy (Conization):</li><li>• Option B. Cone biopsy (Conization):</li><li>• Conization is typically reserved for situations where there is: Unsatisfactory colposcopic findings (where the entire lesion cannot be visualized). Inconsistent findings between colposcopy, cytology, and directed biopsy. Positive endocervical curettage. When biopsy cannot rule out invasive cancer from carcinoma in situ (CIS) or microinvasion.</li><li>• Conization is typically reserved for situations where there is: Unsatisfactory colposcopic findings (where the entire lesion cannot be visualized). Inconsistent findings between colposcopy, cytology, and directed biopsy. Positive endocervical curettage. When biopsy cannot rule out invasive cancer from carcinoma in situ (CIS) or microinvasion.</li><li>• Unsatisfactory colposcopic findings (where the entire lesion cannot be visualized). Inconsistent findings between colposcopy, cytology, and directed biopsy. Positive endocervical curettage. When biopsy cannot rule out invasive cancer from carcinoma in situ (CIS) or microinvasion.</li><li>• Unsatisfactory colposcopic findings (where the entire lesion cannot be visualized).</li><li>• Inconsistent findings between colposcopy, cytology, and directed biopsy.</li><li>• Positive endocervical curettage.</li><li>• When biopsy cannot rule out invasive cancer from carcinoma in situ (CIS) or microinvasion.</li><li>• Option C. Repeat pap smear:</li><li>• Option C. Repeat pap smear:</li><li>• This is not preferred in this scenario as the exact abnormality on the pap smear is not specified. In cases of low-grade squamous intra-epithelial lesion (LSIL) with negative HPV, a repeat pap smear with HPV testing may be advised, but this is not applicable here.</li><li>• This is not preferred in this scenario as the exact abnormality on the pap smear is not specified. In cases of low-grade squamous intra-epithelial lesion (LSIL) with negative HPV, a repeat pap smear with HPV testing may be advised, but this is not applicable here.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy:</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy:</li><li>• Hysterectomy is never indicated solely for an abnormal pap smear. It is considered only if the colposcopic-directed biopsy shows: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) associated with other gynecologic problems such as prolapse, fibroids, pelvic inflammatory disease, or endometriosis. Persistent dyskaryotic smear despite treatment. High-grade CIN in elderly women. Patients with poor compliance for follow-up.</li><li>• Hysterectomy is never indicated solely for an abnormal pap smear. It is considered only if the colposcopic-directed biopsy shows: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) associated with other gynecologic problems such as prolapse, fibroids, pelvic inflammatory disease, or endometriosis. Persistent dyskaryotic smear despite treatment. High-grade CIN in elderly women. Patients with poor compliance for follow-up.</li><li>• Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) associated with other gynecologic problems such as prolapse, fibroids, pelvic inflammatory disease, or endometriosis. Persistent dyskaryotic smear despite treatment. High-grade CIN in elderly women. Patients with poor compliance for follow-up.</li><li>• Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) associated with other gynecologic problems such as prolapse, fibroids, pelvic inflammatory disease, or endometriosis.</li><li>• Persistent dyskaryotic smear despite treatment.</li><li>• High-grade CIN in elderly women.</li><li>• Patients with poor compliance for follow-up.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Following a positive pap smear indicating abnormal cytology, the next step is to perform a colposcopy and directed biopsy to further evaluate and manage the cervical pathology.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 329, Dc Duttas Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 329, Dc Duttas Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cryoglobulinemia is associated with? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hepatitis C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hepatitis C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Most common cause a/w Cryoglobulinemia is hepatitis C</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the vector for the condition diagnosed by the image shown below? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anopheles mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ixodes Tick", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sandfly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tsetse fly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sandfly", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_pqZ53EC.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sandfly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Leishman-Donovan bodies inside macrophages is indicative of Kala Azar, a severe form of leishmaniasis transmitted by the bite of infected sandflies. Effective prevention and control are critical in endemic regions to reduce the transmission and impact of this disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false about the umbilical cord? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It has one artery and two veins", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It contains a gelatinous substance called Wharton's jelly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Presence of a single umbilical artery is associated with congenital anomalies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal average umbilical cord length is 50-60 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It has one artery and two veins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It has one artery and two veins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein. This 3 vessel umbilical cord appears as a “mickey-mouse sign” manner on the ultrasound finding The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus and the 2 umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta</li><li>• The umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein.</li><li>• This 3 vessel umbilical cord appears as a “mickey-mouse sign” manner on the ultrasound finding</li><li>• The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus and the 2 umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. It contains a gelatinous substance called Wharton's jelly : Wharton’s jelly is the gelatinous material surrounding the umbilical cord which protects it from external forces</li><li>• Option B. It contains a gelatinous substance called Wharton's jelly</li><li>• Option C. Presence of a single umbilical artery is associated with congenital anomalies : A single umbilical artery is the most common anomaly in an umbilical cord.</li><li>• Option C. Presence of a single umbilical artery is associated with congenital anomalies</li><li>• It is associated with congenital anomalies such as genitourinary and cardiac anomalies</li><li>• It may also be associated with Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome) and other chromosomal anomalies</li><li>• Option D. Normal average umbilical cord length is 50-60 cm : The average length of the umbilical cord is 50 cm</li><li>• Option D. Normal average umbilical cord length is 50-60 cm</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• Educational objective</li><li>• The umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein.</li><li>• Ref: Page no 44, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>• Ref: Page no 44, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn presented with a tuft of hair over the lumbosacral region. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spina bifida occulta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spinal lipoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dermal sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Any of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Any of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/23/screenshot-2024-02-23-124346.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-113522.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Any of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of a tuft of hair over the lumbosacral region in a newborn may indicate occult spinal dysraphism, which includes conditions such as spina bifida occulta, spinal lipoma, and dermal sinus, all of which can be signs of underlying spinal abnormalities requiring thorough evaluation, typically starting with ultrasound and definitive imaging with MRI.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Confusion assessment test is used in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delirium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Delirium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Delirium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) is a tool specifically developed to detect delirium. Bedside examinations such as mini mental status examination (MMSE) are used to provide a measure of cognitive impairment.</li><li>➤ mini mental status examination (MMSE)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 701.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cutaneous larva migrans is most commonly caused by which organism? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strongyloides stercolaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toxocara canis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ancylostoma braziliense", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Necator americanus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ancylostoma braziliense", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ancylostoma braziliense</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ancylostoma braziliense is the primary cause of cutaneous larva migrans, a condition where the migration of hookworm larvae in the skin results in distinctive creeping eruptions. This condition is a reminder of the zoonotic potential of certain parasites and underscores the importance of preventive measures, especially in areas where pets are likely to be infected.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following inhibits the synthesis of glucocorticoid?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mifepristone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flutamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Finasteride", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metyrapone", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metyrapone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Metyrapone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mifepristone is an Anti-Progestogen.</li><li>➤ Flutamide is an androgen receptor antagonist.</li><li>➤ Finasteride is a 5-α Reductase inhibitor.</li><li>➤ Metyrapone is enzyme 11ß-hydroxylase inhibitor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following patients comes under the category III non-heart-beating donor? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A patient who died during transportation to the hospital", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A patient who died after failed resuscitation after reaching the hospital", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A patient who was brought dead to the hospital", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A patient who is awaiting death in the hospital", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A patient who is awaiting death in the hospital", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-164155.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. A patient who is awaiting death in the hospital</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Modified Maastricht Classification categorizes DCD:</li><li>➤ Modified Maastricht Classification categorizes DCD:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Renal transplantation/Table 313-1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thrombosis of posterior inferior cerebellar artery causes? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral medullary syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weber syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial medullary syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Millard Gubler syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lateral medullary syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-163123.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-164951.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-163156.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Lateral Medullary syndrome.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Image showing arteries involved in brainstem syndromes lateral vs medial brainstem.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/Chap 426/Neurology/stroke</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 19-year-old youth was brought the casualty with a black eye following a fist fight. Which area of the orbit is most likely to have been fractured? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial wall", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral wall", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Roof", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Floor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Floor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-116.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Floor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The floor of the orbit is the most likely site of fracture in cases of orbital blowout fractures resulting from blunt trauma, such as a fist fight. Key clinical features include enophthalmos, infraorbital nerve anesthesia, and diplopia. Imaging with X-rays and CT scans are crucial for diagnosis and surgical intervention may be required for severe cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false about Cuthbertson's metabolic ebb and flow responses to trauma?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The \"ebb\" phase is associated with a decline in body temperature and oxygen consumption", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The \"flow\" phase occurs after resuscitation from a state of shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The \"ebb\" phase is aimed at reducing posttraumatic energy depletion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The \"ebb\" phase leads to activation of the innate immune system and induction of the hepatic acute-phase response", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. The \"ebb\" phase leads to activation of the innate immune system and induction of the hepatic acute-phase response", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-095825.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The \"flow\" phase (not \"ebb\") leads to activation of the innate immune system and induction of the hepatic acute-phase response.</li><li>• Cuthbertson's ebb and flow response to trauma:</li><li>• Cuthbertson's ebb and flow response to trauma:</li><li>• A short ebb phase characterized by hypometabolism occurs immediately after the injury and is characterized by a decrease in metabolic rate, oxygen consumption, body temperature, and enzymatic activity. The ebb phase is followed by a longer hypermetabolic flow phase marked by an increased catabolism, with a high oxygen consumption and an elevated resting energy expenditure rate.</li><li>• The \"flow\" phase occurs after resuscitation from a state of shock, which leads to an increased metabolic turnover, activation of the innate immune system and induction of the hepatic acute-phase response.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. The \"ebb\" phase is associated with a decline in body temperature and oxygen consumption : Correct, this describes the initial hypometabolic state following trauma.</li><li>• Option A. The \"ebb\" phase is associated with a decline in body temperature and oxygen consumption</li><li>• Option B. The \"flow\" phase occurs after resuscitation from a state of shock : Correct, marking the transition to a hypermetabolic state.</li><li>• Option B. The \"flow\" phase occurs after resuscitation from a state of shock</li><li>• Option C. The \"ebb\" phase is aimed at reducing posttraumatic energy depletion : Correct, as it focuses on conserving energy immediately after trauma.</li><li>• Option C. The \"ebb\" phase is aimed at reducing posttraumatic energy depletion</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The statement that the \"ebb\" phase leads to activation of the innate immune system and induction of the hepatic acute-phase response is false. These processes are characteristics of the \"flow\" phase, which occurs after the initial ebb phase and involves increased metabolic activity and systemic responses aimed at recovery and defense.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the options is considered the most peripheral center under the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "District TB centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intermediate Reference Laboratory", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tuberculosis Unit", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Designated Microscopy Centre", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Designated Microscopy Centre", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/51.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Designated Microscopy Centre</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Designated Microscopy Centre (DMC) remains a foundational component in the RNTCP for its role in accessible, community-level TB diagnosis and initial management. Its position as the most peripheral center in the hierarchy underscores its critical function in early TB detection and intervention.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Option B.</li><li>↳ Intermediate Reference Laboratory:</li><li>↳ Option C. Tuberculosis Unit: While the Tuberculosis Unit is responsible for providing treatment and care to TB patients, it is not as peripheral as the DMC. The TU operates within a more integrated role in patient management and care continuum than the DMC, which is strictly focused on initial diagnostics.</li><li>↳ Option C.</li><li>↳ Tuberculosis Unit:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which fungus is most commonly associated with orbital cellulitis in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhizopus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspergillus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichophyton", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rhizopus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rhizopus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rhizopus is the predominant fungal pathogen linked with orbital cellulitis in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis, underscoring the critical need for prompt diagnosis and aggressive treatment in such high-risk groups to prevent severe complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The best time to identify the type of twin pregnancy on ultrasound is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "18-22 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "24-28 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "11-14 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "14-18 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 11-14 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/8_H6AWJAj.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 11-14 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The optimal time for determining the type of twin pregnancy through ultrasound is between 11+0 to 13+6 weeks, when the crown-rump length (CRL) is between 45 to 84 mm. This period allows for the most accurate dating and assessment of chorionicity, which is crucial for the management and outcome of twin pregnancies.</li><li>• Chorionicity: The type of twin pregnancy (dichorionic or monochorionic) is determined by examining the thickness of the membrane at the site of insertion. Lambda (λ) sign: Indicates a dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy. Inverted T sign: Indicates a monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy.</li><li>• Chorionicity: The type of twin pregnancy (dichorionic or monochorionic) is determined by examining the thickness of the membrane at the site of insertion. Lambda (λ) sign: Indicates a dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy. Inverted T sign: Indicates a monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy.</li><li>• Chorionicity:</li><li>• Lambda (λ) sign: Indicates a dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy. Inverted T sign: Indicates a monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy.</li><li>• Lambda (λ) sign: Indicates a dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy.</li><li>• Lambda (λ) sign:</li><li>• Inverted T sign: Indicates a monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy.</li><li>• Inverted T sign:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best time to determine the type of twin pregnancy on ultrasound is between 11 and 14 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2190, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2190, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "CD-59 is involved in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chediak-Higashi syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Essential thrombocythemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primary myelofibrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CD-59 deficiency is specific to PNH and does not play a role in Chediak-Higashi syndrome, essential thrombocythemia, or primary myelofibrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient visits the clinic and presents with a raised and firm scar on their chest, which is larger than the original wound. The physician suspects a keloid scar and begins to explain the diagnosis and potential treatment options. Which of the following statements are true with regards to a keloid scar? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The extent does not cross the wound margins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wide excision of the keloid scar prevents recurrence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Histopathology of a keloid scar shows reduced collagen and increased vascularity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A keloid scar forms due to increase in the level of growth factors", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A keloid scar forms due to increase in the level of growth factors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-125538.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. A keloid scar forms due to increase in the level of growth factors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Keloid scars are caused by an overproduction of growth factors like TGF-β, leading to excessive collagen formation and scar tissue that extends beyond the wound margins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient who had undergone an uneventful cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation, presents with complaints of pain and visual disturbance in the operated eye, 36 hours post operatively. His eye is as shown below. What is the management of this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravenous steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bandage and padding of the eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intravitreal antibiotics", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Intravitreal antibiotics", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-113.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-181028.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Intravitreal antibiotics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intravitreal antibiotics are the primary treatment for endophthalmitis, a severe postoperative complication characterized by inflammation and hypopyon. Early and aggressive treatment is crucial to prevent vision loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is responsible for the negative charge in fibrinopeptide A? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glutamate and Valine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histidine and Lysine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspartate and glutamate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serine and Threonine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aspartate and glutamate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aspartate and Glutamate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibrinopeptide A is a peptide that is cleaved from fibrinogen during blood clotting to form fibrin. Fibrin is a key component of blood clots and is responsible for stopping bleeding from injured blood vessels. Fibrinopeptide A contains a negative charge due to the presence of aspartate and glutamate residues .</li><li>➤ Fibrinopeptide A contains a negative charge due to the presence of aspartate and glutamate residues</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "'c' wave in JVP is seen in which phase of cardiac cycle? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iso-volumetric contraction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Slow filling at end of diastole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "End of systole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start of diastole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iso-volumetric contraction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/664.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-094230.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Iso-volumetric contraction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• 'c' waves are produced by bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during the Iso-volumetric contraction of the right ventricle.</li><li>• The isovolumetric contraction phase is characterized by a closed tricuspid valve and a still-closed pulmonary valve, which causes the pressure in the ventricle to rise rapidly without changing its volume.</li><li>• Fig : Intra-arterial pressure changes during cardiac cycle. a, c, v= Positive wave x, x 1 , y= Negative waves</li><li>• Fig</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Slow filling at end of diastole : Incorrect because this phase involves the heart filling with blood, not contracting.</li><li>• Option B. Slow filling at end of diastole</li><li>• Option C. End of systole : Incorrect as this phase corresponds to the onset of ventricular relaxation, not contraction.</li><li>• Option C. End of systole</li><li>• Option D. Start of diastole : Incorrect because the start of diastole is marked by ventricular relaxation and opening of the atrioventricular valves for ventricular filling, not contraction.</li><li>• Option D. Start of diastole</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Perilunate dislocation is defined as:(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lunate at place while others dislocate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lunate is displaced while other are at place", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Capitate dislocates volarly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lunate is displaced volarly while carpus dislocate dorsally", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lunate at place while others dislocate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/49.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/50.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lunate at place while others dislocate</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Long-standing pelvic inflammation may lead to which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyometra", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine polyposis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudocyesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometrial hyperplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pyometra", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pyometra</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Long-standing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) involves infection and inflammation of the upper genital tract, which can include the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. PID can result from sexually transmitted infections and, if left untreated, can lead to several serious complications.</li><li>• Complications of long-standing pelvic inflammation include:</li><li>• Complications of long-standing pelvic inflammation include:</li><li>• Infertility: Due to damage to the fallopian tubes and the resulting adhesions, which can block the passage of eggs from the ovaries to the uterus. Ectopic pregnancy: Scarring of the fallopian tubes can cause a fertilized egg to implant outside the uterus, most commonly in the tubes. Pyometra: Accumulation of pus within the uterine cavity, often due to obstruction of the cervical canal combined with chronic infection. Dyspareunia: Pain during sexual intercourse, often due to adhesions and chronic pelvic pain. Chronic pelvic pain: Persistent pain in the lower abdomen, which can be severe and debilitating. Frozen pelvis: Severe adhesions can cause the pelvic organs to become fixed in place, leading to significant pain and dysfunction.</li><li>• Infertility: Due to damage to the fallopian tubes and the resulting adhesions, which can block the passage of eggs from the ovaries to the uterus.</li><li>• Infertility:</li><li>• Ectopic pregnancy: Scarring of the fallopian tubes can cause a fertilized egg to implant outside the uterus, most commonly in the tubes.</li><li>• Ectopic pregnancy:</li><li>• Pyometra: Accumulation of pus within the uterine cavity, often due to obstruction of the cervical canal combined with chronic infection.</li><li>• Pyometra:</li><li>• Dyspareunia: Pain during sexual intercourse, often due to adhesions and chronic pelvic pain.</li><li>• Dyspareunia:</li><li>• Chronic pelvic pain: Persistent pain in the lower abdomen, which can be severe and debilitating.</li><li>• Chronic pelvic pain:</li><li>• Frozen pelvis: Severe adhesions can cause the pelvic organs to become fixed in place, leading to significant pain and dysfunction.</li><li>• Frozen pelvis:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Uterine polyposis : Uterine polyposis involves the development of benign polyps within the endometrial cavity and is not typically a direct result of PID.</li><li>• Option B. Uterine polyposis</li><li>• Option C. Pseudocyesis : Pseudocyesis, or false pregnancy, is a psychological condition where a woman believes she is pregnant and may exhibit pregnancy symptoms, but is not related to PID.</li><li>• Option C. Pseudocyesis</li><li>• Option D. Endometrial hyperplasia : Endometrial hyperplasia refers to the thickening of the endometrial lining due to excess estrogen stimulation and is not a direct consequence of PID.</li><li>• Option D. Endometrial hyperplasia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Long-standing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to serious complications such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, and pyometra.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 155, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 155, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the causative organism of angular conjunctivitis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Moraxella lacunata", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Haemophilus influenzae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adeno virus type 32", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coxsackie B virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Moraxella lacunata", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-110_hDUcIcR.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Moraxella lacunata</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary causative organism of angular conjunctivitis is Moraxella lacunata, which is a gram-negative diplobacillus. The infection spreads from the nasal cavity to the eyes through contaminated hands and handkerchiefs, and is characterized by inflammation of the canthi and a dirty-white, foamy discharge. The preferred treatment is oxytetracycline for 10 to 14 days.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with hepatitis and progressive neurological degeneration. A picture of his eye has been provided below. Among the following options, what would be the initial step regarding the investigations done for this child's diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum ceruloplasmin levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum copper levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enzyme assay", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Karyotyping", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Serum ceruloplasmin levels", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-113817.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/nm13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Serum ceruloplasmin levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child presenting with hepatitis and neurological symptoms, the presence of a Kayser-Fleischer ring strongly suggests Wilson disease. The first diagnostic step is to measure serum ceruloplasmin levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common causative organism for verruca vulgaris? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human papillomavirus-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Human papillomavirus-7", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human papillomavirus-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Human papillomavirus-1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Human papillomavirus-2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1303.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Human papillomavirus-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Human papillomavirus-2 is the most common cause of verruca vulgaris (common warts), which is important for understanding the etiology and guiding treatment options for these lesions.</li><li>➤ Human papillomavirus-2</li><li>➤ most common cause</li><li>➤ verruca vulgaris (common warts),</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition Chapter 25, Page no 25.43, 25.47, 25.48, 25.52</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition Chapter 25, Page no 25.43, 25.47, 25.48, 25.52</li><li>↳ Andrew's Diseases of the Skin: Clinical Dermatology - 11th Edition Chapter 19, Page no 401</li><li>↳ Andrew's Diseases of the Skin: Clinical Dermatology - 11th Edition Chapter 19, Page no 401</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/9434721/</li><li>↳ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK321770/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Name the investigation shown in the given image? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MR HSG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT HSG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conventional HSG", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "USG HSG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Conventional HSG", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_1yIN7Qt.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Conventional HSG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conventional HSG is a critical diagnostic tool in the assessment of uterine structure and tubal patency, using a radiopaque dye visualized with fluoroscopy, particularly useful in the workup of infertility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True about acute tenosynovitis is:(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conservative management is the mainstay therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "More commonly involves thumb", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posture of finger is in extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pain on passive extension of finger", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pain on passive extension of finger", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/whatsapp-image-2023-11-02-at-43346-pm.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/whatsapp-image-2023-11-02-at-43355-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pain on passive extension of finger</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute suppurative tenosynovitis of the finger is a purulent infection of the flexor tendon sheath of the finger.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis, including fever, chills, dysuria, and perineal pain. A urine sample is taken, and a culture is performed, which reveals the presence of a common organism associated with acute bacterial prostatitis. Identify the organism?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enterococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proteus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus Agalacticia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "E. coli", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. E. coli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. E. coli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Escherichia coli (E. coli) is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis, accounting for the majority of cases and is frequently found in urinary tract infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ureteric bud develops from:(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mesonephric duct", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metanephros", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pronephros", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genital sinus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mesonephric duct", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-121356.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-111.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Mesonephric duct</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A. Dorsal views of the bladder showing the relation of the ureters and mesonephric ducts during development. Initially the ureters are formed by an outgrowth of the mesonephric duct</li><li>➤ A.</li><li>➤ B-D. with time they assume a separate entrance into the urinary bladder</li><li>➤ B-D.</li><li>➤ C and D. Note the trigone of the bladder formed by incorporation of the mesonephric ducts</li><li>➤ C and D.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can grow in an acidic pH? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vibrio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lactobacilli", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shigella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lactobacilli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lactobacilli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lactobacilli's ability to grow in acidic environments is crucial for their role in maintaining healthy microbial flora in certain parts of the human body, such as the vagina, and is also exploited in the fermentation of various food products.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following would be prescribed for simple myopic astigmatism? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "+1.00 DS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "-1.00 DC X 180 degree", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "-1.00 DS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "-1.00 DS -1.00 DC X 180 degree", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. -1.00 DC X 180 degree", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-170024.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-170045.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture2222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. -1.00 DC X 180 degree</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Simple myopic astigmatism requires correction with a cylindrical lens that corrects the myopic meridian, typically specified with the cylinder power and the axis. The correct prescription for simple myopic astigmatism in this case is -1.00 DC X 180 degrees.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is called as Australia antigen? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HBsAg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HBeAg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HBcAg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBV-DNA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HBsAg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HBsAg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HBsAg, also known as the Australia antigen, plays a pivotal role in the diagnosis and monitoring of Hepatitis B infection. Its presence in the blood typically indicates an active Hepatitis B infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following antihypertensive are not used in pregnancy? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha methyldopa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydralazine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Labetalol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Propranolol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Propranolol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antihypertensive to be avoided in pregnancy:</li><li>➤ Antihypertensive to be avoided in pregnancy:</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors, ARBS Diuretics Nonselective beta-blockers Nitroprusside</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors, ARBS</li><li>➤ Diuretics</li><li>➤ Nonselective beta-blockers</li><li>➤ Nitroprusside</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which factor is associated with the Leiden mutation? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "V", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "VIII", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "I", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "X", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. V", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) V</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Leiden mutation specifically affects factor V, rendering it resistant to inactivation by activated protein C, unlike factors VIII, I, or X.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which condition is excessive urinary excretion of 5- hydroxy indole acetic acid (5HIAA) seen?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alkaptonuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Albinism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoid syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenylketonuria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Carcinoid syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture2_7zuNzYE.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Carcinoid syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carcinoid syndrome leads to the overproduction of serotonin by carcinoid tumors, resulting in increased levels of its metabolite, 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5HIAA), in the urine, which is a diagnostic marker for this syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "de-Quervain’s tenosynovitis involves tendon sheath of which two muscles? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/26/untitled-1367955.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is the inflammation of the tendons of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The single most important long-term limitation of cardiac transplantation is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allograft rejection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Allograft arteriopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Allograft arteriopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Allograft arteriopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Allograft arteriopathy is the foremost long-term limitation in cardiac transplantation, causing significant morbidity and mortality through progressive coronary stenosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following conditions is oxygen therapy not useful? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute myocardial infarction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central respiratory depression", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Central respiratory depression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/662.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Central respiratory depression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Oxygen therapy is not beneficial in central respiratory depression, as oxygen therapy will reduce the hypoxic drive to breathe further depressing the respiratory frequency and minute ventilation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Asthma : Because oxygen therapy can be crucial in severe asthma attacks where it helps alleviate hypoxia.</li><li>• Option A. Asthma</li><li>• Option B. Acute myocardial infarction : As oxygen therapy is often used to increase oxygen delivery to the heart tissue, reducing ischemic damage during an acute myocardial infarction.</li><li>• Option B. Acute myocardial infarction</li><li>• Option C. Pulmonary edema : Because oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation in cases of pulmonary edema, especially if caused by heart failure.</li><li>• Option C. Pulmonary edema</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oxygen therapy is not beneficial in central respiratory depression because it may reduce the hypoxic drive to breathe, potentially further depressing respiratory effort and overall ventilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The fate of the Mullerian duct is determined by the? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X chromosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Y chromosome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1st chromosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2nd chromosome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Y chromosome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Y chromosome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The fate of the Mullerian duct is determined by the presence or absence of the Y chromosome, specifically the SRY gene located on the short arm of the Y chromosome. The SRY gene produces testis-determining factor (TDF), which induces the development of the bipotential gonads into testes. The Sertoli cells in the testes secrete Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH), which causes regression of the Mullerian ducts, structures that would otherwise develop into female internal genitalia.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fate of the Mullerian duct is determined by the presence or absence of the Y chromosome, specifically the SRY gene, which leads to the secretion of Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) by the Sertoli cells and regression of the Mullerian ducts in males.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The replacement dose of hydrocortisone for adrenal insufficiency is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30-40", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15-25", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10-15", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5-10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 15-25", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 15-25</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The standard replacement dose of hydrocortisone for adrenal insufficiency is 15-25 mg per day, divided into two or three doses to mimic the body's natural cortisol production. This dose may be adjusted based on individual patient needs and response to treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Low serum copper levels attributed to ATP7A gene is due to: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dubin-Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wilson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Menke's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gilbert's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Menke's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-180518.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Menke’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Menke's disease is characterized by a genetic mutation in the ATP7A gene leading to poor copper absorption and severe systemic deficiencies, notable for its profound impact on early development and survival.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Chap 333.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnostic test of choice for HIV in a baby born to an HIV-infected mother? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV DNA PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cord blood ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Western blot", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Third generation ELISA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HIV DNA PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. HIV DNA PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For infants born to HIV-infected mothers, HIV DNA PCR is the preferred diagnostic test because it detects viral DNA directly, avoiding the pitfalls of tests that detect antibodies, which may not distinguish between maternal antibodies and those produced by the infant itself.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: NACO 2021 HIV Care and treatment guidelines Page 185</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the ideal number of antenatal visits? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12-14", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "6-8", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "7-9", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10-11", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 12-14", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 12-14</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The ideal number of antenatal visits as recommended by various guidelines:</li><li>• MOHFW (Indian guidelines) : At least 4 visits including the first (registration visit) – minimum requirement. Suggested schedule: 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks 2nd Visit: 14-26 weeks 3rd Visit: 28-34 weeks 4th Visit: 36 weeks to term WHO (2016) : Recommends 8 visits: 1st Trimester: Contact 1: Up to 12 weeks 2nd Trimester: Contact 2: 20 weeks Contact 3: 26 weeks 3rd Trimester: Contact 4: 30 weeks Contact 5: 34 weeks Contact 6: 36 weeks Contact 7: 38 weeks Contact 8: 40 weeks ACOG (American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists) : Ideally recommends: Once every month till 28 weeks Every 2 weeks till 36 weeks Weekly till 40 weeks This totals approximately 12-14 visits.</li><li>• MOHFW (Indian guidelines) : At least 4 visits including the first (registration visit) – minimum requirement. Suggested schedule: 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks 2nd Visit: 14-26 weeks 3rd Visit: 28-34 weeks 4th Visit: 36 weeks to term</li><li>• MOHFW (Indian guidelines)</li><li>• At least 4 visits including the first (registration visit) – minimum requirement. Suggested schedule: 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks 2nd Visit: 14-26 weeks 3rd Visit: 28-34 weeks 4th Visit: 36 weeks to term</li><li>• At least 4 visits including the first (registration visit) – minimum requirement.</li><li>• Suggested schedule: 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks 2nd Visit: 14-26 weeks 3rd Visit: 28-34 weeks 4th Visit: 36 weeks to term</li><li>• 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks 2nd Visit: 14-26 weeks 3rd Visit: 28-34 weeks 4th Visit: 36 weeks to term</li><li>• 1st Visit: Within 12 weeks</li><li>• 2nd Visit: 14-26 weeks</li><li>• 3rd Visit: 28-34 weeks</li><li>• 4th Visit: 36 weeks to term</li><li>• WHO (2016) : Recommends 8 visits: 1st Trimester: Contact 1: Up to 12 weeks 2nd Trimester: Contact 2: 20 weeks Contact 3: 26 weeks 3rd Trimester: Contact 4: 30 weeks Contact 5: 34 weeks Contact 6: 36 weeks Contact 7: 38 weeks Contact 8: 40 weeks</li><li>• WHO (2016)</li><li>• Recommends 8 visits: 1st Trimester: Contact 1: Up to 12 weeks 2nd Trimester: Contact 2: 20 weeks Contact 3: 26 weeks 3rd Trimester: Contact 4: 30 weeks Contact 5: 34 weeks Contact 6: 36 weeks Contact 7: 38 weeks Contact 8: 40 weeks</li><li>• Recommends 8 visits: 1st Trimester: Contact 1: Up to 12 weeks 2nd Trimester: Contact 2: 20 weeks Contact 3: 26 weeks 3rd Trimester: Contact 4: 30 weeks Contact 5: 34 weeks Contact 6: 36 weeks Contact 7: 38 weeks Contact 8: 40 weeks</li><li>• 1st Trimester: Contact 1: Up to 12 weeks 2nd Trimester: Contact 2: 20 weeks Contact 3: 26 weeks 3rd Trimester: Contact 4: 30 weeks Contact 5: 34 weeks Contact 6: 36 weeks Contact 7: 38 weeks Contact 8: 40 weeks</li><li>• 1st Trimester: Contact 1: Up to 12 weeks</li><li>• Contact 1: Up to 12 weeks</li><li>• Contact 1: Up to 12 weeks</li><li>• 2nd Trimester: Contact 2: 20 weeks Contact 3: 26 weeks</li><li>• Contact 2: 20 weeks Contact 3: 26 weeks</li><li>• Contact 2: 20 weeks</li><li>• Contact 3: 26 weeks</li><li>• 3rd Trimester: Contact 4: 30 weeks Contact 5: 34 weeks Contact 6: 36 weeks Contact 7: 38 weeks Contact 8: 40 weeks</li><li>• Contact 4: 30 weeks Contact 5: 34 weeks Contact 6: 36 weeks Contact 7: 38 weeks Contact 8: 40 weeks</li><li>• Contact 4: 30 weeks</li><li>• Contact 5: 34 weeks</li><li>• Contact 6: 36 weeks</li><li>• Contact 7: 38 weeks</li><li>• Contact 8: 40 weeks</li><li>• ACOG (American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists) : Ideally recommends: Once every month till 28 weeks Every 2 weeks till 36 weeks Weekly till 40 weeks This totals approximately 12-14 visits.</li><li>• ACOG (American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists)</li><li>• Ideally recommends: Once every month till 28 weeks Every 2 weeks till 36 weeks Weekly till 40 weeks This totals approximately 12-14 visits.</li><li>• Ideally recommends: Once every month till 28 weeks Every 2 weeks till 36 weeks Weekly till 40 weeks</li><li>• Once every month till 28 weeks Every 2 weeks till 36 weeks Weekly till 40 weeks</li><li>• Once every month till 28 weeks</li><li>• Every 2 weeks till 36 weeks</li><li>• Weekly till 40 weeks</li><li>• This totals approximately 12-14 visits.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ideal number of antenatal visits is 12-14, as recommended by ACOG, ensuring comprehensive prenatal care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What immunization coverage percentage is required by the WHO for the eradication of measles? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "68%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "72%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "84%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "96%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 96%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 96%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To eradicate measles, the WHO recommends an immunization coverage of 96% among children under the age of 1, emphasizing the need for near-universal coverage to achieve herd immunity and effectively control the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the recommended treatment for a 9-month-old baby with diarrhea, who is feeding adequately, thirsty, and exhibits skin that returns to normal after a pinch within 2 seconds? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "200-400 ml of ORS to be given in the first four hours.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "400-700 ml of ORS to be given in the first four hours.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "700-900 ml of ORS to be given in the first 4 hours.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In addition to the usual fluid intake, 100-200 ml should be given after each loose stool.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 400-700 ml of ORS to be given in the first four hours.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-130633.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/chart1.gif"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 400-700 ml of ORS to be given in the first four hours.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a 9-month-old baby showing signs of some dehydration due to diarrhea, it is crucial to administer 400-700 ml of ORS over the first four hours, adhering to IMNCI guidelines. This approach ensures effective initial rehydration and sets the stage for ongoing recovery and feeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a common feature of ABPA? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Distal bronchiectasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cough", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wheezing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Raised serum lgE levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Distal bronchiectasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Distal bronchiectasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Central and proximal bronchiectasis, not distal bronchiectasis, is a characteristic radiological finding in ABPA, helping to differentiate it from other pulmonary conditions. The presence of cough, wheezing, and significantly raised serum IgE levels are supportive of the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harrison 21/Pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophilia/Chap 288</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Apixaban belongs to which of the following class of drugs? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antifibrinolytic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor Xa inhibitor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral direct thrombin inhibitor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Factor Xa inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Factor Xa inhibitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Apixaban is an oral direct Factor Xa inhibitor used for the prevention and treatment of thromboembolic events, including deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and thromboembolism in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Non-articular bone pain is differentiated from articular bone pain by:(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pain in both active and passive movements", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pain in only active movements", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crepitus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Swelling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pain in only active movements", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/26/untitled-1367956.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pain in only active movements</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-articular pain occurs only during active movements. When both active and passive range of movements are painful, it is due to articular pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the drug used for refractory intractable rheumatic chorea? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Probenecid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sodium valproate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sodium valproate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Sodium valproate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sodium valproate is the preferred drug for treating refractory intractable rheumatic chorea due to its efficacy in reducing involuntary movements by enhancing inhibitory neurotransmission in the brain. It has a better side effect profile for long-term management of this condition compared to other options.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with recurrent kidney stones. The microscopic examination of the urine specimen is shown below. Which of the following is not seen in the urine of this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arginine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lysine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cysteine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cysteine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture4_c21dzRV.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cysteine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystinuria: Cystinuria is one of the inborn errors of metabolism included in the Garrod’s tetrad. It is an autosomal recessive condition.</li><li>➤ Cystinuria is one of the inborn errors of metabolism included in the Garrod’s tetrad.</li><li>➤ an autosomal recessive</li><li>➤ The disorder is attributed to the deficiency in transport of amino acids Signs and symptoms include:</li><li>➤ Signs and symptoms include:</li><li>➤ Abnormal excretion of cystine and to a lesser extent lysine, ornithine and arginine. Hence the condition is also called Cystine-lysinuria . Crystalluria and calculi formation . In acidic pH, cystine crystals are formed in urine Obstructive uropathy, which may lead to renal insufficiency Cyanide-Nitroprusside Test is a screening test . Urine is made alkaline with ammonium hydroxide and sodium cyanide is added. Cystine, if present, is reduced to cysteine. Then add sodium nitroprusside to get a magenta-red colored complex. Specific aminoaciduria may be confirmed by chromatography. Treatment is to increase urinary volume by increasing fluid intake . Solubility of cystine is increased by alkalinization of urine by giving sodium bicarbonate.</li><li>➤ Abnormal excretion of cystine and to a lesser extent lysine, ornithine and arginine. Hence the condition is also called Cystine-lysinuria .</li><li>➤ Cystine-lysinuria</li><li>➤ Crystalluria and calculi formation . In acidic pH, cystine crystals are formed in urine</li><li>➤ . In acidic pH, cystine crystals are formed in urine</li><li>➤ Obstructive uropathy, which may lead to renal insufficiency</li><li>➤ Cyanide-Nitroprusside Test is a screening test . Urine is made alkaline with ammonium hydroxide and sodium cyanide is added. Cystine, if present, is reduced to cysteine. Then add sodium nitroprusside to get a magenta-red colored complex. Specific aminoaciduria may be confirmed by chromatography.</li><li>➤ Cyanide-Nitroprusside Test is a screening test</li><li>➤ Treatment is to increase urinary volume by increasing fluid intake . Solubility of cystine is increased by alkalinization of urine by giving sodium bicarbonate.</li><li>➤ Treatment is to increase urinary volume by increasing fluid intake</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about vitamin K? ( NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deficiency of vitamin K leads to hypercoagulability.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is a water-soluble vitamin.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prolonged use of antibiotics leads to vitamin K deficiency.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Menaquinone is the dietary source of vitamin K found in green vegetables.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prolonged use of antibiotics leads to vitamin K deficiency.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Prolonged use of antibiotics leads to Vitamin K deficiency</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which section of IPC defines McNaughten's rule? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Section 83 of CrPC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Section 84 of IPC", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Section 184 of IPC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Section 184 of CrPC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Section 84 of IPC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Section 84 of IPC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Section 84 of IPC defines the act of a person of unsound mind and is derived from the McNaughten Rule, providing a legal defense for individuals who commit crimes due to their mental incapacity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In extroversion, what is the yoke muscle of the right lateral rectus muscle? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left superior oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left medial rectus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left inferior rectus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left superior rectus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Left medial rectus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-184927.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/picture30001.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Left medial rectus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In extroversion (rightward gaze), the yoke muscle for the right lateral rectus (which abducts the right eye) is the left medial rectus (which adducts the left eye), enabling coordinated horizontal movement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the maximum duration for TRALI to occur after blood transfusion? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "48 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/14/untitled-367_i7Le7u2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 6 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ TRALI vs TACO: -</li><li>➤ TRALI vs TACO: -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following types of renal stones are produced by laxative abuse? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ammonium urate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Struvite", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium oxalate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ammonium urate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ammonium urate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laxative abuse can lead to metabolic alkalosis, which creates an alkaline urinary environment, predisposing to the formation of ammonium urate stones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the recommended dietary allowance for iodine dosage among lactating women in India? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "200 µg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "220 µg/ day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "250 µg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "280 µg/day", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 280 µg/day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-090550.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 280 µg/day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ India had adopted WHO guideline of Iodine requirement 150 mcg per day in Adults, 250 mcg per day in Pregnancy and 280 mcg per day in Lactation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements accurately describes the Factories Act? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Children under 14 years of age must not be employed in factories", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A child of 16 years can be employed only between 6 AM and 8 PM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The maximum working hours for an adult is 72 hours per week", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A child of 16 years can work till 5 hours per day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Children under 14 years of age must not be employed in factories", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Children under 14 years of age must not be employed in factories</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Factories Act of 1948 critically mandates that children under the age of 14 must not be employed in factories, reflecting the law's strong stance on child labor and its emphasis on the health and safety of young individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following conditions is the given X-ray finding seen? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophageal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophageal stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reflux esophagitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barrett's esophagus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Reflux esophagitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_184.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_185.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Reflux esophagitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appearance of a feline esophagus on a barium swallow X-ray is indicative of eosinophilic esophagitis and is often associated with conditions like asthma and GERD. This finding underscores the importance of considering inflammatory and allergic contributions in patients presenting with esophageal symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the function of the muscle marked in the image below, at the metacarpophalangeal joint?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flexion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abduction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Flexion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-103.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-104.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-124922.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Flexion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lumbricals are essential for the flexion of the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints, contributing significantly to the dexterity and functional complexity of the hand, particularly in actions that require a combination of flexing and extending different joints of the fingers, such as typing or playing certain musical instruments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Addison's disease can present with symptoms similar to which of the following disorders? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Depression", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Generalized anxiety disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bipolar disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Panic disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Depression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Depression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Addison's disease is due to hypofunctioning of the adrenocortical system. It can mimic depression due to overlapping symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and low mood. It is essential to consider medical conditions that can present similarly to psychiatric disorders to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 10th edition, Page No 682.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following nerves is responsible for referred otalgia from tonsillitis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vagus nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glossopharyngeal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_217.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glossopharyngeal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Referred otalgia from tonsillitis is most commonly mediated through the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), highlighting the importance of the nerve's role in sensory transmission from the tonsils and tonsillar fossa to the ear.</li><li>➤ Ref - Source Dhingra 7th edition pg 143, 144</li><li>➤ Ref - Source Dhingra 7th edition pg 143, 144</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Broca's area is situated in? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inferior frontal gyrus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior temporal gyrus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Angular gyrus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Postcentral gyrus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inferior frontal gyrus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-96.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Inferior frontal gyrus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Broca's area is situated in the inferior frontal gyrus.</li><li>➤ Broca's motor speech area - (44,45) is located in the inferior frontal gyrus. Wernicke's area - (22) is located in the superior temporal gyrus.</li><li>➤ Broca's motor speech area - (44,45) is located in the inferior frontal gyrus.</li><li>➤ Wernicke's area - (22) is located in the superior temporal gyrus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which drug is used for mass chemoprophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloramphenicol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ciprofloxacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ciprofloxacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ciprofloxacin, Rifampicin, Ceftriaxone is indicated in the chemoprophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis for close contacts to prevent secondary cases.</li><li>➤ Ceftriaxone is preferred in children &lt; 18 years and pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not considered as a factor for a high-risk pregnancy? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obesity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polyhydramnios", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Previous manual removal of placenta", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Previous manual removal of placenta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Previous manual removal of placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Previous manual removal of the placenta does not automatically categorize a subsequent pregnancy as high-risk. High-risk pregnancies are characterized by various factors that may complicate the pregnancy or pose risks to the mother and fetus. These factors include existing health conditions, certain lifestyle factors, age-related risks, and specific pregnancy conditions.</li><li>• High-risk pregnancy factors according to the NIH include:</li><li>• High-risk pregnancy factors according to the NIH include:</li><li>• Existing health conditions: Hypertension Diabetes Autoimmune diseases PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) Thyroid disorders Obesity HIV Anemia Uterine fibroids Age: Adolescence First-time pregnancy at age &gt;35 years Lifestyle factors: Alcohol consumption Smoking Drug use Pregnancy conditions: Multiple pregnancy Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) Pre-eclampsia Previous preterm birth Congenital or chromosomal anomalies Polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios Rh iso-immunization Antepartum hemorrhage Fetal growth restriction</li><li>• Existing health conditions: Hypertension Diabetes Autoimmune diseases PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) Thyroid disorders Obesity HIV Anemia Uterine fibroids</li><li>• Existing health conditions:</li><li>• Hypertension Diabetes Autoimmune diseases PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) Thyroid disorders Obesity HIV Anemia Uterine fibroids</li><li>• Hypertension</li><li>• Diabetes</li><li>• Autoimmune diseases</li><li>• PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome)</li><li>• Thyroid disorders</li><li>• Obesity</li><li>• HIV</li><li>• Anemia</li><li>• Uterine fibroids</li><li>• Age: Adolescence First-time pregnancy at age &gt;35 years</li><li>• Age:</li><li>• Adolescence First-time pregnancy at age &gt;35 years</li><li>• Adolescence</li><li>• First-time pregnancy at age &gt;35 years</li><li>• Lifestyle factors: Alcohol consumption Smoking Drug use</li><li>• Lifestyle factors:</li><li>• Alcohol consumption Smoking Drug use</li><li>• Alcohol consumption</li><li>• Smoking</li><li>• Drug use</li><li>• Pregnancy conditions: Multiple pregnancy Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) Pre-eclampsia Previous preterm birth Congenital or chromosomal anomalies Polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios Rh iso-immunization Antepartum hemorrhage Fetal growth restriction</li><li>• Pregnancy conditions:</li><li>• Multiple pregnancy Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) Pre-eclampsia Previous preterm birth Congenital or chromosomal anomalies Polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios Rh iso-immunization Antepartum hemorrhage Fetal growth restriction</li><li>• Multiple pregnancy</li><li>• Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)</li><li>• Pre-eclampsia</li><li>• Previous preterm birth</li><li>• Congenital or chromosomal anomalies</li><li>• Polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios</li><li>• Rh iso-immunization</li><li>• Antepartum hemorrhage</li><li>• Fetal growth restriction</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Obesity : Obesity is a significant factor for a high-risk pregnancy as it is associated with various complications such as gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and increased risk of cesarean delivery.</li><li>• Option A. Obesity</li><li>• Option B. Polyhydramnios : Polyhydramnios, which is an excessive amount of amniotic fluid, can lead to complications such as preterm labor and fetal malformations, making it a high-risk condition.</li><li>• Option B. Polyhydramnios</li><li>• Option C. Anemia : Anemia during pregnancy can affect the health of both the mother and the fetus, leading to conditions such as preterm birth and low birth weight, thus categorizing it as high-risk.</li><li>• Option C. Anemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Previous manual removal of the placenta is not considered a factor for categorizing a subsequent pregnancy as high-risk.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.nichd.nih.gov/health/topics/high-risk</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.nichd.nih.gov/health/topics/high-risk</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following structure pass through the aortic opening of diaphragm except? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Azygous vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thoracic duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vagal trunk", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vagal trunk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-101.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-102.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-150608.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Vagal trunk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the observational unit in ecological investigations?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Population", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Healthy individuals", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Case", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-095157.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following devices is Murphy's eye seen? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasopharyngeal airway", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laryngoscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchoscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endotracheal tube", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Endotracheal tube", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-12-04%20151815_uJh7OF0.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Endotracheal tube</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Murphy's eye is an important safety feature found in endotracheal tubes, providing an alternative pathway for ventilation and reducing the risk of mucosal trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition represented in the image below: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Emphysema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Miliary tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Miliary tuberculosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/2_lKCb6Q7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Miliary tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Miliary tuberculosis appears as small, millet seed-sized yellowish foci scattered throughout the lung parenchyma, indicative of widespread hematogenous dissemination of tuberculosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Myasthenia gravis is associated with: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased myosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased acetylcholine release at the nerve endings", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Absence of troponin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased synaptic transmission at the myoneural junction", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Decreased synaptic transmission at the myoneural junction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Decreased synaptic transmission at the myoneural junction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disease characterized by Ab to postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors . Hence, treated with steroids and immunomodulators.</li><li>➤ Ab to postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about the iliopubic tract?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a thickening of the lumbar fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It lies anterior to the Poupart's ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It inserts into the pubic tubercle in front of the conjoint tendon", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Its fibers fan out with fascia illaca laterally", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Its fibers fan out with fascia illaca laterally", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-109_QY0pmnR.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/02/image-110.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Its fibers fan out with fascia illaca laterally</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ As the iliopubic tract moves laterally from the pubic tubercle, its fibers fan out and blend with the fascia of the iliacus muscle (often referred to as the iliac fascia or fascia iliaca). This provides a connection between the structures of the anterior abdominal wall and the pelvic sidewall.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What levels of prolactin are definitely suggestive of prolactinoma? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&gt; 50 ug/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&gt; 100 ug/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt; 150 ug/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt; 200 ug/L", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. > 200 ug/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-163238.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-163300.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. &gt; 200 ug/L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the options below does NOT result in water hardness? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium carbonate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium bicarbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Magnesium bicarbonate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Calcium carbonate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Calcium carbonate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hardness of water is defined as the ‘soap destroying power of water’ Hardness of water is expressed in terms of: milliequivalents per litre (mEq/litre) of CALCIUM CARBONATE (CaCO3) 1 mEq/litre hardness = 50 mg CaCO3 (50 ppm) per litre of water Softening of water is recommended at level of hardness &gt; 3 mEq/litre (&gt;150 mg/litre of Calcium carbonate) Temporary hardness of water is due to Ca++ and Mg++ Bicarbonates Permanent hardness (Non-Carbonate hardness) is due to Calcium &amp; Magnesium salts of Sulfates, Chlorides, Nitrates Four main compounds causing Hardness: Calcium bicarbonates, Magnesium bicarbonates, Calcium sulfates, Magnesium sulfates.</li><li>➤ Hardness of water is defined as the ‘soap destroying power of water’</li><li>➤ Hardness of water is expressed in terms of: milliequivalents per litre (mEq/litre) of CALCIUM CARBONATE (CaCO3)</li><li>➤ 1 mEq/litre hardness = 50 mg CaCO3 (50 ppm) per litre of water</li><li>➤ Softening of water is recommended at level of hardness &gt; 3 mEq/litre (&gt;150 mg/litre of Calcium carbonate)</li><li>➤ Temporary hardness of water is due to Ca++ and Mg++ Bicarbonates</li><li>➤ Permanent hardness (Non-Carbonate hardness) is due to Calcium &amp; Magnesium salts of Sulfates, Chlorides, Nitrates</li><li>➤ Four main compounds causing Hardness: Calcium bicarbonates, Magnesium bicarbonates, Calcium sulfates, Magnesium sulfates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Warthin Finkeldey cells are seen in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubeola", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Typhoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rubeola", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/23/screenshot-2024-02-23-132441.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rubeola</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Warthin-Finkeldey cells are pathognomonic giant multinucleated cells associated with measles (rubeola) infection and are indicative of viral interaction with lymphoid tissue, aiding in the diagnosis of this highly contagious respiratory illness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old lady comes with abnormal uterine bleeding. A hysterectomy was performed, and the following specimen was retrieved. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leiomyoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrial carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenomyosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leiomyoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-03-03%20103000.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture1_j3BTCwm.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture2_Mzt5jPs.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Leiomyoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image shows a large leiomyoma. (Submucosal, i.e., the location of the fibroid is in the endometrial cavity) Patients usually present with heavy menstrual bleeding. According to their location, fibroids are classified according to FIGO classification. Most common HPE features are: Whorled appearance in cross section, well circumscribed firm lesion. The most common degeneration associated with myomas is cystic degeneration. Red degeneration is common during pregnancy.</li><li>• The given image shows a large leiomyoma. (Submucosal, i.e., the location of the fibroid is in the endometrial cavity)</li><li>• Patients usually present with heavy menstrual bleeding.</li><li>• According to their location, fibroids are classified according to FIGO classification.</li><li>• Most common HPE features are: Whorled appearance in cross section, well circumscribed firm lesion. </li><li>• The most common degeneration associated with myomas is cystic degeneration.</li><li>• Red degeneration is common during pregnancy.</li><li>• FIGO Classification of Fibroids</li><li>• FIGO Classification of Fibroids</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Endometrial carcinoma : This will show an irregular growth In the endometrial cavity as shown in the image</li><li>• Option B. Endometrial carcinoma</li><li>• Option C. Endometrial polyp : This will appear as a soft fleshy projection in the endometrial cavity as shown in the image</li><li>• Option C. Endometrial polyp</li><li>• Option D. Adenomyosis : This usually will be a globular enlargement of the uterus with myometrial thickening as shown below</li><li>• Option D. Adenomyosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leiomyomas, or fibroids, are the most common benign tumors of the uterus, often presenting with heavy menstrual bleeding. They are characterized by a whorled appearance in cross section and a well-circumscribed, firm lesion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female patient has hypokalemia, hypertension and metabolic alkalosis. What is the most likely etiology? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bartter syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gitelman's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liddle's syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fanconi's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Liddle's syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/nm16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Liddle’s Syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Liddle's syndrome is characterized by hypertension, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis due to increased activity of sodium channels in the distal nephron, not due to increased aldosterone, distinguishing it from other similar electrolyte disorders.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/ Physiology of Kidney/Chap 309 - Table 309-1</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old woman was involved in a car accident two months ago, and she now complains of screaming and waking up in the middle of the night after having nightmares about the same incident over and over. Which of the following conditions does she have? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute stress reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adjustment disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mania", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post traumatic stress disorder", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Post traumatic stress disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Post traumatic stress disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PTSD manifests after experiencing or witnessing significant traumatic event , with symptoms like flashbacks, nightmares,hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, severe anxiety centered on the event and avoidance of the situations that remind of the trauma. The symptoms must be present for at least one month . It is more common in females and young adults. Hippocampus and amygdala are implicated in the etiology of PTSD. Treatment includes trauma-focussed CBT (treatment of choice), SSRIs (Drug of choice), and eye movements desensitization and reprocessing.</li><li>➤ significant traumatic event</li><li>➤ one month</li><li>➤ Hippocampus</li><li>➤ amygdala</li><li>➤ trauma-focussed CBT</li><li>➤ SSRIs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 439-441.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The vertical and horizontal fracture of nasal septum is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chevallet and Jarjaway fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Citelli fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tripod fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chevallet and Jarjaway fracture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/5_fBBc4Yc.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/6_XzGK6Dm.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/7_8CGgvXW.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chevallet and Jarjaway fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Chevallet and Jarjaway fractures are important classifications in the context of nasal injuries, describing vertical and horizontal fractures of the nasal septum respectively. Understanding these fracture types aids in accurate diagnosis and management of nasal trauma.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 166</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 166</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following poisons cause bluish discoloration of the stomach mucosa on postmortem examination? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxalic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium amytal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Soneryl", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atomic number 33", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sodium amytal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Sodium amytal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bluish discoloration of the stomach mucosa on postmortem examination is a characteristic finding in sodium amytal and copper sulphate poisoning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman is diagnosed to be positive for HIV in her first trimester. What is the most appropriate management? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Start ART immediately and continue till 6 weeks after delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start ART after 1st trimester and continue life-long", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start ART immediately and continue life-long", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start ART after 1st trimester and continue till 6 weeks after delivery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Start ART immediately and continue life-long", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Start ART immediately and continue life long</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) recommends that all pregnant women with HIV should start antiretroviral therapy (ART) immediately, regardless of the stage of their disease or their CD4 count. This approach is aimed at reducing the viral load as quickly as possible, thereby decreasing the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV. ART should be continued lifelong to ensure ongoing viral suppression and the health of the mother.</li><li>• Management of HIV-positive pregnancy includes:</li><li>• Management of HIV-positive pregnancy includes:</li><li>• Antenatal care: Testing for other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), CMV, toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, fungal, and other opportunistic infections. Partner/husband should also be tested. To prevent pneumocystis pneumonia, start co-trimoxazole if CD4 count is ≤ 250 cells/mm³ and continue through pregnancy, delivery, and breastfeeding (dose: double strength tablet, 1 tablet daily). Assess immunization status and update as needed. Counseling on the impact of HIV on pregnancy and factors influencing the progression of the disease and risk of perinatal transmission. CD4 count testing in each trimester. Monitor HIV RNA levels monthly after changing/initiating therapy. CBC, LFT, and KFT in each trimester. Anti-retroviral therapy for all: As per NACO: Start ART at diagnosis (regardless of CD4 count); continue lifelong. Initiate lifelong ART in all pregnant women with confirmed HIV infection regardless of WHO clinical stage or CD4 cell count. TDF + 3TC + EFV is recommended as first-line ART in pregnant and breastfeeding women (including pregnant women in the first trimester of pregnancy). Pregnant women detected to be HIV-positive for the first time in labor should be initiated on ART (TDF + 3TC + EFV) immediately.</li><li>• Antenatal care: Testing for other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), CMV, toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, fungal, and other opportunistic infections. Partner/husband should also be tested. To prevent pneumocystis pneumonia, start co-trimoxazole if CD4 count is ≤ 250 cells/mm³ and continue through pregnancy, delivery, and breastfeeding (dose: double strength tablet, 1 tablet daily). Assess immunization status and update as needed. Counseling on the impact of HIV on pregnancy and factors influencing the progression of the disease and risk of perinatal transmission. CD4 count testing in each trimester. Monitor HIV RNA levels monthly after changing/initiating therapy. CBC, LFT, and KFT in each trimester.</li><li>• Antenatal care:</li><li>• Testing for other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), CMV, toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, fungal, and other opportunistic infections. Partner/husband should also be tested. To prevent pneumocystis pneumonia, start co-trimoxazole if CD4 count is ≤ 250 cells/mm³ and continue through pregnancy, delivery, and breastfeeding (dose: double strength tablet, 1 tablet daily). Assess immunization status and update as needed. Counseling on the impact of HIV on pregnancy and factors influencing the progression of the disease and risk of perinatal transmission. CD4 count testing in each trimester. Monitor HIV RNA levels monthly after changing/initiating therapy. CBC, LFT, and KFT in each trimester.</li><li>• Testing for other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), CMV, toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, fungal, and other opportunistic infections.</li><li>• Partner/husband should also be tested.</li><li>• To prevent pneumocystis pneumonia, start co-trimoxazole if CD4 count is ≤ 250 cells/mm³ and continue through pregnancy, delivery, and breastfeeding (dose: double strength tablet, 1 tablet daily).</li><li>• Assess immunization status and update as needed.</li><li>• Counseling on the impact of HIV on pregnancy and factors influencing the progression of the disease and risk of perinatal transmission.</li><li>• CD4 count testing in each trimester.</li><li>• Monitor HIV RNA levels monthly after changing/initiating therapy.</li><li>• CBC, LFT, and KFT in each trimester.</li><li>• Anti-retroviral therapy for all: As per NACO: Start ART at diagnosis (regardless of CD4 count); continue lifelong. Initiate lifelong ART in all pregnant women with confirmed HIV infection regardless of WHO clinical stage or CD4 cell count. TDF + 3TC + EFV is recommended as first-line ART in pregnant and breastfeeding women (including pregnant women in the first trimester of pregnancy). Pregnant women detected to be HIV-positive for the first time in labor should be initiated on ART (TDF + 3TC + EFV) immediately.</li><li>• Anti-retroviral therapy for all:</li><li>• As per NACO: Start ART at diagnosis (regardless of CD4 count); continue lifelong. Initiate lifelong ART in all pregnant women with confirmed HIV infection regardless of WHO clinical stage or CD4 cell count. TDF + 3TC + EFV is recommended as first-line ART in pregnant and breastfeeding women (including pregnant women in the first trimester of pregnancy). Pregnant women detected to be HIV-positive for the first time in labor should be initiated on ART (TDF + 3TC + EFV) immediately.</li><li>• As per NACO: Start ART at diagnosis (regardless of CD4 count); continue lifelong.</li><li>• Initiate lifelong ART in all pregnant women with confirmed HIV infection regardless of WHO clinical stage or CD4 cell count.</li><li>• TDF + 3TC + EFV is recommended as first-line ART in pregnant and breastfeeding women (including pregnant women in the first trimester of pregnancy).</li><li>• Pregnant women detected to be HIV-positive for the first time in labor should be initiated on ART (TDF + 3TC + EFV) immediately.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Start ART immediately upon diagnosis of HIV in pregnancy and continue lifelong to reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission and maintain the health of the mother.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the article in the constitution that is not related to pediatrics? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "21A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "24", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "39E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "42", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 42", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 42</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Article 42 is not related to pediatrics, as it focuses on working conditions and maternity relief, unlike Articles 21A, 24, and 39E, which are specifically aimed at the rights and protection of children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following antiretroviral drugs is not used in HIV &amp; hepatitis B co-infection? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tenofovir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abacavir", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lamivudine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emtricitabine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Abacavir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Abacavir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the treatment of patients with HIV and hepatitis B co-infection, abacavir is not used due to its lack of efficacy against HBV. Instead, drugs like tenofovir, lamivudine, and emtricitabine, which have dual activity against both viruses, are preferred.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: NACO 2021 HIV Care and treatment guidelines</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Tom-Smith arthritis destroys: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acetabular roof", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femoral capital epiphysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femoral neck", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Greater trochanter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Femoral capital epiphysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/41.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/42.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Femoral capital epiphysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tom smith arthritis or the septic arthritis in children, most commonly affects the femoral capital epiphysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a well-designed cancer study, comparable rates of remission were achieved for both a new treatment (33.2%) and the conventional treatment (32.2%). The corresponding p-value was recorded as 0.04. Which of the following statements is true regarding the study? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both the treatments are equally effective", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neither of the treatments is effective", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The new treatment is more effective than the usual treatment", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The information given is not adequate to compare the efficacy of the treatments", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The new treatment is more effective than the usual treatment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) The new treatment is more effective than the usual treatment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Even small differences in treatment outcomes can be statistically significant. A p-value of less than 0.05, as seen in this study, typically supports the conclusion that the new treatment offers a measurable improvement over the conventional treatment in terms of remission rates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Seman's squeeze technique is used for which of the following conditions?( NEET PG 2018 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retrograde ejaculation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erectile dysfunction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Premature ejaculation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Painful ejaculation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Premature ejaculation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Premature ejaculation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Seman's squeeze technique is a non-pharmacological method used to delay ejaculation in men with premature ejaculation. Here, when the man gets the feeling of impending ejaculation, the sex is stopped for some time and once excitement has decreased, it is restarted. Hence, it is also known as stop-start technique . Another non-pharmacological treatment includes squeeze technique , where the female partner squeezes the coronal ridge of the glans, when the man gets the feeling of impending ejaculation.</li><li>➤ stop-start technique</li><li>➤ squeeze technique</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 586.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions is associated with AV block? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cushing's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypothyroidism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hypothyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypothyroidism causes reversible AV Block that improves with LT4 supplementation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old patient has come with sudden onset of chest pain and his CT scan shows the following picture. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic dissection", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aortic aneurysm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myocardial infarction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aortic dissection", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_axQTAKs.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Aortic dissection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AORTIC DISSECTION</li><li>➤ AORTIC DISSECTION</li><li>➤ Risk factor – Hypertension (MC), connective tissue disorder – Marfan’s syndrome Clinical features – Acute chest pain, radiating to back IOC in unstable patients - TEE IOC in stable patients - CT angiography</li><li>➤ Risk factor – Hypertension (MC), connective tissue disorder – Marfan’s syndrome</li><li>➤ Risk factor –</li><li>➤ Clinical features – Acute chest pain, radiating to back</li><li>➤ Clinical features –</li><li>➤ IOC in unstable patients - TEE</li><li>➤ TEE</li><li>➤ IOC in stable patients - CT angiography</li><li>➤ CT angiography</li><li>➤ Stanford classification</li><li>➤ Stanford classification</li><li>➤ Ascending is involved – Urgent surgical intervention B – Ascending not involved – Medical management – IV esmolol</li><li>➤ Ascending is involved – Urgent surgical intervention</li><li>➤ B – Ascending not involved – Medical management – IV esmolol</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is confused, opens his eyes on painful stimuli, flexes one limb on painful stimuli, and can localize the stimulus with the other limb. His Glasgow Coma Score is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "9", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "11", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 11", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-151017.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 11</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is calculated based on eye response, verbal response, and motor response, with a total score indicating the level of consciousness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Stellate granuloma is seen in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cat-scratch disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cat-scratch disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/14/untitled-370.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/14/untitled-369.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cat scratch disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms produce urease? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Helicobacter pylori", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shigella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Helicobacter pylori", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Helicobacter pylori</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urease-producing organisms : (Mnemonic-PUNCH)</li><li>➤ Urease-producing organisms</li><li>➤ Proteus asma urealyticum Nocardia Cryptococcus, Corynebacterium urealyticum H. pylori</li><li>➤ Proteus</li><li>➤ asma urealyticum</li><li>➤ Nocardia</li><li>➤ Cryptococcus, Corynebacterium urealyticum</li><li>➤ H. pylori</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Kala-Azar is endemic in all these regions except: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "West Bengal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bihar", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assam", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Assam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-094858.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Assam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The hard palate contains?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keratinized epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Keratinized epithelium, absent submucosa, no salivary glands", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-keratinized epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-keratinized epithelium, absent submucosa, minor salivary glands", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Keratinized epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Keratinized epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hard palate is composed of keratinized epithelium to withstand mechanical stress, a submucosa that provides structural support, and contains minor salivary glands, which are essential for the lubrication and initial digestion of food. This structural composition is crucial for its function in the oral cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of these is not used for body fat evaluation? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Quetelet's index", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total body potassium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total body water", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Breslow index", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Breslow index", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-091650.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Breslow index</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Breslow index assesses the depth of melanoma skin cancer. It is crucial to recognize that this index serves a specific purpose in clinical dermatology and oncology, unrelated to nutritional or fitness assessments.</li><li>➤ Obesity indices are –</li><li>➤ Obesity indices are –</li><li>➤ Broca’s Index: Ideal Body Weight (kg) = Height (cm) – 100 Quetelet’s Index (Body Mass Index /BMI): BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (m) 2 Corpulence Index (CI) = Actual weight/Desirable weight Ponderal Index (PI)</li><li>➤ Broca’s Index: Ideal Body Weight (kg) = Height (cm) – 100</li><li>➤ Quetelet’s Index (Body Mass Index /BMI): BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (m) 2</li><li>➤ Corpulence Index (CI) = Actual weight/Desirable weight</li><li>➤ Ponderal Index (PI)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis based on the given image? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterus didelphys", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bicornuate uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Septate uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unicornuate uterus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Unicornuate uterus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_9XjBiWi.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_192.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_193.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_194.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Unicornuate uterus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Unicornuate uterus is identified on HSG by a fusiform shape and a single fallopian tube connection, often displaced from the midline, indicating unilateral Müllerian duct development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is 'mental retardation' now called according to the American Psychiatric Association in its revision of DSM-5? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Feeble mindedness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mental subnormality", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intellectual disability", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intellectually challenged", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intellectual disability", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Intellectual disability</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ It's essential to understand that the term \"mental retardation\" is now outdated and has been replaced with \"intellectual disability\" in clinical settings, especially according to DSM-5, to ensure respectful and non-stigmatizing communication.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 1118-1119.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Multifocal non-suppurative osteomyelitis is characterized by:(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inflammation with purulent discharge", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "No inflammation with purulent discharge", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inflammation without purulent discharge", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "No inflammation, no purulent discharge", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inflammation without purulent discharge", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Inflammation without purulent discharge</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multifocal non-suppurative osteomyelitis is characterized by inflammation without any purulent discharge.</li><li>➤ Multifocal non-suppurative osteomyelitis is characterized by inflammation without any purulent discharge.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-week-old infant is brought to the clinic with a history of projectile vomiting and poor weight gain. Physical examination reveals an abdominal mass in the epigastrium, and the diagnosis of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is suspected. An abdominal mass in a patient with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is best seen? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "During feeding", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Soon after birth", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "During palpation, over the left hypochondrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "During palpation, over the epigastrium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. During feeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. During feeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the characteristic \"olive-like mass\" is most easily palpated during or immediately after feeding when the stomach contracts against the hypertrophied pyloric muscle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a long-standing history of recurrent abdominal pain, nausea, and steatorrhea. The patient reports a significant history of alcohol abuse, and diagnostic imaging reveals signs of chronic pancreatitis. What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gallstones", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autoimmune", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drugs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alcohol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Alcohol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic alcohol consumption is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis, leading to repeated inflammation, fibrosis, and loss of pancreatic function over time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vanillyl mandelic acid is excreted in urine in which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pheochromocytoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alkaptonuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoid syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetic ketoacidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pheochromocytoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A Pheochromocytoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The half-life of epinephrine is very short, only 2-5 minutes . Epinephrine is catabolized in tissues, by catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) to metanephrines.</li><li>➤ . Epinephrine is catabolized in tissues, by catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) to metanephrines.</li><li>➤ It is then acted upon by monoamine oxidase (MAO). MAO will oxidatively deaminate compounds having the amino group attached to the terminal carbon atom. The major end product is 3-hydroxy-4-methoxy mandelic acid or vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA).</li><li>➤ The major end product is 3-hydroxy-4-methoxy mandelic acid or vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA).</li><li>➤ Normal level of excretion of VMA is 2–6 mg/24 h. It is increased in pheochromocytoma (epinephrine excess) and in neuroblastoma (norepinephrine excess).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When do you consider administering epinephrine in a neonate during resuscitation? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heart rate remains at &lt; 60 beats/minute despite effective compressions and ventilations.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart rate remains at &lt; 100 beats/minute despite effective compressions and ventilations.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heart rate does not improve after 30 seconds with bag and mask ventilation.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infants with severe respiratory depression fail to respond to positive-pressure ventilation via bag and mask.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Heart rate remains at < 60 beats/minute despite effective compressions and ventilations.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/08/pedia-fmg-1-9_O4RZEZN.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Heart rate remains at &lt; 60 beats/ minutes despite effective compression and ventilation.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epinephrine is administered in neonatal resuscitation when the heart rate remains below 60 beats per minute despite 30 seconds of effective positive-pressure ventilation and chest compressions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which chromosome is involved in myotonic dystrophy? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chromosome 19", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chromosome 20", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chromosome 21", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chromosome 22", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chromosome 19", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chromosome 19</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myotonic dystrophy is linked to a mutation in the DMPK gene on chromosome 19, leading to diverse symptoms including muscle dysfunction, cataracts, and cardiac issues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is Burkholderia cepacia resistant to? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ceftazidime", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Temocillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cefotetan", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cefotetan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cefotetan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Burkholderia cepacia exhibits resistance to several antibiotic classes, including second-generation cephalosporins like cefotetan.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient arrives at the hospital emergency department presenting with gastrointestinal distress. The patient complains of severe abdominal pain, frequent vomiting, and watery diarrhea. During the physical examination, the medical team observes that the patient's stools emit an unusual faint glow. The patient appears disoriented and fatigued. The medical history reveals that the patient attended a local festival the previous day and consumed various food items there. The following exposures might be contributing to which substance toxication? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mercury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cadmium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Phosphorus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-094449.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Phosphorus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Comparison of Poisoning Types:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most effective circuit for anesthesia under spontaneous breathing in adults? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mapleson A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mapleson B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mapleson C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mapleson D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mapleson A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Image%201.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mapleson A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Most effective circuit for anesthesia under spontaneous breathing in adults is Mapleson A.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 613</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 613</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cannot cross the placenta? (NEET PG 2018) Iron Albumin Immunoglobulin M Immunoglobulin G", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High molecular weight substances such as albumin and Immunoglobulin M (IgM) cannot cross the placenta.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Roth spots are seen in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uveal melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uveal lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-117.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Acute leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Roth's spots may be seen in -</li><li>➤ Roth's spots may be seen in -</li><li>➤ 1. Leukemia</li><li>➤ 2. Diabetes</li><li>➤ 3. Subacute bacterial endocarditis</li><li>➤ 4. Hypertensive retinopathy</li><li>➤ 5. HIV retinopathy</li><li>➤ 6. Systemic lupus erythematosus</li><li>➤ 7. Anemia</li><li>➤ 8. Pre-eclampsia</li><li>➤ 9. Anoxi</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the drug of choice for scrub typhus? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloramphenicol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Doxycycline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Doxycycline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Doxycycline is the drug of choice for scrub typhus due to its high efficacy in treating this rickettsial infection. Azithromycin and chloramphenicol can be used as alternatives in cases where doxycycline is contraindicated, such as during pregnancy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In superfecundation, which of the following is seen? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fertilization of 2 ova released at the same time by sperms released at single intercourse", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fertilization of 2 ova released at the same time by sperms released at intercourse on 2 different occasions", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both of the above", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fertilization of 2 ova released at the same time by sperms released at intercourse on 2 different occasions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) fertilization of 2 ova released at the same time by sperms released at intercourse on 2 different occasions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Superfecundation refers to the fertilization of two different ova released in the same menstrual cycle by sperm from separate acts of intercourse occurring within a short period of time. This can result in twins with different fathers if the sperm comes from two different men, a phenomenon known as heteropaternal superfecundation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Fertilization of 2 ova released at the same time by sperms released at single intercourse : This describes the fertilization of two ova by sperm from a single act of intercourse, which is not superfecundation but simply the result of one intercourse fertilizing two ova simultaneously.</li><li>• Option A. Fertilization of 2 ova released at the same time by sperms released at single intercourse</li><li>• Option C. Both of the above : While it includes the correct scenario of superfecundation, it also includes an incorrect scenario, making it partially correct.</li><li>• Option C. Both of the above</li><li>• Option D. None of the above : This indicates that none of the given scenarios are correct, which is inaccurate as option B is correct.</li><li>• Option D. None of the above</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Superfecundation is the fertilization of two ova released during the same menstrual cycle by sperm from separate acts of intercourse.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 227, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 227, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Chadah committee suggested all of the following options except: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PHC at block level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "One PHC for 50,000 population", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "One basic health worker per 10,000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Responsibility of PHCs in malaria eradication", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. One PHC for 50,000 population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-160522.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) One PHC for 50,000 population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital with symptoms of an inguinal hernia. During the operation, the surgeon observes a segment of necrotic bowel in the hernial sac. What is the appropriate course of action for resection and anastomosis of a necrotic bowel seen during surgery? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The surgeon must use chromic catgut.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The surgeon must not include the submucosa in the sutures.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The surgeon must use the single layer, extramucosal suture technique.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The surgeon must use the single- layer seromuscular suture technique.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The surgeon must use the single layer, extramucosal suture technique.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. The surgeon must use the single layer, extramucosal suture technique.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The single-layer extramucosal suture technique is the preferred method in small bowel anastomosis to reduce complications such as bleeding, strictures, and anastomotic leaks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following atypical antipsychotics has the highest risk of galactorrhea? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iloperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Risperidone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clozapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aripiprazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Risperidone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Risperidone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Risperidone is the atypical antipsychotic with the highest risk of causing galactorrhea due to its potent D2 receptor antagonism in the tuberoinfundibular pathway, leading to increased prolactin levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A colonoscopy on an 80-year-old patient revealed brownish pigmented lesions, as shown below. He admitted to using laxatives on a regular basis. Which of the following laxatives is most likely to be the source of this problem? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bran", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psyllium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Senna", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methylcellulose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Senna", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/16/screenshot-2024-07-16-125141.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Senna</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic use of stimulant laxatives like Senna can lead to melanosis coli, characterized by brownish-black pigmentation of the colonic mucosa seen on colonoscopy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is basiliximab? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IL-1 receptor antagonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-CD3 antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IL-2 receptor antagonist", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "TNF inhibitor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IL-2 receptor antagonist", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) IL-2 receptor antagonist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basiliximab is an IL-2 receptor antagonist that binds to the CD25 receptor on activated T-cells, thereby preventing T-cell proliferation and helping to prevent transplant rejection reactions. It is specifically used in the context of organ transplantation to reduce the risk of acute rejection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD) implantation is done for which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brugada syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute coronary syndrome with low EF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Class I Indications for AICD implantation:</li><li>➤ Class I Indications for AICD implantation:</li><li>➤ LV dysfunction with ejection fraction less than or equal to 35% and NYHA II/III symptoms. LV dysfunction with ejection fraction less than or equal to 35% due to previous Myocardial Infarction (MI) or at least 40 days post-MI and NYHA II/III symptoms. LV dysfunction with ejection fraction less than or equal to 30% due to previous Myocardial Infarction (MI) or at least 40 days post-MI. LV dysfunction with ejection fraction less than or equal to 40% due to previous Myocardial Infarction (MI) or at least 40 days post-MI and inducible VT/VF on EP study (EPS). Syncope of unknown etiology and inducible VT/ VF on EPS. Sustained VT in the presence of structural heart disease. Brugada syndrome. HCM with &gt; 1 risk factor for SCD.</li><li>➤ LV dysfunction with ejection fraction less than or equal to 35% and NYHA II/III symptoms.</li><li>➤ LV dysfunction with ejection fraction less than or equal to 35% due to previous Myocardial Infarction (MI) or at least 40 days post-MI and NYHA II/III symptoms.</li><li>➤ LV dysfunction with ejection fraction less than or equal to 30% due to previous Myocardial Infarction (MI) or at least 40 days post-MI.</li><li>➤ LV dysfunction with ejection fraction less than or equal to 40% due to previous Myocardial Infarction (MI) or at least 40 days post-MI and inducible VT/VF on EP study (EPS).</li><li>➤ Syncope of unknown etiology and inducible VT/ VF on EPS.</li><li>➤ Sustained VT in the presence of structural heart disease.</li><li>➤ Brugada syndrome.</li><li>➤ HCM with &gt; 1 risk factor for SCD.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Ventricular Arrhythmias/Chapter 252</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is wrong regarding Weber's syndrome? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contralateral hemiplegia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contralateral Parkinsonism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ipsilateral paralysis of lower face", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ipsilateral paralysis of lower face", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Ipsilateral paralysis of lower face</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Weber’s syndrome involves ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy and contralateral hemiplegia due to midbrain lesions, and does not typically include ipsilateral facial paralysis, which is associated with pontine lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman complains of fatigue, weight gain, and increased sensitivity to cold. On physical examination, she has noticeable swelling in her neck the histological image is shown below. Additionally, an ultrasound examination shows that her thyroid gland is diffusely enlarged and has an uneven texture. Which of the following conditions is most likely the cause of her symptoms? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medullary carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Grave's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " Hashimoto's thyroiditis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hashimoto's thyroiditis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/63.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid gland, leading to hypothyroidism with symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and increased sensitivity to cold.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neonate is brought to the OPD with complaints of redness and discharge from both the eyes, raising a suspicion of ophthalmia neonatorum. What is the most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum in developed countries? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlamydia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gonorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chemical conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chlamydia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-180858.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Chlamydia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Chlamydia is the most common bacterial cause of ophthalmia neonatorum in developed countries.</li><li>• Ophthalmia neonatorum is a type of conjunctivitis seen in the neonatal period, presenting 5-14 days after birth with red eyes and discharge. It commonly gets transmitted during vaginal delivery. Requires antibiotic treatment.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Gonorrhea : Severe, purulent conjunctivitis presenting 2-5 days after birth. It commonly gets transmitted during vaginal delivery, and it correlates with severe complications such as corneal ulceration and perforation, which can potentially result in permanent blindness. Requires Urgent antibiotic treatment.</li><li>• Option B. Gonorrhea</li><li>• Option C. Chemical conjunctivitis : occurs within 24 hrs , Caused by 1% AgNO3 Crede's method used to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Presents with mild inflammation, redness, and tearing, and usually resolves on its own.</li><li>• Option C. Chemical conjunctivitis</li><li>• Option D. Staphylococcus aureus : Less common cause, presenting with mild to moderate redness and discharge. Treated with topical antibiotics.</li><li>• Option D. Staphylococcus aureus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ (REF: Matejcek A, Goldman RD. Treatment and prevention of ophthalmia neonatorum. Can Fam Physician. 2013 Nov;59(11):1187-90. PMID: 24235191; PMCID: PMC3828094.)</li><li>➤ (REF: Matejcek A, Goldman RD. Treatment and prevention of ophthalmia neonatorum. Can Fam Physician. 2013 Nov;59(11):1187-90. PMID: 24235191; PMCID: PMC3828094.)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is a tensor of vocal cord? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cricothyroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral cricoarytenoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyroarytenoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior cricoarytenoids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cricothyroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-115959.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-153601.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Cricothyroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Varicella-zoster virus remains dormant in the: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventral root", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medulla oblongata", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dorsal root ganglion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dorsal root ganglion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/7_rx1L6UF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Dorsal root ganglion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The dorsal root ganglion is the site of latency for the Varicella-zoster virus , which is important for understanding the pathogenesis of both primary varicella infection and reactivation as herpes zoster .</li><li>➤ dorsal root ganglion</li><li>➤ latency for the Varicella-zoster virus</li><li>➤ primary varicella</li><li>➤ herpes zoster</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 25.27-25.28</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 25.27-25.28</li><li>↳ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li><li>↳ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 4.13</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 4.13</li><li>↳ Question Level – EASY</li><li>↳ Question Level – EASY</li><li>↳ Question Id-7448 Unique Key-Q4313194</li><li>↳ Question Id-7448 Unique Key-Q4313194</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the best contrast agent for the diagnosis of esophageal perforation? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrograffin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "lohexol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gadolinium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barium sulphate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. lohexol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_188.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Iohexol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man came with complaints of dark-colored stools to the OPD. After undergoing endoscopy, the patient was diagnosed with an upper GI bleed. Which of the following structures is used as a demarcation point to differentiate it from a lower GI bleed?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ampulla of Vater", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ligament of Treitz", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior duodenal flexure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ileocecal junction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ligament of Treitz", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ligament of Treitz</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ligament of Treitz is the anatomical demarcation point used to differentiate upper gastrointestinal bleeding (proximal to the ligament) from lower gastrointestinal bleeding (distal to the ligament).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Basiocciput fuses with basisphenoid at what age? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "18-22 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "22-25 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "16-18 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12-14 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 18-22 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 18-22 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fusion of Basiocciput with basisphenoid is seen around 18-22 years.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about prasugrel? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It acts as an P2 Y12 agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is 10 times less potent than clopidogrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is a pro-drug", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Omeprazole interferes with metabolism of prasugrel leading to increased risk of bleeding", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is a pro-drug", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is a pro-drug</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prasugrel is a pro-drug that, upon hepatic metabolism, becomes an active metabolite that irreversibly inhibits the P2Y12 ADP platelet receptors, thus preventing platelet aggregation and making it a potent antiplatelet agent.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following parameter in ALL indicate a poor prognosis: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age &gt;10 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leukocyte count &lt;50,000/mm3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperdiploidy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trisomy of chromosomes 4, 10, and 17", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Age >10 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-115108.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Age &gt; 10 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), prognostic factors such as age greater than 10 years, WBC count greater than 200,000/mm^3, male gender, presence of CNS involvement, and certain cytogenetic abnormalities such as t(9;22) or t(4;11) are associated with a poorer prognosis compared to their counterparts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old male patient with a history of peripheral artery disease presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and ischemic rest pain in the lower extremities. Further evaluation reveals a significant stenosis in the femoropopliteal artery. The patient is scheduled for a femoropopliteal bypass procedure, and the surgeon must choose the appropriate graft material for the procedure. Which is the best graft for a femoropopliteal bypass?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dacron", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Great saphenous vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polytetrafluoroethylene", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Short saphenous vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Great saphenous vein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Great saphenous vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The great saphenous vein is the preferred graft material for femoropopliteal bypass due to its superior patency rates and longevity compared to synthetic grafts like Dacron or polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman with hypertriglyceridemia is considered for niacin therapy. She is a known diabetic managed adequately with sugars well under control. Why should niacin be used cautiously in this patient?( NEET PG 2018 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It can cause hyperglycemia.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It can cause scleroderma which makes injecting insulin difficult.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It can increase the metabolism of oral hypoglycemic drugs.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It can cause hypoglycemia.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It can cause hyperglycemia.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It can cause hyperglycemia.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Niacin can cause increase in blood sugar levels by inducing insulin resistance and decreasing glucose-stimulated insulin secretion. Hence, it should be used cautiously in diabetic patients. When prescribed, weekly monitoring of blood sugars is required.</li><li>➤ inducing insulin resistance</li><li>➤ weekly monitoring of blood sugars is required.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked by the arrow?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior mesenteric artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior mesenteric vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Celiac artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IVC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Superior mesenteric vein", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_195.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_196.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Superior mesenteric vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Superior Mesenteric Vein can be distinguished on a CT scan by its position to the right of the Superior Mesenteric Artery, and its relation to the uncinate process. Remembering \"SMAL\" (Superior Mesenteric Artery Left, Superior Mesenteric Vein Right) can aid in identification during diagnostic imaging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "100-day glaucoma is seen in which of the following conditions? ( NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central retinal vein occlusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Eale's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central retinal artery occlusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Steroid-induced glaucoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Central retinal vein occlusion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-112.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Central retinal vein occlusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neovascular glaucoma, known as \"100-day glaucoma,\" typically develops about three months after the onset of Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO) due to significant retinal ischemia and venous stasis leading to neovascularization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A fetus with intrauterine growth restriction was born prematurely with jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, and diffuse petechiae at birth. A brain CT was done which revealed periventricular calcifications. What is the best method for the diagnosis of the etiological agent? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liver biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CSF examination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urine examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Urine examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urine examination is the preferred diagnostic method for identifying congenital cytomegalovirus infection, which typically presents with symptoms such as intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, microcephaly, diffuse petechiae, and periventricular calcifications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has the following features. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018) Normal stature Thelarche - absent FSH, LH - high Karyotype - 46 XX", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Testicular feminizing syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gonadal dysgenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kallmann syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gonadal dysgenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gonadal dysgenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The probable diagnosis in this case is pure gonadal dysgenesis. Primary amenorrhea with absent secondary sexual characteristics (thelarche) and high levels of FSH and LH indicate hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, which suggests an ovarian cause. The karyotype 46 XX confirms gonadal dysgenesis.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Testicular feminizing syndrome/Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome</li><li>• Option A. Testicular feminizing syndrome/Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome</li><li>• This condition occurs in individuals with a 46 XY karyotype. Individuals with this syndrome have absent uterus and ovaries and exhibit secondary sexual development, especially breast development, due to peripheral production of estrogens.</li><li>• This condition occurs in individuals with a 46 XY karyotype.</li><li>• Individuals with this syndrome have absent uterus and ovaries and exhibit secondary sexual development, especially breast development, due to peripheral production of estrogens.</li><li>• Option C. Kallmann Syndrome</li><li>• Option C. Kallmann Syndrome</li><li>• This is a cause of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism leading to primary amenorrhea. It is associated with anosmia and absent secondary sexual characteristics. FSH and LH levels are low in this condition.</li><li>• This is a cause of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism leading to primary amenorrhea.</li><li>• It is associated with anosmia and absent secondary sexual characteristics.</li><li>• FSH and LH levels are low in this condition.</li><li>• Option D. Turner Syndrome</li><li>• Option D. Turner Syndrome</li><li>• Characterized by a 45 XO karyotype. Individuals have streak ovaries leading to low estrogen levels and absent secondary sexual characteristics. FSH and LH levels are high. A very important feature is short stature, which is not seen in the patient described.</li><li>• Characterized by a 45 XO karyotype.</li><li>• Individuals have streak ovaries leading to low estrogen levels and absent secondary sexual characteristics.</li><li>• FSH and LH levels are high.</li><li>• A very important feature is short stature, which is not seen in the patient described.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary amenorrhea with high FSH and LH levels and a 46 XX karyotype indicates gonadal dysgenesis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 454, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 454, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true regarding ataxia-telangiectasia? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mutations in 11q gene is implicated", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follows autosomal dominant mode of inheritance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Humoral and cellular immunodeficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Linked to adenocarcinomas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Follows autosomal dominant mode of inheritance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/14/screenshot-2024-09-14-114259.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Follows autosomal dominant mode inheritance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the ATM gene on chromosome 11, characterized by defective DNA repair, immunodeficiency, progressive neurological degeneration, and increased risk of malignancies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which article in the Indian Constitution grants the Right to Life to the individuals of India? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Article 11", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Article 21", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Article 23", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Article 25", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Article 21", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Article 21</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is critical as it enshrines the Right to Life and personal liberty, ensuring that every individual's life and personal freedoms are protected under the law.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle aged man from West Bengal presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet, hyperkeratosis, lines in the nails and rain drop pigmentation in the hands. The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned symptoms is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thallium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mercury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arsenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arsenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic arsenic poisoning presents with distinctive symptoms such as paraesthesia, hyperkeratosis, Aldrich Mees lines, and raindrop pigmentation, making it the most likely cause of the described symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following process is responsible for glucose absorption into the intestine?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary active transport", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Facilitated diffusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Simple diffusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary active transport", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Secondary active transport", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-093516.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Secondary active transport</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Glucose is absorbed into the intestine by secondary active transport because this process allows for the efficient uptake of glucose against its concentration gradient.</li><li>• Secondary active transport involves the coupled movement of two substances across a membrane, where the movement of one substance is dependent on the electrochemical gradient created by the movement of another substance. In the case of glucose absorption in the intestine, the secondary active transport mechanism relies on the sodium gradient created by the sodium-potassium pump.</li><li>• The process of glucose absorption in the intestine occurs in the brush border membrane of the intestinal epithelial cells, specifically in the small intestine. Here's a step-by-step explanation of how secondary active transport facilitates glucose absorption:</li><li>• Sodium-Potassium Pump: The sodium-potassium pump actively transports sodium ions (Na+) out of the epithelial cells and into the intercellular space, using ATP energy. This creates a concentration gradient where the sodium concentration is higher outside the cell. Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter: The sodium gradient generated by the sodium-potassium pump is utilized by a specific protein called the sodium-glucose cotransporter (SGLT). This cotransporter binds both sodium ions and glucose molecules on the outer surface of the cell. Co-transport of Sodium and Glucose: As sodium ions bind to the SGLT protein, their movement into the cell down the concentration gradient provides the necessary energy for the simultaneous movement of glucose against its concentration gradient. Glucose is \"dragged\" along with the sodium ions as they enter the cell. Glucose Transporter: Once inside the epithelial cell, glucose is transported across the basolateral membrane (the inner surface of the cell) and into the bloodstream by facilitated diffusion through a specific glucose transporter called GLUT2.</li><li>• Sodium-Potassium Pump: The sodium-potassium pump actively transports sodium ions (Na+) out of the epithelial cells and into the intercellular space, using ATP energy. This creates a concentration gradient where the sodium concentration is higher outside the cell.</li><li>• Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter: The sodium gradient generated by the sodium-potassium pump is utilized by a specific protein called the sodium-glucose cotransporter (SGLT). This cotransporter binds both sodium ions and glucose molecules on the outer surface of the cell.</li><li>• Co-transport of Sodium and Glucose: As sodium ions bind to the SGLT protein, their movement into the cell down the concentration gradient provides the necessary energy for the simultaneous movement of glucose against its concentration gradient. Glucose is \"dragged\" along with the sodium ions as they enter the cell.</li><li>• Glucose Transporter: Once inside the epithelial cell, glucose is transported across the basolateral membrane (the inner surface of the cell) and into the bloodstream by facilitated diffusion through a specific glucose transporter called GLUT2.</li><li>• Overall, the energy stored in the sodium gradient created by the sodium-potassium pump is used to actively transport both sodium and glucose into the intestinal epithelial cells. This secondary active transport mechanism allows for the absorption of glucose from the intestinal lumen into the bloodstream efficiently, even when the concentration of glucose is higher inside the cell than in the lumen.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Primary active transport : Incorrect because primary active transport involves the direct use of ATP to move substances against their gradient, which does not apply to glucose absorption in this context.</li><li>• Option A. Primary active transport</li><li>• Option B. Facilitated diffusion : Incorrect as this method does not involve the active transport of glucose against its concentration gradient; it only allows movement along the gradient.</li><li>• Option B. Facilitated diffusion</li><li>• Option C. Simple diffusion : Incorrect because simple diffusion does not involve any transport proteins and occurs only along the concentration gradient, which is not sufficient for glucose absorption in the intestine.</li><li>• Option C. Simple diffusion</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glucose absorption in the intestine occurs via secondary active transport, utilizing the energy from the sodium gradient created by the sodium-potassium ATPase to transport glucose against its concentration gradient. This process is crucial for efficient glucose uptake from the intestinal lumen into the bloodstream.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the prevalence of a disease with an incidence of a disease of 4 cases per 1000 individuals in the population and an average duration of 2 years? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "8/100", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2/1000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4/1000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "8/1000", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 8/1000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 8/1000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The prevalence can be calculated using the formula:</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence x Duration.</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence x Duration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked in the CT scan shown below: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Descending aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superior vena cava", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ascending aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right pulmonary artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Superior vena cava", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_83AVBjd.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_186.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Superior vena cava</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The antiviral drug having dual antiviral activity against HIV and HBV is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enfuvirtide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abacavir", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Emtricitabine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ritonavir", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Emtricitabine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Emtricitabine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Emtricitabine is an antiviral drug with dual activity against both HIV and HBV, making it a valuable component in the treatment of patients co-infected with these viruses. Other drugs with dual activity include lamivudine and tenofovir.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with loin pain underwent retrograde ureter pyelogram to determine the cause of the pain. What is the likely cause of the pain as shown in the image below? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydronephrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": " Duplex kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Renal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " Renal stone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydronephrosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hydronephrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydronephrosis is characterized by the dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces due to an obstruction in urine flow, leading to swelling of the kidney and pain, typically visualized via imaging like a retrograde ureteropyelogram.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following antimicrobials is effective against an organism producing extended-spectrum beta-lactamases? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amoxicillin - clavulanic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Penicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Piperacillin - tazobactam", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Piperacillin - tazobactam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Piperacillin - tazobactam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Piperacillin-tazobactam is effective against organisms producing extended-spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBLs) due to the beta-lactamase inhibitory action of tazobactam, which protects piperacillin from enzymatic degradation, allowing it to kill the bacteria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Saturnine gout is seen in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lead poisoning", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cadmium poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Beryllium poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mercury poisoning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lead poisoning", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lead poisoning</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Saturnine gout is a specific type of gout caused by chronic lead poisoning, characterized by hyperuricemia and tubulointerstitial renal damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true for non-parametric tests? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ANOVA is an example of a non-parametric test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is used for skewed distributions", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It involves the assumption that the data has a normal distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It cannot be used for small sample sizes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is used for skewed distributions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It is used for skewed distributions</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-parametric tests are valuable statistical tools when dealing with skewed distributions or when the assumptions of parametric tests (like normal distribution) are not met. They provide robustness against the distribution shape of the data and are effective in handling smaller sample sizes and outliers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Gold's criteria for very severe COPD is: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FEV1/FVC &lt;0.7 and FEV1 &lt; 30%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "FEV1/FVC &lt;0.7 and FEV1 &lt;70%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FEV1/FVC&lt;0.7 and FEV1&lt; 50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both A and C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. FEV1/FVC <0.7 and FEV1 < 30%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/22/screenshot-2024-07-22-164040.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) FEV1/FVC &lt;0.7 and FEV1 &lt; 30%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Note:</li><li>➤ Note:</li><li>➤ Currently Class C+D have been combined and called Class E Classification of types have been updated.</li><li>➤ Currently Class C+D have been combined and called Class E</li><li>➤ Classification of types have been updated.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: GOLD 2023 guidelines</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most important determinant of malignant potential in the papillary type of renal tumor? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immunohistology", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Size", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cytogenetics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Part of kidney involved", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Size", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Size</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In papillary renal tumors, the size greater than 1.5 cm is the most critical determinant in assessing malignancy, outweighing factors like immunohistology, cytogenetics, and part of the kidney involved in terms of initial evaluation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia most commonly presents as: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Male pseudohermaphroditism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Female pseudohermaphroditism", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "True hermaphroditism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "46, XY intersex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Female pseudohermaphroditism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/23/screenshot-2024-02-23-131544.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Female pseudohermaphroditism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, most commonly due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency, typically presents as female pseudohermaphroditism, characterized by virilized genitalia in genotypic females (46, XX) at birth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the approximate time interval between HIV infection &amp; manifestation of AIDS? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "7.5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 10 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 10 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mean interval b/w infection to AIDS is due to prolonged latency period (~10- years).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/HIV/Chap 201</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Periodic acid Schiff positive macrophages are seen in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Agammaglobulinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Whipple's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abetalipoproteinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crohn's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Whipple's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Whipple's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PAS +ve macrophages are seen in:</li><li>➤ Small bowel biopsy = Chronic Infection (E.g., Whipple’s disease, leishmaniasis, endemic mycoses). Liver Biopsy: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Bone Marrow: Disseminated infections vs Storage disorders (Niemann-Pick).</li><li>➤ Small bowel biopsy = Chronic Infection (E.g., Whipple’s disease, leishmaniasis, endemic mycoses).</li><li>➤ Small bowel biopsy</li><li>➤ Liver Biopsy: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.</li><li>➤ Liver Biopsy:</li><li>➤ Bone Marrow: Disseminated infections vs Storage disorders (Niemann-Pick).</li><li>➤ Bone Marrow:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Malabsorption syndromes/Chap 176</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fallen fragment sign is characteristic of:(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aneurysmal bone cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Simple bone cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Giant cell tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ewing’s sarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Simple bone cyst", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/43.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/44.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/45.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/46.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/04/47.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Simple bone cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fallen fragment sign is seen in simple (unicameral) bone cyst. It is a thinned cortical fragment that fractures and falls into the base of the lesion, confirming its empty cystic nature</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the latest online software introduced by the government under the national tuberculosis elimination program (NTEP) to monitor patients with tuberculosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NIKSHAY", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NISCHAY", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "E-DOTS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NIKUSTH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NIKSHAY", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) NIKSHAY</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NIKSHAY - Monitoring TB patients.</li><li>➤ NIKSHAY</li><li>➤ TB</li><li>➤ NIKUSTH - Monitoring leprosy patients.</li><li>➤ NIKUSTH</li><li>➤ leprosy</li><li>➤ NISCHAY - Pregnancy test kit.</li><li>➤ NISCHAY</li><li>➤ E-DOTS - Virtual Directly Observed Therapy DOT.</li><li>➤ E-DOTS</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At what BMI value is considered 'fatal' for men? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt; 12", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt; 13", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "&lt; 14", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&lt; 15", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. < 13", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) &lt;13</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An individual with a body mass index (BMI) of 13 or lower is deemed fatal for males. Nonetheless, females can endure with a BMI as low as 11 or even lower.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is not included in the criteria for neurofibromatosis 1? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Two or more iris hamartomas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acoustic neuromas", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dysplasia of the sphenoidal and tibial bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cafe-au-lait spots", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acoustic neuromas", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/23/screenshot-2024-02-23-133224.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acoustic neuromas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acoustic neuromas are not a diagnostic criterion for Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1); they are typically associated with Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NF2). The diagnostic criteria for NF1 include the presence of café-au-lait macules, axillary or inguinal freckling, Lisch nodules, neurofibromas, sphenoid dysplasia, optic gliomas, and a first-degree relative with NF1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Defective fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase enzyme is associated with?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 Tyrosinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2 Tyrosinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 3 Tyrosinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 4 Tyrosinemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Type 1 Tyrosinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Type 1 Tyrosinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatorenal Tyrosinemia (Tyrosinemia Type I) aka Tyrosinosis –</li><li>➤ Hepatorenal</li><li>➤ Type I)</li><li>➤ Tyrosinosis –</li><li>➤ Autosomal recessive , most common type of tyrosinemia. Due to a deficiency of enzyme fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase. Symptoms manifest by the first 6 months of life and death occurs rapidly. Cabbage like odor and hypoglycemia and eventual liver failure are seen. There may be mild mental retardation. Urine contains tyrosine, para-hydroxyphenyl pyruvic acid (p-HPPA) and hydroxyphenyl lactic acid; and serum shows tyrosine. Tyrosine and phenylalanine restricted diet is advised.</li><li>➤ Autosomal recessive , most common type of tyrosinemia.</li><li>➤ Autosomal recessive</li><li>➤ most common</li><li>➤ Due to a deficiency of enzyme fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase.</li><li>➤ deficiency of enzyme fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase.</li><li>➤ Symptoms manifest by the first 6 months of life and death occurs rapidly. Cabbage like odor and hypoglycemia and eventual liver failure are seen. There may be mild mental retardation.</li><li>➤ Cabbage like odor and hypoglycemia</li><li>➤ Urine contains tyrosine, para-hydroxyphenyl pyruvic acid (p-HPPA) and hydroxyphenyl lactic acid; and serum shows tyrosine.</li><li>➤ Tyrosine and phenylalanine restricted diet is advised.</li><li>➤ Tyrosine and phenylalanine restricted diet is advised.</li><li>➤ Oculocutaneous Tyrosinemia/ Richner-Hanhart Syndrome (Tyrosinemia Type II ) is due to deficiency of tyrosine amino transferase (tyrosine transaminase ). Mental retardation, keratosis of palmar surface, painful corneal lesions and photophobia are seen. There is increased excretion of tyrosine and tyramine in urine. A diet low in protein is advised .</li><li>➤ Oculocutaneous</li><li>➤ Richner-Hanhart</li><li>➤ Type II</li><li>➤ (tyrosine transaminase</li><li>➤ A diet low in protein is advised</li><li>➤ Neonatal Tyrosinemia (Tyrosinemia Type III) is due to the absence of the enzyme para-hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase . This deficiency may cause transient hypertyrosinemia in the newborn; this will respond to administration of ascorbic acid and dietary protein restriction .</li><li>➤ Neonatal Tyrosinemia</li><li>➤ Type III)</li><li>➤ para-hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase</li><li>➤ respond to administration of ascorbic acid</li><li>➤ dietary protein restriction</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about Alzheimer's disease?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intracellular neurofibrillary tangles are seen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neuritic plaques made of beta amyloid are found", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nucleus of Meynert is not affected", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Short term memory is affected", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nucleus of Meynert is not affected", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nucleus of Meynert is not affected</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia. It is characterized by both intracellular neurofibrillary tangles and extracellular neuritic plaques. Cholinergic deficits, especially from the degeneration of the Nucleus basalis of Meynert , play a significant role in the memory impairments observed in these patients.</li><li>➤ most common cause</li><li>➤ degeneration of the Nucleus basalis of Meynert</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the site of action of amphotericin B in fungi? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nucleic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ribosome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cell membrane", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytoplasm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cell membrane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cell membrane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amphotericin B targets the cell membrane of fungi by binding to ergosterol, forming pores that lead to leakage of cytoplasmic contents and fungal cell death. It is highly effective in treating severe systemic fungal infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about Barrett's esophagus?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is the intestinal metaplasia of esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucus secreting foveolar cells are characteristic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alcian blue is used in the staining of biopsy specimen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is a reversible cell adaptation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucus secreting foveolar cells are characteristic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mucus-secreting foveolar cells are characteristic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Barrett's esophagus is characterized by intestinal metaplasia of the esophageal epithelium, specifically with goblet cells, and is diagnosed using Alcian blue staining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the hyperacute rejection of renal transplants? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type III", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type II", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type I", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Type II", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Type II</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type II hypersensitivity is crucial in the context of hyperacute rejection of renal transplants, highlighting the importance of thorough pre-transplant screening for donor-specific antibodies to avoid this rapid and destructive immune response.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old male patient came with complaints of sudden onset ocular pain and haemorrhagic discharge accompanied with diminution of vision. He is suspected to have acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis. What is the causative organism? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enterovirus 68", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterovirus 69", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enterovirus 70", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enterovirus 71", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Enterovirus 70", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/type-of-astigmatism_page_2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/picture2000.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Enterovirus 70</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enterovirus 70 is the primary causative organism of acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, characterized by sudden onset of ocular pain, redness, and hemorrhagic discharge. The condition is highly contagious and typically self-limiting, with supportive care being the mainstay of treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The observed myocardial stunning pattern does not match the ECG findings of a patient. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Takotsubo cardiomyopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brugada cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pericardial tamponade", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/nm19.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/23/nm20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Takotsubo cardiomyopathy should be considered when a patient's clinical presentation includes myocardial stunning that does not correspond to ECG findings typical of a myocardial infarction, especially in the context of recent significant emotional or physical stress.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cardiology/Cardiomyopathies/Chap 259</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Serotonin is also known as? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-hydroxytryptamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "5-hydroxytryptophan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5-carboxytryptamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5-carboxytryptophan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 5-hydroxytryptamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture2_nvYzMEo.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 5-hydroxytryptamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serotonin, also known as 5-hydroxytryptamine, is a crucial neurotransmitter synthesized from tryptophan and involved in numerous physiological processes. Its synthesis involves specific enzymatic actions that are targeted pharmacologically to manage various psychiatric</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a cause of secondary PPH? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retained cotyledon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Placental polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Placenta previa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Placenta previa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Placenta previa is not a cause of secondary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). It is primarily associated with antepartum hemorrhage (bleeding before delivery) and is a risk factor for primary PPH (occurring within the first 24 hours after childbirth).</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Retained cotyledon : Retained cotyledon can lead to secondary PPH due to retained placental fragments, causing continued uterine bleeding.</li><li>• Option A. Retained cotyledon</li><li>• Option B. Endometritis : Endometritis, an infection of the uterine lining, can cause secondary PPH by leading to inflammation and impaired uterine contraction.</li><li>• Option B. Endometritis</li><li>• Option C. Placental polyp : A placental polyp, which is retained placental tissue that forms a growth, can cause secondary PPH through persistent bleeding.</li><li>• Option C. Placental polyp</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placenta previa is a cause of antepartum hemorrhage and primary postpartum hemorrhage but not secondary postpartum hemorrhage.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 804, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 804, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fever occurs during inflammation due to all except: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IL 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prostaglandins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TNF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histamine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Histamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Histamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Histamine is involved in mediating the local vascular effects of inflammation and not in the fever response, which is primarily driven by IL-1, TNF, and prostaglandins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "To achieve the demographic target of NRR=1, what level should the rate of couple protection exceed? (NEET PG 2018) (NRR: Net reproduction rate)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "70%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "60%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 60%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 60%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To achieve the demographic target of NRR=1, the rate of couple protection should exceed 60%. This level of contraceptive use helps in maintaining a stable population by ensuring that each woman, on average, has one daughter who survives to reproductive age.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cowden syndrome is associated with mutation in: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PTEN", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "WT1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "p53", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ras", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PTEN", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-134134.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PTEN</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following features is more in favor of delirium? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Occurs gradually over a period of time", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluctuating course", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Preserved consciousness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Commonly associated with auditory hallucinations", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fluctuating course", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/untitled-356.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Fluctuating course</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delirium is the most common organic mental disorder. It has an acute onset with a fluctuating course . It is most commonly seen in elderly population. It is characterized by disturbed consciousness, and altered attention. Disturbances of sleep-wake cycle, evening worsening of symptoms ( sundowning ), and floccillations can be seen.</li><li>➤ most common</li><li>➤ acute onset</li><li>➤ fluctuating course</li><li>➤ sundowning</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: A Short Textbook osf Psychiatry, 7th edition, Page No 22.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What do chaperones assist in?(NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ubiquitination of proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Protein modification", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Protein folding", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Protein cleavage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Protein folding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Protein folding</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an X-linked disorder? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Color blindness", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Color blindness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Color blindness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Color blindness is an X-linked disorder, meaning that the gene causing the condition is located on the X chromosome, which primarily affects males and is passed down from carrier mothers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman presents with a reddish, firm nodule on her chest that has not increased in size. The patient is concerned about the possibility of malignancy and undergoes a biopsy of the lesion. Histopathological examination of the biopsy specimen shows certain features that aid in the diagnosis. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lipoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Fibroadenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nevus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " Hemangioma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hemangioma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/12/6.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hemangioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemangioma is a benign tumor formed by a collection of excess blood vessels, characterized histologically by well-circumscribed lesions composed of dilated, thin-walled blood vessels arranged in lobules.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cutis marmorata occurs due to? ( NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exposure to hot temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "An adverse reaction to drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exposure to cold temperature", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Humidity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Exposure to cold temperature", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1304.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-125008.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/screenshot-2023-11-18-121722.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture2888.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Exposure to cold temperature</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cutis marmorata is a skin condition characterized by a marbled appearance of the skin, resulting from exposure to cold temperatures due to the vascular response of constriction and dilation .</li><li>➤ Cutis marmorata</li><li>➤ marbled appearance</li><li>➤ exposure to cold temperatures</li><li>➤ vascular</li><li>➤ constriction and dilation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Chapter 25, Page no 125.7</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Chapter 25, Page no 125.7</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Id-7447 Unique Key-Q6575185</li><li>↳ Question Id-7447 Unique Key-Q6575185</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common cause of agranulocytosis? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Marrow infiltration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autoimmune", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drug toxicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiation exposure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Drug toxicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Drug toxicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Causes of agranulocytosis include:</li><li>➤ Causes of agranulocytosis include:</li><li>➤ Inadequate or ineffective granulopoiesis Suppression of hematopoietic stem cells - aplastic anemia, infiltrative marrow disorders Suppression of committed granulocytic precursors Ineffective hematopoiesis - megaloblastic anemia, myelodysplastic syndromes Congenital conditions - Kostmann syndrome Increased destruction or sequestration of neutrophils - Immunological injury to neutrophils - idiopathic, systemic lupus erythematosus, drug exposure Increased peripheral utilization - bacterial, fungal, or rickettsial infections Splenomegaly</li><li>➤ Inadequate or ineffective granulopoiesis</li><li>➤ Suppression of hematopoietic stem cells - aplastic anemia, infiltrative marrow disorders</li><li>➤ Suppression of committed granulocytic precursors</li><li>➤ Ineffective hematopoiesis - megaloblastic anemia, myelodysplastic syndromes</li><li>➤ Congenital conditions - Kostmann syndrome</li><li>➤ Increased destruction or sequestration of neutrophils -</li><li>➤ Immunological injury to neutrophils - idiopathic, systemic lupus erythematosus, drug exposure</li><li>➤ Increased peripheral utilization - bacterial, fungal, or rickettsial infections</li><li>➤ Splenomegaly</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When the pH = pKa of a drug, which of the following statements is true? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Concentration of the drug is 50% ionized and 50 % non-ionized", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Concentration of the drug is 90% ionized and 10% non-ionized", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Concentration of the drug is 75% ionized and 25 % non-ionized", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Concentration of the drug is 25% ionized and 75 % non-ionized", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Concentration of the drug is 50% ionized and 50 % non-ionized", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Concentration of the drug is 50% ionized and 50 % non-ionized</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When the pH of the environment is equal to the pKa of the drug, the drug exists in a state where 50% is ionized and 50% is non-ionized. This is a critical concept in understanding drug solubility and absorption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Corticosteroid indicated for the stimulation of fetal lung maturation in preterm labor is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrocortisone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Triamcinolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methylprednisolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Betamethasone", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Betamethasone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Betamethasone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Betamethasone is the corticosteroid of choice for stimulating fetal lung maturation in preterm labor, administered to reduce the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome and other complications associated with preterm birth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Isosorbide dinitrate is indicated for congestive heart failure in combination with which of the following vasodilators? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Minoxidil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydralazine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nimodipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitrendipine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydralazine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hydralazine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate is indicated for the treatment of congestive heart failure, as it effectively reduces both preload and afterload, improving cardiac function and reducing symptoms and mortality in CHF patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of colchicine? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibits synthesis of uric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Promotes excretion of uric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhibits xanthine oxidase enzyme", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Binds to tubulin and inhibits granulocyte migration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Binds to tubulin and inhibits granulocyte migration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Binds to tubulin and inhibits granulocyte migration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Colchicine treats acute gout by binding to tubulin, inhibiting the polymerization of microtubules, and preventing the migration and chemotaxis of granulocytes. This reduces the inflammatory response associated with gout attacks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An example of a bacteriostatic drug is? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aminoglycoside", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vancomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Linezolid", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Linezolid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Linezolid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Linezolid is an example of a bacteriostatic drug that inhibits protein synthesis by targeting the 50S ribosomal subunit. It is particularly useful against resistant gram-positive infections, including MRSA and VRSA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pasteurization is done at: (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "73 degree Celsius for 20 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "63 degree Celsius for 30 minutes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "72 degree Celsius for 30 seconds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "63 degree Celsius for 30 seconds", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 63 degree Celsius for 30 minutes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 63 degree Celsius for 30 minutes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Pasteurization can be conducted using different time-temperature combinations, primarily the Holder method (63°C for 30 minutes) and the flash pasteurization method (72°C for 15-20 seconds), each designed to ensure the safety of milk consumption while preserving its quality.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is most potent stimulators of aldosterone secretion? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "АСТН", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypernatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exogenous steroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901239_QxbQb95.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hyperkalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Hyperkalemia and activation of renin-angiotensin system are the most potent stimulators of aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone, secreted by the zona glomerulosa cells of the adrenal cortex, is an important regulator of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion by the renal tubules. The primary site of aldosterone action is on the principal cells of the cortical collecting tubule. Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption while at the same time increasing potassium secretion is by stimulating the sodium-potassium ATPase pump on the basolateral side of the cortical collecting tubule membrane. Aldosterone also increases the sodium permeability of the luminal side of the membrane. Minimal levels of aldosterone not affect sodium balance but greatly impairs the regulation of renal potassium excretion and potassium concentration of the body fluids. Thus, aldosterone is even more important as a regulator of potassium concentration than it is for sodium concentration.</li><li>• Hyperkalemia and activation of renin-angiotensin system are the most potent stimulators of aldosterone secretion.</li><li>• Aldosterone, secreted by the zona glomerulosa cells of the adrenal cortex, is an important regulator of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion by the renal tubules.</li><li>• The primary site of aldosterone action is on the principal cells of the cortical collecting tubule.</li><li>• Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption while at the same time increasing potassium secretion is by stimulating the sodium-potassium ATPase pump on the basolateral side of the cortical collecting tubule membrane.</li><li>• Aldosterone also increases the sodium permeability of the luminal side of the membrane.</li><li>• Minimal levels of aldosterone not affect sodium balance but greatly impairs the regulation of renal potassium excretion and potassium concentration of the body fluids. Thus, aldosterone is even more important as a regulator of potassium concentration than it is for sodium concentration.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. АСТН : Incorrect as ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone) has a minor role in aldosterone secretion compared to the renin-angiotensin system or serum potassium levels.</li><li>• Option B. АСТН</li><li>• Option C. Hypernatremia : Incorrect because hypernatremia would typically suppress aldosterone secretion as the body would seek to excrete excess sodium.</li><li>• Option C. Hypernatremia</li><li>• Option D. Exogenous steroid : Incorrect as exogenous steroids, depending on their nature, usually suppress endogenous steroid hormone production including aldosterone through feedback mechanisms.</li><li>• Option D. Exogenous steroid</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia is a potent stimulator of aldosterone secretion as aldosterone functions primarily to regulate potassium levels in the body, promoting its excretion through the kidneys while enhancing sodium reabsorption, crucial for maintaining electrolyte balance and blood pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nuclear signaling pathways are all except:( NEET PG 2018 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caveolins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NF-kB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Importins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rat proteins", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rat proteins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Rat proteins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Rat proteins are not nuclear signaling pathways. Recombinant rat IN- is a bioactive protein used in cell culture applications.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Nuclear signaling pathways involve a variety of molecules and proteins that are involved in transmitting signals from the cell surface to the nucleus of the cell.</li><li>• Option A. Caveolins are integral membrane proteins that are involved in the formation of caveolae, which are small invaginations in the plasma membrane that are involved in signal transduction.</li><li>• Option A. Caveolins</li><li>• Option B. NF-kB is a transcription factor that is involved in the regulation of genes involved in immune response, inflammation, and cell survival.</li><li>• Option B. NF-kB</li><li>• Option C. Importins are proteins that are involved in the transport of proteins into the nucleus of the cell. They bind to nuclear localization signals on proteins and facilitate their transport into the nucleus.</li><li>• Option C. Importins</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nuclear signaling pathways are complex systems involving proteins that either directly regulate gene expression or facilitate the transport of molecules into the nucleus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common bleeding manifestation observed in severe hemophilia patients?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Recurrent hematomas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Recurrent hemarthrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hematuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intracranial hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Recurrent hemarthrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Recurrent hemarthrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the manifestations of hemophilia, particularly the common occurrence of recurrent hemarthrosis, is crucial for timely and effective treatment. Early intervention and regular prophylactic treatment with clotting factors can significantly improve quality of life and prevent the progression of joint disease in individuals with hemophilia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are an intern on duty and have received multiple patients following a road traffic accident. Which of the following patients will require you to urgently call the orthopedic resident on call?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patient with recurrent shoulder dislocation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Patient with a fractured arm with capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds in his fingers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Patient with a fractured arm and a 10 cm long incision over the arm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patient with a fractured arm with capillary refill time of 5 seconds in his fingers", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Patient with a fractured arm with capillary refill time of 5 seconds in his fingers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Patient with a fractured arm with capillary refill time of 5 seconds in his fingers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A delayed capillary refill time, especially beyond 3 seconds, in the setting of a fracture can indicate vascular injury or compartment syndrome, both of which are surgical emergencies. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications such as tissue death or permanent loss of function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with wrist pain after a fall on an outstretched hand. Based on the anatomy of the carpal bones, which bone is most likely fractured?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scaphoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lunate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pisiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hamate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Scaphoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Scaphoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A scaphoid fracture should always be suspected in patients with wrist pain after a fall on an outstretched hand, especially when tenderness is noted in the anatomical snuffbox. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications such as non-union or avascular necrosis due to the bone's limited blood supply.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Out of 100 women who used oral contraceptive pills for 24 months, 10 women became pregnant. What is the Pearl index for this group?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 per HWY", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 per HWY", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "15 per HWY", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 per HWY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5 per HWY", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-111502.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 5 per HWY</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Pearl Index is a widely used measure of contraceptive effectiveness. A lower Pearl Index indicates a more effective method. In this case, a Pearl Index of 5 per HWY means that 5 unintended pregnancies are expected per 100 women using the contraceptive method over the course of one year.</li><li>➤ Pearl Index</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic who hasn’t consumed alcohol for the past 3 days is brought to the emergency department with disorientation, poor attention span, and agitation. On examination, he has fever, tachycardia, and diaphoresis. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Korsakoff psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wernicke’s encephalopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delirium tremens", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcohol-induced dementia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Delirium tremens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Delirium tremens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delirium tremens is a life-threatening emergency seen in severe alcohol withdrawal, characterized by disorientation, autonomic instability (fever, tachycardia, diaphoresis), and agitation. Early recognition and treatment with benzodiazepines are essential to prevent complications and reduce mortality.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Extramammary Paget's disease (EMPD) most commonly affects which anatomical site?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vulva", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vulva", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Vulva</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Extramammary Paget's disease is most commonly seen on the vulva and requires prompt diagnosis via skin biopsy. Treatment options include surgical excision, radiation therapy, and topical treatments, but systemic workup is important to rule out any associated malignancy, especially in cases of secondary EMPD.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 310 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Neet Pg 2019 2019 01 06 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "68%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "34%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "99%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "95%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 68%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-114951.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 68%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Approximately 68% of the data in a normal distribution lies within one standard deviation (±1σ) from the mean.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following investigations does not use antibody marking? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radioimmunoassay", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immunofluorescence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemagglutination Test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hemagglutination Test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-08-10-at-134311.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hemagglutination Test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hemagglutination test is unique in its use of direct interactions between particles (like viruses) and red blood cells to demonstrate binding and agglutination, distinguishing it from other tests that rely on labeled antibodies to indicate the presence of specific antigens or antibodies. This method is particularly useful in blood typing and viral detection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked in the image given below: ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pineal gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Falx cerebri", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fornix", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pituitary gland", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fornix", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_U7y8W2J.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-929_uEznJqc.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Fornix</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fornix is a C-shaped bundle of nerve fibers that acts as a major output tract from the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies and then onto the thalamus. In the midsagittal section, the fornix is seen as an arching structure that lies inferior to the corpus callosum, the massive fiber tract connecting the two cerebral hemispheres. The body of the fornix travels anteriorly and inferiorly, eventually dividing into left and right columns which curve downward in front of the thalamus.</li><li>➤ Fornix</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which item below does not qualify as personal protective equipment? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Goggles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gloves", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Face shield", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lab coat", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lab coat", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lab coat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) are:</li><li>➤ Gloves - protect hands. Gowns/ aprons - protect skin and clothing. Masks protect the mouth/nose and respirators protect the respiratory tract from airborne infectious agents. Goggles - protect eyes. Face shields - protect face, mouth, nose, and eyes.</li><li>➤ Gloves - protect hands.</li><li>➤ Gowns/ aprons - protect skin and clothing.</li><li>➤ Masks protect the mouth/nose and respirators protect the respiratory tract from airborne infectious agents.</li><li>➤ Goggles - protect eyes.</li><li>➤ Face shields - protect face, mouth, nose, and eyes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are true about the right coronary artery except?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Its diameter is less than left coronary artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It arises from the anterior aortic sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It gives rise to circumflex coronary branch", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right conus artery is its first branch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It gives rise to circumflex coronary branch", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-897.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. It gives rise to circumflex coronary branch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The circumflex coronary artery is actually a branch of the left coronary artery, not the right. It travels along the coronary sulcus between the left atrium and left ventricle, primarily supplying the left atrium and the posterior walls of the left ventricle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The maximum dose of PGF2 alpha in postpartum hemorrhage is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.25 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 mg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "200 mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prostaglandin F2 alpha (PGF2α), also known as carboprost, is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) due to uterine atony. The therapeutic regimen and maximum dosage are crucial for effective management and patient safety.</li><li>• Dose and Administration: The approved dose for treating uterine atony with PGF2α is 0.25 mg administered intramuscularly (IM). Maximum Dose: The maximum cumulative dose is 2 mg. This is achieved by administering a total of 8 doses of 0.25 mg each. Dosing Interval: These doses can be repeated at intervals of 15 to 90 minutes, depending on the clinical response and the patient's condition.</li><li>• Dose and Administration: The approved dose for treating uterine atony with PGF2α is 0.25 mg administered intramuscularly (IM).</li><li>• Dose and Administration:</li><li>• Maximum Dose: The maximum cumulative dose is 2 mg. This is achieved by administering a total of 8 doses of 0.25 mg each.</li><li>• Maximum Dose:</li><li>• Dosing Interval: These doses can be repeated at intervals of 15 to 90 minutes, depending on the clinical response and the patient's condition.</li><li>• Dosing Interval:</li><li>• Contraindications</li><li>• Contraindications</li><li>• Bronchial Asthma: PGF2α can cause bronchoconstriction, which makes it contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma. Suspected Amniotic Fluid Embolism: Due to its potential to cause pulmonary airway and vascular constriction, it is also contraindicated in cases of suspected amniotic fluid embolism.</li><li>• Bronchial Asthma: PGF2α can cause bronchoconstriction, which makes it contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma.</li><li>• Bronchial Asthma:</li><li>• Suspected Amniotic Fluid Embolism: Due to its potential to cause pulmonary airway and vascular constriction, it is also contraindicated in cases of suspected amniotic fluid embolism.</li><li>• Suspected Amniotic Fluid Embolism:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 0.25 mg : This is the single dose administered IM but not the cumulative maximum dose.</li><li>• Option A. 0.25 mg</li><li>• Option C. 20 mg : This dose is excessively high and not clinically recommended or safe.</li><li>• Option C. 20 mg</li><li>• Option D. 200 mg : This dose is not applicable for human use and is far beyond the safe and recommended limits.</li><li>• Option D. 200 mg</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The maximum dose of prostaglandin F2 alpha in the management of postpartum hemorrhage is 2 mg, administered in 0.25 mg increments intramuscularly.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 480, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 480, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common cause of HIV infection in a newborn is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perinatal transmission", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast milk", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transplacental", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exchange transfusion with infected blood", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Perinatal transmission", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Perinatal transmission</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common cause of HIV infection in a newborn is perinatal transmission, occurring during labor and delivery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. Patel is a 45-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Her doctor informs her that the cancer is hormone-dependent. The doctor recommends a treatment plan that includes surgery, radiation therapy, and hormone therapy. What is the drug used for estrogen dependent breast cancer? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clomiphene citrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tamoxifen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adriamycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tamoxifen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tamoxifen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to treat hormone receptor-positive breast cancers, particularly in premenopausal women. It is effective for estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, which is hormone-dependent. Tamoxifen works by blocking the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue, thereby preventing cancer cells from growing and spreading.</li><li>• Mechanism of Action : Tamoxifen competes with estrogen for binding to estrogen receptors in breast tissue. By blocking estrogen's effects, it inhibits the growth and proliferation of estrogen-dependent cancer cells. Administration : Tamoxifen is taken orally, usually once a day for five years. Side Effects : Common side effects include hot flashes, mood changes, vaginal dryness, and an increased risk of blood clots (DVT).</li><li>• Mechanism of Action : Tamoxifen competes with estrogen for binding to estrogen receptors in breast tissue. By blocking estrogen's effects, it inhibits the growth and proliferation of estrogen-dependent cancer cells.</li><li>• Mechanism of Action</li><li>• Administration : Tamoxifen is taken orally, usually once a day for five years.</li><li>• Administration</li><li>• Side Effects : Common side effects include hot flashes, mood changes, vaginal dryness, and an increased risk of blood clots (DVT).</li><li>• Side Effects</li><li>• Uses of Tamoxifen :</li><li>• Uses of Tamoxifen</li><li>• Primary Prophylaxis : Used for the primary prophylaxis of breast cancer in high-risk women. Risk Reduction : Reduces the risk of carcinoma in the contralateral breast. Recurrence Prevention : Lowers the risk of recurrence of carcinoma in both ipsilateral and contralateral breasts.</li><li>• Primary Prophylaxis : Used for the primary prophylaxis of breast cancer in high-risk women.</li><li>• Primary Prophylaxis</li><li>• Risk Reduction : Reduces the risk of carcinoma in the contralateral breast.</li><li>• Risk Reduction</li><li>• Recurrence Prevention : Lowers the risk of recurrence of carcinoma in both ipsilateral and contralateral breasts.</li><li>• Recurrence Prevention</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Estrogen: Estrogen is not used as a treatment for estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer because it would promote cancer cell growth. In fact, therapies aim to reduce or block estrogen to prevent cancer progression.</li><li>• Option A. Estrogen:</li><li>• Option B. Clomiphene citrate: Clomiphene citrate is a medication used to induce ovulation in women with fertility issues. It is not used in the treatment of breast cancer.</li><li>• Option B. Clomiphene citrate:</li><li>• Option D. Adriamycin (Doxorubicin): Adriamycin is a chemotherapy drug used to treat various types of cancer, including breast cancer. It works by interfering with the DNA in cancer cells, preventing them from dividing and growing. While effective in some cancer treatments, it is not specifically used for hormone therapy in estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer.</li><li>• Option D. Adriamycin (Doxorubicin):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tamoxifen is the drug used for treating estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer by blocking the effects of estrogen on breast tissue, thereby preventing the growth and spread of hormone-dependent cancer cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a risk factor for delusional disorder?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Recent immigration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Social isolation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Family history", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Young age", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Young age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/untitled-357.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Young age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Delusional disorder typically begins in middle to late adulthood. It is characterized by development of a single delusion or a set of related delusions , which are usually persistent and sometimes are life long.</li><li>➤ delusion</li><li>➤ set of related delusions</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 331.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Flask shaped ulcers in the colon are caused by: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Entamoeba Histolytica", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Giardia lamblia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Helicobacter pylori", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Entamoeba vermicularis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Entamoeba Histolytica", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/11_t6QZDZg.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/untitled-394.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Entameoba histolytica</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Entamoeba histolytica is the cause of flask-shaped ulcers in the colon, distinguishing it from other intestinal pathogens due to its invasive capabilities and the characteristic morphology of the ulcers it creates. Understanding these features helps in the differential diagnosis of dysentery and guides appropriate treatment and management strategies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are AIDS defining illnesses except: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Encephalopathy attributed to HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Invasive cervical cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis of any site", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral candidiasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oral candidiasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-110710.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Oral Candidiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Infectious Disease/Chap 202</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the ideal time for nuchal translucency evaluation? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6-8 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "11-14 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "14-16 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "16-20 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 11-14 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-77.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 11-14 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Nuchal Translucency (NT):</li><li>• Nuchal Translucency (NT):</li><li>• Definition: Nuchal translucency refers to the maximum thickness of the subcutaneous translucent area between the skin and soft tissue overlying the fetal spine at the back of the neck. Significance: An increased NT measurement is associated with an increased risk for fetal aneuploidy (such as Down syndrome) and various structural anomalies including cardiovascular defects, hydrops fetalis, and cystic hygroma.</li><li>• Definition: Nuchal translucency refers to the maximum thickness of the subcutaneous translucent area between the skin and soft tissue overlying the fetal spine at the back of the neck.</li><li>• Definition:</li><li>• Significance: An increased NT measurement is associated with an increased risk for fetal aneuploidy (such as Down syndrome) and various structural anomalies including cardiovascular defects, hydrops fetalis, and cystic hygroma.</li><li>• Significance:</li><li>• Timing:</li><li>• Timing:</li><li>• NT is measured between 11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days (or 11-14 weeks ) of gestation. This time frame is critical as it ensures the accuracy of the measurement and its correlation with potential anomalies.</li><li>• NT is measured between 11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days (or 11-14 weeks ) of gestation. This time frame is critical as it ensures the accuracy of the measurement and its correlation with potential anomalies.</li><li>• 11 weeks</li><li>• 13 weeks 6 days</li><li>• 11-14 weeks</li><li>• Measurement Criteria:</li><li>• Measurement Criteria:</li><li>• Crown-Rump Length (CRL): Should be between 45-84 mm. Fetal Position: Fetus should be in the mid-sagittal plane and in a neutral position. Image Quality: The image must be magnified, and the widest space should be measured. Caliper Placement: The ‘+’ calipers must be placed on the inner borders of the nuchal space, ensuring the amnion is seen separately.</li><li>• Crown-Rump Length (CRL): Should be between 45-84 mm.</li><li>• Crown-Rump Length (CRL):</li><li>• Fetal Position: Fetus should be in the mid-sagittal plane and in a neutral position.</li><li>• Fetal Position:</li><li>• Image Quality: The image must be magnified, and the widest space should be measured.</li><li>• Image Quality:</li><li>• Caliper Placement: The ‘+’ calipers must be placed on the inner borders of the nuchal space, ensuring the amnion is seen separately.</li><li>• Caliper Placement:</li><li>• Screening Efficiency:</li><li>• Screening Efficiency:</li><li>• NT Alone: Provides a 65% detection rate for Down syndrome. Combined Test: When combined with the Dual Marker test (beta hCG and PAPP-A), the detection rate for Down syndrome improves to 80%.</li><li>• NT Alone: Provides a 65% detection rate for Down syndrome.</li><li>• NT Alone:</li><li>• Combined Test: When combined with the Dual Marker test (beta hCG and PAPP-A), the detection rate for Down syndrome improves to 80%.</li><li>• Combined Test:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 6-8 weeks: This is too early for accurate NT measurement.</li><li>• Option A. 6-8 weeks:</li><li>• Option C. 14-16 weeks: This is beyond the optimal time frame for NT evaluation, reducing the effectiveness of the screening.</li><li>• Option C. 14-16 weeks:</li><li>• Option D. 16-20 weeks: This period is too late for NT measurement, which should be performed in the first trimester.</li><li>• Option D. 16-20 weeks:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ideal time for nuchal translucency evaluation is between 11-14 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 860, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 860, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Frotteurism is defined as: ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obtaining sexual pleasure by wearing clothes of opposite sex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desire to seek surgery to become member of opposite sex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sexual gratification by rubbing his private parts against another person", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exposure of one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sexual gratification by rubbing his private parts against another person", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sexual gratification by rubbing his private parts against another person</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Act of rubbing one's genitals against another person without their consent to achieve sexual arousal or gratification - Frotteurism Obtaining sexual pleasure by wearing clothes of opposite sex – Eonism Desire to seek surgery to become member of opposite sex - Transsexualism Exposure of one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger- Exhibitionism</li><li>➤ Act of rubbing one's genitals against another person without their consent to achieve sexual arousal or gratification - Frotteurism</li><li>➤ Obtaining sexual pleasure by wearing clothes of opposite sex – Eonism</li><li>➤ Desire to seek surgery to become member of opposite sex - Transsexualism</li><li>➤ Exposure of one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger- Exhibitionism</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant lady with a history of recurrent abortions is now diagnosed to have antiphospholipid syndrome. What would be the best mode of treatment for her? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspirin + heparin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspirin + heparin + steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin + steroids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aspirin + heparin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Aspirin + heparin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Aspirin + heparin:</li><li>• Aspirin + heparin:</li><li>• Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by recurrent pregnancy loss, thrombosis, and the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies. The primary cause of pregnancy loss in APS is believed to be due to inhibition of trophoblast function and differentiation, which leads to placental dysfunction. The best management approach for pregnant women with APS includes: Low dose aspirin : Initiated as soon as pregnancy is confirmed. Aspirin helps by preventing platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) : Started once fetal cardiac activity is detected. LMWH helps prevent blood clot formation, thus reducing the risk of thrombosis and improving pregnancy outcomes.</li><li>• Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by recurrent pregnancy loss, thrombosis, and the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies.</li><li>• The primary cause of pregnancy loss in APS is believed to be due to inhibition of trophoblast function and differentiation, which leads to placental dysfunction.</li><li>• The best management approach for pregnant women with APS includes: Low dose aspirin : Initiated as soon as pregnancy is confirmed. Aspirin helps by preventing platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) : Started once fetal cardiac activity is detected. LMWH helps prevent blood clot formation, thus reducing the risk of thrombosis and improving pregnancy outcomes.</li><li>• Low dose aspirin : Initiated as soon as pregnancy is confirmed. Aspirin helps by preventing platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) : Started once fetal cardiac activity is detected. LMWH helps prevent blood clot formation, thus reducing the risk of thrombosis and improving pregnancy outcomes.</li><li>• Low dose aspirin : Initiated as soon as pregnancy is confirmed. Aspirin helps by preventing platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta.</li><li>• Low dose aspirin</li><li>• Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) : Started once fetal cardiac activity is detected. LMWH helps prevent blood clot formation, thus reducing the risk of thrombosis and improving pregnancy outcomes.</li><li>• Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Aspirin only: While low-dose aspirin is beneficial, it is not sufficient alone for the prevention of complications in APS. The addition of heparin provides better protection against thrombosis and pregnancy loss.</li><li>• Option A. Aspirin only:</li><li>• Option C. Aspirin + heparin + steroids : Steroids are not routinely used in the management of APS during pregnancy due to their potential side effects and lack of evidence showing added benefit in preventing pregnancy loss when combined with aspirin and heparin.</li><li>• Option C. Aspirin + heparin +</li><li>• steroids</li><li>• Option D. Aspirin + steroids: Similar to the previous option, steroids are not recommended as part of the standard management for APS in pregnancy. The combination of aspirin and heparin is the preferred treatment.</li><li>• Option D. Aspirin + steroids:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best management for pregnant women with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) to prevent recurrent pregnancy loss includes low-dose aspirin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2907, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2907, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby assessed 5 minutes after birth, is found to be cyanosed with irregular gasping respiration. Heart rate is 60 beats/min, and a grimace is seen with some flexion of extremities. The Apgar score for this newborn is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture136.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An Apgar score is calculated based on five criteria, each ranging from 0 to 2. A score of 0-3 indicates severe distress, 4-6 indicates moderate difficulty, and 7-10 indicates that the newborn is in good health. The described baby, with a total score of 4, requires close monitoring and possibly further medical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which Reflex is responsible for tachycardia during right atrial distension? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "J reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cushing reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bezold jarisch reflex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bainbridge reflex", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bainbridge reflex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901242.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Bainbridge reflex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Bainbridge reflex is a cardioaccelerator reflex that increases the heart rate when venous return is increased. Since this reflex arises from right atrium, it is also called right atrial reflex.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. J Reflex : Apnea followed by rapid breathing, bradycardia, and hypotension due to J receptor (C-receptor, juxta-pulmonary capillary receptor) stimulation.</li><li>• Option A. J Reflex</li><li>• Option B. Cushing Reflex : Incorrect because the Cushing reflex involves increased blood pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory depression in response to increased intracranial pressure, not right atrial distension.</li><li>• Option B. Cushing Reflex</li><li>• Option C. Bezold-Jarisch Reflex : Bezold-Jarisch reflex is the reflex characterized by bradycardia and hypotension, caused by stimulation of chemoreceptors present in the wall of left ventricles by substances such as alkaloids. It is also called coronary chemoreflex. Vagal fibers form the afferent and efferent pathways of this reflex.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Bezold-Jarisch Reflex</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bainbridge reflex is responsible for inducing tachycardia in response to right atrial distension. It serves to adjust heart rate upward when venous return to the heart increases, ensuring optimal cardiac output and circulation efficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about pegylated-filgrastim? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duration of action is longer than filgrastim", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Added advantage is that it can be taken orally", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is contraindicated in patients with sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is not effective in the treatment of severe neutropenia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Duration of action is longer than filgrastim", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Duration of action is longer than filgrastim</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pegylated-filgrastim has a longer duration of action than regular filgrastim due to its pegylation, which slows its clearance from the body. It is effective in the treatment of severe neutropenia and is administered by injection, not orally. While not contraindicated in sickle cell anemia, caution is advised due to the potential risk of stimulating white blood cell production and increasing the risk of sickling crises.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following ions is involved in peripheral oxygen sensing chemoreceptors?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Potassium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sodium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlorine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Potassium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Potassium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Potassium is involved in peripheral oxygen sensing chemoreceptors.</li><li>• Chemoreceptors are made up of two types of cells, type I or glomus cells and type II or sustentacular cells. Glomus cells have afferent nerve endings, which are stimulated by hypoxia. Type II cells are glial cells and provide support for type I cells.</li><li>• Type I glomus cells (carotid and aortic body) have O2-sensitive K+ channels. Conductance of these channels is reduced proportionally to the degree of hypoxia resulting in K+ efflux → depolarization of cell and causes Ca+ influx →Excitation of afferent nerve ending.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Calcium : Calcium is also involved but primarily in response to the depolarization initiated by changes in potassium ion conductance. It is not the initial ion involved in oxygen sensing.</li><li>• Option B. Calcium</li><li>• Option C. Sodium : Sodium ions are not directly involved in the oxygen-sensing mechanism of peripheral chemoreceptors.</li><li>• Option C. Sodium</li><li>• Option D. Chlorine : Chlorine ions are not involved in the oxygen-sensing functions of peripheral chemoreceptors.</li><li>• Option D. Chlorine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Potassium ions are crucial for the function of peripheral oxygen-sensing chemoreceptors, where they regulate the membrane potential and responsiveness of the cells to hypoxia. This process is vital for the body's ability to detect and respond to low oxygen levels, ensuring adequate oxygenation and cellular function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a confounding factor? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It can be reduced by matching", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is associated individually with both cause and effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is distributed equally in both study and control groups", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is associated with the exposure of the study", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is distributed equally in both study and control groups", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) It is distributed equally in both study and control groups</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Confounding can be removed by</li><li>➤ Confounding can be removed by</li><li>➤ 1. Matching → MC used /simplest method</li><li>➤ 2. Randomization → 2nd Best Method</li><li>➤ 3. Restriction</li><li>➤ 4. Stratification</li><li>➤ 5. Statistical Modelling / Multivariate analysis (MVA)</li><li>➤ 6. Stratified Randomization → Overall Best Method</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 47-year-old man with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia with a blood type O negative blood group presents to the transplant clinic to discuss proceeding with an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following would be an optimal donor? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "His identical twin brothers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Umbilical cord transplant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "An HLA identical matched unrelated donor who is blood type O-", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "His HLA identical 50-year-old brother who is otherwise healthy and is blood type O+", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. His HLA identical 50-year-old brother who is otherwise healthy and is blood type O+", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with acute myeloid leukemia, the optimal donor choice would generally be an HLA identical sibling, despite any ABO blood type differences, due to the lower risk of complications and better overall survival outcomes. Blood type discrepancies, especially in Rh factor, are manageable in the context of stem cell transplants.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Transplant/Chap 104</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true for decorticate rigidity? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is produced by the removal of cerebral cortex and basal ganglia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flexion of lower limbs and extension of upper limbs occurs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rigidity is pronounced", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is characterized by flexion of upper limbs and extension of lower limbs", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It is characterized by flexion of upper limbs and extension of lower limbs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/671.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. It is characterized by flexion of upper limbs and extension of lower limbs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Decorticate animal is the one without cerebral cortex.</li><li>• In man, decorticate condition is caused by intracranial hemorrhage, head injury, brain abscess or brain tumor. Decorticate condition is called decorticate rigidity</li><li>• Decorticate rigidity is the abnormal postural changes that involve rigid extension of the lower limbs and flexion of the upper limbs at elbow joint across the chest. Wrists and fingers are also flexed. Posture may develop on one side or both sides of the body.</li><li>• Reflexes at the neck level can be elicited</li><li>• When the neck is turned to right, there is flexion of the lower and upper limbs on the opposite side. But, on the same side, there is extension of the limbs. It may be due to the cutting or lesion of direct corticospinal tract. Some fibers of corticospinal tract are known to have inhibitory influence on the extensor muscles.</li><li>• When the neck is turned to right, there is flexion of the lower and upper limbs on the opposite side. But, on the same side, there is extension of the limbs.</li><li>• It may be due to the cutting or lesion of direct corticospinal tract. Some fibers of corticospinal tract are known to have inhibitory influence on the extensor muscles.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. It is produced by the removal of cerebral cortex and basal ganglia : Incorrect as decorticate rigidity typically does not involve the removal of the basal ganglia.</li><li>• Option A. It is produced by the removal of cerebral cortex and basal ganglia</li><li>• Option B. Flexion of lower limbs and extension of upper limbs occurs : Incorrect as this describes a reverse of the decorticate rigidity posturing.</li><li>• Option B. Flexion of lower limbs and extension of upper limbs occurs</li><li>• Option C. Rigidity is pronounced : This statement is somewhat vague but could be considered true in the context of how muscle rigidity is indeed pronounced in decorticate rigidity. However, it does not specifically describe the characteristic posture associated with decorticate rigidity.</li><li>• Option C. Rigidity is pronounced</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decorticate rigidity is characterized by flexion of the upper limbs and extension of the lower limbs, often occurring in response to severe brain damage above the midbrain level. It is a distinctive postural manifestation of significant central nervous system disruption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Punched-out ulcers in the esophagus are caused by: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes-simplex virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Herpes-simplex virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/5_aYMBZut.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-124341.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Herpes-simplex virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpes simplex virus causes distinctive punched-out ulcers in the esophagus, particularly noted in immunocompromised patients, diagnosed by endoscopic appearance and confirmed via histopathological findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old farmer is bitten by a scorpion. Which of the following acts as a physiological antidote to scorpion venom? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Physostigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Norepinephrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prazosin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prazosin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/2_PfZNzEq.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Prazosin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prazosin acts as a physiological antidote for scorpion venom by counteracting the severe cardiovascular and systemic effects induced by the venom.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of facial trauma, presented with diplopia, epistaxis, and restricted eye movements. Looking at the CT image given below, what will be your diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Le- fort fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fracture maxilla", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fracture zygomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blow-out fracture", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Blow-out fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-121.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-122.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Blow-out fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A blow-out fracture, typically resulting from orbital trauma, is characterized by periocular swelling, subcutaneous emphysema, enophthalmos, infraorbital nerve anesthesia, and diplopia. The diagnosis is confirmed by a CT scan showing the characteristic teardrop sign.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Viral infection mimicking erythroblastosis fetalis is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HSV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epstein-Barr virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Picornavirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parvovirus B19", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Parvovirus B19", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_rdNBJcg.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Parvovirus B19</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19 infection can uniquely mimic erythroblastosis fetalis by causing severe fetal anemia and related complications through its direct impact on erythroid progenitor cells. Awareness of this potential complication is essential, particularly in pregnant women, as the infection can lead to significant fetal outcomes, necessitating careful monitoring and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common triggering factor of the given condition is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Infection", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/434.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1328.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-175255.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common trigger for erythema multiforme , particularly when target lesions are present on the palms, is infection, notably with herpes simplex virus .</li><li>➤ most common trigger</li><li>➤ erythema multiforme</li><li>➤ target lesions</li><li>➤ palms,</li><li>➤ herpes simplex virus</li><li>➤ Additional information</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume I Chapter 4. Page no 4.11, 4.13</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Id-7462 Unique Key-Q3225777</li><li>↳ Question Id-7462 Unique Key-Q3225777</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following represents functional residual capacity? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Volume expired after normal inspiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Volume that remains after forced expiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/672.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The functional residual capacity equals the expiratory reserve volume(1000-1100ml) + residual volume(1100-1200ml). This is the amount of air that remains in the lungs at the end of normal expiration (about 2300 milliliters).</li><li>• Vital capacity - Total volume of air that can be expired after normal inspiration</li><li>• Vital capacity</li><li>• = Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume</li><li>• Expiratory capacity – tidal volume + ERV</li><li>• Expiratory capacity</li><li>• Residual volume (1100-1200) - Volume that remains after forced expiration</li><li>• Residual volume</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Volume expired after normal inspiration : Incorrect as this description fits more closely with tidal volume, which is the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation when extra effort is not applied.</li><li>• Option A. Volume expired after normal inspiration</li><li>• Option B. Volume that remains after forced expiration : Incorrect as this specifically defines residual volume (RV), not the combination of ERV and RV.</li><li>• Option B. Volume that remains after forced expiration</li><li>• Option D. Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume : Incorrect, this combination describes the vital capacity, which is the total volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inhalation.</li><li>• Option D. Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) is the sum of the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) and the Residual Volume (RV). It represents the volume of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal exhalation, ensuring continuous gas exchange between breaths.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding De Quervain's tenosynovitis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fingers are held in mild extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It affects APL and EPB", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most common involvement is index finger", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treatment is surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It affects APL and EPB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-171418.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-171454.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-122604.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. It affects APL and EPB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given image shows what grade of placenta previa? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "III", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "II", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. III", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/neet-pg-obg-2019-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-72.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-73.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image illustrates Type 3 placenta previa where the placenta partially covers the internal os. This classification is part of the older classification system known as Browne’s classification.</li><li>• Placenta previa is categorized into different types based on how much the placenta covers the internal os of the cervix:</li><li>• Older Classification (Browne’s classification):</li><li>• Older Classification (Browne’s classification):</li><li>• Type 1: The lower edge of the placenta enters the lower segment but is away from the os. Type 2: The placenta reaches the margin of the os but doesn’t cover it. Type 3: The placenta partially covers the internal os (when fully dilated, it doesn’t cover). Type 4: The placenta completely covers the os.</li><li>• Type 1: The lower edge of the placenta enters the lower segment but is away from the os.</li><li>• Type 1:</li><li>• Type 2: The placenta reaches the margin of the os but doesn’t cover it.</li><li>• Type 2:</li><li>• Type 3: The placenta partially covers the internal os (when fully dilated, it doesn’t cover).</li><li>• Type 3:</li><li>• Type 4: The placenta completely covers the os.</li><li>• Type 4:</li><li>• Newer Classification (based on Transvaginal Sonography - TVS; by ACOG):</li><li>• Newer Classification (based on Transvaginal Sonography - TVS; by ACOG):</li><li>• True Placenta Previa: The placenta covers the internal os. Low-lying Placenta: The placenta lies within 2 cm of the internal os but does not cover it.</li><li>• True Placenta Previa: The placenta covers the internal os.</li><li>• True Placenta Previa:</li><li>• Low-lying Placenta: The placenta lies within 2 cm of the internal os but does not cover it.</li><li>• Low-lying Placenta:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. IV: This would mean the placenta completely covers the os, which is not the case in the given image.</li><li>• Option A. IV:</li><li>• Option C. II: This would mean the placenta reaches the margin of the os but does not cover it, which is not consistent with the image.</li><li>• Option C. II:</li><li>• Option D. I: This would mean the lower edge of the placenta enters the lower segment but is away from the os, which does not align with the given image.</li><li>• Option D. I:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placenta previa is classified based on the extent to which the placenta covers the internal os, with Type 3 indicating partial coverage.</li><li>➤ Types of Placentae previa</li><li>➤ Types of Placentae previa</li><li>➤ Older Classification (Browne’s classification)</li><li>➤ Older Classification (Browne’s classification)</li><li>➤ Newer Classification (based on Transvaginal Sonography -TVS); By ACOG</li><li>➤ Newer Classification</li><li>➤ True Placenta Previa: Placenta covers the internal os Low lying placenta: Placenta lies within 2 cm of the internal os but does not cover it.</li><li>➤ True Placenta Previa: Placenta covers the internal os</li><li>➤ Low lying placenta: Placenta lies within 2 cm of the internal os but does not cover it.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 658, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 658, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the agglutination test shown below, what is the blood group?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "O positive", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "AB positive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. O positive", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/677.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. O positive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The absence of agglutination with anti-A and anti-B antibodies and the presence of agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies confirms the blood group as O positive. This means the individual's red blood cells lack A and B antigens but contain the Rh factor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the dose of Ulipristal used in emergency contraception? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30 mg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "300 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "60 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "600 mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 30 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-76.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 30 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The dose of Ulipristal in emergency contraception is 30 mg to be taken within 72 hrs (can be taken upto 120hrs).</li><li>• The following can be used as emergency contraceptives:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The dose of Ulipristal for emergency contraception is 30 mg, to be taken within 72 hours (up to 120 hours) after unprotected intercourse.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 630, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 630, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are TRUE about Rubella infection, EXCEPT? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a type of droplet infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vertical transmission is possible", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infection in early pregnancy causes a milder form of disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fetus affected in late pregnancy may have only deafness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Infection in early pregnancy causes a milder form of disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Infection in early pregnancy causes a milder form of disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ RUBELLA</li><li>➤ RUBELLA</li><li>➤ Cause → RNA Togavirus</li><li>➤ IP → 14-21 Days</li><li>➤ Source → Cases [No carriers - No Iceberg phenomenon]</li><li>➤ Mode of Transmission → Resp. [Air droplets]</li><li>➤ Period of Communicability → 1 week before rash ← SYMPTOMS → 1 week after rash</li><li>➤ Vaccine → Live attenuated RA 27/3 strain [C/I in pregnancy]</li><li>➤ 1st priority group → Non pregnant Non Lactating Reproductive 15-49 yrs female [1 st trimester]</li><li>➤ Congenital Rubella Syndrome → CVD [PDA], Cataract, Sensory Neural Deafness</li><li>➤ Congenital Rubella Syndrome</li><li>➤ Most common and most dangerous time for transmission of Rubella from Mother to Child is First trimester</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which trimester does acute fatty liver manifest most commonly during pregnancy? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First trimester", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Second trimester", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Third trimester", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both (a) and (b)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Third trimester", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Third trimester</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a life-threatening medical disorder that primarily affects the liver during pregnancy. It most commonly manifests in the late second and third trimesters. AFLP is characterized by the accumulation of microvesicular fat within hepatocytes, leading to liver dysfunction. The diagnosis of AFLP is made using the Swansea criteria, which require six or more of the following clinical features for diagnosis:</li><li>• Vomiting Abdominal pain Polydipsia, polyuria Encephalopathy Coagulopathy (raised PT, aPTT) Increased bilirubin Increased uric acid levels Increased creatinine Leukocytosis Hypoglycemia Raised liver enzymes Raised serum ammonia levels Ascites or bright liver on ultrasound Microvascular steatosis on liver biopsy</li><li>• Vomiting</li><li>• Abdominal pain</li><li>• Polydipsia, polyuria</li><li>• Encephalopathy</li><li>• Coagulopathy (raised PT, aPTT)</li><li>• Increased bilirubin</li><li>• Increased uric acid levels</li><li>• Increased creatinine</li><li>• Leukocytosis</li><li>• Hypoglycemia</li><li>• Raised liver enzymes</li><li>• Raised serum ammonia levels</li><li>• Ascites or bright liver on ultrasound</li><li>• Microvascular steatosis on liver biopsy</li><li>• Risk Factors:</li><li>• Risk Factors:</li><li>• Maternal obesity Male fetus Primigravida Multiple pregnancy</li><li>• Maternal obesity</li><li>• Male fetus</li><li>• Primigravida</li><li>• Multiple pregnancy</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. First trimester : AFLP is very rare in the first trimester, as it typically manifests later in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option A. First trimester</li><li>• Option B. Second trimester : While AFLP can begin in the late second trimester, it is more commonly seen in the third trimester.</li><li>• Option B. Second trimester</li><li>• Option D. Both (a) and (b) : AFLP does not commonly manifest in the first trimester and is primarily a condition of the late second and third trimesters.</li><li>• Option D. Both (a) and (b)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute fatty liver of pregnancy most commonly manifests in the third trimester and is diagnosed using the Swansea criteria, requiring six or more specific clinical features.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2684, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2684, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old pregnant lady presents with fever and is put on antibiotics. Fever is still not brought under control. On further investigation, she is diagnosed to have septic pelvic thrombophlebitis. Which among the following is the next course of treatment for her? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop antibiotics and start heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotics + Heparin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Surgical embolectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Antibiotics + Heparin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Antibiotics + Heparin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Antibiotics + heparin:</li><li>• Antibiotics + heparin:</li><li>• Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis (SPT) is a rare postpartum infective complication characterized by persistent high-grade fever despite broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy. It typically occurs after delivery or abortion and is often seen in women with risk factors like cesarean section, prolonged labor, or pelvic infection.</li><li>• The fever in SPT is caused by a septic thrombus in the pelvic veins—most commonly the ovarian vein—that harbors bacteria and incites a sustained inflammatory response. Since antibiotics alone cannot fully penetrate the infected thrombus, the addition of anticoagulation (usually low molecular weight heparin) is essential. Heparin helps in lysing the thrombus, preventing further propagation and improving antibiotic penetration.</li><li>• Clinical improvement is usually seen within 48–72 hours of initiating combined therapy with antibiotics and heparin.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Stop antibiotics and start heparin : Incorrect because infection is still present—antibiotics are needed to control the infective component. Stopping antibiotics would worsen sepsis.</li><li>• Option A. Stop antibiotics and start heparin</li><li>• Option C. Surgical embolectomy: Too invasive and not first-line. Reserved for rare cases with septic emboli or failure to respond to medical management.</li><li>• Option C. Surgical embolectomy:</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy: Not indicated unless there’s uncontrolled pelvic infection not responding to medical therapy or associated endomyometritis with uterine necrosis. SPT is usually confined to pelvic veins, not requiring removal of the uterus.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best management for pregnant women with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) to prevent recurrent pregnancy loss includes low-dose aspirin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2951, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2951, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maddox wing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maddox glass", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maddox rod", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phoropter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Maddox rod", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-129.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-134_k6VeiAz.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-135_4VSQBFs.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Maddox rod</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Maddox rod is an instrument consisting of parallel cylindrical lenses used to convert a point light source into a line image, aiding in the diagnosis of horizontal, vertical, and cyclo deviations in ocular alignment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All among the following are clinical features of necrotizing enterocolitis except: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vomiting", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abdominal mass", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythema of the abdominal wall", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metabolic alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Metabolic alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) can cause metabolic or respiratory acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child presents with a history of repeated sinopulmonary infections caused by encapsulated organisms. Which of the following is most likely to be deficient in this case? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgG1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgG2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgG3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgG4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IgG2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IgG2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In children presenting with recurrent infections caused by encapsulated bacteria, IgG2 deficiency should be considered as a possible underlying cause. Early identification and management of specific immunoglobulin deficiencies are crucial to prevent recurrent infections and their complications in young children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common chemistry of gallstones among the following options? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crystalline cholesterol monohydrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crystalline cholesterol dihydrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amorphous cholesterol dihydrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amorphous cholesterol monohydrate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Crystalline cholesterol monohydrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Crystalline cholesterol monohydrate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gallstones are crystalline formations that occur in the gallbladder due to the precipitation of substances found in bile. The most common type of gallstones are cholesterol stones, which account for about 80% of all gallstone cases. These stones primarily consist of crystalline cholesterol monohydrate.</li><li>• Types of Gallstones :</li><li>• Types of Gallstones</li><li>• Cholesterol Stones : These are the most prevalent type, made primarily of crystalline cholesterol monohydrate. They are often yellow-green and can vary in size from small grains to large stones. Pigment Stones : Comprising about 20% of gallstones, pigment stones are made of bilirubin and can be either black or brown. These are more likely to form in individuals with liver disease or hemolytic disorders. Mixed Stones : These stones contain both cholesterol and pigment components, and may also include calcium bilirubinate, which is a part of some pigment stones.</li><li>• Cholesterol Stones : These are the most prevalent type, made primarily of crystalline cholesterol monohydrate. They are often yellow-green and can vary in size from small grains to large stones.</li><li>• Cholesterol Stones</li><li>• Pigment Stones : Comprising about 20% of gallstones, pigment stones are made of bilirubin and can be either black or brown. These are more likely to form in individuals with liver disease or hemolytic disorders.</li><li>• Pigment Stones</li><li>• Mixed Stones : These stones contain both cholesterol and pigment components, and may also include calcium bilirubinate, which is a part of some pigment stones.</li><li>• Mixed Stones</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Crystalline cholesterol dihydrate: This is not a common form of gallstones. Cholesterol stones typically form in the monohydrate crystalline structure rather than dihydrate.</li><li>• Option B. Crystalline cholesterol dihydrate:</li><li>• Option C. Amorphous cholesterol dihydrate: Gallstones are rarely composed of amorphous cholesterol, and the dihydrate form is not typical. The monohydrate crystalline form is the most common.</li><li>• Option C. Amorphous cholesterol dihydrate:</li><li>• Option D. Amorphous cholesterol monohydrate: Gallstones are generally crystalline in nature rather than amorphous. Crystalline cholesterol monohydrate is the most common form found in gallstones.</li><li>• Option D. Amorphous cholesterol monohydrate:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common chemistry of gallstones is crystalline cholesterol monohydrate, which constitutes about 80% of all gallstone cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition:(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brodie’s abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteoid osteoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intra-cortical hemangioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chondromyxoid fibroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Brodie’s abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/11/19.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/33.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/35.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Brodie’s abscess</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Deficiency of which of the following causes increased glutamine in blood? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arginosuccinate lyase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alpha-galactosidase-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ornithine transcarbamoylase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arginase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ornithine transcarbamoylase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-105351.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ornithine transcarbamoylase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency is a urea cycle disorder, which is inherited as an X-linked trait. Hyperammonemia Type II is characterized by OTC deficiency . Mothers also have hyperammonemia and an aversion to high protein diet. To reduce ammonia levels, glutamate combines with ammonia to form glutamine. Thus, elevated levels of ammonia are associated with high glutamine levels in CSF and blood.</li><li>➤ X-linked</li><li>➤ Hyperammonemia Type II is characterized by OTC deficiency</li><li>➤ Urea cycle disorders</li><li>➤ Urea cycle disorders</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of triazoles? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interferes with DNA and RNA synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Forms pores in fungal membranes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibits epoxidation of squalene in fungi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/16/screenshot-2024-07-16-182250.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following investigations is shown in the radiograph? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Barium swallow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barium meal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium meal follow through", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barium enema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Barium meal", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_02K78vF.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_200.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Barium meal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image is a barium meal. This study is used to examine the stomach and proximal duodenum.</li><li>• Visual Cues: The image shows the distribution of barium within the stomach, outlining its contours and revealing its internal structure, which is typical in a barium meal examination.</li><li>• Visual Cues:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Barium Swallow: This study primarily evaluates the esophagus and does not extend into the stomach. The radiograph showing the stomach filled with barium indicates that the procedure goes beyond just a barium swallow.</li><li>• Option A. Barium Swallow:</li><li>• Option C. Barium Meal Follow Through: This investigation involves not only the stomach but also a sequential imaging of the small intestine as the barium passes through. The specific image provided does not show barium beyond the proximal duodenum, which is typical in a simple barium meal.</li><li>• Option C. Barium Meal Follow Through:</li><li>• Option D. Barium Enema: This procedure is used to visualize the large intestine (colon) and rectum using barium introduced via the rectum. The provided image showing the stomach filled with barium clearly indicates that it's not a barium enema.</li><li>• Option D. Barium Enema:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old boy is admitted with fever, icterus, conjunctival suffusion, and hematuria for 15 days. Which serological test should be done for diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Widal test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microscopic agglutination test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weil felix reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paul Bunnell test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Microscopic agglutination test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Microscopic agglutination test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT) is crucial for diagnosing leptospirosis in patients presenting with symptoms like fever, jaundice, red eyes, and hematuria, as it accurately detects the presence of antibodies against Leptospira, confirming the infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What constitutes the primary administrative unit in India? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Village", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "District", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "State", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. District", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) District</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The district serves as the principal administrative unit in India, playing a vital role in governance and implementation of government policies at the grassroots level.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the type of necrosis seen in the vessel wall of a patient with polyarteritis nodosa? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibrinoid necrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gangrenous necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fat necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caseous necrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fibrinoid necrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/untitled-396.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fibrinoid necrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibrinoid necrosis is seen in the following conditions:</li><li>➤ Fibrinoid necrosis is seen in the following conditions:</li><li>➤ SLE Libman-sacks endocarditis Arthus reaction Serum sickness Polyarteritis nodosa Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis Malignant hypertension</li><li>➤ SLE</li><li>➤ Libman-sacks endocarditis</li><li>➤ Arthus reaction</li><li>➤ Serum sickness</li><li>➤ Polyarteritis nodosa</li><li>➤ Polyarteritis nodosa</li><li>➤ Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis</li><li>➤ Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis</li><li>➤ Malignant hypertension</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the term for the likelihood that a patient who tested positive actually has the specific disease in question?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positive predictive value", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Negative predictive value", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Positive predictive value", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-113159.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Positive predictive value (PPV) is the measure that indicates the likelihood that a patient who tested positive actually has the specific disease in question. It is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of a screening test in correctly identifying true positive cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gestational trophoblastic neoplasm does not include? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Partial mole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Choriocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Placental site trophoblastic tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Invasive mole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Partial mole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Partial mole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) includes a spectrum of conditions characterized by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. These conditions are broadly classified into molar and non-molar trophoblastic diseases.</li><li>• Hydatidiform Mole: Complete Mole Partial Mole Invasive Mole Non-Molar Trophoblastic Diseases: Choriocarcinoma Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Hydatidiform Mole: Complete Mole Partial Mole Invasive Mole</li><li>• Hydatidiform Mole:</li><li>• Complete Mole Partial Mole Invasive Mole</li><li>• Complete Mole</li><li>• Complete Mole</li><li>• Partial Mole</li><li>• Partial Mole</li><li>• Invasive Mole</li><li>• Invasive Mole</li><li>• Non-Molar Trophoblastic Diseases: Choriocarcinoma Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Non-Molar Trophoblastic Diseases:</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma</li><li>• Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN) , on the other hand, includes only the malignant forms of trophoblastic disease:</li><li>• Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN)</li><li>• Invasive Mole Choriocarcinoma Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Invasive Mole</li><li>• Invasive Mole</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma</li><li>• Choriocarcinoma</li><li>• Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• A partial mole is a type of hydatidiform mole and is considered benign. It is not included under GTN as it does not have malignant potential unless it transforms into an invasive mole, which is rare.</li><li>• partial mole</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Choriocarcinoma : This is a malignant form of GTD and is classified under GTN.</li><li>• Option B. Choriocarcinoma</li><li>• Option C. Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor : This is another malignant form of GTD and is included under GTN.</li><li>• Option C. Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor</li><li>• Option D. Invasive Mole : An invasive mole is a malignant transformation of a hydatidiform mole and is included under GTN.</li><li>• Option D. Invasive Mole</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Partial moles are not classified as gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) because they are generally benign and non-malignant.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 615, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 615, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old girl presents to the OPD. She had itchy lesions on her arm as shown with a family history of asthma. What could be the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seborrhoeic dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atopic dermatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Allergic contact dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erysipelas", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atopic dermatitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1294.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-172548.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1296.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1297.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/1_ef9oUNS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Atopic dermatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atopic dermatitis is a chronic, pruritic inflammatory skin disease commonly associated with flexural distribution of eczematous lesions and a family history of atopic conditions, such as asthma.</li><li>➤ Atopic dermatitis</li><li>➤ chronic, pruritic inflammatory</li><li>➤ flexural distribution</li><li>➤ family history</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 2 Chapter 41 page no 41.1, 41.2, 41.13-19</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 2 Chapter 41 page no 41.1, 41.2, 41.13-19</li><li>↳ Rooks’ textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 3 Chapter 149 page no 149.21</li><li>↳ Rooks’ textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition volume 3 Chapter 149 page no 149.21</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ https://www.jaad.org/article/S0190-9622(13)01095-5/fulltext</li><li>↳ https://www.jaad.org/article/S0190-9622(13)01095-5/fulltext</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Id-7456 Unique Key-Q3994123</li><li>↳ Question Id-7456 Unique Key-Q3994123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An old lady complains of chronic backpain since a few months. X-ray is shown below. What is the probable diagnosis?( NEET PG 2019 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spondylolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spondylolisthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteopetrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Osteoporosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/26/untitled-1367957.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/26/untitled-1367958.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-02-192803_OZnJauF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Osteoporosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Osteoporosis is a condition marked by a decrease in bone density and mass, leading to structural weakening of the bone and increased risk of fractures. Diagnostic imaging such as X-rays can show characteristic changes like \"Codfish Vertebra\" and is further confirmed by measuring bone mineral density through a DEXA scan. Treatment focuses on inhibiting bone resorption and/or stimulating bone formation through various pharmacological agents.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The hormone acting on post ovulatory endometrium is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Luteinizing hormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular stimulating hormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Progesterone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Progesterone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-75.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Progesterone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Progesterone is the hormone responsible for preparing the endometrium for implantation during the post-ovulatory phase.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 94, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 94, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following diagram depicts the fluctuation in population over the years spanning from 1983 to 1989 within a specific location. Which type of statistical diagram is being employed in this instance? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Line diagram", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Component bar graph", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple bar graphs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Component bar graph", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/61.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/63.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/64.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-125427_tdCdn02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Component bar graph</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A component bar graph is used to represent data where the total magnitude is divided into different subsets or components, effectively illustrating the proportion of each category within the total value.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the basis for the formation of omphalocele?( NEET PG 2019 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Excessive length of the intestine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Physiological hernia failing to go back", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herniation of liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herniation of umbilicus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Physiological hernia failing to go back", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-161535.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Physiological hernia failing to go back</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omphalocele is primarily caused by the failure of the physiological hernia of the midgut to return to the abdominal cavity during fetal development, not merely by the excessive length of the intestine or specific organ herniation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calcitonin levels are increased in: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperthyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypoparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cushing's syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyperparathyroidism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hyperparathyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Increased calcitonin levels are typically seen in response to hypercalcemia, as seen in hyperparathyroidism. This is a compensatory mechanism to help maintain calcium homeostasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the fear of heights known as?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acarophobia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Algophobia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Agoraphobia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acrophobia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acrophobia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/untitled-358.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Acrophobia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acrophobia refers to the fear of heights.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 403.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the recommended amount of vitamin A dosage for a 2-year-old child diagnosed with keratomalacia? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2,00,000 IU immediately, followed by same dose after 24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,00,000 IU immediately, followed by the same dose after 1 week", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,00,000 IU immediately, followed by the same dose after 24 hours and after a week", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,00,000 IU immediately, followed by the same dose 24 hours later and after 2 weeks", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2,00,000 IU immediately, followed by the same dose 24 hours later and after 2 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The suggested vitamin A dose for a 2-year-old child diagnosed with keratomalacia is 200,000 IU, administered promptly, then repeated with the same age-appropriate amount after 24 hours and again after a span of 2 weeks.</li><li>➤ Dosage of Vitamin A as per age: -</li><li>➤ &lt;6 months – 50,000 IU orally 6-12 months – 1,00,000 IU orally above 12 months – 2,00,000 IU orally</li><li>➤ &lt;6 months – 50,000 IU orally</li><li>➤ 6-12 months – 1,00,000 IU orally</li><li>➤ above 12 months – 2,00,000 IU orally</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following amino acid is necessary for conversion of nor-epinephrine to epinephrine? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tyrosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tryptophan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenyl alanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methionine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Methionine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Methionine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methionine is necessary for the conversion of nor-epinephrine to epinephrine.</li><li>➤ Norepinephrine is methylated by the enzyme N-methyl transferase (NMT) to epinephrine or adrenaline.</li><li>➤ Norepinephrine is methylated by the enzyme N-methyl transferase (NMT) to epinephrine</li><li>➤ S-adenosyl methionine (SAM) is the methyl donor . It is mainly produced by adrenal medulla and adrenergic nerve endings. It is stored in chromaffin granules and released into blood.</li><li>➤ S-adenosyl methionine (SAM) is the methyl donor</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents to the clinic with a painful lump in her breast that has been increasing in size over the past few days. After examination, the doctor diagnoses her with a breast abscess and prescribes antibiotics to help clear the infection. The doctor attempts to aspirate the abscess using a needle and syringe, but no fluid is obtained. What is the next step in management? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incision and Drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Continue antibiotics only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A second attempt at aspiration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stop antibiotics as no aspirate was collected", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A second attempt at aspiration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. A second attempt at aspiration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• If the first attempt at aspiration fails to obtain fluid, the next logical step is to attempt aspiration again, potentially with ultrasound guidance. Ultrasound guidance can enhance the accuracy of the procedure by allowing direct visualization of the abscess, ensuring that the needle is correctly positioned to access the abscess cavity. This method is less invasive than incision and drainage (I&amp;D), making it a preferred option if it can effectively manage the abscess.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Incision and Drainage: Incision and drainage is generally considered if aspiration fails repeatedly or if the abscess is too large. While effective, it is not typically the immediate next step after a single failed aspiration attempt. It is more invasive than aspiration and usually reserved for cases where less invasive methods are unsuccessful.</li><li>• Option A. Incision and Drainage:</li><li>• Option B. Continue antibiotics only: Antibiotics are crucial in managing breast abscesses by treating the underlying infection. However, they alone might not suffice for large or dense abscesses. The pus trapped within the abscess often needs to be physically removed to expedite healing and provide symptom relief. Continuing antibiotics without addressing the abscess can lead to prolonged infection and discomfort.</li><li>• Option B. Continue antibiotics only:</li><li>• Option D. Stop antibiotics as no aspirate was collected: This option is not recommended. The failure to collect aspirate does not imply the absence of infection. The antibiotics were prescribed based on the clinical diagnosis of a breast abscess, and stopping them prematurely could allow the infection to worsen. Continuation of antibiotics is important until the course is complete or unless indicated otherwise by a physician.</li><li>• Option D. Stop antibiotics as no aspirate was collected:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ If the initial aspiration attempt for a breast abscess fails, the next step should be to attempt aspiration again, preferably under ultrasound guidance, before considering more invasive procedures like incision and drainage. This approach ensures accurate access to the abscess and minimizes invasiveness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the function of Tubuloglomerular feedback? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Regulate GFR", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease plasma sodium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase plasma volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decrease tubular secretion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Regulate GFR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/676.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Regulate GFR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tubuloglomerular feedback is an adaptive mechanism in the kidneys that helps regulate GFR in response to changes in blood pressure and filtrate flow rate, ensuring stable renal function and homeostasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Menke's disease, which of the following enzymes would be affected?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lysyl hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lysyl oxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prolyl oxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prolyl hydroxylase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lysyl oxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture5_ktUtlHY.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lysyl oxidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Menke’s kinky hair syndrome is an x-linked defect (affects only male child). It is a condition in which dietary copper is absorbed from GI tract; but cannot be transported to blood due to absence of an intracellular copper binding ATPase ( mutation in ATP7A gene).</li><li>➤ Menke’s kinky hair syndrome is an x-linked defect (affects only male child).</li><li>➤ mutation in ATP7A gene).</li><li>➤ Copper is not mobilized from intestinal cells as well as in other tissue cells . The copper that has entered into the cell is not able to get out of the cells, and so it is accumulated. Hence, copper is not available for metabolism, resulting in defective cross-linking of connective tissue. Vascular and connective tissues are affected, and child dies usually in infancy . Deficiency of copper results in defective function of lysyl oxidase .</li><li>➤ Copper is not mobilized from intestinal cells as well as in other tissue cells</li><li>➤ child dies usually in infancy</li><li>➤ defective function of lysyl oxidase</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is not a feature in cerebral palsy? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypotonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microcephaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ataxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flaccid paralysis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Flaccid paralysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture132.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Flaccid paralysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flaccid paralysis is not a feature of cerebral palsy; it is indicative of lower motor neuron disease. Cerebral palsy is characterized by various forms of muscle tone abnormalities and movement disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the treatment of choice for a woman with atrophic vaginitis with complaints of itching? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Topical estrogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antihistamines only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Topical estrogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Topical estrogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Topical estrogen:</li><li>• Topical estrogen:</li><li>• Atrophic vaginitis, also known as vaginal atrophy, is a condition that commonly affects postmenopausal women due to decreased estrogen levels. It leads to symptoms such as vaginal dryness, itching, and discomfort. Local estrogen preparations are preferred over systemic hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for the treatment of postmenopausal vaginal atrophy. This is because local treatments directly target the affected area and have fewer systemic side effects. The use of 1 g of conjugated estrogen cream intravaginally, applied each day for 1 to 2 weeks, generally provides symptomatic relief for women experiencing atrophic vaginitis.</li><li>• Atrophic vaginitis, also known as vaginal atrophy, is a condition that commonly affects postmenopausal women due to decreased estrogen levels. It leads to symptoms such as vaginal dryness, itching, and discomfort.</li><li>• Local estrogen preparations are preferred over systemic hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for the treatment of postmenopausal vaginal atrophy. This is because local treatments directly target the affected area and have fewer systemic side effects.</li><li>• The use of 1 g of conjugated estrogen cream intravaginally, applied each day for 1 to 2 weeks, generally provides symptomatic relief for women experiencing atrophic vaginitis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Steroids: Steroids are not the treatment of choice for atrophic vaginitis. They do not address the underlying cause, which is the lack of estrogen.</li><li>• Option A. Steroids:</li><li>• Option C. Antihistamines only: Antihistamines may provide temporary relief from itching but do not treat the underlying cause of atrophic vaginitis, which is estrogen deficiency.</li><li>• Option C. Antihistamines only:</li><li>• Option D. None of the above: This option is incorrect as topical estrogen is the recommended treatment for atrophic vaginitis.</li><li>• Option D. None of the above:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The treatment of choice for atrophic vaginitis, particularly in postmenopausal women, is the application of topical estrogen to provide symptomatic relief and address the underlying estrogen deficiency.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1469, Speroff’s Clinical Gynecology</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1469, Speroff’s Clinical Gynecology</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding the modified Duke's criteria: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Single positive blood culture for HACK group is a major criterion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Single positive blood culture for Coxiella Burnetti is a major criterion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complete dehiscence of prosthetic valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Documentation of four minor criterion allows a clinical diagnosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Single positive blood culture for Coxiella Burnetti is a major criterion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/modified-duke-criteria-for-the-diagnostic-workup-of-infective-endocarditis.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Single positive blood culture for Coxiella Burnetti is a major criterion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The detection of C. Burnetti in a single blood culture is a major criterion for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis due to the organism's strong association with this disease, despite being difficult to culture.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The commonest indication for liver transplantation in children is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alagille syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biliary atresia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caroli disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatocellular carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Biliary atresia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Biliary atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Biliary atresia is the most common indication for liver transplantation in children due to the progressive liver damage and cirrhosis caused by bile duct obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Boundaries of Calot triangle are formed by all except? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Common hepatic duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gall bladder", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gall bladder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-905.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Gall bladder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatocystic triangle and triangle of Calot - Hepatocystic triangle (blue): Upper boundary of hepatocystic triangle is the inferior border of liver. Lateral, the cystic duct and the neck of the gallbladder. Medial, the common hepatic duct.</li><li>➤ Hepatocystic triangle and triangle of Calot - Hepatocystic triangle (blue):</li><li>➤ Triangle of Calot (yellow): Upper boundary is the cystic artery. Lateral the cystic duct. Medial the common hepatic duct, CBD Common bile duct.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to IMNCI, a 6-month-old child is said to have pneumonia if the child has fast breathing with a respiratory rate more than: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "40", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "50", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 50", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-114952.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 50</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to IMNCI, a 6-month-old child is considered to have pneumonia if the respiratory rate is more than 50 breaths per minute.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve passes through the foramen marked in the image below? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lingual nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mandibular nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chorda tympani nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inferior alveolar nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Inferior alveolar nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-903.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-162344.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Inferior alveolar nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inferior alveolar nerve is another major branch of the mandibular nerve (V3) which provides sensory innervation to the lower teeth (mandibular teeth) and the surrounding gingiva. Before it enters the mandibular canal in the jaw, it gives off a branch called the mental nerve, which exits the jaw through the mental foramen to supply sensation to the lower lip and chin. The inferior alveolar nerve also carries motor fibers to the mylohyoid muscle and the anterior belly of the digastric muscle.</li><li>➤ Inferior alveolar nerve</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a contraindication for the induction of labor? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pelvic tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heart disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "History of lower transverse cesarean section in last two pregnancies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Heart disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Heart disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cardiovascular diseases are not a contraindication for vaginal delivery. In fact, NVD is preferred in heart disease patients. The second stage of labour is cut short with the use of instrumental vaginal delivery like forceps or ventouse assisted vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Cardiovascular diseases are not a contraindication for vaginal delivery. In fact, NVD is preferred in heart disease patients. The second stage of labour is cut short with the use of instrumental vaginal delivery like forceps or ventouse assisted vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pelvic tumor : Pelvic tumor if diagnosed may interfere with normal labor and needs to be evaluated before deciding the mode of delivery</li><li>• Option A. Pelvic tumor</li><li>• Option B. Herpes infection : Active herpes is an absolute contra-indication to a normal delivery due to the high viral shedding in the lesions and increased risk of neonatal herpes.</li><li>• Option B. Herpes infection</li><li>• Option D. History of lower transverse cesarean section in last two pregnancies : History of 2 or more previous cesareans is also a contra-indication to a vaginal delivery and hence induction is not done</li><li>• Option D. History of lower transverse cesarean section in last two pregnancies</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiovascular diseases are not a contraindication for vaginal delivery, and NVD is preferred in heart disease patients.</li><li>➤ Cardiovascular diseases are not a contraindication for vaginal delivery, and NVD is preferred in heart disease patients.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 332, Dc Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 332, Dc Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with methotrexate and low-dose corticosteroids for the past 4 months. However, the disease is still progressing. What would be your recommendation for the further management of this patient? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop oral methotrexate and start parenteral methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Add sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continue corticosteroids and methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start only anti-TNF alpha agents", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Add sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Add sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a patient with rheumatoid arthritis does not respond adequately to initial therapy with methotrexate and corticosteroids, the addition of other DMARDs such as sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine can be beneficial.</li><li>➤ Drugs:</li><li>➤ Drugs:</li><li>➤ Methotrexate: Start 10mg/week → max 25mg/week along with Folic acid twice/week Check ocular fundus before HCQ initiation Leflunomide, sulfasalazine other group of drugs. Sulfasalazine is safe in pregnancy !! Symptomatic relief with NSAID and short course corticosteroids.</li><li>➤ Methotrexate: Start 10mg/week → max 25mg/week along with Folic acid twice/week</li><li>➤ Methotrexate:</li><li>➤ Check ocular fundus before HCQ initiation</li><li>➤ Leflunomide, sulfasalazine other group of drugs.</li><li>➤ Sulfasalazine is safe in pregnancy !!</li><li>➤ Sulfasalazine is safe in pregnancy !!</li><li>➤ Symptomatic relief with NSAID and short course corticosteroids.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Rheumatoid arthritis/ Chap 358</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Preservative commonly used for soft tissue preservation for histopathological examination is: ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ethyl alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Formalin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Saturated salt solution", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal saline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Formalin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Formalin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Formalin is the preservative of choice for soft tissue preservation for histopathological examination due to its ability to maintain tissue morphology and cellular details.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition for which Dohlman’s procedure is used: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meckel's diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zenker's diverticulum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bochadlek hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Menetrier's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Zenker's diverticulum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Zenker's diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dohlman's procedure is specifically used to treat Zenker's diverticulum by endoscopic division of the cricopharyngeal muscle to relieve symptoms caused by the diverticulum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the maneuver depicted in the image given below? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epley's maneuver", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trotter's method", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "McGovern's technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Valsalva maneuver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trotter's method", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/2_JXWzgEm.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_221.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Trotter’s method</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trotter’s method is an effective first-line intervention for controlling epistaxis. It emphasizes maintaining an upright, forward-leaning posture to minimize blood swallowing and facilitate proper drainage, essential for patient comfort and safety during a nosebleed episode.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 183, 199</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 183, 199</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman presented with a lower abdominal mass and lower abdominal discomfort. On examination, the uterus appears uniformly enlarged and adnexa is free. MRI shows the presence of a myometrial cyst. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenomyosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leiomyoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometrial hyperplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adenomyosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-70.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adenomyosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Adenomyosis is the presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium. The uterus is generally uniformly enlarged up to 12-14 weeks size and can be tender on examination. Investigation of choice: Ultrasound On ultrasound, the following can be seen in adenomyosis:</li><li>• Adenomyosis is the presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium. The uterus is generally uniformly enlarged up to 12-14 weeks size and can be tender on examination.</li><li>• Investigation of choice: Ultrasound</li><li>• On ultrasound, the following can be seen in adenomyosis:</li><li>• Management of adenomyosis Medical management: For symptomatic relief Total Hysterectomy (Definitive treatment - Treatment of choice if family is complete)</li><li>• Management of adenomyosis Medical management: For symptomatic relief Total Hysterectomy (Definitive treatment - Treatment of choice if family is complete)</li><li>• Medical management: For symptomatic relief Total Hysterectomy (Definitive treatment - Treatment of choice if family is complete)</li><li>• Medical management: For symptomatic relief</li><li>• Total Hysterectomy (Definitive treatment - Treatment of choice if family is complete)</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• Option A. Endometriosis : This presents as 5Ds (Dysmenorrhoea, Dyspareunia, Dyschezia, Dysfertility and Dull-aching abdominal pain). Diagnostic modality of choice is laparoscopy. Myometrial cysts are not seen. Endometriotic (chocolate) cysts in the ovary may be seen.</li><li>• Option A. Endometriosis</li><li>• Option C. Leiomyoma : Fibroids or leiomyomas usually present with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea. If very large, they will present with abdominal mass and pelvic pressure. On ultrasound, depending on the location, well circumscribed rounded lesions are seen.</li><li>• Option C. Leiomyoma</li><li>• Option D. Endometrial hyperplasia : This will present as menorrhagia. On ultrasound the endometrium will be thickened.</li><li>• Option D. Endometrial hyperplasia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenomyosis is characterized by a uniformly enlarged uterus with myometrial cysts, diagnosed primarily via ultrasound.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 196, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 196, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are normal physiological changes in pregnancy except? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left axis deviation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mild ST changes in inferior leads", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atrial and ventricular premature contractions", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pansystolic murmur", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pansystolic murmur", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pansystolic murmur</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes in the cardiovascular system:</li><li>• Clinical Examination: Jugular venous distension and venous hum are commonly observed. Mammary soufflé: A continuous murmur can be heard at the 2nd to 4th intercostal spaces. Flow murmurs at the aortic or pulmonary areas. Increased and widely split S1 sound. S2 P component is increased, and S2 is split. The apex beat is shifted to the 4th intercostal space, 2.5 cm outside the mid-clavicular line. Electrocardiography: T wave inversion and bi-atrial enlargement. Various dysrhythmias, including atrial and ventricular premature contractions, are relatively frequent. Due to the diaphragm being elevated during advancing pregnancy, there is an average 15-degree left-axis deviation in the electrocardiogram (ECG), and mild ST changes may be seen in the inferior leads. Pregnancy does not alter voltage. Tricuspid regurgitation may be present. Increased left atrial end-diastolic dimension and left ventricular mass.</li><li>• Clinical Examination: Jugular venous distension and venous hum are commonly observed. Mammary soufflé: A continuous murmur can be heard at the 2nd to 4th intercostal spaces. Flow murmurs at the aortic or pulmonary areas. Increased and widely split S1 sound. S2 P component is increased, and S2 is split. The apex beat is shifted to the 4th intercostal space, 2.5 cm outside the mid-clavicular line.</li><li>• Clinical Examination:</li><li>• Jugular venous distension and venous hum are commonly observed. Mammary soufflé: A continuous murmur can be heard at the 2nd to 4th intercostal spaces. Flow murmurs at the aortic or pulmonary areas. Increased and widely split S1 sound. S2 P component is increased, and S2 is split. The apex beat is shifted to the 4th intercostal space, 2.5 cm outside the mid-clavicular line.</li><li>• Jugular venous distension and venous hum are commonly observed.</li><li>• Mammary soufflé: A continuous murmur can be heard at the 2nd to 4th intercostal spaces.</li><li>• Flow murmurs at the aortic or pulmonary areas.</li><li>• Increased and widely split S1 sound.</li><li>• S2 P component is increased, and S2 is split.</li><li>• The apex beat is shifted to the 4th intercostal space, 2.5 cm outside the mid-clavicular line.</li><li>• Electrocardiography: T wave inversion and bi-atrial enlargement. Various dysrhythmias, including atrial and ventricular premature contractions, are relatively frequent. Due to the diaphragm being elevated during advancing pregnancy, there is an average 15-degree left-axis deviation in the electrocardiogram (ECG), and mild ST changes may be seen in the inferior leads. Pregnancy does not alter voltage. Tricuspid regurgitation may be present. Increased left atrial end-diastolic dimension and left ventricular mass.</li><li>• Electrocardiography:</li><li>• T wave inversion and bi-atrial enlargement. Various dysrhythmias, including atrial and ventricular premature contractions, are relatively frequent. Due to the diaphragm being elevated during advancing pregnancy, there is an average 15-degree left-axis deviation in the electrocardiogram (ECG), and mild ST changes may be seen in the inferior leads. Pregnancy does not alter voltage. Tricuspid regurgitation may be present. Increased left atrial end-diastolic dimension and left ventricular mass.</li><li>• T wave inversion and bi-atrial enlargement.</li><li>• Various dysrhythmias, including atrial and ventricular premature contractions, are relatively frequent.</li><li>• Due to the diaphragm being elevated during advancing pregnancy, there is an average 15-degree left-axis deviation in the electrocardiogram (ECG), and mild ST changes may be seen in the inferior leads.</li><li>• Pregnancy does not alter voltage.</li><li>• Tricuspid regurgitation may be present.</li><li>• Increased left atrial end-diastolic dimension and left ventricular mass.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Left axis deviation: This is a normal change due to the diaphragm being elevated during pregnancy, causing an average 15-degree left-axis deviation in the ECG.</li><li>• Option A. Left axis deviation:</li><li>• Option B. Mild ST changes in inferior leads: These are normal and can be seen due to the changes in heart position and function during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. Mild ST changes in inferior leads:</li><li>• Option C. Atrial and ventricular premature contractions: These are relatively frequent and considered normal in pregnancy.</li><li>• Option C. Atrial and ventricular premature contractions:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diastolic and pansystolic murmurs in pregnancy are not normal and should be investigated further.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 178, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 178, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Testosterone production is mainly contributed by?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leydig cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sertoli cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seminiferous tubules", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epididymis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leydig cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Leydig cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Testosterone production is mainly contributed by Leydig cells.</li><li>• In puberty, the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis plays a major role in regulating testosterone levels and gonadal function. The hypothalamus secretes GnRH, which travels down the hypothalamohypophyseal portal system to the anterior pituitary, which secretes luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). LH and FSH are two gonadotropic hormones that travel through the blood and act on receptors in the gonads. LH, in particular, acts on the Leydig cells to increase testosterone production. Testosterone limits its own secretion via negative feedback.</li><li>• In puberty, the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis plays a major role in regulating testosterone levels and gonadal function.</li><li>• The hypothalamus secretes GnRH, which travels down the hypothalamohypophyseal portal system to the anterior pituitary, which secretes luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).</li><li>• LH and FSH are two gonadotropic hormones that travel through the blood and act on receptors in the gonads.</li><li>• LH, in particular, acts on the Leydig cells to increase testosterone production. Testosterone limits its own secretion via negative feedback.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sertoli cells : Incorrect as Sertoli cells are primarily involved in the nourishment and support of developing spermatozoa, not in the production of testosterone.</li><li>• Option B. Sertoli cells</li><li>• Option C. Seminiferous tubules : Incorrect because while these structures within the testes are involved in sperm production, the cells directly responsible for testosterone production are the Leydig cells, not the tubules themselves.</li><li>• Option C. Seminiferous tubules</li><li>• Option D. Epididymis : Incorrect as the epididymis is involved in the storage, maturation, and transport of sperm cells, not hormone production.</li><li>• Option D. Epididymis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Testosterone production is mainly contributed by Leydig cells in the testes, which are specifically stimulated by luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland. This hormonal production is crucial for male reproductive and general health.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The preferred test for evaluating the difference in means between two study groups, where one group functions as a control, is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chi-square test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Z test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unpaired t test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paired T test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Unpaired t test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-114953.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Unpaired t test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old boy experienced symptoms of a sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and a slight fever. Upon examination, the presented clinical image is visible. Which of the following sentences is false regarding the vaccine that could have prevented this condition? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It’s administered on the anterolateral aspect of thigh", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A prior adverse reaction with temperature above 37 degrees is a contraindication", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cellular pertussis component in the vaccine is not recommended after 7-years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The diphtheria toxoid dose in adults is much lesser than the pediatric dose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A prior adverse reaction with temperature above 37 degrees is a contraindication", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/category2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-114949.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A prior adverse reaction with temperature above 37 degrees is a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following neurons predominantly fire during forceful expiration?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dorsal group of neurons", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventral group of neurons", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumotaxic center", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemoreceptors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ventral group of neurons", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/678.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ventral group of neurons</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ventral Respiratory Group of neurons, particularly some subsets within this group, are actively involved in generating the neural signals required for forceful expiration, making them essential during increased respiratory demands such as during intense physical activity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of Oseltamivir and zanamivir? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DNA polymerase inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Protein synthesis inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nucleotide analogue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neuraminidase inhibition", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Neuraminidase inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Neuraminidase inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oseltamivir and zanamivir are neuraminidase inhibitors used to treat influenza. By inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme, these drugs prevent the release of new viral particles from infected cells, limiting the spread of the virus within the host.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following diseases is most commonly associated with Down's syndrome: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parkinson Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alzheimer's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Huntington's Disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alzheimer's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alzheimer’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conditions most commonly associated with Down's syndrome:</li><li>➤ Conditions most commonly associated with Down's syndrome:</li><li>➤ Congenital heart disease (in about 35% of cases) Gastrointestinal anomalies (in about 10%) Chronic serous otitis media (in &gt;50%) Hypothyroidism Alzheimer's disease (in the 30's and 40's) Epilepsy (in about 10%) Ocular disorders Reduced fertility Reduced life span (Often due to complications like infections)</li><li>➤ Congenital heart disease (in about 35% of cases)</li><li>➤ Congenital heart disease (in about 35% of cases)</li><li>➤ Gastrointestinal anomalies (in about 10%)</li><li>➤ Chronic serous otitis media (in &gt;50%)</li><li>➤ Chronic serous otitis media (in &gt;50%)</li><li>➤ Hypothyroidism</li><li>➤ Alzheimer's disease (in the 30's and 40's)</li><li>➤ Alzheimer's disease (in the 30's and 40's)</li><li>➤ Epilepsy (in about 10%)</li><li>➤ Ocular disorders</li><li>➤ Reduced fertility</li><li>➤ Reduced life span (Often due to complications like infections)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Area marked in the given image is supplied by dermatome number? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T9", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T10", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "T11", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. T10", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-906.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-104018.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-907.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. T10</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The dermatomal distribution of the abdominal region is as follows:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The first organ to undergo Rigor mortis amongst the following options is: ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eyelids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intestines", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myocardium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neck", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Myocardium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Myocardium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to Nysten's law, rigor mortis first affects the myocardium (heart muscle) among the listed options.</li><li>➤ Rigor mortis follows the “rule of 12”- 12 hrs. to set in, remains for 12 hrs., and passes off in 12 hrs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the lesion of vocal cord in the image given below: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reinke's edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malignancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tracheomalacia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laryngeal papilloma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Laryngeal papilloma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_224.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Laryngeal papilloma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laryngeal papilloma is a significant pediatric condition caused by HPV, manifesting as benign, wart-like growths within the larynx. While these tumors are prone to recurrence, they rarely undergo malignant transformation, making careful ongoing monitoring and management essential.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 345</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 345</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tests relies on the principle that prior knowledge of events or activities will influence a suspect's physiological responses? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Truth Serum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polygraph", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypnosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brain mapping", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Brain mapping", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Brain Mapping</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brain mapping detects recognition of familiar stimuli through brain wave responses, reflecting a suspect's prior knowledge of events or activities</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On performing a pulmonary function test, reduction in FEV1/FVC is characteristic of: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Restrictive disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obstructive disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal lung function", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interstitial lung disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Obstructive disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-094610.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Obstructive disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FEV1/FVC reduction implies obstruction. FEV1/FVC Increased or normal – Restrictive lung disease Decrease in Maximum Mid-expiratory flow (MMEF) i.e., FEV25%-75% - Small airway disease</li><li>➤ FEV1/FVC reduction implies obstruction.</li><li>➤ FEV1/FVC Increased or normal – Restrictive lung disease</li><li>➤ Restrictive lung disease</li><li>➤ Decrease in Maximum Mid-expiratory flow (MMEF) i.e., FEV25%-75% - Small airway disease</li><li>➤ Small airway disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which part of scaphoid is most susceptible to avascular necrosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Distal 1/3rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle 1/3rd", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proximal 1/3rd", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scaphoid tubercle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Proximal 1/3rd", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Proximal 1/3rd</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The proximal 1/3 rd portion of the scaphoid have less chances of fracture (20%) but have higher chances of AVN (40%).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The risk of genetic diseases in consanguineous marriage between first cousins is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1-2%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4-8%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "8-10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12-14%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4-8%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 4-8%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The risk of genetic diseases in consanguineous marriage between first cousins is estimated to be around 4-8%, which is higher than the general population risk of approximately 2-4%.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of knot seen in the image given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Double Half hitch knot", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Reef knot", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": " Surgeon's knot", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crossed half hitch knot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Reef knot", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/ns1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/whatsapp-image-2023-09-25-at-133600.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/ns2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-113838_ajmJaOO.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Reef knot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective: The reef knot has</li><li>➤ Two Throws in “Opposite Directions”</li><li>➤ Two Throws in “Opposite Directions”</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis of this patient from the ECG shown below? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal ECG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ventricular fibrillation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventricular tachycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Misplaced leads", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ventricular tachycardia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-130813.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ventricular tachycardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ventricular tachycardia is identified by regular, broad QRS complexes at a rapid rate, distinct from the irregular pattern of ventricular fibrillation and the organized, narrower complexes typically seen with supraventricular rhythms and correct lead placement. Identifying VT on an ECG is critical due to its potential severity and the need for prompt treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the stain used for identifying cryptococcus? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Giemsa stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ziehl-Nielsen stain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gram staining", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucicarmine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mucicarmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-165942.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mucicarmine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female presented with vaginal itching and green frothy genital discharge. Strawberry vagina is seen on examination. What will be the drug of choice? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral fluconazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metronidazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Metronidazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metronidazole is the treatment of choice for Trichomoniasis , which presents with vaginal itching, green frothy discharge , and a \" strawberry vagina\" on examination, distinguishing it from bacterial and fungal causes of vaginal symptoms that would require different treatments.</li><li>➤ Metronidazole</li><li>➤ treatment of choice</li><li>➤ Trichomoniasis</li><li>➤ green frothy discharge</li><li>➤ strawberry vagina\"</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Chapter 33, Page nos 33.35 and 33.36</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Id-7463 Unique Key-Q3304541</li><li>↳ Question Id-7463 Unique Key-Q3304541</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bindi Leukoderma is caused by which chemical? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "p-phenylenediamine (PPD)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Para Tertiary butylphenol (PTBP)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mono-benzyl ether of Hydroquinone (MBEH)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crocein Scarlet MOO and Solvent Yellow 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Para Tertiary butylphenol (PTBP)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1326.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-174900.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Para Tertiary butylphenol (PTBP)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Para Tertiary butylphenol (PTBP ), which is a chemical present in high concentrations in the glue of sticker bindis and is known to cause leukoderma through its melanocytotoxic properties.</li><li>➤ Para Tertiary butylphenol (PTBP</li><li>➤ glue of sticker bindis</li><li>➤ leukoderma</li><li>➤ melanocytotoxic properties.</li><li>➤ Common chemicals in Indian setup which can Cause chemical leukoderma are:</li><li>➤ Common chemicals in Indian setup which can Cause chemical leukoderma are:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 128 page no 128.74</li><li>↳ Online source: https://europepmc.org/article/pmc/2965911</li><li>↳ Online source:</li><li>↳ https://europepmc.org/article/pmc/2965911</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Level – Intermediate</li><li>↳ Question Id-7458 Unique Key-Q8927704</li><li>↳ Question Id-7458 Unique Key-Q8927704</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis seen in the image below? NEET PG 2019", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candidal paronychia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Candidal intertrigo", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetic foot ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Candidal intertrigo", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/439.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1330.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Candidal intertrigo</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Candidal intertrigo can be identified by the classic presentation of erythema, maceration , and possible white exudate in skin folds , such as the web spaces between fingers, distinguishing it from conditions that affect the nail folds, feet, or involve widespread skin desquamation.</li><li>➤ Candidal intertrigo</li><li>➤ erythema, maceration</li><li>➤ white exudate in skin folds</li><li>➤ web spaces</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference</li><li>↳ :</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition Chapter 32, Page nos 32.61-32.63</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false regarding MHC molecules? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MHC class II presents peptide antigen to CD4 T cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The action of MHC II occurs via endocytic pathway", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MHC Class II presents endogenous antigens", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "MHC II is present on antigen presenting cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MHC Class II presents endogenous antigens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-163634.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) MHC Class II presents endogenous antigens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identical twins have similarities in all of the following except: ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood group", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DNA fingerprinting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fingerprint pattern", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iris Color", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fingerprint pattern", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fingerprint pattern</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While identical twins share the same blood group, DNA fingerprinting, and iris color due to their identical genetic makeup, their fingerprint patterns are unique to each individual due to non-inheritable factors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is commonly associated with the condition shown below? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oil drop sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pterygium of nails", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pitting of nails", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leukonychia striata", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pitting of nails", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/441.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/442.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/441_UicBROI.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-193741.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/14/screenshot-2024-06-14-180439.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pitting of nails</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nail changes are common in alopecia areata , with nail pitting being the most frequent finding. Nail pitting appears as small depressions on the nail surface.</li><li>➤ Nail changes are common in alopecia areata , with nail pitting being the most frequent finding.</li><li>➤ Nail changes</li><li>➤ alopecia areata</li><li>➤ Nail pitting appears as small depressions on the nail surface.</li><li>➤ Nail pitting</li><li>➤ depressions</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 89 page no 89.28-33</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "IL-1 is activated by: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caspase - 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caspase - 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caspase - 9", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caspase – 8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Caspase - 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-125334.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Caspase – 1</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best level of prevention of breast cancer? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Specific protection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Early diagnosis and treatment", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disability limitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rehabilitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Early diagnosis and treatment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Early diagnosis and treatment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Early diagnosis and treatment (secondary prevention) are the most effective methods for preventing the progression of breast cancer, as they allow for early detection and intervention, significantly improving the chances of successful treatment and reducing mortality rates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is the most common site of a branchial cyst? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Junction of upper and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Junction of middle and lower third of the sternomastoid muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Middle of the sternomastoid muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Between the two heads of the sternomastoid muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Junction of upper and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Junction of upper and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The typical location for a branchial cyst is at the anterior border of the junction between the upper and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle. Branchial cysts are developmental anomalies that arise from the remnants of the second branchial cleft. They are lined by squamous epithelium and contain thick, cloudy fluid that often includes cholesterol crystals. This location is key for identifying and diagnosing branchial cysts.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Junction of middle and lower third of the sternomastoid muscle: This location is typically associated with the external opening of a branchial fistula, not a branchial cyst.</li><li>• Option B. Junction of middle and lower third of the sternomastoid muscle:</li><li>• Option C. Middle of the sternomastoid muscle: This is not the usual site for branchial cysts. Branchial cysts are more commonly found at the anterior border of the upper and middle third junction.</li><li>• Option C. Middle of the sternomastoid muscle:</li><li>• Option D. Between the two heads of the sternomastoid muscle: This area is not associated with the typical location of branchial cysts. The cysts are more commonly found anterior to the sternomastoid muscle.</li><li>• Option D. Between the two heads of the sternomastoid muscle:</li><li>• Additional Information on Branchial Cysts:</li><li>• Additional Information on Branchial Cysts:</li><li>• Origin : Congenital or acquired remnants of the second branchial cleft. Lining : Squamous epithelium. Contents : Thick, cloudy fluid with cholesterol crystals, sometimes clear fluid making the cyst soft and shiny. Branchial Fistula : The external opening of a branchial fistula is at the junction of the middle and lower third of the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid.</li><li>• Origin : Congenital or acquired remnants of the second branchial cleft.</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Lining : Squamous epithelium.</li><li>• Lining</li><li>• Contents : Thick, cloudy fluid with cholesterol crystals, sometimes clear fluid making the cyst soft and shiny.</li><li>• Contents</li><li>• Branchial Fistula : The external opening of a branchial fistula is at the junction of the middle and lower third of the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid.</li><li>• Branchial Fistula</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common site for a branchial cyst is at the anterior border of the junction between the upper and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dermatologist wants to prescribe acitretin to a patient with psoriasis. Which of the following statements is false regarding the drug? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contraindicated in persons with hyperlipidemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It can cause increased sensitivity to sunlight", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Female patients should avoid getting pregnant for 3 years after therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acitretin has a half-life of about 50 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Contraindicated in persons with hyperlipidemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Contraindicated in persons with hyperlipidemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acitretin is not contraindicated in persons with hyperlipidemia, although lipid levels should be monitored during therapy. The drug increases sensitivity to sunlight, requires women to avoid pregnancy for 3 years after therapy due to its teratogenicity, and has a long half-life of about 50 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following elicits maximum pain on injection? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propofol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiopentone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Propofol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Propofol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propofol is known to cause maximum pain on injection, often described as a severe burning sensation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A bus conductor presents with dilated, tortuous veins of 4 mm in the foot. What is the stage of clinical classification according to CEAP (Clinical-etiology-anatomy-pathophysiology for chronic venous disorders)? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C0", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "С1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "С2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "C3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. С2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-145700_GlYpeiU.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. C2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The CEAP classification system for chronic venous disorders categorizes the severity of venous disease based on clinical signs, etiology, anatomy, and pathophysiology. In this system, the \"C\" (Clinical) classification is particularly useful for describing the visible and palpable signs of venous disease.</li><li>• C0 : No visible or palpable signs of venous disease. C1 : Telangiectasias or reticular veins. C2 : Varicose veins. This stage is characterized by dilated, tortuous veins that are generally more than 3 mm in diameter, such as the 4 mm veins described in the patient's case. C3 : Edema related to venous disease.</li><li>• C0 : No visible or palpable signs of venous disease.</li><li>• C0</li><li>• C1 : Telangiectasias or reticular veins.</li><li>• C1</li><li>• C2 : Varicose veins. This stage is characterized by dilated, tortuous veins that are generally more than 3 mm in diameter, such as the 4 mm veins described in the patient's case.</li><li>• C2</li><li>• C3 : Edema related to venous disease.</li><li>• C3</li><li>• Given the description of dilated, tortuous veins of 4 mm, the patient's condition corresponds to C2 in the CEAP classification, indicating the presence of varicose veins.</li><li>• C2</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. C0: C0 indicates no visible or palpable signs of venous disease, which does not apply to this patient who has visible varicose veins.</li><li>• Option A. C0:</li><li>• Option B. C1: C1 indicates the presence of telangiectasias or reticular veins, which are smaller than 3 mm in diameter. This stage does not describe the 4 mm varicose veins observed in this patient.</li><li>• Option B. C1:</li><li>• Option D. C3: C3 is used to classify edema related to chronic venous disorders. This does not match the presentation of dilated, tortuous veins without mentioned edema.</li><li>• Option D. C3:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of dilated, tortuous veins larger than 3 mm, such as the 4 mm veins observed in the patient's foot, corresponds to stage C2 in the CEAP classification system for chronic venous disorders, indicating varicose veins.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is shown in the given image? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Sebaceous cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": " Meningioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": " Post auricular fistula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sebaceous cyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture20.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sebaceous cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sebaceous cysts are common benign lumps that form under the skin due to blockade of sebaceous glands, causing a buildup of oil and skin cells.</li><li>➤ Sebaceous cysts are common benign lumps that form under the skin due to blockade of sebaceous glands, causing a buildup of oil and skin cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following decreases in pregnancy? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vital capacity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Functional residual capacity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inspiratory capacity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Functional residual capacity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-71.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Functional residual capacity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration. During pregnancy, the diaphragm is elevated due to the enlarging uterus, leading to a decrease in FRC by approximately 22%. This is primarily due to reductions in expiratory reserve volume and residual volume.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Respiratory rate : The respiratory rate typically remains unchanged during pregnancy, staying at about 14-16 breaths per minute.</li><li>• Option A. Respiratory rate</li><li>• Option B. Vital capacity : Vital capacity, which is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume, remains unchanged during pregnancy.</li><li>• Option B. Vital capacity</li><li>• Option D. Inspiratory capacity : Inspiratory capacity increases during pregnancy by about 10%. This increase is due to the higher tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume.</li><li>• Option D. Inspiratory capacity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Functional residual capacity decreases during pregnancy due to the elevation of the diaphragm caused by the enlarging uterus.</li><li>➤ Functional residual capacity decreases in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Functional residual capacity decreases in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 189, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 189, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vaccine among the options is not recommended for use during pregnancy? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Varicella", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Varicella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-125429.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Varicella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vaccine that requires strain change due to evolving organism is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Influenza", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polio", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Typhoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Influenza", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Influenza</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The influenza vaccine must be updated regularly to match the antigenically evolving influenza virus strains, primarily due to antigenic drift (gradual) and shift (drastic). This adaptation is essential to enhance vaccine effectiveness and control the spread of flu each season, highlighting the dynamic challenge of influenza virus surveillance and vaccine formulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following IV anaesthetic causes least myocardial depression and maximum hemodynamic stability? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propofol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiopentone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Etomidate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Etomidate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propofol and Thiopentone are known to cause myocardial depression, Etomidate is recognized for its minimal cardiovascular depression, and Ketamine typically stimulates the cardiovascular system, but with certain exceptions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the false statement about the bundle of Kent? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is faster than AV nodal pathway", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is slower than AV nodal pathway", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leads to short PR interval", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leads to prolonged QRS duration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is slower than AV nodal pathway", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. It is slower than AV nodal pathway</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bundle of Kent is an accessory pathway connecting atrium and ventricle with conduction through Na+ channels leading to bypass of physiological AV conduction.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cardiology/WPW</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which cardiac chamber enlargement is seen in the case of mitral stenosis on chest X-ray initially? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left atrium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right atrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left ventricle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right ventricle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Left atrium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Left atrium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitral stenosis primarily leads to enlargement of the left atrium as the initial response to increased pressure upstream of the stenotic mitral valve. Recognition of this early sign on a chest X-ray can be crucial for diagnosing and managing mitral stenosis effectively.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cardiology/VHD</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct storage period when phosphate added to acid citrate dextrose (ACD) and when phosphate and adenine together added to ACD: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "35 days and 42 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "21 days and 35 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "28 days and 45 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "35 days and 28 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 21 days and 35 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 21 days and 35 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The storage period when adding phosphate alone to ACD would be 21 days and when adding adenine and phosphate together would be 35 days.</li><li>• ACD was developed into CPD (citrate-phosphate-dextrose) version with phosphate added intended to reduce phosphate leakage from red blood cells. It does not improve shelf life appreciably, but patient recovery is improved.</li><li>• CPD with adenine (CPDA-1), which boosted RBC survival by improving ATP synthesis of RBCs to five weeks when combined with plastic bags.</li><li>• CPD, in combination with adenine-mannitol additives such as SAGM, is the current blood bank preservative as of 2012.</li><li>• RBC hemolysis, thus increasing the storage period to 42 days.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phosphate alone added to ACD allows for a blood storage period of 21 days, while the addition of both phosphate and adenine (as in CPDA-1) extends the storage period to 35 days, reflecting improvements in RBC viability through enhanced ATP synthesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male patient is referred to a neurologist with complaints of facial flushing and sweating while eating or even just thinking about food. The patient reports that this has been happening for several months and is becoming increasingly bothersome. Upon further questioning, the patient also reports a history of parotid gland surgery for a benign tumor several years ago. Which nerve is involved in Frey's syndrome? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facial Nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oculomotor nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Auriculotemporal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Auriculotemporal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Frey's syndrome is a rare condition that occurs as a complication of parotid gland surgery or other trauma to the area. It is characterized by facial flushing and sweating in the region of the face associated with the parotid gland, particularly when eating or thinking about food. The underlying cause of Frey's syndrome is damage to the auriculotemporal nerve (a branch of the mandibular nerve, V3). This damage results in abnormal nerve regeneration and cross-connection between the parasympathetic fibers that stimulate salivation and the sympathetic fibers that control sweating.</li><li>• Mechanism : The auriculotemporal nerve contains both sensory fibers and parasympathetic secretomotor fibers that supply the parotid gland. Following injury or surgery, these fibers can aberrantly regenerate, causing parasympathetic fibers to innervate sweat glands of the overlying skin, leading to sweating and flushing upon salivation.</li><li>• Mechanism : The auriculotemporal nerve contains both sensory fibers and parasympathetic secretomotor fibers that supply the parotid gland. Following injury or surgery, these fibers can aberrantly regenerate, causing parasympathetic fibers to innervate sweat glands of the overlying skin, leading to sweating and flushing upon salivation.</li><li>• Mechanism</li><li>• Treatment Options :</li><li>• Treatment Options</li><li>• Topical Antiperspirants : These can help reduce sweating by blocking sweat glands. Oral Medications : Medications that reduce sweating may be prescribed. Botulinum Toxin Injections : These injections can block the action of sweat glands, providing relief from symptoms.</li><li>• Topical Antiperspirants : These can help reduce sweating by blocking sweat glands.</li><li>• Topical Antiperspirants</li><li>• Oral Medications : Medications that reduce sweating may be prescribed.</li><li>• Oral Medications</li><li>• Botulinum Toxin Injections : These injections can block the action of sweat glands, providing relief from symptoms.</li><li>• Botulinum Toxin Injections</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Facial Nerve: The facial nerve controls facial expressions and can be injured during parotid surgery, leading to facial palsy. However, it is not involved in Frey's syndrome.</li><li>• Option A. Facial Nerve:</li><li>• Option B. Oculomotor nerve: The oculomotor nerve controls eye movements and pupil constriction and is not involved in the innervation of the parotid gland or the region affected in Frey's syndrome.</li><li>• Option B. Oculomotor nerve:</li><li>• Option D. Glossopharyngeal nerve: The glossopharyngeal nerve is involved in taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue and parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland. However, it is not directly involved in the facial flushing and sweating characteristic of Frey's syndrome.</li><li>• Option D. Glossopharyngeal nerve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Frey's syndrome is caused by damage to the auriculotemporal nerve, leading to abnormal sweating and flushing of the face associated with eating or thinking about food. This condition is a common complication of parotid gland surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Premature ejaculation is a disorder of which phase of the normal sexual cycle? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Desire", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arousal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orgasm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Orgasm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Orgasm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Premature ejaculation is a disorder of the orgasm phase of the sexual response cycle. It is characterized by a pattern of persistent or recurrent ejaculation with minimal sexual stimulation before or immediately after the vaginal penetration.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 579.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 88-year-old male presented to the emergency department with the sudden onset of severe epigastric pain. On physical examination, she had a temperature of 101.44° F, a pulse of 115 bpm and a blood pressure of 125/72 mm of Hg. Abdomen was tender &amp; rigid. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumoperitoneum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subdiaphragmatic abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pneumoperitoneum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_ZWtOZ1d.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pneumoperitoneum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presence of free gas under the right diaphragm in the X-ray. This is suggestive of pneumoperitoneum.</li><li>• free gas under the right diaphragm</li><li>• C/F: Acute abdominal pain, rigidity, tenderness, guarding. Most sensitive X-ray: CXR-PA erect. Most sensitive Ix: CECT with oral contrast. Next step: Resuscitation with IV fluids, Exploratory laparotomy.</li><li>• C/F: Acute abdominal pain, rigidity, tenderness, guarding.</li><li>• C/F:</li><li>• Most sensitive X-ray: CXR-PA erect.</li><li>• Most sensitive X-ray:</li><li>• Most sensitive Ix: CECT with oral contrast.</li><li>• Most sensitive Ix:</li><li>• Next step: Resuscitation with IV fluids, Exploratory laparotomy.</li><li>• Next step:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pneumothorax: Involves air in the pleural space, not under the diaphragm. The clinical presentation and X-ray findings do not support this diagnosis.</li><li>• Option A. Pneumothorax:</li><li>• Option C. Subdiaphragmatic abscess: Typically presents with localized pain and fever, but X-ray findings would be more consistent with an abscess formation rather than free air.</li><li>• Option C. Subdiaphragmatic abscess:</li><li>• Option D. Intestinal obstruction: While it might present with abdominal pain and distension, free air under the diaphragm is not a characteristic finding unless there is a concurrent bowel perforation.</li><li>• Option D. Intestinal obstruction:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumoperitoneum is a critical finding indicating a potential perforation of the gastrointestinal tract, requiring immediate assessment and surgical intervention. This diagnosis is supported by the presence of free air under the diaphragm seen on the X-ray.</li><li>➤ Pneumoperitoneum is a critical finding indicating a potential perforation of the gastrointestinal tract, requiring immediate assessment and surgical intervention. This diagnosis is supported by the presence of free air under the diaphragm seen on the X-ray.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "NADPH is used in? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fatty acid synthesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ketone synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gluconeogenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glycolysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fatty acid synthesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fatty acid synthesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NADPH generating reactions</li><li>➤ generating reactions</li><li>➤ Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase in the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway (Glucose-6-phosphate → 6-phospho-glucono lactone) 6-phospho gluconate dehydrogenase in the shunt pathway (6-phospho gluconate → 3-keto-6-phospho gluconate) Cytoplasmic isocitrate dehydrogenase Malic enzyme (malate to pyruvate).</li><li>➤ Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase in the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway (Glucose-6-phosphate → 6-phospho-glucono lactone)</li><li>➤ Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ 6-phospho gluconate dehydrogenase in the shunt pathway (6-phospho gluconate → 3-keto-6-phospho gluconate)</li><li>➤ 6-phospho gluconate dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ Cytoplasmic isocitrate dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ Cytoplasmic isocitrate dehydrogenase</li><li>➤ Malic enzyme (malate to pyruvate).</li><li>➤ Malic enzyme</li><li>➤ NADPH utilizing reactions</li><li>➤ utilizing reactions</li><li>➤ Ketoacyl-ACP dehydrogenase (Beta-ketoacyl-ACP → beta hydroxy acyl ACP) (De novo synthesis of fatty acid - Step 4) Alpha, beta unsaturated acyl ACP → Acyl ACP ( De novo synthesis of fatty acid - Step 6) HMG CoA reductase (HMG CoA → mevalonate (Cholesterol synthesis) Met-hemoglobin → Hemoglobin Folate reductase (Folate → dihydrofolate → tetrahydrofolate) Phenyl alanine hydroxylase (Phenylalanine → tyrosine)</li><li>➤ Ketoacyl-ACP dehydrogenase (Beta-ketoacyl-ACP → beta hydroxy acyl ACP) (De novo synthesis of fatty acid - Step 4)</li><li>➤ Alpha, beta unsaturated acyl ACP → Acyl ACP ( De novo synthesis of fatty acid - Step 6)</li><li>➤ De novo synthesis of fatty acid</li><li>➤ HMG CoA reductase (HMG CoA → mevalonate (Cholesterol synthesis)</li><li>➤ HMG CoA reductase</li><li>➤ Met-hemoglobin → Hemoglobin</li><li>➤ Folate reductase (Folate → dihydrofolate → tetrahydrofolate)</li><li>➤ Folate reductase</li><li>➤ Phenyl alanine hydroxylase (Phenylalanine → tyrosine)</li><li>➤ Phenyl alanine hydroxylase</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 47-year-old female patient with a long-standing history of rheumatic heart disease was admitted to hospital due to severe breathlessness. She died on the 3rd day following admission. The mitral valve shows the following findings on autopsy. What is the cause of these findings? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rupture of valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcification and fibrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertrophy of ventricular wall", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertrophy of the atrial wall", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calcification and fibrosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/23_Cp4ea3a.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Calcification and Fibrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with a history of rheumatic heart disease, the mitral valve often undergoes significant morphological changes due to fibrosis and calcification, leading to stenosis with a characteristic \"fish mouth\" appearance. Understanding these changes is crucial for diagnosing and managing the progression of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following options describes the chest X-ray image? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Egg on side appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coeur en sabot", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scimitar sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Snowman sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coeur en sabot", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture18.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/untitled-451.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coeur en sabot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Coeur en sabot\" or boot-shaped heart on a chest X-ray is characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), which results from right ventricular hypertrophy, leading to the distinctive cardiac silhouette.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following statements is true about keratosis obturans? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Failure of migration of desquamated epithelium along posterior metal wall", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Widening of meatus and facial nerve palsy might be seen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Associated bronchiectasis and sinusitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_220.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Keratosis obturans is characterized by the accumulation of epithelial cells in the ear canal, leading to potential structural damage and associated symptoms. Its management requires careful removal of the buildup and monitoring for complications such as facial nerve palsy. Awareness of its association with bronchiectasis and sinusitis is crucial for comprehensive patient care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "ADH acts through which aquaporin channel?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ADH specifically regulates the body's water balance by acting through aquaporin-2 channels in the kidney's collecting ducts, facilitating the reabsorption of water back into the bloodstream and thus concentrating the urine. This mechanism is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and electrolyte balance in the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency, which of the following is increased following a fatty meal? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chylomicron", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "LDL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HDL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Apo A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chylomicron", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chylomicron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Frederickson’s classification of hyperlipoproteinemia</li><li>➤ Frederickson’s classification of hyperlipoproteinemia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve, after injury results in foot drop? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Common peroneal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tibial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sciatic nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Common peroneal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-171033.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-121829.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-924.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Common peroneal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the incorrect statement regarding rectal carcinoma? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hartmann's operation is done in elderly debilitated patients", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma is a rare variant of rectal carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Early morning spurious diarrhea and tenesmus can occur", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Growth confined to the rectal mucosa is stage A of modified Duke's staging", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adenocarcinoma is a rare variant of rectal carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Adenocarcinoma is a rare variant of rectal carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Adenocarcinoma is the most common variant of rectal carcinoma, accounting for over 95% of cases. This type of cancer originates from the glandular cells lining the rectum. Therefore, stating that adenocarcinoma is a rare variant is incorrect.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hartmann's operation is done in elderly debilitated patients: This statement is true. Hartmann's operation is a surgical procedure often performed in elderly or debilitated patients with rectal carcinoma. The operation involves resection of the diseased segment of the colon, closure of the remaining rectal stump (forming a \"Hartmann's pouch\"), and creation of an end colostomy with the proximal colon. It is a suitable option for patients who may not tolerate a more extensive surgical procedure.</li><li>• Option A. Hartmann's operation is done in elderly debilitated patients:</li><li>• Option C. Early morning spurious diarrhea and tenesmus can occur: This statement is true. Patients with rectal carcinoma commonly experience symptoms such as diarrhea and tenesmus (a sensation of incomplete evacuation after bowel movements). These symptoms can occur at any time of the day, including early morning, due to the irritation and obstruction caused by the tumor.</li><li>• Option C. Early morning spurious diarrhea and tenesmus can occur:</li><li>• Option D. Growth confined to the rectal mucosa is stage A of modified Duke's staging: This statement is true. According to the modified Duke's staging system for colorectal cancer, stage A refers to cancer that is confined to the mucosa of the rectum. This early stage indicates that the tumor has not yet penetrated deeper layers or spread beyond the rectum.</li><li>• Option D. Growth confined to the rectal mucosa is stage A of modified Duke's staging:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of rectal carcinoma, accounting for over 95% of cases, making it incorrect to describe it as a rare variant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cardiac oedema and neuropathy are seen in which of the following vitamin deficiencies? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biotin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thiamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thiamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency is characterized by cardiac edema and neuropathy, manifesting as wet beriberi (cardiovascular symptoms) and dry beriberi (neurological symptoms).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which Section of the IPC deals with the punishment of perjury? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "191", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "192", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "193", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "197", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 193", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 193</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IPC related to false evidence:</li><li>➤ IPC related to false evidence:</li><li>➤ 191 IPC: Definition of Perjury (false evidence): Giving false evidence under oath</li><li>➤ 191 IPC:</li><li>➤ 193 IPC: Punishment for Perjury (false evidence): up to 7 years</li><li>➤ 193 IPC:</li><li>➤ 197 IPC: Issuing false certificates- same punishment as that of false evidence (upto 7 years)</li><li>➤ 197 IPC:</li><li>➤ 201 IPC: Causing disappearance of evidence of offence or giving false information to screen offender: Upto 07 years. (BNS 238)</li><li>➤ 201 IPC:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cowdry Type A inclusions are seen in? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes simplex", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenovirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Herpes simplex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-163153.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Herpes simplex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inclusion bodies produced in viral infection:</li><li>➤ Inclusion bodies produced in viral infection:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "1st pharyngeal arch gives rise to all except:(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial pterygoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levator veli palatini", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral pterygoids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tensor veli palatini", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Levator veli palatini", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-110824.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Levator veli palatini</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cilastatin is administered to prolong the action of which of the following drugs? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meropenem", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Imipenem", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cefazolin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Piperacillin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Imipenem", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Imipenem</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cilastatin is specifically administered with imipenem to inhibit renal dehydropeptidase I, preventing the breakdown of imipenem and thereby prolonging its action in the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female developed pruritic papules with excoriated plaques in the interdigital web spaces. Later the lesion spread to the groin and under-surface of the breasts. The lady gives a history of intense pruritus which is more severe at night. Given below is the organism responsible for this condition. Identify the wrong statement about the same? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Life history has 4 stages", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Larvae have 3 pairs of legs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The entire life cycle takes about 15 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Male parasite burrows into the epidermis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Male parasite burrows into the epidermis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_FRISI12.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Male parasite burrows into the epidermis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The female Sarcoptes scabiei mite is responsible for burrowing into the skin and laying eggs, which leads to the intense itching and characteristic rash seen in scabies. Recognizing the specific behavior of the female mite in the transmission and lifecycle of scabies is crucial for effective diagnosis and management of the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the test of significance conducted for two or more proportions? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chi-square test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Student's test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Z test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chi-square test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-114954.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chi-square test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A first year surgery resident, on rotation at a hospital, is tasked with inserting an intercostal drainage tube in a 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who was admitted with a severe exacerbation of their symptoms. The surgery resident has previously performed the procedure under supervision, but this is their first time doing it on their own. Which of the following steps is incorrect? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Identified 5th intercostal space anterior to mid axillary line to place the tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inserted tube along the lower border of upper rib", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Directed tube posteriorly to prevent injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incised and digitally explored", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inserted tube along the lower border of upper rib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Inserted tube along the lower border of upper rib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An intercostal drainage (ICD) tube should be inserted along the upper border of the lower rib, not the lower border of the upper rib. This is to prevent damage to the neurovascular bundle, which runs along the lower border of each rib (comprising the intercostal vein, artery, and nerve). Inserting the tube along the lower border of the upper rib increases the risk of injuring these critical structures.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Identified 5th intercostal space anterior to mid axillary line to place the tube: The 5th intercostal space anterior to the mid-axillary line is a commonly selected site for the insertion of an ICD. This location is within the \"triangle of safety,\" which is bounded by the lateral border of the pectoralis major anteriorly, the latissimus dorsi posteriorly, and the horizontal level of the nipple below. This area minimizes the risk of injuring important structures, including the long thoracic nerve and vessels.</li><li>• Option A. Identified 5th intercostal space anterior to mid axillary line to place the tube:</li><li>• Option C. Directed tube posteriorly to prevent injury: Directing the tube posteriorly initially helps ensure that it enters the pleural space without injuring the lung. Once inside the pleural cavity, the direction of the tube may be adjusted based on the specific indication for the ICD, such as draining an effusion versus a pneumothorax.</li><li>• Option C. Directed tube posteriorly to prevent injury:</li><li>• Option D. Incised and digitally explored: After making a skin incision, blunt dissection and digital exploration are performed to ensure that there are no obstructions or adhesions and to create a safe pathway for the tube. Digital exploration helps confirm that the tube enters the pleural space properly and safely.</li><li>• Option D. Incised and digitally explored:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When inserting an intercostal drainage tube, it is crucial to place the tube along the upper border of the lower rib to avoid damaging the neurovascular bundle that runs along the lower border of the upper rib.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During disaster management, triage is conducted to ensure proper treatment of casualties. What are the accurate aspects of the triage process carried out at the site of the disaster? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First come first treated basis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green labels are for those who need to be transported on priority", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moribund patients receive the lowest priority", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Most commonly used system is three color code system", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Moribund patients receive the lowest priority", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-125428.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Moribund patients receive the lowest priority</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In disaster triage, moribund patients receive the lowest priority, allowing medical resources to be focused on patients with a higher chance of survival.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to myogenic hypothesis of renal autoregulation, the afferent arterioles contract in response to stretch-induced by? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NO", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Noradrenaline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Opening of calcium channels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenosine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Opening of calcium channels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901240.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Opening of calcium channels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Renal autoregulation is important to maintain the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Blood flow to kidneys remains normal even when the mean arterial blood pressure varies widely between 60 mm Hg and 180 mm Hg. This helps to maintain normal GFR.</li><li>• Two mechanisms are involved in renal autoregulation:</li><li>• Two mechanisms are involved in renal autoregulation:</li><li>• Myogenic response Tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF)</li><li>• Myogenic response</li><li>• Tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF)</li><li>• (TGF)</li><li>• 1. MYOGENIC RESPONSE</li><li>• 1. MYOGENIC RESPONSE</li><li>• Whenever, the blood flow to kidneys increases, → stretches the elastic wall of the afferent arteriole → Stretching of the vessel wall increases the flow of calcium ions from extracellular fluid into the cells → The influx of calcium ions leads to the contraction of smooth muscles in afferent arteriole, which causes constriction of afferent arteriole → So, the blood flow is decreased.</li><li>• →</li><li>• →</li><li>• →</li><li>• →</li><li>• 2. TGF</li><li>• 2. TGF</li><li>• The macula densa, a plaque of specialized tubular epithelial cells located in the distal tubule, monitors the NaCl concentration of the tubular fluid and sends an as of yet unidentified signal to control glomerular hemodynamics. In this mechanism, called tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF), an increase in NaCl concentration at the macula densa constricts the glomerular afferent arteriole and thus decreases the single-nephron GFR. Along with the myogenic response, TGF significantly contributes to renal autoregulation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. NO : Incorrect, as nitric oxide generally causes vasodilation, not the contraction associated with the myogenic response.</li><li>• Option A. NO</li><li>• Option B. Noradrenaline : Incorrect, although noradrenaline can affect blood vessel tone, it is not directly involved in the myogenic response mechanism of renal autoregulation.</li><li>• Option B. Noradrenaline</li><li>• Option D. Adenosine : Incorrect, adenosine is more involved in tubuloglomerular feedback rather than the myogenic mechanism.</li><li>• Option D. Adenosine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In renal autoregulation, the myogenic hypothesis states that the afferent arterioles contract in response to increased blood pressure, which stretches the arteriole walls. This contraction is mediated by the opening of calcium channels, leading to an influx of calcium ions and subsequent constriction of the arteriole, thereby helping to stabilize GFR across varying blood pressures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 11-year-old boy was brought to the pediatric OPD with multiple abscesses over his face, chest, and back. The child has a history of recurrent respiratory infections. On examination, he has atopic excoriating skin and multiple cold abscesses on his back. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyper IgM syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyper IgE syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carcinoid syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyper IgE syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hyper IgE syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyper IgE syndrome should be considered in patients presenting with a combination of high IgE levels, recurrent skin and respiratory infections, and dermatologic issues such as eczema. Managing this condition often involves addressing the skin care comprehensively and preventing infections through vigilant monitoring and appropriate use of antibiotics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is brought to the hospital, with complaints of seizures and the MRI image of the brain is given below. The disease is most probably caused by? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cysticercosis cellulose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "T. saginata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cysticerocosis bovis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T. asiatica", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cysticercosis cellulose", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_zXsT3jl.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cysticercosis cellulose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neurocysticercosis is identified with imaging studies, particularly in patients presenting with new-onset seizures and specific MRI findings of cystic lesions with scolex, is critical for timely diagnosis and appropriate management, including antiparasitic and supportive therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a slowly progressive swelling that has been noticeable for the past 18 months. The swelling exhibits variable consistency, with some areas feeling hard and others feeling soft, image of patient is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jaw Tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": " Pleomorphic adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": " Sebaceous cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pleomorphic adenoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/06/ns3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/histopathology_of_pleomorphic_adenoma.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pleomorphic adenoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The case scenario and image showing a swelling lifting the ear lobe are suggestive of a pleomorphic adenoma. Pleomorphic adenomas are the most common benign tumors of the salivary glands, with the parotid gland being the most frequent site. These tumors are encapsulated and exhibit a mixed cellular composition, leading to a variable consistency, which is reflected in their name \"pleomorphic.\" Clinically, they present as painless, slow-growing masses. The characteristic lift of the earlobe due to the swelling is a classic sign of a parotid gland tumor. Untreated pleomorphic adenomas may undergo malignant transformation, hence surgical excision is typically recommended.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Jaw Tumor: Jaw tumors, particularly those of the mandible or maxilla, are often bony growths or related to the teeth (odontogenic tumors). While they can cause facial asymmetry, they are usually centered around the bones and are not typically located in the parotid gland region. These tumors tend to be hard and lack the variable consistency described in the clinical presentation.</li><li>• Option A. Jaw Tumor:</li><li>• Option B. Dermoid cyst: Dermoid cysts are benign cystic tumors containing skin appendages (such as hair follicles), and sometimes hair, teeth, or sebum. They are typically congenital and found on the face, neck, or ovary. While they can appear on the face or neck, the described clinical presentation is less suggestive of a dermoid cyst compared to a pleomorphic adenoma. Dermoid cysts often show indentation due to putty material.</li><li>• Option B. Dermoid cyst:</li><li>• Option D. Sebaceous cyst: Also known as an epidermal cyst, a sebaceous cyst is a benign growth arising from blocked sebaceous glands, often containing a thick, cheese-like material. Sebaceous cysts can appear almost anywhere on the body where sebaceous glands are found, including the face, and often show a black punctum. However, the described clinical presentation and duration better match a pleomorphic adenoma.</li><li>• Option D. Sebaceous cyst:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign tumor of the salivary glands, typically presenting as a painless, slow-growing mass with variable consistency and often lifting the earlobe due to its location in the parotid gland.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient comes with complaints of progressive weakness as the day progresses. He is found to have antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Which is the most common ocular finding in this disease? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diplopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lagophthalmos", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exophthalmos", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ptosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ptosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-120.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Ptosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid) is the most common ocular finding in Myasthenia Gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Common precursor amino acid for urea, creatine and nitric oxide is? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arginine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspartate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alanine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arginine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/7_mksGNvP.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arginine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ornithine and citrulline are derivatives of arginine, and are essential for urea synthesis. Creatine is synthesized from 3 amino acids : glycine, arginine and methionine (GAME) Arginine is the precursor of nitric oxide which is an important signal molecule in the body.</li><li>➤ Ornithine and citrulline are derivatives of arginine, and are essential for urea synthesis.</li><li>➤ Creatine is synthesized from 3 amino acids : glycine, arginine and methionine (GAME)</li><li>➤ : glycine, arginine and methionine</li><li>➤ (GAME)</li><li>➤ Arginine is the precursor of nitric oxide which is an important signal molecule in the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the chromosome number of a partial hydatidiform mole? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "46 XX", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "45 XY", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "69 XY", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "69 XXY", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 69 XXY", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 69 XXY</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Partial hydatidiform moles are triploid, typically having a chromosome number of 69, which can be 69XXX or 69XXY.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 616, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 616, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis in the following radiograph?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spondylolisthesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spondylolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Discitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Spondylolisthesis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/11/22.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Spondylolisthesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spondylolisthesis is diagnosed radiographically by observing the forward slippage of one vertebral body over the one below it. It is crucial for appropriate management, which might range from conservative treatments such as physical therapy to surgical interventions in more severe or symptomatic cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the best treatment for idiopathic thrombocytic purpura? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV immunoglobulins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Splenectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blood transfusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Splenectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Splenectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Splenectomy is often considered the best treatment option for chronic or refractory idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, particularly when other treatments such as steroids and IV immunoglobulins fail to maintain a safe platelet count or cause side effects that are difficult to manage.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: ASH 2021 summary</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What will be the level of the anti-Mullerian hormone in low ovarian reserve? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt;1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&gt;7", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. <1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) &lt;1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) is a glycoprotein produced by the granulosa cells of small pre-antral follicles. It serves as a marker for ovarian reserve, reflecting the remaining egg supply in the ovaries.</li><li>• AMH in Low Ovarian Reserve: In cases of low ovarian reserve, the AMH level will be less than 1 ng/mL. This indicates a diminished number of remaining follicles and a reduced capacity for fertility. AMH in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS): Women with PCOS typically have increased levels of AMH due to the presence of a higher number of small antral follicles.</li><li>• AMH in Low Ovarian Reserve: In cases of low ovarian reserve, the AMH level will be less than 1 ng/mL. This indicates a diminished number of remaining follicles and a reduced capacity for fertility.</li><li>• AMH in Low Ovarian Reserve:</li><li>• AMH in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS): Women with PCOS typically have increased levels of AMH due to the presence of a higher number of small antral follicles.</li><li>• AMH in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS):</li><li>• Tests for Ovarian Reserve</li><li>• Tests for Ovarian Reserve</li><li>• Biochemical Tests: FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone): Levels measured on Day 2 or 3 of the menstrual cycle are increased in poor ovarian reserve. Estradiol: Day 2 levels are increased in poor ovarian reserve. Inhibin B: Levels are reduced in poor ovarian reserve. AMH: Levels are reduced in poor ovarian reserve. Ultrasound: Antral Follicle Count (AFC): Done on day 2 or 3 of the cycle. The total number of visible follicles are counted. An AFC greater than 10 is considered normal. Clomiphene Citrate Challenge Test: This test evaluates ovarian reserve by measuring FSH levels before and after administration of clomiphene citrate.</li><li>• Biochemical Tests: FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone): Levels measured on Day 2 or 3 of the menstrual cycle are increased in poor ovarian reserve. Estradiol: Day 2 levels are increased in poor ovarian reserve. Inhibin B: Levels are reduced in poor ovarian reserve. AMH: Levels are reduced in poor ovarian reserve.</li><li>• Biochemical Tests:</li><li>• FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone): Levels measured on Day 2 or 3 of the menstrual cycle are increased in poor ovarian reserve. Estradiol: Day 2 levels are increased in poor ovarian reserve. Inhibin B: Levels are reduced in poor ovarian reserve. AMH: Levels are reduced in poor ovarian reserve.</li><li>• FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone): Levels measured on Day 2 or 3 of the menstrual cycle are increased in poor ovarian reserve.</li><li>• FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone):</li><li>• Estradiol: Day 2 levels are increased in poor ovarian reserve.</li><li>• Estradiol:</li><li>• Inhibin B: Levels are reduced in poor ovarian reserve.</li><li>• Inhibin B:</li><li>• AMH: Levels are reduced in poor ovarian reserve.</li><li>• AMH:</li><li>• Ultrasound: Antral Follicle Count (AFC): Done on day 2 or 3 of the cycle. The total number of visible follicles are counted. An AFC greater than 10 is considered normal.</li><li>• Ultrasound:</li><li>• Antral Follicle Count (AFC): Done on day 2 or 3 of the cycle. The total number of visible follicles are counted. An AFC greater than 10 is considered normal.</li><li>• Antral Follicle Count (AFC): Done on day 2 or 3 of the cycle. The total number of visible follicles are counted. An AFC greater than 10 is considered normal.</li><li>• Antral Follicle Count (AFC):</li><li>• Clomiphene Citrate Challenge Test: This test evaluates ovarian reserve by measuring FSH levels before and after administration of clomiphene citrate.</li><li>• Clomiphene Citrate Challenge Test:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. 1-4 : Levels of AMH within this range might be seen in women with a moderate ovarian reserve. It is not indicative of low ovarian reserve.</li><li>• Option B. 1-4</li><li>• Option C. &gt;7 : High levels of AMH are often associated with PCOS, where there is an increased number of small antral follicles.</li><li>• Option C. &gt;7</li><li>• Option D. &gt;10 : Extremely high AMH levels are usually seen in conditions like PCOS and do not indicate low ovarian reserve.</li><li>• Option D. &gt;10</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) levels less than 1 ng/mL are indicative of low ovarian reserve.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 437, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 437, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The X-ray of a 5-year-old child is given below. Clinical examination, and hematological and urinary tests were normal. Which of the following is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metastasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Langerhans cell histiocytosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/20_7U44ldW.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/21_kBFCUFL.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/22_vxKcYSK.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Langerhans cell histiocytosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Langerhans cell histiocytosis is the most probable diagnosis given the age of the child, the radiographic appearance of the skull lesion, and the absence of systemic symptoms or biochemical abnormalities typically associated with the other conditions listed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a water soluble contrast? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "lohexol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bromium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. lohexol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_188_74GJzvG.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Iohexol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• lohexol is a non-ionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast medium, used in various radiographic studies including CT scans, angiography, and myelography. It is known for its low osmolality and good safety profile, making it suitable for intravascular use.</li><li>• non-ionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Barium: While barium sulfate is a contrast agent, it is not water-soluble and is primarily used for gastrointestinal studies.</li><li>• Option B. Barium:</li><li>• Option C. Bromium: Not typically used as a contrast agent in medical imaging.</li><li>• Option C. Bromium:</li><li>• Option D. Calcium: Not used as a contrast agent. In medical imaging, calcium deposits may be identified by their radiographic appearance, but calcium itself is not administered as a contrast medium.</li><li>• Option D. Calcium:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gastric lavage can be performed in case of poisoning by: ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sulphuric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strychnine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbolic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kerosene oil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Carbolic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Carbolic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Contraindications to gastric lavage:</li><li>➤ Contraindications to gastric lavage:</li><li>➤ Corrosive poisons such as concentrated inorganic acids (e.g. sulfuric acid, nitric acid etc.) corrode and soften the stomach wall, making it prone for perforation ( exception carbolic acid which hardens the stomach wall and gastric lavage is done safely). Risk of aspiration: Convulsive poisons, Comatose patients , Volatile poisons (hydrocarbons like kerosene) U pper gastrointestinal tract diseases: Example oesophageal varices Hypothermia Hemorrhagic diathesis</li><li>➤ Corrosive poisons such as concentrated inorganic acids (e.g. sulfuric acid, nitric acid etc.) corrode and soften the stomach wall, making it prone for perforation ( exception carbolic acid which hardens the stomach wall and gastric lavage is done safely).</li><li>➤ Corrosive poisons</li><li>➤ exception carbolic acid</li><li>➤ Risk of aspiration: Convulsive poisons, Comatose patients , Volatile poisons (hydrocarbons like kerosene)</li><li>➤ Risk of aspiration: Convulsive poisons, Comatose patients</li><li>➤ Volatile poisons (hydrocarbons like kerosene)</li><li>➤ U pper gastrointestinal tract diseases: Example oesophageal varices</li><li>➤ pper gastrointestinal tract diseases: Example oesophageal varices</li><li>➤ Hypothermia</li><li>➤ Hypothermia</li><li>➤ Hemorrhagic diathesis</li><li>➤ Hemorrhagic diathesis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Alcohol abuse is strongly associated with the development of: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pericarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dilated cardiomyopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myocarditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dilated cardiomyopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/19_yE1TXQ2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dilated cardiomyopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dilated cardiomyopathy associated with alcohol abuse reflects the cumulative detrimental effects of alcohol on heart structure and function, compounded by nutritional deficiencies and genetic factors, making it a critical concern in chronic alcohol consumers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following myocardial infarcts cause aneurysm as a post-MI complication? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subendocardial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior transmural", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior transmural", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inferior wall", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anterior transmural", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anterior transmural</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anterior transmural myocardial infarctions are most commonly associated with the formation of left ventricular aneurysms due to the location, extent of myocardial damage, and the dynamics of ventricular pressure that exacerbate the risk of wall outpouching and aneurysm development in this region.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Apparent volume of distribution of a drug is very high (6L/kg). Which of the following is true regarding the distribution of that drug? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Highly bound to plasma proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Confined to vascular compartment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sequestered in body tissues", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sequestered in body tissues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sequestered in body tissues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A high volume of distribution (Vd) suggests that the drug is widely distributed throughout the body and sequestered in various tissues, rather than being confined to the bloodstream or vascular compartment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "BCYE medium is used to culture? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leptospira", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacillus cereus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Campylobacter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Legionella", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Legionella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Legionella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ BCYE medium is essential for the successful isolation and culture of Legionella species, particularly Legionella pneumophila, from environmental and clinical specimens. This medium meets the specific nutritional requirements and provides a protective environment for the growth of this pathogen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infant present with hypotonia and seizures. It was confirmed to be cerebrohepatorenal syndrome. Which of the following is accumulated in the brain in cerebrohepatorenal syndrome? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Long chain fatty acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lactic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Triglycerides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Long chain fatty acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Long chain fatty acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zellweger syndrome or Cerebrohepatorenal syndrome is due to defective oxidation of very long chain fatty acids (VLCFA ). Peroxisomal enzymes are produced; but their entry into peroxisome is denied. This leads to insufficient oxidation of VLCFA. Accumulation of VLCFA in CNS causes profound neurologic impairment and death in childhood.</li><li>➤ Zellweger syndrome or Cerebrohepatorenal syndrome is due to defective oxidation of very long chain fatty acids (VLCFA</li><li>➤ Accumulation of VLCFA in CNS causes profound neurologic impairment</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has the least conduction velocity? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Postganglionic sympathetic fibers", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Somatic motor fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pre-ganglionic autonomic fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Touch and pressure fibers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/679.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Among the options given, postganglionic sympathetic fibers (Type C fibers) have the least conduction velocity due to their small diameter and lack of myelin, which make them slower in transmitting nerve impulses compared to myelinated fibers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the size of the given blade used for incision and drainage of a superficial abscess and arteriotomy? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "11", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "22", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "15", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 11", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture19.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/surgical-blade-number.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 11</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 11 number blade is used In stab incisions needed when lancing an abscess or inserting a chest drain and in skin incisions and arteriotomy</li><li>➤ 11 number blade is used</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the best imaging study for diagnosis of cerebral infarct?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FLAIR MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non-contrast CT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diffusion weighted MRI", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "СЕСТ", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Diffusion weighted MRI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_BVQINRO.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_201.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Diffuse weighted MRI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Diffusion-weighted MRI is the most sensitive investigation for diagnosis of cerebral ischemia. It is particularly useful for identifying acute ischemic changes in the brain due to its ability to detect diffusion restriction of water molecules in the brain tissue.</li><li>• Diffusion-weighted MRI is the most sensitive investigation</li><li>• Diffusion restriction: hyperintense on DWI and hypointense on ADC.</li><li>• Diffusion restriction:</li><li>• Diffusion restriction is seen with: Acute stroke Hypercellular tumors Abscess Epidermoid cyst Keratin-Craniopharyngioma/ Cholesteatoma</li><li>• Diffusion restriction is seen with: Acute stroke Hypercellular tumors Abscess Epidermoid cyst Keratin-Craniopharyngioma/ Cholesteatoma</li><li>• Acute stroke Hypercellular tumors Abscess Epidermoid cyst Keratin-Craniopharyngioma/ Cholesteatoma</li><li>• Acute stroke</li><li>• Hypercellular tumors</li><li>• Abscess</li><li>• Epidermoid cyst</li><li>• Keratin-Craniopharyngioma/ Cholesteatoma</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. FLAIR MRI: Fluid-Attenuated Inversion Recovery (FLAIR) MRI is useful for identifying older infarcts and chronic changes but is less sensitive in the acute phase of a stroke.</li><li>• Option A. FLAIR MRI:</li><li>• Option B. Non-contrast CT: While commonly used for initial assessment due to its availability and speed, it is less sensitive in the early stages of a stroke, often not showing changes until several hours post-onset.</li><li>• Option B. Non-contrast CT:</li><li>• Option D. СECT (Contrast-Enhanced CT): Typically used to assess for complications or other causes of symptoms but not as sensitive as DWI for early detection of cerebral infarcts.</li><li>• Option D. СECT (Contrast-Enhanced CT):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diffusion-weighted MRI is the optimal choice for early detection of cerebral infarcts, making it an indispensable tool in acute stroke management. Its ability to show diffusion restriction provides critical information that can influence therapeutic decisions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the investigation of choice for neurosyphilis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "FTA-ABS- Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RPR- Rapid Plasma Reagin test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TPI-Treponema pallidum immobilization test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The CSF-VDRL test, despite its low sensitivity, remains the gold standard for the diagnosis of neurosyphilis due to its high specificity when positive. It is crucial in the diagnostic process for patients with suspected syphilis infection of the central nervous system, helping guide appropriate treatment and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following monitors is most commonly used to monitor the depth of anesthesia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EEG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Provoked lower esophageal contractility", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Entropy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bispectral index", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bispectral index", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture70_8iI3h7S.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bispectral index</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The bispectral index (BIS) is the most commonly used monitor to assess the depth of anesthesia, providing an EEG-derived measure of the cerebral effects of anesthetic drugs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old HIV-positive man presents with fever for 3 weeks, dry cough, and significant weight loss. His HRCT thorax is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcal pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pneumococcal pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/24/nm26.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-122739.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/HIV/Opportunistic Infection in HIV/Chap</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient with Wilson's disease, which of the following is decreased in urine?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tyrosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphorous", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3-methylhistidine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3-methylhistidine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 3-methylhistidine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wilson's hepatolenticular degeneration is an inherited autosomal recessive condition.</li><li>➤ Wilson's hepatolenticular degeneration</li><li>➤ autosomal recessive</li><li>➤ The basic defect is a mutation in a gene encoding a copper binding ATPase in cells, which is required for excretion of copper from cells. So, copper is not excreted through bile, and hence copper toxicity . Increased copper content in hepatocyte inhibits the incorporation of copper to apo-ceruloplasmin. So ceruloplasmin level in blood is decreased . Clinical Features Accumulation in liver leads to hepatocellular degeneration and cirrhosis . Deposits in brain basal ganglia leads to lenticular degeneration and neurological symptoms. Copper deposits as green or golden pigmented ring around cornea; this is called Kayser-Fleischer ring. Treatment consists of a diet containing low copper and injection of D-penicillamine , which excretes copper through urine. Since zinc decreases copper absorption , zinc is useful in therapy. Amino acids are excreted in the urine in either conjugated (mostly) or in free form. The amount of conjugated amino acids in urine is far more than free form in Wilson’s disease. Methyl Histidine largely exists in free form and does not increase in amount on hydrolysis of acids in urine, hence the urinary levels of 3-methylhistidine are low in patients with Wilson disease.</li><li>➤ The basic defect is a mutation in a gene encoding a copper binding ATPase in cells, which is required for excretion of copper from cells. So, copper is not excreted through bile, and hence copper toxicity .</li><li>➤ basic defect</li><li>➤ copper binding ATPase</li><li>➤ copper toxicity</li><li>➤ Increased copper content in hepatocyte inhibits the incorporation of copper to apo-ceruloplasmin. So ceruloplasmin level in blood is decreased .</li><li>➤ ceruloplasmin level in blood is decreased</li><li>➤ Clinical Features Accumulation in liver leads to hepatocellular degeneration and cirrhosis . Deposits in brain basal ganglia leads to lenticular degeneration and neurological symptoms. Copper deposits as green or golden pigmented ring around cornea; this is called Kayser-Fleischer ring.</li><li>➤ Clinical Features</li><li>➤ Accumulation in liver leads to hepatocellular degeneration and cirrhosis . Deposits in brain basal ganglia leads to lenticular degeneration and neurological symptoms. Copper deposits as green or golden pigmented ring around cornea; this is called Kayser-Fleischer ring.</li><li>➤ Accumulation in liver leads to hepatocellular degeneration and cirrhosis .</li><li>➤ hepatocellular degeneration and cirrhosis</li><li>➤ Deposits in brain basal ganglia leads to lenticular degeneration and neurological symptoms.</li><li>➤ basal ganglia</li><li>➤ lenticular degeneration and neurological symptoms.</li><li>➤ Copper deposits as green or golden pigmented ring around cornea; this is called Kayser-Fleischer ring.</li><li>➤ Kayser-Fleischer ring.</li><li>➤ Treatment consists of a diet containing low copper and injection of D-penicillamine , which excretes copper through urine. Since zinc decreases copper absorption , zinc is useful in therapy.</li><li>➤ a diet containing low copper</li><li>➤ injection of D-penicillamine</li><li>➤ zinc decreases copper absorption</li><li>➤ Amino acids are excreted in the urine in either conjugated (mostly) or in free form. The amount of conjugated amino acids in urine is far more than free form in Wilson’s disease. Methyl Histidine largely exists in free form and does not increase in amount on hydrolysis of acids in urine, hence the urinary levels of 3-methylhistidine are low in patients with Wilson disease.</li><li>➤ urinary levels of 3-methylhistidine are low in patients with Wilson disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the main factor for the ductal closure postnatally? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in partial pressure of oxygen (pa02)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in systemic vascular resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in circulating prostaglandin levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decrease in pulmonary venous resistance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increase in partial pressure of oxygen (pa02)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increase in partial pressure of oxygen (pa02)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The increase in partial pressure of oxygen (paO2) postnatally is the most important factor for the closure of the ductus arteriosus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following would be prescribed for simple myopic astigmatism? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "+1.00 DS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "-1.00 DC X 180 degree", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "-1.00 DS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "-1.00 DS -1.00 DC X 180 degree", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. -1.00 DC X 180 degree", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-170024.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-170045.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture2222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. -1.00 DC X 180 degree</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Simple myopic astigmatism requires correction with a cylindrical lens that corrects the myopic meridian, typically specified with the cylinder power and the axis. The correct prescription for simple myopic astigmatism in this case is -1.00 DC X 180 degrees.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the false statement regarding somnambulism? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disorder of sleep arousal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Person will have full consciousness.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Usually, terminates in awakening followed by confusion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "There may be neurological conditions associated.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Person will have full consciousness.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Person will have full consciousness.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sleepwalking (somnambulism) is an arousal disorder originating from deep, non-REM stage 4 sleep. Individuals who sleepwalk typically act without conscious awareness and have no memory of the episode upon awakening. The person who is having sleep walking is difficult to awake .</li><li>➤ difficult to awake</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 555.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cushing's ulcers are seen in? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burns", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stress", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Head injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cell necrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Head injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Head injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cushing's ulcers are a specific type of peptic ulcer that occurs due to increased intracranial pressure resulting from head injuries. Recognizing this condition is important for managing patients with significant neurological trauma to prevent and treat these potentially serious gastrointestinal complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a synthetic PGE1 derivative used as an abortifacient? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dinoprost", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dinoprostone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Misoprostol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carboprost", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Misoprostol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Misoprostol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Misoprostol is the synthetic PGE1 derivative used as an abortifacient. It is effective in inducing labor, facilitating medical abortion, and treating postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contractions and cervical ripening.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You discover that there is evidence of cardiac malformation in a fetus during a routine US scan at 16 weeks. What is the minimum level of fasting blood sugar at which you can suspect overt diabetes? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "106 mg/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "126 mg/dL", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "116 mg/dL", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "130 mg/dL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 126 mg/dL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 126 mg/dL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Overt diabetes in pregnancy is diagnosed with a fasting blood sugar level of ≥ 126 mg/dL, and maternal hyperglycemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following regimen is commonly used in the treatment of retinoblastoma? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vinblastine, etoposide and bleomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vinblastine, vincristine and etoposide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vinblastine, vincristine and cisplatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vincristine, carboplatin and etoposide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vincristine, carboplatin and etoposide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-163719.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Vincristine, carboplatin and etoposide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most commonly used chemotherapy regimen for retinoblastoma includes vincristine, carboplatin, and etoposide. This combination is effective in reducing tumor size and facilitating further local treatment options.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following murmur increases on standing? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HOCM", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "VSD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HOCM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. HOCM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Among the options listed, the murmur of Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy is unique in that it increases on standing, due to the specific hemodynamic changes that accentuate the outflow obstruction. This characteristic can be a crucial diagnostic clue in the clinical assessment of murmurs.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Physical examination of CVS/Chap 239</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of tubercular otitis media? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Earache", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple perforations", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pale granulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Foul smelling ear discharge", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Earache", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Earache</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Earache is notably absent in tubercular otitis media, differentiating it from other types of middle ear infections where pain is a common symptom. Recognizing the painless nature of this condition is crucial for prompt and accurate diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most effective antiemetic for chemotherapy-induced vomiting is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Domperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tegaserod", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Granisetron", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doxylamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Granisetron", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Granisetron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Granisetron, a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, is the most effective antiemetic for preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV). It is the standard of care for managing nausea and vomiting associated with moderate to highly emetogenic chemotherapy agents.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the term used to describe the point from A to C in the given flowchart depicting the natural history of a disease? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Screening time", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lead time", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lag time", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Generation time", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lead time", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-113410.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-125426.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lead time</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead time is the interval between the detection of a disease through screening and its usual time of diagnosis due to symptom presentation.</li><li>➤ Lead time is the advantage gained by screening (leading the time of diagnosis)</li><li>➤ Early detection of disease due to screening (B rather than C) will ensure earlier institution of treatment, thus better prognosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common heart defect in congenital rubella syndrome is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ASD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "VSD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PDA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "PS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. PDA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/untitled-450_7YFRGXa.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) PDA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common heart defect in congenital rubella syndrome is Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA), followed by Pulmonary Stenosis (PS).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is autosomal dominant? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Duchene muscular dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Achondroplasia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Achondroplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-110903.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-111224.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Achondroplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The cross product ratio can be obtained by: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ecological study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cross sectional study", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Case control study", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Case control study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Case control study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cross-product ratio, or odds ratio, is a measure of association commonly derived from case-control studies to determine the relationship between exposure and outcome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Magnesium sulphate has no role in? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prevention of seizures in severe pre-eclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevention of recurrent seizures in eclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevention of RDS in premature baby", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reducing contractility of uterus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prevention of RDS in premature baby", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Prevention of RDS in premature baby</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Magnesium Sulphate (MgSO4):</li><li>• Magnesium Sulphate (MgSO4):</li><li>• MgSO4 is used for several obstetric indications, including:</li><li>• Eclampsia: MgSO4 is the drug of choice for the prevention and treatment of seizures in eclampsia. Prevention of Seizures in Severe Pre-eclampsia: It is used prophylactically to prevent seizures in women with severe pre-eclampsia. Tocolytic in Preterm Labor: MgSO4 is used as a tocolytic agent to reduce uterine contractions and delay preterm labor. Neuroprotection in Severe Preterm Infants (&lt;29 weeks): MgSO4 is administered to provide neuroprotection for the fetus, reducing the risk of cerebral palsy and other neurological disorders in preterm infants.</li><li>• Eclampsia: MgSO4 is the drug of choice for the prevention and treatment of seizures in eclampsia.</li><li>• Eclampsia:</li><li>• Prevention of Seizures in Severe Pre-eclampsia: It is used prophylactically to prevent seizures in women with severe pre-eclampsia.</li><li>• Prevention of Seizures in Severe Pre-eclampsia:</li><li>• Tocolytic in Preterm Labor: MgSO4 is used as a tocolytic agent to reduce uterine contractions and delay preterm labor.</li><li>• Tocolytic in Preterm Labor:</li><li>• Neuroprotection in Severe Preterm Infants (&lt;29 weeks): MgSO4 is administered to provide neuroprotection for the fetus, reducing the risk of cerebral palsy and other neurological disorders in preterm infants.</li><li>• Neuroprotection in Severe Preterm Infants (&lt;29 weeks):</li><li>• Prevention of RDS (Respiratory Distress Syndrome) in Premature Baby:</li><li>• Prevention of RDS (Respiratory Distress Syndrome) in Premature Baby:</li><li>• MgSO4 does not play a role in the prevention of RDS. Instead, corticosteroids (such as betamethasone or dexamethasone) are used to accelerate fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of RDS in preterm babies.</li><li>• MgSO4 does not play a role in the prevention of RDS. Instead, corticosteroids (such as betamethasone or dexamethasone) are used to accelerate fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of RDS in preterm babies.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Prevention of Seizures in Severe Pre-eclampsia: MgSO4 is effectively used to prevent seizures in women with severe pre-eclampsia.</li><li>• Option A. Prevention of Seizures in Severe Pre-eclampsia:</li><li>• Option B. Prevention of Recurrent Seizures in Eclampsia: MgSO4 is the preferred treatment to prevent recurrent seizures in women with eclampsia.</li><li>• Option B. Prevention of Recurrent Seizures in Eclampsia:</li><li>• Option D. Reducing Contractility of Uterus: MgSO4 is used as a tocolytic agent to reduce uterine contractility and delay preterm labor.</li><li>• Option D. Reducing Contractility of Uterus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corticosteroids are used for the prevention of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm babies.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1860, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1860, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which statement is incorrect about the pathology shown?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tumor arises from epiphyseal region", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tumor has distinct margins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eccentric lesion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/11/20.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone typically manifests as an eccentric lytic lesion in the epiphyseal region of long bones with distinct margins. The mainstay of treatment for GCT is surgical intervention, either through curettage or excision followed by bone grafting, rather than chemotherapy. This surgical approach helps ensure complete removal of the tumor and helps prevent recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Brown Sequard syndrome is characterized by? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fine touch lost on the opposite side", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pain and temperature lost on the same side", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pain and temperature loss on the opposite side", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only pain lost on the same side", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pain and temperature loss on the opposite side", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/680.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-102208.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pain and temperature loss on the opposite side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Brown-Sequard syndrome results from a hemisection (partial transection) of the spinal cord, leading to a distinct pattern of neurological symptoms:</li><li>• Ipsilateral (same side as the lesion) Deficits : Motor Function : There is paralysis below the level of the lesion due to damage to the corticospinal tract, which controls voluntary muscle movements. The paralysis is of the upper motor neuron type, characterized by increased muscle tone, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Proprioception and Discriminative Touch : Loss of fine touch, vibration sense, proprioception, and discriminatory tactile abilities due to damage to the dorsal columns (fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus) which carry these sensory modalities from the body to the brain. Contralateral (opposite side as the lesion) Deficits : Pain and Temperature Sensation : Loss occurs below the level of the lesion because the spinothalamic tract, which carries pain and temperature sensations, crosses over to the opposite side at the level of the spinal cord soon after entering. Thus, a hemisection will affect the fibers carrying information from the opposite side.</li><li>• Ipsilateral (same side as the lesion) Deficits : Motor Function : There is paralysis below the level of the lesion due to damage to the corticospinal tract, which controls voluntary muscle movements. The paralysis is of the upper motor neuron type, characterized by increased muscle tone, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Proprioception and Discriminative Touch : Loss of fine touch, vibration sense, proprioception, and discriminatory tactile abilities due to damage to the dorsal columns (fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus) which carry these sensory modalities from the body to the brain.</li><li>• Ipsilateral (same side as the lesion) Deficits</li><li>• Motor Function : There is paralysis below the level of the lesion due to damage to the corticospinal tract, which controls voluntary muscle movements. The paralysis is of the upper motor neuron type, characterized by increased muscle tone, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Proprioception and Discriminative Touch : Loss of fine touch, vibration sense, proprioception, and discriminatory tactile abilities due to damage to the dorsal columns (fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus) which carry these sensory modalities from the body to the brain.</li><li>• Motor Function : There is paralysis below the level of the lesion due to damage to the corticospinal tract, which controls voluntary muscle movements. The paralysis is of the upper motor neuron type, characterized by increased muscle tone, spasticity, and hyperreflexia.</li><li>• Motor Function</li><li>• Proprioception and Discriminative Touch : Loss of fine touch, vibration sense, proprioception, and discriminatory tactile abilities due to damage to the dorsal columns (fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus) which carry these sensory modalities from the body to the brain.</li><li>• Proprioception and Discriminative Touch</li><li>• Contralateral (opposite side as the lesion) Deficits : Pain and Temperature Sensation : Loss occurs below the level of the lesion because the spinothalamic tract, which carries pain and temperature sensations, crosses over to the opposite side at the level of the spinal cord soon after entering. Thus, a hemisection will affect the fibers carrying information from the opposite side.</li><li>• Contralateral (opposite side as the lesion) Deficits</li><li>• Pain and Temperature Sensation : Loss occurs below the level of the lesion because the spinothalamic tract, which carries pain and temperature sensations, crosses over to the opposite side at the level of the spinal cord soon after entering. Thus, a hemisection will affect the fibers carrying information from the opposite side.</li><li>• Pain and Temperature Sensation : Loss occurs below the level of the lesion because the spinothalamic tract, which carries pain and temperature sensations, crosses over to the opposite side at the level of the spinal cord soon after entering. Thus, a hemisection will affect the fibers carrying information from the opposite side.</li><li>• Pain and Temperature Sensation</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Fine touch lost on the opposite side : Incorrect because fine touch is lost on the same side as the lesion, not the opposite.</li><li>• Option A. Fine touch lost on the opposite side</li><li>• Option B. Pain and temperature lost on the same side : Incorrect as pain and temperature sensations are lost on the opposite side due to the crossing of the spinothalamic tract.</li><li>• Option B. Pain and temperature lost on the same side</li><li>• Option D. Only pain lost on the same side : Incorrect because pain sensation is lost on the opposite side and is associated with temperature loss as well.</li><li>• Option D. Only pain lost on the same side</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemi section of the spinal cord involves the ascending sensory (dorsal column pathway, ventrolateral spinothalamic tract) and descending motor (corticospinal tract) pathways, which is called the Brown- Sequard syndrome.</li><li>➤ Functions of tracts involved -</li><li>➤ Fasciculus gracilis or fasciculus cuneatus → ipsilateral discriminative touch, vibration, and proprioception</li><li>➤ Spinothalamic tract → contralateral pain and temperature sensation</li><li>➤ Corticospinal tract → primary motor activity same side of the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cholecysto-vena caval line passes through? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gallbladder and inferior vena cava", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Porta hepatis and inferior vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caudate lobe and quadrangular lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right and left lobe of liver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gallbladder and inferior vena cava", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-917.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Gallbladder and inferior vena cava</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cholecysto-vena caval line is an imaginary line drawn from the fundus of the gallbladder to the point where the inferior vena cava (IVC) pierces the diaphragm. It roughly demarcates the boundary between the right and left lobes of the liver, especially when viewed from behind (posterior view).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not used for induction of anesthesia in pediatric patients? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Halothane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sevoflurane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Desflurane", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitrous oxide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Desflurane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Desflurane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Desflurane is not typically used for the induction of anesthesia in pediatric patients due to its pungent nature, which can cause significant airway irritation and laryngospasm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not seen in a child with cystic fibrosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sweat chloride test chloride conc of 70 mEg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase immunoreactive trypsinogen level", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contraction alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hyperkalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia is not typically seen in cystic fibrosis. Instead, patients with CF may present with hypokalemia and contraction alkalosis due to electrolyte losses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nasal polyps are commonly associated with: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intrinsic asthma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brittle asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extrinsic asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exercise-induced asthma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intrinsic asthma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-110232.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Intrinsic asthma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/Pulmonology/Asthma/Chap 287</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What method is most effective for visually representing the fluctuations in disease occurrence within a given area over time? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Line graph", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ogive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stem and leaf plot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Line graph", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/65.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-125430.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-125431.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/whatsapp-image-2023-10-03-at-123902.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Line graph</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Line graphs are the most effective method for visually representing the fluctuations in disease occurrence over time, making them ideal for identifying and analyzing trends in epidemiological data.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the drug of choice for diphtheria carrier state? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amoxicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetracycline", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Erythromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Erythromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erythromycin is the drug of choice for the carrier state of diphtheria due to its effectiveness in eradicating Corynebacterium diphtheriae from carriers and preventing the spread of the disease. Other antibiotics like amoxicillin, rifampicin, and tetracycline are not considered first-line treatments for this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which muscle is typically represented by the color blue? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extensor carpi radialis longus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brachioradialis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supinator", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flexor carpi radialis brevis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extensor carpi radialis longus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-909.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-910.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-105050.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Extensor carpi radialis longus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Origin : It originates from the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus. Insertion : It inserts into the base of the second metacarpal bone on the dorsal side. Action : This muscle extends and abducts the wrist. It helps in the extension of the wrist joint and also assists in radial abduction. Innervation : It's innervated by the radial nerve.</li><li>• Origin : It originates from the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus.</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Insertion : It inserts into the base of the second metacarpal bone on the dorsal side.</li><li>• Insertion</li><li>• Action : This muscle extends and abducts the wrist. It helps in the extension of the wrist joint and also assists in radial abduction.</li><li>• Action</li><li>• Innervation : It's innervated by the radial nerve.</li><li>• Innervation</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Brachioradialis :</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Brachioradialis</li><li>• Origin : This muscle originates from the proximal two-thirds of the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus. Insertion : It inserts into the lateral surface of the radius near its styloid process. Action : The primary function is to flex the elbow. However, unlike most other flexors of the elbow, which are pronators, the brachioradialis is a supinator when the forearm is pronated and a pronator when the forearm is supinated, making it a neutralizer of the forearm. Innervation : The brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve.</li><li>• Origin : This muscle originates from the proximal two-thirds of the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus.</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Insertion : It inserts into the lateral surface of the radius near its styloid process.</li><li>• Insertion</li><li>• Action : The primary function is to flex the elbow. However, unlike most other flexors of the elbow, which are pronators, the brachioradialis is a supinator when the forearm is pronated and a pronator when the forearm is supinated, making it a neutralizer of the forearm.</li><li>• Action</li><li>• Innervation : The brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve.</li><li>• Innervation</li><li>• Option C . Supinator :</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Supinator</li><li>• Origin : The supinator muscle has a two-headed origin – one from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus (by the radial collateral ligament) and one from the proximal ulna (from the annular ligament and the supinator crest). Insertion : It wraps around the upper third of the radius. Action : As its name suggests, it supinates the forearm, meaning it rotates the forearm to turn the palm anteriorly or upwards. Innervation : It is innervated by the deep branch of the radial nerve.</li><li>• Origin : The supinator muscle has a two-headed origin – one from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus (by the radial collateral ligament) and one from the proximal ulna (from the annular ligament and the supinator crest).</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Insertion : It wraps around the upper third of the radius.</li><li>• Insertion</li><li>• Action : As its name suggests, it supinates the forearm, meaning it rotates the forearm to turn the palm anteriorly or upwards.</li><li>• Action</li><li>• Innervation : It is innervated by the deep branch of the radial nerve.</li><li>• Innervation</li><li>• Option D. Flexor carpi radialis brevis :</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Flexor carpi radialis brevis</li><li>• Origin : It originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus. Insertion : It inserts into the bases of the second and third metacarpal bones. Action : This muscle flexes and abducts the wrist. Innervation : It's innervated by the median nerve.</li><li>• Origin : It originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus.</li><li>• Origin</li><li>• Insertion : It inserts into the bases of the second and third metacarpal bones.</li><li>• Insertion</li><li>• Action : This muscle flexes and abducts the wrist.</li><li>• Action</li><li>• Innervation : It's innervated by the median nerve.</li><li>• Innervation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding the dose-response curve shown in the image below? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C is competitive antagonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C is more potent than A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "B is more potent than A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "B is competitive antagonist", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. B is competitive antagonist", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/204.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) B is competitive antagonist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Efficacy : The height of the curve represents the efficacy of the drug. The higher the curve, the more efficacious the drug.</li><li>➤ Efficacy</li><li>➤ Potency : The position of the curve along the x-axis (left or right) indicates the potency. Drugs with curves on the left side are more potent than those on the right side.</li><li>➤ Potency</li><li>➤ Type of Inhibition</li><li>➤ Type of Inhibition</li><li>➤ Competitive Inhibition : A competitive inhibitor will shift the dose-response curve to the right without changing the maximum effect (efficacy). This indicates that higher concentrations of the agonist can overcome the inhibition. Non-Competitive Inhibition : A non-competitive inhibitor will reduce the maximum effect (efficacy) of the agonist, causing a downward shift in the dose-response curve.</li><li>➤ Competitive Inhibition : A competitive inhibitor will shift the dose-response curve to the right without changing the maximum effect (efficacy). This indicates that higher concentrations of the agonist can overcome the inhibition.</li><li>➤ Competitive Inhibition</li><li>➤ Non-Competitive Inhibition : A non-competitive inhibitor will reduce the maximum effect (efficacy) of the agonist, causing a downward shift in the dose-response curve.</li><li>➤ Non-Competitive Inhibition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A resident physician sustained a needlestick injury while collecting a blood sample from a patient with HIV. It has been decided to provide the physician with post-exposure prophylaxis. What would be the most suitable course of action among the options below? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lamivudine + Tenofovir + Dolutegravir for 4 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lamivudine + Zidovudine + Efavirenz for 4 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lamivudine + Tenofovir + Dolutegravir for 4 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-134017.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lamivudine+ Tenofovir+ Dolutegravir for 4 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where would you place the pulse oximeter to measure pre-ductal oxygen saturation in an infant who was born 3 minutes ago? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fetal left Upper limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal left lower limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fetal right upper limb", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fetal right lower limb", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fetal right upper limb", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fetal right upper limb</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To measure preductal oxygen saturation in a newborn, place the pulse oximeter on the right upper limb. This helps in detecting any right-to-left shunt, such as in patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to Herrington classification, the decerebrate rigidity is characterized by all except? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rigidity occurs in all the muscles of the body", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in the rate of discharge of the γ efferent neuron", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased excitability of the motor neuron pool", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decerebration produces no phenomenon akin to spinal shock", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rigidity occurs in all the muscles of the body", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Rigidity occurs in all the muscles of the body</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Decerebrate rigidity is the rigid extension of all the limbs due to decerebration. This type of rigidity is well pronounced in the extensor muscles. The term decerebrate rigidity was coined by Sherrington in 1897.</li><li>• Reason for decerebrate rigidity:</li><li>• Reason for decerebrate rigidity:</li><li>• Release of the centers, situated below the section, from higher inhibitory controls. The inhibitory area is 4S. It is situated in the motor cortex of cerebrum, just anterior to area 4 and behind area 6. In this area, Betz cells are absent. From here, the fibers are projected to spinal cord via reticular formation. So, in decerebration the discharge from neurons of area 4S cannot reach spinal motor neurons. This leads to exaggeration of spinal motor neurons resulting in rigidity. Decerebrate rigidity is also produced by stopping the blood flow to the forebrain. It is done by occlusion of the common carotid artery and the basilar artery at the center of the pons.</li><li>• Release of the centers, situated below the section, from higher inhibitory controls. The inhibitory area is 4S. It is situated in the motor cortex of cerebrum, just anterior to area 4 and behind area 6. In this area, Betz cells are absent.</li><li>• From here, the fibers are projected to spinal cord via reticular formation. So, in decerebration the discharge from neurons of area 4S cannot reach spinal motor neurons. This leads to exaggeration of spinal motor neurons resulting in rigidity.</li><li>• Decerebrate rigidity is also produced by stopping the blood flow to the forebrain. It is done by occlusion of the common carotid artery and the basilar artery at the center of the pons.</li><li>• Decerebrate rigidity is characterized by</li><li>• γ motor neuron discharge rate increased. Motor neuron pool excitability increased. Decerebration produces no phenomenon similar to spinal shock. Antigravity extensor muscles are involved in decerebrate injury</li><li>• γ motor neuron discharge rate increased.</li><li>• Motor neuron pool excitability increased.</li><li>• Decerebration produces no phenomenon similar to spinal shock.</li><li>• Antigravity extensor muscles are involved in decerebrate injury</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Increase in the rate of discharge of the γ efferent neuron : Correct as part of the characterization of decerebrate rigidity. The increased discharge rate of the γ efferent neurons enhances the muscle spindle responses, contributing to increased muscle tone.</li><li>• Option B. Increase in the rate of discharge of the γ efferent neuron</li><li>• Option C. Increased excitability of the motor neuron pool : Correct, this increased excitability leads to the hyperactivity of motor neurons, particularly those controlling the extensor muscles.</li><li>• Option C. Increased excitability of the motor neuron pool</li><li>• Option D. Decerebration produces no phenomenon akin to spinal shock : Correct, unlike spinal shock, which involves a temporary reduction or loss of reflex activity below the level of a spinal cord injury, decerebration does not produce a similar transient reduction in reflexes.</li><li>• Option D. Decerebration produces no phenomenon akin to spinal shock</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decerebrate rigidity is characterized by an increase in extensor muscle tone due to enhanced activity of the γ motor neurons and increased excitability of the motor neuron pool, without inducing effects similar to spinal shock. Rigidity does not occur in all muscles of the body but is more pronounced in antigravity extensor muscles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old female presents with severe headache and high fever of 101°F. On examination, papilloedema and nuchal rigidity was present. Gram staining of the CSF is shown below. What is the Causative organism? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haemophilus influenza type B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neisseria meningitidis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Listeria monocytogenes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neisseria meningitidis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_l7KVX2D.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_2MaWyOu.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_7iLi7mJ.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_OgoW3Rd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Neisseria meningitidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neisseria meningitidis - Intracellular gram-negative diplococci in gram staining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Contact based isolation is employed for which of the following diseases? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRSA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MRSA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) MRSA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The three categories of transmission-based precautions include:</li><li>➤ Contact- based isolation is used for infections, diseases, or germs that are spread by touching the patient or items in the room. Examples include MRSA, VRE, diarrheal illnesses, open wounds, and RSV. Droplet-based isolation is employed for diphtheria and mumps. Airborne precautions are required to protect against conditions like measles, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), varicella (chickenpox), and Mycobacterium tuberculosis.</li><li>➤ Contact- based isolation is used for infections, diseases, or germs that are spread by touching the patient or items in the room. Examples include MRSA, VRE, diarrheal illnesses, open wounds, and RSV.</li><li>➤ Contact- based isolation</li><li>➤ Droplet-based isolation is employed for diphtheria and mumps.</li><li>➤ Droplet-based isolation</li><li>➤ Airborne precautions are required to protect against conditions like measles, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), varicella (chickenpox), and Mycobacterium tuberculosis.</li><li>➤ Airborne precautions</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which parameters would you utilize to assess the efficiency of the malaria surveillance system under the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programmer? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Annual Parasite Index", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Annual Blood Examination Rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Slide positivity rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Slide falciparum rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Annual Blood Examination Rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-104529.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-104538.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-104640.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-114950.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Annual Blood Examination Rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are true about patients with trigeminal neuralgia except: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "More common in females", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pain along V2 and V3 division of trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deep seated pain", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "No objective signs of sensory loss", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Deep seated pain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Deep seated pain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trigeminal neuralgia is marked by sharp, superficial pain that may affect the V2 and V3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve. It is important to recognize that the pain is superficial and not deep-seated. This condition more commonly affects females and presents without objective sensory loss.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Trigeminal neuralgia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrocephalus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chorioretinitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatosplenomegaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thrombocytopenia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chorioretinitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/picture13_yKaR1W9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture135.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chorioretinitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chorioretinitis is the most common manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis, affecting up to 80% of infected infants and potentially leading to vision impairment or blindness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs causes activation of K + channels? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nicorandil", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Molsidomine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isosorbide dinitrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitroglycerin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nicorandil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nicorandil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nicorandil is the drug that causes activation of K + channels, leading to hyperpolarization and vasodilation. It also has nitrate-like effects, distinguishing it from other nitric oxide donors like molsidomine, isosorbide dinitrate, and nitroglycerin, which do not activate K + channels but work by increasing cGMP levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following is the disc diffusion method for antibiotic susceptibility testing applied? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Agar dilution method", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kirby-Bauer method", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Broth dilution method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PCR based assay", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kirby-Bauer method", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Kirby-Bauer method</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion method is a straightforward and widely used technique for assessing bacterial antibiotic susceptibility, providing vital information for the appropriate selection of antibiotics in clinical settings. It is essential for effective antimicrobial stewardship and the management of bacterial infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the nerve supply of the structure marked in the image below? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior interosseus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior interosseus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Median nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-912.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-163946.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-112217.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Median nerve</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common joint involved in septic arthritis is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Knee", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Shoulder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Elbow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Knee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Knee</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following diseases have autosomal recessive inheritance? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albinism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "G-6-PD deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Marfan's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lesch-Nyhan syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Albinism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-03-161554_K9X19gw.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Albinism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is correct regarding the diagnosis based on the given image? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior nerve roots are more commonly involved", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucous membranes within the affected dermatomes are involved", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The lesions are not infectious", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trigeminal dermatome is most commonly affected", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucous membranes within the affected dermatomes are involved", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/438.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture3999.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mucous membranes within the affected dermatomes are involved</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpes zoster , commonly involves reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus within the dorsal root ganglion , leading to painful cutaneous eruptions that can affect mucous membranes within the involved dermatomes . Herpes zoster lesions are infectious , particularly to those who are not immune to varicella-zoster virus , and thoracic dermatome is the most frequently affected area.</li><li>➤ Herpes zoster , commonly involves reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus within the dorsal root ganglion , leading to painful cutaneous eruptions that can affect mucous membranes within the involved dermatomes .</li><li>➤ Herpes zoster</li><li>➤ varicella-zoster virus</li><li>➤ dorsal root ganglion</li><li>➤ painful cutaneous eruptions</li><li>➤ mucous membranes</li><li>➤ dermatomes</li><li>➤ Herpes zoster lesions are infectious , particularly to those who are not immune to varicella-zoster virus , and thoracic dermatome is the most frequently affected area.</li><li>➤ infectious</li><li>➤ not immune to varicella-zoster virus</li><li>➤ thoracic dermatome</li><li>➤ most frequently</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no. 25.27-25.28</li><li>↳ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li><li>↳ Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition, Page no 106</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 4.13</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition, Page no 4.13</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false about skin? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermis is derived from ectoderm", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Skin accounts for 15% of total body weight", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epidermis is derived from ectoderm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermis is made up of type 1 and type 3 collagen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dermis is derived from ectoderm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-918.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Dermis is derived from ectoderm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dermis is derived from the mesoderm, not the ectoderm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is measured by the device shown in the given image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxygen saturation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxygen content of the blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Partial pressure of oxygen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amount of inspired oxygen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oxygen saturation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_WaIgI6p.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oxygen saturation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pulse oximetry measures the oxygen saturation (SpO2) of hemoglobin in the blood using the principles of Beer Lambert’s law and plethysmography.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following lobes of the prostate forms the uvula vesicae? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Median", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Median", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-921.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Median</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The middle lobe or median lobe of the prostate is situated between the ejaculatory ducts and the urethra. When the median lobe enlarges due to conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), it can project into the bladder, forming a structure called the \"uvula vesicae.\" It is also known as Lietaud’s uvula. This growth can cause urinary symptoms by obstructing the bladder neck.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male presented with progressive blurred vision, photophobia, and eye pain. On examination, there was conjunctival redness, a mid-dilated pupil, and a shallow anterior chamber in the right eye. He has been treated both medically and surgically for the condition but showed no improvement. The following procedure incorporates a device to aid drainage. Identify the device. (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ex-Press™ implant", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ahmed glaucoma valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Molteno implant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Baerveldt implant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ex-Press™ implant", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-128.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ex-Press™ implant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ex-Press™ glaucoma implant is a minimally invasive device used during modified trabeculectomy to enhance aqueous drainage and reduce intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma. This implant is characterized by its stainless-steel construction and effectiveness in controlling glaucoma with fewer hypotony-related complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55 yr old man is found to have hepatomegaly on physical examination. He also complains of dark tan despite avoiding sun exposure. His liver microscopy is given on the slide below. This patient most likely suffers from: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wilson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autoimmune hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemochromatosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hemochromatosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/3_UPDK5Dj.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/4_5zZChi4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hemochromatosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemochromatosis is characterized by excessive iron deposition in the liver and other organs, which can be confirmed by the distinct staining patterns seen in liver biopsy samples.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the first line of treatment of mastitis in a lactating mother? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dicloxacillin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cefazolin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ampicillin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dicloxacillin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dicloxacillin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Beta-lactamase-resistant penicillins are recommended in the treatment of mastitis. These include cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, or flucloxacillin. Erythromycin is given to women who are penicillin-sensitive. Dicloxacillin is often the first choice due to its effectiveness against the common causative organism, Staphylococcus aureus.</li><li>• Puerperal Mastitis:</li><li>• Puerperal Mastitis:</li><li>• Definition: Mastitis is an inflammatory condition of the breast that may occur in breastfeeding women during the puerperium. Pathogenesis: Infants are inoculated by personnel carrying S. aureus and transmit the bacteria to the breastfeeding mother through the nasopharynx. Risk Factors: Maternal age &gt; 30 years Maternal fatigue and stress Sores and cracked nipples History of mastitis after a previous pregnancy Breast engorgement, blocked lactiferous ducts, and milk stasis Etiology: Most cases of mastitis result from infection with S. aureus. Other organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, β-hemolytic streptococci, Streptococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli, and other bacteria such as Enterobacter cloacae, Pseudomonas picetti, and Haemophilus influenzae. Diagnosis: Maternal fever (100.4°F or higher) Chills, myalgia, malaise Breast tenderness with associated erythema, usually unilateral Segmental erythema on the breast, typically in the upper, outer quadrant, with variable degrees of induration Palpable, fluctuant mass suggesting a breast abscess should prompt immediate breast ultrasound Milk may be expressed for leukocyte and bacterial counts, though this is not recommended for diagnosing uncomplicated mastitis Treatment: Antibiotics: Dicloxacillin, amoxicillin, or nafcillin, or a first-generation cephalosporin Penicillin Allergy: Erythromycin or vancomycin Duration: Antibiotic therapy should be continued for 10 to 14 days to avoid resistant organisms Breastfeeding: Women should continue breastfeeding, initiating feeds on the unaffected breast and changing the infant's position at different feeds to prevent the development of a breast abscess Symptomatic Relief: Analgesics like ibuprofen or acetaminophen, increased fluid intake, adequate nutrition, cold or warm compresses, and breast support should be provided</li><li>• Definition: Mastitis is an inflammatory condition of the breast that may occur in breastfeeding women during the puerperium.</li><li>• Definition:</li><li>• Pathogenesis: Infants are inoculated by personnel carrying S. aureus and transmit the bacteria to the breastfeeding mother through the nasopharynx.</li><li>• Pathogenesis:</li><li>• Risk Factors: Maternal age &gt; 30 years Maternal fatigue and stress Sores and cracked nipples History of mastitis after a previous pregnancy Breast engorgement, blocked lactiferous ducts, and milk stasis</li><li>• Risk Factors:</li><li>• Maternal age &gt; 30 years Maternal fatigue and stress Sores and cracked nipples History of mastitis after a previous pregnancy Breast engorgement, blocked lactiferous ducts, and milk stasis</li><li>• Maternal age &gt; 30 years</li><li>• Maternal fatigue and stress</li><li>• Sores and cracked nipples</li><li>• History of mastitis after a previous pregnancy</li><li>• Breast engorgement, blocked lactiferous ducts, and milk stasis</li><li>• Etiology: Most cases of mastitis result from infection with S. aureus. Other organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, β-hemolytic streptococci, Streptococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli, and other bacteria such as Enterobacter cloacae, Pseudomonas picetti, and Haemophilus influenzae.</li><li>• Etiology:</li><li>• Most cases of mastitis result from infection with S. aureus. Other organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, β-hemolytic streptococci, Streptococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli, and other bacteria such as Enterobacter cloacae, Pseudomonas picetti, and Haemophilus influenzae.</li><li>• Most cases of mastitis result from infection with S. aureus.</li><li>• Other organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, β-hemolytic streptococci, Streptococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli, and other bacteria such as Enterobacter cloacae, Pseudomonas picetti, and Haemophilus influenzae.</li><li>• Diagnosis: Maternal fever (100.4°F or higher) Chills, myalgia, malaise Breast tenderness with associated erythema, usually unilateral Segmental erythema on the breast, typically in the upper, outer quadrant, with variable degrees of induration Palpable, fluctuant mass suggesting a breast abscess should prompt immediate breast ultrasound Milk may be expressed for leukocyte and bacterial counts, though this is not recommended for diagnosing uncomplicated mastitis</li><li>• Diagnosis:</li><li>• Maternal fever (100.4°F or higher) Chills, myalgia, malaise Breast tenderness with associated erythema, usually unilateral Segmental erythema on the breast, typically in the upper, outer quadrant, with variable degrees of induration Palpable, fluctuant mass suggesting a breast abscess should prompt immediate breast ultrasound Milk may be expressed for leukocyte and bacterial counts, though this is not recommended for diagnosing uncomplicated mastitis</li><li>• Maternal fever (100.4°F or higher)</li><li>• Chills, myalgia, malaise</li><li>• Breast tenderness with associated erythema, usually unilateral</li><li>• Segmental erythema on the breast, typically in the upper, outer quadrant, with variable degrees of induration</li><li>• Palpable, fluctuant mass suggesting a breast abscess should prompt immediate breast ultrasound</li><li>• Milk may be expressed for leukocyte and bacterial counts, though this is not recommended for diagnosing uncomplicated mastitis</li><li>• Treatment: Antibiotics: Dicloxacillin, amoxicillin, or nafcillin, or a first-generation cephalosporin Penicillin Allergy: Erythromycin or vancomycin Duration: Antibiotic therapy should be continued for 10 to 14 days to avoid resistant organisms Breastfeeding: Women should continue breastfeeding, initiating feeds on the unaffected breast and changing the infant's position at different feeds to prevent the development of a breast abscess Symptomatic Relief: Analgesics like ibuprofen or acetaminophen, increased fluid intake, adequate nutrition, cold or warm compresses, and breast support should be provided</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Antibiotics: Dicloxacillin, amoxicillin, or nafcillin, or a first-generation cephalosporin Penicillin Allergy: Erythromycin or vancomycin Duration: Antibiotic therapy should be continued for 10 to 14 days to avoid resistant organisms Breastfeeding: Women should continue breastfeeding, initiating feeds on the unaffected breast and changing the infant's position at different feeds to prevent the development of a breast abscess Symptomatic Relief: Analgesics like ibuprofen or acetaminophen, increased fluid intake, adequate nutrition, cold or warm compresses, and breast support should be provided</li><li>• Antibiotics: Dicloxacillin, amoxicillin, or nafcillin, or a first-generation cephalosporin</li><li>• Antibiotics:</li><li>• Penicillin Allergy: Erythromycin or vancomycin</li><li>• Penicillin Allergy:</li><li>• Duration: Antibiotic therapy should be continued for 10 to 14 days to avoid resistant organisms</li><li>• Duration:</li><li>• Breastfeeding: Women should continue breastfeeding, initiating feeds on the unaffected breast and changing the infant's position at different feeds to prevent the development of a breast abscess</li><li>• Breastfeeding:</li><li>• Symptomatic Relief: Analgesics like ibuprofen or acetaminophen, increased fluid intake, adequate nutrition, cold or warm compresses, and breast support should be provided</li><li>• Symptomatic Relief:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Cefazolin: While cefazolin is a cephalosporin and can be effective, it is not the first-line treatment compared to dicloxacillin for mastitis.</li><li>• Option B. Cefazolin:</li><li>• Option C. Ceftriaxone: Ceftriaxone is typically used for more severe infections and is not the first-line treatment for mastitis.</li><li>• Option C. Ceftriaxone:</li><li>• Option D. Ampicillin: Ampicillin may be used but is not as effective as dicloxacillin for treating Staphylococcus aureus infections in mastitis.</li><li>• Option D. Ampicillin:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dicloxacillin is the first-line treatment for mastitis in lactating mothers, especially effective against Staphylococcus aureus.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.glowm.com/section-view/heading/Puerperal%20Mastitis/item/142</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.glowm.com/section-view/heading/Puerperal%20Mastitis/item/142</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. Seth recently underwent surgery to remove a parathyroid gland due to hyperparathyroidism. The surgeon informed the patient that one or more of the parathyroid glands may be transferred to another location during the surgery to protect them or due to their location. The parathyroid is commonly transferred to? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Triceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sartorius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brachioradialis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Brachioradialis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Brachioradialis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most common site for the relocation of the parathyroid gland(s) is in the forearm muscle, specifically the nondominant side brachioradialis. Transplantation to this location provides several advantages:</li><li>• Accessibility : The forearm location is easily accessible for potential future surgical interventions if necessary. Monitoring : This location allows for straightforward monitoring of parathyroid function using simple clinical tests. Functionality : The transplanted gland(s) will continue to produce parathyroid hormone normally, aiding in the regulation of calcium levels in the body. Ease of Removal : If there is disease recurrence after surgery, the forearm location facilitates easy removal. Typically, a total of 12 to 14 pieces are transplanted in a type of heterotopic transplant.</li><li>• Accessibility : The forearm location is easily accessible for potential future surgical interventions if necessary.</li><li>• Accessibility</li><li>• Monitoring : This location allows for straightforward monitoring of parathyroid function using simple clinical tests.</li><li>• Monitoring</li><li>• Functionality : The transplanted gland(s) will continue to produce parathyroid hormone normally, aiding in the regulation of calcium levels in the body.</li><li>• Functionality</li><li>• Ease of Removal : If there is disease recurrence after surgery, the forearm location facilitates easy removal.</li><li>• Ease of Removal</li><li>• Typically, a total of 12 to 14 pieces are transplanted in a type of heterotopic transplant.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Triceps: Triceps is not a preferred site for parathyroid transplantation due to less accessibility and monitoring challenges compared to the brachioradialis.</li><li>• Option A. Triceps:</li><li>• Option B. Biceps: Biceps is also not commonly used for parathyroid transplantation because it does not offer the same ease of access and monitoring advantages as the brachioradialis.</li><li>• Option B. Biceps:</li><li>• Option C. Sartorius: Sartorius is not a preferred site for parathyroid transplantation. The forearm muscle (brachioradialis) is favored for its convenience and monitoring benefits.</li><li>• Option C. Sartorius:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The brachioradialis muscle in the forearm is the most common site for parathyroid gland relocation during surgery due to its ease of access, convenient monitoring, and straightforward removal if needed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the true statement from the following about battered baby syndrome? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skin lesions and bruises of various ages are seen on the body", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It occurs due to the tendency of a child to fall repeatedly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stab wounds are obvious", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The syndrome is a result of gun injuries", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Skin lesions and bruises of various ages are seen on the body", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Skin lesions and bruises of various ages are seen on the body</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Battered child syndrome is characterized by the presence of skin lesions and bruises of different ages, indicating repeated and ongoing physical abuse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby was born at 34 weeks of pregnancy; the appearance of the baby is given below. What is the mother suffering from? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gestational diabetes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gestational hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gestational diabetes", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/picture7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gestational diabetes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a large for gestational age (LGA) fetus. Macrosomia is a condition where a newborn baby is significantly larger than average. This can often be identified by a higher birth weight and size compared to typical babies born at the same gestational age.</li><li>• Causes of Macrosomia:</li><li>• Causes of Macrosomia:</li><li>• Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and Overt Diabetes Mellitus: Maternal hyperglycemia leads to fetal hyperglycemia, which stimulates insulin production in the fetus. Insulin acts as a growth hormone, leading to increased fetal growth and fat deposition. Maternal Obesity: Increased maternal body mass index (BMI) is associated with a higher risk of delivering a macrosomic baby. Previous Baby with Macrosomia: A history of delivering a large baby increases the risk of subsequent babies also being large. Post-term Pregnancy: Pregnancy extending beyond the due date increases the chance of the baby growing larger. Excessive Weight Gain in Pregnancy: Significant maternal weight gain during pregnancy contributes to larger fetal size.</li><li>• Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and Overt Diabetes Mellitus: Maternal hyperglycemia leads to fetal hyperglycemia, which stimulates insulin production in the fetus. Insulin acts as a growth hormone, leading to increased fetal growth and fat deposition.</li><li>• Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and Overt Diabetes Mellitus:</li><li>• Maternal hyperglycemia leads to fetal hyperglycemia, which stimulates insulin production in the fetus. Insulin acts as a growth hormone, leading to increased fetal growth and fat deposition.</li><li>• Maternal hyperglycemia leads to fetal hyperglycemia, which stimulates insulin production in the fetus. Insulin acts as a growth hormone, leading to increased fetal growth and fat deposition.</li><li>• Maternal Obesity: Increased maternal body mass index (BMI) is associated with a higher risk of delivering a macrosomic baby.</li><li>• Maternal Obesity:</li><li>• Increased maternal body mass index (BMI) is associated with a higher risk of delivering a macrosomic baby.</li><li>• Increased maternal body mass index (BMI) is associated with a higher risk of delivering a macrosomic baby.</li><li>• Previous Baby with Macrosomia: A history of delivering a large baby increases the risk of subsequent babies also being large.</li><li>• Previous Baby with Macrosomia:</li><li>• A history of delivering a large baby increases the risk of subsequent babies also being large.</li><li>• A history of delivering a large baby increases the risk of subsequent babies also being large.</li><li>• Post-term Pregnancy: Pregnancy extending beyond the due date increases the chance of the baby growing larger.</li><li>• Post-term Pregnancy:</li><li>• Pregnancy extending beyond the due date increases the chance of the baby growing larger.</li><li>• Pregnancy extending beyond the due date increases the chance of the baby growing larger.</li><li>• Excessive Weight Gain in Pregnancy: Significant maternal weight gain during pregnancy contributes to larger fetal size.</li><li>• Excessive Weight Gain in Pregnancy:</li><li>• Significant maternal weight gain during pregnancy contributes to larger fetal size.</li><li>• Significant maternal weight gain during pregnancy contributes to larger fetal size.</li><li>• Conditions Not Associated with Macrosomia:</li><li>• Conditions Not Associated with Macrosomia:</li><li>• Anemia and Antepartum Hemorrhage (APH): These conditions are typically associated with fetal growth restriction rather than macrosomia. Thrombocytopenia: This condition has no direct association with fetal weight.</li><li>• Anemia and Antepartum Hemorrhage (APH): These conditions are typically associated with fetal growth restriction rather than macrosomia.</li><li>• Anemia and Antepartum Hemorrhage (APH):</li><li>• Thrombocytopenia: This condition has no direct association with fetal weight.</li><li>• Thrombocytopenia:</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Rubella: Rubella infection during pregnancy can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which is typically associated with intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), not macrosomia.</li><li>• Option B. Rubella:</li><li>• Option C. Hypothyroidism: Maternal hypothyroidism can lead to complications such as preterm birth and low birth weight but is not directly linked to macrosomia.</li><li>• Option C. Hypothyroidism:</li><li>• Option D. Gestational Hypertension: Gestational hypertension is associated with IUGR and preterm birth rather than increased fetal size.</li><li>• Option D. Gestational Hypertension:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gestational diabetes is a significant risk factor for macrosomia, leading to the birth of large for gestational age (LGA) babies.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2169, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2169, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A veterinarian developed an ulcer with central black eschar over the forearm as shown in the image. Which of the following is the most probable causative organism? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yersinia pestis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacillus anthracis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Francisella tularensis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bacillus anthracis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_av1PUvn.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bacillus anthracis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cutaneous anthrax is characterized by the initial appearance of a small pimple that quickly turns into a painless ulcer with a necrotic (black) eschar at the center. This presentation is typical for individuals who have been in contact with infected animals or animal products, which is common in the veterinary profession.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Robert Koch validated the germ theory of disease after discovering the anthrax bacillus as the cause of anthrax. He also discovered the causative agents of tuberculosis and cholera. Hence, he is Known as the Father of Bacteriology.</li><li>➤ Koch's postulates , which link specific microorganisms to specific diseases, state that the microorganism must be:</li><li>➤ Koch's postulates</li><li>➤ Found in abundance in diseased organisms, but not in healthy organisms. Isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture Able to cause disease when inoculated into a healthy organism Re-isolated from the diseased experimental host and identical to the original specific causative agent</li><li>➤ Found in abundance in diseased organisms, but not in healthy organisms.</li><li>➤ Isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture</li><li>➤ Able to cause disease when inoculated into a healthy organism</li><li>➤ Re-isolated from the diseased experimental host and identical to the original specific causative agent</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The production of which of the following hormones is increased in obesity? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Growth hormone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adiponectin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Insulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Insulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In obesity, insulin resistance occurring due defect at receptors which causes compensatory hyperinsulinemia. Thyroxine, growth hormone, and adiponectin have lipolytic effects, hence, their levels are reduced in obesity.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Obesity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Molecular defect causing liver disease in Dubin-Johnson syndrome is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ATP7A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ATP7B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ABCC2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "SERPINA 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ABCC2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ABCC2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The molecular defect causing liver disease in Dubin-Johnson syndrome is in the ABCC2 gene, which encodes for a canalicular protein involved in the excretion of conjugated bilirubin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Liver synthesizes all of the following except:(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coagulation factors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute phase proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immunoglobulins", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Immunoglobulins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Immunoglobulins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Immunoglobulins are produced by plasma cells.</li><li>• Essentially all the albumin and fibrinogen of the plasma proteins, as well as 50 to 80 per cent of the globulins, are formed in the liver. The remainder of the globulins are formed almost entirely in the lymphoid tissues. They are mainly the gamma globulins that constitute the antibodies used in the immune system.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Albumin : Exclusion, as albumin is a major protein synthesized by the liver, which is the most abundant protein in plasma, playing crucial roles in maintaining osmotic pressure and transporting substances such as drugs and hormones.</li><li>• Option A. Albumin</li><li>• Option B. Coagulation factors : Exclusion, as these are primarily produced by the liver, including factors such as prothrombin and fibrinogen.</li><li>• Option B. Coagulation factors</li><li>• Option C. Acute phase proteins : Exclusion, as the liver significantly ramps up production of these proteins in response to inflammation or infection (like C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum amyloid A (SAA), which play roles in modulating the immune response and inflammation).</li><li>• Option C. Acute phase proteins</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Common plasma proteins synthesized by the liver are:</li><li>➤ Albumin Coagulation/clotting factors Acute-phase proteins Steroid binding and other hormone-binding proteins</li><li>➤ Albumin</li><li>➤ Coagulation/clotting factors</li><li>➤ Acute-phase proteins</li><li>➤ Steroid binding and other hormone-binding proteins</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a part of revised trauma score (RTS)?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glasgow coma scale", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systolic blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulse rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pulse rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/screenshot-2023-09-25-132959.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pulse rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Revised Trauma Score (RTS) includes the Glasgow Coma Scale, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate, but does not include pulse rate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms follow a bird-arthropod-human transmission route? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Japanese encephalitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plague", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paragonimiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Japanese encephalitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Japanese encephalitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The transmission cycles of diseases like Japanese encephalitis is crucial for implementing effective public health measures. In the case of JE, controlling mosquito populations and minimizing human exposure to mosquito bites, especially in areas where birds are present, are key strategies in preventing the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True statement about teduglutide is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a GLP- 2 analogue", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Its half-life is 6 - 8 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is administered orally", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is recommended for patients with colorectal cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is a GLP- 2 analogue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is a GLP- 2 analogue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Teduglutide is a GLP-2 analogue used to treat short bowel syndrome. It is administered via subcutaneous injection and has a half-life of about 2 hours. It is not recommended for patients with colorectal cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Osborn waves in ECG are seen in: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypothermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypothermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/picture3_XRys82B.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hypothermia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ J-wave or Osborn wave is seen in cases of moderate or severe hypothermia due to increase in the epicardial potassium current relative to that of endocardium during ventricular repolarization.</li><li>➤ moderate or severe hypothermia</li><li>➤ increase in the epicardial potassium current</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "John, a 55-year-old man, visits his primary care physician due to progressively worsening symptoms of difficulty swallowing and chest pain over the past few weeks. The physician refers John for an esophageal endoscopy to investigate the cause of his symptoms. During the endoscopy, the gastroenterologist observes serpiginous ulcers in John's esophagus. What is the likely diagnosis indicated by these findings?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CMV esophagitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Candida esophagitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpetic esophagitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiation esophagitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CMV esophagitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. CMV esophagitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• CMV (Cytomegalovirus) esophagitis is an infection of the esophagus caused by the Cytomegalovirus. It predominantly affects immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS or transplant recipients. The characteristic endoscopic finding in CMV esophagitis is the presence of large, linear or serpiginous (snake-like) ulcers, often located in the distal esophagus. These ulcers typically have well-defined edges and are surrounded by relatively normal mucosa, which helps to differentiate them from other types of esophagitis.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Candida Esophagitis: Candida esophagitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species, most commonly Candida albicans. It is common in immunocompromised patients or those on prolonged antibiotics or inhaled steroids. Endoscopic findings typically show white-yellow plaques or patches that can be scraped off, often described as having a \"cottage cheese-like\" appearance, rather than serpiginous ulcers.</li><li>• Option B. Candida Esophagitis:</li><li>• Option C. Herpetic Esophagitis: Herpetic esophagitis is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and can affect both immunocompromised and immunocompetent individuals. It is characterized by odynophagia (painful swallowing) and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Endoscopically, herpetic esophagitis usually presents with small, well-circumscribed ulcers that resemble \"volcano-like\" or \"punched-out\" lesions, which are different from the serpiginous ulcers seen in CMV esophagitis.</li><li>• Option C. Herpetic Esophagitis:</li><li>• Option D. Radiation Esophagitis: Radiation esophagitis is a side effect of radiation therapy, particularly for cancers in the chest area, such as lung cancer. It manifests with symptoms like pain, difficulty swallowing, and a sensation of something stuck in the throat. Endoscopic findings may include mucosal redness, swelling, and non-specific ulcerations, but not the distinct serpiginous ulcers typical of CMV esophagitis.</li><li>• Option D. Radiation Esophagitis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serpiginous ulcers in the esophagus observed during endoscopy are characteristic of CMV esophagitis, especially in immunocompromised patients. This feature helps differentiate it from other forms of esophagitis such as Candida, herpetic, and radiation-induced esophagitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the fibres in the image given below? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Short association", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Long association", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Projection", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Commissural", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Projection", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-900.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-161920.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-194144.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Projection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman with a fibroid uterus develops severe acute pain abdomen at 28 weeks of gestation. There is no history of fever. WBC count is 8000cells/µl. The most likely diagnosis is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red degeneration of fibroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Preterm labor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Torsion of fibroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Red degeneration of fibroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Red degeneration of fibroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Red degeneration - occurs mostly in pregnancy. Due to thrombosis of capsular veins.</li><li>• Red degeneration</li><li>• Patient presents with tense, tender abdomen with fever. After excluding other obstetric complications (e.g.- abruption, appendicitis, twisted ovarian cyst, pyelitis) Treatment: Symptomatic - hydration, rest and analgesia Surgical management AVOIDED</li><li>• Patient presents with tense, tender abdomen with fever.</li><li>• After excluding other obstetric complications (e.g.- abruption, appendicitis, twisted ovarian cyst, pyelitis)</li><li>• Treatment: Symptomatic - hydration, rest and analgesia</li><li>• Surgical management AVOIDED</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pre-term labor : This is unlikely, as in preterm labor, the pain isn’t acute severe. It will be increasing in intensity and frequency and occurring at regular intervals. Preterm labor is also associated with cervical dilatation and effacement</li><li>• Option B. Pre-term labor</li><li>• Option C. Torsion of Fibroid : This can happen in a pedunculated subserous fibroid but is quite a rare occurrence, It will be additionally associated with vomiting and will require surgical management</li><li>• Option C. Torsion of Fibroid</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Red degeneration of fibroid during pregnancy presents with acute severe pain, and symptomatic treatment is the primary approach, avoiding surgical intervention.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 275, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gyn 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 275, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gyn 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding mitochondrial genome?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maternal inheritance", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low rate of mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Single stranded DNA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paternal inheritance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Maternal inheritance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Maternal inheritance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial DNA and RNA:</li><li>➤ Mitochondrial DNA and RNA:</li><li>➤ There is a dichotomy on the mitochondrial metabolism. Some of the mitochondrial protein synthesis is under the control of mitochondrial DNA; but important proteins of the outer membrane of the mitochondria are synthesized under the influence of nuclear DNA. The mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is circular , has about 16,500 nucleotides . The mtDNA has information for synthesis of 2 ribosomal RNAs, 22 tRNAs and 13 proteins . All of them are components of electron transport chain. It has 37 genes that encode 13 protein subunits of the respiratory chain (total of 67 i.e., about 20%). However, most of mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear DNA and synthesized in the cytoplasm. Maternal inheritance: Since, the mitochondria are inherited cytoplasmically, the mtDNA is inherited from the mother. Mother transmits mtDNA through oocyte. There are hundreds of copies of mtDNA in each cell (nuclear DNA has only 2 copies). Heteroplasmy is defined as the presence of normal and mutant mtDNA in different proportions in different cells. During cell division, mtDNA replicates and they segregate to the daughter cells. If a mutation occurs in mtDNA, the daughter cells may inherit the mutant or normal mtDNA . High mutation rate: 5-10 times that of nuclear DNA Age-related accumulation of mutations in mtDNA may be responsible for age-related decrease in cellular OXPHOS function, and progression of other degenerative diseases. Defects in mitochondrial genome will lead to mitochondrial myopathies .</li><li>➤ There is a dichotomy on the mitochondrial metabolism. Some of the mitochondrial protein synthesis is under the control of mitochondrial DNA; but important proteins of the outer membrane of the mitochondria are synthesized under the influence of nuclear DNA.</li><li>➤ important proteins of the outer membrane of the mitochondria are synthesized under the influence of nuclear DNA.</li><li>➤ The mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is circular , has about 16,500 nucleotides . The mtDNA has information for synthesis of 2 ribosomal RNAs, 22 tRNAs and 13 proteins . All of them are components of electron transport chain. It has 37 genes that encode 13 protein subunits of the respiratory chain (total of 67 i.e., about 20%). However, most of mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear DNA and synthesized in the cytoplasm.</li><li>➤ mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is circular</li><li>➤ 16,500 nucleotides</li><li>➤ 22 tRNAs</li><li>➤ 13 proteins</li><li>➤ about 20%).</li><li>➤ Maternal inheritance: Since, the mitochondria are inherited cytoplasmically, the mtDNA is inherited from the mother. Mother transmits mtDNA through oocyte.</li><li>➤ There are hundreds of copies of mtDNA in each cell (nuclear DNA has only 2 copies).</li><li>➤ Heteroplasmy is defined as the presence of normal and mutant mtDNA in different proportions in different cells. During cell division, mtDNA replicates and they segregate to the daughter cells. If a mutation occurs in mtDNA, the daughter cells may inherit the mutant or normal mtDNA .</li><li>➤ Heteroplasmy</li><li>➤ If a mutation occurs in mtDNA, the daughter cells may inherit the mutant or normal mtDNA</li><li>➤ High mutation rate: 5-10 times that of nuclear DNA</li><li>➤ 5-10 times</li><li>➤ Age-related accumulation of mutations in mtDNA may be responsible for age-related decrease in cellular OXPHOS function, and progression of other degenerative diseases.</li><li>➤ Defects in mitochondrial genome will lead to mitochondrial myopathies .</li><li>➤ mitochondrial myopathies</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of virus is rubella? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flavivirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Togavirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paramyxovirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Orthomyxovirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Togavirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Togavirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rubella, commonly known as German measles, is caused by a virus that belongs to the Togaviridae family, specifically the genus Rubivirus. This virus is typically transmitted via respiratory droplets and primarily causes a mild infection characterized by a rash, low fever, and swollen glands. However, its most significant health impact occurs when a pregnant woman is infected, particularly in the first trimester, leading to congenital rubella syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Major contributor for amniotic fluid post 20 weeks is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fetal urine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fetal lung fluid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maternal plasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fetal urine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-74.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fetal urine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Fetal urine production begins from 8-11 weeks period of gestation In the first trimester, amniotic fluid is generally composed of extracellular fluid secreted across the amnion via trans membranous flow; across the fetal vessels on placental surface via intramembranous flow; and via transcutaneous flow across fetal skin. Fetal urine is the major contributor for amniotic fluid post 20 weeks.</li><li>• Fetal urine production begins from 8-11 weeks period of gestation</li><li>• In the first trimester, amniotic fluid is generally composed of extracellular fluid secreted across the amnion via trans membranous flow; across the fetal vessels on placental surface via intramembranous flow; and via transcutaneous flow across fetal skin.</li><li>• Fetal urine is the major contributor for amniotic fluid post 20 weeks.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Fetal skin: While fetal skin does contribute to amniotic fluid in the first trimester through transcutaneous flow, it is not the major contributor post 20 weeks.</li><li>• Option B. Fetal skin:</li><li>• Option C. Fetal lung fluid: Fetal lung fluid contributes to the amniotic fluid but not as significantly as fetal urine post 20 weeks.</li><li>• Option C. Fetal lung fluid:</li><li>• Option D. Maternal plasma: Maternal plasma contributes indirectly to amniotic fluid via transmembranous flow, but it is not the major contributor post 20 weeks.</li><li>• Option D. Maternal plasma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fetal urine is the major contributor to amniotic fluid volume post 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 34, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 34, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old female patient is brought to the ER in a state of unconsciousness. Her BP is 70/50 mm of Hg and her ECG is shown below. What is the next best step in the management of her condition? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV verapamil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV adenosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carotid massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Synchronized cardioversion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Synchronized cardioversion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-144116.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-110009.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Synchronized cardioversion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are true about Barrett esophagus except: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complication of chronic GERD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seen in 10% of individuals with symptomatic GERD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increases risk of squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intestinal metaplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Increases risk of squamous cell carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/8_Vq7IZ64.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Increases risk of squamous cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Barrett’s esophagus increases the risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma due to the transformation of squamous cells to columnar cells, not squamous cell carcinoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition given in the image: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pityriasis rotunda", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dermatomyositis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acanthosis nigricans", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acanthosis nigricans", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1331.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-194248.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/27/screenshot-2023-09-27-194249.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Acanthosis nigricans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th edition Chapter 147, Page nos 147.14-147.15</li><li>↳ Williams Gynecology 3rd edition Page no 391</li><li>↳ Williams Gynecology 3rd edition Page no 391</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old patient with end-stage renal disease is scheduled to receive a kidney transplant from his son who is a compatible donor. What is this type of transplant known as?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Allograft", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Xenograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isograft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Allograft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Allograft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An allograft is a transplantation of tissue or an organ from one individual to another of the same species but with different genetic makeup. In this scenario, the kidney transplant from a son to his father is an example of an allograft because they are both human but genetically different individuals.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Autograft : An autograft is a transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another part of the same individual. Examples include skin grafts taken from one area of the body to treat burns in another area.</li><li>• Option A. Autograft</li><li>• Option C. Xenograft : A xenograft involves the transplantation of tissue or organs from one species to another. This type of transplant is not common in clinical practice due to the high risk of immune rejection and other complications. An example would be a pig heart valve transplanted into a human.</li><li>• Option C. Xenograft</li><li>• Option D. Isograft : An isograft is a transplantation of tissue or organs between two genetically identical individuals, such as identical twins. This type of transplant is also known as a syngeneic transplant and has the advantage of minimal risk of immune rejection due to the genetic identity between the donor and the recipient.</li><li>• Option D. Isograft</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A kidney transplant from a son to his father is classified as an allograft because it involves the transfer of an organ between two genetically different individuals of the same species.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inherited defect in PIG-A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extravascular hemolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deficiency of CD 55 and CD 59", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microcytic anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Deficiency of CD 55 and CD 59", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Deficiency of CD 55 and CD 59</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The true hallmark of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is the deficiency of CD55 and CD59 on the surface of blood cells, leading to increased vulnerability to lysis by the complement system and resulting in intravascular hemolysis. This understanding is critical for the correct diagnosis and management of PNH.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/PNH/Chapter 100</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which did not subside even after 3 weeks of birth, was observed in a neonate. On investigating, liver enzymes, PT/INR and albumin levels were normal. No hemolysis was seen on a peripheral blood smear. A drop in bilirubin level was observed within a week after treatment with phenobarbital. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rotor syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crigler Najjar type 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dubin Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crigler Najjar type 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Crigler Najjar type 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-06-16%20164800.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Crigler Najjar type 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Crigler-Najjar type 2 presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia that responds to phenobarbital, distinguishing it from other forms of hereditary hyperbilirubinemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about fever? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin increases fever by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PGI2 is responsible for resetting the temperature to a higher level", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IL-1 is an endogenous pyrogen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fever occurs during inflammation due to release of histamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IL-1 is an endogenous pyrogen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/13_dQw3LXs.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) IL-1 is an endogenous pyrogen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a dietary fiber? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cellulose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pectin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Milk", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Milk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/untitled-987.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Milk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Major components of dietary fiber are cellulose, hemicelluloses, D-glucans, pectin, lignin and gums. Cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin are partially degradable, while other components are indigestible. Dietary fiber also contains minerals, antioxidants and other chemicals that are useful for health.</li><li>• Sources of dietary fiber are fruits, vegetables, cereals, bread and wheat grain (particularly its outer layer).</li><li>• Diet with high dietary fiber has health benefits since dietary fiber:</li><li>• Delays emptying of stomach Increases formation of bulk and soft feces and eases defecation Contains substances such as antioxidants and other useful substances</li><li>• Delays emptying of stomach</li><li>• Increases formation of bulk and soft feces and eases defecation</li><li>• Contains substances such as antioxidants and other useful substances</li><li>• Diet with high fiber content tends to be low in energy and it may be useful in reducing the body weight.</li><li>• Some components of dietary fiber also reduce blood cholesterol level and thereby decrease the risk for coronary heart disease and gallstones.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cellulose : A primary form of dietary fiber found in the cell walls of plants.</li><li>• Option A. Cellulose</li><li>• Option B. Inulin : A type of soluble fiber found in many plants, used by some as a prebiotic to promote gut health.</li><li>• Option B. Inulin</li><li>• Option C. Pectin : Another soluble fiber, pectin is commonly found in fruits and used to help gel liquids, also aiding in digestion and cholesterol reduction.</li><li>• Option C. Pectin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which neurotransmitter is responsible for anterograde dilatation of the small intestine?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "VIP", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acetylcholine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Substance P", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serotonin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. VIP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/674.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. VIP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• VIP is responsible for anterograde dilatation of the small intestine.</li><li>• During peristalsis, segment of intestine behind the bolus contracts while segment in front of it relaxes.</li><li>• Cholinergic neurons in the anterograde direction produce NO and VIP which cause relaxes the segment of the intestine in front of the bolus.</li><li>• Cholinergic neurons in the retrograde direction produce substance P and acetylcholine which contracts the segment of the intestine behind the bolus.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Acetylcholine : Incorrect as acetylcholine is involved in the contraction of the intestinal segment behind the bolus, not in the dilatation.</li><li>• Option B. Acetylcholine</li><li>• Option C. Substance P : Incorrect because it also contributes to the contraction of the intestinal muscles behind the bolus.</li><li>• Option C. Substance P</li><li>• Option D. Serotonin : Incorrect as serotonin is involved in overall motility and secretion within the gut but not specifically in anterograde dilatation as described here.</li><li>• Option D. Serotonin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ VIP is crucial for the anterograde dilatation of the small intestine, promoting the relaxation of the intestinal segment ahead of the bolus during peristalsis, thereby facilitating the forward movement of intestinal contents.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which joint allows for the side-to-side movement of the head, enabling a person to look to the right and left?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atlanto-occipital", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atlanto-axial", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C2-C3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C3-C4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atlanto-axial", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-896.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Atlanto-axial</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atlanto-axial joint is formed between the first cervical vertebra (the atlas or C1) and the second cervical vertebra (the axis or C2). The dens or odontoid process, fits into the atlas, allowing for a pivot-like rotation. This is the joint responsible for allowing the rotation of the head from side to side, as in signaling \"no\" or looking right and left. It provides the majority of the rotational capability of the head.</li><li>➤ Atlanto-axial joint</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not used as an immediate test in the screening of urinary tract infections (UTI)? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pour plate culture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Griess Nitrite test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leukocyte esterase test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wet mount examination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pour plate culture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pour plate culture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The screening tests for UTI are as follows:</li><li>➤ The screening tests for UTI are as follows:</li><li>➤ Wet mount examination: It is done to demonstrate pus cells in urine. Leukocyte esterase test: It is a rapid and cheaper method, and detects leukocyte esterases secreted by pus cells present in urine. Nitrate reduction test (Griess test): Nitrate reducing bacteria like E. coli give a positive result. Catalase test: E. coli and other bacteria that produce the enzyme catalase give a positive result.</li><li>➤ Wet mount examination: It is done to demonstrate pus cells in urine.</li><li>➤ Leukocyte esterase test: It is a rapid and cheaper method, and detects leukocyte esterases secreted by pus cells present in urine.</li><li>➤ Nitrate reduction test (Griess test): Nitrate reducing bacteria like E. coli give a positive result.</li><li>➤ Catalase test: E. coli and other bacteria that produce the enzyme catalase give a positive result.</li><li>➤ Quantitative Culture:</li><li>➤ Standardized loop technique Pour plate method</li><li>➤ Standardized loop technique</li><li>➤ Pour plate method</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the test being shown below: NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obscure test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prism test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cover-uncover test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maddox rod test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cover-uncover test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-130.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-131.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/whatsapp-image-2023-11-08-at-170628-1.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cover-uncover test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cover-uncover test is a simple and effective method to detect and diagnose latent and manifest deviations of the eyes by observing the movement of the uncovered eye during fixation on a target.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-year-old boy has swelling of knee joints and non-blanching rashes as seen in the picture. Urine exam reveals haematuria +++ and proteinuria +. Platelet levels are normal. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Henoch Schonlein purpura (HSP)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Henoch Schonlein purpura (HSP)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/12/screenshot-2023-04-12-173554.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture133.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Henoch Schonlein purpura (HSP)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is characterized by a purpuric rash, arthritis, abdominal pain, and renal complications such as hematuria and proteinuria, typically following the rash development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is used as an anti-smoking agent? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Busulfan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acamprosate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Varenicline", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gabapentin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Varenicline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Varenicline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Varenicline is a partial agonist at α4β2 &amp; α7 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. As a partial agonist it prevents high and reinforcement and also controls craving and withdrawal due to tobacco use. It is the most effective agent for tobacco use disorders.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry, 14th edition, Page No 505.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false regarding accommodative esotropia? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is the most common type of squint.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Miotics are used as the treatment strategy in the high AC/A ratio.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is associated with high myopia.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Refractive type can be fully corrected by use of spectacles.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is associated with high myopia.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-163352.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. It is associated with high myopia.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Accommodative esotropia, the most common type of squint, is associated with high hypermetropia and can often be fully corrected by spectacles. It is not associated with high myopia. Different treatment strategies, including the use of spectacles and bifocals, depend on the specific type and underlying cause of the esotropia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Pott's puffy tumor is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subperiosteal abscess of ethmoid bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucocele of frontal bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucocele of ethmoid bone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-153538.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pott's puffy tumor is a severe and rare complication of frontal sinusitis, presenting with distinctive forehead swelling and potentially grave complications. Prompt diagnosis and comprehensive treatment are crucial to prevent further spread of infection and ensure recovery.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 224</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 224</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Inspiratory stridor is found in what kind of lesions: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supraglottic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subglottic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tracheal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Supraglottic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_225.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Supraglottic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inspiratory stridor is a key clinical sign indicating a potential obstruction in the supraglottic region of the airway. Recognizing this symptom is critical for diagnosing and managing airway obstructions effectively to prevent respiratory distress.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 333, 334</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 333, 334</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While you are evaluating a baby, you show him a bright pink teddy bear that he reaches out to with both hands. What is the earliest age by which this milestone is typically achieved? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "7 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 4 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/untitled-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 4 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bidextrous reach, where a baby uses both hands to reach out for objects, is typically achieved by 4 months of age.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following structures are derived from the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle except: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pectineal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inguinal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lacunar ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Linea semilunaris", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Linea semilunaris", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-170324.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-120042.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Linea semilunaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ligaments derived from external oblique aponeurosis are:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Excess ammonia reduces which of the following substrates of the Krebs cycle?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxaloacetate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fumarate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alpha ketoglutarate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Alpha ketoglutarate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210196.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Alpha ketoglutarate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the CNS, Alpha ketoglutarate can combine with excess ammonia forming glutamate to reduce ammonia levels.</li><li>➤ Alpha ketoglutarate can combine with excess ammonia forming glutamate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following phases of a clinical trial is also referred to as efficacy trial? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phase 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Phase 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/08/screenshot-2024-10-08-132716.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Phase 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During evaluation of PUO, a patient's chest X-ray is as seen below. What is your diagnosis?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Miliary tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Necrobiotic nodules", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Miliary tuberculosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_Q8FdYxW.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Miliary tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given chest X-ray depicts miliary tuberculosis.</li><li>• Miliary tuberculosis:</li><li>• Miliary tuberculosis:</li><li>• Bilateral randomly distributed nodules on HRCT. Hematogenous spread.</li><li>• Bilateral randomly distributed nodules on HRCT.</li><li>• Hematogenous spread.</li><li>• Miliary pattern D/D:</li><li>• Miliary pattern D/D:</li><li>• Healed varicella TPE/ Loeffler’s syndrome Hemosiderosis Silicosis</li><li>• Healed varicella</li><li>• TPE/ Loeffler’s syndrome</li><li>• Hemosiderosis</li><li>• Silicosis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary edema: Typically presents with bilateral opacities, predominantly in the perihilar regions, and may show Kerley B lines, none of which are visible in this X-ray.</li><li>• Option B. Pulmonary edema:</li><li>• Option C. Necrobiotic nodules: Commonly associated with conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, presenting as larger, well-defined nodules, which is not the case here.</li><li>• Option C. Necrobiotic nodules:</li><li>• Option D. Tuberculoma: Typically appears as a solitary, well-defined round lesion, often with a calcified center, not the diffuse pattern observed here.</li><li>• Option D. Tuberculoma:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by fine, diffuse nodules throughout the lungs, resulting from widespread dissemination of the tuberculosis bacteria. This is a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention and treatment.</li><li>➤ Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by fine, diffuse nodules throughout the lungs, resulting from widespread dissemination of the tuberculosis bacteria. This is a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention and treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child in your unit is diagnosed with severe acute malnutrition (SAM). According to the WHO criteria, SAM is defined best by: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight for age less than - 2SD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight for height less than + 2SD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weight for age less than + 3SD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weight for height less than - 3SD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Weight for height less than - 3SD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture134.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Weight for height less than -3SD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severe acute malnutrition (SAM) is defined by the WHO as weight-for-height (or length) below -3 SD of the WHO Child Growth Standards, presence of bilateral pitting edema, or mid-upper arm circumference less than 11.5 cm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lesion in the medial lemniscus at the level of pons causes which of the following?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pain and temperature loss in the same side", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pain and temperature loss in the opposite side", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of tactile and proprioception on the same side", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loss of tactile and proprioception on the opposite side", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Loss of tactile and proprioception on the opposite side", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/673.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Loss of tactile and proprioception on the opposite side</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Lesion in the medial lemniscus at the level of pons causes loss of tactile and proprioception on the opposite side.</li><li>• The first order neurons carry sensory information regarding touch, proprioception or vibration from the peripheral nerves to the medulla oblongata by two different pathways</li><li>• first order neurons</li><li>• Signals from the upper limb (T6 and above) – travel in the fasciculus cuneatus (the lateral part of the dorsal column). They then synapse in the nucleus cuneatus of the medulla oblongata. Signals from the lower limb (below T6) – travel in the fasciculus gracilis (the medial part of the dorsal column). They then synapse in the nucleus gracilis of the medulla oblongata.</li><li>• Signals from the upper limb (T6 and above) – travel in the fasciculus cuneatus (the lateral part of the dorsal column). They then synapse in the nucleus cuneatus of the medulla oblongata.</li><li>• Signals from the upper limb (T6 and above)</li><li>• Signals from the lower limb (below T6) – travel in the fasciculus gracilis (the medial part of the dorsal column). They then synapse in the nucleus gracilis of the medulla oblongata.</li><li>• Signals from the lower limb (below T6)</li><li>• The second order neuron begin in the cuneate nucleus or gracilis. The fibres receive the information from the preceding neuron, and delivers it to the third order neuron in the thalamus. Within the medulla oblongata, these fibres decussate (cross to the other side of the CNS). They then travel in the contralateral medial lemniscus to reach the thalamus.</li><li>• second order neuron</li><li>• Lastly, the third order neuron transmit the sensory signals from the thalamus to the ipsilateral primary sensory cortex of the brain. They ascend from the ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus, travel through the internal capsule and terminate at the sensory cortex.</li><li>• third order neuron</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pain and temperature loss in the same side : Incorrect, as the medial lemniscus does not primarily carry pain and temperature sensations; these are transmitted by the spinothalamic tract.</li><li>• Option A. Pain and temperature loss in the same side</li><li>• Option B. Pain and temperature loss in the opposite side : Incorrect for the same reason as above.</li><li>• Option B. Pain and temperature loss in the opposite side</li><li>• Option C. Loss of tactile and proprioception on the same side : Incorrect because the crossing of fibers in the medulla means that a lesion in the medial lemniscus at the pons affects the opposite side of the body.</li><li>• Option C. Loss of tactile and proprioception on the same side</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A lesion in the medial lemniscus at the level of the pons causes loss of tactile sense and proprioception on the opposite side of the body due to the decussation (crossing over) of second-order neurons in the medulla, which then ascend contralaterally in the medial lemniscus to the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a risk factor for Alzheimer's disease? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Apo E1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apo E2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Apo E3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Apo E4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Apo E4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Apo E4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Apo E4 allele is a well-documented genetic risk factor for Alzheimer's disease, influencing the disease's onset and severity. Understanding the genetic risk factors like Apo E4 is crucial for early intervention strategies and for personalizing treatment and management plans for at-risk populations.</li><li>➤ Apo E2 is protective for Alzheimers disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Alpha 1-antitrypsin is the major inhibitor of the enzyme: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Catalase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Collagenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Elastase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phospholipase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Elastase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/untitled-391.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Elastase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alpha 1-antitrypsin's critical role is to inhibit neutrophil elastase, thus protecting connective tissue from inflammatory damage, particularly in the lungs and liver.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which part of the liver stores vitamin A?(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ito cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endothelial cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kupffer cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ito cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ito cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Ito cells are the cells that store vitamin A in the liver. These cells, also known as hepatic stellate cells, are located in the space of Disse, which is between the hepatocytes and the endothelial cells in the liver. Ito cells play a role in liver function and pathology, and are involved in the regulation of extracellular matrix synthesis and degradation, as well as in the response to liver injury. They are also responsible for the storage and release of vitamin A in the liver. Kupffer cells, also known as stellate macrophages and Kupffer-Borowicz cells; are specialized macrophages located in the liver that form part of the mononuclear phagocyte system.</li><li>• Ito cells are the cells that store vitamin A in the liver. These cells, also known as hepatic stellate cells, are located in the space of Disse, which is between the hepatocytes and the endothelial cells in the liver.</li><li>• Ito cells play a role in liver function and pathology, and are involved in the regulation of extracellular matrix synthesis and degradation, as well as in the response to liver injury. They are also responsible for the storage and release of vitamin A in the liver.</li><li>• Kupffer cells, also known as stellate macrophages and Kupffer-Borowicz cells; are specialized macrophages located in the liver that form part of the mononuclear phagocyte system.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hepatocytes : Incorrect, while hepatocytes are the main functional cells of the liver and perform numerous metabolic, synthetic, and detoxifying functions, they are not the primary storage sites for vitamin A.</li><li>• Option B. Hepatocytes</li><li>• Option C. Endothelial cells : Incorrect, these cells line the blood vessels of the liver and are involved in filtration and blood flow regulation within the organ, not in vitamin storage.</li><li>• Option C. Endothelial cells</li><li>• Option D. Kupffer cells : Incorrect, Kupffer cells are the liver's resident macrophages, involved in immune responses and the breakdown of red blood cells, not in storing vitamins.</li><li>• Option D. Kupffer cells</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ito cells (hepatic stellate cells) are the primary storage sites for vitamin A in the liver. Their role extends beyond vitamin storage to include critical functions in the regulation of the extracellular matrix and the liver's response to injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the Sensory nerve supply for the given area of hand? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior interosseus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Radial nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-143536.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-916.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Radial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sensory function of the radial nerve is provided by its four main sensory branches:</li><li>➤ The sensory function of the radial nerve is provided by its four main sensory branches:</li><li>➤ Inferior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm: Supplies the lateral aspect of the anterior upper arm between the deltoid and the elbow. Posterior cutaneous nerve of the arm: Supplies part of the posterior aspect of the upper arm. Posterior cutaneous nerve of the forearm: Supplies a tapered strip of the middle portion of the posterior forearm. Superficial branch of the radial nerve: Supplies the posterior surface of the lateral 3 ½ digits and the associated areas of the palm.</li><li>➤ Inferior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm: Supplies the lateral aspect of the anterior upper arm between the deltoid and the elbow.</li><li>➤ Posterior cutaneous nerve of the arm: Supplies part of the posterior aspect of the upper arm.</li><li>➤ Posterior cutaneous nerve of the forearm: Supplies a tapered strip of the middle portion of the posterior forearm.</li><li>➤ Superficial branch of the radial nerve: Supplies the posterior surface of the lateral 3 ½ digits and the associated areas of the palm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to OCP use? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic renal disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thromboembolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "History of amenorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thromboembolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thromboembolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thromboembolism is an absolute contraindication to the use of combined oral contraceptives (COCs) due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism associated with these medications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Painful arc syndrome is seen in:(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mid-abduction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Initial abduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Full range of abduction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Overhead abduction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mid-abduction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mid-abduction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Painful arc syndrome, a clinical manifestation of impingement syndrome, is observed during mid-range shoulder abduction, typically between 60° and 120°. This condition is often seen in individuals engaging in activities that involve repeated arm elevation, and management may include NSAIDs, corticosteroid injections, physical therapy, or, in refractory cases, surgical intervention to decompress the subacromial space.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following drugs inhibits neutrophil recruitment? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Montelukast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sodium cromolyn", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Colchicine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Febuxostat", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Colchicine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Colchicine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Colchicine is the drug that inhibits neutrophil recruitment by disrupting microtubules, thus affecting neutrophil mobility and reducing inflammation. This mechanism makes it effective in treating conditions like gout and familial Mediterranean fever.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following appearance in IVP is caused by:(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ureterocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Horse shoe kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retroperitoneal fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior urethral valve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ureterocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_47NZiMk.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_198.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/WhatsApp%20Image%202025-01-27%20at%2018.50.30.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_199.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The IVP shows bilateral cobra head or adder head sign/ cobra head appearance . It describes the cystic dilation of the distal end of ureter . It may be simple (like in this case where it is located at the VUJ) or may be ectopic in location.</li><li>• The IVP shows bilateral cobra head or adder head sign/ cobra head appearance . It describes the cystic dilation of the distal end of ureter .</li><li>• adder head sign/ cobra head</li><li>• appearance</li><li>• cystic dilation of the distal end of ureter</li><li>• It may be simple (like in this case where it is located at the VUJ) or may be ectopic in location.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Horse shoe kidney: Characterized by a \"hand-shake\" or \"flower vase\" sign due to the fusion of the kidneys across the midline, typically seen in the lower lumbar region. This appearance does not match the image shown.</li><li>• Option B. Horse shoe kidney:</li><li>• Option C. Retroperitoneal fibrosis: Often causes medial deviation of the ureters or a \"silent kidney\" if severe obstruction occurs. Not relevant to the observed sign.</li><li>• Option C. Retroperitoneal fibrosis:</li><li>• Option D. Posterior urethral valve: Affects male infants primarily and involves obstruction within the posterior urethra, leading to bladder and kidney changes. It does not cause the \"cobra head\" appearance seen here.</li><li>• Option D. Posterior urethral valve:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ureterocele should be suspected when an IVP reveals a \"cobra head\" sign, representing cystic dilation of the distal ureter. This condition can affect urinary drainage and lead to complications, requiring timely diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The term \"paradoxical carrier\" is defined as: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A person who sheds pathogens during incubation period", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A carrier who acquired pathogen from another carrier", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A person who acquired pathogen from patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A patient who became a carrier", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A carrier who acquired pathogen from another carrier", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A carrier who acquired pathogen from another carrier</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A paradoxical carrier is a carrier who has acquired a pathogen from another carrier, but who does not show any signs or symptoms of the disease. Incubatory carriers are those who shed the infectious agents during the incubation period of the disease. Convalescent carriers are those who continue to shed the disease agent during the period of convalescence. Healthy carriers are those who had a subclinical infection and developed a carrier state without suffering from overt disease.</li><li>➤ A paradoxical carrier is a carrier who has acquired a pathogen from another carrier, but who does not show any signs or symptoms of the disease.</li><li>➤ paradoxical carrier</li><li>➤ Incubatory carriers are those who shed the infectious agents during the incubation period of the disease.</li><li>➤ Incubatory carriers</li><li>➤ Convalescent carriers are those who continue to shed the disease agent during the period of convalescence.</li><li>➤ Convalescent carriers</li><li>➤ Healthy carriers are those who had a subclinical infection and developed a carrier state without suffering from overt disease.</li><li>➤ Healthy carriers</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which lymphoma is strongly associated with overexpression of BCL2? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Follicular lymphoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Burkitt lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diffuse large-cell lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic lymphocytic leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Follicular lymphoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Follicular lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Follicular lymphoma is primarily associated with the overexpression of BCL2 due to the t(14;18) chromosomal translocation. This genetic alteration is a critical factor in the pathogenesis of follicular lymphoma, enabling lymphoma cells to evade apoptosis and sustain tumor growth. Understanding the role of BCL2 in various lymphomas helps in differentiating among them and tailoring appropriate therapeutic strategies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which item is included in the concurrent list of the Indian Constitution? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adulteration of food", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Regulating labor in mines", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Public health and sanitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adulteration of food", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adulteration of food</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The adulteration of food is included in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution, allowing both the central and state governments to legislate on this issue. The Union List and State List contain subjects exclusive to the Parliament and state legislatures, respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about vaginal changes in a normal pregnancy? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased number of Lactobacilli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased glycogen metabolism in the epithelium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "pH &gt; 6.8", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epithelial thinning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increased glycogen metabolism in the epithelium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-69.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Increased glycogen metabolism in the epithelium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During pregnancy, the vaginal epithelium increases glycogen metabolism, leading to a more acidic environment that promotes the growth of Lactobacilli and helps protect against infections.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 20, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 20, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Confusion assessment test is used in:(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delirium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Delirium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Delirium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) is a tool specifically developed to detect delirium. Bedside examinations such as mini mental status examination (MMSE) are used to provide a measure of cognitive impairment.</li><li>➤ mini mental status examination (MMSE)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 701.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old lady presents with third degree uterine prolapse. Which of the following is the best management for her?( NEET PG 2019 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fothergill repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sling operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shirodkar procedure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In the given case scenario, vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair is the ideal management. This is also called as Ward Mayo repair This is recommended to patients who satisfy the following criteria: &gt;40 years of age Have completed their families Do not wish to preserve menstrual and child-bearing function</li><li>• In the given case scenario, vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair is the ideal management.</li><li>• This is also called as Ward Mayo repair</li><li>• This is recommended to patients who satisfy the following criteria: &gt;40 years of age Have completed their families Do not wish to preserve menstrual and child-bearing function</li><li>• &gt;40 years of age Have completed their families Do not wish to preserve menstrual and child-bearing function</li><li>• &gt;40 years of age</li><li>• Have completed their families</li><li>• Do not wish to preserve menstrual and child-bearing function</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Fothergill repair : This is also known as Manchester repair and involves conserving the uterus. In this procedure, cervical amputation with plication of the cardinal ligaments is done. It is done in young women who have completed their families with utero-vaginal prolapse.</li><li>• Option A. Fothergill repair</li><li>• Option B. Sling operation : This is preferred in women who are young, nulliparous (yet to have children/ complete their families) with prolapse</li><li>• Option B. Sling operation</li><li>• Option D. Shirodkar procedure : This is a modification of Manchester/ Fothergill surgery and does not include cervical amputation</li><li>• Option D. Shirodkar procedure</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair (Ward Mayo repair) is the preferred management for older women (&gt;40 years) with third degree uterine prolapse who have completed their families and do not wish to preserve menstrual and child-bearing function.</li><li>➤ Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair (Ward Mayo repair) is the preferred management for older women (&gt;40 years) with third degree uterine prolapse who have completed their families and do not wish to preserve menstrual and child-bearing function.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 221, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 221, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. The child's parents mention that the pain has been increasing over the past few hours. On examination, the child appears distressed and has abdominal tenderness. An X-ray is ordered, and it reveals a gasless abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulcerative colitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intussusception", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Crohn's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute pancreatitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Acute Pancreatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A gasless abdomen on X-ray is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis in children presenting with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. This condition should be considered when evaluating similar clinical presentations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is seen in the vertex presentation with complete flexion attitude of head? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Suboccipito-frontal diameter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Occipito-frontal diameter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occipito-posterior position", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/untitled-78.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter (9.5 cm) is seen in vertex presentation with a complete flexion attitude of the head.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Suboccipito-frontal diameter:</li><li>• Option B. Suboccipito-frontal diameter:</li><li>• This diameter measures about 10.5 cm and is seen when the head is only partially flexed. It is not the smallest diameter and is not optimal for vertex presentations with complete flexion.</li><li>• This diameter measures about 10.5 cm and is seen when the head is only partially flexed.</li><li>• It is not the smallest diameter and is not optimal for vertex presentations with complete flexion.</li><li>• Option C. Occipito-frontal diameter:</li><li>• Option C. Occipito-frontal diameter:</li><li>• This diameter measures approximately 11.5 cm and is seen in cases where the head is in a neutral position, neither fully flexed nor extended. It is larger and more difficult for the passage of the fetal head through the birth canal.</li><li>• This diameter measures approximately 11.5 cm and is seen in cases where the head is in a neutral position, neither fully flexed nor extended.</li><li>• It is larger and more difficult for the passage of the fetal head through the birth canal.</li><li>• Option D. Occipito-posterior position:</li><li>• Option D. Occipito-posterior position:</li><li>• This is not a diameter but a fetal position where the back of the fetal head is directed towards the mother's back. This position often leads to a more difficult labor and is associated with different presenting diameters, depending on the degree of head flexion or extension.</li><li>• This is not a diameter but a fetal position where the back of the fetal head is directed towards the mother's back.</li><li>• This position often leads to a more difficult labor and is associated with different presenting diameters, depending on the degree of head flexion or extension.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The suboccipito-bregmatic diameter (9.5 cm) is seen in vertex presentation with complete flexion of the fetal head, facilitating easier passage through the birth canal.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 92 Textbook of obstetrics by JB Sharma</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 92 Textbook of obstetrics by JB Sharma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the anti-apoptotic factor among the following: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P-53", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "K-ras", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BcI-2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "BAK", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. BcI-2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/untitled-395.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bcl-2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bcl-2's anti-apoptotic properties make it a key player in cellular survival and stress response. Its ability to inhibit key steps in the apoptotic process distinguishes it from other proteins like P-53, K-ras, and BAK, which have different roles in the regulation of cell death and proliferation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are features of fragile X syndrome except: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trinucleotide mutation in FMR-1 gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mental retardation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Micro-orchidism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Large everted ears", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Micro-orchidism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/untitled-390.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/untitled-389.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Micro-orchidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked in the following MRI scan:(NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Midbrain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cerebellum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brainstem", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebrum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cerebellum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_kpdHLJd.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_veUFodC.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cerebellum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image shows an MRI of the sagittal section of the brain , where the red arrow points to the Cerebellum. This part of the brain is known for its role in motor control, and it can also be involved in some cognitive functions like attention and language.</li><li>• MRI of the sagittal section of the brain</li><li>• Key features visible in the MRI that help identify the Cerebellum include its characteristic lobulated structure located at the posterior base of the brain, just below the cerebrum and behind the brainstem and fourth ventricle.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Midbrain: Part of the brainstem, located higher and anteriorly relative to the cerebellum on sagittal images.</li><li>• Option A. Midbrain:</li><li>• Option C. Brainstem: The brainstem, which includes the midbrain, pons, and medulla, is located anteriorly to the cerebellum in the image.</li><li>• Option C. Brainstem:</li><li>• Option D. Cerebrum: The largest part of the brain, covering most of the upper sections of the image, involved in various higher-order functions.</li><li>• Option D. Cerebrum:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Cerebellum, distinct in its appearance and location in the posterior aspect of the brain, plays crucial roles in the coordination of voluntary movements and motor functions, which can be clearly seen on sagittal MRI scans.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Predominantly osteoblastic secondaries are seen in: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prostate carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breast carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stomach carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prostate carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Prostate carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Osteoblastic metastases are a hallmark of prostate carcinoma, unlike breast and stomach carcinomas which are more likely to cause osteolytic or no bone lesions respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has a poor prognosis with exposure and response prevention in OCD? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pathological doubt", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Magical thinking", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hoarding", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Contamination obsession", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hoarding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hoarding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hoarding disorder is characterised by acquiring and not being able to discard things that are considered to have little or no use. This will lead to cluttering of house, to an extent that it becomes unsafe to live. This disorder is driven by fear of losing something important. Treatment includes SSRIs and CBT. Hoarding disorder tends to have a poorer prognosis with exposure and response prevention compared to other subtypes .</li><li>➤ poorer prognosis with exposure and response prevention compared to other subtypes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 431.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For a population of 10,000, the land area necessary to implement the controlled tipping using the trench method is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 acres", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 acres", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 acres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 acre", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 acre", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 acre</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For implementing controlled tipping using the trench method, 1 acre of land is sufficient for a population of 10,000, considering a depth of 2 feet and a usage duration of one year.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male patient came to ED with complaints of weakness, paresthesia, and breathing difficulty. Relevant investigations were done. The ECG obtained is suggestive of: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypercalcemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypokalemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-125841.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hypokalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ECG Findings in Hypokalemia :</li><li>➤ ECG Findings in Hypokalemia</li><li>➤ U-waves Prolonged QTc Flattened/inverted Ts Sagging ST ST Depression Biphasic t-waves ST elevation in aVR PVCs/Ventricular Dysrhythmias Pseudo-ischemic patterns</li><li>➤ U-waves</li><li>➤ Prolonged QTc</li><li>➤ Flattened/inverted Ts</li><li>➤ Sagging ST</li><li>➤ ST Depression</li><li>➤ Biphasic t-waves</li><li>➤ ST elevation in aVR</li><li>➤ PVCs/Ventricular Dysrhythmias</li><li>➤ Pseudo-ischemic patterns</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are true about Typical Guillain-Barre syndrome except: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inflammatory condition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Descending paralysis is seen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasmapheresis is a treatment method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Demyelinating disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Descending paralysis is seen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Descending paralysis is seen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GBS produces neuro-radiculopathy due to demyelination causing ascending paralysis.</li><li>➤ Causes of Descending paralysis ( Mnemonic: Bipolar disorder [BPD] ):</li><li>➤ Mnemonic: Bipolar disorder [BPD]</li><li>➤ B: B otulism</li><li>➤ B: B</li><li>➤ P: P orphyria, Polio</li><li>➤ P: P</li><li>➤ D: D iphtheria</li><li>➤ D: D</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is known to be associated with the development of bladder carcinoma? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyclophosphamide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cisplatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Taxane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tamoxifen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cyclophosphamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Cyclophosphamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapeutic agent used to treat various cancers and autoimmune diseases. One of its known side effects is the increased risk of developing bladder carcinoma. This is due to the metabolite acrolein, which can cause urothelial damage leading to malignancy. Long-term use or high doses of cyclophosphamide significantly elevate this risk.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Cisplatin: Cisplatin is a chemotherapy drug effective against various cancers, including testicular, ovarian, and bladder cancer. However, it is not specifically associated with the development of bladder carcinoma as a side effect.</li><li>• Option B. Cisplatin:</li><li>• Option C. Taxane (e.g., paclitaxel, docetaxel): Taxanes are chemotherapeutic agents used in treating breast, ovarian, and lung cancers. They are not linked to bladder carcinoma development.</li><li>• Option C. Taxane (e.g., paclitaxel, docetaxel):</li><li>• Option D. Tamoxifen: Tamoxifen is primarily used to treat breast cancer. While it can increase the risk of endometrial cancer due to its estrogen-like effects on uterine tissue, it is not associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer.</li><li>• Option D. Tamoxifen:</li><li>• Additional Information on Drugs Associated with Bladder Cancer: Several drugs have been associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer, including:</li><li>• Additional Information on Drugs Associated with Bladder Cancer:</li><li>• Pioglitazone : A drug used to treat type 2 diabetes. Aristolochic acid : Found in some herbal remedies. Phenacetin : An analgesic and antipyretic. Aminosalicylates : Used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease.</li><li>• Pioglitazone : A drug used to treat type 2 diabetes.</li><li>• Pioglitazone</li><li>• Aristolochic acid : Found in some herbal remedies.</li><li>• Aristolochic acid</li><li>• Phenacetin : An analgesic and antipyretic.</li><li>• Phenacetin</li><li>• Aminosalicylates : Used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease.</li><li>• Aminosalicylates</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapeutic agent known to be associated with the development of bladder carcinoma due to its metabolite acrolein, which can damage the bladder lining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following fluoroquinolones has maximum bioavailability? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levofloxacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gatifloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Norfloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Levofloxacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Levofloxacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Levofloxacin has the highest bioavailability among the listed fluoroquinolones, with nearly 100% of the administered dose reaching systemic circulation. This high bioavailability makes levofloxacin highly effective for a wide range of bacterial infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A team of emergency responders has been called to the scene of a bomb blast in a crowded city center. Upon arrival, they find multiple casualties with various injuries, including blast injuries. In a blast injury, which of the following organs is least vulnerable to the blast wave? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GI tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lungs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liver", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ear drum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Liver", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Liver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the context of blast injuries, the liver is considered the least vulnerable to the direct effects of the blast wave due to its solid and dense nature. The primary blast wave from an explosion affects air-filled and delicate structures more significantly than dense, solid organs.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. GI tract: The GI tract, especially the hollow parts, is susceptible to blast injuries due to the presence of air. Typical injuries include subserosal hemorrhage and perforation of the intestines.</li><li>• Option A. GI tract:</li><li>• Option B. Lungs: The lungs are highly vulnerable to blast injuries because they are air-filled and delicate. Blast waves can cause severe pulmonary barotrauma, leading to conditions such as pneumothorax, hemothorax, and pulmonary contusion.</li><li>• Option B. Lungs:</li><li>• Option D. Ear drum: The eardrum is extremely sensitive to the pressure changes caused by a blast wave. It is a thin membrane that can easily rupture in an explosion, making it one of the most commonly injured organs in such scenarios.</li><li>• Option D. Ear drum:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a blast injury, the liver is the least vulnerable organ to the primary blast wave compared to the GI tract, lungs, and eardrum, which are more susceptible due to their air-filled nature and delicate structures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is false? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Components of MELD (Model for end stage liver disease) scoring system are creatinine, bilirubin, INR, serum sodium (mEq/L).", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Components of CTP (Child Turcotte Pugh) score are albumin, bilirubin, INR, ascites, encephalopathy.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Components of CTP (Child Turcotte Pugh) are creatinine, bilirubin, and INR.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "MELD score is used to assess and prioritize patients awaiting liver transplantation.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Components of CTP (Child Turcotte Pugh) are creatinine, bilirubin, and INR.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Components of CTP (Child Turcotte Pugh) are creatinine, bilirubin, and INR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MELD-Na components mnemonic “ CBI”</li><li>➤ CBI”</li><li>➤ C - C reatinine</li><li>➤ C - C</li><li>➤ B - B ilirubin</li><li>➤ B - B</li><li>➤ I - I NR + Sodium</li><li>➤ I - I</li><li>➤ CTP score mnemonic BANANa</li><li>➤ BANANa</li><li>➤ B ilirubin A lbumin I N R A scites e N cephalopathy</li><li>➤ B ilirubin A lbumin I N R A scites e N cephalopathy</li><li>➤ B</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ N</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ N</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cirrhosis/Chap 344</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male presented with a history of road traffic accident. The axial CT image is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis?( NEET PG 2019 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural Hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subdural Hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subarachnoid Hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraventricular Hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extradural Hemorrhage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_NtueTFg.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_KQHMs83.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_197.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Extradural Hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The CT image demonstrates a right-sided hyperdense lesion, characteristic of an Extradural Hemorrhage (EDH). Features supporting this diagnosis include:</li><li>• Shape and Location: The lesion exhibits a biconvex or \"lens-shaped\" appearance, typically not crossing sutures, localized at the pterion which is a common site for EDH due to its proximity to the middle meningeal artery (MMA).</li><li>• Shape and Location:</li><li>• Type of Trauma : Associated with high-energy trauma such as a road traffic accident, often causing arterial bleeding, specifically from the MMA.</li><li>• Type of Trauma</li><li>• Lucid Interval: Patients may experience a lucid interval where symptoms improve temporarily before deteriorating, due to the building pressure from the accumulating blood.</li><li>• Lucid Interval:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH): Typically appears as a crescentic or \"banana-shaped\" collection that can cross sutures but not midline. It arises from bridging veins, often due to lower-energy trauma.</li><li>• Option B. Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH):</li><li>• Option C. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: Usually presents as diffuse or patchy areas of increased density in the subarachnoid spaces, not shown in the image.</li><li>• Option C. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage:</li><li>• Option D. Intraventricular Hemorrhage: Would be visualized within the ventricular system, which is not evident here.</li><li>• Option D. Intraventricular Hemorrhage:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to wound ballistics, A gunshot wound showing burning, blackening, tattooing around the wound, can be classified as: ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Close shot entry wound", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Close shot exit wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distant shot entry wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distant shot exit wound", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Close shot entry wound", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A Close shot entry wound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Entry Wound features:</li><li>➤ Entry Wound features:</li><li>➤ Contact Shot: Burning, blackening and tattooing present just on the margin; not around the wound. Very minimally visible. Close Shot: Burning, blackening and tattooing present in large amount around the wound (esp. blackening is prominent) Intermediate Range: Only Tattooing present around the wound Distant range: None of these present around the wound.</li><li>➤ Contact Shot: Burning, blackening and tattooing present just on the margin; not around the wound. Very minimally visible.</li><li>➤ Contact Shot:</li><li>➤ Close Shot: Burning, blackening and tattooing present in large amount around the wound (esp. blackening is prominent)</li><li>➤ Close Shot:</li><li>➤ Intermediate Range: Only Tattooing present around the wound</li><li>➤ Intermediate Range:</li><li>➤ Distant range: None of these present around the wound.</li><li>➤ Distant range:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What among the following is not true about retinitis pigmentosa? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinal pigmentation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pale waxy disc", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Narrowing of vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ERG – normal", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. ERG – normal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-119.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. ERG – normal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In retinitis pigmentosa, the ERG is not normal; it shows progressive abnormalities reflecting the degeneration of photoreceptor cells. Other features include retinal pigmentation, pale waxy disc, and narrowing of retinal vessels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with gastrointestinal problems including abdominal pain and distension, bloody and mucus-filled diarrhea, and tenesmus, with rectal prolapse. A stool examination reveals the presence of typical barrel-shaped eggs. What is the possible causative agent? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Giardia lamblia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trichuris trichiura", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trichuris trichiura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-155200.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-155215.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-155226.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-160111.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-160458.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-160547.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Trichuris trichiura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Table listing appearance of various organism in stool/sputum examination</li><li>➤ Table listing appearance of various organism in stool/sputum examination</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are features of Crohn's disease except: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transmural involvement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lead pipe appearance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rectal sparing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perianal fistula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lead pipe appearance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-094124.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-094139.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Lead pipe appearance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/IBD</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis from the image given below? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pinguecula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Concretions", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pterygium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bitots spots", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pterygium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-123.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-150720.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-163108.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pterygium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pterygium is characterized by a wing-shaped fold of conjunctiva encroaching upon the cornea, commonly seen in people exposed to prolonged environmental factors like UV rays and dust. The treatment includes surgical removal and techniques to prevent recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the treatment of ptosis caused by Horner's syndrome? ( NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Levator resection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontalis sling operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fasanella servat operation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fasanella servat operation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-144756.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/whatsapp-image-2023-11-08-at-164013.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Fasanella servat operation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Fasanella-Servat operation is the appropriate surgical treatment for mild ptosis caused by Horner's syndrome, characterized by ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis due to sympathetic nerve disruption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. Kumar, a 60-year-old woman, has been experiencing difficulty swallowing and a feeling of pressure in her chest. Her doctor orders an ultrasound, which reveals a retrosternal goiter. The commonest surgical approach to a retrosternal goiter is via: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neck", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chest", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Median sternotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neck", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Neck</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The commonest surgical approach to a retrosternal goiter is via the neck. This is because the thyroid gland is anatomically located in the neck, and even when a goiter extends behind the sternum into the chest, the neck provides the most direct and least invasive access for surgical removal. The retrosternal portion of the goiter can usually be mobilized and delivered into the neck for excision without the need for more invasive thoracic approaches. The vascular supply of the goiter also predominantly comes from cervical vessels like the inferior thyroid artery, making the neck approach feasible and effective.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Chest: Surgical approaches through the chest are typically not used for retrosternal goiters. Accessing the thyroid gland through the chest would involve more invasive procedures, such as thoracotomy, and is generally reserved for rare cases with specific indications, such as very large goiters extending deeply into the chest cavity.</li><li>• Option B. Chest:</li><li>• Option C. Median Sternotomy: Median sternotomy involves cutting through the breastbone (sternum) to access structures within the chest, particularly the heart and major blood vessels. While median sternotomy is common for cardiac surgeries, it is not the primary approach for treating retrosternal goiters, which can typically be addressed via the neck.</li><li>• Option C. Median Sternotomy:</li><li>• Option D. None of the above: This option is incorrect because the neck is the commonest and preferred approach for the surgical removal of retrosternal goiters.</li><li>• Option D. None of the above:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common and preferred surgical approach for a retrosternal goiter is via the neck due to its direct access to the thyroid gland and the feasibility of mobilizing the goiter from this region.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatric patient is brought to the emergency department with signs of ocular hypotension and apnea. The parents are concerned about the child's condition and have provided a history of recent medication use. It is crucial to determine which drug may have caused these symptoms in the infant. Drug capable of causing ocular hypotension with apnea in infants is: (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Timolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brimonidine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Latanoprost", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dorzolamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Brimonidine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Brimonidine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the drug used to differentiate myasthenia gravis from cholinergic crisis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obidoxime", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Edrophonium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Donepezil", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Edrophonium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Edrophonium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Edrophonium is the drug used to differentiate myasthenia gravis from a cholinergic crisis by temporarily increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, thereby improving symptoms in myasthenia gravis and worsening them in a cholinergic crisis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The best approach in the treatment of chronic SIADH is? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tolvaptan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reducing fluid intake to &lt;500 ml per day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Demeclocycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fludrocortisone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tolvaptan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tolvaptan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tolvaptan is the best approach in the treatment of chronic SIADH due to its selective antagonism of the vasopressin V2 receptor, leading to increased urine output and improved serum sodium levels. Other methods, such as severe fluid restriction and demeclocycline, are less effective or have more side effects. Fludrocortisone is not suitable for treating SIADH and can exacerbate the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Intravenous mannitol is used in? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congestive cardiac failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute kidney injury with anuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glaucoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Intravenous mannitol is specifically used in acute cases of glaucoma to rapidly reduce intraocular pressure by drawing fluid out of the eye. It is not used for conditions like pulmonary edema, congestive cardiac failure, or acute kidney injury with anuria, where other diuretics are more appropriate and effective.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following Carbapenems has highest risk of causing seizures? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meropenem", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Imipenem", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Etrapenem", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doripenem", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Imipenem", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Imipenem</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Imipenem carries the highest risk of inducing seizures among the carbapenem antibiotics, particularly in patients with renal impairment or a history of epilepsy. Proper dosage adjustments and careful monitoring are essential to minimize this risk.</li><li>➤ Imipenem carries the highest risk of inducing seizures among the carbapenem antibiotics, particularly in patients with renal impairment or a history of epilepsy. Proper dosage adjustments and careful monitoring are essential to minimize this risk.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most common type of Guillain-Barre syndrome? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute motor axonal neuropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute motor sensory axonal neuropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Miller Fisher syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AIDP is the most common type of GBS presenting with ascending motor weakness with occasional distal sensory paresthesia due to demyelination of posterior column.</li><li>➤ most common type of GBS</li><li>➤ Axonal variants:</li><li>➤ Axonal variants:</li><li>➤ AMAN (Acute motor axonal neuropathy): GM1a, GD1a AMSAN (Acute motor &amp; sensory axonal neuropathy): GM1a, GD1a</li><li>➤ AMAN (Acute motor axonal neuropathy): GM1a, GD1a</li><li>➤ AMAN (Acute motor axonal neuropathy):</li><li>➤ AMSAN (Acute motor &amp; sensory axonal neuropathy): GM1a, GD1a</li><li>➤ AMSAN (Acute motor &amp; sensory axonal neuropathy):</li><li>➤ Other variants</li><li>➤ Other variants</li><li>➤ Acute motor conduction block neuropathy: GM1a, GD1a Pharyngo-cervico-branchial variant: GT1a Miller-Fischer variant: GQ1b &gt;&gt; GT1a Acute ataxic neuropathy: GQ1b &gt;&gt; GT1a Pure sensory ataxic variant: GD1b Bickerstaff brainstem encephalitis (BBE): GQ1 &gt;&gt; GT1a</li><li>➤ Acute motor conduction block neuropathy: GM1a, GD1a</li><li>➤ GM1a, GD1a</li><li>➤ Pharyngo-cervico-branchial variant: GT1a</li><li>➤ GT1a</li><li>➤ Miller-Fischer variant: GQ1b &gt;&gt; GT1a</li><li>➤ GQ1b &gt;&gt; GT1a</li><li>➤ Acute ataxic neuropathy: GQ1b &gt;&gt; GT1a</li><li>➤ GQ1b &gt;&gt; GT1a</li><li>➤ Pure sensory ataxic variant: GD1b</li><li>➤ GD1b</li><li>➤ Bickerstaff brainstem encephalitis (BBE): GQ1 &gt;&gt; GT1a</li><li>➤ GQ1 &gt;&gt; GT1a</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Adam and Viktor/Peripheral neuropathy/GBS page 1322</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady presents with fever, oral ulcers, photosensitivity, and rashes on her face, as shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermatomyositis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rosacea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Melasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Systemic lupus erythematosus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/24/nm32.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Systemic lupus erythematosus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When presented with a patient who shows systemic symptoms like fever and oral ulcers in combination with a characteristic facial rash and photosensitivity, Systemic Lupus Erythematosus should be considered a likely diagnosis. Confirmatory diagnosis would require additional clinical and serological criteria, including a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Rheumatology/ SLE, Chap 356</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following helps in maintaining the patency of ductus arteriosus? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PGF2α", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PGE1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PGH2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PGI2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PGE1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) PGE1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ PGE1 (prostaglandin E1) is used to maintain the patency of the ductus arteriosus in neonates with congenital heart defects that require an open ductus arteriosus for adequate oxygenation and circulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an oral factor Xa inhibitor? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bivalirudin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dabigatran", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rivaroxaban", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enoxaparin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rivaroxaban", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rivaroxaban</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Rivaroxaban is an oral factor Xa inhibitor used for the prevention and treatment of thromboembolic events. Other agents like bivalirudin, dabigatran, and enoxaparin have different mechanisms of action and routes of administration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cis-atracurium is preferred over atracurium because? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It has rapid onset of action", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It has less depressant action on heart", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It has long duration of action", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It causes less release of histamine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It causes less release of histamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) It causes less release of histamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cis-atracurium is preferred over atracurium because it causes less histamine release, reducing the risk of side effects such as hypotension and bronchospasm, and it undergoes Hoffman elimination, which contributes to its safer profile and predictable metabolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the primary role of the Golgi tendon organ?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Detect alterations in muscle direction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Detect alterations in muscle tension", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Detect changes in the muscle's position", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Detect changes in the muscle's length", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Detect alterations in muscle tension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Detect alterations in muscle tension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Golgi tendon organ is critical for monitoring and responding to increases in muscle tension, activating a protective reflex that relaxes the muscle to prevent damage. Understanding the protective role of the Golgi tendon organ is essential for recognizing how the body maintains muscle health and prevents injury during physical activities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A HIV patient presents with persistent diarrhea. Microscopic examination of the stool is given below. Identify the causative organism:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cryptosporidium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cyclospora", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Microspora", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystoisospora", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cryptosporidium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-183313.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cryptosporidium infection should be considered in HIV patients presenting with persistent diarrhea, particularly when microscopy shows small, round oocysts containing four sporozoites that stain uniformly with acid-fast stain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient died from bronchopneumonia following an intracerebral hemorrhage caused by cerebral metastases from a squamous cell carcinoma of the left main bronchus. What should be recorded in the line I (c) of the death certificate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchopneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cerebral metastasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intracerebral hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma of the left main bronchus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cerebral metastasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-183449.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In completing death certificates, it is crucial to record conditions in the correct sequence from the immediate cause of death backwards to the underlying causes. Cerebral metastasis, in this case, acts as a pivotal condition leading to an intracerebral hemorrhage, and ultimately to bronchopneumonia and death, and should be correctly positioned in the sequence on the death certificate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old patient has a history of travel to China and the consumption of pickled crab. He now complains of rusty sputum and cough. What is the most likely causative organism?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fasciola buski", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fasciola hepatica", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paragonimus westermani", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schistosoma japonicum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Paragonimus westermani", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Paragonimus westermani</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with a history of consuming undercooked crab or crayfish who present with respiratory symptoms, especially when accompanied by hemoptysis and rusty sputum, consider Paragonimus westermani infection. Praziquantel is the treatment of choice for this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does a de-gloving injury refer to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Skin and subcutaneous fat are stripped from the underlying fascia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Skin, subcutaneous fat and fascia are stripped from tendons", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skin, subcutaneous fat, fascia and tendons are stripped from bone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only skin is stripped off", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Skin and subcutaneous fat are stripped from the underlying fascia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-183958.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ De-gloving injuries are characterized by the stripping away of skin and subcutaneous fat from the underlying fascia, usually due to high-force impacts or abrasive injuries. These injuries can vary in severity and often require complex and multiple surgical interventions to manage, including assessments of tissue viability, possible debridement, and reconstructive procedures to restore function and appearance. Understanding the typical layers involved and the mechanism of injury is crucial for appropriate clinical management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of the curare group of muscle relaxants?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Persistently depolarizing at neuromuscular junction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Competitively blocking the binding of ACh to its receptors", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Repetitive stimulation of ACh receptors on muscle endplate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibiting the calcium channels on presynaptic membrane", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Competitively blocking the binding of ACh to its receptors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The curare group of muscle relaxants are non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents that work by competitively inhibiting the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, preventing muscle contraction. This knowledge is essential for understanding how various types of muscle relaxants are used in clinical settings to achieve muscle relaxation during surgical procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false regarding deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clinical assessment is unreliable", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mostly bilateral", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most common clinical presentation is pain and tenderness in calf", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Some cases may directly present as pulmonary thromboembolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mostly bilateral", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deep vein thrombosis is more commonly a unilateral condition. Diagnostic certainty requires imaging studies due to the unreliable nature of clinical assessment alone. Awareness of its possible complication of pulmonary embolism is crucial for timely management and prevention of severe outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What neurological condition is caused by thrombosis of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral medullary syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weber syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial medullary syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Millard Gubler syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lateral medullary syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lateral Medullary Syndrome caused by thrombosis of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, is crucial in diagnosing and managing stroke cases effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with frequent urination, nocturia, and enuresis. 24-hour urine volume was measured and recorded to be 7 liters. The urine osmolarity was 260 mOsm/L. ADH assay was performed and the recorded values were reported as 0.8 pg/ml. An MRI of the brain was performed and T1 weighted indicated the absence of the bright spot. What is the most likely diagnosis:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nephrogenic DI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary polydipsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pituitary DI", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mannitol infusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pituitary DI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pituitary Diabetes Insipidus is diagnosed by the presence of low ADH levels, high urine output with low osmolarity, and absence of the posterior pituitary bright spot on MRI. Treatment typically involves the administration of synthetic ADH, such as Desmopressin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of melancholia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Severe anhedonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sleep-onset insomnia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Profound feelings of guilt over trivial events", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sleep-onset insomnia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Melancholia is characterized by early morning awakening rather than initial difficulties in falling asleep, alongside severe anhedonia, significant weight loss, and profound guilt.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy had painful sores in the mouth with a rash over the hands along with fever. Which of these is the causative agent?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pox virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coxsackievirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HHV-7", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parvovirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coxsackievirus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-184712.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-184743.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coxsackievirus, particularly type A16, is the typical viral cause of hand-foot-and-mouth disease, characterized by fever, vesicular eruptions on the palms and soles, and painful oral lesions. Management is primarily supportive, focusing on symptomatic relief, and the condition usually resolves within 7 to 10 days.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the therapeutic index of a drug whose dose-response curves are plotted as shown below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/whatsapp-image-2024-10-01-at-35052-pm.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The therapeutic index indicates the safety margin of a drug. A TI of 4 means that the drug's lethal dose is four times its effective dose, offering some degree of safety in dosing errors before reaching toxic levels. This index helps guide clinical use, emphasizing the importance of dosage accuracy for safety.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You notice the following appearance in the X-ray of a patient. Which of the following conditions is the least likely cause for this?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenal ulcer perforation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post laparoscopy status", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chilaiditi syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute intestinal obstruction", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acute intestinal obstruction", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-185251.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When observing a pneumoperitoneum on an X-ray, acute intestinal obstruction is the least likely cause unless it is complicated by bowel perforation. In clinical practice, distinguishing the source of pneumoperitoneum is crucial as it can significantly influence the management approach, including the urgency and type of surgical intervention required.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following does not lead to Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) at the blood-lung interface?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fat embolism syndrome following femur shaft fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sepsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transfusion-related lung injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pneumonia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-185426.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/01/screenshot-2024-10-01-185547.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 310 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Neet Pg 2020 2020 01 05 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 300</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 300 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 3-year-old girl was brought by her mother with complaints of enlarged clitoris. Karyotype revealed 46XX. What is the likely cause? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "21 hydroxylase deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "11 hydroxylase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 beta dehydrogenase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 lyase deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 21 hydroxylase deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 21 hydroxylase deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in a newborn female (46XX) is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, a form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged man with a long history of chronic smoking presents to the clinic with respiratory symptoms. Upon examination, it is noted that the lining epithelium of his respiratory tract has undergone a notable change. The transition from columnar epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium is evident, as depicted in the provided image. To identify this specific change, what is the term used to describe this alteration in the lining epithelium? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metaplasia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metaplasia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-144444.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/44_bWijTwu.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/45_5UCYsQ1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/46_Dnrkevr.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Metaplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metaplasia is the term used to describe the reversible change where one type of differentiated cell is replaced by another type, often as an adaptive response to chronic irritation or inflammation, such as the transition from columnar to squamous epithelium in the respiratory tract of chronic smokers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ligation of common hepatic artery will impair blood supply in?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right gastric and right gastroepiploic artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right gastric and left gastric artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right gastroepiploic and short gastric vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right gastric and short gastric vessels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Right gastric and right gastroepiploic artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-887.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Right gastric and right gastroepiploic artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ligation of the common hepatic artery affects the blood supply to both the right gastric and right gastroepiploic arteries due to their derivation from the hepatic proper and gastroduodenal arteries respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A capnograph obtained from an intubated patient undergoing controlled ventilation is given below. Which of the following is a likely cause of the finding seen? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophageal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inspiration with cardiac oscillations", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchospasm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spontaneous respiratory effort", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Spontaneous respiratory effort", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201020.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture78.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/psm-3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/psm-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Spontaneous respiratory effort</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A curare notch or cleft on a capnograph indicates spontaneous respiratory effort in a patient who is supposed to be fully ventilated under muscle relaxants, requiring re-administration of the muscle relaxant to ensure proper mechanical ventilation.</li><li>➤ A curare notch or cleft on a capnograph indicates spontaneous respiratory effort in a patient who is supposed to be fully ventilated under muscle relaxants, requiring re-administration of the muscle relaxant to ensure proper mechanical ventilation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1311</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 1311</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting the late sodium current in the heart? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ivabradine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ranolazine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trimetazidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fasudil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ranolazine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ranolazine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ranolazine acts by inhibiting the late sodium current in the heart, which reduces intracellular calcium overload, decreases diastolic tension, and lowers myocardial oxygen demand, making it effective in the management of chronic angina.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following reflexes, gastric emptying is delayed when acidic content enters the duodenum?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrocolic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterocolic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastroileal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enterogastric", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Enterogastric", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Enterogastric</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Enterogastric reflex is the reflex that inhibits gastric emptying. It is elicited by the presence of chyme in the duodenum, which prevents further emptying of stomach.</li><li>• Mechanism of enterogastric reflex</li><li>• Mechanism of enterogastric reflex</li><li>• Presence of chyme in duodenum causes generation of nerve impulses which are transmitted to stomach by the intrinsic nerve fibers of GI tract. After reaching the stomach, these impulses inhibit emptying. Impulses from duodenum pass via extrinsic sympathetic fibers to stomach and inhibit emptying. Some impulses from duodenum travel through afferent vagal fibers to the brainstem. Normally, brainstem neurons send excitatory impulses to stomach through efferent vagal fibers and stimulate gastric emptying. However, the impulses from duodenum inhibit these brainstem neurons and thereby inhibit gastric emptying.</li><li>• Presence of chyme in duodenum causes generation of nerve impulses which are transmitted to stomach by the intrinsic nerve fibers of GI tract. After reaching the stomach, these impulses inhibit emptying.</li><li>• Impulses from duodenum pass via extrinsic sympathetic fibers to stomach and inhibit emptying.</li><li>• Some impulses from duodenum travel through afferent vagal fibers to the brainstem. Normally, brainstem neurons send excitatory impulses to stomach through efferent vagal fibers and stimulate gastric emptying. However, the impulses from duodenum inhibit these brainstem neurons and thereby inhibit gastric emptying.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Gastrocolic Reflex : Incorrect. The gastrocolic reflex triggers increased colonic motility in response to food entering the stomach. It does not directly affect gastric emptying.</li><li>• Option A. Gastrocolic Reflex</li><li>• Option B. Enterocolic Reflex : Incorrect. This is not a widely recognized reflex within standard physiological texts; it does not pertain specifically to the control of gastric emptying.</li><li>• Option B. Enterocolic Reflex</li><li>• Option C. Gastroileal Reflex : Incorrect. The gastroileal reflex stimulates the movement of chyme from the ileum into the large intestine following food intake, which is unrelated to the initial inhibition of gastric emptying.</li><li>• Option C. Gastroileal Reflex</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The enterogastric reflex plays a critical role in regulating the rate at which the stomach empties its contents into the duodenum, particularly under conditions where the chyme is highly acidic. This regulation ensures that the duodenum can adequately process the chyme without being overwhelmed, which is crucial for maintaining digestive health and preventing duodenal irritation or damage.</li><li>➤ Factors which initiate enterogastric reflex</li><li>➤ Factors which initiate enterogastric reflex</li><li>➤ Duodenal distension Irritation of the duodenal mucosa Acidity of the chyme Osmolality of the chyme Breakdown products of proteins and fats</li><li>➤ Duodenal distension</li><li>➤ Irritation of the duodenal mucosa</li><li>➤ Acidity of the chyme</li><li>➤ Osmolality of the chyme</li><li>➤ Breakdown products of proteins and fats</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An investigation was conducted to evaluate the nutritional status of young children residing in both rural and urban regions. Among the participants, 30 children from rural areas and 20 children from urban areas were found to be malnourished. Which of the following tests of significance is the most appropriate in this case? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chi Square test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paired T test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Standard error of the mean", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chi Square test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-160346.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chi Square test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Chi Square test is the appropriate statistical test for evaluating the association between two categorical variables, such as nutritional status (malnourished vs. not malnourished) and location (rural vs. urban).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a part of the primary survey? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measuring blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Removing clothes to inspect for wounds", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Taking CT scan of the patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Checking airway patency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Taking CT scan of the patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Taking CT scan of the patient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary survey in trauma care includes Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure/Environmental control. Advanced imaging studies like CT scans are part of the secondary survey, conducted after initial stabilization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about the structural organization of proteins? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tertiary structure is three dimensional", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary, secondary and tertiary structures are destroyed by denaturation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary structure is stabilized by disulphide bonds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary and Tertiary structure depends upon amino acid sequence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tertiary structure is three dimensional", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tertiary structure is three dimensional</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The tertiary structure of proteins refers to the overall three-dimensional arrangement of a polypeptide chain, shaped by various interactions including hydrophobic interactions, hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and van der Waals forces. This structure is crucial for the protein's functional specificity, allowing the precise positioning of amino acid side chains necessary for biological activity. The three-dimensional nature of tertiary structure is essential for the functionality of enzymes and other proteins in biological systems.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Primary, secondary, and tertiary structures are destroyed by denaturation: Denaturation typically affects secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures, but the primary structure, which is the sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds, remains intact. Therefore, this statement is partially correct but not entirely.</li><li>• Option B. Primary, secondary, and tertiary structures are destroyed by denaturation:</li><li>• Option C. Secondary structure is stabilized by disulphide bonds: Disulphide bonds primarily stabilize tertiary and sometimes quaternary structures by forming covalent links between different parts of the protein or between different protein subunits. Secondary structures like alpha-helices and beta-sheets are primarily stabilized by hydrogen bonds.</li><li>• Option C. Secondary structure is stabilized by disulphide bonds:</li><li>• Option D. Secondary and Tertiary structure depends upon amino acid sequence: While this statement holds truth in that the primary sequence does dictate the secondary and tertiary structures due to the chemical properties of the amino acids involved, it's not the complete answer regarding the \"true\" statement sought by the question.</li><li>• Option D. Secondary and Tertiary structure depends upon amino acid sequence:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Structure of proteins –</li><li>➤ Structure of proteins –</li><li>➤ Primary structure of protein means the order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain and the location of disulfide bonds, if any. Secondary structure is the formed by folding of primary structure by hydrogen bonding between various residues. Example alpha helix, beta-pleated sheets, loops, and bends Tertiary structure denotes the overall 3D arrangement formed by interactions of the various regions, or domains of a single polypeptide chain. The tertiary structure is maintained by noncovalent interactions between amino acid residue such as hydrophobic bonds, electrostatic bonds and van der Waals forces. Quaternary structure results when the proteins consist of two or more polypeptide chains held together by noncovalent forces like hydrogen bonds, electrostatic bonds, hydrophobic bonds and van der Waals forces.</li><li>➤ Primary structure of protein means the order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain and the location of disulfide bonds, if any.</li><li>➤ Primary structure</li><li>➤ Secondary structure is the formed by folding of primary structure by hydrogen bonding between various residues. Example alpha helix, beta-pleated sheets, loops, and bends</li><li>➤ Secondary structure</li><li>➤ alpha helix, beta-pleated sheets, loops, and bends</li><li>➤ Tertiary structure denotes the overall 3D arrangement formed by interactions of the various regions, or domains of a single polypeptide chain. The tertiary structure is maintained by noncovalent interactions between amino acid residue such as hydrophobic bonds, electrostatic bonds and van der Waals forces.</li><li>➤ Tertiary structure</li><li>➤ Quaternary structure results when the proteins consist of two or more polypeptide chains held together by noncovalent forces like hydrogen bonds, electrostatic bonds, hydrophobic bonds and van der Waals forces.</li><li>➤ Quaternary structure</li><li>➤ There will be nonspecific alterations in secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures of protein molecules. Primary structure is not altered during denaturation .</li><li>➤ Primary structure is not altered during denaturation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) class for the patient who has a serum bilirubin 2.5 mg/dl, serum albumin 3 g/dL, prothrombin time 5 seconds (INR = 2), no encephalopathy, and mild ascites? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Class A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Class B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Class C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Class D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Class B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-185922.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Class B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Child-Turcotte-Pugh scoring system</li><li>➤ Child-Turcotte-Pugh scoring system</li><li>➤ Inference:</li><li>➤ Inference:</li><li>➤ CTP A: 5-6 CTP B: 7-9 CTP C: 10-15</li><li>➤ CTP A: 5-6</li><li>➤ CTP A:</li><li>➤ CTP B: 7-9</li><li>➤ CTP B:</li><li>➤ CTP C: 10-15</li><li>➤ CTP C:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Cirrhosis/Chapter 344</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A physician observed the following finding in a small child who came for an eye exam. This finding is associated with which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Astigmatism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperopia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emmetropia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyperopia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-142.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/picture91_cM5uIoz.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hyperopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyperopia is commonly associated with accommodative esotropia in children, where the effort to focus on near objects results in excessive convergence and inward deviation of the eyes. Corrective lenses help to reduce the accommodative effort, thereby alleviating the esotropia.</li><li>➤ Hyperopia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Maternal antibodies do not provide significant immunity in a neonate against: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polio", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Polio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Polio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Maternal antibodies do not provide consistent and lasting immunity against polio in neonates, necessitating early vaccination with polio drops.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where sharp waste can be disposed? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow bag", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red bag", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blue container", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "White container", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. White container", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-144851.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) White container</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man was brought to the emergency department after he fell from a motorbike and injured his perineum. He gets an urge to micturate but is unable to urinate. On examination, blood was seen at the tip of the urethra, and swelling of the penis and scrotum was seen. What is the site of injury? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Membranous urethra rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bulbar urethra injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prostatic urethra injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urinary bladder rupture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bulbar urethra injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bulbar urethra injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bulbar urethra injury is a common site of urethral trauma, particularly in cases of straddle injuries or perineal trauma. The key clinical features include difficulty in urination, blood at the urethral meatus, and swelling of the penis and scrotum. The treatment often involves surgical repair or placement of a suprapubic catheter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If a young female child is raped, the hymen is usually: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hymen does not rupture because opening is too small to allow penis to enter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The hymen does not rupture because Hymen is situated deep inside", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both a and b", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hymen commonly ruptures", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both a and b", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Both a and b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of rape involving a young female, the hymen is usually not ruptured because the vaginal opening is very small, making penetration difficult, and the hymen is situated deeply. Additionally, children may not show signs of general violence due to their inability to resist, though severe injuries can occur in cases of great violence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the characteristic feature of a fungal corneal ulcer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reverse hypopyon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dendritic ulcer on a fluorescein dye", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ring abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Satellite lesion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Satellite lesion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-137.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-093736.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture2_OmABykF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Satellite lesion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Satellite lesions around the main ulcer are characteristic of fungal corneal ulcers, along with irregular margins, immune rings, and potentially immobile hypopyon.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person who met with an accident, and suffered from a skull fracture presents with the following finding. Identify this clinical finding. (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Battle sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bezold abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mastoiditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Griesinger sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Battle sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/2_lYJPYiL.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Battle sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Battle's sign is a significant diagnostic clue in trauma patients, signaling a possible basilar skull fracture. Recognition of this sign should prompt further diagnostic imaging and careful neurologic assessment to manage potential complications associated with such fractures.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the drug of choice for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Itraconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Voriconazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lyophylised Amphotericin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posaconazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Voriconazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Voriconazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Voriconazole's effectiveness, broad spectrum of activity, and favorable pharmacokinetic profile make it the first-line treatment for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis, offering significant benefits in terms of efficacy and patient outcomes in severe fungal infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are contraceptive methods used post-coitus except? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Danazol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CuT200", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RU486", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Combined high dose estrogen-progestin pills", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Danazol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Danazol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Post coitus contraception means emergency contraception Danazol is an androgen similar to testosterone and is used in endometriosis and fibrocystic breast disease</li><li>• Post coitus contraception means emergency contraception</li><li>• Danazol is an androgen similar to testosterone and is used in endometriosis and fibrocystic breast disease</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B CuT200 : CUT200 is an intrauterine contraceptive device which can be used in emergency contraception (up to 120 h/ 5 days post coitus)</li><li>• Option B CuT200</li><li>• Option C. RU486 : RU486 is Mifepristone. This is an anti-progesterone and can be used for emergency contraception)</li><li>• Option C. RU486</li><li>• Option D. Combined high dose estrogen-progestin pills: Combined high dose OCPs – used as Yuzpe’s regime, is a method of post-coital/ emergency contraception</li><li>• Option D. Combined high dose estrogen-progestin pills:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The following can be used as emergency contraceptives:</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 630, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 630, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about the pathogenesis of Hirschsprung disease? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Failure of migration of neural crest cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loss of ganglion cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Visceral myopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obstruction by inflammatory stricture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Failure of migration of neural crest cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Failure of migration of neural crest cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hirschsprung disease is primarily caused by the failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the bowel wall during embryonic development, resulting in aganglionosis in the distal bowel and leading to functional obstruction and proximal bowel dilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The remnants of Wolffian ducts in females are located in? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pouch of Douglas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leaves of broad ligament", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterovesical pouch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iliac fossa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leaves of broad ligament", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leaves of broad ligament</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Leaves of broad ligament:</li><li>• Leaves of broad ligament:</li><li>• The Wolffian ducts, also known as mesonephric ducts, form the male genital tract in men. In females, the Mullerian duct forms the female internal genitalia, including the fallopian tubes, uterus, and the upper part of the vagina, while the Wolffian ducts atrophy. As the Wolffian ducts atrophy in females, they leave behind remnants located between the two layers of the broad ligament and in the anterolateral wall of the vagina. These remnants include: Hydatid cyst of Morgagni : Located lateral to the fallopian tube. Koblet’s tubules : Found in the outer part of the broad ligament. Epoophoron : Located between the ovary and the fallopian tube. Para-oophoron : Situated between the ovary and the uterus. Gartner’s duct : Located in the anterolateral wall of the vagina.</li><li>• The Wolffian ducts, also known as mesonephric ducts, form the male genital tract in men.</li><li>• In females, the Mullerian duct forms the female internal genitalia, including the fallopian tubes, uterus, and the upper part of the vagina, while the Wolffian ducts atrophy.</li><li>• As the Wolffian ducts atrophy in females, they leave behind remnants located between the two layers of the broad ligament and in the anterolateral wall of the vagina. These remnants include: Hydatid cyst of Morgagni : Located lateral to the fallopian tube. Koblet’s tubules : Found in the outer part of the broad ligament. Epoophoron : Located between the ovary and the fallopian tube. Para-oophoron : Situated between the ovary and the uterus. Gartner’s duct : Located in the anterolateral wall of the vagina.</li><li>• Hydatid cyst of Morgagni : Located lateral to the fallopian tube. Koblet’s tubules : Found in the outer part of the broad ligament. Epoophoron : Located between the ovary and the fallopian tube. Para-oophoron : Situated between the ovary and the uterus. Gartner’s duct : Located in the anterolateral wall of the vagina.</li><li>• Hydatid cyst of Morgagni : Located lateral to the fallopian tube.</li><li>• Hydatid cyst of Morgagni</li><li>• Koblet’s tubules : Found in the outer part of the broad ligament.</li><li>• Koblet’s tubules</li><li>• Epoophoron : Located between the ovary and the fallopian tube.</li><li>• Epoophoron</li><li>• Para-oophoron : Situated between the ovary and the uterus.</li><li>• Para-oophoron</li><li>• Gartner’s duct : Located in the anterolateral wall of the vagina.</li><li>• Gartner’s duct</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pouch of Douglas: This is the rectouterine pouch, a space between the uterus and the rectum, and is not associated with remnants of the Wolffian ducts.</li><li>• Option A. Pouch of Douglas:</li><li>• Option C. Uterovesical pouch: This is the space between the uterus and the bladder and does not contain Wolffian duct remnants.</li><li>• Option C. Uterovesical pouch:</li><li>• Option D. Iliac fossa: This is an anatomical region of the pelvis, and it is not related to the remnants of the Wolffian ducts.</li><li>• Option D. Iliac fossa:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The remnants of the Wolffian ducts in females are found in the leaves of the broad ligament and the anterolateral wall of the vagina.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 47, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 47, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with biliary colic. The intern has administered an analgesic, following which the pain got aggravated. Which of the following could be responsible for the aggravation of the patient's symptoms? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Morphine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diclofenac", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nefopam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Etoricoxib", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Morphine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Morphine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Morphine can exacerbate pain in biliary colic by causing contraction of the sphincter of Oddi. In patients with suspected biliary colic, alternative analgesic medications such as NSAIDs or pethidine should be considered to avoid worsening the condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old male patient comes with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. A peripheral blood smear reveals macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils and an endoscopy reveals atrophic gastritis. Which of the following conditions is likely to be seen in this patient? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Folate deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyridoxine deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Niacin deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/hypersegmented-neutrophil_Hat7mmI.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 deficiency, often due to pernicious anemia, is characterized by macrocytic anemia, hypersegmented neutrophils, and atrophic gastritis. This condition involves an autoimmune mechanism that impairs the production and function of intrinsic factor, essential for vitamin B12 absorption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the causative agent for granuloma inguinale? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calymmatobacterium granulomatis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlamydia trachomatis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ureaplasma urealyticum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treponema pallidum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-161024.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The causative agent for granuloma inguinale (donovanosis) is Calymmatobacterium granulomatis. It is now called Klebsiella granulomatis and is a gram-negative bacillus causing chronic ulcerative infection of the vulva.</li><li>• The causative agent for granuloma inguinale (donovanosis) is Calymmatobacterium granulomatis.</li><li>• It is now called Klebsiella granulomatis and is a gram-negative bacillus causing chronic ulcerative infection of the vulva.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Chlamydia trachomatis : Causes pelvic inflammatory disease</li><li>• Option B. Chlamydia trachomatis</li><li>• Option C. Ureaplasma urealyticum : Causes urethritis</li><li>• Option C. Ureaplasma urealyticum</li><li>• Option D. Treponema pallidum : Causes syphilis</li><li>• Option D. Treponema pallidum</li><li>• Sexually Transmitted Infections</li><li>• Sexually Transmitted Infections</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Granuloma inguinale, also known as donovanosis, is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis (formerly Calymmatobacterium granulomatis).</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 146, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 146, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What makes CPDA superior than ACD for blood storage? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The fall in 2, 3 DPG is less", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased release of 02", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It has less P50", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is less acidic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The fall in 2, 3 DPG is less", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. The fall in 2, 3 DPG is less</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The fall in 2, 3 DPG is less when the blood is stored in CPDA compared with ACD.</li><li>• The ease with which hemoglobin releases oxygen to the tissues is controlled by erythrocytic 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) such that an increase in the concentration of 2,3-DPG decreases oxygen affinity and vice versa.</li><li>• In stored blood, the 2,3 DPG levels usually fall, thus less oxygen is released to the tissues. Therefore, its use in hypoxic patients (E.g., anemia) is limited.</li><li>• Phosphate-containing solution like CPDA (Citrate, phosphate, dextrose, adenine) prevents the fall in 2.3DPG levels. Higher 2,3 DPG concentration decreases affinity of Hb to the oxygen releasing oxygen to the tissues.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Decreased release of O2 : Incorrect. The goal of effective blood storage solutions like CPDA is to ensure that the oxygen release capacity is maintained, not decreased. CPDA helps maintain higher levels of 2,3-DPG, which enhances the release of oxygen to tissues.</li><li>• Option B. Decreased release of O2</li><li>• Option C. It has less P50 : Incorrect. P50 is a measure of the oxygen tension at which hemoglobin is 50% saturated with oxygen. A higher P50, indicative of lower oxygen affinity, is preferable in stored blood as it means oxygen is more readily released to tissues—a trait supported by higher 2,3-DPG levels.</li><li>• Option C. It has less P50</li><li>• Option D. It is less acidic : Incorrect. While pH maintenance is important in blood storage, the primary benefit of CPDA over ACD is not related to less acidity but to its inclusion of phosphate and adenine, which help sustain energy (ATP) production and 2,3-DPG levels in red blood cells.</li><li>• Option D. It is less acidic</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The use of CPDA in blood storage is superior to ACD due to its phosphate content, which helps maintain higher levels of 2,3-DPG in stored red blood cells. This biochemical preservation is crucial for ensuring that transfused blood can effectively release oxygen to hypoxic tissues, making CPDA the preferred choice in clinical settings where blood transfusions are necessary.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where chemical waste can be disposed? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "White", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Green", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-150042.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A first year MBBS student presented to OPD with intermittent episodes of impending doom accompanied by profuse sweating. The episodes usually occur before her exams. What is the most likely cause? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Panic disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conversion disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Social anxiety disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Generalized anxiety disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Panic disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Panic disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of panic attack. Panic attack is a sudden, intense episode of fear or discomfort often accompanied by a sensation of impending doom . The symptoms during panic attack usually involve sudden onset of palpitations, chest pain, choking sensations, dizziness and feeling of unreality (depersonalization or derealization).Along with these physical symptoms there is also fear of dying, losing control or going mad .</li><li>➤ a sensation of impending doom</li><li>➤ palpitations, chest pain, choking sensations,</li><li>➤ fear of dying, losing control</li><li>➤ going mad</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 394.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve innervates the marked muscle?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dorsal scapular nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Suprascapular nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "From the dorsal rami of C1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subscapular nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dorsal scapular nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-882.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-101802.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-174750.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Dorsal scapular nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appendicular group of back muscles and their innervations include: Superficial (appendicular) group of back muscles</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding associated with the condition shown in the image below which is characterized by development of morphologically similar lesions along the lines of trauma: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gottron's papule", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nikolsky's sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isomorphic phenomenon", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meyerson phenomenon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Isomorphic phenomenon", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/450.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-112213.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-101822.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-112216.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture4666.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Isomorphic phenomenon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The isomorphic phenomenon (Koebner phenomenon) as the appearance of skin lesions similar to a primary disease along areas of skin trauma , which is important for diagnosis and management in dermatology.</li><li>➤ isomorphic phenomenon (Koebner phenomenon)</li><li>➤ similar</li><li>➤ skin trauma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 123.2</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 123.2</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is planned to undergo hysteroscopic polypectomy using bipolar electrocautery. What is the ideal agent for distention? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Normal saline", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CO2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "70% dextrose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Normal saline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Normal saline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In bipolar cautery, electricity has to be conducted from one electrode to the other. So normal saline is preferably used. If a monopolar resectoscope is used, then a non-electrolyte solution like glycine is required.</li><li>• In bipolar cautery, electricity has to be conducted from one electrode to the other. So normal saline is preferably used.</li><li>• If a monopolar resectoscope is used, then a non-electrolyte solution like glycine is required.</li><li>• Fluid media in Hysteroscopy:</li><li>• The following distension media can be used in hysteroscopy</li><li>• CO2: Good for diagnostic procedures but not for operative hysteroscopy Normal Saline Not to be used with monopolar electrocoagulation Good for minor procedures using bipolar instruments/ office procedures as there is very less risk of electrolyte imbalance Dextran 70 Useful in patients with bleeding as it does not mix with blood Can cause anaphylaxis, electrolyte imbalance ans fluid overload Low viscosity, nonconductive fluids like: 1.5% Glycine, 3% sorbitol and 5% mannitol Used in operative hysteroscopy using monopolar resectoscopes Safe as there is no electrolytes to disperse the current and impede the electrosurgical effect Associated with electrolyte disturbances and fluid overload</li><li>• CO2: Good for diagnostic procedures but not for operative hysteroscopy</li><li>• Normal Saline Not to be used with monopolar electrocoagulation Good for minor procedures using bipolar instruments/ office procedures as there is very less risk of electrolyte imbalance</li><li>• Not to be used with monopolar electrocoagulation Good for minor procedures using bipolar instruments/ office procedures as there is very less risk of electrolyte imbalance</li><li>• Not to be used with monopolar electrocoagulation</li><li>• Good for minor procedures using bipolar instruments/ office procedures as there is very less risk of electrolyte imbalance</li><li>• Dextran 70 Useful in patients with bleeding as it does not mix with blood Can cause anaphylaxis, electrolyte imbalance ans fluid overload</li><li>• Useful in patients with bleeding as it does not mix with blood Can cause anaphylaxis, electrolyte imbalance ans fluid overload</li><li>• Useful in patients with bleeding as it does not mix with blood</li><li>• Can cause anaphylaxis, electrolyte imbalance ans fluid overload</li><li>• Low viscosity, nonconductive fluids like: 1.5% Glycine, 3% sorbitol and 5% mannitol Used in operative hysteroscopy using monopolar resectoscopes Safe as there is no electrolytes to disperse the current and impede the electrosurgical effect Associated with electrolyte disturbances and fluid overload</li><li>• Used in operative hysteroscopy using monopolar resectoscopes Safe as there is no electrolytes to disperse the current and impede the electrosurgical effect Associated with electrolyte disturbances and fluid overload</li><li>• Used in operative hysteroscopy using monopolar resectoscopes</li><li>• Safe as there is no electrolytes to disperse the current and impede the electrosurgical effect</li><li>• Associated with electrolyte disturbances and fluid overload</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Normal saline is the ideal distention medium for hysteroscopic procedures using bipolar electrocautery due to its suitability in conducting electricity between electrodes without causing significant electrolyte imbalance.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 793, Novaks Gynecology 15 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 793, Novaks Gynecology 15 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the maximum period of voluntary self-admission under the Mental Healthcare Act 2017?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "48 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "90 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 30 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 30 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the Mental Healthcare Act 2017 in India, a person with a mental illness can voluntarily admit themselves to a mental health establishment for a maximum period of 30 days.</li><li>➤ maximum period of 30 days.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Forensic Psychiatry in India, Interface of Indian laws and mental health, 27-28.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with unilateral proptosis and bilateral abducent palsy. What is the most probable cause? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbital pseudotumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orbital cellulitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cavernous sinus thrombosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-095510.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-095616.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a medical emergency. Rapid recognition and aggressive treatment are essential to prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In modern obstetrics, which of the following investigations is used for monitoring the fetus of an Rh- negative sensitized mother? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biophysical profile", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal blood sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amniospectometry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MCA doppler peak systolic velocity", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. MCA doppler peak systolic velocity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) MCA doppler peak systolic velocity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A Doppler of the middle cerebral artery indirectly gives evidence of fetal anemia An anemic fetus (For e.g. due to fetal red cell destruction in an Rh iso-immunized mother) will re-direct blood flow to more important organs like the brain. This is reflected by an increased flow in the middle cerebral artery which can be measured by doing a Doppler of the MCA In Rh immunized mothers, when indirect Coomb’s Test (ICT) titers rise above the critical titer of 1:16, then MCA doppler peak systolic velocity (PSV) is used for monitoring fetal anemia and development of hydrops in these babies. MCA-PSV has replaced amniocentesis as it is a non-invasive test.</li><li>• A Doppler of the middle cerebral artery indirectly gives evidence of fetal anemia</li><li>• An anemic fetus (For e.g. due to fetal red cell destruction in an Rh iso-immunized mother) will re-direct blood flow to more important organs like the brain.</li><li>• This is reflected by an increased flow in the middle cerebral artery which can be measured by doing a Doppler of the MCA</li><li>• In Rh immunized mothers, when indirect Coomb’s Test (ICT) titers rise above the critical titer of 1:16, then MCA doppler peak systolic velocity (PSV) is used for monitoring fetal anemia and development of hydrops in these babies.</li><li>• MCA-PSV has replaced amniocentesis as it is a non-invasive test.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Biophysical Profile : Biophysical Profile is a test of antepartum fetal assessment</li><li>• Option A. Biophysical Profile</li><li>• Option B. Fetal blood sampling or Cordocentesis : This is done only when the fetal MCA doppler shows a peak systolic velocity of &gt; 1.5 MoMs</li><li>• Option B. Fetal blood sampling or Cordocentesis</li><li>• Option C. Amnio-spectrometry : This is no longer done as it is an invasive method of measuring the amount of bilirubin in the amniotic fluid to determine the level of fetal anemia.</li><li>• Option C. Amnio-spectrometry</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MCA Doppler peak systolic velocity is used to monitor fetal anemia in Rh-negative sensitized mothers due to its non-invasive nature.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 931, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 931, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the gynecology OPD with complaints of foul-smelling frothy vaginal discharge and intense itching. On examination, the cervix was spotted and had the appearance of a strawberry. Identify the causative organism? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichomonas vaginalis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gardnerella vaginalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candida albicans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trichomonas vaginalis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/2_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trichomonas vaginalis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichomonas vaginalis infection is characterized by foul-smelling, frothy yellowish-green discharge and a strawberry-like appearance of the cervix.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old primigravida who conceived after in-vitro fertilization therapy came for an antenatal checkup at 38 weeks of gestation. Her obstetric history revealed that she was pregnant with DCDA twins. On examination, the first twin was found to be in a breech position and the maternal blood pressure was found to be greater than 140/90 mm Hg on two occasions with grade 1+ proteinuria. What should be done next? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monitor BP and terminate pregnancy if BP rises", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immediate Caesarean section", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Terminate pregnancy at 40 weeks of gestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Induce labor with PGE2 gel", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Immediate Caesarean section", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Immediate Caesarean section</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of preeclampsia with twin pregnancies where the first twin is in a breech position at 38 weeks, immediate cesarean section is the recommended course of action.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1778, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1778, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged woman presented with bilateral proptosis, restriction of eye movements, and chemosis. Her thyroid profile showed she was euthyroid. What is the most probable cause?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbital pseudotumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid ophthalmopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orbital lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Orbital cellulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-094211.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ THYROID OPHTHALMOPATHY EYE SIGNS:</li><li>➤ THYROID OPHTHALMOPATHY EYE SIGNS:</li><li>➤ Stellwag sign - incomplete and frequent blinking Gifford sign - difficulty while everting the upper eyelid Jellinek sign - abnormal pigmentation of upper eyelid Enroth sign - lower eyelid edema Griffith sign - lid lag on upgaze Mobius sign - not able to converge eyes Ballet's sign - one or more extraocular muscle restriction Von graefe sign - retarded descent of upper lid in downgaze Joffrey sign - absent crease of the forehead in superior gaze Kocher's sign - staring and frightened appearance of eyes Dalyrymple sign - eyelid retraction</li><li>➤ Stellwag sign - incomplete and frequent blinking</li><li>➤ Stellwag sign</li><li>➤ Gifford sign - difficulty while everting the upper eyelid</li><li>➤ Gifford sign</li><li>➤ Jellinek sign - abnormal pigmentation of upper eyelid</li><li>➤ Jellinek sign</li><li>➤ Enroth sign - lower eyelid edema</li><li>➤ Enroth sign</li><li>➤ Griffith sign - lid lag on upgaze</li><li>➤ Griffith sign</li><li>➤ Mobius sign - not able to converge eyes</li><li>➤ Mobius sign</li><li>➤ Ballet's sign - one or more extraocular muscle restriction</li><li>➤ Ballet's sign</li><li>➤ Von graefe sign - retarded descent of upper lid in downgaze</li><li>➤ Von graefe sign</li><li>➤ Joffrey sign - absent crease of the forehead in superior gaze</li><li>➤ Joffrey sign</li><li>➤ Kocher's sign - staring and frightened appearance of eyes</li><li>➤ Kocher's sign</li><li>➤ Dalyrymple sign - eyelid retraction</li><li>➤ Dalyrymple sign</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an ocular examination, the ophthalmologist observes the presence of the shifting fluid sign in the patient. This finding suggests that the patient might have which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exudative RD", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Traction RD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhegmatogenous RD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retinal dialysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Exudative RD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/picture94.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Exudative RD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient arrives with a clean-cut injury, no lacerations. He reports receiving his last tetanus vaccination approximately a decade ago. What would be the recommended course of action? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Full course of tetanus vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Single dose tetanus toxoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetanus toxoid + immunoglobulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No vaccination needed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Single dose tetanus toxoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-173902.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Single dose tetanus toxoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following forms the lateral boundary of the anatomical snuff box? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abductor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-093028.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-162606.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis brevis : The extensor pollicis longus forms the medial boundary of the anatomical snuffbox. It extends the thumb's distal phalanx. The abductor pollicis brevis is a muscle of the thenar eminence and doesn't directly contribute to the boundaries of the anatomical snuffbox. Its tendon is not found in this region; instead, it inserts into the base of the thumb's proximal phalanx.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis brevis</li><li>• Option C. Extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis : As already mentioned, the extensor pollicis longus forms the medial boundary of the anatomical snuffbox. The extensor pollicis brevis, in conjunction with the abductor pollicis longus, forms the lateral boundary. However, they don't together form just one boundary of the snuffbox.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis</li><li>• Option D. Abductor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis brevis : The abductor pollicis longus contributes to the lateral boundary of the snuffbox, as mentioned above. The abductor pollicis brevis, on the other hand, doesn't form any part of the snuffbox boundaries.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Abductor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis brevis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the options was initiated to ensure complete immunization of children? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mission Dhanush", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mission Indradhanush", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mission Suraksha", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mission Suraksha Yojana", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mission Indradhanush", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mission Indradhanush</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MISSION INDRADHANUSH INCLUDES</li><li>➤ MISSION INDRADHANUSH INCLUDES</li><li>➤ Polio Diphtheria Pertussis Tetanus TB Measles Hepatitis B Rota Virus MR IPV JE HiB PCV</li><li>➤ Polio</li><li>➤ Diphtheria</li><li>➤ Pertussis</li><li>➤ Tetanus</li><li>➤ TB</li><li>➤ Measles</li><li>➤ Hepatitis B</li><li>➤ Rota Virus</li><li>➤ MR</li><li>➤ IPV</li><li>➤ JE</li><li>➤ HiB</li><li>➤ PCV</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old man presented with high-grade fever, and purpuric rash as shown in the image below. CS sample showed gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following is the most likely aetiology? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neisseria meningitidis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcus pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "E.coli", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neisseria meningitidis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_bPDeTGi.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Neisseria meningitidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neisseria meningitidis is a critical pathogen to consider in young adults presenting with symptoms of high-grade fever and a purpuric rash, especially when gram-negative diplococci are identified in the CSF. Rapid diagnosis and immediate treatment with appropriate antibiotics are crucial to prevent serious complications and mortality. This highlights the importance of vigilance for meningococcal disease in acute care settings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with diabetes and COPD developed post-operative urinary retention. Which of the following drugs can be used for short-term treatment of the condition? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tamsulosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bethanechol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Terazosin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methacholine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bethanechol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bethanechol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bethanechol is used for the short-term treatment of post-operative urinary retention by stimulating the bladder's detrusor muscle. Despite its potential to cause bronchoconstriction in patients with COPD, it is the only suitable drug among the given options for this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The scope of Project MONICA includes: (NEET PG 2020", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiovascular diseases", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical Cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Breast Cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Road Traffic Accidents", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cardiovascular diseases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cardiovascular diseases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The scope of Project MONICA is focused on cardiovascular diseases, specifically monitoring trends in coronary heart disease and cerebrovascular disease and examining the impact of various risk factors on these conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male pt presented to your clinic with persistent non-pitting edema in their lower extremities as shown below. What could be the most likely reason for this symptom? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphedema", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arterial Disorders", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Venous Disorders", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coronary heart disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lymphedema", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-153334.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lymphedema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lymphedema is characterized by non-pitting edema due to the accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the tissue interstitial spaces. It can lead to significant swelling and skin changes, particularly in the lower extremities, distinguishing it from other causes of edema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following hormones use receptor tyrosine kinase signaling? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "TSH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TRH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MSH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Insulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Insulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Insulin uniquely uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling among the options listed, activating complex pathways that are essential for regulating glucose metabolism and other metabolic processes in the body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "B-cells are induced to produce IgE by which of the following: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IL-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IL-4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IL-1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IL-6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IL-4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IL-4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IL-4 is the key cytokine that stimulates B-cells to differentiate into IgE-secreting plasma cells, playing a crucial role in the allergic response and defense against parasites.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which method of measurement of scoliosis has been depicted in the image given below? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kite’s angle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cobb’s angle", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bohler’s angle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gissane angle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cobb’s angle", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/5.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1307.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/6_M7i6zUo.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cobb’s angle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image shows the Cobb’s angle, which is used for the measurement of degree of lateral curvature of the spine in scoliosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a prokinetic? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5HT4 agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dopamine antagonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Macrolides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diphenylmethane", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diphenylmethane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Diphenylmethane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diphenylmethane is not a prokinetic drug and is not used to treat gastrointestinal motility disorders. Prokinetic drugs include 5HT4 agonists, dopamine antagonists, and macrolides, which all act to enhance gastrointestinal motility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old child who is known to have type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with confusion and drowsiness. Her mother says that she seems to be breathing very fast. On examination, mucous membranes are dry and blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Random blood glucose is 415 mg/dL and urine ketones are 4+. What is the next best step in management? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2-3 L of normal saline over 1-3 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hour", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arterial blood gas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insulin bolus of 0.1 units/kg given IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2-3 L of normal saline over 1-3 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 2-3 L of Normal saline over 1-3 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a case of DKA presenting with signs of dehydration and shock, the initial management should focus on aggressive fluid resuscitation to stabilize the patient before initiating insulin therapy. This approach not only addresses the immediate life-threatening condition but also prepares the body for further metabolic correction.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21E/DKA/Chapter 404</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient with a history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1) syndrome presents with symptoms suggestive of a gastrinoma. Which of the following is the most common site of occurrence in MEN 1 syndrome? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jejunum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ileum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stomach", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Duodenum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Duodenum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In patients with Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1) syndrome, gastrinomas are most commonly located in the duodenum. Gastrinomas are the most common functional pancreatic endocrine tumors associated with MEN 1 and are often found in the first and second parts of the duodenum.</li><li>• Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1) Overview :</li><li>• Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1) Overview</li><li>• MEN 1 is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the endocrine glands, leading to the development of multiple endocrine tumors. The main features of MEN 1 include: Parathyroid tumors : These cause hyperparathyroidism, the most common feature of MEN 1. Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) : These tumors can be functional (producing hormones) or non-functional. Functional NETs include gastrinomas, insulinomas (causing hypoglycemia), glucagonomas, and VIPomas. Pituitary tumors : These are usually benign but can secrete various hormones, leading to different clinical manifestations such as prolactinomas, growth hormone-secreting tumors (acromegaly), and ACTH-secreting tumors (Cushing's disease).</li><li>• MEN 1 is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the endocrine glands, leading to the development of multiple endocrine tumors.</li><li>• The main features of MEN 1 include: Parathyroid tumors : These cause hyperparathyroidism, the most common feature of MEN 1. Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) : These tumors can be functional (producing hormones) or non-functional. Functional NETs include gastrinomas, insulinomas (causing hypoglycemia), glucagonomas, and VIPomas. Pituitary tumors : These are usually benign but can secrete various hormones, leading to different clinical manifestations such as prolactinomas, growth hormone-secreting tumors (acromegaly), and ACTH-secreting tumors (Cushing's disease).</li><li>• Parathyroid tumors : These cause hyperparathyroidism, the most common feature of MEN 1. Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) : These tumors can be functional (producing hormones) or non-functional. Functional NETs include gastrinomas, insulinomas (causing hypoglycemia), glucagonomas, and VIPomas. Pituitary tumors : These are usually benign but can secrete various hormones, leading to different clinical manifestations such as prolactinomas, growth hormone-secreting tumors (acromegaly), and ACTH-secreting tumors (Cushing's disease).</li><li>• Parathyroid tumors : These cause hyperparathyroidism, the most common feature of MEN 1.</li><li>• Parathyroid tumors</li><li>• Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) : These tumors can be functional (producing hormones) or non-functional. Functional NETs include gastrinomas, insulinomas (causing hypoglycemia), glucagonomas, and VIPomas.</li><li>• Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (NETs)</li><li>• Pituitary tumors : These are usually benign but can secrete various hormones, leading to different clinical manifestations such as prolactinomas, growth hormone-secreting tumors (acromegaly), and ACTH-secreting tumors (Cushing's disease).</li><li>• Pituitary tumors</li><li>• Gastrinoma and Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome :</li><li>• Gastrinoma and Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome</li><li>• Gastrinomas are associated with increased gastric acid production and can lead to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, characterized by severe peptic ulcers and gastrin overproduction.</li><li>• Gastrinomas are associated with increased gastric acid production and can lead to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, characterized by severe peptic ulcers and gastrin overproduction.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Jejunum: Gastrinomas are less commonly found in the jejunum compared to the duodenum in MEN 1 syndrome.</li><li>• Option A. Jejunum:</li><li>• Option B. Ileum: The ileum is not a common site for gastrinomas in MEN 1 syndrome. The duodenum is the primary site.</li><li>• Option B. Ileum:</li><li>• Option D. Stomach: While gastrinomas can theoretically occur in the stomach, they are most commonly found in the duodenum in patients with MEN 1 syndrome.</li><li>• Option D. Stomach:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In MEN 1 syndrome, gastrinomas are most commonly located in the duodenum. They are the most frequent functional pancreatic endocrine tumors associated with this genetic disorder.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old woman presented with post-menopausal bleeding. Ultrasonography revealed a mass with feeding vessel as shown in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibroid uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrial polyp", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leiomyosarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endometrial polyp", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/picture1.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endometrial polyp</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of a single feeding vessel in a mass seen on ultrasonography is highly suggestive of an endometrial polyp.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 460, Williams Gynecology, 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 460, Williams Gynecology, 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old male has the following buccal mucosa finding. After three days, he presents to your OPD with a rash. What is your diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leukoplakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scarlet fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kawasaki disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Measles", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture2_MRwmZqI.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles is characterized by the presence of Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa followed by a widespread rash, starting from the face and neck.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child with Wilson's disease is being considered for liver transplantation. According to King's College Criteria for predicting mortality in Acute Liver Failure (ALF), which of the following is not included?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age &lt;10 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PT &gt;100s", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bilirubin &gt;300 mmol/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jaundice less than 7 days before development of encephalopathy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Jaundice less than 7 days before development of encephalopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-162420.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Jaundice less than 7 days before development of encephalopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• King's College Criteria are widely used to predict mortality in patients with acute liver failure and identify those who may require urgent liver transplantation.</li><li>• Jaundice less than 7 days before development of encephalopathy: According to the King's College Criteria for non-paracetamol causes, a duration of jaundice before the onset of encephalopathy greater than 7 days (not less than 7 days) is one of the parameters that might indicate the need for liver transplantation. If the encephalopathy develops rapidly after the onset of jaundice (i.e., within 7 days), it suggests a more acute and potentially reversible cause, such as acute viral hepatitis, which might recover without transplantation.</li><li>• Given the information, the incorrect parameter in the King's College criteria for transplantation, would be \"Jaundice less than 7 days before development of encephalopathy\" (Option D).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Age &lt;10 years: Age is a factor in the King's College Criteria for non-paracetamol-induced liver failure. Children aged less than 10 years are considered at higher risk and this age group may be included in the criteria for transplantation.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Age &lt;10 years:</li><li>• Option B . PT &gt;100s: Prothrombin time (PT) reflects the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors. A greatly prolonged PT (&gt;100 seconds) is an indication of severe liver dysfunction and is one of the King's College Criteria for both paracetamol and non-paracetamol-induced liver failure as a potential requirement for liver transplantation.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• PT &gt;100s:</li><li>• Option C. Bilirubin &gt;300 mmol/L : An elevated bilirubin level indicates significant liver dysfunction. A bilirubin level greater than 300 µmol/L is one of the King's College Criteria for non-paracetamol-induced liver failure and suggests that liver transplantation may be necessary.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Bilirubin &gt;300 mmol/L</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ King's College Criteria for liver transplantation in acute liver failure include specific parameters such as prolonged PT, elevated bilirubin, and specific age groups . The duration of jaundice before the development of encephalopathy is significant if it exceeds 7 days. Jaundice for less than 7 days is not a parameter for transplantation.</li><li>➤ prolonged PT, elevated bilirubin, and specific age groups</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which tendons are involved in the test shown below?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EPL and EPB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "APL and EPB", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "APL and APB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "APL and EPL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. APL and EPB", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1311.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1312.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) APL and EPB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons are inflamed in the condition called De Quervain Tenosynovitis. The diagnostic special test for the condition is called Finkelstein Test as shown in the image in the question.</li><li>➤ Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons are inflamed in the condition called De Quervain Tenosynovitis.</li><li>➤ The diagnostic special test for the condition is called Finkelstein Test as shown in the image in the question.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following conditions prolactin level is highest? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "24 hours after ovulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "24 hours after delivery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "NREM Sleep", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "After running for 1 hour", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 24 hours after delivery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 24 hours after delivery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Among the given options, the prolactin level is highest 24 hours after delivery.</li><li>• This hormone is secreted by the mother’s anterior pituitary gland, and its concentration in her blood rises steadily from the fifth week of pregnancy until birth of the baby, at which time it has risen to 10 to 20 times the normal nonpregnant level.</li><li>• 24 Hours After Delivery : Following childbirth, prolactin levels are significantly elevated to facilitate breastfeeding. These levels are particularly high immediately postpartum as the body prepares to produce milk to feed the newborn. This is the period when prolactin levels are typically at their highest among the given options.</li><li>• 24 Hours After Delivery : Following childbirth, prolactin levels are significantly elevated to facilitate breastfeeding. These levels are particularly high immediately postpartum as the body prepares to produce milk to feed the newborn. This is the period when prolactin levels are typically at their highest among the given options.</li><li>• 24 Hours After Delivery</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 24 hours after ovulation : Although hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle do affect prolactin levels, these changes are moderate and do not typically reach the peak levels seen postpartum. The role of prolactin around ovulation is less pronounced compared to its surge after delivery, where it is critical for initiating and sustaining lactation.</li><li>• Option A. 24 hours after ovulation</li><li>• Option C. NREM Sleep : Prolactin levels naturally rise during sleep, especially during the deeper stages of NREM sleep, due to reduced dopamine activity, which normally inhibits prolactin secretion. Despite this increase, the levels achieved during sleep are usually not as high as those observed after childbirth, where prolactin plays a direct and significant role in breastfeeding.</li><li>• Option C. NREM Sleep</li><li>• Option D. After running for 1 hour : Physical activities and stress can lead to an increase in prolactin levels as part of the body's response to physiological stress or exertion. However, these increases are generally transient and significantly lower than the sustained high levels required for lactation post-delivery.</li><li>• Option D. After running for 1 hour</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Other factors which leads to high prolactin levels (hyperprolactinemia) in the body are:</li><li>➤ Other factors which leads to high prolactin levels (hyperprolactinemia) in the body are:</li><li>➤ During sleep, the hypothalamus releases dopamine, which inhibits the secretion of jectiveprolactin. As the night progresses and sleep deepens, dopamine levels decrease, leading to a decrease in the inhibition of prolactin release. Consequently, prolactin levels rise, reaching their peak in the early morning hours.</li><li>➤ Prolactinoma: The most common cause of hyperprolactinemia is a noncancerous tumour of the pituitary gland called a prolactinoma.</li><li>➤ Prolactinoma:</li><li>➤ Medications: Certain medications can increase prolactin levels. These include antipsychotic (such as risperidone and haloperidol), antidepressants, anti-nausea drugs (such as metoclopramide), and some high blood pressure medications.</li><li>➤ Medications:</li><li>➤ Hypothyroidism: Underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) can disrupt the normal balance of hormones in the body, including prolactin regulation.</li><li>➤ Hypothyroidism:</li><li>➤ Chronic Kidney Disease: Kidney dysfunction or chronic kidney disease can lead to hyperprolactinemia. Impaired kidney function affects the clearance of prolactin from the blood, leading to elevated levels.</li><li>➤ Chronic Kidney Disease:</li><li>➤ Stress and Emotional Factors: Extreme stress, emotional trauma, or intense physical activity can temporarily raise prolactin levels.</li><li>➤ Stress and Emotional Factors:</li><li>➤ Pregnancy and Breastfeeding : During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to prepare the breasts for milk production. After childbirth, prolactin levels remain elevated to stimulate and maintain breastfeeding.</li><li>➤ Pregnancy and Breastfeeding</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a radiological finding in a patient with left heart failure? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kerley B lines", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focal oligemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased venous blood in lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Change in upper lobe circulation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Focal oligemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/24/screenshot-2024-07-24-114523.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Focal oligemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with suspected heart failure, radiological findings such as Kerley B lines, increased pulmonary venous pressure, and altered upper lobe circulation are indicative. Focal oligemia, however, suggests a differential diagnosis of pulmonary embolism and should prompt further investigation for this condition rather than heart failure.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Radiology assistant/ CXR in heart failure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old male recently diagnosed with renal cell carcinoma, with imaging indicating a tumor size less than 4 cm, what would be the most suitable initial treatment approach for this patient's condition among the following options? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Partial nephrectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Partial nephrectomy + neoadjuvant chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radical nephrectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radical nephrectomy + postoperative radiotherapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Partial nephrectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Partial nephrectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Partial nephrectomy is the recommended initial treatment for renal cell carcinoma tumors less than 4 cm in diameter (Stage T1a), as it aims to remove the tumor while preserving as much kidney function as possible. This approach balances oncological control with the preservation of renal function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which drug is used as a first line management for postmenopausal female with osteoporosis?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bisphosphonates", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Raloxifene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Combined OC pills", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bisphosphonates", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1314_QtIykjg.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-02-192803_FRPtofW.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bisphosphonates</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Bisphosphonates are the first line drugs or drugs of choice to treat osteoporosis in post-menopausal females.</li><li>➤ Bisphosphonates are the first line drugs or drugs of choice to treat osteoporosis in post-menopausal females.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old boy presents with a history of vomiting within 3 hours of consumption of food at a party. Which of the following organism is most likely to cause these symptoms? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clostridium botulinum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clostridium perfringes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salmonella typhi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Staphylococcus aureus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/24/screenshot-2024-06-24-182540.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Staphylococcus aureus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the site of lesion in Wernicke's hemianopic pupil?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optic tract", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic radiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Optic tract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/689.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Optic tract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lesion site for Wernicke's hemianopic pupil is the optic tract, which when damaged, leads to a characteristic pupillary response where the pupil does not react to light shown on the side of the retina corresponding to the damaged tract. This finding is indicative of a post-chiasmal visual pathway issue and is useful for localizing neurological damage in clinical assessments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old child presented with 15 days of cough. On examination, cervical lymphadenopathy was noted and the lymph node biopsy showed the following features. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tuberculosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/tb-granuloma-lymph-node.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/tb-granuloma-lymph-node.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tuberculosis is characterized by caseating granulomas with eosinophilic necrotic debris, surrounded by epithelioid cells, Langhans giant cells, and lymphocytes. This histopathological pattern, along with the clinical presentation of chronic cough and cervical lymphadenopathy, is indicative of tuberculosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person develops headache and breathlessness on a trekking expedition following rapid ascent to over 3000 metres above the sea level. Which of the following is not used in treatment of the above condition? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV digoxin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immediate descent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administration of oxygen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tablet acetazolamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IV digoxin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-113544.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. IV digoxin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Barometric pressure, partial pressure of oxygen and common effects at different altitudes</li><li>➤ Barometric pressure, partial pressure of oxygen and common effects at different altitudes</li><li>➤ Treatment</li><li>➤ Oxygen supplementation Move to a lower altitude Acetazolamide – stimulates respiration and reduced intracranial pressure Portable hyperbaric bags (E.g., Gamow bag) simulate descent to a lower altitude.</li><li>➤ Oxygen supplementation</li><li>➤ Move to a lower altitude</li><li>➤ Acetazolamide – stimulates respiration and reduced intracranial pressure</li><li>➤ Portable hyperbaric bags (E.g., Gamow bag) simulate descent to a lower altitude.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old female patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has been experiencing visual changes, including blurry vision and halos around lights. She has been on medication for her rheumatoid arthritis for a couple of years now. Which of the following drugs she might be taking is known to get deposited in the cornea? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leflunomide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chloroquine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sulfasalazine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chloroquine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chloroquine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chloroquine, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can get deposited in the cornea, leading to visual disturbances such as blurry vision and halos around lights. This side effect is an important consideration in the long-term management of patients on chloroquine therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the Miami criteria for intraoperative parathyroid hormone (PTH) measurement? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Quarter fall in 5 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quarter fall in 10 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Half fall in 5 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Half fall in 10 min", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Half fall in 10 min", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Half fall in 10 min</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Miami Criteria for intraoperative PTH measurement indicate a successful parathyroidectomy if there is a 50% or greater drop in PTH level from the highest preoperative level within 10 minutes after the excision of the hyperfunctioning parathyroid gland.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If percentage of thymine residues in DNA is 28%. what is the percentage of cytosine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "28%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "44%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "36%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "22%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 22%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 22%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• By Chargaff’s rule, number of purines equal the number of pyrimidines in a double stranded DNA. So, amount of Adenine = Thymine. As Thymine is given as 28%, so total A+T is 56%. Now also, amount of Guanine = Cytosine, as they pair with each other by three hydrogen bonds. Remaining 44% (100-56) equally distributed in 22% each for guanine and cytosine.</li><li>• By Chargaff’s rule, number of purines equal the number of pyrimidines in a double stranded DNA. So, amount of Adenine = Thymine. As Thymine is given as 28%, so total A+T is 56%.</li><li>• Now also, amount of Guanine = Cytosine, as they pair with each other by three hydrogen bonds. Remaining 44% (100-56) equally distributed in 22% each for guanine and cytosine.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In DNA, thymine (T) always pairs with adenine (A), forming a complementary base pair. Similarly, cytosine (C) always pairs with guanine (G). The base pairing in DNA is always complementary, and the total percentage of purines (adenine + guanine) equals the total percentage of pyrimidines (thymine + cytosine).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old female patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has been taking theophylline for bronchodilation. She now presents with a respiratory infection, and the physician is considering antibiotic therapy. Which of the following antibiotics should not be prescribed with theophylline? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cefotaxime", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cotrimoxazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amoxicillin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Erythromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Erythromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Erythromycin should not be prescribed with theophylline because it inhibits the metabolism of theophylline, leading to elevated blood levels and an increased risk of toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an example of prospective screening? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical Pap smear in a 40-year-old patient", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neonatal screening of a new-born baby for hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Screening of immigrants to a country", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine for sugar screening in a 40-year-old man", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Screening of immigrants to a country", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-145600.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Screening of immigrants to a country</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with endometrial carcinoma is undergoing radiotherapy. Which of the following is true? (NEET PF 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intensity is inversely proportional to squared distance", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Small blood vessels are most radioresistant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rapidly proliferating cells are most radioresistant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small bowel is most radioresistant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intensity is inversely proportional to squared distance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Intensity is inversely proportional to squared distance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• This statement refers to the Inverse Square Law, which states that the intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. This means that as the distance from the radiation source increases, the intensity of the radiation decreases exponentially. This law is fundamental in radiation physics and is crucial for understanding radiation exposure and protection.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Small blood vessels are most radioresistant: This is incorrect. Larger vessels are more radioresistant compared to smaller ones. The endothelial cells lining small vessels are more susceptible to radiation damage due to their relatively higher rate of proliferation.</li><li>• Option B. Small blood vessels are most radioresistant:</li><li>• Option C. Rapidly proliferating cells are most radioresistant: This is incorrect. Rapidly proliferating cells are the most radiosensitive. Cells that are dividing quickly, such as those in the gastrointestinal tract, bone marrow, and reproductive tissues, are more susceptible to radiation damage because radiation primarily affects DNA during cell division.</li><li>• Option C. Rapidly proliferating cells are most radioresistant:</li><li>• Option D. Small bowel is most radioresistant: This is incorrect. The gastrointestinal (GI) tract, including the small bowel, is among the most radiosensitive organ systems in the body. This high radiosensitivity is due to the rapid turnover of the epithelial cells lining the GI tract.</li><li>• Option D. Small bowel is most radioresistant:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source, as described by the Inverse Square Law.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 610, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 610, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cough on scratching the external acoustic canal is due to: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Auricular branch of vagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Great auricular nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Auricular branch of vagus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Auricular branch of vagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ear-cough reflex is a unique physiological reaction mediated by the auricular branch of the vagus nerve, illustrating the interconnectedness of sensory pathways and autonomic responses in the human body.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady who is 38 weeks pregnant comes to the OPD for a routine checkup. She has a history of normal twin delivery at term 4 years ago. What is her gravida and para score? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G2P2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "G2P1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "G3P2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G3P1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. G2P1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) G2P1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The obstetric score is used to summarize the past obstetric history as follows: G - Gravidity, denoting the total number of pregnancies, including the present one P - Parity, denoting the total number of pregnancies crossing the period of viability This includes both live births and stillbirths The current pregnancy is not included A - Abortus or the number of pregnancies that were lost for any reason, including induced abortions or miscarriages L - Living children. The GTPAL system includes the following: Gravida Term (&gt;37 weeks) Preterm (20w - 36w 6d) Abortions (&lt;20 weeks) Number of living children</li><li>• The obstetric score is used to summarize the past obstetric history as follows: G - Gravidity, denoting the total number of pregnancies, including the present one P - Parity, denoting the total number of pregnancies crossing the period of viability This includes both live births and stillbirths The current pregnancy is not included A - Abortus or the number of pregnancies that were lost for any reason, including induced abortions or miscarriages L - Living children.</li><li>• G - Gravidity, denoting the total number of pregnancies, including the present one P - Parity, denoting the total number of pregnancies crossing the period of viability This includes both live births and stillbirths The current pregnancy is not included A - Abortus or the number of pregnancies that were lost for any reason, including induced abortions or miscarriages L - Living children.</li><li>• G - Gravidity, denoting the total number of pregnancies, including the present one</li><li>• P - Parity, denoting the total number of pregnancies crossing the period of viability</li><li>• This includes both live births and stillbirths</li><li>• The current pregnancy is not included</li><li>• A - Abortus or the number of pregnancies that were lost for any reason, including induced abortions or miscarriages</li><li>• L - Living children.</li><li>• The GTPAL system includes the following: Gravida Term (&gt;37 weeks) Preterm (20w - 36w 6d) Abortions (&lt;20 weeks) Number of living children</li><li>• Gravida Term (&gt;37 weeks) Preterm (20w - 36w 6d) Abortions (&lt;20 weeks) Number of living children</li><li>• Gravida</li><li>• Term (&gt;37 weeks)</li><li>• Preterm (20w - 36w 6d)</li><li>• Abortions (&lt;20 weeks)</li><li>• Number of living children</li><li>• Obstetric Score</li><li>• Obstetric Score</li><li>• Gravidity : G2 (Second pregnancy) Parity : P1 (One previous pregnancy reaching viability, twins count as one para)</li><li>• Gravidity : G2 (Second pregnancy)</li><li>• Gravidity</li><li>• G2 (Second pregnancy)</li><li>• G2 (Second pregnancy)</li><li>• Parity : P1 (One previous pregnancy reaching viability, twins count as one para)</li><li>• Parity</li><li>• P1 (One previous pregnancy reaching viability, twins count as one para)</li><li>• P1 (One previous pregnancy reaching viability, twins count as one para)</li><li>• So, the correct obstetric score for this lady is G2P1.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gravida denotes the number of pregnancies, and para denotes the number of pregnancies reaching the period of viability. Twins count as one in the para score, and the current pregnancy is included in gravida but not in para until delivery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 469, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 469, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy was suffering from low grade fever, inspiratory stridor and barking cough for past 5 days. His chest X-ray is given below. What is the cause of this condition? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Moraxella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parainfluenza", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemophilus influenza", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphvlococcus aureus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Parainfluenza", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_tMpAhSj.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Parainfluenza</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parainfluenza is a common cause of croup. The 'Steeple sign' on X-ray supports this diagnosis, emphasizing the need for prompt and effective treatment to ensure rapid recovery and prevent complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male presented with tachypnea and mental confusion. His blood sugar is 350 mg/dL, pH - 7.2, HCO3- 10 mEq/L, pCO2 – 25 mmHg. What is the metabolic abnormality? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metabolic acidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Metabolic acidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the presence of high blood sugar and the reported ABG values, metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis, should be considered. This condition requires prompt recognition and management, typically involving fluid resuscitation, insulin therapy, and electrolyte management to reverse the ketosis and acidosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man, a habitual smoker, visits the hospital. He describes experiencing recurring pain in his thighs and buttocks when he walks, particularly noticeable after covering a distance of approximately 500 meters. What could be a plausible diagnosis for his symptoms?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arterial disease involving the superficial femoral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arterial disease with aortoiliac involvement", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femoral venous insufficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arterial disease involving the profunda femoris artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Arterial disease with aortoiliac involvement", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-152856.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Arterial disease with aortoiliac involvement</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario is suggestive of arterial disease with intermittent claudication due to aortoiliac occlusion. Claudication pain in the buttocks and thighs, particularly during walking, is a typical symptom of aortoiliac occlusive disease, also known as Leriche syndrome in more severe cases if associated with impotence. The aortoiliac arteries are major blood vessels that supply the lower half of the body. Blockages in these arteries can lead to pain in the buttocks, thighs, or hips upon exertion. The claudication pain in the buttocks or thighs, as described by the patient, is a typical symptom of aortoiliac occlusive disease. Therefore, this is the most plausible diagnosis given the patient's symptoms.</li><li>• The given clinical scenario is suggestive of arterial disease with intermittent claudication due to aortoiliac occlusion. Claudication pain in the buttocks and thighs, particularly during walking, is a typical symptom of aortoiliac occlusive disease, also known as Leriche syndrome in more severe cases if associated with impotence.</li><li>• The aortoiliac arteries are major blood vessels that supply the lower half of the body. Blockages in these arteries can lead to pain in the buttocks, thighs, or hips upon exertion. The claudication pain in the buttocks or thighs, as described by the patient, is a typical symptom of aortoiliac occlusive disease. Therefore, this is the most plausible diagnosis given the patient's symptoms.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Arterial disease involving the superficial femoral artery: This type of arterial disease would involve blockage in the superficial femoral artery, which runs through the thigh. Patients with this condition typically experience claudication pain in the calf muscles because the superficial femoral artery primarily supplies the calf muscles.</li><li>• Option A. Arterial disease involving the superficial femoral artery:</li><li>• Option C. Femoral venous insufficiency: Femoral venous insufficiency involves issues with the veins, not the arteries. This condition typically leads to symptoms like leg swelling, varicose veins, and skin changes, but it does not cause claudication or pain upon walking specific distances.</li><li>• Option C. Femoral venous insufficiency:</li><li>• Option D. Arterial disease involving the profunda femoris artery: The profunda femoris artery is a deep artery of the thigh. Blockage in this artery can cause pain, but the pain would typically present differently from the described scenario. The location and type of pain would be more localized to the thigh rather than involving the buttocks.</li><li>• Option D. Arterial disease involving the profunda femoris artery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Claudication pain in the buttocks and thighs during walking, particularly in a habitual smoker, is highly suggestive of arterial disease with aortoiliac involvement. This is characterized by blockages in the aortoiliac arteries, leading to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of Thoracoscore? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Performance status", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complication of surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ASA grading", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Priority of surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Complication of surgery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-154246.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Complication of Surgery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thoracoscore is a predictive risk model for mortality within 30 days following thoracic surgery. It includes parameters such as age, sex, performance status, dyspnea score, ASA score, cardiovascular comorbidity, surgical procedure extent, cancer status, and urgency of surgery, but does not include the complication of surgery as a predefined parameter.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following effects of puberty are not mediated by estrogen? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hair growth", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical mucus secretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaginal cornification", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Menstruation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hair growth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hair growth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hair growth during puberty is mediated by testosterone, not estrogen. Estrogen is responsible for breast development, internal genitalia development, menarche, growth spurt regulation, epiphyseal closure, and cervical mucus secretion.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 531, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 531, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the maternal condition that can lead to the findings in the baby as shown below? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pre-gestational diabetes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gestational diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Effect of valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertensive on ACE inhibitors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pre-gestational diabetes", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/picture5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pre-gestational diabetes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The image shows a condition known as mermaid syndrome or sirenomelia, which is a rare congenital deformity characterized by the fusion of the lower limbs. This condition is characteristically associated with overt (pre-gestational) diabetes mellitus.</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Key Points:</li><li>• Sirenomelia (mermaid syndrome) is strongly linked to maternal pre-gestational diabetes. Overt diabetes mellitus during pregnancy is known to cause various congenital anomalies, with cardiac anomalies being the most common, specifically ventricular septal defects (VSD).</li><li>• Sirenomelia (mermaid syndrome) is strongly linked to maternal pre-gestational diabetes.</li><li>• Overt diabetes mellitus during pregnancy is known to cause various congenital anomalies, with cardiac anomalies being the most common, specifically ventricular septal defects (VSD).</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Gestational diabetes mellitus: Gestational diabetes typically occurs later in pregnancy and does not usually cause congenital anomalies, as organogenesis is largely complete by the time gestational diabetes is diagnosed.</li><li>• Option B. Gestational diabetes mellitus:</li><li>• Option C. Effect of valproate: Valproate exposure during pregnancy is associated with neural tube defects, facial anomalies (such as cleft lip and palate), and cardiac anomalies, but not sirenomelia.</li><li>• Option C. Effect of valproate:</li><li>• Option D. Hypertensive on ACE inhibitors: ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers reduce fetal renal perfusion, leading to conditions such as oligohydramnios and subsequent pulmonary hypoplasia, but they do not cause sirenomelia.</li><li>• Option D. Hypertensive on ACE inhibitors:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pre-gestational diabetes is associated with an increased risk of congenital anomalies, including mermaid syndrome (sirenomelia), characterized by the fusion of lower limbs.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 384, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 384, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the drug used to treat the condition shown below: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Topical steroids therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-leprosy treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti-fungal therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-tubercular therapy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Anti-tubercular therapy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/449.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-27-194250.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-101358.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Anti-tubercular therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lupus vulgaris is a form of cutaneous tuberculosis characterized by irregular plaques that show progression at one margin and healing with scarring at another, and to understand that the appropriate treatment is a multi-drug anti-tubercular therapy regimen.</li><li>➤ Lupus vulgaris</li><li>➤ cutaneous tuberculosis</li><li>➤ irregular plaques</li><li>➤ progression at one margin</li><li>➤ healing with scarring</li><li>➤ anti-tubercular therapy regimen.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 27.21-27.23, 32.35-32.36, 33.44-33.45</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 27.21-27.23, 32.35-32.36, 33.44-33.45</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old man with chronic liver disease is experiencing recurrent urinary tract infections. His healthcare team is considering various antibiotics, including fluoroquinolones, to treat the infection. Which of the following fluoroquinolones is not recommended for use in patients with liver disease? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levofloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pefloxacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lomefloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pefloxacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pefloxacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluoroquinolones that are safe in renal failure, avoided in liver failure and not effective in UTI include:</li><li>➤ P: Pefloxacin M: Moxifloxacin T: Trovafloxacin</li><li>➤ P: Pefloxacin</li><li>➤ M: Moxifloxacin</li><li>➤ T: Trovafloxacin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vitamin, when infused in supraphysiological doses, causes macular edema and macular cysts? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vitamin B3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Vitamin B3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nicotinic acid when given orally or parenterally produces a transient vasodilatation of the cutaneous vessels and histamine release. The reaction is accompanied by itching, burning and tingling . Intake of nicotinic acid in excess of 50 mg/day may lead to liver damage (Raised AST and ALT levels, Fulminant hepatitis)</li><li>➤ histamine release.</li><li>➤ itching, burning</li><li>➤ and tingling</li><li>➤ Niacin causes a reversible toxic cystoid maculopathy that occurs in approximately 0.67% of patients taking high doses of the drug.</li><li>➤ reversible toxic cystoid maculopathy</li><li>➤ Other symptoms –</li><li>➤ Other symptoms –</li><li>➤ Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Glucose intolerance (therefore weekly glucose monitoring done if given in diabetics) Hyperuricemia</li><li>➤ Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.</li><li>➤ Glucose intolerance (therefore weekly glucose monitoring done if given in diabetics)</li><li>➤ Glucose intolerance</li><li>➤ Hyperuricemia</li><li>➤ Hyperuricemia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Extra row of eyelashes behind the grey line is called as? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Distichiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tylosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Madarosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Distichiasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-138.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Distichiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Distichiasis is the condition where an extra row of eyelashes grows behind the normal lash line, often leading to corneal irritation and requiring treatment such as cryotherapy or electrolysis to prevent complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The appearance of saphenofemoral junction on USG, showing common femoral vein, common femoral artery and the great saphenous vein is called as:(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "String sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tillaux sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mickey mouse sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stemmer sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mickey mouse sign", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_UAwNsfD.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_208.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Mickey mouse sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Mickey Mouse sign is the normal anatomy of the common femoral artery, common femoral vein and great saphenous vein on ultrasound at the saphenofemoral junction.</li><li>• common femoral artery, common femoral vein and great saphenous vein</li><li>• Mickey mouse sign: Normal SFJ</li><li>• Mickey mouse sign: Normal SFJ</li><li>• IOC for varicose veins, SFJ incompetence: Doppler USG</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A: String sign results from a severe narrowing of a bowel loop , which makes the lumen resemble a string. Seen in case of Pyloric stenosis .</li><li>• Option A: String sign</li><li>• severe narrowing of a bowel loop</li><li>• Pyloric stenosis</li><li>• Option B: Tillaux sign is positive in the case of mesenteric cyst . It is described as a mass lesion of the abdomen which is only mobile in the horizontal and not in vertical direction.</li><li>• Option B:</li><li>• Tillaux sign</li><li>• mesenteric cyst</li><li>• Option D: Stemmer sign is seen as non-pitting edema in cases of lymphedema.</li><li>• Option D:</li><li>• Stemmer sign</li><li>• non-pitting edema</li><li>• in cases of lymphedema.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Mickey Mouse sign\" on ultrasound is a useful anatomical descriptor for the normal configuration of the saphenofemoral junction, aiding in the assessment and diagnosis of venous issues at this location.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following structures prevents the upward extension of thyroid swelling through its attachment to the thyroid cartilage? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pretracheal fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sternothyroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thyrohyoid membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ligament of berry", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sternothyroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-095443.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-095644.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sternothyroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sternothyroid muscle originates from the posterior surface of the manubrium of the sternum and inserts into the oblique line of the thyroid cartilage. It functions to depress the thyroid cartilage.</li><li>➤ Sternothyroid</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-foot 5-inch man undergoing a routine physical examination was found to have an early diastolic murmur. His family pedigree chart is given below. Identify the mode of inheritance of this condition: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autosomal dominant", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X-linked", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitochondrial", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Autosomal dominant", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/54_pUfVzzu.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/55.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Autosomal dominant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of Marfan syndrome is made based on clinical features and genetic testing. Treatment typically involves management of cardiovascular complications, such as regular monitoring of the aorta and prophylactic aortic surgery, if necessary, as well as management of other symptoms such as lens dislocation and skeletal abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly woman is brought to the OPD with complaints of behavioral change, a history of multiple falls, urinary incontinence, and dementia. What is your diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal pressure hydrocephalus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontotemporal dementia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parkinson disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Normal pressure hydrocephalus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NPH is characterized by Dementia, Apraxia/Magnetic gait with urinary incontinence due to frontal lobe dysfunction</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Dementia/Chap 434</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true about Japanese encephalitis? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transmitted by Culex vishnui", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pig is the amplifier host", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Man acts as the reservoir", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vaccinating pigs is helpful in disease control", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Man acts as the reservoir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Man acts as the reservoir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the transmission dynamics of Japanese encephalitis is crucial for implementing effective control measures. While humans can become severely ill from JE, they do not play a significant role in the disease's transmission cycle, emphasizing the importance of controlling mosquito populations and managing amplifier hosts like pigs to reduce the incidence of this potentially deadly disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with a history of infertility is on treatment with human gonadotropin. She presented with the following finding in the USG. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Theca lutein cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polycystic ovarian syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/picture3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ OHSS is characterized by multiple enlarged ovarian follicles and fluid accumulation in the pelvic cavity, often occurring after exogenous gonadotropin administration in infertility treatments.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 456, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 456, Williams Gynecology 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After successful delivery of the baby, the obstetrician witnesses that the episiotomy performed has extended backwards beyond the perineal body. Which among the following structures is likely to be injured in this case? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "External anal sphincter", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ischiocavernosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bulbospongiosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urethral sphincter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. External anal sphincter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) External anal sphincter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Obstetrical Anal Sphincter Injuries (OASIS) include third and fourth-degree lacerations. Third-degree lacerations involve the external anal sphincter: 3A: Less than 50% of the external anal sphincter torn. 3B: More than 50% of the external anal sphincter torn. 3C: Both the external and internal anal sphincter torn. Fourth-degree lacerations extend to the rectal mucosa. In the scenario mentioned, the episiotomy has extended backward beyond the perineal body, likely damaging the anal sphincter and potentially the anal mucosa.</li><li>• Obstetrical Anal Sphincter Injuries (OASIS) include third and fourth-degree lacerations.</li><li>• Third-degree lacerations involve the external anal sphincter: 3A: Less than 50% of the external anal sphincter torn. 3B: More than 50% of the external anal sphincter torn. 3C: Both the external and internal anal sphincter torn.</li><li>• Third-degree lacerations</li><li>• 3A: Less than 50% of the external anal sphincter torn. 3B: More than 50% of the external anal sphincter torn. 3C: Both the external and internal anal sphincter torn.</li><li>• 3A: Less than 50% of the external anal sphincter torn.</li><li>• 3A:</li><li>• 3B: More than 50% of the external anal sphincter torn.</li><li>• 3B:</li><li>• 3C: Both the external and internal anal sphincter torn.</li><li>• 3C:</li><li>• Fourth-degree lacerations extend to the rectal mucosa.</li><li>• Fourth-degree lacerations</li><li>• In the scenario mentioned, the episiotomy has extended backward beyond the perineal body, likely damaging the anal sphincter and potentially the anal mucosa.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B: Ischiocavernosus: This muscle is located more laterally and is less likely to be involved in a backward extension of the episiotomy.</li><li>• Option B: Ischiocavernosus:</li><li>• Option C: Bulbospongiosus: This muscle is located in the perineal body and is usually affected by a standard episiotomy, but not specifically by a backward extension beyond the perineal body.</li><li>• Option C: Bulbospongiosus:</li><li>• Option D: Urethral sphincter: This sphincter is located anteriorly and is not involved in a backward extension of the episiotomy.</li><li>• Option D: Urethral sphincter:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases where an episiotomy extends backward beyond the perineal body, the external anal sphincter is the structure most likely to be injured.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1307, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1307, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Enzyme activated by a decrease in insulin: glucagon ratio is? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hexokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phosphofructokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucose 6-phosphatase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glucose 6-phosphatase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Glucose 6-phosphatase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Low insulin glucagon ratio means it is fasting state, as in fed state insulin is more. So in fasting state glucose-6-phosphatase will be active as this enzyme is involved in gluconeogenesis , which occurs during fasting. Phosphofructokinase is involved in glycolysis. PFK-1 is active in any situation and PFK-2 is active only in fed state. Glucokinase phosphorylates glucose in liver and pancreas, active in fed state and is induced by insulin. Hexokinase also phosphorylates glucose and is present in all cells of the body. It is active in any situation in body as it is a general enzyme to phosphorylate glucose.</li><li>➤ Low insulin glucagon ratio means it is fasting state, as in fed state insulin is more. So in fasting state glucose-6-phosphatase will be active as this enzyme is involved in gluconeogenesis , which occurs during fasting.</li><li>➤ So in fasting state glucose-6-phosphatase will be active as this enzyme is involved in gluconeogenesis</li><li>➤ Phosphofructokinase is involved in glycolysis. PFK-1 is active in any situation and PFK-2 is active only in fed state.</li><li>➤ Glucokinase phosphorylates glucose in liver and pancreas, active in fed state and is induced by insulin.</li><li>➤ Hexokinase also phosphorylates glucose and is present in all cells of the body. It is active in any situation in body as it is a general enzyme to phosphorylate glucose.</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31st ed pg – 137-138</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31st ed pg – 137-138</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not used for the identification of the facial nerve trunk? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retrograde dissection from distal branch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tragal pointer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior belly of digastric", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-093835.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-163831.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methods to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotid surgeries:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman presents for a routine antenatal checkup at 18 weeks of gestation. On abdominal examination, the uterine size was found to correspond to 16 weeks of gestation. On US, oligohydramnios was found. Which of the following is a likely cause? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal agenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetal anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barter syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anencephaly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Renal agenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Renal agenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Early onset oligohydramnios can be due to renal anomalies like bilateral renal agenesis, bilateral dysplastic kidneys, or bilateral autosomal recessive infantile polycystic kidney disease.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 352, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 352, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient has been receiving first-line pharmacological treatment for bipolar disorder for 6 months. She is fasting for religious reasons and is experiencing seizures, coarse tremors, confusion, and limb weakness. Which of the following tests should be performed to help diagnose her condition? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum potassium level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum lithium level", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ECG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum sodium level", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Serum lithium level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Serum lithium level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serum lithium level should be checked in a patient receiving lithium therapy for bipolar disorder who presents with symptoms such as seizures, coarse tremors, confusion, and limb weakness, especially in the context of fasting or dehydration. This is crucial to diagnosing and managing lithium toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A comparison is made between the variability present in one dataset and that in another dataset by: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Variance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coefficient of variation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Standard error of mean", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Standard deviation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coefficient of variation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coefficient of variation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Coefficient of Variation (CV) is the appropriate measure for comparing the relative variability of different datasets because it standardizes the measure of dispersion relative to the mean, allowing for meaningful comparisons across different datasets.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not involved in urethritis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichomonas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlamydia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gonococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "H.ducreyi", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. H.ducreyi", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) H.ducreyi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Urethritis is classified into two types:</li><li>➤ Gonococcal urethritis - caused by Neisseria gonorrhea. Non-gonococcal urethritis - caused by: Chlamydia trachomatis (most common ) Ureaplasma urealyticum Adenovirus Haemophilus vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalium Tricomonas vaginalis (rare) Herpes simplex virus (rare)</li><li>➤ Gonococcal urethritis - caused by Neisseria gonorrhea.</li><li>➤ Non-gonococcal urethritis - caused by: Chlamydia trachomatis (most common ) Ureaplasma urealyticum Adenovirus Haemophilus vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalium Tricomonas vaginalis (rare) Herpes simplex virus (rare)</li><li>➤ Chlamydia trachomatis (most common ) Ureaplasma urealyticum Adenovirus Haemophilus vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalium Tricomonas vaginalis (rare) Herpes simplex virus (rare)</li><li>➤ Chlamydia trachomatis (most common )</li><li>➤ Chlamydia trachomatis (most common</li><li>➤ Ureaplasma urealyticum</li><li>➤ Adenovirus</li><li>➤ Haemophilus vaginalis</li><li>➤ Mycoplasma genitalium</li><li>➤ Tricomonas vaginalis (rare)</li><li>➤ Herpes simplex virus (rare)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following analyses is monetary benefit quantified? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cost effective analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cost benefit analysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Network analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Input Output analysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cost benefit analysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cost benefit analysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CBA [Cost Benefit Analysis] - Results of a program analyzed in terms of MONETARY benefits, e.g. NTEP (2023-24) saved 12 m US $</li><li>➤ CBA [Cost Benefit Analysis] -</li><li>➤ CEA [Cost Effective Analysis] - Output of a program analyzed in terms of RESULTS eg. NTEP (2023-24) save 1.7 Million people can be determined with help of QALY.</li><li>➤ CEA [Cost Effective Analysis] -</li><li>➤ INPUT-OUTPUT ANALYSIS - Calculation of effects of changing the inputs (Includes CBA &amp; CEA)</li><li>➤ INPUT-OUTPUT ANALYSIS -</li><li>➤ NETWORK ANALYSIS – It is a quantitative method. It includes activities &amp; events. PERT is sequence of activities. CPM is the longest path in PERT.</li><li>➤ NETWORK ANALYSIS –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy presents with bitemporal hemianopia. CT is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": " Pituitary adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meningioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Craniopharyngioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oligodendroglioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Craniopharyngioma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_rW5stwZ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_204.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_205.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_206.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Craniopharyngioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A calcified lesion in the suprasellar region suggests craniopharyngioma . It is derived from Rathke's pouch.</li><li>• calcified lesion in the suprasellar region</li><li>• suggests craniopharyngioma</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A: Pituitary adenomas are seen in the sellar region in adults. Macroadenomas are seen as snowman or figure of eight appearance.</li><li>• Option A:</li><li>• Macroadenomas are seen as snowman or figure of eight appearance.</li><li>• Option B: Meningioma is a supratentorial tumor, mainly in the parasagittal region. A classical Dural tail is seen.</li><li>• Option B:</li><li>• Dural tail</li><li>• Option D : Oligodendroglioma is exclusively found in the cerebral hemispheres, most commonly in the frontal lobes. Up to 90% of oligodendrogliomas contain visible calcification on CT .</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• calcification on CT</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Craniopharyngioma should be considered in pediatric patients presenting with visual disturbances and evidence of a calcified mass in the suprasellar region on imaging. This diagnosis is important due to the potential impact on the optic pathways and pituitary gland function, requiring careful management.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference– Grainger &amp; Allison’s Diagnostic Radiology Essentials, Second Edition, Page No 742</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department, reporting upper abdominal pain that started after consuming a large meal. During the physical examination, there's notable tenderness in the upper abdominal region. Findings from a chest X-ray show an enlargement of the mediastinum and pneumomediastinum. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spontaneous perforation of esophagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perforation of peptic ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foreign body in esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rupture of emphysematous bulla of lung", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Spontaneous perforation of esophagus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Spontaneous perforation of esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical scenario is suggestive of spontaneous perforation of the esophagus, also known as Boerhaave's syndrome. It occurs due to vomiting against a closed glottis/cricopharynx, leading to a massive rise in esophageal pressure and subsequent perforation. This typically happens on the left lower wall of the esophagus.</li><li>• Clinical Features of Spontaneous Perforation of the Esophagus (Boerhaave's Syndrome):</li><li>• Clinical Features of Spontaneous Perforation of the Esophagus (Boerhaave's Syndrome):</li><li>• Chest Pain: Sudden and severe pain that may radiate to the back, neck, or abdomen, often exacerbated by swallowing. Vomiting: Severe vomiting that precedes the onset of pain, leading to esophageal rupture. Dyspnea or Shortness of Breath: Due to leakage of air and fluids into the chest cavity, causing pleural effusion or pneumothorax. Subcutaneous Emphysema: Air leaks from the esophagus into the chest wall, causing a characteristic crackling sensation when the skin is palpated. Shock: Severe cases may lead to shock due to sepsis or hypovolemia. Hamman's Sign: A crunching or rasping sound synchronous with the heartbeat, heard over the precordium or left lateral chest wall on auscultation, caused by heartbeats displacing air-filled tissues. Abdominal Pain and Tenderness: Especially if the perforation is near the lower part of the esophagus. Fever: A response to inflammation and infection.</li><li>• Chest Pain: Sudden and severe pain that may radiate to the back, neck, or abdomen, often exacerbated by swallowing.</li><li>• Chest Pain:</li><li>• Vomiting: Severe vomiting that precedes the onset of pain, leading to esophageal rupture.</li><li>• Vomiting:</li><li>• Dyspnea or Shortness of Breath: Due to leakage of air and fluids into the chest cavity, causing pleural effusion or pneumothorax.</li><li>• Dyspnea or Shortness of Breath:</li><li>• Subcutaneous Emphysema: Air leaks from the esophagus into the chest wall, causing a characteristic crackling sensation when the skin is palpated.</li><li>• Subcutaneous Emphysema:</li><li>• Shock: Severe cases may lead to shock due to sepsis or hypovolemia.</li><li>• Shock:</li><li>• Hamman's Sign: A crunching or rasping sound synchronous with the heartbeat, heard over the precordium or left lateral chest wall on auscultation, caused by heartbeats displacing air-filled tissues.</li><li>• Hamman's Sign:</li><li>• Abdominal Pain and Tenderness: Especially if the perforation is near the lower part of the esophagus.</li><li>• Abdominal Pain and Tenderness:</li><li>• Fever: A response to inflammation and infection.</li><li>• Fever:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Perforation of peptic ulcer: This usually presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain and signs of peritonitis. The diagnosis would typically show free air under the diaphragm on an upright chest X-ray, not mediastinal enlargement and pneumomediastinum.</li><li>• Option B. Perforation of peptic ulcer:</li><li>• Option C. Foreign body in esophagus: This condition may cause dysphagia, odynophagia, and localized pain but is less likely to present with mediastinal enlargement and pneumomediastinum unless it leads to perforation.</li><li>• Option C. Foreign body in esophagus:</li><li>• Option D. Rupture of emphysematous bulla of lung: This condition can cause sudden chest pain and pneumothorax but does not typically present with pneumomediastinum and is not related to eating or upper abdominal pain.</li><li>• Option D. Rupture of emphysematous bulla of lung:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spontaneous perforation of the esophagus (Boerhaave's syndrome) is characterized by severe chest pain, vomiting, dyspnea, subcutaneous emphysema, and pneumomediastinum, often following severe vomiting. This diagnosis should be considered in patients presenting with these symptoms, especially with radiographic evidence of mediastinal enlargement and pneumomediastinum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with weakness of the right side of the face with the loss of pain and temperature. Pain and temperature sensation of the left leg is also lost. The lesion is most likely located at?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial medulla", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral pons", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial pons", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral medulla", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lateral pons", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/15/screenshot-2024-05-15-102147.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-175932.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Lateral pons</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Stroke symptoms</li><li>➤ Stroke symptoms</li><li>➤ Rule of 4’s</li><li>➤ Rule of 4’s</li><li>➤ 4 cranial nerves originate above pons (2 in midbrain), 4 in pons, 4 in medulla 4 midline cranial nerves (CN 3, 4, 6, 12) (divide equally into 12 except 1 and 2) 4 Midline structures that begin with M Motor pathway (aka corticospinal tract) Medial lemniscus Medial longitudinal fasciculus Medial cranial nerves (CN 3, 4, 6, 12) 4 structures to the Side that begin with S Spinocerebellar pathway (ipsilateral ataxia of arm and leg) Spinothalamic pathway Sensory portion of CN V Sympathetic pathway</li><li>➤ 4 cranial nerves originate above pons (2 in midbrain), 4 in pons, 4 in medulla</li><li>➤ 4 midline cranial nerves (CN 3, 4, 6, 12) (divide equally into 12 except 1 and 2)</li><li>➤ 4 Midline structures that begin with M Motor pathway (aka corticospinal tract) Medial lemniscus Medial longitudinal fasciculus Medial cranial nerves (CN 3, 4, 6, 12)</li><li>➤ Motor pathway (aka corticospinal tract) Medial lemniscus Medial longitudinal fasciculus Medial cranial nerves (CN 3, 4, 6, 12)</li><li>➤ Motor pathway (aka corticospinal tract)</li><li>➤ Medial lemniscus</li><li>➤ Medial longitudinal fasciculus</li><li>➤ Medial cranial nerves (CN 3, 4, 6, 12)</li><li>➤ 4 structures to the Side that begin with S Spinocerebellar pathway (ipsilateral ataxia of arm and leg) Spinothalamic pathway Sensory portion of CN V Sympathetic pathway</li><li>➤ Spinocerebellar pathway (ipsilateral ataxia of arm and leg) Spinothalamic pathway Sensory portion of CN V Sympathetic pathway</li><li>➤ Spinocerebellar pathway (ipsilateral ataxia of arm and leg)</li><li>➤ Spinothalamic pathway</li><li>➤ Sensory portion of CN V</li><li>➤ Sympathetic pathway</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the hospital with complaint of abdominal pain. Routine investigations were unremarkable. On observation, the urine turned black on standing. Which of the following enzymes is likely to be defective in this patient? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Homogentisate oxidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xanthine oxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dihydro orotate dehydrogenase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Homogentisate oxidase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Homogentisate oxidase</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child who is a victim under POCSO act is brought to the department of forensic medicine for age estimation. The X-ray image of the hand is shown below. What is the likely age of the child? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "9 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "13 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 13 years", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/untitled-13601.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-113218.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-113324.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 13 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Age of appearance of carpal bones is given below:</li><li>➤ Age of appearance of carpal bones is given below:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true about polyarteritis nodosa? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Necrotizing inflammation of large vessels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Patient has hypogammaglobulinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "90% is associated with ANCA positivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30% is associated with Hepatitis B", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 30% is associated with Hepatitis B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/24/screenshot-2024-07-24-104010.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 30% association with Hepatitis B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Rheumatology/Vasculitis/Chap 363</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these methods relies on behavioral sciences? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decision making", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systems analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Network analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Management by objective", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Management by objective", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-150243.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Management by objective</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All-trans retinoic acid is used in the treatment of tumor that is associated with which of the following genetic aberrations? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PML-RARA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "BCR ABL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CMYC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RUNX1 ETO", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. PML-RARA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/48_GfWwlkg.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) PML-RARA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) is used in the treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), which is characterized by the PML-RARA fusion gene resulting from the t(15;17) translocation. This treatment promotes the differentiation of leukemic promyelocytes, improving clinical outcomes in APL patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man falls into a deep sleep with one arm under his head. He finds he is not able to move this arm when he awakens. However, it tingles and pain sensation in the arm is still intact. What is the reason for the loss of motor function without loss of pain sensation is that in the nerves to his arm?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "B fibers are more susceptible to pressure than A fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A fibers are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Motor nerves are more affected by sleep than sensory nerves", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A fibers are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/690.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-120424.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. A fibers are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The reason for the loss of motor function without loss of pain sensation is that in the nerves to his arm, A-fibers are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers.</li><li>• Pressure on a nerve due to sleeping with arms under the head leads to the loss of conduction in large-diameter motor, touch, and pressure fibers, while pain sensation remains relatively intact.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. B fibers are more susceptible to pressure than A fibers : Incorrect. B fibers, which are generally involved in autonomic functions, are not the primary concern in this scenario involving motor and sensory disturbances.</li><li>• Option A. B fibers are more susceptible to pressure than A fibers</li><li>• Option C. C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A fibers : Incorrect. It's the opposite; A fibers are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers, making them more likely to be compromised under mechanical compression.</li><li>• Option C. C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A fibers</li><li>• Option D. Motor nerves are more affected by sleep than sensory nerves : Incorrect. The loss of function is not due to sleep per se but due to mechanical pressure affecting nerve conduction.</li><li>• Option D. Motor nerves are more affected by sleep than sensory nerves</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In situations where pressure is applied to nerves, such as sleeping with an arm in a compromising position, the larger, myelinated A fibers (including motor fibers) are more susceptible to disruption compared to the smaller, unmyelinated C fibers. This leads to a loss of motor function and normal touch sensation, while pain sensation remains relatively intact due to the resilience of C fibers to mechanical pressure.</li><li>➤ Relative susceptibility of nerve fibres –</li><li>➤ Relative susceptibility of nerve fibres –</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young child complained to his parents that he was touched inappropriately by a neighbor. On examination by a doctor in the OPD, he complained of pain when touched in the perianal area. On subjecting the specimen from the perianal region to a test, it produces yellow rhombic crystals of spermine pirate. What is the test done? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Barberio test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Florence test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Takayama test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Teichmann test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Barberio test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-111851.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-111909.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-111920.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-111939.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Barberio test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The Barberio test detects the presence of spermine from semen by forming yellow needle-shaped crystals of spermine picrate, making it the correct test for the described scenario.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The slowing of conduction in multiple sclerosis is due to which of the following? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gliosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loss of myelin sheath", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Defect at node of Ranvier", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leaky Na+ channel", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Loss of myelin sheath", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Loss of myelin sheath</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple sclerosis is characterized by demyelination that results in loss of saltatory conduction occurring from one node of Ranvier to the other .</li><li>➤ demyelination that results in loss of saltatory conduction occurring from one node of Ranvier to the other</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Multiple sclerosis/Chap 444</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Zika virus is transmitted by: ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aedes aegypti", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anopheles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phlebotomus papatasii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aedes aegypti", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Aedes aegypti</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aedes aegypti mosquitoes are the primary vectors for the transmission of Zika virus. Effective prevention and control measures involve protecting against mosquito bites through the use of insect repellents, bed nets, and eliminating standing water where mosquitoes breed. Awareness of the risks associated with Zika, particularly for pregnant women, is crucial for preventing infection and its severe consequences.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Respiratory distress syndrome is due to defect in which of the following cell?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 pneumocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 2 pneumocytes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alveolar capillary endothelial cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchial mucosal epithelial cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 2 pneumocytes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Type 2 pneumocytes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Respiratory distress syndrome, especially in premature infants, is commonly due to insufficient surfactant production by Type 2 pneumocytes. This deficiency impedes the lungs' ability to expand properly, leading to respiratory distress. Management often includes the administration of exogenous surfactant and supportive care to enhance lung function until the infant's own cells can produce adequate surfactant.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old male with a diagnosis of schizophrenia was started on an antipsychotic medication. Within a few weeks, he developed symptoms of Parkinsonism, such as bradykinesia, rigidity, and a shuffling gait. The medical team is considering prescribing an additional medication to manage these extrapyramidal side effects. Which of the following drugs can be given to this patient? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trihexyphenidyl", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Entacapone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rasagiline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pramipexole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trihexyphenidyl", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trihexyphenidyl</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trihexyphenidyl is the appropriate medication for managing extrapyramidal side effects, such as Parkinsonism, induced by antipsychotic medications. It works by counteracting the dopamine antagonism and restoring the balance between acetylcholine and dopamine in the brain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is contraindicated in a patient with interstitial lung disease? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sotalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quinidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lignocaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amiodarone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Amiodarone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amiodarone is contraindicated in patients with interstitial lung disease due to its potential to cause pulmonary fibrosis, a serious and potentially irreversible adverse effect. It is essential to consider this risk when prescribing antiarrhythmic therapy to patients with pre-existing lung conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman visits the infertility clinic with a complaint of recurrent abortions. Upon investigations, she is found to have a septate uterus. Which of the following corrective procedures has the best obstetric outcome? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jones metroplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Strassmann metroplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tompkins metroplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transcervical resection of septum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Transcervical resection of septum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Transcervical resection of septum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum has the best obstetric outcome. The procedure involves the resection of the septum under hysteroscopic guidance. Hence, it doesn't scar the uterus and avoids the necessity of Cesarean sections for future pregnancies improving the obstetric outcomes.</li><li>• Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum has the best obstetric outcome.</li><li>• The procedure involves the resection of the septum under hysteroscopic guidance. Hence, it doesn't scar the uterus and avoids the necessity of Cesarean sections for future pregnancies improving the obstetric outcomes.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Metroplasty is a type of unification procedures in mullerian anomalies</li><li>• Option A. Jones metroplasty and Option C. Tompkins metroplasty are for septate uterus but are not preferred now. As now the treatment of choice is hysteroscopic resection of the septa.</li><li>• Option A. Jones metroplasty</li><li>• Option C. Tompkins metroplasty</li><li>• Option B. Strassman metroplasty : Strassman metroplasty is for bicornuate uterus.</li><li>• Option B. Strassman metroplasty</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum is the best corrective procedure for a septate uterus to improve obstetric outcomes, as it does not scar the uterus and allows for future vaginal deliveries.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 659, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 659, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old diabetic patient presented with the squint. On examination, the secondary deviation was found to be more than the primary deviation. Forced duction test is negative. Which of the following types of squint is most likely to be present in this patient? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Concomitant squint", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restrictive squint", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paralytic squint", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudosquint", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Paralytic squint", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/picture92.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Paralytic squint</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paralytic squint is characterized by secondary deviation greater than primary deviation and a negative forced duction test, indicating the absence of mechanical restriction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The greenish-black color of the first stool in the newborn is due to: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bilirubin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biliverdin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meconium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gut flora of neonate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Biliverdin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Biliverdin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The greenish-black color of the first stool (meconium) in a newborn is due to biliverdin, a bile pigment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following variables indicates the difference between the incidence of disease among exposed and incidence among non-exposed? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Relative risk", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Attributable risk", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Population Attributable risk", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Odds Ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Attributable risk", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-173720_vY5TP7I.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-173900_fDr5Jo4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Attributable risk</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Attributable risk is the metric that indicates the difference in the incidence of disease between exposed and non-exposed groups, representing the proportion of disease occurrence attributable to the exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a 30-year-old female from a tribal area who presents with fever for the last 3 days, which of the following is the most likely causative agent of her illness based on the diagnosis of malaria made through examination of the peripheral smear? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "P. falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "P. malariae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "P. ovale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "P. vivax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. P. falciparum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_vgK36SJ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/0004_zwS4Chh.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) P. falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Identification of P. falciparum through the presence of distinctive ring forms in red blood cells on a peripheral smear is crucial for rapid initiation of appropriate antimalarial therapy, particularly in endemic regions. Early treatment is vital to prevent severe complications and reduce the morbidity and mortality associated with this malaria species.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 51-year-old man complains of abdominal pain and blood-stained stools. The barium study of his intestines shows the following finding. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intussusception", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diverticulitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ulcerative colitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intussusception", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_hy36LV0.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_NSt16jF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Intussusception</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and the barium study are characteristic of intussusception.</li><li>• INTUSSCUSCPTION</li><li>• INTUSSCUSCPTION</li><li>• Age: 6-8 months most common Can be seen in adults due to a lead point like polyp or carcinoma. C/F: Painful red currant jelly stools. Mc type: Ileocolic Intussusception. Initial: USG</li><li>• Age: 6-8 months most common</li><li>• Age:</li><li>• Can be seen in adults due to a lead point like polyp or carcinoma.</li><li>• C/F: Painful red currant jelly stools.</li><li>• C/F:</li><li>• Mc type: Ileocolic Intussusception.</li><li>• Mc type:</li><li>• Initial: USG</li><li>• Initial:</li><li>• Target/ Donut/ Sandwich/ Pseudo-kidney sign</li><li>• Target/ Donut/ Sandwich/ Pseudo-kidney sign</li><li>• IOC/Gold standard: Barium most commonly done/Air/Saline enema.</li><li>• IOC/Gold standard:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Volvulus: Typically presents with a massively dilated loop of bowel and may show a \"whirl sign\" on CT rather than the findings seen on this barium study.</li><li>• Option A. Volvulus:</li><li>• Option C. Diverticulitis: Would show inflamed and sometimes perforated diverticula; barium would outline these pouches, not the pattern seen here.</li><li>• Option C. Diverticulitis:</li><li>• Option D. Ulcerative colitis: Chronic inflammatory condition of the colon, typically demonstrates continuous colonic involvement with loss of haustra, mucosal edema, and ulceration.</li><li>• Option D. Ulcerative colitis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intussusception in adults requires prompt diagnosis and often surgical intervention, especially when associated with a pathological lead point. The barium study is crucial for diagnosis, showing specific patterns like the \"target\" sign that aid in identifying this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The graph below shows the relationship between the log(dose) and the response of three drugs, A, B, and C. Which of these drugs has the highest potency? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both A and B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/neet-pharma-1_VLHh3pD.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a dose-response curve, the drug with the curve furthest to the left is the most potent because it produces the desired effect at the lowest dose. In this case, Drug A is the most potent.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which absorbs least water? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cellulose", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gums", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pectins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cellulose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cellulose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cellulose :</li><li>➤ Cellulose</li><li>➤ Most abundant natural polysaccharide Unbranched Made up of β–Glucose residues Acts as fibres in the diet (as β-bonds cannot be easily broken in body)</li><li>➤ Most abundant natural polysaccharide</li><li>➤ Unbranched</li><li>➤ Made up of β–Glucose residues</li><li>➤ Acts as fibres in the diet (as β-bonds cannot be easily broken in body)</li><li>➤ Ref - Lehninger 6 th ed pg 257</li><li>➤ Ref - Lehninger 6 th ed pg 257</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old woman diagnosed with carcinoma cervix stage 2B was advised radiotherapy. Which of the following statements regarding radiotherapy is false? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Point B is 3 cm lateral to point A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Point A is 2 cm above the external os and 5 cm lateral to the internal uterine canal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Point A receives a dose of 7000 cGy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Point B receives a dose of 6000 cGy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Point A is 2 cm above the external os and 5 cm lateral to the internal uterine canal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Point A is 2 cm above the external os and 5 cm lateral to the internal uterine canal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• False Statement Explanation</li><li>• Point A is 2 cm above the external os and 5 cm lateral to the internal uterine canal : This statement is false because Point A is defined as 2 cm lateral and 2 cm superior to the external cervical os, not 5 cm lateral.</li><li>• Point A is 2 cm above the external os and 5 cm lateral to the internal uterine canal : This statement is false because Point A is defined as 2 cm lateral and 2 cm superior to the external cervical os, not 5 cm lateral.</li><li>• Point A is 2 cm above the external os and 5 cm lateral to the internal uterine canal</li><li>• This statement is false because Point A is defined as 2 cm lateral and 2 cm superior to the external cervical os, not 5 cm lateral.</li><li>• This statement is false because Point A is defined as 2 cm lateral and 2 cm superior to the external cervical os, not 5 cm lateral.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Point A in cervical cancer radiotherapy is located 2 cm lateral and 2 cm superior to the external cervical os, and the total dose should not exceed 8000 cGy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 350, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 350, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has the highest oxygen concentration in fetal circulation? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inferior vena cava", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right atrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior vena cava", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascending aorta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inferior vena cava", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/692.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Inferior vena cava</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Inferior vena cava has the highest oxygen concentration in fetal circulation. Fetal heart pumps large quantity of blood into the placenta for exchange of substances. From placenta, the umbilical veins collect the blood, which has more oxygen and nutrients. Umbilical vein passes through liver, some amount of blood is supplied to liver from umbilical vein, large quantity of blood is diverted from umbilical vein into the inferior vena cava through ductus venosus. Liver receives blood from portal vein also. In liver, the oxygenated blood mixes slightly with deoxygenated blood and enters the right atrium via inferior vena cava. From right atrium, major portion of blood is diverted into left atrium via foramen ovale. Foramen ovale is an opening in intra-atrial septum. Blood from upper part of the body enters the right atrium through superior vena cava. From right atrium, blood enters right ventricle. Then, blood is pumped into pulmonary artery. From pulmonary artery, blood enters the systemic aorta through ductus arteriosus. Only a small quantity of blood is supplied to fetal lungs. Blood from left ventricle is pumped into aorta. Fifty percent of blood from aorta reaches the placenta through umbilical arteries.</li><li>• Inferior vena cava has the highest oxygen concentration in fetal circulation.</li><li>• Fetal heart pumps large quantity of blood into the placenta for exchange of substances.</li><li>• From placenta, the umbilical veins collect the blood, which has more oxygen and nutrients.</li><li>• Umbilical vein passes through liver, some amount of blood is supplied to liver from umbilical vein, large quantity of blood is diverted from umbilical vein into the inferior vena cava through ductus venosus.</li><li>• Liver receives blood from portal vein also.</li><li>• In liver, the oxygenated blood mixes slightly with deoxygenated blood and enters the right atrium via inferior vena cava.</li><li>• From right atrium, major portion of blood is diverted into left atrium via foramen ovale. Foramen ovale is an opening in intra-atrial septum.</li><li>• Blood from upper part of the body enters the right atrium through superior vena cava. From right atrium, blood enters right ventricle.</li><li>• Then, blood is pumped into pulmonary artery. From pulmonary artery, blood enters the systemic aorta through ductus arteriosus.</li><li>• Only a small quantity of blood is supplied to fetal lungs. Blood from left ventricle is pumped into aorta.</li><li>• Fifty percent of blood from aorta reaches the placenta through umbilical arteries.</li><li>• Mixing potentially occurs at 4 sites:</li><li>• Left umbilical vein (Oxygen saturation ~80%) – Portal vein (Much bypassed by ductus venosus to Inferior Vena cava) Left umbilical vein – Inferior vena cava – Portal vein (Oxygen saturation of IVC blood is ~65%) Superior vena cava – Right atrium (Much bypassed by Foramen ovale) Pulmonary veins – Left atrium (Much bypassed by Foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus)</li><li>• Left umbilical vein (Oxygen saturation ~80%) – Portal vein (Much bypassed by ductus venosus to Inferior Vena cava)</li><li>• Left umbilical vein – Inferior vena cava – Portal vein (Oxygen saturation of IVC blood is ~65%)</li><li>• Superior vena cava – Right atrium (Much bypassed by Foramen ovale)</li><li>• Pulmonary veins – Left atrium (Much bypassed by Foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Right atrium : Incorrect. While the right atrium receives blood from the inferior vena cava, it also receives deoxygenated blood from the superior vena cava, leading to a mixture that has a lower oxygen concentration than the incoming blood from the inferior vena cava.</li><li>• Option B. Right atrium</li><li>• Option C. Superior vena cava : Incorrect. The superior vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the head and upper limbs of the fetus, thus having a lower oxygen concentration.</li><li>• Option C. Superior vena cava</li><li>• Option D. Ascending aorta : Incorrect. Although the ascending aorta in the fetus does carry oxygenated blood, the highest concentration of oxygen is found in the blood before it reaches the heart, specifically in the inferior vena cava due to the direct input from the umbilical vein through the ductus venosus.</li><li>• Option D. Ascending aorta</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The highest oxygen concentration in fetal circulation is found in the inferior vena cava due to its receipt of oxygen-rich blood from the umbilical vein, which has directly exchanged gases in the placenta. This setup is crucial for delivering a sufficient oxygen supply to the developing fetus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male with a long-standing history of bipolar disorder has been stable on lithium therapy. Recently, he was diagnosed with hypertension and started on thiazide diuretics. After a few days, he presented with coarse tremors and other symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity. What is the likely mechanism of this interaction between lithium and thiazides? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiazide inhibits the metabolism of lithium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiazides act as an add-on drug to lithium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiazides increase the tubular resorption of lithium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiazides cause water loss thereby increasing lithium levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thiazides increase the tubular resorption of lithium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thiazides increase the tubular resorption of lithium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thiazide diuretics increase the tubular reabsorption of lithium, leading to elevated blood levels and potential toxicity. This interaction is crucial to consider when prescribing thiazides to patients on lithium therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient who is from the north-eastern part of the country came to the hospital with complaints of progressive swelling of the upper limb. She has a history of coronary artery disease for which she underwent percutaneous coronary intervention. On examination, the limbs are more swollen proximally than distally. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Echocardiography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Night blood test for worms", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duplex venous scan of limbs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ECG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Night blood test for worms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Night blood test for worms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In regions endemic for filariasis, such as parts of northeastern India, the presentation of unexplained lymphedema warrants a night blood test for worms to check for the presence of microfilariae. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent the progression of lymphatic damage and reduce the severity of lymphedema.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged female patient presents with a history of loss of interest in day-to-day activities, weight loss, insomnia, and sadness for six months. She also recalls hearing a voice once that ordered her to kill herself. What is the DSM-V diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Major depressive disorder with psychotic features", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizoaffective disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delusional disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Major depressive disorder with psychotic features", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Major depressive disorder with psychotic features</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psychotic depression In Major Depressive Disorder with Psychotic Features (also known as psychotic depression ), is seen in moderate to severe depressive disorder where the individual experiences both depressive symptoms and psychosis, such as delusions or hallucinations. These psychotic symptoms could be mood congruent (i.e, content of delusion/ hallucination is consistent with the depressed mood) or mood incongruent. Psychotic symptoms align with the mood episode's theme, differentiating it from schizoaffective disorder. Treatment includes typically combining antipsychotics with antidepressants.</li><li>➤ psychotic depression</li><li>➤ mood congruent</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 356, 360.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following helminthic infections that is commonly transmitted by soil, is characterized by the egg in stool as shown in the image below? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichuris trichiura", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ancyclostoma duodenale", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Necator americanus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Trichuris trichiura", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_IM0tLJR.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Trichuris trichiura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognizing the distinctive egg morphology of Trichuris trichiura in stool samples is crucial for diagnosing whipworm infection. Proper sanitation and hygiene are key in preventing soil-transmitted helminth infections, and treatment involves specific antihelminthic medications to reduce the worm burden and alleviate symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with gout develops hypertension. The uric acid level was found to be elevated. Which of the following is not administered? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrochlorothiazide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atenolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enalapril", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prazosin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydrochlorothiazide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydrochlorothiazide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydrochlorothiazide should not be used to manage hypertension in patients with gout due to its potential to increase uric acid levels and exacerbate the condition. Other antihypertensive drugs, such as beta-blockers (atenolol), ACE inhibitors (enalapril), and alpha-blockers (prazosin), do not have this adverse effect and are suitable alternatives.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "ASEPSIS wound scoring takes all of the following into consideration except: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Purulent discharge", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serous discharge", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythema", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Induration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Induration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-153241.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Induration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ASEPSIS wound scoring system does not include induration as a criterion. It focuses on factors like purulent and serous discharge, erythema, separation of deep tissue, additional treatments, bacterial isolation, and extended hospital stay to evaluate surgical site infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Female on maize as a staple diet. History of diarrhea and lesion in the neck region. It is due to deficiency of: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zinc", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Niacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Causes of pellagra</li><li>➤ Causes of pellagra</li><li>➤ Maize and Jowar in Diet: The major protein of Maize, “Zein” lacks tryptophan which is required for Niacin biosynthesis. 60 mg of tryptophan gives 1 mg of Niacin in the body. So, pellagra is more common when maize is the staple diet due to decreased synthesis of Niacin. Jowar has high content of leucine which inhibits tryptophan to Niacin conversion. Carcinoid syndrome: In this, Trp is mainly used for serotonin formation causes deficiency of trp for Niacin synthesis. Malabsorption Drugs like Isoniazid as isoniazid inhibits PLP (B6) formation which in turn is required for Niacin synthesis. Vitamin B2 is also required for Niacin synthesis, so, a deficiency either of B2 or B6 or both can cause pellagra.</li><li>➤ Maize and Jowar in Diet: The major protein of Maize, “Zein” lacks tryptophan which is required for Niacin biosynthesis. 60 mg of tryptophan gives 1 mg of Niacin in the body. So, pellagra is more common when maize is the staple diet due to decreased synthesis of Niacin. Jowar has high content of leucine which inhibits tryptophan to Niacin conversion.</li><li>➤ Maize and Jowar in Diet:</li><li>➤ Carcinoid syndrome: In this, Trp is mainly used for serotonin formation causes deficiency of trp for Niacin synthesis.</li><li>➤ Carcinoid syndrome:</li><li>➤ Malabsorption</li><li>➤ Malabsorption</li><li>➤ Drugs like Isoniazid as isoniazid inhibits PLP (B6) formation which in turn is required for Niacin synthesis. Vitamin B2 is also required for Niacin synthesis, so, a deficiency either of B2 or B6 or both can cause pellagra.</li><li>➤ Drugs like Isoniazid</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old girl presents with a history of low-grade fever, weight loss, abdominal pain and amenorrhea for six months. On examination, a pelvic mass is felt on the left side and signs of ascites are positive. What is your diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculosis with tubo-ovarian mass", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian malignancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Submucous fibroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tuberculosis with tubo-ovarian mass", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tuberculosis with tubo-ovarian mass</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is the most likely diagnosis in view of the following points Age Symptoms: low grade fever, weight loss, pain and amenorrhoea Adnexal mass with ascites</li><li>• This is the most likely diagnosis in view of the following points Age Symptoms: low grade fever, weight loss, pain and amenorrhoea Adnexal mass with ascites</li><li>• Age Symptoms: low grade fever, weight loss, pain and amenorrhoea Adnexal mass with ascites</li><li>• Age</li><li>• Symptoms: low grade fever, weight loss, pain and amenorrhoea</li><li>• Adnexal mass with ascites</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ovarian malignancy : Ovarian malignancy may present with weight loss, ascites and a pelvic mass. But a young age and amenorrhea do not go in favor of ovarian malignancy</li><li>• Option B. Ovarian malignancy</li><li>• Option C. Ectopic pregnancy : Ectopic pregnancy will be an acute presentation and will not present with fever/ weight loss</li><li>• Option C. Ectopic pregnancy</li><li>• Option D. Submucous fibroid : Submucous fibroid presents with menorrhagia/ inter-menstrual bleeding and the uterus will be uniformly enlarged. There will not be any pelvic mass.</li><li>• Option D. Submucous fibroid</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tuberculosis with a tubo-ovarian mass is suspected in young patients presenting with low-grade fever, weight loss, amenorrhea, and a pelvic mass with signs of ascites.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 141, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 141, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which influenza virus was responsible for the 2009 pandemic? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "H1N1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "H5N1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "H5N7", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "H3N2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. H1N1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) H1N1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Influenza Pandemics</li><li>➤ Influenza Pandemics</li><li>➤ SWINE FLU, H1N1 → 2009, Mexico</li><li>➤ BIRD FLU, H7N9 → 2013, China</li><li>➤ BIRD FLU, H5N1 → 1997, Hong Kong</li><li>➤ BIRD FLU, H10N3 → 2021, China</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is occipitomental view also known as? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Water's view", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Towne's view", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Law's view", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stenver's view", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Water's view", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_OKdzHyr.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_yP1wAHY.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_XAXLAqk.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_dPT0ZHa.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_aS48MSA.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Water’s view</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Water's view is crucial for diagnosing sinus-related pathologies, especially those affecting the maxillary and frontal sinuses. It is a fundamental technique in sinus imaging protocols, providing critical information for the diagnosis and management of sinus conditions.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7th edition, Page No. 493</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7th edition, Page No. 493</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following helps in bacterial adhesion? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytoplasmic membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mesosomes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fimbriae", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lipopolysaccharides", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fimbriae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fimbriae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fimbriae are essential bacterial structures for adhesion, enabling bacteria to attach to host cells and surfaces, crucial for initiating infections and forming biofilms. This key role makes them important targets for strategies to prevent and treat bacterial infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Two girls in the same class are diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. Their 12-year-old friend from the same school is afraid of contracting the disease. What advice should be given to the exposed students? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Two doses of polysaccharide vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antibiotic prophylaxis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Two doses of conjugate vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Single dose of meningococcal vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Antibiotic prophylaxis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Antibiotic prophylaxis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For immediate protection after exposure to meningococcal meningitis, antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary. Vaccination is also recommended but does not provide immediate protection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When considering a patient with lung cancer, the imaging studies have measured the tumor size at 2.5 cm. According to the TMN staging system, which stage would be appropriate for this patient? ( NEET PG 2020 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "T2b", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T1c", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "T2a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T1a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. T1c", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-154608.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) T1c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The TNM staging system for lung cancer uses tumor size and extent (T), lymph node involvement (N), and metastasis (M) to classify the disease. A tumor measuring 2.5 cm is classified as T1c according to the TNM 8th edition criteria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Meiosis occurs in:(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adrenal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adult ovary", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prepubertal testis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypothalamus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adult ovary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-880.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Adult ovary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adult ovary are responsible for producing ova (egg cells) and hormones such as estrogen and progesterone. Meiosis begins in the fetal ovaries but is arrested in prophase I until puberty.</li><li>➤ Adult ovary</li><li>➤ arrested in prophase I</li><li>➤ After puberty, with each menstrual cycle, some oocytes resume meiosis, completing meiosis I and arresting in meiosis II. It's only after fertilization that meiosis II completes . Therefore, meiosis occurs in the adult ovary as it is essential for the formation of mature ova or egg cells.</li><li>➤ It's only after fertilization that meiosis II completes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs used as nail lacquer belongs to morpholines? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amorolfine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxiconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ciclopirox olamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tioconazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amorolfine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-112217.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture8777.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Amorolfine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A morolfine is the only morpholine derivative , used as a nail lacquer for the treatment of fungal infections .</li><li>➤ morolfine</li><li>➤ morpholine derivative</li><li>➤ nail lacquer</li><li>➤ fungal infections</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 18 Page no 18.12</li><li>↳ Online resources: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/20737634/</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/20737634/</li><li>↳ https://ijdvl.com/onychomycosis-diagnosis-and-management/</li><li>↳ https://ijdvl.com/onychomycosis-diagnosis-and-management/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The long left recurrent laryngeal nerve is due to the persistence of which arch artery? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3rd arch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4th arch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5th arch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6th arch", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 6th arch", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-881.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 6th arch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The 6th pharyngeal arch artery contributes to the formation of the pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus on the left side.</li><li>➤ Relation to the recurrent laryngeal nerve : The left recurrent laryngeal nerve hooks under the ductus arteriosus (derived from the left 6th arch artery). In evolutionary terms, as the heart descended and the neck elongated during development, the nerve remained hooked around this artery, leading to its longer course on the left side. On the right side, the nerve hooks under the right subclavian artery (which isn't directly derived from the 6th arch but is related to its positioning). If there were a right-sided aortic arch (a rare congenital anomaly), the right recurrent laryngeal nerve would also have a longer course, similar to the left.</li><li>➤ Relation to the recurrent laryngeal nerve</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is seen in pituitary apoplexy? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shock", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unconsciousness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fatigue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Shock", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Shock</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shock is a critical and life-threatening manifestation of pituitary apoplexy that arises from acute adrenal insufficiency. Immediate recognition and treatment with IV glucocorticoids and fluids are essential to stabilize the patient and prevent further complications. This condition is diagnosed via imaging, typically an MRI, and may require surgical intervention depending on the severity and the presence of neurological symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Pituitary tumor syndromes/Page no 2897</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vitamin B12 is found maximum in: ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Animal products", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green leafy vegetables", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Roots and tubers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sunlight", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Animal products", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Animal products</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 is naturally present in foods of animal origin, including fish, meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products. Hence, vegetarians usually are prone to develop vitamin b12 deficiency. Strict vegetarians (vegans) are at risk of developing B12 deficiency.</li><li>➤ foods of animal origin, including fish, meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products.</li><li>➤ Strict vegetarians (vegans) are at risk of developing B12 deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman comes with complaints of warty lesions on the vulva. On examination, multiple warty growths on the vulva and around the anal canal are seen. This condition is most likely seen in? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Condyloma accuminata", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Condyloma accuminata", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/picture2.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Condyloma accuminata</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Condyloma acuminata (genital warts) are characterized by multiple warty growths on the vulva and around the anal canal, caused by HPV-6 and 11, and treated with cryotherapy, electrocautery, laser therapy, surgical excision, or topical agents.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 153, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 153, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infections are seen in: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chediak-Higashi syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thrombocytopenia-absent radius syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is distinguished by its symptom triad of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent infections, directly related to mutations in the WASP gene affecting cellular function and immune response. Understanding these features is critical in diagnosing the syndrome and managing its complex clinical manifestations effectively.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Immunodeficiencies/Chapter 351,374</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-year-old boy comes with complaints of left ear pain, difficulty in opening the mouth, painful swallowing, and fever. The oral cavity examination reveals the following. The external facial examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is likely? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pharyngitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parotid abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bezold's Abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quinsy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Quinsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_227.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Quinsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Quinsy is a severe infection requiring prompt recognition and treatment to prevent complications. It distinctly affects the peritonsillar area, leading to significant local and systemic symptoms that guide its diagnosis and management.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 299</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 299</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the civil negligence case against a doctor who bears the onus of proof? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patient", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Police not under rank of sub inspector", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Magistrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Doctor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Patient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Patient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Exceptions where onus of proof lies with accused:</li><li>➤ Exceptions where onus of proof lies with accused:</li><li>➤ RES IPSA LOQUITOR (the thing or action speaks of itself) Insanity: If the defendant wishes to claim that he/she is insane, and therefore not guilty, the defendant bears the burden of proving his/her insanity. 114-A CrPc: In a case of rape, where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved and the question is whether it was without the consent of the woman alleged to have been raped, the court shall presume that she did not consent. The accused will have to prove that it was with consent. Contributory Negligence: If a doctor wants to take the defense of contributory negligence, then he will have to prove that the patient was also negligent along with him.</li><li>➤ RES IPSA LOQUITOR (the thing or action speaks of itself)</li><li>➤ RES IPSA LOQUITOR</li><li>➤ Insanity: If the defendant wishes to claim that he/she is insane, and therefore not guilty, the defendant bears the burden of proving his/her insanity.</li><li>➤ Insanity:</li><li>➤ 114-A CrPc: In a case of rape, where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved and the question is whether it was without the consent of the woman alleged to have been raped, the court shall presume that she did not consent. The accused will have to prove that it was with consent.</li><li>➤ 114-A CrPc:</li><li>➤ Contributory Negligence: If a doctor wants to take the defense of contributory negligence, then he will have to prove that the patient was also negligent along with him.</li><li>➤ Contributory Negligence:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the sign shown in the image below:(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Popeye sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hill-Sachs sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Griesinger sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rising sun sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Popeye sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-890.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-891.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-892.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Popeye sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Popeye sign is a clinical indication of the rupture of the long head of the biceps tendon, leading to a characteristic bulging of the biceps muscle, which requires thorough clinical assessment and possibly surgical repair.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The arterial blood gas analysis findings of a patient are as follows pH= 7.30, HCO3= 10 mEq/L, paco2= 30 mmHg, which is suggestive of a partially compensated metabolic acidosis. What is the mechanism for the secondary disorder? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoventilation causing decreased CO2 washout", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperventilation causing increased CO2 washout", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased tubular reabsorption of HCO3-", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased excretion of H+", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypoventilation causing decreased CO2 washout", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hypoventilation causing decreased CO2 washout</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of metabolic acidosis, compare the actual respiratory response (PaCO2) with what is theoretically expected. Inadequate reduction in PaCO2, or relative hypoventilation, suggests partial compensation, highlighting a need for further intervention to correct the underlying acid-base disturbance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An octogenarian female comes to your clinic reporting feelings of constant fatigue. Upon performing imaging studies, you discover that she has a scleroatrophic gallbladder containing impacted stones. In addition, a sizable stone is detected within the common bile duct, causing dilation of the biliary tree. What should be the subsequent course of action in her treatment? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediately take up patient for cholecystectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure that allows for the visualization and management of bile duct stones. It is particularly useful when there is a stone in the common bile duct (CBD). ERCP can be used to remove or extract stones from the common bile duct and may also involve the placement of a stent to relieve biliary obstruction if necessary.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Immediately take up patient for cholecystectomy: Cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder) may be considered as a subsequent procedure, but it is usually not the initial step in patients with impacted stones in the gallbladder and CBD stones. ERCP is performed first to address the CBD stone and relieve any associated biliary obstruction.</li><li>• Option A. Immediately take up patient for cholecystectomy:</li><li>• Option C. Wait and watch: Waiting and watching may not be appropriate in this case because the patient is symptomatic with constant fatigue, which can be related to biliary obstruction. Immediate intervention is necessary to relieve the obstruction and prevent complications.</li><li>• Option C. Wait and watch:</li><li>• Option D. CT scan: A CT scan may have been done as part of the initial imaging studies to assess the condition, but it is not the definitive treatment for gallbladder and CBD stones. The primary treatment should focus on relieving the obstruction caused by the CBD stone.</li><li>• Option D. CT scan:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is the preferred initial treatment for patients with common bile duct stones and biliary obstruction, as it allows for both diagnosis and therapeutic intervention, such as stone removal and stent placement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old chronic smoker is diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Identify the true statement about intermittent claudication: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Felt at rest", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Most commonly felt in the calf muscles", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Day to day distance is variable", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Relived after getting out of bed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Most commonly felt in the calf muscles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Most commonly felt in the calf muscles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intermittent claudication is most commonly felt in the calf muscles due to the high prevalence of peripheral artery disease affecting the arteries that supply the lower limbs. This condition is typically brought on by physical activity and relieved by rest.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an inhibitor of RNA synthesis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-Fluorouracil", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nitrofurantoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Novobiocin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rifampicin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-105712.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rifampicin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old man with a known history of DM and HTN on regular medications presents with a history of progressively worsening dyspnea on exertion. On examination, there is elevated JVP, positive hepatojugular reflux, crackles at the lung bases, hepatomegaly, ascites, and pedal oedema. What is your provisional diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heart failure", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Portal hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Heart failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Heart failure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The constellation of symptoms such as elevated JVP, systemic edema (hepatomegaly, ascites, pedal edema), and pulmonary findings (crackles at the lung bases) strongly suggests heart failure, likely due to the patient's known history of hypertension and diabetes contributing to chronic cardiac stress and dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Clinical Cardiology/Chap 239</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given sign:(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Popeye sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inverted champagne bottle sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biceps hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biceps palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Popeye sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/11/37.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/26.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Popeye sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The image shown in the question is called Popeye Sign, which is visible on elbow flexion due to bicipital tendonitis.</li><li>➤ The image shown in the question is called Popeye Sign, which is visible on elbow flexion due to bicipital tendonitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male patient with chronic gout is under consideration for a change in treatment plan due to poor response to conventional therapies like allopurinol and colchicine. The healthcare team is discussing the potential use of pegloticase. What is the mechanism of action of pegloticase?\" (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibition of xanthine oxidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conversion of uric acid to allantoin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase excretion of uric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibition of granulocyte migration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Conversion of uric acid to allantoin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Conversion of uric acid to allantoin.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pegloticase works by converting uric acid to allantoin, a more soluble compound that is easily excreted by the kidneys. This mechanism is distinct from other gout treatments and is particularly useful for patients with refractory chronic gout.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man who recently lost his wife complains that his intestines have rotted. He believes he is to blame for his wife's death and should be imprisoned. He complains that he is constantly depressed and has lost interest in daily activities since his wife's death. What is the most likely cause? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal grief reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psychotic depression", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delusional disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Psychotic depression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Psychotic depression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psychotic depression is seen in moderate to severe depressive disorder where the individual experiences both depressive symptoms and psychosis, such as delusions or hallucinations. These psychotic symptoms could be mood congruent (i.e, content of delusion/ hallucination is consistent with the depressed mood) or mood incongruent. Delusions in psychotic depression often revolve around themes of guilt, worthlessness, or illness.</li><li>➤ mood congruent</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 356, 360.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the predominant pathogen to infect the renal transplant recipients in the period around 1 to 4 months following the transplantation ? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "JC virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BK virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epstein-Barr virus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cytomegalovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cytomegalovirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognizing and managing CMV infection in the early months following renal transplantation is crucial due to its potential to cause significant morbidity and impact on graft survival. Monitoring for CMV activity and initiating pre-emptive or therapeutic antiviral treatment as indicated is key to improving transplant outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The protein in the glomerular basement membrane responsible for charge-dependent filtration is?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibronectin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heparan sulfate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Collagen Type IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Entactin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Heparan sulfate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Heparan sulfate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The glomerular basement membrane (GBM) is an essential component of the glomerular filtration barrier.</li><li>• The protein in the glomerular basement membrane responsible for charge-dependent filtration is heparan sulfate. As the major determinants of the anionic charge of the GBM, heparan sulfate chains have been thought to impart charge selectivity to the glomerular filtration. It prevents filtration by repelling negatively charged proteins.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Fibronectin : While fibronectin is involved in cell adhesion and matrix assembly, it does not primarily contribute to the charge-dependent filtration properties of the GBM.</li><li>• Option A. Fibronectin</li><li>• Option C. Collagen Type IV : This type of collagen forms a structural scaffolding in the GBM, providing mechanical strength and stability rather than charge-based selectivity.</li><li>• Option C. Collagen Type IV</li><li>• Option D. Entactin : Also known as nidogen, entactin helps link the network of laminin and collagen IV in the GBM but does not directly influence charge-based filtration.</li><li>• Option D. Entactin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Heparan sulfate is the critical component responsible for the charge-dependent filtration in the glomerular basement membrane. Its negative charge effectively repels similarly charged molecules, preventing their passage into the urine, which is essential for the body's ability to retain vital proteins and other negatively charged substances.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about the pathology of achalasia cardia? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Relaxation of lower esophageal sphincter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Defective peristalsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased release of NO and VIP in the distal part of esophagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased tone of the lower esophageal sphincter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decreased release of NO and VIP in the distal part of esophagus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decreased release of NO and VIP in the distal part of esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The triad of achalasia cardia is as follows:</li><li>➤ The triad of achalasia cardia</li><li>➤ is as follows:</li><li>➤ Incomplete relaxation of LES Increased tone of LES Absent peristalsis (aperistalsis)</li><li>➤ Incomplete relaxation of LES</li><li>➤ Increased tone of LES</li><li>➤ Absent peristalsis (aperistalsis)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-year-old female patient comes with complaints of menorrhagia for the past 3 months. The duration and regularity of her menstrual cycles are normal. Non- hormonal management has been tried without success. What is the most appropriate next step? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterine artery embolization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrial ablation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hormonal therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hormonal therapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hormonal therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hormonal therapy is the next best management modality for menorrhagia when non-hormonal management has failed. This includes combined oral contraceptive pills or even progesterone-only devices like the LND-IUS. First-line management includes non-hormonal treatment like NSAIDs and Tranexamic acid.</li><li>• Hormonal therapy is the next best management modality for menorrhagia when non-hormonal management has failed. This includes combined oral contraceptive pills or even progesterone-only devices like the LND-IUS.</li><li>• First-line management includes non-hormonal treatment like NSAIDs and Tranexamic acid.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Uterine artery embolization : Uterine artery embolization is a surgical option and is considered when other treatments fail.</li><li>• Option A. Uterine artery embolization</li><li>• Option B. Endometrial ablation : Endometrial ablation is also a surgical option and should be considered after hormonal therapy.</li><li>• Option B. Endometrial ablation</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy : Hysterectomy is the last resort and is used when all other management options fail or are contraindicated.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Hormonal therapy, including combined oral contraceptive pills or progesterone-only devices like the LND-IUS, is the next best management step for menorrhagia when non-hormonal management has been ineffective.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 197, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 197, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newborn is brought with evisceration of bowel loops from a defect in the abdominal wall to the right of the umbilicus. The most probable diagnosis is: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Umbilical hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastroschisis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ectopia vesicae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gastroschisis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture150.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Gastroschisis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gastroschisis is a congenital defect characterized by the herniation of abdominal contents through a defect in the abdominal wall to the right of the umbilicus, without a protective sac covering the contents.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Large, friable, irregular vegetations on heart valves are seen in which condition? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infective endocarditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatic heart disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Libman-Sacks endocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-bacterial thrombotic carditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Infective endocarditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/11/untitled-18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Infective endocarditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Large, friable, irregular vegetations on heart valves are a hallmark of infective endocarditis, characterized by the presence of bacterial colonies and significant inflammatory response.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male presented to the clinic with a complaint of the feeling of insects crawling under the skin. Which of the following drug abuse can cause the symptoms of this patient?( NEET PG 2020 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amphetamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cocaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cocaine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cocaine intoxication can lead to tactile hallucinations, notably the sensation known as formication. This sensation, often described as feeling like bugs crawling on or under the skin, is a classic symptom of cocaine use and can lead to skin picking and resultant lesions. This is also known as cocaine bugs or magnun phenomenon .</li><li>➤ cocaine bugs</li><li>➤ magnun phenomenon</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 676.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 51-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with complaints of hematuria. Upon examination, he is found to be normotensive and has pedal edema. Further investigations reveal a lack of glycosuria and a creatinine level of 9. A renal biopsy is performed, and the results are shown below. Which of the following investigations should be conducted to identify the underlying disease? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ANA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti GBM antibodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HIV RNA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine immunoelectrophoresis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anti GBM antibodies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/3_eReSiIi.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/crescentic-glomerulonephritis.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/11/untitled-17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anti GBM antibodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Testing for anti-GBM antibodies is crucial in the diagnosis of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) with crescents on histology, particularly for identifying Type I RPGN (anti-GBM disease).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is used for the prophylaxis of motion sickness? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cetirizine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Promethazine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Misolastine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loratidine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Promethazine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Promethazine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Promethazine is used for the prophylaxis of motion sickness due to its strong antihistamine, anticholinergic, sedative, and antiemetic properties. Second-generation antihistamines like cetirizine, misolastine, and loratadine are not effective for this purpose due to their lack of these properties.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a surgical procedure on a patient exhibiting symptoms indicative of peritonitis, a diverticular rupture is observed, accompanied by fecal peritonitis. What would be the corresponding stage according to the Hinchey's classification? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Stage 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-161905.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Stage 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hinchey's Classification of diverticulitis is essential for determining the appropriate management strategy. Stage IV in Hinchey's classification corresponds to fecal peritonitis, which requires immediate surgical intervention, typically Hartmann's surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old patient presented to the clinic with a history of malabsorption, diarrhea, and poor appetite. Duodenal biopsy of the patient showed crypt hyperplasia, villi atrophy, and CD8+ cells in lamina propria. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Environmental enteropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Celiac disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Whipple's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic pancreatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Celiac disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/16_jyjVm3Q.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/19_m0TNFkQ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Celiac disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac disease is characterized by malabsorption, diarrhea, poor appetite, crypt hyperplasia, villous atrophy, and increased intraepithelial CD8+ T lymphocytes. It is diagnosed by serologic tests and confirmed with a duodenal biopsy. Treatment includes a strict gluten-free diet.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A small child was playing with her maid where she rotated her by holding from arms. Immediately after, the child started crying. On examination, her arm was pronated. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dislocation of elbow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulled elbow", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fracture head of radius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fracture coronoid process", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pulled elbow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/10.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pulled elbow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ History of traction on elbow with forearm in pronation in a child &lt; 4 years of age is a classical feature of pulled elbow.</li><li>➤ History of traction on elbow with forearm in pronation in a child &lt; 4 years of age is a classical feature of pulled elbow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old young male who was a tattoo artist was brought dead to the casualty under mysterious circumstances. His girlfriend reported he had a large tattoo on his right hand, but this was not found on examination. Which structure should be examined to get more idea of the same? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymph nodes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spleen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lymph nodes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lymph nodes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Examining the regional lymph nodes can reveal traces of tattoo ink even if the tattoo itself is no longer visible on the skin, providing useful forensic evidence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following layers is responsible for maintaining the deturgescence and transparency of the cornea?( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Descemet's membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endothelium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corneal epithelium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endothelium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-136.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Endothelium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The corneal endothelium is crucial for maintaining the deturgescence and transparency of the cornea through active ion pumping mechanisms, ensuring proper hydration levels to prevent light scattering and maintain clarity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "C wave of JVP represents: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tricuspid bulge into right atrium during isovolumetric ventricular contraction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contraction of right atrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Passive filling of right atrium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Passive emptying of right atrium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tricuspid bulge into right atrium during isovolumetric ventricular contraction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/684.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-114259.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/686.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Tricuspid bulge into right atrium during isovolumetric ventricular contraction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• 'C' wave in JVP represents tricuspid bulge into right atrium during isovolumetric ventricular contraction.</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Contraction of right atrium : This is incorrect for the 'C' wave. The contraction of the right atrium produces the 'A' wave in the JVP, not the 'C' wave. The 'A' wave occurs due to atrial contraction pushing blood against a closed tricuspid valve at the end of diastole.</li><li>• Option B. Contraction of right atrium</li><li>• Option C. Passive filling of right atrium : Incorrect for the 'C' wave. Passive filling of the right atrium contributes to the 'V' wave, which occurs when the right atrium fills with blood during ventricular systole and the tricuspid valve is closed.</li><li>• Option C. Passive filling of right atrium</li><li>• Option D. Passive emptying of right atrium : Incorrect for the 'C' wave. Passive emptying of the right atrium is associated with the 'Y' descent, which happens when the tricuspid valve opens in early diastole and blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle.</li><li>• Option D. Passive emptying of right atrium</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fig : Intra-arterial pressure changes during cardiac cycle. a, c, v= Positive wave x, x 1 , y= Negative waves</li><li>➤ Fig</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following calculates one variable using another variable? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coefficient of correlation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coefficient of Regression", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coefficient of variation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coefficient of determination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coefficient of Regression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Coefficient of Regression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Coefficient of Regression is used to calculate or predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable, quantifying the relationship between the independent and dependent variables in regression analysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was born with membranes around the body and had ectropion and eclabium. He is brought to the OPD with lesions covering his face, trunk, and extremities. Which of the following is an unlikely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ichthyosis vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lamellar ichthyosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bathing suit ichthyosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Harlequin ichthyosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ichthyosis vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/452.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1334.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-112218.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ichthyosis vulgaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ichthyosis vulgaris is an unlikely diagnosis in a new-born presenting with a collodion membrane, ectropion, eclabium , and extensive skin lesions, given that ichthyosis vulgaris is typically a milder form and less likely to present with such severe symptoms at birth.</li><li>➤ Ichthyosis vulgaris</li><li>➤ unlikely diagnosis</li><li>➤ new-born</li><li>➤ collodion membrane, ectropion, eclabium</li><li>➤ extensive</li><li>➤ milder form</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 65 Page no 65.4, 65.6-65.10</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 65 Page no 65.4, 65.6-65.10</li><li>↳ Online resources: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8161842/</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8161842/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady presents with vascular injury to the inferior frontal gyrus. Which functional area is likely to be affected? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Motor speech area", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wernicke's area", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Auditory area", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Visual area", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Motor speech area", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Motor speech area</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Broca's motor speech area is likely to be affected in the vascular injury of the inferior frontal gyrus Broca area is the motor area for speech. It includes areas 44 and 45. Broca area is present in left hemisphere (dominant hemisphere) of right-handed persons and in the right hemisphere of left-handed persons. It is a special region of premotor cortex situated in inferior frontal gyrus. Area 44 is situated in pars triangularis and 45 in pars opercularis of this gyrus. Broca aphasia is the non-fluent speech problem. It occurs due to lesion in left frontal lobe of cerebral cortex. It is also known as expressive aphasia or anterior aphasia. The affected persons do not complete the sentences because of their inability to construct the sentences. They often talk in short phrases by omitting small words such as ‘and’, ‘is’, ‘for’, etc. They make great efforts even to initiate speech. Persons with Broca aphasia are able to understand spoken or written words.</li><li>• Broca's motor speech area is likely to be affected in the vascular injury of the inferior frontal gyrus</li><li>• Broca area is the motor area for speech. It includes areas 44 and 45. Broca area is present in left hemisphere (dominant hemisphere) of right-handed persons and in the right hemisphere of left-handed persons.</li><li>• It is a special region of premotor cortex situated in inferior frontal gyrus. Area 44 is situated in pars triangularis and 45 in pars opercularis of this gyrus.</li><li>• Broca aphasia is the non-fluent speech problem. It occurs due to lesion in left frontal lobe of cerebral cortex. It is also known as expressive aphasia or anterior aphasia. The affected persons do not complete the sentences because of their inability to construct the sentences. They often talk in short phrases by omitting small words such as ‘and’, ‘is’, ‘for’, etc. They make great efforts even to initiate speech. Persons with Broca aphasia are able to understand spoken or written words.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Wernicke's area : Incorrect. Wernicke's area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the temporal lobe, not the inferior frontal gyrus. It is responsible for the comprehension of speech and language.</li><li>• Option B. Wernicke's area</li><li>• Option C. Auditory area : Incorrect. The primary auditory cortex is located in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe, which is involved in processing auditory information.</li><li>• Option C. Auditory area</li><li>• Option D. Visual area : Incorrect. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, which is primarily responsible for processing visual information.</li><li>• Option D. Visual area</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Injury to the inferior frontal gyrus is likely to impact Broca's area, leading to deficits in motor speech production known as Broca's aphasia. This condition manifests as difficulty in speech articulation and sentence construction, significantly affecting verbal communication despite preserved comprehension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "From which of the following structures does the saccule develop? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Saculus anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Saculus posterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pars superior", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pars inferior", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pars inferior", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_226.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pars inferior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The developmental origins of the inner ear structures, such as the saccule from the pars inferior, is crucial for comprehending various auditory and vestibular functions, as well as pathologies associated with these areas.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 13</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 13</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is disposed in the yellow bag? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood bag", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gloves", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sharp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine bag", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blood bag", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-151616.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blood bag</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A ten-year-old boy was brought to the OPD with fever and swelling of hands after playing football. He gives a history of previous episodes of swelling of hands. On imaging, his spleen was found to be shrunken. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sickle cell anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sickle cell anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Sickle cell anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a child presenting with fever and recurrent hand swelling following physical activity, alongside a history of a shrunken spleen, sickle cell anemia should be considered a primary diagnosis. This highlights the importance of considering hemoglobinopathies in patients with peculiar skeletal pains and organ findings suggestive of chronic hemolytic processes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21 /Hemoglobinopathies/Chapter 98</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male with a history of recurrent skin infections is admitted to the hospital for cellulitis. He has been treated with penicillin in the past but his current infection is not responding well to the treatment. The healthcare team suspects that the infecting bacteria may produce beta-lactamases and are considering alternative antibiotics. What is the mechanism of resistance by beta-lactamases to penicillins? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alteration of penicillin binding protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Degradation of antibiotics", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Drug efflux", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alteration in 50s ribosome structure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Degradation of antibiotics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Degradation of antibiotics.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta-lactamases confer resistance to penicillins by enzymatically degrading the beta-lactam ring of the antibiotic, rendering it inactive. This is the primary mechanism by which beta-lactamase-producing bacteria evade the effects of beta-lactam antibiotics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the contraceptive shown in the given image: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Male condom", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Female condom", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diaphragm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical cap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Female condom", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/27/feamle-condom.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/6_KwH3NWQ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Female condom</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image is of a female condom. It is made of aa synthetic nitrile sheath with one flexible polyurethane ring at each end One ring is open – lies outside the vagina. The closed ring is fitted under the symphysis like a diaphragm Male condoms should not be used simultaneously due to friction leading to slippage of condom or tearing Also offers protection against STDs</li><li>• The image is of a female condom.</li><li>• It is made of aa synthetic nitrile sheath with one flexible polyurethane ring at each end</li><li>• One ring is open – lies outside the vagina.</li><li>• The closed ring is fitted under the symphysis like a diaphragm</li><li>• Male condoms should not be used simultaneously due to friction leading to slippage of condom or tearing</li><li>• Also offers protection against STDs</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Male Condom:</li><li>• Option A. Male Condom:</li><li>• Option C. Cervical diaphragm:</li><li>• Option C. Cervical diaphragm:</li><li>• Option D. Cervical Cap:</li><li>• Option D. Cervical Cap:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The female condom is a synthetic nitrile sheath with one flexible polyurethane ring at each end, providing contraceptive protection and protection against STDs.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page n 612, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page n 612, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the etiology of the Werner syndrome with premature aging? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased length of telomere", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Short telomere with damaged DNA and loss of helicase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased advanced glycation end products", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased lipid peroxidation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Short telomere with damaged DNA and loss of helicase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Short telomere with damaged DNA and loss of helicase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Werner syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by premature aging. It is caused by mutations in the WRN gene, which encodes a protein called Werner syndrome ATP-dependent helicase (WRN). The WRN protein is involved in DNA repair, maintenance of genome stability, and telomere maintenance. One of the other functions of this protein is DNA helicase.</li><li>➤ In Werner syndrome, there is a loss of function of the WRN protein, leading to problems with DNA repair and telomere maintenance. Telomeres are the protective caps at the ends of chromosomes, and they shorten with each cell division. In Werner syndrome, there is accelerated telomere shortening, and this contributes to premature aging. There is also increased risk of cancer.</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s 31st/e pg. 370</li><li>➤ Ref: Harper’s 31st/e pg. 370</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The false statement about fetal circulation is: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anatomical closure of foramen ovale is by 3 to 5 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anatomical closure of ductus venosus is by 3 to 7 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right umbilical vein is absent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anatomical closure of ductus arteriosus is by 2 to 3 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anatomical closure of foramen ovale is by 3 to 5 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-164423.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Anatomical closure of foramen ovale is by 3 to 5 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anatomical closure of the foramen ovale takes 1 month to a year.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman in her early 40s comes to your clinic, displaying a winding, pronounced swelling that covers the left region of her scalp and face, as visible in the provided image. Upon physical examination, you notice the swelling exhibits a rhythmic pulsation. When listening to the area with a stethoscope, a sound indicative of turbulent blood flow - a bruit - is heard. What could be the most probable diagnosis in this case? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurofibromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liposarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cirsoid Aneurysm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Varicocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cirsoid Aneurysm", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-153927.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-154036.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-154125.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cirsoid Aneurysm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cirsoid aneurysms are arteriovenous malformations commonly found in the scalp and face, presenting as pulsatile masses with associated bruits. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications such as bleeding and cosmetic concerns.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of aphasia is seen in the lesions of the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluent aphasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non fluent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anomic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conduction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fluent aphasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/24/screenshot-2024-07-24-110907.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Fluent aphasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Regions anterior to the central sulcus are motor areas and posterior are sensory areas. Hence temporal gyrus involvement causes a fluent aphasia.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - KV Krishna Das textbook of Medicine 5th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the stage of sleep based on the following EEG finding? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "REM sleep", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. REM sleep", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/12/untitled-359.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) REM sleep</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep follows NREM sleep. EEG in REM sleep shows sawtooth waves and increased activity similar to awake state ( beta activity ) along with return of alpha activity .</li><li>➤ beta activity</li><li>➤ alpha activity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 534.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the causative organism of vulval warts? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human papilloma virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes simplex virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human immunodeficiency virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Human papilloma virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/3_wgrQNmX.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Human papilloma virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Benign vulval warts are caused by HPV-6 and 11 (low risk HPV types)</li><li>• Benign vulval warts are caused by HPV-6 and 11 (low risk HPV types)</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Herpes simplex virus: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes genital herpes, characterized by painful vesicular lesions.</li><li>• Option B. Herpes simplex virus:</li><li>• Option C. Human immunodeficiency virus: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes AIDS, which leads to immunosuppression and various opportunistic infections.</li><li>• Option C. Human immunodeficiency virus:</li><li>• Option D. Cytomegalovirus : Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a member of the herpesvirus family and can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals, but it does not cause vulval warts.</li><li>• Option D. Cytomegalovirus</li><li>• Sexually Transmitted Infections</li><li>• Sexually Transmitted Infections</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Benign vulval warts (condyloma acuminata) are caused by HPV types 6 and 11.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 146, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 146, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman with a long history of dyspnea, chronic cough with sputum, and wheezing died of respiratory failure following a bout of lobar pneumonia. She was not a smoker or an alcoholic. The lung at autopsy is shown in the image below. Which of the following is most likely to cause the pathological changes shown? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mutation in dynein arms", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antibodies against type-IV collagen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/51_FGt3kor.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/52_iCjo3wK.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/53_WFL7eVf.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic disorder leading to a lack of AAT, which protects the lung tissue from elastase. The deficiency causes panacinar emphysema, characterized by uniform enlargement of acini, particularly in the lower lobes of the lung, and presents with chronic respiratory symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old female patient presented with progressive dysphagia for solids, loss of weight, and loss of appetite. A barium swallow done is given below. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diffuse esophageal spasm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophageal leiomyoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoma esophagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esophageal web", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Carcinoma esophagus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_202.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_203.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Carcinoma Esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical history of an elderly female presenting with symptoms such as progressive dysphagia, loss of appetite and weight loss along with the given barium study which shows irregular narrowing, mucosal destruction and shouldered margins . These findings are suggestive of Carcinoma Esophagus.</li><li>• barium study which shows irregular narrowing,</li><li>• mucosal destruction and shouldered margins</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Diffuse esophageal spasm: Is a motility disorder of esophagus and appears as a corkscrew esophagus .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Diffuse esophageal spasm:</li><li>• motility disorder of esophagus</li><li>• corkscrew esophagus</li><li>• Option B. Esophageal leiomyoma: Is a benign neoplasm of the esophagus and on barium swallow it is seen as a discrete ovoid mass well outlined by barium.</li><li>• Option B. Esophageal leiomyoma:</li><li>• benign neoplasm of the esophagus</li><li>• discrete ovoid mass</li><li>• Option D. Esophageal webs: Refers to an esophageal constriction caused by a thin mucosal membrane projecting into the lumen .</li><li>• Option D. Esophageal webs:</li><li>• esophageal constriction</li><li>• thin mucosal membrane projecting into the lumen</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In an elderly patient presenting with progressive dysphagia for solids and significant weight loss, the presence of irregular narrowing and shouldered margins on a barium swallow is highly suggestive of esophageal carcinoma. Diagnostic confirmation typically requires upper gastrointestinal endoscopy (UGIE) and biopsy. For tumor staging, endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) is used for T and N staging, while PET-CT is utilized for M staging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Graft from identical twin is called: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Allograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autograft", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isograft", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Xenograft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Isograft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Isograft</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which part of the fallopian tube does fertilization occur? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ampulla", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isthmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interstitial", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infundibular", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ampulla", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/14/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ampulla</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ampulla:</li><li>• Ampulla:</li><li>• The ampulla is the widest section of the fallopian tube and is the most common site for fertilization. This region provides an optimal environment for the sperm to meet the ovum and for the subsequent fertilization process to occur. The ampulla is also the most common site of ectopic pregnancy, where a fertilized egg implants and grows outside the main cavity of the uterus.</li><li>• The ampulla is the widest section of the fallopian tube and is the most common site for fertilization.</li><li>• This region provides an optimal environment for the sperm to meet the ovum and for the subsequent fertilization process to occur.</li><li>• The ampulla is also the most common site of ectopic pregnancy, where a fertilized egg implants and grows outside the main cavity of the uterus.</li><li>• Structure of the Fallopian Tube:</li><li>• Structure of the Fallopian Tube:</li><li>• The fallopian tube has four main parts:</li><li>• Infundibulum: The funnel-shaped opening near the ovary with finger-like projections called fimbriae. Ampulla: The widest and longest part where fertilization typically occurs. Isthmus: A narrow section adjacent to the uterus. Interstitial (or intramural): The part that traverses the uterine wall and opens into the uterine cavity.</li><li>• Infundibulum: The funnel-shaped opening near the ovary with finger-like projections called fimbriae.</li><li>• Infundibulum:</li><li>• Ampulla: The widest and longest part where fertilization typically occurs.</li><li>• Ampulla:</li><li>• Isthmus: A narrow section adjacent to the uterus.</li><li>• Isthmus:</li><li>• Interstitial (or intramural): The part that traverses the uterine wall and opens into the uterine cavity.</li><li>• Interstitial (or intramural):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Isthmus: The isthmus is the narrow section of the fallopian tube close to the uterus. While it plays a role in the transport of the fertilized egg to the uterus, it is not the primary site for fertilization.</li><li>• Option B. Isthmus:</li><li>• Option C. Interstitial: This portion of the fallopian tube traverses the uterine wall and opens into the uterine cavity. It is not typically where fertilization occurs.</li><li>• Option C. Interstitial:</li><li>• Option D. Infundibular: The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped opening near the ovary, equipped with fimbriae to help capture the released ovum. Fertilization does not typically occur here.</li><li>• Option D. Infundibular:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube, which is the widest and longest part of the tube.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 23, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 23, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is given a nicotinic receptor antagonist as a muscle relaxant. Which drug is given postoperatively to recover from muscle weakness? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Physostigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neostigmine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbachol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Succinylcholine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neostigmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Neostigmine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neostigmine is the preferred agent for reversing the effects of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants postoperatively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Histology of reperfused myocardium is suggestive of which of the following features? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wavy fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neutrophils in cardiac muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Swelling of cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eosinophilic contraction band", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Eosinophilic contraction band", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/47_97HJYXd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Eosinophilic contraction band</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eosinophilic contraction bands are a characteristic histological feature of reperfused myocardium, indicating irreversible injury and exaggerated myofibril contraction due to high intracellular calcium levels upon restoration of blood flow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman complains of a creepy crawling sensation in her legs. It is more at night and prevents her from sleeping. She is relieved of these symptoms by either walking or moving her legs. Which of the following drugs is used in treating the condition?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pramipexole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gabapentin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron tablets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gabapentin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gabapentin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) is a sensorimotor disorder characterized by an unpleasant sensation in the legs and an urge to move them, especially at night. It can disrupt sleep and may have secondary causes like iron deficiency. Alpha-2-delta calcium channel ligands, such as gabapentin and pregabalin , are first-line treatments.</li><li>➤ Alpha-2-delta calcium channel ligands, such as gabapentin and pregabalin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ The Management of Restless Legs Syndrome: An Updated Algorithm Silber, Michael H.Earley, Christopher J. et al. Mayo Clinic Proceedings, Volume 96, Issue 7, 1921 - 1937.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Effacement of podocyte foot processes is seen in which of the following diseases? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Steroid resistant glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Minimal change disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Minimal change disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/minimal-change-disease.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Minimal change disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Effacement of podocyte foot processes is the characteristic feature of minimal change disease (MCD), which presents with nephrotic syndrome and shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy but diffuse foot process flattening on electron microscopy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the surgery done to widen the cartilaginous part of the external auditory canal called? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meatoplasty", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tympanoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myringoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Otoplasty", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Meatoplasty", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Meatoplasty</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meatoplasty is an important surgical option for managing conditions that require improved access to the ear canal and middle ear, particularly in managing chronic ear diseases or anatomical changes that impact ear function.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 32, 457, 463</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 32, 457, 463</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old female with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving theophylline as part of her management plan. She reports increased urination since starting the medication. Theophylline causes diuresis by: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenosine antagonism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "PDE 4 inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Activation of histone deacetylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PDE 3 inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adenosine antagonism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-110055.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Adenosine antagonism.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mechanism of Adverse Effects of Theophylline</li><li>➤ Mechanism of Adverse Effects of Theophylline</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old HIV positive patient presents with mucosal lesions in the mouth as shown in the image below. On microscopy, budding yeasts and pseudohyphae are seen. What is the likely diagnosis? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral candidiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hairy leukoplakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oral candidiasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_PSXRA1m.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oral candidiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Oral candidiasis is a common opportunistic infection in HIV-positive individuals, characterized by white, patchy lesions in the oral cavity and the presence of Candida species on microscopic examination. Recognizing this condition and distinguishing it from other oral lesions based on clinical presentation and risk factors is crucial for appropriate management, which may include antifungal therapies like nystatin, ketoconazole, or fluconazole.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Surgery where one nostril is partially or completely occluded is done for which condition? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vasomotor rhinitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrophic rhinitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Invasive aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allergic rhinitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atrophic rhinitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/3_Zfm7Z5P.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Atrophic rhinitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Young's operation is a unique surgical technique reserved for severe cases of atrophic rhinitis where other treatments have failed. This procedure helps in restoring the normal function and structure of the nasal mucosa by temporarily occluding the nostrils to allow healing.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 173</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 173</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-man presents with swelling over knee joint. Biopsy reveals mononuclear and giant cells. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chondrosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteoclastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chondroblastoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Osteoclastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/28.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture60.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Osteoclastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mononuclear giant cells in the histological findings is diagnostic for osteoclastoma or giant cell tumor.</li><li>➤ Mononuclear giant cells in the histological findings is diagnostic for osteoclastoma or giant cell tumor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old presented with swelling in the wrist joint. Histopathological examination of the swelling revealed spindle cells with palisading of the nuclei and Verocay bodies. Which of the following is the most likely condition? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Schwannoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neurofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neuroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glioma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Schwannoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/40_xbYIvj8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/41_iXpwVLE.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Schwannoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Schwannomas are characterized by spindle cells with palisading nuclei and Verocay bodies, forming well-circumscribed, encapsulated masses. These features, along with S-100 protein expression, distinguish schwannomas from other types of nerve sheath tumors and central nervous system tumors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 48-year-old man was brought to the emergency department after suffering a stab injury to the lower chest. On presentation, he had bradycardia and hypotension which did not improve despite IV fluid administration. Chest radiography showed clear lung fields. What is the next step in management? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E-FAST", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tube thoracostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CECT chest", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CECT abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. E-FAST", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-154640.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) E-FAST</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ E-FAST is a rapid ultrasound examination used in trauma patients to assess for life-threatening conditions such as cardiac tamponade, hemothorax, and pneumothorax. It is the most appropriate initial step for an unstable patient with a stab injury, bradycardia, and hypotension, given its ability to quickly provide critical information needed for immediate management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A laborer's second child is brought to the OPD with a swollen belly and dull face. He has been fed rice water (rice milk) in his diet mostly. On investigations, the child is found to have low serum protein and low albumin. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kwashiorkor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marasmus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indian childhood cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kawasaki disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kwashiorkor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture148.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kwashiorkor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kwashiorkor is characterized by edema, apathy, and growth retardation due to a diet deficient in protein, often with a swollen belly and low serum protein levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tumor of the uncinate process of the pancreas affects which of the following vessels? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior mesenteric artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Portal vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Common hepatic artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inferior mesenteric artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Superior mesenteric artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-873.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-874.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Superior mesenteric artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The uncinate process of the pancreas is a small extension of the pancreas that hooks around the superior mesenteric artery and vein. Its anatomical relations include:</li><li>➤ Superiorly:</li><li>➤ Superiorly:</li><li>➤ Neck of the pancreas</li><li>➤ Neck of the pancreas</li><li>➤ Inferiorly:</li><li>➤ Inferiorly:</li><li>➤ Superior mesenteric vein Superior mesenteric artery</li><li>➤ Superior mesenteric vein</li><li>➤ Superior mesenteric artery</li><li>➤ Anteriorly:</li><li>➤ Anteriorly:</li><li>➤ Third part of the duodenum Root of the small bowel mesentery</li><li>➤ Third part of the duodenum</li><li>➤ Root of the small bowel mesentery</li><li>➤ Posteriorly:</li><li>➤ Posteriorly:</li><li>➤ Inferior vena cava Aorta Left renal vein Left psoas muscle Transverse mesocolon</li><li>➤ Inferior vena cava</li><li>➤ Aorta</li><li>➤ Left renal vein</li><li>➤ Left psoas muscle</li><li>➤ Transverse mesocolon</li><li>➤ Medially:</li><li>➤ Medially:</li><li>➤ Pancreatic duct Common bile duct</li><li>➤ Pancreatic duct</li><li>➤ Common bile duct</li><li>➤ Laterally:</li><li>➤ Laterally:</li><li>➤ Right renal vessels Right psoas muscle</li><li>➤ Right renal vessels</li><li>➤ Right psoas muscle</li><li>➤ The uncinate process is an important landmark for the surgeon during pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure) as it is often involved in the dissection of the superior mesenteric vein and artery.Top of Form</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the photostress test used to differentiate between? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Macula and optic nerve disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cataract and glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lens and cornea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retina and vitreal pathologies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Macula and optic nerve disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Macula and optic nerve disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The photostress test is a simple and effective diagnostic tool used to differentiate between macular diseases and optic nerve diseases, based on the recovery time of vision following bright light exposure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a bioterrorism category A agent? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nipah virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthrax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coxiella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brucella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anthrax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Anthrax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Bacillus anthracis which causes anthrax is categorized under category A bioterrorism agent.</li><li>➤ Other category A agents are:</li><li>➤ Botulism (Clostridium botulinum toxin) Plague (Yersinia pestis) Smallpox (Variola virus) Tularemia (Francisella tularensis) - Francisella tularensis bacteria cause tularemia, also known as rabbit fever.</li><li>➤ Botulism (Clostridium botulinum toxin)</li><li>➤ Plague (Yersinia pestis)</li><li>➤ Smallpox (Variola virus)</li><li>➤ Tularemia (Francisella tularensis) - Francisella tularensis bacteria cause tularemia, also known as rabbit fever.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the most probable age of the child under POCSO (Protection of Children from Sexual Offences) Act by looking at the X-ray below:(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "7 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "13 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 7 years", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1309.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-03-120733.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 7 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The x-ray shown in the image suggests the age of the child to be 7 years as the x-ray does not have the Pisiform bone. Pisiform bone ossifies by the age of 13.</li><li>➤ The x-ray shown in the image suggests the age of the child to be 7 years as the x-ray does not have the Pisiform bone.</li><li>➤ Pisiform bone ossifies by the age of 13.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most effective markers for air pollution surveillance include: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sulfur dioxide, smoke, and suspended particles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sulfur dioxide, lead, and particulate matter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbon monoxide and hydrogen sulfide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sulfur dioxide, smoke, and suspended particles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-160349.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most effective markers for air pollution surveillance include sulfur dioxide, smoke, and suspended particles. These provide a comprehensive assessment of air quality and are crucial for monitoring the impact on health and the environment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the false statement about the flaps used in breast reconstruction?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pedicled TRAM based on superior epigastric artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Free TRAM based on inferior epigastric artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DIEP based on deep inferior epigastric artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DIEP is a myocutaneous flap", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. DIEP is a myocutaneous flap", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-152613.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture21.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) DIEP is a myocutaneous flap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator (DIEP) flap is a type of breast reconstruction flap that is derived from the deep inferior epigastric artery. The DIEP flap is a muscle-sparing flap, meaning it involves only the removal of skin, fat, and blood vessels (perforators), without taking any of the rectus abdominis muscle. This reduces the risk of post-operative abdominal weakness and complications, unlike the Transverse Rectus Abdominis Myocutaneous (TRAM) flap, which includes muscle. Therefore, it is incorrect to refer to the DIEP flap as a myocutaneous flap because it does not include muscle.</li><li>• DIEP is a myocutaneous flap: This statement is false. A myocutaneous flap includes muscle tissue, whereas the DIEP flap spares the rectus abdominis muscle, utilizing only the skin, fat, and perforator vessels.</li><li>• DIEP is a myocutaneous flap:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Pedicled TRAM based on superior epigastric artery: The pedicled TRAM flap stands for Transverse Rectus Abdominis Myocutaneous flap. It relies on the superior epigastric artery for blood supply, which remains attached (pedicled) to its original source. The flap, including the rectus muscle, is tunneled under the skin to the chest to reconstruct the breast. This statement is accurate.</li><li>• Option A. Pedicled TRAM based on superior epigastric artery:</li><li>• Option B. Free TRAM based on inferior epigastric artery: The free TRAM flap involves the removal of a section of the abdominal tissue, including the rectus muscle, along with the inferior epigastric arteries. This flap is transplanted to the chest and connected to the chest's blood vessels using microsurgical techniques. This flap utilizes both the superior and inferior epigastric arteries. This statement is accurate.</li><li>• Option B. Free TRAM based on inferior epigastric artery:</li><li>• Option C. DIEP based on deep inferior epigastric artery: The DIEP flap is similar to the free TRAM flap but does not involve the removal of the rectus muscle. Instead, it uses only the skin, fat, and perforator blood vessels based on the deep inferior epigastric artery. This design spares the abdominal muscles, reducing post-operative complications. This statement is accurate.</li><li>• Option C. DIEP based on deep inferior epigastric artery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The DIEP flap is a muscle-sparing flap used in breast reconstruction, involving the skin, fat, and blood vessels without including muscle tissue, which differentiates it from a myocutaneous flap like the TRAM flap.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complains of neck stiffness and severe headache. The CT image shown below is suggestive of which of the following conditions?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intraparenchymal hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemorrhagic stroke", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_AU3tBup.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario of a patient presenting with neck stiffness and severe headache with CT showing blood in the basal cistern suggests towards the diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH).</li><li>• CT showing blood in the basal cistern</li><li>• Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is an extra axial intracranial hemorrhage and denotes the presence of blood within the subarachnoid space. NCCT shows the hyperdense “star of death” appearance .</li><li>• extra axial intracranial hemorrhage</li><li>• “star of death” appearance</li><li>• The modified Fisher scale is a grading method for SAH as seen on non-contrast CT (NCCT). The Hunt and Hess scale is used to describe the severity of SAH and to predict survival.</li><li>• modified Fisher scale</li><li>• is a grading method for SAH as seen on</li><li>• non-contrast CT</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A: Meningitis can also present with neck stiffness and headache. NCCT would be normal. CE-MRI shows thickened enhancing meninges .</li><li>• Option A:</li><li>• CE-MRI shows thickened enhancing meninges</li><li>• Option C: Intraparenchymal hemorrhage is acute accumulation of blood within the parenchyma of the brain and on CT scan a hyperdense collection of blood, often with surrounding hypodense edema.</li><li>• Option C:</li><li>• acute accumulation of blood within the parenchyma of the brain</li><li>• Option D: Hemorrhagic stroke is a broader classification and usually indicated IC bleed.</li><li>• Option D:</li><li>• broader classification</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a critical condition indicated by CT findings of blood in the subarachnoid space, presenting clinically with rapid onset headache and neck stiffness. It requires immediate medical attention and further evaluation with grading scales like the modified Fisher scale to assess severity and guide treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thrombosis is initiated by: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platelet activation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endothelial injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coagulation cascade", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vasoconstriction of vessels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endothelial injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/23_HB1Qppz.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endothelial injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thrombosis is primarily initiated by endothelial injury, which is a key component of the Virchow triad and leads to the subsequent activation of platelets and the coagulation cascade.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding shown in the image below: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpangina", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Impetigo", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes labialis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Herpes labialis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1333.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture53333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture66666.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture7777.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Herpes labialis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Herpes labialis , also known as a cold sore , is characterized by clusters of numerous grouped vesicles around the lips. Recurrent herpetic lesions are very common &amp; are vesicular and ulcerative and tend to occur in the same region. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) commonly and type 2 (HSV-2) rarely are responsible for its occurrence</li><li>• Herpes labialis , also known as a cold sore , is characterized by clusters of numerous grouped vesicles around the lips.</li><li>• Herpes labialis</li><li>• cold sore</li><li>• grouped vesicles</li><li>• Recurrent herpetic lesions are very common &amp; are vesicular and ulcerative and tend to occur in the same region.</li><li>• Recurrent</li><li>• vesicular and ulcerative</li><li>• same</li><li>• Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) commonly and type 2 (HSV-2) rarely are responsible for its occurrence</li><li>• Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)</li><li>• Treatment: Foscarnet or cidofovir if acyclovir resistance develops in a patient with recurrent Herpes labialis. They act on viral DNA polymerases thus blocking DNA replication.</li><li>• Treatment:</li><li>• Foscarnet or cidofovir</li><li>• acyclovir</li><li>• viral DNA polymerases</li><li>• Oral acyclovir 200 mg and 5% topical acyclovir.</li><li>• Oral acyclovir 200 mg and 5% topical acyclovir.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Herpangina or vesicular pharyngitis:</li><li>• Option A. Herpangina or vesicular pharyngitis:</li><li>• It is characterized by the presence of ulcerating small vesicles on the oral fauces and the posterior pharyngeal wall as seen in the below image.</li><li>• It is characterized by the presence of ulcerating small vesicles on the oral fauces and the posterior pharyngeal wall as seen in the below image.</li><li>• oral fauces</li><li>• posterior pharyngeal wall as seen in the below image.</li><li>• Causative agent: Coxsackie virus.</li><li>• Causative agent: Coxsackie virus.</li><li>• Causative agent:</li><li>• Coxsackie virus.</li><li>• Option B. Molluscum contagiosum: Pearly white, wart-like umbilicated papules seen due to infection by Pox virus .</li><li>• Option B. Molluscum contagiosum:</li><li>• umbilicated papules</li><li>• Pox virus</li><li>• Option C. Impetigo: It is of 2 types:</li><li>• Option C. Impetigo:</li><li>• Bullous – S. aureus Non-bullous – S. aureus and Streptococcus. Golden-yellow or honey coloured crust seen.</li><li>• Bullous – S. aureus</li><li>• Bullous</li><li>• Non-bullous – S. aureus and Streptococcus. Golden-yellow or honey coloured crust seen.</li><li>• Non-bullous</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpes labialis is identified as condition characterized by recurrent clusters of vesicles on the lips , caused by the herpes simplex virus, and distinguish it from other vesicular or pustular lesions such as herpangina, molluscum contagiosum, and impetigo.</li><li>➤ Herpes labialis</li><li>➤ recurrent</li><li>➤ vesicles</li><li>➤ lips</li><li>➤ herpes simplex</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 25 Page no 25.12, 25.17-19, 25.20</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I, Chapter 25 Page no 25.12, 25.17-19, 25.20</li><li>↳ Fitzpatrick’s Dermatology 9 th edition Page no 2721</li><li>↳ Fitzpatrick’s Dermatology 9 th edition Page no 2721</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with an enlarged inguinal lymph node. Which one is the most likely primary cause?( NEET PG 2020 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Testicular cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anal cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sigmoid colon cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prostate cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anal cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Anal cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anal cancer is a primary malignancy associated with the enlargement of inguinal lymph nodes due to its anatomical and lymphatic relationship with the anal canal below the dentate line. Recognizing this link is crucial for correct diagnosis and treatment planning.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given chest X-ray is suggestive of: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tetralogy of Fallot", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial septal defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ventricular septal defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ebstein's anomaly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tetralogy of Fallot", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture3_POGu9gC.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/pedia-fmg-1-2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture5_Uzc0cBu.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tetralogy of Fallot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The boot-shaped heart on a chest X-ray is indicative of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), a congenital heart defect characterized by pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An employee who has been diagnosed with tuberculosis is eligible for an extended sickness benefit for? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-134020.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old female patient with a history of advanced-stage colorectal cancer is being evaluated for a new chemotherapy regimen. The oncologist is considering drugs that would inhibit DNA synthesis as a part of her treatment. Which of the following drugs is a known inhibitor of DNA synthesis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6-Mercaptopurine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Actinomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asparaginase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 6-Mercaptopurine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 6-Mercaptopurine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 6-Mercaptopurine is a purine analog that inhibits DNA synthesis by interfering with purine synthesis, making it a critical component in chemotherapy regimens that aim to inhibit cell proliferation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is more common in limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis when compared to diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophageal dysmotility", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interstitial lung disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scleroderma renal crisis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Esophageal dysmotility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-191513.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Esophageal dysmotility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Rheumatology/ Chap 360</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Involvement of PIP, DIP and 1st CMC with sparing of wrist and MCP is seen in: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteoarthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psoriatic arthropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jaccoud arthropathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Osteoarthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-03-125216.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-03-130158.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/19.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/20_WkQrkMY.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/22_5EuTrTC.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/23.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/24.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Osteoarthritis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked cell from the given histological image of cerebellum: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Purkinje cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basket cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Golgi cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Granule cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Purkinje cells", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-869_vnM0K9d.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/photo-2023-07-04-16-41-04.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Purkinje cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Purkinje cells are among the largest neurons in the brain, located in the Purkinje cell layer of the cerebellar cortex. They have a large, flask-shaped soma from which extend many branching dendrites. The dendritic tree is oriented perpendicularly to the surface of the cerebellum, extending into the molecular layer. The axons of the Purkinje cells pass into the white matter and are the only axons that leave the cerebellar cortex to synapse with cells in the cerebellar nuclei.</li><li>➤ Purkinje cells</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the treatment of choice for postpartum blues?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoxetine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cognitive behavioral therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lithium carbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Support and education", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Support and education", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Support and education</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postpartum blues (or \"baby blues\") is a mild, transient mood disturbance that affects up to 30-75% of postpartum women. Symptoms include mood lability, tearfulness, sadness, and sleep disturbances. It typically occurs within the first week (3-5 days) after delivery and resolves spontaneously within days to weeks. Mainstay of management is reassurance, support, and education.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, Page No 839.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sympathetic ophthalmia is a consequence of which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Penetrating ocular trauma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blunt ocular trauma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chemical injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urinary tract infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Penetrating ocular trauma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Penetrating ocular trauma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sympathetic ophthalmia is a preventable and treatable condition if diagnosed early and managed appropriately. Awareness of its presentation and prompt treatment can prevent severe bilateral vision loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a preterm baby with respiratory distress syndrome, which of the following lipid would be deficient?( NEET PG 2020 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sphingomyelin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiolipin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RDS occurs when there is not enough surfactant in the lungs. Surfactant is a liquid made by the lungs that keeps the airways (alveoli) open. Pulmonary surfactant is a surface-active lipoprotein complex (phospholipoprotein) formed by type II alveolar cells. The proteins and lipids that make up the surfactant have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions. By adsorbing to the air-water interface of alveoli, with hydrophilic head groups in the water and the hydrophobic tails facing towards the air, the main lipid component of surfactant is dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC).</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31st ed pg – 234</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31st ed pg – 234</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The test kit shown in the image below works on the principle of: ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ELISA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immunochromatography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immunofluroscence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemiluminiscence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Immunochromatography", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/14_2v9t6IR.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Immunochromatography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immunochromatographic tests, such as the HbsAg card test, provide a rapid, user-friendly, and effective means of testing for certain antigens or antibodies directly at the point of care. Their simplicity and speed make them invaluable tools in clinical settings, especially where quick decision-making is crucial.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old HIV-positive patient presented with a chronic history of watery diarrhea. Histopathology of the duodenum is shown in the image below. Which of the following is the causative organism? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Giardia lamblia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Entamoeba histolytica", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Microsporidia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cryptosporidia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Giardia lamblia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102050.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/10/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210110102050_6sYD3d5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Giardia lamblia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Giardia lamblia is a significant cause of diarrheal disease, especially in settings where water or food might be contaminated. Its unique trophozoites are diagnosable through histopathology, emphasizing the need for awareness of water and food hygiene to prevent its transmission. Treatment typically involves specific anti-protozoal medications, and addressing it effectively is crucial in immunocompromised patients to prevent prolonged symptoms and nutritional deficiencies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Hyperextension at MCP joint and flexion at IP joint occurs due to involvement of which muscle?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lumbricals and interossei", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Palmar interossei", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dorsal interossei", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adductor pollicis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lumbricals and interossei", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/27.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-03-134412.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lumbricals and interossei</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Water hammer pulse is seen in which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aortic stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aortic stenosis and aortic regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aortic regurgitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Aortic regurgitation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The water hammer pulse is a distinctive physical finding primarily associated with aortic regurgitation and is useful in the physical diagnosis of this condition. This type of pulse helps clinicians in the assessment of the severity and impact of valve dysfunction on the cardiovascular system.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Clinical Cardiology/Chap 239</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presented with a retroperitoneal mass. Biopsy from the lesion is shown in the image below. Molecular analysis revealed t(12;16). What is the most likely condition? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myxoid liposarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lipoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spindle lipoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polymorphic lipoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myxoid liposarcoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/untitled-398.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Myxoid liposarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myxoid liposarcoma is the most common histologic type of liposarcoma, characterized by a mucopolysaccharide-rich ground substance, a prominent capillary network forming chicken-wire patterns, and the presence of the translocation t (12;16).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged woman presents with thyroid swelling. Blood tests show elevated TSH levels and the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. Histopathological examination revealed the presence of Hurthle cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hashimoto thyroiditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Graves' disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Follicular carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medullary carcinoma of thyroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hashimoto thyroiditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/1280px-hashimoto_thyroiditis_-_high_mag.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/11/untitled-20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hashimoto thyroiditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old male patient presented with a history of fatigue and tiredness. On investigation, he was found to have Hb = 9 gm% and MCV =101 FL. Peripheral smear examination showed macrocytic RBC and hyper-segmented neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely etiology? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lead poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic alcoholism", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chronic alcoholism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/hypersegmented-neutrophil.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Chronic alcoholism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Macrocytic anemia with hyper-segmented neutrophils on a peripheral smear is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia, often due to folate deficiency, which is commonly seen in chronic alcoholics due to impaired folate metabolism and poor dietary intake.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Apolipoprotein B 48 is a made of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RNA alternate splicing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RNA editing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "DNA editing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "RNA interference", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. RNA editing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) RNA editing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In liver cell, Apo B100 gene gives rise to Apo B 100 protein. But Apo B48 protein is made in intestinal cells from the gene encoding Apo B100, by the process of RNA editing, which is also known as Differential RNA processing or chemical modification of RNA. This is a post transcriptional modification.</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31st ed pg – 238</li><li>➤ Ref- Harper 31st ed pg – 238</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mutation in the gene for aquaporin channel leads to which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liddle's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nephrogenic DI", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bartter syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nephrogenic DI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Nephrogenic DI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A mutation in the aquaporin channels, particularly Aquaporin-2, leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. This condition is characterized by an inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine in response to ADH, resulting in the production of large volumes of dilute urine. Understanding the genetic basis of nephrogenic DI is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management, which typically involves addressing the symptoms and managing water intake rather than hormone therapy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Diabetes Insipidus/Chapter 381</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following non-invasive investigations provides the most accurate prognostic information with respect to predicting risks of perioperative cardiac complications? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exercise ECG testing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dobutamine stress echocardiography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myocardial perfusion scintigraphy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coronary angiography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dobutamine stress echocardiography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dobutamine stress echocardiography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dobutamine stress echocardiography is the most accurate non-invasive investigation for predicting perioperative cardiac complications due to its ability to simulate exercise and identify areas of the heart with reduced blood flow.</li><li>➤ Dobutamine stress echocardiography is the most accurate non-invasive investigation for predicting perioperative cardiac complications due to its ability to simulate exercise and identify areas of the heart with reduced blood flow.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 935</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 935</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old toddler with a weight of 11 kg was brought to the pediatric outpatient department. The child exhibited a respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute and upon examination, noticeable chest indrawing was detected. What is the next step of management? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral amoxicillin for five days", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urgent referral to the tertiary care centre immediately", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administer IV antibiotics and ask the patient to be brought after 24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start antipyretics urgently", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oral amoxicillin for five days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-134019.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oral amoxicillin for five days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "V/Q = infinity holds true in which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Foreign body obstruction in the bronchus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Equal to dead space", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "When 02 and CO2 ratio is equal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The PO2 of alveolar air is 159 mmHg and PCO2 is 40 mmHg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Equal to dead space", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Equal to dead space</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• VA/Q= infinity suggests that Q is 0 which implies that there is no exchange of 02 &amp; CO2, and no gaseous exchange occurs in dead space.</li><li>• In quantitative terms, the ventilation-perfusion ratio is expressed as Va/Q. When Va (alveolar ventilation) is normal for a given alveolus and Q (blood flow) is also normal for the same alveolus, the ventilation-perfusion ratio (Va/Q) is also said to be normal.</li><li>• This ratio explains the respiratory exchange when there is an imbalance between alveolar ventilation and alveolar blood flow.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Foreign body obstruction in the bronchus : Incorrect, as this condition would lead to an area with no ventilation (blocked by the foreign body) potentially resulting in a low V/Q ratio in the affected area rather than an infinite V/Q ratio.</li><li>• Option A. Foreign body obstruction in the bronchus</li><li>• Option C. When O2 and CO2 ratio is equal : Incorrect, as this does not directly relate to the ventilation-perfusion ratio concept. This option is more a reflection of gas exchange effectiveness rather than a description of V/Q mismatches.</li><li>• Option C. When O2 and CO2 ratio is equal</li><li>• Option D. The PO2 of alveolar air is 159 mmHg and PCO2 is 40 mmHg : Incorrect, these values are typical for normal alveolar air and do not indicate a V/Q mismatch situation.</li><li>• Option D. The PO2 of alveolar air is 159 mmHg and PCO2 is 40 mmHg</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ VA /Q ratio is infinite in the following scenarios -</li><li>➤ Ventilation is normal but there is no perfusion. No gaseous exchange through the respiratory membranes of corresponding alveoli. The alveolar air equilibrates the humidified inspired air. Partial pressures of the 02 and CO, are 149 mmHg &amp; 0 mm Hg respectively.</li><li>➤ Ventilation is normal but there is no perfusion.</li><li>➤ No gaseous exchange through the respiratory membranes of corresponding alveoli.</li><li>➤ The alveolar air equilibrates the humidified inspired air.</li><li>➤ Partial pressures of the 02 and CO, are 149 mmHg &amp; 0 mm Hg respectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The recommended temperature of water bath for a patient with frost bite is? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "42 degree C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "37 degree C", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "32 degree C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30 degree C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 37 degree C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 37 degrees C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Frostbite should be rewarmed in circulating water at 37–40°C for 30–60 minutes, avoiding hot air or dry heat.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the class of immunoglobulin shown in the image below. ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ig A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ig G", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ig M", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ig E", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ig A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/17.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/15.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ig A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secretory IgA is critical for mucosal immunity due to its unique structure and location. It acts as the first line of defence by preventing pathogens from adhering to and penetrating mucosal surfaces, thus playing a vital role in protecting the body from infections, especially at the mucosal barriers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Out of the options given below the most common habit-forming drug is? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ketamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heroin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "LSD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phencyclidine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Heroin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Heroin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Common habit-forming drugs:</li><li>➤ Cannabis Opioids Amphetamine and prescription stimulants Ecstasy Cocaine</li><li>➤ Cannabis</li><li>➤ Opioids</li><li>➤ Amphetamine and prescription stimulants</li><li>➤ Ecstasy</li><li>➤ Cocaine</li><li>➤ Heroin is the most common drug which is habit forming or in other words can cause physical dependence in which a patient gets withdrawal if he does not take the drug.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which compound among the options is predominantly responsible for the disinfectant quality to bleaching powder? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypochlorite ion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrochloric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypochlorous acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chloride ion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypochlorous acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hypochlorous acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bleaching powder (CaOCl 2 )</li><li>➤ Bleaching powder (CaOCl 2 )</li><li>➤ 2.5 gms of bleaching powder is sufficient to disinfect 1000L of water.</li><li>➤ 2.5 gms of bleaching powder is sufficient to disinfect 1000L of water.</li><li>➤ Mechanism of action:</li><li>➤ CHLORINE + IMPURITIES à DESTRUCTION Add some additional Cl 2 [free residual Cl 2 ] Main disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to HYPOCHLOROUS ACID [HOCL] [90% of disinfection] + Hypochlorite ions [10% of disinfection]</li><li>➤ CHLORINE + IMPURITIES à DESTRUCTION Add some additional Cl 2 [free residual Cl 2 ]</li><li>➤ Main disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to HYPOCHLOROUS ACID [HOCL] [90% of disinfection] + Hypochlorite ions [10% of disinfection]</li><li>➤ H 2 O + Cl → HCI + HOCI HOCI → H + OCI</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An old lady complains of chronic backpain since a few months. X-ray is shown below. What is the probable diagnosis?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osteoporosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spondylolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spondylolisthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteopetrosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Osteoporosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1313.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1314.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-02-192803.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture69.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/13.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/14.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/15.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture73.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Osteoporosis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nitric oxide is synthesized from: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "L-Arginine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "L-Citrulline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lysine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. L-Arginine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) L-Arginine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NO (nitric oxide) is synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) in the endothelial cells.</li><li>➤ NO (nitric oxide) is</li><li>➤ synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS</li><li>➤ NO is also called as Endothelium Derived Relaxing Factor (EDRF). It causes vasodilatation and acts through the formation of secondary messenger cGMP.</li><li>➤ NOS (multienzyme complex)</li><li>➤ NOS (multienzyme complex)</li><li>➤ There are three isoforms of NOS iNOS- inducible nNOS - neuronal eNOS- endothelial</li><li>➤ There are three isoforms of NOS iNOS- inducible nNOS - neuronal eNOS- endothelial</li><li>➤ iNOS- inducible nNOS - neuronal eNOS- endothelial</li><li>➤ iNOS- inducible</li><li>➤ nNOS - neuronal</li><li>➤ eNOS- endothelial</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Replacing alanine by which amino acid, will increase UV absorbance of protein at 280nm wavelength? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tryptophan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arginine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Guanine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lysine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tryptophan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tryptophan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ UV absorption occur due to conjugated double bonds in the ring. So, to increase the UV absorbance of protein at 280nm, alanine should be replaced by any aromatic amino acids such as Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan. Out of these, tryptophan absorbs ultraviolet light about ten times more efficiently than either phenylalanine or tyrosine due to presence of two rings in its side chain compared to only one in other two amino acids.</li><li>➤ Out of these, tryptophan</li><li>➤ All other amino acid given here do not absorb UV light due to lack of conjugated double bonds.</li><li>➤ Guanine is nitrogenous base not amino acid. It absorbs at 260nm.</li><li>➤ Additional information:</li><li>➤ Additional information:</li><li>➤ Absorbance of compounds:</li><li>➤ Absorbance of compounds:</li><li>➤ Proteins - 280nm (Aromatic amino acids) Nucleic acids - 260 nm (N-bases) NADH/NADPH - 340 nm Porphyrins - 400 nm ( Soret band).</li><li>➤ Proteins - 280nm (Aromatic amino acids)</li><li>➤ Nucleic acids - 260 nm (N-bases)</li><li>➤ NADH/NADPH - 340 nm</li><li>➤ Porphyrins - 400 nm ( Soret band).</li><li>➤ Soret</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Anuj has been diagnosed with diphtheria and is being treated in the ward. His 3-year-old brother, Ajay who lives in the same house has received vaccination against diphtheria about 16 months back. What is the next best step for the management of the younger sibling, Ajay? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "One booster dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nothing as the child is already exposed", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythromycin + diphtheria toxoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythromycin only", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Erythromycin only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Erythromycin only</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When Additional Toxoid is Needed:</li><li>➤ &lt;3 doses total received &gt;5 years since last dose Unknown vaccination history</li><li>➤ &lt;3 doses total received</li><li>➤ &gt;5 years since last dose</li><li>➤ Unknown vaccination history</li><li>➤ For a close contact of a diphtheria patient who has received the diphtheria vaccination within the last five years, antibiotic prophylaxis with erythromycin is the appropriate management step.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the probable diagnosis for a patient with a midline neck swelling and histopathological findings of Orphan Annie eye nuclei on biopsy as shown below? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Follicular carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Papillary carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Toxic nodular goitre", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medullary carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Papillary carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-123104.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-123152.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Papillary carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Orphan Annie eye nuclei on histopathological examination is a key diagnostic feature of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male has been diagnosed with achalasia cardia through esophageal manometry. The manometry results reveal simultaneous, high-pressure contractions in the distal esophagus, along with spasmodic contractions. What type of achalasia does this patient's presentation correspond among the provided options?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type II", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type I", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type III", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Type III", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/09/screenshot-2024-07-09-154454.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Type III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type III achalasia, also known as spastic achalasia, involves spastic contractions in the distal esophagus and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax. This type is the least common and often requires more aggressive therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old girl presented with fatigue, chronic diarrhea, weight loss, bone pain, and abdominal distension. Investigations revealed iron deficiency anemia and osteoporosis. Which of the following is the single best test to be done for her evaluation? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TSH levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C-peptide levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine sugar and ketone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/24/nm38.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a young patient presenting with symptoms consistent with malabsorption, including gastrointestinal symptoms and specific nutrient deficiencies like iron and calcium, testing for celiac disease with an IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody test should be considered as a critical diagnostic step. This helps in confirming the diagnosis and facilitating appropriate dietary and medical management.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Celiac disease/Chapter 325</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child was admitted to the hospital with a history of prolapsing rectal mass and painless rectal bleeding. The histopathological image of the mass is as shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peutz Jegher syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Villous adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Juvenile polyp", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tubular adenoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Juvenile polyp", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/11_NYoMXMt.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/12_HeDXLfy.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/13_xQreBxn.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/14_ipyODHz.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/15_GkCeVLu.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Juvenile Polyp</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Juvenile polyps are the most common type of rectal polyps in children under five, characterized by cystically dilated crypts and glands, and often present with painless rectal bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Within the framework of Sustainable Development Goal 3, the objective of target 3.1 is to achieve a reduction in the Maternal Mortality Ratio to what specific level (per 1 lakh live births) by the year 2030? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt;70", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt;100", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "&lt;50", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&lt;130", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. <70", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-173901.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) &lt;70</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SDGs – Targets &amp; Indicators</li><li>➤ SDGs – Targets &amp; Indicators</li><li>➤ 3.1 - By 2030, MMR &lt; 70</li><li>➤ 3.2 - By 2030, NNMR 12 &amp; U5MR 25</li><li>➤ 3.3 - By 2030, end epidemics of AIDS, TB, Malaria and NTDs and combat Hepatitis, Water-borne diseases and other CDS.</li><li>➤ 3.4 - By 2030, reduce by 1/3 premature mortality from NCDs.</li><li>➤ 3.5 - Strengthen the prevention &amp; treatment of substance abuse.</li><li>➤ 3.6 - By 2020, halve the global deaths and injuries form RTA.</li><li>➤ 3.7 - By 2030, universal access to Sexual &amp; Rep – health care services.</li><li>➤ 3.8 - Achieve Universal health coverage.</li><li>➤ 3.9 - By 2030, reduce the number of deaths, illnesses form hazardous chemicals and air, water and soil pollution and contamination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient, during his routine annual checkup, is found to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 40 mm in diameter on USG abdomen. Which of the following is true about the management of this patient? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urgent endovascular aneurysm repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surgery is indicated if aneurysmal diameter is &gt;55mm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urgently wheel the patient to OT for surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgery is indicated only if aneurysm is &gt; 70mm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Surgery is indicated if aneurysmal diameter is >55mm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Surgery is indicated if aneurysmal diameter is &gt;55mm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Surgery (open surgical repair or EVAR) is recommended for asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysms when the diameter reaches 55mm or greater due to the increased risk of rupture beyond this size. Regular monitoring is advised for smaller aneurysms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the function of the proteasome? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protein folding", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Post-translational modification", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Protein degradation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Protein sorting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Protein degradation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Protein degradation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ubiquitin tagged proteins are immediately broken down inside the proteasomes of the cells . The proteasome assembly has a central cylindrical hollow core. Ubiquitin-tagged proteins are taken into this barrel, and surrounding proteolytic enzymes digest the protein into small oligopeptides of 5-6 amino acids length</li><li>➤ Ubiquitin tagged proteins are immediately broken down inside the proteasomes of the cells</li><li>➤ Ubiquitin-tagged proteins are taken into this barrel, and surrounding proteolytic enzymes digest the protein</li><li>➤ The proteasome is a cylindrical structure in the cytosol that degrades polyubiquitinated proteins . It has a central core with proteolytic enzymes. Proteins that are tagged by ubiquitin to be degraded enter the core through regulatory rings on either side of the cylinder.</li><li>➤ proteasome is a cylindrical structure</li><li>➤ degrades polyubiquitinated proteins</li><li>➤ It plays the major role in the degradation of proteins, and is particularly associated with disposal of misfolded proteins and regulatory enzymes that have short half-lives.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with the extension of MCP joint and flexion of IP joints. Which muscle is affected?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extensor digitorum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Interossei and lumbricals", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abductor pollicis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abductor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Interossei and lumbricals", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-172844.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Interossei and lumbricals</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Interossei and lumbricals are the intrinsic muscles of the hand.</li><li>➤ Interossei and lumbricals</li><li>➤ The lumbricals arise from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus. They act to flex the MCP joints and extend both the proximal and distal IP joints. The interossei (both dorsal and palmar) act to abduct (DAB - Dorsal Abduct) and adduct (PAD - Palmar Adduct) the fingers at the MCP joints and assist the lumbricals in flexing the MCP joints and extending the IP joints. If these muscles are affected, as indicated in the clinical picture, there would be an extension of the MCP joints and flexion of the IP joints (due to unopposed action of extrinsic flexors and extensors).</li><li>➤ The lumbricals arise from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus. They act to flex the MCP joints and extend both the proximal and distal IP joints.</li><li>➤ The interossei (both dorsal and palmar) act to abduct (DAB - Dorsal Abduct) and adduct (PAD - Palmar Adduct) the fingers at the MCP joints and assist the lumbricals in flexing the MCP joints and extending the IP joints.</li><li>➤ If these muscles are affected, as indicated in the clinical picture, there would be an extension of the MCP joints and flexion of the IP joints (due to unopposed action of extrinsic flexors and extensors).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Plethoric lung fields are seen in: (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TAPVC", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tricuspid atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebstein’s anomaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TOF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. TAPVC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. TAPVC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Plethoric lung fields are indicative of increased pulmonary arterial blood flow and are seen in:</li><li>• Left to right shunts TAPVC TGA Persistent truncus arteriosus</li><li>• Left to right shunts</li><li>• TAPVC</li><li>• TGA</li><li>• Persistent truncus arteriosus</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tricuspid atresia does not have plethoric lung fields because in this condition right atrium is atretic.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Tricuspid atresia</li><li>• Option C. Ebstein’s anomaly has arterialization of RV, leading to small outflow tract, and resultant reduced pulmonary blood flow.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Ebstein’s anomaly</li><li>• Option D. TOF has oligemia due to infundibular pulmonary stenosis.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• TOF</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ TAPVC is characterized by plethoric lung fields due to the excessive flow of oxygenated blood returning to the right side of the heart and flowing back into the lungs instead of going to the systemic circulation, leading to increased pulmonary pressure and congestion. This condition is a serious congenital heart defect that typically requires corrective surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 53-year-old woman underwent hip replacement surgery. A week after the surgery, the patient developed swelling of the legs associated with pain on palpation. Her heart rate is 70 beats per min. There is no history of hemoptysis or significant weight loss. There is no previous history of pulmonary embolism. What is the risk of developing pulmonary embolism in the patient based on Well's score? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moderate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannot comment without d-dimer values", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/24/screenshot-2024-07-24-113426.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. High</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When assessing the risk of pulmonary embolism, especially in postoperative patients presenting with symptoms suggestive of DVT, it is essential to consider both the clinical presentation and the surgical history. The Wells score is a valuable tool in stratifying the risk and guiding further diagnostic testing and management. In this scenario, the patient falls into a high-risk category, indicating that further immediate investigation, typically with imaging like a CT pulmonary angiogram, is warranted.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - UpToDate/Wells score</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An individual seeks to explore the correlation between smoking and lung cancer. To do so, they gather information on individuals diagnosed with lung cancer from government hospitals, along with data on the quantity of cigarette packets sold during the corresponding timeframe. What category of study does this represent? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cross sectional", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ecological", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Experimental", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quasi-experimental", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ecological", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ecological</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ECOLOGICAL STUDY / CO-RELATIONAL STUDY</li><li>➤ ECOLOGICAL STUDY / CO-RELATIONAL STUDY</li><li>➤ Done at a point of time [E.g. in 2023] Used in Nutritional surveys, e.g. à Avg. fat intake = 20gm/day Can’t calculate strength of Association or Prevalence Based on secondary data [collected by someone else, studied by investigator]</li><li>➤ Done at a point of time [E.g. in 2023]</li><li>➤ Used in Nutritional surveys, e.g. à Avg. fat intake = 20gm/day</li><li>➤ Can’t calculate strength of Association or Prevalence</li><li>➤ Based on secondary data [collected by someone else, studied by investigator]</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient who is a known case of COPD presented with acute exacerbation and in type 2 respiratory failure was admitted to the ICU. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the initial management of this patient? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Non-Invasive PPV should be given", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Invasive PPV should be given", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IV corticosteroids should be administered", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Permissive hypercapnia is allowed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Non-Invasive PPV should be given", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Non-Invasive PPV should be given</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a COPD patient presenting with acute exacerbation and respiratory failure, non-invasive ventilation is the preferred initial management strategy to stabilize the patient's respiratory status, reducing the need for intubation and potentially improving clinical outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Pulmonology/COPD/chapter 292</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which Section of the IPC deals with the punishment of perjury? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "191", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "192", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "193", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "197", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 193", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 193</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important IPC related to false evidence:</li><li>➤ Important IPC related to false evidence:</li><li>➤ 191 IPC: Definition of Perjury (false evidence): Giving false evidence under oath</li><li>➤ 191 IPC:</li><li>➤ 193 IPC: Punishment for Perjury (false evidence): up to 7 years</li><li>➤ 193 IPC:</li><li>➤ 197 IPC: Issuing false certificates- same punishment as that of false evidence (up to 7 years)</li><li>➤ 197 IPC:</li><li>➤ 201 IPC: Causing disappearance of evidence of offence, or giving false information to screen offender: Upto 7 years. (BNS 238)</li><li>➤ 201 IPC:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to NCEP-ATP III guidelines, which of the options below is not considered a criterion for metabolic syndrome? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypertriglyceridemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "High LDL", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central obesity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. High LDL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-150730.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) High LDL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to NCEP-ATP III guidelines, criterion for metabolic syndromes are:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which joint is shown in the given image? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syndesmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Synarthrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synchondrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Synovial", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Synovial", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-889.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-181747.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Synovial</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Description of the joint present in the thoracic region are as follows:</li><li>➤ Description of the joint present in the thoracic region are as follows:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the finding seen in this hysterosalpingogram? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bilateral hydrosalpinx", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extravasation into venous system", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal HSG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bilateral cornual block", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bilateral hydrosalpinx", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/03/untitled-349.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bilateral hydrosalpinx</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydrosalpinx is characterized by bilaterally enlarged Fallopian tubes filled with clear fluid, often due to repeated mild infections causing obstruction and distension.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 171, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 171, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a study involving a population, where the mean value is 200, if the standard deviation is 20, 68% of the population will lie between? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "180- 220", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "160- 240", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "170- 230", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "190- 210", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 180- 220", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-151255.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 180-220</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following complete ileal and partial jejunal resection, the patient is most likely to have?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folic acid deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastric ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Constipation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Vitamin B12 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The resection of the terminal ileum specifically compromises vitamin B12 absorption due to the loss of the primary site where the vitamin B12-intrinsic factor complex is absorbed. This can lead to significant clinical issues related to vitamin B12 deficiency, such as anemia and neurological disturbances, unless managed with appropriate supplementation.</li><li>➤ Major Sites of Absorption of Hematopoietic Factors</li><li>➤ Iron is absorbed in duodenum and upper jejunum Folate is absorbed in jejunum Vitamin B12 is absorbed in terminal Ileum</li><li>➤ Iron is absorbed in duodenum and upper jejunum</li><li>➤ Folate is absorbed in jejunum</li><li>➤ Vitamin B12 is absorbed in terminal Ileum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of cartilage shown in the image below:(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyaline cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Elastic cartilage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Articular cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibrocartilage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Elastic cartilage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-893.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-183118.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-895_xnzdQMS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Elastic cartilage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions would have the highest levels of ACTH and cortisol? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Early morning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Normal individuals with dexamethasone administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Addison's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cushing's disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cushing's disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cushing’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Cushing's disease specifically leads to elevated levels of both ACTH and cortisol due to an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma, distinguishing it from other conditions listed that involve different regulatory mechanisms of these hormones.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the use of the instrument given below? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "For tubal ligation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "For ligation of uterine artery during hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovarian cystectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. For tubal ligation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/picture6.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) For tubal ligation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The instrument shown is a laparoscopic ring applicator, also known as a laparocator. It is specifically designed for tubal ligation procedures. The instrument is used to apply Falope rings (silastic bands) on the fallopian tubes, which effectively block the tubes and prevent pregnancy. The Falope rings are preloaded on the tip of the instrument and are released after grasping the fallopian tube, thereby occluding the lumen.</li><li>• The instrument shown is a laparoscopic ring applicator, also known as a laparocator. It is specifically designed for tubal ligation procedures. The instrument is used to apply Falope rings (silastic bands) on the fallopian tubes, which effectively block the tubes and prevent pregnancy. The Falope rings are preloaded on the tip of the instrument and are released after grasping the fallopian tube, thereby occluding the lumen.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. For ligation of uterine artery during hysterectomy: This is incorrect. The instrument shown is not used for ligating the uterine artery. Instead, instruments like clamps or ligature carriers are typically used for this purpose during a hysterectomy.</li><li>• Option B. For ligation of uterine artery during hysterectomy:</li><li>• Option C. Ovarian cystectomy: This is incorrect. The instrument is not used for ovarian cystectomy, which involves the removal of cysts from the ovary. Instruments like scissors, graspers, and cautery devices are commonly used in ovarian cystectomy procedures.</li><li>• Option C. Ovarian cystectomy:</li><li>• Option D. Ectopic pregnancy: This is incorrect. While laparoscopic instruments are used in the surgical management of ectopic pregnancy, the specific instrument shown (laparoscopic ring applicator) is not used for this purpose. Instruments used for ectopic pregnancy surgery include laparoscopic graspers, scissors, and suction devices.</li><li>• Option D. Ectopic pregnancy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The laparoscopic ring applicator (laparocator) is used for applying Falope rings during tubal ligation procedures.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 497, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 497, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old man presented with an episode of acute onset dizziness and loss of consciousness which lasted for a few seconds followed by a regain of full consciousness. There were no similar episodes in the past. Which of the following is a true statement regarding this scenario? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ECG to rule out atrial fibrillation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "If ECG is normal, CT scan should be done", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tilt-table testing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vestibular neuritis is a possible condition that can cause these symptoms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ECG to rule out atrial fibrillation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. ECG to rule out atrial fibrillation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In elderly patients presenting with an acute onset of dizziness and syncope, an ECG is an essential first step to rule out arrhythmic causes such as atrial fibrillation. Additional diagnostic steps should be guided by the findings of the initial evaluation and specific clinical indicators.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Atrial fibrillation/Chap 251</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a feature of tubercular otitis media? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Earache", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple perforations", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pale granulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Foul smelling ear discharge", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Earache", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Earache</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Earache is notably absent in tubercular otitis media, differentiating it from other types of middle ear infections where pain is a common symptom. Recognizing the painless nature of this condition is crucial for prompt and accurate diagnosis and management.</li><li>➤ Ref - Source Dhingra 7th edition pg 81</li><li>➤ Ref - Source Dhingra 7th edition pg 81</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old pregnant woman at 13 weeks of gestation informs you about accidental exposure to radiation from a chest X-ray at 7 weeks of gestation. What should be the next step advised to her? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Continue pregnancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Terminate pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pre- invasive diagnostic test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chromosome screening", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Continue pregnancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Continue pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The risks for malformations, growth restriction, or abortion are not increased from a radiation dose of less than 0.05 Gy (5 rads). Since diagnostic X-rays seldom exceed 0.1 Gy (10 rads), the risk is negligible. A 0.1 Gy exposure is equivalent to more than 1000 chest X-rays. Hence, continuing pregnancy is the most appropriate advice to this woman.</li><li>• The risks for malformations, growth restriction, or abortion are not increased from a radiation dose of less than 0.05 Gy (5 rads).</li><li>• Since diagnostic X-rays seldom exceed 0.1 Gy (10 rads), the risk is negligible. A 0.1 Gy exposure is equivalent to more than 1000 chest X-rays.</li><li>• Hence, continuing pregnancy is the most appropriate advice to this woman.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Terminate pregnancy: Termination is not necessary as the radiation dose from a single chest X-ray is significantly lower than the threshold for increased risks.</li><li>• Option B. Terminate pregnancy:</li><li>• Option C. Pre-invasive diagnostic test: This is not required in this scenario as the radiation dose is too low to justify invasive diagnostics.</li><li>• Option C. Pre-invasive diagnostic test:</li><li>• Option D. Chromosome screening : Chromosome screening is unnecessary because the radiation dose from a chest X-ray does not significantly increase the risk of chromosomal abnormalities.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Chromosome</li><li>• screening</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The risk for fetal malformations, growth restriction, or abortion is not increased from a radiation dose of less than 0.05 Gy (5 rads).</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 2265, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 2265, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents to the OPD with complaints of amenorrhoea for the past year. She has a history of postpartum hemorrhage and lactational failure. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sheehan's syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotor syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prolactinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acromegaly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sheehan's syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sheehan’s syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sheehan’s syndrome is characterized by postpartum hemorrhage leading to vascular thrombosis of the pituitary vessels, resulting in panhypopituitarism with symptoms like lactation failure and amenorrhea.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 458, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 458, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her breast. Histopathological examination of the mass showed cells in mucin pools and faint nuclei. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colloid carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Papillary carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medullary carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lobular carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Colloid carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Colloid carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Colloid carcinoma of the breast, also known as mucinous carcinoma, is identified by the presence of tumor cells floating in large extracellular mucin pools. This rare type of breast cancer has a better prognosis compared to infiltrating duct carcinoma and is characterized histologically by its mucinous components.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus developed the following rhythm. His blood pressure was 70/40 mm Hg and he had a feeble pulse. What is the next step of management? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV adenosine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV diltiazem", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DC cardioversion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ibutilide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. DC cardioversion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_6DETd4g.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) DC cardioversion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and hemodynamic instability, direct current (DC) cardioversion is the recommended and most effective treatment.</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg 1744</li><li>➤ Ref: Miller’s Anesthesia, 9 th Ed. Pg</li><li>➤ 1744</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Amongst the poisons given below, which poison can be found even in skeletonized remains of the body? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbon monoxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hydrogen sulphide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phosphorus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arsenic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Arsenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arsenic can be found in skeletal remains for several years after death due to its strong binding to the bone matrix and slow release over time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is the most common neuroendocrine tumor of the pancreas? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Somatostatinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Insulinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "VIPoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Insulinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Insulinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Insulinoma is the most common neuroendocrine tumor of the pancreas, arising from beta cells and frequently causing hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child was brought to the hospital with complaints of fever, rash and swelling of her hands and feet since past 5 days. There is desquamative skin rash, edema of hands and feet, erythema of palms and soles, oral erythema, and cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the likely condition? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kawasaki disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scarlet fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Henoch Schonlein Purpura", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kawasaki disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-150544.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kawasaki disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kawasaki disease is characterized by a persistent fever, erythematous and polymorphous rash, edema of hands and feet, strawberry tongue, and cervical lymphadenopathy. It primarily affects children under 4 years old and can lead to serious coronary artery complications if not treated appropriately.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old woman presented with hypertension and chest pain. A chest radiograph was taken as shown in the image below. What is the likely cause of hypertension in this patient? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coarctation of aorta", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Essential hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Takayasu arteritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Coarctation of aorta", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_CBnhqNO.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_PtpGAIW.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Coarctation of aorta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and the chest X-ray depicting the figure of 3 sign are suggestive of coarctation of aorta to be the cause of hypertension in this patient.</li><li>• figure of 3 sign</li><li>• are suggestive of coarctation of aorta</li><li>• Typical C/F: Brachio-femoral delay – Upper limb pulsations/BP is high; Lower limb pulsation/BP is feeble.</li><li>• Typical C/F:</li><li>• Lower limb pulsation/BP is feeble.</li><li>• Radiological investigation:</li><li>• Radiological investigation:</li><li>• Figure of 3 signs on CXR Inferior rib notching – Roesler's sign</li><li>• Figure of 3 signs on CXR</li><li>• Figure of 3</li><li>• Inferior rib notching – Roesler's sign</li><li>• Inferior rib notching – Roesler's sign</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Essential hypertension: More common in older adults and usually doesn't show specific findings on a chest X-ray.</li><li>• Option B. Essential hypertension:</li><li>• Option C. Hyperparathyroidism: Associated with high calcium levels and bone resorption signs, not directly causing visible changes on a chest X-ray linked with hypertension.</li><li>• Option C. Hyperparathyroidism:</li><li>• Option D. Takayasu arteritis: A vasculitis that might show narrowing or dilation of the aorta or its branches, but it typically affects younger women and would likely show different patterns on imaging.</li><li>• Option D. Takayasu arteritis:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coarctation of the aorta can be identified on a chest X-ray by the \"figure of 3\" sign, and it should be suspected in young patients presenting with hypertension and signs of upper body hypertension contrasted with lower limb hypotension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with respiratory distress and hypotension following a trauma. He has subcutaneous emphysema and there is an absence of air entry into the right side of the lungs. What is the next best step? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Start IV fluids with large bore cannula", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Needle decompression into the 5th intercostal space anterior to the midaxillary line", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Take the patient to the ICU and intubate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start positive pressure ventilation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Needle decompression into the 5th intercostal space anterior to the midaxillary line", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Needle decompression into the 5th intercostal space anterior to the midaxillary line</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of tension pneumothorax, immediate needle decompression is critical to stabilize the patient and prevent further cardiovascular compromise. This emergency procedure is a life-saving intervention that precedes further definitive management like chest tube insertion.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison 21/Pneumothorax/ Chap 294</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the hospital with complaints of lethargy, increased sleep, and weight gain. Investigations revealed low plasma TSH concentration. However, on the administration of TRH, the TSH levels increased. Which of the following conditions is likely in this patient? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperthyroidism due to disease in the pituitary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypothyroidism due to disease in the pituitary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypothyroidism due to disease in the hypothalamus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperthyroidism due to disease in the hypothalamus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hypothyroidism due to disease in the hypothalamus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hypothyroidism due to disease in the hypothalamus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When evaluating a patient with hypothyroid symptoms and low TSH that responds to TRH administration, consider hypothalamic dysfunction as a probable cause. This is indicative of secondary hypothyroidism due to a lack of TRH production, affecting the pituitary’s secretion of TSH in the absence of exogenous stimulation.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - Harrison/Hypothyroidism/Chap 383</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl presents to the OPD with a history of primary amenorrhea and cyclical pain. Perineal examination reveals a bulge protruding from the vagina. Identify the cause of this presentation? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transverse septum in the proximal vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complete vaginal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Imperforate hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical agenesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Imperforate hymen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Imperforate hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Primary amenorrhea with cyclical pain is suggestive of an obstructive cause. O/e a bulge seen protruding from the vagina is suggestive of an imperforate hymen. This classically presents as a bluish bulge distending the hymen. The bulge (hematocolpos) is felt along the entire length of the vagina on doing a PR examination Treatment: Cruciate incision and drainage of hamatocolpos is done.</li><li>• Primary amenorrhea with cyclical pain is suggestive of an obstructive cause.</li><li>• O/e a bulge seen protruding from the vagina is suggestive of an imperforate hymen.</li><li>• This classically presents as a bluish bulge distending the hymen.</li><li>• The bulge (hematocolpos) is felt along the entire length of the vagina on doing a PR examination</li><li>• Treatment: Cruciate incision and drainage of hamatocolpos is done.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Transverse septum in the proximal vagina : This also will present as primary amenorrhoea with cyclical abdominal pain as the menstrual blood accumulates inside. But on examination, the bulge wont be seen at the introitus as the obstruction is higher up in a proximal or high transverse vaginal septum.</li><li>• Option A. Transverse septum in the proximal vagina</li><li>• Option B. Complete vaginal atresia : In Complete vaginal atresia, also the symptoms of primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain will be present, but again the obstruction will be high. There will be hematometra. Local examination will reveal an absent vagina or a bling ending vagina.</li><li>• Option B. Complete vaginal atresia</li><li>• Option D. Cervical agenesis : In cervical agenesis, again there will be hematometra, I.e. the obstruction is higher up and there will not ne any bulge seen on local exam.</li><li>• Option D. Cervical agenesis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Primary amenorrhea with cyclical pain and a bulge protruding from the vagina is indicative of an imperforate hymen, requiring cruciate incision and drainage of hematocolpos.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 450, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 450, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding non-competitive inhibition? (NEET PG 2019)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Constant Km and increased Vmax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Constant Km and decreased Vmax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased Km and decreased Vmax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased Km and increased Vmax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Constant Km and decreased Vmax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101102.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Constant Km and decreased Vmax</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Noncompetitive inhibition has constant Km and decreased Vmax.</li><li>• More complex noncompetitive inhibition occurs when binding of the inhibitor does affect the apparent affinity of the enzyme for substrate, causing the lines to intercept in either the third or fourth quadrants of a double-reciprocal plot.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the medical management of glaucoma, drugs which decrease the intraocular pressure are indicated. Which of the following drugs decreases intraocular pressure by increasing uveoscleral flow? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Timolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Latanoprost", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pilocarpine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Latanoprost", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-139.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Latanoprost</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue, lowers intraocular pressure by increasing the uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor, making it an effective treatment option for glaucoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with clinical features of ataxia and incoordination. This is due to thrombosis of which artery? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior cerebral", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle cerebral", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal carotid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superior cerebellar", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Superior cerebellar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/screenshot-2023-11-07-171455.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Superior cerebellar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood supply of cerebellum:</li><li>➤ Blood supply of cerebellum:</li><li>➤ Superior cerebellar artery Posterior inferior cerebellar artery Anterior inferior cerebellar artery</li><li>➤ Superior cerebellar artery</li><li>➤ Posterior inferior cerebellar artery</li><li>➤ Anterior inferior cerebellar artery</li><li>➤ Common symptoms of cerebellar lesions:</li><li>➤ Common symptoms of cerebellar lesions:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a clinical scenario of obstructive jaundice. Which of the following results can be seen on Van der Bergh's reaction?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct positive", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indirect positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coproporphyrin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Direct positive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Direct positive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Van den Bergh reaction is a chemical reaction used to measure bilirubin levels in blood, specifically amount of conjugated bilirubin in the blood.</li><li>➤ Principle: bilirubin reacts with diazotized sulphanilic acid to produce purple colored azobilirubin. This reaction is highly useful in understanding the nature of jaundice.</li><li>➤ This test helps to identify the type of jaundice –</li><li>➤ The serum of the patient is mixed with diazo reagent. If a red color develops immediately, it is called a direct positive . It happens if conjugated bilirubin is present. In an indirect positive test, the patient's serum is first treated with alcohol and later mixed with diazo reagent. This causes development of a red color. It is seen if unconjugated bilirubin is present. If both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin are present the reaction is termed a biphasic reaction.</li><li>➤ The serum of the patient is mixed with diazo reagent. If a red color develops immediately, it is called a direct positive . It happens if conjugated bilirubin is present.</li><li>➤ direct positive</li><li>➤ conjugated bilirubin</li><li>➤ In an indirect positive test, the patient's serum is first treated with alcohol and later mixed with diazo reagent. This causes development of a red color. It is seen if unconjugated bilirubin is present.</li><li>➤ indirect</li><li>➤ unconjugated</li><li>➤ If both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin are present the reaction is termed a biphasic reaction.</li><li>➤ If both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin are present the reaction is termed a biphasic</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following culture media is used to differentiate other E. coli species from E. coli O157: H7? ( NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mannitol salt agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sorbitol MacConkey agar", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CLED medium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sorbitol MacConkey agar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sorbitol MacConkey agar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sorbitol MacConkey agar is critical for distinguishing E. coli O157 from other E. coli strains due to its unique inability to ferment sorbitol, helping guide appropriate public health responses and treatment options during outbreaks of foodborne illness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following clotting factors would have decreased gamma carboxyglutamate residue in a patient on warfarin therapy?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factor 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor 11", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tissue factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factor 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Factor 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/687.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Factor 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Factor 2 would have decreased gamma carboxyglutamate residue in a patient on warfarin therapy.</li><li>• Factors II, VII, IX, X are vitamin k dependent coagulation factors, as their activated by carboxylation of their glutamate residues by enzyme y-glutamyl carboxylase requires vitamin K (reduced form) as a co-factor.</li><li>• This reduced form of vitamin K is constantly oxidized for the reaction to continue. This recycling is done by the enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase. This enzyme is inhibited by warfarin. Thus, warfarin affects vitamin k dependent factors.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Factor 11 : Incorrect, Factor XI is not vitamin K-dependent and thus not directly affected by warfarin therapy.</li><li>• Option B. Factor 11</li><li>• Option C. Tissue factor : Incorrect, Tissue factor (Factor III) is a different component of the clotting cascade that acts as a receptor and cofactor for Factor VIIa; it is not a vitamin K-dependent factor and is not affected by warfarin.</li><li>• Option C. Tissue factor</li><li>• Option D. Factor 5 : Incorrect, Factor V is not dependent on vitamin K for its function, so its activity is not diminished by warfarin therapy.</li><li>• Option D. Factor 5</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Warfarin therapy impacts the function of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors by inhibiting the recycling of vitamin K, crucial for the carboxylation of these factors. Factor 2 (prothrombin) is one of these affected factors, leading to a reduction in its clotting ability in the presence of warfarin, which is utilized therapeutically to prevent thrombosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female present with pain and swelling over multiple peripheral small joints and deformity as shown below. What is the likely diagnosis?(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rheumatoid Arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoriatic arthropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoarthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scleroderma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rheumatoid Arthritis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/untitled-1319.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/screenshot-2024-01-03-132040.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/30.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/22_WpnodYb.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/23_ybN4kHc.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/18_vW5OhCn.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/25.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Rheumatoid Arthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The image in the question shows swan neck deformity, which is characteristic of Rheumatoid Arthritis.</li><li>➤ The image in the question shows swan neck deformity, which is characteristic of Rheumatoid Arthritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per the Factories Act of 1948, what is the maximum permissible weekly working hours, inclusive of overtime? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "48 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "72 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "60 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "66 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 60 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 60 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Maximum work hours per week is 48 hours. With overtime one can extend it upto 60 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Personal monitoring of radiation is done by:(NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Collimators", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "TLD badge", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Linear accelerator", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. TLD badge", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_207.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. TLD badge</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Personal monitoring of radiation is done by a TLD badge.</li><li>• Given to radiation personnel for its usage. Personnel dosimeter. Thermoluminescent 3 monthly [sent for measurement in India] Made up of CaSO 4 : Dysprosium [LiF can also be used] Worn below the lead apron at the level of the chest</li><li>• Given to radiation personnel for its usage.</li><li>• Personnel dosimeter.</li><li>• Thermoluminescent</li><li>• 3 monthly [sent for measurement in India]</li><li>• Made up of CaSO 4 : Dysprosium [LiF can also be used]</li><li>• Worn below the lead apron at the level of the chest</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Collimators: Used in radiographic devices to narrow the beam of radiation to limit exposure and improve image quality, but not for monitoring radiation exposure.</li><li>• Option A. Collimators:</li><li>• Option C. Linear accelerator: A device primarily used in cancer treatment to deliver high-energy x-rays or electrons to the region of the patient's tumor. It is not a monitoring device.</li><li>• Option C. Linear accelerator:</li><li>• Option D. Grid: Used in radiographic imaging to improve image contrast by absorbing scattered radiation, not for measuring radiation exposure.</li><li>• Option D. Grid:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A TLD badge is a critical tool for radiation safety, allowing for accurate monitoring and measurement of radiation exposure over time to ensure that radiation workers do not exceed safe exposure limits. This is crucial in maintaining occupational health standards in radiologically active environments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with symptoms of peripheral neuropathy and macrocytic anemia. She was given folate 5mg and the blood picture improved. However, the neurologic manifestations were aggravated. What is the most likely cause? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malabsorption of folate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Treatment with folate unmasking pyridoxine deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deficiency of folate reductase in CNS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Folate therapy using the B12 stores", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Folate therapy using the B12 stores", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Folate therapy using the B12 stores</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Folic acid doses over 1 mg may cause aggravation of vitamin B12 deficiency and may precipitate nerve damage .</li><li>➤ Folic acid doses over 1 mg may cause aggravation of vitamin B12 deficiency and may precipitate nerve damage</li><li>➤ The most likely cause is folate therapy which used up the B12 stores, aggravating the symptoms.</li><li>➤ Administration of folic acid for patients with macrocytic anemia can partially reverse the hematologic abnormalities associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. However, the neurologic manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency are not treated by folic acid.</li><li>➤ However, the neurologic manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency are not treated by folic acid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Synovial fluid of low viscosity is seen in all except:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gout", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Septic arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoarthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Osteoarthritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/03/11/screenshot-2024-03-11-131528.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Osteoarthritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Gout, Option B. Septic arthritis, and Option D. Rheumatoid arthritis are characterized by decreased viscosity of the synovial fluid.</li><li>• Option A. Gout, Option B. Septic arthritis,</li><li>• Option D. Rheumatoid arthritis are</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Low viscosity of synovial fluid is seen in Rheumatic fever, Rheumatic arthritis, gout, Pyogenic arthritis, Tubercular arthritis. Osteoarthritis is normal synovial fluid viscosity.</li><li>➤ Low viscosity of synovial fluid is seen in Rheumatic fever, Rheumatic arthritis, gout, Pyogenic arthritis, Tubercular arthritis.</li><li>➤ Osteoarthritis is normal synovial fluid viscosity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Voriconazole is not effective against which of the following? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candida albicans", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candida tropicalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucormycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mucormycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Voriconazole is not effective against mucormycosis. For the treatment of mucormycosis, alternative antifungal medications such as amphotericin B or posaconazole are usually used.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old male with Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) was started on tolvaptan therapy. A few weeks later, he presents with symptoms of dry mouth and increased thirst. What is the likely mechanism behind these symptoms? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased free water clearance", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "V2 receptor agonism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased renal cAMP levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase in urine osmolality", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increased free water clearance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increased free water clearance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tolvaptan causes increased free water clearance by blocking V2 receptors, leading to symptoms of dehydration such as dry mouth and increased thirst. This is a direct result of its mechanism as a V2 receptor antagonist, which inhibits water reabsorption in the renal collecting ducts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct statement regarding Huntington's chorea? (NEET PG 2020)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "There is loss of function type of mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "There are abnormal repeats of CUG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abnormality is seen due to mutation in chromosome 6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/11/untitled-16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old child has presented with progressive muscle weakness. Genetic testing revealed a mutation in the dystrophin gene. Based on the findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Becker muscular dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myotonic dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myasthenia gravis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene, leading to the absence of the dystrophin protein and progressive muscle weakness, typically beginning in early childhood.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old female patient presented with a mole that initially appeared 10 years ago and has progressively increased in size. The image of the mole is provided below. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nodular melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lentigo maligna melanoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superficial spreading melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acral lentiginous melanoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lentigo maligna melanoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-155039.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-155121.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-155153.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-155200.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lentigo maligna melanoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lentigo maligna melanoma, a subtype of melanoma, primarily occurs in sun-exposed areas in elderly individuals and is characterized by a slow, horizontal growth phase, resulting in a lower malignant potential compared to other melanomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman comes to the clinic two weeks postpartum, reporting a complete perineal tear sustained during her home delivery. When is the best time to repair this tear?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immediately", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-155445.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Complete perineal tears that are not repaired immediately after delivery should generally be repaired between 3 to 6 months postpartum to allow for optimal healing and to reduce the risk of complications from dense scar tissue.</li><li>➤ 3 to 6 months postpartum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms is most likely to cause disease after being introduced into the skin through a traumatic injury?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sporothrix schenckii", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blastomyces dermatitidis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coccidioides immitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paracoccidioides brasiliensis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sporothrix schenckii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-155654.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-155702.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sporothrix schenckii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sporothrix schenckii is a dimorphic fungus that causes infection primarily after traumatic inoculation into the skin, leading to sporotrichosis, a disease commonly associated with individuals handling vegetation.</li><li>➤ Sporothrix schenckii</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding retrosternal goiter?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgery is performed in all patients regardless of symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A sternal incision is always required for the operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It receives its blood supply from the thoracodorsal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Most retrosternal goiters can be removed via a neck incision", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Most retrosternal goiters can be removed via a neck incision", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Most retrosternal goiters can be removed via a transcervical neck incision . A sternal incision is only required in rare cases when the goiter is completely within the chest or is of significant size.</li><li>➤ transcervical neck incision</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A forensic examiner is evaluating a body several days postmortem. The skin shows a typical pattern. What is the name of this postmortem phenomenon?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adipocere", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postmortem lividity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Petechial hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marbling", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Marbling", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-160124.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Marbling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marbling is a postmortem phenomenon characterized by the breakdown of blood in the veins, creating a marble-like appearance on the skin several days after death as decomposition progresses.</li><li>➤ Marbling</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presents with a severe sore throat and difficulty swallowing. The examination reveals a swollen area near the tonsil, as shown in the image below. What type of speech is most commonly associated with this condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staccato voice", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhinolalia aperta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hot potato voice", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rhinolalia clausa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hot potato voice", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-160353.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-160433.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hot potato voice</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hot potato voice is a classic sign of peritonsillar abscess , characterized by muffled speech due to the swelling and obstruction in the oropharyngeal space.</li><li>➤ hot potato voice</li><li>➤ peritonsillar abscess</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of fever and chills. Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) shows multiple areas of intrahepatic beading, as seen in the image. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary sclerosing cholangitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caroli disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caroli disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primary biliary carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-160621.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is an autoimmune condition associated with intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile duct strictures, presenting with recurrent fever, chills, and MRCP findings of intrahepatic beading .</li><li>➤ Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)</li><li>➤ intrahepatic beading</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which stage of the demographic cycle does the demographic gap, or the difference between birth rates and death rates, begin to increase significantly?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High stationary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Early expanding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Late expanding", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low stationary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Early expanding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-160845.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The early expanding stage of the demographic cycle is where the demographic gap —the difference between birth rates and death rates—begins to significantly increase due to a drop in the death rate while the birth rate remains high.</li><li>➤ early expanding stage</li><li>➤ demographic gap</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman, G2P1, presents in labor. The partograph, as shown below, indicates a prolonged labor with fetal distress. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxytocin infusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Forceps delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cesarean section", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cesarean section", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-161100.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-161111.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cesarean section</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ In cases of obstructed labor with signs of fetal distress , the most appropriate management is an immediate cesarean section to prevent further complications for both the mother and the fetus.</li><li>➤ obstructed labor</li><li>➤ fetal distress</li><li>➤ immediate cesarean section</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following organisms produces a superantigen?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcus epidermidis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clostridium perfringens", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vibrio cholerae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Streptococcus pyogenes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-162037.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Streptococcus pyogenes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Streptococcus pyogenes produces superantigens, specifically streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs) , which cause widespread T-cell activation and can result in conditions like streptococcal toxic shock syndrome .</li><li>➤ Streptococcus pyogenes</li><li>➤ streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs)</li><li>➤ streptococcal toxic shock syndrome</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is true regarding the post-mortem change shown in the image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Indicates death by asphyxiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Made up of cell debris, mucus, and dust", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is a late post-mortem change", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sign of increased venous pressure before death", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Made up of cell debris, mucus, and dust", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-01-03%20181559.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Made up of cell debris, mucus, and dust</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tache noire is an early post-mortem change caused by the accumulation of cell debris, mucus, and dust on the exposed sclera, leading to a blackish discoloration, usually seen in individuals whose eyes remain open after death.</li><li>➤ Tache noire</li><li>➤ cell debris, mucus, and dust</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following tests helps to distinguish inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) from irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fecal calprotectin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum albumin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C-reactive protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythrocyte sedimentation rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fecal calprotectin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fecal calprotectin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fecal calprotectin is the most specific test for distinguishing inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) from irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) , as it is elevated in IBD due to gut inflammation but remains normal in IBS.</li><li>➤ Fecal calprotectin</li><li>➤ inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)</li><li>➤ irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following nerves produces the extraocular movement as seen in the image?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trochlear nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oculomotor nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abducens nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oculomotor nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-162756.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Oculomotor nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III) is responsible for producing the elevation of the eye in adduction through its innervation of the inferior oblique muscle .</li><li>➤ oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III)</li><li>➤ elevation of the eye in adduction</li><li>➤ inferior oblique muscle</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old patient presents with an intensely itchy lesion for three days, as shown in the image. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tinea corporis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Granuloma annulare", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ichthyosis vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyoderma gangrenosum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tinea corporis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-162946.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tinea corporis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tinea corporis is characterized by a ring-shaped lesion with central clearing and raised margins, caused by dermatophyte infections, most commonly Trichophyton rubrum .</li><li>➤ Tinea corporis</li><li>➤ ring-shaped lesion with central clearing</li><li>➤ Trichophyton rubrum</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old patient presents with indurated scaly lesions over the ears and face, as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Discoid Lupus Erythematosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lupus vulgaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Systemic Lupus Erythematosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acne rosacea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Discoid Lupus Erythematosus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-163129.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-163205.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-163237.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-163249.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-163258.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Discoid Lupus Erythematosus (DLE) presents with scaly, well-defined lesions that tend to occur on the face, scalp, and ears, leading to scarring and atrophy over time. It is a cutaneous form of lupus that does not usually involve systemic symptoms.</li><li>➤ Discoid Lupus Erythematosus (DLE)</li><li>➤ scaly, well-defined lesions</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old boy undergoes bilateral adrenalectomy for pheochromocytoma. On the third postoperative day, he feels lethargic and tired. His blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, and there is no sign of bleeding. What could be the likely cause of this?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Addisonian crisis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "SIADH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetes insipidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebral salt-wasting disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Addisonian crisis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Addisonian crisis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After bilateral adrenalectomy , the body lacks adrenal hormones, leading to an Addisonian crisis with hypotension, fatigue, and electrolyte imbalances. This requires immediate fluid resuscitation and glucocorticoid replacement therapy .</li><li>➤ bilateral adrenalectomy</li><li>➤ Addisonian crisis</li><li>➤ fluid resuscitation</li><li>➤ glucocorticoid replacement therapy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the investigation and the lesion depicted in the image given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retrograde cystourethrogram with membranous urethra stricture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retrograde cystourethrogram with penile urethral stricture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Micturating cystourethrogram with bulbar stricture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Micturating cystourethrogram with prostatic urethra stricture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Retrograde cystourethrogram with penile urethral stricture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-163817.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/03/screenshot-2024-10-03-163857.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Retrograde cystourethrogram is the investigation of choice for identifying anterior urethral strictures , particularly in the penile and bulbar urethra .</li><li>➤ Retrograde cystourethrogram</li><li>➤ anterior urethral strictures</li><li>➤ penile and bulbar urethra</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 310 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Neet Pg 2021 2021 09 11 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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On examination, shifting dullness was present and the liver span was less than 7cm. Histopathological examination revealed the presence of intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions in hepatocytes. What is the content of these inclusions? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intermediate filaments", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Actin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Microtubules", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibronectin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intermediate filaments", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Intermediate filaments</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In chronic alcoholic patients with alcoholic hepatitis, Mallory-Denk bodies are a characteristic histopathological finding. These intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions consist of aggregated cytoskeletal intermediate filaments, specifically prekeratin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The floods had an impact on Kerala's Pathanamthitta district, leading the government to provide doxycycline tablets for prophylaxis. What other chemical is set to be distributed in conjunction with this? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zinc phosphide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malathion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lindane", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paris green", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zinc phosphide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Zinc phosphide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation -</li><li>• The government distributed doxycycline tablets for prophylaxis following floods in Kerala to prevent the spread of diseases such as leptospirosis, acute diarrheal diseases, and dengue.</li><li>• Leptospirosis, which is caused by contaminated water with rodent urine, can be prevented by chemoprophylaxis with Doxycycline, using rubber shoes and gloves, anti-rodent measures, and establishing a proper drainage system. Zinc phosphide is used for chemical control of rodents due to its good safety record, low cost and high effectiveness Chlorine tablets and bleaching powder are used to disinfect household water supply. Insecticides and larvicides like abate are used for indoor residual sprays for drinking water. General hygiene and sanitary measures must also be followed to control the spread of diseases during floods.</li><li>• Leptospirosis, which is caused by contaminated water with rodent urine, can be prevented by chemoprophylaxis with Doxycycline, using rubber shoes and gloves, anti-rodent measures, and establishing a proper drainage system.</li><li>• Zinc phosphide is used for chemical control of rodents due to its good safety record, low cost and high effectiveness</li><li>• Zinc phosphide</li><li>• Chlorine tablets and bleaching powder are used to disinfect household water supply. Insecticides and larvicides like abate are used for indoor residual sprays for drinking water.</li><li>• Chlorine tablets and bleaching powder</li><li>• General hygiene and sanitary measures must also be followed to control the spread of diseases during floods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man running a 40-kilometre marathon on a hot summer afternoon suddenly collapsed before completing his race. On examination, his body temperature was 104 degrees, but there were no physical signs of dehydration. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be seen in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hot skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sweating", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disorientation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sweating", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/untitled-13586.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sweating</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-month-old boy is found to weigh 8kg. A WHO growth chart (weight-for-height) is provided below. Plot the growth chart for this child. What is the most appropriate advice based on the plotted graph? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No malnutrition - Assure the mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mild malnutrition - home treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe malnutrition - refer to nutrition rehabilitation center", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Moderate malnutrition - teach the mother on how to feed", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Moderate malnutrition - teach the mother on how to feed", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/0009.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Moderate malnutrition - teach the mother on how to feed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Moderate malnutrition in children is indicated by a weight-for-height between -2SD and -3SD on the WHO growth chart, necessitating education on proper feeding practices.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pap smear taken from a patient revealed hyperchromatic nuclei, irregular nuclear borders, and low maturation index involving the whole thickness but did not breach the basement membrane. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysplasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metaplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dysplasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/untitled-474.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dysplasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal cellular features such as pleomorphism, hyperchromatic nuclei, increased mitotic figures, and a high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio. It involves the entire thickness of the epithelium without breaching the basement membrane, distinguishing it from carcinoma, which involves invasion beyond the basement membrane.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following total thyroidectomy, a patient started having difficulty in breathing, and repeated attempts to extubate were unsuccessful. The most probable cause is: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superior laryngeal nerve injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hematoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury after thyroidectomy is a serious complication that can lead to life-threatening airway obstruction. Immediate recognition and management are crucial to ensure the safety and recovery of the patient.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 339</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 339</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for successive recurrent pregnancy losses. On ultrasound, a Mullerian anomaly is suspected. What is the BEST way to confirm this? (NEET PF 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysterosalpingography", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hysteroscopy + laparoscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transvaginal sonography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hysteroscopy + laparoscopy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hysteroscopy + laparoscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hysteroscopy + laparoscopy:</li><li>• Hysteroscopy + laparoscopy:</li><li>• Hysteroscopy combined with laparoscopy is considered the best invasive method to confirm the diagnosis of Mullerian anomalies. This approach allows direct visualization of both the internal and external contours of the uterus. During the procedure, hysteroscopy can evaluate the endometrial cavity, while laparoscopy can assess the external uterine surface and other pelvic structures. This combination not only confirms the diagnosis but also allows for simultaneous corrective surgery, if necessary (e.g., resecting a uterine septum).</li><li>• Hysteroscopy combined with laparoscopy is considered the best invasive method to confirm the diagnosis of Mullerian anomalies. This approach allows direct visualization of both the internal and external contours of the uterus.</li><li>• During the procedure, hysteroscopy can evaluate the endometrial cavity, while laparoscopy can assess the external uterine surface and other pelvic structures.</li><li>• This combination not only confirms the diagnosis but also allows for simultaneous corrective surgery, if necessary (e.g., resecting a uterine septum).</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Hysterosalpingography : Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is a useful imaging technique for evaluating the shape and patency of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes. However, it may not provide detailed information about the external contour of the uterus or distinguish between certain types of Mullerian anomalies.</li><li>• Option A. Hysterosalpingography</li><li>• Option C. Laparoscopy : While laparoscopy alone can provide information about the external structure of the uterus and other pelvic organs, it does not allow for direct visualization of the endometrial cavity. Combining it with hysteroscopy gives a more comprehensive assessment.</li><li>• Option C. Laparoscopy</li><li>• Option D. Transvaginal sonography : Transvaginal sonography (TVS) is a non-invasive imaging technique that can detect many uterine anomalies. However, it may not be as definitive as hysteroscopy combined with laparoscopy, especially for complex anomalies.</li><li>• Option D. Transvaginal sonography</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The best way to confirm a suspected Mullerian anomaly is through hysteroscopy combined with laparoscopy, which allows for a comprehensive assessment and potential simultaneous treatment.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 32, DC Duttas Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 32, DC Duttas Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the anthropometric evaluation, the height for age of a child is &lt; - 2D. This is most likely due to? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic malnutrition", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute malnutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Recent infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No malnutrition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chronic malnutrition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chronic malnutrition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Height for age &lt; -2SD is indicative of chronic malnutrition, also known as stunting, which results from prolonged inadequate nutrition, particularly during the critical early years of a child's life.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old female patient presents with lower abdominal pain, frequent urination, and signs of dehydration. Physical examination reveals abdominal tenderness, and urine analysis indicates sterile pyuria. An image is provided. What is the most likely condition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Putty kidney", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nephrocalcinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staghorn calculus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Psoas calcification", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Putty kidney", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns9.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Putty kidney</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Putty kidney is a radiographic finding associated with genitourinary tuberculosis, characterized by homogenous, ground glass-like calcifications in the kidney. This condition typically presents with symptoms such as sterile pyuria, and diagnosis is confirmed through specific TB testing and imaging modalities like CT urography. Treatment usually involves antitubercular drugs and may require surgical intervention.</li><li>➤ Putty kidney is a radiographic finding associated with genitourinary tuberculosis, characterized by homogenous, ground glass-like calcifications in the kidney.</li><li>➤ This condition typically presents with symptoms such as sterile pyuria, and diagnosis is confirmed through specific TB testing and imaging modalities like CT urography.</li><li>➤ Treatment usually involves antitubercular drugs and may require surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old boy presented with a white pupillary reflex for which enucleation was done. The histopathological examination of the specimen showed Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medulloblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhabdomyosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Astrocytoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retinoblastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture9333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture10333333.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/whatsapp-image-2023-11-10-at-174623-1.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Retinoblastoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes are a hallmark of retinoblastoma, indicating a malignant proliferation of immature retinal neural cells. This specific histopathological finding is crucial for diagnosing retinoblastoma, especially in children presenting with leukocoria.</li><li>➤ Different rosettes seen in retinoblastoma:</li><li>➤ Different rosettes seen in retinoblastoma:</li><li>➤ 1. True rosette -FLEXNER-WINTERSTEINER ROSETTE</li><li>➤ This is specific for RB - hallmark of RB It consists of tumor cells surrounding a central lumen that contains cytoplasmic extensions from the tumor cells, which have well-differentiated features suggestive of primitive photoreceptor cells.</li><li>➤ This is specific for RB - hallmark of RB</li><li>➤ It consists of tumor cells surrounding a central lumen that contains cytoplasmic extensions from the tumor cells, which have well-differentiated features suggestive of primitive photoreceptor cells.</li><li>➤ 2. HOMER-WRIGHT ROSETTE is a non-specific rosette seen in any of the primitive neuroectodermal tumors. Tumor cells surround a central region containing neutrophil.</li><li>➤ 3. FLUERETTE is pseudo rosette because the central structure is not a part of the tumor and it consists of tumor cells around a blood vessel.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man weighing 70 kg had a sodium level of 120 mEq, calculate sodium deficit? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "280 mEq", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "480 mEq", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "840 mEq", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1400 mEq", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 840 mEq", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 840 mEq</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The sodium deficit in the given scenario is 840 mEq.</li><li>• Formula for calculating sodium deficit = 0.6 × body weight x (target plasma sodium concentration - starting plasma sodium concentration).</li><li>• Substituting values as per the question,</li><li>• Sodium deficit = 0.6 x 70 × (140 - 120) = 840 mEq.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Correcting sodium levels must be done cautiously, especially in cases of hyponatremia, to prevent complications like osmotic demyelination syndrome. Rapid changes in serum sodium can be dangerous, and adjustments should generally be made slowly, according to specific clinical guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient undergoing surgery is maintained on anesthesia with halothane. During the procedure, the patient suddenly developed hyperthermia and muscle rigidity. Which of the following drugs is most likely implicated in this condition? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxacurium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Suxamethonium", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atracurium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rocuronium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Suxamethonium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Suxamethonium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drug most likely implicated in causing malignant hyperthermia in the given scenario is suxamethonium (succinylcholine) because it is known to trigger this condition in susceptible individuals.</li><li>➤ The drug most likely implicated in causing malignant hyperthermia in the given scenario is suxamethonium (succinylcholine) because it is known to trigger this condition in susceptible individuals.</li><li>➤ Treatment - Dantrolene sodium and supportive management</li><li>➤ Treatment -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old male patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma and is scheduled to undergo chemotherapy as part of his treatment. Methotrexate is included in his chemotherapy regimen. What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate in the treatment of his osteosarcoma? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Analog of UMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Competitive inhibitor of DHFR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blocks purine synthesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blocks pyrimidine synthesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Competitive inhibitor of DHFR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Competitive inhibitor of DHFR.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methotrexate's primary mechanism of action in treating osteosarcoma is as a competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR), which interferes with DNA synthesis and cell division in rapidly dividing cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A truck driver came with complaints of a painless indurated genital ulcer after unsafe intercourse. Motility of the most likely causative organism can be detected by which of the following microscopes? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dark field microscope", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Electron microscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Light microscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fluorescent microscope", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dark field microscope", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dark field microscope</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dark field microscopy is essential for observing the motility of Treponema pallidum directly from lesions such as a syphilitic chancre. This diagnostic tool is critical in early stages of syphilis when direct visualization of the pathogen can confirm infection before serological tests become positive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old patient presents to the outpatient department with fatigue, tiredness and cervical lymphadenopathy. The TLC and DLC were normal. No immature cells. A lymph node biopsy was performed which shows diffuse effacement of the Lymph node architecture, cells with an indented nucleus, prominent nucleolus, and are atypical. CD10 and BCL2 are positive. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Follicular Iymphoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Burkitt lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mycosis fungoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Follicular Iymphoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/untitled-399_zKu3XAE.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Follicular lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Follicular lymphoma is characterized by diffuse effacement of lymph node architecture, cells with indented nuclei and prominent nucleoli, and positive immunophenotyping for CD10 and BCL2. It typically presents in middle-aged individuals with symptoms such as fatigue, tiredness, and lymphadenopathy. The presence of the t(14;18) translocation involving BCL2 is a hallmark of this indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of 20 friends kept partying till late at night. Two of them ate pastries from outside. They present with nausea and vomiting in the early morning. What is the most likely causative agent implicated? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enterotoxin of Staphylococcus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Emetic toxin of B. cereus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Verocytotoxin from E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shiga toxin from Shigella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Enterotoxin of Staphylococcus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Enterotoxin of Staphylococcus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The enterotoxin of Staphylococcus aureus can cause rapid-onset food poisoning characterized by nausea and vomiting, typically within hours after consuming contaminated food such as pastries. Remembering the association between specific foods and pathogens can aid in prompt diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 36-year-old woman presented with claudication in the forearm, transient loss of vision, and abdominal pain. Femoral pulses were weak. Fundus examination revealed retinal hemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Polyarteritis nodosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thromboangiitis obliterans", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Takayasu arteritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microscopic polyangiitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Takayasu arteritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Takayasu arteritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Takayasu arteritis should be considered in young women presenting with symptoms of large vessel occlusion, such as claudication, weak pulses, and ischemic symptoms in various organs. It is characterized by the involvement of the aorta and its major branches, and the diagnosis can be confirmed with imaging studies like CT angiogram or conventional angiography.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 67 yrs. old male patient visits the emergency department due to rapidly worsening pain and swelling in the genital and perianal regions, with signs of necrotizing infection as shown below upon examination, the patient has a history of alcohol abuse and poorly controlled diabetes, and laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis and elevated blood glucose levels. What is the accurate statement about the condition presented by the patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patient must be started on anti-gas gangrene serum therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is a mixed flora aerobic and anaerobic infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bilateral orchidectomy is generally performed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Compulsory urinary diversion is performed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is a mixed flora aerobic and anaerobic infection", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/25/picture28.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. It is a mixed flora aerobic and anaerobic infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fournier's gangrene is a surgical emergency characterized by a mixed aerobic and anaerobic bacterial infection of the genital and perianal regions, often associated with underlying conditions like diabetes and malnutrition. It requires prompt surgical debridement and broad-spectrum antibiotics.</li><li>➤ Fournier's gangrene is a surgical emergency characterized by a mixed aerobic and anaerobic bacterial infection of the genital and perianal regions, often associated with underlying conditions like diabetes and malnutrition.</li><li>➤ It requires prompt surgical debridement and broad-spectrum antibiotics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old female patient presented to the outpatient department with migratory arthritis and examination revealed a pan-systolic murmur. An echocardiography was performed which was suggestive of mitral regurgitation. A biopsy specimen was obtained and the image is provided below. What is the most likely lesion shown in the histopathology slide? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aschoff's bodies", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epithelioid granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Granulomatous vasculitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Granuloma inguinale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aschoff's bodies", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/1_v3iruvO.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/2_qsn7eqr.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Aschoff’s bodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aschoff bodies, which consist of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and characteristic Anitschkow cells, are the hallmark histological feature of acute rheumatic fever, a condition that can lead to significant cardiac involvement, including mitral regurgitation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In fetal circulation, which vessel carries deoxygenated blood back to the placenta? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Umbilical Vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Umbilical artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Descending aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary Artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Umbilical artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/untitled-454.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Umbilical artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In fetal circulation, the umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old male child complains of mild painful swelling over the scalp for 3 months as shown in the image below. He also has a pet dog at his home. What is the diagnosis of the given condition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Furuncle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidermoid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kerion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Folliculitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kerion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/460.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-104534.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-104603_tmoEqmt.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1337.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-125009.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Kerion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kerion is a boggy, tender scalp swelling associated with hair loss and potentially linked to animal exposure, indicative of a f ungal infection rather than a bacterial cause like furuncle or folliculitis, or a benign lesion such as an epidermoid cyst.</li><li>➤ Kerion</li><li>➤ boggy,</li><li>➤ scalp swelling</li><li>➤ hair loss</li><li>➤ ungal</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th Edition Page no 26.22, 26.23-26.24, 32.38, 32.39, 32.40, 90.27, 108.11</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th Edition Page no 26.22, 26.23-26.24, 32.38, 32.39, 32.40, 90.27, 108.11</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old patient presented with cough, fatigability, and weight loss. He was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) on bronchoscopy. The resected specimen had a hilar lymph node that was 1cm in size and showed a black pigment. What is the black pigment likely to be? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anthracotic pigment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melanin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lipochrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemosiderin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anthracotic pigment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture1_gmIujwz.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Anthracotic pigment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anthracotic pigment, resulting from the deposition of carbon particles, is the most likely cause of the black pigment observed in the hilar lymph node of a patient with squamous cell carcinoma. This is common in individuals exposed to high levels of environmental pollution or occupational hazards involving carbon particles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A post-menopausal woman with previous history of Colle’s fracture is complaining of backache. Which of the following statement is false? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Teriparatide should be given before supplementing bisphosphonates one at a time.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bisphosphonates are not given for more than one year.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium requirement is 1200 mg per day.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral Vitamin D3 given along with oral calcium.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bisphosphonates are not given for more than one year.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/screenshot-2024-01-02-192616.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/screenshot-2024-01-02-192803.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture69.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Bisphosphonates are not given for more than one year.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In post-menopausal osteoporotic females, bisphosphonates can be given for more than a year. But their prolonged use is associated with risk of hip fractures, so it should be assessed with x-rays with time.</li><li>➤ In post-menopausal osteoporotic females, bisphosphonates can be given for more than a year.</li><li>➤ But their prolonged use is associated with risk of hip fractures, so it should be assessed with x-rays with time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with fever, nocturnal cough, breathlessness, and wheezing for 4 weeks. Absolute eosinophil count &gt; 5000/μL. Chest X-ray shows a miliary pattern. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bronchial asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Miliary tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypersensitivity pneumonitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is characterized by symptoms like fever, nocturnal cough, breathlessness, wheezing, significant eosinophilia, and a miliary pattern on chest X-ray. This diagnosis should be considered in patients presenting with these clinical findings, especially in endemic regions. The treatment of choice for TPE is diethylcarbamazine (DEC).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman gave birth to twins belonging to two different fathers. This case would be best described as? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superfetation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superfecundation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supposititious child", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atavism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Superfecundation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Superfecundation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Superfecundation refers to the fertilization of two ova from separate acts of coitus within the same menstrual cycle, resulting in the birth of twins that can have different fathers and are born at the same time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arterial blood gas (ABG) report shows the following findings: (NEET PG 2021) pH: 7.52 HCO3: 30 mEq/L PaCO2: 45 mmHg Na: 123 mEq/L K: 3.2 mEq/L Cl: 67 mEq/L What is the cause of her ABG findings?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diabetic ketoacidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Persistent vomiting", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Septic shock", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal tubular acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Persistent vomiting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Persistent vomiting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Persistent vomiting can lead to hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hyponatremia. This is due to the loss of gastric acid and electrolytes, and the characteristic ABG findings include elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Treatment often involves fluid and electrolyte replacement, particularly with normal saline to correct chloride levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an isolated mitochondria, in a medium containing Succinate, Fumarate, ADP and Pi, ATPs were produced. Later a compound was added, and oxidative phosphorylation was decreased. What’s that compound? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oligomycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2,4 dinitrophenol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antimycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotenone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oligomycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oligomycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Oligomycin specifically targets ATP synthase and inhibits ATP synthesis in oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, the compound that was added to the isolated mitochondria, leading to a decrease in oxidative phosphorylation</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 123</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most important assessment based on the treatment given to the patient and their clinical management in a health care facility? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Outcome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Process", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Structure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Input", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Process", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Process</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"process\" evaluation is the most relevant assessment for determining the quality of treatment and clinical management provided to patients in a healthcare facility. It focuses on the procedures and methods used in patient care, ensuring adherence to established standards and guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old man presents with a cough with yellowish sputum. Auscultation revealed bronchial breath sounds. He is hemodynamically stable and not confused. On examination, his respiratory rate is 20/min and blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. Lab reports show urea levels of 44 mg/dL. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give antibiotics and send the patient home", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Admit to ICU without mechanical ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Admit to ICU with invasive mechanical ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Consider admission in a non-ICU setting", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Consider admission in a non-ICU setting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Consider admission in a non-ICU setting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with pneumonia, the CURB-65 score is a useful tool for determining the appropriate level of care. A score of 2 typically indicates the need for inpatient treatment in a non-ICU setting.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A contact lens user presents with the following clinical picture. He has had watering, redness, and foreign body sensation in the eye for the past 2 months. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute trachoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Giant papillary conjunctivitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spring catarrh", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Giant papillary conjunctivitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-145.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-146.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-147.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-148_a6eXYse.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture30000.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture4222.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Giant papillary conjunctivitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Giant papillary conjunctivitis is characterized by the presence of large papillae on the upper tarsal conjunctiva, often due to a localized allergic response to contact lenses or other foreign bodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Beta 2 receptor action leading to hyperglycemia/ hypoglycemia is mediated by which of the following enzymes? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenylyl cyclase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Guanylyl cyclase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phospholipase C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phospholipase A2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adenylyl cyclase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Adenylyl cyclase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Beta 2 receptor action leading to hypoglycemia/ hyperglycemia is mediated by adenylyl cyclase.</li><li>• Catecholamines act through beta 2 receptors and they use adenylyl cyclase - CAMP second messenger system to stimulate the target tissues.</li><li>• Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by the action of the enzyme adenylyl cyclase.</li><li>• Binding of the hormone to its receptor activates a G protein which, in turn, activates adenylyl cyclase The resulting rise in cAMP turns on the appropriate response in the cell by either (or both): Changing the molecular activities in the cytosol, often using Protein Kinase A (PKA) — a cAMP-dependent protein kinase that phosphorylates target proteins Turning on a new pattern of gene transcription</li><li>• Binding of the hormone to its receptor activates a G protein which, in turn, activates adenylyl cyclase</li><li>• The resulting rise in cAMP turns on the appropriate response in the cell by either (or both): Changing the molecular activities in the cytosol, often using Protein Kinase A (PKA) — a cAMP-dependent protein kinase that phosphorylates target proteins Turning on a new pattern of gene transcription</li><li>• Changing the molecular activities in the cytosol, often using Protein Kinase A (PKA) — a cAMP-dependent protein kinase that phosphorylates target proteins Turning on a new pattern of gene transcription</li><li>• Changing the molecular activities in the cytosol, often using Protein Kinase A (PKA) — a cAMP-dependent protein kinase that phosphorylates target proteins</li><li>• Turning on a new pattern of gene transcription</li><li>• Cyclic AMP produces one or more of the following responses:</li><li>• Contraction and relaxation of muscle fibers Alteration in the permeability of cell membrane Synthesis of substances inside the cell Secretion or release of substances by target cell Other physiological activities of the target cell</li><li>• Contraction and relaxation of muscle fibers</li><li>• Alteration in the permeability of cell membrane</li><li>• Synthesis of substances inside the cell</li><li>• Secretion or release of substances by target cell</li><li>• Other physiological activities of the target cell</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Guanylyl cyclase : Incorrect. While guanylyl cyclase also produces a cyclic nucleotide (cGMP) that acts as a second messenger, it is not involved in the beta-2 adrenergic receptor pathway.</li><li>• Option B. Guanylyl cyclase</li><li>• Option C. Phospholipase C : Incorrect. Phospholipase C is activated by Gq-coupled receptors, not Gs-coupled receptors like the beta-2 receptors. It catalyzes the breakdown of phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate into diacylglycerol and inositol triphosphate, which are involved in calcium signaling.</li><li>• Option C. Phospholipase C</li><li>• Option D. Phospholipase A2 : Incorrect. This enzyme liberates arachidonic acid from phospholipids, leading to the production of eicosanoids (like prostaglandins and leukotrienes). It is not directly involved in the beta-2 adrenergic receptor signaling pathway.</li><li>• Option D. Phospholipase A2</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Other hormones that use adenylyl cyclase - CAMP second messenger system are:</li><li>➤ ACTH Angiotensin II Corticotropin-releasing hormone Calcitonin FSH Glucagon Growth hormone-releasing hormone HCG Luteinizing hormone Parathyroid hormone Secretin Somatostatin TSH Vasopressin</li><li>➤ ACTH</li><li>➤ Angiotensin II</li><li>➤ Corticotropin-releasing hormone</li><li>➤ Calcitonin</li><li>➤ FSH</li><li>➤ Glucagon</li><li>➤ Growth hormone-releasing hormone</li><li>➤ HCG</li><li>➤ Luteinizing hormone</li><li>➤ Parathyroid hormone</li><li>➤ Secretin</li><li>➤ Somatostatin</li><li>➤ TSH</li><li>➤ Vasopressin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the maneuver being performed in the given image? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Head tilt, chin lift", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Jaw thrust", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Head extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In line manual stabilization", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Head tilt, chin lift", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-172225.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture74.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture75.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture76.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture77.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Head tilt, chin lift</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The maneuver being performed in the given image is that of head-tilt chin-lift. It is an airway management technique to open up the collapsed airway.</li><li>➤ The maneuver being performed in the given image is that of head-tilt chin-lift.</li><li>➤ It is an airway management technique to open up the collapsed airway.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male came to the emergency after sustaining an injury and was given 0.25% bupivacaine for regional anesthesia. A few minutes later, he became unresponsive and pulseless. What would be the ideal management? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CPR &amp; Calcium gluconate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CPR &amp; 20% IV Intralipid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CPR &amp; Start Dobutamine infusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CPR &amp; Start NaHCO3 infusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CPR & 20% IV Intralipid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. CPR &amp; 20% IV Intralipid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST), immediate management includes starting CPR and administering 20% intravenous lipid emulsion (Intralipid) therapy. This approach helps to rapidly reduce the toxic effects of the local anesthetic on the cardiovascular and central nervous systems.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was suspected to have acute brucellosis. A serum sample was sent for a standard agglutination test. It came out to be negative initially but after serial dilutions of the serum sample, the test turned out to be positive. Which of the following is responsible for the initial negative test? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incomplete antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complement inactivation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prozone phenomenon", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post-zone phenomenon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prozone phenomenon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/0005.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Prozone phenomenon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The prozone phenomenon, responsible for initial false-negative results in serological tests like the standard agglutination test for brucellosis, occurs due to excessive antibodies preventing visible agglutination. This can be corrected by diluting the serum, which highlights the importance of considering antibody concentration in diagnostic testing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During psychotherapy, the therapist had mixed conscious and unconscious feelings towards his patient. This is known as? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Countertransference", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transference", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dissociation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preoccupation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Countertransference", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Countertransference</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transference refers to the redirection of a patient's feelings and attitudes from past experiences or individuals onto the therapist, typically operating on an unconscious level. Countertransference represents the therapist's emotional reactions to a patient, both conscious and unconscious. These reactions may be influenced by the therapist's own personal history, unresolved conflicts, or reactions to the patient's transference.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 1069</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The mother of a 12-year-old girl was worried that her daughter is shorter when compared with her classmates. On examination, the child had a webbed neck, low hairline, and shield chest. A provisional diagnosis of Turner's syndrome was made. Which of the following is a likely finding to be seen in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aortic dissection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subluxation of lens", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitral valve prolapse", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bilateral small streak ovaries", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bilateral small streak ovaries", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/11/untitled-26.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bilateral small streak ovaries</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome is characterized by features such as short stature, webbed neck, shield chest, and streak ovaries, leading to primary ovarian insufficiency, infertility, and amenorrhea. The diagnosis is confirmed by karyotyping, and the most likely finding in Turner syndrome patients is bilateral small streak ovaries.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A teenage patient presented with a history of dysmenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain. On ultrasonography, a transverse vaginal septum was seen. Which of the following is she likely to have? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tubo-ovarian abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Theca lutein cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endometriosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Endometriosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transverse vaginal septum, a Mullerian anomaly, can cause obstruction to menstrual flow leading to hematocolpos, hematometra, and endometriosis, presenting with dysmenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 34, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 34, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female patient, on treatment for infertility, came with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, abdominal pain, and mild vaginal bleeding. Her beta hCG level was 2800 mlU/mL. On ultrasound, a 3cm mass was seen in the left adnexa. It contained a gestational sac with no fetal cardiac activity. What is the most appropriate management for this patient hCG- Human chorionic gonadotropin? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Expectant management", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Single dose methotrexate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salpingectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Milking of the tube", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Single dose methotrexate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Single dose methotrexate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a stable patient with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy, beta hCG levels &lt; 5000 IU/L, gestational sac size &lt; 3.5 cm, and no fetal cardiac activity, single-dose methotrexate is the most appropriate management option.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 378, William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition, https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng126</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 378, William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition, https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng126</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a case where a patient undergoing multi-drug therapy (MDT) experiences a deterioration of existing lesions and nerve complications, what course of action would you consider taking next? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop MDT give thalidomide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Continue MDT, start thalidomide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stop MDT, start systemic corticosteroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue MDT, start systemic steroids", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Continue MDT, start systemic steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-113741.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the case of nerve complications in a patient undergoing multi-drug therapy for conditions like leprosy , the appropriate course of action is to continue the anti-microbial therapy and start systemic steroids to manage the inflammatory reaction causing nerve damage.</li><li>➤ nerve complications</li><li>➤ multi-drug therapy</li><li>➤ leprosy</li><li>➤ continue the anti-microbial therapy</li><li>➤ systemic steroids</li><li>➤ inflammatory</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Chapter 28 Page no 28.5, 28.12, 28.16</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Chapter 28 Page no 28.5, 28.12, 28.16</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A teacher demonstrated handwashing procedures to her students. Students repeated the activity later in the day and at home. What kind of learning is going on here? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cognitive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psychomotor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Affective", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Affective and cognitive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Psychomotor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Psychomotor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psychomotor learning involves the acquisition and refinement of motor skills and requires physical movement and coordination. It is demonstrated in this scenario by students learning and practicing the handwashing procedure shown by their teacher.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Milde FK. The Function of Feedback in Psychomotor-Skill Learning. Western Journal of Nursing Research. 1988;10(4):425-434.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with chronic kidney disease underwent nephrectomy. Which of the following can be administered as a postoperative analgesic in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Naproxen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Indomethacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diclofenac", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acetaminophen", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acetaminophen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Acetaminophen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acetaminophen is the preferred postoperative analgesic for patients with chronic kidney disease, as it does not significantly affect renal function and is safer than NSAIDs in this population.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 37-year-old woman presents with headaches for 6 months. She has been taking analgesics regularly. The headache recently increased in severity for 3 days but was reduced on stopping the analgesic. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medication overuse headache", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tension headache", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic migraine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cluster headache", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Medication overuse headache", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Medication overuse headache</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Medication overuse headache is characterized by the worsening of headaches due to frequent use of headache medications, and improvement upon cessation of the medication. This phenomenon highlights the importance of managing headache disorders with appropriate treatments and avoiding overuse of analgesics.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most probable diagnosis for a 35-year-old patient who has presented with easily rupturing flaccid bulla on the skin and whose biopsy indicates a suprabasal split? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pemphigus Vegetans", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pemphigus foliaceus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Erythema multiforme", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pemphigus vulgaris", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture92222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture108888.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture11777.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pemphigus vulgaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris is identified by the presence of flaccid bullae that rupture easily and a suprabasal split on biopsy, indicating an autoimmune process causing loss of epidermal cell adhesion.</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris</li><li>➤ flaccid bullae</li><li>➤ rupture easily</li><li>➤ suprabasal split</li><li>➤ autoimmune</li><li>➤ loss of epidermal cell adhesion.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Page no 47.1-47.5, 50.1-50.10</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology -9th Edition Page no 47.1-47.5, 50.1-50.10</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3884912/</li><li>↳ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3884912/</li><li>↳ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/17619399/</li><li>↳ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/17619399/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-months-old child presented with cyanosis and fatigue. His chest X ray is shown below. What is the most likely sign and diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cottage loaf, truncus arteriosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Snowman sign, Supracardiac TAPVC", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Egg on side, TGA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Boot shaped heart, TOF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Snowman sign, Supracardiac TAPVC", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_JuLqlu7.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Snowman sign, Supracardiac TAPVC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given X-ray shows a case of total anomalous pulmonary venous circulation (TAPVC) with figure of 8 or snowman or cottage-loaf appearance .</li><li>• figure of 8 or snowman or cottage-loaf appearance</li><li>• TAPVC:</li><li>• TAPVC:</li><li>• TAPVC is a condition in which pulmonary veins drain directly or indirectly into the right atrium rather than the left atrium. As a result, pulmonary venous blood flow drains abnormally into the systemic venous circulation. It is a cyanotic heart disease with congestive heart failure symptoms. The patients are irritable and failure to thrive.</li><li>• TAPVC is a condition in which pulmonary veins drain directly or indirectly into the right atrium rather than the left atrium. As a result, pulmonary venous blood flow drains abnormally into the systemic venous circulation.</li><li>• pulmonary veins drain directly or indirectly into the right atrium rather than the left atrium.</li><li>• It is a cyanotic heart disease with congestive heart failure symptoms. The patients are irritable and failure to thrive.</li><li>• The patients are irritable and failure to thrive.</li><li>• The following types are seen:</li><li>• The following types are seen:</li><li>• I. Supra cardiac – Most common type</li><li>• I. Supra cardiac –</li><li>• II. Cardiac</li><li>• II. Cardiac</li><li>• III. Infra cardiac – Most common type for obstruction (worst prognosis)</li><li>• III. Infra cardiac –</li><li>• (worst prognosis)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cottage loaf, truncus arteriosus: Truncus arteriosus involves a single arterial trunk coming from the heart, not typically showing a snowman sign.</li><li>• Option A. Cottage loaf, truncus arteriosus:</li><li>• Option C. Egg on side, TGA (Transposition of the Great Arteries): This condition typically shows an \"egg on a string\" appearance due to the abnormal positioning of the great arteries.</li><li>• Option C. Egg on side, TGA (Transposition of the Great Arteries):</li><li>• Option D. Boot shaped heart, TOF (Tetralogy of Fallot): Characterized by a boot-shaped heart on X-ray due to right ventricular hypertrophy; not the pattern observed in this image.'</li><li>• Option D. Boot shaped heart, TOF (Tetralogy of Fallot):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"snowman sign\" on a chest X-ray in a child presenting with cyanosis and fatigue is highly suggestive of Supracardiac TAPVC.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation with a prosthetic valve replacement for mitral stenosis is on warfarin therapy 4mg/ day. What is the appropriate next step in management. (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop warfarin and start LMWH.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stop warfarin and start heparin.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continue warfarin.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stop warfarin, start LMWH and aspirin.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Stop warfarin and start LMWH.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Stop warfarin and start LMWH.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Stop warfarin and start LMWH: Warfarin is teratogenic and has a significant risk of causing warfarin embryopathy, particularly in doses greater than 5mg per day. In pregnancy, it is recommended to change warfarin to low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) or unfractionated heparin (UFH) in the first trimester, especially if the warfarin dose exceeds 5 mg/day. After 13 weeks, it can be switched back to warfarin until delivery. Near delivery, warfarin should again be replaced by LMWH or UFH to manage the risk of bleeding complications during delivery.</li><li>• Stop warfarin and start LMWH:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Stop warfarin and start heparin: This option is partially correct as it aligns with the practice of switching from warfarin to a safer anticoagulant near delivery. However, the preferred anticoagulant in this situation is LMWH due to its predictable pharmacokinetics and ease of administration.</li><li>• Option B. Stop warfarin and start heparin:</li><li>• Option C. Continue warfarin: This is incorrect because continuing warfarin at 36 weeks of gestation poses significant risks of fetal hemorrhage and warfarin embryopathy. It is essential to switch to a safer anticoagulant like LMWH or UFH close to delivery.</li><li>• Option C. Continue warfarin:</li><li>• Option D. Stop warfarin, start LMWH and aspirin: While this option includes stopping warfarin and starting LMWH, which is correct, the addition of aspirin is only indicated in women who are at a very high risk of thrombosis. The general recommendation does not include aspirin unless there is a specific high-risk indication.</li><li>• Option D. Stop warfarin, start LMWH and aspirin:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Warfarin should be replaced by low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) or unfractionated heparin (UFH) near delivery to manage the risks associated with its teratogenic effects and potential complications during delivery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2404, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2404, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An acute encephalitis outbreak has occurred within the community, prompting the initiation of a vaccination campaign. Which of the following is true about the vaccine given in this condition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Killed and intramuscular", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Live and subcutaneous", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Live and intramuscular", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Killed and subcutaneous", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Killed and intramuscular", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The question is referring to Japanese Encephalitis (JE) outbreaks, which are not uncommon in India and parts of Southeast Asia. During such outbreaks, emergency vaccination campaigns are often undertaken to control the spread of disease.</li><li>• The most commonly used vaccine in these public health campaigns in India earlier used to be Live JE SA 14-14-2 vaccine (subcutaneous). But nowadays, the inactivated (killed) Vero cell–derived JE vaccine - JENVAC is used intramuscularly.</li><li>• Hence, the correct response based on updated national guidelines is:</li><li>• Killed and intramuscular.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B) Live and subcutaneous:</li><li>• Option B) Live and subcutaneous:</li><li>• While the SA 14-14-2 vaccine is a live, attenuated vaccine given subcutaneously, recent protocols for outbreak settings increasingly prefer killed vaccines like JENVAC, especially in adult populations and for mass campaigns due to ease of storage and safety. Live vaccine SA -14-14-2 is quite good during outbreaks too. But JENVAC has an edge over SA 14-14-2 because of the higher immunity levels it creates with a single dose. Hence, although previously correct, SA 14-14-2 is no longer the preferred or updated answer.</li><li>• Option C) Live and intramuscular:</li><li>• Option C) Live and intramuscular:</li><li>• Live vaccines (like SA 14-14-2) are given subcutaneously. IM route is not used for Live JE SA 14-14-2 routinely.</li><li>• Option D) Killed and subcutaneous:</li><li>• Option D) Killed and subcutaneous:</li><li>• Killed JE vaccines (like JENVAC or IXIARO) are administered intramuscularly.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the setting of a Japanese Encephalitis outbreak, the vaccine currently recommended and used in mass immunization campaigns in India is a killed (inactivated) vaccine administered via the intramuscular route, such as JENVAC. While older guidelines or some regions may have used the live attenuated SA 14-14-2 vaccine given subcutaneously, updated practices now favor the inactivated IM vaccine due to its broader safety profile and compatibility with adult vaccination. Always refer to the most recent national immunization guidelines when answering such public health–related MCQs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male with motor traffic accident with BP 90/60mm Hg. On examination, he was stable with GCS 15/15. The pupil was reactive to light. Tenderness and bruising over the left lower chest wall with petechia were seen. What is the next step? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exploratory laparotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "eFAST", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CECT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. eFAST", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_210.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. eFAST</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The next step in the evaluation of a trauma patient with the given findings is the Extended Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (eFAST). This non-invasive imaging technique is crucial for rapidly identifying free fluid and organ injuries in the abdomen, as well as potential pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are critical in trauma cases. eFAST is used to quickly assess both stable and unstable patients following blunt abdominal trauma, providing immediate information that can dictate further management steps.</li><li>• both stable and unstable patients</li><li>• Details:</li><li>• Details:</li><li>• eFAST Role: This ultrasound examination checks for free intraperitoneal or pericardial fluid and can evaluate the integrity of the pleural spaces.</li><li>• eFAST Role:</li><li>• Stability: Despite the patient's low blood pressure, he is neurologically intact (GCS 15/15) and responsive, which allows for an ultrasound examination before more invasive procedures are considered.</li><li>• Stability:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Exploratory laparotomy: Generally reserved for patients showing signs of hemodynamic instability after eFAST or when eFAST is positive for intra-abdominal injury needing surgical intervention.</li><li>• Option A. Exploratory laparotomy:</li><li>• Option B. Intubation: Might be necessary if respiratory status worsens or if advanced airway management is required, but the patient’s current stable neurological status does not immediately warrant this.</li><li>• Option B. Intubation:</li><li>• Option D. CECT (Contrast Enhanced CT Scan): Used after eFAST if the patient remains hemodynamically stable and further detailed evaluation of internal injuries is necessary.</li><li>• Option D. CECT (Contrast Enhanced CT Scan):</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient post-tonsillectomy in the recovery room starts bleeding from the operative site. On examination, blood clots are seen. What will be your immediate management? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shift to OT, remove the clots, and cauterize/ligate the vessel", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shift to OT, start IV antibiotics, and pack the tonsillar fossa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Give anticoagulants, repeated gargling, and wait for 24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Do blood transfusion and wait and watch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Shift to OT, remove the clots, and cauterize/ligate the vessel", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Shift to OT, remove the clots, and cauterize/ligate the vessel</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The immediate return to the OT for direct intervention is essential in managing post-tonsillectomy bleeding. Ensuring the bleeding vessel is adequately addressed through cauterization or ligation can prevent further complications and promote healing.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 504, 505</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 504, 505</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Below is the air pollution index chart for four consecutive days at the Delhi station. What is the categorization of the air quality index for November 23 rd ? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Moderately polluted", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Poor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Very poor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Severe", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-130538.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-130725.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-130755.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Severe</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a case of tinea capitis, white powdery colonies were isolated from the hair specimen. The hair perforation test was positive on the isolate. Which of the following is the likely etiology? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidermophyton floccosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microsporum audonii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichophyton mentagrophytes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microsporum gypseum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Trichophyton mentagrophytes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Trichophyton mentagrophytes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of tinea capitis, a positive hair perforation test indicative of surface erosion and wedge-shaped appearance of the hair shaft confirms the presence of Trichophyton mentagrophytes. This test is crucial for distinguishing it from other dermatophytes, specifically Trichophyton rubrum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-year-old woman presents with complaints of progressive loss of vision in the right halves of both eyes. Where is the lesion located in the optic pathway? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left optic tract", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right visual cortex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right optic nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Left optic tract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-103814.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Left optic tract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Right homonymous hemianopia, characterized by loss of the right visual field in both eyes, is caused by a lesion in the left optic tract.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old pregnant woman came for a routine antenatal check-up in her second trimester. Four years back, she delivered 2 healthy full-term twins. What would her obstetric score be? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G2P2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "G3P2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "G2P1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "G3P1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. G2P1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) G2P1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A twin pregnancy that has crossed the period of viability is considered as Para 1, not Para 2. If it results in two living children, it will be Live 2.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 469, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 469, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young girl has been experiencing repeated instances of yeast infections and respiratory virus infections since she was only 3 months old. Given her immune system's condition, which of the listed vaccines should not be administered to her? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Killed IPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measles/MMR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "DPT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TT/Td", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Measles/MMR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-131332.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Measles/MMR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Live vaccines like Measles/MMR should not be administered to immunocompromised individuals due to the risk of severe infection. Instead, inactivated or subunit vaccines, which do not contain live pathogens, should be used.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with headache, vomiting, and fever. Meningitis was suspected. While performing a lumbar puncture, which is the last structure you will pierce just before entering the lumbar cistern? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ligamentum flavum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dura mater", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arachnoid mater", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pia mater", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Arachnoid mater", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/untitled-961.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Arachnoid mater</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The arachnoid mater is the last structure pierced before entering the lumbar cistern during a lumbar puncture.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child with AIDS presented with fever and productive cough. On auscultation, bronchial breath sounds and crepitations were heard in the right infra-scapular region. Chest X-ray showed right lower lobe consolidation. The CD4 count was 55 cells/mm3. What is the most common causative organism for this condition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumocystis jirovecii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycoplasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Streptococcus pneumoniae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Streptococcus pneumoniae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with AIDS, Streptococcus pneumoniae remains the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia, regardless of the CD4 count. This should be a primary consideration when evaluating pneumonia in this population.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient is undergoing chronic medication therapy for a long-term condition. The healthcare team wants to maintain a specific steady-state plasma concentration of the drug. What formula should be used to calculate the maintenance dose rate of the drug for this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clearance / Plasma concentration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clearance x Plasma concentration", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clearance x Loading dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clearance / Loading dose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Clearance x Plasma concentration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Clearance x Plasma concentration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The formula for calculating the maintenance dose rate (MD) of a drug is:</li><li>➤ Maintenance Dose Rate (MD) = Clearance (CL) × Desired Plasma Concentration (Cp)</li><li>➤ ×</li><li>➤ This formula is used to achieve and maintain a specific steady-state plasma concentration of the drug</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has multiple tendon xanthomas. Serum cholesterol (398 mg/dl) &amp; LDL (220 mg/dl) were found to be raised. Statins were given to this patient. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lipoprotein lipase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Familial hypercholesterolemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tangier’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Huntington’s disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Familial hypercholesterolemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Familial hypercholesterolemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ All of the conditions i.e. tendon xanthomas, high serum cholesterol and LDL levels and statin therapy which is given to inhibit rate limiting enzyme HMG CoA reductase of cholesterol biosynthesis indicate that cholesterol is raised in this patient. So, the most probable diagnosis is Familial hypercholesterolemia aka Type IIa hyperlipoproteinemia that occur due to deficiency of LDL receptor on liver or Apo B100 mutation .</li><li>➤ .</li><li>➤ Lipoprotein lipase deficiency or Apo C- II defect cause familial hyperchylomicronemia or Type I hyperlipoproteinemia with raised plasma chylomicrons and TG levels.</li><li>➤ hyperlipoproteinemia</li><li>➤ In Tangier’s disease, there is defect in ABCA1 receptors causing low levels of plasma HDL.</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 258</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 258</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A vagabond roaming in the forest eats some unknown fruits. After sometime he starts having symptoms of irritability, restlessness, dry hot skin, and was unable to pass urine and stools. Identify the poison and its appropriate antidote: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Datura, Pralidoxime", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Datura, Physostigmine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow oleander, Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yellow oleander, Physostigmine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Datura, Physostigmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-115530.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Datura, Physostigmine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Datura poisoning is characterized by neurotoxic and anticholinergic symptoms, and the appropriate antidote is Physostigmine, which can cross the blood-brain barrier and reverse CNS toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has multiple episodes of non-bilious vomiting. Which of the following metabolic abnormalities is likely to be seen in this condition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypochloremic, hypokalemic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypochloremic, hypokalemic alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypokalemic hyperchloremic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperchloremic hypokalemic acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypochloremic, hypokalemic alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture151.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture1_Eg7RZcO.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypochloremic, hypokalemic alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis leads to hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis due to persistent vomiting and loss of gastric acid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old boy was brought to the hospital with multiple fractures of the humerus secondary to a fall from height. On examination, there is difficulty in flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm, and associated loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve is most likely to be injured? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Musculocutaneous nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Musculocutaneous nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-180409.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-145621.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Musculocutaneous nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient diagnosed with spinal TB; he has a swelling in the left groin with limb attitude is in flexion. Identify what caused it? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_209.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_fSGD07U.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario of a patient with Pott spine having persistent hip flexion with a history of spinal tuberculosis is suggestive of psoas abscess involving the psoas muscle , marked A in the given coronal CT image.</li><li>• Pott spine</li><li>• having persistent hip flexion</li><li>• psoas abscess</li><li>• involving the psoas muscle</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with spinal TB, a psoas abscess is a significant complication that can lead to symptoms such as groin swelling and changes in limb posture due to its location and the effect of the abscess on the surrounding structures, particularly the psoas muscle. Prompt recognition and treatment are crucial to manage symptoms and prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old woman presented with chest pain. In an angiogram, her left circumflex artery was found to be stenosed, and a stent was inserted. Her current medications include ASA 75mg OD, atenolol 50mg BID, lovastatin, and lisinopril. What should be done in this scenario? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase Aspirin dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase atenolol dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Add a Long-Acting Nitrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Add P2Y12 receptor inhibitor", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Add P2Y12 receptor inhibitor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Add P2Y12 receptor inhibitor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After stent placement, dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) with aspirin and a P2Y12 receptor inhibitor (such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor) is essential to prevent stent thrombosis and ensure optimal patient outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents with nasal obstruction, nasal discharge, and loss of smell. On examination, foul-smelling discharge and yellowish-green crusts are present in the nasal cavity. She is found to have merciful anosmia. Which of the following finding can also be seen during the examination of her nose? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Roomy nasal cavity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nasal polyps", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior turbinate hypertrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Foreign body", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Roomy nasal cavity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Roomy nasal cavity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atrophic rhinitis leads to significant structural changes within the nasal cavity, most notably an enlargement of the space due to bone and soft tissue atrophy. Recognizing these changes is crucial for diagnosing and managing the condition effectively, with treatments often focusing on moisturizing the nasal cavity and addressing the underlying atrophic changes.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 172, 173</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 172, 173</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the cause of the condition given below? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diabetic neuropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hanging", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immersion in water for more than 36 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Burns of foot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Immersion in water for more than 36 hours", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/4_8GMUiiR.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Immersion in water for more than 36 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Washerwoman's feet (or skin) is characterized by swelling, wrinkling, and bleaching due to prolonged immersion in water, typically observed after more than 36 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male patient was intubated for surgery by a final-year resident. Which of the following is the best method to confirm the position of the endotracheal tube? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X-ray chest", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Auscultation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "End-tidal CO2 concentration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chest rise", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. End-tidal CO2 concentration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201021.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) End-tidal CO2 concentration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The gold standard for confirming ETT placement is indeed the end-tidal CO2 concentration assessed by capnography. It provides real-time feedback and is considered a more reliable method compared to other options, ensuring that the ETT is correctly placed in the trachea and the patient is being ventilated effectively.</li><li>➤ The gold standard for confirming ETT placement is indeed the end-tidal CO2 concentration assessed by capnography.</li><li>➤ It provides real-time feedback and is considered a more reliable method compared to other options, ensuring that the ETT is correctly placed in the trachea and the patient is being ventilated effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with jaw swelling and weight loss. Suspecting a malignancy, the submandibular gland was resected. Which is the most likely nerve to be damaged during submandibular gland resection?(NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nerve to mylohyoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior alveolar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lingual nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypoglossal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lingual nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-180654.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-152301.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lingual nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 51-year-old woman who had an abdominal hysterectomy two years ago and is now experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting bile, high-pitched bowel sounds during examination. The presence of air within the biliary tree is seen on diagnostic tests. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gallstone ileus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adhesive intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ischemic enterocolitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diverticulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gallstone ileus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gallstone ileus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gallstone ileus is a rare complication of cholelithiasis characterized by the presence of air within the biliary tree, obstructive symptoms, and the formation of a cholecysto-duodenal fistula. It typically presents with signs of gastrointestinal obstruction and is diagnosed through imaging, revealing pneumobilia and a gallstone in the intestines.</li><li>➤ Gallstone ileus is a rare complication of cholelithiasis characterized by the presence of air within the biliary tree, obstructive symptoms, and the formation of a cholecysto-duodenal fistula.</li><li>➤ It typically presents with signs of gastrointestinal obstruction and is diagnosed through imaging, revealing pneumobilia and a gallstone in the intestines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image of a drug is given below. It is used in which of the following conditions? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subglottic stenosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rhinocerebral mucormycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenoidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tympanoplasty", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Subglottic stenosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_228.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Subglottic stenosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitomycin-C is particularly effective in preventing the recurrence of subglottic stenosis after surgery due to its antifibrotic properties, making it a critical adjunct in surgical procedures involving the airway.</li><li>➤ Ref - Scott Brown 8 th edition, volume 3, Page No. 1088</li><li>➤ Ref - Scott Brown 8 th edition, volume 3, Page No. 1088</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient from Uttar Pradesh presented with fever, pallor, and hepatosplenomegaly. Peripheral smear examination showed pancytopenia. Buffy coat examination showed macrophages laden with organisms with a kinetoplast. What is the vector for the likely disease? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sandfly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tse-Tse fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Triatomine bug", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Female anopheles’ mosquito", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sandfly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-093459.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sandfly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Visceral leishmaniasis, caused by Leishmania donovani and transmitted by sandflies, is a severe systemic disease. Recognizing its epidemiology, clinical presentation, and diagnostic features is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Awareness and control of the vector, along with appropriate medical intervention, are essential in areas endemic for this disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year primigravida is in labor. She has a repeated urge to pass urine and has premature bearing down. On examination there is infra-umbilical flattening, and the fetal heart is heard on the lateral side. What is the most likely presentation/ position? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Knee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Occipito-posterior", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right dorso-anterior", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Occipito-posterior", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Obs%20Gyne%20(Trace-1).jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Occipito-posterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Occipito-posterior:</li><li>• Occipito-posterior:</li><li>• History: Early rupture of membranes. Frequent filling of bladder. Premature bearing down. Abdominal Examination: Inspection: Infra-umbilical flattening, which indicates that the fetus is not positioned centrally in the uterus. Grips: The fetal head is un-engaged, which is often the case with occipito-posterior positions. Auscultation: Fetal heart sounds (FHS) are heard on the flanks, suggesting that the fetus is lying posteriorly. Vaginal Examination: An elongated bag of membranes. The posterior fontanelle is near the sacro-iliac joint. The anterior fontanelle is more easily felt due to deflexion of the fetal head.</li><li>• History: Early rupture of membranes. Frequent filling of bladder. Premature bearing down.</li><li>• History:</li><li>• Early rupture of membranes. Frequent filling of bladder. Premature bearing down.</li><li>• Early rupture of membranes.</li><li>• Frequent filling of bladder.</li><li>• Premature bearing down.</li><li>• Abdominal Examination: Inspection: Infra-umbilical flattening, which indicates that the fetus is not positioned centrally in the uterus. Grips: The fetal head is un-engaged, which is often the case with occipito-posterior positions. Auscultation: Fetal heart sounds (FHS) are heard on the flanks, suggesting that the fetus is lying posteriorly.</li><li>• Abdominal Examination:</li><li>• Inspection: Infra-umbilical flattening, which indicates that the fetus is not positioned centrally in the uterus. Grips: The fetal head is un-engaged, which is often the case with occipito-posterior positions. Auscultation: Fetal heart sounds (FHS) are heard on the flanks, suggesting that the fetus is lying posteriorly.</li><li>• Inspection: Infra-umbilical flattening, which indicates that the fetus is not positioned centrally in the uterus.</li><li>• Inspection:</li><li>• Grips: The fetal head is un-engaged, which is often the case with occipito-posterior positions.</li><li>• Grips:</li><li>• Auscultation: Fetal heart sounds (FHS) are heard on the flanks, suggesting that the fetus is lying posteriorly.</li><li>• Auscultation:</li><li>• Vaginal Examination: An elongated bag of membranes. The posterior fontanelle is near the sacro-iliac joint. The anterior fontanelle is more easily felt due to deflexion of the fetal head.</li><li>• Vaginal Examination:</li><li>• An elongated bag of membranes. The posterior fontanelle is near the sacro-iliac joint. The anterior fontanelle is more easily felt due to deflexion of the fetal head.</li><li>• An elongated bag of membranes.</li><li>• The posterior fontanelle is near the sacro-iliac joint.</li><li>• The anterior fontanelle is more easily felt due to deflexion of the fetal head.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Brow: The brow presentation involves partial extension of the fetal head. The presenting diameter is larger, leading to a more difficult labor. However, this would not typically present with infra-umbilical flattening or lateral fetal heart sounds.</li><li>• Option A. Brow:</li><li>• Option B. Knee: A knee presentation is a form of breech presentation where the knees are the presenting part. It is rare and would not cause infra-umbilical flattening or lateral fetal heart sounds.</li><li>• Option B. Knee:</li><li>• Option D. Right dorso-anterior: This position involves the fetus's back being to the mother's right and anterior. It would not cause infra-umbilical flattening and lateral fetal heart sounds like the occipito-posterior position does.</li><li>• Option D. Right dorso-anterior:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The occipito-posterior position in labor is characterized by infra-umbilical flattening, frequent filling of the bladder, premature bearing down, and fetal heart sounds heard on the lateral side.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 302, Textbook of Obstetrics by JB Sharma, 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 302, Textbook of Obstetrics by JB Sharma, 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old multipara woman presented with grade II/III uterine prolapse with cystocele. She complains of passing urine on coughing and sneezing. What is the type of urinary incontinence seen in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Overflow incontinence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urge incontinence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stress incontinence", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurogenic bladder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Stress incontinence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Stress incontinence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stress urinary incontinence is characterized by involuntary leakage of urine due to increased intra-abdominal pressure and is commonly seen in women with utero-vaginal prolapse.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 597, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 597, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. Johnson, a 54-year-old woman, underwent surgery for breast carcinoma last year. She now presents with painless swelling involving her left arm, which started 2 weeks ago. Upon examination, the affected arm appears swollen and feels heavy, with visible thickening of the skin. There is no warmth, redness, or tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymphedema", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphangiosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Venous thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cellulitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lymphedema", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns5.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Lymphedema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lymphedema is a common postoperative complication of breast cancer surgery due to the removal or damage of lymph nodes, leading to poor lymphatic drainage. It presents as painless swelling, heaviness, and skin thickening in the affected limb.</li><li>➤ Lymphedema is a common postoperative complication of breast cancer surgery due to the removal or damage of lymph nodes, leading to poor lymphatic drainage.</li><li>➤ It presents as painless swelling, heaviness, and skin thickening in the affected limb.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Transparency of corneal endothelium is maintained by: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heparan sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Keratan sulphate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chondroitin sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyaluronic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Keratan sulphate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-181532.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Keratan sulphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 602</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 602</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male underwent surgery for rectal prolapse, and a postoperative image was obtained. Can you identify the procedure that was most likely performed on the patient from the given image below ? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stapled hemorroidopexy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Well's procedure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiersch stitch", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Altemeier repair", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thiersch stitch", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns8.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Thiersch stitch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thiersch's procedure, involving the placement of a wire or tape around the anal canal, is used in managing rectal prolapse but is now infrequently performed due to associated complications such as chronic perineal sepsis, anal stenosis, and obstructed defecation.</li><li>➤ Thiersch's procedure, involving the placement of a wire or tape around the anal canal, is used in managing rectal prolapse but is now infrequently performed due to associated complications such as chronic perineal sepsis, anal stenosis, and obstructed defecation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with generalized edema and was found to have hypercholesterolemia. Urinalysis shows protein 3+ and fat bodies. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nephrotic syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nephritic syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Goodpasture's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgA nephropathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nephrotic syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture153.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nephrotic syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by generalized edema, hyperlipidemia, massive proteinuria, and fat bodies in urinalysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient with a history of abdominal pain and fever for the past three days presents to the hospital. The physician orders a chest X-ray in the erect position which shows abnormal findings. Based on these findings, the most likely diagnosis will be determined? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastric volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hollow viscus perforation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liver abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Empyema thoracis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hollow viscus perforation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns12.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hollow viscus perforation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Air under the diaphragm seen on an erect chest radiograph is a hallmark finding of a hollow viscus perforation, which is a surgical emergency requiring immediate attention to prevent peritonitis and other severe complications.</li><li>➤ Air under the diaphragm seen on an erect chest radiograph is a hallmark finding of a hollow viscus perforation, which is a surgical emergency requiring immediate attention to prevent peritonitis and other severe complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who was on steroids for the treatment of chronic urticaria presents to the emergency department with acute worsening of respiratory symptoms. He says that he has been having nocturnal cough for last several weeks. A hemogram revealed elevated eosinophils. Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) specimen following bronchoscopy showed the presence of certain larvae as shown in the image below. Identify the causative organism: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ancvlostoma caninum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Capillaria philippinensis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Strongyloides stercoralis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_dRo0sgK.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-093904.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-094033.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Strongyloides stercoralis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In patients presenting with respiratory symptoms and eosinophilia, especially those who are immunocompromised, strongyloidiasis should be considered. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to prevent the severe outcomes associated with hyperinfection. Treatment typically involves antiparasitic medications such as ivermectin.</li><li>➤ Autoinfection: - CHEST (Mnemonic)</li><li>➤ Autoinfection:</li><li>➤ Cryptosporidium parvum H. nana larva Enterobius vermicularis Strongyloides Taenia solium</li><li>➤ Cryptosporidium parvum</li><li>➤ H. nana larva</li><li>➤ Enterobius vermicularis</li><li>➤ Strongyloides</li><li>➤ Taenia solium</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As an Indian medical intern, which of the following is the correct format for prescription of alprazolam? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tablet alprazolam 0.5 mg once a day before bedtime for 7 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tablet alprazolam 0.5 mg HS for 7 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tablet alprazolam 500 mcg one tablet OD for 7 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tablet alprazolam ½ mg tablet HS daily", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tablet alprazolam 0.5 mg once a day before bedtime for 7 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tablet alprazolam 0.5 mg once a day before bedtime for 7 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When writing a prescription, always avoid abbreviations for dosage instructions, use clear and complete language, include leading zeros for dosages less than one, and avoid trailing zeros. The correct format ensures clarity and safety for the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is investigating whether a correlation exists between CRP values and the likelihood of experiencing myocardial infarction or stroke. The participants in the study were split into five groups and the following table is formed based on the study results. Among the provided options, which statement accurately reflects the connection between CRP levels and the risk of myocardial infarction/stroke? (NEET PG 2021) (CRP à C-reactive protein)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CRP has no association with risk of MI/stroke", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase in CRP leads to increased risk of MI/Stroke", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increase in CRP decreases the risk of Ml/stroke", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "In group 1, there is no risk of MI/stroke", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increase in CRP leads to increased risk of MI/Stroke", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-142924.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-142913.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-143049.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Increase in CRP leads to increased risk of MI/Stroke</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Increased CRP levels are positively associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction (MI) and stroke. As CRP levels rise, the relative risk of these conditions also increases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with renal insufficiency had very low urine output, pedal edema, headache, and a blood pressure of 160/90. Which antihypertensive medication can be used? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aliskiren", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlorthalidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amlodipine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prazosin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Amlodipine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Amlodipine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amlodipine is the preferred antihypertensive medication for patients with renal insufficiency, as it effectively lowers blood pressure without negatively impacting renal function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient fell down riding a bicycle. He started having pain around hip. There was shortening of limb, and the attitude of limb was Flexion, Adduction and Internal rotation. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior dislocation of hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Posterior dislocation of hip", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inter-trochanteric fracture of femur", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fracture neck of femur", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Posterior dislocation of hip", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture76.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture77.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture78.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture79.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture80.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture81.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Posterior dislocation of hip</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the papillae from the given histological section: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fungiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Circumvallate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Filiform", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Foliate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Circumvallate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/photo-2023-07-04-12-29-55.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/picture1_rHBmQEf.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-844.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Circumvallate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Circumvallate papilla are located on the dorsum of the tongue, forming a V-shaped row in front of the terminal sulcus (the V-shaped groove that separates the anterior two-thirds from the posterior third of the tongue). They are the largest papillae, about 8-12 in number, and have a round, raised shape. Each is surrounded by a trench (or moat), hence the name 'circumvallate.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most common complication associated with the following abnormality? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exposure keratopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restricted eye movements", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diplopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amblyopia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Exposure keratopathy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-160.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-192933.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Exposure keratopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eyelid colobomas can be an isolated finding or can be associated with various syndromes mentioned below:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient had feeble femoral pulses with an upper-limb blood pressure of 186/90 mmHg. Chest X-ray showed enlarged intercostal arteries. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coarctation of aorta", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial septal defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bicuspid aortic valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patent ductus arteriosus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Coarctation of aorta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Coarctation of aorta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coarctation of the aorta should be suspected in patients with a significant difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower limbs, feeble femoral pulses, and chest X-ray findings of enlarged intercostal arteries, indicating collateral circulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents incidentally with the following findings as shown below. He does not report any discomfort. According to the CEAP classification, what will be the C stage in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C2A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "C2S", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C4a", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "C1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. C2A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns11.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) C2A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The CEAP classification system is essential for categorizing the severity and characteristics of venous disease. For asymptomatic varicose veins, the appropriate classification is C2a, distinguishing them from symptomatic cases and those with more advanced skin changes.</li><li>➤ The CEAP classification system is essential for categorizing the severity and characteristics of venous disease.</li><li>➤ For asymptomatic varicose veins, the appropriate classification is C2a, distinguishing them from symptomatic cases and those with more advanced skin changes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old man presented with fever and massive splenomegaly. On palpation, the spleen was 15 cm and directed obliquely when measured from the right iliac fossa. Which of the following structures prevent the vertical and downward descent of the spleen? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lienorenal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastrosplenic ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phrenicocolic ligament", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lienophrenic ligament", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Phrenicocolic ligament", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-841.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Phrenicocolic ligament</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phrenicocolic ligament extends from the left colic (splenic) flexure of the colon to the diaphragm. It's positioned to the left side of the abdomen and is an important anatomical landmark. It acts as a supportive structure, supporting the left colic flexure and acting as a barrier. Importantly, it prevents the downward and medial displacement of the spleen, especially when the spleen enlarges, as in cases of splenomegaly.</li><li>➤ Phrenicocolic ligament</li><li>➤ Splenic ligaments and their attachments:</li><li>➤ Splenic ligaments and their attachments:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged female patient presented with slowly progressive motor weakness, nuchal rigidity, and difficulty in swallowing and carrying out day-to-day activities. A provisional diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is suspected. Which of the following cells are affected in multiple sclerosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Microglia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oligodendrocytes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Astrocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ependymal cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oligodendrocytes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Oligodendrocytes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Oligodendrocytes are affected in multiple sclerosis.</li><li>• In multiple sclerosis (MS), myelin-forming oligodendrocytes (OLGs) are the targets of inflammatory and immune attacks. OLG death by apoptosis or necrosis causes the cell loss seen in MS plaques, and leads to loss of conduction or delayed conduction in the demyelinated axons.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Microglia. are the primary immune cells of the central nervous system, similar to peripheral macrophages.</li><li>• Option A. Microglia.</li><li>• Option C. Astrocytes. also known collectively as astroglia, are characteristic star-shaped glial cells in the brain and spinal cord. They perform many functions, including biochemical control of endothelial cells that form the blood–brain barrier.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Astrocytes.</li><li>• Option D. Ependymal cells. are ciliated-epithelial glial cells that develop from radial glia along the surface of the ventricles of the brain and the spinal canal. They play a critical role in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) homeostasis, brain metabolism, and the clearance of waste from the brain.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Ependymal cells.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In multiple sclerosis, the primary pathological change occurs in oligodendrocytes, the cells responsible for myelinating neurons in the CNS. This leads to widespread neurological impairment due to the loss of myelin, affecting the efficiency of nerve signal transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An unimmunized 2-year-old child presented with coryza, conjunctivitis, and bluish-white spots in his buccal mucosa near the lower molar teeth. A day later, he developed a maculopapular rash on the face and neck. What is the nature of the causative virus? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Enveloped ss RNA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Naked ss RNA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Naked ds RNA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enveloped ds RNA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Enveloped ss RNA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Enveloped ss RNA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles virus is characterized as an enveloped single-stranded RNA virus, notable for the unique clinical presentation of Koplik's spots, which precede the characteristic maculopapular rash. This distinguishing feature is essential for the clinical diagnosis of measles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old chronic hypertensive woman visits the outpatient department for pre-conceptional counseling. Which of the following anti-hypertensive should she discontinue? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium channel blockers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alpha methyldopa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ACE inhibitors should be discontinued in women who are planning to conceive due to their associated risks of fetal renal dysplasia, oligohydramnios, and other congenital anomalies. Alternative antihypertensive medications that are safer during pregnancy include labetalol, calcium channel blockers, and alpha methyldopa.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is presented with multiple times loose stools. He is managed with ORS. Glucose in ORS is absorbed via which transporter in GIT?(NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SGLT-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "SGLT-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GLUT-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GLUT-2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. SGLT-1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) SGLT-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ SGLT-1 is the key transporter responsible for the absorption of glucose in the gastrointestinal tract. This mechanism is crucial in the management of conditions like diarrhea, where ORS containing glucose can help rehydrate the body by enhancing fluid absorption.</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 538</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ -Harper 31 st e/pg. 538</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent a coronary bypass graft with the great saphenous vein. The patient now complains of paresthesia and sensory loss over the medial aspect of the leg and foot. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be involved?(NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superficial peroneal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Saphenous nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sural nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Saphenous nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-849.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-154850.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Saphenous nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A toddler was found playing alone and was brought to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty in swallowing for the past few hours. An X-ray was performed, and the image revealed as shown in AP view. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Foreign body in the trachea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Foreign body in the esophagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Artifact", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Soft tissue calcification in the neck", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Foreign body in the esophagus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns6.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Foreign body in the esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of pediatric ingestion of foreign bodies, the esophagus is a common site where objects can become lodged. Radiographic evaluation typically shows a foreign body in the esophagus with a flat surface seen on the AP view and the edge on the lateral view. Immediate recognition and appropriate intervention are crucial to prevent complications.</li><li>➤ In cases of pediatric ingestion of foreign bodies, the esophagus is a common site where objects can become lodged.</li><li>➤ Radiographic evaluation typically shows a foreign body in the esophagus with a flat surface seen on the AP view and the edge on the lateral view.</li><li>➤ Immediate recognition and appropriate intervention are crucial to prevent complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male who engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse develops urethral discharge one week later as shown in the given image below. What is the most likely causative organism for this condition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhea", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ureaplasma urealyticum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes simplex virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichomonas vaginalis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neisseria gonorrhea", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_oacTPyL.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_d10lsJJ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Neisseria gonorrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a significant cause of sexually transmitted infections, manifesting as acute urethritis with purulent discharge in males. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with appropriate antibiotics, such as a combination of ceftriaxone and azithromycin, are crucial to prevent complications and limit the spread of this highly contagious infection.</li><li>➤ Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by:</li><li>➤ Chlamydia trachomatis Ureaplasma urealyticum Mycoplasma genitalium Trichomonas vaginalis Herpes simplex virus (rare) Adenovirus Haemophilus vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalium</li><li>➤ Chlamydia trachomatis</li><li>➤ Ureaplasma urealyticum</li><li>➤ Mycoplasma genitalium</li><li>➤ Trichomonas vaginalis</li><li>➤ Herpes simplex virus (rare)</li><li>➤ Adenovirus</li><li>➤ Haemophilus vaginalis</li><li>➤ Mycoplasma genitalium</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old patient with progressive painless loss of vision presents to the ophthalmology OPD. Fundus picture of the patient is given below. What could be the probable finding and the cause of it? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Soft exudate, Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hard exudate, Diabetes mellitus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flame-shaped hemorrhages, Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Soft exudate, Central retinal vein occlusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hard exudate, Diabetes mellitus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-149.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-185030.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture533366.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture6666.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture7222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/picture83333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hard exudate, Diabetes mellitus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hard exudates are characteristic findings in diabetic retinopathy, indicating chronic localized edema and composed of leaked lipoproteins and lipid-filled macrophages. They present as small, discrete yellowish, waxy areas with distinct margins in the retina.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Reema Devi, A 28y newly married woman presents to your sub center for contraceptive advice. She is started on Oral Contraceptive Pills. She presents after 2 weeks with a history of missing 4 tablets on different days in the first 2 weeks of the cycle. What will you advise her? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Discontinue the packet and start an alternate method of contraception", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Take 4 tablets the next day, continue the remaining packet, use additional contraception (condom) and give Emergency Pill if h/o intercourse in the last 72 h", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Take the next pill as soon as possible, continue the remaining packet, use additional contraception (condom) and give Emergency Pill if h/o intercourse in the last 72 h", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Take the next pill as soon as possible and continue the remaining tablets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Take the next pill as soon as possible, continue the remaining packet, use additional contraception (condom) and give Emergency Pill if h/o intercourse in the last 72 h", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Take the next pill as soon as possible, continue the remaining packet, use additional contraception (condom) and give Emergency Pill if h/o intercourse in the last 72 h</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ If a woman misses multiple oral contraceptive pills, she should take the last missed pill as soon as possible, continue the remaining packet, use additional contraception, and consider emergency contraception if she had intercourse in the last 72 hours.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the SI unit used to measure the brightness of light from a point source among the options provided?(NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candela", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lux", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lambert", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lumen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Candela", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-143708.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Candela</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year primigravida presents at 36 weeks with painful vulval ulcers. She does not give history of similar lesions ever in the past. On examination, there are multiple painful vesicular lesions. Which is the best treatment option? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acyclovir and elective Cesarean section", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acyclovir and induction of labor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spontaneous delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antiviral and normal vaginal delivery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acyclovir and elective Cesarean section", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Acyclovir and elective Cesarean section</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Acyclovir and elective Cesarean section:</li><li>• Acyclovir and elective Cesarean section:</li><li>• The diagnosis in this woman is genital herpes simplex (HSV). Since she has never had similar lesions in the past, this is primary genital herpes. The risk of neonatal infection following vaginal delivery with primary HSV is very high (up to 50%). Neonatal herpes has a very high mortality rate. Antivirals (Acyclovir) have to be started. Hence, the recommended mode of delivery in primary HSV is elective Cesarean section to prevent transmission to the neonate.</li><li>• The diagnosis in this woman is genital herpes simplex (HSV).</li><li>• Since she has never had similar lesions in the past, this is primary genital herpes.</li><li>• The risk of neonatal infection following vaginal delivery with primary HSV is very high (up to 50%). Neonatal herpes has a very high mortality rate.</li><li>• Antivirals (Acyclovir) have to be started.</li><li>• Hence, the recommended mode of delivery in primary HSV is elective Cesarean section to prevent transmission to the neonate.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Acyclovir and induction of labor: While acyclovir is appropriate for treating HSV, inducing labor is not recommended due to the high risk of neonatal infection with vaginal delivery in the presence of active primary HSV lesions.</li><li>• Option B. Acyclovir and induction of labor:</li><li>• Option C. Spontaneous delivery: Spontaneous vaginal delivery poses a significant risk of neonatal herpes, which can lead to severe complications and high mortality. This is not recommended in the case of primary genital HSV.</li><li>• Option C. Spontaneous delivery:</li><li>• Option D. Antiviral and normal vaginal delivery: Antiviral treatment is necessary, but normal vaginal delivery is not recommended due to the high risk of transmitting HSV to the neonate. Cesarean section is the preferred mode of delivery.</li><li>• Option D. Antiviral and normal vaginal delivery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of primary genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection at term, the best treatment option is to start antiviral therapy and plan for an elective Cesarean section to reduce the risk of neonatal herpes infection.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 673, High Risk Pregnancy: Management Options; David James, Philip J Steer; 5 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 673, High Risk Pregnancy: Management Options; David James, Philip J Steer; 5 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient on aspirin presented with occult blood in the stool. This is due to inhibition of_____ by aspirin? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phospholipase A2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thromboxane Synthesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phospholipase C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phospholipase D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thromboxane Synthesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thromboxane Synthesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aspirin inhibits thromboxane synthesis by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes (COX-1 and COX-2), leading to reduced platelet aggregation and an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a formal thought disorder? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obsession", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Derailment", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thought insertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Derailment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Derailment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Formal thought disorders pertain to abnormalities in the organization, associations and connections of the thought. Derailment, loose associations, neologisms are examples of a formal thought disorder.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 10</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After a road traffic accident case has been admitted, there is a blood spillage on the hospital floor. Which type of disinfectant would you select for cleaning the floor? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ethyl alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlorhexidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sodium hypochlorite", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Formaldehyde", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sodium hypochlorite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sodium hypochlorite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For effective disinfection of surfaces contaminated with blood spills, sodium hypochlorite is the preferred choice due to its broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity and ability to neutralize blood-borne pathogens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic male patient presents with abdominal distension, reduced urine output, and pedal edema. His serum creatinine was 1.6 mg/dL. What is the next line of management in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methylprednisolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Torsemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Terlipressin plus albumin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Terlipressin plus albumin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Terlipressin plus albumin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with cirrhosis and suspected hepatorenal syndrome, the appropriate management includes the use of albumin combined with vasoconstrictors like terlipressin to improve renal function and address the underlying hemodynamic changes associated with HRS.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the recommended treatment for a patient who has paronychia on their index finger and is also showing a reddish streak on their forearm, as depicted in the image? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amoxiclav", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metronidazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amikacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Norfloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amoxiclav", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture12888.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-113504.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Amoxiclav</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Combination antibiotic Amoxiclav is indicated for the treatment of paronychia complicated by lymphangitis due to its broad-spectrum activity against both Gram-positive and resistant bacteria.</li><li>➤ Combination antibiotic Amoxiclav is indicated for the treatment of paronychia complicated by lymphangitis due to its broad-spectrum activity against both Gram-positive and resistant bacteria.</li><li>➤ Amoxiclav</li><li>➤ paronychia complicated by lymphangitis</li><li>➤ broad-spectrum</li><li>➤ both Gram-positive and resistant bacteria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 15-year-old girl is not compliant with spectacles for her myopic astigmatism. What would be the appropriate management in her case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LASIK", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spherical equivalent spectacles", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femto LASIK", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Implantable collamer lens", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Spherical equivalent spectacles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-191609.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Spherical equivalent spectacles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Surgical interventions like LASIK and Femto LASIK are not recommended for individuals under 18 years of age.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia undergoes prophylactic irradiation prior to autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation. Which of the following will be the least affected? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spermatogonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intestinal epithelial cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neurons", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone marrow/ erythroid precursor cells", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neurons", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-171435.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Neurons</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Neurons (Central nervous system) are the least affected by irradiation among the options given, due to their highly differentiated and non-dividing nature.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. A. Spermatogonia : These are germ cells that continually divide and are highly sensitive to radiation, which can lead to infertility.</li><li>• Option. A. Spermatogonia</li><li>• Option. B. Intestinal epithelial cells : These cells have a high turnover rate, making them very sensitive to radiation, which can result in gastrointestinal toxicity.</li><li>• Option. B. Intestinal epithelial cells</li><li>• Option. D. Bone marrow/erythroid precursor cells : These cells are among the most sensitive to radiation due to their role in rapidly producing new blood cells, leading to potential marrow suppression.</li><li>• Option. D. Bone marrow/erythroid precursor cells</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient presents with pain in the right thigh during walking. Investigation reveals a finding as shown below. What will be the most appropriate surgical management for this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PTA with stenting", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femoroiliac bypass", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aortofemoral bypass", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Femoro-politeal bypass", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aortofemoral bypass", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns10.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aortofemoral bypass</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aortofemoral bypass is the most appropriate surgical intervention for peripheral obstructive vascular disease involving the common iliac artery, particularly when the obstruction is significant and causing symptoms such as claudication. This procedure helps to restore adequate blood flow to the lower extremities.</li><li>➤ Aortofemoral bypass is the most appropriate surgical intervention for peripheral obstructive vascular disease involving the common iliac artery, particularly when the obstruction is significant and causing symptoms such as claudication.</li><li>➤ This procedure helps to restore adequate blood flow to the lower extremities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient with a history of cholecystectomy 4 years back for gallstones presents with symptoms of obstructive jaundice. Imaging studies reveal a stone in the common bile duct. What is the most probable type of stone causing this obstruction? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tertiary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retained", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Primary", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Primary</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary bile duct stones form directly within the bile ducts and are associated with underlying bile duct pathology. They are different from secondary stones, which form in the gallbladder and migrate into the bile duct, and retained stones, which are missed during the initial surgery.</li><li>➤ Primary bile duct stones form directly within the bile ducts and are associated with underlying bile duct pathology.</li><li>➤ They are different from secondary stones, which form in the gallbladder and migrate into the bile duct, and retained stones, which are missed during the initial surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Leading questions are permitted during which kind of examination in court? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Examination-in-chief", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Direct examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cross examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Re-direct examination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cross examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cross examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Leading Questions are Not permitted in:</li><li>➤ Leading Questions are Not permitted in:</li><li>➤ Examination in chief Re-Examination Dying Declaration</li><li>➤ Examination in chief</li><li>➤ Re-Examination</li><li>➤ Dying Declaration</li><li>➤ Leading Questions are permitted in:</li><li>➤ Leading Questions are permitted in:</li><li>➤ Cross Examination Dying Deposition Hostile witness is an exception wherein the leading questions can be asked even in examination in chief</li><li>➤ Cross Examination</li><li>➤ Dying Deposition</li><li>➤ Hostile witness is an exception wherein the leading questions can be asked even in examination in chief</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old woman presents with breathlessness and chest pain. She is a known case of mitral stenosis. Her pulse is irregularly irregular. No thrombus is seen on echocardiography. What can be done to prevent future thrombotic events? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dabigatran", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspirin 150mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral warfarin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin + Clopidogrel", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oral warfarin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Oral warfarin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with atrial fibrillation associated with mitral stenosis, oral warfarin is the recommended anticoagulant to prevent thromboembolic events.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After a fall from a height, a 10-year-old child presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain. Upon examination, the child's vital signs were stable, but tenderness was noted in the left lumbar region. What would be the best investigation of choice? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contrast enhanced CT scan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retrograde urethrogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emergency laparotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Contrast enhanced CT scan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Contrast enhanced CT scan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected blunt renal trauma, particularly in a hemodynamically stable patient, a contrast-enhanced CT scan is the investigation of choice. This allows for detailed imaging of the abdomen to accurately diagnose and assess the extent of the injury.</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected blunt renal trauma, particularly in a hemodynamically stable patient, a contrast-enhanced CT scan is the investigation of choice.</li><li>➤ This allows for detailed imaging of the abdomen to accurately diagnose and assess the extent of the injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Name the parasite whose microfilaria have a sheath with no nuclei at the tail end. (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wuchereria bancrofti", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brugia malayi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brugia timori", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mansonella perstans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wuchereria bancrofti", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_nztdAf1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wuchereria bancrofti</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti are identified by their sheathed structure and the absence of nuclei at the tail end, crucial for the specific diagnosis of lymphatic filariasis caused by this parasite. This detail is significant for medical students and professionals working in endemic areas to recognize and diagnose the infection accurately.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vaccine is administered as part of the immunization program to a 10-year-old school child?( NEET PG 2021 )", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MMR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TT/Td", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "DPT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. TT/Td", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-144426.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) TT/Td</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A body fluid sample is being studied and has Na: 10 mEq/L, K: 140 mEq/L, CI: 4 mE/L. Identify the compartment from which the sample has been obtained? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interstitial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intracellular fluid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extracellular fluid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intracellular fluid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/694.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Intracellular fluid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The electrolyte composition in the sample obtained has high concentration of potassium, suggests that it is intracellular fluid (IC) compartment.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Interstitial and Option C. Extracellular Fluid generally have higher sodium and chloride concentrations and much lower potassium concentrations.</li><li>• Option A. Interstitial and Option C. Extracellular Fluid</li><li>• Option D. Plasma , part of the extracellular fluid, would similarly show higher sodium and chloride but lower potassium.</li><li>• Option D. Plasma</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The composition of potassium, sodium, and chloride in the sample aligns with that typically found in intracellular fluid, reflecting its origin from within cells, where potassium is the major cation, unlike extracellular compartments dominated by sodium and chloride.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl presented with overfamiliarity, flight of ideas, elevated mood, increased sexual desire, and pseudo hallucination. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mania", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypomania", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclothymia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schizomania", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mania", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mania</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mania is characterized by an elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, lasting at least one week, associated with increased energy or activity, and causing significant impairment in social or occupational functioning.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 365</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the clinical examination of the nervous system, which of the following nerves can be tested by touching the highlighted structure? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IX", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "X", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "XI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "XII", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IX", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-851.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-155710.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. IX</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man exposes his genitalia to a female passerby on the road. This method of deriving sexual gratification by observing the people that look at him nude is best described as? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Voyeurism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fetishism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exhibitionism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Masochism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Exhibitionism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-121651.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Exhibitionism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, weight loss, and jaundice. Imaging studies reveal a mass arising from the antrum of the stomach extending into the head of the pancreas with metastasis to the right lobe of the liver. What is the appropriate management for this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palliative gastrojejunostomy followed by chemotherapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radical gastrectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Whipple's procedure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastrectomy with right hepatectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Palliative gastrojejunostomy followed by chemotherapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Palliative gastrojejunostomy followed by chemotherapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients with advanced gastric cancer extending into adjacent organs and with liver metastasis, the appropriate management often involves palliative measures, such as gastrojejunostomy to relieve symptoms and improve quality of life, followed by chemotherapy. Curative surgical options are generally not feasible in the presence of metastasis.</li><li>➤ For patients with advanced gastric cancer extending into adjacent organs and with liver metastasis, the appropriate management often involves palliative measures, such as gastrojejunostomy to relieve symptoms and improve quality of life, followed by chemotherapy.</li><li>➤ Curative surgical options are generally not feasible in the presence of metastasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with vision loss. On radiological investigation, an aneurysm causing damage to the optic chiasma was noted. Which of the following arteries is most likely causing the damage? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior communicating artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior choroidal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Middle cerebral artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior cerebral artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anterior communicating artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-840.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Anterior communicating artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anterior communicating artery connects the two anterior cerebral arteries and is a part of the Circle of Willis, a circulatory anastomosis that supplies the brain.</li><li>➤ Anterior communicating artery</li><li>➤ Relation to Optic Chiasma : The anterior communicating artery runs superiorly to the optic chiasma. An aneurysm of this artery can impinge upon or compress the optic chiasma leading to visual disturbances, especially a particular kind of vision loss called bitemporal hemianopsia.</li><li>➤ Relation to Optic Chiasma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person had a meal at 8 pm and records blood glucose at 7 am on the next day. What’s the source of glucose in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dietary Glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatic Gluconeogenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatic Glycogenolysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Muscle glycogenolysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hepatic Glycogenolysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hepatic Glycogenolysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The person is fasting for last 11 hours. First source of blood glucose is dietary (food) glucose that can provide glucose for upto 2 hours after meals (option a is excluded). After that liver glycogenolysis will start and is able to maintain blood glucose for next 12-18 hours of fasting (option c is answer).</li><li>➤ Hepatic gluconeogenesis will start only after liver glycogen is exhausted i.e. only after 12 hours onwards (option b is wrong answer).</li><li>➤ Muscle glycogen cannot maintain blood glucose as the end-product of muscle glycogenolysis is glucose 6-phosphate due to absence of enzyme glucose 6-phosphatase in muscle (option D is wrong answer). This enzyme is only present in liver cell’s ER and is used to convert glucose 6-phosphate to free glucose.</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/pg. 176</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/pg. 176</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the provided thermometers is employed for measuring low air velocity as opposed to the cooling potency of the air? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kata thermometer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Globe thermometer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wet globe thermometer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dial thermometer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kata thermometer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-130037.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kata thermometer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vitamin deficiency causes this?(NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zinc", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Niacin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture6.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Niacin is another B-vitamin that is essential for various bodily functions. It plays a role in converting nutrients into energy, creating cholesterol and fats, repairing DNA, and acting as an antioxidant. Niacin is important for overall metabolic health. Severe niacin deficiency can lead to a condition called pellagra, which can have serious effects on the skin, digestive system, and nervous system.</li><li>➤ Niacin deficiency can be caused by:</li><li>➤ Dietary deficiency of tryptophan Dietary deficiency Vitamin B2 and B6 deficiency Carcinoid syndrome Hartnup’s disease</li><li>➤ Dietary deficiency of tryptophan</li><li>➤ Dietary deficiency Vitamin B2 and B6 deficiency</li><li>➤ Carcinoid syndrome</li><li>➤ Hartnup’s disease</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 534-535</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 534-535</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 80-year-old male patient presents with a PSA level of 7 ng/mL and a small tumor focus in prostate with a Gleason score of 6, what would be the most appropriate course of action for management?(NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radical prostatectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "External beam radiation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brachytherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Active surveillance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Active surveillance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Active surveillance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Active surveillance is an appropriate management strategy for older patients with low-risk prostate cancer, characterized by a Gleason score of 6, early-stage disease, small tumor volume, and low PSA levels. This approach minimizes unnecessary treatments and associated side effects, focusing on regular monitoring to detect any changes in the cancer's status.</li><li>➤ Active surveillance is an appropriate management strategy for older patients with low-risk prostate cancer, characterized by a Gleason score of 6, early-stage disease, small tumor volume, and low PSA levels.</li><li>➤ This approach minimizes unnecessary treatments and associated side effects, focusing on regular monitoring to detect any changes in the cancer's status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient presented with dark urine, which further blackens on exposure to air. What’s the enzyme defect in this case?(NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Di Hydroxy Phenyl Acetate Dioxygenase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Homogentisate Dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenyl alanine hydroxylase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Di Hydroxy Phenyl Acetate Dioxygenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Di Hydroxy Phenyl Acetate Dioxygenase</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 53-year-old gentleman presents with chest pain which is happening at rest. Pain is persistent for 3-5 minutes and he is having recurrent pain over the last 48 hours and he used 3 puffs of GTN to relieve his pain. His current medications include GTN PRN, Atorvastatin 20mg HS, Metoprolol 50mg BID, and Aspirin 75mg OD. His troponin was negative and ECG showed LVH with flattening of the ST segment. What is the most appropriate next step in management? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Add long-acting nitrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increase metoprolol dose to 100mg BID", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Add clopidogrel 75mg OD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start enoxaparin 1mg/kg s.c BD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Start enoxaparin 1mg/kg s.c BD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Start enoxaparin 1mg/kg s.c BD</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with high-risk unstable angina, especially those with recurrent chest pain at rest and ECG changes, initiating therapeutic anticoagulation with enoxaparin is a critical step in the acute management to prevent thrombus formation and progression to myocardial infarction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young child with congenital hydrocephalus was treated with a successful ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt. Four months post surgical repair, the child presented with fever, nuchal rigidity, and irritability. You suspect meningitis. What is the next best step? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Check shunt patency by nuclear study", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood culture and take CSF sample from shunt tap", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blood culture and take CSF sample by lumbar puncture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Blood culture and take CSF sample from shunt tap", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture154.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture2_fHYwSIb.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Blood culture and take CSF sample from shunt tap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The best step for a child with a VP shunt showing signs of meningitis is to perform a blood culture and obtain a CSF sample from the shunt tap.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is not a symptom of cocaine poisoning? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myocardial ischemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bradycardia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperthermia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Agitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bradycardia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/untitled-13587.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bradycardia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Cocaine poisoning typically causes increased heart rate (tachycardia) rather than bradycardia, along with other symptoms like myocardial ischemia, hyperthermia, and agitation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with pharyngitis. A swab was taken from his throat and sent for culture testing. After using the swab, which color-coded bin should it be disposed into? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "White", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-143326.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the active principle of the poison shown in the image? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ricin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bhilawanol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calotropin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bhilawanol", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/5_c0VeqpM.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bhilawanol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The active principle of the marking nut (Semicarpus anacardium) is Bhilawanol, used in traditional practices for its staining and toxic properties.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with a history of night-blindness presented to you with the following findings. What is the diagnosis? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phrynoderma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Keratoses pilaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Darier disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Follicular eczema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phrynoderma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/06/457.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Phrynoderma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The clinical presentation of a child with night blindness and multiple hyperkeratotic papules on the elbows , as depicted in the image, raises suspicion of a diagnosis called phrynoderma or toad-skin. This condition is often linked to a deficiency of vitamin A (VAD). It is characterized by the development of keratotic follicular papules , initially appearing on the anterolateral thighs and posterolateral upper arms , and subsequently spreading to the extensor surfaces of the extremities, shoulders, abdomen, back, buttocks, face, and posterior neck. While originally reported in association with vitamin A deficiency, phrynoderma is a non-specific finding that can also be observed in deficiencies of B-complex vitamins, vitamin C , vitamin E , essential fatty acids (EFA deficiency ), protein-energy malnutrition (PEM ), and general states of malnutrition.</li><li>• The clinical presentation of a child with night blindness and multiple hyperkeratotic papules on the elbows , as depicted in the image, raises suspicion of a diagnosis called phrynoderma or toad-skin. This condition is often linked to a deficiency of vitamin A (VAD).</li><li>• night blindness and multiple hyperkeratotic papules on the elbows</li><li>• phrynoderma or toad-skin.</li><li>• deficiency of vitamin A</li><li>• It is characterized by the development of keratotic follicular papules , initially appearing on the anterolateral thighs and posterolateral upper arms , and subsequently spreading to the extensor surfaces of the extremities, shoulders, abdomen, back, buttocks, face, and posterior neck.</li><li>• keratotic follicular papules</li><li>• initially appearing on the anterolateral thighs and posterolateral upper arms</li><li>• While originally reported in association with vitamin A deficiency, phrynoderma is a non-specific finding that can also be observed in deficiencies of B-complex vitamins, vitamin C , vitamin E , essential fatty acids (EFA deficiency ), protein-energy malnutrition (PEM ), and general states of malnutrition.</li><li>• B-complex</li><li>• vitamin C</li><li>• vitamin E</li><li>• essential fatty acids (EFA deficiency</li><li>• protein-energy malnutrition (PEM</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Keratosis pilaris:</li><li>• Option B. Keratosis pilaris:</li><li>• Description: Keratosis pilaris is a common, benign skin condition that manifests as tiny, rough-feeling bumps on the skin , often likened to \"chicken skin.\" It frequently occurs on the upper arms, thighs, or cheeks. It usually presents during puberty. Perifollicular erythema in addition to follicular plugging Favors the upper outer arms and the thighs, but lacks discrete clusters . Treatment is purely reserved for cosmetic purposes. Reason for exclusion from the diagnosis : While keratosis pilaris can appear on the upper arms close to the elbows, it's not specifically associated with night-blindness or vitamin A deficiency.</li><li>• Description: Keratosis pilaris is a common, benign skin condition that manifests as tiny, rough-feeling bumps on the skin , often likened to \"chicken skin.\" It frequently occurs on the upper arms, thighs, or cheeks.</li><li>• benign</li><li>• tiny, rough-feeling bumps on the skin</li><li>• \"chicken skin.\"</li><li>• upper arms, thighs, or cheeks.</li><li>• It usually presents during puberty. Perifollicular erythema in addition to follicular plugging</li><li>• Favors the upper outer arms and the thighs, but lacks discrete clusters . Treatment is purely reserved for cosmetic purposes.</li><li>• lacks discrete clusters</li><li>• Reason for exclusion from the diagnosis : While keratosis pilaris can appear on the upper arms close to the elbows, it's not specifically associated with night-blindness or vitamin A deficiency.</li><li>• Reason for exclusion from the diagnosis</li><li>• not</li><li>• night-blindness or vitamin A deficiency.</li><li>• Option C. Darier disease:</li><li>• Option C. Darier disease:</li><li>• Description: Darier disease is a rare, genetic skin disorder characterized by small, hard bumps on the skin, especially on the chest, back, and forehead . These may be yellowish in color and often have a foul odor . Reason for exclusion from the diagnosis While Darier disease causes papules, it is not associated with night-blindness. Other features of Darier disease are also not mentioned in the question.</li><li>• Description: Darier disease is a rare, genetic skin disorder characterized by small, hard bumps on the skin, especially on the chest, back, and forehead . These may be yellowish in color and often have a foul odor .</li><li>• rare, genetic</li><li>• hard bumps</li><li>• chest, back, and forehead</li><li>• yellowish in color and often have a foul odor</li><li>• Reason for exclusion from the diagnosis While Darier disease causes papules, it is not associated with night-blindness. Other features of Darier disease are also not mentioned in the question.</li><li>• Reason for exclusion from the diagnosis</li><li>• Option D. Follicular eczema:</li><li>• Option D. Follicular eczema:</li><li>• Description: This is a variant of eczema (atopic dermatitis) that specifically affects the hair follicles, leading to itchy, inflamed skin. Reasons it might not fit: Though follicular eczema can cause papules, the association with night-blindness is not seen . Eczema would typically be associated with itching and possibly a history of allergies or atopy.</li><li>• Description: This is a variant of eczema (atopic dermatitis) that specifically affects the hair follicles, leading to itchy, inflamed skin.</li><li>• eczema</li><li>• itchy, inflamed skin.</li><li>• Reasons it might not fit: Though follicular eczema can cause papules, the association with night-blindness is not seen . Eczema would typically be associated with itching and possibly a history of allergies or atopy.</li><li>• association</li><li>• night-blindness is not seen</li><li>• itching</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For medical students preparing for residency, it is crucial to associate the findings of follicular hyperkeratotic papules, especially when coupled with systemic symptoms such as night-blindness , with phrynoderma , a condition related to vitamin A deficiency.</li><li>➤ follicular hyperkeratotic</li><li>➤ systemic</li><li>➤ night-blindness</li><li>➤ phrynoderma</li><li>➤ vitamin A deficiency.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology 9th Edition Page no 63.8</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with abdominal pain and distension. An abdominal X-ray was done, as shown below. Identify the bowel segment involved? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jejunum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ileum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transverse colon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Jejunum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_IjIyhzy.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-170954.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-171023.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Jejunum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and X-ray are suggestive of intestinal obstruction where the involved segment is the jejunum. The obstructed bowel loops are centrally located and have valvulae conniventes (complete mucosal folds), indicating jejunal involvement.</li><li>• obstructed bowel loops are centrally located and have valvulae conniventes</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option. B. Ileum : Typically, ileal loops are located more peripherally and may show less prominent valvulae conniventes.</li><li>• Option. B. Ileum</li><li>• Option. C. Duodenum : Not usually seen as prominently distended in obstructions due to its fixed retroperitoneal location and smaller length.</li><li>• Option. C. Duodenum</li><li>• Option. D. Transverse colon : Would generally show haustrations (sacculations) rather than valvulae conniventes, and distension would be more peripherally located.</li><li>• Option. D. Transverse colon</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy presented with seizures. His past history is significant for an episode of fever with rash at 1 year of age which resolved spontaneously. What is the most helpful investigation to diagnose his condition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgG measles in CSF", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI mesial temporal lobe sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgM measles in CSF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D C1Q4 antibodies in the CSF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IgG measles in CSF", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture155.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IgG measles in CSF</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), elevated CSF anti-measles IgG antibodies are key for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis. She is prescribed metronidazole as part of her treatment plan. Which of the following should she avoid consuming while on this medication? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grapefruit juice", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Benzodiazepine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alcohol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alcohol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drugs that can cause disulfiram like reaction include:</li><li>➤ C yclic: C efoperazone, C hlorpropamide</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ G: G rieseofulvin</li><li>➤ G: G</li><li>➤ M: M etronidazole</li><li>➤ M: M</li><li>➤ P: P rocarbazine</li><li>➤ P: P</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following vitamin needs to be supplied in the diet of patients with Cystathionine beta synthase defect? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cysteine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methionine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Homocysteine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cysteine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cysteine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cystathionine beta synthase (CBS) is involved in the synthesis of cysteine from dietary methionine. Cysteine synthesis require methionine, serine and vitamin B6. The reactions are summarized in the diagram:</li><li>➤ So, in case of CBS deficiency there will be no formation of cystathionine and cysteine. so, cysteine becomes essential and needs to be taken in diet.</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 291</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 291</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of chronic ear infection presents with fever, headache, vomiting, irritability, and confusion. His CT brain is shown in the image below. What is the possible diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Temporal lobe abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cerebellar abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subdural abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Temporal lobe abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/3_zAxGJcU.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Temporal lobe abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Temporal lobe abscess is a serious complication of chronic ear infections that requires prompt recognition and aggressive treatment to prevent further neurological damage and potential life-threatening complications.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition pg 90, 91</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition pg 90, 91</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old patient was found to have uterus didelphys. Which of the following is not likely to be a complication of this uterine anomaly? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abortion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Preterm labor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transverse lie", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Transverse lie", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Transverse lie</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Transverse lie: Among the given options, transverse lie is not a likely complication of uterus didelphys. A transverse lie is more commonly associated with an arcuate or sub-septate uterus, rather than uterus didelphys. Uterus didelphys usually has a better reproductive outcome compared to other uterine anomalies, though it still presents with certain risks.</li><li>• Transverse lie:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Abortion: Spontaneous abortion is a potential complication associated with uterus didelphys due to the structural anomaly affecting the uterine environment.</li><li>• Option A. Abortion:</li><li>• Option B. Endometriosis: Endometriosis can occur in patients with uterus didelphys, particularly in the rare variant known as OHVIRA syndrome (Obstructed Hemi Vagina with Ipsilateral Renal Agenesis), where menstrual blood can become trapped, leading to retrograde menstruation and endometriosis.</li><li>• Option B. Endometriosis:</li><li>• Option C. Preterm labor: Preterm labor is a recognized complication in patients with uterus didelphys. The abnormal structure of the uterus can lead to difficulties in carrying the pregnancy to full term.</li><li>• Option C. Preterm labor:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uterus didelphys is associated with complications such as spontaneous abortion, preterm labor, and endometriosis, but it is less likely to cause a transverse lie, which is more common in arcuate or sub-septate uteri.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7231278/</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7231278/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient who is a diagnosed case of HNPCC, which of the following is the most common repair associated with it? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mismatch repair", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nucleotide excision repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Base excision repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Homologous recombinant repair", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mismatch repair", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-175723.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mismatch repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mismatch Repair (MMR) defect leads to Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC). This mechanism corrects errors that typically occur during DNA replication. Mutations in MMR genes result in microsatellite instability and contribute to the development of various cancers at an early age. In contrast, Homologous Repair (HR) defects are associated with other genetic disorders and cancers, including Bloom syndrome, Werner syndrome, breast cancer, and Ataxia-Telangiectasia like disorder.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Nucleotide excision repair: Incorrect for this context as it deals with the repair of bulky helix-distorting lesions caused by UV radiation and chemicals, leading to diseases like Xeroderma pigmentosum.</li><li>• Option B. Nucleotide excision repair:</li><li>• Option C. Base excision repair: Incorrect as it fixes small non-helix-distorting bases caused by spontaneous or induced changes, leading to conditions like MUTYH-associated polyposis when defective.</li><li>• Option C. Base excision repair:</li><li>• Option D. Homologous recombinant repair: Incorrect for HNPCC. It repairs double-strand breaks or interstrand cross-links in DNA, not typically involved in the pathogenesis of HNPCC.</li><li>• Option D. Homologous recombinant repair:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/pg. 370</li><li>➤ Ref - Harper 31 st e/pg. 370</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be prescribed in case of an open angle glaucoma with bronchial asthma? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Timolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gemeprost", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Latanoprost", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mannitol infusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Latanoprost", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Latanoprost</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Latanoprost, a prostaglandin F2α analog, is safe and effective for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma in patients with bronchial asthma, as it does not cause bronchospasm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 76-year-old man presented with generalized weakness, which increased towards the evening and improved with 5-10 minutes of rest in between. On examination, he also had ptosis and some difficulty in swallowing. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myasthenia Gravis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peripheral Neuropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Myasthenia Gravis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Myasthenia Gravis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by fluctuating muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Key clinical features include ptosis, difficulty swallowing, and generalized weakness with a diurnal variation.</li><li>➤ Most sensitive diagnosis is supported by single fiber EMG and most specific investigation is antibody tests, such as acetylcholine receptor antibodies and anti-muscle specific kinase antibodies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the nerve involved in this test: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior interosseous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Musculocutaneous nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Median nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/21/4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/picture82.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/2_3KvbJyu.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/03/4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Median nerve</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old Farmer on maize diet with diarrhoea, dementia, and dermatitis. Which Vitamin is deficient in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Niacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The major protein of Maize, “Zein” lacks tryptophan which is required for Niacin biosynthesis. 60 mg of tryptophan gives 1 mg of Niacin in the body. So, pellagra is more common when maize is the staple diet due to decreased synthesis of Niacin. Pellagra is characterized by 3Ds i.e. diarrhoea, dementia and dermatitis. Death and delirium and depression can also occur.</li><li>➤ Pellagra can also be caused due to Isoniazid therapy as isoniazid inhibits PLP (B6) formation which in turn is required for Niacin synthesis. Vitamin B2 is also required for Niacin synthesis, so, a deficiency either of B2 or B6 or both can cause pellagra.</li><li>➤ Thiamine (B1) deficiency leads to Beri-Beri. CNS and CVS are affected in dry Beri-Beri and wet Beri-Beri respectively.</li><li>➤ Main symptoms of Riboflavin deficiency are Cheilosis, Glossitis and Corneal vascularization.</li><li>➤ Pyridoxine deficiency cause anemia (microcytic, hypochromic) and seizures in infants.</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 534-535</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 534-535</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which entity is responsible for managing the school health programs? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary health center", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "District hospital", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sub-centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sub-divisional hospital", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Primary health center", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Primary health center</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary Health Centers (PHCs) are responsible for managing school health programs in India, providing a range of health services to ensure the well-being of school children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old male presented to the outpatient department with gum bleeding and fever for the past 2 months. General examination showed pallor and the systemic examination was unremarkable. Laboratory examination revealed Hb level- 3 gm/dI, TLC-1500/microL, platelet count - 15000/microL. Peripheral smear shows macrocytes and the reticulocyte count is 0.5. Bone marrow examination revealed fatty streaks and absent megakaryocytes but no immature cells. What is the likely diagnosis? (Hb- Hemoglobin, TLC- Total leucocyte count)? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Idiopathic acquired aplastic anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myelodysplastic syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Idiopathic acquired aplastic anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Idiopathic acquired aplastic anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Causes of pancytopenia</li><li>➤ Causes of pancytopenia</li><li>➤ I. Aplastic anemia</li><li>➤ II. Pancytopenia with normal or increased marrow cellularity</li><li>➤ e.g.</li><li>➤ Myelodysplastic syndromes Hypersplenism Megaloblastic anemia</li><li>➤ Myelodysplastic syndromes</li><li>➤ Hypersplenism</li><li>➤ Megaloblastic anemia</li><li>➤ III. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria</li><li>➤ IV. Bone marrow infiltrations</li><li>➤ e.g:</li><li>➤ Hematologic malignancies (leukemias, lymphomas, myeloma) Non-hematologic metastatic malignancies Storage diseases Osteopetrosis Myelofibrosis</li><li>➤ Hematologic malignancies (leukemias, lymphomas, myeloma)</li><li>➤ Non-hematologic metastatic malignancies</li><li>➤ Storage diseases</li><li>➤ Osteopetrosis</li><li>➤ Myelofibrosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What among the options serves as a factor that conditions to the development of malnutrition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Child rearing", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infectious diseases", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Food habits", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Socioeconomic factors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Infectious diseases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-142021.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Infectious diseases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A bubonic outbreak has occurred within the community. What is the responsible vector for this condition? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Xenopsylla cheopis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phlebotomus argentipes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ixodes tick", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Female Anopheles mosquito", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Xenopsylla cheopis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/70.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Xenopsylla cheopis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Xenopsylla cheopis (rat flea) is the primary vector responsible for transmitting the bubonic plague, caused by Yersinia pestis. Understanding the vector and transmission routes is crucial for controlling and preventing outbreaks.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old G4A3 woman had a history of miscarriage at 8 weeks, the second miscarriage at 11 weeks with no cardiac activity, and the third pregnancy loss at 24 weeks with preterm delivery due to early-onset preeclampsia. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "TORCH infections", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gestational diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome:</li><li>• Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome:</li><li>• The patient's history of recurrent pregnancy loss (RPL) and a pregnancy complicated by early-onset preeclampsia is highly suggestive of Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (APLA). APLA is diagnosed based on clinical and laboratory criteria. The clinical criteria include obstetric complications such as unexplained fetal death, severe preeclampsia necessitating early delivery, and recurrent early pregnancy losses. Vascular thrombosis is also a clinical criterion. Laboratory criteria include the presence of lupus anticoagulant, medium to high titers of anticardiolipin antibodies, and anti-β2 glycoprotein antibodies. These must be present on two or more occasions at least 12 weeks apart. The Sapporo Criteria for diagnosing APLA require at least one clinical and one laboratory criterion to be present.</li><li>• The patient's history of recurrent pregnancy loss (RPL) and a pregnancy complicated by early-onset preeclampsia is highly suggestive of Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (APLA).</li><li>• APLA is diagnosed based on clinical and laboratory criteria. The clinical criteria include obstetric complications such as unexplained fetal death, severe preeclampsia necessitating early delivery, and recurrent early pregnancy losses. Vascular thrombosis is also a clinical criterion.</li><li>• Laboratory criteria include the presence of lupus anticoagulant, medium to high titers of anticardiolipin antibodies, and anti-β2 glycoprotein antibodies. These must be present on two or more occasions at least 12 weeks apart.</li><li>• The Sapporo Criteria for diagnosing APLA require at least one clinical and one laboratory criterion to be present.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Syphilis: Although syphilis can cause adverse pregnancy outcomes, including miscarriage and stillbirth, it is less likely than APLA to cause the combination of early pregnancy loss and early-onset preeclampsia described in this case.</li><li>• Option A. Syphilis:</li><li>• Option C. TORCH infections: TORCH infections (Toxoplasmosis, Other agents, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus) can lead to congenital anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, and pregnancy loss. However, recurrent pregnancy loss due to TORCH infections is rare.</li><li>• Option C. TORCH infections:</li><li>• Option D. Gestational diabetes mellitus: Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) typically affects pregnancies later in gestation and is associated with macrosomia, neonatal hypoglycemia, and other complications, but it is not commonly associated with recurrent pregnancy loss or early-onset preeclampsia.</li><li>• Option D. Gestational diabetes mellitus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is characterized by recurrent pregnancy loss and complications such as early-onset preeclampsia, necessitating early delivery. Diagnosis is based on the presence of clinical and laboratory criteria according to the Sapporo Criteria.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2550, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2550, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents with a noticeable bulge in his lower abdomen that becomes more pronounced when he's in a standing position. Upon examination, hernia is identified located medial to the inferior epigastric artery. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what would be the appropriate management? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Direct hernia and Bassini repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Direct hernia and Lichtenstein mesh repair", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indirect hernia and Bassini repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Indirect hernia and Lichtenstein mesh repair", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Direct hernia and Lichtenstein mesh repair", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Direct hernia and Lichtenstein mesh repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A direct inguinal hernia is characterized by its location medial to the inferior epigastric artery, and the Lichtenstein mesh repair is the recommended surgical approach due to its efficacy and lower recurrence rates.</li><li>➤ A direct inguinal hernia is characterized by its location medial to the inferior epigastric artery, and the Lichtenstein mesh repair is the recommended surgical approach due to its efficacy and lower recurrence rates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old patient presented with chronic low back pain and early morning stiffness since last 2 years, which is also associated with bilateral heel pain. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TB spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mechanical back pain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prolapsed intervertebral disc", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ankylosing spondylitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture62.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture63.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture64.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture65.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ankylosing spondylitis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "This multienzyme complex converts Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA. Identify E1 and E2: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E1: Pyruvate dehydrogenase E2: Dihydrolipoyl Transacetylase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "E1: Pyruvate Decarboxylase E2: Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "E1: Pyruvate carboxylase E2: Dihydrolipoyl Transacetylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "E1: Pyruvate dehydrogenase E2: Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. E1: Pyruvate dehydrogenase E2: Dihydrolipoyl Transacetylase", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-180124.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-180521.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) E1: Pyruvate dehydrogenase E2: Dihydrolipoyl Transacetylase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• The provided images depict the components and functioning of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, a key multienzyme complex in the metabolic pathway that converts pyruvate into acetyl-CoA, an essential step linking glycolysis to the citric acid cycle. This complex requires vitamins B1, B2, B3, B5, and lipoic acid as cofactors.</li><li>• Table: Components of PDH complex and their roles</li><li>• Table: Components of PDH complex and their roles</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Pyruvate Decarboxylase and Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase: Incorrect as Pyruvate Decarboxylase is not involved in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA in this context, and Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase is the E3 component of the complex.</li><li>• Option B. Pyruvate Decarboxylase and Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase:</li><li>• Option C. Pyruvate carboxylase and Dihydrolipoyl Transacetylase: Incorrect because Pyruvate carboxylase is involved in a different metabolic pathway (gluconeogenesis), not in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA.</li><li>• Option C. Pyruvate carboxylase and Dihydrolipoyl Transacetylase:</li><li>• Option D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase and Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase: Incorrect as the second enzyme is E3 in this complex, not E2.</li><li>• Option D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase and Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref-Harper 31 st e/pg. 162</li><li>➤ Ref-Harper 31 st e/pg. 162</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a fall from height. The patient reports no pain or injury, but on examination, there is blood at the tip of the urethral meatus. The patient is hemodynamically stable with no other injuries. The next step in management would be? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Foley's catheterization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ascending urethrogram", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nephrogram", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Suprapubic cystostomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ascending urethrogram", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ascending urethrogram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To confirm urethral rupture in a patient with suspected urethral injury, an ascending urethrogram is the next step in management. Foley's catheterization should be avoided as it may exacerbate the injury.</li><li>➤ To confirm urethral rupture in a patient with suspected urethral injury, an ascending urethrogram is the next step in management.</li><li>➤ Foley's catheterization should be avoided as it may exacerbate the injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After abstaining from alcohol for three days, a patient presented with irritability, disorientation, paranoid delusions, agitation, visual hallucinations, and altered sensorium. In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delirium tremens", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wernicke's encephalopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Korsakoff psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alcohol induced psychosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Delirium tremens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Delirium tremens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) typically presents 48-72 hours after the last drink and is characterized by disturbances of consciousness, disorientation to time, place, and person, hallucinations (especially visual), agitation, coarse tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. Risk factors include surgery, infections or other medical conditions. It is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Treatment includes intravenous lorazepam or diazepam with thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 276-277.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old female patient is diagnosed with pure red cell aplasia and a mediastinal mass. Which of the following can be the likely cause? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thymoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non-Hodgkin lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bronchogenic Carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Germ cell tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thymoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thymoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thymoma is the most likely cause of a mediastinal mass in a patient with pure red cell aplasia. PRCA is characterized by a selective deficiency of erythroid precursors in the bone marrow, leading to severe anemia with normal granulocyte and platelet counts, and is often associated with thymoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 21-year-old primigravida presents to the antenatal OPD. Her school going nephew who lives in the same house has contracted varicella. A blood sample is taken for Antibodies against varicella. The report is negative. What does this signify? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Susceptible to chicken pox", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immune to chickenpox", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Susceptible to zoster", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immune to zoster", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Susceptible to chicken pox", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Susceptible to chicken pox</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chickenpox in Pregnancy:</li><li>• Chickenpox in Pregnancy:</li><li>• Pregnant women with uncertain or no previous history of chickenpox, who have been exposed to the infection, should have a blood test to determine their immunity to Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV). A negative antibody test indicates that the woman is not immune to VZV and is susceptible to chickenpox. If a pregnant woman is not immune and has had significant exposure, she is at risk of developing chickenpox and should be administered varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). VZIG is effective up to 10 days after contact. Symptomatic treatment of chickenpox in pregnancy includes: Oral Acyclovir if within 24 hours of the onset of the rash and if the gestational age is greater than 20 weeks. Intravenous Acyclovir should be given to all pregnant women with severe chickenpox. VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once chickenpox has started. Women who develop chickenpox in pregnancy should be referred to a fetal medicine specialist at 16–20 weeks or 5 weeks after infection to look for congenital varicella syndrome. If the infection occurs in the last 4 weeks of pregnancy, there is a risk of varicella infection in the newborn. Planned delivery should normally be avoided for at least 7 days after the onset of the maternal rash to allow for the passive transfer of antibodies from mother to child.</li><li>• Pregnant women with uncertain or no previous history of chickenpox, who have been exposed to the infection, should have a blood test to determine their immunity to Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV).</li><li>• A negative antibody test indicates that the woman is not immune to VZV and is susceptible to chickenpox.</li><li>• If a pregnant woman is not immune and has had significant exposure, she is at risk of developing chickenpox and should be administered varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG).</li><li>• VZIG is effective up to 10 days after contact.</li><li>• Symptomatic treatment of chickenpox in pregnancy includes: Oral Acyclovir if within 24 hours of the onset of the rash and if the gestational age is greater than 20 weeks. Intravenous Acyclovir should be given to all pregnant women with severe chickenpox.</li><li>• Oral Acyclovir if within 24 hours of the onset of the rash and if the gestational age is greater than 20 weeks. Intravenous Acyclovir should be given to all pregnant women with severe chickenpox.</li><li>• Oral Acyclovir if within 24 hours of the onset of the rash and if the gestational age is greater than 20 weeks.</li><li>• Intravenous Acyclovir should be given to all pregnant women with severe chickenpox.</li><li>• VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once chickenpox has started.</li><li>• Women who develop chickenpox in pregnancy should be referred to a fetal medicine specialist at 16–20 weeks or 5 weeks after infection to look for congenital varicella syndrome.</li><li>• If the infection occurs in the last 4 weeks of pregnancy, there is a risk of varicella infection in the newborn. Planned delivery should normally be avoided for at least 7 days after the onset of the maternal rash to allow for the passive transfer of antibodies from mother to child.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Immune to chickenpox: A negative antibody test does not signify immunity; it signifies susceptibility.</li><li>• Option B. Immune to chickenpox:</li><li>• Option C. Susceptible to zoster: Varicella-zoster virus causes both chickenpox (primary infection) and shingles (reactivation). A negative test for varicella antibodies indicates susceptibility to the primary infection (chickenpox), not to shingles.</li><li>• Option C. Susceptible to zoster:</li><li>• Option D. Immune to zoster: Immunity to zoster would imply prior exposure to the varicella-zoster virus, which is not indicated by a negative varicella antibody test.</li><li>• Option D. Immune to zoster:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A negative varicella antibody test in a pregnant woman indicates that she is susceptible to chickenpox and should receive VZIG if exposed.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 3085, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 3085, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child presented with recurrent pulmonary infections and bulky greasy stools. Quantitative estimation of the stool fat was more than 10g/day. Which of the following will be seen in this child? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Protein losing enteropathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Distal intestinal obstruction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypernatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rectal prolapse occurs after treatment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Distal intestinal obstruction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Distal intestinal obstruction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In children with cystic fibrosis, recurrent pulmonary infections and steatorrhea are common, and one of the significant gastrointestinal complications is distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS). This condition should be considered in CF patients presenting with symptoms of intestinal obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. On examination, he is noted to have subcutaneous emphysema and decreased breath sounds on the right side. His vital signs are unstable. What is the immediate management for this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Insertion of wide bore needle in the 5th intercostal space (ICS)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV fluids for resuscitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intubation and positive pressure ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "e-FAST", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Insertion of wide bore needle in the 5th intercostal space (ICS)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Insertion of wide bore needle in the 5th intercostal space (ICS)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected tension pneumothorax, immediate needle decompression in the 5th intercostal space is the priority to relieve trapped air and stabilize the patient before further interventions.</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected tension pneumothorax, immediate needle decompression in the 5th intercostal space is the priority to relieve trapped air and stabilize the patient before further interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is presenting with palpable blanching purpura, abdominal pain, and pain in the knee joint resulting from arthritis. Urine examination showed hematuria and proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immune thrombocytopenic purpura", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Churg- Strauss syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Henoch-Schonlein purpura", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Henoch-Schonlein purpura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Henoch-Schonlein purpura is characterized by the presence of palpable purpura, abdominal pain, arthritis, and renal involvement, typically manifesting as hematuria and proteinuria. It is a small vessel vasculitis most commonly affecting children and is distinguished by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in affected tissues.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged man with chronic renal failure on dialysis presents with sudden collapse to the casualty with labored breathing. ECG shows tall tented T waves. What is the most likely acid-base imbalance that can be seen in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "pH- 7.14, pCO2- 20 mm Hg, HCO3-5 mEq/L", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "pH- 7.14, pCO2- 20 mm Hg, HCO3- 34 mEq/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "pH - 7.54, HCO3 - 27 mEq/L, pCO2-34 mm Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "pH- 7.4, HCO3 - 27 mEq/L, pCO2- 40 mm Hg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. pH- 7.14, pCO2- 20 mm Hg, HCO3-5 mEq/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. pH- 7.14, pCO2- 20 mm Hg, HCO3-5 mEq/L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with chronic renal failure are at risk for high anion gap metabolic acidosis. In cases of sudden collapse with labored breathing and ECG changes like tall tented T waves, metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis is the most likely diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old woman on oral contraceptives for the past 6 months presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhea. What would be the best method of assessing the gestational age of this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crown rump length by USG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adding 280 days to the LMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fundus examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adding 256 days to the LMP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Crown rump length by USG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Crown rump length by USG</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Crown-Rump Length (CRL) by Ultrasound:</li><li>• Crown-Rump Length (CRL) by Ultrasound:</li><li>• The most accurate method for determining gestational age in the first trimester is by measuring the Crown-Rump Length (CRL) on ultrasound. This method is reliable as it directly measures the embryo or fetus and provides a precise gestational age.</li><li>• The most accurate method for determining gestational age in the first trimester is by measuring the Crown-Rump Length (CRL) on ultrasound. This method is reliable as it directly measures the embryo or fetus and provides a precise gestational age.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Adding 280 days to the Last Menstrual Period (LMP):</li><li>• Option B. Adding 280 days to the Last Menstrual Period (LMP):</li><li>• This method, known as Naegele’s rule, is commonly used but assumes a regular 28-day menstrual cycle and may not be accurate for women with irregular cycles or those using contraceptives. It is less reliable in this patient who has been on oral contraceptives, which can alter the regularity of menstrual cycles.</li><li>• This method, known as Naegele’s rule, is commonly used but assumes a regular 28-day menstrual cycle and may not be accurate for women with irregular cycles or those using contraceptives.</li><li>• It is less reliable in this patient who has been on oral contraceptives, which can alter the regularity of menstrual cycles.</li><li>• Option C. Fundus Examination:</li><li>• Option C. Fundus Examination:</li><li>• Palpation of the uterine fundus is a physical examination method to estimate gestational age. However, it is less accurate in the first trimester and typically used in the second and third trimesters.</li><li>• Palpation of the uterine fundus is a physical examination method to estimate gestational age. However, it is less accurate in the first trimester and typically used in the second and third trimesters.</li><li>• Option D. Adding 256 days to the LMP:</li><li>• Option D. Adding 256 days to the LMP:</li><li>• This method is not standard practice and is less commonly used compared to adding 280 days to the LMP. It would be even less reliable in this patient who has been on oral contraceptives.</li><li>• This method is not standard practice and is less commonly used compared to adding 280 days to the LMP.</li><li>• It would be even less reliable in this patient who has been on oral contraceptives.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most accurate method for determining gestational age in the first trimester is the measurement of Crown-Rump Length (CRL) on ultrasound.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 475, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 475, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and is about to begin antitubercular therapy (ATT) that includes rifampicin. She is currently taking oral contraceptives (OCP) for birth control. The clinician advises her to use an additional barrier method of contraception while undergoing treatment. What is the primary reason for this recommendation? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To prevent teratogenic effects", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To avoid failure of ATT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Because rifampicin can decrease OCP metabolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Because rifampicin can induce OCP metabolism and cause failure", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Because rifampicin can induce OCP metabolism and cause failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Rifampicin is known to induce hepatic enzymes that speed up the metabolism of various drugs, including oral contraceptives. This can lead to lower blood levels of the hormones in OCPs, thereby reducing their efficacy and increasing the risk of contraceptive failure. Hence, it is advised for patients on both medications to use an additional barrier method of contraception.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with weakness, anemia, bony pain &amp; hepatosplenomegaly. A histological picture is shown with cells in bone marrow. Which of the following enzyme is deficient?(NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose 6 phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gluco-Cerebrosidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hexosaminidase A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Beta-Galactosidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Gluco-Cerebrosidase", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Gluco-Cerebrosidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gluco-Cerebrosidase, is associated with Gaucher's disease, a rare inherited metabolic disorder characterized by the accumulation of harmful quantities of glucosylceramide due to the deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase. Gaucher's disease can lead to the symptoms described, including hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, and bony pain.</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 235</li><li>➤ Ref -Harper 31 st e/pg. 235</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is not responding well to conventional treatment. Her rheumatologist is considering adding tocilizumab to her treatment regimen. Which of the following interleukins (IL) is primarily targeted by tocilizumab? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IL-6", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IL-2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IL-4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IL-5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. IL-6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) IL-6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tocilizumab targets the IL-6 receptor, making it effective for managing rheumatoid arthritis and certain other inflammatory conditions by inhibiting the IL-6 signaling pathway.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An industrial worker was admitted to the hospital after an eye injury sustained while cutting stone with a hammer and iron chisel. A foreign body was suspected to be impacted in his eye. Which investigation can be detrimental to this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "B mode scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MRI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. MRI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MRI is contraindicated for patients with suspected metallic foreign bodies in the eye due to the risk of movement and further injury caused by the magnetic fields.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male complained of gradual swelling around the wrist for 3 months. X-ray is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Giant cell tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteoid osteoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ewing’s sarcoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Giant cell tumor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/26/untitled-1367960.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture59.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture60.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture61.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Giant cell tumor</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation with a controlled ventricular rate. The medication charts reveal that he was taking digoxin, potassium chloride, clarithromycin, atenolol, and triamterene. Suspecting the symptoms to be due to digoxin overdose, plasma levels of digoxin were ordered. It was found that his blood levels of digoxin have increased significantly. Which of his medications is most likely responsible for this increase in digoxin levels? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Potassium chloride", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clarithromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atenolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Triamterene", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Clarithromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Clarithromycin.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clarithromycin can significantly increase plasma levels of digoxin by inhibiting its metabolism through the cytochrome P450 system and by inhibiting P-glycoprotein, leading to an increased risk of digoxin toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old married woman who came for the evaluation of infertility was found to have a septum in her uterine cavity. What would be the appropriate management of this case? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laparoscopy and metroplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hysteroscopy and septoplasty", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laparotomy and metroplasty", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hysteroscopy and septoplasty", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hysteroscopy and septoplasty</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hysteroscopy and septoplasty:</li><li>• Hysteroscopy and septoplasty:</li><li>• Uterine septum is a Mullerian anomaly where the uterine cavity is completely or partially separated by a septum. This can lead to infertility, recurrent abortions, preterm labor, fetal growth restriction, malpresentations, and retained placenta. The diagnosis of a uterine septum can be confirmed through hysterosalpingography (HSG), 3D ultrasound, MRI, or hysteroscopy. Hysteroscopy is the gold standard for both diagnosis and treatment. Hysteroscopic resection (septoplasty) is the appropriate management as it involves minimally invasive surgery to remove the septum, which improves reproductive outcomes.</li><li>• Uterine septum is a Mullerian anomaly where the uterine cavity is completely or partially separated by a septum. This can lead to infertility, recurrent abortions, preterm labor, fetal growth restriction, malpresentations, and retained placenta.</li><li>• The diagnosis of a uterine septum can be confirmed through hysterosalpingography (HSG), 3D ultrasound, MRI, or hysteroscopy. Hysteroscopy is the gold standard for both diagnosis and treatment.</li><li>• Hysteroscopic resection (septoplasty) is the appropriate management as it involves minimally invasive surgery to remove the septum, which improves reproductive outcomes.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Hysterectomy: Hysterectomy, the removal of the uterus, is not an appropriate management for a uterine septum in a woman desiring fertility. This would completely eliminate her ability to conceive and carry a pregnancy.</li><li>• Option A. Hysterectomy:</li><li>• Option B. Laparoscopy and metroplasty: While laparoscopy can be used to visualize the external uterine anatomy, metroplasty (surgical correction of the uterus) is better performed via hysteroscopy for a uterine septum. Laparoscopy is more invasive and not the first-line approach for this condition.</li><li>• Option B. Laparoscopy and metroplasty:</li><li>• Option D. Laparotomy and metroplasty: Laparotomy is an open surgical procedure that involves a larger incision in the abdomen. This approach is unnecessarily invasive for the correction of a uterine septum, which can be effectively managed with a less invasive hysteroscopic approach.</li><li>• Option D. Laparotomy and metroplasty:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The appropriate management of a uterine septum, especially in a woman seeking fertility, is hysteroscopic resection (septoplasty), which involves minimally invasive surgery to remove the septum and improve reproductive outcomes.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 47, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 47, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male patient presents with a complaint of fatigue persisting for the past year, accompanied by massive splenomegaly. A comprehensive blood workup has been performed, revealing several notable findings. The patient exhibits anemia and a significantly elevated total leukocyte count of 50,000/microL. Further analysis of the peripheral blood smear shows the presence of neutrophils (60%), basophils (4%), eosinophils, and myoblasts, myelocytes, and metamyelocytes. Additionally, the myeloid to erythroid ratio is found to be 18:1. Which investigation would be the most sensitive for further evaluation in this case: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immunophenotyping", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LAP score", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FISH and PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flow cytometry", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. FISH and PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/5_iKbgTlq.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/picture10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) FISH and PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) are the most sensitive investigations for detecting the BCR-ABL fusion gene, the hallmark of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). These tests are crucial for accurate diagnosis and monitoring of CML.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was started on antihypertensive drugs. Few days later, the patient presented with the following picture. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lisinopril", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nifedipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atenolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clonidine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lisinopril", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/04/1_SqCWkWZ.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lisinopril</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Side effects of ACE-Inhibitors are:-</li><li>➤ Side effects of ACE-Inhibitors are:-</li><li>➤ Angioedema Cough Taste disturbances (Dysguesia) Orthostatic hypotension Hyperkalemia They are contraindicated in Pregnancy and in patients with B/L Renal artery stenosis.</li><li>➤ Angioedema</li><li>➤ Cough</li><li>➤ Taste disturbances (Dysguesia)</li><li>➤ Orthostatic hypotension</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia</li><li>➤ They are contraindicated in Pregnancy and in patients with B/L Renal artery stenosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presented to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that had been ongoing for the past 24 hours. He reported that he had been consuming alcohol heavily for the past few weeks. The physical examination revealed tenderness in the upper abdomen with no visible signs of jaundice. Pancreatitis was suspected, and a CT scan was performed, which revealed lesions with fluid collected near the body of the pancreas. The patient was started on appropriate treatment, and blood tests were ordered to help diagnose the condition. Which enzyme is most likely to be elevated in this scenario? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum GGT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CEA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum lipase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum bilirubin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serum lipase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Serum lipase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serum lipase is the most specific enzyme for diagnosing acute pancreatitis, especially in cases related to alcohol consumption. It rises within 12 to 24 hours of pancreatic injury and remains elevated for 7-14 days, making it a crucial diagnostic marker for this condition.</li><li>➤ Serum lipase is the most specific enzyme for diagnosing acute pancreatitis, especially in cases related to alcohol consumption.</li><li>➤ It rises within 12 to 24 hours of pancreatic injury and remains elevated for 7-14 days, making it a crucial diagnostic marker for this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman who underwent dilatation and curettage for molar pregnancy 6 months ago presents with persistent symptoms of abdominal pain and distention. On further evaluation, the beta- hCG levels were persistently elevated and cannonball foci were found on the chest X-ray. What is the appropriate management in this case? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methotrexate with folinic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EMACO regimen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hysterectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methotrexate with folinic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Methotrexate with folinic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Methotrexate with folinic acid: This is a clear case of post-molar choriocarcinoma with lung metastases. Treatment is based on prognostication and staging. According to the given scoring system, the parameters such as the time interval since the antecedent pregnancy, beta-hCG levels, and the presence of lung metastases suggest a low-risk choriocarcinoma. For low-risk choriocarcinoma, the recommended treatment is multi-dose single-agent chemotherapy with methotrexate. Methotrexate is administered in a multi-dose regimen (Day 1, 3, 5, 7) alternating with folinic acid (Day 2, 4, 6, 8).</li><li>• Methotrexate with folinic acid:</li><li>• &lt; 6: LOW RISK &gt; 7 HIGH RISK</li><li>• &lt; 6: LOW RISK</li><li>• &gt; 7 HIGH RISK</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option B. Methotrexate: Methotrexate alone might be considered for very low-risk cases. However, in this case, with persistent elevated beta-hCG levels and lung metastases, a multi-dose regimen along with folinic acid is preferred to enhance efficacy and reduce toxicity.</li><li>• Option B. Methotrexate:</li><li>• Option C. EMACO regimen: The EMACO regimen, which includes etoposide, methotrexate, actinomycin D, cyclophosphamide, and vincristine, is used for high-risk choriocarcinoma. This patient's score indicates a low-risk profile, making EMACO unnecessary and more toxic than needed.</li><li>• Option C. EMACO regimen:</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy: Hysterectomy is not the first line of treatment for choriocarcinoma, especially in the context of low-risk metastatic disease. It may be considered in cases of heavy bleeding or when the disease is confined to the uterus and chemotherapy is not effective.</li><li>• Option D. Hysterectomy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Low-risk choriocarcinoma post-molar pregnancy with lung metastases is treated with a multi-dose regimen of methotrexate alternating with folinic acid</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 789, Williams Gynecology, 3 rd edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 789, Williams Gynecology, 3 rd edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the emergency with epistaxis. There was no relief on pinching the nostrils. Nasal packing was done but the patient still continues to bleed. What would be the next appropriate step in the management of this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ligation of external carotid artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ligation of internal carotid artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ligation of sphenopalatine artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ligation of maxillary artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ligation of sphenopalatine artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/2_V1ZM7fV.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ligation of sphenopalatine artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sphenopalatine artery ligation is a highly effective surgical procedure for controlling severe or refractory epistaxis after more conservative measures have failed. This approach targets a primary blood supply to the nasal cavity, significantly reducing the risk of further bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with occupational exposure to benzene presents with repeated infections, easy fatigability, weight loss, and evening rise of temperature. This occupational exposure will predispose him to which of the following cancers? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leukemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lung cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bladder cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leukemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Leukemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Occupational exposure to benzene predisposes individuals to leukemia, as benzene metabolites disrupt bone marrow progenitor cell differentiation, leading to marrow aplasia and various types of leukemia. The clinical presentation of repeated infections, easy fatigability, weight loss, and evening rise of temperature in a patient with benzene exposure is highly suggestive of leukemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male presented with substernal chest discomfort. On examination, he was hypotensive, drowsy, and had unequal pulses. Which of the following investigations would be the best in this situation to ascertain the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CXR PA view", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trans-esophageal echocardiography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Troponin assay", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trans-esophageal echocardiography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Trans-esophageal echocardiography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the setting of suspected aortic dissection, especially in an unstable patient, trans-esophageal echocardiography (TEE) is the best diagnostic tool due to its high sensitivity and ability to be performed at the bedside, providing rapid and accurate confirmation of the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of injury from the picture given below: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laceration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incised wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lacerated looking incised wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incised looking lacerated wound", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Incised looking lacerated wound", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/2_k8Mg0qq.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Incised looking lacerated wound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An incised looking lacerated wound is caused by blunt force trauma but appears similar to an incised wound due to its location and the characteristics of the tissue involved.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male patient visits you with inflammatory alopecia. This type of hair loss is commonly associated with which variant of tinea capitis infection? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endothrix and Favus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ectothrix and Endothrix", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Favus and Kerion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kerion and Endothrix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Favus and Kerion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-114017.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1337_bGJhcqw.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-114216.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Favus and Kerion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inflammatory alopecia is commonly associated with the favus and kerion variants of tinea capitis , which can cause scarrin g and permanent hair loss due to the significant inflammatory response.</li><li>➤ Inflammatory alopecia</li><li>➤ favus and kerion</li><li>➤ tinea capitis</li><li>➤ scarrin</li><li>➤ permanent hair loss</li><li>➤ inflammatory response.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A software engineer presents to the outpatient department with easy fatigability. He gives a history of sitting in front of the computer for 12 - 14 hours. He consumes a lot of junk food with very less fruits and vegetables. Hb is 9gm/dl and MCV 120 fl. What is the most likely cause of this patient's anemia? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyanocobalamin deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Folic acid deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hereditary spherocytosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Folic acid deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Folic acid deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most likely cause of anemia in this patient, given the elevated MCV and dietary habits lacking in fruits and vegetables, is folic acid deficiency. Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency presents with macrocytic red blood cells and can be confirmed by dietary history and characteristic blood smear findings.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents with numbness of her fingertips. On examination, her face is tightened. The antinuclear antibody (ANA) is found to be positive and immunofluorescence shows the nucleolar pattern. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic sclerosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sjogren's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Systemic sclerosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Systemic sclerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is associated with positive ANA with a nucleolar pattern, skin tightening, and symptoms like Raynaud's phenomenon. This combination of clinical findings and specific antibody patterns helps in diagnosing systemic sclerosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient developed atonic postpartum hemorrhage after a normal vaginal delivery. She was shifted to the OT and the obstetrician planned ligation of vessels to arrest the bleeding. What is the order of ligation of the blood vessels supplying the uterus? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterine artery - Ovarian artery - Internal iliac artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine artery - Ovarian artery- External iliac artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uterine artery - Ovarian artery - Vaginal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterine artery - pudendal artery - Vaginal artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Uterine artery - Ovarian artery - Internal iliac artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Uterine artery – Ovarian artery – Internal iliac artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The stepwise devascularization approach for managing atonic postpartum hemorrhage includes ligation of the uterine arteries, ovarian arteries, and anterior division of the internal iliac arteries in that specific order.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2023, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 2023, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a seizure. On evaluation, urine osmolality is 1000 mOsm/Kg and serum osmolality is 270 mOsm/Kg. Which electrolyte abnormality can be expected in this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypernatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyponatremia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hyponatremia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hyponatremia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients presenting with low serum osmolality and high urine osmolality, SIADH is a likely diagnosis, and the primary electrolyte abnormality to expect is hyponatremia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient admitted with 50% burns develops an infection at the burn site. The swab was cultured, the isolate is a strict aerobe and the test that is shown in the image is positive. What is the likely etiology of the burn infection? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Klebsiella", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_Tc122Es.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_znNQTnW.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The identification of Pseudomonas aeruginosa in a burn wound infection is crucial due to its potential for rapid spread and resistance to treatment. Early detection and aggressive management are key to preventing severe complications such as sepsis or further tissue damage.</li><li>➤ Oxidase test can be used to distinguish organisms by detecting the presence or absence of a respiratory enzyme, cytochrome oxidase. Cytochrome oxidase catalyzes the oxidation of reduced cytochrome by oxygen. Enterobacteriacee (Klebsiella, E. coli, Salmonella) are oxidase negative.</li><li>➤ Oxidase test</li><li>➤ Oxidase positive organisms:</li><li>➤ Oxidase positive organisms:</li><li>➤ Pseudomonas Vibrio Helicobacter Campylobacter Pasteurella Legionella Neisseria Brucella Moraxella Burkholderia</li><li>➤ Pseudomonas</li><li>➤ Vibrio</li><li>➤ Helicobacter</li><li>➤ Campylobacter</li><li>➤ Pasteurella</li><li>➤ Legionella</li><li>➤ Neisseria</li><li>➤ Brucella</li><li>➤ Moraxella</li><li>➤ Burkholderia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient has a history of three miscarriages. Identify the investigation that was done from the image shown below? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hysteroscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Saline infusion sonography", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hysterosalpingography", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transvaginal ultrasonography", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hysterosalpingography", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hysterosalpingography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is an X-ray procedure used to delineate uterine anomalies, identify endometrial cavity lesions, and assess tubal patency in cases of infertility.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 588, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 588, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old female patient came with a history of fatiguability and constipation for the past 1 year. She has a history of multiple blood transfusions after delivery 4 years ago. She has had lactational failure and never regained her periods after the delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sheehan syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Premature ovarian failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delayed blood transfusion reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sheehan syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sheehan syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sheehan syndrome:</li><li>• Sheehan syndrome:</li><li>• The most probable diagnosis in a woman with lactational failure and postpartum amenorrhea, now presenting with fatiguability and constipation, is Sheehan syndrome. Sheehan syndrome refers to panhypopituitarism occurring as a result of pituitary ischemia and necrosis following massive obstetrical hemorrhage. The history of multiple blood transfusions after delivery indicates significant blood loss, which resulted in pituitary ischemia leading to this condition. Symptoms such as fatiguability and constipation can be attributed to secondary hypothyroidism resulting from pituitary dysfunction.</li><li>• The most probable diagnosis in a woman with lactational failure and postpartum amenorrhea, now presenting with fatiguability and constipation, is Sheehan syndrome.</li><li>• Sheehan syndrome refers to panhypopituitarism occurring as a result of pituitary ischemia and necrosis following massive obstetrical hemorrhage.</li><li>• The history of multiple blood transfusions after delivery indicates significant blood loss, which resulted in pituitary ischemia leading to this condition.</li><li>• Symptoms such as fatiguability and constipation can be attributed to secondary hypothyroidism resulting from pituitary dysfunction.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Hypothyroidism : While hypothyroidism can cause fatiguability and constipation, the history of postpartum amenorrhea and lactational failure makes Sheehan syndrome more likely. In Sheehan syndrome, hypothyroidism is a secondary consequence of pituitary dysfunction.</li><li>• Option B. Hypothyroidism</li><li>• Option C. Premature ovarian failure : Premature ovarian failure typically presents with symptoms of estrogen deficiency such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, along with amenorrhea. However, it does not account for the history of significant postpartum hemorrhage and lactational failure seen in this patient.</li><li>• Option C. Premature ovarian failure</li><li>• Option D. Delayed blood transfusion reaction : Delayed blood transfusion reactions usually present with symptoms such as jaundice, fever, and anemia, but they do not explain the chronic symptoms of fatiguability, constipation, lactational failure, and amenorrhea in this patient.</li><li>• Option D. Delayed blood transfusion reaction</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sheehan syndrome is characterized by panhypopituitarism due to pituitary ischemia and necrosis following massive obstetrical hemorrhage, leading to symptoms such as lactational failure, amenorrhea, fatiguability, and constipation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 465, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 465, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old married woman who is anxious to conceive presents with copious vaginal discharge, without any itching. Her last menstrual period was 13 days ago. What is the cause of her vaginal discharge? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichomoniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physiological", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Physiological", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/7_SZ5qvMl.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Physiological</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Physiological vaginal discharge is typically clear or white, without odor or itching, and can occur at ovulation, puberty, pregnancy, or occasionally during the premenstrual phase.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 554, DC Dutta’s Textbook of gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year primigravida is on indomethacin (25mg TDS) for polyhydramnios till 35 weeks. What abnormality can the fetus have if she goes into labor now? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flap closure of foramen ovale", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Patent ductus arteriosus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Premature closure of the ductus venosus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Indomethacin and Fetal Effects:</li><li>• Indomethacin and Fetal Effects:</li><li>• Indomethacin is a non-selective cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor used in obstetrics primarily for two indications: Polyhydramnios: To reduce the excessive amniotic fluid. Tocolytic in preterm labor: To delay preterm labor. Mechanism: Indomethacin works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are important for maintaining the patency of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus. Risks: When used beyond 32 weeks of gestation, indomethacin can cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus , leading to complications such as: Pulmonary hypertension Right ventricular hypertrophy Heart failure</li><li>• Indomethacin is a non-selective cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor used in obstetrics primarily for two indications: Polyhydramnios: To reduce the excessive amniotic fluid. Tocolytic in preterm labor: To delay preterm labor.</li><li>• Indomethacin</li><li>• Polyhydramnios: To reduce the excessive amniotic fluid. Tocolytic in preterm labor: To delay preterm labor.</li><li>• Polyhydramnios: To reduce the excessive amniotic fluid.</li><li>• Polyhydramnios:</li><li>• Tocolytic in preterm labor: To delay preterm labor.</li><li>• Tocolytic in preterm labor:</li><li>• Mechanism: Indomethacin works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are important for maintaining the patency of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus.</li><li>• Mechanism:</li><li>• Risks: When used beyond 32 weeks of gestation, indomethacin can cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus , leading to complications such as: Pulmonary hypertension Right ventricular hypertrophy Heart failure</li><li>• Risks:</li><li>• premature closure of the ductus arteriosus</li><li>• Pulmonary hypertension Right ventricular hypertrophy Heart failure</li><li>• Pulmonary hypertension</li><li>• Right ventricular hypertrophy</li><li>• Heart failure</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Flap closure of foramen ovale: The foramen ovale normally closes soon after birth when the pressure in the left atrium exceeds the pressure in the right atrium. Indomethacin does not affect the closure of the foramen ovale.</li><li>• Option A. Flap closure of foramen ovale:</li><li>• Option B. Patent ductus arteriosus: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a condition where the ductus arteriosus remains open after birth. Indomethacin is actually used to treat PDA by promoting its closure, not causing it.</li><li>• Option B. Patent ductus arteriosus:</li><li>• Option D. Premature closure of the ductus venosus: The ductus venosus allows oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to bypass the liver and flow directly into the inferior vena cava. Indomethacin does not influence the closure of the ductus venosus.</li><li>• Option D. Premature closure of the ductus venosus:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Indomethacin can cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus if used beyond 32 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 679, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 679, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In iron deficiency anemia all of the following is increased except? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transferrin saturation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "RBC protoporphyrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total iron binding capacity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum transferrin receptors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transferrin saturation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/11/untitled-24.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Transferrin saturation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child presents with fever, loose stools, and blood in the stool. What is the enrichment medium used to isolate the organism from the stool sample? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Robertson cooked meat broth", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alkaline peptone water", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Selenite F broth", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brain heart infusion broth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Selenite F broth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Selenite F broth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Selenite F broth is specifically used as an enrichment medium for isolating Shigella from stool samples in cases presenting with symptoms of dysentery, characterized by blood in the stools. This selective medium helps in the effective recovery of pathogens responsible for dysentery, aiding in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.</li><li>➤ Dysentery/Shigellosis is a type of food poisoning caused by infection with the Shigella species. It is spread through faeco-oral transmission. They are catalase-negative, non-lactose-fermenting, gram-negative rods, and are non-motile. It acts by inactivating the 60s ribosomal subunit thereby inhibiting protein synthesis. It causes acute onset of symptoms (fever, abdominal cramps) with dysentery and tenesmus. It also gives a positive Sereny test .</li><li>➤ Dysentery/Shigellosis</li><li>➤ acts by inactivating the 60s ribosomal subunit</li><li>➤ a positive Sereny test</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-month-old infant was brought by his mother with complaints of inability to open the eyes in light and excessive watering. The clinical picture is given below. What is the most probable diagnosis? ( NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ophthalmia neonatorum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital glaucoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucopolysaccharidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cataract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Congenital glaucoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-156.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-190602.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-157.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-158.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-159.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/screenshot-2023-11-08-190944.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Congenital glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CAUSES OF LEUKOCORIA:</li><li>➤ CAUSES OF LEUKOCORIA:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man from Chhattisgarh presented with a gradual onset of muscle weakness and spasms in his legs. Upon examination, he exhibited a specific loss of motor function. What inquiries should be made to gather the most relevant medical history from this patient? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "History of similar illness in the past", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "History of fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "History of vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "History of diet", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. History of diet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/04/screenshot-2023-10-04-111207.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-144311.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) History of diet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a poor prognostic marker of multiple myeloma? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "β-2 microglobulin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum creatinine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Protein levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. β-2 microglobulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/10_J5SuwJl.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ β-2 microglobulin is the single most powerful predictor of poor prognosis in multiple myeloma, reflecting the tumor burden and the rate of disease progression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these options is not part of the Global Hunger Index (GHI)? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infant mortality rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Under 5 mortality", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Percentage of undernourished population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Percentage of undernourished children under 5 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Infant mortality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-200011.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/03/screenshot-2023-10-03-200012.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Infant mortality rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Global Hunger Index (GHI) does not include the infant mortality rate. It focuses on inadequate food supply, child mortality under the age of five, and child undernutrition as its key components to assess hunger and malnutrition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the true statement about the image given below? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seen within 24 hours of death", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Due to sulphemoglobin accumulation and formation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Due to aseptic nonbacterial cause", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is associated with a case of electrical burns", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Due to sulphemoglobin accumulation and formation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/6_i46yAcx.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Due to sulphemoglobin accumulation and formation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marbling, a postmortem change characterized by greenish-black lines on the skin, is due to the accumulation and formation of sulph-meth-hemoglobin during putrefaction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child with normal bone mineral density. X-ray is given below. Identify the diagnosis: (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rickets", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteopetrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metaphyseal dysplasia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Scurvy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/26/untitled-1367964.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/26/untitled-1367965.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture71.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture72.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture73.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture74.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture75.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Scurvy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old girl born out of non-consanguineous marriage presented with rachitic changes in limbs since 1½ years of age for which she has received multiple courses of vitamin D. Investigations showed the following. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin D dependent rickets", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypoparathyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypophosphatemic rickets", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hypophosphatemic rickets", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_0d2aJYF.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hypophosphatemic rickets</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypophosphatemic rickets is characterized by low serum phosphate, normal calcium and parathyroid hormone levels, and increased urinary phosphate due to renal phosphate wasting, commonly due to PHEX gene mutations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old married woman came for an infertility evaluation. On performing further investigations, intramural fibroids of sizes 7x5cm and 5x3cm were seen at the right and left cornual ends of the uterus. Her husband's semen analysis was found to be normal. What is the appropriate management of this case? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterine artery embolization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laparoscopic Myomectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Artificial reproductive techniques", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GnRH analogues", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Laparoscopic Myomectomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Laparoscopic Myomectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Laparoscopic myomectomy is indicated for intramural fibroids larger than 5 cm in women with infertility, as it can improve fertility and pregnancy outcomes.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 232, DC Dutta’s textbook of gynecology, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 232, DC Dutta’s textbook of gynecology, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was treated with repeated doses of IV anti-emetic for severe vomiting. The patient now does not have vomiting but developed abnormal movements. What is the most appropriate treatment? (NEET PG 2021)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyoscine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Benzhexol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levodopa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cyproheptadine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Benzhexol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Benzhexol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For patients who develop dystonic reactions after receiving anti-emetic medications like metoclopramide, the most appropriate treatment is an anticholinergic drug such as benzhexol (trihexyphenidyl). This helps alleviate the abnormal movements by restoring the balance between dopamine and acetylcholine in the central nervous system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man presents with fatigue and swelling in the legs. On auscultation, a mid-diastolic murmur is heard, and his jugular venous pulse shows prominent \"a\" waves. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mitral stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tricuspid stenosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tricuspid regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tricuspid stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tricuspid stenosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tricuspid stenosis presents with a mid-diastolic murmur and prominent a-waves in the JVP , often associated with right atrial enlargement and is of rheumatic origin .</li><li>➤ Tricuspid stenosis</li><li>➤ mid-diastolic murmur</li><li>➤ prominent a-waves in the JVP</li><li>➤ right atrial enlargement</li><li>➤ rheumatic origin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the gross specimen obtained from a cystoprostatectomy:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malakoplakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bladder carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prostate carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schistosomiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bladder carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/04/screenshot-2024-10-04-094252.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bladder carcinoma presents with painless hematuria, and management depends on the depth of invasion (non-muscle invasive vs. muscle invasive), often requiring cystoscopy, resection, and possibly radical cystectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman with a history of anxiety presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest tightness and dizziness. She appears visibly anxious and is noted to be hyperventilating. Shortly after, she develops carpopedal spasms. What is the most likely cause of the carpopedal spasm in this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Respiratory alkalosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Respiratory alkalosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation can lead to hypocalcemia and manifest as carpopedal spasms due to the decreased ionized calcium levels.</li><li>➤ Respiratory alkalosis</li><li>➤ hyperventilation</li><li>➤ hypocalcemia</li><li>➤ carpopedal spasms</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with symptoms of delayed adaptation to vision in dark places, gritty sensation in the eyes, dry eyes, and softening of the cornea. What is the likely deficiency in this case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinoic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pantothenic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retinoic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Retinoic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin A deficiency, particularly retinoic acid , can lead to significant ocular manifestations like night blindness, dry eyes, and corneal softening. Immediate supplementation is crucial to prevent progression to blindness.</li><li>➤ retinoic acid</li><li>➤ ocular manifestations</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding pheochromocytoma?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diagnosed by urine VMA &amp; catecholamines", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surgical excision is the definitive treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propranolol is given initially to manage hypertension", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Can present as hypertension alone and sometimes with vomiting and pain abdomen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Propranolol is given initially to manage hypertension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Propranolol is given initially to manage hypertension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alpha-blockers must always be administered before beta-blockers in the treatment of hypertension in pheochromocytoma to prevent hypertensive crises due to unopposed alpha-receptor stimulation.</li><li>➤ Alpha-blockers</li><li>➤ before</li><li>➤ pheochromocytoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 68-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-week history of severe headache, jaw pain while chewing, and shoulder stiffness, particularly in the morning. She reports feeling fatigued and has experienced unintended weight loss. On examination, the left temporal artery is tender, nodular, and has reduced pulsation. Laboratory studies show an elevated ESR of 105 mm/hr and mild anemia. The patient is worried about her vision, as her friend recently went blind due to a similar condition. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tocilizumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Steroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abatacept", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Steroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Steroids are the first-line treatment for giant cell arteritis and should be started immediately to prevent complications such as permanent vision loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old woman presents with a BIRADS-5 breast lesion on her recent mammogram, highly suspicious for malignancy. A biopsy is performed, and immunohistochemistry results show estrogen receptor (ER) positivity. Which of the following is considered a good prognostic factor in this case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BRCA-1 positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "p53 positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ER positive", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "High Ki-67", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ER positive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) ER positive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ER positivity in breast cancer is a favorable prognostic factor and indicates a likely response to hormonal therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, confusion, and a seizure. He has had a headache for the past few days. On examination, he is febrile and disoriented. An MRI of the brain shows hyperintense signals in the bilateral temporal lobes. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toxoplasma gondii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes simplex virus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Herpes simplex virus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/04/screenshot-2024-10-04-100439.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Herpes simplex virus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpes simplex virus is the most common cause of viral encephalitis in adults and typically affects the temporal lobes. It presents with fever, altered mental status, and seizures. Early diagnosis and treatment with intravenous acyclovir are critical.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Neet Pg 2022 2022 05 21 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. 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He now presents with involuntary, violent, and flinging movements of the limbs on one side. What is the likely site of lesion in this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subthalamic nuclei", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Globus pallidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Putamen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caudate nucleus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Subthalamic nuclei", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Subthalamic nuclei</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Most probable diagnosis as per the clinical history is hemiballismus which is caused by a lesion in subthalamic nuclei.</li><li>• Hemiballismus is a disorder characterized by violent involuntary abnormal movements on one side of the body involving mostly the arm. While walking, the arm swings widely. These movements are called the flinging movements. These movements are due to the release phenomenon because of the absence of inhibitory influence on movements. Hemiballismus occurs due to degeneration of subthalamic nucleus of Luys.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Globus pallidus : Incorrect for hemiballismus. Lesions here typically result in different forms of dyskinesia, such as parkinsonism or dystonia, but not hemiballismus.</li><li>• Option B. Globus pallidus</li><li>• Option C. Putamen : Also incorrect for this symptom. While putamen lesions are involved in many movement disorders, like Huntington's disease and some forms of Parkinson's disease, they do not typically cause hemiballismus.</li><li>• Option C. Putamen</li><li>• Option D. Caudate nucleus : Incorrect. Lesions in the caudate nucleus are more often associated with Huntington's disease, which leads to chorea—rapid, jerky movements—not the large-amplitude flinging movements seen in hemiballismus.</li><li>• Option D. Caudate nucleus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient presenting with unilateral flinging, violent limb movements following a stroke, the subthalamic nuclei should be considered as the primary site of lesion. This knowledge is crucial for accurate diagnosis and guiding treatment decisions, such as the use of neuroleptics or other interventions to control these disruptive movements.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tuberculosis patient receiving anti-tubercular treatment complains of tingling and paresthesia in the lower limbs. He is not diabetic and drinks alcohol on occasion. Which of the following vitamins should be given to this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin B6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin B6</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients receiving isoniazid as part of anti-tubercular therapy should be supplemented with vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) to prevent or treat peripheral neuropathy, a common side effect of this medication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is diagnosed with multiple anogenital warts, and the biopsy reveals squamous atypia. Among the various human papillomavirus types, which ones are classified as high-risk? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HPV 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HPV 18", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "HPV 6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HPV 11", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HPV 18", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-1250010.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. HPV 18</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Squamous carcinoma is the most prevalent type of cancer associated with HPV infection . Among the various human papillomavirus types, HPV-16 and HPV-18 are considered high-risk and are frequently implicated in the development of cervical, vaginal, and vulval cancers. Other high-risk types include HPV-31, HPV-33, and HPV-35. Genital warts , also known as condyloma acuminata or venereal warts, are most commonly caused by human papillomavirus 6 (HPV-6) and human papillomavirus 11 (HPV-11) . These types, referred to as low-risk , have a lower potential to lead to malignancy.</li><li>• Squamous carcinoma is the most prevalent type of cancer associated with HPV infection .</li><li>• Squamous carcinoma is the most prevalent type of cancer associated with HPV infection</li><li>• Among the various human papillomavirus types, HPV-16 and HPV-18 are considered high-risk and are frequently implicated in the development of cervical, vaginal, and vulval cancers.</li><li>• HPV-16 and HPV-18 are considered high-risk</li><li>• Other high-risk types include HPV-31, HPV-33, and HPV-35.</li><li>• high-risk types</li><li>• HPV-31, HPV-33, and HPV-35.</li><li>• Genital warts , also known as condyloma acuminata or venereal warts, are most commonly caused by human papillomavirus 6 (HPV-6) and human papillomavirus 11 (HPV-11) . These types, referred to as low-risk , have a lower potential to lead to malignancy.</li><li>• Genital warts</li><li>• human papillomavirus 6 (HPV-6) and human papillomavirus 11 (HPV-11)</li><li>• low-risk</li><li>• lower potential</li><li>• Genital warts are highly infectious and are commonly acquired through sexual contact , although non-sexual transmission is also possible .</li><li>• sexual contact</li><li>• non-sexual transmission</li><li>• possible</li><li>• Imiquimod and podophyllotoxin are first-line medications prescribed for the treatment of genital warts.</li><li>• Imiquimod and podophyllotoxin</li><li>• IMIQUIMOD:</li><li>• IMIQUIMOD:</li><li>• Imiquimod cream uses: Actinic keratoses Superficial basal cell carcinoma Genital warts (topical immunomodulation) Mechanism of action: Activates toll-like receptors 7 and 8 , leading to apoptosis in macrophages, monocytes, and dendritic cells.</li><li>• Imiquimod cream uses: Actinic keratoses Superficial basal cell carcinoma Genital warts (topical immunomodulation)</li><li>• Imiquimod cream uses:</li><li>• Actinic keratoses Superficial basal cell carcinoma Genital warts (topical immunomodulation)</li><li>• Actinic keratoses</li><li>• Actinic keratoses</li><li>• Superficial basal cell carcinoma</li><li>• Superficial basal cell carcinoma</li><li>• Genital warts (topical immunomodulation)</li><li>• Genital warts (topical immunomodulation)</li><li>• Mechanism of action: Activates toll-like receptors 7 and 8 , leading to apoptosis in macrophages, monocytes, and dendritic cells.</li><li>• Mechanism of action:</li><li>• toll-like receptors 7 and 8</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A HPV 2 :</li><li>• Option A HPV 2</li><li>• This type is considered low-risk and is commonly associated with common warts that affect the hands and feet , not with anogenital warts or cancer.</li><li>• This type is considered low-risk and is commonly associated with common warts that affect the hands and feet , not with anogenital warts or cancer.</li><li>• common warts</li><li>• hands and feet</li><li>• Option C &amp; D HPV 6 and HPV 11 :</li><li>• Option C &amp; D HPV 6 and HPV 11</li><li>• These are both low-risk types that are associated with about 90% of genital warts but are not typically linked with cancer. They are known to cause benign conditions like respiratory papillomatosis as well.</li><li>• These are both low-risk types that are associated with about 90% of genital warts but are not typically linked with cancer.</li><li>• 90% of genital</li><li>• They are known to cause benign conditions like respiratory papillomatosis as well.</li><li>• respiratory papillomatosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HPV 16 &amp; 18 as high-risk types associated with anogenital cancers, and recognize that HPV 2, 6, and 11 are low-risk types not typically associated with cancer. It’s crucial to know the distinction between low-risk and high-risk HPV types due to the differences in prognosis and management. High-risk types warrant more aggressive monitoring and management due to their association with malignancy.</li><li>➤ HPV 16 &amp; 18 as high-risk types associated with anogenital cancers, and recognize that HPV 2, 6, and 11 are low-risk types not typically associated with cancer.</li><li>➤ HPV 16 &amp; 18</li><li>➤ high-risk types</li><li>➤ anogenital cancers,</li><li>➤ HPV 2, 6, and 11</li><li>➤ low-risk</li><li>➤ It’s crucial to know the distinction between low-risk and high-risk HPV types due to the differences in prognosis and management.</li><li>➤ differences in prognosis and management.</li><li>➤ High-risk types warrant more aggressive monitoring and management due to their association with malignancy.</li><li>➤ High-risk types</li><li>➤ aggressive monitoring</li><li>➤ malignancy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 25 Page no 25.43, 25.55</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - 9th Edition - Volume I Chapter 25 Page no 25.43, 25.55</li><li>↳ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition 198</li><li>↳ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition 198</li><li>↳ Shaws textbook of gynaecology 16 th edition 156, 157, 486</li><li>↳ Shaws textbook of gynaecology 16 th edition 156, 157, 486</li><li>↳ Jawetz Melnick &amp; Adelbergs Medical Microbiology 28 th edition Page no 650</li><li>↳ Jawetz Melnick &amp; Adelbergs Medical Microbiology 28 th edition Page no 650</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ Online resources:</li><li>↳ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/9434721/</li><li>↳ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/9434721/</li><li>↳ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK321770/</li><li>↳ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK321770/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the emergency department with a history of ingestion of 10 tablets of paracetamol. He has developed oliguria and LFTs are deranged. Which of the following can be used in the management of this condition? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "N-acetylcysteine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dopamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ursodeoxycholic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. N-acetylcysteine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. N-acetylcysteine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the event of paracetamol toxicity, the antidote of choice is N-acetylcysteine, which should be administered as soon as possible to mitigate liver damage and improve patient outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the symptoms reported by the patient, what could be the possible diagnosis for a 30-year-old man who has been experiencing recurrent discharge and pain due to lesions around the anus for the past four years? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pilonidal sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbuncle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Boil", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fistula in ano", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fistula in ano", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns33.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fistula in ano</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A fistula in ano is an abnormal tract that typically develops between the anal canal and the perianal skin, usually due to a previously untreated or inadequately treated abscess. The chronic and recurrent nature of symptoms like discharge and pain around the anus is a hallmark of this condition.</li><li>➤ A fistula in ano is an abnormal tract that typically develops between the anal canal and the perianal skin, usually due to a previously untreated or inadequately treated abscess.</li><li>➤ The chronic and recurrent nature of symptoms like discharge and pain around the anus is a hallmark of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An antiemetic was given to a chemotherapy patient, who then developed symptoms such as acute dystonia, bradykinesia, and tremors. Which of the following medications would have resulted in these symptoms? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ondansetron", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metoclopramide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meclizine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scopolamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metoclopramide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Metoclopramide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metoclopramide, an antiemetic that acts by blocking D2 receptors, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as acute dystonia, bradykinesia, and tremors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the blue-colored area shown in the image below? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obstetric outlet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anatomical outlet", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pelvic inlet", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mid-pelvis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mid-pelvis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/untitled-85.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mid-pelvis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The plane of the mid-pelvis (or mid cavity) is a crucial area within the true pelvis, significant for various clinical considerations during labor and delivery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 92 Textbook of obstetrics by JB Sharma</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 92 Textbook of obstetrics by JB Sharma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the insertion of the device shown in the image below? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Menstruation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trophoblastic disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immediately after delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ruptured condom during intercourse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trophoblastic disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/untitled-80.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Trophoblastic disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image shows a copper-containing IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device). ABSOLUTE c/I to an Intra-uterine device are: Unexplained uterine or vaginal bleeding Post abortal sepsis/ Puerperal sepsis/ Current Pelvic inflammatory/ disease, Genital Tuberculosis Cancers: Endometrial cancer, Cervical cancer, Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia Large fibroid distorting the uterine cavity, Mullerian anomalies distorting the uterine cavity</li><li>• The given image shows a copper-containing IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device).</li><li>• ABSOLUTE c/I to an Intra-uterine device are: Unexplained uterine or vaginal bleeding Post abortal sepsis/ Puerperal sepsis/ Current Pelvic inflammatory/ disease, Genital Tuberculosis Cancers: Endometrial cancer, Cervical cancer, Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia Large fibroid distorting the uterine cavity, Mullerian anomalies distorting the uterine cavity</li><li>• Unexplained uterine or vaginal bleeding Post abortal sepsis/ Puerperal sepsis/ Current Pelvic inflammatory/ disease, Genital Tuberculosis Cancers: Endometrial cancer, Cervical cancer, Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia Large fibroid distorting the uterine cavity, Mullerian anomalies distorting the uterine cavity</li><li>• Unexplained uterine or vaginal bleeding</li><li>• Post abortal sepsis/ Puerperal sepsis/ Current Pelvic inflammatory/ disease, Genital Tuberculosis</li><li>• Cancers: Endometrial cancer, Cervical cancer, Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia</li><li>• Large fibroid distorting the uterine cavity, Mullerian anomalies distorting the uterine cavity</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Menstruation : Intra-uterine device can be inserted even during periods although preferably it should be inserted post-menstrual</li><li>• Option A. Menstruation</li><li>• Option C. Immediately after delivery : This is called as Post placental IUCD insertion (within 10 mins of placental delivery)</li><li>• Option C. Immediately after delivery</li><li>• Option D. Ruptured condom during intercourse : Following a ruptured condom, CUT can be inserted as an emergency contraception</li><li>• Option D. Ruptured condom during intercourse</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trophoblastic disease is an ABSOLUTE c/I to an Intra-uterine device.</li><li>➤ Trophoblastic disease is an</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789241549158</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/9789241549158</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. What associated complication is shown in the image? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scleromalacia perforans", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ciliary staphyloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coloboma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Scleromalacia perforans", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-168.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-169.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/screenshot-2023-11-09-115927.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-171.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Scleromalacia perforans</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scleromalacia perforans is a severe ocular complication of long-standing rheumatoid arthritis characterized by a melting patch of sclera with exposure of underlying uveal tissue, typically managed with steroids, immunosuppressants, and potentially surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly man presents with rigidity and tremors. On examination, he has blank facial expressions. Which of the following drugs can be used to manage this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clozapine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Donepezil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Selegiline", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Haloperidol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Selegiline", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Selegiline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitor that increases dopamine availability in the brain and is used to manage the motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as rigidity and tremors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The structure marked A in the image below gives rise to which of the following structures? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastrosplenic ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lienorenal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Falciform ligament", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastrophrenic ligament", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Falciform ligament", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-853.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-854.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Falciform ligament</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Falciform Ligament is derived from the ventral mesogastrium. This sickle-shaped ligament runs from the anterior abdominal wall to the liver, effectively connecting the liver to the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall. The ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein) runs within the free edge of this ligament.</li><li>➤ Falciform Ligament</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the given structure: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lymph node", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glomerulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spleen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pancreatic islet cells", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pancreatic islet cells", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-863.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-864.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-171742.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-171639.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Pancreatic islet cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old presents with edema and anasarca. A diagnosis of minimal change disease is made. Which of the following is true about this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Light microscopy shows effacement of podocytes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Good response to steroids", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most common in adults", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-selective proteinuria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Good response to steroids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture145.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture146.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Good response to steroids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Minimal change disease (MCD) is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and has a very good response to corticosteroid treatment, resulting in complete remission of proteinuria and edema in over 90% of cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the mask in the image below? ( NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Venturi mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hudson mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nebulizer mask", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-rebreathing mask", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Non-rebreathing mask", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/untitled-962.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-182211.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-182232.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/05/screenshot-2024-07-05-182237.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Non-rebreathing mask</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The non-rebreathing mask (NRBM) is an oxygen delivery device that provides high concentrations of oxygen, up to approximately 80%, and is characterized by a reservoir bag and one-way valves to ensure the inhalation of high-purity oxygen.</li><li>➤ The non-rebreathing mask (NRBM) is an oxygen delivery device that provides high concentrations of oxygen, up to approximately 80%, and is characterized by a reservoir bag and one-way valves to ensure the inhalation of high-purity oxygen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 74-year-old man with a history of dyslipidemia, hypertension, and aortic sclerosis presents to the emergency department with chest pain. He took 3 NTG tablets with no relief. His vitals are stable and cardiac enzymes were normal. An ECG on admission is shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "STEMI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NSTEMI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stable Angina", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unstable Angina", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Unstable Angina", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-191548.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Unstable Angina</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, does not respond to nitroglycerin, and is associated with normal cardiac enzyme levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient with infertility presents with galactorrhea. Evaluation reveals a 7mm prolactinoma. She is worried about her conception chances. What is the appropriate drug in this situation? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cabergoline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bromocriptine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Octreotide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pegvisomant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bromocriptine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Although cabergoline is often used for prolactinomas due to better tolerability and efficacy, it is not the preferred agent when fertility is desired, especially around the time of conception or planned pregnancy.</li><li>• According to endocrine guidelines:</li><li>• According to endocrine guidelines:</li><li>• Bromocriptine has been safely used for over 30 years in women trying to conceive, with no proven teratogenicity.</li><li>• Once pregnancy is confirmed, bromocriptine is discontinued to reduce fetal exposure.</li><li>• Cabergoline, being long-acting with high D₂ receptor affinity, is not recommended during conception planning, due to less extensive safety data in pregnancy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cabergoline : Not preferred in women desiring fertility due to longer half-life and limited pregnancy safety data.</li><li>• Option A. Cabergoline</li><li>• Option C. Octreotide : A somatostatin analog used for GH-secreting tumors (e.g., acromegaly), not prolactinomas.</li><li>• Option C. Octreotide</li><li>• Option D. Pegvisomant : GH receptor antagonist for acromegaly; no role in prolactinoma or fertility.</li><li>• Option D. Pegvisomant</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In women with microprolactinoma and infertility, bromocriptine is the first-line treatment to restore ovulation and promote safe conception. While cabergoline is effective and often better tolerated, it is not the agent of choice when pregnancy is desired, due to concerns regarding its longer action and limited pregnancy safety data.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Testosterone helps in the development of various organs in the fetus. Which of the following stimulates its production? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LH from maternal pituitary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HCG from placenta", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhibin from corpus luteum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GnRH from fetal hypothalamus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HCG from placenta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HCG from placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• HCG from placenta : HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) from the placenta stimulates the production of testosterone in the male fetus. HCG released from the placenta is the initial stimulus for testosterone production in the male fetus. Later by the eighth week of gestation, fetal pituitary LH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates the Leydig cells of the testes to produce testosterone. Sex differentiation of the embryo depends on the Y chromosome, which contains the testis-determining gene called the SRY (sex-determining region on Y) gene. In a genetically male embryo (46, XY), the gonad is converted into testis under the influence of this gene. Female development (Mullerian ducts) occurs in the absence of this gene.</li><li>• HCG from placenta : HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) from the placenta stimulates the production of testosterone in the male fetus. HCG released from the placenta is the initial stimulus for testosterone production in the male fetus. Later by the eighth week of gestation, fetal pituitary LH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates the Leydig cells of the testes to produce testosterone. Sex differentiation of the embryo depends on the Y chromosome, which contains the testis-determining gene called the SRY (sex-determining region on Y) gene. In a genetically male embryo (46, XY), the gonad is converted into testis under the influence of this gene. Female development (Mullerian ducts) occurs in the absence of this gene.</li><li>• HCG from placenta</li><li>• HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) from the placenta stimulates the production of testosterone in the male fetus. HCG released from the placenta is the initial stimulus for testosterone production in the male fetus. Later by the eighth week of gestation, fetal pituitary LH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates the Leydig cells of the testes to produce testosterone. Sex differentiation of the embryo depends on the Y chromosome, which contains the testis-determining gene called the SRY (sex-determining region on Y) gene. In a genetically male embryo (46, XY), the gonad is converted into testis under the influence of this gene. Female development (Mullerian ducts) occurs in the absence of this gene.</li><li>• HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) from the placenta stimulates the production of testosterone in the male fetus.</li><li>• HCG released from the placenta is the initial stimulus for testosterone production in the male fetus.</li><li>• Later by the eighth week of gestation, fetal pituitary LH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates the Leydig cells of the testes to produce testosterone.</li><li>• Sex differentiation of the embryo depends on the Y chromosome, which contains the testis-determining gene called the SRY (sex-determining region on Y) gene.</li><li>• In a genetically male embryo (46, XY), the gonad is converted into testis under the influence of this gene.</li><li>• Female development (Mullerian ducts) occurs in the absence of this gene.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. LH from maternal pituitary : Maternal LH does not play a role in fetal testosterone production. The fetal pituitary gland, not the maternal pituitary, influences testosterone production later in gestation.</li><li>• Option A. LH from maternal pituitary</li><li>• Option C. Inhibin from corpus luteum : Inhibin is involved in the regulation of FSH and does not stimulate testosterone production. It primarily acts to provide feedback inhibition to the anterior pituitary gland to control FSH levels.</li><li>• Option C. Inhibin from corpus luteum</li><li>• Option D. GnRH from fetal hypothalamus : GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone) from the fetal hypothalamus plays a role in stimulating the fetal pituitary to release LH and FSH, but it is not the initial trigger for testosterone production in the fetus.</li><li>• Option D. GnRH from fetal hypothalamus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HCG from the placenta is the initial stimulus for testosterone production in the male fetus.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 103, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 103, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to the emergency department with symptoms of respiratory depression and is suspected of having overdosed on opioids. What should be the next step in management? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Naltrexone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Buprenorphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methadone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Naloxone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Naloxone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of suspected opioid overdose, particularly with signs of respiratory depression, the administration of Naloxone is the immediate and appropriate intervention. Naloxone acts as an opioid antagonist and can rapidly reverse the life-threatening effects of opioid overdose.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 293.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hypertensive patient who is non-compliant with medication presents to you with sudden onset breathlessness. A chest X-ray was done, which is shown below. How will you manage this patient? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravenous salbutamol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous nitroglycerin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nebulization with salbutamol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxygen and antibiotics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intravenous nitroglycerin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-191623.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Intravenous nitroglycerin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of cardiogenic pulmonary edema, intravenous nitroglycerin is essential to reduce preload and afterload, thereby alleviating pulmonary congestion and improving the patient's symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition and the instrument:(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tibia fracture, ilizarov fixator", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femoral fracture, spanning fixator", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tibia fracture, spanning fixator", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Periarticular fracture of knee, spanning fixator", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Periarticular fracture of knee, spanning fixator", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/11/3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture50.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture51.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Periarticular fracture of knee, spanning fixator</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male, presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain, swelling and redness in scrotal area. He undergoes a surgical procedure for the same. Based on the image below, what is the likely diagnosis?(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Torsion of testis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute epididymis-orchitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scrotal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fournier's gangrene", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fournier's gangrene", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns28.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fournier’s gangrene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fournier's gangrene is a life-threatening condition requiring urgent surgical intervention and aggressive antibiotic therapy. Early recognition and prompt treatment are crucial to improve patient outcomes.</li><li>➤ Fournier's gangrene is a life-threatening condition requiring urgent surgical intervention and aggressive antibiotic therapy.</li><li>➤ Early recognition and prompt treatment are crucial to improve patient outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old boy presents with mental retardation and an inability to walk. The fundoscopy image is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis?( NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tay-Sachs disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hunter disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hurler syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gaucher disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tay-Sachs disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-176.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/screenshot-2023-11-09-121235.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Tay-Sachs disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tay-Sachs disease presents in infancy with progressive neurological decline, macrocephaly, increased startle reaction, and a characteristic macular cherry-red spot on fundoscopy. It is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase A.</li><li>➤ OTHER CAUSES OF CHERRY RED SPOT.</li><li>➤ OTHER CAUSES OF CHERRY RED SPOT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Where will be the level of the uterus on the second-day post-delivery? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "One finger breadth below umbilicus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Two finger breadths below umbilicus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Three finger breadths below umbilicus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Four finger breadths below umbilicus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Two finger breadths below umbilicus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Two finger breadths below umbilicus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The uterus will be two finger breadths below umbilicus on the second-day post-delivery.</li><li>➤ two finger breadths below umbilicus</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 169, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 169, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A militant presents with rashes all over his body sparing the palms and soles. On examination, he was febrile and lice were noted. Which of the following is responsible for his condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rickettsia typhi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rickettsia prowazekii", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rickettsia akari", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rickettsia conori", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rickettsia prowazekii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rickettsia prowazekii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Rickettsia prowazekii, transmitted by body lice, causes epidemic typhus, which is characterized by a rash that begins on the trunk and spreads to the extremities while sparing the face, palms, and soles. Awareness of this disease's clinical features and transmission methods is essential for preventing outbreaks in high-risk environments.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with multiple swelling in hand &amp; wrist. Finger X-ray is given. Identify: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Multiple enchondromatosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple Brown Tumour", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple Osteophytic Growth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Multiple enchondromatosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/11/1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture44.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture45.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture46.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture47.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Multiple enchondromatosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows multiple enchondromas in the hand.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with complains of hair loss. His wife mentions that she has noticed some behavioral changes. The doctor notices that there is a loss of eyebrows on the lateral side. He then comes to a conclusion by examining the nails. What is the type of poisoning in this case? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thallium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mercury", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thallium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-124825.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thallium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alopecia is seen in Thallium, arsenic and mercury poisoning Mees lines in nails are seen in Thallium and Arsenic poisoning</li><li>➤ Alopecia is seen in Thallium, arsenic and mercury poisoning</li><li>➤ Mees lines in nails are seen in Thallium and Arsenic poisoning</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male presented to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. He was the driver of the car, and upon impact, he had hit his abdomen against the steering wheel. Upon examination, the patient was conscious but complained of severe abdominal pain and tenderness upon palpation. The physician noted bruising and swelling in the abdominal area. Further evaluation revealed the evisceration of omentum, which was protruding through a laceration in the abdominal wall. What would be the best management of the same? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Emergency laparotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Observation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous hydration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait and watch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Emergency laparotomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns17.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Emergency laparotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Evisceration in the context of trauma is a surgical emergency that requires immediate laparotomy to address potential internal injuries, control bleeding, and repair the damage. Prompt surgical intervention is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.</li><li>➤ Evisceration in the context of trauma is a surgical emergency that requires immediate laparotomy to address potential internal injuries, control bleeding, and repair the damage.</li><li>➤ Prompt surgical intervention is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male patient presents with a midline swelling in the neck. Upon examination, cervical node enlargement is also observed. Histopathological analysis of the lesion reveals the following findings Identify the false statement of the following? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Excellent prognosis is associated with this condition.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It spreads via lymphatics.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nuclear characteristics are used for identification.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fine needle aspiration cytology (FAC) is not diagnostic.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FAC) is not diagnostic.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns22.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Fine needle aspiration cytology (FAC) is not diagnostic.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) is a reliable and commonly used diagnostic method for thyroid nodules, including papillary carcinoma, as it can identify characteristic histopathological features.</li><li>➤ Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) is a reliable and commonly used diagnostic method for thyroid nodules, including papillary carcinoma, as it can identify characteristic histopathological features.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Enzyme defect in McArdle’s Disease?(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myophosphorylase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucose-6-phosphatase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycogen phosphorylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hexokinase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Myophosphorylase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Myophosphorylase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ McArdle's disease is Type V glycogen storage disease that occurs due to deficiency of muscle glycogen phosphorylase (Myophosphorylase) enzyme. In this disease, muscle glycogen cannot be used during exercise, so, on strenuous exercise there are muscles cramps. Also, normal or relatively low levels of lactate will be formed from muscle glycogen after exercise.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 167</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant lady with 34 weeks of amenorrhea has the following findings: LDH - 700 IU/L, platelets - 75,000/ mm3, serum bilirubin - 1.5 mg/dL, SGOT - 200 U/L, SGPT - 150 U/L, and BP - 140/96 mm Hg. Her coagulation profile and renal function tests are normal. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HELLP syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute fatty liver of pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Viral hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intrahepatic cholestasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HELLP syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HELLP syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HELLP syndrome is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. It is a severe form of preeclampsia and necessitates urgent medical intervention.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1809, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1809, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes with a history of asthma and sinusitis. On looking into his medical records, you notice this has been attributed to Samter's triad. Which drug should be avoided in this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cotrimoxazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Co-amoxiclav", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chloramphenicol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aspirin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aspirin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients diagnosed with Samter's triad, it is crucial to avoid aspirin and other NSAIDs that inhibit COX-1, as these can trigger severe respiratory and nasal symptoms. Effective management involves identifying safe medications for pain and inflammation and regularly monitoring the respiratory and nasal health of the patient.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7th edition, Page No. 193, 194</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7th edition, Page No. 193, 194</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Complex 4 inhibitor is? ( NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyanide", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbon Dioxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oligomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Antimycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cyanide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-163056.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cyanide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cyanide is a potent inhibitor of Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase) in the electron transport chain (ETC). Complex IV is crucial for the final step of the electron transport chain, where it facilitates the transfer of electrons to oxygen, the final electron acceptor, to form water. By inhibiting Complex IV, cyanide prevents the reduction of oxygen, halting ATP production and leading to cellular hypoxia and energy failure.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Carbon Dioxide: Carbon dioxide is not an inhibitor of any of the electron transport chain complexes. It is a byproduct of cellular respiration and does not interfere with the function of the ETC complexes.</li><li>• Option B. Carbon Dioxide:</li><li>• Option C. Oligomycin: Oligomycin is an inhibitor of ATP synthase (Complex V) in the electron transport chain. It binds to the F0 subunit of ATP synthase, blocking the proton channel and preventing proton translocation across the inner mitochondrial membrane. This inhibition halts ATP synthesis from ADP and inorganic phosphate.</li><li>• Option C. Oligomycin:</li><li>• Option D. Antimycin: Antimycin is an inhibitor of Complex III (cytochrome bc1 complex) in the electron transport chain. It binds to the Qi site of cytochrome c reductase, blocking the transfer of electrons from ubiquinol to cytochrome c, disrupting the proton gradient and halting ATP synthesis.</li><li>• Option D. Antimycin:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhibitor of ETC complexes</li><li>➤ Inhibitor of ETC complexes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a PCSK9 inhibitor? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Evolocumab", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ezetimibe", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bempedoic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clofibrate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Evolocumab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Evolocumab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Evolocumab is a PCSK9 inhibitor that works by blocking the PCSK9 enzyme, leading to increased LDL receptor availability on liver cells and reduced LDL cholesterol levels in the blood.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "DNA packing is done by? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycoprotein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nucleic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Helicases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Histone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Histone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nucleosomes = DNA + Histone proteins</li><li>➤ Nucleosomes = DNA + Histone proteins</li><li>➤ Histone proteins are rich in basic AA such as lysine and arginine, so, carry a positive charge. While DNA due to PO 4 2- groups has large negative charge. So, in nucleosomes, DNA and histones are tightly packed due to interaction between these opposite charges.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 351</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Mediterranean person didn’t receive primaquine. Which pathway is affected by G-6-PD enzyme deficiency?(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HMP pathway", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gluconeogenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kreb cycle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HMP pathway", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) HMP pathway</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ G6PD is the first and rate limiting enzyme of HMP pathway which is the major source of NADPH that is required for reduced glutathione generation and help reduce oxidative stress by neutralizing free radicals.</li><li>➤ Primaquine is an antimalarial drug and causes oxidative stress. In patients with Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase ( G6PD) deficiency, primaquine can cause hemolysis so it is avoided.</li><li>➤ Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 182</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to you with an irregularly irregular pulse of 120/minute and a pulse deficit of 20. Which of the following would be the JVP finding? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Absent p wave", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Absent a wave", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cannon a wave", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Raised JVP with normal waveform", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Absent a wave", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In atrial fibrillation, the jugular venous pulse (JVP) typically shows an absent a wave due to the lack of coordinated atrial contraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with an obstetric score of G2P1 comes to the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation for her antenatal checkup. A uterine artery doppler was suggested by the doctor. What would it detect? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Early-onset preeclampsia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Late-onset preeclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fetal growth restriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Placenta accreta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Early-onset preeclampsia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Early-onset preeclampsia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Early-onset preeclampsia: Uterine artery Doppler at 11-14 weeks of gestation can detect markers predictive of early-onset preeclampsia. Raised pulsatility index (PI) in the uterine artery and notching of the uterine artery waveform are indicative markers. Biochemical markers for early-onset preeclampsia include decreased levels of PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, and PlGF, and increased levels of sFlt-1, sEng, and cell-free DNA. Predictors of Preeclampsia: History and Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP): A patient's medical history and MAP are initial predictors. Biophysical Markers: Uterine artery Doppler: Raised PI and notching of the waveform are early indicators. Biochemical Markers: Decreased: PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, PlGF. Increased: sFlt-1, sEng, cell-free DNA. Anti-angiogenic Factors: sFlt-1 and sEng are important markers indicating anti-angiogenic activity, which is associated with preeclampsia.</li><li>• Early-onset preeclampsia: Uterine artery Doppler at 11-14 weeks of gestation can detect markers predictive of early-onset preeclampsia. Raised pulsatility index (PI) in the uterine artery and notching of the uterine artery waveform are indicative markers. Biochemical markers for early-onset preeclampsia include decreased levels of PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, and PlGF, and increased levels of sFlt-1, sEng, and cell-free DNA.</li><li>• Early-onset preeclampsia:</li><li>• Uterine artery Doppler at 11-14 weeks of gestation can detect markers predictive of early-onset preeclampsia. Raised pulsatility index (PI) in the uterine artery and notching of the uterine artery waveform are indicative markers. Biochemical markers for early-onset preeclampsia include decreased levels of PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, and PlGF, and increased levels of sFlt-1, sEng, and cell-free DNA.</li><li>• Uterine artery Doppler at 11-14 weeks of gestation can detect markers predictive of early-onset preeclampsia.</li><li>• Raised pulsatility index (PI) in the uterine artery and notching of the uterine artery waveform are indicative markers.</li><li>• Biochemical markers for early-onset preeclampsia include decreased levels of PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, and PlGF, and increased levels of sFlt-1, sEng, and cell-free DNA.</li><li>• Predictors of Preeclampsia: History and Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP): A patient's medical history and MAP are initial predictors. Biophysical Markers: Uterine artery Doppler: Raised PI and notching of the waveform are early indicators. Biochemical Markers: Decreased: PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, PlGF. Increased: sFlt-1, sEng, cell-free DNA. Anti-angiogenic Factors: sFlt-1 and sEng are important markers indicating anti-angiogenic activity, which is associated with preeclampsia.</li><li>• Predictors of Preeclampsia:</li><li>• History and Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP): A patient's medical history and MAP are initial predictors. Biophysical Markers: Uterine artery Doppler: Raised PI and notching of the waveform are early indicators. Biochemical Markers: Decreased: PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, PlGF. Increased: sFlt-1, sEng, cell-free DNA. Anti-angiogenic Factors: sFlt-1 and sEng are important markers indicating anti-angiogenic activity, which is associated with preeclampsia.</li><li>• History and Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP): A patient's medical history and MAP are initial predictors.</li><li>• History and Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP):</li><li>• A patient's medical history and MAP are initial predictors.</li><li>• A patient's medical history and MAP are initial predictors.</li><li>• Biophysical Markers: Uterine artery Doppler: Raised PI and notching of the waveform are early indicators.</li><li>• Biophysical Markers:</li><li>• Uterine artery Doppler: Raised PI and notching of the waveform are early indicators.</li><li>• Uterine artery Doppler: Raised PI and notching of the waveform are early indicators.</li><li>• Biochemical Markers: Decreased: PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, PlGF. Increased: sFlt-1, sEng, cell-free DNA.</li><li>• Biochemical Markers:</li><li>• Decreased: PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, PlGF. Increased: sFlt-1, sEng, cell-free DNA.</li><li>• Decreased: PP13, VEGF, PAPPA, PlGF.</li><li>• Increased: sFlt-1, sEng, cell-free DNA.</li><li>• Anti-angiogenic Factors: sFlt-1 and sEng are important markers indicating anti-angiogenic activity, which is associated with preeclampsia.</li><li>• Anti-angiogenic Factors:</li><li>• sFlt-1 and sEng are important markers indicating anti-angiogenic activity, which is associated with preeclampsia.</li><li>• sFlt-1 and sEng are important markers indicating anti-angiogenic activity, which is associated with preeclampsia.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Late-onset preeclampsia: Uterine artery Doppler is more predictive of early-onset rather than late-onset preeclampsia.</li><li>• Option B. Late-onset preeclampsia:</li><li>• Option C. Fetal growth restriction: While fetal growth restriction can be associated with preeclampsia, the uterine artery Doppler specifically predicts early-onset preeclampsia rather than fetal growth restriction alone.</li><li>• Option C. Fetal growth restriction:</li><li>• Option D. Placenta accreta: Uterine artery Doppler is not used to detect placenta accreta. Placenta accreta is typically diagnosed through ultrasound or MRI.</li><li>• Option D. Placenta accreta:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A uterine artery Doppler at 11-14 weeks gestation can predict early-onset preeclampsia by identifying raised pulsatility index (PI) and notching of the uterine artery waveform.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1818, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1818, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 46-year-old male presents to the ER with the acute onset of ataxia. Neurological examination shows loss of pain and temperature sensation from the face on the left side and loss of pain and temperature sensation from the right half of the body. He also has dysarthria, dysphagia, and diminished gag reflex with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the left. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral pontine syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medial medullary syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lateral medullary syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Locked-In Syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lateral medullary syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) is characterized by ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in the face, contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in the body, dysarthria, dysphagia, and ipsilateral Horner's syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the cartilage given below: ( NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Non articular hyaline cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Articular hyaline cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow cartilage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "White fibrocartilage", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. White fibrocartilage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-858.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-165213.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-860.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. White fibrocartilage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman, who is 5 days postpartum, presented with tearfulness, mood swings, and occasional insomnia. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Postpartum depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postpartum blues", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Postpartum psychosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Postpartum anxiety", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Postpartum blues", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Postpartum blues</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postpartum blues (or \"baby blues\") is a mild, transient mood disturbance that affects up to 30-75% of postpartum women. Symptoms include mood lability, tearfulness, sadness, and sleep disturbances. It typically occurs within the first week (3-5 days) after delivery and resolves spontaneously within days to weeks. Mainstay of management is reassurance, support, and education.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of Women’s Reproductive Mental Health, Page No 352</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the emergency room after consuming 8 digoxin tablets. On examination, he was found to be unstable, with a heart rate of 56 beats per minute. An ECG revealed a third-degree heart block. What is the next step in this patient's care? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Digoxin Immune Fab", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lidocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DC cardioversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Digoxin Immune Fab", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Digoxin Immune Fab</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The administration of Digoxin Immune Fab is the next step in the management of life-threatening digoxin toxicity, particularly in the presence of bradycardia and third-degree heart block.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 39 year G2P1 presents at 18 weeks 5 days for her routine targeted fetal anomaly ultrasound. The fetal anatomy appears normal, but the cervical length is 15mm. Despite being counselled that there is no clear proven benefit for the same; the patient insisted on a cervical cerclage. Which of the following is a complete contra-indication to cerclage? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Positive fetal fibronectin test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Membranes bulging into the vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ruptured membranes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Advanced maternal age", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ruptured membranes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ruptured membranes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ruptured Membranes: Ruptured membranes are a complete contraindication to cerclage. When the membranes are ruptured, there is an increased risk of infection and complications, making the procedure unsafe. Cerclage involves stitching the cervix closed to prevent premature birth, which is not advisable when the protective amniotic sac is compromised.</li><li>• Ruptured Membranes: Ruptured membranes are a complete contraindication to cerclage. When the membranes are ruptured, there is an increased risk of infection and complications, making the procedure unsafe. Cerclage involves stitching the cervix closed to prevent premature birth, which is not advisable when the protective amniotic sac is compromised.</li><li>• Ruptured Membranes:</li><li>• Ruptured membranes are a complete contraindication to cerclage. When the membranes are ruptured, there is an increased risk of infection and complications, making the procedure unsafe. Cerclage involves stitching the cervix closed to prevent premature birth, which is not advisable when the protective amniotic sac is compromised.</li><li>• Ruptured membranes are a complete contraindication to cerclage. When the membranes are ruptured, there is an increased risk of infection and complications, making the procedure unsafe.</li><li>• Cerclage involves stitching the cervix closed to prevent premature birth, which is not advisable when the protective amniotic sac is compromised.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Positive fetal fibronectin test: A positive fetal fibronectin test indicates an increased risk of preterm labor but is not an absolute contraindication to cerclage. This test measures the presence of fetal fibronectin, a protein that acts as a \"glue\" during pregnancy, keeping the amniotic sac attached to the lining of the uterus.</li><li>• Option A. Positive fetal fibronectin test:</li><li>• Option B. Membranes bulging into the vagina: While bulging membranes present a high-risk situation, they are not an absolute contraindication to cerclage. In some cases, cerclage can still be performed with careful management.</li><li>• Option B. Membranes bulging into the vagina:</li><li>• Option D. Advanced maternal age: Advanced maternal age is not a contraindication to cerclage. While it may increase the overall risk profile of the pregnancy, it does not specifically contraindicate the procedure.</li><li>• Option D. Advanced maternal age:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ruptured membranes are a complete contraindication to cervical cerclage due to the increased risk of infection and complications.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 543, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 543, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a history of penetrating injury to the eye. A diagnosis of sympathetic ophthalmitis was confirmed. Which of the following will be seen? ( NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute anterior uveitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pars planitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Panuveitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic anterior uveitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Panuveitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-166.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Panuveitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sympathetic ophthalmitis is a granulomatous panuveitis that occurs after penetrating eye injuries or intraocular surgeries, affecting both the injured and uninjured eyes. It involves inflammation of the entire uveal tract and is characterized by features such as Dalen-Fuch's nodules and retrolental flare in the uninjured eye.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida presents to the emergency room in the early stage of labor with adequate uterine contractions. On per vaginal examination, a gynecoid pelvis is felt, the membranes are ruptured, and the vertex is felt in the right occipito-posterior position. How will you manage this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vacuum-assisted delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cesarean section", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal vaginal delivery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Forceps delivery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Normal vaginal delivery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Normal vaginal delivery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Normal vaginal delivery: Assuming the patient has no other complications, such as fetal distress or cephalopelvic disproportion, the given features of right occipito-posterior presentation with a favorable pelvis (gynecoid) and adequate uterine contractions can be managed by normal vaginal delivery. In 90% of circumstances with a favorable pelvis and strong uterine contractions, without any complications, the occipito-posterior position can undergo the mechanism of normal labor. The patient can be closely monitored for the progress of normal vaginal delivery. However, if complications arise or labor stalls, alternative methods such as vacuum-assisted delivery or forceps delivery may be considered. A cesarean section would only be necessary if there were complications that prevented a safe vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Normal vaginal delivery: Assuming the patient has no other complications, such as fetal distress or cephalopelvic disproportion, the given features of right occipito-posterior presentation with a favorable pelvis (gynecoid) and adequate uterine contractions can be managed by normal vaginal delivery. In 90% of circumstances with a favorable pelvis and strong uterine contractions, without any complications, the occipito-posterior position can undergo the mechanism of normal labor. The patient can be closely monitored for the progress of normal vaginal delivery. However, if complications arise or labor stalls, alternative methods such as vacuum-assisted delivery or forceps delivery may be considered. A cesarean section would only be necessary if there were complications that prevented a safe vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Normal vaginal delivery:</li><li>• Assuming the patient has no other complications, such as fetal distress or cephalopelvic disproportion, the given features of right occipito-posterior presentation with a favorable pelvis (gynecoid) and adequate uterine contractions can be managed by normal vaginal delivery. In 90% of circumstances with a favorable pelvis and strong uterine contractions, without any complications, the occipito-posterior position can undergo the mechanism of normal labor. The patient can be closely monitored for the progress of normal vaginal delivery. However, if complications arise or labor stalls, alternative methods such as vacuum-assisted delivery or forceps delivery may be considered. A cesarean section would only be necessary if there were complications that prevented a safe vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Assuming the patient has no other complications, such as fetal distress or cephalopelvic disproportion, the given features of right occipito-posterior presentation with a favorable pelvis (gynecoid) and adequate uterine contractions can be managed by normal vaginal delivery.</li><li>• In 90% of circumstances with a favorable pelvis and strong uterine contractions, without any complications, the occipito-posterior position can undergo the mechanism of normal labor.</li><li>• The patient can be closely monitored for the progress of normal vaginal delivery. However, if complications arise or labor stalls, alternative methods such as vacuum-assisted delivery or forceps delivery may be considered. A cesarean section would only be necessary if there were complications that prevented a safe vaginal delivery.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Vacuum-assisted delivery: Vacuum-assisted delivery is generally considered when there is prolonged second stage of labor or fetal distress. In this case, since there are no complications mentioned and the pelvis is favorable, normal vaginal delivery is the preferred option.</li><li>• Option A. Vacuum-assisted delivery:</li><li>• Option B. Cesarean section: A cesarean section is usually considered when there is cephalopelvic disproportion, fetal distress, or failure to progress in labor. Given the favorable conditions in this scenario, a normal vaginal delivery is feasible.</li><li>• Option B. Cesarean section:</li><li>• Option D. Forceps delivery: Forceps delivery, like vacuum-assisted delivery, is used in cases of prolonged second stage of labor or when there is a need to expedite delivery. In the absence of such complications, normal vaginal delivery is the appropriate management.</li><li>• Option D. Forceps delivery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Right occipito-posterior presentation with a favorable pelvis and adequate uterine contractions in a primigravida can be managed by closely monitoring for a normal vaginal delivery, provided there are no complications.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 89, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 89, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is brought to the casualty following a road traffic accident. On examination, the patient is conscious, BP is 90/60 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute, and pulse rate is 120 bpm. The X-ray is shown below. What is the next best step in management? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pericardiocentesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thoracotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Needle thoracostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chest tube insertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Needle thoracostomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_216.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Needle thoracostomy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the court proceedings, the defense lawyer asks a leading question, which the prosecutor appeals against. The judge grants the appeal. Leading questions are not allowed in all of the following except? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Re-examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cross examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Examination in chief", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dying declaration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cross examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cross examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Leading Questions are Not permitted in:</li><li>➤ Leading Questions are Not permitted in:</li><li>➤ Examination in chief Re-Examination Dying Declaration</li><li>➤ Examination in chief</li><li>➤ Re-Examination</li><li>➤ Dying Declaration</li><li>➤ Leading Questions are permitted in:</li><li>➤ Leading Questions are permitted in:</li><li>➤ Cross Examination Dying Deposition Hostile witness is an exception wherein the leading questions can be asked even in examination in chief</li><li>➤ Cross Examination</li><li>➤ Dying Deposition</li><li>➤ Hostile witness is an exception wherein the leading questions can be asked even in examination in chief</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A photographer who recently returned from Africa presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and hemorrhagic manifestations. He died despite treatment, and an autopsy revealed intranuclear Torres bodies in the liver. Which of the following vaccines could have prevented it? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "17D", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nakayama vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weigl's vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jeryl Lynn strain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 17D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 17D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The 17D vaccine could have prevented the yellow fever that led to the photographer's severe symptoms and death. This highlights the importance of appropriate vaccination before traveling to areas where yellow fever is endemic.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with recurrent chest infections and abdominal pain. There is a history of 1 blood transfusion in the past. On examination, he had icterus and mild splenomegaly. Electrophoresis shows increased HbA2, HbF, and S spike. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HbC disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sickle cell disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute coronary disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sickle cell disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sickle cell disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sickle cell disease is characterized by the presence of HbS, leading to recurrent infections, abdominal pain, hemolytic anemia, and splenomegaly. The diagnosis is confirmed by hemoglobin electrophoresis showing increased HbA2, HbF, and an S spike. The genetic mutation involves the substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the 6th position of the β-globin chain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bladder exstrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Persistent vitellointestinal duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastroschisis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bladder exstrophy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture143.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Picture100000.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Picture100001.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bladder exstrophy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bladder exstrophy is a congenital abnormality characterized by an open and exposed bladder due to incomplete formation of the lower abdominal wall. The management involves staged surgical reconstruction, and complications include strictures, hyperchloremic acidosis, and increased risk of tumors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A post-COVID patient, who is a known diabetic, develops unilateral facial pain and loosening of teeth. Which investigation would you do to confirm the diagnosis on this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biopsy with histopathologic examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum ferritin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HbA1c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Biopsy with histopathologic examination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_230.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_231.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_232.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_233.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Biopsy with histopathologic examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Early diagnosis and aggressive treatment are critical for patients suspected of rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis, especially in those with risk factors like diabetes and a recent COVID-19 infection. A biopsy with histopathologic examination is essential for confirming the diagnosis. This condition requires a multidisciplinary approach involving antifungal therapy, surgical debridement, and meticulous management of underlying conditions like diabetes to prevent serious complications and improve outcomes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Laboratory investigations of a patient being evaluated for jaundice show elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Levels of the remaining liver enzymes are normal. What is the likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obstructive jaundice", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemolytic jaundice", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatic jaundice", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prehepatic jaundice", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Obstructive jaundice", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Obstructive jaundice</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases where laboratory investigations reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase with normal other liver enzymes, obstructive jaundice should be considered as the most likely diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male presented to the otolaryngology clinic with complaints of pain and swelling in the right side of his face. Upon examination, the physician noted swelling in the parotid gland, which is located in the cheek area. The patient also reported that his symptoms worsened when he ate food, and he had lost his appetite due to the discomfort. The physician ordered an ultrasound imaging of the salivary glands, which revealed the presence of multiple hyper-echoic areas within the parotid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sialolithiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Foreign body", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteoma of floor of mouth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical lymphadenopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sialolithiasis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns20.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sialolithiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sialolithiasis, characterized by the formation of calculi in the salivary glands, typically presents with pain and swelling, especially during meals. Ultrasound imaging can identify hyper-echoic areas representing the stones, helping in the diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Sialolithiasis, characterized by the formation of calculi in the salivary glands, typically presents with pain and swelling, especially during meals.</li><li>➤ Ultrasound imaging can identify hyper-echoic areas representing the stones, helping in the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "FAD status in body is determined by?(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glutathione reductase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hexokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transketolase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glutathione reductase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glutathione reductase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FAD is the active form of Vitamin B 2 and marker for the B 2 deficiency is RBC glutathione reductase activity as this enzyme require B 2 as coenzyme. So, in case of FAD deficiency, glutathione reductase activity will be lowered without affecting the quantity of enzyme.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 534</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 11-year-old child who weighs 26 kg with a history of streptococcal pharyngitis presents to you with fever and arthralgia. There is no past history of rheumatic heart disease or features of carditis or valvular disease. How often is benzathine penicillin recommended for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "600000 IU Once in 3 weeks for 5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "600000 IU Once in 3 weeks for 10 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1200000 IU Once in 3 weeks for 10 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1200000 IU Once in 3 weeks for life", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 600000 IU Once in 3 weeks for 10 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For an 11-year-old child weighing 26 kg with a history of streptococcal pharyngitis and no carditis or valvulitis, benzathine penicillin G prophylaxis should be administered at a dose of 600,000 IU every 3 weeks for a duration of 10 years (until the child turns 21 years old).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding the given cystometrogram? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Segment la is due to residual urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Segment II is due to Laplace law", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Micturition fails to happen in segment II", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The dotted line represents that micturition has occurred", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Segment II is due to Laplace law", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/702.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/703.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Segment II is due to Laplace Law</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The true statement regarding the given cystometrogram is that segment lb is due to Laplace law.</li><li>• The law of Laplace correlates volume and wall tension, is applicable to urine storage.</li><li>• According to Law of Laplace, the pressure (P) in a spherical viscus is equal to twice the wall tension (T) divided by the radius (R). This is expressed as P= 2T/R.</li><li>• As the bladder gets filled, the radius increases along with the tension, hence there is a slight increase in pressure until the bladder is relatively full, which explains the flatness of the graph in segment II</li><li>• The first urge to void is felt at a bladder volume of about 150 mL. A marked sense of fullness is felt at a bladder volume of 400ml.</li><li>• Cystometrogram is a plot of intravesical pressure against the volume of fluid in the bladder. The curve shows three segments:</li><li>• Initial Filling Phase (or Low-Pressure Phase ): This phase represents the storage phase of bladder function. Rapid Filling Phase (or High-Pressure Phase): In this phase, the intravesical pressure increases more rapidly as the bladder volume reaches a certain threshold. The detrusor muscle, which contracts to initiate bladder emptying, starts to generate increased pressure as the bladder approaches its capacity. This phase represents the transition from storage to voiding phase. Voiding Phase (or Micturition Phase): In the voiding phase, the intravesical pressure rises to its highest level as the detrusor muscle contracts forcefully to empty the bladder. The pressure exceeds the urethral resistance, resulting in urine expulsion. This phase is associated with the sensation of needing to urinate and the act of micturition (urination).</li><li>• Initial Filling Phase (or Low-Pressure Phase ): This phase represents the storage phase of bladder function.</li><li>• Initial Filling Phase (or Low-Pressure Phase</li><li>• Rapid Filling Phase (or High-Pressure Phase): In this phase, the intravesical pressure increases more rapidly as the bladder volume reaches a certain threshold. The detrusor muscle, which contracts to initiate bladder emptying, starts to generate increased pressure as the bladder approaches its capacity. This phase represents the transition from storage to voiding phase.</li><li>• Rapid Filling Phase (or High-Pressure Phase):</li><li>• Voiding Phase (or Micturition Phase): In the voiding phase, the intravesical pressure rises to its highest level as the detrusor muscle contracts forcefully to empty the bladder. The pressure exceeds the urethral resistance, resulting in urine expulsion. This phase is associated with the sensation of needing to urinate and the act of micturition (urination).</li><li>• Voiding Phase (or Micturition Phase):</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Segment Ia is due to residual urine : Incorrect. Segment I, particularly the initial part of the curve, typically represents the early filling phase of the bladder, not necessarily residual urine.</li><li>• Option A. Segment Ia is due to residual urine</li><li>• Option C. Micturition fails to happen in segment II : Incorrect. Segment II represents the continuation of the filling phase; micturition (urination) does not occur here because it typically begins when the bladder reaches its threshold capacity and the detrusor muscle contracts, which would be represented later in the graph.</li><li>• Option C. Micturition fails to happen in segment II</li><li>• Option D. The dotted line represents that micturition has occurred : Incorrect. The dotted line likely indicates phase transitions within the bladder's filling and voiding cycle, not necessarily the occurrence of micturition.</li><li>• Option D. The dotted line represents that micturition has occurred</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Segment II of a cystometrogram, characterized by Laplace's Law, illustrates how the bladder can accommodate increasing volumes of urine with minimal increase in pressure, showcasing the bladder's compliance during the urine storage phase. This is crucial for diagnosing and managing conditions related to bladder storage and voiding dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman discovered a lump in her breast during a self-examination. She immediately scheduled an appointment with her primary care physician for further evaluation. On examination by the doctor this was noticed. What is the cause for the following skin change? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infiltration of lactiferous duct", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Involvement of Cooper's ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spread of tumor to anterior chest wall", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns16.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Peau d'orange is a skin change indicative of underlying breast cancer where subdermal lymphatic infiltration leads to edema and skin dimpling resembling the surface of an orange.</li><li>➤ Peau d'orange is a skin change indicative of underlying breast cancer where subdermal lymphatic infiltration leads to edema and skin dimpling resembling the surface of an orange.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a firm, tender, slow-growing mass below the ear as shown in the image below. What could be the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bezold abscess", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parotid abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upper cervical lymphadenopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteoma of the mandible", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Parotid abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_234.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Parotid abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diagnosing and treating a parotid abscess promptly is crucial to prevent further complications such as the spread of infection. The characteristic presentation of swelling, tenderness, and systemic signs in a specific location aids in differential diagnosis from other potential conditions affecting the neck and jaw area.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition pg 297</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition pg 297</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male patient is brought to the emergency room after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. Upon examination, it is found that the patient is unable to pass urine and there is visible blood at the meatus. A retrograde urethrogram was performed as shown below. What is the most likely site of urethral injury? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bulbar urethra", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Extraperitoneal bladder rupture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Membranous urethra", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penile urethra", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Membranous urethra", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture1400.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Membranous urethra</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Membranous urethral injuries are common in pelvic fractures, presenting with urinary retention, blood at the meatus, and possibly a high-riding prostate on rectal examination. Retrograde urethrogram is used for confirmation.</li><li>➤ Membranous urethral injuries are common in pelvic fractures, presenting with urinary retention, blood at the meatus, and possibly a high-riding prostate on rectal examination. Retrograde urethrogram is used for confirmation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-month-old infant was brought with complaints of jerking movement of limbs towards the body. On examination, there is a regression of developmental milestones. Electroencephalogram shows hypsarrhythmia. Which of the following is the drug of choice in this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Levetiracetam", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenobarbitone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/6_budhxHY.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the drug of choice for treating infantile spasms in West Syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Most common complication of untreated radial head dislocation is: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cubitus varus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cubitus valgus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Damage to ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Myositis ossificans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cubitus varus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-23%20194141.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Cubitus varus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common complication of an untreated radial head dislocation is the cubitus varus deformity at the elbow.</li><li>➤ The most common complication of an untreated radial head dislocation is the cubitus varus deformity at the elbow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Numerous youngsters from a specific community arrived at a medical facility and were diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). It was assumed that it is due to the presence of cytotoxic waste in the water of that community. If a case-control investigation were to be conducted to find the potential association between the chemical waste and ALL, what would serve as the control group? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Children from the area exposed, but unaffected with the disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Children from the area not exposed and affected with the disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Children coming to the OPD who do not have the disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All children with ALL irrespective of exposure status", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Children coming to the OPD who do not have the disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Children coming to the OPD who do not have the disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a case-control study investigating the association between chemical waste exposure and acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), the control group should consist of children coming to the OPD who do not have the disease (ALL). This ensures a proper baseline for comparison to identify potential risk factors associated with the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dead body is brought for evaluation. On post-mortem examination, a ligature that was completely encircling the neck, horizontal, and below the level of the thyroid was seen. There was no dribbling of saliva. What is the cause of death? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Throttling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ligature strangulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gagging", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hanging", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ligature strangulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-125134.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ligature strangulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following according to the latest guidelines is NOT an indication to IE prophylaxis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prior Infective Endocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atrial Septal Defect", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unrepaired Cyanotic Congenital Heart Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac transplant with valvulopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Atrial Septal Defect", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is not an indication for infective endocarditis prophylaxis according to the latest guidelines, whereas prior infective endocarditis, prosthetic valves, cardiac transplant with valvulopathy, and certain congenital heart diseases are key indications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the proper disposal method for a damaged vaccine vial according to biomedical waste management protocols? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Puncture proof blue bin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "White container", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow container", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Red container", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Puncture proof blue bin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-124303.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Puncture proof blue bin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are examining a multigravida in the second stage of labor for the past two hours. On examination, contractions are adequate, the cervix is fully dilated with the head at station 0 with molding 2+ and caput 2+. The sagittal suture is in the right occipito-transverse position. The fetal heart rate is 140 beats/minute. Which of the following is carried out for the management of this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mid pelvic forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vacuum-assisted delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wait for an hour for spontaneous labor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lower segment cesarean section", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lower segment cesarean section", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lower segment cesarean section</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a case of deep transverse arrest with features of CPD, a lower segment cesarean section is the appropriate management to prevent complications and ensure safe delivery.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 661, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 661, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of lower back pain. During the medical examination, it is discovered that the patient has prostate cancer. The medical team suspects that the cancer may have spread to the lumbar vertebrae. What is the likely route of spread for prostate cancer to the lumbar vertebrae? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prostatic venous plexus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trans coelomic spread", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inferior vesical vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Internal iliac vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prostatic venous plexus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Prostatic venous plexus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prostate cancer primarily spreads to the lumbar vertebrae through the prostatic venous plexus (Bateson plexus), which allows retrograde embolic spread to the spine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male child presented with arthralgia and abdominal pain. On examination, there was palpable purpura over the lower limbs. There is a past history of upper respiratory tract infection prior to the onset of presenting symptoms. Which of the following is the treatment for this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Azathioprine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cyclosporine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucocorticoids", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glucocorticoids", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture144.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Glucocorticoids</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary treatment for Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), particularly with significant gastrointestinal involvement or severe symptoms, is glucocorticoids such as prednisolone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male patient presents with unilateral nasal obstruction and recurrent bleeding for the past 1 year. Transnasal endoscopic results are shown below. A contrast-enhanced CT revealed a mass extending from the posterior choana to the nasopharynx. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antrochoanal polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rhinoscleroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Concha bullosa", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_235.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prompt and accurate diagnosis of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is critical due to its potential for significant bleeding and local invasiveness. Treatment typically involves surgical removal, with preoperative planning crucial to manage the vascular nature of the tumor effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient on antidepressants presented to you with hypotension. An ECG was done, which showed wide QRS complexes and right axis deviation. How will you manage this patient? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antiarrhythmics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV NaHCO3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenytoin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IV NaHCO3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary treatment for tricyclic antidepressant overdose, especially when presenting with wide QRS complexes and right axis deviation, is intravenous sodium bicarbonate (IV NaHCO3).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following children are considered at-risk babies? (NEET PG 2022) Baby with a birth weight of 2.5 kg Baby on artificial feeds Baby of working mother/single parent Baby with weight &lt;85% of expected weight Birth order of 3 or more", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture142.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 2, 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infants on artificial feeding or with a working/single parent are at risk and require intensive care to prevent perinatal, neonatal, and infant mortality.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is false regarding neutrophil extracellular trapping (NET)? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is detected in blood during sepsis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is produced in response to bacterial infection.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitochondrial DNA is seen.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is chromatin with antibacterial enzymes.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mitochondrial DNA is seen.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mitochondrial DNA is seen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) are networks of nuclear DNA from neutrophils combined with antimicrobial enzymes and peptides, produced in response to bacterial and fungal infections. They play a crucial role in trapping and neutralizing pathogens. The presence of mitochondrial DNA in NETs is incorrect, as NETs are composed of nuclear chromatin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida woman at 12 weeks of gestation comes to the antenatal clinic for nutritional advice. Which of the following will you recommend? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Additional 300kcal in 2nd trimester", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Additional 300kcal in 1st trimester", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Additional 400kcal in 3rd trimester", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Additional 300kcal throughout the pregnancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Additional 300kcal in 2nd trimester", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Additional 300kcal in 2nd trimester</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For a pregnant woman, additional caloric intake recommendations vary by trimester. As per Williams Obstetrics: In the first trimester, no extra calories are required. In the second trimester, it is recommended to increase by approximately 340 kcal per day. In the third trimester, it is recommended to increase by approximately 452 kcal per day. According to the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), an additional intake of 300 kcal during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is recommended. Therefore, the recommendation of an additional 300 kcal in the second trimester is appropriate.</li><li>• For a pregnant woman, additional caloric intake recommendations vary by trimester.</li><li>• As per Williams Obstetrics: In the first trimester, no extra calories are required. In the second trimester, it is recommended to increase by approximately 340 kcal per day. In the third trimester, it is recommended to increase by approximately 452 kcal per day.</li><li>• In the first trimester, no extra calories are required. In the second trimester, it is recommended to increase by approximately 340 kcal per day. In the third trimester, it is recommended to increase by approximately 452 kcal per day.</li><li>• In the first trimester, no extra calories are required.</li><li>• In the second trimester, it is recommended to increase by approximately 340 kcal per day.</li><li>• In the third trimester, it is recommended to increase by approximately 452 kcal per day.</li><li>• According to the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), an additional intake of 300 kcal during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is recommended.</li><li>• Therefore, the recommendation of an additional 300 kcal in the second trimester is appropriate.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Additional 300kcal in 1st trimester: No extra calories are recommended in the first trimester.</li><li>• Option B. Additional 300kcal in 1st trimester:</li><li>• Option C. Additional 400kcal in 3rd trimester: The recommendation for the third trimester is an increase of approximately 452 kcal per day.</li><li>• Option C. Additional 400kcal in 3rd trimester:</li><li>• Option D. Additional 300kcal throughout the pregnancy: Caloric requirements vary by trimester, with no extra calories needed in the first trimester, and specific increases for the second and third trimesters.</li><li>• Option D. Additional 300kcal throughout the pregnancy:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand the caloric requirements and recommendations for each trimester of pregnancy to ensure adequate maternal and fetal nutrition.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 483, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 483, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Why do neoplastic cells utilize Warburg metabolism? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It decreases glucose utilization by neoplastic cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It forms metabolic intermediates which are needed for cell growth and multiplication", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It provides more energy in the form of increased ATP production", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It prevents apoptosis and makes the cancer cells immortal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It forms metabolic intermediates which are needed for cell growth and multiplication", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) It forms metabolic intermediates which are needed for cell growth and multiplication</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neoplastic cells utilize the Warburg metabolism to generate metabolic intermediates necessary for cell growth and multiplication. Despite being less efficient in ATP production, glycolysis provides carbon moieties needed for biosynthesis of nucleotides, amino acids, and lipids, supporting rapid proliferation and cellular maintenance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old woman is evaluated for primary infertility. Hysterosalpingography was done and reveals the finding shown below. What is the anomaly seen in the image? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Septate uterus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine didelphys", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bicornuate uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unicornuate uterus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Septate uterus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/picture6_g7vJDPm.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/untitled-81.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/untitled-82.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/untitled-83.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Septate uterus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The anomaly seen in the given hysterosalpingogram is suggestive of a septate uterus. A septate uterus is characterized by the presence of a septum in the endometrial cavity which hasn’t disappeared after fusion of the 2 Mullerian ducts On HSG, a septate and bicornuate uterus are commonly mis-diagnosed If the angle between the 2 horns is &lt;75, it is likely a septate uterus (As in this question) If the angle between the 2 horns is &gt;105, then it is likely a bicornuate uterus However, an HSG is not the ideal ix of choice An MRI is the best Ix for Mullerian anomalies</li><li>• The anomaly seen in the given hysterosalpingogram is suggestive of a septate uterus.</li><li>• A septate uterus is characterized by the presence of a septum in the endometrial cavity which hasn’t disappeared after fusion of the 2 Mullerian ducts</li><li>• On HSG, a septate and bicornuate uterus are commonly mis-diagnosed</li><li>• If the angle between the 2 horns is &lt;75, it is likely a septate uterus (As in this question)</li><li>• If the angle between the 2 horns is &gt;105, then it is likely a bicornuate uterus</li><li>• However, an HSG is not the ideal ix of choice</li><li>• An MRI is the best Ix for Mullerian anomalies</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Uterine didelphys : Uterine didelphys appears as 2 completely separate uterine cavities on the HSG with no communication whatsoever</li><li>• Option B. Uterine didelphys</li><li>• Option C. Bicornuate uterus : Bicornuate uterus: This appears as 2 horns of the uterus which are widely separated (angle &gt; 105 degree)</li><li>• Option C. Bicornuate uterus</li><li>• Option D. Unicornuate uterus : Unicornuate uterus: Single horn on the HSG</li><li>• Option D. Unicornuate uterus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The anomaly seen in the image is a septate uterus which is characterized by the presence of a septum in the endometrial cavity which hasn’t disappeared after fusion of the 2 Mullerian ducts.</li><li>➤ The anomaly seen in the image is a septate uterus which</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 47, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gyn 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 47, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gyn 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A surgeon returns home from a party after many pegs of alcohol and was called to perform an emergency operation. During the operation, the assisting staff noticed the surgeon’s hand shaking and instruments falling. He eventually nicks an artery and the patient collapses. Under which of the following terms will this incident be tried? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Criminal negligence", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Civil negligence not amounting to criminal negligence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Therapeutic misadventure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dichotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Criminal negligence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-125956.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Criminal negligence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Performing an operation while under the influence of alcohol and causing harm to a patient constitutes criminal negligence, which is tried in a criminal court and can result in imprisonment and fines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient presents to the emergency department. The arterial blood gas report is as follows: pH 7.2, pCO2 81mm Hg, and HCO3 40 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic acidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Respiratory acidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Respiratory acidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A blood gas report showing low pH and high pCO2 with compensatory elevated bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, often with a chronic component if the bicarbonate is significantly elevated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person after sleeping overnight with the arm under his head now experiences paresis but no numbness in the morning. Which of the following is the best explanation for it? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A fibers are more sensitive to hypoxia than B fibers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A fibers are more susceptible to pressure changes than C fibers", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "A fibers are more susceptible to hypoxia than C fibers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. A fibers are more susceptible to pressure changes than C fibers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/697.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-124637.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. A fibers are more susceptible to pressure changes than C fibers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In the above scenario, the patient has developed paresis (partial paralysis) but the pain sensation is intact (no numbness) suggests A fibers involvement as they carry motor, touch, and pressure sensations are most sensitive to pressure changes/compression.</li><li>• A fibers are myelinated nerve fibers responsible for transmitting signals related to touch, pressure, and proprioception (the sense of one's body position). C fibers, on the other hand, are unmyelinated and transmit slower pain signals. While both types of fibers can be affected by pressure, A fibers are more vulnerable to damage from sustained pressure than C fibers, which are more resistant to compression.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A fibers. - Incorrect. C fibers are unmyelinated and relatively more resistant to pressure compared to myelinated A fibers.</li><li>• Option A. C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A fibers.</li><li>• Option B. A fibers are more sensitive to hypoxia than B fibers. - Not relevant to the scenario, as the issue is related to mechanical pressure, not oxygen deprivation.</li><li>• Option B. A fibers are more sensitive to hypoxia than B fibers.</li><li>• Option D. A fibers are more susceptible to hypoxia than C fibers. - Also not relevant to the given scenario, focusing on hypoxia instead of the impact of mechanical pressure or compression.</li><li>• Option D. A fibers are more susceptible to hypoxia than C fibers.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Relative susceptibility -</li><li>➤ Relative susceptibility -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male patient presents with erectile dysfunction and bilateral leg pain that worsens with rest. The patient reports a history of smoking and high blood pressure. Physical examination reveals reduced sensation in both legs and weak pulses in the feet. Identify the location of the lesion? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bilateral popliteal arteries", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bilateral internal iliac arteries", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aortoiliac bifurcation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bilateral femoral arteries", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aortoiliac bifurcation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Aortoiliac bifurcation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leriche syndrome, also known as aortoiliac occlusive disease, involves obstruction at the aortoiliac bifurcation, leading to symptoms like claudication, erectile dysfunction, and decreased lower limb pulses.</li><li>➤ Leriche syndrome, also known as aortoiliac occlusive disease, involves obstruction at the aortoiliac bifurcation, leading to symptoms like claudication, erectile dysfunction, and decreased lower limb pulses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient with a BMI of 35 kg/m2 presents to you with a skin lesion in the axilla as shown below. Which of the following condition is she most likely to be suffering from? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabolic syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Addison’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperparathyroidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Metabolic syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1331_TeIe1ev.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-133942.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Metabolic syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References –</li><li>↳ Harrisons principle s of internal medicine 21 st edition Page no 390, 2933,2934, 2936, 2970, 2971, 3086, 3150, 3151, 3154, 3155, 3156, 3173, 3175</li><li>↳ Harrisons principle s of internal medicine 21 st edition Page no 390, 2933,2934, 2936, 2970, 2971, 3086, 3150, 3151, 3154, 3155, 3156, 3173, 3175</li><li>↳ Current Medical Diagnosis &amp; Treatment 2022 Page no 1157</li><li>↳ Current Medical Diagnosis &amp; Treatment 2022 Page no 1157</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 9th edition, Chapter 147, Page no 147.14-147.15</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 9th edition, Chapter 147, Page no 147.14-147.15</li><li>↳ Williams Gynecology, 3rd edition, Page no 391</li><li>↳ Williams Gynecology, 3rd edition, Page no 391</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of hymen shown in the image? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Imperforate hymen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Semilunar hymen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Septate hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Annular hymen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Septate hymen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/neet-pg-obg-2022-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/untitled-79.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Septate hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given image is suggestive of the septate hymen. The hymen is the membranous vestige of the junction between the sino-vaginal bulbs and the urogenital sinus, which perforates during fetal life to establish a connection between the vaginal lumen and the perineum. Defective perforation of this structure may result in the following variants of hymen: Imperforate hymen : Without any opening (presents as cryptomenorrhea at puberty) Micro-perforate hymen : Tiny opening Annular hymen : Oval central opening Septate hymen : Two lateral openings partitioned by a bridge of hymenal tissue (May have difficulty in intercourse, placement of a tampon) Naviculate hymen : Boat-like opening</li><li>• The given image is suggestive of the septate hymen.</li><li>• The hymen is the membranous vestige of the junction between the sino-vaginal bulbs and the urogenital sinus, which perforates during fetal life to establish a connection between the vaginal lumen and the perineum.</li><li>• Defective perforation of this structure may result in the following variants of hymen: Imperforate hymen : Without any opening (presents as cryptomenorrhea at puberty) Micro-perforate hymen : Tiny opening Annular hymen : Oval central opening Septate hymen : Two lateral openings partitioned by a bridge of hymenal tissue (May have difficulty in intercourse, placement of a tampon) Naviculate hymen : Boat-like opening</li><li>• Imperforate hymen : Without any opening (presents as cryptomenorrhea at puberty) Micro-perforate hymen : Tiny opening Annular hymen : Oval central opening Septate hymen : Two lateral openings partitioned by a bridge of hymenal tissue (May have difficulty in intercourse, placement of a tampon) Naviculate hymen : Boat-like opening</li><li>• Imperforate hymen : Without any opening (presents as cryptomenorrhea at puberty)</li><li>• Imperforate hymen</li><li>• Micro-perforate hymen : Tiny opening</li><li>• Micro-perforate hymen</li><li>• Annular hymen : Oval central opening</li><li>• Annular hymen</li><li>• Septate hymen : Two lateral openings partitioned by a bridge of hymenal tissue (May have difficulty in intercourse, placement of a tampon)</li><li>• Septate hymen</li><li>• Naviculate hymen : Boat-like opening</li><li>• Naviculate hymen</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Imperforate hymen : An imperforate hymen has no opening at all and often presents as cryptomenorrhea (accumulation of menstrual blood behind the hymen) at puberty.</li><li>• Option A. Imperforate hymen</li><li>• Option B. Semilunar hymen : A semilunar hymen has a crescent-shaped opening and is not depicted in the image.</li><li>• Option B. Semilunar hymen</li><li>• Option D. Annular hymen : An annular hymen has an oval central opening and does not match the septate appearance in the image.</li><li>• Option D. Annular hymen</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A septate hymen is characterized by two lateral openings partitioned by a bridge of hymenal tissue, which may lead to difficulties with intercourse or tampon use.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 18, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 18, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old man presents with dragging pain in the abdomen. On examination, there is massive splenomegaly. Peripheral smear shows leukocytosis with increased myelocytes, metamyelocytes and basophils. Which of the following translocation is seen in this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "t (9:22)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "t (8;22)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "t (15;17)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "t (8;14)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. t (9:22)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) t (9:22)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The translocation t(9;22) is characteristic of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) and results in the formation of the Philadelphia chromosome, which produces the BCR-ABL fusion gene responsible for the disease's pathogenesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female presented to the dermatologist with a small lesion on her right nasolabial fold. Upon examination, the dermatologist noted a 0.4-cm nodule with a smooth surface and well-defined borders. The nodule was located on the upper forehead, just above the eyebrows. It was excised and a pathological examination was done. The image is given below. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nevus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Basal cell carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns19.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Basal cell carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer and is typically found in sun-exposed areas. It appears as a pearly nodule with visible blood vessels and can cause significant local destruction if left untreated. Mohs micrographic surgery is an effective treatment, particularly for tumors in cosmetically sensitive areas.</li><li>➤ Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer and is typically found in sun-exposed areas.</li><li>➤ It appears as a pearly nodule with visible blood vessels and can cause significant local destruction if left untreated.</li><li>➤ Mohs micrographic surgery is an effective treatment, particularly for tumors in cosmetically sensitive areas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a tender pulsatile mass as shown in the image below. What is the next step? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FESS (functional endoscopic sinus surgery)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Needle aspiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CT angiogram", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intravenous antibiotics for 7 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CT angiogram", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns27.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CT angiogram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A CT angiogram is crucial for diagnosing and planning the treatment of a cirsoid aneurysm due to its detailed visualization of blood vessels. Needle aspiration is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding.</li><li>➤ A CT angiogram is crucial for diagnosing and planning the treatment of a cirsoid aneurysm due to its detailed visualization of blood vessels.</li><li>➤ Needle aspiration is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea increasing on lying down and relieved on sitting upright. On examination, heart sounds are muffled and her lungs are clear. CXR given below. What is the likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute Pulmonary edema", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute MI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac Tamponade", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cardiac Tamponade", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/26/screenshot-2024-07-25-160801.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cardiac Tamponade</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cardiac tamponade presents with symptoms of chest pain and dyspnea that worsen when lying down and improve when sitting up, muffled heart sounds, clear lung fields, and an enlarged cardiac silhouette on CXR.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While numerous animals play a role in the transmission of rabies, dogs stand out as the most common ones. Moreover, the impact of this disease is often more in children. Given this understanding, what approach would be both economically efficient and rational to reduce the occurrence of rabies? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Testing all the dogs for rabies", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduce stray dog population and vaccinate all dogs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strengthening laboratory facilities", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase capacity of healthcare workers for surveillance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Reduce stray dog population and vaccinate all dogs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Reduce stray dog population and vaccinate all dogs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reducing the stray dog population and vaccinating all dogs is the most economically efficient and rational approach to reduce the occurrence of rabies. This strategy directly targets the primary source of infection and helps prevent the spread of the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with an BT leprosy lesion on the face as shown in the image below. Which of the following nerves is most commonly involved in this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abducens nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Facial nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/07/picture14.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Facial Nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients presenting with leprosy lesions on the face, the most commonly involved nerve is the facial nerve (option A).</li><li>➤ patients presenting with</li><li>➤ facial</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References:</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 9th edition, Chapter 28, Page no 28.1, 28.3, 28.12</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 9th edition, Chapter 28, Page no 28.1, 28.3, 28.12</li><li>↳ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 1385, 1386, 1388</li><li>↳ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 1385, 1386, 1388</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was brought to the emergency department with multiple injuries, which included a femur fracture as well. He developed confusion, dyspnea, and a rash over his body. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fat embolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Air embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DIC", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fat embolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/screenshot-2024-01-02-173500.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fat embolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient presenting with fracture of femur, complaint of breathlessness after 48 hours, is highly suggestive of fat embolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adult man in a restaurant suddenly begins choking on his food. He is conscious. The following procedure was performed. Identify the procedure: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heimlich's maneuver", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Back slap", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chest thrust", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blind insertion of finger", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Heimlich's maneuver", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/6_Ktkp6fY.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Heimlich’s maneuver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Heimlich maneuver is an effective emergency procedure for saving lives in cases of severe choking. It is important for everyone to learn this technique as it can be performed on others or even on oneself in a choking emergency.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 367</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 367</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with a complaint of acute-onset severe abdominal pain. The patient is conscious, alert, and hemodynamically stable. Upon examination, the patient reports that the pain began suddenly. A chest X-ray is performed, which reveals some abnormal findings. Identify the condition shown below and its management? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastric lavage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Emergency laparotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ultrasound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chest tube insertion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Emergency laparotomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-112442.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Emergency laparotomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hollow viscus perforation is a surgical emergency that presents with acute abdominal pain and may be confirmed by the presence of free air under the diaphragm on a chest X-ray. Immediate surgical intervention, typically via emergency laparotomy, is required to address the perforation and prevent peritonitis.</li><li>➤ Hollow viscus perforation is a surgical emergency that presents with acute abdominal pain and may be confirmed by the presence of free air under the diaphragm on a chest X-ray.</li><li>➤ Immediate surgical intervention, typically via emergency laparotomy, is required to address the perforation and prevent peritonitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is not likely to cause a pleural pathology? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metformin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methysergide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bleomycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitrofurantoin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metformin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metformin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Metformin is not associated with causing pleural pathologies, unlike Methysergide, Bleomycin, and Nitrofurantoin, which have known risks of causing pleural and pulmonary complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Microfilariae with sheathed tail and two nuclei at the tail tip is suggestive of: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wuchereria bancrofti", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brugia malayi", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Onchocerca volvulus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Brugia malayi", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Brugia malayi</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The identification of microfilariae with a sheathed tail and two nuclei at the tail tip is a diagnostic feature of Brugia malayi, crucial for distinguishing it from other filarial infections. This morphological detail is important for correct diagnosis and appropriate management of lymphatic filariasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34 year G2P1 presents at 35 weeks. She has no complaints and is appreciating fetal movements well. She had a previous classical cesarean at 25 weeks for eclampsia and severe FGR. She is currently on low dose aspirin and prenatal vitamins. On examination, the uterus is SFH is 38 cm and FHR is 140 bpm. An ultrasound reveals a single live fetus in breech presentation, placenta posterior and amniotic fluid normal. The patient desires a vaginal delivery. What is the best management? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Review USG after 2 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Schedule elective LSCS at 37 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ECV at 36 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Await spontaneous labor and then do an internal podalic version", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Schedule elective LSCS at 37 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Schedule elective LSCS at 37 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Schedule elective LSCS at 37 weeks: The patient has a history of a classical cesarean section, which is an absolute contraindication to vaginal delivery due to the high risk of uterine rupture. A classical cesarean section involves a vertical incision on the upper part of the uterus, which does not heal as strongly as the lower segment horizontal incision, leading to a higher risk of rupture during labor. Given the breech presentation and the patient's obstetric history, an elective cesarean section at 37 weeks is the safest option to prevent complications.</li><li>• Schedule elective LSCS at 37 weeks: The patient has a history of a classical cesarean section, which is an absolute contraindication to vaginal delivery due to the high risk of uterine rupture. A classical cesarean section involves a vertical incision on the upper part of the uterus, which does not heal as strongly as the lower segment horizontal incision, leading to a higher risk of rupture during labor. Given the breech presentation and the patient's obstetric history, an elective cesarean section at 37 weeks is the safest option to prevent complications.</li><li>• Schedule elective LSCS at 37 weeks:</li><li>• The patient has a history of a classical cesarean section, which is an absolute contraindication to vaginal delivery due to the high risk of uterine rupture. A classical cesarean section involves a vertical incision on the upper part of the uterus, which does not heal as strongly as the lower segment horizontal incision, leading to a higher risk of rupture during labor. Given the breech presentation and the patient's obstetric history, an elective cesarean section at 37 weeks is the safest option to prevent complications.</li><li>• The patient has a history of a classical cesarean section, which is an absolute contraindication to vaginal delivery due to the high risk of uterine rupture.</li><li>• A classical cesarean section involves a vertical incision on the upper part of the uterus, which does not heal as strongly as the lower segment horizontal incision, leading to a higher risk of rupture during labor.</li><li>• Given the breech presentation and the patient's obstetric history, an elective cesarean section at 37 weeks is the safest option to prevent complications.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Review USG after 2 weeks: This option does not address the critical issue of the patient's previous classical cesarean section, which necessitates planning for a repeat cesarean delivery.</li><li>• Option A. Review USG after 2 weeks:</li><li>• Option C. ECV at 36 weeks: External Cephalic Version (ECV) is contraindicated in patients with a previous classical cesarean section due to the increased risk of uterine rupture.</li><li>• Option C. ECV at 36 weeks:</li><li>• Option D. Await spontaneous labor and then do an internal podalic version: Awaiting spontaneous labor is not advisable due to the increased risk of uterine rupture with a classical cesarean scar. Additionally, internal podalic version is not a recommended procedure in this context.</li><li>• Option D. Await spontaneous labor and then do an internal podalic version:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A classical cesarean section is an absolute contraindication to a vaginal delivery due to the high risk of uterine rupture; hence, an elective cesarean section should be scheduled at 37 weeks.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1439, William Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1439, William Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-day-old newborn was found to have thyroid -stimulating hormone level of more than 100 mlU/L. Which of the following will be the next best investigation? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine iodine excretion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum thyroid receptor antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiotracer uptake with technetium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perchlorate secretion test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radiotracer uptake with technetium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/4_5dgi5iT.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture139.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Radiotracer uptake with technetium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Radiotracer uptake with technetium is the next best investigation to confirm the presence and function of the thyroid gland in a newborn with elevated TSH.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Theophylline was prescribed to a male patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The next day, he noticed that his urine output had increased. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the drug's action? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interleukin-10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histone deacetylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenosine A1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Beta 2 adrenergic receptors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Adenosine A1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Adenosine A1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Theophylline increases urine output by antagonizing adenosine A1 receptors, leading to decreased water reabsorption in the renal tubules and resulting in diuresis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old male patient presents with decreased hearing in higher frequencies. It was noted that the basilar membrane was affected. Which of the following structures lie near the affected structure? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Modiolus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stria vascularis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oval window", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Helicotrema", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oval window", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/9_yzB48JQ.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/10_bwe9Qzl.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Oval window</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of high-frequency hearing loss, the basal turn of the cochlea near the oval window is typically involved. Understanding the anatomical proximity of the oval window to the basal turn helps in pinpointing the site of lesion and aids in specific diagnostic and therapeutic approaches aimed at the high-frequency hearing spectrum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient presents with anemia and hemoglobinuria. Investigations reveal increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). The peripheral smear image is given below. Which of the following physical examination findings can support the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Splenomegaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontal bossing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mechanical second heart sound", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Goitre", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mechanical second heart sound", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/1_4IRVWmk.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mechanical second heart sound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a patient presenting with anemia, hemoglobinuria, increased LDH, and schistocytes on a peripheral smear, the presence of a mechanical second heart sound can support the diagnosis of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) due to mechanical heart valves. The mechanical destruction of red blood cells leads to intravascular hemolysis, characteristic laboratory findings, and specific physical examination findings related to the heart valve.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following has autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Achondroplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Huntington’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Familial Hypercholesterolemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cystic fibrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cystic fibrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AD (Autosomal Dominant)</li><li>➤ AD</li><li>➤ (Autosomal Dominant)</li><li>➤ Familial hypercholesterolemia Huntington's disease Lactose Intolerance Marfan Syndrome Myotonic Dystrophy AD Polycystic Kidney Disease Porphyria Variegate</li><li>➤ Familial hypercholesterolemia</li><li>➤ Familial hypercholesterolemia</li><li>➤ Huntington's disease</li><li>➤ Huntington's disease</li><li>➤ Lactose Intolerance</li><li>➤ Marfan Syndrome</li><li>➤ Myotonic Dystrophy</li><li>➤ AD Polycystic Kidney Disease</li><li>➤ Porphyria Variegate</li><li>➤ AR (Autosomal Recessive)</li><li>➤ AR (Autosomal Recessive)</li><li>➤ Ataxia Telangiectasia Cystic fibrosis Familial Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy Sickle Cell disease Thalassemia Maple Syrup Urine disease Homocystinuria Alkaptonuria Hemochromatosis Albinism Phenylketonuria Wilson's disease Hemochromatosis AR Polycystic Kidney disease Orotic Aciduria Glycogen Storage Diseases All Mucopolysaccharidosis (except Hunter’s) All sphingolipidosis except Fabry’s disease</li><li>➤ Ataxia Telangiectasia</li><li>➤ Cystic fibrosis</li><li>➤ Cystic fibrosis</li><li>➤ Familial Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy</li><li>➤ Sickle Cell disease</li><li>➤ Thalassemia</li><li>➤ Maple Syrup Urine disease</li><li>➤ Homocystinuria</li><li>➤ Alkaptonuria</li><li>➤ Hemochromatosis</li><li>➤ Albinism</li><li>➤ Phenylketonuria</li><li>➤ Wilson's disease</li><li>➤ Hemochromatosis</li><li>➤ AR Polycystic Kidney disease</li><li>➤ Orotic Aciduria</li><li>➤ Glycogen Storage Diseases</li><li>➤ All Mucopolysaccharidosis (except Hunter’s)</li><li>➤ All sphingolipidosis except Fabry’s disease</li><li>➤ Fabry’s disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 478</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What could be the possible diagnosis of a 35-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension and multiple episodes of hematuria and loin pain, whose elder brother passed away due to stroke at the age of 40 and whose ultrasound abdomen is shown below? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tuberculosis of the kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns23.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is an inherited disorder characterized by the presence of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney failure, hypertension, and a higher risk of cerebral aneurysms, making it crucial to consider family history and typical ultrasound findings in the diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is an inherited disorder characterized by the presence of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney failure, hypertension, and a higher risk of cerebral aneurysms, making it crucial to consider family history and typical ultrasound findings in the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fatty acid transport through mitochondrial membrane is via? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carnitine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acyl carrier protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cholesterol transporter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LCAT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carnitine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Carnitine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fatty acid transport through the mitochondrial membrane involves the carnitine shuttle system. Long-chain fatty acids are activated to form fatty acyl-CoA in the cytoplasm. Carnitine acyltransferase I (CAT I) then catalyzes the transfer of the acyl group from CoA to carnitine, forming fatty acyl-carnitine.</li><li>➤ Fatty acyl-carnitine is transported across the mitochondrial membrane via a carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase.Once inside the mitochondrial matrix, carnitine acyltransferase II (CAT II) catalyzes the transfer of the acyl group back to CoA, allowing the fatty acid to undergo β-oxidation.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 208</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-month-old infant born to an HIV-positive mother presents with recurrent diarrhea. What is the next best step? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Test stool for giardia and give antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dried spot sample for HIV DNA PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibody tests for HIV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aerobic culture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dried spot sample for HIV DNA PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dried spot sample for HIV DNA PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The next best step in diagnosing HIV in infants born to HIV-positive mothers is to perform an HIV DNA PCR test using a dried blood spot sample.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Condition shown below is due to which vitamin deficiency?(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture15.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Function: Vitamin A plays a vital role in the growth and development of human cells, controlling the immune system by preventing infections, and activating white blood cells Deficiency Symptoms: Vitamin A deficiency can lead to night blindness, dry skin, poor immune function, and impaired growth and development.</li><li>➤ Function: Vitamin A plays a vital role in the growth and development of human cells, controlling the immune system by preventing infections, and activating white blood cells</li><li>➤ Function:</li><li>➤ Deficiency Symptoms: Vitamin A deficiency can lead to night blindness, dry skin, poor immune function, and impaired growth and development.</li><li>➤ Deficiency Symptoms:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 530</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not seen in MEN 2B syndrome? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Megacolon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parathyroid adenoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucosal neuroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marfanoid habitus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Parathyroid adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MEN 2B syndrome, also known as \"triple M syndrome,\" is characterized by mucosal neuromas, marfanoid habitus, and medullary thyroid carcinoma, but does not involve parathyroid adenomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Choose the correct statement regarding the telomerase theory of aging? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Telomere stability is associated with aging", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abnormal telomerase activation is associated with aging", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased telomere length is associated with aging", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased telomere length is associated with aging", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decreased telomere length is associated with aging", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decreased telomere length is associated with aging.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Decreased telomere length is associated with aging. Telomeres shorten with each cell division, leading to cell-cycle arrest or apoptosis when they become critically short, contributing to the aging process. Telomerase helps prevent this shortening but is typically inactive in most somatic cells, leading to aging and limited cell division capability.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below shows a pressure sore. Which stage does this belong to?(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Stage 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns30.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Stage 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer visits you with a foot swelling and multiple discharging sinuses in the lower limb. Microscopic examination of granules from the discharge was performed and is as shown in the image below. Based on this information, what can be concluded about this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "There is lymphocyte accumulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both bacteria and fungi can be causative", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Undergoes lymphatic spread", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Involves only superficial tissues", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Both bacteria and fungi can be causative", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/07/picture2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-131036.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1341.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-131431.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Both bacteria and fungi can be causative</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mycetoma can be caused by both bacteria and fungi , and is characterized by the presence of grains in discharging sinuses , often involving deep tissue structures beyond superficial tissues .</li><li>➤ Mycetoma</li><li>➤ both bacteria and fungi</li><li>➤ grains</li><li>➤ discharging sinuses</li><li>➤ deep tissue</li><li>➤ beyond superficial tissues</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference –</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II - 9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.75</li><li>↳ Rook's Textbook of Dermatology - Volume II - 9th Edition Chapter 32 Page no 32.75</li><li>↳ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology 10 th edition Page no 401, 604, 605</li><li>↳ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology 10 th edition Page no 401, 604, 605</li><li>↳ Jawetz Melnick &amp; Adelbergs Medical Microbiology 28 th edition Page no 689</li><li>↳ Jawetz Melnick &amp; Adelbergs Medical Microbiology 28 th edition Page no 689</li><li>↳ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition 1338, 1688</li><li>↳ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition 1338, 1688</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female patient is told about the benefits and complications of hysterectomy and she agrees to the procedure. What kind of consent is this? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Informed consent", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Implied consent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Opt out", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Passive consent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Informed consent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-124528.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-124550.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Informed consent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Consent can be classified in two ways:</li><li>➤ Consent can be classified in two ways:</li><li>➤ 1. Based on how the consent is given</li><li>➤ 1. Based on how the consent is given</li><li>➤ 2. Based on how much information provided:</li><li>➤ 2. Based on how much information provided:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient, who consumed a large number of TCA pills during a depressive episode, presented with altered sensorium, hypotension, and wide QRS complexes on ECG. What is the next best step in treatment? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DC Cardioversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Start antiarrhythmic drug", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NAHCO3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. NAHCO3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/23/screenshot-2023-12-23-174426.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) NAHCO3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 644.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic truck driver presents to you with cough and breathlessness. A diagnosis of pneumonia was confirmed, and histopathological examination revealed dichotomous branching, as shown below. What is the likely causative agent? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rhizopus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspergillus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Aspergillus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/0006.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_6zDQA4e.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_OLia68A.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Aspergillus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of respiratory infections in immunocompromised patients, the presence of dichotomous branching at acute angles in histopathological examination should prompt consideration of Aspergillus infection, necessitating prompt antifungal therapy to manage the potential for invasive disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following mechanisms is seen in the baroreceptor reflex? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Feedforward", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive feedback", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Negative feedback", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adaptive control regulation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Negative feedback", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/699.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Negative feedback</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Baroreceptors provide negative feedback in response to an increase in blood pressure.</li><li>• Baroreceptors are stretch receptors located in the heart and the adventitia of the blood vessels</li><li>• Fig : Regulation of blood pressure by baroreceptor mechanism</li><li>• Fig</li><li>• Fig : Regulation of blood pressure by baroreceptor mechanism</li><li>• Fig</li><li>• Increase in blood pressure → stimulates baroreceptors → Herring’s nerves → glossopharyngeal nerves → nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS) in the medulla → release glutamate and activate the caudal ventrolateral medulla (CVLM) → inhibitions of rostral ventrolateral medulla (RVLM) which is the vasoconstrictor center for the brain and the heart. Simultaneously, this pathway also excites the vagal parasympathetic.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Feedforward : Incorrect. Feedforward control involves responses that anticipate changes, typically without a direct sensor feedback component, which is not applicable to the baroreceptor reflex.</li><li>• Option A. Feedforward</li><li>• Option B. Positive feedback : Incorrect. Positive feedback amplifies an initial stimulus, leading to an even greater response. In contrast, the baroreceptor reflex mitigates changes in blood pressure to restore equilibrium.</li><li>• Option B. Positive feedback</li><li>• Option D. Adaptive control regulation : Incorrect. While adaptive control involves adjustment based on feedback, it is more complex and typically involves adjustments over time to control parameters. The baroreceptor reflex specifically uses a simpler, direct negative feedback mechanism to quickly counteract changes in blood pressure.</li><li>• Option D. Adaptive control regulation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The baroreceptor reflex is a prime example of a negative feedback mechanism in human physiology, crucial for maintaining stable blood pressure by counteracting deviations from an individual's normal blood pressure set point</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the percentage of burns in a 6-year-old child whose head and neck was burnt in an accident at school? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "9%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "18%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "27%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "36%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 18%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 18%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the Lund and Browder chart is essential for accurately assessing burn injuries in pediatric patients. For children aged 1-9 years, the head and neck region accounts for 18% of the TBSA. This knowledge is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management of burn injuries in children.</li><li>➤ Understanding the Lund and Browder chart is essential for accurately assessing burn injuries in pediatric patients.</li><li>➤ For children aged 1-9 years, the head and neck region accounts for 18% of the TBSA.</li><li>➤ This knowledge is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management of burn injuries in children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman at 26 weeks of gestation presents for routine evaluation. On examination, fundal height corresponds to 24 weeks. Ultrasonography revealed decreased amniotic fluid. Which of the following conditions would have led to this presentation? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal agenesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracheosophageal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardiac abnormalities", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ureteral stricture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Renal agenesis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Renal agenesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Early onset oligohydramnios can be caused by renal anomalies, with bilateral renal agenesis being a primary condition leading to reduced amniotic fluid levels.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 670, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 670, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The farmer presents with a cauliflower-like mass on the foot, which developed after a minor injury, as depicted in the image. Microscopic examination reveals the presence of copper penny bodies. Based on this information, what is the most probable diagnosis? ( NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chromoblastomycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phaeohyphomycosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chromoblastomycosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1342.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-131727.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1343.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-132120.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Chromoblastomycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chromoblastomycosis is identified by its clinical presentation of verrucous skin lesions and the histopathological finding of sclerotic or copper penny bodies, indicative of infection with dematiaceous fungi.</li><li>➤ Chromoblastomycosis is identified by its clinical presentation of verrucous skin lesions and the histopathological finding of sclerotic or copper penny bodies, indicative of infection with dematiaceous fungi.</li><li>➤ Chromoblastomycosis</li><li>➤ clinical</li><li>➤ verrucous skin</li><li>➤ histopathological finding</li><li>➤ sclerotic or copper penny</li><li>➤ dematiaceous fungi.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with cervical lymphadenopathy and is found to be retropositive. A fungal culture depicts a velvety growth with red diffusible pigment on the underside, as shown below. Which is the most likely causative organism? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Talaromyces marneffei", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blastomyces", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspergillus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumocystis jirovecii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Talaromyces marneffei", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/20.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_MC4WRMy.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_otxGGn3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Talaromyces marneffei</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Recognition of the red diffusible pigment in culture is critical in identifying Talaromyces marneffei infection, particularly in HIV-positive patients. It's important to consider this pathogen when patients from endemic regions present with systemic symptoms and lymphadenopathy. Treatment involves antifungal therapy tailored to the severity of the infection, with agents such as itraconazole for mild cases and amphotericin B for severe cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents with complaints of thick white vaginal secretions. Which of the following can be used to identify the likely species of the causative agent? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bird seed agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brain heart infusion agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CHROMagar", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sabouraud dextrose agar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CHROMagar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CHROMagar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CHROMagar is the preferred medium for rapidly identifying and differentiating various Candida species directly from clinical specimens like vaginal swabs, with Candida albicans typically forming green colonies on this medium. This tool is essential for quick, accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of candidiasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newly joined teacher develops rice water stools. The causative agent acts on which of the following receptors? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GM1 ganglioside receptor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "GM2 ganglioside receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sphingomyelin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cerebroganglioside", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. GM1 ganglioside receptor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) GM1 ganglioside receptor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding that cholera toxin acts on GM1 ganglioside receptors is crucial for grasping the pathophysiological basis of cholera. This interaction triggers a cascade of events leading to the massive, life-threatening secretory diarrhea that characterizes the disease. Proper hydration and antibiotics like erythromycin are key to treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child with a history of recurrent respiratory infections presented with complaints of pain around the knee and a high fever. X-ray shows lytic and sclerotic bone. His peripheral blood smear is shown in the image below. Aspirate from the joint will most likely show: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Salmonella", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/untitled-1325.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Salmonella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Acute osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is caused by salmonella.</li><li>➤ Acute osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is caused by salmonella.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man on diuretics presents with weakness. An ECG was done which showed flat T waves and prominent U waves. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypomagnesemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypernatremia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypokalemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hypokalemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypokalemia is characterized by ECG changes such as flattened T waves, prominent U waves, and ST depression. It is commonly seen in patients on diuretics, and recognizing these ECG patterns is crucial for diagnosis and management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with diabetes mellitus for the past 5 years presents with vomiting and abdominal pain. She is non-compliant with medication and appears dehydrated. Investigations revealed a blood sugar value of 500 mg/dL and the presence of ketone bodies. What is the next best step in management? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intravenous fluids with S.C. long-acting insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intravenous fluids with S.C. regular insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous insulin I.V. long-acting insulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intravenous fluids with I.V. regular insulin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Intravenous fluids with I.V. regular insulin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Intravenous fluids with I.V. regular insulin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial steps involve aggressive IV fluid resuscitation followed by IV regular insulin to rapidly lower blood glucose and resolve ketosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida presents to the labor room at 40 weeks of gestation with lower abdominal pain. She has been in labor for 3 hours. Which of the following will determine if she is in active labor? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fetal head 5/5 palpable on abdominal examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Two contractions lasting for 10 seconds in 10 minutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "More than 5 cm cervical dilatation with complete effacement", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rupture of membranes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. More than 5 cm cervical dilatation with complete effacement", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) More than 5 cm cervical dilatation with complete effacement</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Active labor is determined by more than 5 cm of cervical dilatation with complete effacement, according to the WHO Labor Care Guide.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 138, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 138, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics, 8 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure given in the image: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malleus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stapes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vomer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Incus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/28/image-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Incus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The incus is one of the three auditory ossicles in the middle ear. It plays a critical role in hearing by transmitting sound vibrations from the malleus to the stapes.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 9</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 9</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with the complaint of inability to close the eye, drooling of saliva, and deviation of the angle of the mouth. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be affected? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trigeminal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oculomotor nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Facial nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/5_hcsmvNT.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Facial nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prompt recognition and treatment of facial nerve paralysis are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing permanent damage. Treatment primarily involves medication to reduce inflammation and supportive care, especially for eye protection.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 103, 104</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 103, 104</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with a history of loose stools with an increase in frequency for 4 days. On examination, he is drowsy, unable to feed, and skin on pinching goes back very slowly. According to the integrated management of neonatal and childhood illness (IMNCI), this child will be classified as having: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mild dehydration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Some dehydration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe dehydration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Moderate dehydration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Severe dehydration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture141_nclbs33.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Severe dehydration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A child with signs of lethargy, poor feeding, and slow skin pinch return should be classified as having severe dehydration and managed urgently as per IMNCI guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with deep vein thrombosis was started on a new drug. After 2 days, he presented with the given finding. Which of the following drugs is implicated in causing the below condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dabigatran", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rivaroxaban", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Warfarin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/04/2.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Warfarin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Warfarin can cause dermal vascular necrosis, particularly in patients with protein C deficiency, presenting as painful, necrotic skin lesions shortly after initiation of therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the most common site of an intra-abdominal abscess:(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peri splenic space", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left subphrenic space", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right subphrenic space", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subhepatic space", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Subhepatic space", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Subhepatic space</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common site of an intra-abdominal abscess is subhepatic space.</li><li>➤ The most common site of an intra-abdominal abscess is subhepatic space.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient, the hypothalamic thermostat was reset from point V to point X as shown below. Which of the following happens in stage W compared to stage Y? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shivering", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sweating", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased blood flow to skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibition of chemical thermogenesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Shivering", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/704.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/705.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/706.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Shivering</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In the above scenario, the patient's hypothalamic thermostat has been reset to a higher temperature, hence the body uses methods like shivering to increase the temperature.</li><li>• Fig : Effects changing the set-point of the hypothalamic temperature</li><li>• Fig</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sweating</li><li>• Option B. Sweating</li><li>• Stage W : Sweating is unlikely in this phase because the body is in the process of heating up to meet the new higher set point. Sweating is a mechanism used to reduce body temperature and would be counterproductive at this stage. Stage Y : Sweating becomes prominent here as the body seeks to dissipate excess heat after reaching or surpassing the set point.</li><li>• Stage W : Sweating is unlikely in this phase because the body is in the process of heating up to meet the new higher set point. Sweating is a mechanism used to reduce body temperature and would be counterproductive at this stage.</li><li>• Stage W</li><li>• Stage Y : Sweating becomes prominent here as the body seeks to dissipate excess heat after reaching or surpassing the set point.</li><li>• Stage Y</li><li>• Option C. Increased blood flow to the skin</li><li>• Option C. Increased blood flow to the skin</li><li>• Stage W : There is typically decreased blood flow to the skin during this phase due to vasoconstriction, which helps to retain heat. Increasing blood flow to the skin would be counterproductive as it would lead to increased heat loss. Stage Y : Increased blood flow to the skin occurs in this phase to facilitate heat loss through the skin, aiding in thermoregulation by cooling the body down.</li><li>• Stage W : There is typically decreased blood flow to the skin during this phase due to vasoconstriction, which helps to retain heat. Increasing blood flow to the skin would be counterproductive as it would lead to increased heat loss.</li><li>• Stage W</li><li>• Stage Y : Increased blood flow to the skin occurs in this phase to facilitate heat loss through the skin, aiding in thermoregulation by cooling the body down.</li><li>• Stage Y</li><li>• Option D. Inhibition of chemical thermogenesis</li><li>• Option D. Inhibition of chemical thermogenesis</li><li>• Stage W : There is actually an increase in chemical thermogenesis during this stage. Chemical thermogenesis, including actions such as the metabolic effects of shivering and brown fat activation, helps to generate additional heat. Stage Y : As the body temperature stabilizes or exceeds the set point, there might be a natural reduction in chemical thermogenesis as the need to generate heat reduces.</li><li>• Stage W : There is actually an increase in chemical thermogenesis during this stage. Chemical thermogenesis, including actions such as the metabolic effects of shivering and brown fat activation, helps to generate additional heat.</li><li>• Stage W</li><li>• Stage Y : As the body temperature stabilizes or exceeds the set point, there might be a natural reduction in chemical thermogenesis as the need to generate heat reduces.</li><li>• Stage Y</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ TEMPERATURE REGULATION -</li><li>➤ TEMPERATURE REGULATION -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with abdominal distension, jaundice, and pruritis. Ascitic fluid analysis revealed a neutrophil count &gt; 650 per cubic mm. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malignant ascites", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tubercular ascites", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis should be suspected in patients with chronic liver disease and ascites if the ascitic fluid neutrophil count exceeds 250 cells/mm3, necessitating prompt antibiotic treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida at 22 weeks of gestation presents to you with profuse vaginal bleeding. Her blood pressure and glucose levels are within normal limits. Placental implantation at which of the following sites can cause this? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Internal os", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fallopian tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovarian", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abdominal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Internal os", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Internal os</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario points to a diagnosis of placenta previa which is caused due to placental implantation at the internal os. Although the term placenta previa is diagnosed after 28 weeks, it can present with profuse bleeding at earlier gestational ages also.</li><li>• The given clinical scenario points to a diagnosis of placenta previa which is caused due to placental implantation at the internal os.</li><li>• Although the term placenta previa is diagnosed after 28 weeks, it can present with profuse bleeding at earlier gestational ages also.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Fallopian tube : This will not present as profuse vaginal bleeding at 22 weeks. This will present at a much earlier gestational age (6-8 weeks) and presents with abdominal pain (ruptured ectopic), vaginal bleeding (not profuse) and amenorrhoea (6-8 weeks)</li><li>• Option B. Fallopian tube</li><li>• Option C. Ovarian : Presents like an ectopic in the fallopian tube</li><li>• Option C. Ovarian</li><li>• Option D. Abdominal : This has varied presentations, but doesn’t present with profuse vaginal bleeding.</li><li>• Option D. Abdominal</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placental implantation at the internal os, causing placenta previa, can lead to profuse vaginal bleeding during the second trimester of pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 657, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 657, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the indication of this procedure? ( NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Keratoconus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vogt's limbal girdle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Keratoglobus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corneal dystrophy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Keratoconus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-172.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-173.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/03/screenshot-2024-07-03-154038.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-175.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Keratoconus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The placement of Intacs is an indicated treatment for keratoconus, a condition characterized by the thinning and protrusion of the cornea leading to progressive myopia and irregular astigmatism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following steps is not included in WHO's STEP approach?(NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Therapeutic assessment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Physical assessment", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biochemical assessment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Behavioral assessment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Therapeutic assessment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/04/screenshot-2023-10-04-121523.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Therapeutic assessment</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intraocular foreign body", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudoexfoliation syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ocular trauma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vossius ring", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-163.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-164.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-165.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pseudoexfoliation syndrome is characterized by the deposition of amorphous grey dandruff-like material on various parts of the eye, leading to potential complications like secondary open-angle glaucoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image given below shows neuromuscular monitoring of the patient after anesthesia. What is the most commonly used nerve for monitoring? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metacarpal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ulnar nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/31/1_xhXQIou.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ulnar nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ulnar nerve is the most commonly used nerve for monitoring neuromuscular blockade, typically assessed using a Train of Four (TOF) monitor or peripheral nerve stimulator.</li><li>➤ The ulnar nerve is the most commonly used nerve for monitoring neuromuscular blockade, typically assessed using a Train of Four (TOF) monitor or peripheral nerve stimulator.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient who was diagnosed with tuberculosis has successfully completed the full course of treatment. Subsequent to finishing both the intensive and continuation phases, the initial sputum examination was conducted. The results of this examination were negative. What is the current condition of the patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cured", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Treatment completed", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lost to follow up", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treatment failed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cured", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cured</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Terminologies:</li><li>➤ Terminologies:</li><li>➤ Cured - A TB patient whose smear or culture turned negative in the last month of treatment and on at least one previous occasion Treatment completed - A TB patient who completed treatment without any failure, but has no record to show that sputum smear or culture results in the last month of treatment and on at least one previous occasion were negative; it may be either because tests were not done or because results are unavailable Treatment failed - A TB patient whose sputum smear or culture is still positive after treatment for 5 months or more Lost to follow-up - A TB patient who did not start treatment or whose treatment was interrupted for 2 consecutive months or more Died - A TB patient who dies before starting or during the course of treatment for any reason Not evaluated - A TB patient for whom no treatment outcome is assigned; this includes cases \"transferred out\" to another treatment unit and cases for whom the treatment outcome is unknown to the reporting unit whose treatment is interrupted</li><li>➤ Cured - A TB patient whose smear or culture turned negative in the last month of treatment and on at least one previous occasion</li><li>➤ Cured -</li><li>➤ Treatment completed - A TB patient who completed treatment without any failure, but has no record to show that sputum smear or culture results in the last month of treatment and on at least one previous occasion were negative; it may be either because tests were not done or because results are unavailable</li><li>➤ Treatment completed -</li><li>➤ Treatment failed - A TB patient whose sputum smear or culture is still positive after treatment for 5 months or more</li><li>➤ Treatment failed -</li><li>➤ Lost to follow-up - A TB patient who did not start treatment or whose treatment was interrupted for 2 consecutive months or more</li><li>➤ Lost to follow-up</li><li>➤ Died - A TB patient who dies before starting or during the course of treatment for any reason</li><li>➤ Died -</li><li>➤ Not evaluated - A TB patient for whom no treatment outcome is assigned; this includes cases \"transferred out\" to another treatment unit and cases for whom the treatment outcome is unknown to the reporting unit whose treatment is interrupted</li><li>➤ Not evaluated -</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient presented to you with visual acuity of 6/9 in one eye. Further investigations revealed pre-retinal hemorrhages with neovascularization at the optic disc. What is the next step in management? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Focal laser photocoagulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pan-retinal photocoagulation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grid laser photocoagulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scleral buckling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pan-retinal photocoagulation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/03/untitled-167.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/abbreviated-early-treatment-diabetic-retinopathy-study_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pan-retinal photocoagulation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pan-retinal photocoagulation (PRP) is the recommended management for proliferative diabetic retinopathy with high-risk characteristics such as neovascularization at the optic disc and pre-retinal hemorrhages.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby presented with abdominal pain. On examination, a mass is palpated in the right lumbar region. A barium enema is done, and the image is given below. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intussusception", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Volvulus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duodenal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intussusception", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/untitled-457.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Intussusception</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intussusception presents with cramping abdominal pain, palpable mass, and red currant jelly stools, and is confirmed by imaging showing the claw sign.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of wound from the image: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Defense wounds", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antemortem wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Postmortem wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hesitation cuts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Defense wounds", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/untitled-13590.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-123547.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Defense wounds</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following condition will cause intermittent breaking of long bones in a child? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Achondroplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Marfan Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteogenesis Imperfecta", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cretinism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture52.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture56.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture57_56SXDq2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture55.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intermittent breaking of long bones in children is a feature of osteogenesis imperfecta.</li><li>➤ Intermittent breaking of long bones in children is a feature of osteogenesis imperfecta.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an urban area in the state of Madhya Pradesh, a first-time pregnant woman visits a healthcare facility for her delivery following encouragement from an ASHA worker. What monetary advantages will they obtain under the Janani Suraksha Yojana? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1000 for mother and 400 for ASHA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1400 for mother and 600 for ASHA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "600 for mother and 400 for ASHA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "400 for mother and 600 for ASHA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1000 for mother and 400 for ASHA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-124528.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1000 for mother and 400 for ASHA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ (LPS: Low performing states; HPS: High performing states)</li><li>➤ (LPS include UP, Uttarakhand, MP, Jharkhand, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Assam, Jammu &amp; Kashmir, Rajasthan)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The typical lifespan for a Japanese woman is 87 years. Due to recent progress in cervical cancer testing, her life expectancy has risen by 15 years. With a healthcare utility value of 0.8, what can be determined based on these provided parameters? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HALE", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DALY", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DFLE", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "QALY", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. QALY", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) QALY</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ QALY (Quality Adjusted Life Years) is the measure used to assess the value of medical interventions by considering both the quality and quantity of life lived. In this scenario, the increase in life expectancy due to cervical cancer testing and the given utility value are used to calculate QALYs gained.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Collapse in a patient during labor/ delivery followed by bleeding and DIC in the absence of coexisting conditions is most likely due to? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amniotic fluid embolism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postpartum haemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peripartum cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amniotic fluid embolism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Amniotic fluid embolism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Collapse in a patient during labor/ delivery followed by bleeding and DIC in the absence of coexisting conditions is most likely due to amniotic fluid embolism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given the radiograph of a 13-year-old child who presented with fall on elbow. Which of the following bone is fractured? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Humerus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clavicle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scapula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ribs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Humerus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/11/2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/screenshot-2024-01-02-170644.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture48.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture49.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Humerus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The image given in the question shows the fracture of upper end or proximal end of humerus.</li><li>➤ The image given in the question shows the fracture of upper end or proximal end of humerus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male patient is evaluated for primary infertility. Semen analysis shows azoospermia. A testicular biopsy is done and the image is shown below. The shown finding is consistent with? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sertoli cell only syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Testicular atrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Benign testicular neoplasm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Orchitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sertoli cell only syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/picture9_PMXBtsB.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sertoli cell only syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sertoli cell only syndrome : The given clinical scenario and the biopsy findings are consistent with the diagnosis of Sertoli cell-only syndrome. Patients with Sertoli cell-only syndrome typically present between the ages of 20 and 40 years with primary infertility. Diagnosis is confirmed through testicular biopsy. The histopathology of the biopsy specimen typically shows seminiferous tubules populated by only Sertoli cells, with thickening of the tubular basement membrane and absence of germ cells, which is characteristic of Sertoli cell-only syndrome.</li><li>• Sertoli cell only syndrome : The given clinical scenario and the biopsy findings are consistent with the diagnosis of Sertoli cell-only syndrome. Patients with Sertoli cell-only syndrome typically present between the ages of 20 and 40 years with primary infertility. Diagnosis is confirmed through testicular biopsy. The histopathology of the biopsy specimen typically shows seminiferous tubules populated by only Sertoli cells, with thickening of the tubular basement membrane and absence of germ cells, which is characteristic of Sertoli cell-only syndrome.</li><li>• Sertoli cell only syndrome</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and the biopsy findings are consistent with the diagnosis of Sertoli cell-only syndrome. Patients with Sertoli cell-only syndrome typically present between the ages of 20 and 40 years with primary infertility. Diagnosis is confirmed through testicular biopsy. The histopathology of the biopsy specimen typically shows seminiferous tubules populated by only Sertoli cells, with thickening of the tubular basement membrane and absence of germ cells, which is characteristic of Sertoli cell-only syndrome.</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and the biopsy findings are consistent with the diagnosis of Sertoli cell-only syndrome.</li><li>• Patients with Sertoli cell-only syndrome typically present between the ages of 20 and 40 years with primary infertility.</li><li>• Diagnosis is confirmed through testicular biopsy.</li><li>• The histopathology of the biopsy specimen typically shows seminiferous tubules populated by only Sertoli cells, with thickening of the tubular basement membrane and absence of germ cells, which is characteristic of Sertoli cell-only syndrome.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Testicular atrophy : Testicular atrophy may present with decreased testicular volume and could be due to various causes like mumps orchitis, trauma, or varicocele. The histopathological findings would not specifically show the absence of germ cells with the presence of only Sertoli cells.</li><li>• Option B. Testicular atrophy</li><li>• Option C. Benign testicular neoplasm : Benign testicular neoplasms would present with a mass in the testis and would show specific neoplastic cells on histopathology rather than the absence of germ cells.</li><li>• Option C. Benign testicular neoplasm</li><li>• Option D. Orchitis : Orchitis typically presents with inflammation, pain, and swelling of the testes, and the biopsy would show inflammatory infiltrates rather than the absence of germ cells.</li><li>• Option D. Orchitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sertoli cell-only syndrome is characterized by primary infertility and azoospermia, with testicular biopsy showing seminiferous tubules populated only by Sertoli cells and absence of germ cells.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7910341/</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7910341/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor, and abdominal pain. He reports memory loss and reveals that he works at a battery recycling plant. On examination, a noticeable foot drop in both lower extremities is seen. Laboratory testing shows elevated blood lead levels. Which enzyme is affected in the given scenario? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aminolevulinic acid (ALA) dehydratase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uroporphyrinogen III", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uroporphyrinogen I", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aminolevulinic acid (ALA) dehydratase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-123905.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Aminolevulinic acid (ALA) dehydratase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Lead poisoning primarily inhibits the enzyme Aminolevulinic acid (ALA) dehydratase (ALAD), leading to disruptions in the heme synthesis pathway and accumulation of heme precursors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old patient with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the clinic with complaints of oral ulcers and a burning sensation in the mouth. A picture of the patient's oral cavity is provided, which reveals several white patches on the tongue and inner cheek. Based on this presentation, what is the likely diagnosis for this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leukoplakia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erythroplakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Submucosal fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malakoplakia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leukoplakia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns26.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Leukoplakia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leukoplakia is an oral mucosal lesion characterized by white patches that cannot be scraped off and is commonly associated with tobacco and alcohol use. It has the potential for malignant transformation, necessitating regular monitoring and biopsy of suspicious areas.</li><li>➤ Leukoplakia is an oral mucosal lesion characterized by white patches that cannot be scraped off and is commonly associated with tobacco and alcohol use.</li><li>➤ It has the potential for malignant transformation, necessitating regular monitoring and biopsy of suspicious areas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which agency offers seeds and manure as part of applied nutrition programs in schools? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CARE", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UNDP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UNICEF", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "WHO", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. UNICEF", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/04/screenshot-2023-10-04-123627.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-124958.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) UNICEF</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ UNICEF provides seeds, manure, and water supply equipment as part of its Applied Nutrition Program to develop school gardens, which are used in school feeding programs to improve children's nutrition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 72-year-old man with a history of HTN, DM2, and DLP is brought to the ER because of reports of palpitations and dizziness. ECG is ordered and shown in the image. His temperature is 36.8°C, PR is 106/min, RR is 18/min, BP is 84/46 mm Hg, and SpO2 is 92% on room air. What is the next step? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heparin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "DC shock", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. DC shock", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-191511.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. DC shock</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In hemodynamically unstable patients with atrial fibrillation, immediate synchronized DC cardioversion is the next step to restore a stable rhythm and improve hemodynamic status.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female patient presents to you with fever, breathlessness, and cough with expectoration. A CT scan was done which is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Consolidation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mass", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diaphragmatic hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Consolidation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-191655.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Consolidation in the lung, often due to pneumonia, is characterized by a homogenous area of increased density with air bronchograms on imaging, and presents with symptoms such as fever, breathlessness, and productive cough.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young patient began taking a weight loss medication that works by preventing fat absorption from food. She developed easy bruising and increased menstrual bleeding after a few weeks. Which of the following vitamins deficiency is likely to be responsible for her condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin K", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin K", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin K</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin K deficiency due to impaired fat absorption from weight loss medications can lead to bleeding manifestations such as easy bruising and increased menstrual bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman with recurrent diarrhea is prescribed a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Which of the following is not true regarding Clostridium difficile infection? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral fidaxomicin is used for treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is toxin mediated", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgM assay is used to confirm the diagnosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudomembrane consists of leukocytes, fibrin, and cellular debris", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. IgM assay is used to confirm the diagnosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) IgM assay is used to confirm the diagnosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clostridium difficile infection is diagnosed primarily through the detection of toxins rather than IgM assays is crucial for appropriate management. This recognition guides the effective use of specific treatments such as oral fidaxomicin or vancomycin, aimed at countering the effects of these toxins and managing the symptoms of the infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-day-old neonate has not passed urine since birth. What is the next step in management? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Continue breastfeeding and observe", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Admit to NICU", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Start artificial feeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start intravenous fluids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Continue breastfeeding and observe", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture137.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture138.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Continue breastfeeding and observe</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ It is normal for a neonate to not pass urine within the first 24 hours; continue breastfeeding and observe the baby.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While discharging a patient who underwent a vesicovaginal fistula repair, which of the following would you recommend? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sexual abstinence for 3 months and avoid pregnancy for a year", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sexual abstinence for 3 weeks and avoid pregnancy for 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sexual abstinence for 6 weeks and avoid pregnancy for a year", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sexual abstinence for 6 months and avoid pregnancy for 6 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sexual abstinence for 3 months and avoid pregnancy for a year", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Sexual abstinence for 3 months and avoid pregnancy for a year</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) is a type of urinary fistula that commonly arises due to obstetric trauma. Small fistulas can heal spontaneously; however, most established fistulas require surgical repair. The surgical repair is usually performed vaginally after approximately 3 months to allow inflammation to subside. Post-operatively, continuous bladder drainage for 14 days along with antibiotics is recommended to facilitate healing. Following VVF repair, it is recommended that the patient abstain from sexual activity for 3 months to allow the surgical site to heal properly and avoid complications. Additionally, pregnancy should be avoided for a year to ensure the integrity and strength of the repair before subjecting the area to the stresses of pregnancy and childbirth.</li><li>• Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) is a type of urinary fistula that commonly arises due to obstetric trauma.</li><li>• Small fistulas can heal spontaneously; however, most established fistulas require surgical repair.</li><li>• The surgical repair is usually performed vaginally after approximately 3 months to allow inflammation to subside.</li><li>• Post-operatively, continuous bladder drainage for 14 days along with antibiotics is recommended to facilitate healing.</li><li>• Following VVF repair, it is recommended that the patient abstain from sexual activity for 3 months to allow the surgical site to heal properly and avoid complications.</li><li>• Additionally, pregnancy should be avoided for a year to ensure the integrity and strength of the repair before subjecting the area to the stresses of pregnancy and childbirth.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Sexual abstinence for 3 weeks and avoid pregnancy for 6 months : This duration of abstinence is too short for the proper healing of the surgical site. Additionally, avoiding pregnancy for only 6 months might not provide sufficient time for the repair to gain adequate strength.</li><li>• Option B. Sexual abstinence for 3 weeks and avoid pregnancy for 6 months</li><li>• Option C. Sexual abstinence for 6 weeks and avoid pregnancy for a year : While the recommendation to avoid pregnancy for a year is appropriate, 6 weeks of sexual abstinence may still be insufficient for optimal healing of the fistula repair.</li><li>• Option C. Sexual abstinence for 6 weeks and avoid pregnancy for a year</li><li>• Option D. Sexual abstinence for 6 months and avoid pregnancy for 6 years : This recommendation is excessively long. While prolonged abstinence can prevent complications, a 6-month period is more than what is typically necessary. Similarly, avoiding pregnancy for 6 years is overly cautious.</li><li>• Option D. Sexual abstinence for 6 months and avoid pregnancy for 6 years</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Following vesicovaginal fistula repair, patients should be advised to abstain from sexual activity for 3 months and avoid pregnancy for a year to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 439, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 439, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 6 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22y primigravida is overdue by 2 weeks. She visits the OPD with complaints of vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain on the right side. On Examination, her vitals are stable. Abdomen examination is unremarkable. A bimanual examination reveals a bulky, soft uterus with no tenderness and no adnexal mass. Mild bleeding +. Beta hCG is 1400 IU. An ultrasound reveals a trilaminar endometrium, and both the adnexa are normal. The next best step is? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Repeat serum beta HCG after 48h.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diagnostic laparoscopy.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Repeat USG after 3 days.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait and watch.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Repeat serum beta HCG after 48h.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/15/untitled-86.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Repeat serum beta HCG after 48h</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Repeat serum beta hCG after 48h: The clinical scenario suggests a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL), which could either be a failing intrauterine pregnancy or an ectopic pregnancy. The best next step is to repeat the serum beta hCG level after 48 hours. A rise in beta hCG by at least 66% would suggest a viable intrauterine pregnancy, while a plateau or drop would indicate a non-viable pregnancy, such as an ectopic pregnancy or a failing intrauterine pregnancy.</li><li>• Repeat serum beta hCG after 48h: The clinical scenario suggests a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL), which could either be a failing intrauterine pregnancy or an ectopic pregnancy. The best next step is to repeat the serum beta hCG level after 48 hours. A rise in beta hCG by at least 66% would suggest a viable intrauterine pregnancy, while a plateau or drop would indicate a non-viable pregnancy, such as an ectopic pregnancy or a failing intrauterine pregnancy.</li><li>• Repeat serum beta hCG after 48h:</li><li>• The clinical scenario suggests a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL), which could either be a failing intrauterine pregnancy or an ectopic pregnancy. The best next step is to repeat the serum beta hCG level after 48 hours. A rise in beta hCG by at least 66% would suggest a viable intrauterine pregnancy, while a plateau or drop would indicate a non-viable pregnancy, such as an ectopic pregnancy or a failing intrauterine pregnancy.</li><li>• The clinical scenario suggests a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL), which could either be a failing intrauterine pregnancy or an ectopic pregnancy.</li><li>• The best next step is to repeat the serum beta hCG level after 48 hours. A rise in beta hCG by at least 66% would suggest a viable intrauterine pregnancy, while a plateau or drop would indicate a non-viable pregnancy, such as an ectopic pregnancy or a failing intrauterine pregnancy.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Diagnostic laparoscopy: Diagnostic laparoscopy is an invasive procedure and is not the immediate next step in the management of a stable patient with PUL. It is reserved for cases where there is a high suspicion of ectopic pregnancy with unstable vital signs or inconclusive non-invasive tests.</li><li>• Option B. Diagnostic laparoscopy:</li><li>• Option C. Repeat USG after 3 days: Repeating the ultrasound after 3 days may not provide additional useful information if the initial ultrasound did not show an intrauterine pregnancy. Monitoring beta hCG levels first is more informative and guides the need for further imaging.</li><li>• Option C. Repeat USG after 3 days:</li><li>• Option D. Wait and watch: Simply waiting without further evaluation could delay diagnosis and appropriate management, especially in the case of a potential ectopic pregnancy, which can be life-threatening.</li><li>• Option D. Wait and watch:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of pregnancy of unknown location (PUL), the next best step is to repeat the serum beta hCG level after 48 hours to differentiate between a viable intrauterine pregnancy and a non-viable pregnancy, such as an ectopic pregnancy or a failing intrauterine pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: page no 378, William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition, https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng126</li><li>➤ Ref: page no 378, William’s Obstetrics 25 th edition,</li><li>➤ https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng126</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the probable diagnosis for a 38-year-old female who is experiencing substantial hair loss for 4 months and has a history of COVID-19 infection 8 months ago? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Telogen effluvium", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Androgenetic alopecia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alopecia areata", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichotillomania", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Telogen effluvium", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/07/picture6.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture1_A3XGSmK.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Telogen effluvium is a form of non-scarring hair loss characterized by the diffuse shedding of hair resulting from the early entry of hair into the telogen phase (the resting phase of the hair cycle). This condition is often triggered by significant physiological stress, severe illness, or major life events.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition Chapter 89 page no 32.24, 32.39, 32.40, 86.17, 89.6, 89.14, 89.17, 89.20 89.24, 89.25, 89.46</li><li>↳ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page 1509</li><li>↳ Fitzpatrick’s dermatology 9 th edition page 1509</li><li>↳ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition 387</li><li>↳ Harrisons principles of internal medicine 21 st edition 387</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is considered to be the best for the detection of Clostridium difficile? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aerobic culture of stool", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glutamate dehydrogenase and toxin assay", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glutamate dehydrogenase assay", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glutamate dehydrogenase and toxin assay", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glutamate dehydrogenase and toxin assay</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For effective and accurate diagnosis of Clostridioides difficile infection, a combination of glutamate dehydrogenase and toxin assays is recommended. This approach ensures both the presence of the organism and its potential to cause disease through toxin production are assessed, guiding appropriate treatment and infection control measures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male patient presents to the hospital for a follow-up after undergoing a total thyroidectomy. He reports experiencing perioral numbness that started three days after the surgery. Upon further investigation, the patient has no history of nerve damage, facial trauma, or dental procedures. What diagnostic tests should be conducted to determine the cause of the perioral numbness? NEET PG 2022", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum Na, K and Chloride", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T3, T4, Thyroid-stimulating hormone levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radioiodine scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium, Phosphate and Parathormone levels", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Calcium, Phosphate and Parathormone levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Calcium, Phosphate and Parathormone levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia is a common complication due to potential damage or removal of the parathyroid glands. It is important to measure serum calcium, phosphate, and parathormone (PTH) levels to diagnose and manage hypocalcemia in these patients.</li><li>➤ Post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia is a common complication due to potential damage or removal of the parathyroid glands.</li><li>➤ It is important to measure serum calcium, phosphate, and parathormone (PTH) levels to diagnose and manage hypocalcemia in these patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly man with diabetic nephropathy presented to the emergency department with palpitations and chest discomfort. The ECG revealed large T-waves. Laboratory tests revealed elevated potassium levels. Which of the following drugs can cause intracellular movement of potassium? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epinephrine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucagon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lactic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epinephrine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Epinephrine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta-2 agonists, such as Epinephrine, are effective in promoting the intracellular movement of potassium, thereby reducing serum potassium levels in cases of hyperkalemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Multidrug-resistant (MDR) TB shows resistance to which of the following drugs? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid, rifampicin, and fluoroquinolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluoroquinolones", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isoniazid and rifampicin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isoniazid, rifampicin, and kanamycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Isoniazid and rifampicin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Isoniazid and rifampicin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is defined by its resistance to at least isoniazid and rifampicin, the two most important first-line anti-TB drugs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old female presented to the urologist with complaints of abdominal pain and recurrent urinary tract infections. Upon examination, the physician noted tenderness in the lower abdomen and a palpable mass in the right flank area. Further evaluation revealed the following. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pelviureteric junction obstruction", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Putty kidney", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staghorn calculus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystic kidney", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pelviureteric junction obstruction", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns21.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pelviureteric junction obstruction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pelviureteric junction obstruction is a condition causing blockage where the renal pelvis meets the ureter, leading to hydronephrosis and symptoms like flank pain and recurrent UTIs. Imaging typically shows a dilated pelvicalyceal system.</li><li>➤ Pelviureteric junction obstruction is a condition causing blockage where the renal pelvis meets the ureter, leading to hydronephrosis and symptoms like flank pain and recurrent UTIs.</li><li>➤ Imaging typically shows a dilated pelvicalyceal system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An auxiliary nurse midwife is tasked with organizing a vaccination camp within a rural community. She has been provided with 2 vials that have been unsealed. Among these, one contains a pentavalent vaccine, while the other holds an MR vaccine. What options does she have in terms of effectively using these vials? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Use MR vaccine and discard pentavalent vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Use pentavalent vaccine and discard MR vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Use both", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Discard both", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Use pentavalent vaccine and discard MR vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Use pentavalent vaccine and discard MR vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the Open Vial Policy, the auxiliary nurse midwife can use the pentavalent vaccine for subsequent sessions up to 4 weeks after opening, but must discard the MR vaccine as it does not fall under the Open Vial Policy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following delivery, the placenta is being removed by traction on the structure shown in the image. The structure snaps and there is profuse bleeding. What is the next step in management? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine massage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arrange blood and Crede’s method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manual removal of placenta", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Manual removal of placenta", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/02/neet-pg-obg-2022-3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Manual removal of placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When the umbilical cord snaps during controlled cord traction for placenta delivery, manual removal of the placenta is the immediate next step to prevent hemorrhage and ensure complete removal.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1298, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page 1298, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl has intense food cravings. She consumes a large amount of food, followed by self-induced vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anorexia nervosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bulimia nervosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atypical depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Binge eating disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bulimia nervosa", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bulimia nervosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate behaviors such as self-induced vomiting (purging) or hypergymnasia to prevent weight gain. It is usually associated with fear of gaining weight. Purging can lead to dental caries, knuckle callouses, parotitis, hypokalemic and hypochloremic alkalosis and rarely gastric or esophageal tear. Weight is usually normal, which differentiates from anorexia nervosa. Treatment includes CBT and SSRIs.</li><li>➤ episodes of binge eating</li><li>➤ inappropriate behaviors</li><li>➤ Weight is usually normal,</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 469</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pituitary tumor that overproduced growth hormone was surgically removed from a patient. The resection was discovered to be insufficient. What is the patient's first-line treatment? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leuprolide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Goserelin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nafarelin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Octreotide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Octreotide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Octreotide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Octreotide is used for the treatment of the following conditions: ( SOMAT ostatin)</li><li>➤ Octreotide is used for the treatment of the following conditions: ( SOMAT ostatin)</li><li>➤ SOMAT</li><li>➤ S: S ecretory diarrhea due to carcinoid tumor, VIPomas, following cancer chemotherapy, AIDS etc.</li><li>➤ S: S</li><li>➤ O: O esophageal varices (Acute Variceal bleeding)</li><li>➤ O: O</li><li>➤ M: M alignancy like Insulinoma and Glucagonoma</li><li>➤ M: M</li><li>➤ A: A cromegaly due to GH secreting pituitary adenoma</li><li>➤ A: A</li><li>➤ T: T hyrotrope adenoma</li><li>➤ T: T</li><li>➤ Leuprolide, Goeserelin and Nafarelin are GnRH agonists.</li><li>➤ Leuprolide, Goeserelin and Nafarelin are GnRH agonists.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle-aged male patient presents with chin protrusion, excessive sweating, impaired glucose tolerance, and hand and foot enlargement. What is a growth hormone receptor antagonist used to treat this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Octreotide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pegvisomant", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cabergoline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Olcegepant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pegvisomant", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pegvisomant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pegvisomant is a growth hormone receptor antagonist used to treat acromegaly by blocking the effects of growth hormone at the receptor level, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with elevated growth hormone levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to you with fever, night sweats, ptosis, and bilateral facial nerve palsy. Investigations showed leukocytosis and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypersensitive pneumonitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sarcoidosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with systemic symptoms like fever and night sweats and the presence of bilateral facial nerve palsy is highly suggestive of sarcoidosis. Always consider sarcoidosis first in such clinical scenarios.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A cohort study was carried out involving individuals who consumed green tea and those who did not, aiming to examine its impact on diabetes mellitus. The calculated risk ratio stood at 0.84. Which of the subsequent statements is accurate? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Green tea increases the risk of diabetes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Green tea decreases the risk of diabetes", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Data insufficient to establish causal association", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The value (0.84) tends to be close to 1, hence there is no effect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Green tea decreases the risk of diabetes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-103632.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Green tea decreases the risk of diabetes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Relative risk (RR) = Incidence among exposed/Incidence among non-exposed</li><li>➤ Relative risk (RR) = Incidence among exposed/Incidence among non-exposed</li><li>➤ Note - Strength of association in a cohort study is evaluated by:– Relative risk, Attributable risk (AR), Population attributable risk (PAR)</li><li>➤ Note - Strength of association in a cohort study is evaluated by:– Relative risk, Attributable risk (AR), Population attributable risk (PAR)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with retro-positive status was started on 2nd line highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Which of the following can be used to monitor treatment efficacy? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CD4+ T cell count", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Viral load", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "p24 antigen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Viral serotype", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Viral load", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Viral load measurement is the most important and recommended method for monitoring the efficacy of antiretroviral therapy in HIV patients. The goal is to achieve an undetectable viral load (&lt;50 copies/mL).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old woman presented at 7 weeks of gestation, unwilling to continue the pregnancy. What are the drugs used for medical termination of pregnancy in this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Misoprostol and Medroxyprogesterone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Misoprostol and Mifepristone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mifepristone and Methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mifepristone and Medroxyprogesterone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Misoprostol and Mifepristone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-163905.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Misoprostol and Mifepristone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Misoprostol and Mifepristone : The drugs used for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) in this patient presenting at 7 weeks of gestation are misoprostol and mifepristone. Mifepristone 200 mg is administered orally on day 1. It acts as an antiprogestogen, blocking the effects of progesterone, which is essential to maintain pregnancy. Misoprostol is given 24-48 hours after mifepristone. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analog, induces uterine contractions to expel the pregnancy tissue. Clinical confirmation of MTP is done on day 14 through clinical examination and/or ultrasonography to ensure the complete expulsion of the products of conception.</li><li>• Misoprostol and Mifepristone : The drugs used for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) in this patient presenting at 7 weeks of gestation are misoprostol and mifepristone. Mifepristone 200 mg is administered orally on day 1. It acts as an antiprogestogen, blocking the effects of progesterone, which is essential to maintain pregnancy. Misoprostol is given 24-48 hours after mifepristone. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analog, induces uterine contractions to expel the pregnancy tissue. Clinical confirmation of MTP is done on day 14 through clinical examination and/or ultrasonography to ensure the complete expulsion of the products of conception.</li><li>• Misoprostol and Mifepristone</li><li>• The drugs used for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) in this patient presenting at 7 weeks of gestation are misoprostol and mifepristone. Mifepristone 200 mg is administered orally on day 1. It acts as an antiprogestogen, blocking the effects of progesterone, which is essential to maintain pregnancy. Misoprostol is given 24-48 hours after mifepristone. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analog, induces uterine contractions to expel the pregnancy tissue. Clinical confirmation of MTP is done on day 14 through clinical examination and/or ultrasonography to ensure the complete expulsion of the products of conception.</li><li>• The drugs used for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) in this patient presenting at 7 weeks of gestation are misoprostol and mifepristone.</li><li>• Mifepristone 200 mg is administered orally on day 1. It acts as an antiprogestogen, blocking the effects of progesterone, which is essential to maintain pregnancy.</li><li>• Misoprostol is given 24-48 hours after mifepristone. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analog, induces uterine contractions to expel the pregnancy tissue.</li><li>• Clinical confirmation of MTP is done on day 14 through clinical examination and/or ultrasonography to ensure the complete expulsion of the products of conception.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Misoprostol and Medroxyprogesterone : Medroxyprogesterone is a synthetic progestin used in contraception and hormone replacement therapy but is not used in medical termination of pregnancy.</li><li>• Option A. Misoprostol and Medroxyprogesterone</li><li>• Option C. Mifepristone and Methotrexate : Methotrexate is a folate antagonist that can be used in combination with misoprostol for medical termination of pregnancy, especially in early gestations, but it is not the standard regimen compared to mifepristone and misoprostol.</li><li>• Option C. Mifepristone and Methotrexate</li><li>• Option D. Mifepristone and Medroxyprogesterone : Medroxyprogesterone is not used in medical termination of pregnancy.</li><li>• Option D. Mifepristone and Medroxyprogesterone</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For medical termination of pregnancy at 7 weeks of gestation, the recommended drugs are mifepristone followed by misoprostol.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://main.mohfw.gov.in/acts-rules-and-standards-health-sector/acts/mtp-rules</li><li>➤ Ref: https://main.mohfw.gov.in/acts-rules-and-standards-health-sector/acts/mtp-rules</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which patient category is classified as \"green\" according to the triage system? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ambulatory patients", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medium risk patients", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High risk patients", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dead patients", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ambulatory patients", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ambulatory patients</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"green\" category in the triage system is used for ambulatory patients with minor injuries or illnesses. These patients do not require immediate medical attention and can safely wait for treatment.</li><li>➤ The \"green\" category in the triage system is used for ambulatory patients with minor injuries or illnesses.</li><li>➤ These patients do not require immediate medical attention and can safely wait for treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the range of the firearm wound: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Close shot entry wound", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Close shot exit wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distant shot entry wound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Distant shot exit wound", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Close shot entry wound", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/untitled-13589.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Close Shot Entry Wound</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Entry Wound features:</li><li>➤ Entry Wound features:</li><li>➤ Contact Shot: Burning, blackening and tattooing present just on the margin; not around the wound. Very minimally visible. Close Shot: Burning, blackening and tattooing present in large amount around the wound (esp. blackening is prominent) Intermediate Range: Only Tattooing present around the wound Distant range: None of these present around the wound.</li><li>➤ Contact Shot: Burning, blackening and tattooing present just on the margin; not around the wound. Very minimally visible.</li><li>➤ Contact Shot:</li><li>➤ Close Shot: Burning, blackening and tattooing present in large amount around the wound (esp. blackening is prominent)</li><li>➤ Close Shot:</li><li>➤ Intermediate Range: Only Tattooing present around the wound</li><li>➤ Intermediate Range:</li><li>➤ Distant range: None of these present around the wound.</li><li>➤ Distant range:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old boy presented with abdominal pain, vomiting, oliguria, and periorbital puffiness following chemotherapy. Investigations reveal hyperuricemia and hyperkalemia. What is the next best step in the management of this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydration", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Probenecid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Allopurinol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rasburicase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aggressive hydration is the first-line management for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) to prevent renal failure and facilitate the excretion of released intracellular components.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old boy presents with right upper quadrant pain, calf pain, conjunctival suffusion, icterus, and fever. Examination shows tender hepatomegaly. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leptospirosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue hemorrhagic fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Encephalopathy caused by hepatitis A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leptospirosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leptospirosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leptospirosis should be considered in patients presenting with a combination of fever, jaundice, muscle pain, and conjunctival suffusion, especially if there is a history of exposure to potentially contaminated water. Recognizing these signs is crucial for the timely initiation of appropriate antibiotic therapy to prevent severe complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a unilateral throbbing headache, photophobia, and excessive lacrimation. He also complains of hemifacial pain on clenching of teeth. On examination, pupillary reflex, light reflex, and accommodation reflex are normal. Which of the following marked nerves is involved in the above scenario? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-861.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/untitled-862.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trigeminal Nerve (V) is the largest cranial nerve and has both sensory and motor functions. Sensory functions include facial sensation, and the motor function is mainly for muscles of mastication (chewing).</li><li>➤ Trigeminal Nerve (V)</li><li>➤ It has three main branches: ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), and mandibular (V3).</li><li>➤ The nerve originates in the pons and exits the brainstem to innervate its various targets.</li><li>➤ Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition where there's intense, stabbing pain along the path of the nerve. It's considered one of the most painful conditions in medicine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old boy presents to the paediatrician with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). Upon further investigation, a micturating cystourethrogram is performed and which is shown below. The boy is currently asymptomatic and has no history of renal or bladder abnormalities. What could be the cause of the symptoms? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vesicoureteral reflux", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urinary bladder diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urinary bladder hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Varicocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vesicoureteral reflux", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/05/07/ns13.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture1222.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/picture1300.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vesicoureteral reflux</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a common cause of recurrent urinary tract infections in children. The condition is characterized by the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters and potentially up to the kidneys. Imaging findings showing dilated ureters on a micturating cystourethrogram are indicative of VUR.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presenting with symptoms of urinary tract infection was prescribed a drug that causes tendon rupture and arthropathy. What is the mechanism of action of the drug? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DNA gyrase inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ribosomal inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cell wall synthesis inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibition of folic acid synthesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. DNA gyrase inhibition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) DNA gyrase inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluoroquinolones, which inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, are associated with serious side effects such as tendon rupture and arthropathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Irregular pitting of the nails with subungual hyperkeratosis is seen in? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lichen planus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psoriasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitiligo", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alopecia areata", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Psoriasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-133321.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-133332.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture4.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture6_xhbPtxQ.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/picture7.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/15/screenshot-2024-06-15-133344.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Psoriasis is the condition most commonly associated with irregular nail pitting and subungual hyperkeratosis among the options provided.</li><li>➤ Psoriasis</li><li>➤ irregular nail pitting</li><li>➤ subungual hyperkeratosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference:</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 4.9, 35.4-35.34, 37.12, 41.1, 41.21 89.28-33</li><li>↳ Rooks textbook of dermatology- 9 th Edition page no 4.9, 35.4-35.34, 37.12, 41.1, 41.21 89.28-33</li><li>↳ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 333</li><li>↳ Harrison’s principles of internal medicine 20 th edition Page no 333</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents to the emergency department with a history of ingestion of 10-20 ferrous sulfate tablets. Arterial blood gas revealed acidosis. Which of the following can be used in the management of this condition? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deferoxamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Activated charcoal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dimercaprol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Deferoxamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Deferoxamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of acute iron intoxication with signs of toxicity such as acidosis, the antidote of choice is deferoxamine. Activated charcoal is not effective in iron poisoning and should not be used.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent cystoscopy, which showed multiple yellow-white plaques in the trigone of the bladder. The histopathology image is given below. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interstitial cystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malakoplakia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polypoid cystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute cystitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Malakoplakia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/untitled-475.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/07/screenshot-2024-09-07-144703.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Malakoplakia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman with no other comorbid conditions develops preeclampsia. She enquires about the cause of her condition. The doctor explains that it is due to the failure of the invasion of? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spiral artery by villous trophoblasts", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial artery by cytotrophoblasts", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Spiral artery by extravillous trophoblasts", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arcuate artery by extravillous trophoblasts", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Spiral artery by extravillous trophoblasts", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Spiral artery by extravillous trophoblasts</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Preeclampsia occurs due to the failure of the invasion of extravillous trophoblasts into the spiral artery. The spiral artery supplies blood to the endometrium. In normal pregnancy, there is an invasion of the extravillous trophoblasts (specifically, endovascular trophoblasts) into the walls of the spiral arteries. This process takes place in two waves: First wave (10-12 weeks): Endovascular trophoblasts invade up to the decidual segments. Second wave (16-18 weeks): Endovascular trophoblasts invade up to the myometrial segments. This invasion results in the distension of the spiral arterioles, transforming them into a low-resistance, low-pressure, and high-flow system. In preeclampsia, the failure of the second wave of endovascular trophoblastic invasion into uterine vessels leads to decreased placental perfusion.</li><li>• Preeclampsia occurs due to the failure of the invasion of extravillous trophoblasts into the spiral artery.</li><li>• The spiral artery supplies blood to the endometrium. In normal pregnancy, there is an invasion of the extravillous trophoblasts (specifically, endovascular trophoblasts) into the walls of the spiral arteries.</li><li>• This process takes place in two waves: First wave (10-12 weeks): Endovascular trophoblasts invade up to the decidual segments. Second wave (16-18 weeks): Endovascular trophoblasts invade up to the myometrial segments.</li><li>• First wave (10-12 weeks): Endovascular trophoblasts invade up to the decidual segments. Second wave (16-18 weeks): Endovascular trophoblasts invade up to the myometrial segments.</li><li>• First wave (10-12 weeks): Endovascular trophoblasts invade up to the decidual segments.</li><li>• First wave (10-12 weeks):</li><li>• Second wave (16-18 weeks): Endovascular trophoblasts invade up to the myometrial segments.</li><li>• Second wave (16-18 weeks):</li><li>• This invasion results in the distension of the spiral arterioles, transforming them into a low-resistance, low-pressure, and high-flow system.</li><li>• In preeclampsia, the failure of the second wave of endovascular trophoblastic invasion into uterine vessels leads to decreased placental perfusion.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option A. Spiral artery by villous trophoblasts: Villous trophoblasts are involved in the formation of the placental villi, but they do not invade the spiral arteries.</li><li>• Option A. Spiral artery by villous trophoblasts:</li><li>• Option B. Radial artery by cytotrophoblasts: The radial arteries supply the deeper layers of the myometrium and are not primarily involved in the pathogenesis of preeclampsia.</li><li>• Option B. Radial artery by cytotrophoblasts:</li><li>• Option D. Arcuate artery by extravillous trophoblasts: The arcuate arteries are part of the uterine arterial system, but their invasion by trophoblasts is not relevant to the development of preeclampsia.</li><li>• Option D. Arcuate artery by extravillous trophoblasts:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Preeclampsia is caused by the failure of extravillous trophoblasts to invade the spiral arteries, leading to decreased placental perfusion.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1818, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1818, Williams Obstetrics 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with itching in the axilla. On microscopic examination of the skin scrapings, a red pigment-producing fungus with pencil-shaped macroconidia is seen. Which of the following is the most likely organism? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichophyton violaceum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trichophyton rubrum", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trichophyton tonsurans", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichophyton schoenleinii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trichophyton rubrum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_Al5ajjo.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_fdWZk03.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_LQbUupb.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/1_dl4URiF.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/19_1RQiVSh.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Trichophyton rubrum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichophyton rubrum is identified by its red pigment-producing, velvety colonies with characteristic pencil-shaped macroconidia, making it the causative agent of various dermatophyte infections including tinea corporis that could present with itching in the axilla. Understanding the colony morphology and microscopic features is crucial for accurate identification and appropriate treatment of dermatophyte infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are employed at a primary health center (PHC) located in an area with a high risk of earthquakes. What actions would you take to ensure readiness for potential emergencies? (NEET PG 2022) Disaster preparedness by making sure all financial and other resources are available Increase public awareness through campaigns and loudspeakers Conduct a simulation for the disaster and assess the response Follow instructions given over the phone or radio by higher officials", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2, 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 1,2,3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Emergency preparedness is a programme of long-term development activities whose goals are to strengthen the overall capacity and capability of a country to manage efficiently all types of emergency. It involves the following steps:</li><li>➤ Disaster preparedness by making sure all financial and other resources are available Increase public awareness through campaigns and loudspeakers Conduct a simulation for the disaster and assess the response Evaluate the risk of disaster Information sessions coordination with news media Adopt standards and regulations</li><li>➤ Disaster preparedness by making sure all financial and other resources are available</li><li>➤ Increase public awareness through campaigns and loudspeakers</li><li>➤ Conduct a simulation for the disaster and assess the response</li><li>➤ Evaluate the risk of disaster</li><li>➤ Information sessions coordination with news media</li><li>➤ Adopt standards and regulations</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A paint factory worker working since 20 years complains of joint pain, insomnia, fatigue, constipation, headache. He is found to have anemia. Enzyme affected is? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uroporphyrinogen III synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uroporphyrinogen I Synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ALA synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ferrochelatase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ferrochelatase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ferrochelatase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The reference of paint factory worker indicates that it is a case of lead poisoning. Lead affects two enzymes of Heme synthesis pathway:</li><li>➤ PBG synthase Ferrochelatase (last enzyme of heme synthesis and adds Fe to its substrate)</li><li>➤ PBG synthase</li><li>➤ Ferrochelatase (last enzyme of heme synthesis and adds Fe to its substrate)</li><li>➤ The defect in any of these enzymes will lead to decrease in haem synthesis resulting in anemia. So, the answer in this case is Ferrochelatase.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 306-307</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A previously healthy child presented with acute-onset dyspnea. A chest X-ray shows unilateral hyperinflation of the lungs. What is true for this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Focal area of decreased air entry will be suggestive of foreign body", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flexible bronchoscopy used for removal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "In complete obstruction, ball and valve mechanism causes hyperinflation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The child has developed acute laryngotracheobronchitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Focal area of decreased air entry will be suggestive of foreign body", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Focal area of decreased air entry will be suggestive of foreign body</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of acute-onset dyspnea with unilateral hyperinflation on chest X-ray, a focal area of decreased air entry is suggestive of foreign body aspiration, which is more common in children under 4 years old.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following histological image is seen in the patient who is complaining of growth failure and abdominal distension. Signs found were anemia, thrombocytopenia and bony pain. Which enzyme is deficient in this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beta-Glucocerebroside", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sphingomyelinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hexosaminidase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "G-6-phosphatase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Beta-Glucocerebroside", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture10.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-162124.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-162347.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Beta-Glucocerebroside</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image shows a crumpled tissue paper appearance of cell which is a characteristic feature of Gaucher’s disease. It is a sphingolipidoses and the most common lysosomal storage disease and occur due to deficiency of lysosomal enzyme β-glucocerebrosidase. The substrate glucosylceramide gets accumulated in macrophages causing eccentric nucleus.</li><li>• Other clinical features are: Bony pain, pathological fracture, hepatosplenomegaly but no mental retardation (as beta-glucosylceramide is not present in brain).</li><li>• Other Options :</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option B. Sphingomyelinase: Deficiency of this enzyme leads to Niemann-Pick disease, characterized by the accumulation of sphingomyelin in macrophages. Clinical features include hepatosplenomegaly, progressive neurodegeneration, and the presence of foam cells. Niemann-Pick disease often presents with mental retardation.</li><li>• Option B. Sphingomyelinase:</li><li>• Option C. Hexosaminidase: This enzyme has two forms, A and B. Deficiency of Hexosaminidase A leads to Tay-Sachs disease, characterized by the accumulation of GM2 ganglioside, primarily affecting neurons. Clinical features include progressive neurodegeneration, a cherry-red spot on the macula, and early death. Deficiency of both Hexosaminidase A and B leads to Sandhoff disease, which presents similarly to Tay-Sachs but with additional visceral involvement.</li><li>• Option C. Hexosaminidase:</li><li>• Option D. G-6-phosphatase: Deficiency of this enzyme leads to Von Gierke’s disease (Glycogen Storage Disease Type I), characterized by impaired glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Clinical features include severe hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Patients often present with a doll-like facies, protuberant abdomen, and growth retardation.</li><li>• Option D. G-6-phosphatase:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gaucher’s Disease</li><li>➤ Gaucher’s Disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 235</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old man was diagnosed with COVID-19 and was put on mechanical ventilation. He passed away after a week. What is the likely post-mortem change seen in the lungs? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thick layer of fibrin lining the alveoli", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute and chronic alveolar hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Perivascular cuffing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary artery hypertrophy with increased resistance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thick layer of fibrin lining the alveoli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thick layer of fibrin lining the alveoli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with severe COVID-19, especially those who have been on mechanical ventilation, the likely post-mortem finding in the lungs is a thick layer of fibrin lining the alveoli, indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and severe diffuse alveolar damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child presents with reduced hearing for the past 2-3 months. The otoscopy finding is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Myringitis bullosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serous otitis media", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute otitis media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumo Tympanum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Serous otitis media", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/20/screenshot-2024-06-20-182712.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Serous Otitis media</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serous otitis media requires comprehensive management to prevent long-term effects on hearing and speech development. Early intervention, both medical and surgical, is essential for restoring normal ear function and preventing recurrent episodes.</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 84</li><li>➤ Ref - Dhingra 7 th edition, Page No. 84</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient presented with rhinitis and swelling of the face. Intranasal biopsy revealed the presence of broad-based aseptate hyphae with right-angle branching. There was evidence of vascular invasion. What will be the preferred treatment for this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amphotericin B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ketoconazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Griseofulvin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amphotericin B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Amphotericin B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment of Mucormycosis:</li><li>➤ Treatment of Mucormycosis:</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis is a serious fungal infection that requires prompt and aggressive treatment due to its rapid progression and high mortality rate. The mainstay of treatment is intravenous Amphotericin B, often followed by oral posaconazole or isavuconazole for maintenance therapy. Surgical debridement of infected tissue is frequently necessary. Controlling underlying conditions like diabetes is also crucial in managing mucormycosis.</li><li>➤ Mucormycosis is a serious fungal infection that requires prompt and aggressive treatment due to its rapid progression and high mortality rate.</li><li>➤ The mainstay of treatment is intravenous Amphotericin B, often followed by oral posaconazole or isavuconazole for maintenance therapy.</li><li>➤ Surgical debridement of infected tissue is frequently necessary.</li><li>➤ Controlling underlying conditions like diabetes is also crucial in managing mucormycosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presented with fatigue. Routine complete blood count analysis showed hemoglobin of 9 g/dL, MCV 60fL, and RBC count of 5.2 million. A peripheral smear showed microcytic hypochromic anemia. Which of the following is the next best investigation for this patient? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum ferritin levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HbA2 levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum folate levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum homocysteine levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. HbA2 levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) HbA2 levels</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cherry red spots on retina and mental retardation is seen in: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gaucher’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tay Sach’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hunter syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Krabbe’ disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tay Sach’s disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture13.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tay Sach’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The hallmark feature of Tay-Sachs disease is the presence of \"cherry red spots\" on the retina of the eye. These spots are a distinctive sign observed during eye examinations. Additionally, individuals with Tay-Sachs disease often experience progressive neurological deterioration, including muscle weakness, loss of motor skills, and seizures. There is also a characteristic decline in cognitive function, leading to intellectual and developmental disability.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 235</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient underwent surgery for the varicose vein. He now complains of sensory loss over the medial aspect of the leg and foot. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be injured? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sural nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superficial peroneal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deep peroneal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Saphenous nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Saphenous nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-104030.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-104323.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Saphenous nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with coronary artery disease presents to you with chest pain and palpitations. The ECG is shown below. Which of the following can be used in the management? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral amiodarone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous amiodarone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intravenous metoprolol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Intravenous amiodarone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-191813.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For stable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, intravenous antiarrhythmic drugs such as amiodarone, procainamide, or sotalol are recommended as first-line treatments according to ACLS guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following measures are associated with an increased life span? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Moderate or regular exercise for 30 min", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease stress", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreasing calorie intake by 30 percent", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pharmacological intervention with proton pump inhibitors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Decreasing calorie intake by 30 percent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Decreasing calorie intake by 30 percent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Caloric restriction, by decreasing calorie intake by 30 percent, is associated with an increased lifespan and the postponement of age-related diseases. It reduces oxidative damage, slows metabolism, and mitigates the onset of various chronic conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22y type 1 DM is in the post operative ward following a cesarean done for failed induction (for preeclampsia with severe features). She complains of drowsiness and altered sensorium. She is on maintenance MgSO4 infusion and on IV infusion of insulin. On examination, her PR is 70/ min. BP is 140/ 98 mmHg. RR is 10/min. Auscultation of lungs reveals bilateral normal air entry. Abdominal examination reveals a firm uterus with normal tenderness. Pfannenstiel scar is intact and there is no significant vaginal bleeding. B/l patellar reflexes are absent. A urine dipstick for protein and sugar is negative and a capillary glucose sample is 270 mg%. The suspected diagnosis is? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Magnesium sulphate toxicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diabetic ketoacidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Postpartum eclampsia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peripartum cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Magnesium sulphate toxicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Magnesium sulphate toxicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and examination finding of B/L absent knee reflex and respiratory depression following magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) administration for preeclampsia suggest the cause of her condition to be magnesium sulfate toxicity. MgSO4 is used as an anticonvulsant in the management of eclampsia and as prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia. The therapeutic level of magnesium in eclampsia is 4-7 mEq/L When on MgSO4, patients must be monitored for magnesium toxicity: A woman on MgSO4 for management of eclampsia requires the following to be checked for Mg toxicity: Deep tendon reflexes Respiratory Rate Urine Output Magnesium toxicity occurs at these levels At &gt; 7-10 mEq/L: Loss of DTR 10 - 12 mEq/L: Respiratory depression 25 mEq/L: Cardiac arrest Antidote for Mg toxicity: Ca gluconate (1 g IV)</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and examination finding of B/L absent knee reflex and respiratory depression following magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) administration for preeclampsia suggest the cause of her condition to be magnesium sulfate toxicity.</li><li>• MgSO4 is used as an anticonvulsant in the management of eclampsia and as prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia.</li><li>• The therapeutic level of magnesium in eclampsia is 4-7 mEq/L</li><li>• When on MgSO4, patients must be monitored for magnesium toxicity:</li><li>• A woman on MgSO4 for management of eclampsia requires the following to be checked for Mg toxicity: Deep tendon reflexes Respiratory Rate Urine Output</li><li>• Deep tendon reflexes Respiratory Rate Urine Output</li><li>• Deep tendon reflexes</li><li>• Respiratory Rate</li><li>• Urine Output</li><li>• Magnesium toxicity occurs at these levels At &gt; 7-10 mEq/L: Loss of DTR 10 - 12 mEq/L: Respiratory depression 25 mEq/L: Cardiac arrest</li><li>• At &gt; 7-10 mEq/L: Loss of DTR 10 - 12 mEq/L: Respiratory depression 25 mEq/L: Cardiac arrest</li><li>• At &gt; 7-10 mEq/L: Loss of DTR</li><li>• 10 - 12 mEq/L: Respiratory depression</li><li>• 25 mEq/L: Cardiac arrest</li><li>• Antidote for Mg toxicity: Ca gluconate (1 g IV)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Diabetic ketoacidosis : This is unlikely as urine for sugars is absent.</li><li>• Option B. Diabetic ketoacidosis</li><li>• Option C. Postpartum eclampsia : This is unlikely as there is no history of seizures</li><li>• Option C. Postpartum eclampsia</li><li>• Option D. Peripartum cardiomyopathy : There is no evidence of cardiac failure and hence this is also unlikely</li><li>• Option D. Peripartum cardiomyopathy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When administering magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, it is critical to monitor for signs of magnesium toxicity, which include loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest. The antidote for magnesium toxicity is calcium gluconate.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1860, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 1860, Williams Obstetrics, 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The image below depicts which of the following types of cell-to-cells signaling? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paracrine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autocrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endocrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Merocrine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Paracrine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/700.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/10/701.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Paracrine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The given image shows the paracrine cell-to-cell signaling mechanism where signaling molecules released by a cell only affect nearby target cells.</li><li>• An example of paracrine signaling is the release of endothelin-1, a potent vasoconstrictor released by the endothelial cells.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Autocrine : Incorrect. In autocrine signaling, a cell targets itself, releasing signals that bind to receptors on its own surface.</li><li>• Option B. Autocrine</li><li>• Option C. Endocrine : Incorrect. Endocrine signaling involves hormones that are released into the bloodstream and affect distant target cells.</li><li>• Option C. Endocrine</li><li>• Option D. Merocrine : Incorrect. Merocrine refers to a type of exocrine secretion where cells secrete substances via exocytosis; it is not a type of intercellular signaling but a mode of secretion.</li><li>• Option D. Merocrine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When a codon is changed to stop codon, then it is: (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop codon mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Non-sense mutation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mis sense Mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Silent Mutation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Non-sense mutation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture14_ty2kqQF.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Non-sense mutation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference : Harper’s 31 st ed/pg- 396</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which statement most accurately refers to the requirements for initiating an urban community health center? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caters to a population of 1-1.5 lakh", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Referral centre for 2- 3 primary health centers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "No sub-district and district hospitals present in the area", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Should have a 100-bed facility in metro cities", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Should have a 100-bed facility in metro cities", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-103851.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Should have a 100-bed facility in metro cities</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old lactating female with an 18-month-old child comes with a history of irregular, heavy bleeding seeking contraceptive advice. Which is the contraceptive of choice? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Progestasert", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Copper-T 380A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mala N", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Norethisterone enanthate - depot injection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mala N", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mala N</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mala N : Among the given options, Mala N, a combined oral contraceptive pill, is the contraceptive of choice for this lactating woman. It will help regulate her cycles and reduce the menstrual flow. Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs) are contraindicated in breastfeeding mothers for the first 6 months postpartum due to potential effects on milk production. However, after 6 months, they can be safely used.</li><li>• Mala N : Among the given options, Mala N, a combined oral contraceptive pill, is the contraceptive of choice for this lactating woman. It will help regulate her cycles and reduce the menstrual flow. Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs) are contraindicated in breastfeeding mothers for the first 6 months postpartum due to potential effects on milk production. However, after 6 months, they can be safely used.</li><li>• Mala N</li><li>• Among the given options, Mala N, a combined oral contraceptive pill, is the contraceptive of choice for this lactating woman. It will help regulate her cycles and reduce the menstrual flow. Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs) are contraindicated in breastfeeding mothers for the first 6 months postpartum due to potential effects on milk production. However, after 6 months, they can be safely used.</li><li>• Among the given options, Mala N, a combined oral contraceptive pill, is the contraceptive of choice for this lactating woman. It will help regulate her cycles and reduce the menstrual flow.</li><li>• Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs) are contraindicated in breastfeeding mothers for the first 6 months postpartum due to potential effects on milk production. However, after 6 months, they can be safely used.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Progestasert : Progestasert is a progesterone-releasing intrauterine device. Progesterone-containing contraceptives can cause irregular bleeding, which is not desirable for this patient who already has irregular and heavy bleeding.</li><li>• Option A. Progestasert</li><li>• Option B. Copper-T 380A : Copper-T 380A is a non-hormonal intrauterine device that may exacerbate heavy menstrual bleeding and would not be suitable for a patient already experiencing heavy bleeding.</li><li>• Option B. Copper-T 380A</li><li>• Option D. Norethisterone enanthate - depot injection : Norethisterone enanthate is a progesterone-only injectable contraceptive. Progesterone-only contraceptives can cause irregular bleeding, making it an unsuitable choice for this patient with irregular heavy bleeding.</li><li>• Option D. Norethisterone enanthate - depot injection</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a lactating woman with a history of irregular and heavy menstrual bleeding, a combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) like Mala N is the preferred choice after the first 6 months postpartum as it helps regulate menstrual cycles and reduce menstrual flow.</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 398, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 7 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref: Page no 398, DC Dutta’s Textbook of Gynecology, 7 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents to you with a unilateral headache. It is associated with nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia. What is the best drug for acute management? (Neet pg 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flunarizine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sumatriptan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Topiramate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sumatriptan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sumatriptan is the drug of choice for the acute management of moderate to severe migraine attacks due to its vasoconstrictive properties and effectiveness in rapidly alleviating migraine symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly woman received a Botox injection for the treatment of wrinkles. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibits the release of acetylcholine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Release of noradrenaline at synaptic cleft", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Selectively and irreversibly inhibits nicotinic receptors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stimulates muscarinic and nicotinic receptors", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inhibits the release of acetylcholine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inhibits the release of acetylcholine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Botulinum toxin inhibits the release of acetylcholine by cleaving SNARE proteins, thereby preventing neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction and leading to muscle relaxation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child presents with diarrhea and weight loss. On examination, the height and weight are lesser than expected. Laboratory investigations were positive for class II HLA-DQ2. Which of the following will you advise the child? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fat-free diet", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lactose-free diet", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low carbohydrate diet", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gluten-free diet", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gluten-free diet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture147.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Gluten-free diet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Children with celiac disease should follow a gluten-free diet to manage symptoms and prevent further intestinal damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 8-year-old child has difficulty walking and getting up from a squatting position. A muscle biopsy was done and is as shown in the image. Which of the following is true about this condition? (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Death occurs in 3rd decade", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Previous history of viral prodrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is a mitochondrial storage disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Early treatment has excellent prognosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Death occurs in 3rd decade", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/13/7_PbNVvG8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/28/picture140.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/17/untitled-460.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Death occurs in 3rddecade</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle weakness, and death typically occurs in the late teens to early 20s.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the imaging modality given below. (NEET PG 2022)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cerebral blood flow scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "РЕТ СТ", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sestamibi scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Full body MDCT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. РЕТ СТ", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_214.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011010201026_page_68_page_215.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-172528.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-172545.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-172600.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. PET CT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A PET CT scan is crucial for the integrated assessment of anatomical and metabolic information, particularly useful in oncology for identifying and tracking the behavior of tumors based on their glucose metabolism, as visualized through radiotracer uptake.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Neet Pg 2023 2023 03 05 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 55-year-old patient comes with hoarseness of voice and difficulty swallowing. The patient was diagnosed with laryngeal carcinoma and surgical management was done. The post-operative image of the patient is given below. Which of the following surgery was done on this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Partial laryngectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Percutaneous tracheostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Standard tracheostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Total laryngectomy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Total laryngectomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011047.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011048.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Total laryngectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Total laryngectomy is a radical yet life-saving procedure for patients with extensive laryngeal cancer, resulting in significant anatomical and functional changes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is seen in low insulin: glucagon ratio?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Activation of lipoprotein lipase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Activation of glycogen synthase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Activation of phosphofructokinase 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Activation of hormone-sensitive lipase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Activation of hormone-sensitive lipase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Activation of hormone-sensitive lipase</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child before playing consumed fruit from the garden. After some time, he developed a high fever, confusion, photophobia, and unable to urinate. What are the likely causative agent and the appropriate antidote used in this case? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Datura, Pralidoxime", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Datura, Physostigmine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow oleander, Pralidoxime", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yellow oleander, Physostigmine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Datura, Physostigmine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121035.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121036.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Datura, Physostigmine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with complaints of persistent cough and weight loss. He had a history of contact with multiple sexual partners. He was diagnosed as HIV positive 6 months back and is poorly adherent to his medications. The fungal culture of sputum was negative. On Gomori methamine silver staining, the cells showed darkly stained crescent-shaped cysts. What is the most likely causative organism? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histoplasma capsulatum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coccidiodes immitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumocystis jerovecii", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pneumocystis jerovecii", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-115247.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture36.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/whatsapp-image-2024-06-25-at-121230-pm.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Pneumocystis jerovecii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) is a critical opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS patients, characterized by non-specific respiratory symptoms and distinctive cystic structures on Gomori methenamine silver staining. Regular prophylaxis and monitoring are essential for at-risk populations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student presented with complaints of repeated episodes lasting approximately 30 minutes, characterized by breathlessness, palpitations, sweating, hyperventilation, and a fear of an impending heart attack. The patient has experienced these episodes 5-6 times per month over the last 6 months, and investigations did not reveal any obvious abnormalities. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Panic Disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Generalized Anxiety Disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Social Phobia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Panic Disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Panic Disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent and unexpected panic attacks with anticipatory anxiety. Patients may start ‘avoiding’ situations that they link with the panic attack. Treatment includes a combination of pharmacotherapy [benzodiazepines for short term and SSRIs for long term] and psychotherapy [CBT, relaxation techniques] is preferred.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 402.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman has been diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma is undergoing radiotherapy. Choose the correct statement? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Small blood vessels are most radioresistant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rapidly proliferating cells are most radioresistant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small intestinal mucosa is most radio-resistant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Inverse Square Law is critical to understanding radiation dosage and safety in radiotherapy, ensuring that radiation exposure is managed correctly to maximize the therapeutic effect while minimizing harm to healthy tissues. This principle helps in planning and delivering radiation treatments effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida presents to you in her early pregnancy with anemia. She is 7 weeks pregnant as seen on ultrasound. Her haemoglobin level is 9 g/dL. When should the iron supplements be started for her? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 to 12 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8 to 10 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "After 14 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "After 20 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 8 to 10 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 8 to 10 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prophylaxis for anemia in pregnancy is generally started at 14 weeks and continued for 180 days. However, the given question indicates that the patient has moderate anemia and requires immediate treatment. Among the provided options, the earliest time to start iron supplements is 8 to 10 weeks, making this the correct answer.</li><li>• According to the Anemia Mukt Bharat campaign, the severity of anemia is classified as follows:</li><li>• Mild: 10-10.9 g% Moderate: 7-9 g% Severe: &lt;7 g%</li><li>• Mild: 10-10.9 g%</li><li>• Moderate: 7-9 g%</li><li>• Severe: &lt;7 g%</li><li>• Testing and Treating Mild and Moderate Anemia</li><li>• Testing and Treating Mild and Moderate Anemia</li><li>• Mild anemia or moderate anemia: Give 2 tablets of iron. Late presentation in pregnancy or inability to tolerate oral iron: Administer parenteral iron, such as iron carboxymaltose (FeCM).</li><li>• Mild anemia or moderate anemia: Give 2 tablets of iron.</li><li>• Mild anemia or moderate anemia:</li><li>• Late presentation in pregnancy or inability to tolerate oral iron: Administer parenteral iron, such as iron carboxymaltose (FeCM).</li><li>• Late presentation in pregnancy or inability to tolerate oral iron:</li><li>• Treating Severe Anemia</li><li>• Treating Severe Anemia</li><li>• Hemoglobin &lt; 7 g%: Administer iron carboxymaltose. Late presentation in the third trimester with severe anemia or hemoglobin &lt; 5 g%: Admit the patient for further management.</li><li>• Hemoglobin &lt; 7 g%: Administer iron carboxymaltose.</li><li>• Hemoglobin &lt; 7 g%:</li><li>• Late presentation in the third trimester with severe anemia or hemoglobin &lt; 5 g%: Admit the patient for further management.</li><li>• Late presentation in the third trimester with severe anemia or hemoglobin &lt; 5 g%:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. 10 to 12 weeks : While this is an earlier time frame than the standard prophylactic start, it is not as early as 8 to 10 weeks, which is necessary for moderate anemia.</li><li>• Option A. 10 to 12 weeks</li><li>• Option C. After 14 weeks: This is the standard time for starting prophylactic iron supplements but is too late for a patient with moderate anemia who requires immediate treatment.</li><li>• Option C. After 14 weeks:</li><li>• Option D. After 20 weeks: This is much too late for initiating treatment for anemia, especially for a patient with moderate anemia needing earlier intervention.</li><li>• Option D. After 20 weeks:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of moderate anemia (Hb 7-9 g/dL) in early pregnancy, iron supplements should be started as early as 8 to 10 weeks to ensure timely treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year old female presents with the lesion shown below in the x-ray. Identify the condition: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chondroblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GCT", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. GCT", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture12_b3emOjw.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/screenshot-2024-01-02-130615.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture13_fTE459u.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture14_3f4Ne5o.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture16_KKxJopm.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) GCT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tumor of distal end radius is always GCT until proven otherwise. Mc site of giant cell tumor is lower end femur. Lower end femur is Mc site for: Giant cell tumor Osteosarcoma Osteomyelitis</li><li>➤ Tumor of distal end radius is always GCT until proven otherwise.</li><li>➤ Mc site of giant cell tumor is lower end femur.</li><li>➤ Lower end femur is Mc site for: Giant cell tumor Osteosarcoma Osteomyelitis</li><li>➤ Lower end femur is Mc site for:</li><li>➤ Giant cell tumor Osteosarcoma Osteomyelitis</li><li>➤ Giant cell tumor</li><li>➤ Osteosarcoma</li><li>➤ Osteomyelitis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male patient presented in OPD with a swelling that has been slowly growing in the past 2 years. On examination, it was variable in consistency and mobile. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Parotid tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sebaceous cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical lymph node", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Parotid tumor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture27_GCmFIMc.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/pathogenesis_page_3.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture30.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture31.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Parotid tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A parotid tumor, particularly pleomorphic adenoma, is the most common benign tumor of the parotid gland. It is characterized by slow growth, a variable consistency, and mobility, commonly found in the superficial lobe of the parotid gland. Proper diagnosis involves imaging and FNAC, with treatment typically involving surgical removal while preserving the facial nerve if possible.</li><li>➤ A parotid tumor, particularly pleomorphic adenoma, is the most common benign tumor of the parotid gland.</li><li>➤ It is characterized by slow growth, a variable consistency, and mobility, commonly found in the superficial lobe of the parotid gland.</li><li>➤ Proper diagnosis involves imaging and FNAC, with treatment typically involving surgical removal while preserving the facial nerve if possible.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following laboratory test is used to diagnose rotavirus diarrhea? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antigen detection in the stool sample", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antigen detection in blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibody detection in serum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Light microscopy of stool specimen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Antigen detection in the stool sample", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Antigen detection in the stool sample</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antigen detection in stool samples is the standard diagnostic approach for confirming rotavirus infection, crucial for implementing appropriate management strategies, especially in managing dehydration risks in young children.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a swelling in the groin region. A diagnosis of direct inguinal hernia is made. Weakness in which of the following structures is most likely to cause this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pectineal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conjoint tendon", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reflected part of inguinal ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lacunar ligament", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Conjoint tendon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/new-fig-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Conjoint tendon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Direct inguinal hernias result from a weakness in the conjoint tendon, which forms a crucial part of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. This anatomical weakness allows abdominal contents to protrude directly through the abdominal wall within Hesselbach’s triangle.</li><li>➤ Direct inguinal hernias result from a weakness in the conjoint tendon, which forms a crucial part of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.</li><li>➤ This anatomical weakness allows abdominal contents to protrude directly through the abdominal wall within Hesselbach’s triangle.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Name the drug that acts on both the marked points: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sacubitril", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Omapatrilat", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Losartan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nesiritide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Omapatrilat", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Omapatrilat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Omapatrilat inhibits both neprilysin and angiotensin-converting enzyme, thereby decreasing angiotensin II and increasing natriuretic peptides, promoting natriuresis, diuresis, and vasodilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After using a hair dye a lady developed a skin reaction as shown in the image. Which of the following chemicals among given options is responsible for this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pollen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chromates", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Balsam of Peru", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Para-Phenylenediamine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Para-Phenylenediamine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121049.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-102752.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture8.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture10.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Para-Phenylenediamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Para-Phenylenediamine (PPD) is a common cause of allergic contact dermatitis ( delayed hypersensitivity reaction) associated with hair dye use.</li><li>➤ Para-Phenylenediamine (PPD)</li><li>➤ allergic</li><li>➤ delayed hypersensitivity</li><li>➤ hair dye</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition: 89.73 128.15, 128.42, 128.60</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with complaint of a jaw swelling. His tissue was found to have the presence of t (8;14). The histopathological appearance of the bone marrow aspirate tissue is given in the image. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis for this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Follicular lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Burkitt lymphoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute myeloid leukemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple myeloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Burkitt lymphoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Burkitt lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Burkitt lymphoma is identified by the presence of the t(8;14) translocation and histopathological features including cells with cytoplasmic vacuolation and distinct nucleoli. It commonly presents with jaw or abdominal tumors and requires prompt recognition and treatment due to its aggressive nature.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A defect in which of the following aortic arches causes the defect shown in the image? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 th left", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 th right", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 th left", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "6 th right", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6 th left", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101020.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-182342.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 6thleft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Here's a list of defects related to the aortic arch arteries:</li><li>➤ Double Aortic Arch : This involves the persistence of both the right and left fourth aortic arches. It can form a vascular ring around the trachea and esophagus, which can cause respiratory and feeding difficulties. Right Aortic Arch : This results from the regression of the left fourth aortic arch. Depending on the persistence of the ductus arteriosus, different types can form, some of which can lead to a vascular ring. Interrupted Aortic Arch : Here, there's a complete loss of continuity between the ascending and descending parts of the aorta. It's often associated with other congenital heart defects. Persistent Truncus Arteriosus : This is a failure of the truncus arteriosus to divide into the pulmonary trunk and aorta, leading to a single arterial trunk emerging from the heart supplying both systemic, pulmonary, and coronary circulations. Coarctation of the Aorta : It's a narrowing of the aorta, often occurring near the site of the ductus arteriosus. It can lead to high blood pressure in the upper body and arms and lower blood pressure in the lower body and legs. Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) : After birth, the ductus arteriosus normally closes, but in this condition, it remains open, leading to abnormal blood flow between the aorta and pulmonary artery. Aberrant Right Subclavian Artery : This is a variant in the branching pattern where the right subclavian artery arises as the last branch of the aortic arch and can course posterior to the esophagus. Cervical Aortic Arch : Here, the aortic arch is positioned higher than normal in the neck. It is usually of no clinical significance but can be identified radiologically. Aortopulmonary Septal Defects : These defects involve abnormal connections between the aorta and the pulmonary trunk. Vascular Rings : These are congenital anomalies of the aortic arch and its branches that encircle and compress the trachea and esophagus.</li><li>➤ Double Aortic Arch : This involves the persistence of both the right and left fourth aortic arches. It can form a vascular ring around the trachea and esophagus, which can cause respiratory and feeding difficulties.</li><li>➤ Double Aortic Arch</li><li>➤ Right Aortic Arch : This results from the regression of the left fourth aortic arch. Depending on the persistence of the ductus arteriosus, different types can form, some of which can lead to a vascular ring.</li><li>➤ Right Aortic Arch</li><li>➤ Interrupted Aortic Arch : Here, there's a complete loss of continuity between the ascending and descending parts of the aorta. It's often associated with other congenital heart defects.</li><li>➤ Interrupted Aortic Arch</li><li>➤ Persistent Truncus Arteriosus : This is a failure of the truncus arteriosus to divide into the pulmonary trunk and aorta, leading to a single arterial trunk emerging from the heart supplying both systemic, pulmonary, and coronary circulations.</li><li>➤ Persistent Truncus Arteriosus</li><li>➤ Coarctation of the Aorta : It's a narrowing of the aorta, often occurring near the site of the ductus arteriosus. It can lead to high blood pressure in the upper body and arms and lower blood pressure in the lower body and legs.</li><li>➤ Coarctation of the Aorta</li><li>➤ Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) : After birth, the ductus arteriosus normally closes, but in this condition, it remains open, leading to abnormal blood flow between the aorta and pulmonary artery.</li><li>➤ Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)</li><li>➤ Aberrant Right Subclavian Artery : This is a variant in the branching pattern where the right subclavian artery arises as the last branch of the aortic arch and can course posterior to the esophagus.</li><li>➤ Aberrant Right Subclavian Artery</li><li>➤ Cervical Aortic Arch : Here, the aortic arch is positioned higher than normal in the neck. It is usually of no clinical significance but can be identified radiologically.</li><li>➤ Cervical Aortic Arch</li><li>➤ Aortopulmonary Septal Defects : These defects involve abnormal connections between the aorta and the pulmonary trunk.</li><li>➤ Aortopulmonary Septal Defects</li><li>➤ Vascular Rings : These are congenital anomalies of the aortic arch and its branches that encircle and compress the trachea and esophagus.</li><li>➤ Vascular Rings</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old woman presents with foul-smelling bloody discharge per vagina mixed with mucous discharge. On examination, a necrotizing growth is seen in the cervix with lateral parametrium involvement. What will be the management for this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chemotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brachytherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chemoradiation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chemoradiation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-180546.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210146.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chemoradiation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The patient presents with a foul-smelling bloody discharge mixed with mucous discharge, and a necrotizing growth in the cervix with lateral parametrium involvement. These clinical features are suggestive of advanced cervical cancer. The involvement of the lateral parametrium indicates that the cancer has spread beyond the cervix to the surrounding tissues but not to the pelvic wall or the lower third of the vagina, which classifies it as Stage 2B cervical cancer. The standard treatment for Stage 2B cervical cancer is chemoradiation, which combines chemotherapy with radiation therapy. This approach aims to enhance the effectiveness of the treatment, reduce tumor size, and prevent further spread of the cancer.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Chemotherapy: Chemotherapy alone is not the standard treatment for Stage 2B cervical cancer. It may be used in conjunction with radiation, but not as a sole therapy in this stage.</li><li>• Option A. Chemotherapy:</li><li>• Option B. Brachytherapy: Brachytherapy, a form of internal radiation therapy, is typically used for early-stage cervical cancer or in combination with external beam radiation therapy for more advanced stages. However, it is not sufficient as a standalone treatment for Stage 2B.</li><li>• Option B. Brachytherapy:</li><li>• Option D. Surgery: Surgery is generally not recommended for Stage 2B cervical cancer due to the extent of the disease spread to the parametrium. The preferred approach is chemoradiation to address both local and regional disease.</li><li>• Option D. Surgery:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stage 2B cervical cancer, characterized by lateral parametrium involvement, is best managed with chemoradiation.</li><li>➤ Staging of CA Cervix</li><li>➤ TREATMENT</li><li>➤ Surgery: for early stages like stage 1, stage 2A1 Radiotherapy: for all patients from Stage 1 to 4</li><li>➤ Surgery: for early stages like stage 1, stage 2A1</li><li>➤ Radiotherapy: for all patients from Stage 1 to 4</li><li>➤ Chemoradiation can be offered at all stages</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male came to the hospital with a clean-cut wound without any bleeding. The patient received a full course of tetanus vaccination 10 years ago. What is the best management for this patient?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human tetanus immunoglobulin and full course of vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Human tetanus immunoglobulin only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Single-dose tetanus toxoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Full course tetanus toxoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Single-dose tetanus toxoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-100645.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Single-dose tetanus toxoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management of Tetanus-Prone Wounds:</li><li>➤ Management of Tetanus-Prone Wounds:</li><li>➤ CC = Complete course; TIG = Tetanus Immunoglobulin</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old woman came to the OPD with a diagnosis of advanced cervical cancer. She has a 14-year-old daughter. What advice would you give for her daughter? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Advise HPV vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Screen for BRCA mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Screen for PTEN mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perform cervical biopsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Advise HPV vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Advise HPV vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The HPV vaccine is essential for preventing cervical cancer and should be administered to girls aged 9 to 14 years, ideally before the onset of sexual activity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Given below is the X-ray of proximal femur in a patient with pain hip. The deformity shown is:(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blade of grass deformity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shepherd crook deformity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chicken wire appearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corduroy appearance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Shepherd crook deformity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/untitled-322.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture7_gjcTQTr.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture8_hDHoFRy.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture9_RLtDh01.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture10_62rkTVY.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture11_31hbEO3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Shepherd crook deformity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shepherd crook deformity is seen in cases of fibrous dysplasia. It is commonly seen deformity with the involvement of femur.</li><li>➤ Shepherd crook deformity is seen in cases of fibrous dysplasia. It is commonly seen deformity with the involvement of femur.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient addressing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dengue", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Scrub typhus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Typhoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dengue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-110539.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture20.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture22.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dengue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of fever, arthralgia, petechial rash, and significant thrombocytopenia in a patient from an area where dengue is endemic should prompt immediate consideration of dengue fever, with prompt initiation of supportive care and monitoring for potential complications such as DHF or DSS.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Research is being conducted to find the association between aniline dye exposure and bladder cancer in workers who have worked in the industry for &gt;20 years. Two groups were formed: one directly involved with dye handling and the other group consisting of office clerks not directly exposed to the dye. Years of occupation were noted from records. Then Bladder cancer cases were identified from both the groups in the current time. What type of study is being performed? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retrospective cohort study", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prospective cohort study", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Case-control study", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intervention and response", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retrospective cohort study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-094133.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Retrospective cohort study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A retrospective cohort study involves examining historical data to investigate the relationship between exposure and outcomes. In this scenario, it is used to study the association between aniline dye exposure and bladder cancer among workers over a 20-year period.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with hyperkalemia and elevated urea levels underwent dialysis. Towards the end of the session, she became drowsy and had a sudden seizure episode. On examination, the patient was hypotensive. What is the treatment for this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bumetanide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethacrynic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nesiritide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mannitol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Mannitol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The treatment for Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome (DDS), which can occur during or after dialysis, involves reducing cerebral edema. The first-line treatment is mannitol, an osmotic diuretic.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is diagnosed with varicose veins comes to OPD with complaints of eczema over the same region. What is the stage of the clinical classification according to the CEAP guidelines? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "C2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "C4a", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "C4b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. C4a", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/pathogenesis_page_8.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) C4a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ According to the CEAP classification for chronic venous disorders, the presence of eczema or pigmentation in a patient with varicose veins is classified as stage C4a.</li><li>➤ According to the CEAP classification for chronic venous disorders, the presence of eczema or pigmentation in a patient with varicose veins is classified as stage C4a.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents to you with complaints of feeling light-headedness and dizziness when she lies on her back and feels relieved if she lies on her side or when walks. What is the most likely reason behind this? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased intracranial pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IVC compression", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heavy meals", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Excessive venous pooling at the feet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IVC compression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IVC compression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The symptoms of light-headedness and dizziness that the pregnant woman experiences when lying on her back, which are relieved by lying on her side or walking, are indicative of inferior vena cava (IVC) compression. In the supine position during late pregnancy, the gravid uterus compresses the IVC, which can decrease venous return to the heart. This condition, known as supine hypotensive syndrome, leads to reduced cardiac output and can cause symptoms such as dizziness, light-headedness, and a decreased supply of oxygen and nutrients to vital organs.</li><li>• Supine Hypotensive Syndrome: This occurs when the enlarged uterus compresses the IVC, reducing venous return to the heart, leading to symptoms like dizziness and light-headedness. Relief by changing position: Symptoms are relieved when the woman lies on her side or walks because these positions alleviate the pressure on the IVC, improving venous return and cardiac output.</li><li>• Supine Hypotensive Syndrome: This occurs when the enlarged uterus compresses the IVC, reducing venous return to the heart, leading to symptoms like dizziness and light-headedness.</li><li>• Supine Hypotensive Syndrome:</li><li>• Relief by changing position: Symptoms are relieved when the woman lies on her side or walks because these positions alleviate the pressure on the IVC, improving venous return and cardiac output.</li><li>• Relief by changing position:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Increased intracranial pressure: This would present with symptoms such as headache, vomiting, visual disturbances, and altered mental status, not positional dizziness relieved by lying on the side.</li><li>• Option A. Increased intracranial pressure:</li><li>• Option C. Heavy meals: While heavy meals can cause discomfort, they are unlikely to cause the specific positional symptoms described.</li><li>• Option C. Heavy meals:</li><li>• Option D. Excessive venous pooling at the feet: This might cause symptoms such as swelling and discomfort in the legs but not the specific positional dizziness described.</li><li>• Option D. Excessive venous pooling at the feet:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inferior vena cava compression by the gravid uterus in late pregnancy can cause supine hypotensive syndrome, leading to light-headedness and dizziness when lying on the back, which is relieved by lying on the side or walking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presented in dermatology OPD with acne that is not resolving on oral isotretinoin and antibiotics therapy. Which of the following is the next best step among the following options? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Look for dietary triggers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Evaluate for hyperandrogenism", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Check for antibiotic resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Look for drug triggers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Evaluate for hyperandrogenism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-103515.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Evaluate for hyperandrogenism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When faced with a female patient whose acne has not improved with oral isotretinoin and antibiotics , the next best step is to evaluate f or hyperandrogenism, which can point to an underlying hormonal cause such as PCOS , necessitating a different treatment approach.</li><li>➤ female patient</li><li>➤ acne</li><li>➤ not improved</li><li>➤ isotretinoin</li><li>➤ antibiotics</li><li>➤ evaluate f</li><li>➤ hyperandrogenism,</li><li>➤ hormonal</li><li>➤ PCOS</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Williams Gynaecology 4 th edition: page no 392-394</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents in emergency department with sudden hematemesis. He has been taking aspirin for his arthritis and drinks alcohol occasionally. He gives a history of occasional abdominal pain. On examination, there is no abdominal mass or tenderness. What is the likely diagnosis?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mallory-Weiss tear", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophagitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peptic ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esophageal varices", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Peptic ulcer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Peptic ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a common cause of sudden hematemesis, especially in patients with risk factors such as NSAID use (e.g., aspirin) and occasional alcohol consumption. Recognition of these risk factors is crucial in diagnosing and managing PUD effectively.</li><li>➤ Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a common cause of sudden hematemesis, especially in patients with risk factors such as NSAID use (e.g., aspirin) and occasional alcohol consumption.</li><li>➤ Recognition of these risk factors is crucial in diagnosing and managing PUD effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male presents to surgery OPD with a verrucous lesion over the penis as shown in the image. On examination, inguinal lymph nodes are not enlarged. What is the management of choice in this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CO2 laser ablation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Podophylline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Topical 5-Fluoro uracil", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Partial penectomy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Partial penectomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture17.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Verrucous carcinoma of the penis, also known as Buschke-Löwenstein tumor, is best managed by partial penectomy to ensure complete removal of the tumor and prevent local recurrence. This approach is necessary due to the locally aggressive behavior of the tumor, which cannot be adequately treated with topical or minimally invasive methods.</li><li>➤ Verrucous carcinoma of the penis, also known as Buschke-Löwenstein tumor, is best managed by partial penectomy to ensure complete removal of the tumor and prevent local recurrence.</li><li>➤ This approach is necessary due to the locally aggressive behavior of the tumor, which cannot be adequately treated with topical or minimally invasive methods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to you with fever, jaundice, and malaise. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the serology reports given below? (NEET PG 2023) Anti-HBc (IgM): Positive HBsAg: Positive Anti-HBs: Negative Anti-HCV antibodies: Negative", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute hepatitis B", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute hepatitis C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chronic hepatitis C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute hepatitis B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Acute hepatitis B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc in a patient with fever, jaundice, and malaise strongly indicates acute hepatitis B.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The method of autopsy carried out en masse to remove from tongue to prostate is? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Virchow technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rokitansky technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ghon technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Letulle technique", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Letulle technique", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-132054.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-132133.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-132146.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-132157.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Letulle technique</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Letulle technique involves removing thoracic, cervical, abdominal, and pelvic organs en masse, preserving their relationships, and is preferred for infants to observe congenital abnormalities.</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology, PC dikshit, page 147</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology, PC dikshit, page 147</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a village, it is observed that several farmers have crossed gait and use a stick for support to stand up and walk. Due to poor yield from farms, they consume meals containing rice and pulses only. Supplementing their diet with which of the following vitamins could have prevented this? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-092757.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-092802.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-093002.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child presents with throat pain, fever, and ear pain. He is diagnosed with recurrent tonsillitis. Which nerve is responsible for the ear pain in this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Greater auricular nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Auricular branch of vagus nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011045.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-095749.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old chronic smoker presented with complaints of weight loss and cough for more than 1 year. He also has hypercalcemia. His biopsy report revealed hyperchromatic atypical cells. Which of the following is the most likely cancer is this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Small cell cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squamous cell cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Large cell neuro endocrine tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Squamous cell cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Squamous cell cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is strongly associated with smoking and can present with hypercalcemia due to ectopic PTHrP production, alongside symptoms such as chronic cough and weight loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the correct sign indicating adequate growth in an infant with a birth weight of 3 kg? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in length by 25 cm in the first year", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight gain of 300 grams per month till 1 year", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior fontanelle closure by 6 months of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weight under 75th percentile and height under 25th percentile", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increase in length by 25 cm in the first year", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-151425.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-151608.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Increase in length by 25 cm in the first year</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An increase in length by 25 cm in the first year is a key indicator of adequate growth in infants.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the drug of choice for preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient undergoing cardiac surgery? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Penicillin G", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cefazolin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cefazolin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cefazolin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The drug of choice for preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis in cardiac surgery is Cefazolin, administered within 60 minutes before incision to prevent surgical site infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman comes with complaints of pain and swelling in the perineal area, difficulty in walking and sitting. She has a history of multiple sexual partners. On examination, a tender swelling is seen with redness on the labia, as shown in the image given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlamydial infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bartholin abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Genital Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Herpes infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bartholin abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210148.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bartholin abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario and image points to the diagnosis of Bartholin's abscess.</li><li>• Bartholin Cyst and Abscess</li><li>• Bartholin gland is a mucus-secreting gland, which plays a role in vaginal lubrication. They are a pair of 0.5 cm glands located in the lower right and left portions at the 4 o’clock and 8 o’clock positions of the vaginal introitus. They are generally nonpalpable when not obstructed.</li><li>• Pathophysiology: Bartholin glands can form a cyst and an abscess in women of reproductive age and may cause dyspareunia, urinary irritation, and vague pelvic pain.</li><li>• C/F:</li><li>• The physical exam will often reveal asymmetry with a protrusion of one side (left or right) of the inferior aspect of the vulva. Bartholin gland abscesses, unlike Bartholin cysts, are very painful. While both are primarily unilateral, Bartholin abscesses are often tender to palpation, erythematous, indurated, and may have an area of fluctuance and/or purulent drainage. Treatment Asymptomatic Bartholin cysts do not require further treatment. Bartholin abscesses may be treated with incision and drainage with Word catheter placement due to ease and effectiveness of treatment. Marsupialization is the procedure of choice. Women with recurrent cysts or those who are post-menopausal (risk of malignancy) should have the cyst completely excised.</li><li>• The physical exam will often reveal asymmetry with a protrusion of one side (left or right) of the inferior aspect of the vulva.</li><li>• Bartholin gland abscesses, unlike Bartholin cysts, are very painful.</li><li>• While both are primarily unilateral, Bartholin abscesses are often tender to palpation, erythematous, indurated, and may have an area of fluctuance and/or purulent drainage.</li><li>• Treatment</li><li>• Asymptomatic Bartholin cysts do not require further treatment.</li><li>• Bartholin abscesses may be treated with incision and drainage with Word catheter placement due to ease and effectiveness of treatment.</li><li>• Marsupialization is the procedure of choice.</li><li>• Women with recurrent cysts or those who are post-menopausal (risk of malignancy) should have the cyst completely excised.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Chlamydial infection : Chlamydial infection patient usually present with vaginal discharge, dysuria, or cervicitis.</li><li>• Option A. Chlamydial infection</li><li>• Option C. Genital tuberculosis : Genital tuberculosis involves the upper genital tract, leading to menstrual irregularities, infertility, and abdominal pain.</li><li>• Option C. Genital tuberculosis</li><li>• Option D. Genital herpes : Genital herpes usually presents as painful ulcers or vesicles in the genital area, rather than a tender, erythematous swelling.</li><li>• Option D. Genital herpes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Bartholin abscess presents with significant pain, redness, and swelling in the labia, often making walking and sitting difficult.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child was brought with pallor and jaundice. On examination he had a hemoglobin of 9g/dl and mild splenomegaly. He has a history of similar episodes from birth. The peripheral smear had red cells without central pallor. Which of the following is useful for making the diagnosis of the patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, direct Coombs test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hereditary spherocytosis, osmotic fragility test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemolytic uremic syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PNH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hereditary spherocytosis, osmotic fragility test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/2.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hereditary spherocytosis, osmotic fragility test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hereditary spherocytosis should be suspected in patients with chronic hemolytic anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, and spherocytes on a peripheral smear. The osmotic fragility test is a key diagnostic tool for this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents with severe restlessness, palpitations, and tremors to the emergency department. She is a known case of bronchial asthma. On examination, the neck looks swollen. Blood pressure is elevated, and tachycardia is noted. ECG shows atrial fibrillation. Which of the following drugs is used for immediate management in this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diltiazem", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Esmolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Propylthiouracil", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diltiazem", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Diltiazem</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For immediate rate control in atrial fibrillation in a patient with bronchial asthma, non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like diltiazem are preferred over beta-blockers to avoid exacerbating asthma symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following refractory condition is depicted in the figure. ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Presbyopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Myopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Astigmatism", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypermetropia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Astigmatism", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-111431.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Astigmatism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Recognizing and understanding these refractive conditions is essential for early detection and management. Regular eye examinations are crucial, as they allow for the timely prescription of corrective lenses or other treatments. Each condition affects vision in a unique way, and understanding these differences is key in providing effective patient care and guidance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presents to OPD with 6 weeks of amenorrhea complaints of bleeding per vagina and mild abdominal pain. The urine pregnancy test is positive and hCG level is 2800 IU/L. On investigation, mass is seen on the left adnexa measuring 3 x 2 cm. She is hemodynamically stable. How will you manage this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral methotrexate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Single-dose methotrexate injection", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serial methotrexate + leucovorin rescue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salpingectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Single-dose methotrexate injection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-180854.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Single-dose methotrexate injection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The management of an unruptured ectopic pregnancy in a hemodynamically stable patient with an hCG level less than 5000 IU/L and an adnexal mass smaller than 3.5 cm is typically treated with a single-dose methotrexate injection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman came to OPD with a newborn who has complaints of chest retractions, dyspnea, and lethargy. The paediatrician diagnosed the baby with respiratory distress syndrome. This occurs due to the deficiency of: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dipalmitoyl inositol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lecithin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sphingomyelin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylethanolamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lecithin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-145401.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-145438.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lecithin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Respiratory distress syndrome in newborns is primarily caused by a deficiency of surfactant, particularly lecithin (dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following conditions, hysteroscopy can be done? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tubal ligation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asherman syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endocervical polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subserosal fibroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Asherman syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-175609.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Asherman syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hysteroscopy is the treatment of choice in Asherman syndrome.</li><li>• Asherman Syndrome</li><li>• These are intra-uterine adhesions They usually follow a history of sharp curettage Symptoms are hypomenorrhea, secondary amenorrhoea and secondary infertility</li><li>• These are intra-uterine adhesions</li><li>• They usually follow a history of sharp curettage</li><li>• Symptoms are hypomenorrhea, secondary amenorrhoea and secondary infertility</li><li>• Diagnosis –</li><li>• TVS: broken/ irregular endometrium</li><li>• HSG: space filling defect is seen (moth eaten appearance)</li><li>• Ix of choice: Hysteroscopy</li><li>• Treatment - Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Tubal ligation : Tubal ligation is done via laparoscopy.</li><li>• Option A. Tubal ligation</li><li>• Option C. Endocervical polyp : In Endocervical polyps’ cases surgical ligation and excision can be done if severe bleeding is expected. Hysteroscopy can help visualisation and assessment but it is not the primary method for managing endocervical polyps.</li><li>• Option C. Endocervical polyp</li><li>• Option D. Subserosal fibroid: In cases of Subserosal fibroids an MRI helps in detailed mapping of the fibroids if a myomectomy is planned.</li><li>• Option D. Subserosal fibroid:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hysteroscopy is the treatment of choice in Asherman syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are vitamin K dependent factors requiring gamma carboxylation? ( NEETPG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 7, 9, 10", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "8, 9, 11", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3, 7, 9, 10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 7, 9, 10", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2, 7, 9, 10</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin K dependent factors are procoagulants (factors 2,7,9,10) and anticoagulants (protein C and S). They require gamma carboxylation for their activity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-month-old infant is brought to the OPD with a parietal swelling present since birth. An X-ray was ordered and is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cephalhematoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subgaleal hematoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Encephalocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Caput Succedaneum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cephalhematoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-174623.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Cephalhematoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cephalhematoma is a localized hematoma under the periosteum of the skull bone in newborns, confined by suture lines and typically associated with birth trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient presents with sudden-onset perineal pain. On examination, foul-smelling discharge, and necrotic tissue as seen in the image is noted. Which of the following is true about the given condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti-gas gangrene serum indicated for all cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urinary diversion is the next step", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bilateral orchidectomy must be done", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture17-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/pathogenesis_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fournier gangrene is a mixed flora aerobic and anaerobic infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old farmer was brought to the emergency after he suddenly became unconscious while working in the field. On examination, his temperature was 105 degrees Fahrenheit and his skin turgor was decreased. Which of the following would not be seen in the patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tachypnea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypotension", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sweating", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Red hot skin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sweating", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-132125.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sweating</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In the scenario described, the patient likely suffers from heatstroke , characterized by a high body temperature (105°F), altered consciousness, and dehydration (indicated by decreased skin turgor).</li><li>• heatstroke</li><li>• Heatstroke is a severe form of heat illness that occurs when the body's heat-dissipating mechanisms fail. One of the classic signs, especially in exertional heatstroke, is the cessation of sweating, despite the elevated body temperature. This lack of sweating is due to dehydration and the body's inability to maintain adequate heat loss through evaporation.</li><li>• Heatstroke</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A: Tachypnea - Rapid, deep breathing (Kussmaul breathing) can be seen in heatstroke</li><li>• Option A: Tachypnea</li><li>• Option B: Hypotension - Dehydration and vasodilation in an attempt to dissipate heat can result in hypotension in heatstroke.</li><li>• Option B: Hypotension</li><li>• Option D: Red hot skin - Heatstroke patients can present with hot, flushed skin due to increased blood flow to the skin surface and the body's inability to dissipate heat effectively.</li><li>• Option D: Red hot skin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Difference between Fever and Heatstroke is as follows:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the ER following a road traffic accident. On examination, the patient opens his eyes to a painful stimulus, speaks inappropriately, and withdraws his limbs to a painful stimulus. What is his GCS score? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E2V2M3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "E3V3M3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "E2V3M4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "E3V2M2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. E2V3M4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/13/screenshot-2024-07-13-161144.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) E2V3M4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is an essential tool for assessing the level of consciousness in patients with traumatic brain injury. It involves evaluating the eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake). Understanding how to correctly assess and calculate the GCS score is crucial for determining the severity of the injury and guiding appropriate medical intervention.</li><li>➤ The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is an essential tool for assessing the level of consciousness in patients with traumatic brain injury.</li><li>➤ It involves evaluating the eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake).</li><li>➤ Understanding how to correctly assess and calculate the GCS score is crucial for determining the severity of the injury and guiding appropriate medical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-week-old infant is brought to OPD with complaints of cough and sore throat. The mother reports that the infant develops a paroxysm of cough followed by apnea. Blood investigations reveal total leucocyte count to be &gt;50,000 cells/L. Which of the following drugs is appropriate for this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amoxicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cotrimoxazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Azithromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-155946.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Azithromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For infants presenting with pertussis (whooping cough), characterized by paroxysmal cough and elevated leukocyte count, the drug of choice is azithromycin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a good prognostic factor for breast cancer patients? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High Ki67+", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ER+", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "BRCA 1 +", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "P53 +", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ER+", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) ER+</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ER-positive status in breast cancer is a good prognostic factor because it indicates a slower-growing tumor that is likely to respond well to hormone therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked area in the given spirometry graph? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Functional residual capacity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tidal volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expiratory reserve volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Expiratory capacity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Functional residual capacity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Functional residual capacity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The marked area in the spirometry graph indicates the Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) . FRC is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal, passive exhalation. This is not fully expelled during a standard tidal cycle and represents the air that remains in the lungs to keep them inflated.</li><li>• Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)</li><li>• FRC Components : FRC includes the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) plus the Residual Volume (RV). ERV is the additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after the end of a normal, calm exhalation. RV is the volume of air still remaining in the lungs after the most forceful exhalation, which cannot be voluntarily expelled.</li><li>• FRC Components : FRC includes the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) plus the Residual Volume (RV). ERV is the additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after the end of a normal, calm exhalation. RV is the volume of air still remaining in the lungs after the most forceful exhalation, which cannot be voluntarily expelled.</li><li>• FRC Components</li><li>• FRC includes the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) plus the Residual Volume (RV). ERV is the additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after the end of a normal, calm exhalation. RV is the volume of air still remaining in the lungs after the most forceful exhalation, which cannot be voluntarily expelled.</li><li>• FRC includes the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) plus the Residual Volume (RV).</li><li>• ERV is the additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after the end of a normal, calm exhalation.</li><li>• RV is the volume of air still remaining in the lungs after the most forceful exhalation, which cannot be voluntarily expelled.</li><li>• Significance in Spirometry:</li><li>• Significance in Spirometry:</li><li>• In spirometry:</li><li>• FRC is critical for maintaining the alveolar inflation and preventing the airways from collapsing. It is not directly measurable by simple spirometry because it includes the residual volume. Techniques such as body plethysmography or using tracer gas dilution methods are usually employed to measure FRC.</li><li>• FRC is critical for maintaining the alveolar inflation and preventing the airways from collapsing.</li><li>• FRC</li><li>• It is not directly measurable by simple spirometry because it includes the residual volume. Techniques such as body plethysmography or using tracer gas dilution methods are usually employed to measure FRC.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Tidal Volume (TV or VT) : This is the volume of air inhaled or exhaled during a normal breathing cycle, not indicated in this context.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Tidal Volume (TV or VT)</li><li>• Option C. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) : Part of FRC, this is the maximum volume of air that can be voluntarily expelled after the end of a normal, passive exhalation.</li><li>• Option C. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)</li><li>• Option D. Expiratory Capacity : It is the total amount of air that can be expired from the lungs after a maximal inhalation, typically including the tidal volume plus the expiratory reserve volume, not specifically marked here.</li><li>• Option D. Expiratory Capacity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration and is essential for preventing lung collapse and maintaining pulmonary function, especially during physical activities or respiratory challenges. Understanding FRC's role helps in assessing lung health and diagnosing potential respiratory disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The blood pressure of a population was tracked from childhood to adulthood. It was observed that those who had lower BP in childhood had low BP in adulthood, while those who had higher BP in childhood had high BP in adulthood. This can be best described as (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rule of halves", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tracking of blood pressure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "STEPwise approach", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primordial approach", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tracking of blood pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-094506.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-094510.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tracking of blood pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tracking of blood pressure describes the observation that individuals maintain their relative position within a distribution of blood pressure values from childhood to adulthood. This means that blood pressure levels tend to remain consistent relative to peers over time.</li><li>➤ Tracking of blood pressure</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Below is an electron microscopy depiction of a cellular structure. Determine the type of cell being depicted. (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Target cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hairy cell", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gaucher cell", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hairy cell", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-194200.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-194237.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-194314.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-194348.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hairy cell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hairy cells are seen in hairy cell leukemia, characterized by B lymphocytes with hair-like projections, and are identified using electron microscopy and specific markers like CD11c, CD25, CD103, and Annexin-A.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the given options, murmur given in the image is associated with? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aortic Regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitral Regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitral Stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aortic Stenosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mitral Regurgitation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/29/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901276.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mitral Regurgitation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mitral regurgitation is associated with a pan-systolic murmur, which is present throughout the systole and heard between the S1 and S2 heart sounds.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents in OPD with a history of fever and cough for 5 days. On auscultation, crepts were heard on right side. Chest X-ray is given below. Mark the correct finding in this case? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Apical segment of Right lower lobe consolidation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right middle lobe consolidation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posterior segment of right lower lobe consolidation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loculated pleural effusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Right middle lobe consolidation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/7.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/17/screenshot-2024-05-17-175408.JPG"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Right middle lobe consolidation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Right middle lobe consolidation is suggested by the obscuration of the right heart border and the specific location of opacity on the chest X-ray, aligned with the patient's clinical presentation of respiratory symptoms. This finding is crucial for diagnosing the specific location of pneumonia, guiding appropriate treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old woman who is being treated for infertility with human menopausal gonadotropin presented with complaints of sudden abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and breathlessness. The finding of the ultrasound is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polvcystic ovarian syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Theca lutein cysts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Granulosa cell tumor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210151.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210152.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/27/screenshot-2024-08-27-095050.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is characterized by multiple follicular development and ovarian enlargement following hCG stimulation, with symptoms including abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and breathlessness, often visible on ultrasound as enlarged ovaries with large cysts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old HIV patient presented with a painful lesion, as shown in the image. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Kaposi sarcoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Kaposi sarcoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/31/screenshot-2024-07-30-170516.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Kaposi sarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kaposi sarcoma should be suspected in HIV patients presenting with violaceous lesions on the skin or mucous membranes. It is an AIDS-defining condition associated with HHV-8 infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child is brought to the hospital with features of respiratory distress and biphasic stridor. There is a history of upper respiratory infection. The radiograph is shown below. Mark the correct diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute epiglottitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute laryngotracheobronchitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foreign body in glottis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laryngomalacia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012100.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012102.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-152312.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acute laryngotracheobronchitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) is a viral infection of the glottis and subglottic region, often caused by the Parainfluenza virus, and presents with respiratory distress and biphasic stridor.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old patient presents with distant visual acuity of 6/18, which improved on pin-hole testing. He gives history of not needing glasses for near vision now. On ocular examination findings as shown in image were seen. Patient has which of the following refractory error. (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Axial Myopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Curvatural Myopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positional Myopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Index Myopia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Index Myopia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-111551.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Index Myopia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The phenomenon of \"second sight\" in older adults is often associated with the development of nuclear sclerotic cataracts, which can cause a change in the refractive index of the lens, leading to index myopia. An important clinical sign is improvement in near vision in a previously hypermetropic (or presbyopic) individual, along with a decrease in distance vision that improves with pinhole testing. It's essential to recognize these signs and symptoms for the correct diagnosis and management of cataracts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with bone pain and hepatosplenomegaly. A trephine biopsy and aspirate show the following finding. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme deficient in this condition?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hexosaminidase A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glucocerebrosidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sphingomyelinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "α-1,4-Glucosidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glucocerebrosidase", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/picture22.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-29%20134931.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-29%20135020.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Glucocerebrosidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical vignette of a child with bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly, and trephine biopsy showing a cell with a characteristic crumpled tissue paper appearance points to diagnosis of Gaucher's disease, in which enzyme deficient is glucocerebrosidase (also known as beta-glucosidase).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gaucher’s Disease</li><li>➤ Gaucher’s Disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with fever and abdominal pain. Investigations showed the given findings. Which of the following statements is true regarding this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgery is mandatory", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fine-needle aspiration cytology is diagnostic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Angioembolization is the treatment of choice", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Echinococcus species is involved in Etiology", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Echinococcus species is involved in Etiology", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture25_7VjkR0F.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/pathology000_page_1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Echinococcus species is involved in Etiology</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydatid disease of the liver, caused by Echinococcus granulosus, is characterized by the formation of cysts that can be identified using imaging techniques like USG and CECT. The primary treatment approach includes medical management with albendazole followed by the PAIR procedure or surgery if PAIR is not feasible. FNAC is contraindicated due to the risk of cyst rupture and anaphylaxis.</li><li>➤ Hydatid disease of the liver, caused by Echinococcus granulosus, is characterized by the formation of cysts that can be identified using imaging techniques like USG and CECT.</li><li>➤ The primary treatment approach includes medical management with albendazole followed by the PAIR procedure or surgery if PAIR is not feasible.</li><li>➤ FNAC is contraindicated due to the risk of cyst rupture and anaphylaxis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old medical student with a 2-month history of palpitations, sweating, and restlessness. He also complains of a sweaty palm. His appearance is as shown in the picture. What is the next step in evaluation? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thyroid receptor antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radioactive Iodine Uptake", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ultrasensitive thyrotropin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibody", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ultrasensitive thyrotropin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/30/screenshot-2024-07-30-143515.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first and most crucial test in the evaluation of suspected hyperthyroidism, such as in a case suggestive of Graves' disease, is the measurement of ultrasensitive thyrotropin (TSH) levels.</li><li>➤ Confirmatory Diagnosis – by TRAbs (Thyroid receptor antibodies)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male underwent a bilateral laparoscopic hernia repair for inguinal hernia. Postoperatively, he complained of pain in the right thigh. Which of the following nerve entrapment leads to this symptom? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ilioinguinal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iliohypogastric nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meralgia paresthetica, characterized by pain in the thigh, is commonly due to entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, especially following laparoscopic hernia repair. Proper placement of mesh and tacks during surgery is crucial to avoid this nerve injury.</li><li>➤ Meralgia paresthetica, characterized by pain in the thigh, is commonly due to entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, especially following laparoscopic hernia repair.</li><li>➤ Proper placement of mesh and tacks during surgery is crucial to avoid this nerve injury.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the deficiency: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin E", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/untitled-315.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/screenshot-2024-01-02-121552.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin D deficiency presents as thickening and widening of growth plate (physis); indistinct and hazy metaphysis with abnormally wide (splaying), cupping or flaring (Brush-like) appearance; and bowing of diaphysis, with thinning of cortices.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "IPC Section 314 deals with? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abortion with consent of mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abortion without consent of mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abortion leading to death of mother", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preventing the child from being born alive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Abortion leading to death of mother", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Abortion leading to death of mother</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IPC Section 314 deals specifically with the death of the mother during a criminal abortion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man presents with a history of dysuria and urethral discharge after having unprotected sexual intercourse. Gram-staining of the purulent discharge is seen in the following image. What is the treatment of choice for this infection? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Azithromycin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ceftriaxone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillin G", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ceftriaxone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture45.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ceftriaxone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For uncomplicated gonorrhea, especially cases presenting with urethral discharge and identified intracellular gram-negative diplococci, Ceftriaxone remains the treatment of choice. This choice reflects current guidelines that prioritize efficacy and resistance profiles in managing sexually transmitted infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True statement regarding the given nerve action potential curve is? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Threshold point is at A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "At point E, the nerve is more excitable", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Point C to D is due to opening of Na+ and closure of K+ channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Point B to D is refractory period", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Point B to D is refractory period", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/whatsapp-image-2023-06-27-at-191615.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Point B to D is refractory period</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The correct statement regarding the given nerve action potential curve is point B to D is the refractory period.</li><li>• AT POINT 1 - Resting membrane potential: membrane is more permeable to K+ than Na+ at rest. Voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels are closed.</li><li>• AT POINT 1</li><li>• AT POINT 2 - Membrane depolarization: Na+ activation gate opens à Na+ flows inward.</li><li>• AT POINT 2 -</li><li>• AT POINT 3 - Membrane repolarization: Na+ inactivation gate closes at peak potential, thus stopping Na+ inflow. K+ activation gate opens → K+ flows outward.</li><li>• AT POINT 3</li><li>• AT POINT 4 - Membrane hyperpolarization: K+ activation gates are slow to close → excess K+ efflux and brief period of hyperpolarization. Voltage-gated Na+ channels switch back to resting state. Na+/K+ pump restores ions concentration.</li><li>• AT POINT 4 -</li><li>• Point 2 to 4 is a part of the refractory period. During this period, the application of even a stronger stimulus will not elicit an action potential.</li><li>• Point 2 to 4</li><li>• The refractory period is divided into two, an absolute refractory period and a relative refractory period. During the absolute refractory period, the nerve will not be excited no matter how strong a stimulus is given. However, during the relative refractory period, stronger than normal stimuli can cause excitation.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A : Incorrect. Threshold potential is reached just before point B where a rapid depolarization phase begins.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Option B : Incorrect. At point E, the nerve is not more excitable; rather, it is in a hyperpolarized state where more than the normal stimulus would be needed to generate another action potential.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Option C : Incorrect. The transition from C to D is characterized by the closing of Na+ channels and the opening of K+ channels, not the other way around.</li><li>• Option C</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The phases of an action potential -</li><li>➤ Point A : Represents the resting membrane potential. Point B : Marks the threshold potential.</li><li>➤ Point A : Represents the resting membrane potential.</li><li>➤ Point A</li><li>➤ Point B : Marks the threshold potential.</li><li>➤ Point B</li><li>➤ Point C : Represents the peak of the action potential.</li><li>➤ Point C</li><li>➤ Point D : Repolarization phase Point E : Hyperpolarization phase Absolute refractory period includes points B to around point C Relative refractory period from around point C to D</li><li>➤ Point D : Repolarization phase</li><li>➤ Point D</li><li>➤ Point E : Hyperpolarization phase</li><li>➤ Point E</li><li>➤ Absolute refractory period includes points B to around point C</li><li>➤ Absolute refractory period</li><li>➤ Relative refractory period from around point C to D</li><li>➤ Relative refractory period</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A construction worker came to the OPD complaining of white fingers. He has been working in the cement and concrete industry and has been working on heavy machinery drills, wood, and furniture polishing for 20 years. What is the most likely etiology for this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candidal infection of the fingers due to continuous exposure to water", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Exposure to thinners and paints", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Continuous exposure to cement and concrete", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continuous exposure to drills and machines", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Continuous exposure to drills and machines", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture40.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Continuous exposure to drills and machines</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Raynaud's syndrome is characterized by episodic vasospastic attacks in response to cold or stress, leading to color changes in the fingers. Chronic exposure to vibrating tools, such as drills and machines, is a common occupational risk factor for developing this condition. Treatment includes the use of calcium channel blockers to manage symptoms.</li><li>➤ Raynaud's syndrome is characterized by episodic vasospastic attacks in response to cold or stress, leading to color changes in the fingers.</li><li>➤ Chronic exposure to vibrating tools, such as drills and machines, is a common occupational risk factor for developing this condition.</li><li>➤ Treatment includes the use of calcium channel blockers to manage symptoms.</li><li>➤ calcium channel blockers</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient with hearing loss is examined and is found to be Rinne’s negative at 256 Hz and 512 Hz, while Rinne positive at 1024 Hz. What is the expected air conduction and bone conduction gap? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30-45 dB", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "15-30 dB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "45-60 dB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;60 dB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 30-45 dB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-100444.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 30-45 dB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the most common neurological complication following ligation of the Inferior mesenteric artery during abdominoperineal resection for rectal carcinoma? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parasympathetic - bladder dysfunction and retrograde ejaculation.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sympathetic - bladder dysfunction and impotence.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sympathetic - retrograde ejaculation and bladder dysfunction.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sympathetic - Impotence and loss of cutaneous sensation in perineal region", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sympathetic - retrograde ejaculation and bladder dysfunction.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sympathetic - retrograde ejaculation and bladder dysfunction.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During abdominoperineal resection for rectal carcinoma, ligation of the inferior mesenteric artery may lead to sympathetic nerve damage, particularly the superior hypogastric plexus. This can result in neurological complications such as retrograde ejaculation and bladder dysfunction.</li><li>➤ During abdominoperineal resection for rectal carcinoma, ligation of the inferior mesenteric artery may lead to sympathetic nerve damage, particularly the superior hypogastric plexus.</li><li>➤ This can result in neurological complications such as retrograde ejaculation and bladder dysfunction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy presented with a fever and chills. Rapid test was positive for specific antigen HRP-2. Which of the following species of Plasmodium is the most likely causative agent? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plasmodium falciparum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasmodium malariae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plasmodium vivax", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plasmodium ovale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Plasmodium falciparum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture39.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture40.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Plasmodium falciparum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a rapid diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum infection, the detection of the HRP-2 antigen is critical. This test is specific to P. falciparum, aiding in rapid treatment decisions crucial for preventing the severe complications associated with this malaria species.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the maneuver being performed in the given image? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Head tilt, chin lift", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Jaw thrust", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Head extension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manual In line stabilization", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Head tilt, chin lift", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011024.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011025.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011023.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Head tilt, chin lift</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The head-tilt chin-lift maneuver is a key technique for opening the airway in emergency situations, especially when cervical spine injury is not suspected.</li><li>➤ The head-tilt chin-lift maneuver is a key technique for opening the airway in emergency situations, especially when cervical spine injury is not suspected.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl is seen for primary amenorrhea. She has not development of breasts or hair in the pubic or axillary region. Her height is 155cm and her weight is 48 kg. She has bilateral inguinal masses. On USG examination, the uterus, fallopian tube, and ovary are absent. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polycystic ovary syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The diagnosis based on the given clinical scenario is hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. In this question, bilateral inguinal masses (undescended testis), absent ovary, also there is absent uterus and fallopian tubes, all pointing to a conclusion that patient can be of XY karyotype. Because if female reproductive tract is absent, there must be mullerian inhibiting substance present which comes from Y chromosome. Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism can occur in disorders such as FSH or LH receptor mutations. Now, in a XY individual with a defect in LH/hCG receptor, testis’ Sertoli cells will produce Anti-mullerian hormone which will not let uterus, fallopian tube, cervix, upper vagina to develop. Leydi cells will not produce testosterone due to which wolffian duct development is impaired and the testes fail to descend. They appear female at birth and at puberty present with primary amenorrhea. They lack breast development and pubic hair development.</li><li>• The diagnosis based on the given clinical scenario is hypergonadotropic hypogonadism.</li><li>• In this question, bilateral inguinal masses (undescended testis), absent ovary, also there is absent uterus and fallopian tubes, all pointing to a conclusion that patient can be of XY karyotype. Because if female reproductive tract is absent, there must be mullerian inhibiting substance present which comes from Y chromosome.</li><li>• Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism can occur in disorders such as FSH or LH receptor mutations.</li><li>• Now, in a XY individual with a defect in LH/hCG receptor, testis’ Sertoli cells will produce Anti-mullerian hormone which will not let uterus, fallopian tube, cervix, upper vagina to develop. Leydi cells will not produce testosterone due to which wolffian duct development is impaired and the testes fail to descend. They appear female at birth and at puberty present with primary amenorrhea. They lack breast development and pubic hair development.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome : Androgen insensitivity syndrome individuals have normal breast development.</li><li>• Option A. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome</li><li>• Option C. Turner syndrome : Turner's syndrome karyotype is XO.</li><li>• Option C. Turner syndrome</li><li>• Option D. Polycystic ovary syndrome : In Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) ovary and uterus is present, so can’t be answer.</li><li>• Option D. Polycystic ovary syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism can present as primary amenorrhea with absent uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries in an XY individual, with bilateral inguinal masses indicating undescended testes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old male child presented with fever, fatigue and left ventricular dysfunction. He underwent a cardiac biopsy (image shown). Which of the following is the likely diagnosis in this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute rheumatic fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphocytic myocarditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chagas disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyogenic myocarditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lymphocytic myocarditis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-191919.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lymphocytic myocarditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lymphocytic myocarditis is indicated by the presence of lymphocytic infiltration in the myocardium and is commonly associated with viral infections. The clinical presentation includes heart failure symptoms, fever, and fatigue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A husband and wife presented to the outpatient department with complaints of the husband's premature ejaculation, which is leading to frequent conflicts between them. Which of the following non-pharmacological techniques is most appropriate for treatment? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squeeze Technique", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensate Focus Technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exposure and Response Prevention", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cognitive Behavioral Therapy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Squeeze Technique", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Squeeze Technique</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Squeeze Technique is a specific non-pharmacological method effective in the management of premature ejaculation. It involves squeezing the penis before the point of ejaculation to delay it and can be repeated several times to increase the time before ejaculation.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page 531.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During resuscitation, when is the given position? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unconsciousness with pulse and breathing absent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unconsciousness with pulse present and breathing absent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unconsciousness with pulse and breathing present", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unconsciousness with pulse absent and breathing present", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Unconsciousness with pulse and breathing present", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011026.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Unconsciousness with pulse and breathing present</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recovery position is used for an unconscious patient who has a pulse and is breathing to prevent aspiration and maintain airway patency.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A sewage worker presented with abdominal pain, jaundice, conjunctival suffusion, and blood in the urine for the past 5 days. Which of the following is the investigation of choice? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Widal test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microscopic agglutination test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weil-Felix reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paul-Bunnell test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Microscopic agglutination test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture38.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Microscopic agglutination test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The microscopic agglutination test is crucial for diagnosing leptospirosis in symptomatic individuals, especially those exposed to potentially contaminated water environments. Early diagnosis and treatment are key to preventing severe complications like Weil's disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient with infertility presents with galactorrhea. Evaluation reveals a 7mm prolactinoma. She is worried about her conception chances. What is the appropriate drug in this situation? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cabergoline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bromocriptine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Octreotide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pegvisomant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bromocriptine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Although cabergoline is often used for prolactinomas due to better tolerability and efficacy, it is not the preferred agent when fertility is desired, especially around the time of conception or planned pregnancy.</li><li>• According to endocrine guidelines:</li><li>• According to endocrine guidelines:</li><li>• Bromocriptine has been safely used for over 30 years in women trying to conceive, with no proven teratogenicity.</li><li>• Once pregnancy is confirmed, bromocriptine is discontinued to reduce fetal exposure.</li><li>• Cabergoline, being long-acting with high D₂ receptor affinity, is not recommended during conception planning, due to less extensive safety data in pregnancy.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Cabergoline : Not preferred in women desiring fertility due to longer half-life and limited pregnancy safety data.</li><li>• Option A. Cabergoline</li><li>• Option C. Octreotide : A somatostatin analog used for GH-secreting tumors (e.g., acromegaly), not prolactinomas.</li><li>• Option C. Octreotide</li><li>• Option D. Pegvisomant : GH receptor antagonist for acromegaly; no role in prolactinoma or fertility.</li><li>• Option D. Pegvisomant</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In women with microprolactinoma and infertility, bromocriptine is the first-line treatment to restore ovulation and promote safe conception. While cabergoline is effective and often better tolerated, it is not the agent of choice when pregnancy is desired, due to concerns regarding its longer action and limited pregnancy safety data.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old HIV-positive male came with complaints of persistent cough and weight loss. He has skin lesions as shown in the image. Chest x-ray showed multiple bilateral nodular infiltrates. His sputum CBNAAT for tuberculosis was negative and he has a low CD4 count. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV with disseminated histoplasmosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HIV with disseminated cryptococcosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HIV with molluscum contagiosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HIV with tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. HIV with disseminated histoplasmosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/31/screenshot-2024-07-30-170533.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. HIV with disseminated histoplasmosis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A bronchial asthma patient who is on inhalational steroids presented with white patchy lesions on the tongue and buccal mucosa. What is the drug that can be used to treat this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clotrimazole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Griseofulvin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Terbinafine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flucytosine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Clotrimazole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Clotrimazole</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clotrimazole is the drug of choice for treating oral candidiasis, especially in patients who develop the condition as a side effect of inhalational steroid use. It works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis, compromising the fungal cell membrane integrity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Shown below is an X-ray of a patient with history of a chronic knee pain. True statement concerning the X-ray shown would be: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Avulsion fracture; cylinder cast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Avulsion fracture; interfragmentary nailing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Avulsion fracture; wire fixation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bipartite patella; X-ray of other knee", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bipartite patella; X-ray of other knee", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/untitled-317.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/04/01/untitled-318.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture3.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bipartite patella; X-ray other knee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows bipartite patella which is a congenital fragmentation of patella i.e., the patella is made of two separate bones instead of one. In this condition, it is always recommended to get an x-ray of the other knee also as this condition is bilateral in most cases. It is treated by surgical removal of the smaller bone fragment when the conservative methods fail to provide relief.</li><li>➤ The given image in the question shows bipartite patella which is a congenital fragmentation of patella i.e., the patella is made of two separate bones instead of one.</li><li>➤ In this condition, it is always recommended to get an x-ray of the other knee also as this condition is bilateral in most cases.</li><li>➤ It is treated by surgical removal of the smaller bone fragment when the conservative methods fail to provide relief.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child presented with cola colored urine and had a history of skin infection few days back. His creatinine value was initially 2.5 mg/dl but even after 3 weeks of treatment it increased to 4.5 mg/dl. Which of the following is a likely kidney biopsy finding on electron microscopy? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subendothelial deposits", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subepithelial deposits", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crescents in glomeruli", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mesangial deposits", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Crescents in glomeruli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Crescents in glomeruli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of crescents in the glomeruli on kidney biopsy is characteristic of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN), especially in a patient with worsening renal function following an episode of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman comes to the clinic. She already has twins by normal delivery. Which of the following is the correct representation of her obstetric score? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G3P2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "G3P1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "G2P1", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "G2P2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. G2P1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) G2P1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In obstetric scoring, twin pregnancies count as a single gravida, and the obstetric score for a woman with twins by normal delivery and currently pregnant should be G2P1.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presenting with bleeding gums and easy bruisability was diagnosed with scurvy. What is the biochemical basis of scurvy?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Defective collagen formation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inhibition of clotting factors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased keratinization of epithelium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Defective collagen formation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-092725.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture20.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Defective collagen formation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has Bilateral right sided loss of vision. What is the most likely site of lesion. (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left optic tract", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Right optic tract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Optic chiasma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Optic radiation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Left optic tract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Left optic tract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Understanding the visual pathway is critical for localizing lesions based on patterns of visual field loss. Lesions at different points along the visual pathway (e.g., optic nerves, chiasma, tracts, or radiations) will produce characteristic visual field defects. This knowledge is used to guide further diagnostic testing and management, which may include imaging studies like MRI or CT scans to visualize the lesion and determine its cause.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to OPD with abdominal pain, jaundice, and portal hypertension. With the above symptoms identify the anastomosis seen in between veins: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophageal veins and left gastric veins", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left colic vein and middle colic veins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior rectal and phrenic veins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sigmoid and superior rectal veins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Esophageal veins and left gastric veins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-184126.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Esophageal veins and left gastric veins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Common sites of Porto-systemic anastomoses and their clinical presentations are as follows:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the sensitive indicator to assess the availability, utilization, and effectiveness of healthcare in a community? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infant mortality rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immunization coverage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disability-adjusted life years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Infant mortality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121027.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Infant mortality rate</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boys' hostel has an outbreak of fever cases with headache, followed by the development of pleomorphic rashes sparing palms and soles. What is the next best step in the management of suspected cases? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isolate for 6 days after giving acyclovir, followed by VZIG within 72 hours of exposure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isolate for 12 days after giving acyclovir, followed by VZIG within 48 hours of exposure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isolate for 6 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only give VZIG", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Isolate for 6 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121030.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Isolate for 6 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For managing a chickenpox outbreak in a boys' hostel, the best step is to isolate affected individuals for 6 days from the onset of the rash. This helps prevent the spread of the virus. Antiviral treatments and immunoglobulins are reserved for high-risk individuals.</li><li>➤ isolate affected individuals for 6 days</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient presents with sensory loss and weakness of limbs for 3 months. He also has angular stomatitis. On examination, there is loss of proprioception, vibration sensations, UMN type of lower limb weakness, and absent ankle reflex. What is the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural cord compression", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple sclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subacute combined degeneration of the cord", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Subacute combined degeneration of the cord", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Subacute combined degeneration of the cord</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subacute combined degeneration of the cord due to vitamin B12 deficiency presents with sensory loss, UMN signs in the lower limbs, and absent ankle reflex, along with other signs of vitamin deficiency like angular stomatitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male presents with golden-brown ring over iris on examination. What next is done to diagnose the condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum ceruloplasmin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum iron level", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alpha 1 antitrypsin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alpha fetoprotein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Serum ceruloplasmin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Serum ceruloplasmin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ When a patient presents with Kayser-Fleischer rings, it is crucial to evaluate for Wilson's disease, a condition of abnormal copper metabolism. Serum ceruloplasmin is a key diagnostic test in this situation. Understanding the appropriate diagnostic approach for specific clinical signs is essential in guiding effective and efficient patient care.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The temperature of a body of a deceased person is found to be 39 degrees Celsius. Which of the following is the most probable reason? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyanide poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Septicaemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corrosive poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intra-abdominal hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Septicaemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Septicaemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Postmortem caloricity, where the body temperature remains elevated after death, can occur due to high body temperature before death, such as in cases of septicaemia, heat stroke, and certain poisonings, or due to very high environmental temperature.</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology, 5th edition, Krishan Vij, page 81</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology, 5th edition, Krishan Vij, page 81</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the condition according to given image below.(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Venous ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malignant ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arterial ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trophic ulcer", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Trophic ulcer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture41_QF8x4iZ.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/pathogenesis_page_7.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Trophic ulcer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trophic ulcers, commonly seen in diabetic patients, are typically found on weight-bearing parts of the foot and are characterized by their punched-out appearance with hyperkeratotic edges and undermined borders. They are primarily caused by peripheral neuropathy, leading to a lack of sensation in the affected areas. Proper foot care and regular inspection are crucial in preventing these ulcers.</li><li>➤ Trophic ulcers, commonly seen in diabetic patients, are typically found on weight-bearing parts of the foot and are characterized by their punched-out appearance with hyperkeratotic edges and undermined borders.</li><li>➤ They are primarily caused by peripheral neuropathy, leading to a lack of sensation in the affected areas. Proper foot care and regular inspection are crucial in preventing these ulcers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain shooting to the neck and interscapular region. X-ray shows widened mediastinum. BP is 110/90 mmHg in the right upper limb and 160/100 mmHg in the left upper limb. What is the most likely diagnosis?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute coronary syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute aortic dissection", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esophageal rupture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Acute aortic dissection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/screenshot-2023-10-31-135445.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/new-fig-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Acute aortic dissection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classic presentation of acute aortic dissection includes sudden severe chest pain radiating to the neck and back, a discrepancy in blood pressure between the limbs, and a widened mediastinum on chest X-ray. Immediate imaging with a CT thoracic angiogram and lowering blood pressure are crucial steps in management.</li><li>➤ The classic presentation of acute aortic dissection includes sudden severe chest pain radiating to the neck and back, a discrepancy in blood pressure between the limbs, and a widened mediastinum on chest X-ray.</li><li>➤ Immediate imaging with a CT thoracic angiogram and lowering blood pressure are crucial steps in management.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer was sleeping in the field, and he felt a sting on his leg. He saw something moving away quickly. He then got drowsy and was taken to the hospital. He developed pain around the site and continued to bleed profusely from the wound site. The wound became red with blisters. Which of the following is the most likely cause? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Viper", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cobra", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wasp bite", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Scorpion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Viper", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Viper</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Viper bites are characterized by profuse bleeding, pain, redness, and blister formation due to their vasculotoxic venom.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the true statement regarding the point marked on the myocardial action potential curve?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Due to opening of Na+ and closure of fast K+ channels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Due to slow but prolonged opening of Ca2+ channels", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Due to closure of Na+ and opening of slow K+ channel", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Due to Na+/K+ ATPase pump", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Due to slow but prolonged opening of Ca2+ channels", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-8.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-143714.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Due to slow but prolonged opening of Ca2+ channels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Marked point on the myocardial action potential curve represents the plateau phase, which is due to the slower and prolonged opening of calcium channels.</li><li>• Two types of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels (T- and L-types) are present in myocardial cells. The opening of the slower L-type Ca2+ channels are mostly responsible for changes in the action potential. The action potential curve of cardiac muscles consists of 5 phases, as shown.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A : Incorrect because it mentions both the opening of sodium channels and the closure of fast potassium channels, which is characteristic of Phase 0, not the plateau phase.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Option C : Incorrect as it attributes the phase to the closure of sodium channels and the opening of slow potassium channels, which more accurately describes the repolarization phase (Phase 3) of the myocardial action potential.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Option D : Incorrect because the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, which helps maintain the resting membrane potential, is not the primary driver of the changes observed in the plateau phase.</li><li>• Option D</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady from West Rajasthan presented with an ulcer surrounded by erythema on the right leg. Microscopy of the biopsy from the edge of the ulcer showed organisms with dark staining nuclei and kinetoplast. What is the most likely causative agent? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leishmania tropica", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Babesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trypanosoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoplasma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Leishmania tropica", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture25.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture26.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture27.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Picture10001.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Leishmania tropica</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leishmania tropica is the causative agent of cutaneous leishmaniasis, leading to skin ulcers that can be identified by microscopy showing organisms with kinetoplasts. Awareness of this condition is crucial for correct diagnosis and management, particularly in endemic areas like parts of Rajasthan, India.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male is found to be positive for HBsAg and HBeAg and is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B. The viral load of the patient was 2 x 10^5 IU/mL and ALT is found to be doubled. What is the appropriate management? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lamivudine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tenofovir", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peg IFN for 52 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Combined peg IFN with lamivudine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tenofovir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tenofovir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tenofovir is the preferred treatment for chronic hepatitis B with high viral load and elevated ALT levels due to its efficacy and lower risk of resistance.</li><li>➤ Tenofovir is the preferred treatment for chronic hepatitis B with high viral load and elevated ALT levels due to its efficacy and lower risk of resistance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old elderly male presented with persistent fatigue and lymph total leucocyte count of 50,000/µl. His peripheral smear was done and had the findings as shown. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bone marrow aspirate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flow cytometry", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Polymerase chain reaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Flow cytometry", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/3.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Flow cytometry</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a suspected case of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), especially with the presence of smudge cells on a peripheral smear, flow cytometry is the best next step to confirm the diagnosis by identifying the characteristic immunophenotype of CLL cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A partogram of a woman in labor is shown below. Oxytocin infusion has been administered. Mark the best management for the patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Forceps-assisted delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vacuum-assisted delivery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxytocin infusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cesarean section", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cesarean section", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210142.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Cesarean section</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The above partogram suggests that the woman has cephalopelvic disproportion, for which the management would be to perform an emergency caesarean section.</li><li>• According to the above given partogram, findings are</li><li>• Cervix is fully dilated Moulding is 2+ = Sutures are overlapped but reducible Station is 3+ Oxytocin infusion administered. Uterine contractions - Adequate. Amniotic fluid - M = Meconium-stained fluid Fetal heart rate – Deceleration = Baby is in distress Descent: Head is 3/5 th palpable; this means that an instrument cannot be applied. For either forceps of vacuum to be applied, the head should not be palpable per abdomen.</li><li>• Cervix is fully dilated</li><li>• Moulding is 2+ = Sutures are overlapped but reducible</li><li>• Station is 3+</li><li>• Oxytocin infusion administered.</li><li>• Uterine contractions - Adequate.</li><li>• Amniotic fluid - M = Meconium-stained fluid</li><li>• Fetal heart rate – Deceleration = Baby is in distress</li><li>• Descent: Head is 3/5 th palpable; this means that an instrument cannot be applied. For either forceps of vacuum to be applied, the head should not be palpable per abdomen.</li><li>• In case of fetal distress, the management is an emergency cesarean section, not instrumental delivery or elective cesarean section.</li><li>• Cephalopelvic disproportion means there is a disproportion in the fetal head and pelvis. It could be due to a Contracted pelvis or large baby (Macrosomia)</li><li>• Degrees of Disproportion</li><li>• Severe degree contracted pelvis: Obstetric conjugate &lt; 7.5 cm Moderate degree: Obstetric conjugate between 7.5 to 9.5 cm Borderline pelvis: Obstetric conjugate measures between 9.5 to 10 cm</li><li>• Severe degree contracted pelvis: Obstetric conjugate &lt; 7.5 cm</li><li>• Moderate degree: Obstetric conjugate between 7.5 to 9.5 cm</li><li>• Borderline pelvis: Obstetric conjugate measures between 9.5 to 10 cm</li><li>• Obstructed labor is one where despite good uterine contractions, the progressive descent of the presenting part is arrested due to mechanical obstruction. Cephalopelvic disproportion and contracted pelvis are the common causes.</li><li>• A cesarean section at term is should be done in these cases.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Forceps-assisted delivery: Not suitable because the head is still palpable per abdomen and forceps cannot be applied.</li><li>• Option A. Forceps-assisted delivery:</li><li>• Option B. Vacuum-assisted delivery: Not appropriate due to the same reason as above; the head is still palpable per abdomen.</li><li>• Option B. Vacuum-assisted delivery:</li><li>• Option C. Oxytocin infusion: Oxytocin infusion is already being administered, and increasing or continuing it won't resolve the issue of cephalopelvic disproportion and fetal distress.</li><li>• Option C. Oxytocin infusion:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of cephalopelvic disproportion and fetal distress, as indicated by a partogram, the management should be an emergency cesarean section.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with a fever and a rash. Urine examination showed cells with owl's eye appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytomegalovirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epstein-Barr virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes simplex virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toxoplasma gondii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cytomegalovirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture29.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture30.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cytomegalovirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"owl's eye\" appearance of cells in the urine is a diagnostic clue for Cytomegalovirus infection, especially relevant for diagnosing congenital CMV infections in neonates or severe infections in immunocompromised patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the medical OPD with complaints of polyuria. He has a history of undergoing total hypophysectomy. His Na + levels are found to be 155 mEq/L, urine osmolality was 200 mOsm/L. What is the definitive management? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DDAVP for 2 weeks and then discontinue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DDAVP supplementation for lifelong", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Upsetting of receptors so no treatment is required", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiazides for 2 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. DDAVP supplementation for lifelong", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. DDAVP supplementation for lifelong</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with central diabetes insipidus following total hypophysectomy, lifelong desmopressin (DDAVP) supplementation is required to manage symptoms and prevent complications from persistent polyuria and hypernatremia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old female patient complaints of blurring of vision and gives history of Diabetes for the past 10 years. On examination findings as shown in image were seen. What is the most likely diagnosis and treatment for the same. (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sunflower cataract with Lens extraction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rosette cataract with control of blood sugar level", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immature cataract with Phacoemulsification + IOL implantation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zonular Cataract with Lensectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Immature cataract with Phacoemulsification + IOL implantation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-111515.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Immature cataract with Phacoemulsification + IOL implantation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The diagnosis of cataracts involves a thorough examination of the lens using slit-lamp microscopy or similar diagnostic tools. Understanding the underlying causes, such as diabetes, and recognizing the specific patterns associated with different types of cataracts are crucial for determining the appropriate treatment, which often involves surgery to restore vision. Regular monitoring and management of blood sugar levels are essential in diabetic patients to prevent or slow the progression of diabetic cataracts.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old patient has malaise for 2 weeks. His investigations revealed an elevated creatinine of 4.5mg/dl. His blood tests also showed the presence of HBs antigen. A renal biopsy was performed which demonstrated spike and dome on special staining. Which of the following conditions is the patient likely to be suffering from? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Minimal change disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Membranous glomerulopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal amyloidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Membranous glomerulopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Membranous glomerulopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Membranous glomerulopathy, associated with hepatitis B infection, presents with nephrotic syndrome and demonstrates a characteristic spike and dome pattern on renal biopsy due to subepithelial immune complex deposits.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male patient presented to the hospital with palpitations. Physical examination showed a diastolic murmur in the left 3rd intercostal space. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aortic stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tricuspid regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aortic regurgitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aortic Regurgitation is associated with a diastolic murmur, best heard at Erb’s point (left 3rd intercostal space). The murmur is typically described as a high-pitched, blowing, decrescendo murmur.</li><li>➤ Aortic Regurgitation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-month-old baby comes with complaints of deafness, cataract, and patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital herpes simplex virus infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital toxoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital cytomegalovirus infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congenital rubella syndrome", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Congenital rubella syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012104.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012105.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012106.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Congenital rubella syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The triad of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), cataract, and sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) is diagnostic of congenital rubella syndrome (CRS).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The true statement among the following is: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The dose of telmisartan should be reduced in severe renal failure but not in hepatic failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The dose of irbesartan should be reduced in case of severe hepatic failure and but not in renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The dose of olmisartan should be reduced in severe liver failure as well as in renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Losartan acts as thromboxane A2 antagonist and inhibits platelet aggregation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Losartan acts as thromboxane A2 antagonist and inhibits platelet aggregation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Losartan acts as thromboxane A2 antagonist and inhibits platelet aggregation.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ All ARBs should be avoided in moderate to severe renal disease due to risk of hyperkalemia. Except Olmesartan and Eprosartan, all other ARBs require dose adjustment in moderate to severe hepatic disease also. Losartan has additional antiplatelet action by acting as TXA2 receptor antagonist.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the dye and filter used as seen in the image? (NEET PG 2018)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluorescein dye - visualised under cobalt blue filter", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lissamine dye - green filter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lissamine dye cobalt blue filter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fluorescein dye - visualised under green filter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fluorescein dye - visualised under cobalt blue filter", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-111605.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Fluorescein dye - visualised under cobalt blue filter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In ophthalmology, different dyes and filters are used to aid in the diagnosis of various conditions. Fluorescein dye is visualized using a cobalt blue filter, which causes it to fluoresce and highlights areas of corneal compromise. It is crucial to use the appropriate filter for each dye to accurately diagnose and assess ocular surface disorders.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents to you with fever, arthralgia, ulcers, fatigue for the past six months, and new-onset hematuria. Urine examination reveals RBC casts and proteinuria. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute interstitial nephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lupus nephritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgA nephropathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lupus nephritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lupus nephritis should be suspected in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus who present with renal symptoms such as hematuria and proteinuria, especially when accompanied by systemic symptoms like fever, arthralgia, ulcers, and fatigue. Further testing, including ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies, is warranted to confirm the diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How is water collected for bacteriological examination during a disease outbreak? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Collect water from already leaking taps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Before collecting, let water flow for at least 1 minute", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Water sample container is kept close to the tap avoid spillage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Collect from a gentle stream of water to avoid splashing", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Collect from a gentle stream of water to avoid splashing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Collect from a gentle stream of water to avoid splashing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When collecting water for bacteriological examination during a disease outbreak, it is crucial to collect from a gentle stream of water to avoid splashing and potential contamination. This practice ensures the accuracy and reliability of the water sample.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure in the following histological image: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Leydig cells of testis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pancreatic islet cells", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hassall's corpuscles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glomerulus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glomerulus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101014.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101015_1n0XgA2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101016_Wqoi8Ql.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101017.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Glomerulus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The glomerulus consists of a network of capillaries encased within Bowman's capsule, playing a key role in blood filtration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with erythematous scaly patches in the perioral region, mucosal ulcers, and impaired epithelial wound healing. What is the likely mineral deficiency associated with this condition?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zinc deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Copper deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Zinc deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/05/picture19.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-092648.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Zinc deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zinc deficiency disorder- Acrodermatitis enteropathica</li><li>➤ Zinc deficiency disorder- Acrodermatitis enteropathica</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old patient presents to the ER with a history of trauma two weeks back with confusion and ataxia. CT scan reveals the following finding. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extradural hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subdural hemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intra-parenchymal hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subarachnoid haemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Subdural hemorrhage", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-02-11%20184018.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-121625.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Subdural haemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Subdural hematoma typically results from the rupture of bridging veins and presents without a lucid interval. CT scans of subdural hematoma show a crescent-shaped hemorrhage that crosses suture lines.</li><li>➤ Subdural hematoma typically results from the rupture of bridging veins and presents without a lucid interval.</li><li>➤ CT scans of subdural hematoma show a crescent-shaped hemorrhage that crosses suture lines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of transport across the cell membrane represented below? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Simple diffusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Facilitated diffusion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary active transport", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary active transport", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Facilitated diffusion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-7.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-133516.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Facilitated diffusion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The image depicts the process of facilitated diffusion. This type of transport involves the use of carrier proteins embedded in the cell membrane to help molecules that cannot readily diffuse through the lipid bilayer move across the membrane, down their concentration gradient, without the expenditure of cellular energy (ATP).</li><li>• Facilitated Diffusion : This process helps molecules move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration via specific carrier proteins. It is a passive transport method since it does not require energy from ATP but relies on the concentration gradient. Carrier Proteins : These proteins undergo a change in shape to transport molecules across the membrane. They are specific to the substances they transport, ensuring selective and regulated transport into and out of the cell.</li><li>• Facilitated Diffusion : This process helps molecules move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration via specific carrier proteins. It is a passive transport method since it does not require energy from ATP but relies on the concentration gradient.</li><li>• Facilitated Diffusion</li><li>• Carrier Proteins : These proteins undergo a change in shape to transport molecules across the membrane. They are specific to the substances they transport, ensuring selective and regulated transport into and out of the cell.</li><li>• Carrier Proteins</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Simple Diffusion : Involves the movement of molecules directly through the phospholipid bilayer without the assistance of membrane proteins, driven solely by their concentration gradient.</li><li>• Option A. Simple Diffusion</li><li>• Option C. Primary Active Transport : Requires ATP to move substances against their concentration gradient via pumps.</li><li>• Option C. Primary Active Transport</li><li>• Option D. Secondary Active Transport : Also known as co-transport, uses the gradient of one molecule to move another molecule against its gradient, indirectly using energy but not directly using ATP.</li><li>• Option D. Secondary Active Transport</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A family consumes only polished rice. Which of the following combination of vitamin deficiency and enzymatic defect will be present in this family? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Riboflavin - Glutathione Reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiamine - Transketolase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiamine - Transaminase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Riboflavin – Transketolase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thiamine - Transketolase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-01-183831.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thiamine – Transketolase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The consumption of polished rice leads to thiamine deficiency which leads to defective transketolase activity.</li><li>➤ Polished rice undergoes milling, which removes the outer bran layer rich in B vitamins and other nutrients</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with reduced hemoglobin and gum bleeding presented to you. He has thrombocytopenia (platelet count 25,000/µl) elevated PT, and aPTT. Which of the following can the probable cause of his finding? ( NEETPG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AML t (8;21)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "AML t (15;17)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "AML t (16;16)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "AML with NMP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. AML t (15;17)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) AML t (15;17)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) associated with t(15;17) translocation commonly presents with DIC, characterized by thrombocytopenia and elevated coagulation times (PT and aPTT). Immediate identification and treatment with ATRA are crucial to manage this condition effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle aged male presented with features of neck swelling, exophthalmos, sweating, tachycardia and tremors. Which of the following is the likely associated finding in this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti TPO antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti thyroglobulin antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti Thyroid stimulating antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti thyroid receptor antibody", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Anti thyroid receptor antibody", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-193206.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-193354.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Anti thyroid receptor antibody</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Graves' disease is associated with anti-thyroid receptor antibodies (TSI), which stimulate the thyroid gland to produce excess thyroid hormones, leading to hyperthyroidism. The presence of neck swelling, exophthalmos, and other hyperthyroid symptoms strongly suggests this diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins 10 th / 1081</li><li>➤ Ref: Robbins 10 th / 1081</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young woman presents with complaints of a painless ulcer in the genital area. It is associated with non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herpes genitalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Granuloma inguinale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Syphilis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-104451.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/19/screenshot-2024-06-19-104550.JPG", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture11.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture12.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/picture13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Syphilis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary syphilis (syphiLESS) is the likely diagnosis in a patient with a Painless genital ulcer and Painless inguinal lymphadenopathy , which are classic presentations of this sexually transmitted infection.</li><li>➤ Primary syphilis (syphiLESS)</li><li>➤ Painless genital ulcer</li><li>➤ Painless inguinal lymphadenopathy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition page no: 28.8-29, 29.13-16</li><li>↳ Jawetz Melnick &amp; Adelbergs Medical Microbiology 28 th edition Page no 339, 341, 342</li><li>↳ Jawetz Melnick &amp; Adelbergs Medical Microbiology 28 th edition Page no 339, 341, 342</li><li>↳ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology 10 th edition Page no 379-383</li><li>↳ Ananthanarayan &amp; Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology 10 th edition Page no 379-383</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The average daily dietary nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97-98%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is known as (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adequate intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dietary goal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Estimated average requirement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Recommended dietary allowance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Recommended dietary allowance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Recommended dietary allowance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)</li><li>➤ Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)</li><li>➤ Definition: RDA is a level of intake corresponding to Mean + 2 Standard Deviation, which covers requirement of 97.5% of population RDA is safe level of intake which is likely to be inadequate in not more than 2.5% population RDA is decided by a panel of experts and is based on scientific research RDA is often higher than the recommended minimum requirement: RDA includes both daily requirement and some additional requirement for periods of growth or illness RDA is based on Estimated Average Requirement RDA ‘safe level approach’ is not used for energy since excess energy intake is undesirable. For energy: only mean or average requirement is defined as RDA.</li><li>➤ Definition: RDA is a level of intake corresponding to Mean + 2 Standard Deviation, which covers requirement of 97.5% of population</li><li>➤ RDA is safe level of intake which is likely to be inadequate in not more than 2.5% population</li><li>➤ RDA is decided by a panel of experts and is based on scientific research</li><li>➤ RDA is often higher than the recommended minimum requirement: RDA includes both daily requirement and some additional requirement for periods of growth or illness</li><li>➤ RDA is based on Estimated Average Requirement</li><li>➤ RDA ‘safe level approach’ is not used for energy since excess energy intake is undesirable.</li><li>➤ For energy: only mean or average requirement is defined as RDA.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies would you suspect in this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B3 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B1 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin B6 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin B3 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-01-182602.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-01-182659.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Vitamin B3 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Following image shows Casal’s Necklace &amp; hyperpigmentation of sun-exposed limbs:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male presents with nonaxial proptosis of the left eye. The patient gives a history of a road traffic accident 15 years back. The CT image is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Frontal mucocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Frontal meningioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudotumor of orbit", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Frontal mucocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011039.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011040.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011041.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011042.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011043.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Frontal mucocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Frontal mucoceles are a significant cause of proptosis and orbital symptoms, particularly following a history of facial trauma or sinus disease. Prompt diagnosis and surgical intervention to decompress the sinus and restore drainage can prevent complications and relieve symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The years of potential life lost could be attributed to? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Years lost to morbidity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Years lost due to premature death", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Years lost to disability", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Years lost to poor quality of life", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Years lost due to premature death", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Years lost due to premature death</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Years of Potential Life Lost (YPLL) is a measure that quantifies the impact of premature death on a population by calculating the number of years not lived by individuals who die before reaching a specified age. It highlights the significance of early mortality and its impact on society.</li><li>➤ Years of Potential Life Lost (YPLL)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a malignancy is undergoing chemotherapy. The platelet counts were reduced after the previous cycle of chemotherapy. Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oprelvekin (IL-11)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Filgrastim", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythropoietin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amifostine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oprelvekin (IL-11)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oprelvekin (IL-11)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oprelvekin (IL-11) is the drug of choice for managing chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia by increasing platelet counts, thereby reducing the need for platelet transfusions in patients undergoing myelosuppressive chemotherapy.</li><li>➤ Oprelvekin (IL-11)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with a high fever, altered sensorium, headache, neck rigidity, and seizures. He was diagnosed with HSV encephalitis. Which of the following tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgM antibodies in CSF", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tzanck smear of CSF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CSF PCR for viral DNA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CSF culture on chick embryo lines", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. CSF PCR for viral DNA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-122148.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-122245.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) CSF PCR for viral DNA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a rapid and accurate diagnosis of HSV encephalitis, CSF PCR for viral DNA is the gold standard, essential for guiding appropriate antiviral therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about cancer treatment according to the Colombo plan? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Help with PET scan units for diagnosis of cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Human resource strengthening", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Setting up chemotherapy units", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Setting up cobalt therapy units", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Setting up cobalt therapy units", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Setting up cobalt therapy units</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the Colombo Plan, Canada supplied cobalt therapy units to medical institutions in India, significantly enhancing the country's capacity to provide advanced cancer treatment through radiotherapy. This was a crucial step in improving healthcare infrastructure and cancer treatment capabilities in India.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient presented with a fever and a positive filarial antigen test, what is the next best step of management? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bone marrow biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DEC provocation test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Detection of microfilariae in the blood smear", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ultrasound of the scrotum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Detection of microfilariae in the blood smear", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-150855.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Detection of microfilariae in the blood smear</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For direct confirmation of active filarial infection, detection of microfilariae in a blood smear is essential. This method provides clear evidence of the parasites in the bloodstream, crucial for diagnosing and managing filariasis effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents to the OPD with the lesion shown in the image. He had a traumatic injury to the chest one year ago. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hemangioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertrophic scar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Keloid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurofibroma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Keloid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture18.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/13/screenshot-2024-07-13-160540.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture20_R6wOlKi.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture21_EdmxBEB.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture22_gahspSX.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Keloid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Keloids are raised scars that extend beyond the original wound margin, are progressive, and do not regress on their own. They are most commonly seen in individuals with darker skin and may have a genetic predisposition. Treatment involves silicon sheets, intralesional steroids, laser ablation, and sometimes surgical excision with radiotherapy.</li><li>➤ Keloids are raised scars that extend beyond the original wound margin, are progressive, and do not regress on their own.</li><li>➤ They are most commonly seen in individuals with darker skin and may have a genetic predisposition.</li><li>➤ Treatment involves silicon sheets, intralesional steroids, laser ablation, and sometimes surgical excision with radiotherapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic smoker was on nicotine replacement therapy and clonidine tablets for smoking de-addiction. He stopped taking clonidine tablets and now presents with a headache. What is the reason behind this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Postural hypotension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Receptor upregulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rebound hypertension", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Receptor hypersensitivity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rebound hypertension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Rebound hypertension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rebound hypertension is a critical condition that can occur when clonidine, an alpha-2 agonist, is suddenly discontinued. This results in a rapid increase in sympathetic activity, leading to symptoms such as headache due to a sudden spike in blood pressure.</li><li>➤ Rebound hypertension</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 16-year-old girl presents in OPD with complaints of cyclical pain in abdomen. On examination, a suprapubic bulge can be seen in the pelvic area. PR examination reveals a swelling in the anterior aspect. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transverse vaginal septum above the vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vaginal atresia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Imperforate hymen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cervical agenesis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Imperforate hymen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-182236.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Imperforate hymen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given case scenario points to a diagnosis of cryptomenorrhea, due to an imperforate hymen.</li><li>• Cryptomenorrhea is a condition in which menstruation occurs but is not visible due to obstruction of the outflow tract resulting in either hematometra (blood collection within the uterus) or hematocolpos (blood collection within vagina). In the long term, it may result in endometriosis, urinary retention and infertility.</li><li>• IMPERFORATE HYMEN</li><li>• IMPERFORATE HYMEN</li><li>• Presents as cryptomenorrhea H/o cyclical abdominal pain/cyclical dysmenorrhea Local examination: bluish bulge with intact hymen On P/R: swelling (hematocolpos) felt along length of vagina anteriorly Treatment: Cruciate incision.</li><li>• Presents as cryptomenorrhea</li><li>• H/o cyclical abdominal pain/cyclical dysmenorrhea</li><li>• Local examination: bluish bulge with intact hymen</li><li>• On P/R: swelling (hematocolpos) felt along length of vagina anteriorly</li><li>• Treatment: Cruciate incision.</li><li>• In Imperforate hymen, swelling is seen all along the length of the vagina on PR examination as there is hematocolpos (blood in the vagina)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Transverse vaginal septum : Transverse vaginal septum is a Müllerian anomaly. On examination, blind vagina is found. No tense blue hymen and cough impulse will be absent. Diagnosis can be confirmed by MRI</li><li>• Option A. Transverse vaginal septum</li><li>• Option B. Vaginal atresia : If vaginal introitus is not seen, then it’s vaginal atresia</li><li>• Option B. Vaginal atresia</li><li>• Option D. Cervical agenesis : Cervical agenesis will show absence of a cervix is on examination.</li><li>• Option D. Cervical agenesis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Imperforate hymen presents with cryptomenorrhea, characterized by cyclical abdominal pain and hematocolpos due to obstruction of menstrual flow, with a suprapubic bulge and anterior swelling palpable on PR examination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is a known case of hypertension and is on multiple antihypertensive drugs. His ECG is shown below. Which drug is responsible for the following ECG? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrochlorothiazide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metoprolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prazosin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Spironolactone", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/30/screenshot-2024-07-30-143631.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Spironolactone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause severe hyperkalemia, which is characterized by tall, tented T waves, absent P waves, and widened QRS complexes on an ECG.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 80-year-old woman presents with a progressive decline in daily activity. She gives a history of staring into space with frequent visual hallucinations. Pathology reveals Lewy bodies in neurons. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parkinson’s Disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prion’s Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Huntington’s Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alzheimer’s Disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Parkinson’s Disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Parkinson’s Disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of Lewy bodies in neurons and clinical features such as visual hallucinations and progressive decline in activity are indicative of Parkinson’s disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old pregnant G3P2L2 woman presented to OBG department at 36 weeks of amenorrhea. Ultrasound shows that the fetus is in a transverse lie. The liquor is adequate, the placenta is normal, and she has no gross anomaly. Both her previous deliveries were normal vaginal deliveries. How will you manage this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cesarean section", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "External cephalic version", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expectant management", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Induction of labor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. External cephalic version", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-181609.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) External cephalic version</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ External cephalic version should be attempted between 36 and 37 weeks of gestation for a fetus in a transverse lie if there are no contraindications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-month-old baby is brought to OPD with jaundice and clay-colored stools. Lab work up reveals that the baby has conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. A liver biopsy was done and shows periductal proliferation. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crigler-Najjar syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotor syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dubin-Johnson syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biliary atresia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Biliary atresia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-154249.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Biliary atresia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An infant presenting with jaundice, clay-colored stools, and periductal proliferation on liver biopsy is highly suggestive of biliary atresia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient consumed a cleaning product containing 90% sodium hydroxide, having complete dysphagia. What is the best step in management? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Esophago-jejunostomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stent placement", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Feeding jejunostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastrojejunostomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Feeding jejunostomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Feeding jejunostomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with complete dysphagia following the ingestion of a strong alkali like sodium hydroxide, the best immediate management step is the insertion of a feeding jejunostomy to provide nutritional support while assessing and stabilizing the patient.</li><li>➤ For a patient with complete dysphagia following the ingestion of a strong alkali like sodium hydroxide, the best immediate management step is the insertion of a feeding jejunostomy to provide nutritional support while assessing and stabilizing the patient.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Injury at which of the following marked sites causes failure of dorsiflexion?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101018.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101019.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The common fibular nerve's course around the neck of the fibula makes this area a hotspot for injuries leading to dorsiflexion failure, underlining the importance of protecting this area from trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the most likely diagnosis in the image given below? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pterygium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pinguecula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dermoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermolipoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dermoid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-111459.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Dermoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Recognizing and differentiating between various ocular surface lesions is crucial for appropriate diagnosis and management. This involves understanding their typical presentations, etiologies, and potential complications. Regular eye examinations and proper eye protection, especially from UV light, are important for eye health.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presents to you with a unilateral headache. It is associated with nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia. What is the best drug for acute management? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flunarizine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sumatriptan", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Topiramate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sumatriptan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sumatriptan</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes to the casualty with organophosphate poisoning. He was started on atropine infusion and pralidoxime. After 2 hours, the patient had a sudden rise in temperature. What is the likely cause of fever? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine toxicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Side effect of pralidoxime", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Due to organophosphate poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Idiopathic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Atropine toxicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Atropine toxicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a previous history of myocardial infarction and ventricular arrhythmia is on treatment for the same since a few months. He developed fatigue, dyspnea, and weight gain. He had also developed pulmonary fibrosis. Which of the following drugs is responsible for the above-mentioned side effects? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amiodarone", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Atenolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Amiodarone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Amiodarone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amiodarone is associated with a range of serious side effects, including pulmonary fibrosis, thyroid dysfunction, liver toxicity, and photosensitivity.</li><li>➤ Amiodarone</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old female comes to the STI clinic with minimal vaginal discharge. On speculum examination, erosions are seen on the cervix. Which of the following kit should be given to this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grey", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Grey", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-095220.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Grey</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ STI color coded kits:</li><li>➤ STI color coded kits:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was given digoxin. He started having side effects like nausea and vomiting. The serum concentration of digoxin was 4 mg/dL. The plasma therapeutic range is 1 mg/dL. If the half-life of digoxin is 40 hours, how long one should wait before resuming the treatment? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "40 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "80 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "120 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "140-180 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 80 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 80 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient experiencing side effects from digoxin with a serum concentration of 4 mg/dL, wait 80 hours (two half-lives) for the concentration to decrease to the therapeutic range before resuming treatment.</li><li>➤ 80 hours</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is associated with the clinical condition shown in the image? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malignant Melanoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Basal cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Malignant Melanoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/03/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121060.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/09/28/screenshot-2023-09-28-162317.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Malignant Melanoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital melanocytic nevi , especially larger ones, carry an increased risk for the development of malignant melanoma . Monitoring and possibly biopsy of suspicious changes within these nevi are important for early detection of malignant transformation.</li><li>➤ Congenital melanocytic nevi , especially larger ones, carry an increased risk for the development of malignant melanoma .</li><li>➤ Congenital melanocytic nevi</li><li>➤ larger</li><li>➤ malignant melanoma</li><li>➤ Monitoring and possibly biopsy of suspicious changes within these nevi are important for early detection of malignant transformation.</li><li>➤ Monitoring</li><li>➤ biopsy</li><li>➤ early detection</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ References: Rooks textbook of dermatology 9 th edition page number 75.9 to 75.14 73.2, 73.3</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old patient with a history of chronic alcohol use presents with complaints of confusion and ataxia. Upon examination, nystagmus and sixth nerve palsy were observed. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wernicke's Encephalopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Korsakoff Syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Delirium Tremens", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "De Clerambault Syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wernicke's Encephalopathy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Wernicke's Encephalopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, which is common in individuals with chronic alcohol use due to poor nutritional intake and absorption. Treatment include high dose of parenteral thiamine. Ophthalmoplegia responds first to the treatment, ataxia doesnt improve completely in almost 50% of cases.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Kaplan &amp; Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th edition, Page No 277.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old patient presented with a rectal mass 2.5 cm by 3 cm. On biopsy it had the presence of colonic mucosa with multiple dilated glands filled with mucin and inflammatory cells. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Choristoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hamartoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenocarcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hamartoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hamartoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A rectal mass in a young child with biopsy findings of colonic mucosa and multiple dilated glands filled with mucin and inflammatory cells is indicative of a juvenile polyp, which is a type of hamartomatous polyp.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old chronic smoker came to the medicine outpatient department with complaints of upper chest discomfort and drooping of an eyelid. He also complained of pain radiating to the upper arm and a tingling sensation in the 4th and 5th digits of his left hand. The chest X-ray is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pancoast tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Upper lobe pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior vena cava obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspergilloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pancoast tumor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/31/screenshot-2024-07-30-170545.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/31/screenshot-2024-07-31-114511.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pancoast tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pancoast tumors, or superior sulcus tumors, are associated with upper chest discomfort, Horner's syndrome, and neurological symptoms in the arm due to their apical location and propensity to invade local structures such as the brachial plexus and sympathetic nerves.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female is brought to the emergency department. Attendants inform that she has consumed 100 tablets of aspirin. What should be the next step in management? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "N-acetyl cysteine to replenish glutathione stores", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pralidoxime", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glucagon to control bradycardia and hypoglycemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give sodium bicarbonate to alkalize urine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Give sodium bicarbonate to alkalize urine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Give sodium bicarbonate to alkalize urine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sodium Bicarbonate is the treatment of choice in aspirin poisoning, as it helps to alkalize the urine and enhance the excretion of salicylates, while also correcting metabolic acidosis.</li><li>➤ Sodium Bicarbonate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with recurrent attacks of gout was started on a therapy that inhibits the synthesis of uric acid. His symptoms were relieved after therapy. Identify the drug he was prescribed? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Probenecid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colchicine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diclofenac", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allopurinol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Allopurinol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-171027.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Allopurinol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Allopurinol is the drug of choice for reducing uric acid synthesis in patients with chronic gout by inhibiting the xanthine oxidase enzyme. It effectively lowers serum and urinary uric acid levels, thereby preventing gout attacks.</li><li>➤ Allopurinol</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true about Trichomonas vaginalis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It cannot be cultured", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Twitching motility is seen on wet saline mount", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cysts are seen on wet saline mount of vaginal secretions", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is not a sexually transmitted infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Twitching motility is seen on wet saline mount", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-123557.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-111933.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Twitching motility is seen on wet saline mount</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old boy presented with complaints of recurrent bleeding. He has a retroperitoneal hematoma and develops joint pain with swelling on slight exercise. There is no mucosal bleeding in the patient. Which of the following coagulation factor can be responsible for the patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Von willebrand factor deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factor 8/9 deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lupus anticoagulant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factor 9/12 deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Factor 8/9 deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/4512.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Factor 8/9 deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hemophilia, caused by deficiencies in factors VIII or IX, presents with recurrent deep tissue bleeding and hemarthrosis, without significant mucosal bleeding. This differentiates it from other bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Shown in image is an orthopedic procedure being performed. Identity the procedure? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intraosseous cannulation for fluid therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intraosseous abscess drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diagnostic biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intraosseous cannulation for pain relief", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Intraosseous cannulation for fluid therapy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture6_jdPQdgx.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Intraosseous cannulation for fluid therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Intraosseous access for fluid therapy is an orthopedic procedure done in pediatric patients to provide fluid therapy.</li><li>➤ Intraosseous access for fluid therapy is an orthopedic procedure done in pediatric patients to provide fluid therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents to the emergency department with a history of ingestion of 10-20 ferrous sulfate tablets. Arterial blood gas revealed acidosis. Which of the following can be used in the management of this condition? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Whole Bowel Irrigation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Activated charcoal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dimercaprol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penicillamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Whole Bowel Irrigation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Whole Bowel Irrigation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Whole Bowel Irrigation with polyethylene glycol is the preferred method for managing iron tablet ingestion, especially when iron tablets are visible on an abdominal X-ray.</li><li>➤ Whole Bowel Irrigation with polyethylene glycol is the preferred method for managing iron tablet ingestion, especially when iron tablets are visible on an abdominal X-ray.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man has come with history of lower back pain and stiffness since 3 months. His ESR and CRP levels are raised. He has mild restriction of chest movements and chest expansion is 3 cms. History of red eye is also there. The most likely diagnosis from amongst the following would be:(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paget's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Healed TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DISH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ankylosing spondylitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture18.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture19.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture20.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture21.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ankylosing spondylitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Presence of lower back pain and stiffness since months, raised levels of ESR and CRP, mild restriction of chest movements and chest expansion, with history of red eye are suggestive of presence of ankylosing spondylitis.</li><li>➤ Presence of lower back pain and stiffness since months, raised levels of ESR and CRP, mild restriction of chest movements and chest expansion, with history of red eye are suggestive of presence of ankylosing spondylitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A preterm baby who was delivered at 28 weeks developed respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following is true about surface tension and compliance in this baby?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surface tension - decreased; Compliance - increased", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surface tension - increased; Compliance - decreased", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both surface tension and compliance decreased", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both surface tension and compliance increased", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Surface tension - increased; Compliance - decreased", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Surface tension - increased; Compliance - decreased</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• This preterm baby who developed respiratory distress syndrome has surfactant deficiency. Due to which surface tension increases and compliance decreases.</li><li>• Surfactant (Lecithin/Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl Choline) is produced by specialized cells called type II alveolar cells in the lungs. Surfactant molecules have a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and a hydrophobic (water-repellent) tail. This unique structure allows surfactant to lower the surface tension at the air-liquid interface of the alveoli. It reduces the attractive forces between water molecules, preventing the alveoli from collapsing during expiration.</li><li>• Compliance refers to the ability of the lungs to expand and recoil efficiently during breathing. Without surfactant, the surface tension within the alveoli would be high, making it difficult for the lungs to inflate during inspiration and causing them to collapse more readily during expiration.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In preterm infants, especially those born before the lungs have matured at around 28 weeks, the lack of adequate surfactant leads to increased surface tension and decreased compliance, contributing to the development of respiratory distress syndrome.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman with a history of bronchial asthma in third stage of labor. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in the management of postpartum hemorrhage in this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carboprost", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dinoprostone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methyl ergometrine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carboprost", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/17/screenshot-2024-07-17-164227.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Carboprost</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carboprost should be avoided in the management of postpartum hemorrhage in patients with a history of bronchial asthma due to its potential to cause bronchoconstriction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old HIV-positive patient died, and his body was brought for post-mortem. The method of autopsy to be done is: ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ghon technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Letulle technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Virchow technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rokitansky technique", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rokitansky technique", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/image_lcppCca.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/image-20240604162229-2.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/image_a4ISBHJ.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/04/image-20240604162229-4.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Rokitansky technique</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Rokitansky technique involves dissecting organs in situ and is the preferred method for highly infectious diseases like HIV to prevent the spread of infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic patient is diagnosed with gouty arthritis. Mark the correct biochemical changes which will be seen in this patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreased NADH/NAD+ ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased urea and urate levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased urate and lactate levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased level of alkaline phosphatase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Increased urate and lactate levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/picture16.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-092451.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Increased urate and lactate levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following would most likely lead to a decrease in the intensity of the murmur in a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Squatting", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Valsalva", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Squatting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Squatting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Increasing preload (e.g., through squatting) reduces LVOT obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, leading to a decrease in the murmur's intensity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A student got his jaw locked while yawning. Identify the muscle attached to the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lateral pterygoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Temporalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial pterygoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Masseter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lateral pterygoid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-174245.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-140539.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Lateral pterygoid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The muscle attached to the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint is the lateral pterygoid.</li><li>• The lateral pterygoid muscle has two heads: superior (or upper) and inferior (or lower). The superior head attaches to the articular disc and the capsule of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). This muscle plays a crucial role in the opening of the mouth, protrusion of the mandible, and moving the jaw from side to side. Dysfunction or spasms of this muscle could contribute to jaw locking during yawning. The lateral pterygoid is, therefore, closely associated with the movements and function of the TMJ.</li><li>• All Innervated by CN V 3</li><li>• All Innervated by CN V 3</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Temporalis: The temporalis muscle originates from the temporal fossa and inserts onto the coronoid process of the mandible. It's primarily responsible for closing the mouth and is involved in elevating and retracting the mandible. It does not attach to the articular disc of the TMJ, but it plays a role in jaw movement.</li><li>• Option B. Temporalis:</li><li>• Option C. Medial pterygoid: The medial pterygoid muscle is similar in function to the masseter muscle and helps in elevating the mandible, thus assisting in closing the mouth. It also plays a role in moving the jaw from side to side. However, like the temporalis, it doesn't directly attach to the articular disc of the TMJ.</li><li>• Option C. Medial pterygoid:</li><li>• Option D. Masseter: The masseter muscle is one of the primary muscles of mastication (chewing). It originates from the zygomatic arch and inserts onto the lateral aspect of the mandibular angle and ramus. Its primary function is to elevate the mandible, assisting in closing the mouth. It does not have an attachment to the articular disc of the TMJ but is important for jaw function.</li><li>• Option D. Masseter:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lateral pterygoid muscle, particularly its superior head, is uniquely attached to the TMJ's articular disc and plays a pivotal role in jaw movements including mouth opening and lateral movements, making it relevant in cases of jaw locking.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to casualty with seizures. He had multiple episodes and was taking herbal medicines for the same. He was conscious in between the episodes. During the episodes, he had arching of his back. What is the likely cause? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strychnine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ricinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nerium odorum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Datura", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Strychnine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-115722.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-115300.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/11/screenshot-2024-06-11-115523.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Strychnine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Strychnine poisoning presents with characteristic \"conscious seizures\" and back arching (opisthotonos) due to its antagonistic action on glycine receptors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Infection with Clonorchis sinensis is associated with an increased risk of? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cholangiocarcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastric carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bladder carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cholangiocarcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-114556.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/25/screenshot-2024-06-25-114938.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cholangiocarcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Infection with Clonorchis sinensis is primarily associated with an increased risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma, emphasizing the importance of avoiding consumption of undercooked freshwater fish in endemic areas to prevent this parasitic infection.</li><li>➤ List of Oncogenic Microbe:</li><li>➤ List of Oncogenic Microbe:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structure marked in the image? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fossa of Rosenmuller", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tubal tonsil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Opening of eustachian tube", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adenoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fossa of Rosenmuller", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/21/screenshot-2024-06-21-093829.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011037.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011038.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fossa of Rosenmuller</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Fossa of Rosenmuller's familiarity is essential in nasopharyngeal examinations, especially in the context of identifying potential sites for nasopharyngeal carcinoma or other pathologies. Its recognition during endoscopy guides thorough inspection and appropriate clinical interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correctly matched pair of substances with their renal clearance from the graph given below? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A - Glucose, B - PAH, C - Bicarbonate and D - Inulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A - Glucose, B - Bicarbonate, C - Inulin and D - PAH", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A - PAH, B - Inulin, C - Glucose and D - Bicarbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A - Inulin, B - Glucose, C - Bicarbonate and D – PAH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A - Glucose, B - Bicarbonate, C - Inulin and D - PAH", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-3-2.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/27/screenshot-2024-05-27-132452.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/physiology-neet-23-1-4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. A - Glucose, B - Bicarbonate, C - Inulin and D – PAH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the renal handling of different substances such as PAH, inulin, bicarbonate, and glucose is crucial for assessing kidney function and diagnosing various renal disorders. Each substance's behavior in the nephron informs clinicians about different aspects of renal physiology, such as filtration rate and tubular function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-week primigravida c/o reduced vision at night. She has been avoiding papaya, mango, and other fruits throughout her pregnancy as she thinks they could be abortifacients. It is the primary duty of which of the following workers to provide counselling and information to the patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ANM", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "AWW", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trained birth attendant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ASHA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. AWW", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) AWW</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ It is the duty of the Anganwadi Worker (AWW) to provide health and nutrition education and counselling to pregnant women, addressing misconceptions about diet and ensuring they receive proper nutritional guidance. Their training includes addressing local challenges and cultural practices to promote healthy behaviors.</li><li>➤ Anganwadi Worker (AWW)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic alcoholic presented with abdominal pain, jaundice and weight loss. He has hypoglycemia and elevated alpha fetoprotein levels (250IU) but has normal AST and ALT. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis of the patient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver cirrhosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatocellular carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cholangiocarcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hepatocellular carcinoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/30/screenshot-2023-12-30-192839.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Hepatocellular carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatocellular carcinoma should be considered in a chronic alcoholic presenting with abdominal pain, jaundice, weight loss, hypoglycemia, and elevated alpha-fetoprotein levels, especially with normal AST and ALT levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statement is false about the given condition?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Repeated radical surgery every 24 hours may be required to adequately manage this condition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "This is a case of Meleney's gangrene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The condition is caused by beta Hemolytic streptococcus and may sometimes be polymicrobial", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperbaric oxygen has no role in the treatment of this condition", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hyperbaric oxygen has no role in the treatment of this condition", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture38_uc6vjUa.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Hyperbaric oxygen has no role in the treatment of this condition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meleney's gangrene, or necrotizing fasciitis, requires aggressive surgical debridement, intravenous antibiotics, and may benefit from adjunctive hyperbaric oxygen therapy. The condition is often polymicrobial, involving both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.</li><li>➤ Meleney's gangrene, or necrotizing fasciitis, requires aggressive surgical debridement, intravenous antibiotics, and may benefit from adjunctive hyperbaric oxygen therapy.</li><li>➤ The condition is often polymicrobial, involving both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old boy is brought to the OPD as he is always fatigued and has muscle cramps after exercise and the blood sample collected soon after exercise showed low glucose and lactate level. He also has a history of one episode of hypoglycaemia while playing. He became normal after resting for a while. Which of the following diseases is he most likely to be suffering from? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "McArdle disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hers disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cori's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Andersen disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. McArdle disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/022.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/033.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) McArdle disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient met with a road traffic accident and developed a cervical spine injury. The fracture fragment had pierced the lateral aspect of the dorsal column tract. Which of the following findings is seen in this patient?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Absence of ipsilateral lower limb proprioception", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Absence of fine motor movement of fingers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Absence of ipsilateral arm proprioception", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Absence of contralateral lower limb proprioception", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Absence of ipsilateral arm proprioception", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/06/27/1-spinal-cord-4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Absence of ipsilateral arm proprioception</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The above clinical scenario depicts transection of the spinal cord in the lateral aspect of the dorsal column would affect the fasciculus cuneatus. This lesion would result in absence of ipsilateral proprioception of the arm.</li><li>• The fibers in the dorsal column are arranged in such a manner that the sacral segments are positioned most medially and those from the cervical segments are positioned most laterally.</li><li>• These are:</li><li>• Fasciculus gracilis - carrying sensations from the ipsilateral lower limb Fasciculus cuneatus - carrying sensations from the ipsilateral upper limb.</li><li>• Fasciculus gracilis - carrying sensations from the ipsilateral lower limb</li><li>• Fasciculus cuneatus - carrying sensations from the ipsilateral upper limb.</li><li>• Fasciculus Gracilis and Cuneatus functions:</li><li>• Fine touch Tactile localization Tactile discrimination Vibration</li><li>• Fine touch</li><li>• Tactile localization</li><li>• Tactile discrimination</li><li>• Vibration</li><li>• This patient with an injury to the lateral part of the cervical cord's dorsal column tract will have damaged fasciculus cuneatus. This would result in loss of touch, vibration, and proprioception in the arm of the same side of the lesion.</li><li>• function below the level of injury. The clue to solving this question is that the question mentions that the damage is to the lateral aspect of the dorsal column tract.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. Absence of ipsilateral lower limb proprioception: This would be seen if the fasciculus gracilis was affected, which is responsible for carrying sensations from the ipsilateral lower limb.</li><li>• Option A. Absence of ipsilateral lower limb proprioception:</li><li>• Option B. Absence of fine motor movement of fingers: This would be a result of damage to the corticospinal tract, which carries motor information.</li><li>• Option B. Absence of fine motor movement of fingers:</li><li>• Option D. Absence of contralateral lower limb proprioception: Proprioception is carried by the dorsal column pathway, and it is affected ipsilaterally.</li><li>• Option D. Absence of contralateral lower limb proprioception:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Damage to the lateral aspect of the dorsal column tract in the cervical spine region results in the loss of ipsilateral arm proprioception due to the involvement of the fasciculus cuneatus. This emphasizes the importance of the dorsal column in carrying proprioceptive and fine tactile information from the upper limbs.</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ Brown Sequard Syndrome (Hemi-sectioning of spinal cord)</li><li>➤ I/L loss of Fine touch C/L loss of Pain &amp; Temperature I/L loss of Proprioception I/L motor paralysis</li><li>➤ I/L loss of Fine touch</li><li>➤ C/L loss of Pain &amp; Temperature</li><li>➤ I/L loss of Proprioception</li><li>➤ I/L motor paralysis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following zymogens requires gamma-glutamyl carboxylase? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Factors II, VIII, IX, X", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Factors II, VII, IX, and X", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factors II, VII, IX, XI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Factors II, VIII, X, XI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Factors II, VII, IX, and X", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-094428.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Factors II, VII, IX, and X</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zymogens are the proprotein form of enzymes (proenzymes) that require proteolytic activation to carry out their function.</li><li>➤ Inactive form of vitamin K acts as a cofactor in the post-synthetic modification of these zymogens and their activation. This inactive form of vitamin K is recycled back from its oxidized form by the enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase, which can be inhibited by warfarin or liver failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complains that he often gets troubled at night during sleep by tingling and numbness that involves his lateral three digits. He further explains that symptoms are relieved as he lays his arms hanging from the bed. Correct regarding the condition is: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CTS: Froment sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CTS: Durkan test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Guyon canal syndrome: Froment sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guyon canal syndrome: Durkan test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CTS: Durkan test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture41.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture37.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture38.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture39.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CTS: Durkan test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given clinical symptoms of the patient suggest presence of carpal tunnel syndrome. The most specific test to check median nerve compression in the carpal tunnel is the Durkan’s Test.</li><li>➤ The given clinical symptoms of the patient suggest presence of carpal tunnel syndrome. The most specific test to check median nerve compression in the carpal tunnel is the Durkan’s Test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with thinning of hair and scaling of the scalp. On taking further history, it is found that she consumes raw eggs in her diet regularly. The given manifestations are due to the deficiency of which of the following vitamins?(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biotin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Biotin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-093702.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Biotin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with schizophrenia, who did not respond to haloperidol and thioridazine, was started on drug A. After beginning treatment with drug A, the patient's psychotic symptoms improved; however, he developed sialorrhea, dyslipidemia, weight gain, and hyperglycemia. Which drug is most likely to be 'drug A'? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ziprasidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clozapine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Risperidone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aripiprazole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Clozapine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/23/120.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Clozapine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the treatment of treatment-resistant schizophrenia, Clozapine is often effective where other antipsychotics have failed. However, its use is associated with notable side effects including sialorrhea, significant weight gain, dyslipidemia, and hyperglycemia.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry, 14th edition, Page No 222-224.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A defect in which of the following forms the structure marked below as A? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Internal oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "External oblique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Parietal peritoneum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fascia transversalis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Fascia transversalis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101010.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101011.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/picture1_KXyiJwr.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Fascia transversalis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fascia Transversalis : The fascia transversalis is a thin aponeurotic membrane which lies between the inner surface of the transversus abdominis muscle and the parietal peritoneum. It covers the entire inner surface of the abdominal wall and is continuous with the iliac and pelvic fasciae.</li><li>➤ Fascia Transversalis</li><li>➤ Hernias that penetrate the fascia transversalis in the groin region are called direct inguinal hernias.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was brought with complaints of high fever, multiple seizures, headache, and neck rigidity. CSF analysis showed low glucose, high protein, and many polymorphs. The CSF culture showed pleomorphic gram-negative bacilli. What is true about the causative organism? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is bacitracin sensitive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Produces non-lactose fermenting colonies on MacConkey agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exhibits satellitism around Staphylococcus aureus colonies", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It exhibits alpha hemolysis on sheep blood agar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Exhibits satellitism around Staphylococcus aureus colonies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture41.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Exhibits satellitism around Staphylococcus aureus colonies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of suspected Haemophilus influenzae infection, particularly meningitis, look for satellitism around Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar, indicating the organism's dependence on externally sourced V factor for growth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman presents to OPD at 36 weeks of gestation and presents with complaints of breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension. On examination, fetal movements are normal, fetal parts not easily felt and muffled fetal heartbeat is heard. Symphysis fundal height came out to be 41 cm. Per abdomen examination reveals tense abdomen but not tender. What can be the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abruptio placenta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrocephalus of fetus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polyhydramnios", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fetal-maternal ascites", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Polyhydramnios", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210143.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Polyhydramnios</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In a 36 weeks pregnant woman with breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension and fundal height 41 cm, it most likely points to a diagnosis of polyhydramnios.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infant is brought by his parents with complaints that his urine turns black on standing. Which of the following metabolic disorders is likely? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenylketonuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alkaptonuria", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Homocystinuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maple syrup urine disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Alkaptonuria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-092946.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-093120.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/08/picture21_4bnP46i.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Alkaptonuria</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was brought to the hospital after a road traffic accident. He had severe muscle injury and his serum K+ level was found to be 5.5 mEq/L. What change will happen to the resting membrane potential in this patient? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No change", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Becomes more negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Becomes more positive", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "First becomes more positive, then negative", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Becomes more positive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Becomes more positive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In the given clinical scenario, the patient has hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can cause a shift in the resting membrane potential towards a more positive value, increased cell excitability, and impairments in membrane potential changes.</li><li>• Hyperkalemia can affect the resting membrane potential of cells, including neurons and muscle cells, in the following ways:</li><li>• Increased Resting Membrane Potential: Normally, the resting membrane potential is around -70 millivolts (mV) in neurons. However, in hyperkalemia, the elevated extracellular potassium concentration can lead to an increased positive charge outside the cell. This positive charge tends to depolarize the cell membrane, shifting the resting membrane potential towards a more positive value. Altered Excitability: The increased resting membrane potential caused by hyperkalemia can make the cell more excitable. It reduces the threshold required for an action potential to be initiated, making the cell more likely to depolarize and generate an action potential even in response to weaker stimuli. Impaired Membrane Potential Changes: Hyperkalemia can interfere with the ability of the cell membrane to depolarize and repolarize properly during an action potential. It reduces the electrochemical gradient for sodium (Na+) entry during depolarization and decreases the driving force for potassium (K+) exit during repolarization. This can result in slower and less efficient propagation of action potentials. Disrupted Ionic Balance: Elevated potassium levels can disrupt the balance of other ions, such as sodium and calcium, which are essential for normal cell function. The altered ionic balance can interfere with the proper functioning of ion channels and other membrane proteins involved in generating and regulating action potentials.</li><li>• Increased Resting Membrane Potential: Normally, the resting membrane potential is around -70 millivolts (mV) in neurons. However, in hyperkalemia, the elevated extracellular potassium concentration can lead to an increased positive charge outside the cell. This positive charge tends to depolarize the cell membrane, shifting the resting membrane potential towards a more positive value.</li><li>• Altered Excitability: The increased resting membrane potential caused by hyperkalemia can make the cell more excitable. It reduces the threshold required for an action potential to be initiated, making the cell more likely to depolarize and generate an action potential even in response to weaker stimuli.</li><li>• Impaired Membrane Potential Changes: Hyperkalemia can interfere with the ability of the cell membrane to depolarize and repolarize properly during an action potential. It reduces the electrochemical gradient for sodium (Na+) entry during depolarization and decreases the driving force for potassium (K+) exit during repolarization. This can result in slower and less efficient propagation of action potentials.</li><li>• Disrupted Ionic Balance: Elevated potassium levels can disrupt the balance of other ions, such as sodium and calcium, which are essential for normal cell function. The altered ionic balance can interfere with the proper functioning of ion channels and other membrane proteins involved in generating and regulating action potentials.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option A. No change: Incorrect. Changes in extracellular potassium concentrations directly impact the resting membrane potential.</li><li>• Option A. No change:</li><li>• Option B. Becomes more negative: Incorrect. An increase in extracellular potassium concentration results in depolarization (more positive resting membrane potential), not hyperpolarization.</li><li>• Option B. Becomes more negative:</li><li>• Option D. First becomes more positive, then negative: Incorrect. While complex fluctuations can occur under dynamic conditions, primarily, hyperkalemia causes a persistent depolarization (more positive shift) without an initial opposite change.</li><li>• Option D. First becomes more positive, then negative:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In hyperkalemia, as seen in patients with severe muscle injury, the resting membrane potential becomes more positive due to decreased potassium efflux, leading to increased excitability of nerve and muscle cells. This can affect the normal function of these cells, potentially leading to complications such as muscle weakness or cardiac arrhythmias.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Correctly match the statement regarding the splint shown in image:(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Knuckle bender splint; Ulnar Nerve Palsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dynamic cock up splint; Radial Nerve Palsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Turn buckle splint; Volkmann’s Ischemic Contracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Knuckle bender splint; Median Nerve Palsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Dynamic cock up splint; Radial Nerve Palsy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture24.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture35.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture34.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture33.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture30.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture31.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/02/picture30_HJLEd4u.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Dynamic cock up splint; Radial Nerve Palsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The given image in the question is a dynamic cock-up splint, which is used in cases of radial nerve injuries (wrist drop).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infant is brought to OPD with hepatosplenomegaly and thrombocytopenia. Neuroimaging with CT reveals periventricular calcifications. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congenital rubella syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital herpes simplex virus infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital toxoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congenital cytomegalovirus infection", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Congenital cytomegalovirus infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121015.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121016.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Congenital cytomegalovirus infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Periventricular calcifications on neuroimaging, along with hepatosplenomegaly and thrombocytopenia, are characteristic of congenital cytomegalovirus infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A middle aged cement factory worker has developed mesothelioma. This is likely to be associated with: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Asbestosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Asbestosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mesothelioma is strongly associated with asbestos exposure, commonly found in occupations such as cement factory work, construction, and shipbuilding. Asbestosis can lead to significant complications, including mesothelioma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient was undergoing a hysteroscopic removal of a submucosal fibroid, in which a fluid deficit of 2000 mL is estimated in a patient. What is the immediate complication of this? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute tubular necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DIC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thromboembolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pulmonary edema", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pulmonary edema</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The given clinical scenario depicts case of fluid overload, due to which pulmonary edema can develop.</li><li>• During hysteroscopy, systemic absorption of uterine distension fluid occurs through open sinuses or vessels. Fluid deficit can be estimated by manual calculation or by use of an automated fluid management system. When using hypotonic solutions (like glycine), the maximum allowed fluid deficit is 1000mL for healthy patients and 750mL for elderly patients or those with medical comorbidities. For normal saline, the maximum allowed fluid deficit is 2,500mL for healthy patients and 750mL for those with cardiovascular disease. If excessive absorption of fluid occurs with a hypotonic fluid; obtain serum electrolytes and the patient should be evaluated for volume overload. Asymptomatic hyponatremia can be treated with fluid restriction and careful monitoring of urine output. Treatment of symptomatic hyponatremia requires infusion of 3% sodium chloride and managed in intensive care. Fluid overload from normal saline can be managed by fluid restriction; IV furosemide (20-40mg) is indicated if there is clinical or radiological evidence of pulmonary edema</li><li>• During hysteroscopy, systemic absorption of uterine distension fluid occurs through open sinuses or vessels.</li><li>• Fluid deficit can be estimated by manual calculation or by use of an automated fluid management system.</li><li>• When using hypotonic solutions (like glycine), the maximum allowed fluid deficit is 1000mL for healthy patients and 750mL for elderly patients or those with medical comorbidities.</li><li>• For normal saline, the maximum allowed fluid deficit is 2,500mL for healthy patients and 750mL for those with cardiovascular disease.</li><li>• If excessive absorption of fluid occurs with a hypotonic fluid; obtain serum electrolytes and the patient should be evaluated for volume overload.</li><li>• Asymptomatic hyponatremia can be treated with fluid restriction and careful monitoring of urine output.</li><li>• Treatment of symptomatic hyponatremia requires infusion of 3% sodium chloride and managed in intensive care.</li><li>• Fluid overload from normal saline can be managed by fluid restriction; IV furosemide (20-40mg) is indicated if there is clinical or radiological evidence of pulmonary edema</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Option A. Acute tubular necrosis: While fluid overload can contribute to kidney injury, acute tubular necrosis is not the immediate complication in this scenario.</li><li>• Option A. Acute tubular necrosis:</li><li>• Option B. DIC: Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a serious condition involving abnormal blood clotting but is not directly related to fluid overload from hysteroscopy.</li><li>• Option B. DIC:</li><li>• Option D. Thromboembolism: Thromboembolism involves blood clots traveling to various parts of the body but is not the immediate consequence of fluid overload.</li><li>• Option D. Thromboembolism:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluid overload during hysteroscopic surgery can lead to pulmonary edema as an immediate complication due to excessive absorption of uterine distension fluid.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners presents with lower abdominal pain for 1 month. She experiences minimal discharge and complaints of intermenstrual bleeding. What is the most likely cause? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes simplex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Genital tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vaginal candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhoea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Neisseria gonorrhoea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/04/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-1901210149.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Neisseria gonorrhoea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections, with Neisseria gonorrhoeae being a major pathogen, especially in women with multiple sexual partners presenting with lower abdominal pain and intermenstrual bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The mechanism of action of tissue plasminogen activator is: (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inhibit extrinsic pathway", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhibits platelet aggregation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enhance fibrin degradation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inhibit clot formation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Enhance fibrin degradation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Enhance fibrin degradation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) enhances fibrin degradation by converting plasminogen to plasmin, leading to the dissolution of blood clots.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old homeless man presented with a 1-month history of fever, cough, and weight loss. Both sputum smears turned out to be negative, but the chest x-ray ordered was suggestive of tuberculosis. According to the recent NTEP guidelines, which is the next best line of management? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Repeat sputum smears", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ask for CBNAAT", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ask for line probe assay", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait until TB culture results to start ATT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ask for CBNAAT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121022.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ask for CBNAAT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old woman accompanied by her mother-in-law comes to the infertility clinic. She has been having regular intercourse for 6 months but is not able to conceive. What is the next best step? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Semen analysis for husband", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reassure and review the couple after 6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hysterolaparoscopy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diagnostic hysteroscopy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Reassure and review the couple after 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Reassure and review the couple after 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For women under 35 years old, it is recommended to try to conceive for one year before starting infertility investigations.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mark the option which develops from the structure marked A? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medial umbilical ligament", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median umbilical ligament", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meckel's diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ligamentum teres", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Median umbilical ligament", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101022.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/14/screenshot-2024-05-14-142904.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/screenshot-2023-11-06-183107.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Median umbilical ligament</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman is planned for a laparoscopic hysterectomy. She asks the surgeon for any disadvantages of this procedure. What is the disadvantage of laparoscopic over open surgery? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prolonged recovery time", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Not knowing the extent of thermal burns", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased pain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Not knowing the extent of thermal burns", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Not knowing the extent of thermal burns</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The disadvantage of laparoscopic over open surgery is not knowing the extent of thermal burns.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infant (given below in the image) presents to ophthalmology OPD with lacrimation and photophobia. What is the diagnosis. (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mucopolysaccharidoses", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Congenital Cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Congenital Glaucoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ophthalmia neonatorum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Congenital Glaucoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/15/screenshot-2024-01-15-111402.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Congenital Glaucoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Congenital Glaucoma should be suspected in infants presenting with photophobia, excessive tearing, and cloudy, enlarged corneas, as it is due to the abnormal development of the eye's drainage system leading to increased intraocular pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A poor farmer with a history of successive crop failure develops progressive spastic paraparesis, signs of upper motor neuron paralysis, and gait instability. Name the toxin responsible for this condition.(NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aflatoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Beta-oxalyl-amino-alanine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ergot alkaloids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fusarium toxin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Beta-oxalyl-amino-alanine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-100324.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Beta-oxalyl-amino-alanine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration Diseases</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration Diseases</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old male patient presents in surgery OPD with midline swelling in the neck. The swelling moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Brachial cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroglossal cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plunging ranula", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thyroglossal cyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/picture44_42lZVYr.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/19/666.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture46.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/picture1333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thyroglossal cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A midline neck swelling that moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue is characteristic of a thyroglossal cyst, which is a remnant of the thyroglossal duct. The treatment is typically surgical removal via the Sistrunk procedure.</li><li>➤ A midline neck swelling that moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue is characteristic of a thyroglossal cyst, which is a remnant of the thyroglossal duct.</li><li>➤ The treatment is typically surgical removal via the Sistrunk procedure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with abdominal pain and sterile pyuria, and the x-ray showed the following features. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Putty kidney", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nephrocalcinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staghorn calculus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Psoas calcification", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Putty kidney", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/5.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/13/6.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Putty kidney</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Putty kidney is an advanced renal pathology often resulting from chronic infections such as tuberculosis, leading to extensive calcification and renal dysfunction. This condition is distinguishable on imaging by its irregular, extensive calcifications throughout the kidney, associated with clinical symptoms like abdominal pain and sterile pyuria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with history of alcoholism presented with right hypochondriac pain and fever. He had an episode of diarrhoea 1 week prior. USG abdomen reveals a liver abscess of around 25 cc in right lobe. What is the next step in management? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PAIR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical management", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Percutaneous drainage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Medical management", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/pathogenesis_page_5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Medical management</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ For amoebic liver abscess, initial management should always begin with medical therapy using metronidazole, chloroquine, and diloxanide furoate. Drainage or aspiration is considered based on the size and risk of rupture of the abscess.</li><li>➤ For amoebic liver abscess, initial management should always begin with medical therapy using metronidazole, chloroquine, and diloxanide furoate.</li><li>➤ Drainage or aspiration is considered based on the size and risk of rupture of the abscess.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with swelling below the left earlobe and is experiencing pain. What is the most likely cause of this pain? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Facial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Investing layer of deep cervical fascia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Greater auricular nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Greater auricular nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/12/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012101101026_rTVPiw9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Greater auricular nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Greater auricular nerve originates from the cervical plexus, specifically from the C2 and C3 spinal nerves. It ascends to the parotid gland and provides sensory innervation to the skin over the parotid gland, the earlobe, and the area behind the ear, so the greater auricular nerve is most directly responsible for transmitting pain sensations from these regions.</li><li>➤ Greater auricular nerve</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which disease among the following, Chloride level in sweat is evaluated? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phenylketonuria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gaucher's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteogenesis imperfecta", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cystic fibrosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-19012107.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-153536.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-153658.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cystic fibrosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The chloride level in sweat is evaluated to diagnose cystic fibrosis, where elevated levels indicate the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old male child came to the casualty with difficulty in walking and pain in the perianal region. On subjecting the specimen from the perianal region to a test, yellow needle-shaped crystals are seen under the microscope. What is the test done? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Barberio’s test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Florence test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Teichmann test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acid phosphatase test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Barberio’s test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-111851_zCsNAnm.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-111909_psLWKlL.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/10/screenshot-2024-06-10-111939_rflWHAs.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Barberio’s Test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests for Semen: Florence and Barberio test (Both are presumptive tests)</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests for Semen:</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests for Blood: Teichmann’s and Takayama test (Both are confirmatory tests)</li><li>➤ Microchemical tests for Blood:</li><li>➤ Non-cellular Semen Markers: Acid phosphatase test (quantitative), Prostate specific antigen or PSA (p30)</li><li>➤ Non-cellular Semen Markers:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents with mental retardation, bone pain, and inability to walk. On fundoscopy examination, a cherry red spot is seen. There is no organomegaly. What is the most likely diagnosis? ( NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tay-Sachs disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Niemann-Pick disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hurler syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gaucher disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tay-Sachs disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/06/03/screenshot-2024-06-03-093730.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tay-Sachs disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female patient came with complaints of chest pain, palpitation, and shortness of breath. On examination, a mid-diastolic murmur was heard, and a prominent 'a' wave was found on JVP. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mitral stenosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tricuspid stenosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tricuspid regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tricuspid stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Tricuspid stenosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A prominent 'a' wave in JVP and a mid-diastolic murmur are indicative of tricuspid stenosis, a condition causing right ventricular inflow obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child brought to the OPD with fever and a rash spreading from the face, behind cheeks, and buccal mucosa to other body parts. On examination, Koplik's spot is present. Mark the correct diagnosis? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Varicella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Measles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-154931.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121012.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121013.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/01/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121014.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Koplik spots and a characteristic rash that begins on the forehead behind the ears and spreads to the torso and extremities are pathognomonic for measles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following parameters are included in qSOFA score? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BP, RR and CBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Creatinine, PR, BP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RR, Body temperature, PR", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SBP, RR, GCS score", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. SBP, RR, GCS score", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/13/screenshot-2024-07-13-163312.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/screenshot-2023-10-31-170936.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) SBP, RR, GCS score</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The qSOFA score includes three clinical criteria: respiratory rate (RR) ≥ 22/min, systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≤ 100 mmHg, and altered mental status (GCS score). A qSOFA score of ≥2 indicates a higher risk of poor outcomes in patients with suspected infection.</li><li>➤ The qSOFA score includes three clinical criteria: respiratory rate (RR) ≥ 22/min, systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≤ 100 mmHg, and altered mental status (GCS score).</li><li>➤ A qSOFA score of ≥2 indicates a higher risk of poor outcomes in patients with suspected infection.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old child presents with easy fatiguability. The mother also complains that the child has increased hunger between meals, which is relieved after food. Liver examination revealed no glycogen. What enzyme is most likely deficient? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glycogen phosphorylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glycogen synthase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Debranching enzyme", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glucose 6 phosphatase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Glycogen synthase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glycogen synthase is a key enzyme involved in glycogenesis, the process of synthesizing glycogen, which serves as a storage form of glucose in the liver and muscles. Glycogen synthase catalyzes the addition of glucose molecules to the growing glycogen chain by creating alpha-1,4-glycosidic linkages between glucose units. This enzyme is regulated by various factors, including insulin, which promotes glycogen synthesis by activating glycogen synthase.</li><li>➤ Mutations or dysregulation of glycogen synthase can lead to Glycogen Storage Disease 0 (GSD 0), a disorder resulting from mutations in the GYS2 gene encoding liver glycogen synthase. C/f include fasting hypoglycemia, hunger between meals, hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), and other metabolic abnormalities due to impaired glycogen synthesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The instrument shown in the image is not used for which of the following? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Airway toileting", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Upper airway examination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute nasopharyngeal obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prolonged mechanical ventilation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Upper airway examination", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/whatsapp-image-2023-06-12-at-190121011044.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Upper airway examination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tracheostomy tubes are not used for examining the upper airway as they do not provide access or visibility to upper airway structures such as the nasal passages, pharynx, or larynx. Instead, tools like laryngoscopes or endoscopes are employed for this purpose.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 8-year-old child weighing 26 kg presents with a history of loose stools for 2 days. On examination, there is severe dehydration. Laboratory investigations are as follows. What is the initial management as per ISPAD guidelines? (NEET PG 2023) RBS → 550 рН → 7.01 Na+ → 158 Urine glucose → 3+ Urine Ketone → +ve", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Manage ABC, NS 10-20 mL/kg and start insulin after 1 hour", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Manage ABC, NS 20 mL/kg along with insulin 0.1 IU/kg/hr", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Manage ABC, NS 10 mL/kg along with insulin 0.1 IU/kg/hr", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manage ABC, NS 30 mL/kg and start insulin after 1 hour", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Manage ABC, NS 10-20 mL/kg and start insulin after 1 hour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/doc18.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Manage ABC, NS 10-20 mL/kg and start insulin after 1 hour</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in children, the initial treatment includes managing ABC, administering 20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal saline, and starting an insulin infusion at 0.1 U/kg/hr.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An alcoholic patient presented with features of chronic pancreatitis with recurrent attacks and has a 10 mm dilatation of the pancreatic duct with intraductal calculi present. Which of the following is the surgery of choice? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pancreaticoduodenectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Longitudinal pancreaticojejunostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ERCP and sphincterotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coring of pancreas head", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Longitudinal pancreaticojejunostomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/pathogenesis_page_4.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Longitudinal pancreaticojejunostomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with chronic pancreatitis and a significantly dilated pancreatic duct (greater than 6 mm), the preferred surgical treatment is longitudinal pancreaticojejunostomy (Peustow procedure). This procedure helps to relieve ductal hypertension and improve drainage, alleviating pain and other symptoms associated with chronic pancreatitis.</li><li>➤ In patients with chronic pancreatitis and a significantly dilated pancreatic duct (greater than 6 mm), the preferred surgical treatment is longitudinal pancreaticojejunostomy (Peustow procedure).</li><li>➤ This procedure helps to relieve ductal hypertension and improve drainage, alleviating pain and other symptoms associated with chronic pancreatitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a 10-year-old school child, which of the following vaccines is given as a part of the school immunization program? (NEET PG 2023)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotavirus vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "TT/Td vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis B vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. TT/Td vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-100004.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-095933.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) TT/Td vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Immunisation schedule (2023-24):</li><li>➤ National Immunisation schedule (2023-24):</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Neet Pg 2024 Session 1 2024 08 11 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 44-year-old female who is a known case of scleroderma presented with shortness of breath, especially during exercise. She underwent right heart catheterization, and her mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) was 35 mm Hg. Which of the following is true regarding her condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CCBs are the first line in all patients", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endothelin antagonists improve symptoms", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lung transplant is the best treatment if identified early", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lifestyle modification", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endothelin antagonists improve symptoms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endothelin antagonists improve symptoms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endothelin receptor antagonists are effective in improving symptoms and functional status in patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension associated with scleroderma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old male who is a known case of bronchial asthma presented for a routine follow-up. PFT was done earlier—his FEV1 was 70%, which improved to 83% after bronchodilator nebulization. He was already on MDI Albuterol daily. On questioning, it seems like he is being symptomatic for at least 2 times per week and is waking up in the nights due to symptoms at least once per week. On examination, there are scattered rhonchi. What should be done? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Add Fluticasone MDI two times a day", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shift to MDI Salmeterol two times a day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Add Prednisolone 10mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue the current management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Add Fluticasone MDI two times a day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inhaled corticosteroids are the cornerstone of asthma management as they effectively reduce airway inflammation, improve symptoms, and prevent exacerbations. They should be added when asthma symptoms are not controlled by a short-acting beta-agonist alone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of PCR is suitable for identifying multiple causative agents? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conventional PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Real-time PCR", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiplex PCR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nested PCR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Multiplex PCR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Multiplex PCR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiplex PCR is the best choice for identifying multiple causative agents in a single test, making it efficient and comprehensive for diagnosing conditions caused by various pathogens.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old woman presents with dysmenorrhea. Laparoscopic finding is as shown. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PID", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fibroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endometriosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121413.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Endometriosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endometriosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, commonly forming chocolate cysts in the ovaries, which present as dark, blood-filled cysts on laparoscopic examination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of budding is described by a broad base with a small bud coming off of it, often associated with a figure of 8 appearances? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blastomycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blastomycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blastomycosis is characterized by broad-based budding with a figure of 8 appearances, where the term \"Blasto\" helps recall the broad base nature of the budding structure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given image is the logo for which of the following health programs? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Integrated Disease Surveillance Program", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "National TB Elimination Program", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "National Leprosy Eradication Program", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "National Health Mission", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. National Leprosy Eradication Program", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-174045.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-174128.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-174151.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-174218.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) National Leprosy Eradication Program</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The National Leprosy Eradication Program logo symbolizes hope, the curability of leprosy, and the inclusion of cured individuals into society, promoting a stigma-free approach towards the disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the likely disease looking at the pattern of inheritance as provided in the image? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wiskott Aldrich syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wilson’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Achondroplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leber disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf12.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ X-linked recessive conditions are characterized by affected males and carrier females, as males have only one X chromosome, making them susceptible if the gene is defective.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Maternal deaths per 1,00,000 women in the reproductive age group is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perinatal mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal death rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maternal mortality rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maternal mortality ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Maternal mortality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Maternal mortality rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The maternal mortality rate measures the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 women in the reproductive age group, focusing on the general population of women of reproductive age rather than only those who have given birth.</li><li>➤ maternal mortality rate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The lesion in Broadmann’s area 22 causes: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Receptive aphasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Poor repetition of language", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expressive aphasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Poor naming", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Receptive aphasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-110414.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A lesion in Broadmann’s area 22, known as Wernicke’s area, leads to receptive aphasia, characterized by fluent but nonsensical speech and impaired comprehension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An 18-year-old boy from Rajasthan weighing 50 kg is diagnosed with mixed P. vivax and P. falciparum malaria. What is the appropriate treatment regimen on day 2?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Primaquine 2.5 mg (6 tablets)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Primaquine 7.5 mg (6 tablets)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine (750/37.5 mg) (2 tablets) + Primaquine 2.5 mg (6 tablets)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine (750/37.5 mg) (2 tablets) + Primaquine 7.5 mg (6 tablets)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Primaquine 2.5 mg (6 tablets)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/17/screenshot-2024-09-16-191200.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Artesunate 50 mg (4 tablets) + Primaquine 2.5 mg (6 tablets)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malaria Treatment Regimens:</li><li>➤ Malaria Treatment Regimens:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male travels frequently and has food during his travels. He presents to PHC OPD with abdominal pain, fever for 4 days. He has bradycardia too. Test for confirmation of diagnosis: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood culture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Widal test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stool culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine culture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blood culture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blood culture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For typhoid fever diagnosis in the first week of illness, blood culture is the most appropriate and reliable test.</li><li>➤ blood culture</li><li>➤ Mnemonic – BASU</li><li>➤ Mnemonic – BASU</li><li>➤ Blood culture – 1 st week onwards</li><li>➤ Antibody test (Widal) – 2 nd week onwards</li><li>➤ Stool culture – 3 rd week onwards</li><li>➤ Urine culture – 4 th week onwards</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not true regarding Von Willebrand Disease? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 1 is more severe", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 3 is more severe", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 2 is a qualitative defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 3 has very low levels of vWF", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Type 1 is more severe", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type 1 Von Willebrand Disease is the mildest and most common form, characterized by a partial quantitative deficiency of von Willebrand factor, while Type 3 is the most severe with very low or absent levels of vWF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-year-old patient presented with chest pain, shortness of breath, and edema. On examination, his pulse was irregularly irregular, his JVP was elevated and showed a prominent ‘Y’ descent. On auscultation, he had a high-pitched diastolic sound. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bicuspid Aortic Valve with AR", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RHD with MS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Constrictive Pericarditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac Tamponade", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Constrictive Pericarditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Constrictive Pericarditis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A prominent ‘Y’ descent in JVP along with a high-pitched diastolic sound (pericardial knock) and symptoms of systemic congestion are hallmark features of constrictive pericarditis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has adult respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following is the action of IL-8 in the pathogenesis in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endothelial injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neutrophil activation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibrin deposition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Macrophage activation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neutrophil activation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Neutrophil activation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IL-8 is a key mediator in ARDS that promotes neutrophil activation, which plays a major role in the amplification of inflammation and lung injury in the disease process.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is false in patients with thyroid eye disease? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It can lead to vision loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Response to vision symptoms is adjuvant to thyrotoxicosis response", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "NOSPECS classification is used", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10% of euthyroid patients can have eye involvement.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Response to vision symptoms is adjuvant to thyrotoxicosis response", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Response to vision symptoms is adjuvant to thyrotoxicosis response</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The treatment of vision symptoms in thyroid eye disease is distinct and not directly tied to the management of thyrotoxicosis, highlighting the need for tailored therapy based on the eye disease severity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Full form of JSSK is? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Janani Shishu Sewa Kendra", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Janani Shishu Suraksha Kendra", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Janani Shishu Swasthya Karyakram", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ JSSK stands for Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram, focusing on the protection and care of both the mother and infant by providing comprehensive healthcare services</li><li>➤ mother and infant</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with severe back ache and the following x-ray after an RTA. Diagnose the fracture present. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burst fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chance fracture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Compression fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fracture of spinous process", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chance fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180234_mQjLB7a.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-155438_ybhlvpR.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chance fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Chance fracture is a flexion-distraction injury that extends through all three columns of the spine and is commonly seen in patients who experience a sudden forward motion, such as in a seatbelt-related injury during a car accident.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An image of a perianal disease is shown. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fistula in Ano", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pilonidal Sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fissure in Ano", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemorrhoids", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fistula in Ano", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115859.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120015.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120048.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120109.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fistula in Ano</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fistula in Ano should be considered when there is a history of recurrent swelling, abscess formation, or discharge near the anal verge. It is distinguished from pilonidal sinus by its lower location near the anal canal, as opposed to pilonidal sinuses that occur higher up in the natal cleft.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old girl, a victim of rape, presents at 22 weeks for abortion. What advice will you give her? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MTP cannot be done as she has crossed 20 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MTP can be done till 24 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "MTP can be done only if the mother's life is at risk", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MTP can only be done if there is a substantial fetal anomaly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MTP can be done till 24 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121328.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) MTP can be done till 24 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In India, under the MTP Act of 2021:</li><li>➤ In India, under the MTP Act of 2021:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient presented with fatigue. Labs are as follows - Hb 8 g/dL, WBC 150,000, and platelets 50,000. Examination is significant for hepatosplenomegaly. Bone marrow biopsy is shown. What is the most common karyotypic abnormality? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "46XY t(9;22)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "47 XY +21", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "45XY t(14;21)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "46XY SRY gene deletion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 46XY t(9;22)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-125334.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is the Philadelphia chromosome, characterized by the t(9;22) translocation leading to the BCR-ABL fusion gene.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which vitamin can be deficient in a patient who has undergone gastrectomy? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin B12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-150610.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gastrectomy can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency due to the loss of intrinsic factor produced by the stomach's parietal cells, which is essential for B12 absorption in the ileum.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man presented with fatigue and hemoptysis. His current Hb is 8 g/dL (previous Hb 1 week ago was 12 g/dL). His bronchoalveolar lavage is reddish in color, and his serum creatinine was 1.7 mg/dL. Biopsy of the kidney revealed paucity of immune complexes. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Microscopic polyangiitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemochromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Microscopic polyangiitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Microscopic polyangiitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Microscopic polyangiitis is an ANCA-associated vasculitis that often presents with a combination of pulmonary hemorrhage and renal involvement, characterized by a paucity of immune complexes on biopsy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old patient presents with symptoms of bone pain, anemia, hypercalcemia, and renal impairment. A bone marrow biopsy confirms the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. The patient is started on a treatment regimen. Which of the following treatments is most likely associated with the reactivation of herpes zoster? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bortezomib", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lenalidomide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Daratumumab", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Melphalan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bortezomib", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Bortezomib</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bortezomib , a proteasome inhibitor used in the treatment of multiple myeloma, is most likely associated with the reactivation of herpes zoster due to its immunosuppressive properties. This highlights the importance of monitoring patients on such treatments for signs of viral reactivation</li><li>➤ Bortezomib</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child came with malnutrition and follicular hyperkeratotic skin lesions. There was a deficiency of Vitamin A and Essential Fatty Acids. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phrynoderma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scurvy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Keratosis pilaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Keratosis follicularis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phrynoderma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-105354.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Phrynoderma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phrynoderma is associated with malnutrition and deficiencies in Vitamin A and essential fatty acids, and it presents with follicular hyperkeratotic skin lesions, particularly over the elbows and knees.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are applying a vacuum to deliver a baby in a patient with prolonged 2nd stage. The point at which the vacuum is applied is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 cm anterior to the posterior fontanelle", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 cm anterior to the posterior fontanelle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 cm anterior to the posterior fontanelle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Midway between the anterior and posterior fontanelle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3 cm anterior to the posterior fontanelle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 3 cm anterior to the posterior fontanelle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The flexion point, located 3 cm anterior to the posterior fontanelle, is the optimal site for applying a vacuum during delivery to achieve the necessary head flexion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What will be the clinical presentation if the nerve passing through the marked region has been injured? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loss of sensation on forehead and dorsum of nose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loss of sensation in jaw area", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loss of sensation in maxillary area of face", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Loss of sensation in the mucosa of nasopharynx", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Loss of sensation on forehead and dorsum of nose", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-110202.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-110235.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-110253.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-110320.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Loss of sensation on forehead and dorsum of nose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The superior orbital fissure allows the passage of nerves that supply sensation to the forehead and dorsum of the nose, including the frontal nerve, whose injury leads to sensory loss in these regions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Drug contraindicated in asthma in PPH (Postpartum Hemorrhage) case? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methyl ergometrine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carboprost", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Misoprostol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Carboprost", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Carboprost</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carboprost (PGF2 alpha) is contraindicated in patients with asthma due to its bronchoconstrictive effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a health education session, people cannot understand your few technical words during the chat, and it’s a miscommunication. This is which type of barrier? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cultural barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Physiological barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Psychological barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Semantic barrier", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Semantic barrier", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Semantic barrier</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A semantic barrier occurs when the use of complex language, technical terms, or unfamiliar words leads to misunderstanding and miscommunication.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient on mechanical ventilation and placed in prone position which of the following about PEEP is true? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prevents atelectasis of lung and alveolar collapse", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduces CO2 in alveoli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreases inspiratory pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increases venous return and thus maintains cardiac output", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prevents atelectasis of lung and alveolar collapse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Prevents atelectasis of lung and alveolar collapse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PEEP is primarily used to prevent alveolar collapse (atelectasis) and maintain lung recruitment, especially in conditions like ARDS or when the patient is positioned prone during mechanical ventilation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented to the OPD as a known case of cervical cancer. On further evaluation, the pelvic side wall was found to be involved, and hydronephrosis was also seen. Identify the stage of cervical cancer. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121230.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 3B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stages of cervical cancer:</li><li>➤ Stages of cervical cancer:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presented with sudden breathlessness. X-ray of the patient is shown. What is likely to be heard on auscultation? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vesicular", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bronchial", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Absent sounds", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bronchovesicular", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Absent sounds", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-125110.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Absent sounds</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumothorax is characterized by absent or reduced breath sounds on the affected side during auscultation due to the collapse of the lung.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came to the emergency room with severe pain in the abdomen. Serum triglyceride level was 1500 mg/dL. Identify the defect? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Apo B 48", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apo B 100", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Apo CII", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "LDL receptor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Apo CII", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Apo CII</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type I Hyperlipoproteinemia, presenting with high triglycerides and abdominal pain, is often due to a defect in lipoprotein lipase or its activator, Apo CII.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had a pulmonary mass which shows IHC staining with TTF-1 as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Squamous cell cancer lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenocarcinoma lung", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Small cell carcinoma lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Large cell carcinoma lung", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Adenocarcinoma lung", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf2.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Adenocarcinoma lung</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ TTF-1 is a key immunohistochemical marker that strongly suggests adenocarcinoma of the lung, particularly when observed in a pulmonary mass.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following is the x-ray of an 18-year-old boy who complains of fever, pain in the lower limb, local rise of temperature, and tenderness in the area shown. On investigation, he has increased ESR. What can be the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Germ cell tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Osteomyelitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ewing's sarcoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ewing's sarcoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180306.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ewing's sarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ewing’s sarcoma typically presents in the diaphysis of long bones in children and adolescents, with a onion skin periosteal reaction seen on x-ray.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the prolapse?(NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grade 3 prolapse with cystocele", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Grade 3 prolapse with rectocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grade 2 prolapse with cystocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grade 2 prolapse with rectocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Grade 3 prolapse with cystocele", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121757.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Grade 3 prolapse with cystocele</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Grade 3 prolapse extends outside the introitus and can involve cystocele. Differentiating between Grade 3 and Grade 4 requires the thumb-finger approximation test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old man presents to the clinic with a history of unexplained weight loss, hematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass. Imaging studies reveal a large renal mass. A renal biopsy has the following finding. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clear cell carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Papillary carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chromophobe carcinoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bellini duct carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chromophobe carcinoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf16.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chromophobe carcinoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chromophobe RCC is identified by cells with distinct borders, a plant-like or resinoid nucleus, and a perinuclear halo, distinguishing it from other RCC types.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is true regarding this? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EMLA means equal mixture of LA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It contains lignocaine and ropivacaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methemoglobinemia is a complication of this cream", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 gm of 5% cream contains lignocaine 50mg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Methemoglobinemia is a complication of this cream", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-103626.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ EMLA cream can cause methemoglobinemia as a complication, especially when used inappropriately or in large quantities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old male came with complaints of orange hue over the body with hyperkeratotic perifollicular erythematous papules associated with scaling, which started near the face and slowly progressed to involve the entire body. Islands of sparing noted over the body. Palmoplantar keratoderma noted. Histology shows alternating orthokeratosis and parakeratosis. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycosis fungoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follicular psoriasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pityriasis Rubra Pilaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Keratosis follicularis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pityriasis Rubra Pilaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-113731_yJmIGDV.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Pityriasis Rubra Pilaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pityriasis Rubra Pilaris is characterized by an orange-red hue with cephalocaudal spread, islands of sparing, palmoplantar keratoderma, and a histological \"checkerboard\" pattern of alternating orthokeratosis and parakeratosis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a male child having recurrent urinary problems, an imaging as done as shown. What is the management? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endoscopic Ablation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dilation of urethra", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dilation of urethra and bladder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Excision of verumontanum", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endoscopic Ablation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120221.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Endoscopic Ablation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endoscopic ablation is the definitive treatment for posterior urethral valves in children, providing direct relief of the obstruction and reducing the risk of renal damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following images show the sample collected from a patient complaining of perianal itching. The diagnosis is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ancylostoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterobius vermicularis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "H. Nana", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Necator americanus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Enterobius vermicularis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-132422.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Enterobius vermicularis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Enterobius vermicularis is associated with perianal itching and produces characteristic D-shaped eggs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Evaluate the arterial blood gas with the following findings: pH 7.26, PaCO₂ - 16 mm Hg, HCO₃ - 8, Na⁺ 135, Cl⁻ - 108, K⁺ - 4.2. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis with high anion gap", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic alkalosis with low anion gap", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metabolic alkalosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory alkalosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis with high anion gap", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-125212.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis with high anion gap</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of a low pH, decreased bicarbonate, and decreased PaCO₂ with a calculated high anion gap strongly indicates high anion gap metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man habitually consumes coffee before bedtime and claims difficulty in sleep during night. What is the role of caffeine in wakefulness? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blocks adenosine action and causes wakefulness", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Activates locus coeruleus and cause wakefulness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "No role in maintaining wakefulness if taken 1hr before sleep", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Activates histamine release and prevents sleep", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blocks adenosine action and causes wakefulness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blocks adenosine action and causes wakefulness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Caffeine promotes wakefulness primarily by blocking adenosine receptors in the brain, thereby preventing the sleep-inducing effects of adenosine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dead body shows the following finding as in the image. What is the case? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hanging", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gagging", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Garrotting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Smothering", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Smothering", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/untitled-333_lUor8IM.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Smothering is characterized by facial injuries resulting from forceful application that obstructs breathing, distinguishing it from neck compression injuries seen in hanging or garrotting.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the classification used and grade of the shown injury in a child. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gartland’s classification Type III", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salter-Harris classification Type III", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gartland’s classification Type IV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salter-Harris classification Type IV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Gartland’s classification Type III", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180346.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180421.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180510.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Gartland’s classification Type III</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Gartland classification is specifically used for supracondylar humerus fractures in children, while the Salter-Harris classification is used for growth plate (epiphyseal) fractures.</li><li>➤ Gartland classification</li><li>➤ Salter-Harris classification</li><li>➤ Gartland classification Supracondylar humerus</li><li>➤ Gartland classification Supracondylar humerus</li><li>➤ Type 1: Undisplaced Type 2: Displaced with posterior hinge intact Type 3a: Displaced fracture with lateral hinge broken (PM) Type 3b: Displaced fracture with medial hinge broken (PL) Type 4: Completely displaced with both anterior and posterior periosteum avulsed (Intra-operative finding)</li><li>➤ Type 1: Undisplaced</li><li>➤ Type 2: Displaced with posterior hinge intact</li><li>➤ Type 3a: Displaced fracture with lateral hinge broken (PM)</li><li>➤ Type 3b: Displaced fracture with medial hinge broken (PL)</li><li>➤ Type 4: Completely displaced with both anterior and posterior periosteum avulsed (Intra-operative finding)</li><li>➤ Salter-Harris classification of epiphyseal injuries</li><li>➤ Salter-Harris classification of epiphyseal injuries</li><li>➤ Type I: Fracture line is entirely with in Physis causing epiphyseal slip Type II: Fracture line extends from physis into the Metaphysis (Thurston-Holland’s fragment sign) Type III: Fracture line extends from physis into the Epiphysis causing epiphyseal split Type IV: Fracture line extends across the Epiphysis, (articular surface), Physis, and metaphysis Type V: Crush injury of physis with initially normal X-rays</li><li>➤ Type I: Fracture line is entirely with in Physis causing epiphyseal slip</li><li>➤ Type II: Fracture line extends from physis into the Metaphysis (Thurston-Holland’s fragment sign)</li><li>➤ Type III: Fracture line extends from physis into the Epiphysis causing epiphyseal split</li><li>➤ Type IV: Fracture line extends across the Epiphysis, (articular surface), Physis, and metaphysis</li><li>➤ Type V: Crush injury of physis with initially normal X-rays</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the ECGs in order: Atrial flutter, Atrial fibrillation, PSVT, and Ventricular Tachycardia. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i, ii, iii, iv", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ii, i, iii, iv", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "iv, iii, ii, i", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ii, i, iv, iii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ii, i, iii, iv", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-125433.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recognize key ECG patterns such as the sawtooth wave for atrial flutter, irregularly irregular rhythm for atrial fibrillation, narrow complex tachycardia for PSVT, and wide QRS complexes for ventricular tachycardia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis based on the upper GI endoscopy image? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Barretts esophagus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Esophageal varices", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastric erosions", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Esophageal candidiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Esophageal varices", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115511_EUmfgFN.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115530.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115549.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115604.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Esophageal varices</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dilated column of veins in esophagus represent varices.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A suspect of sexual assault of 18 years of age claims to be of 16 years. X-rays of which area can confirm the correct age of the suspect? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elbow and hip", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Elbow and wrist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Knee and elbow", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Knee and wrist", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Knee and wrist", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180141.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180212.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Knee and wrist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ossification of the wrist and knee is a reliable indicator of whether an individual is 18 years old, as both these areas ossify by that age.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old patient presents with chest pain and hoarseness of voice for the past month. MRI of the patient is shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Saccular aneurysm of aortic arch", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dissecting aneurysm of arch of aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coarctation of aorta", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aortic Dissection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Saccular aneurysm of aortic arch", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-124903.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Saccular aneurysm of aortic arch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A saccular aneurysm of the aortic arch can present with chest pain and hoarseness due to compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Recognition of the aneurysmal sac on imaging is crucial for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother brought her 14-year-old mentally retarded child with complaints of joint pain and an irresistible urge to bite his fingers and lips. On investigation, his serum uric acid level was found to be elevated. The child is likely suffering from which disorder? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Xanthine oxidase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thymidylate synthetase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lesch-Nyhan syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "CPSII defect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is characterized by severe neurological dysfunction, self-mutilating behavior, and elevated uric acid levels due to the complete deficiency of the enzyme HGPRT.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Horner syndrome, ptosis is seen. In this condition, which muscle is implicated? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LPS muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orbicularis Oculi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Muller's muscle", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Horner muscle", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Muller's muscle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114459.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Muller's muscle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The mild ptosis seen in Horner syndrome is due to the involvement of the Muller's muscle, which has sympathetic innervation and contributes to a small degree of eyelid elevation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old lady with multiple nasal polyps, rhinosinusitis, and asthma came to the dentist for a procedure. She recently developed an allergic reaction to aspirin that was prescribed after undergoing a dermatologic procedure. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding her condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "She has sensitivity only to aspirin.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "She could have got this reaction with any other COX-1 inhibitors too.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Can be treated by Montelukast.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin desensitization therapy can be helpful.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. She has sensitivity only to aspirin.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ AERD (Aspirin-Exacerbated Respiratory Disease) involves sensitivity to aspirin and other COX-1 inhibitors, leading to increased leukotriene production and symptoms that can be managed with leukotriene receptor antagonists and desensitization therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the instrument: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oropharyngeal airway", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovassapian airway", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nasopharyngeal airway", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uncuffed endotracheal tube", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nasopharyngeal airway", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-17-183434.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/whatsapp-image-2024-09-17-at-190425.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-17-185236.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-17-185313.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nasopharyngeal airway</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) is a flexible tube used to secure an airway via the nasal passage, especially in patients who are semi-conscious and have an intact gag reflex.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for an overactive bladder in a patient with dementia? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tolterodine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tiotropium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Telenzepine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tropicamide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tolterodine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tolterodine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tolterodine is an appropriate treatment for overactive bladder, but caution is needed in dementia patients due to its anticholinergic properties, which can potentially worsen cognitive function. When selecting an anticholinergic drug for these patients, those with minimal CNS penetration, like trospium, would be preferable if available.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primigravida presents at 37 weeks. She is a known case of heart disease with a prosthetic valve on warfarin. What is the next best step? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Continue warfarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Switch to LMWH", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immediate caesarean", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immediate IOL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Switch to LMWH", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Switch to LMWH</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pregnant women with prosthetic heart valves on warfarin, switch to low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) at 36 weeks to reduce the risk of complications during delivery, and stop heparin 12-24 hours before planned delivery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient of sickle cell anemia developed aplastic crisis after a viral infection. The agent causing it is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "EBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Parvovirus B19", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Parvovirus B19", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Parvovirus B19</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parvovirus B19 is the primary viral agent responsible for causing aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia due to its affinity for and destruction of erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child presented with fatigue. On examination, there were scattered purpuric rashes, and abdominal examination was notable for cervical lymphadenopathy and hepato-splenomegaly. Lab parameters are shown – Hb 7 g/dL, WBC 50,000, platelets 60,000. What is the treatment? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IVIg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doxorubicin + epirubicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiotherapy to the lymph node", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prednisolone + Vincristine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Prednisolone + Vincristine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Prednisolone + Vincristine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The core treatment regimen for ALL includes Prednisolone and Vincristine as part of the induction chemotherapy to induce remission in pediatric patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient with infertility presented to the clinic and underwent karyotyping. What is the likely diagnosis in the karyotype shown? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Down syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Turner syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klinefelter syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Edward syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Turner syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf9.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Turner syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Turner syndrome is characterized by a 45, XO karyotype, where there is a complete or partial absence of the second X chromosome, leading to infertility, primary amenorrhea, and other characteristic features.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Image a of child with an orofacial cleft as shown. When is the first repair done? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3 months", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120200.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 3 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first repair of cleft lip is typically done at around 3 months of age, following the Millard's Rule of 10, to optimize surgical outcomes and ensure the infant is prepared for the procedure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old patient presents with lethargy and tiredness. On examination, he has hyperpigmentation around the lips. His BP is 90/60 mm Hg and heart rate is 110/min. Labs revealed a Na⁺ of 125 mEq/L and a K⁺ of 5.5 mEq/L. What is the most appropriate treatment? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ACTH", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dexamethasone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NaCl infusion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary adrenal insufficiency requires replacement therapy with both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone are the mainstays of treatment.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old male child presented with the following finding. What’s your diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Papilloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Limbal dermoid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyogenic granuloma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pinguecula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Limbal dermoid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114707.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114755.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114813.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A limbal dermoid is a congenital, benign growth located at the limbus, often containing connective tissue, hair, or teeth remnants, distinguishing it from other ocular lesions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old farmer presented with retro-orbital pain, conjunctival suffusion, night fever and chills, calf tenderness, cervical lymphadenopathy, hypokalemia, and joint pain. What can be the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leptospirosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Filariasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leptospirosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Leptospirosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conjunctival suffusion is a distinguishing symptom of Leptospirosis and is not commonly seen in Dengue or other similar infectious conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with nodular lesions over the body, which are associated with slight anesthesia over the arm in the ulnar nerve distribution. Histopathology is as shown below. Which of the following options is true about this condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lepromatous leprosy with positive Lepromin test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculoid leprosy with positive Lepromin test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lepromatous leprosy with negative Lepromin test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ENL with negative Lepromin test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lepromatous leprosy with negative Lepromin test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-124029.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Lepromatous leprosy with negative Lepromin test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In lepromatous leprosy, due to poor cell-mediated immunity, the Lepromin test is typically negative. This form of leprosy presents with multiple nodular lesions and sensory loss, often in a symmetrical distribution.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young woman presents with weight loss, tachycardia, heat intolerance, and tremors. She has exophthalmos on examination. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Parkinson's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Graves' disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Addison's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alzheimer's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Graves' disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Graves' disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Graves' disease should be suspected in patients presenting with symptoms of hyperthyroidism (weight loss, tachycardia, heat intolerance) along with exophthalmos, a distinguishing feature of the condition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the sign. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Double ring sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "String sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bird beak sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Double bubble sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Double ring sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164557.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Double ring sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"double ring sign\" on an X-ray is characteristic of a button battery, easily distinguishable by its unique appearance.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which is the best stain for biopsy during laryngoscopy for vocal cord examination? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supravital", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Silver nitrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "H&amp;E", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congo red", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Supravital", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Supravital</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Toluidine blue, a supravital stain, is the best stain for non-invasive detection of cancerous growths during laryngoscopy of the vocal cords due to its high uptake by cells with active DNA and RNA synthesis.</li><li>➤ Toluidine blue, a supravital stain, is the best stain for non-invasive detection of cancerous growths during laryngoscopy of the vocal cords</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is an inclusion criterion for the shorter bedaquiline regimen in the treatment of tuberculosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extrapulmonary TB like Tubercular meningitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin resistance with both KatG and inhA mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rifampicin-sensitive TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rifampicin-resistant but fluoroquinolone-sensitive TB", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rifampicin-resistant but fluoroquinolone-sensitive TB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Rifampicin-resistant but fluoroquinolone-sensitive TB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline shorter regimen is indicated for the treatment of -</li><li>➤ Rifampicin-resistant TB (FQ sensitive) or MDR TB INH Resistant TB – due to mutation in either inhA or Kat G gene (NOT BOTH) Pulmonary TB</li><li>➤ Rifampicin-resistant TB (FQ sensitive) or MDR TB</li><li>➤ INH Resistant TB – due to mutation in either inhA or Kat G gene (NOT BOTH)</li><li>➤ Pulmonary TB</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The classification shown is for? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pelvic organ prolapse", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vulvar cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterine anomalies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pelvic organ prolapse", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121711.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pelvic organ prolapse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The POP-Q system is a specific and standardized classification method used to quantify and describe the extent of pelvic organ prolapse using detailed anatomical measurements. The hymen is the reference point for this classification.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What will be the duration of below-knee POP cast applied for the following injury?(NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2-3 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3-5 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6-8 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "12-20 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6-8 weeks", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-181929.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-160554_YI7HGlR.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 6-8 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fractures of the metatarsals, including those at the base of the fifth metatarsal, are typically treated with a below-knee plaster cast for a duration of 6-8 weeks to ensure proper healing.</li><li>➤ 6-8 weeks</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, what is the feature of stage 3 beta cell destruction? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autoimmune +ve Normoglycemic presymptomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autoimmune +ve dysglycemic symptomatic", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Autoimmune -ve Normoglycemic presymptomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Autoimmune -ve dysglycemic presymptomatic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Autoimmune +ve dysglycemic symptomatic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stage 3 of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by autoimmunity, dysglycemia, and the presence of clinical symptoms, meeting the criteria for diabetes diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient presents with urinary complaints with sterile pyuria on urine-analysis. A cystoscopy shows dilated ureteric orifice. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Golf hole ureteric orifice", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bladder diverticuli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bladder ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cystitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Golf hole ureteric orifice", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Golf hole ureteric orifice</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A dilated ureteric orifice seen on cystoscopy in a patient with sterile pyuria is indicative of a golf hole ureteric orifice, a condition where the orifice is abnormally dilated, often due to reflux or functional obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with diarrhoea and skin lesions was advised to change his diet, which resulted in the improvement of his symptoms. Which of the following is the likely antibody present in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti TTG antibody", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "p-ANCA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-nuclear antibody", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anti TTG antibody", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anti-TTG antibody is the primary serological marker used in diagnosing celiac disease, particularly when dietary changes lead to symptom improvement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Investigation of choice for JNA? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CECT", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRI", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DNE", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CECT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CECT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The investigation of choice for diagnosing Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma is CECT due to its ability to define the tumor's vascularity and extent while safely avoiding the complications associated with biopsy</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Scenario with primary amenorrhea with secondary sexual characters present, uterus and ovaries present with an image as shown. What is the likely karyotype ? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "45 XO", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "46 XX", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "47 XXY", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "46 XY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 46 XX", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121400.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 46 XX</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary amenorrhea with normal development of secondary sexual characteristics and intact internal female reproductive organs (uterus and ovaries) generally indicates a normal female karyotype, 46 XX.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Lignocaine is used in a loading dose for the treatment of arrhythmias. The loading dose of this drug depends upon which of the following factors? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clearance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Volume of distribution", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Half-life", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bioavailability", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Volume of distribution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-185420.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Volume of distribution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The volume of distribution is the key factor that determines the loading dose of a drug, especially in intravenous administration where bioavailability is 100%</li><li>➤ volume of distribution</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man wears female heels and a female dress to get sexual arousal. He is not interested in males. What is the diagnosis ? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transvestic Fetishism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gender Dysphoria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Homosexuality", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Voyeurism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transvestic Fetishism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Transvestic Fetishism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transvestic Fetishism is characterized by cross-dressing for sexual arousal without any associated desire to change one’s gender or sexual orientation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A traveler consumed oysters. He later presented with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. The organism seen on microscopy exhibited Kanagawa phenomenon. The likely causative organism is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Salmonella typhi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vibrio parahaemolyticus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vibrio cholera", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vibrio parahaemolyticus is the likely cause of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea following the consumption of oysters, and it exhibits the Kanagawa phenomenon on microscopy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman in her reproductive age presented with a foul-smelling discharge, burning sensation, and lower abdominal pain. She also experiences dysuria. Pap smear is shown below. The organism responsible is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HSV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trichomonas", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Trichomonas", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-133546.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Trichomonas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trichomonas vaginalis infection is characterized by a foul-smelling discharge, burning sensation, and the presence of pear-shaped trophozoites on a Pap smear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drug used in ADHD is a Selective Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reboxetine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Modafinil", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Methylphenidate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guanfacine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Reboxetine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Reboxetine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reboxetine is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (NRI) that can be used off-label for ADHD, distinct from other ADHD medications that target both norepinephrine and dopamine or act on other neurotransmitter systems.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What instrument is used to insert this tube? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nephroscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cysto-Urethroscope", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ureteroscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "USG guided", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cysto-Urethroscope", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115640.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cysto-Urethroscope</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The insertion of a double J stent in the ureter is performed using a cysto-urethroscope, which allows for direct visualization of the bladder and ureteric orifices, enabling accurate stent placement.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A study was undertaken to evaluate the effect of Dietary modification on Serum cholesterol. A group of 100 people were chosen. Their mean cholesterol levels were measured before and after dietary modification. Which statistical test should be applied to test significance? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Odds Ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chi-square test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paired student’s t-test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "McNemar test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Paired student’s t-test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Paired student’s t-test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The paired student’s t-test is the appropriate statistical test for comparing means of paired quantitative data collected from the same group before and after an intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male child presents with failure to pass meconium and has been diagnosed with megacolon. Which of the following layers is affected by the absence of neurons? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 and 3", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-132838.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hirschsprung disease is characterized by the absence of the submucosal (Meissner's) and myenteric (Auerbach's) plexuses in the submucosa and muscularis propria, leading to functional obstruction and megacolon due to failure of neural crest cell migration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which tongue papillae do not have taste buds? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Filiform", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Foliate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fungiform Papilla", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Circumvallate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Filiform", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Filiform</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The filiform papillae do not contain taste buds and are primarily involved in general sensations like touch and texture, not in the sensation of taste</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neonate was brought with complaints of poor feeding, vomiting, acidosis, and cataract. Urine Benedict’s test was positive, while urine glucose was negative. The enzyme defective in this case is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fructokinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sucrase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lactase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classical galactosemia is caused by a deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase, leading to the accumulation of galactose and its metabolites, resulting in serious clinical symptoms including cataracts and liver damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient from a military background presented with rash, fever, and altered sensorium. There is also a deficiency of the membrane attacking complex. The likely cause can be: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klebsiella pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria meningitides", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hemophilus influenzae", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neisseria meningitides", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Neisseria meningitidis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with deficiencies in the membrane attack complex (C5-C9) of the complement system are particularly susceptible to infections caused by Neisseria species, such as Neisseria meningitidis, which can lead to severe conditions like meningococcemia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is correct regarding the treatment of a patient who presented with the following as shown in the image? Earlier the abdominal mass was reducible, but now it has become irreducible. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Umbilical excision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Umbilical excision with herniorrhaphy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incision and drainage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Umbilical excision with herniorrhaphy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115719.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Umbilical excision with herniorrhaphy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In cases of complicated umbilical hernias, especially when the hernia becomes irreducible, surgical intervention with umbilical excision and herniorrhaphy is necessary to repair the hernia and prevent further complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman suffered from sunburn after enjoying a vacation on a beach. Now while taking a shower lukewarm water (40 degree celsiuis) touches her back causing her to feel pain. What type of receptors are activated by lukewarm water and what causes her to feel pain? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Noxious thermal receptor - hyperalgesia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Innocuous thermal receptor – allodynia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Noxious thermal receptor - allodynia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Innocuous thermal receptor - hyperalgesia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Innocuous thermal receptor – allodynia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Innocuous thermal receptor - allodynia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Allodynia is a condition where a normally non-painful stimulus, such as lukewarm water, causes pain. This occurs due to the activation of innocuous thermal receptors in the setting of heightened skin sensitivity, such as after a sunburn.</li><li>➤ Allodynia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child was born after 8 months of the father’s death. Grandparents filed a case that the baby might not be their son’s, but DNA came positive. What is such a child called? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suppositious child", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fictitious child", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Posthumous child", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Illegitimate child", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Posthumous child", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Posthumous child</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A posthumous child is one born after the death of a parent, as seen in this scenario where the child was born 8 months after the father's death.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "To study the effect of Vitamin C consumption on the occurrence of Respiratory disease, arrange the steps of a case-control study in sequence. (NEET PG 2024) 1 – Measurement of exposure. 2 – Matching. 3 – Analysis and interpretation. 4 – Selection of cases and controls.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2-1-4-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2-4-1-3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4-2-1-3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4-1-2-3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4-2-1-3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 4-2-1-3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of steps in a case-control study is: Selection of cases and controls, matching, measurement of exposure, and then analysis and interpretation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Fecal discharge from umbilicus occurs in: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastroschisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urachal fistula", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ileal diverticulum", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ileal diverticulum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111925.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111907.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ileal diverticulum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meckel's diverticulum, due to its persistence of the vitelline duct, can lead to fecal discharge from the umbilicus, particularly when a fistula is present.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old male patient presented with a headache and altered sensorium. MRI was performed, which revealed multiple ring-enhancing lesions. What will be the next step to confirm the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MR spectroscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CBNAAT of CSF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biopsy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Susceptibility weighted imaging (SWI)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MR spectroscopy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164344.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) MR spectroscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of multiple ring-enhancing lesions in the basal brain region on MRI suggests tuberculomas, and MR spectroscopy is the preferred next step to confirm the diagnosis by detecting a lipid-lactate peak.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female comes to the OPD with complaints of “feeling tensed” and having “stomach upset” symptoms, including heartburn and diarrhea. She states that she has been having these symptoms since she was 25 years old and that her family members are also usually tense and “nervous.” Which of the following symptoms are also likely to be present in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tingling of extremities", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ideas of Reference", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hallucinations", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neologisms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tingling of extremities", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tingling of extremities</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) may experience somatic symptoms like tingling of extremities due to heightened anxiety and nervous system activity.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Option B. Ideas of Reference:</li><li>↳ Option C. Hallucinations: Hallucinations involve sensory perceptions without external stimuli and are common in psychotic disorders, such as schizophrenia, but not in anxiety disorders.</li><li>↳ Option C. Hallucinations:</li><li>↳ Option D. Neologisms: Neologisms are newly coined words or phrases that have meaning only to the person using them and are commonly seen in formal thought disorders like schizophrenia. This is not a symptom seen in GAD.</li><li>↳ Option D. Neologisms:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Police brought a person from the railway track with features of dry mouth, dilated pupil, dry skin, slurring of speech, and delirium. What could be the possible diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Morphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alcohol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dhatura", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dhatura", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Dhatura</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dhatura poisoning exhibits an anticholinergic toxidrome characterized by dry mouth, dry skin, dilated pupils, and altered mental status, distinguishing it from other toxidromes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If a woman is undergoing MTP after 24 weeks of gestation due to congenital anomaly in the fetus , whose presence is not required for authorization? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Obstetrician", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lawyer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pediatrician", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sonologist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lawyer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lawyer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In MTP after 24 weeks for congenital anomalies, the medical board's authorization is required and comprises a gynecologist, pediatrician, and sonologist. A lawyer’s presence is not required for this authorization process.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Covering of the omphalocele is derived from: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endoderm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mesoderm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chorion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amnion", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Amnion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111954.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Amnion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The outer covering of an omphalocele is derived from the amnion, with the peritoneum lining the inner surface and Wharton’s jelly situated between the</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While preparing a slide for histopathological examination (HPE), a box-like gross appearance is seen in the scanner view. In which of the following conditions is this seen? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lichen nitidus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lichen planopilaris", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Morphea", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lichen amyloidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Morphea", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-123026.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-123040.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-123050.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-123102.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-123121.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Morphea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Morphea, a localized form of scleroderma, is identified by a box-like or squared-off appearance on histopathological slides due to marked collagen sclerosis in the dermis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old patient presents with cough and shortness of breath. Subsequent evaluation revealed a diagnosis of COPD, and a chest radiograph was obtained, which showed panacinar emphysema. Which enzyme deficiency is associated with this condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha-1 antitrypsin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Elastase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chymotrypsin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surfactant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency should be suspected in younger patients presenting with emphysema, especially when they have never smoked, have a family history, or present with panacinar emphysema predominantly affecting the lower lobes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Examination of suspicious stain shows the image below. Which test is this? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Barberio", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Florence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Teichmann", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Takayama", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Barberio", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/screenshot-2024-10-05-151210.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Barberio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Barberio test is identified by the presence of yellow needle-shaped crystals and is used for detecting spermine and spermidine in semen stains</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old male presented with colicky pain. Following type of crystals were found on urine examination. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ADPKD", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium oxalate stones", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cystinuria", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cystinuria", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-174323.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hexagonal cystine crystals in urine are characteristic of cystinuria, a genetic disorder affecting the renal absorption of certain amino acids, leading to recurrent cystine stone formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the child whose growth is compromised: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Line A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Line B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Line C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both B and C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Line C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-181243.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Line C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pediatric health assessments, growth charts are critical tools. They help healthcare providers monitor a child's growth over time, comparing their progress against standardized percentile curves. A trajectory like \"C\", which falls below the 3rd percentile, warrants further investigation to determine the cause of the poor growth and to initiate appropriate interventions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old lady presents with sudden severe headache. CT is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SAH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "SDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumocephalus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. SAH", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164327.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) SAH (Subarachnoid Hemorrhage)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SAH presents with sudden, severe headache and is identified on CT by hyperdensity in the CSF cisterns. The most common cause is aneurysmal rupture, best evaluated using CT angiography.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a lower limb wound as shown. The wound had healthy granulation tissue. What will be used as a cover? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Split thickness skin graft", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Full thickness skin graft", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "VAC dressing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Split thickness skin graft", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115750.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Split thickness skin graft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Split thickness skin grafts are the best choice for covering large, healthy granulating wounds, particularly in areas where cosmesis is not the primary concern.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-month-old baby with intracranial diffuse calcifications, chorioretinitis, and hydrocephalus. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Toxoplasmosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "CMV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zika virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Toxoplasmosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-180323.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-180336.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Toxoplasmosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key fact to memorize is that the triad of intracranial diffuse calcifications, chorioretinitis, and hydrocephalus is indicative of congenital toxoplasmosis.</li><li>➤ Remember:</li><li>➤ Remember:</li><li>➤ Periventricular calcification – Congenital CMV infection Intracranial diffuse calcification - Congenital toxoplasmosis Gray matter-white matter (GMWM) Calcification – Congenital Zika virus</li><li>➤ Periventricular calcification – Congenital CMV infection</li><li>➤ Intracranial diffuse calcification - Congenital toxoplasmosis</li><li>➤ Gray matter-white matter (GMWM) Calcification – Congenital Zika virus</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person who chronically consumes alcohol and indulged in binge drinking ten days’ back was brought to the hospital. At the presentation, he was unconscious. His Non-Contrast CT scan was normal. His blood glucose came out to be 49 mg/dL. What treatment should be initiated? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I.m thiamine followed by dextrose", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Normal Saline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5% dextrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20% dextrose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. I.m thiamine followed by dextrose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) I.m thiamine followed by dextrose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with alcohol dependence presenting with hypoglycemia, always administer thiamine before dextrose to prevent the precipitation of Wernicke's encephalopathy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the implant shown in the image used for treatment of proximal femoral fracture. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dynamic hip screw", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dynamic condylar plate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dynamic trochanteric plate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Limited contact condylar plate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dynamic hip screw", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180031.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180053.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-180109.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dynamic hip screw</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Dynamic Hip Screw (DHS) is a two-part implant, featuring a screw and a plate, and is used to treat intertrochanteric fractures of the proximal femur.</li><li>➤ Dynamic Hip Screw (DHS)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On Head impulse test, for a Left vestibular neuritis patient, Saccade will be in which direction? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Left on left head rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Left on right head rotation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Right on left head rotation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right on right head rotation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Right on left head rotation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-125010.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-125106.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-110703.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-120754.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Right on left head rotation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In left vestibular neuritis, head impulse tests reveal saccades towards the right when the head is rotated to the left due to the hypoactive left vestibular system.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with hypertension and CKD presented with generalized tiredness. ECG is taken and shown. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperkalemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypokalemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyponatremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hypocalcemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hyperkalemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-125048.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hyperkalemia is characterized by tall T waves, wide QRS complexes, and absence of P waves on an ECG, indicative of conduction blocks and atrial paralysis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 43-year-old male presented with right-sided rib pain and shortness of breath. A chest X-ray showed a significant right-sided pneumothorax with cardio-mediastinal shift to the left. Which of the following changes will be seen? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased lung volume, Increased thoracic volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decreased lung volume, Increased thoracic volume", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decreased lung volume, thoracic volume remains unaffected", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung volume remains unaffected, Decreased thoracic volume", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decreased lung volume, Increased thoracic volume", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a pneumothorax, the affected lung collapses leading to decreased lung volume, while the thoracic volume increases due to the loss of negative pleural pressure and the expansion of the thoracic cavity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young female patient complains of low back pain radiating to the right hip, back of the thigh, leg, and ankle after an intense workout of lifting some heavy weights. MRI shows the following finding. Which nerve root is most likely to be involved here? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "S1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "L3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "L4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L5", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. L5", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182103.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) L5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In an L4-L5 disc prolapse , the L5 nerve root is most commonly compressed, causing pain radiating down the back of the thigh and into the leg and ankle.</li><li>➤ L4-L5 disc prolapse</li><li>➤ L5 nerve root</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with the following deformity and history of recurrent tooth abscess. On lab investigation, his serum calcium was normal, serum phosphorus was normal/reduced, serum PTH was normal, and ALP was increased. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypophosphatemic rickets", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nutritional rickets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "VDDR 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VDDR 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypophosphatemic rickets", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182028.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182048.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hypophosphatemic rickets</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypophosphatemic rickets is characterized by normal PTH levels, normal/reduced phosphorus levels, and increased alkaline phosphatase (ALP). If PTH is normal in a case of suspected rickets, hypophosphatemic rickets should be strongly considered.</li><li>➤ Hypophosphatemic rickets is characterized by normal PTH levels, normal/reduced phosphorus levels, and increased alkaline phosphatase (ALP).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sequence of Rigor Mortis is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Centre to periphery.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Head to foot.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foot to head.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Periphery to centre.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Head to foot.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Head to foot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rigor mortis follows a sequence known as Nysten's Rule, developing and passing from head to foot, starting with the upper body and ending with the lower extremities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has mental retardation, seizures, thrombotic state, amino acid metabolism disorder, osteoporosis, and ectopia lentis. Which vitamin must be supplemented to the patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin B6", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin B6", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Homocystinuria is characterized by ectopia lentis, thrombotic state, mental retardation, and seizures, among other features. Vitamin B6 supplementation is essential in managing this condition by aiding the function of the deficient enzyme cystathionine beta-synthase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with hypertension. He has a history of renal stones and has experienced a few episodes of renal colic. Which diuretic is the most appropriate to use? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hydrochlorothiazide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethacrynic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hydrochlorothiazide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hydrochlorothiazide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hydrochlorothiazide is the preferred diuretic in patients with a history of renal stones because it reduces urinary calcium excretion, thereby decreasing the risk of stone formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sour taste is mediated by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "TRPV1 Channel", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Metabotropic Receptor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "GPCR T1R1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GPCR T1R3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. TRPV1 Channel", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-164708_ph9q8pj.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-165350.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) TRPV1 Channel</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sour taste is mediated by the activation of ion channels, particularly the TRPV1 channel and acid-sensitive ion channels, in response to H+ ions from acidic substances</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Desert rheumatism is caused by: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coccidioides immitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paracoccidioidomycosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Coccidioides immitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Coccidioides immitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Desert rheumatism (Valley fever or California fever) is caused by the fungus Coccidioides immitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "After a right limb amputation, the patient is experiencing severe pain (phantom limb). What is the mechanism behind this? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Projection of adjacent fibers to overlap to right sensory cortex", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Projection of adjacent fibers to overlap to left sensory cortex", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expansion of right sensory cortex", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Expansion of left sensory cortex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Projection of adjacent fibers to overlap to left sensory cortex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Projection of adjacent fibers to overlap to left sensory cortex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cortical plasticity allows adjacent cortical areas to project into regions that have lost their original sensory input, such as after limb amputation. This often leads to phantom limb pain, where the sensation of the missing limb is still perceived.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person reported to OPD alongside his 32-year-old brother working in a factory. The brother was recently subjected to a test – Coproporphyrin in urine. The physician should suspect: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead poisoning", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lead poisoning", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coproporphyrin in urine is an important screening test for lead poisoning, indicating exposure to lead, and should be followed by diagnostic tests to assess absorption.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male patient presented to OPD with fever and neurological complications. He was having respiratory difficulty during the examination. Identify the disease transmitted through the life cycle shown in the image. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zika virus disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Yellow fever disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nipah virus disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nipah virus disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-174506.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nipah virus disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nipah virus is transmitted through contact with Pteropus bats, contaminated food, or animals that have been exposed to the virus. It causes severe respiratory and neurological symptoms with a high fatality rate and no available vaccine.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which disease is represented by the submerged portion of the iceberg in the iceberg model? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Influenza", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Influenza", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-173317.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Influenza</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The iceberg phenomenon describes diseases with a significant proportion of hidden, asymptomatic, or subclinical cases, such as influenza, which contribute to disease transmission.</li><li>➤ Remember – No carriers – No iceberg Phenomena – Measles, Rubella, Rabies, Tetanus and + Pertussis</li><li>➤ Remember – No carriers – No iceberg Phenomena – Measles, Rubella, Rabies, Tetanus and + Pertussis</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly patient underwent investigations which revealed Hb 9 g/dL, TLC 50,000/mm³, ↑PT, ↑aPTT, low platelet count, and increased D-dimers. Which of the following is the likely gene affected in the patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BCR-ABL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NPM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PML-RARA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inv 16", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. PML-RARA", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf14.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) PML- RARA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ APL (acute promyelocytic leukemia) is characterized by the PML-RARA fusion gene and is highly associated with DIC, which can be identified by a combination of bleeding tendencies and abnormal coagulation profiles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is represented in the below figure by drug X? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epsilon Amino Caproic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clopidogrel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tenecteplase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspirin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epsilon Amino Caproic acid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/16/screenshot-2024-09-16-181944.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Epsilon Amino Caproic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid (EACA) is an anti-fibrinolytic drug that inhibits the activation of plasminogen, thereby preventing the breakdown of fibrin and stabilizing blood clots.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old female presented with dyspnea and chest pain. Which of the following proves that she has aortic stenosis rather than aortic regurgitation? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in myocardial oxygen consumption is seen with increased pressure work than volume", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic stenosis causes reduced pressure at the aortic valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Workload has nothing to do with myocardial oxygen consumption", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increased pressure - Increase in preload more than afterload", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Increase in myocardial oxygen consumption is seen with increased pressure work than volume", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aortic stenosis is characterized by increased pressure work (afterload) leading to higher myocardial oxygen consumption, distinguishing it from aortic regurgitation, which is associated with volume overload (preload).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A diabetic patient was advised exercise by the treating physician. The glucose transporter which is insulin sensitive is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glut 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glut 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glut 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glut 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Glut 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Glut 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Glut 4 is the only glucose transporter that is insulin-sensitive, primarily found in adipose tissue, skeletal muscle, and cardiac muscle, where it facilitates glucose uptake in response to insulin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had a cataract surgery 3 years back, now complains of decrease in vision and presented with the following slit lamp image. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior capsular opacification", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pseudophakic Bullous Keratopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corneal dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior Subcapsular Cataract", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Posterior capsular opacification", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-115403.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-115419.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120153.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120204.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Posterior capsular opacification is a common complication after cataract surgery, presenting with gradual vision loss without pain. It is treated with ND laser capsulotomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A skin rash gets exaggerated on sun exposure is repaired by which mechanism? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Base excision repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Double-stranded DNA break repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mismatch repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nucleotide excision repair", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nucleotide excision repair", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-170306.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Nucleotide excision repair</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nucleotide excision repair is the primary DNA repair mechanism that corrects damage caused by UV light, such as thymidine dimers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with tingling and numbness in the legs, polyuria, and weight loss. He underwent a bone marrow aspirate (image as shown). Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SACD due to diabetes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SACD with B12 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple myeloma with renal involvement", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metastasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Multiple myeloma with renal involvement", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf13.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multiple myeloma is identified by an increase in clonal plasma cells in the bone marrow, accompanied by systemic symptoms such as renal involvement, neuropathy, and weight loss.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is an indication for giving adjuvant radiotherapy in oral malignancy after resection and MRND? (An image of the flap reconstruction was shown). (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extranodal extension", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple lymph node metastases", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "T3 tumor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Close margin (1.5-2 mm)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extranodal extension", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115622.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Extranodal extension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Extranodal extension is a key indication for adjuvant radiotherapy in oral malignancy after surgical resection and MRND due to its significant impact on prognosis and risk of recurrence.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the presence of tracheal deviation as indicated on a chest X-ray, which procedure is the most difficult to perform? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tracheostomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Laryngeal airway", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endotracheal intubation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cricothyroidotomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tracheostomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-124800.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tracheostomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tracheostomy can be more challenging in cases of tracheal deviation due to the altered position of the trachea, making the precise location for incision difficult to identify.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is contraindicated in Iron overdose? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BAL", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Desferrioxamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "EDTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. BAL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) BAL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BAL is contraindicated in iron overdose due to its potential to form harmful complexes, making Desferrioxamine the preferred treatment in such cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 12-year-old child presented with cervical lymphadenopathy. A biopsy is obtained and it is as shown below. Flow cytometry showed the following findings: Tdt – negative, CD5/CD23 – negative, CD10/CD19/CD20, and SIg are positive. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burkitt’s lymphoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "DLBCL (Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ALCL (Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ALL (Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Burkitt’s lymphoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-125456.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Burkitt’s lymphoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Burkitt’s lymphoma should be considered in young patients presenting with cervical lymphadenopathy and specific flow cytometry findings including negative Tdt and positive CD10, CD19, CD20, and SIg.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which visual field defect is shown in the image below? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Altitudinal field defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enlarged blind spots", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arcuate field defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Roennes nasal step", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Enlarged blind spots", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-113915.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-113930.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-113949.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114434.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114447.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The enlarged blind spots on visual field testing are indicative of conditions like papilledema , where optic disc swelling leads to an increased physiological blind spot</li><li>➤ enlarged blind spots on visual field testing are indicative of conditions like papilledema</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old woman in her second pregnancy is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) at 30 weeks gestation. What is the drug of choice for her treatment? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fondaparinux", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Apixaban", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In pregnancy, the drug of choice for treating DVT is Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) due to its safety and ease of monitoring compared to other anticoagulants</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient presents with progressive muscle weakness, particularly affecting the eyes and throat, leading to difficulty with swallowing and drooping eyelids. Imaging studies reveal a mediastinal mass. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thymoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "PTH adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Teratoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thymoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/picture1_rszgiyZ.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Thymoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thymoma is the most common anterior mediastinal mass associated with myasthenia gravis, presenting with symptoms like progressive muscle weakness, difficulty swallowing, and drooping eyelids.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In Demographic cycle, B curve represents: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Birth rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Death rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Growth rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Total population", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Death rate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-173234.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Death rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The B curve in the demographic cycle represents the death rate, which declines significantly from stage 2 due to improved healthcare and stabilizes in later stages.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old patient presented with shortness of breath, and further evaluation revealed a right pleural effusion. Upon analysis, pleural fluid showed LDH that is 0.7 times the serum LDH and protein that is 0.6 times the serum protein. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heart failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatic failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Renal failure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The pleural fluid values provided are consistent with an exudative effusion based on Light’s criteria:</li><li>• Light’s Criteria for Exudative Effusion (any one of the following): Pleural fluid protein / serum protein ratio &gt; 0.5 Pleural fluid LDH / serum LDH ratio &gt; 0.6 Pleural fluid LDH &gt; 2/3 the upper limit of normal serum LDH This case satisfies both the first and second criteria: Protein ratio = 0.6 &gt; 0.5 LDH ratio = 0.7 &gt; 0.6</li><li>• Light’s Criteria for Exudative Effusion (any one of the following):</li><li>• Pleural fluid protein / serum protein ratio &gt; 0.5</li><li>• Pleural fluid LDH / serum LDH ratio &gt; 0.6</li><li>• Pleural fluid LDH &gt; 2/3 the upper limit of normal serum LDH</li><li>• This case satisfies both the first and second criteria:</li><li>• Protein ratio = 0.6 &gt; 0.5</li><li>• LDH ratio = 0.7 &gt; 0.6</li><li>• Therefore, it is an exudative effusion.</li><li>• Tuberculosis is a common cause of exudative pleural effusion, especially in endemic areas like India. The effusion is typically lymphocyte predominant and due to pleural inflammation and increased capillary permeability.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Heart failure: Commonly causes transudative effusion due to increased hydrostatic pressure.</li><li>• Option B. Heart failure:</li><li>• Option C. Hepatic failure: Usually results in transudative effusion, especially in cirrhosis (hepatic hydrothorax), due to low oncotic pressure.</li><li>• Option C. Hepatic failure:</li><li>• Option D. Renal failure: Leads to transudative effusion due to fluid overload or low albumin.</li><li>• Option D. Renal failure:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tuberculosis causes exudative pleural effusions due to pleural inflammation. In contrast, heart failure, hepatic failure, and renal failure typically cause transudative effusions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A G2 with a previous LSCS underwent cesarean delivery. During surgery, there was excessive bleeding, and a hysterectomy had to be done. The image of the uterus is shown. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Placenta accrete syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abruptio placentae", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rupture uterus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Placenta accrete syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-11-111039.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Placenta accrete syndrome involves abnormal placental adherence to the uterine wall, often leading to severe bleeding during delivery and requiring obstetric hysterectomy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Components of Disaster cycle that can be included in the recovery phase are: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Impact – Response – Rehabilitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Response – Rehabilitation – Reconstruction", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Response – Rehabilitation – Mitigation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rehabilitation – Reconstruction – Mitigation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Response – Rehabilitation – Reconstruction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/untitled-133333333.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Response – Rehabilitation – Reconstruction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recovery phase of the disaster cycle includes the components of Response, Rehabilitation, and Reconstruction, which are essential for restoring the community post-disaster.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the stage of the pressure sore: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115817.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stage 4 pressure sores are the most advanced, involving full-thickness tissue loss with visible bone, muscle, or tendon. Early identification and treatment of pressure sores can prevent progression to this severe stage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother brought her 2-year-old child to the OPD with complaints of lack of weight gain, abdominal pain on eating, and poor eating habits. The child was advised to follow a gluten-free diet, after which there was an improvement in the general condition and weight gain. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Celiac disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tropical sprue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abetalipoproteinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Whipple disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Celiac disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Celiac disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Celiac disease should be suspected in patients with symptoms of gastrointestinal distress, poor weight gain, and improvement upon adopting a gluten-free diet.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old woman with eclampsia is on a maintenance dose of MgSO₄. When will you stop MgSO₄? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Knee jerk presen", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RR 18/min", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Visual disturbance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine output 60ml in 4hr", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Urine output 60ml in 4hr", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Urine output 60ml in 4hr</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MgSO₄ should be stopped if the patient’s urine output is less than 30 ml per hour (or 60 ml in 4 hours), as this indicates poor excretion and risk of magnesium toxicity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient can see 3 green dots on the Worth’s 4 dots test. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crossed diplopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uncrossed diplopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RE suppression", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "LE suppression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. RE suppression", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114601.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114619.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114636.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114653.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Seeing three green dots on the Worth 4-dot test indicates right eye suppression (RE suppression), as the right eye is not seeing the red dot.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-month-old baby presents with an olive-shaped mass and recurrent vomiting. An ultrasound (USG) was performed, as shown below. What is your diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CHPS (Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intussusception", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meckel’s Diverticulum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. CHPS (Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-180412.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) CHPS (Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CHPS should be suspected in infants presenting with non-bilious projectile vomiting, an olive-shaped abdominal mass, and confirmed with ultrasound showing pyloric muscle thickening and elongation (typically 4 mm thickness and 16 mm length)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A study was undertaken to estimate the effect of a drug ‘D’ in three different groups – Plants, Animals, and Human beings. Samples were chosen randomly out of the three groups individually. This is a type of? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Simple random sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systematic random sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stratified random sampling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cluster random sampling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Stratified random sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Stratified random sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Stratified random sampling involves dividing a heterogeneous population into homogeneous subgroups and then conducting random sampling within each subgroup.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old G5L4 with all 4-girl children presents at 18 weeks and asks for the sex of the child on ultrasound. This is her first antenatal visit. What should be done? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Do ultrasound for gestational age, check for abnormalities, check sex, and tell the mother.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Do ultrasound for gestational age, check for abnormalities, check sex but don’t tell the mother.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Do ultrasound for gestational age, check for abnormalities, don’t check the sex.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Don’t do ultrasound, do ANC only.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Do ultrasound for gestational age, check for abnormalities, don’t check the sex.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Do ultrasound for gestational age, check for abnormalities, don’t check the sex.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key point to remember is that checking or revealing the sex of the fetus during an ultrasound is illegal under the PCPNDT Act. The ultrasound should only be used for assessing fetal gestational age and abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male present with grouped painful vesicular lesions in the genital area. History of multiple sexual partners present. Irregular use of condoms history present. Smear showed MNGCs. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Herpes zoster", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herpes genitalis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Warts", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chancroid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Herpes genitalis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-104909.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpes genitalis should be considered when a patient presents with grouped painful vesicular lesions in the genital area, especially when there is a history of risky sexual behavior and multinucleated giant cells are observed on a smear.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is incorrect about iron transport? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron is converted from ferrous to ferric form before absorption through apical membrane.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Apoferritin is the storage form.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron is transported via transferrin in the blood.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ascorbic acid helps in iron reabsorption.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iron is converted from ferrous to ferric form before absorption through apical membrane.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iron is converted from ferrous to ferric form before absorption through apical membrane.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron must be converted from ferric (Fe3+) to ferrous (Fe2+) form for effective absorption through the apical membrane of enterocytes</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has multiple tendon xanthomas. Serum cholesterol (398 mg/dL) and LDL 220 mg/dL were found to be raised. What is the defect? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lipoprotein lipase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "LDL receptors defect", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Apo E defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LCAT deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. LDL receptors defect", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) LDL receptors defect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LDL receptor defects cause familial hypercholesterolemia, characterized by elevated LDL, cholesterol levels, and tendon xanthomas.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the likely diagnosis in a patient with the image of chromosome 15 represented here? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prader-Willi syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Angelman syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "VHL syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Edward syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prader-Willi syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf10.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf11.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion on the paternal chromosome 15q11-q13 or by maternal uniparental disomy, and is characterized by obesity due to hyperphagia, intellectual disability, and specific behavioral traits.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the below question mechanical receptors are given with their functions. Choose the correctly matched pair.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pacinian Corpuscle - Fast Vibration", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ruffini - Fine touch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meissner – Stretch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Merkel - Slow Vibration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pacinian Corpuscle - Fast Vibration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pacinian corpuscle - Fast Vibration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pacinian corpuscles are responsible for detecting fast vibrations, and Ruffini endings detect skin stretch.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman whose last delivery was 5 years back presents with secondary amenorrhea of 2 years. She does not bleed on giving estrogen and progesterone. A laparoscopy shows the following. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fibroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sarcoidosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Genital TB", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Genital TB", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121347.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Genital TB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Genital tuberculosis can cause chronic endometritis and endometrial destruction, leading to secondary amenorrhea and absence of withdrawal bleeding on hormone administration, with characteristic whitish caseating lesions visible on laparoscopy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Calculate the median from the given set of observations: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 4, 8. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4.5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4,5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4.5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For an even number of observations, the median is the average of the two middle values when the data set is arranged in ascending order.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "18-year-old female presented with high fever and pain in knee and ankle joints. On examination, the patient had a pan-systolic murmur at the apex. Rheumatoid factor is negative. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute Rheumatic Fever", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seronegative RA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Septic arthritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acute Rheumatic Fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute rheumatic fever is diagnosed when a young patient presents with fever, migratory arthritis, and carditis, often leading to mitral valve involvement, characterized by a murmur indicative of mitral regurgitation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female singer with hoarseness of voice, unable to sing higher frequency notes. Bowed and depressed unilateral vocal cord is seen. Which muscle is involved? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Posterior cricoarytenoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroarytenoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cricothyroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Interarytenoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cricothyroid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-110048.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-110030.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cricothyroid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cricothyroid muscle is essential for producing high-frequency notes by tensing the vocal cords. Paralysis of the cricothyroid muscle leads to the inability to produce these higher notes due to a lack of tension in the vocal cords.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these is used for immediate reversal of Vecuronium in a patient for normal kidney function? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sugammadex", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Physostigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rivastigmine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Succinylcholine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sugammadex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)Sugammadex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sugammadex is the drug of choice for the immediate reversal of vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The given instrument is used for: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Air pollution", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Air humidity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cooling power of air", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low air velocity", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Low air velocity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-173258.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Low air velocity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Kata thermometer is primarily used today to assess low air velocity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman with a history of cervical erosion and spotting since 2 months. What is the next best step? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LBC + HPV + cervical biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pap smear + HCV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pap smear + HBV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VDRL + HBV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LBC + HPV + cervical biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) LBC + HPV + cervical biopsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient with cervical erosion and spotting, the best approach is to screen for cervical cancer with LBC, HPV testing, and a cervical biopsy if indicated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following cardioselective beta-blockers has been shown to decrease mortality in patients with congestive heart failure? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Propranolol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bisoprolol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Labetalol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pindolol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bisoprolol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Bisoprolol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bisoprolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker that has been shown to decrease mortality in patients with chronic congestive heart failure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the level of amputation: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Below Knee", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Above Knee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lis Franc", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chopart", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Below Knee", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120134.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Below Knee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a below knee amputation, both the tibia and fibula bones are visible, distinguishing it from above knee and foot-level amputations like Lis Franc and Chopart.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Image of a patient with large ulcerated breast cancer with liver metastasis. What is the management? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Simple mastectomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MRM (Modified Radical Mastectomy)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radical mastectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Simple mastectomy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-115837.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Simple mastectomy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with stage IV breast cancer with distant metastasis, such as liver metastasis, the primary focus is on palliation. Simple mastectomy may be performed to manage symptoms from a large ulcerated tumor, but more extensive surgeries or curative approaches are not indicated.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 53-year-old male patient who is a known case of COPD developed breathlessness and is on mechanical ventilation. He suddenly developed hypoxia, and on examination, he has reduced/absent breath sounds on the left hemithorax with increased peak inspiratory pressure. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute Exacerbation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary Embolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumothorax", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pneumothorax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pneumothorax should be considered in ventilated patients with sudden respiratory deterioration, absent breath sounds on one side, and increased peak inspiratory pressure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "HDI is calculated by using ? (NEET PG 2024) Life expectancy at birth Mean years of schooling Gross national product", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "All three", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. All three", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) All three</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HDI is calculated using three components: life expectancy at birth, mean years of schooling, and Gross National Income per capita. These factors represent health, education, and living standards, respectively.</li><li>➤ HDI range – 0 to +1 HDI (India) – 0.644 (Rank 134) HDI (Switzerland) – 0.96 (Rank 1)</li><li>➤ HDI range – 0 to +1</li><li>➤ HDI range – 0 to +1</li><li>➤ HDI (India) – 0.644 (Rank 134)</li><li>➤ HDI (India) – 0.644 (Rank 134)</li><li>➤ HDI (Switzerland) – 0.96 (Rank 1)</li><li>➤ HDI (Switzerland) – 0.96 (Rank 1)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with headaches, confusion, and has recently been diagnosed with a brain tumor. MRI of the brain revealed a cerebellar mass. The family history reveals occurrences of both brain and kidney tumors. Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with this clinical presentation? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurofibromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Li-Fraumeni syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberous sclerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is associated with cerebellar hemangioblastomas and renal cell carcinoma, especially in the context of familial occurrences. Recognizing the combination of brain and kidney tumors should prompt consideration of VHL.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Patient presented with a growth on the penis, which was diagnosed as a T3 cancer without lymph node metastasis. What is the management? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Penectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Penectomy with bilateral superficial inguinal dissection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Penectomy with bilateral ilio-inguinal dissection", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penectomy with orchidectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Penectomy with bilateral ilio-inguinal dissection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Penectomy with bilateral ilio-inguinal dissection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For T3 penile cancer without lymph node metastasis, the standard management is penectomy along with ilio-inguinal lymph node dissection to address both the primary tumor and potential regional spread.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with neck swelling and undergoes a tissue biopsy which reveals the cells as shown in the image. Which of the following is the likely gene affected in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RET gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "RAS gene", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BRAF gene", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "P53 gene", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. BRAF gene", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) BRAF gene</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma often presents with cells that have optically clear cytoplasm, and this type of cancer is frequently associated with BRAF gene mutations, especially in the tall cell variant which is more aggressive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child presenting with recurrent respiratory infections. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pyopneumothorax", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CPAM", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CDH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. CPAM", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164255.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) CPAM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CPAM is characterized by multiple cystic, air-filled spaces in the lung and is a congenital lesion that often presents with recurrent respiratory infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What would be the mode of delivery in images 1 and 2? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both caesarean", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both vaginal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Image 1: Vaginal; image 2: Cesarean", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Image 1: Cesarean; image 2: Vaginal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Image 1: Vaginal; image 2: Cesarean", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121428.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Image 1: Vaginal; image 2: Cesarean</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In twin pregnancies, the mode of delivery is determined primarily by the presentation of the first twin. If the first twin is cephalic, vaginal delivery can be considered, but if the first twin is non-cephalic (e.g., breech), a cesarean section is generally recommended.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Giving TPN (total para-enteral nutrition) in a patient in ICU with metabolic syndrome predisposes to: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperglycemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reactive Hypoglycemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyperlipidemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperuricemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hyperglycemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hyperglycemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients with metabolic syndrome, TPN can exacerbate hyperglycemia due to pre-existing insulin resistance. This underscores the need for careful monitoring of blood glucose levels and management of insulin requirements in these patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the structures in the given image. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A – Apocrine sweat gland, B – Arrector pilorum, C – Eccrine sweat gland, D – Sebaceous gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A – Arrector pilorum, B – Apocrine sweat gland, C – Eccrine sweat gland, D – Sebaceous gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A – Sebaceous gland, B – Eccrine sweat gland, C – Arrector pilorum, D – Apocrine sweat gland", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A – Eccrine sweat gland, B – Arrector pilorum, C – Sebaceous gland, D – Apocrine sweat gland", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. A – Eccrine sweat gland, B – Arrector pilorum, C – Sebaceous gland, D – Apocrine sweat gland", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-112149.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eccrine sweat glands are located closer to the skin surface, arrector pilorum is a small muscle connected to hair follicles, sebaceous glands produce sebum and are linked to hair follicles, while apocrine sweat glands are deeper and secrete a thicker fluid associated with hair follicles.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother delivers a 2.5 kg baby with normal vaginal delivery in a rural area. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exclusive breastfeeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bath the baby with warm water immediately", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clean the eyes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Skin to skin contact", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bath the baby with warm water immediately", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bathing a newborn immediately after birth is not recommended; it should be delayed until the umbilical cord falls off, and gentle sponging should be started after 24 hours to maintain hygiene and prevent hypothermia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the part of the cochlear implant marked? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Grounding electrode", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amplifier", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Receiver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Electrode array", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Grounding electrode", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-122710.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-122710.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-123748.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Grounding electrode</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The grounding electrode or reference electrode in a cochlear implant is implanted in the temporalis area and is crucial for accurate signal transmission by providing a reference point for electrical signals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 21-year-old patient presented with weakness and fatigue. His BP was 80/60 mm Hg and his reports showed a serum Na+ of 127 mEq/L and serum K+ of 5.2 mEq/L. On examination, the patient had hyperpigmentation in the knuckles, arms, and legs. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conns syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primary adrenal insufficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "B12 deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "SIADH", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Primary adrenal insufficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Primary adrenal insufficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) presents with hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hyperpigmentation due to low cortisol and aldosterone levels.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the best test to diagnose Wilson’s disease? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine copper", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum ceruloplasmin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum copper", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatic copper estimation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hepatic copper estimation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-124011.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hepatic copper estimation via liver biopsy is the gold standard test for diagnosing Wilson’s disease, providing a direct measure of copper accumulation in the liver.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Injury to which nerve results in absent gag reflex? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "VII &amp; X", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IX &amp; X", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "V &amp; IX", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "VII &amp; IX", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IX & X", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-110046.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-110131.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IX &amp; X</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The gag reflex involves the Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) for sensory input and the Vagus nerve (CN X) for motor response. Damage to either nerve can result in an absent gag reflex.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the blocked structure. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maxillary sinus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ethmoid sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Frontal sinus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sphenoid sinus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Maxillary sinus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/666.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://encrypted-tbn0.gstatic.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcTrTtmdtmXIAGBQ4F4B_YOuC9_QPCrnY8JW5A&s", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_6ZIUU9u.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_4Xv7Oc7.jpeg", "https://encrypted-tbn0.gstatic.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcSGsPFShrgGcudnV7Mdxxo2JNWIc-vAU0MhLQ&s", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_vusxeEf.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_jl9evje.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_hvFJqI9.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_bbVrxHR.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The maxillary sinus can be blocked by an antrochoanal polyp that extends into the nasal cavity through the middle meatus.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 20-year-old sexual assault victim was examined in court \"in camera.\" What does it imply? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Open proceeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Closed proceeding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Recorded in camera", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proceedings in another place", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Closed proceeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Closed proceeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ \"In camera\" refers to a closed proceeding in court where only selected individuals are allowed to be present, ensuring the privacy of sensitive cases such as those involving sexual assault.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Preferable time for IUCD insertion in a 28-year-old woman who has just delivered a healthy newborn. It was a normal vaginal delivery. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Up to 48 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Up to 72 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Up to 6 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Up to 12 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Up to 48 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Up to 48 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most preferable time for IUCD insertion after a normal vaginal delivery is within the first 48 hours postpartum to take advantage of the naturally dilated cervix and minimize expulsion risk</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old patient presents with a history of recurrent sinusitis, bronchiectasis, and chronic cough. He also mentions that he has had several ear infections and episodes of pneumonia over the past few years. On physical examination, you note digital clubbing. A chest X-ray is obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kartagener syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "DiGeorge syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Down syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kartagener syndrome", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-130058.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Kartagener syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kartagener syndrome is characterized by the triad of situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anencephaly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cystic hygroma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Encephalocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dandy Walker malformation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anencephaly", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164209.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anencephaly is diagnosed by the absence of cranial bones and brain tissue on ultrasound, often accompanied by the \"frog eye sign.\"</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with gradual loss of night vision and peripheral vision. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms according to the given fundoscopic image? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Retinitis Pigmentosa", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fundus flavimaculatus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinal Hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fundus Albipunctatus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Retinitis Pigmentosa", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114512.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114524.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114535.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-114548.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Retinitis Pigmentosa</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Retinitis Pigmentosa is identified by a triad of symptoms: black pigmentary deposits, vascular attenuation, and waxy pallor of the optic disc, accompanied by nyctalopia and tunnel vision.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which artery is used for AV shunting with the great saphenous vein for hemodialysis and is present behind the medial malleolus and 2.5 cm in front of the tendon calcaneus? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Peroneal artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior tibial artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dorsalis pedis artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior tibial artery", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Posterior tibial artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-105954.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Posterior tibial artery</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The posterior tibial artery is the artery located behind the medial malleolus and is commonly used for AV shunting with the great saphenous vein in procedures like hemodialysis access due to its superficial location and ease of access.</li><li>➤ posterior tibial artery</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Observe the image below showing different food items. Identify the source of Thiamine. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "B", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. B", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-173144.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) B (Rice)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rice, especially in its whole or unpolished form, is a significant dietary source of thiamine (Vitamin B1).</li><li>➤ Rice, especially in its whole or unpolished form, is a significant dietary source of thiamine (Vitamin B1).</li><li>➤ Other sources – Whole cereal, meat, fish, legumes, ground nut.</li><li>➤ Other sources</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female patient presented with symptomatic urinary symptoms. On laboratory examination, growth of coagulase negative novobiocin-resistant Staphylococcus with &gt;10⁴ colony growth is seen. What is the true statement regarding this? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Take 3 consecutive urine samples", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "No treatment required", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is a contaminated sample", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Consider it as a UTI", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Consider it as a UTI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Consider it as a UTI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a female patient presents with symptomatic urinary symptoms and lab findings show coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant Staphylococcus with significant colony growth, it should be considered as a UTI and treated accordingly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A woman at 8 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methimazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbimazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Propylthiouracil", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radioactive iodine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Propylthiouracil", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Propylthiouracil</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the first trimester of pregnancy, Propylthiouracil (PTU) is the preferred treatment for hyperthyroidism due to its lower teratogenic risk compared to other antithyroid drugs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is being treated with phenobarbitone. Which of the following is inhibited? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Complex I → coenzyme Q", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complex II → coenzyme Q", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complex III → Cyt. C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Complex IV → oxygen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Complex I → coenzyme Q", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Complex I → coenzyme Q</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phenobarbitone specifically inhibits the electron transport between Complex I and coenzyme Q, disrupting ATP production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old male came with complaints of asymptomatic generalized papulosquamous rash on trunk, moist flat grey perianal lesions and hair loss as given below. What is the most likely causative organism? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treponema pallidum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malassezia furfur", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Microsporum canis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Treponema pallidum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-105319.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Treponema pallidum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"moth-eaten alopecia\" is a key diagnostic feature of secondary syphilis, and Treponema pallidum is the causative organism.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diagnosis the condition. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Umbilical hernia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastroschisis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bladder exstrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Omphalocele", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bladder exstrophy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111640.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111847.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111827.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bladder exstrophy is a congenital condition where the bladder is exposed outside the abdomen, often accompanied by genital and pelvic abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is commonly used for maintenance therapy in opioid abuse? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clonidine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Buprenorphine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Butorphanol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Naloxone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Buprenorphine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Buprenorphine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methadone and buprenorphine are long-acting opioids used for maintenance therapy in opioid addiction. They replace the addictive opioid to prevent withdrawal symptoms. To treat withdrawal symptoms: Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) is used for seizures. Clonidine or beta blockers are used for sympathetic symptoms. Naltrexone is used to prevent relapse in opioid addiction.</li><li>➤ Methadone and buprenorphine are long-acting opioids used for maintenance therapy in opioid addiction. They replace the addictive opioid to prevent withdrawal symptoms.</li><li>➤ Methadone</li><li>➤ buprenorphine</li><li>➤ To treat withdrawal symptoms: Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) is used for seizures. Clonidine or beta blockers are used for sympathetic symptoms.</li><li>➤ Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) is used for seizures. Clonidine or beta blockers are used for sympathetic symptoms.</li><li>➤ Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) is used for seizures.</li><li>➤ Diazepam</li><li>➤ Clonidine or beta blockers are used for sympathetic symptoms.</li><li>➤ Clonidine</li><li>➤ Naltrexone is used to prevent relapse in opioid addiction.</li><li>➤ Naltrexone</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the mechanism of action of aprepitant? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NK1 agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NK3 agonist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NK1 antagonist", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "NK3 antagonist", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. NK1 antagonist", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aprepitant is an NK1 receptor antagonist used in preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting by blocking the action of substance P.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An athlete collapsed suddenly and dies. He had an abnormal septal thickening. His sibling also expired due to a cardiac condition earlier. His cardiac biopsy image is shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dilated cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiac tumor/myocarditis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by asymmetrical septal hypertrophy, disorganized cardiac muscle fibers, and is commonly associated with sudden death in young athletes, particularly during exertion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child is undergoing CPR. He is pulseless and shows the below ECG. What is the next step? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Give shock with 2 J/kg and check pulse", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give shock with 2 J/kg and continue CPR for 2 mins", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Synchronized cardioversion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue CPR till pulse is back", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Give shock with 2 J/kg and continue CPR for 2 mins", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-103702_wFRnsHh.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ In a pediatric cardiac arrest with pulseless ventricular tachycardia on the ECG, the correct immediate action is to defibrillate with 2 J/kg and continue CPR for 2 minutes before reassessing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with intellectual disability and hepatosplenomegaly. Bone marrow biopsy showed a “crumpled paper appearance.” What is your best diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucocerebrosidase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "GALT enzyme", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pompe disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Niemann-Pick disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glucocerebrosidase", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-180526.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Glucocerebrosidase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"crumpled paper appearance\" in bone marrow cells is a hallmark of Gaucher disease, caused by a deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with symptoms of high fever, chills, and a cough producing greenish sputum. Vital signs include a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, pulse rate of 108 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. The patient's chest X-ray is displayed below. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tubercular pleural effusion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Community-acquired pneumonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coal worker pneumoconiosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Community-acquired pneumonia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/screenshot-2024-10-05-105026.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Community-acquired pneumonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Community-acquired pneumonia is present with acute onset symptoms such as fever, productive cough, and chills, along with radiographic evidence showing lobar consolidation or interstitial infiltrates, and it requires prompt antibiotic treatment based on culture results to manage the infection effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A man presented to the emergency department following a road traffic accident with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. An X-ray was taken and is displayed below. Based on the findings, which type of breathing pattern is most likely observed in this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cheyne-Stokes respiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paradoxical respiration", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biot's respiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Kussmaul respiration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Paradoxical respiration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Paradoxical respiration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paradoxical respiration is a key clinical indicator of flail chest, resulting from severe chest trauma with multiple rib fractures causing a segment of the chest wall to move independently. This condition presents significant management challenges, necessitating interventions like oxygen administration, pain management, and potentially more aggressive respiratory support.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient presents with a history of urinary tract infection (UTI), suspected to be caused by bacterial infection. Which of the following structures is utilized by bacteria for adherence to the urinary tract?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytoplasmic membrane", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cilia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fimbriae", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Flagella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Fimbriae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Fimbriae</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fimbriae are used for adherence to host cells, particularly in the context of urinary tract infections. Their presence allows bacteria to establish infection by resisting the natural defense mechanisms of the host, such as urine flow in the urinary tract.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What mechanism occurs within the zona pellucida of an oocyte to prevent the entry of multiple sperm cells after the initial fertilization?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acrosomal reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased membrane potential of the oocyte", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cortical reaction", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased membrane potential of the oocyte", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cortical reaction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Cortical reaction</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cortical reaction is essential, as it is the primary defense against polyspermy, ensuring that only one sperm fertilizes the oocyte, thereby maintaining the correct genetic composition of the embryo.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with a long-term central intravenous line, currently on antibiotics, develops a fever. Blood cultures indicate the presence of Staphylococcus epidermidis and biofilm formation on the catheter. What is the significance of the biofilm in terms of antibiotic resistance?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Biofilm increases susceptibility to antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biofilm offers resistance, necessitating removal of the catheter", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Biofilm does not affect antibiotic susceptibility", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biofilm can be washed off from the catheter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Biofilm offers resistance, necessitating removal of the catheter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Biofilm offers resistance, necessitating removal of the catheter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Biofilms confer significant antibiotic resistance to bacteria colonizing indwelling medical devices. The standard response when biofilms are suspected involves the removal of the device to prevent further complications and to manage the infection effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What biological growth patterns are represented by each curve in the following graph, tracking development from birth to 20 years?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 - Liver, 2 - Spleen, 3 - Ovary, 4 - Testis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 - Brain, 2 - Tonsils, 3 - BMI, 4 - Genital Organs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 - Brain, 2 - Somatic growth, 3 - Ovary, 4 - Height", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 - Brain, 2 - Waldeyer's ring, 3 - Somatic growth, 4 - Testicular growth", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 - Brain, 2 - Waldeyer's ring, 3 - Somatic growth, 4 - Testicular growth", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/image-1-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/image-2-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1 - Brain, 2 - Waldeyer's ring, 3 - Somatic growth, 4 - Testicular growth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The distinct growth patterns for specific organs and tissues: Brain growth is rapid and completes early by age 2, Waldeyer's ring (including tonsils) peaks between ages 4 and 8, somatic growth follows a sigmoid pattern with a puberty spike, and testicular growth begins its significant increase at puberty.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the nerve supply to the respective regions of the external ear as shown in the image:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A - Auriculotemporal nerve; B - Greater auricular nerve; C - Facial and Vagus nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A - Greater auricular nerve; B - Auriculotemporal nerve; C - Facial and Vagus nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A - Greater auricular nerve; B - Facial and Vagus nerve; C - Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A - Facial and Vagus nerve; B - Greater auricular nerve; C - Auriculotemporal nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A - Greater auricular nerve; B - Auriculotemporal nerve; C - Facial and Vagus nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/image-3-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/screenshot-2024-10-05-123803.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A - Greater auricular nerve; B - Auriculotemporal nerve; C - Facial and Vagus nerve</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nerve supply of Pinna</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Based on the constituents shown on the IV fluid bag, identify the fluid typically given to post-operative patients.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haemaccel", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ringer lactate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isolyte P", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Isolyte M", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ringer lactate", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/screenshot-2024-10-05-125231.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Ringer lactate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For post-operative care, Ringer lactate is the preferred IV fluid due to its balanced electrolyte composition that mimics the body's plasma, making it ideal for managing fluid and electrolyte balance after surgery.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 21-year-old female complains of fever, headache, and vomiting for the past 3 days. She has been residing at an army recruitment camp for the last three weeks. During an examination, she displays neck stiffness and a maculopapular rash over the trunk and extremities. Which of the following statements is false about the disease she is likely suffering from?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carriers of this disease can be treated with Rifampicin.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It can lead to adrenal hemorrhage.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Terminal complement deficiency increases the risk of this disease.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metronidazole is the drug of choice.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Metronidazole is the drug of choice.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Metronidazole is the drug of choice.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meningococcal meningitis should be treated with a third-generation cephalosporin like ceftriaxone, not Metronidazole, which is not effective against Neisseria meningitidis . Awareness of correct treatment options is crucial for effective management and improved outcomes in patients suspected of having meningococcal meningitis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A CT scan of a patient with a hydatid cyst is shown below. What is the type of hydatid cyst as per the Gharbi classification?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type 1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Type 2", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/05/screenshot-2024-10-05-130135.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Type 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"Water Lily\" sign is seen in Type 2 hydatid cysts as per the Gharbi classification, caused by detachment of the endocyst membrane, leading to floating membranes within the cyst.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Neet Pg 2024 Session 2 2024 08 11 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 200</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 200 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A patient with HIV who is currently on antiretroviral therapy consisting of zidovudine, lamivudine, and nevirapine is diagnosed with tuberculosis. Considering potential drug interactions, which of the following TB drugs should be changed in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethambutol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptomycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rifampicin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Rifampicin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For HIV and TB cotreatment:</li><li>➤ If a person is on the TLE regimen (tenofovir, lamivudine, efavirenz), it does not interact with rifampicin. The regimen can continue unchanged even if rifampicin is given. If the person is on the TLD regimen (tenofovir, lamivudine, dolutegravir), the dose of dolutegravir should be doubled when rifampicin is used, while the rest of the regimen remains the same. If the person is taking a protease inhibitor or nevirapine , rifampicin should be avoided. Instead, rifampicin should be replaced with rifabutin.</li><li>➤ If a person is on the TLE regimen (tenofovir, lamivudine, efavirenz), it does not interact with rifampicin. The regimen can continue unchanged even if rifampicin is given.</li><li>➤ TLE regimen</li><li>➤ If the person is on the TLD regimen (tenofovir, lamivudine, dolutegravir), the dose of dolutegravir should be doubled when rifampicin is used, while the rest of the regimen remains the same.</li><li>➤ TLD regimen</li><li>➤ If the person is taking a protease inhibitor or nevirapine , rifampicin should be avoided. Instead, rifampicin should be replaced with rifabutin.</li><li>➤ protease inhibitor</li><li>➤ nevirapine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An intra-operative image of scrotal exploration is shown. Identify the pathology. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Testicular torsion", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Torsion of testicular appendage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Torsion of both", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Testicular hematoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Testicular torsion", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120323.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Testicular torsion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Testicular torsion presents as acute testicular pain and requires urgent surgical intervention. The characteristic appearance on exploration includes a discolored, possibly non-viable testis due to the loss of blood supply.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of these statements is true for Adipocere change after death? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Occurs in very high temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Occurs in cold temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Occurs immediately after death", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occurs due to saponification of fats", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Occurs due to saponification of fats", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Occurs due to saponification of fats</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adipocere formation after death occurs due to the saponification of fats through an enzymatic process, primarily under warm, moist, and anaerobic conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hypertensive patient presents with an irregularly irregular pulse and a loud P2 on auscultation. Upon examination of the Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP), which finding is most likely to be observed in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Absent a wave", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cannon a wave", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rapid x descent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rapid y descent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Absent a wave", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Absent a wave</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In atrial fibrillation, the key JVP finding is the absence of the a wave due to the lack of effective atrial contraction. This is one of the classic \"four no's\" associated with atrial fibrillation: no a wave in the JVP, no P wave on ECG, no pre-systolic accentuation in mitral stenosis, and no S4 heart sound.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old female, who had visited multiple plastic surgeons requesting correction of \"face deformity,\" was referred to a Psychiatrist. The patient insists that her face is deformed and needs surgery despite no evidence of deformity in the examination. The patient persists with her demand despite family members’ and doctors' reassurances. What is the management? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Behavioural therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SSRI", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atypical antipsychotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allow her for surgery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. SSRI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) SSRI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD), especially when insight is poor or absent, SSRIs are the drug of choice for management, often in combination with Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT). Surgery is contraindicated as it does not address the core psychological issue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A male patient with a history of unprotected sexual intercourse four days back came with complaints of painful urethral discharge. What is the treatment of choice? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline 100 mg BD x 2 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cefixime 400 mg stat", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Benzathine Penicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azithromycin 1 gm stat", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cefixime 400 mg stat", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-08-29-113709.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-08-29-113726.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Cefixime 400 mg stat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first-line treatment for gonococcal urethritis is a single dose of Cefixime 400 mg stat . This treatment is effective against Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria responsible for the infection.</li><li>➤ Cefixime 400 mg stat</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and something coming out of the vagina. Her last childbirth was 10 years back. On bimanual palpation, the uterus is palpable. On examination, the cervix admits 1 finger, and the following is seen. What is the probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenomyoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fibroid polyp", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intramural fibroid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inversion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fibroid polyp", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-12-124438.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Fibroid polyp</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A fibroid polyp presents with heavy menstrual bleeding, a palpable uterus on bimanual examination, and a protruding mass in the vagina due to the fibroid extending through the cervix</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does ‘H’ indicate in a patient presenting with a history of EHEC O157:H7? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Capsule", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fimbriae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flagella", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lipopolysaccharide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Flagella", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Flagella</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In bacterial antigen classification, the ‘H’ antigen corresponds to flagella, which are essential for motility.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a prolonged intubation patient, the following is seen. Staging for this is given by: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cotton Meyer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radkowski", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AJCC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TNM", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cotton Meyer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-125646.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-125659.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cotton Meyer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Subglottic stenosis resulting from prolonged intubation is staged using the Cotton Meyer classification, which grades the severity based on the percentage of airway narrowing</li><li>➤ Grade 1: 0-50% stenosis Grade 2: 51-70% stenosis Grade 3: 71-99% stenosis Grade 4: 100% stenosis (complete obstruction)</li><li>➤ Grade 1: 0-50% stenosis</li><li>➤ Grade 1:</li><li>➤ Grade 2: 51-70% stenosis</li><li>➤ Grade 2:</li><li>➤ Grade 3: 71-99% stenosis</li><li>➤ Grade 3:</li><li>➤ Grade 4: 100% stenosis (complete obstruction)</li><li>➤ Grade 4:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infant of 3 months presents with recurrent severe infections, including pneumonia, chronic diarrhea, and oral candidiasis. He has an absence of thymic shadow on chest X-ray. Laboratory tests reveal very low levels of adenosine deaminase (ADA). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X-linked agammaglobulinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hyper-IgE syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SCID is characterized by recurrent severe infections, absence of thymic shadow, and very low levels of adenosine deaminase, highlighting defects in both T and B cell function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 57-year-old person completed his treatment of leprosy. Two years later, he presents with a punched-out painless ulcer on his sole. What is the next best step in the management? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ask him to bear less weight on that leg and use plaster casts", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restart MDT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aggressive Debridement with IV antibiotics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amputation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ask him to bear less weight on that leg and use plaster casts", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-124118.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-145322.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Ask him to bear less weight on that leg and use plaster casts</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the management of chronic trophic ulcers in leprosy, reducing pressure on the ulcerated area through weight redistribution, such as with a plaster cast, is essential to promote healing and prevent further complication</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with acute shortness of breath. His heart rate is 120 beats per minute, and his BP is 80/60 mm Hg. An echocardiogram was done and reveals diastolic collapse of the right ventricle. X-ray was done and is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Initiate diuretic therapy with blood pressure monitoring", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intra-aortic balloon pump insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Perform pericardiocentesis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Implant a ventricular assist device", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Perform pericardiocentesis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-125632.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Perform pericardiocentesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In patients presenting with signs of cardiac tamponade, immediate pericardiocentesis is the most appropriate and potentially life-saving intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the steps of the Demographic cycle in the correct chronological sequence: (NEET PG 2024) Low stationary High stationary Declining Early expanding Late expanding", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 5 4 3 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 2 3 4 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 4 5 1 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 2 4 5 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 4 5 1 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 2 4 5 1 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of the demographic cycle stages is: High Stationary, Early Expanding, Late Expanding, Low Stationary, and Declining.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman undergoes USG examination. She is found to have twins, but one-month age gap in twins on USG scan. What is this phenomenon called? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Superfetation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Superfecundation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Illegitimate child", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Suppositious child", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Superfetation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Superfetation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Superfetation is characterized by the occurrence of two separate pregnancies in different menstrual cycles, leading to twins of different gestational ages.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of weakness and generalized fatigue. The peripheral smear shows microcytic hypochromic RBCs. Her serum iron is decreased and has increased RDW. Her MCV and MCH were also low, and TIBC was high. What would her serum transferrin saturation be? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduced", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Equivocal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannot be determined", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Reduced", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In iron deficiency anemia, transferrin saturation is reduced (typically less than 20%) due to low serum iron and high TIBC.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 10-year-old child presented with knee pain following a fall from the stairs. The physical and radiological evaluation revealed injury to the marked structure. Identify the structure. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tibial tuberosity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Medial tubercle", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gerdy's tubercle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anterior intercondylar area", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tibial tuberosity", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182816.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tibial tuberosity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The tibial tuberosity is the site of attachment for the patellar ligament, and injuries to this region, particularly in young individuals, can result in conditions such as Osgood-Schlatter disease , characterized by pain at the site, especially following physical activity or trauma.</li><li>➤ tibial tuberosity</li><li>➤ Osgood-Schlatter disease</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with shortness of breath and palpitations. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse with bilateral basal crackles. An ECG shows a ventricular response of 110/min. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IV Digoxin can be used for ventricular rate control.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Direct oral anticoagulants to be given.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardioversion should be done in hemodynamically unstable patients.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Beta blockers are given if the patient has decompensated heart failure and intolerant to calcium channel blockers.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Beta blockers are given if the patient has decompensated heart failure and intolerant to calcium channel blockers.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-130112.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Beta blockers should be avoided in patients with decompensated heart failure due to their negative inotropic effects.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is deficient in a patient with phenylketonuria with normal phenylalanine hydroxylase levels? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dihydrobiopterin reductase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tyrosine transaminase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dopa decarboxylase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tyrosine hydroxylase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dihydrobiopterin reductase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Dihydrobiopterin reductase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In non-classical phenylketonuria, the deficiency is in dihydrobiopterin reductase, not phenylalanine hydroxylase.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 70-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls presented with headache and confusion. CT scan of the patient is shown. Which of the following is correct? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic SDH", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intraparenchymal hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epidural hemorrhage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Chronic SDH", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-125809.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Chronic SDH (Subdural Hemorrhage)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic subdural hemorrhage presents as a crescent-shaped hypodense area on CT and is common in elderly patients with a history of falls or those on anticoagulant therapy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with features as given in the image below.What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arsenic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mercury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Arsenic", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-173132.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Arsenic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mees' lines and raindrop pigmentation of the skin are classic signs of arsenic poisoning. In the absence of alopecia, arsenic is the preferred diagnosis over thallium.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a component of School Health under Ayushman Bharat Program? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monthly IFA supplementations", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sanitary napkins distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Albendazole for deworming", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Health check-ups", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Monthly IFA supplementations", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Monthly IFA supplementations</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Ayushman Bharat School Health Program includes weekly IFA supplementation, not monthly, along with other health initiatives like menstrual hygiene, deworming, screening health check-ups, physical &amp; mental fitness, Research and Vaccination</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young girl presented with a history of multiple episodes of loss of consciousness that lasted for 5-10 minutes. These episodes occur only in front of family members and only in the daytime. The patient can recall the conversation that happened around her during these episodes; there is no history of tongue bite and no incontinence. What is the preferred treatment? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treat with aversive therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Treat with behavioral therapy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Valproate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ketogenic diet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Treat with behavioral therapy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Treat with behavioral therapy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The preferred treatment for conversion disorder, which manifests with pseudoseizures, is behavioral therapy, not antiepileptic drugs or other seizure management strategies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The persistence of ADHD in childhood increases the risk of development of which of the following in adolescence? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Selective mutism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conduct disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Binge eating disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Separation anxiety disorder", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Conduct disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Conduct disorder</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The persistence of ADHD in childhood significantly increases the risk of developing conduct disorder during adolescence, highlighting the need for early and effective management of ADHD symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child sustained a fracture after a fall. The post-op x-ray is shown below. The fracture will heal by which mechanism? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Creeping substitution", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Intramembranous ossification", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary healing", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary healing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Primary healing", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/24/screenshot-2024-09-21-182839.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/24/screenshot-2024-09-21-182946.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Primary healing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary healing occurs with rigid fixation (such as plating) and involves direct bone formation without callus formation. Secondary healing involves callus formation and occurs when there is micromotion, typically seen with casts or nailing.</li><li>➤ Primary healing occurs with rigid fixation (such as plating) and involves direct bone formation without callus formation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old female patient presented with a history of pathological fracture of the neck of femur. On lab investigations, ALP and N-telopeptide levels were raised. The DEXA scan confirmed the diagnosis as osteoporosis. Based on the lab values of osteoporosis, which other values will be raised in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alanine Transaminase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspartate Aminotransferase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lactate Dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) is elevated in osteoporosis due to increased bone resorption, making it a key marker for this condition.</li><li>➤ Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man had a RTA and was admitted to a hospital. After a few days, he had an exaggerated right-sided extensor plantar reflex and knee jerk. What other finding would be seen? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atrophy of the right lower limb", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Loss of proprioception in the left leg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ankle clonus in the right foot", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fasciculations in the right foot", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ankle clonus in the right foot", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ankle clonus in the right foot</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brown-Sequard syndrome presents with ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with xanthomas on the Achilles tendon. Which of the following is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tangier's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Familial hyperchylomicronemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Familial hypercholesterolemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Familial Dysbetalipoproteinemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Familial hypercholesterolemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Familial hypercholesterolemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with high LDL cholesterol levels and the presence of tendon xanthomas, particularly on the Achilles tendon</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An HIV-positive patient presented with complaints of diarrhea and foul-smelling stool. His stool microscopy did not show any ova or eggs, but there was the presence of motile 200 μm larva. Identify the organism. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ancylostoma duodenale", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ascaris lumbricoides", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schistosoma mansoni", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Strongyloides stercoralis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Strongyloides stercoralis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Strongyloides stercoralis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Strongyloides stercoralis is diagnosed by the presence of motile larvae in stool, distinguishing it from other helminths that typically show eggs in stool samples.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient presents with large, sweaty hands, macroglossia, and prominent frontal bossing. The patient also reports increasing shoe size and difficulty wearing rings that previously fit. Considering the clinical features, which of the following tests is the most appropriate initial investigation? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "GHRH levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Age-matched IGF-1 levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Random GH levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GH levels after 2 hours of administration of 75g glucose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Age-matched IGF-1 levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Age-matched IGF-1 levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial test of choice for acromegaly is measuring age-matched IGF-1 levels, which serves as a reliable screening method due to its consistent reflection of GH levels over time.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old woman came with complaints of weakness and lethargy with a past history of heavy menstrual bleeding. Her peripheral blood smear showed microcytic RBCs. Her lab reports are as follows - Hb 7.9 mg/dl, MCV 65, MCH - low, TIBC - increased, Transferrin saturation - low. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron deficiency anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemolytic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypoplastic anemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Megaloblastic anemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Iron deficiency anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Iron deficiency anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron deficiency anemia presents with microcytic, hypochromic RBCs, low hemoglobin, low MCV, increased TIBC, and low transferrin saturation, often caused by chronic blood loss such as heavy menstrual bleeding.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented with leukocoria and an intraocular mass, which on histopathological examination had the presence of Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis in the child? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Retinoblastoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Retinoblastoma is identified by leukocoria, an intraocular mass in children, and the presence of Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes on histopathology, which are true rosettes specific to this diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How much is the distance between the victim and the firearm from the gunshot entry based on the wound given below? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contact Entry", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Close Contact", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Distant Range", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannot be predicted", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Close Contact", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/untitled-10333.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tattooing (stippling) around a gunshot wound indicates a close contact or intermediate range. The absence of singeing or blackening suggests the firearm was not in direct contact but was fired from a short distance, such as close contact.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the maneuver? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burn Marshall", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wigand", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mauriceau Smellie Viet", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prague", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Burn Marshall", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121910.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121923.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/untitled-1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Burn Marshall</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Burns Marshall maneuver is characterized by gently swinging the baby over the maternal abdomen to assist in the delivery of the after-coming head in breech presentation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Septal perforation caused due to surgery of: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "FESS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SMR", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Septoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. SMR", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-130819.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) SMR (Submucous Resection)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Septal perforation is a recognized complication of SMR due to the complete removal of septal cartilage and bone without replacement, which can lead to mucosal tears and eventual perforation if the layers do not heal correctly.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For Health Education, the Motivation Model has its 1 st Step as Awareness. Its 2 nd Step is Motivation. Its 3 rd Step is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dedication", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Action", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contemplation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reflection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Action", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Action</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The third step in the Motivation Model for Health Education is Action , which signifies the adoption and implementation of the health behavior.</li><li>➤ Action</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cogwheel sign on ultrasound is seen in? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hydrosalpinx", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermoid cyst", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hydrosalpinx", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-12-124515.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hydrosalpinx</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The cogwheel sign on ultrasound is a key diagnostic feature of hydrosalpinx, representing the cross-sectional view of a dilated fallopian tube with internal folds.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions is most likely based on the lab values shown - Blood pH 7.28, Na 138 mEq/L, K 2.8 mEq/L, Cl 113 mEq/L, HCO3 12 mEq/L, BUN 3 mg/dL, and creatinine 0.2 mg/dL. Urinalysis showed a urinary pH of 9. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type 4 RTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type 1 RTA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type 2 RTA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory acidosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Type 1 RTA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type 1 RTA (distal RTA) is identified by a combination of metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia, and an inability to acidify the urine, leading to an alkaline urinary pH, which is a distinct feature not seen in other RTAs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Audiogram of a patient is given. Find the sign that can be seen in the same case. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Balance sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hennebert sign", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schwartz sign", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hitzelberger sign", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Schwartz sign", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-130958.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-131040.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Schwartz sign</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carhart's notch at 2000 Hz on an audiogram is a specific finding in otosclerosis, and Schwartz sign, a reddish hue behind the tympanic membrane, is an associated clinical sign indicating active otosclerotic processes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer is on a maize-based diet and develops skin rashes on the face, neck, and hand. Which of the following should be given? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin B12", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Niacin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Niacin deficiency in individuals consuming a maize-based diet can lead to pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Niacin supplementation is the treatment of choice.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 4-year-old boy presents with multiple patches of hair loss which was associated with itching and scaling. His 2-year-old sister also had similar complaints. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tinea capitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Alopecia areata", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Seborrheic dermatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pediculosis capitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tinea capitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-114132.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tinea capitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tinea capitis is a contagious fungal infection that presents with patchy hair loss, itching, and scaling, particularly in children, and can spread among family members.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly male presented to the clinic with fatigue, headache, backache, and renal dysfunction. He had elevated calcium levels also. His serum electrophoresis had an M spike and the immunofixation pattern has been presented alongside. What is the likely diagnosis in the patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Severe systemic infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MGUS (Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple myeloma with elevated IgG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiple myeloma with elevated IgM", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Multiple myeloma with elevated IgM", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf18.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Multiple myeloma with elevated IgM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An M spike on serum electrophoresis along with specific symptoms and immunofixation identifying elevated IgM indicates a diagnosis of multiple myeloma or a related plasma cell cancer, such as lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (Waldenström's macroglobulinemia).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements about Ciclesonide is incorrect? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral candidiasis is common with its use.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "It has fewer side effects than other inhalational corticosteroids.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is a prodrug activated by bronchial esterase.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It has comparable efficacy to other inhalational corticosteroids.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Oral candidiasis is common with its use.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Oral candidiasis is common with its use.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ciclesonide, a prodrug inhalational corticosteroid, has a lower risk of causing oral candidiasis compared to other inhalational steroids because it remains inactive until it reaches the lungs, where it is activated by bronchial esterases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which drug would be most effective in preventing withdrawal symptoms in a patient with a history of alcohol consumption who was admitted to the hospital after a road traffic accident? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fomepizole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Naltrexone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Buspirone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lorazepam", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lorazepam</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam, are the drugs of choice to prevent and manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is true about this position? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sniffing position for intubation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ideal position for Bougie insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ideal position for Neurosurgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neck position for intubation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sniffing position for intubation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-17-192643.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sniffing position aligns the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes, making it the ideal position for tracheal intubation</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old female presented with the following lesion. The abnormality seen following the lesion is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Single vision field loss", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bitemporal hemianopia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complete blindness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Homonymous hemianopia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bitemporal hemianopia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111143.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111218_dCo2bSp.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111236.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Craniopharyngiomas commonly cause bitemporal hemianopia due to compression of the optic chiasm, resulting in peripheral vision loss on both sides.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "On the promontory, behind the tympanic membrane, there is a red mass. CT is given. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glomus jugulare", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glomus tympanicum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Otosclerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Glomus jugulare", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/untitled-4666.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-125956.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of a red mass on the promontory behind the tympanic membrane, with an absent caroticojugular spine on CT (felp sign), indicates a diagnosis of glomus jugulare.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with pus discharge from the urethra and dysuria. He had a history of unprotected sexual intercourse. Identify the following organism: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "H. ducreyi", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neisseria gonorrhoeae", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-133135.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes gonorrhea, characterized by urethral discharge and dysuria, especially following unprotected sexual intercourse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of inhibition exhibited by A. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Competitive inhibition", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uncompetitive inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mixed inhibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Non-competitive inhibition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Competitive inhibition", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/whatsapp-image-2024-05-31-at-120830.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Competitive inhibition</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Competitive inhibition is identified by an increased Km and unchanged Vmax, with intersecting lines on the y-axis of the Lineweaver-Burk plot</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman with primary infertility is found to have bilateral tubal block on HSG. The next best step is? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Laparoscopy with chromotubation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "IVF", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IUI", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Letrozole", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Laparoscopy with chromotubation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Laparoscopy with chromotubation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ After identifying a bilateral tubal block on HSG in a woman with primary infertility, the next best step is to confirm the diagnosis with laparoscopy and chromotubation before considering other treatments like IVF.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The shown epithelium is seen in: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gall bladder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trachea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ureter", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ureter", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-112127.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Ureter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transitional epithelium, marked by umbrella cells and multilayered structure, is primarily found in the urinary tract, including the ureter, where it facilitates expansion and contraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a true/correct statement about paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is an inherited red blood cell disorder causing intravascular hemolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The diagnosis of the disorder is confirmed by sucrose lysis test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flow cytometry is the gold standard for diagnosing this condition", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The commonest cause of mortality is cardiac failure", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Flow cytometry is the gold standard for diagnosing this condition", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flow cytometry is the definitive test for diagnosing PNH by demonstrating the absence of CD55 and CD59 on blood cells.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Why is atropine mixed with diphenoxylate in combination medications? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atropine decreases the adverse effect of diphenoxylate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To prevent abuse of diphenoxylate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "To enhance the antidiarrheal effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Atropine produces direct spasmolytic action", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. To prevent abuse of diphenoxylate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) To prevent abuse of diphenoxylate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Atropine is added to diphenoxylate to prevent the abuse of the opioid component by causing unpleasant side effects if the medication is taken in large doses, thereby discouraging misuse.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old patient presented with GTCS (Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures) and was admitted. CECT is shown below. Which of the following can be useful in establishing the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CBNAAT of CSF", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PET scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NMR spectroscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "B scan of both the eyes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. NMR spectroscopy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-125825.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) NMR spectroscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NMR spectroscopy is valuable in distinguishing between tuberculoma and neurocysticercosis, especially when a single ring-enhancing lesion is present on imaging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An intra-operative image of a child undergoing inguinal hernia repair is shown, with a marked vein in the spermatic cord. What is the likely structure? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Femoral vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obturator vein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Testicular vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inferior epigastric vein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Testicular vein", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120303.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Testicular vein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In an open inguinal hernia repair, the primary veins associated with the spermatic cord are the testicular veins. Other veins such as the femoral, obturator, and inferior epigastric veins are located posterior to the inguinal canal and are not seen within the spermatic cord during such procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During examination of a patient with an intern, the professor asks the patient to invert his foot and he points at the prominent tendon behind the medial malleolus. Which is the tendon being pointed at here? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tibialis anterior", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tibialis posterior", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extensor digitorum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extensor hallucis longus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tibialis posterior", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Tibialis posterior</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The tibialis posterior tendon is located behind the medial malleolus and is most prominent when the foot is inverted. This anatomical detail is essential for identifying the tendon during a physical examination.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following growth hormone analogue that is not used for treatment of GH deficiency but is used in the treatment of HIV-associated lipodystrophy? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tesamorelin", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sermorelin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Somatropin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pegvisomant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tesamorelin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tesamorelin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tesamorelin is a growth hormone-releasing hormone analogue used specifically for the treatment of HIV-associated lipodystrophy, distinguishing it from other growth hormone analogues that are used for treating growth hormone deficiencies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "PQLI indicators include: (NEET PG 2024) Literacy rate Infant mortality rate Life expectancy at birth Income per capita", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only one of these", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only two of these", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only three of these", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All four are included", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Only two of these", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Only two of these</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PQLI measures the quality of life based on literacy rate, infant mortality rate, and life expectancy at age one, excluding income and life expectancy at birth.</li><li>➤ Remember – PQLI range – 0 – 100 (India - 65)</li><li>➤ Remember – PQLI range – 0 – 100 (India - 65)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child had a fall at home and was treated with an elbow cast. After the removal of the cast, the child developed the deformity as shown. Which fracture most likely caused this deformity? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radial head fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral condyle humerus fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mid-shaft humerus fracture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supracondylar humerus fracture", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Supracondylar humerus fracture", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182728.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-161323.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Supracondylar humerus fracture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cubitus varus , a \"gunstock\" deformity, is a classic complication of malunited supracondylar humerus fractures in children, where the carrying angle is reduced, causing medial deviation of the arm.</li><li>➤ Cubitus varus</li><li>➤ supracondylar humerus fractures</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a community, there were 550 births in a year out of which 50 were stillbirths. There were 09 deaths among newborns during 0-7 days of life. An additional 41 deaths occurred during 8-28 days of life. Calculate the Early Neonatal Mortality rate for the given community. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "09", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "18", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "50", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 18", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-173647.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 18</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Early Neonatal Mortality Rate is calculated as the number of early neonatal deaths (0-7 days) per 1,000 live births.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diagnose the X-ray as shown below: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chondroblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chondrosarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ewing's sarcoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Osteosarcoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Osteosarcoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182213.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182231.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182323.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182659.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182713.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Osteosarcoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The sun ray appearance and Codman’s triangle in X-rays are key indicators of osteosarcoma, especially in the lower end of long bones like the femur.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An elderly woman reports difficulty in buttoning her shirt and increased clumsiness in performing daily activities. On examination, the clinician asked her to make an 'O' using her thumb and index finger, which she was unable to do. Which of the following muscles is involved? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palmar interossei", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Opponens pollicis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Flexor pollicis longus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abductor pollicis brevis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Flexor pollicis longus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-105848.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Flexor pollicis longus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anterior interosseous nerve syndrome affects the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus muscles, leading to difficulty in forming an 'O' with the thumb and index finger due to impaired flexion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Following delivery at a PHC, a patient was referred with the following image. On examination, there is a tear extending to the rectum. Identify the type of tear. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1st degree", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2nd degree", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3rd degree", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4th degree", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4th degree", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-12-124357.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A 4th degree tear involves disruption of the anal sphincters and rectal mucosa, making it the most severe form of perineal tear during childbirth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had enlarging nodules present on his scalp. He was taking prednisolone, mycophenolate mofetil, and tacrolimus. His clinical lesion and the histopathological lesion are shown alongside. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pyoderma gangrenosum", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malakoplakia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drug-induced lesion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Malakoplakia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-180903.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Malakoplakia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Malakoplakia is a rare granulomatous condition marked by Michaelis-Guttmann bodies and is often seen in immunosuppressed patients. It can affect organs beyond the urinary bladder, including the skin.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the most common cause of death in patients with Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulmonary Artery Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Respiratory Failure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aspiration Pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lung Cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Respiratory Failure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Respiratory Failure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Respiratory failure is the most common cause of death in patients with Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis due to the progressive decline in lung function caused by extensive fibrosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is correct about iron transport? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Free iron is toxic for the cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron will be stored in the form of transferrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron is transported via Apoferritin in the blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepcidin enhances iron transport through Ferroportin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Free iron is toxic for the cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Free iron is toxic for the cells</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Free iron is toxic to cells due to its ability to generate reactive oxygen species, which can cause significant cellular damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male presented with headache, palpitations, and hypertension. On evaluation, his urinary VMA and catecholamines were elevated. Imaging revealed an adrenal mass, and the patient underwent surgery and resection. Histology of the mass was shown. Which of the following is true regarding the condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mostly in children", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mostly malignant", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Can be seen in MEN 2A", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mostly bilateral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Can be seen in MEN 2A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-125853.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pheochromocytomas can be seen in MEN2A and MEN2B syndromes, which are genetic conditions associated with multiple endocrine tumors, including pheochromocytoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Indication for this incision: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caldwell luc", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Midfacial degloving", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Open rhinoplasty", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Open rhinoplasty", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-130144.jpeg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-130321.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Open rhinoplasty</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The incision shown in the image is specific to open rhinoplasty, allowing direct access to the nasal structures for reshaping and reconstructive procedures.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with pus discharge from the urethra and dysuria. He had a history of unprotected sexual intercourse. The best culture media for the following organism is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MacConkey agar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thayer Martin agar", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wilson Blair agar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thayer Martin agar", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-133110.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thayer Martin agar is the selective medium of choice for isolating Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a bacterium associated with sexually transmitted infections presenting as urethral discharge and dysuria.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the surgical procedure: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Penectomy with inguinal dissection", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orchidectomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Debridement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penectomy with orchidectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Penectomy with inguinal dissection", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-140054.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Penectomy with inguinal dissection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Penectomy with inguinal dissection is a treatment approach for penile cancer, involving removal of the penis and associated lymph node dissection to manage local and regional disease spread.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old male presented with fever and myalgia. On examination, he had a diffuse maculopapular rash. Labs revealed a Hb of 14 g/dL, Hematocrit of 55%, Total WBC count of 4000, and platelet count of 25,000. Which of the following is the best prognostic indicator? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Platelets", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hematocrit", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total Leukocyte Count", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Albumin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hematocrit", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Hematocrit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In dengue fever, hematocrit is the best prognostic indicator as it reflects the extent of plasma leakage and guides fluid management, which is crucial in preventing complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common site of tubal ligation and the reason for ligation at this site is? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isthmus because of more circular muscles than longitudinal muscles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isthmus because of narrowest area", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ampulla because of more circular muscles than longitudinal muscles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ampulla because of narrowest area", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Isthmus because of narrowest area", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Isthmus because of narrowest area</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The isthmus is the most common site for tubal ligation due to its narrowness, which preserves the broader, more functional parts of the tube, making recanalization easier if needed in the future.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A farmer with a history of prick injury came with the complaint: swelling of the foot with sinus tracts showing pus discharge, which showed white granules and gram-positive filamentous structures were noted on microscopy. What is the most likely causative organism associated? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sporothrix schenckii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nocardia brasiliensis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspergillus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nocardia brasiliensis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-134418.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nocardia brasiliensis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mycetoma, or Madura foot, caused by Nocardia brasiliensis, presents with swelling, sinus tracts, white granules, and gram-positive filamentous structures on microscopy, distinguishing it from eumycetoma and other subcutaneous infections.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the type of drain: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Open drain", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Semi-open drain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Closed suction drain", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Penrose drain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Closed suction drain", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120832.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120929.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Closed suction drain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Romovac drain is a closed suction drain that uses a vacuum system to actively remove fluids from a surgical site, reducing the risk of infection and aiding in the healing process.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the correct order of End plate potential at the neuromuscular junction: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ca2+ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release → Ligand gated Na+ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ligand gated Na+ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate→ Ca2+ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ach Release → Ligand gated Na+ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate → Ca2+ entry in Axon Terminal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Action potential at motor end plate → Ca2+ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release → Ligand gated Na+ channel opens", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ca2+ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release → Ligand gated Na+ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ca2+ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release → Ligand gated Na+ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• At the neuromuscular junction (NMJ), the sequence of events leading to muscle contraction begins with the binding of acetylcholine (Ach) to its receptors on the motor end plate. This binding opens ligand-gated Na⁺ channels, allowing an influx of sodium ions, which depolarizes the muscle membrane and generates an action potential. The action potential travels along the motor neuron to the axon terminal, where it triggers the opening of voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels. The entry of calcium ions into the axon terminal facilitates the exocytosis of Ach into the synaptic cleft, which then binds to receptors on the muscle fiber to propagate the signal for muscle contraction.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Ligand-gated Na⁺ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate → Ca²⁺ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release: This sequence incorrectly initiates with the opening of ligand-gated Na⁺ channels before Ach is released. In reality, Ach must first be released to bind to these channels and cause their opening.</li><li>• Option B. Ligand-gated Na⁺ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate → Ca²⁺ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release:</li><li>• Option C. Ach Release → Ligand-gated Na⁺ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate → Ca²⁺ entry in Axon Terminal: Ach release is a result of Ca²⁺ entry, not the initial step. This option reverses the correct order of events.</li><li>• Option C. Ach Release → Ligand-gated Na⁺ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate → Ca²⁺ entry in Axon Terminal:</li><li>• Option D. Action potential at motor end plate → Ca²⁺ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release → Ligand-gated Na⁺ channel opens: This sequence incorrectly places the action potential at the motor end plate before Ach release. The action potential at the motor end plate is a result of Ach binding, not the precursor to Ca²⁺ entry.</li><li>• Option D. Action potential at motor end plate → Ca²⁺ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release → Ligand-gated Na⁺ channel opens:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence at the neuromuscular junction is:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence at the neuromuscular junction</li><li>➤ Ca2+ entry in Axon Terminal → Ach Release → Ligand gated Na+ channel opens → Action potential at motor end plate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient presents with acute urinary retention, and suprapubic catheterization is done. Urethrogram show a long segment stricture. What is the best management? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Metal catheter insertion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endoscopic urethrotomy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urethral repair with buccal mucosal graft", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Urethral repair with buccal mucosal graft", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120535.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Urethral repair with buccal mucosal graft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Long urethral strictures require reconstructive surgery with techniques such as urethral repair using a buccal mucosal graft to provide a durable and effective solution for restoring normal urethral function.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman came with complaints of fever, night sweats, generalized itching, and unintentional weight loss of 10% in the last 3 months. On examination, she has enlarged cervical and axillary lymph nodes. The lymph node examination and biopsy showed the following picture. What would the likely diagnosis and treatment option be? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hodgkin's Lymphoma - ABVD regimen", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NHL - Rituximab monotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NHL - advanced stage - treated with radiotherapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sarcoidosis - Started on Prednisolone 40 mg/day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hodgkin's Lymphoma - ABVD regimen", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-125917.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Hodgkin's Lymphoma - ABVD regimen</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells on biopsy and is treated with the ABVD chemotherapy regimen, often combined with radiotherapy in specific cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with hepatosplenomegaly with bone marrow having 22% plasma cells. The bone marrow biopsy had a pink acellular deposition of material as shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bone marrow necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T.B.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myxoid degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amyloidosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Amyloidosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf17.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Amyloidosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amyloidosis can occur as a result of multiple myeloma due to the deposition of abnormal immunoglobulin light chains, which can be identified as acellular pink deposits on histology.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What does phase III represent in the below image? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inspiration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Expiration of dead space air", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expiration of mixed air", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alveolar plateau", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Alveolar plateau", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-144649.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-144739.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Alveolar plateau</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phase III of the capnography waveform, also known as the alveolar plateau, represents the exhalation of alveolar gas and is used to determine the end-tidal CO2 level.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How does this graft get nutrition on day 3? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Imbibition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inosculation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neovascularisation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vascular anastomosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inosculation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120503.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Inosculation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ On day 3, a skin graft receives nutrition primarily through inosculation, where early vascular connections form between the graft and the recipient bed, allowing for initial blood supply to the graft.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which segment of the vertebrae is involved in a patient presenting with pain in the back of the thigh and the leg after lifting heavy weight? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "S2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "S1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "L5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "L4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. S1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-105931.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The S1 nerve root is involved in pain radiating to the back of the thigh and leg, especially affecting the lateral part of the foot and the small toe, common in cases of heavy lifting or nerve compression.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old P2L2 woman presents with cervical elongation. Her family is complete. What is the preferred surgery advised? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fothergill", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "McCall Culdoplasty", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Le fort", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shirodkar sling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fothergill", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121840.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prolapse management by age group:</li><li>➤ Prolapse management by age group:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adult patient presents with tall stature, pigeon chest deformity, long arm span, lens dislocation, and cardiac defects. This patient is likely to have a defect in which of the following? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elastase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fibrillin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Collagen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Laminin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fibrillin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Fibrillin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Marfan syndrome is characterized by a defect in fibrillin-1 due to mutations in the FBN1 gene, leading to tall stature, skeletal deformities, lens dislocation, and cardiovascular abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of breast cancer. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of which nucleotide? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "AMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UMP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TMP", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. TMP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) TMP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, leading to a reduction in thymine monophosphate (TMP) synthesis, which is critical for DNA synthesis. This makes it effective in the treatment of cancers, including breast cancer</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is presenting with a staggering gait and nystagmus (Rhomberg sign +ve) after a road traffic accident. Which lobe of cerebellum is affected?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Flocculonodular", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dentate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior lobe", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vermis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Flocculonodular", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Flocculonodular</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum is crucial for maintaining balance, posture, and controlling the vestibulo-ocular reflex. Damage to this area can lead to symptoms such as a staggering gait, nystagmus, and balance issues, as seen in the case of cerebellar ataxia following trauma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Paralysis of which muscle causes ptosis in Horner syndrome? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orbitalis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Levator superioris palpebrae", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Orbicularis Oculi", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Superior tarsal muscle", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Superior tarsal muscle", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Superior tarsal muscle</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Horner syndrome is characterized by ptosis due to paralysis of the superior tarsal muscle (Muller's muscle), which is innervated by sympathetic fibers, particularly from the T1 spinal nerve</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Relieving pressure of pop off valve in this device is? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10-20 mm Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10-20 cm H2O", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30-40 mm Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30-40 cm H2O", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 30-40 cm H2O", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-145206.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 30-40 cm H2O</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pop-off valve in a manual resuscitator is typically set to relieve pressure at 30-40 cm H2O to ensure safe and effective ventilation without causing lung damage.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young woman presents with prolapse. A sacrohysteropexy is being done. A mesh is being placed. Where is this mesh fixed to? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ischial spine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ischial tuberosity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sacral promontory", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pubic symphysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sacral promontory", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-121856.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sacral promontory</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In sacrocolpopexy and sacrohysteropexy procedures for pelvic organ prolapse, the mesh is fixed to the sacral promontory, providing strong support to the prolapsed organs.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with suicidal tendency ingested some substance. He presents with tachycardia, dilated pupil, and hypertension. Identify the drug. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heroin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Morphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlorpheniramine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cocaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cocaine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cocaine toxicity is characterized by sympathetic overdrive symptoms such as tachycardia, dilated pupils, and hypertension, making it the likely substance in cases of suspected sympathomimetic drug overdose.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient present with an X-ray showing cardiomegaly, along with symptoms of hypotonia, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and \"floppy baby\" syndrome. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pompe's disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ebstein anomaly", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transposition of great arteries", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Von Gierke's disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pompe's disease", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/06/screenshot-2024-09-06-150328.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pompe's disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pompe's disease is characterized by the combination of cardiomegaly, muscle hypotonia, hepatomegaly, and macroglossia, often presenting as \"floppy baby\" syndrome due to lysosomal storage of glycogen.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Post fertilization, implantation begins to take place on? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Day 15", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Day 8", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Day 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Day 5", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Day 5", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-22%20110931.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111611.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Day 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Implantation typically begins around the 5th to 6th day after fertilization, with Day 5 often representing the initial attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine lining. If Day 6 is not an option, choose the next closest day, which is Day 5.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which phase of clinical trials is drug dosing determined? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phase 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phase 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phase 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phase 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Phase 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial determination of drug dosing is primarily conducted during Phase 1 of clinical trials, where the safety and tolerability of the drug are assessed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) has a direct spasmolytic action on gastrointestinal (GI) smooth muscle?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dicyclomine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Scopolamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mebeverine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Racecadotril", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mebeverine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Mebeverine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mebeverine is a direct spasmolytic drug used in the treatment of IBS, acting directly on the GI smooth muscle to relieve spasms and pain.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old hypertensive patient arrives at the emergency department with sudden, severe chest pain radiating to the back. On physical examination, there is a noticeable difference in blood pressure between the arms, and unequal radial pulses are observed. A CT angiogram is done and shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate emergency surgical repair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aggressive blood pressure control and close monitoring", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endovascular stenting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Balloon dilatation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aggressive blood pressure control and close monitoring", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/25/screenshot-2024-09-25-125607.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For Stanford type B aortic dissections, the initial management is conservative, focusing on aggressive blood pressure control and close monitoring unless complications necessitate surgical intervention.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old woman presents with a rapidly growing, painless mass in her right breast that she first noticed about 3 months ago. On physical examination, the mass is well-circumscribed, lobulated, and larger than 5 cm in diameter. A history of a similar lesion occurred 2 years back also. A core needle biopsy is performed, and the histological examination reveals the image as shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Invasive ductal carcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phyllodes tumor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibroadenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ductal papilloma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phyllodes tumor", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf20.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Phyllodes tumor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Phyllodes tumors are rapidly growing, lobulated breast masses with characteristic leaf-like stromal projections on histology, commonly seen in middle-aged women, and may recur.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient comes after 6 months of vaginal delivery with an episiotomy repair with pain at the site of episiotomy which increases during her periods. On palpation, a nodular lesion is felt. The probable diagnosis is? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endometriosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retained suture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inclusion cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Melanoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Endometriosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Endometriosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scar endometriosis should be suspected when there is cyclic pain and a nodular lesion at the site of an episiotomy or surgical scar, especially if symptoms correlate with menstrual periods.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presented to PHC OPD with skin rash and depigmented hair. He gives a history of swollen/bleeding gums. X-ray picture is shown below. He is suffering from: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zinc deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iron deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Selenium deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Copper deficiency", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Copper deficiency", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-174412.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Copper deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Copper deficiency can mimic vitamin C deficiency (scurvy) in its clinical and radiological presentation, a condition often referred to as pseudoscurvy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the organism given below. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trichosporon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidermophyton", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Microsporum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Candida", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Microsporum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/untitled-3333.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endothrix infections involve fungal elements within the hair shaft, commonly caused by specific Trichophyton species. In the absence of these species as answer options, the organism that affects hair (Microsporum) should be considered.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An athlete who was planning for some kind of physical activity sport comes for a routine health checkup. All routine investigations turned out to be normal with non-significant ECG findings except he had a PR interval of 0.21 seconds. Which of the following is most likely? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "First degree heart block", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Second degree heart block", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal ECG", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Third degree heart block", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. First degree heart block", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) First degree heart block</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds indicates a first-degree AV block, which can be physiological, especially in athletes with high vagal tone.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "LSCS (Lower Segment Cesarean Section) for breech was done. Intraoperatively, this was seen. Two cervixes were also identified. What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Arcuate uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bicornuate uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unicornuate uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterine didelphys", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Uterine didelphys", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-12-124415.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Uterine didelphys</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Uterine didelphys is characterized by two separate uterine cavities, each with its own cervix, due to a failure of Müllerian duct fusion during fetal development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis based on the CT image? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Renal cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PUJO (Pelviureteric Junction Obstruction)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "AD PCKD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Horseshoe kidney", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PUJO (Pelviureteric Junction Obstruction)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164638.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) PUJO (Pelviureteric Junction Obstruction)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PUJO is characterized by massive dilation of the renal pelvis with thinning of the renal parenchyma due to obstruction at the pelviureteric junction. The pelvis is more dilated than the calyces, which is a hallmark finding on imaging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old lady noticed a mass in the front of her neck. Otherwise, she has no symptoms. On examination, she had a solitary thyroid nodule. Which of the following is the appropriate initial investigation in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CT scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thyroid function testing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "I-123 scan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I-131 scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thyroid function testing", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-130011.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Thyroid function testing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial investigation for a solitary thyroid nodule is thyroid function testing (TSH, T3, and T4).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vaccine kept at the lowest level inside an Ice lined refrigerator (ILR) at PHC: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "OPV", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "DPT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rotaviral vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. OPV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-174639.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ OPV is stored at the lowest level of the ILR due to its requirement for the coldest storage conditions, ranging from 2°C and even tolerating freezing conditions, ensuring vaccine potency and effectiveness.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old patient with a history of depression was initially being treated with sertraline, but his symptoms were not adequately controlled. His medication regimen was changed to include an MAO inhibitor and amitriptyline. Shortly after the change in medication, the patient developed agitation, seizures, hyperreflexia, and tremors. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyproheptadine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lorazepam", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "L-carnitine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leucovorin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cyproheptadine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Cyproheptadine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serotonin syndrome can occur when serotonergic drugs are combined, such as SSRIs, MAO inhibitors, and TCAs. The treatment of choice for serotonin syndrome is Cyproheptadine, a serotonin receptor antagonist.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old conceives on the IUCD. Wants to continue pregnancy. Next best step? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Remove the IUCD gently", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leave the IUCD in situ", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Progesterone support", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Remove the IUCD gently", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Remove the IUCD gently</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When a pregnancy occurs with an IUCD in place and the patient wishes to continue, the IUCD should be removed gently to minimize risks associated with leaving it in situ.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A worker in an industry for the last 20 years develops dry cough and chest tightness. He had the following finding in his pulmonary biopsy. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Berylliosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Asbestosis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf3.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-19-131635.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Asbestosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asbestosis is characterized by the presence of asbestos bodies with a beaded or dumbbell appearance on lung biopsy, often seen in workers with long-term exposure to asbestos fibers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a case of drowning, the following organism was isolated from the internal organs. What is true regarding this organism? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a unicellular bacteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Not resistant to acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only present in bone marrow", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Outer wall contains silica and chlorophyll", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Outer wall contains silica and chlorophyll", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/untitled-11555.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Outer wall contains silica and chlorophyll</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diatoms are unicellular algae with a silica-containing outer wall, making them resistant to acid and present in various organs in drowning cases.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a patient in the ICU, an infection in the central venous catheter is noted. Staining showed a gram-positive oval-shaped organism that reproduces by budding. Identify the organism. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candida", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staph aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staph epidermidis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Candida", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Candida</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Candida is an oval-shaped yeast that reproduces by budding and is a common cause of catheter-associated infections in ICU patients.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which micronutrient deficiency causes anemia, bleeding gums, and white line of Frenkel on X-ray? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Copper", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zinc", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin C deficiency causes anemia, bleeding gums, and the white line of Frenkel on X-ray due to impaired iron absorption and defective collagen synthesis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient is undergoing implant surgery for his upper limb. On giving general anesthesia he develops tachycardia, sudden raise in body temperature and rigidity of muscles. What drug is most likely to have caused this? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Halothane", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propofol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Etomidate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitrous oxide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Halothane", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Halothane</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Halothane, a volatile anesthetic, is a known trigger for malignant hyperthermia, characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and tachycardia, especially in genetically predisposed individuals.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the transporter of iodine from follicular cells to follicular cavity within the thyroid gland: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Na+ I- Symporter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pendrin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calmodulin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Claudin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pendrin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Pendrin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pendrin is the transporter responsible for moving iodine from the follicular cells into the colloid of the thyroid gland, a crucial step in thyroid hormone production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A chronic tobacco consumer went to the dental clinic with bleeding lesions on the tongue and was diagnosed with carcinoma of the tongue. Which of the papillae does not have taste buds? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Circumvallate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Filiform", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Foliate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fungiform", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Filiform", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-112022.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-112042.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-112107.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Four types of papillae on the tongue:</li><li>➤ Four types of papillae</li><li>➤ Filiform Fungiform Circumvallate Foliate</li><li>➤ Filiform</li><li>➤ Filiform</li><li>➤ Fungiform</li><li>➤ Fungiform</li><li>➤ Circumvallate</li><li>➤ Circumvallate</li><li>➤ Foliate</li><li>➤ Foliate</li><li>➤ Taste buds are barrel-shaped structures located in the epithelium of the foliate and fungiform papillae , as well as on the lateral sides of the circumvallate papillae .</li><li>➤ Taste buds</li><li>➤ barrel-shaped structures</li><li>➤ foliate</li><li>➤ fungiform papillae</li><li>➤ lateral sides</li><li>➤ circumvallate papillae</li><li>➤ Taste buds are absent in the filiform papillae , which are the most numerous and smallest papillae on the surface of the tongue. They cover the entire dorsal surface of the tongue.</li><li>➤ Taste buds are absent</li><li>➤ filiform papillae</li><li>➤ most numerous and smallest</li><li>➤ dorsal surface</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year-old woman presented with chronic low back pain. CT scan of the lower back showed the following. Diagnose the condition CT scan image shown? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spinal metastasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Paget’s disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Renal osteodystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spondylolisthesis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Spondylolisthesis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/24/screenshot-2024-09-21-183013.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/24/screenshot-2024-09-21-161708.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Spondylolisthesis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Spondylolisthesis involves the slipping of one vertebra over another, typically visualized in imaging studies. The \"beheaded dog\" or \"Scottish terrier sign\" is a key radiographic feature of this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis based on the MRCP image? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Choledochal cyst", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cholangiocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Caroli disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Choledocholithiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Choledochal cyst", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164510.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Choledochal cyst</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A fusiform dilatation of the common bile duct on MRCP is characteristic of a Type 1 choledochal cyst, the most common type of choledochal cyst.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old female in late pregnancy presents with seizures and high-grade blood pressure. She is diagnosed with eclampsia and started on magnesium sulfate therapy. As part of her management, certain parameters require close monitoring to prevent magnesium toxicity. Which of the following parameters does not require routine checking during magnesium sulfate therapy in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urine output", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep tendon reflexes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum magnesium levels", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Respiratory rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serum magnesium levels", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Serum magnesium levels</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While managing eclampsia with magnesium sulfate, routine monitoring of deep tendon reflexes, urine output, and respiratory rate is crucial. Serum magnesium levels are only checked if toxicity is suspected, not as a routine measure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the marked nerve. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thoracodorsal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lateral pectoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medial pectoral nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Long thoracic nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Medial pectoral nerve", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-105541.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-105641.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-105713.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The medial pectoral nerve is the nerve that pierces the pectoralis minor muscle and also provides innervation to the pectoralis major.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the optimum pressure for VAC? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 to 130 mm of Hg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "70 to 100 mm of Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 to 50 mm of Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10 to 30 mm of Hg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 100 to 130 mm of Hg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 100 to 130 mm of Hg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The optimum pressure for Vacuum-Assisted Closure therapy is between 100 to 130 mm Hg, with -125 mm Hg being the most commonly used setting to promote effective wound healing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient experiences softening of the cervix in early pregnancy. This sign is called as? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osiander", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chadwick", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Goodell", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hegar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Goodell", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Goodell</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix, observed in early pregnancy due to increased vascularity, which makes the cervix feel soft, like the lips, compared to its usual firm texture</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "True regarding Oral Cholera vaccine ‘Sanchol’ is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monovalent with 1 dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monovalent with 2 doses", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bivalent with 1 dose", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bivalent with 2 doses", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bivalent with 2 doses", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Bivalent with 2 doses</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CHOLERA ORAL VACCINES:</li><li>➤ CHOLERA ORAL VACCINES:</li><li>➤ Dukoral (WC-rBS): Monovalent, V cholera O1 plus Recombinant Toxin B subunit. 2 doses (if age ≥6 years) and booster once/ 2 years 3 doses (if age b/w 2-5 years) and booster dose once per 6 months. Sanchol and mORCVAX: Bivalent, Serogroups O1 &amp; O139, No toxin B subunit, No buffer required. 2 liquid doses after the age of 1 year and booster after 2 years. Euvichol: it is just like Sanchol. Bivalent with 2 doses.</li><li>➤ Dukoral (WC-rBS): Monovalent, V cholera O1 plus Recombinant Toxin B subunit. 2 doses (if age ≥6 years) and booster once/ 2 years 3 doses (if age b/w 2-5 years) and booster dose once per 6 months.</li><li>➤ 2 doses (if age ≥6 years) and booster once/ 2 years 3 doses (if age b/w 2-5 years) and booster dose once per 6 months.</li><li>➤ 2 doses (if age ≥6 years) and booster once/ 2 years</li><li>➤ 3 doses (if age b/w 2-5 years) and booster dose once per 6 months.</li><li>➤ Sanchol and mORCVAX: Bivalent, Serogroups O1 &amp; O139, No toxin B subunit, No buffer required. 2 liquid doses after the age of 1 year and booster after 2 years.</li><li>➤ Euvichol: it is just like Sanchol. Bivalent with 2 doses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with gastrointestinal symptoms and neurological symptoms underwent a blood examination whose peripheral smear image is provided here. What is the likely diagnosis in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uremia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Burns", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abetalipoproteinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hereditary spherocytosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Abetalipoproteinemia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf21.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf27.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Abetalipoproteinemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acanthocytes, or spur cells, are red blood cells with irregular, spiky projections associated with abetalipoproteinemia, a disorder characterized by fat malabsorption, vitamin deficiencies, and neurological symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old girl was washing her doll with shampoo containing rotenone. Her mother noticed her in an unconscious state. Which is inhibited by the above chemical? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NADH dehydrogenase", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Succinate dehydrogenase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cytochrome C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytochrome oxidase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NADH dehydrogenase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rotenone specifically inhibits Complex I also known as NADH CoQ oxidoreductase (NADH dehydrogenase) in the electron transport chain, blocking electron flow and ATP production.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are Methanol poisoning derivatives? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Formic acid + Oxalic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Formic acid + Lactic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glycolic acid and Oxalic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oxalic acid and Lactic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Formic acid + Lactic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Formic acid + Lactic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Methanol poisoning primarily results in the formation of formic acid and lactic acid as toxic metabolites.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is not a contraindication to the procedure shown? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Placenta previa", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Primigravida", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multiple pregnancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ruptured membranes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Primigravida", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-12-123650.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Primigravida</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primigravida is not a contraindication for ECV, though it may be technically more challenging compared to multiparous women. Key contraindications to ECV include placenta previa, multiple pregnancy, and ruptured membranes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An adolescent male came with complaints of lesions all over the face and back, which were predominantly comedones. What is the most effective treatment for this condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic doxycycline", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systemic isotretinoin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Topical Dapsone", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systemic Azithromycin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Systemic doxycycline", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-122958.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Systemic doxycycline</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Systemic doxycycline is the most effective treatment for moderate to severe acne that involves comedones and inflammatory lesions, particularly when the condition is extensive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a case of RTA (Road Traffic Accident), a person has died. Who can order an autopsy? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Public Prosecutor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Defendant Lawyer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Police Officer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Forensic Medicine Doctor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Police Officer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Police Officer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Police Officer, specifically the Investigating Officer, has the authority to order an autopsy in cases of unexplained or suspicious deaths, such as those resulting from a road traffic accident.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient suffered from severe chest pain and expired. Which of the following is the likely age of infarct from the image of the cardiac biopsy shown here? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 day", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "3-4 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "7-10 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2-3 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 day", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/pathology-neet-pg-aug-2024-pdf15.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 1 day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brisk neutrophilic infiltration is a characteristic finding in myocardial tissue within the first 24 hours of infarction. The peak of neutrophil presence occurs around the second and third days , followed by the transition to macrophages.</li><li>➤ The peak of neutrophil presence occurs</li><li>➤ around the second and third days</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with a renal stone after a Proteus infection. What is the likely composition of the stone in him? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Magnesium ammonium phosphate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Xanthine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cysteine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Magnesium ammonium phosphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite) stones are commonly formed in alkaline urine due to urease-positive bacterial infections, such as those caused by Proteus. They often present as staghorn calculi filling the renal pelvis and calyces.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoroscopy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Barium swallow", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acid ingestion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alkali ingestion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fluoroscopy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164717.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Fluoroscopy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluoroscopy is a dynamic X-ray imaging technique used to visualize the motion of the pharynx and esophagus during swallowing. It provides real-time assessment, unlike a static barium swallow.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old female patient complains of a nodular lesion near the limbus as shown, with mild discomfort that resolves after treatment with the use of a topical drug. What can be the most probable diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scleritis with Rheumatoid Arthritis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Episcleritis with Rheumatoid Arthritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pinguecula and Dry Eye", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pterygium and Astigmatism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Episcleritis with Rheumatoid Arthritis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-123922.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-123939.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-123955.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Episcleritis presents as a mildly uncomfortable, nodular lesion near the limbus that responds to topical treatment, such as phenylephrine, and is often associated with autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lot of patients presented to PHC OPD with edema, ocular problems, cardiac failure. Several deaths were reported too. There was a common history of buying oil from a local grocery store. Drug inspector will use the following test to detect adulteration. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nitrate test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phosphatase test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paper chromatography test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sulphuric acid test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Paper chromatography test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Paper chromatography test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epidemic dropsy is caused by the consumption of mustard oil adulterated with Argemone Mexicana oil, and the most sensitive test for detecting this adulteration is the paper chromatography test.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A boy born to a normal father and mother had Hemophilia. Detailed history taking revealed that the mother's side had a family history of similar affected individuals. The children born to this boy are likely to have which of the following? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "All boys and girl children equally affected", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50% boys affected and no girl children unaffected", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "No boy affected and 50% girl children are carrier", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "25% boy affected and 25% girl children are carrier", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. No boy affected and 50% girl children are carrier", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) No boy affected and 50% girl children are carrier</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In X-linked recessive disorders like hemophilia, affected males do not transmit the condition to their sons, but their daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The longitudinal growth of the bone is affected by fracture of which region of the bone? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diaphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epiphysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epiphyseal plate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Metaphysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Epiphyseal plate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182802.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Epiphyseal plate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The epiphyseal plate is the region of the bone responsible for longitudinal growth, and fractures affecting this area can have significant implications on the bone's growth and development.</li><li>➤ epiphyseal plate</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lung Abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fungal pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydropneumothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lung Abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164456.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Lung Abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A lung abscess is identified by a cavity with an air-fluid level on imaging, differentiating it from other pulmonary conditions like TB, fungal infections, and hydropneumothorax.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male presented with tearing pain in the chest that intensely radiated to his back. He had non-specific ECG changes and his Trop I was negative. During the course of his evaluation he passed away. Biopsy of the aorta obtained during autopsy is shown. What is the likely mechanism behind his disease? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibrinoid necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subintimal lipid infiltration with smooth muscle necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immune complex vasculitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Connective tissue weakness", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Connective tissue weakness", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-130026.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most likely mechanism behind aortic dissection is connective tissue weakness in the aortic wall.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The treatment given to the patient presenting with a history of binge alcohol intake and symptoms of convulsions, altered sensorium, and plasma glucose level of 45 mg/dL is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25% dextrose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fomepizole", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiamine followed by dextrose", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Thiamine followed by dextrose", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Thiamine followed by dextrose</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In alcohol-related hypoglycemia, always administer thiamine before dextrose to prevent the exacerbation of thiamine deficiency and associated complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with sudden, painful diminution of vision, difficulty in vision in light, and circumferential congestion with hypopyon as shown. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acute Congestive Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute Anterior Uveitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute Conjunctivitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Episcleritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acute Anterior Uveitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120713.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120728.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120741.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120759.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Acute Anterior Uveitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute Anterior Uveitis is characterized by a painful red eye, circumcorneal congestion, hypopyon, and a miotic pupil, distinguishing it from other ocular conditions.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child presented with watery diarrhea and vomiting. Electron microscopy showed the following image. Identify the organism: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenovirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotavirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Norwalk virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Astrovirus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rotavirus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-133645.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rotavirus is the most common cause of severe diarrhea in young children and is characterized by its distinctive wheel-like appearance on electron microscopy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which ion is most responsible for the resting membrane potential (RMP): (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "K+", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ca2+", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Na+", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cl-", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. K+", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The resting membrane potential is primarily determined by the concentration gradient of potassium ions (K+) across the cell membrane and the membrane's permeability to K+.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ischemic ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Venous ulcer", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Trophic ulcer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infectious ulcer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Venous ulcer", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120703.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Venous ulcers are typically found on the medial aspect of the lower leg, above the medial malleolus, and are associated with chronic venous insufficiency. Recognizing their characteristic location and appearance is crucial for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient being treated for hypertriglyceridemia developed flushing, gout, hyperglycemia, and raised liver enzymes. Which drug is the most likely cause? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Atorvastatin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fenofibrate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nicotinamide", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ezetimibe", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nicotinamide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Nicotinamide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nicotinamide (niacin) is associated with flushing, gout, hyperglycemia, and raised liver enzymes, making it the likely cause of these symptoms in a patient being treated for hypertriglyceridemia</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the procedure based on the image: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nissen Fundoplication", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Toupet Fundoplication", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dor Fundoplication", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastrectomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nissen Fundoplication", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-120602.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Nissen Fundoplication</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nissen Fundoplication is a surgical procedure involving a complete 360-degree wrap of the gastric fundus around the lower esophagus to prevent gastroesophageal reflux. It is distinct from other partial fundoplication techniques such as Toupet and Dor, which involve less than a full wrap.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient complains of decreased sensation in the lateral 3 ½ fingers of the palmar side of the right hand along with difficulty moving the upper phalanx of the thumb. Associated thenar atrophy is also present. What is the associated nerve injury in this case? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ulnar nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radial nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anterior interosseous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High median nerve", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. High median nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-105752.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The high median nerve injury is characterized by sensory loss in the lateral 3 ½ fingers on the palmar side, difficulty moving the thumb, and associated thenar atrophy.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male presented to the emergency department with head trauma due to a road traffic accident. In the hospital, the patient developed seizures. An emergency CT scan revealed widespread cerebral edema. Which of the following is the diuretic of choice for cerebral edema in this patient? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mannitol", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spironolactone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Furosemide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrochlorothiazide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mannitol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mannitol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mannitol is the diuretic of choice for treating cerebral edema, particularly in emergency settings following traumatic brain injury, due to its ability to reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue.</li><li>➤ Mannitol is the diuretic of choice for treating cerebral edema,</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A female presented with a long history of fever, discolored skin of lower limbs, and lower limb edema. Microscopic examination showed a sheathed organism with no nuclei at the tip of the tail. What can be the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wuchereria bancrofti", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mansonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loa loa", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brugia malayi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wuchereria bancrofti", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a patient presenting with symptoms of lymphatic filariasis and a sheathed microfilaria with no tail tip nuclei, Wuchereria bancrofti is the most likely diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young athlete was diagnosed to have HOCM and has a harsh ejection systolic murmur. Which of the following maneuvers would most likely increase the intensity of the murmur? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isometric Hand grip", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Valsalva maneuver", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Squatting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Leaning forward", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Valsalva maneuver", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Valsalva maneuver</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In HOCM, maneuvers that decrease preload (like the Valsalva maneuver) will increase the intensity of the murmur, while those that increase preload or afterload will decrease it.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "2 hours after watching a movie, a patient presented with eye ache and difficulty in vision. The first line of management must be: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mannitol + Pilocarpine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mannitol + Moxifloxacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mannitol + Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mannitol + lubricating eye drops", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mannitol + Pilocarpine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/whatsapp-image-2024-09-20-at-135005.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Mannitol + Pilocarpine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The first-line management of acute angle-closure glaucoma involves the use of Mannitol to reduce intraocular pressure followed by Pilocarpine to constrict the pupil and prevent further angle obstruction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presented with redness and extreme pain in the eye. There is also diminution of vision and discharge after the use of contact lenses. Which organism can be the causative agent here? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acanthamoeba", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Listeria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus pyogenes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Acanthamoeba", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-124118.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-124129.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acanthamoeba keratitis is characterized by severe pain that exceeds clinical findings and is often associated with contact lens misuse, presenting with a distinctive ring-shaped corneal ulcer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A lady presented with a pelvic mass which was hyperintense on T1-weighted image, hyperintense on T1-fat saturated image, and hypointense on T2-weighted image with T2 shading. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Teratoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endometrioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carcinoma ovary", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dysgerminoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endometrioma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Endometrioma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Endometriomas are characterized by T1 hyperintensity that persists on T1-fat saturated images and display the T2 shading sign, distinguishing them from other ovarian masses.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "There were 4000 live births in a community in a year. Do MMR Calculation if you come to know that 6 women died during pregnancy, labor/delivery, or within 42 days of delivery - 2 due to Obstructed labor, 1 due to Sepsis, 1 due to PPH, 1 due to Snake bite and 1 due to electrocution. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "75", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "125", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "150", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 100", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-173703.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-173720.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 100</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is calculated as the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births, considering only deaths directly related to pregnancy or its complications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old man presented with acute epigastric pain and nausea. Lab reports showed an increase in serum lipase levels. He received 2L of fluids during admission, and three days after stabilization, he developed sudden breathlessness. Chest X-ray is shown. What is the likely diagnosis?(NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increased PCWP", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulmonary thromboembolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aspiration pneumonitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-125752.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ARDS is a potential severe complication of acute pancreatitis, presenting with non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema characterized by bilateral infiltrates and normal PCWP</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Arrange the steps of the Disaster cycle in sequence. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disaster impact – Mitigation – Rehabilitation – Response", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disaster impact – Response – Rehabilitation – Mitigation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rehabilitation – Response – Disaster impact – Mitigation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Response – Disaster impact – Rehabilitation – Mitigation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Disaster impact – Response – Rehabilitation – Mitigation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Disaster impact – Response – Rehabilitation – Mitigation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of the disaster cycle is: Disaster Impact → Response → Rehabilitation → Mitigation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A study was undertaken to evaluate the association between the consumption of vegetarian/non-vegetarian food with certain diseases. The incidence of disease was evaluated in those two groups. Which statistical test should be applied to test significance? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paired student’s t-test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Unpaired student’s t-test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chi-square test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wilcoxon test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chi-square test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Chi-square test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Chi-square test is used to determine the association between categorical variables, especially when comparing the incidence of outcomes across two or more independent groups.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Nugent score is for diagnosis of? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacterial vaginosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trichomoniasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chlamydia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bacterial vaginosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Nugent score is used for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis . It is a microbiological scoring system where the vaginal smear is analyzed for the number of lactobacilli and abnormal bacteria. The clinical scoring system for bacterial vaginosis is the Amsel's criteria , which includes the whiff test, clue cells, alkaline pH, and whitish discharge.</li><li>➤ Nugent score</li><li>➤ bacterial vaginosis</li><li>➤ Amsel's criteria</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The oocyte phase in post-ovulation is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary oocyte arrested in prophase – I", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary oocyte completed in prophase – II", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary oocyte arrested in prophase – II", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary oocyte arrested in metaphase – II", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Secondary oocyte arrested in metaphase – II", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111537.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Secondary oocyte arrested in metaphase – II</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase II at the time of ovulation and remains in this stage until fertilization occurs, highlighting a critical regulatory checkpoint in the female reproductive cycle.</li><li>➤ secondary oocyte</li><li>➤ metaphase II</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old girl has a greyish white membrane over tonsils and presented with bull-neck appearance. She has a 2-year-old brother who is fully immunized for his age. What should be given to the brother? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nothing should be given", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Penicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diphtheria antitoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 dose of DPT booster", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nothing should be given", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-174329.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In managing contacts of diphtheria, no additional doses are required if the contact has received primary immunization or booster within the last 2 years.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fibroid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adenomyosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endometrial polyp", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Endometrial cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fibroid", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-12-124500.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fibroids are well-defined, circumscribed lesions within the uterine cavity that are distinct in color and structure compared to surrounding myometrial tissue, distinguishing them from other uterine conditions like adenomyosis, polyps, and cancer.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculomas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cryptococcomas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurocysticercosis (NCC)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Abscess", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164441.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Abscess</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Brain abscesses present as ring-enhancing lesions with diffusion restriction on diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI), appearing bright white on DWI due to restricted water movement caused by pus accumulation.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old patient presents with left-sided arm and leg weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and horizontal gaze palsy. Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following is most consistent with the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Foville syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Locked In syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Millard-Gubler syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wallenberg syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Foville syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Foville syndrome</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Foville syndrome involves contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral cranial nerve palsies, and horizontal gaze palsy due to brainstem involvement, distinguishing it from other stroke syndromes.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient presents with a perforation in the tympanic membrane. During the evaluation, a Rinne test is performed. What is the expected outcome of the Rinne test in this case? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Negative", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Indeterminate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Equivocal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Negative", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-121442.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Negative</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A perforation in the tympanic membrane causes conductive hearing loss, which is characterized by a negative Rinne test, where bone conduction is heard louder than air conduction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young male came with GI complaints like malabsorption, diarrhea. Cutaneous examination noted itchy lesions on the skin with blistering. On histopathology, cryptitis and flattened villi were noted. His condition improved with a gluten-free diet. What is the specific antibody in this condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tissue Transglutaminase 3 (ttg-3)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-nuclear antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unknown", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the Above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tissue Transglutaminase 3 (ttg-3)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Tissue Transglutaminase 3 (ttg-3)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presence of tissue transglutaminase 3 (ttg-3) antibodies is a hallmark of dermatitis herpetiformis, a condition associated with celiac disease. This autoimmune response is triggered by gluten ingestion and manifests with both gastrointestinal and cutaneous symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient from Bihar was admitted with massive splenomegaly, on-off fever, anemia, and features of leishmaniasis. The vector causing it is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rat fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phlebotomus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chrysops fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Black fly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phlebotomus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Phlebotomus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Leishmaniasis, particularly visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), is transmitted by the Phlebotomus species, also known as sandflies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An individual went to the US and developed an infection. LPCB mount showed the following. Identify the cause. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coccidioides immitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blastomyces dermatitidis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Histoplasma capsulatum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Histoplasma capsulatum", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-133750.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Histoplasma capsulatum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Histoplasma capsulatum is identified by its distinctive tuberculate macroconidia on LPCB mounts, which is a key feature to recognize this dimorphic fungus, especially in infections contracted in the United States.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A person was taking an antihypertensive drug and continued taking it despite developing constipation, dry mouth, and dizziness. He was taking it regularly but forgot to take it during a trip abroad and has now developed a hypertensive emergency. Which antihypertensive was he likely taking? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amlodipine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clonidine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lisinopril", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Telmisartan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Clonidine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Clonidine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clonidine is an antihypertensive medication that can cause dry mouth, constipation, and dizziness, and sudden discontinuation can lead to rebound hypertension, making it crucial for patients to maintain consistent dosing.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs, when given with erythromycin, can cause QT prolongation and Torsades de pointes? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Astemizole", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cetirizine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Loratadine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Promethazine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Astemizole", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Astemizole, when combined with erythromycin, can cause QT prolongation and Torsades de pointes due to its significant effect on cardiac potassium channels, posing a high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations, shortness of breath, and dizziness. The child has no significant past medical history. On examination, the heart rate is 220 beats per minute, blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and the child appears anxious but is otherwise stable. An ECG confirms the diagnosis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). What is the initial recommended dose of adenosine for this child? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.1 mg/kg", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.2 mg/kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.5 mg/kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1.0 mg/kg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.1 mg/kg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 0.1 mg/kg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The initial recommended dose of adenosine for treating PSVT in children is 0.1 mg/kg, with a maximum dose of 6 mg. If the initial dose is ineffective, a higher dose of 0.2 mg/kg may be administered.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diagnose the image seen in a 10-year-old child. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Horner Trantas spots", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herbert pits", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pannus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corneal dystrophy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Herbert pits", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120335.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120426.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120443.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120458.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120513.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120527.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120546.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herbert pits are characteristic depressions found in the cornea due to the rupture of follicles, commonly seen in trachoma.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old male presented for evaluation. During the session, he was quite charming, and there is a history of him behaving nicely with family members. However, he often gets in fights with friends. He was also involved in multiple police cases. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antisocial personality", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Narcissistic personality", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schizotypal personality", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paranoid personality", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Antisocial personality", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Antisocial personality</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antisocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a pattern of disregard for others' rights, often involving legal issues, deceitful behavior, and superficial charm.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is NOT true about the given image? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Improves on treatment of thyroid status", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vision loss may be seen in some cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10% may be euthyroid at presentation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NOSPECS classification is used", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Improves on treatment of thyroid status", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120216.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-111537.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Thyroid eye disease is primarily an immune-mediated condition that does not directly improve with the management of thyroid hormone levels; its treatment focuses on controlling inflammation through immunosuppressive therapies.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What type of budding is described by a broad base with a small bud coming off of it, often associated with a figure of 8 appearances? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blastomycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cryptococcus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Candidiasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blastomycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Blastomycosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blastomycosis is characterized by broad-based budding with a figure of 8 appearances, where the term \"Blasto\" helps recall the broad base nature of the budding structure.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Implantation of the embryo takes place how many days after fertilization? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "8", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "15", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-12-123709.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Implantation of the embryo begins around day 5 to 6 and is completed by day 8 to 9 after fertilization.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Common site for congenital diaphragmatic hernia is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterolateral", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Central tendon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Crural", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterolateral", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Posterolateral", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111449.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common site for congenital diaphragmatic hernia is the posterolateral region, predominantly on the left side, known as the Bochdalek hernia.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All are the members of the medical board in MTP &gt; 24 weeks, except? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radiologist", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gynecologist", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Legal advisor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pediatrician", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Legal advisor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Legal advisor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In MTP cases beyond 24 weeks, the medical board consists of medical professionals such as radiologists, gynecologists, and pediatricians, but not legal advisors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Patient with high triglycerides esterified with long chain fatty acid (LCFA) presents with fatigue and biopsy of muscle shows fat vacuoles. Which of the following is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carnitine deficiency", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "FA synthase defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LPL defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LDL receptor defect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Carnitine deficiency", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Carnitine deficiency</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Carnitine is essential for the transport of long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria for beta-oxidation. Deficiency in carnitine leads to the accumulation of triglycerides esterified with long-chain fatty acids in muscle tissues, causing fatigue and exercise intolerance</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is a marker of Alzheimer disease? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha synuclein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amyloid beta plaque", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Glial fibrillary associated protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Desmin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amyloid beta plaque", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amyloid beta plaque is a key pathological marker of Alzheimer’s disease, contributing significantly to the neurodegenerative changes seen in this condition.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Diagnose the following radiograph. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corpus callosal agenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vein of Galen malformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dandy Walker malformation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arnold Chiari malformation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Arnold Chiari malformation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111256.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111317.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111349.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-111409.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Arnold Chiari malformation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Arnold Chiari malformation is identified by the herniation of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum, visible on MRI scans as the downward displacement of cerebellar tissue.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which nerve supplies the hybrid muscle partially spared in a patient who presented with sciatica and tender hamstrings? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Common peroneal nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Femoral nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obturator nerve", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tibial nerve", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Obturator nerve", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/21/screenshot-2024-09-21-115536.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Quick revision of the hybrid muscles of the upper and lower limbs:</li><li>➤ hybrid muscles</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the mediastinal mass shown in the image. The measured Hounsfield unit in the mass revealed -70 HU. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thymoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PTH adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Teratoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Teratoma", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164133.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Teratoma</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Negative Hounsfield Unit values (between -10 to -100) indicate the presence of fat within a lesion, suggesting that the mass could be a teratoma, especially when accompanied by calcifications.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient had a blunt injury to the abdomen after an RTA and underwent ileal resection. He recovered well post-surgery but months later presents with fatigue and exercise intolerance. Which of the following will not be seen? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytonuclear dyssynchrony", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Microcytic hypochromic anemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Romberg's sign positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subacute combined degeneration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Microcytic hypochromic anemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Microcytic hypochromic anemia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ileal resection can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, which manifests as megaloblastic anemia (macrocytic) and neurological symptoms like subacute combined degeneration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient came with complaints of vesicular oral lesions, and on skin sample, DIF showed a fishnet pattern as given below. What is the most likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bullous pemphigoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "LIGA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pemphigus vulgaris", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/05/screenshot-2024-09-05-122748.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Pemphigus vulgaris</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pemphigus vulgaris is associated with a characteristic \"fishnet\" pattern on direct immunofluorescence due to IgG deposition along keratinocyte cell membranes. Recognizing this pattern is crucial for diagnosis.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is suggestive of pseudomembranous colitis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pseudomembranous colitis is characterized by the presence of yellowish pseudomembranes and ulcers in the colon, often caused by Clostridium difficile overgrowth.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which defect is shown below? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bitemporal hemianopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Binasal hemianopia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Altitudinal defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Homonymous hemianopia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Homonymous hemianopia", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120235.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120309.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Homonymous hemianopia is characterized by the loss of the same side of the visual field in both eyes and is typically caused by lesions in the contralateral optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital lobe.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient present at 10 weeks pregnancy. She asks for medical method of abortion. What will you advise her? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyperosmolar saline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mifepristone and misoprostol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oxytocin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dinoprostone", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mifepristone and misoprostol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mifepristone and misoprostol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a medical abortion at 10 weeks, the recommended regimen is mifepristone followed by misoprostol, as it is effective and safe up to 12 weeks of gestation according to WHO guidelines.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "This position is given in which patients? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pulse absent Breathing present", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pulse absent Breathing absent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unconscious with Pulse present Breathing present", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conscious with Pulse present Breathing present", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Unconscious with Pulse present Breathing present", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-17-193248.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Unconscious with Pulse present Breathing present</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recovery position is used for unconscious patients who have a pulse and are breathing, to maintain airway patency and prevent aspiration.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infectious disease has its incubation period as 5-14 days, with its median incubation period being 10 days. The quarantine of contacts traveling to a new country should be done for: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "14 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 14 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) 14 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Quarantine should be conducted for the maximum incubation period of the infectious disease to ensure that symptoms will manifest within that time, confirming whether a contact becomes a case.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The time gap between entry of organism in human body and its maximal infectivity is: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incubation period", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Median IP", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serial IP", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Generation time", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Generation time", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Generation time</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Generation time is the interval between the entry of an organism into the body and the point of maximal infectivity.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 1-week-old child was presented with early cataract. He also has refusal to feed, vomiting, lethargy, jaundice, and sepsis. This can be caused due to the deficiency of which enzyme? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Catalase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aldose reductase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hexokinase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-124104.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classic galactosemia is caused by a deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase and presents with early cataracts, feeding difficulties, vomiting, lethargy, jaundice, and sepsis in newborns.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man had an episode of jaundice due to HBV one year back. On follow-up now, he has normal levels of liver enzymes. His current profile is shown in the image. What is the diagnosis for his current condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic Hepatitis B with HBeAg negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic Hepatitis B with HBeAg positive", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Resolved infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute Hepatitis B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chronic Hepatitis B with HBeAg positive", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/30/screenshot-2024-09-25-125934.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic Hepatitis B is defined by the persistence of HBsAg for more than six months. The presence of HBeAg indicates active viral replication, characterizing the infection as HBeAg positive.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which type of translocation is seen in diaphyseal tumor with small blue round cells? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "EWSR1, WT1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "T11, 22", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "T15, 17", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "T2, 13", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. T11, 22", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) T11, 22</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The t(11;22) translocation is characteristic of Ewing's sarcoma , a diaphyseal tumor with small, round, blue cells, making it a crucial genetic marker for diagnosis.</li><li>➤ t(11;22) translocation</li><li>➤ Ewing's sarcoma</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wolman disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chronic pancreatitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TB Tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chronic pancreatitis", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164611.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Chronic pancreatitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by pancreatic calcifications on imaging, which are absent in acute pancreatitis and other conditions like Wolman disease or TB.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A football player had a twisting injury of the knee with no clinical bony injury. Which test is being performed here? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anterior drawer test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lachman’s test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "McMurray’s test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Posterior drawer test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lachman’s test", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/23/screenshot-2024-09-21-182745.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Lachman’s test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lachman’s test is the most reliable physical exam maneuver for diagnosing ACL tears, performed with the knee in 20-30 degrees of flexion.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A G3P2L1NND1 presents at 37 weeks with previous 2 LSCS with primary active HSV. What is the next best step? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "LSCS", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Classical cesarean", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "VBAC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IOL", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. LSCS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Active herpes simplex virus infection during labor is an indication for a cesarean section to prevent neonatal transmission.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the image: (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radial nerve block", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Axillary block", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bier’s block", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wrist block", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bier’s block", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/18/screenshot-2024-09-18-144929.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bier’s block, or intravenous regional anesthesia (IVRA), is used for anesthetizing a limb by injecting local anesthetic into a vein while using a tourniquet to confine the anesthetic to the limb.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-month-old baby presented with the following symptoms. What is the ideal treatment for the child? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immediate surgery", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "First try medical management", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Surgery after 2 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surgery after 6 months of age", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Immediate surgery", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120600.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-120618_i9UMtPL.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/20/screenshot-2024-09-20-133131.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ For a 2-month-old presenting with leukocoria, immediate surgery is the ideal treatment to prevent amblyopia and ensure proper visual development.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which are the tumor markers for the ultrasound image shown below? (NEET PG 2024) CA 125 LDH AFP hCG CA 19-9", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1,2,4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2,3,5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,2,3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1,2,3,4,5", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1,2,3,4,5", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-12-124341.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 1,2,3,4,5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Different tumor markers, including CA 125, LDH, AFP, hCG, and CA 19-9, are utilized to assess ovarian masses and differentiate between various types of ovarian tumors.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify this instrument used in the delivery of the aftercoming head in breech. (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wrigley forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Piper forceps", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kielland forceps", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dass forceps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Piper forceps", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/untitled-2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-123038.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-123054.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-123106.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/12/screenshot-2024-09-12-123126.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Piper forceps</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Piper forceps are the instrument of choice for the delivery of the aftercoming head in breech presentations due to their specialized design that facilitates safe extraction.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which disease the girl is related to and what's her name? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meena, TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mala, Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sapna, Leprosy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meera, HIV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sapna, Leprosy", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/19/screenshot-2024-09-18-173835.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Sapna, Leprosy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sapna is a character created to promote leprosy awareness and emphasize that leprosy is a 100% curable disease.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient consumed a toxic substance and presented with tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, and hypocalcemia. What is the likely diagnosis? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methanol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ethylene Glycol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Digoxin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ethylene Glycol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Ethylene Glycol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ethylene glycol poisoning is characterized by hypocalcemia due to the formation of calcium oxalate crystals and presents with symptoms such as tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypertension.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following : (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A-SVC, B-Aorta, C-Esophagus, D-Trachea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A-SVC, B-Aorta, C-Trachea, D-Esophagus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "A-Aorta, B-SVC, C-Esophagus, D-Trachea", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A-SVC, B-MPA, C-Esophagus, D-Trachea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A-SVC, B-Aorta, C-Trachea, D-Esophagus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164543.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/13/screenshot-2024-09-13-164543_1eTXmRY.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) A-SVC, B-Aorta, C-Trachea, D-Esophagus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ When identifying structures on a chest CT, it's crucial to accurately recognize the anatomical positions of key structures like the superior vena cava, aorta, trachea, and esophagus based on their appearance and location in cross-sectional imaging.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is true regarding an esophageal foreign body? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Impaction can not cause mediastinitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "More commonly seen in adults", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most common site of impaction is at the level of cricopharyngeus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "One of the constrictions of the esophagus is at the level of the right bronchus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Most common site of impaction is at the level of cricopharyngeus", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/12/screenshot-2024-10-12-140004.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common site for esophageal foreign body impaction is at the level of the cricopharyngeus. Understanding the anatomical constriction points of the esophagus is crucial for diagnosing and managing esophageal impactions effectively.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old woman, G3P2L2, in active labor with arrested cervical dilation at 8 cm, underwent an emergency cesarean section. The newborn was healthy, but the mother developed severe postpartum hemorrhage unresponsive to conservative measures. An emergency hysterectomy was performed as a life-saving intervention. What is the legal justification for performing this procedure without explicit consent from the patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The procedure exposed the physician to legal action for battery.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The hysterectomy was justified under emergency doctrine, thus shielding the physician from liability.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Consent for the hysterectomy should have been obtained during labor.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post-operative counseling of the patient and family about the procedure was unnecessary.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. The hysterectomy was justified under emergency doctrine, thus shielding the physician from liability.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) The hysterectomy was justified under emergency doctrine, thus shielding the physician from liability.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In emergency situations where a delay in treatment could result in significant harm or death, such as intractable postpartum hemorrhage, the law permits life-saving interventions without prior consent under the doctrine of necessity, as stipulated in BNS Section 30 (IPC 92).</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old patient has been experiencing recurrent lower lip swelling for six months, presenting as a soft, translucent cystic lesion, as depicted in the provided image. What is the most appropriate diagnosis and management for this condition? (NEET PG 2024)", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plunging ranula; Incision and drainage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucous retention cyst; Surgical excision", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral ranula; Marsupialization", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mucocele; Aspiration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucous retention cyst; Surgical excision", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/12/screenshot-2024-10-12-140938.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/12/screenshot-2024-10-12-141034.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/12/screenshot-2024-10-12-141050.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/10/12/screenshot-2024-10-12-141105.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Mucous retention cyst; Surgical excision</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mucous retention cysts in the lip should be managed by surgical excision to ensure complete removal and prevent recurrence, as they result from the obstruction of minor salivary gland ducts and do not typically resolve spontaneously.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 210 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 120</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Upsc Cms 2023 Part 1 2023 07 24 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 120</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 120 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Which of the following statements are correct for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B with pegylated interferon (PEG-IFN)? PEG-IFN is poorly tolerated drug as compared to nucleoside analogues. Resistance to treatment with PEG- IFN is common than nucleoside analogues. PEG-IFN is not useful in patients of cirrhosis. PEG-IFN is administered every week for 48 weeks. Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Focal seizures may be associated with which of the following? Jacksonian march Todd's paralysis Epilepsia partialis continua Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. d)1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Typical absence seizures are characterized by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abrupt 3 Hz spike-and-slow wave discharges on EEG", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postictal confusion in children", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multifocal structural abnormalities of brain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Less responsiveness to anti-Convulsants as compared to atypical absence seizures", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Abrupt 3 Hz spike-and-slow wave discharges on EEG", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (a)Abrupt 3 Hz spike-and-slow wave discharges on EEG</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following distinguishes axonal degeneration from segmental demyelination on electrophysiological studies?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Distal latency is normal in axonal degeneration and prolonged in segmental demyelination.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Conduction velocity is slow in axonal degeneration and normal in segmental demyelination.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conduction block is present in axonal degeneration and absent in segmental demyelination.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Temporal dispersion is prominent in axonal degeneration and absent in segmental demyelination.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Distal latency is normal in axonal degeneration and prolonged in segmental demyelination.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The BCR-ABL 1 oncoprotein exhibits constitutive activity of which one of the following enzymes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alanine kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tyrosine kinase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leucine kinase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cysteine kinase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tyrosine kinase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with the development of which one of the following lymphoid malignancies?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Burkitt's lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hodgkin's lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following insulin preparations has the longest effective duration of action?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Detemir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glargine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NPH", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Degludec", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Degludec", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Low serum thyroglobulin levels are seen in?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thyrotoxicosis factitia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Subacute thyroiditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Graves' disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Toxic multinodular goitre", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thyrotoxicosis factitia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male presented with polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia for the last 3 months. His fasting plasma glucose is 106 mg/dL and random blood glucose is 220 mg/dL. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding his diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "He has impaired glucose tolerance (IGT).", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "He has definitive diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "He does not have diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is indeterminate as HbA1c value is not provided.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. He has definitive diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (b) He has definitive diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year lady underwent thyroidectomy for thyroid carcinoma. Post-operatively she started developing muscle cramps, perioral and peripheral paresthesia, and carpopedal spasm. Which one of the following interventions will be appropriate for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nerve conduction velocity in both upper and lower limbs and to administer methylcobalamin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "EMG of both lower limbs and to administer oral prednisolone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measure of serum ionized calcium and to administer IV calcium gluconate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measure of serum bicarbonate and to administer IV bicarbonate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Measure of serum ionized calcium and to administer IV calcium gluconate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is an example of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kallmann's syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Klinefelter's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Turner's syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cryptorchidism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kallmann's syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following antidiabetic drugs may cause weight gain? Glimepiride Pioglitazone NPH insulin Sitagliptin Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs is/are useful in the treatment of Listeria monocytogenes infection? Ceftriaxone Gentamicin Ampicillin Sulfamethoxazole Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2, 3 and 4 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2, 3 and 4 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding brucellosis? Fever may develop into an undulating pattern that persists for weeks. Associated musculoskeletal symptoms are a feature of the disease. Brucellae behave as facultative intracellular parasites Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old diabetic female presents with acute myocardial infarction. ECG changes include ST elevation greater than 1 mm in lead aVR. The likely localization of thrombosis is in?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Right coronary artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Distal LAD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Left circumflex artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Left main or proximal LAD", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Left main or proximal LAD", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Thickened ventricular wall with normal diastolic function is a feature of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Endomyocardial fibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Athlete's heart", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Athlete's heart", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with peripheral edema has the following findings on clinical examination: A soft systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border with raised JVP showing prominent C-V wave. The murmur increases in intensity on deep inspiration. The most likely valvular abnormality is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular septal defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tricuspid regurgitation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitral valve prolapses", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tricuspid regurgitation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient has a cardiac murmur that is best heard at the right second intercostal space. It increases with expiration. Also, the murmur reduces in intensity during sustained handgrip but increases in intensity on inhalation of amyl nitrite. The likely lesion is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ventricular septal defect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aortic stenosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitral regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Aortic stenosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the modified Duke criteria for infective endocarditis, which one of the following is not a major criterion?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "New partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive blood culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Roth's spots", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "New valvular regurgitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Roth's spots", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.(c)</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Osborn waves in ECG show prolonged repolarization with a distinctive convex elevation of the 'J' point. These waves are associated with?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Systemic hypothermia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute pericarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute myocarditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brugada syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Systemic hypothermia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A decline in total lung capacity to less than 80% of patient's predictive value is an indication of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Restrictive lung disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Obstructive lung disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pulmonary artery hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pulmonary embolism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Restrictive lung disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Duffy antigen system serves as receptor for which one of the following protozoal parasites?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Giardia lamblia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasmodium vivax", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Entamoeba histolytica", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Balantidium coli", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Plasmodium vivax", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following viruses can be transmitted via transfusion of infected blood? Hepatitis B virus Hepatitis C virus Human immunodeficiency virus Parvovirus B19 Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following correctly describes the mode of inheritance of haemophilia B?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Autosomal dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autosomal recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X-linked dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "X-linked recessive", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. X-linked recessive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "GnRH deficiency with hyposmia is typically seen in?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kallmann syndrome", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bardet-Biedl syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prader-Willi syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wallenberg syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kallmann syndrome", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following pharmacological agents: Propranolol Sodium ipodate Propylthiouracil Liothyronine Which of the above can be used for the treatment of thyrotoxic crisis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following pharmacological agents: Liothyronine Levothyroxine Carbimazole Sodium ipodate Which of the above may be included in the treatment of myxoedema coma?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child develops 'stranger anxiety' at?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2-3 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4-5 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6-7 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "8-9 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6-7 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with respect to developmental milestones at 9 months of age: At this age, child develops immature pincer grasp. At this age, child can say bisyllables (mama, dada, etc.). At this age, child can wave bye-bye. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the upper age limits by which a child should start walking alone, and be able to speak single words?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12 months, 15 months respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 months, 18 months respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "15 months, 15 months respectively", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "18 months, 18 months respectively", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 15 months, 15 months respectively", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The event related to vaccination which can be contraindication for the next vaccination of similar/identical type is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Syncope following MMR vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Encephalopathy following DPT vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abscess at injection site after DPT vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gastroenteritis following MMR vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Encephalopathy following DPT vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following events could be caused or precipitated by an active component of vaccine? Anaphylaxis after measles vaccine Encephalopathy after DPT vaccine Adenitis following BCG vaccine Gastroenteritis following MMR vaccine Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (a) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "According to the WHO clinical criteria, which of the following clinical signs are indicative of 'severe pneumonia or very severe disease' in children aged 2 months to 5 years? Convulsions Lower chest indrawing Inability to feed Stridor Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct with regard to anorexia nervosa? The illness is often precipitated by weight loss. Food avoidance is common. Body image is intact and there is no fear of weight gain. Downy hair (lanugo) may develop on back, forearms and cheeks Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are correct with regard to alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency? Prolonged jaundice in neonatal period Pulmonary emphysema in adulthood Panniculitis is seen rarely Autosomal dominant disorder Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are common problems in babies with intrauterine growth restriction delivered at term gestation? Hypothermia Hypoglycemia Hypocalcemia Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 and 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration is called?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Expiratory residual volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Functional residual capacity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Residual volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vital capacity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Functional residual capacity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common non-pancreatic site for tumour distribution in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Duodenum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovaries", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stomach", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Duodenum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the risk factors for the acquisition of hepatitis C infection? Faeco-oral transmission Intravenous drug abuse Vertical transmission Sharing toothbrush and razors Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common cause of shock in severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypovolemic shock resulting from third space loss", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Septic shock resulting from infected pancreatic necrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cardiogenic shock resulting from SIRS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abdominal compartment syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypovolemic shock resulting from third space loss", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The serologic marker detectable during 'window' period of hepatitis B infection is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anti-HBsAb", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anti-HBc IgG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anti-HBc IgM", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "HBeAg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anti-HBc IgM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year boy came with chronic diarrhoea and malnutrition. The physician suspected celiac disease. Which of the following are correct in his diagnostic workup? Presence of IgA antiendomysial antibody Absence of reduced height of villi on intestinal biopsy Increased lymphocytes in lamina propria in small intestine biopsy Absence of tTG antibody in serum Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements is/are correct for obesity? Adiponectin levels are reduced in obesity Orlistat is a reversible inhibitor of lipase used for the treatment of obesity Liraglutide used for T2DM management can cause weight gain and not recommended in obese patients with T2DM. Bariatric surgery is recommended in obese patients with BMI &gt;30 kg/m 2 for long-term benefits. Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 2 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Primaquine destroys hypnozoites of Plasmodium vivax for radical cure in which one of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Liver", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peripheral blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Brain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bone marrow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Liver", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) includes which of the following? Asymptomatic neurocognitive disorder Minor neurocognitive disorder HIV-associated dementia Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with regard to cutaneous larva migrans: It is one of the commonest linear lesions seen in travellers. It may be associated with a recent visit to a beach. It is non-pruritic. Track moves across the skin at a rate of 2-3 cm/day. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with regard to giardiasis: Stools should be examined for cysts at 2-3 days interval for its diagnosis. Colonoscopy aspirate gives the highest diagnostic yield. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water. Giardia has a flagellate trophozoite form. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In case of a child with an acute poisoning by ingestion, activated charcoal may be used in which one of the following situations?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Iron ingestion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Antiepileptic ingestion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corrosive ingestion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lithium ingestion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Antiepileptic ingestion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (b) Antiepileptic ingestion</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following genetic causes are commonly associated with autism spectrum disorders? Angelman syndrome Fragile X syndrome Tuberous sclerosis Williams syndrome Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "To reduce the risk of neural tube defects in the baby, which of the following are recommended?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folate supplements, from one month before conception to three months after", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Folate supplements, from confirmation of pregnancy to the end of first trimester", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zinc supplements, from one month before conception to three months after", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Zinc supplements, from confirmation of pregnancy to the end of first trimester", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Folate supplements, from one month before conception to three months after", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (a) Folate supplements, from one month before conception to three months after</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is categorized as a specific learning disability?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysgraphia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dystonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dysthymia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dysphoria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dysgraphia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A baby is delivered at 34 weeks' gestation and found to be apneic at birth. After performing the initial steps of resuscitation, the baby is still apneic. The next step should be?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tactile stimulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive pressure ventilation using 30% oxygen", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positive pressure ventilation using 100% oxygen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chest compression", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Positive pressure ventilation using 30% oxygen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child requires detailed developmental evaluation if the developmental quotient is below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "70%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "75%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "80%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "85%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 70%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In serological investigation of hepatitis B virus infection, presence of hepatitis B e-antigen (HBeAg) is an indicator of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Active replication of virus in the liver", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acute liver failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chronic infection with hepatitis B virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inactive carrier phase of infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Active replication of virus in the liver", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Simultaneous infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV) followed by full recovery is associated with the appearance of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low titres of anti-HDV antibody, IgM type", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low titres of anti-HDV antibody, lgA type", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High titres of anti-HDV antibody, IgM type", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "High titres of anti-HDV antibody, IgG type", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. High titres of anti-HDV antibody, IgM type", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with regard to jaundice: Presence of scleral icterus indicates serum bilirubin level of at least 3 mg/dL. If the examiner suspects scleral icterus, second site to examine is underneath the tongue. In long-standing jaundice, skin may become green due to reduction of bilirubin to biliverdin. Sclerae have a particular affinity for bilirubin due to its high elastin content. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following drugs is associated with calciphylaxis in chronic kidney disease patients?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium channel blocker", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Warfarin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-calcium-based phosphate binder", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thiazide diuretic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Warfarin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following pairs: How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Only one pair", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Only two pairs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only three pairs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All four pairs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Only two pairs", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/24/oph-4.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is a clonal haematopoietic stem cell disorder in which phenotypically normal red blood cells, granulocytes and platelets accumulate in the absence of a recognizable physiological stimulus?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mastocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polycythemia vera", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary myelofibrosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Essential thrombocytosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Polycythemia vera", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following conditions can produce a third heart sound (S 3 ) on auscultation? Young age Pregnancy Left ventricular failure Mitral stenosis Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are true about PR interval? It denotes atrial depolarization. Normal duration is 0.12 second- 0.20 second. Prolongation denotes impaired AV nodal conduction. A short PR interval occurs in WPW syndrome. Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following opportunistic systemic mycoses is characterized by rapid development of severe tissue necrosis and emerged specific as complication associated with COVID-19 infection in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Histoplasmosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coccidioidomycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mucormycosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with regard to coccidioidomycosis: It is a primary systemic mycosis caused by dimorphic fungi Coccidioides immitis and Coccidioides posadasii. Primary pulmonary coccidioidomycosis presents with cough, fever, chest pain and arthritis. Progressive pulmonary coccidioidomycosis presents with constitutional symptoms like fever, weight loss, anorexia and features of lobar pneumonia. Coccidioides meningitis is a mild disease, not warranting any treatment. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with regard to elapid snakebite: Regardless of the anatomic site of bite, walking of victim should be discouraged. Pressure immobilization should be used, wherever possible. Ptosis can be present after the elapid bite. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements regarding radiation enteritis and proctocolitis: Diarrhoea in the acute phase should be treated with codeine or loperamide. Surgery is the treatment of choice and involves resection of the injured intestine. Sucralfate enemas and hyperbaric oxygen are effective treatments. Small bowel strictures and rectovaginal fistulae may develop as chronic complications. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are recommended for management of tumour lysis syndrome? Urinary alkalinization Intravenous fluids Rasburicase Febuxostat Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are contraindications to thrombolysis in acute ischemic stroke? Recent head injury Recent MI Hypertension &gt; 150/100 mm Hg GI bleeding in last 3 weeks Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following drugs helps to maintain abstinence by reducing craving for alcohol?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Apomorphine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Acamprosate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Atropine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Azathioprine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Acamprosate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Imatinib, Dasatinib, Nilotinib and Ponatinib are examples of which class of drugs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interferons", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monovalent antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bivalent antibodies", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tyrosine kinase inhibitors", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Functioning pituitary adenoma most commonly arises from which one of the following cells?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Somatotroph", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lactotroph", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corticotroph", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Thyrotroph", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lactotroph", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following statements is true regarding the use of SGLT2 inhibitor in management of diabetes mellitus?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "They are used in type-1, type-2 and pancreatogenic forms of diabetes mellitus.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "They cause increase in blood pressure by 3-6 mm Hg and hence avoided in hypertensive patients.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Their glucose-lowering effect is dependent on insulin secretion and insulin sensitivity.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis may occur during treatment if there is a concurrent illness.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis may occur during treatment if there is a concurrent illness.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old lady, who is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis, presents with obesity, moon facies, abdominal striae and hypertension. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test shows serum cortisol is greater than 50 nmol/L, serum ACTH is less than 1.1 pmol/L. The adrenal imaging and brain CT/MRI imaging studies are unremarkable. The likely diagnosis is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cushing's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ectopic ACTH-secreting tumour", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exogenous glucocorticoid use", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adrenal adenoma", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Adrenal adenoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. d) Adrenal adenoma</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A tall thin adolescent boy is found to have gynaecomastia and small testes. His blood testosterone level is undetectable, and serum FSH and LH levels are elevated. Which one of the following is the likely karyotype pattern?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "46 XY", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "45 XO", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "47 XXY", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "21 Trisomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 47 XXY", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following abnormalities occur from vitamin D deficiency in children? Craniotabes Bossing of frontal and parietal bones Muscle hypotonia Shrinking of epiphysis at the lower end of radius Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is a cause of relative erythrocytosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High altitude", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cardiorespiratory disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High-affinity haemoglobins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diuretics", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diuretics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding UTI? Urine is an excellent culture medium for bacteria. Atrophic urethritis in post-menopausal women is a risk factor. Antibiotics are recommended in all cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria. Certain strains of E. coli have a particular propensity to invade urinary tract. Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding scorpion stings? Scorpion injects venom from a stinger on their tail. Most stings are painful, but relatively harmless. Anticholinergics can be used if antivenom is unavailable. Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (d)</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding Kyasanur forest disease? It is commonly seen in North-Eastern States of India. Monkeys act as reservoir of the disease. Transmission happens through tick bite. Inactivated vaccine is available for its prevention. Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (d) 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following antidiabetic drugs is recommended for weight loss in obese patients?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glimepiride", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Liraglutide", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sitagliptin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insulin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Liraglutide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements regarding inflammatory bowel disease: Ulcerative colitis (UC) involves terminal ileum and rarely causes proctitis. Cobblestone appearance of bowel is seen in Crohn's disease. Skip lesions are a characteristic of ulcerative colitis but never seen in Crohn's disease. Ulcerative colitis is more common in smokers than non-smokers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 only", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which of the following cases does paradoxical splitting occur? Severe aortic stenosis Right bundle branch block Right ventricular pacing Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Kussmaul's sign is a clinical feature of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Constrictive pericarditis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anteroseptal myocardial infarction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dilated cardiomyopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Constrictive pericarditis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following diseases affects predominantly large arteries?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Granulomatosis with polyangiitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polyarteritis nodosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Giant cell arteritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Giant cell arteritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year male is suspected of having hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Which of the following statements are likely to be true on his examination? Maneuvers that decrease LV preload will cause the murmur to intensify. Maneuvers that decrease LV afterload will cause decrease in intensity of murmur. Murmur of HOCM becomes softer with passive leg raising. Murmur of HOCM becomes louder with squatting. Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "With regard to transfusion therapy, cryoprecipitate is a rich source of which of the following? Fibrinogen Clotting factor VIII Clotting factor IX Von Willebrand factor Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following conditions characteristically may present with a triad of hemolysis, pancytopenia and venous thrombosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hereditary spherocytosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hemolytic uremic syndrome", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is associated with low MCV of red blood cells?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folate deficiency anaemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickle cell anaemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thalassemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Iodine has complex effects on thyroid function. Very high concentrations of iodine inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis and release. This effect is known as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wolff-Chaikoff effect", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Jod-Basedow effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reverse Wolff-Chaikoff effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reverse Jod-Basedow effect", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wolff-Chaikoff effect", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The upper limit of age for attainment of visual fixation or following is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Birth", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 month", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 months", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (d) 3 months</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A child presents to the emergency following ingestion of around 20 ml of kerosene oil about 40 minutes back. The child appears stable. Which one of the following measures should be done for the management of the child?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gastric lavage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oxygen therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intravenous steroids", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiography", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Radiography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following can be used for developmental screening for use in community to identify children (aged 0-6 years) with developmental delay?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Revised Denver Development Screening Test (Denver II)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ-3)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phatak's Baroda Development Screening Test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trivandrum Development Screening Chart", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Trivandrum Development Screening Chart", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An eleven-month-old unimmunized child comes for immunization. Which vaccines should be given in this visit?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BCG, OPV, DPT and Hepatitis B vaccines", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "OPV, DPT and MR vaccines only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BCG, DPT and MR vaccines", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "OPV, DPT, MR and Hepatitis B vaccines", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. OPV, DPT, MR and Hepatitis B vaccines", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (d) OPV, DPT, MR and Hepatitis B vaccines</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are adverse effects of loop and thiazide diuretics? Metabolic acidosis. Hypovolemia Hyponatremia Hypokalaemia Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to peptic ulcer prophylaxis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stress ulceration during clinical illness is uncommon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ulcer prophylaxis should continue once the absorption of enteral feed is established", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are effective at reducing the incidence of ulceration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "PPIs when used with antibiotics may decrease the risk of Clostridium difficile infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are effective at reducing the incidence of ulceration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the features of post-lumbar puncture headache? Dull aching occipitofrontal headache Worse on waking but improves during the day Recumbency usually improves the headache within minutes Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 and 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (c) 1 and 3 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs can cause granulomatous liver injury? Carbamazepine Allopurinol Diltiazem Acetaminophen Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the five essential components of nurturing care? Health Nutrition Breastfeeding Responsive caregiving Early learning Immunization Safety and security Supplementation Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 4, 5 and 7", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4 and 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 4, 6, 7 and 8", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3, 5, 6 and 8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A full-term baby born with birth weight of 2000 g comes for well-baby visit at two months of age. Which of the following nutritional supplements would you advise?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to 3 months of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to 1 year of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 3 months of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 1 year of age", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 1 year of age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following statements is correct regarding a normal newborn's growth?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weight loss may be 8-10% of birth weight in the initial two weeks of life.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Birth weight is regained by 7-10 days of age.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Birth weight is regained within first week of life.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weight loss may be 12-15% of birth weight in the initial two weeks of life.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Birth weight is regained by 7-10 days of age.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 56-year male, chronic heavy smoker, presented with breathlessness. On examination, pulse: 96/minute, BP: 112/70 mm Hg and a pansystolic murmur is showing Carvallo's sign with murmur getting louder on deep inspiration. Which one of the following is correct with regard to examination of JVP in him?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "V wave is attenuated.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "C wave is attenuated and V wave is accentuated", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "V wave and C wave merge.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "V wave and C wave merge and Y descent is blunted.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. V wave and C wave merge.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is a manifestation of vascular phenomenon in modified Duke criteria?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Osler's node", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Roth's spots", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Janeway's lesions", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glomerulonephritis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Janeway's lesions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The investigation of choice for early follow-up in patients treated for anti-H. pylori drugs is", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Urea breath test", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rapid urease test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stool H. pylori antigen test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serology for H. pylori", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Urea breath test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common causative agent for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Escherichia coli", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enterococcus sp.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptococcus viridans", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Escherichia coli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following drugs are effective in preventing uric acid nephropathy in patients receiving chemotherapy? Probenecid Forced saline diuresis Rasburicase Acetazolamide Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with regard to cysticercosis: It may present as personality change. Subcutaneous nodule may be excised for histology. Cerebral signs commonly do not occur until the larvae die, 5-20 years later. Praziquantel can be given for 10 days. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with regard to strongyloidiasis: It parasitizes the mucosa of upper part of small intestine. Larva currens is fast-moving transient rash seen across abdomen and buttocks Ivermectin is not an effective treatment. Systematic strongyloidiasis is seen in immunocompetent state. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 and 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Type-2 necrotizing fasciitis is caused by?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Group A Streptococcus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vibrio vulnificus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clostridium septicum", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus aureus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Group A Streptococcus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following treatments for a pregnant lady who has been exposed to a patient of chicken pox are correct? Varicella-zoster immune globulin Varicella-zoster vaccine Acyclovir Prednisolone Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 and 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (c) 1 and 3 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "For developmental assessment of a baby, grasp is best assessed by offering the child?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A red ring", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A red cube", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red pellets", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multicoloured pellets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A red cube", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Urinary alkalinization as a method for enhancing excretion for poisoning is aimed at achieving?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serum pH 7.5-8", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urine pH 7.5-8", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum pH &gt; 8", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urine pH &gt; 8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Urine pH 7.5-8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Exchange transfusion as a method to enhance excretion of poison is indicated in?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Methemoglobinemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbamazepine poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Theophylline poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Barbiturate poisoning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Methemoglobinemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (a) Methemoglobinemia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vaccine-associated poliomyelitis is chiefly seen with which of the following strains of oral poliovirus?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "OPV 1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "OPV 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "OPV 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both OPV 1 and OPV 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. OPV 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (c) OPV 3 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Carotenoderma, due to ingestion of excessive amounts of carotene-containing fruits and vegetables, can be distinguished from jaundice by sparing of which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Soles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nasolabial folds", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sclerae", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sclerae", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Meares-Stamey test is used in which one of the following clinical conditions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Recurrent urinary tract infection in men", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urinary tract infection in pregnant women", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complicated cystitis in pregnant women", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pelvic inflammatory disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Recurrent urinary tract infection in men", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is the primary underlying mechanism of haemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ABO incompatibility", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red cell fragmentation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Complement-mediated destruction of CD59(-) red blood cells", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exotoxins produced by Clostridium perfringens", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Complement-mediated destruction of CD59(-) red blood cells", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following insulins has a cloudy preparation and requires resuspension prior to injection?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lente", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glargine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Detemir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Degludec", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lente", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are typical physical findings in pericardial effusion? Raised JVP Hypotension Oliguria Water hammer pulse Select the correct answer using the code given below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of schistosomiasis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Praziquantel", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Albendazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ivermectin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Praziquantel", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following fungal infections is caused by dermal inoculation of the fungal agent, usually from a thorn?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mycetoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aspergillosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mucormycosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sporotrichosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sporotrichosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following hormones is responsible for gallbladder contraction and release of bile into duodenum?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Secretin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastrin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cholecystokinin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vasoactive intestinal peptide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cholecystokinin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 130 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 120</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-yellow-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-yellow-400 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="mark-review">Mark for Review</button> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="next-btn">Next</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="nav-toggle">Questions Navigation</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Upsc Cms 2023 Part 2 2023 07 24 - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 120</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 120 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Which one of the following statements regarding Inflammatory Bowel Disease is correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rectum is always involved in Crohn's disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fistula formation is common in Ulcerative Colitis.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stricture formation is common in Ulcerative Colitis.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Perianal disease is common in Crohn's disease.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Perianal disease is common in Crohn's disease.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for the management of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corrosive poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Variceal bleeding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asphyxia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tension pneumothorax", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Variceal bleeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Variceal bleeding</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The best position to palpate the minimal enlargement of spleen is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supine with lower limbs extended", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Palpation of left subcostal area in right lateral decubitus position", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bimanual palpation in supine position", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Palpation of left subcostal area in knee-elbow position", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Palpation of left subcostal area in right lateral decubitus position", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. b)Palpation of left subcostal area in right lateral decubitus position</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In seat belt syndrome the most common site of bleeding is from:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bowel", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mesentery", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Liver", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spleen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mesentery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mesentery</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following statements is correct regarding eFAST in trauma?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is a technique to assess free fluid in the abdominal cavity only.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is a technique to assess free fluid in abdominal cavity, thoracic cavity and pericardium.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is a technique to assess free fluid in pelvic cavity.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is a technique to assess free fluid in pleural cavity.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is a technique to assess free fluid in abdominal cavity, thoracic cavity and pericardium.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. It is a technique to assess free fluid in abdominal cavity, thoracic cavity and pericardium.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The daily requirement of iron during second half of pregnancy is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 mg per day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 mg per day", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 mg per day", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 mg per day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6 mg per day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 6 mg per day</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the clinical features of molar pregnancy? History of amenorrhea and vaginal bleeding Patient has excessive vomiting History of expulsion of grape-like vesicles Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the characteristics of true labour pains? Intensity and duration of contractions increase progressively Progressive effacement and dilatation of the cervix Formation of the ‘bag of forewaters' Pain is confined to lower abdomen and groin Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which are the parts of active management of third stage of labour? Injection oxytocin 10 units IM within 1 minute of delivery of baby Injection oxytocin 10 units IM at the birth of first twin in twin pregnancy Controlled cord traction Delayed cord clamping as per indications Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Clinical features of an infant with Fetal growth retardation at birth include which of the following? Physical features give 'an old man look'. Baby is alert, reflexes are normal. There is presence of weight deficit. Thick fat accumulates around shoulders of baby. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following statements regarding Gas Gangrene Infection is correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is caused by C. perfringens, a gram negative aerobic non-spore-forming bacilli.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is caused by C. perfringens, a gram-positive anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is caused by C. tetani, a gram-positive anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is caused by C. tetani, a gram negative anaerobic non-spore-forming bacilli.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is caused by C. perfringens, a gram-positive anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The term \"Gompertzian curve\" is related to which one of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tumour", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gallstone", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Intestinal obstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hernia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tumour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Tumour</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old gentleman complains of dragging pain in the scrotum. The examination reveals the scrotum full of bag of worms which disappear on lying down. The usual first line option for relief is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Percutaneous embolization of gonadal veins", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Radio frequency ablation of testicular veins", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Laparoscopic excision of affected testes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Excision of pampiniform plexus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Percutaneous embolization of gonadal veins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Percutaneous embolization of gonadal veins</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "\"Mickey Mouse Sign\" during B-mode duplex ultrasound imaging comprises:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Popliteal artery, Popliteal vein and Saphenous nerve", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anterior tibial artery, Dorsalis pedis artery and Extensor hallucis tendon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Common femoral vein, Common femoral artery and Great Saphenous vein", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Brachial artery, Basilica vein and Biceps tendon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Common femoral vein, Common femoral artery and Great Saphenous vein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Common femoral vein, Common femoral artery and Great Saphenous vein</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the functions of larynx? Fixation of the chest Aids in swallowing of food Phonation Respiration Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Masaoka staging is used for staging:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Germ cell tumours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thymoma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lymphoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neurogenic tumours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Thymoma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Thymoma</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following drugs is a long acting local anaesthetic agent?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lignocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bupivacaine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prilocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ropivacaine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bupivacaine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Bupivacaine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the common complications associated with enteral nutrition in postoperative patients? Tube malposition, displacement Diarrhoea, constipation Predisposition to systemic sepsis Electrolytic imbalance Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ischaemia-Reperfusion syndrome is characterized by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoxia and activation of inflammation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thrombo-embolic angiopathy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acute mesenteric thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Buildup of bicarbonate and Na + ions", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypoxia and activation of inflammation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding Chikungunya fever? It is usually transmitted by Culex mosquito. A safe and effective vaccine is available for commercial use. Incubation period is 4 - 7 days. One of the prominent symptoms is arthropathy. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 and 4 only", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 3 and 4 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 3 and 4 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following mosquito-borne diseases are transmitted chiefly by Aedes mosquito? Dengue West Nile fever Yellow fever Zika fever Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one among the following is best defined as the interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Generation time", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Latent period", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incubation period", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serial interval", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Generation time", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Generation time</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Exposure to gases is a common hazard in industries. The gases can be classified as simple, asphyxiating and anaesthetic gases. Which among the following are asphyxiating gases? Carbon monoxide Chloroform Cyanide gas Hydrogen Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following vaccines best represent interventions that focus on cancer prevention too? Hepatitis A vaccine Hepatitis B vaccine Hemophilus influenzae B vaccine Human papilloma virus vaccine Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements: Statement-I: While calculating the number of expected pregnancies per year in an area, a correction factor (usually 10%) is added to the expected number of live births in the year in the area. Statement-II: All the pregnancies in the area may not be registered by the health worker in the area. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Statement-I and Statement-II are independently correct, and Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Statement-I and Statement-II are independently correct, but Statement-II is not correct explanation for Statement-I.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Statement-I and Statement-II are independently correct, but Statement-II is not correct explanation for Statement-I.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Statement-I and Statement-II are independently correct, but Statement-II is not correct explanation for Statement-I.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements with reference to 'trans fatty acids': They are geometrical isomers of cis-unsaturated fatty acids. Though atherogenic, being unsaturated they are less so than saturated fatty acids. It takes years for trans fatty acids to be flushed from the body. They lower both LDL cholesterol and HDL cholesterol in the body. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "With reference to occupational cancers, consider the following statements: Skin cancer is a common occupational hazard in workers employed in nickel and chromium work. Cancer bladder is an occupational hazard in workers employed in dye-stuffs and dyeing industry. Leukaemia can occur on long exposure to benzol. Lung cancer is typically found in workers employed in electric cable industries. Which of the statements given above are correct ?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 and 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are domains (or types) of learning? Affective learning Cognitive learning Physiological learning Psychomotor learning Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following correctly represent the three critical determinants of a healthy facility being declared as a First Referral Unit (FRU)? Availability of emergency obstetric surgical interventions Availability of immunization services Blood storage facility New born care Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme, ASHAs have been entrusted to carry out which of the following activities? ASHAs are to search for suspected cases of leprosy in their villages and take them to the PHCs for diagnosis and treatment. ASHAs arrange an amount of 5,000 as an incentive to each leprosy affected person in their village for undergoing reconstructive surgery. ASHAs ensure that each leprosy affected person in their village receives micro-cellular rubber footwear for protection of insensitive feet. ASHAs follow up all confirmed cases of leprosy in their village to ensure their treatment completion. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 and 4 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 and 4 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1 and 4 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "\"Collar-stud\" abscess is seen in:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lymphomatous degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Streptococcal infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pseudomonas infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are correct regarding Trichobezoar? It is a hair ball in the stomach. It is common in psychiatric patients. Common complications are bleeding, perforation or obstruction. Treated with long course of proton pump inhibitors. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Zollinger Elison syndrome is characterized by which of the following? Fulminating gastric ulcers Recurrent ulceration despite treatment Non-beta islet cell tumour of pancreas Recurrent episodes of dysentery Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements with regard to Colorectal Carcinoma are correct? Left-sided Colorectal Carcinoma presents with bleeding per rectum. Right-sided Colorectal Carcinoma presents with iron deficiency anaemia. Right-sided Colorectal Carcinoma is more common as compared to the left-sided Colorectal Carcinoma. Colonoscopy is the investigation of choice for suspected Colorectal Carcinoma. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Familial Adenomatous Polyposis? It is associated with mutation of APC gene located on the short arm of chromosome 5. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. It is associated with 100% lifetime risk for development of Colorectal carcinoma. Congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium is present in half of the cases of familial adenomatous polyposis Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "First stage of labour starts from:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Full dilatation of cervix to the expulsion of the fetus from the birth canal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Maternal bearing down efforts and ends with the delivery of the baby", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The onset of true labour pains and ends with the full dilatation of cervix", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The formation of bag of waters", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The onset of true labour pains and ends with the full dilatation of cervix", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following set of muscles collectively form the muscle 'Levator Ani' that forms the pelvic floor? Ischiococcygeus Pubococcygeus Sacrococcygeus Iliococcygeus Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is a prerequisite for Endometrial Ablation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Uterus is 12 - 14 weeks size", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Woman wants to preserve her reproductive function", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fibroids&gt; 3 cm in size", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Woman who prefers to preserve her uterus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Woman who prefers to preserve her uterus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Woman who prefers to preserve her uterus</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following day of menstrual cycle is best for endometrial sampling to diagnose ovulation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "8 th - 10 th day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "12 th - 14 th day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "16 th - 20 th day", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "21 st - 23 rd day", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 21 st - 23 rd day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 21st- 23rdday</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old female married for 3 years regularly cohabiting with husband presents to Gynaecology OPD with complaints of inability to conceive for 2 years. During clinical evaluation hysterosalpingography was done which revealed irregular outline of uterine cavity and rigid fallopian tubes with nodulations. Most likely cause for this condition is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Genital Herpes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syphilis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Genital Tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gonorrhoea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Genital Tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Genital Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Prophylactic oophorectomy is recommended in high-risk women with which of the following? Carrying BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes Family history of breast, colon, ovarian cancer Patients having tubo-ovarian abscess Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 and 2 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 and 2 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are dashboard indicators used for monitoring of India Newborn Action Plan (INAP). Which one of them is an impact level indicator?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Caesarean section rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neonatal mortality rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exclusive breastfeeding rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Percentage of preterm births", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neonatal mortality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Neonatal mortality rate</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Who among the following has two general phases - first, simple pneumoconiosis and a second phase characterized by progressive massive fibrosis (PMF)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Siderosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Anthracosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A water body was inspected to look for the presence of mosquito eggs. It was observed that there were boat-shaped eggs, laid singly, not in clusters. The eggs also had lateral floats. Which one of the following diseases is most likely to be spread by the mosquito whose eggs were found?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chikungunya fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Japanese encephalitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malaria", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Malaria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Malaria</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Sample Registration System (SRS), an important source of health information, consists of continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator and an independent survey every six months by an investigator-supervisor. Which one of the following terms best describes this system?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dual-record system", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Triple-record system", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Double blinding", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Double data entry", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dual-record system", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Dual-record system</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is defined as “the average number of children a woman would have if she were to pass through her reproductive years, bearing children at the same rates as the women now in each age group”?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age-Specific Fertility Rate (ASFR)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "General Fertility Rate (GFR)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Total Fertility Rate (TFR)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Total Fertility Rate (TFR)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Total Fertility Rate (TFR)</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Regarding active immunization against Typhoid fever, consider the following statements: The typhoid polysaccharide vaccine is injectable and can be given subcutaneously or intramuscularly. The typhoid polysaccharide vaccine is required to be given in two doses and administered on 0 and 7th day. The typhoid oral Ty21a vaccine requires to be given in three doses on 0, 3rd and 7th days. Protective immunity with typhoid vaccines is achieved immediately after the vaccine is received. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mantoux test for tuberculosis? It entails injecting 1 TU (Tuberculin Unit) of PPD (Purified Protein Derivative) in 0.1 mL intradermally. The injection should be given with the needle bevel facing downward. When placed correctly, the injection should produce a pale wheal of the skin, 1-2 mm in diameter. The injection should be given with a tuberculin syringe. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The ‘Nalgonda Technique' developed by the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) was developed primarily for the removal of which one of the following from water?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asbestos", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chlorine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fluorine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Fluorine</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Water contamination with high content of which chemical can lead to methemoglobinemia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cyanide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nitrate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluoride", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sulphide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Nitrate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Nitrate</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are examples of LARC (long-acting reversible contraceptives)? Copper – T 380A Implants LNG-IUS Select the correct answer using the code given below?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Bilateral total salpingectomy is recommended surgical procedure to reduce the risk of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epithelial ovarian cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uterine cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fallopian tube cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Peritoneal cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epithelial ovarian cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Epithelial ovarian cancer</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Tongue bite occurs in eclampsia at:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tonic stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clonic stage", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coma stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Post-ictal stage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Clonic stage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Clonic stage</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are the absolute contraindications for the use of combined oral contraceptive pills? Severe hypertension Pregnancy Diabetes with retinopathy Gall bladder disease Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is an indication for cold knife conisation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treatment of Nabothian follicle on ectocervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inconsistent findings of colposcopy, cytology and directed biopsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Negative endocervical curettage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Squamous cell carcinoma cervix stage IIA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inconsistent findings of colposcopy, cytology and directed biopsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Inconsistent findings of colposcopy, cytology and directed biopsy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most popular technique of tubal ligation is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Madlener operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pomeroy technique", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Uchida method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cornual resection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pomeroy technique", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pomeroy technique</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As per the classification of Obstetric Anal Sphincter Injury (RCOG-2007), tear of greater than 50% of External Anal Sphincter is of degree:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2c", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3b", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3a", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3b", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3b</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "‘Schiller-Duval body' is a characteristic histological feature of which one of the following cancers?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dysgerminoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endodermal sinus tumour", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-gestational ovarian choriocarcinoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sex cord stromal tumours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endodermal sinus tumour", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Surgical treatment by 'ventrosuspension of uterus' is used for what condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pelvic organ prolapse", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retroversion of uterus", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rupture of uterus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vault prolapse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Retroversion of uterus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Retroversion of uterus</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During delivery of HIV infected women, which of the following are recommended? Zidovudine (ZDV) is given at the onset of labour. Elective caesarean delivery reduces the risk of vertical transmission. Amniotomy and oxytocin augmentation should be done. Antiretroviral therapy should be given to all neonates. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy presents with which of the following features? Pruritus after 28 weeks gestation, especially in palms and soles Serum bilirubin levels &gt; 5 mg% Raised levels of serum bile acids Features subside within two weeks postpartum Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are blood values of Iron Deficiency Anemia? 1. Serum iron is less than 30 microgram / 100 mL 2. Total Iron binding capacity is less than 400 microgram / dL 3. Percentage saturation is 10% or less 4. Serum Ferritin is below 30 microgram / L Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The most common benign tumour of the liver is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adenoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemangioma", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Focal nodular hyperplasia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Angiomyolipoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hemangioma", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hemangioma</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young 28-year-old male was operated for duodenal ulcer perforation peritonitis. After having recovered well for five days, he developed high fever with chills and symptoms of toxemia. He developed right shoulder tip pain and intractable hiccoughs. The most likely diagnosis is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Surgical site infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postoperative peritonitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subphrenic abscess", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Right lobe liver abscess", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Subphrenic abscess", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one of the following is a cause of exudative ascites?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Congestive cardiac failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Portal vein thrombosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Peritoneal malignancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nephrotic syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Peritoneal malignancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Peritoneal Malignancy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 47-year-old man comes to Surgery OPD with history of recurrent episodes of UTI. He gives history of the urine being frothy and occasionally having bubbles. The probable diagnosis is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anaerobic bacterial infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Colovesical fistula", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tubercular cystitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urethrocutaneous fistula", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Colovesical fistula", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Colovesical fistula</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are seen in Normal pressure hydrocephalus? Hearing loss Gait disturbance Incontinence Cognitive decline Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Carbohydrate metabolism in normal pregnancy shows:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fasting hypoglycaemia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Postprandial hypoglycaemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased sensitivity of insulin receptors in mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decreased plasma glucagon levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fasting hypoglycaemia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Fasting hypoglycaemia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A typical case of Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) in pregnancy will show which of the following? Hb less than 10 gm% PCV less than 30% MCHC more than 30% Microcytic hypochromic picture on peripheral blood smear (PBS) Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following vaccines can be given to a pregnant woman? COVID vaccine Measles, Mumps, Rubella vaccine Hepatitis B vaccine Rabies vaccine Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are correct regarding acute mastitis? Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/25/image-20230725134157-2.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are correct regarding ‘Chhaya' contraceptive? It has potent anti-estrogenic and weak estrogenic property. Failure rate is 1 - 4 per HWY (Hundred Women Years) of use. It inhibits ovulation. It creates asynchrony between zygote and endometrium. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The ratio for Type-I to Type-III collagen during maturation of collagen in remodelling phase is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1:1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2:1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3:1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4:1", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4:1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old male child comes with a left sided scrotal swelling which has no cough impulse and does not reduce on compression or lying down but the parents give a definite history that swelling is absent in the morning and comes by in the evening. The best treatment is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To leave it alone (masterly inactivity)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Herniotomy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eversion of sac", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hernioplasty", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Herniotomy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Herniotomy</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A malnourished 60-year-old man underwent emergency surgery for Strangulated Sigmoid Volvulus. After resection of the sigmoid colon, a colostomy was fashioned. The postoperative period was stormy and he developed a painful calf swelling in right lower limb. The most probable diagnosis is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypoproteinemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oedema of renal failure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Myocardial failure due to fluid overload", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deep vein thrombosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Deep vein thrombosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Deep vein thrombosis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following in respect of Salmon patch: It is a hemangioma. Its usual site is nape of neck. It is common in children. It needs surgical excision. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are components of \"Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome\" ? Cutaneous Naevus Subcutaneous Lipomas Varicose veins Soft tissue hypertrophy Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements regarding Thyroglossal duct are correct? It is situated in midline of neck. It moves upwards on swallowing but not on tongue protrusion. It is treated with Sistrunk operation. It may be the only functioning thyroid tissue in the body. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are included in the classical clinical presentation of pericardial tamponade? Tachycardia Muffled heart sounds Decreased arterial pressure Collapsed neck veins Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following clinical features: Low back pain Saddle anaesthesia Motor weakness in the lower extremities Variable rectal and urinary symptoms Which of the above features may be present in a patient with Cauda Equina syndrome?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1, 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient with head injury with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 10 is classified as:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Minor injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mild injury", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moderate injury", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Severe injury", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Moderate injury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Moderate injury</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Gas Gangrene resulting in crepitus in tissues and a sweet smelling brown exudate is caused due to infection by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anaerobic bacteroides spp.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clostridium perfringens", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gas-forming Klebsiella spp.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Synergistic bacteria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Clostridium perfringens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are correct regarding Blood substitutes? They are biomimetic. They are extensively used in war injuries They are made of perfluorocarbon emulsions. They are haemoglobin-based. Select the correct answer using the code given below :", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which one of the following diseases are the source of infection and reservoir of infection the same?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hookworm infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cholera", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Typhoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tetanus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tetanus</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In which one of the following vector-borne diseases, the transmission chain is ‘Man-Snail-Man'?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fish tapeworm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Onchocerciasis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schistosomiasis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Schistosomiasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Schistosomiasis</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following vaccines: BCG Vaccine Hepatitis B Vaccine Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) What is the correct order of the above vaccines as per their sensitivity to heat (most sensitive to least sensitive) given in the National Immunization Schedule (NIS)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 → 3 → 2 → 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 → 1 → 3 → 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 → 1 → 4 → 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 → 3 → 1 → 2", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 4 → 3 → 1 → 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 4 → 3 → 1 → 2</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 of India provides for certain benefits to employees, which among the following are benefits to insured persons or to other dependents under the Act? Disablement benefit Funeral expenses Maternity benefit Travel benefit Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2 and 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 2 and 3 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which food proteins among the following are considered to be the best and are used in nutritional studies as reference protein?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Milk proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Egg proteins", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wheat proteins", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Legume proteins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Egg proteins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Egg proteins</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following disorders: Delayed motor milestones Extrapyramidal spasticity Nyctalopia Hearing defects Which of the above disorders occur as part of the spectrum of iodine deficiency disorders?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "If, on amniocentesis, the alpha fetoprotein is found to be elevated in the amniotic fluid, which defect/disorder is the foetus likely to harbour?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiac septal defects", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neural tube defects", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Galactosaemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Neural tube defects", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Neural tube defects</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are beneficiaries of services provided under the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)? Adolescent boys Adolescent girls Pregnant women Children less than 6 years of age Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the correct increasing order of minimum age at which the following vaccines are administered to a child, as part of the National Immunization Schedule (NIS) after birth of child ? BCG vaccine Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine Rotavirus vaccine Tetanus and adult diphtheria (Td) vaccine Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 → 2 → 3 → 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 → 3 → 2 → 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 → 3 → 4 → 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 → 1 → 4 → 2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 → 3 → 2 → 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1 → 3 → 2 → 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 60-year-old tobacco chewer and heavy bidi smoker comes with diminished mouth opening and occasional spitting of blood mixed with saliva. Oral examination revealed a white buccal mucosa with a bright red velvety plaque. The most likely diagnosis is -", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Speckled leukoplakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leukoplakia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythroplakia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral candidiasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Leukoplakia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Leukoplakia</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The best cosmetic result following breast reconstruction is achieved with:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Latissimus dorsi flap", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Silicone gel implant with reconstruction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acellular dermal matrix flap", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The inferior rectal artery is a branch of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Internal iliac artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inferior mesenteric artery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Internal pudendal artery", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Median sacral artery", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Internal pudendal artery", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements with regard to Meckel's Diverticulum are correct? It represents a persistent remnant of the Vitello intestinal duct. It is a pseudo diverticulum of gastrointestinal tract. It is most commonly found on antimesenteric border of ileum. Heterotopic mucosa is present in 20% patients. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While managing oesophageal perforations, which of the following factors favour non-operative management? Perforation by a flexible endoscope Perforation into mediastinum Perforation with a small septic load Perforation of the abdominal oesophagus Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Secondary arrest of dilatation during the process of labour may be due to which of the following factors? Poor uterine contractions Cessation of cervical dilatation despite strong uterine contractions Disproportion and malpresentation Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 and 3 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Vesicovaginal fistula is classified as complicated if it has which of the following features? Size - more than 3 cm Bladder involvement – Supra-trigonal Location- Mid-vaginal Presence of prior radiation Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans.</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Blood supply to the uterus comes from which of the following arteries? Ovarian artery Vaginal artery Uterine artery Inferior vesical artery Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "NACO (National AIDS Control Organization) in India works towards which of the following causes? Screening high risk cases of HIV Facilitating adoption of orphans Public education towards safe sex Treating HIV cases free of cost Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The cost of implementation of 'Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana' is borne by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central Government only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "State Government only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both Central Government and State Government", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Private institutions only as a part of their Corporate Social Responsibility", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both Central Government and State Government", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Both Central Government and State Government</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following are health education models? Medical model Motivation model Persuasion model Social intervention model Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "With regard to lead poisoning, consider the following statements: Coproporphyrin in urine is a useful screening test. Hand washing before eating is an important measure of personal hygiene. The use of d-penicillamine has been reported to be effective in management. How many of the statements given above is/are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "All three", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. All three", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. All three</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the National Health Policy 2017, a target of 90: 90: 90 has been set for HIV/AIDS. Which among the following are targets for which a 90% level has been set as part of 90: 90: 90 for HIV/AIDS? Proportion of couples who have safe sex Proportion of people living with HIV who know their HIV status Proportion of adolescents who have access to contraceptives Proportion of people receiving antiretroviral therapy who have viral suppression Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Cross-over type of study designs are those in which each patient serves as his/her own control. In which of the following conditions is a cross-over study not suitable? If the drug of interest cures the disease If the drug is effective during all stages of the disease If the disease changes radically during the period of time required for the study Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which among the following is correct about yellow fever vaccination requirement for international travellers? Term of validity of the certificate is changed from 10 years to the duration of the life of the vaccinated person, some years ago. Lifetime validity of the certificate applies automatically to all existing and new certificates. Validity of the certificate begins 4 days after vaccination. In India, booster dose of yellow fever vaccine is required for those whose certificate is prior to the year 2016. Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 and 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 and 2</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which one among the following types of ventilation, best fits the following description – “A system of ventilation in which fresh air is blown into the room by centrifugal fans so as to create a positive pressure, and displace the vitiated air”?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exhaust ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Balanced ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Natural ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Plenum ventilation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Plenum ventilation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Plenum ventilation</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Smoking is considered to be a modifiable risk factor for Coronary Heart Disease. Consider the following statements with regard to possible mechanisms on the basis of which it acts as a risk factor: Nicotine stimulation of adrenergic drive raises the blood pressure and myocardial oxygen demand It increases carbon monoxide and induces atherogenesis. It leads to fall in protective high-density lipoproteins. It reduces the apolipoprotein-B plasma levels. Which of the correct? statements given above are:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The expected outcome of Government of India's initiative 'SUMAN' is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zero preventable maternal and newborn deaths", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Limit preventable maternal and newborn deaths to between 0.5 - 1%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Limit preventable maternal and newborn deaths to between 1 - 2%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Limit preventable maternal and newborn deaths to between 2 - 5%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Zero preventable maternal and newborn deaths", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Zero preventable maternal and newborn deaths</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "With reference to human body's requirement for proteins, they are essential because they are: A key supply source for energy. Required for maintenance of osmotic pressure within the intravascular compartment. Critical for upkeep of cell mediated immune response. Vital for the synthesis of certain hormones. Which of the statements given above are correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "How many times in a year does withdrawal bleeding occur in extended continuous regimens of combined oral contraceptive pills?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Indication for removal of IUDs include which of the following? Perforation of uterus Pregnancy with device in situ One year after menopause Persistent migraine Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27- year-old recently married female comes to family planning clinic requesting for long term reversible contraception. Which of the following is the best suited option for her?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Combined oral contraceptives", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diaphragm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nexplanon", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chhaya", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Nexplanon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Nexplanon</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following statements are correct regarding female sterilization? It can be done 24-48 hours following delivery Ideal time for interval ligation is luteal phase preceding menstruation It can be combined with medical termination of pregnancy It is a preventive measure against serous ovarian cancer Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1, 3 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1, 3 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What are the causes of lactation failure after delivery? Infrequent suckling Depression or anxiety state in the puerperium Prolactin inhibition Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 and 2 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 and 3 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1, 2 and 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1, 2 and 3</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which One of the following is the distinguishing feature to differentiate Gartner's cyst from Cystocele?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Marked cough impulse in Gartner's cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Margins are ill-defined in Gartner's cyst", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "There is no impulse on coughing in cystocele", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gartner's cyst is not reducible", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gartner's cyst is not reducible", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Gartner's cyst is not reducible</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old female with 3 months amenorrhoea presents to gynaecology OPD with complaints of something coming out of her vagina. On clinical evaluation she was found to have single live pregnancy with second degree uterine prolapse. Which one of the following is the best management plan for her?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reassurance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cervical amputation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cerclage operation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pessary treatment", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pessary treatment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Pessary treatment</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following can be a complication in the baby due to post maturity of pregnancy? Meconium aspiration Hypoglycemia Intra ventricular haemorrhage Polycythemia Select the correct answer using the code given below:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2 and 4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 3 and 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2, 3 and 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2 and 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2 and 4</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Consider the following statements about correlation between two variables: The correlation is done between an independent variable X and dependent variable Y. The coefficient of correlation can range from -1 to infinite . If coefficient of correlation (r) is equal to 1, it indicates there is no association between X and Y. Correlation does not necessarily prove causation. Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 only", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1, 2 and 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 and 4 only", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 and 4 only", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1 and 4 only</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 130 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">